Page Range | 145-370 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 281 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 257 - Biweekly Notice; Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations | |
81 FR 219 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 247 - Oklahoma; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 240 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 246 - Texas; Amendment No. 2 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 246 - Idaho; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 248 - Privacy Act of 1974; Notice of a Computer Matching Program Between the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) and the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) | |
81 FR 239 - Notice of Request for Comments on Insurance Programs | |
81 FR 247 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities to Assist the Homeless | |
81 FR 236 - Notice of Receipt of Requests To Voluntarily Cancel Pesticide Registrations and Amend Registrations To Terminate Certain Uses | |
81 FR 242 - Advisory Committee; Food Advisory Committee, Renewal | |
81 FR 194 - Anchorage Regulations, Delaware River; Philadelphia, PA | |
81 FR 228 - Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for the Port of Long Beach Deep Draft Navigation Project, Los Angeles County, CA | |
81 FR 353 - Obstetrical and Gynecological Devices; Reclassification of Surgical Mesh for Transvaginal Pelvic Organ Prolapse Repair | |
81 FR 223 - Aluminum Extrusions From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review and Notice of Amended Final Results Pursuant to Court Decision | |
81 FR 363 - Effective Date of Requirement for Premarket Approval for Surgical Mesh for Transvaginal Pelvic Organ Prolapse Repair | |
81 FR 220 - Magnesium Metal From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 222 - Notice of Final Results of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Review: Certain Frozen Warmwater Shrimp From Thailand | |
81 FR 220 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 20-Newport News, Virginia; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Canon Virginia, Inc.; Subzone 20D; (Toner Cartridges and Bottles) Newport News, Virginia | |
81 FR 290 - Membership in the National Parks Overflights Advisory Group Aviation Rulemaking Committee | |
81 FR 243 - Meeting of the Presidential Advisory Council on HIV/AIDS | |
81 FR 242 - Meeting of the Advisory Committee on Minority Health | |
81 FR 214 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Proposed Endangered Status for Five Species From American Samoa | |
81 FR 183 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; 2015 Tribal Fishery Allocations for Pacific Whiting; Reapportionment Between Tribal and Non-Tribal Sectors | |
81 FR 219 - Commerce Data Advisory Council | |
81 FR 227 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Quantitative Assessment of Spatially-Explicit Social Values Relative to Wind Energy Areas: Outer Continental Shelf Offshore North Carolina | |
81 FR 228 - Orders Granting Authority To Import and Export Natural Gas, To Import and Export Liquefied Natural Gas, To Vacate Prior Authorization and Errata During November 2015 | |
81 FR 193 - Nondiscrimination on the Basis of Disability in Air Travel; Consideration of Negotiated Rulemaking Process | |
81 FR 188 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Inseason Adjustment to the 2016 Gulf of Alaska Pollock and Pacific Cod Total Allowable Catch Amounts | |
81 FR 252 - Habitat Conservation Plan for the Operation, Repair, Maintenance, and Replacement of State Water Pipeline and Facilities From the Polonio Pass Water Treatment Plant, San Luis Obispo County to Lake Cachuma, Santa Barbara County, California | |
81 FR 249 - Endangered Species Recovery Permit Applications | |
81 FR 184 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Inseason Adjustment to the 2016 Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Pollock, Atka Mackerel, and Pacific Cod Total Allowable Catch Amounts | |
81 FR 253 - Proposed Collection, Comment Request | |
81 FR 226 - Genome in a Bottle Consortium-Progress and Planning Workshop | |
81 FR 173 - Ballast Water Management Reporting and Recordkeeping | |
81 FR 291 - Commercial Driver's License Standards: Application for Exemption; CRST Expedited (CRST) | |
81 FR 290 - Rate for Assessment on Direct Payment of Fees to Representatives in 2016 | |
81 FR 292 - Notice and Request for Comments | |
81 FR 278 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 279 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 239 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection Renewal; Comment Request (3064-0114) | |
81 FR 235 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 224 - National Conference on Weights and Measures 101st Interim Meeting | |
81 FR 240 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Draft Guidance for Industry and Review Staff on Target Product Profile-A Strategic Development Process Tool | |
81 FR 233 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications; Public Notice | |
81 FR 230 - Proposed Agency Information Collection | |
81 FR 231 - C.P. Crane LLC; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date | |
81 FR 231 - Delfin LNG, LLC; Notice of Scoping for the Proposed Delfin LNG Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
81 FR 235 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 234 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 256 - Determination of Rates and Terms for Public Broadcasting (PB III) 1 | |
81 FR 255 - Determination of Rates and Terms for Satellite Radio and “Preexisting” Subscription Services (SDARS III 1 | |
81 FR 255 - Determination of Rates and Terms for Making and Distributing Phonorecords (Phonorecords III) | |
81 FR 279 - Product Change-Priority Mail and First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 281 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending Its Price List To Modify Certain Fees for Executions at the Close | |
81 FR 288 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fees Schedule | |
81 FR 283 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Adjust Fees Related to Automated Customer Account Transfer Service, Obligation Warehouse, Fund/SERV®, Insurance and Retirement Processing Services, and Alternative Investment Product Services | |
81 FR 286 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend Single Name Backloading Incentive Program | |
81 FR 280 - Product Change-Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail, & First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 280 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 279 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 281 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 215 - Fisheries Off West Coast States; Comprehensive Ecosystem-Based Amendment 1; Amendments to the Fishery Management Plans for Coastal Pelagic Species, Pacific Coast Groundfish, U.S. West Coast Highly Migratory Species, and Pacific Coast Salmon | |
81 FR 280 - Product Change-First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 150 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area; New Cost Recovery Fee Programs | |
81 FR 244 - National Cancer Institute: Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 194 - Dividend Equivalents From Sources Within the United States; Hearing Cancellation | |
81 FR 246 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases: Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 245 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development: Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 244 - Center for Scientific Review: Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 245 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 239 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
81 FR 196 - Copayments for Medications Beginning January 1, 2017 | |
81 FR 191 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters | |
81 FR 147 - Airworthiness Directives; Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation Helicopters | |
81 FR 145 - Airworthiness Directives; Piper Aircraft, Inc. | |
81 FR 173 - Hearing Aid-Compatible Mobile Handsets | |
81 FR 204 - Improvements to Benchmarks and Related Requirements Governing Hearing Aid-Compatible Mobile Handsets | |
81 FR 272 - Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving Proposed No Significant Hazards Considerations and Containing Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information and Order Imposing Procedures for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information | |
81 FR 295 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Texas and Oklahoma; Regional Haze State Implementation Plans; Interstate Visibility Transport State Implementation Plan to Address Pollution Affecting Visibility and Regional Haze; Federal Implementation Plan for Regional Haze |
Risk Management Agency
Economics and Statistics Administration
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Labor Statistics Bureau
Copyright Royalty Board
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Piper Aircraft, Inc. Model PA-44-180 and PA-44-180T airplanes. This AD requires an inspection and, if necessary, modification of the emergency gear extension cable. This AD was prompted by a report of a misrouted emergency gear extension cable. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective January 20, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of January 20, 2016.
We must receive comments on this AD by February 19, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc., Customer Service, 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, Florida 32960; telephone: (877) 879-0275; fax: none; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Hector Hernandez, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; telephone: (404) 474-5587; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
The FAA has received recent reports of misrouted emergency gear extension cables on Piper Models PA-44-180 and PA-44-180T airplanes. This condition spans many years beginning in 2007 where one of the airplanes experienced the left-side copilot rudder pedal snagging on the emergency landing gear extension cable during taxi maneuvers. Piper Modification Kit 884333 (Piper Service Bulletin No. 1188, dated April 14, 2008) provides the parts and instructions to reroute the cable away from the pedal for airplanes in service and a production change was made to duplicate the kit configuration.
In 2009, there was a quality escape on the production aircraft (after issuance of SB 1188), which was addressed with Piper Service Bulletin No. 1213, dated March 24, 2010. Recently, there has been another quality escape reported of the cable being routed incorrectly, resulting in the issuance of Piper Service Bulletin 1213A, dated October 23, 2015 to more fully address the incorrect routing of the emergency gear extension cables.
Although the incidents occurred on the ground, the airworthiness concern is the potential for this rudder restriction to occur in flight at high angles of rudder deflection.
The FAA believes that a majority of the airplanes have already incorporated Service Bulletin 1188 and Service Bulletin 1213. However, the only way to mandate its incorporation is through AD action. In addition, the FAA believes that a large percentage of the airplanes that were manufactured after SB 1213 was issued could have the emergency gear extension cable routed incorrectly because the P-clamp that secures the cable could be installed on the inboard bolt just as easily as the outboard bolt (the type design configuration).
Piper is establishing a very robust assembly/inspection procedure going forward to ensure that the quality escape issue does not reoccur. The FAA has determined that this condition can be addressed by requiring:
• The modification in Service Bulletin 1188 for all Models PA-44-180 and PA-44-180T airplanes manufactured prior to April 14, 2008 (the date of SB 1188); and
• The inspection of the emergency gear inspection cable for correct routing of all Model PA-44-180 airplanes manufactured after April 14, 2008 (the date of SB 1188) following SB 1213A, dated October 23, 2015.
This condition, if not corrected, could result in restriction of the rudder movement at high angles of rudder deflection with consequent loss of control. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
We reviewed Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1213A, dated October 23, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspection of the routing and security of the emergency gear extension cable and, if necessary, instructions to reroute the emergency gear extension cable. Piper considers compliance with this service bulletin mandatory.
We reviewed Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1188, dated April 14, 2008. The service information describes procedures to reroute and restrain the emergency gear extension cable. Piper considers compliance with this service bulletin mandatory.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously.
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because if the emergency gear extension cable is left routed incorrectly, it could allow the copilot's left rudder pedal to become entangled with the cable, resulting in a restriction of rudder movement at high angles of rudder deflection with consequent loss of control. Therefore, we find that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are impracticable and that good cause exists for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety and was not preceded by notice and an opportunity for public comment. However, we invite you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD affects 415 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the either the results of the inspection or other requirements. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this replacement:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 20, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Piper Aircraft, Inc. Model PA-44-180 Seminole airplanes, serial numbers (S/Ns) 44-7995001 through 44-8195026, 4495001 through 4496377, 4496379, 4496380, and 4496384 through 4496386; and Piper Aircraft, Inc. Model PA-44-180T Seminole airplanes, S/Ns 44-8107001 through 44-8207020, certificated in any category.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC)/Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 2720, Rudder Control System.
This AD was prompted by a report of a misrouted emergency gear extension cable. We are issuing this AD to require an inspection and, if necessary, modification of the emergency gear extension cable. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
Comply with paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(2) including all subparagraph's of this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1)
(i) If the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD reveals a misrouted cable, before further flight, correct the emergency gear extension cable following the Part 2 instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. SB No. 1213A, dated October 23, 2015.
(ii) If the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD reveals a correct installation following the Part 1 instructions in Piper Aircraft, Inc. SB No. 1213A, dated October 23, 2015, no further action is required.
(2)
(1) The Manager, Atlanta ACO, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Hector Hernandez, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Atlanta Aircraft Certification Office, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, Georgia 30337; telephone: (404) 474-5587; fax: (404) 474-5606; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1188, dated April 14, 2008.
(ii) Piper Aircraft, Inc. Service Bulletin No. 1213A, dated October 23, 2015.
(3) For Piper Aircraft, Inc. service information identified in this AD, contact Piper Aircraft, Inc., Customer Service, 2926 Piper Drive, Vero Beach, Florida 32960; telephone: (877) 879-0275; fax: none; email:
(4) You may review the referenced service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation (Sikorsky) Model S-76A, S-76B, and S-76C helicopters. This AD requires inspecting the main gearbox (MGB) lower housing jet bores for leaks, paint or caulk blistering, and liner protrusion. This AD was prompted by several reports of MGB low oil pressure warnings which were determined to be the result of unsecured jet bore liners that had protruded. The actions are intended to prevent failure of the MGB from loss of oil, which could result in subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD is effective February 9, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain document listed in this AD as of February 9, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, Connecticut 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Kirk Gustafson, Aviation Safety Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 12 New England Executive Park, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7190; email
On June 2, 2014, at 79 FR 31231, the
The NPRM was prompted by four reports of protruding jet bore liners on Sikorsky S-76 helicopters with a MGB, part number (P/N) 76351-09000 series, 76351-09500 series, and 76351-09600 series. During an overhaul of the MGB, the jet bore liner retaining pins were not adequately drilled into the liner, allowing the jet bore liner to move in the housing, because the overhaul and repair instruction (ORI) did not adequately describe procedures and housing wall thickness limitations for installing the retaining pins. Movement of the jet bore liner into the housing allows oil to leak between the liner and the housing, possibly resulting in loss of oil in the MGB, which could result in failure of the MGB and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
At the time we issued the NPRM, we understood these repairs had been made in accordance with Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revisions A through E. However, the incident MGBs had only been repaired in accordance with Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision A or earlier. Sikorsky ORI 76350-065, Revisions B through F, resolve the unsafe condition by clarifying the retaining pin installation instructions. This AD now reflects that clarification.
After our NPRM (79 FR 31231, June 2, 2014) was published, we received comments from one commenter.
Sikorsky stated the proposed requirement to overhaul the affected MGBs within 1,500 hours TIS is overly conservative because the daily visual inspection is adequate to ensure safety until the next overhaul period. Sikorsky further commented that the 1,500 hour compliance time would be burdensome to operators and not cost effective. When asked for additional information to support this comment, Sikorsky stated that its maintenance program has a major inspection, and not a MGB overhaul, every 1,500 hours. The major inspection does not require removal of the MGB. Overhaul of the MGB for Model S76A helicopters occurs every 3,250 hours and for Model S76B/C helicopters occurs every 3,750 hours.
We agree. We intended the proposed requirement to provide a terminating action that coincides with overhaul of the MGB. We incorrectly understood the 1,500-hour major inspection involved removing the MGB from the helicopter. We agree that due to the gradual loss of oil, safety is maintained with the repetitive inspections until the MGB is replaced or overhauled when specified in the maintenance program. We have revised paragraph (e)(2) of this AD to require replacement of the MGB “within 3,750 hours TIS” instead of “within 1,500 hours TIS.”
Sikorsky also commented that limiting acceptable repairs to those performed in accordance with Sikorksy ORI 76350-065 Revision F was unnecessary because Revision B and subsequent revisions provide installation details that are structurally equivalent to Revision F. When asked for additional information to support this comment, Sikorsky stated the changes in Revision B clarified the pin retention instructions sufficiently to resolve the oil leakage issue. Although Revision F provides for the installation of an additional pin, Sikorsky stated that this is not a significant change. Sikorsky confirmed that all reports of oil leakage involved repairs using the procedures in Revision A or earlier.
We agree. We reexamined Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065 and its revisions and found Revisions B through F structurally equivalent with only minor changes and improvements. We have changed paragraphs (a) and (e) of this AD to reference the appropriate revisions of Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065.
We have reviewed the relevant information, considered the comments received, and determined that an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs and that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD requirements as proposed with the changes described previously. These changes are consistent with the intent of the proposals in the NPRM (79 FR 31231, June 2, 2014), and will not increase the economic burden on any operator nor increase the scope of this AD.
Sikorsky issued Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) 76-66-50, Basic Issue, dated January 14, 2013 (ASB 76-66-50) for Model S-76A, S-76B, and S-76C helicopters with an MGB P/N 76351-09000 series, 76351-09500 series, and 76351-09600 series, which have been repaired in accordance with ORI No. 76350-065 or ORI No. 76350-065, Revision A. ASB 76-66-50 describes procedures for inspecting each MGB lower housing jet bore for leaking oil, paint or caulk blistering, and liner protrusion. If there is any liner protrusion or leaking oil between the
This information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We also reviewed Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision B, dated June 10, 2011; Revision C, dated June 27, 2011; Revision D, dated January 20, 2012; Revision E, dated January 27, 2012; and Revision F, dated May 10, 2012. This service information describes procedures for repairing the retaining ring groove areas of the MGB jet bores and installing retaining pins in the jet bore liners.
The ASB specifies compliance by a specific calendar date, while the compliance time in this AD is in hours TIS. The ASB does not specify a terminating action for the recurring inspections of the MGB jet bores; while this AD does specify a terminating action for the recurring inspections.
We estimate that this AD affects 53 helicopters of U.S. Registry. We estimate that operators may incur the following costs in order to comply with this AD. At an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour, inspecting the jet bore liners requires about 1.1 work-hours, for a cost per helicopter of $94 and a total cost to US operators of $4,982 per inspection cycle. If required, repairing a jet bore liner requires about 14 work-hours, and required parts cost $200, for a cost per helicopter of $1,390. If required, replacing the MGB requires about 134 work-hours, and required parts cost $994,000, for a cost per helicopter of $1,005,390.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Sikorsky Model S-76A, S-76B, and S-76C helicopters with a main gearbox (MGB) part number (P/N) 76351-09000 series, 76351-09500 series, and 76351-09600 series installed that has been repaired in accordance with Sikorsky Overhaul and Repair Instruction (ORI) No. 76350-065, dated November 12, 1982 (ORI 76350-065), or ORI No. 76350-065, Revision A, dated September 21, 1984 (ORI 76350-065A), certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as an unsecured MGB lower housing jet bore liner. This condition may cause the liner to move out of place, allowing oil to leak from the MGB, resulting in MGB failure and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD becomes effective February 9, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 50 hours time-in-service (TIS), and thereafter at intervals not to exceed 6 hours TIS, inspect each MGB lower housing jet bore (jet bore), as depicted in Figures 3 and 4 of Sikorsky S-76 Alert Service Bulletin 76-66-50, Basic Issue, dated January 14, 2013 (ASB 76-66-50), for liner protrusion or movement, paint or caulk blistering, or oil leakage.
(i) If there is any liner protrusion or movement, before further flight, replace the MGB with an MGB that has not been repaired in accordance with ORI 76350-065 or ORI 76350-065A, unless it has been subsequently repaired in accordance with Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision B, dated June 10, 2011 (ORI 76350-065B); Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision C, dated June 27, 2011 (ORI 76350-065C); Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision D, dated January 20, 2012 (ORI 76350-065D); Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision E, dated January 27, 2012 (ORI 76350-065E); or Sikorsky ORI No. 76350-065, Revision F, dated May 10, 2012 (ORI 76350-065F).
(ii) If there is any oil leakage or paint or caulk blistering, inspect the jet bore for liner protrusion and perform a leakage check by following the Accomplishment Instructions, Paragraphs 3.C.(1) through 3.C.(6)(a), of ASB 76-66-50.
(iii) If any moisture or droplets of MGB oil are visible on a jet bore after accomplishing the leakage check specified in paragraph 3.C.(6)(a) of ASB 76-66-50, repeat paragraphs 3.C(4) through 3.C(6) of ASB 76-66-50. If any moisture or droplets of MGB oil are still visible, before further flight, replace the MGB with an MGB that has not been repaired in accordance with ORI 76350-065 or ORI 76350-065A, unless it has been subsequently repaired in accordance with ORI 76350-065B, ORI 76350-065C, ORI 76350-065D, ORI 76350-065E, or ORI 76350-065F.
(2) Within 3,750 hours TIS, replace the MGB with an MGB that has not been repaired in accordance with ORI 76350-065 or ORI 76350-065A, unless it has been subsequently repaired in accordance with ORI 76350-065B, ORI 76350-065C, ORI 76350-065D, ORI 76350-065E, or ORI 76350-065F. This is terminating action for the repetitive inspections required by this AD.
(1) The Manager, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Kirk Gustafson, Aviation Safety Engineer, Boston Aircraft Certification Office, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 12 New England Executive Park, Burlington, Massachusetts 01803; telephone (781) 238-7190; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
Sikorsky Overhaul and Repair Instruction No. 76350-065, dated November 12, 1982; Revision A, dated September 21, 1984; Revision B, dated June 10, 2011; Revision C, dated June 27, 2011; Revision D, dated January 20, 2012; Revision E, dated January 27, 2012; and Revision F, dated May 10, 2012, which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. You may review a copy of this service information at the FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, Texas 76177.
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6320, Main Rotor Gearbox.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Sikorsky S-76 Alert Service Bulletin 76-66-50, Basic Issue, dated January 14, 2013.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Sikorsky service information identified in this final rule, contact Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, Customer Service Engineering, 124 Quarry Road, Trumbull, Connecticut 06611; telephone 1-800-Winged-S or 203-416-4299; email
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, Texas 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS publishes regulations to implement cost recovery fee programs for the Western Alaska Community Development Quota (CDQ) Program for groundfish and halibut, and three limited access privilege programs: The American Fisheries Act (AFA), Aleutian Islands Pollock, and Amendment 80 Programs. The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) authorizes and requires the collection of cost recovery fees for the CDQ Program and limited access privilege programs. Cost recovery fees recover the actual costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the programs. The Magnuson-Stevens Act mandates that cost recovery fees not exceed 3 percent of the annual ex-vessel value of fish harvested by a program subject to a cost recovery fee. This action is intended to promote the goals and objectives of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP), and other applicable laws.
Effective February 4, 2016.
Electronic copies of the Regulatory Impact Review (the Analysis) and the Categorical Exclusion prepared for this action may be obtained from
Written comments regarding the burden-hour estimates or other aspects of the collection of information requirements contained in this final rule may be submitted by mail to NMFS, Alaska Region, P.O. Box 21668, Juneau, AK 99802-1668, Attn: Ellen Sebastian, Records Officer; in person at NMFS, Alaska Region, 709 West 9th Street, Room 420A, Juneau, AK; or by email to
Glenn Merrill, (907) 586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fisheries in the Federal exclusive economic zone of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (BSAI) under the FMP. The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) prepared the FMP under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, 16 U.S.C. 1801
The International Pacific Halibut Commission (IPHC) and NMFS manage fishing for Pacific halibut through regulations established under the authority of the Northern Pacific Halibut Act of 1982 (Halibut Act). The IPHC promulgates regulations governing the halibut fishery under the Convention between the United States and Canada for the Preservation of the Halibut Fishery of the Northern Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea (Convention). The IPHC's regulations are subject to approval by the Secretary of State with the concurrence of the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary). NMFS publishes the IPHC's regulations as annual management measures pursuant to 50 CFR 300.62. The Halibut Act, at sections 773c(a) and (b), provides the Secretary with general responsibility to carry out the Convention and the Halibut Act.
The primary statutory authority for this action is section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 304(d)(2)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act specifies that the Secretary is authorized and shall collect a fee to recover the actual costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of any limited access privilege (LAP) program and community development quota (CDQ) program that
Section 304(d)(2)(A)(i) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act authorizes and requires the Secretary to collect fees to recover costs from any LAP program. Section 3 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act defines a “limited access privilege” as including “an individual fishing quota.” Section 3 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act defines “individual fishing quota” as “a Federal permit under a limited access system to harvest a quantity of fish, expressed by a unit or units representing a percentage of the total allowable catch of a fishery that may be received or held for exclusive use by a person. Such term does not include community development quotas as described in section 305(i).” The Magnuson-Stevens Act and Federal regulations further define the terms “permit,” “limited access system,” “total allowable catch,” and “person.” These terms will be discussed in detail below.
Section 304(d)(2)(A)(ii) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act authorizes and requires the Secretary to collect fees to recover costs from the CDQ Program for fisheries in which a percentage of the TAC of a fishery is allocated to the CDQ Program. Section 305(i) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act authorizes the CDQ Program and specifies the annual percentage of the TAC allocated to the CDQ Program in each directed fishery of the BSAI. Section 305(i) also specifies the method for further apportioning the TAC allocated to the CDQ Program to specific entities, called CDQ groups. NMFS previously implemented cost recovery fees for the amount of BSAI crab fishery TACs allocated to the CDQ Program under regulations implementing the Crab Rationalization Program (70 FR 10174, March 2, 2005, see regulations at § 680.44) under the authority of section 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. This final rule implements cost recovery fees under the authority of section 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act for BSAI groundfish and halibut TACs allocated to the CDQ Program.
A more detailed description of the statutory authority can be found in the preamble of the proposed rule (80 FR 936, January 7, 2015), as well as in Section 1.1 of the Analysis prepared for this action.
Cost recovery is the process by which NMFS recovers the actual costs associated with the management, data collection, and enforcement (also referred to as program costs) of a LAP or CDQ program. NMFS determines the costs based on the costs described in section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, consistent with NOAA policy on cost recovery. LAP and CDQ Program costs are recovered annually through a fee paid by persons who hold a permit granting an exclusive harvesting privilege for a portion of the TAC in a fishery subject to cost recovery.
The cost recovery fees assessed cannot exceed the statutory limitation of 3 percent of the ex-vessel value of the fish subject to a cost recovery fee as specified in section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 1.8 of the Analysis and the preamble to this proposed rule (80 FR 936, January 7, 2015) contain additional information on the costs that are subject to a cost recovery fee and current NOAA policy on the collection of cost recovery fees.
With this final rule, NMFS is implementing cost recovery fee programs for the AFA, Aleutian Islands Pollock, and Amendment 80 LAP Programs, and the CDQ Program. An effective cost recovery fee program requires calculating species ex-vessel values, using a standardized methodology to assess Program costs, assigning the appropriate fee to each person holding a permit, and ensuring that fees are submitted in full and on time. Below is a summary of the primary components of each cost recovery fee program (Tables 1 through 4). Each of these components is discussed in detail in the preamble to the proposed rule (80 FR 936, January 7, 2015), as well as the Analysis prepared for this action.
Each calendar year, NMFS will determine the cost recovery fee that each Program must pay. The cost recovery fee for each Program will be based on costs incurred during the previous Federal fiscal year (from October 1 of the previous calendar year through September 30 of the current calendar year), and the ex-vessel value of the fish that are subject to a cost recovery fee during the current calendar year (from January 1 through December 31). The incurred costs that can be recovered under a cost recovery program are described in Section 1.8.3 of the Analysis and the preamble to the proposed rule.
NMFS will calculate cost recovery fees only for fish that are landed and deducted from the TAC in the fisheries subject to cost recovery under the action. NMFS will not calculate cost recovery fees for any portion of a permit holder's exclusive harvest privilege that was not landed and deducted from the TAC. The permit holder refers to the person who holds the exclusive harvest privilege in the specific fishery. These methods for assessing cost recovery fees on landed catch and the designation of the permit holder are consistent with the cost recovery fee programs already implemented and NOAA policy guidance.
NMFS will calculate the cost recovery fee as a percentage of the ex-vessel value of allocated fish species harvested by the participants in each program. The use of a standard ex-vessel price will provide a consistent methodology to assess fees on all fishery participants and reduce administrative costs that would be incurred by collecting ex-vessel data from each fishery participant. The methods used to determine a standard ex-vessel price vary depending on the specific program subject to a cost recovery fee. NMFS will use existing data sources to determine a standard ex-vessel price for pollock (the Commercial Operators Annual Report), and halibut and sablefish (IFQ Buyer Report). NMFS will require a new report from processors who receive Pacific cod to determine a standard ex-vessel price for Pacific cod (Pacific Cod Ex-vessel Volume and Value Report). NMFS will also require a new report from Amendment 80 vessel operators to determine standard ex-vessel prices from a range of other species subject to cost recovery (First Wholesale Volume and Value Report). These two new volume and value reports are due by November 10 of each year.
NMFS will determine a cost recovery fee percentage applicable to the species subject to cost recovery for each LAP and the CDQ Program. The cost recovery fee percentage is the percentage of the ex-vessel value of species used to determine a cost recovery fee that must be paid to NMFS. NMFS will publish the cost recovery fee percentage for each program in a
For the first year of fee collection, NMFS will begin assessing costs for these cost recovery programs starting on the effective date of this final rule. The costs assessed under the first year of
Additional detail on how NMFS will calculate ex-vessel values, cost recovery fees, and the fee schedule is provided in Sections 1.7 and 1.10 of the Analysis and the preamble to the proposed rule (80 FR 936, January 7, 2015) and is not repeated here.
The Bering Sea pollock fishery is managed under the American Fisheries Act (AFA) (16 U.S.C. 1851 note) and the Magnuson-Stevens Act. The AFA limits entry by vessels and processors into all sectors of the pollock fishery by identifying the vessels and processors eligible to participate in the fishery and allocating pollock among those eligible participants. The AFA defines the various sectors of the Bering Sea pollock fishery, determines what vessels and processors are eligible to participate in each sector, establishes allocations of Bering Sea pollock total TAC to each sector as directed fishing allowances, and establishes excessive share limits for harvesting pollock. The provisions of the AFA were incorporated into the FMP and its implementing regulations under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. The AFA cost recovery fee program will apply to participants in the AFA pollock fishery.
As required by section 206(b) of the AFA, NMFS allocates a specified percentage of the Bering Sea directed pollock fishery TAC to each of the three AFA fishery sectors: (1) 50 percent to catcher vessels delivering to inshore processors, called the “inshore sector”; (2) 40 percent to catcher/processors and catcher vessels delivering to those catcher/processors, called the “catcher/processor sector”; and (3) 10 percent to catcher vessels harvesting pollock for processing by motherships, called the “mothership sector.”
Section 208 of the AFA specifies the vessels and processors that are eligible to participate in the inshore sector, the catcher/processor sector, and the mothership sector. Section 210 of the AFA authorizes the formation of fishery cooperatives in all sectors of the Bering Sea pollock fishery and provides flexibility to the Council and NMFS to govern the formation and operation of fishery cooperatives.
Under section 210(b), the AFA establishes additional qualifying criteria and operational restrictions on the formation and operation of cooperatives for the inshore sector. The AFA establishes a specific formula for making allocations of pollock to qualified inshore cooperatives. A catcher vessel with an AFA inshore endorsement may join an AFA inshore cooperative associated with an AFA inshore processor (AFA section 210(b); 50 CFR 679.4(l)(6)). For 2015, seven inshore cooperatives were formed by AFA eligible inshore catcher vessels and their partner inshore processors (
The catcher/processor sector has formed two cooperatives for managing the exclusive harvest allocation mandated for the catcher/processor sector under section 206(b) of the AFA—one cooperative for the catcher/processors and one cooperative for the catcher vessels harvesting pollock for processing by catcher/processors. These two cooperatives are associated through a joint agreement called the “Cooperative Agreement between Offshore Pollock Catchers' Cooperative and Pollock Conservation Cooperative” to facilitate efficient harvest management and accurate harvest accounting between the participants in the catcher/processor sector. These two cooperatives jointly submit an annual cooperative report to the Council (see Cooperative Reports, NMFS Alaska Region Web site,
All participants that harvest pollock allocated to the catcher/processor sector are members of the two cooperatives, except for one participant. Section 208(e)(21) of the AFA expressly limits the amount of harvest by the one participant in the catcher/processor sector who is not a member of a cooperative to 0.5 percent of the TAC apportioned to the catcher/processor sector, thereby providing an exclusive harvest privilege to all catcher/processor cooperative members. The participant that is not a member of a cooperative will not be subject to a cost recovery fee for its harvest of Bering Sea pollock under this rule because that vessel is not given an explicit allocation of pollock and is already subject to cost recovery fees under the Amendment 80 Program. Section 1.5.3 of the Analysis provides additional detail on allocations to the AFA catcher/processor sector.
The owners of all 19 catcher vessels eligible to deliver to a mothership in the Bering Sea pollock fishery have joined a single cooperative under section 208(c) of the AFA to coordinate harvests, the AFA Mothership Fleet Cooperative. This cooperative harvests the exclusive pollock allocation mandated for the mothership sector under section 206(b) of the AFA. The AFA Mothership Fleet Cooperative will be responsible for the payment of the AFA mothership cooperative fee.
NMFS recognizes that each AFA sector has slightly different management costs. This final rule establishes that NMFS will calculate fee percentage and fee liability separately for the catcher/processor sector, mothership sector, and inshore sector. NMFS estimates that annual fee liabilities for each sector will range from 0.23 percent to 0.72 percent of the ex-vessel value of Bering Sea pollock.
This cost recovery fee program will apply to participants in the Aleutian Islands pollock fishery. The Aleutian Islands Pollock Program allocates the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery TAC to the Aleut Corporation, consistent with the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-109), and its implementing regulations. Annually, prior to the start of the pollock season, the Aleut Corporation provides NMFS with the identity of their designated representative. This person will be responsible for the submission of all cost recovery fees. The Aleutian Islands pollock fishing regulations are at § 679.20(a)(5)(iii).
Prior to 2015, Aleutian Islands pollock was not harvested due to restrictions imposed by Steller sea lion protection measures. Therefore, prior to 2015, NMFS reallocated the Aleutian Islands pollock allocation to the AFA Program in the Bering Sea. Changes in Steller sea lion protection measures effective in 2015 allow for a directed pollock fishery to occur in the Aleutian Islands (79 FR 70286, November 25, 2014). However, NMFS does not know whether participants will be able to successfully harvest the Aleutian Islands pollock because there has not been an Aleutian Islands pollock fishery since 1999. NMFS will reallocate any Aleutian Islands pollock not harvested in the Aleutian Islands to the AFA Program in the Bering Sea. Any pollock that NMFS reallocates from the Aleutian Islands Pollock Program to the AFA Program will be subject to cost recovery fees under the provisions of the AFA Program.
NMFS estimates that the cost recovery fee percentage applicable to Aleutian Islands pollock will be the same percentage applicable to Bering Sea pollock harvested by the AFA Program (Section 1.8.6.5 of the Analysis). Based on the information in the Analysis, NMFS assumes that the Aleutian Islands Pollock and the AFA Programs have similar management costs and ex-vessel values. NMFS will assess and determine a fee percentage specifically for Aleutian Islands pollock if management requirements differ between the Aleutian Islands Pollock Program and the AFA Program. Estimates of recoverable costs will be determined once additional information on the management costs for the Aleutian Islands pollock fishery is available.
This cost recovery fee program will apply to participants in the Amendment 80 fisheries. The Amendment 80 Program allocates groundfish fisheries TAC, other than Bering Sea pollock, to identified trawl catcher/processors in the BSAI. The Amendment 80 Program allocates a portion of the BSAI TACs of six species: Atka mackerel, Pacific cod, flathead sole, rock sole, yellowfin sole, and Aleutian Islands Pacific ocean perch. Amendment 80 vessel owners can harvest these species in cooperatives that receive an exclusive harvest privilege, or in an “open access” fishery that will not be subject to a cost recovery fee requirement.
All 27 vessels currently participating in the Amendment 80 Program and their vessel owners are members of cooperatives and are subject to a cost recovery fee. Each Amendment 80 cooperative is responsible for payment of any cost recovery fee, and each Amendment 80 cooperative will designate a person responsible for submitting its fee and provide NMFS with the identity of that person. NMFS estimates that annual fee liabilities for Amendment 80 cooperatives will range from 1.22 to 1.77 percent of the ex-vessel value of allocated species (Section 1.8.4.6 of the Analysis).
This cost recovery fee program will apply to CDQ groups. The CDQ Program was implemented in 1992 to provide access to BSAI fishery resources to villages located in Western Alaska. Since the implementation of the CDQ Program, Congress has amended the Magnuson-Stevens Act to define specific provisions of the CDQ Program. Section 305(i) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act identifies 65 villages eligible to participate in the CDQ Program and the six CDQ groups to represent these villages. CDQ groups receive exclusive harvesting privileges of the TACs for a broad range of crab species, groundfish species, and halibut. This final rule establishes a cost recovery fee program only for groundfish and halibut because CDQ crab cost recovery fees are already collected under existing regulations. Each CDQ group will be subject to cost recovery fee requirements, and the designated representative of each CDQ group will be responsible for submitting payment for its CDQ group. This is consistent with the method NMFS uses to collect fees for the crab CDQ cost recovery program. NMFS estimates that annual fee liabilities for a CDQ group will range from 0.73 to 1.33 percent of the harvested ex-vessel value of CDQ groundfish and halibut.
NMFS published a proposed rule that describes in detail the statutory authority to implement cost recovery fee programs, the Programs affected by the implementation of a cost recovery fee program, and how NMFS will implement the new cost recovery fee programs, in the
• Base fee liabilities on the incremental costs associated with management and enforcement of the specific LAP or CDQ Program.
• Do not assess costs attributed to the general management of the fisheries that cannot be directly attributed to the specific LAP or CDQ Program.
• Appropriately apportion costs among LAP and CDQ programs to ensure that costs applicable to one program are not attributed to another program.
• Do not include costs associated with deploying and debriefing observers in the cost recovery fee calculations since observer deployment and debriefing would have been implemented without the implementation of the LAP or CDQ programs.
• Provide detailed cost breakouts for each LAP and CDQ Program.
As stated in the preamble to the proposed rule, NMFS intends to employ the same accounting methods for the cost recovery fee programs established by this rule as NMFS has consistently used in cost recovery fee programs in the Alaska Region (Halibut and Sablefish Individual Fishing Quota (IFQ) Program, Crab Rationalization Program, and the Central Gulf of Alaska Rockfish Program). This methodology to assess cost recovery fees is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and current NOAA policy (NOAA Technical Memorandum NMFS-F/SPO-86, November 2007). The costs described in Section 1.8.3 of the Analysis and the preamble to the proposed rule provide the best available description of the costs subject to cost recovery for each LAP program and the CDQ Program. As explained in in Section 1.8.3 of the Analysis, NMFS will only assess costs that can be directly attributed to the specific LAP or CDQ Program.
NMFS agrees that costs should be accurately attributed to each CDQ and LAP program. As noted in the preamble to the proposed rule, NMFS will capture the incremental costs of managing the fisheries of each CDQ or LAP program through an established accounting system that allows NMFS to track labor, travel, and procurement specific to that program. This process is described in Section 1.8.3 of the Analysis. This accounting system will allow NMFS to properly apportion costs among the CDQ and LAP programs.
NMFS agrees that certain categories of observer costs should not be included in the fee calculation. For example, many catcher/processors operating in the directed pollock and non-pollock fisheries in the BSAI were required to carry an observer prior to the implementation of the AFA or the Amendment 80 Programs. Costs associated with the debriefing and training of one observer will not be assessed or included in the fee calculation. However, NMFS required additional observer coverage for implementation of the AFA and the Amendment 80 Programs (Section 1.8 of the Analysis). These LAP programs required the deployment of two observers on board each AFA catcher/processor or Amendment 80 vessel. NMFS will assess fees for costs necessary to debrief and train the second observer because those costs are incurred as a direct result of the implementation of those LAP programs.
NMFS agrees that information on the costs used to determine the fee should be disclosed annually. NMFS will make publically available an annual report that provides information on how the cost recovery fee was estimated for that year. This report will be structured like the cost recovery fee reports that are currently generated for the Halibut and Sablefish IFQ Program and Crab Rationalization Program. An example of the Halibut and Sablefish Cost Recovery Fee report for 2013 is available at
NMFS' recoverable costs are limited by the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act states that the recoverable costs must be the actual costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the CDQ or LAP programs. NMFS will use the accounting methods that have been developed for all other cost recovery programs in the North Pacific to determine the “direct program costs” that are recoverable, as described in the preamble to the proposed rule. NMFS made no changes to this final rule at §§ 679.33(c)(2)(ii), 679.66(c)(2)(ii), 679.67(c)(2)(ii), or 679.95(c)(2)(ii) because the direct program cost language is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act, regulations implementing the other North Pacific cost recovery fee programs, and NOAA policy.
As stated in Section 1.8.4.6 (Amendment 80), Section 1.8.6.5 (AFA/Aleutian Islands pollock), and Section 1.8.5.5 (CDQ) of the Analysis, NMFS does not anticipate that the factors that led to the increase in the Rockfish Program cost recovery fee percentage are likely to exist in the CDQ and LAP programs subject to cost recovery under this rule. The referenced sections of the Analysis show that the CDQ and LAP Program fisheries have substantially higher ex-vessel values than the ex-vessel value of the Rockfish Program fishery. The Rockfish Program fishery ex-vessel value fell from about $14.3 million in 2012 to about $6.3 million in 2014. Section 1.8.4.6 (Amendment 80), Section 1.8.6.5 (AFA/Aleutian Islands pollock), and Section 1.8.5.5 (CDQ) of the Analysis state that NMFS does not expect future ex-vessel values or anticipated costs subject to cost recovery to change in a way that would result in a 3 percent cost recovery fee for these Programs.
Section 1.8.1 of the Analysis states that the Crab Rationalization Program has not experienced an increase in its fee percentage, but the Halibut and Sablefish IFQ Program has had an increase in its fee percentage over time. In the Crab Rationalization Program, the fee percentage declined over time due to a variety of factors, including (1) increasing TACs for various crab species, (2) increasing ex-vessel prices for various crab species, and (3) decreasing management costs. In the Halibut and Sablefish IFQ Program, the fee percentage has increased due to costs remaining fairly constant and ex-vessel value decreasing due to reduced harvests that have not been off-set by increases in ex-vessel prices.
The harvest specifications, with the AFA directed fishing allowance entitling the catcher/processor sector to harvest a quantity of fish for its exclusive use, is the individual fishing quota and documentation granting permission to fish. NMFS publishes harvest specifications each year in the
Federal regulations at § 679.20(a)(5)(i)(A)(
Regulations at § 679.2 define a person as “any individual (whether or not a citizen or national of the United States), any corporation, partnership, association, or other non-individual entity (whether or not organized, or existing under the laws of any state), and any Federal, state, local, or foreign government or any entity of any such aforementioned governments.” A similar definition of a “person” is in section 3 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act.
As explained in response to Comment 5, the directed fishing allowance is an individual fishing quota. NMFS allocates the directed fishing allowance to the AFA catcher/processor sector. NMFS considers the AFA catcher/processor sector an entity and therefore a person under the Magnuson-Stevens Act. The AFA catcher/processor sector also (1) shares common ownership of vessels, (2) enters into contracts that allow the catcher/processors to harvest the catcher vessel allocation, (3) participates in incentive plan agreements to avoid Chinook salmon, and (4) submits one salmon avoidance report and one annual cooperative report for the AFA catcher/processor sector each year. The contracts establishing these relationships among members describe and provide for allocations of pollock and salmon to specific vessel owners and operators. Section 1.6.3.3 of the Analysis describes the harvest of catch in the AFA catcher/processor sector in greater detail, and the ability of the AFA catcher/processor sector members to precisely harvest the sector's exclusive pollock allocation.
Under Amendment 91 to the FMP, members of the AFA catcher/processor sector also formed one entity to represent the AFA catcher/processor sector for the purposes of receiving and managing their transferable Chinook salmon PSC allocation under the regulations at § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C). The members of the AFA catcher/processor sector created a contract that, among other things, lists the vessel owners represented by the entity, and submitted an application to NMFS under § 679.21(f)(8)(ii). NMFS has approved the application for the entity representing the AFA catcher/processor sector. The contract also designates an entity representative and an agent for service of process. Currently, all eligible members of the AFA catcher/processor sector are represented by the entity. Entity participants cannot change during a fishing year. To make additions or deletions to the vessel owners represented by the entity for the next year, the entity representative must submit a complete application, as described in § 679.21(f)(8)(ii)(F), by December 1.
NMFS has modified this final rule to clarify that the entity representative under § 679.21(f)(8) will be the designated representative responsible for submitting the cost recovery fee payment for the AFA catcher/processor sector. See Changes from the Proposed Rule, below, for a complete description of the changes NMFS made to this final rule in response to comments on the AFA catcher/process sector.
As explained in the response to Comment 5, the annual harvest specifications with the directed fishing allowance is an IFQ to the AFA catcher/processor sector. As explained in the response to Comment 6, the “person” who receives the exclusive harvest privilege for the purposes of cost recovery is the catcher/processor sector that is eligible to harvest pollock from that sector's directed fishing allowance defined in section 206(b)(2) of the AFA.
In section 3(27) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, Congress defined “limited access system” as “a system that limits participation in a fishery to those satisfying certain eligibility criteria or requirements contained in a fishery management plan or associated regulation.” Although the AFA was adopted and implemented through the FMP before 2007, the AFA Program meets this definition of a limited access system. The AFA Program is a system that limits participation in the Bering Sea pollock fishery to those satisfying certain eligibility criteria or requirements contained in a fishery management plan or associated regulations. The AFA specified sector allocations and eligibility criteria for vessels to harvest pollock in each of the specified sectors (section 206 and section 208 of the AFA, 16 U.S.C. 1851 statutory note). The eligibility criteria and requirements in the AFA were incorporated into the FMP, the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska, the Fishery Management Plan for Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands King and Tanner Crab, and the Fishery Management Plan for the Scallop Fishery Off Alaska (Amendments 61/61/13/8, respectively). NMFS manages the AFA Program through the FMPs and their implementing regulations (67 FR 79692, December 30, 2002).
NMFS is implementing the cost recovery program for the AFA under authority of section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Section 304(d)(2)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, which was adopted as part of the MSRA, authorizes and requires the
The AFA Program is a limited access privilege program because (1) NMFS issues a permit as part of a limited access system established by the AFA Program, (2) this permit allows the harvest of a quantity of pollock representing a portion of the TAC managed under the AFA Program, and (3) this permit is issued for exclusive use by a person, the AFA catcher/processor sector. Therefore, NMFS is implementing cost recovery fees for the AFA catcher/processor sector as authorized and required in section 304(d)(2) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act.
Further, the AFA does not prohibit the Secretary from imposing cost recovery requirements on participants in the AFA catcher/processor sector. Section 213(b) of the AFA states that, except for the measures required by this subtitle [subtitle II, Bering Sea Pollock Fishery], nothing in the subtitle shall be construed to limit the authority of the Council or the Secretary under the Magnuson-Stevens Act to approve conservation and management measures as part of a fishery management plan and to give effect to measures in those plans. Therefore, NMFS may implement the requirements of section 304(d) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act and establish a cost recovery program for participants in the AFA Program, including the AFA catcher/processor sector.
As for the moratorium on IFQ programs, section 303(d)(1)(A) of the 1996 Magnuson-Stevens Act (Section 108(e) of the Sustainable Fisheries Act, Pub. L. 104-297) prohibited the Council from submitting and the Secretary from approving or implementing before October 1, 2000, any plan amendment or regulations that created a new individual fishing quota program. On December 21, 2000, Congress extended the moratorium until October 1, 2002, in the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2001 (Section 144(a), Pub. L. 106-554). The moratorium ended on October 1, 2002, and was not extended again by Congress.
During the moratorium on IFQ Programs, on October 21, 1998, Congress adopted the AFA and explicitly directed the Council and NMFS to implement, by January 1, 1999, the provisions of the AFA allocating a portion of the TAC of BSAI pollock to the catcher/processor sector (Section 206 of the AFA, Pub. L. 105-277, 16 USCA 1851 note). In the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2001, the same Act where Congress extended the moratorium on IFQ programs, Congress also mandated that all BSAI groundfish management measures, which included the AFA management measures, in effect as of July 15, 2000, be extended through the end of 2001 (Section 209(c)(3), Pub. L. 106-554). On November 28, 2001, Congress made key provisions of the AFA permanent, including the pollock allocation to the catcher/processor sector, in section 211 of the Department of Commerce and Related Agencies Appropriation Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-77).
While the permanent AFA management program was under analysis and development, NMFS met the statutory deadlines in the AFA on an interim basis through several emergency interim rules starting in January 1999 (64 FR 3435, January 22, 1999) that were extended through the end of 2002 (67 FR 34860, May 16, 2002). The Secretary approved the FMP amendments implementing the AFA on February 27, 2002, and NMFS published final implementing regulations for the AFA on December 30, 2002, after the moratorium ended (67 FR 79692). The Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, determined that the FMP amendments were necessary for the conservation and management of the groundfish, crab, and scallop fisheries off Alaska and that they are consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable laws (67 FR 79692, December 30, 2002).
By adopting the AFA in 1998, by mandating its implementation in 1999, and by making it permanent in 2001, Congress in effect adopted an exception to the moratorium on IFQ programs for the AFA. Further, NMFS did not adopt permanent regulations implementing the AFA until after the IFQ moratorium ended.
For a description of the management of the Pacific whiting catcher/processor sector that operates off the west coast in the waters under the jurisdiction of the Pacific Fishery Management Council, please see the proposed rule to establish a trawl rationalization program for the Pacific Coast groundfish fishery (75 FR 32994, June 10, 2010).
For the AFA catcher/processor sector, the proposed rule specified that the representative responsible for submitting the cost recovery payment for all Bering Sea pollock landings made under the authority of their cooperative is the person designated as the representative of the listed AFA catcher/processors and catcher vessels that deliver to them. However, the proposed rule did not include a mechanism for designating this representative to NMFS. Since public comments expressed concern with the appropriate representative for the AFA catcher/processor sector, NMFS modified this final rule to provide clarity. With this change, the AFA catcher/processor sector will use its existing entity and entity representative that the AFA catcher/processor sector has already designated with NMFS under the implementing regulations for Amendment 91 to submit the fee.
Based on this and Comments 6, 11, 12, and 13, NMFS has modified this final rule to specify that the designated representative for the AFA catcher/processor sector is the entity representative defined at § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C). NMFS changed this final rule at §§ 679.66(d)(3), 679.66(d)(3)(i), 679.66(d)(3)(ii), 679.66(d)(4), 679.66(d)(5), and 679.66(d)(6) to add language specifying the entity representative for the AFA catcher/processor sector and that these paragraphs are applicable to the AFA catcher/processor sector.
In contrast, the Amendment 80 and CDQ Programs are multispecies programs and the variation in the ex-vessel price of a species and the proportion of species harvested by an Amendment 80 cooperative or CDQ group can affect the total fee liability due. Section 1.7.2 of the RIR/FRFA and the preamble to the proposed rule show that the ex-vessel price of species covered by the Pacific Cod Ex-vessel Volume and Value Report and the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report can vary substantially from year to year, and this variation would have an impact on the fees that each person in these programs would be liable to pay. Using COAR data from the previous year may not reflect the ex-vessel prices that exist in the year that the catch subject to cost recovery occurs. Therefore, NMFS is requiring that Amendment 80 cooperatives submit a First Wholesale Volume and Value Report for species subject to a cost recovery fee for species other than BSAI halibut, BSAI Pacific cod, BSAI pollock, and BSAI sablefish. NMFS collects data on BSAI halibut and BSAI sablefish through existing data collection methods that provide more timely data than that provided by the COAR. NMFS will collect data for BSAI Pacific cod using a separate Pacific Cod Ex-vessel Volume and Value Report.
The First Wholesale Volume and Value Report allows NMFS to collect price and quantity data for the current year's fishery (as required under the Magnuson-Stevens Act) to determine the portion of the total cost recovery fee that each person is required to pay. NMFS must have this information to fulfill its obligation in assessing each person the required fee. The data collected from the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report is the minimum amount of information needed to determine each person's fee liability for Amendment 80 species and species other than BSAI halibut, BSAI Pacific cod, BSAI pollock, and BSAI sablefish.
NMFS agrees that collecting these data through the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report will increase the Amendment 80 sector cost recovery fee and increase the reporting burden on industry. NMFS considered implementing monthly reporting requirements for the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report similar to the IFQ program's Volume and Value Reports. However, to reduce the reporting burden and reduce the overall costs to the Amendment 80 participants, NMFS determined that an annual First Wholesale Volume and Value Report would provide sufficient information to collect the cost recovery fees and reduce administrative costs relative to a monthly reporting requirement. Overall, the cost that NMFS is likely to incur to maintain and process the First Volume Wholesale Volume and Value Report is only a small proportion of NMFS' total costs to manage the Amendment 80 and CDQ Programs.
If the price premium for rock sole in the first quarter of the year continues to decline, NMFS could consider modifying the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report in the future. The information collected in the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report will allow NMFS to monitor the rock sole ex-vessel prices and determine if a change in reporting is appropriate.
For catcher/processor vessels that harvest fish subject to a cost recovery fee, NMFS uses information currently collected from at-sea scales and onboard observers to determine the amount and species composition of fish landed and debited from the applicable CDQ or LAP program allocation. Catcher/processors are not currently required to submit information on the weight and species composition of fish retained and offloaded. Establishing an offload reporting requirement and subsequent monitoring requirements would result in additional costs to NMFS. These costs would be included in the calculation of the cost recovery fee for the applicable CDQ or LAP program because NMFS would be requiring an offload report and monitoring requirement solely to monitor compliance with regulations necessary for CDQ or LAP program cost recovery. These additional costs are not necessary because information currently collected from at-sea scales and onboard observers provides a less costly independent source of information on the amount and species composition of fish harvested that are subject to a cost recovery fee. For catcher vessels, NMFS uses data from the processor receiving the fish (
Section 1.10.1.1, Section 1.10.3.1, and the Executive Summary of the Analysis and the preamble to the proposed rule explain that NMFS can release a percentage of the allocation of catch that is equal to the percentage of the cost recovery fee only for single species LAP programs. The Amendment 80 LAP Program is a multi-species LAP program. Withholding a portion of the allocation for an Amendment 80 cooperative would be complicated by the fact that each Amendment 80 species has a different ex-vessel value and members within the cooperative are allocated different amounts of Amendment 80 quota share. These allocations yield different amounts of Amendment 80 cooperative quota (CQ) when the Amendment 80 quota share is assigned to an Amendment 80 cooperative. Therefore, NMFS could not conclusively determine how much of a specific Amendment 80 species CQ allocation should be withheld.
For example, if an Amendment 80 cooperative paid only 90 percent of its fee liability, it is not clear what portion of the Amendment 80 CQ would match the percentage of the cost recovery fee paid. Making this determination would require assumptions and would risk NMFS withholding species that do not match the cooperative allocations associated with the unpaid cost recovery fee. Because of this uncertainty, NMFS will require full payment of the cost recovery fee for the Amendment 80 sector prior to releasing any of the cooperative's annual CQ. The cooperative contract should address the payment of the cost recovery fee and persons that do not meet the terms of the contract should be subject to penalties outlined in the contract.
The Council has recommended and NMFS is reviewing reduced halibut PSC limits applicable to the vessels participating in the LAP and CDQ programs covered by this action. On November 16, 2015, NMFS published a proposed rule to reduce halibut PSC limits (80 FR 71650). NMFS and the Council prepared a draft Environmental Assessment/Regulatory Impact Review/Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (EA/RIR/IRFA) to consider the impacts of that action. The draft EA/RIR/IRFA states that halibut PSC limit reductions could result in an increase in the cost recovery fee percentage due to the decreased harvests that may occur if halibut PSC limits constrain the ability of vessels to fish. We refer the reader to that EA/RIR/IRFA for additional details, see the NMFS Alaska Region Web site at
As the commenter states, changes in the halibut PSC limits applicable to Amendment 80 cooperatives could reduce the amount of the TAC harvested in these fisheries, and therefore would affect the fee percentage that Amendment 80 vessels would pay. Reduced catch could be partially offset by an increase in prices, but the world market for these fish and the wide availability of substitute products indicate that an increase in price due to reduced supply is unlikely. Given the estimated cost recovery fee of 1.62 percent for the Amendment 80 Program, the value of the fishery would need to decrease by about 50 percent, assuming the agency costs remain constant, before the maximum 3 percent cost recovery fee limit is reached.
NMFS noticed this same error in the proposed rule at § 679.33(b)(2)(iii) that applies to the determination of the CDQ standard prices. NMFS changed this final rule at § 679.33(b)(2)(iii) to remove language pertaining to the fee liability and to clarify that this paragraph applies to NMFS's determination of the CDQ standard prices.
This final rule includes changes to particular sections of the regulatory text and amendatory instructions published in the proposed rule.
NMFS removed paragraph (g)
NMFS removed from paragraph (e), in §§ 679.33, 679.66, 679.67, and 679.95, the sentence that NMFS may deduct payment processing fees from any fees returned due to over payment. This additional sentence is not necessary because processing costs due to over payment are nominal with improvements in methods to collect fees.
In addition to these two changes, NMFS also made some non-substantive minor technical corrections to the regulatory text.
NMFS made substantive changes to this final rule in response to public comments. These changes improve the functioning of the cost recovery programs implemented with this final rule. All the specific regulation changes, and the reasons for making these changes, are contained under Response to Comments, above. This section provides a summary of the changes made to this final rule in response to public comment.
• In this final rule at § 679.33(b)(2)(iii), NMFS corrected this paragraph to remove language pertaining to the fee liability and to clarify that this paragraph applies to NMFS' determination of the CDQ standard prices in response to Comment 23.
• In this final rule at § 679.2, NMFS modified the definitions of AFA fee liability and AFA fee percentage to clarify that these terms apply to an AFA cooperative or AFA sector in response to Comment 13.
• In this final rule at § 679.66(a)(1)(ii), NMFS clarified that the entity representative under § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C) will be the AFA catcher/processor sector's designated representative for submission of the cost recovery fee in response to Comment 11.
• In this final rule at § 679.66(d)(3), NMFS clarified that the AFA catcher/processor sector receives the Bering Sea pollock allocation and that the AFA catcher/processor sector entity representative under § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C) submits the fee payment in response to Comment 14.
• To match the changes to § 679.66(a)(1)(ii), NMFS also changed this final rule as follows. These changes are discussed in detail in the responses to Comments 11, 12, 13, 14, and 15.
○ §§ 679.66(a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (b)(1), (c)(4), (c)(5)(v), (d)(4), (d)(5), and (d)(6), (e), and (f) were changed to replace “cooperative representative” with “designated representative;”
○ § 679.66(b)(2)(i), (c)(5)(i), (d)(5), (d)(6) and (e) were changed to add “or AFA sector;” and
○ § 679.66(c)(2) introductory text, (c)(2)(iii)(B), (c)(3)(i) and (c)(5)(iii) were changed to replace references to listed AFA catcher/processors and high seas catcher vessels that deliver to them with “AFA catcher/processor sector.”
• In this final rule at § 679.95(b)(2)(iii), NMFS corrected this paragraph to remove language pertaining to the fee liability and to clarify that this paragraph applies to NMFS' determination of the Amendment 80 standard ex-vessel prices in response to Comment 23.
Section 3507(c)(B)(i) of the PRA requires that agencies inventory and display a current control number assigned by the Director, OMB, for each agency information collection. Section 902.1(b) identifies the location of NOAA regulations for which OMB approval numbers have been issued. Because this final rule revises and adds data elements within a collection-of-information for recordkeeping and reporting requirements, 15 CFR 902.1(b) is revised to reference correctly the sections resulting from this final rule.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, has determined that this final rule is necessary for the conservation and management of the groundfish and halibut fisheries and that it is consistent with the FMP, the National Standards, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable laws. This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
This final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) incorporates the Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), a summary of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the IRFA, and NMFS' responses to those comments, and a summary of the analyses completed to support the action.
Section 604 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act requires that, when an agency promulgates a final rule under section 553 of Title 5 of the United States Code, after being required by that section, or any other law, to publish a general notice of proposed rulemaking, the agency shall prepare a final regulatory flexibility analysis.
Section 604 describes the required contents of a FRFA: (1) A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule; (2) a statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in
A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule is contained in the preamble to this final rule and is not repeated here.
NMFS published a proposed rule on January 7, 2015 (80 FR 936). An IRFA was prepared and summarized in the “Classification” section of the preamble to the proposed rule. The comment period closed on February 6, 2015. NMFS received three public comment letters, containing 23 separate comments on the proposed rule. These comments did not address the IRFA. The economic impacts of the rule were addressed in the comments by requesting that NMFS clearly define the costs that are subject to the rule. One comment specifically requested information on how BSAI halibut PSC reductions being considered by the Council and Secretary would impact the overall profitability of the Amendment 80 vessels, which are not considered small entities under the Small Business Administration Guidelines. The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the SBA did not file any comments on the proposed rule.
This analysis considers the active fleet in 2013, which is the most recent year for which size, revenue, and affiliation data were all available. The only small entities directly regulated by this rule are the six CDQ groups—the Aleutian Pribilof Island Community Development Association, the Bristol Bay Economic Development Corporation, the Central Bering Sea Fishermen's Association, the Coastal Villages Region Fund, the Norton Sound Economic Development Corporation, and the Yukon Delta Fisheries Development Association. Through the CDQ Program, the Council and NMFS allocate a portion of the BSAI groundfish TACs, halibut quota, and halibut and crab PSC limits, to these six CDQ groups. These groups represent 65 villages and maintain a non-profit status. Each of the CDQ groups is organized as an independently owned and operated not-for-profit entity and none is dominant in its field; consequently, each is a “small entity” under the Small Business Administration's definition for “small organization.” The proceeds from the CDQ allocations must be used to start or support activities that will result in ongoing, regionally based, commercial fishery or related businesses. Section 2.6 of the Analysis prepared for the proposed rule provides more information on these entities (80 FR 936, January 7, 2015).
All other entities that are directly regulated through this rule are not small entities under the SBA definitions. This action would regulate Amendment 80, AFA cooperatives, and AFA sectors, and the vessels that are harvesting exclusive harvest privileges under the Amendment 80 and AFA Programs; The Aleut Corporation; and processors and motherships that receive CDQ Pacific cod deliveries and trawl-caught Pacific cod. The SBA defines a small commercial finfish fishing entity as one that has annual gross receipts, from all activities of all affiliates, of less than $20.5 million (79 FR 33647, June 12, 2014). None of these entities are considered to be small entities based on the SBA's size standard.
This action modifies recordkeeping or reporting requirements so that sufficient data are available to determine the cost recovery fee and standardized prices in the time frame required under the Magnuson-Stevens Act. No small entity is subject to additional reporting requirements. Shorebased processors will be required to submit ex-vessel Volume and Value Reports for all CDQ groundfish landings and all BSAI Pacific cod trawl landings. Each Amendment 80 catcher/processor will be required to submit a First Wholesale Volume and Value Report for all groundfish species, except Pacific cod, harvested under the Amendment 80 and CDQ programs. The information to be collected is described in Section 1.7.2.1 of the Analysis.
The only additional recordkeeping requirements for small entities are the bookkeeping skills necessary for the six CDQ groups to submit payment for their cost recovery fees. NMFS will calculate the fee amount that each CDQ group owes. The designated representative of each group is then required to ensure the timely submission of the fee payment.
A FRFA must the outline steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities consistent with the stated objectives of applicable statutes, including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected. The action is the implementation of the Magnuson-Stevens Act's mandatory cost recovery fees for LAP and CDQ programs.
No alternatives or options were identified that would have accomplished the action's objectives while reducing the potential economic impact on small entities relative to the preferred alternative. NMFS has determined that the minimum amount of data necessary to calculate the cost recover fees as mandated under the Magnuson-Stevens Act would be collected through volume and value reports. Collecting the minimum amount of data necessary from the fewest persons possible is beneficial to all entities.
The economic impact on directly regulated small entities is the implementation of a cost recovery fee mandated under the Magnuson-Stevens Act. The Magnuson-Stevens Act requires that participants in limited access privilege programs and the CDQ Program pay up to 3 percent of the ex-vessel value of the fish they are
For all directly regulated entities NMFS considered and analyzed a range of specific options to determine standard prices for calculating standard ex-vessel value data, dates for volume and value report and fee submission, and other details of the fee collection process described in the Analysis. NMFS selected those options that would minimize the reporting burden and costs on small entities consistent with the stated objective when possible.
Specifically, NMFS considered options to use COAR data to determine standard prices and standard ex-vessel values for all species subject to cost recovery, but did not select that option for species other than BSAI pollock because it could impact the fee liability each person would be required to pay. NMFS did select options that minimized reporting requirements on small entities by using existing data sources (
Section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 states that, for each rule or group of related rules for which an agency is required to prepare a FRFA, the agency shall publish one or more guides to assist small entities in complying with the rule, and shall designate such publications as “small entity compliance guides.” The agency shall explain the actions a small entity is required to take to comply with a rule or group of rules.
NMFS has posted a small entity compliance guide on the NMFS Alaska Region Web site (
This rule contains collection-of-information requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) and which have been approved under the following OMB control numbers.
With this action, the payment and observer fee submittal (15 minutes) is removed from this collection and added to the new fee collection.
With this action, this IFQ Cost Recovery collection is removed and superseded by the new cost recovery collection.
Public reporting burden per response is estimated to average eight hours for Cooperative Contract. This information collection is revised by adding to the Cooperative Contract the obligation of AFA cooperative members to ensure full payment of cost recovery fees.
With this action, two forms—the Rockfish Volume and Value Report (two hours per response) and the payment and fee submittal (10 minutes per response) are removed from this collection.
Public reporting burden per response is estimated to average two hours for Application for Amendment 80 Cooperative Quota; the Cooperative Agreement is an attachment to this application. This information collection is revised by adding to the Cooperative Agreement the obligation of AFA cooperative members to ensure full payment of cost recovery fees.
With this action, the Crab Rationalization Program Cost Recovery collection is removed and superseded by the new cost recovery collection.
This new information collection is created by combining all existing Alaska Region fee information collections with the observer fee submission. Public reporting burden per response is estimated to average one minute for cost recovery fee or observer fee submission; five minutes for value and volume report; and four hours for appeal of an incomplete payment of a cost recovery fee or observer fee.
Estimates for public reporting burden include the time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
Send comments regarding these burden estimates or any other aspect of this data collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to NMFS (see
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number. All currently approved NOAA collections of information may be viewed at:
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Alaska, Fisheries, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS amends 15 CFR part 902 and 50 CFR part 679 as follows:
44 U.S.C. 3501
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
16 U.S.C. 773
(u)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(B)
(v)
(2)
(ii)
(B) The first reporting period of the First Wholesale Volume and Value Report for rock sole shall extend from January 1 to March 31, and the second reporting period shall extend from April 1 to October 31.
(iii)
(iv)
(B)
(v)
(c) * * *
(6) For a shoreside processor designated on an FPP, or a mothership designated on an FFP, that processes landings of either CDQ Pacific cod or BSAI Pacific cod harvested by a vessel using trawl gear to fail to submit a timely and complete Pacific Cod Ex-vessel Volume and Value Report as required under § 679.5(u)(1).
(d) * * *
(8) Fail to submit a timely and complete CDQ cost recovery fee submission form and fee as required under § 679.33.
(k) * * *
(9) Fail to submit a timely and complete AFA cost recovery fee submission form and fee as required under § 679.66.
(l) * * *
(6) Fail to submit a timely and complete Aleutian Islands pollock cost recovery fee submission form and fee as required under § 679.67.
(o) * * *
(4) * * *
(vii) Fail to submit a timely and complete Amendment 80 cost recovery fee submission form and fee as required under § 679.95.
(9)
(a)
(i) Subsequent transfer, under § 679.31(c), of a CDQ allocation by a CDQ group does not affect the CDQ group representative's liability for noncompliance with this section.
(ii) Changes in amount of a CDQ allocation to a CDQ group do not affect the CDQ group representative's liability for noncompliance with this section.
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(
(
(
(B)
(C)
(D)
(
(
(c)
(2)
(i)
(A) The catch to which the CDQ groundfish and halibut cost recovery fee will apply;
(B) The ex-vessel value of that catch; and
(C) The costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the CDQ Program for groundfish and halibut.
(ii)
(A) DPC = the direct program costs for the CDQ Program for groundfish and halibut for the most recent Federal fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) with any adjustments to the account from payments received in the previous year.
(B) V = total of the CDQ standard ex-vessel value of the catch subject to the CDQ fee liability for the current year.
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(ii) The CDQ fee assessed to a CDQ group will be based on the proportion of the standard ex-vessel value of CDQ groundfish and halibut debited from a CDQ group's allocation relative to all CDQ groups during a calendar year as determined by NMFS.
(iii) NMFS will provide a CDQ fee liability summary letter to each CDQ group representative by December 1 of each year. The summary will explain the CDQ fee liability determination including the current fee percentage, and details of CDQ pounds debited from the CDQ group allocations by permit, species, date, and prices.
(d)
(2) If a CDQ group representative fails to submit full payment for its CDQ fee liability by the date described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Regional Administrator may:
(i) At any time thereafter send an IAD to the CDQ group representative stating that the CDQ group's estimated fee liability, as indicated by his or her own submitted information, is the CDQ fee liability due from the CDQ group.
(ii) Disapprove any application to transfer CDQ to or from the CDQ group in accordance with § 679.31(c).
(3) If a CDQ group fails to submit full payment by December 31 of each year, the Regional Administrator will not issue allocations of CDQ groundfish and halibut to that CDQ group for the following calendar year.
(4) Upon final agency action determining that a CDQ group representative has not paid the CDQ fee liability due for that CDQ group, the Regional Administrator may continue to not issue allocations of CDQ groundfish and halibut for that CDQ group for any subsequent calendar years until NMFS receives the unpaid fees. If payment is not received by the 30th day after the final agency action, the agency may pursue collection of the unpaid fees.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(c) * * *
(1)
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
(vi) List the obligations of members of a cooperative, governed by this section, to ensure the full payment of all AFA fee liabilities that may be due.
(a)
(ii) The person designated as the representative of the entity representing the AFA catcher/processor sector under § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C) at the time of a Bering Sea pollock landing.
(iii) The person designated as the representative of the AFA mothership cooperative at the time of a Bering Sea pollock landing.
(2)
(ii) Changes in the membership in a cooperative, such as members joining or departing during the relevant year, or changes in the holdings of AFA permits of those members do not affect the designated representative's liability for noncompliance with this section.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(A) Landed pounds of Bering Sea pollock;
(B) Total ex-vessel value of Bering Sea pollock; and
(C) Price adjustments, including retroactive payments.
(c)
(2)
(i)
(A) The catch to which the AFA pollock cost recovery fee will apply;
(B) The ex-vessel value of that catch; and
(C) The costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the AFA directed pollock fisheries.
(ii)
(A) DPC = the direct program costs for the directed AFA pollock fisheries for the most recent fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) with any adjustments to the account from payments received in the previous year.
(B) V = total of the standard ex-vessel value of the catch subject to the AFA fee liability for the current year.
(iii) Direct program costs will be calculated separately for:
(A) AFA inshore cooperatives;
(B) The AFA catcher/processor sector; and
(C) The AFA mothership cooperative.
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(ii) The AFA fee liability assessed to an AFA inshore cooperative will be based on the proportion of the AFA fee liability of Bering Sea pollock debited from that AFA inshore cooperative's AFA pollock fishery allocation relative to all AFA inshore cooperatives during a calendar year as determined by NMFS.
(iii) The AFA fee liability assessed to the AFA catcher/processor sector will be based on the standard ex-vessel value of Bering Sea pollock debited from the sector's AFA pollock fishery allocation during a calendar year as determined by NMFS.
(iv) The AFA fee liability assessed to the AFA mothership cooperative will be based on the proportion of the standard ex-vessel value of Bering Sea pollock debited from the cooperative's AFA pollock fishery allocation during a calendar year as determined by NMFS.
(v) NMFS will provide a fee liability summary letter to each designated representative by December 1 of each year. The summary will explain the AFA fee liability determination including the current fee percentage and details of Bering Sea pollock pounds debited from the AFA pollock fishery allocation by permit, species, date, and prices.
(d)
(2) The AFA mothership cooperative will not receive its AFA pollock fishery allocation until the cooperative's designated representative submits full payment of that cooperative's AFA fee liability.
(3) The AFA catcher/processor sector will not receive its Bering Sea pollock allocation until the entity's designated representative defined at § 679.21(f)(8)(i)(C) submits full payment of the AFA fee liability at the time of a Bering Sea pollock landing, except the Regional Administrator may release to the AFA catcher/processor sector a portion of the AFA catcher/processor sector's Bering Sea pollock allocation
(4) If the designated representative fails to submit full payment for the AFA fee liability by the date described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Regional Administrator, at any time thereafter, may send an IAD to the designated representative stating that the estimated fee liability, based on the information submitted by the designated representative, is the AFA fee liability due from the designated representative.
(5) If the designated representative fails to submit full payment for the AFA fee liability by the date described at paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the Regional Administrator will not issue a Bering Sea pollock allocation to that AFA cooperative or AFA sector for the following calendar year, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(6) Upon final agency action determining that the designated representative has not submitted the AFA fee liability payment, the Regional Administrator may continue to not issue a Bering Sea pollock allocation for that AFA cooperative or AFA sector for any subsequent calendar years until NMFS receives the unpaid fees. If payment is not received by the 30th day after the final agency action, the agency may pursue collection of the unpaid fees.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(a)
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(A) Landed pounds of Aleutian Islands pollock;
(B) Total ex-vessel value of Aleutian Islands pollock; and
(C) Price adjustments, including retroactive payments.
(c)
(2)
(i)
(A) The catch to which the Aleutian Islands pollock cost recovery fee will apply;
(B) The ex-vessel value of that catch; and
(C) The costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery.
(ii)
(A) DPC = the direct program costs for the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery for the most recent fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) with any adjustments to the account from payments received in the previous year.
(B) V = total of the standard ex-vessel value of the catch subject to the Aleutian Islands pollock fee liability for the current year.
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(ii) NMFS will provide a fee liability summary letter to the Aleut Corporation by December 1 of each year. The summary will explain the fee liability determination including the current fee percentage, and details of Aleutian Islands pollock pounds debited from the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery allocation by permit, species, date, and prices.
(d)
(2) If the Aleut Corporation's designated representative fails to submit full payment for Aleutian Islands pollock fee liability by the date described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Regional Administrator may at any time thereafter send an IAD to the Aleut Corporation's designated representative stating that the estimated fee liability, based on the information submitted by the designated representative, is the Aleutian Islands pollock fee liability due from the Aleut Corporation.
(3) If the Aleut Corporation's designated representative fails to submit full payment by the Aleutian Islands pollock fee liability payment deadline described at paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Regional Administrator will not issue the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery allocation to the Aleut Corporation for that calendar year.
(4) Upon final agency action determining that the Aleut Corporation has not paid its Aleutian Islands pollock fee liability, the Regional Administrator may continue to not issue the Aleutian Islands directed pollock fishery allocation for any subsequent calendar years until NMFS receives the unpaid fees. If payment is not received by the 30th day after the final agency action, the agency may pursue collection of the unpaid fees.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(b) * * *
(4) * * *
(vii)
(A) How the Amendment 80 cooperative intends to catch its CQ; and
(B) The obligations of Amendment 80 QS holders who are members of an Amendment 80 cooperative to ensure the full payment of Amendment 80 fee liabilities that may be due.
(h) * * *
(3) * * *
(a)
(i) Subsequent transfer of Amendment 80 CQ or Amendment 80 QS held by Amendment 80 cooperative members;
(ii) Non-renewal of an Amendment 80 CQ permit; or
(iii) Changes in the membership in an Amendment 80 cooperative, such as members joining or departing during the relevant year, or changes in the amount of Amendment 80 QS holdings of those members.
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(
(
(c)
(2)
(i)
(A) The catch to which the Amendment 80 cost recovery fee will apply;
(B) The ex-vessel value of that catch; and
(C) The costs directly related to the management, data collection, and enforcement of the Amendment 80 Program.
(ii)
(A) DPC = the direct program costs for the Amendment 80 Program for the most recent fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) with any adjustments to the account from payments received in the previous year.
(B) V = total of the standard ex-vessel value of the landings subject to the Amendment 80 fee liability for the current year.
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(ii) The Amendment 80 fee liability assessed to an Amendment 80 CQ permit holder will be based on the proportion of the standard ex-vessel value of Amendment 80 species debited from an Amendment 80 CQ permit holder relative to all Amendment 80 CQ permit holders during a calendar year as determined by NMFS.
(iii) NMFS will provide a fee liability summary letter to each Amendment 80 CQ permit holder by December 1 of each year. The summary will explain the fee liability determination including the current fee percentage, and details of Amendment 80 species CQ pounds debited from Amendment 80 CQ allocations by permit, species, date, and prices.
(d)
(2) If an Amendment 80 CQ permit holder fails to submit full payment for its Amendment 80 fee by the date described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Regional Administrator may:
(i) At any time thereafter send an IAD to the Amendment 80 cooperative's representative stating that the Amendment 80 CQ permit holder's estimated fee liability, based on information submitted by the Amendment 80 cooperative's representative, is the Amendment 80 fee liability due from the Amendment 80 CQ permit holder.
(ii) Disapprove any application to transfer Amendment 80 CQ to or from the Amendment 80 CQ permit holder in accordance with § 679.91(g).
(3) If an Amendment 80 cooperative representative fails to submit full payment by the Amendment 80 fee payment deadline described at paragraph (a)(3) of this section:
(i) The Regional Administrator will not issue a Amendment 80 CQ permit to that Amendment 80 cooperative for the following calendar year; and
(ii) The Regional Administrator will not issue Amendment 80 CQ based on the Amendment 80 QS held by the members of that Amendment 80 cooperative to any other CQ permit for that calendar year.
(4) Upon final agency action determining that an Amendment 80 CQ permit holder has not paid his or her Amendment 80 fee, the Regional Administrator may continue to not issue an Amendment 80 CQ permit for any subsequent calendar years until NMFS receives the unpaid fees. If payment is not received by the 30th day after the
(e)
(f)
(g)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule; information collection approval.
The Coast Guard announces that it has received approval from the Office of Management and Budget for an information collection request associated with ballast water management reporting and recordkeeping requirements in a final rule we published in the
The amendments to §§ 151.2060(b) through (f) and 151.2070, published November 24, 2015 (80 FR 73105), are effective February 22, 2016.
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Ms. Regina Bergner, Environmental Standards Division (CG-OES-3), U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 202-372-1431, email
To view the final rule published on November 24, 2015 (80 FR 73105), or other documents in the docket for this rulemaking, go to
On November 24, 2015, the Coast Guard published a final rule that amends the ballast water management reporting and recordkeeping requirements. 80 FR 73105. The final rule delayed the effective date of 33 CFR 151.2060(b) through (f) and § 151.2070 because these sections contain collection-of-information provisions that require approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520. On December 4, 2015, the OMB approved the collection assigned OMB Control Number 1625-0069, Ballast Water Management for Vessels with Ballast Tanks Entering U.S. Waters. Accordingly, we announce that 33 CFR 151.2060(b) through (f) and 151.2070 are effective February 22, 2016. The approval for this collection of information expires on December 31, 2018.
This document is issued under the authority of 33 U.S.C. 1231.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) modernizes its wireless hearing aid compatibility rules. The Commission adopts these rules to ensure that people with hearing loss have full access to innovative handsets and technologies.
Effective February 4, 2016.
Michael Rowan, Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, (202) 418-1883, email
This is a summary of the Commission's Fourth Report and Order in WT Docket Nos. 15-285 and 07-250; FCC 15-155, adopted November 19, 2015, and released on November 20, 2015. This summary should be read with its companion document, the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking summary published elsewhere in this issue of the
1. After review of the record and consideration of both the requirements of section 710 as amended by the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010 (CVAA) and the previous actions taken in this proceeding, the Commission revises the scope of the wireless hearing aid compatibility rules largely as proposed in the 2010
2. While the Commission has taken steps previously to bring such emerging voice services under the rules, these steps are necessary to complete the process. The
3. Its actions also ensure that the hearing aid compatibility rules cover modes of voice communications access that are increasingly available to the public as well as those that may develop in the future. For example, the expanded scope will cover handsets that enable voice communications through VoIP software applications installed by the manufacturer or service provider regardless of whether the calling functionality provides interconnection to the public switched telephone network. It will also cover advances in voice technology that have rendered obsolete some of the current rule's limitations on scope, such as provisions that apply hearing aid compatibility requirements only to services that involve frequency reuse and cell site handoff. Unlike the current scope, the expanded scope will also apply to a voice communications service over Wi-Fi that does not utilize an in-network switching facility that enables reuse of frequencies and seamless hand-off.
4. The Commisson first finds that section 710, as amended by the CVAA, provides authority to require hearing aid compatibility in any device that meets the Commission's definition of handset and that is used in whole or in part for the delivery of services within the new scope of the rule. The CVAA expressly extended section 710 to cover mobile devices used with advanced communications services, including interconnected and non-interconnected VoIP services, to the extent that such devices are designed to provide two-way voice communication via a built-in speaker intended to be held to the ear in a manner functionally equivalent to a telephone. Thus, as amended by the CVAA, section 710 clearly supports expanding the scope of section 20.19 to cover the full range of handsets used to provide consumers with voice communications services, including IP-based services and voice communications software.
5. Similarly, the CVAA amendments to section 710 confirm the Commission's prior determination that obligations should extend to cover a broad range of mobile handsets, and not merely those used exclusively as telephones. For example, these amendments make clear that covered devices used with public mobile services and private radio services include devices used “in whole or in part” to provide those services. While the Commission has recognized that engineering hearing aid compatibility for multi-use handsets may require adjustments to non-voice-communication features, the statute provides that equipment must meet hearing aid compatibility standards without any specific limitation based on non-communication adjustments. The Commission reaffirms that the hearing aid compatibility rules apply to a multi-use handset that can function as a telephone even though it may serve additional purposes or have another primary intended purpose.
6. The Commission further finds that, in deciding whether to extend the scope of the wireless hearing aid compatibility obligations, the Commission must determine whether the statutory criteria for lifting the wireless exemption are satisfied, as it did in 2003 when it first modified the exemption for wireless telephones. The Commission examines each of the four criteria for lifting the exemption below, and determine that each criterion has been satisfied. The Commission finds that (1) individuals with hearing loss would be adversely affected absent the expansion of the rule's scope; (2) compliance with the Commission's hearing aid compatibility rules for the handsets within the expanded scope is technologically feasible; (3) compliance would not increase costs to such an extent that such equipment could not be successfully marketed; and (4) in consideration of these factors, and the costs and benefits of the rule change, expanding the scope of the hearing aid compatibility rules beyond covered CMRS is in the public interest.
7. The Commission emphasizes that the Commission's analysis of the four criteria for lifting the exemption is not restricted to voice communications services that are deployed in the 698 MHz to 6 GHz band, and that the Commission finds that the criteria for lifting the exemption are met for such services in any frequency band, including frequencies outside the band covered by the ANSI 2011 Standard. Consistent with prior Commission determinations, however, the Commission retains the current restriction in the scope of the rule to the 698 MHz to 6 GHz band at this time, so that compliance under the rule is required only for operations in spectrum bands for which there is an approved technical standard. As new frequencies are deployed for comparable voice services and standards for them approved, however, incorporating such frequencies into the rule early in their deployment will better facilitate access to handsets using such frequencies when they are rolled out to the public. For example, the Incentive Auction scheduled to begin in early 2016 will involve new, flexible-use licenses in the 600 MHz Band that are suitable for providing mobile broadband services. The Commission expects that the
8.
9. Consumer Groups and ASHA comment that people with hearing loss who use hearing aids need access to mobile phone services just like every other American, including at home, work, school, and in emergency situations, and that updated regulations can help to ensure that these people can be fully integrated into society. TIA comments that manufacturers have made gains to enhance access by deaf or hard of hearing individuals to new technologies and hearing aid-compliant products, while CTIA contends that the current rules for hearing aid compatibility have been highly effective in ensuring that a wide variety of compliant wireless handsets are available to the public.
10. Consistent with the Commission's proposed findings, the Commission concludes that failure to adopt the expanded scope would adversely affect people with hearing loss. Absent the amended scope, mobile VoIP services would be covered only to the extent that they were determined to both satisfy the definition of CMRS and involve the use of “an in-network switching facility that enables the provider to reuse frequencies and accomplish seamless hand-offs of subscriber calls.” Those limitations, the Commission finds, would materially impede the ability of people with hearing loss to use many advanced devices and networks, and the Commission notes that ongoing innovation would likely amplify this harmful impact over time. If handsets encompassing these emerging technologies are not broadly made hearing aid-compatible, consumers with hearing loss who use hearing aids or cochlear implants could be left without full access to new technologies and networks that are used increasingly by members of the public to communicate with one another at home, at work, and as they travel, including for communications in critical emergencies. The Commission notes that mobile technologies generally are increasingly important to members of the public. According to the National Center for Health Statistics, the percentage of adults living in households with only wireless telephones has been steadily increasing with about 44.1 percent of adults (about 106 million adults) living in wireless-only households as of the last six months of 2014; in addition, as of the last six months of 2014, 54.1 percent of all children (nearly 40 million children) lived in households that only used wireless telephones. Having access to emerging IP-based voice technologies such as High Definition Voice may prove particularly important to individuals with hearing loss. In addition, as these emerging handsets evolve to encompass a wide and growing range of computing and other functions, a lack of hearing aid-compatible handsets may force individuals with hearing loss to choose between limiting their voice communications or limiting their access to many of the other features that these new handsets offer.
11. In broadening the scope of the rule, the Commission is mindful that it is important to ensure hearing aid-compatible access to handsets, voice technologies, and networks not only once they are established but also as they develop in the future. The Commission anticipates ongoing innovation in mobile voice technologies that will lead to more services for consumers to communicate that do not use the North American Numbering Plan or involve the cellular system architecture reflected in the current rule. By making clear that hearing aid compatibility requirements apply not only to currently available technologies such as VoLTE but to all mobile terrestrial services that enable two-way, real-time voice communications among members of the public, the Commission ensures that new consumer devices—that might be developed or emerge in the future—will be covered as technical standards become available, regardless of regulatory classification or network architecture, unless a waiver is granted. The Commission expects manufacturers to take hearing aid compatibility into account during the early stages of product development.
12.
13. TIA comments that the Commission should not expand the application of the hearing aid compatibility requirements beyond the scope of consumer wireless handsets with CMRS functionality until there is a better understanding of the obstacles
14. The Commission concludes that it is technologically feasible to manufacture newly covered handsets so they meet the minimum ratings for hearing aid compatibility under the current technical standard or, to the extent they may be deployed in frequencies not addressed under the 2011 ANSI Standard, under a similar performance standard. Since the Commission proposed its analysis in 2010, subsequent developments have only confirmed that compliance with the hearing aid compatibility requirements will generally be feasible for consumer mobile voice technologies. Indeed, manufacturers are already successfully testing and rating VoLTE operations for both T- and M-rating compliance, and they are also successfully testing and rating CMRS-enabled voice communications over Wi-Fi (hereinafter “Wi-Fi Calling”) for M-rating compliance, demonstrating empirically that compliance in those areas is technologically feasible. In addition, OET's Laboratory Division issued guidance in October 2013 describing the technical parameters related in part to testing VoLTE and Wi-Fi Calling functionalities for both M-ratings and T-ratings, and did not identify any challenges related to technological feasibility. While the 2013 guidance did observe that the equipment needed to test for T-coil compliance for Wi-Fi Calling “may not be readily available” and therefore excluded such operations from the testing obligation, nothing in the record suggests that the availability of testing equipment remains a challenge, and perhaps more significantly, this limitation does not bear on technological feasibility.
15. The Commission finds that any technical challenges to achieving hearing aid compatibility in handsets will not differ significantly from those that manufacturers have already addressed in achieving hearing aid compatibility in the broad range of mobile handsets noted above. Indeed, because the specifications for new air interface technologies (such as the Fifth Generation or 5G wireless technology) will now be developed with the expectation that hearing aid compatibility requirements will apply, the Commission anticipates that the need to meet such requirements will be taken into account early in the design process, which should help to ensure that compatibility for such technologies is feasible. The Commission notes that industry commenters have provided no example of developing technology within the adopted scope for which achieving hearing aid compatibility was found to be infeasible, and the Commission knows of no reason that consumer handsets that operate over systems within the expanded scope could not achieve these ratings. As the Commission noted in 2010, to the extent the Commission is presented with the rare case of a new technology that cannot feasibly meet the requirements, or cannot do so in full, section 710 expressly provides for a waiver.
16.
17. Generally, aside from the impact relating to satellite phones, commenters did not address in detail whether compliance would increase costs to such an extent that equipment could not be successfully marketed. TIA argues that an open-ended application of the rules to other types of wireless handsets with voice capability but which are not typically held to the ear would, among other matters, impose undue financial burdens. HIA comments that in terms of costs, compatibility with other devices is already a factor in hearing aid design, and thus does not anticipate that a “to the ear” standard it supports would impose additional costs on its members.
18. In order to expand the scope of section 20.19, the Commission must also find that compliance would not increase costs to a degree that would prevent successfully marketing of the equipment. As discussed above in the Commission's analysis of technological feasibility, manufacturers already offer numerous hearing aid-compatible handsets with differing features and physical characteristics over a variety of air interfaces, including a number of models certified as hearing aid-compatible over LTE. Further, while Iridium and Inmarsat raise concerns about the impact of hearing aid compatibility requirements on the marketability of satellite phones, no commenter raises any concerns about marketability with respect to handsets and operations within the expanded scope the Commission adopts in this Fourth Report and Order. Considering the absence of anything in the record demonstrating compliance costs that would depart materially from the costs for handsets that already comply, the Commission anticipates that handsets offering comparable voice communications capabilities to the public will similarly be marketable. The Commission therefore finds that requiring hearing aid compatibility for handsets newly within the scope of the requirements will not undermine their marketability. To the extent the Commission is presented with the rare case of a new technology for which compliance would increase costs to the extent that the technology could not be successfully marketed, section 710 expressly provides that the Commission may waive the requirements.
19.
20. Consumer Groups argue that there are millions of Americans with hearing loss, technological innovations help people with disabilities, and they need access to their mobile phones in different settings. ASHA and Lintz note the importance of wireless phones to those who suffer from hearing loss.
21. The Commission concludes, in light of the consideration of the costs and benefits to all telephone users, that applying the hearing aid compatibility requirements to all handsets and services within the expanded scope, including current and emerging IP-based voice services, will serve the
22.
23. In the past, the Commission's decisions to lift the exemption for devices used with some wireless services, and particularly the Commission's determination that doing so is in the public interest, have been based in part on the Commission's findings that these devices and services have become part of the mass market for communications. Generally, handsets for network services such as public safety or private enterprise networks are designed for a specialized market with a limited set of users. Based on the record before us, there is little evidence on the extent that these specialized public safety and private enterprise devices would satisfy the criteria of technical feasibility and marketability. Rather, the record supports the Commission's tentative conclusion in the
24.
25.
26. AT&T, ATIS, Consumer Groups, CTIA, MetroPCS, Motorola, TIA, and T-Mobile agree that manufacturers and service providers should not be required to ensure compliance for voice communication capabilities added to a handset by consumers or third parties after original purchase. In connection with this argument, AT&T, CTIA, and TIA cite section 2(a) of the CVAA, which they claim limits liability for certain third-party activities, as support for exempting them from compliance responsibility for third party actions. These commenters oppose subjecting manufacturers and service providers to testing requirements for third party applications unless the manufacturer and service provider have themselves affirmatively incorporated the application into a device, arguing, in the main, that manufacturers and providers lack control over third party applications installed in the device by someone else. In contrast, HIA argues that hearing aid compatibility should be ensured both “at the time of sale” and upon “installation of a voice feature.” As an alternative approach, Consumer Groups urge the Commission to require manufacturers and service providers to include provisions in their licensing agreements or contracts with software application developers to ensure that software maintains the hearing aid compatibility of a device.
27.
28. Previously, the Commission has permitted manufacturers and service providers to obtain hearing aid compatibility certification for handsets that are capable of supporting additional voice capability without testing for such operations, including the operations addressed above, but has required them to disclose to consumers that not all of the handsets' operations have been tested and rated for hearing aid compatibility. While the Commission now establishes a requirement to test and rate software applications installed under the circumstances specified above in order to obtain hearing aid compatibility certification, the Commission finds it appropriate to provide a period of time during which manufacturers may continue to certify handsets based on disclosure rather than testing. The Commission anticipates that implementing the requirement to test and rate software-based voice functionality will require additional guidance on testing parameters, the development of new systems capable of testing the applicable codec/air interface combinations, as well as coordination between manufacturers, service providers, and third-party application providers. Given these implementation issues, the Commission provides that during the transition period for applying deployment benchmarks, manufacturers may continue to obtain hearing aid compatibility ratings for a device's operation on a given air interface without testing and rating software-enabled voice functions, as long as they disclose to consumers that certain operations have not been tested and rated for hearing aid compatibility, consistent with the disclosure required in section 20.19(f)(2)(i). The Commission notes again that ANSI ASC C63®-EMC, at its November 2015 meeting, formally approved a project to revise the ANSI C63.19 standard for hearing aid compatibility to address a number of topics, including some technologies not covered in the current version of the standard. The application of the transition period to software-based voice operations reflects, in part, the Commission's expectation that industry groups will work through the standards process to finalize all necessary guidance well before the end
29.
30. In the 2010
31. In their comments, Clearwire, CTIA, T-Mobile, and Motorola support a two-year transition as adequate for many handsets to come into compliance with existing benchmarks. RWA, Blooston, and RTG support longer time frames of up to an additional 12 months for small, rural, and/or Tier III service providers who, these commenters contend, do not have the same access to new handsets as Tier I providers. While it did not propose any specific time period, HIA states that the transition period should be no longer than the minimum amount of time needed for a new product design cycle.
32.
33. The Commission finds that a January 1, 2018 transition date is appropriate for both manufacturers and Tier I service providers. When the Commission adopted its initial hearing aid compatibility rules in 2003, it gave manufacturers and Tier I carriers 24 months to comply with acoustic coupling requirements. Similarly, in 2012, OET and WTB adopted a 24-month transition period for covered CMRS operations that use frequency bands and air interfaces that can be tested under the 2011 ANSI Standard. As discussed above, the Commission finds that any challenges related to technical feasibility and marketability will not be significantly different for newly covered handsets than for handsets that are currently being made hearing aid-compatible under the rule. The Commission finds that a similar transition period provides adequate time to adjust handset portfolios to ensure compliance with the benchmarks that apply independently to each air interface, regardless of whether the voice communications functionality is network-based or software-based. This transition period affords manufacturers a reasonable amount of time to implement requirements to test and rate software-based voice functionality. Although HIA argues that the transition period should be limited to the length of a typical product design cycle, the Commission has previously determined that two years is an appropriate period to accommodate the typical handset industry product development cycle, and the record in this proceeding further supports that conclusion. The Commission finds that a January 1, 2018 transition date for manufacturers and Tier I service providers is an appropriate timetable to account for any issues of technical feasibility and marketability.
34. The Commission affords an additional three months for non-Tier I service providers to meet the deployment benchmarks and related requirements for handsets newly subject to the hearing aid compatibility rules. In allowing additional time until the April 1, 2018 transition date, the Commission recognizes that non-Tier I service providers often have difficulty obtaining the newest handset models. While some commenters argue that the transition period should be longer in certain instances, the record does not demonstrate a need for an even greater transition period for non-Tier I service providers nor any reason to depart from prior hearing aid compatibility transitions in which the Commission afforded non-Tier I providers an additional three months beyond the transition period provided to Tier I service providers.
35. Given that many manufacturers and service providers began meeting benchmarks in 2014 for handsets with operations over the additional air interfaces and frequency bands covered by the 2011 ANSI Standard, including in the case of the LTE air interface, the Commission anticipates that these parties will continue to meet existing benchmarks during the transition. The Commission finds this expectation reasonable for any IP-based voice services, including VoLTE and Wi-Fi Calling, given that affected parties are already meeting deployment benchmarks for VoLTE operations, and the record reflects that manufacturers and service providers are in some cases already widely complying with hearing aid compatibility requirements.
36. The Commission notes that, due to a lack of testing equipment availability, manufacturers are currently permitted to obtain certification of handset models for inductive coupling capability under
37. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) included an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities of the rules considered in the
38. Until now, the hearing aid compatibility rules have generally been limited only to handsets used with two-way switched voice or data services classified as Commercial Mobile Radio Service (CMRS), and only to the extent they are provided over networks meeting certain architectural requirements that enable frequency reuse and seamless handoff. In the Fourth Report and Order, the Commission expands the scope of these rules to cover the emerging wireless technologies of today and tomorrow. The rules adopted here eliminate uncertainty about the scope of the Commission's hearing aid compatibility requirements and ensure that emerging voice services will be covered regardless of their classification for other regulatory purposes and without restriction to a particular network architecture. The rules now extend to handsets (those mobile device that contain a built-in speaker and are typically held to the ear in any of their ordinary uses) used with any terrestrial mobile service that enables two-way real-time voice communications among members of the public or a substantial portion of the public, including through the use of pre-installed software applications. The Commission also adopts a transition period that ensures industry stakeholders will be able to comply with these rules while continuing to innovate and invest. By expanding the scope of the Commission's rules to those consumer mobile devices that are typically held to the ear, are heavily relied on for voice communications, and operate in bands covered by approved standards—and only where compliance is technically feasible—we target the Commission's efforts to those situations where Commission action can make a significant impact and best serve the public interest. In this regard, the Commission has been mindful of its obligation to expand hearing aid compatibility requirements only in those instances where the record supports the necessary statutory findings mandated by the Hearing Aid Compatibility Act. This action will require that future technologies comply with the Commission's hearing aid compatibility rules, ensuring that consumers with hearing loss are not always trying to catch up to technology and providing industry with additional regulatory certainty.
39. There were no comments filed that specifically addressed the rules and policies proposed in the IRFA.
40. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by proposed rules. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (“SBA”).
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46. For purpose of this rulemaking, the Commission is concerned only with those ISPs that are classified either in the category of Wireless Communications Carriers (except satellite) or are classified in the category of All Other Telecommunications. The type of handsets which are the subject of the proposed rulemaking herein is primarily, if not exclusively, concerned with wireless handsets. ISPs which are classified under Wired Telecommunications are not relevant in the context of this particular rulemaking.
47. United States census data for 2007 show that there were 1,383 Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except satellite) firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 1,368 firms had employment of 999 or fewer employees. According to Commission data, 413 carriers reported that they were engaged in the provision of wireless telephony, including cellular service, PCS, and Specialized Mobile Radio (SMR) telephony services. Of these, an estimated 261 have 1,500 or fewer
48. With regard to the category of All Other Telecommunications, U.S. Census data for 2007 state that 2,383 firms were operational during that year. Of that number, 2,346 had annual receipts of less than $25 million. The Commission estimates that the majority of ISP firms in this category are small entities.
49.
50. The current hearing aid compatibility regulations impose a number of obligations on covered CMRS providers and the manufacturers of handsets used with those services, including: (1) Requirements to deploy a certain number or percentage of handset models that meet hearing aid compatibility standards, (2) “refresh” requirements on manufacturers to meet their hearing aid-compatible handset deployment benchmarks in part using new models, (3) a requirement that service providers offer hearing aid-compatible handsets with varying levels of functionality, (4) a requirement that service providers make their hearing aid-compatible models available to consumers for testing at their owned or operated stores, (5) point of sale disclosure requirements, (6) requirements to make consumer information available on the manufacturer's or service provider's Web site, and (7) annual reporting requirements.
51. The Fourth Report and Order expands the scope of the hearing aid compatibility rules to cover handsets used with any terrestrial mobile service that enables two-way real-time voice communications among members of the public or a substantial portion of the public, including through the use of pre-installed software applications and other Internet Protocol (IP)-based technologies. After the transition period, the rules the Commission adopts will extend to providers of wireless voice communications among members of the public or a substantial portion of the public using equipment that contains a built-in speaker and is typically held to the ear, and to the manufacturers of such equipment, the same hearing aid compatibility rules that currently apply to a defined category of CMRS. The Commission also clarifies that testing a handset for hearing aid compatibility does not require testing software voice functions except to the extent that such functionality is installed by the manufacturer or service provider or at their direction, for use by a consumer over a given interface. The Commission provides that the existing deployment benchmarks and related requirements will apply to newly covered handsets and air interfaces beginning January 1, 2018, with an additional three months allowed for handsets offered by non-Tier I service providers. The Commission further provides that, during this transition period, manufacturers may continue to obtain a hearing aid compatibility rating for a handset's operation on a given interface without testing software-enabled voice functions provided they meet applicable disclosure requirements.
52. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.”
53. In adopting the Fourth Report and Order, the Commission expands the scope of the wireless hearing aid compatibility rules to cover handsets used with any terrestrial mobile service that enables two-way real-time voice communications among members of the public or a substantial portion of the public, including through the use of pre-installed software applications. The change in scope ensures that handsets with emerging voice technologies are subject to hearing aid compatibility requirements. At the same time, the new scope eases burdens on manufacturers and service providers, including small entities, by permitting handsets already certified to continue to be treated as hearing aid-compatible without any need for recertification after the expanded scope of the hearing aid compatibility rules goes into effect. The new scope also eases burdens for small entities by applying the same
54. The Commission adopts a transition period in order to reduce burdens on small entities and others. The Commission finds it in the public interest to adopt a January 1, 2018 transition date (for manufacturers and Tier I carriers) and an April 1, 2018 transition date (for other service providers) for applying section 20.19's deployment benchmarks and related requirements to newly covered operations. Some commenters support longer time frames of up to an additional 12 months for small, rural, and/or Tier III service providers who, these commenters contend, do not have the same access to new handsets as Tier I providers. The Commission considered this alternative proposal and decided to afford an additional three months for non-Tier I service providers to meet the deployment benchmarks and related requirements for handsets newly subject to the hearing aid compatibility rules. In allowing additional time until the April 1, 2018 transition date, the Commission recognizes that non-Tier I service providers often have difficulty obtaining the newest handset models. The Commission determined that the record does not demonstrate a need for a longer transition period for non-Tier I service providers (including small entities) nor provide any reason to depart from prior hearing aid compatibility transitions in which the Commission afforded non-Tier I providers an additional three months beyond the transition period
55. The Commission will send a copy of the Fourth Report and Order, including this FRFA, in a report to be sent to Congress pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. In addition, the Commission will send a copy of the Fourth Report and Order, including this FRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the SBA. A copy of the Fourth Report and Order and FRFA (or summaries thereof) will also be published in the
56. The Fourth Report and Order does not contain substantive new or modified information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. It does not contain any substantive new or modified information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
57. The Commission will include a copy of this Fourth Report and Order and Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act,
58.
59.
60.
Communications common carriers, Communications equipment, Incorporation by reference, Radio.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 20 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a) 154(i), 157, 160, 201, 214, 222, 251(e), 301, 302, 303, 303(b), 303(r), 307, 307(a), 309, 309(j)(3), 316, 316(a), 332, 610, 615, 615a, 615b, 615c, unless otherwise noted.
(a) * * *
(1)
(ii) Prior to January 1, 2018 for Tier I carriers and April 1, 2018 for service providers other than Tier I carriers, the hearing aid compatibility requirements of this section apply to providers of digital CMRS in the United States to the extent that they offer real-time, two-way switched voice or data service that is interconnected with the public switched network and utilizes an in-network switching facility that enables the provider to reuse frequencies and accomplish seamless hand-offs of subscriber calls, and such service is provided over frequencies in the 698 MHz to 6 GHz bands.
(2)
(3) * * *
(iv) Service provider refers to a provider of digital mobile service to which the requirements of this section apply.
(b) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a wireless handset used for digital mobile service only over the 698 MHz to 6 GHz frequency bands is hearing aid-compatible with regard to radio frequency interference or inductive coupling if it meets the applicable technical standard set forth in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section for all frequency bands and air interfaces over which it operates, and the handset has been certified as compliant with the test requirements for the applicable standard pursuant to § 2.1033(d) of this chapter. A wireless handset that incorporates operations outside the 698 MHz to 6 GHz frequency bands is hearing aid-compatible if the handset otherwise satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Reapportionment of tribal Pacific whiting allocation; request for comments.
This document announces the reapportionment of 30,000 metric tons (mt) of Pacific whiting from the tribal allocation to the non-tribal commercial fishery sectors via automatic action on September 21, 2015, in order to allow
This rule is effective December 30, 2015, until December 31, 2015. The reapportionment of Pacific whiting is applicable September 21, 2015, until December 31, 2015. Comments will be accepted through January 20, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0017, by any of the following methods:
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Miako Ushio (West Coast Region, NMFS), phone: 206-526-4644 or email:
This document is accessible via the Internet at the Office of the Federal Register's Web site at
Pacific whiting (
This document announces the reapportionment of 30,000 mt of Pacific whiting from the tribal allocation to the non-tribal commercial sectors on September 21, 2015. Regulations at § 660.131(h) contain provisions that allow the Regional Administrator to reapportion Pacific whiting from the tribal allocation, specified at § 660.50, that will not be harvested by the end of the fishing year to other sectors.
For 2015, the Pacific Coast treaty tribes were allocated 56,888 mt of Pacific whiting. The best available information through September 14, 2015, indicated that there had been no harvest by the tribes to date, and at least 30,000 mt of the tribal allocation would not be harvested by December 31, 2015. To allow for full utilization of the resource, NMFS reapportioned 30,000 mt to the Shorebased IFQ Program, C/P Coop and MS Coop in proportion to each sector's original allocation on that date. Reapportioning this amount was expected to allow for greater attainment of the TAC while not limiting tribal harvest opportunities for the remainder of the year. Emails sent directly to fishing businesses and individuals, and postings on the West Coast Region's internet site were used to provide actual notice to the affected fishers. Reapportionment was effective the same day as the notice.
After the reapportionment, the amounts of Pacific whiting available for 2015 are:
• Tribal 26,888 mt;
• C/P Coop 100,873 mt;
• MS Coop 71,204 mt; and
• Shorebased IFQ Program 124,607.45 mt.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds that good cause exists for this notification to be issued without affording prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) because such notification would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. As previously noted, actual notice of the reapportionment was provided to fishers at the time of the action. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment on this reapportionment was impracticable because NMFS had insufficient time to provide prior notice and the opportunity for public comment between the time the information about the progress of the fishery needed to make this determination became available and the time at which fishery modifications had to be implemented in order to allow fishers access to the available fish during the remainder of the fishing season. For the same reasons, the AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness for these actions, required under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
These actions are authorized by §§ 660.55 (i), 660.60(d) and 660.131(h) and are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; inseason adjustment; request for comments.
NMFS is adjusting the 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) amounts for the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod fisheries. This action is necessary because NMFS has determined these TACs are incorrectly specified, and will ensure the BSAI pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod TACs are the appropriate amounts based on the best available scientific information. This action is consistent with the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), January 1, 2016, until the effective date of the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for BSAI groundfish, unless otherwise modified or superseded through publication of a notification in the
Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., A.l.t., January 16, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2014-0134, by any of the following methods:
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Mary Furuness, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) set the 2016 Bering Sea (BS) pollock TAC at 1,310,000 metric tons (mt), the 2016 BSAI Atka mackerel TAC at 54,817 mt, the 2016 BS Pacific cod TAC at 240,000 mt, and the AI Pacific cod TAC at 9,422 mt. In December 2015, the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) recommended a 2016 BS pollock TAC of 1,340,000 mt, which is more than the 1,310,000 mt TAC established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI. The Council also recommended a 2016 BSAI Atka mackerel TAC of 55,000 mt, which is more than the 54,817 mt TAC established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI. Furthermore, the Council recommended a 2016 BS Pacific cod TAC of 238,680 mt, and an AI Pacific cod TAC of 12,839 mt, which is less than the BS Pacific cod TAC of 240,000 mt, and more than the AI Pacific cod TAC of 9,422 mt established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI. The Council's recommended 2016 TACs, and the area and seasonal apportionments, are based on the Stock Assessment and Fishery Evaluation report (SAFE), dated November 2015, which NMFS has determined is the best available scientific information for these fisheries.
Steller sea lions occur in the same location as the pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod fisheries and are listed as endangered under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). Pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod are a principal prey species for Steller sea lions in the BSAI. The seasonal apportionment of pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod harvest is necessary to ensure the groundfish fisheries are not likely to cause jeopardy of extinction or adverse modification of critical habitat for Steller sea lions. NMFS published regulations and the revised harvest limit amounts for Atka mackerel, Pacific cod, and pollock fisheries to implement Steller sea lion protection measures to insure that groundfish fisheries of the BSAI are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the western distinct population segment of Steller sea lions or destroy or adversely modify their designated critical habitat (79 FR 70286, November 25, 2014). The regulations at § 679.20(a)(5)(i) specify how the BS pollock TAC will be apportioned. The regulations at § 679.20(a)(7) specify how the BSAI Pacific cod TAC will be apportioned. The regulations at § 679.20(a)(8) specify how the BSAI Atka mackerel TAC will be apportioned.
In accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(iii), (a)(2)(i)(B), and (a)(2)(iv), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that, based on the November 2015 SAFE report for this fishery, the current BSAI pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod TACs are incorrectly specified. Pursuant to § 679.25(a)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator is adjusting the 2016 BS pollock TAC to 1,340,000 mt, the 2016 BSAI Atka mackerel TAC to 55,000, the 2016 BS Pacific cod TAC to 238,680 mt, and the AI Pacific cod TAC to 12,839 mt. Therefore, Table 2 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) is revised consistent with this adjustment.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(5)(i), Table 5 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) is revised for the 2016 BS allocations of pollock TAC to the directed pollock fisheries and to the Community Development Quota (CDQ) directed fishing allowances consistent with this adjustment. The Steller sea lion protection measure final rule (79 FR 70286, November 25, 2014), sets harvest limits for pollock in the A season (January 20 to June 10) in Areas 543, 542, and 541, see § 679.20(a)(5)(iii)(B)(
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(8), Table 7 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) is revised for the 2016 seasonal and spatial allowances, gear shares, CDQ reserve, incidental catch allowance, and Amendment 80 allocation of the BSAI Atka mackerel TAC consistent with this adjustment.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(7), Table 9 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (80 FR 11919, March 5, 2015) is revised for the 2016 gear shares and seasonal allowances of the BSAI Pacific cod TAC consistent with this adjustment.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would allow for harvests that exceed the appropriate allocations for pollock, Atka mackerel, and Pacific cod in the BSAI based on the best scientific information available. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of December 28, 2015, and additional time for prior public comment would result in conservation concerns for the ESA-listed Steller sea lions.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until January 16, 2015.
This action is required by § 679.20 and § 679.25 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; inseason adjustment; request for comments.
NMFS is adjusting the 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) amounts for the Gulf of Alaska (GOA) pollock and Pacific cod fisheries. This action is necessary because NMFS has determined these TACs are incorrectly specified, and will ensure the GOA pollock and Pacific cod TACs are the appropriate amounts based on the best available scientific information for pollock and Pacific cod in the GOA. This action is consistent with the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), January 1, 2016, until the effective date of the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for GOA groundfish, unless otherwise modified or superseded through publication of a notification in the
Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., A.l.t., January 20, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2013-0147, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Obren Davis, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA (80 FR 10250, February 25, 2015) set the 2016 pollock TAC at 257,178 metric tons (mt) and the 2016 Pacific cod TAC at 75,202 mt in the GOA. In December 2015, the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) recommended a 2016 pollock TAC of 257,872 mt for the GOA, which is more than the 257,178 mt established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA. The Council also recommended a 2016 Pacific cod TAC of 71,925 mt for the GOA, which is less than the 75,202 mt established by the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA. The Council's recommended 2016 TACs, and the area and seasonal apportionments, are based on the Stock Assessment and Fishery Evaluation report (SAFE), dated November 2015, which NMFS has determined is the best available scientific information for these fisheries.
Steller sea lions occur in the same location as the pollock and Pacific cod fisheries and are listed as endangered under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). Pollock and Pacific cod are a principal prey species for Steller sea lions in the GOA. The seasonal apportionment of pollock and Pacific cod harvest is necessary to ensure the groundfish fisheries are not likely to cause jeopardy of extinction or adverse modification of critical habitat for Steller sea lions. The regulations at § 679.20(a)(5)(iv) specify how the pollock TAC will be apportioned. The regulations at § 679.20(a)(6)(ii) and § 679.20(a)(12)(i) specify how the Pacific cod TAC will be apportioned.
In accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(iii), (a)(2)(i)(B), and (a)(2)(iv) the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that, based on the November 2015 SAFE report for this fishery, the current GOA pollock and Pacific cod TACs are incorrectly specified. Consequently, pursuant to § 679.25(a)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator is adjusting the 2016 GOA pollock TAC to 257,872 mt and the 2016 GOA Pacific cod TAC to 71,925 mt. Therefore, Table 2 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA (80 FR 10250, February 25, 2015) is revised consistent with this adjustment.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(5)(iv), Table 4 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA (80 FR 10250, February 25, 2015) is revised for the 2016 TACs of pollock in the Central and Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
Pursuant to § 679.20(a)(6)(ii) and § 679.20(a)(12)(i), Table 6 of the final 2015 and 2016 harvest specifications for groundfish in the GOA (80 FR 10250, February 25, 2015) is revised for the 2016 seasonal apportionments and allocation of Pacific cod TAC in the GOA consistent with this adjustment.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would allow for harvests that exceed the appropriate allocations for Pacific cod based on the best scientific information available. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of December 28, 2015, and additional time for prior public comment would result in conservation concerns for the ESA-listed Steller sea lions.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until January 20, 2016.
This action is required by § 679.20 and § 679.25 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Helicopters Model AS332L2 and EC225LP helicopters. This proposed AD would require installing a cut-out for the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) rail support junction profiles and inspecting splices, frame 5295, and related equipment for a crack. This proposed AD is prompted by reports of cracks on frame 5295 and on splices installed to prevent those cracks. The proposed actions are intended to detect a crack in frame 5295, which could lead to loss of the helicopter frame's structural integrity and consequently, loss of helicopter control.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by March 7, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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•
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this proposed rule, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
Gary Roach, Aviation Safety Engineer, Regulations and Policy Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
We invite you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. We also invite comments relating to the economic, environmental, energy, or federalism impacts that might result from adopting the proposals in this document. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. To ensure the docket does not contain duplicate comments, commenters should send only one copy of written comments, or if comments are filed electronically, commenters should submit only one time.
We will file in the docket all comments that we receive, as well as a report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerning this proposed rulemaking. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed after the comment period has closed if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, issued AD No. 2014-0098-E, dated April 25, 2014, to correct an unsafe condition for AS332L2 and EC225LP helicopters. EASA AD No. 2014-0098-E applies to helicopters with a frame 5295 that have been reinforced by installing aluminium splices on the RH and LH fuselage external skins. EASA advises of a report of a crack detected on the reinforced frame during a scheduled inspection of a helicopter. According to EASA, the crack initiated on a splice in an area hidden by the overlapping junction profile of the cabin sliding door rail support, and then spread to the frame.
EASA states that a crack in frame 5295, if not detected and corrected, could lead to loss of structural integrity of the helicopter frame and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter. To address this condition, EASA issued AD No. 2014-0098-E to require repetitive inspections of the splices for a crack, as well as cutting out the rail support junction profiles to provide a convenient access to identify cracks in a splice.
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its technical representative, has notified us of the unsafe condition described in its AD. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all known relevant information and determined that an unsafe condition is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. EC225-05A038 for Model EC225LP helicopters and ASB No. AS332-05.00.97 for Model
We reviewed Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) No. 53-003, Revision No. 4, for Model EC225LP helicopters and SB No. 53.01.52, Revision 5, for Model AS332L2 helicopters, both dated July 23, 2010. The SBs specify procedures to reinforce frame 5295 by installing a new titanium plate underneath the fitting and a new widened aluminum splice below the upper corner of the door. We also reviewed Airbus Helicopters Service Bulletin No. 05-019, Revision 4, dated September 22, 2014, for Model EC225LP helicopters, which proposes that you cut out the junction profiles to perform periodic visual inspections.
This proposed AD would require the following before a splice reaches 1,700 hours time-in-service (TIS), within 50 hours TIS, or before the helicopter reaches 11,950 hours TIS, whichever occurs later:
• Installing the rail support cut-out and identifying the right-hand and left-hand junction profile.
• Inspecting each splice for a crack, and repairing or replacing the splice if there is a crack.
This proposed AD would then require, at intervals not to exceed 110 hours TIS, inspecting each splice for a crack, and repairing or replacing the splice if there is a crack.
The EASA AD requires contacting Airbus Helicopters if there is a crack in the affected parts. This proposed AD would make no such requirement.
The EASA AD sets various timelines for the repair or replacement of affected parts if a crack exists. This proposed AD would require the repair or replacement of affected parts before further flight if a crack exists.
We estimate that this proposed AD would affect 4 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 a work-hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
Installing the cut-outs on frame 5295 would require 40 work hours for a labor cost of $3,400. Parts would cost $5,000 for total cost per helicopter of $8,400 and $33,600 for the U.S. fleet.
Inspecting helicopter frame 5295 would require 2 work-hours for a labor cost of $170 per helicopter. No parts would be needed for a total U.S. fleet cost of $680 per inspection cycle.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this proposed AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Model AS332L2 and Model EC225LP helicopters with an extended aluminum splice installed on frame 5295, certificated in any category.
Helicopters with modification (MOD) 0726517 have an extended aluminum splice installed.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack on helicopter frame 5295. This condition could result in structural failure of the frame and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
We must receive comments by March 7, 2016.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Before a splice reaches 1,700 hours time-in-service (TIS), within 50 hours TIS, or before the helicopter reaches 11,950 hours TIS, whichever occurs later, do the following:
(i) Install the rail support cut-out and identify the right-hand and left-hand junction
(ii) Inspect each splice for a crack in the area depicted as Area Y in Figure 3 of ASB EC225-05A038 or ASB AS332-05.00.97, whichever is applicable to your helicopter. If a crack exists, repair or replace the splice before further flight.
(2) Thereafter at intervals not to exceed 110 hours TIS, inspect each splice for a crack in the area depicted as Area Y in Figure 3 of ASB EC225-05A038 or ASB AS332-05.00.97. If a crack exists, repair or replace the splice before further flight.
Installing rail support cut-outs in accordance with MOD 0728090 or Airbus Helicopters Service Bulletin No. 05-019, Revision 4, dated September 22, 2014, before the effective date of this AD is considered acceptable for compliance with the corresponding actions specified in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Gary Roach, Aviation Safety Engineer, Regulations and Policy Group, Rotorcraft Directorate, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
(1) Airbus Helicopters Service Bulletin (SB) No. 05-019, Revision 4, dated September 22, 2014, and SB No. 53-003 and SB No. 53.01.52, both Revision 4 and both dated July 12, 2010, which are not incorporated by reference, contain additional information about the subject of this AD. For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(2) The subject of this AD is addressed in the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2014-0098-E, dated April 25, 2014. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 5310, Fuselage Main, Structure.
Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation.
Notice of intent; extension of comment period.
This document extends the comment period for the notice of intent that was published in the
The deadline for submitting comments on the notice of intent published on December 7, 2015, (80 FR 75953), is extended from January 6, 2016 to January 21, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by docket number DOT-OST-2015-0246 using any one of the following methods:
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•
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Kathleen Blank Riether, Senior Attorney, Office of Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, U.S. Department of Transportation, by email at
On December 7, 2015, the Department announced its intention to explore the feasibility of conducting a reg neg to:
• Ensure that the same in-flight entertainment (IFE) available to all passengers is accessible to passengers with disabilities;
• Provide individuals dependent on in-flight medical oxygen greater access to air travel consistent with Federal safety and security requirements;
• Determine the appropriate definition of a service animal;
• Establish safeguards to reduce the likelihood that passengers wishing to travel with their pets will be able to falsely claim that their pets are service animals;
• Address the feasibility of accessible lavatories on new single aisle aircraft;
• Address whether premium economy is a different class of service from standard economy as airlines are required to provide seating accommodations to passengers with disabilities within the same class of service; and
• Require airlines to report annually to the Department the number of requests for disability assistance they receive and the time period within which wheelchair assistance is provided to passengers with disabilities.
The Department requested that all comments be submitted no later than January 6, 2016.
On December 21, 2015, the Department received a letter from 11 disability advocacy organizations representing diverse interests expressing their concern that the designated comment period does not allow enough time for stakeholders to fully consider the impact of engaging in a negotiated rulemaking on these issues of critical concern to people with disabilities. The disability advocacy organizations noted that as a result of the holidays, the 30-day comment period is effectively reduced by nearly two weeks. They noted that the notice and comment process would be more effective if all stakeholders had sufficient time to consider and comment on the efficacy of conducting a negotiated rulemaking on each of the proposed issues.
We agree that an extension of the comment period is appropriate given the effective shortening of the comment period by observance of the holidays. We believe that a 15-day extension to
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Cancellation of a notice of public hearing on proposed rulemaking.
This document cancels a public hearing on proposed regulations providing guidance to nonresident alien individuals and foreign corporations that hold certain financial products providing for payments that are contingent upon or determined by reference to U.S. source dividend payments.
The public hearing originally scheduled for January 15, 2016 at 10 a.m. is cancelled.
Oluwafunmilayo Taylor of the Publications and Regulations Branch, Legal Processing Division, Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number).
A notice of proposed rulemaking by cross-reference to temporary regulations and a notice of public hearing that appeared in the
The public comment period for these regulations expired on December 17, 2015. The notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing instructed those interested in testifying at the public hearing to submit a request to speak and an outline of the topics to be addressed. As of December 28, 2015, no one has requested to speak. Therefore, the public hearing scheduled for January 15, 2016 at 10 a.m. is cancelled.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to amend the geographic coordinates and modify the regulated use of anchorage “10” in the Delaware River in the vicinity of the Navy Yard in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. The proposed change would alter the size and use of the anchorage, reducing the anchorage in size and allowing the anchorage to be used as a general anchorage in the Delaware River. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before February 4, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2015-0825 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Lieutenant Brennan Dougherty, U.S. Coast Guard, Sector Delaware Bay, Chief Waterways Management Division, Coast Guard; telephone (215) 271-4851, email
The legal basis for this rule is: 33 U.S.C. 471, 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1, which collectively authorize the Coast Guard to define anchorage grounds.
On December, 12, 1967, the Coast Guard Fifth District published a final rule establishing an anchorage area on the Delaware River in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania in the
The new anchorage area would encompass all waters of the Delaware River on the north side of the channel along West Horseshoe Range, bounded as follows: Beginning off of the southeasterly corner of Pier 1 at 39°53′07″ N., 075°10′30″ W., thence south to the to the north edge of the channel along West Horseshoe Range to 39°52′58″ N., 075°10′29″ W., thence east along the edge of the channel to 39°52′56″ N., 075°09′53″ W., thence north to 39°53′07″ N., 075°09′54″ W., thence continuing west to the beginning point at 39°53′07″ N., 075°10′30″ W. Additionally, the restrictions on the use of the anchorage will be removed, permitting all vessels to anchor within its bounds. The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders (E.O.s) related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these
E.O.s 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under E.O. 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action because it will not interfere with existing maritime activity on the Delaware River. Moreover, it is enhancing navigational safety along the Delaware River by providing an additional anchorage for commercial and recreational vessels. The proposed anchorage maintains the same parallel distance along the channel boundaries as the existing anchorage. The impacts to navigational safety are expected to be minimal because the proposed anchorage area would not unnecessarily restrict traffic, as it is located outside of the established navigation channel. Vessels may navigate in, around, and through the proposed anchorage.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
For the reasons stated in paragraph IV.A, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves the alteration of the size and use of anchorage “10,” restricted Naval Anchorage. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(f) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Anchorage grounds.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 110 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 471, 1221 through 1236, 2071; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a) * * *
(11)
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend its regulations concerning copayments charged to certain veterans for medication required on an outpatient basis to treat non-service connected conditions. VA currently charges non-exempt veterans either $8 or $9 for each 30-day or less supply of medication, and under current regulations, a calculation based on the prescription drug component of the Medical Consumer Price Index would be used to determine the copayment amount in future years. This rulemaking would eliminate the formula used to calculate future rate increases and establish three classes of medications, identified as Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3. These tiers would be defined further in the rulemaking and would be distinguished in part based on whether the medications are available from multiple sources or a single source, with some exceptions. Copayment amounts would be fixed and would vary depending upon the class of medication. The following copayment amounts would be effective January 1, 2017: $5 for a 30-day or less supply of a Tier 1 medication, $8 for a 30-day or less supply of a Tier 2 medication, and $11 for a 30-day or less supply of a Tier 3 medication. For most veterans these copayment amounts would result in lower out-of-pocket costs, thereby encouraging greater adherence to prescribed medications and reducing the risk of fragmented care that results when veterans use multiple pharmacies to fill their prescriptions.
Written comments may be submitted by email through
Kristin Cunningham, Chief Business Office (10NB), Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 382-2508. (This is not a toll-free number.)
Under 38 U.S.C. 1722A(a), VA must require veterans to pay a $2 copayment for each 30-day supply of medication furnished on an outpatient basis for the treatment of a non-service-connected disability or condition, unless the veteran is exempt from having to pay a copayment because the veteran has a service-connected disability rated 50 percent or more, is a former prisoner of war, or has an annual income at or below the maximum annual rate of VA pension that would be payable if the veteran were eligible for pension. Under 38 U.S.C. 1722A(b), VA “may,” by regulation, increase that copayment amount and establish a maximum annual copayment amount (a “cap”). We have consistently interpreted section 1722A(b) to mean that VA has discretion to determine the appropriate copayment amount (as long as that amount is at least $2) for medication furnished on an outpatient basis for covered treatment, provided that any increase in the copayment amount or annual cap is the subject of a rulemaking proceeding. VA is also prohibited under 38 U.S.C. 1722A(a)(2) from requiring a veteran to pay an amount in excess of the cost to VA. We have implemented this statute in 38 CFR 17.110.
Under 38 CFR 17.110(b)(1), veterans are obligated to pay a copayment for each 30-day or less supply of medication provided by VA on an outpatient basis (other than medication administered during treatment). Under the current regulation, for the period from July 1, 2010, through December 31, 2015, the copayment amount for veterans in priority categories 2 through 6 of VA's health care system is $8. 38 CFR 17.110(b)(1)(i). For the period July 1, 2010, through December 31, 2015, the copayment amount for veterans in priority categories 7 and 8 is $9. 38 CFR 17.110(b)(1)(ii). Thereafter, the
Current § 17.110(b)(2) also includes a “cap” on the total amount of copayments in a calendar year for a veteran enrolled in one of VA's health care enrollment system priority categories 2 through 6. Through December 31, 2015, the annual cap is set at $960. Thereafter, the cap increases “by $120 for each $1 increase in the copayment amount” applicable to veterans enrolled in one of VA's health care enrollment system priority categories 2 through 6.
VA has found that the current regulatory model has produced and will continue to produce copayment amounts that increase at a higher rate than the larger, non-VA retail market for prescribed medications. For this reason, VA has published a series of rulemakings that have “frozen” copayments from 2009 to the present. In these rulemakings, we stated that these freezes were appropriate because higher copayments reduce the utilization of VA pharmacy benefits. Even with the freezes VA has instituted, however, VA's copayment rates have exceeded those charged in other pharmacy benefits programs.
In addition to higher copayments increasing the risk that veterans will not fill their prescriptions, VA's lack of competitive copayment pricing increases the likelihood that veterans will obtain their prescribed medications from other sources. Fragmentation of prescription records to more than one pharmacy increases the risk of an incomplete medication record, which can lead to unintended adverse reactions. Different clinicians caring for the patient may not be aware of all the medications that the patient is taking. VA medical providers need to be aware of all of the medications a veteran is taking to avoid unintended prescribing of contraindicated medications. Through this rulemaking, we believe that we can prevent or minimize these unintended or adverse effects of patients choosing multiple pharmacies to fill their prescriptions.
A large body of academic research supports this position. Researchers have found that prescription copayments can affect medication adherence (Lieberman, D.A., J.M. Polinski, N.K. Choudhry, J. Avorn, and M.A. Fischer. 2014. Unintended consequences of a Medicaid prescription copayment plan. Medical Care. 52(5):422). Research also has found that higher copayment levels are associated with poor adherence, discontinuation, and non-initiation of therapy (Mann, B.S., L. Barnieh, K. Tang, D.J.T. Campbell, F. Clement, B. Hemmelgarn, M. Tonelli, D. Lorenzetti, B.J. Manns. Association between drug insurance cost sharing strategies and outcomes in patients with chronic diseases: a systematic review. PLOS ONE. 9(3):e89168). These findings are evident in a veteran study regarding lipid-lowering medication adherence. (Doshi, J.A., Zhu, J., Lee, B.Y., Kimmel, S.E., Volpp, K.G. 2009. Impact of a Prescription Copayment Increase on Lipid-Lowering Medications Adherence in Veterans. Circulation. 2009;119:390-397.). Other studies have also found that high copayment requirements can negatively influence adherence to prescription medication plans (Kazerooni, R., K. Vu, A. Tazikawa, C. Broadhead, and A.P. Morreale. Association of copayment and socioeconomic status with hormonal contraceptive adherence in a female veteran population. 2014. Women's Health Issues. 24(2):e237). Another team of researchers found that adherence rates are negatively affected by copayment rates, and that these effects vary based upon the disease burden of the patient; they also found that patients with low-comorbidity risks were more likely to be more affected by copayments, which may subsequently lead to adverse events that require more intensive and expensive health care services (Wang, V., C.F. Liu, C.L. Bryson, N.D. Sharp, and M.L. Maciejewski. 2011. Does medication adherence following a copayment increase differ by disease burden? HSR: Health Services Research. 46(6):1963).
The proposed rule would focus on the type of medication being prescribed and would remove the automatic escalator provision, meaning that changes in copayments would only occur through subsequent rulemakings. Veterans exempt by law from copayments under 38 U.S.C. 1722A(a)(3) would continue to be exempt. VA proposes to include a definition of “medication” and to establish three classes of medications: Tier 1 medications, Tier 2 medications, and Tier 3 medications. Tiers 1 and 2 would include multi-source medications, a term that would be defined in § 17.110(b)(1)(iv). Tier 3 would include medications that retain patent protection and exclusivity and are not multi-source medications. Copayment amounts would vary depending upon the Tier in which the medication is classified. A 30-day or less supply of Tier 1 medications would have a copayment of $5. For Tier 2 medications, the copayment would be $8, and for Tier 3 medications, the copayment would be $11.
This proposed change would provide a financial benefit to many veterans because it would reduce their copayment liabilities for most medications and their overall liability under the copayment cap. An average veteran would be better off under this model than the current approach in nearly every scenario; the sole exception is veterans who only fill Tier 3 medications, but even this group would face the same copayment liabilities under the current regulation in 2017, and would face higher copayments in future years. These veterans would also often pay substantially more in the private sector to fill the same prescriptions. Based on a comparison of the current and proposed copayment amounts, we anticipate that most veterans would realize between a 10 and 50 percent reduction in their overall pharmacy copayment liability each year based on historic utilization patterns. By our estimates, 94 percent of copayment eligible veterans would experience no cost increase, and 80 percent would realize a savings of between $1 and $5 per 30-day equivalent of medications. The proposed copayment amounts intends to support patient adherence, reduce instances of veterans not filling prescription medications and assisting veteran health improvements from chronic disease. The following table shows how copayments would vary for veterans and different types of medications. Annual savings would be even greater for veterans with a large number of medication copayments. VA estimates that at least 50 percent of all billable prescriptions would be in Tier 1, with no more than 35 percent in Tier 2, and approximately 15 percent in Tier 3. Exact estimates for Tier 1 and Tier 2 are not possible at this time and would depend on the final list of medications selected for Tier 1.
Initially, VA would make a clarifying amendment to § 17.110(a) to define the term “medication.” As noted previously, VA is required by 38 U.S.C. 1722A to charge veterans at least a $2 copayment for each 30-day or less supply of medication furnished on an outpatient basis for the treatment of non-service-connected disabilities or conditions, unless the veteran is otherwise exempt. VA has interpreted the term “medication” in the past to include prescription and over-the-counter medications as determined by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), but not medical supplies and nutritional items. This change would clarify that interpretation in regulation. Medical supplies and nutritional items, such as bandages, diabetic supplies, and catheters, would be excluded from the definition of medication, and hence not subject to the medication copayment requirements of this section. These are not considered medications and are not regulated by FDA as such, and consequently should be excluded from this definition.
Medications are conventionally classified as either “generic” or “brand name” medications, and generic medications generally are less expensive and more available than brand name medications. However, this simple classification does not capture all of the factors that affect the price and availability of medications. For example, when a brand manufacturer's patent protection and/or regulatory exclusivity ends, it sometimes authorizes the marketing of its brand name medication under a private label at generic prices; the FDA describes these products as “authorized generics” at 21 CFR 314.3. In addition, even without the entry of an authorized generic, the price of most brand name drugs declines as generic competitors enter the market. Because generic medications, authorized generic medications, and brand name medications that face competition from generic medications typically are sold at lower prices than brand name medications that do not face such competition, VA would include all three classes of medications in a single class for copayment purposes. Because brand name medications that face competition from generic medications may still be sold at a higher price than their generic equivalents, however, VA would only include those brand name medications that face generic competition and are procured by VA under a contracting strategy in place that makes the brand name medication lower in cost than other generic sources. VA would be able to determine if these medications are lower in cost because the contracting strategy would have reviewed available prices and identified prices that are preferable to generic competition.
Some medications also have multiple brand name products capable of being substituted because they work in the same way and in a comparable amount of time with the same active ingredients. This competition between brand name medications generally results in a lower price and so, VA would also include them in the same class as generic medications, authorized generic medications, and brand name medications that face competition from generic medications and are procured by VA under a contracting strategy in place that makes the brand name medication lower in cost than other generic sources. To avoid confusion that could arise by placing brand name medications and generic medications in the same class, VA would simply refer to these four types of medications together as multi-source medications. The term multi-source medication would be defined in § 17.110(b)(1)(iv)(A). VA would then designate medications as Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3. The first two tiers would consist of multi-source medications, but those in Tier 1 would have been selected by VA using a process described below and would be available at a lower copayment than medications in Tier 2. Tier 3 medications would include all other medications and would have the highest copayment amount.
VA proposes to amend § 17.110(b)(1) by revising the subparagraphs that currently identify the copayment rates for different priority groups of veterans. Specifically, VA would revise paragraph (b)(1)(i) to state that the copayment amount for a 30-day or less supply of Tier 1 medications, as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(iv), is $5. Paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section would state the copayment amount for a 30-day or less supply of Tier 2 medications is $8, and paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section would state the copayment amount for a 30-day or less supply of Tier 3 medications is $11.
These copayment amounts are cost competitive with other health care plans, while still in line with VA's appropriated resources. Many large retailers offer a limited range of generic or multi-source medications between $1 and $4, but these plans often include premiums of more than $10 per month. VA does not charge veterans a premium, so their only out-of-pocket costs are the copayment amounts. In this context, we believe the $5 and $8 copayment amounts are comparable to what many veterans would pay for selected generic or multi-source medications from these retailers. The $11 amount for Tier 3 medications is a small increase ($2) for veterans in priority groups 7 and 8, and a modest increase ($3) for veterans in priority groups 2 through 6. The vast majority of our billable prescriptions (85 percent) are for medications that would be categorized as Tier 1 or Tier 2. For veterans receiving Tier 1 medications, there would be a price decrease of $3 in priority groups 2 through 6 and $4 in priority groups 7 and 8. The price for Tier 2 medications would remain unchanged for veterans in priority groups 2 through 6, but veterans in priority groups 7 and 8 would experience a ($1) price decrease for medications in this category. Even with an increase in the copayment amount for Tier 3 medications from their current levels, VA's pharmacy copayments for these drugs would remain a significant
VA estimates that the copayment amounts would increase three times over 6 years if the current regulations are left unchanged. These increases are projected using the current regulation's methodology because VA has taken action to freeze medication copayments over the last several years, which has generated greater separation from the initial CPI-P as of September 30, 2001.
VA would define the three classes of medications in proposed paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B)-(D), which would be Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 3 medications.
As briefly described above, VA would define a “multi-source medication” that could be included in either Tier 1 or Tier 2 to include four types of medications. First, this would include a medication that has been and remains approved by the FDA either under sections 505(b)(2) or 505(j) of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA, 21 U.S.C. 355) and that has an A-rating in the current version of the FDA's Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (the Orange Book), or under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (PHSA, 42 U.S.C. 262) and that has been granted an I or B rating in the current version of FDA's Lists of Licensed Biological Products with (1) Reference Product Exclusivity and (2) Biosimilarity or Interchangeability Evaluations (the Purple Book). Second, a multi-source medication would also include medications that have been and remain approved by the FDA pursuant to FDCA section 505(b)(1) or PHSA section 351(a) and which are referenced by at least one FDA-approved product that meets the first definition of multi-source medication. These medications would be included only if they are covered by a contracting strategy in place with pricing such that it is lower in cost than other generic sources. Third, multi-source medications would include those medications that have been and remain approved by the FDA pursuant to FDCA section 505(b)(1) or PHSA section 351(a) and have the same active ingredient(s), work in the same way and in a comparable amount of time, and are determined by VA to be substitutable for another medication that has been and remains approved by the FDA pursuant to FDCA section 505(b)(1) or PHSA section 351(a). Insulin and levothyroxine are two examples of such medications. Finally, multi-source medications would also include a listed drug, as defined in 21 CFR 314.3, that has been approved under FDCA section 505(c) and is marketed, sold, or distributed directly or indirectly to retail class of trade with either labeling, packaging (other than repackaging as the listed drug in blister packs, unit doses, or similar packaging for use in institutions), product code, labeler code, trade name, or trademark that differs from that of the listed drug. These definitions cover the full range of medications that are broadly available and lack patent protection and exclusivity and which can be procured at a low price. This includes all generic medications, as well as brand name medications that are marketed as generic medications and medications with multiple substitutable options. Such medications are widely prescribed and used by both VA and non-VA providers and represent generally the lowest cost medications available. As such, these are ideally suited for a lower copayment rate.
VA offers these medications to address a variety of chronic conditions common in our patient population, such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. If a significant portion of these prescriptions are filled with VA because of this rule, the potential clinical benefits could be far-reaching and significant, and therefore, we would encourage the use of these drugs by providing lower copayments. (We also note that, in addition to being a clear benefit to our veteran patients, far-reaching improved health outcomes would necessarily lead to lower future health care costs, although we cannot quantify these predicted cost benefits.) VA would separate multi-source medications into two categories: Tier 1 medications and Tier 2 medications. Tier 1 medications would be multi-source medications that meet all of the criteria in proposed paragraph (b)(2) as explained in further detail below. Tier 2 would include multi-source medications that do not meet all of the criteria in (b)(2).
Tier 3 medications would be defined as a medication approved by the FDA under a New Drug Application (NDA) or a biological product approved by the FDA pursuant to a biologics license agreement (BLA) that retains its patent protection and exclusivity and is not a multi-source medication identified in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A)(3). FDA publishes a list of the medications that have been approved under NDAs on its Web site at
Proposed paragraph (b)(2) would identify how VA will determine whether a multi-source medication qualifies as a Tier 1 medication; all other multi-source medications would be Tier 2 medications under proposed paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(C). Although we believe that lowering copayments for prescription medications would improve clinical outcomes for veterans who take those medications, for budgetary reasons we must limit the number of medications that would qualify for a lower copayment amount as selected multi-source medications. This limitation should effectively target VA's health care resources to achieve maximum health benefits for veterans. For example, the reduction in copayments for affected medication must be significant enough to increase the likelihood that veterans would choose to fill their medications with VA, thereby leading to the clinical benefits we discuss above. Reducing the copayment amount for a limited group of medications that are used on a long-term basis by a large number of veterans would allow us to reduce the copayment by a significant amount while still extending this financial and clinical benefit to as many veterans as possible.
Accordingly, in addition to excluding Tier 3 medications through the definition of the term “multi-source medication,” VA proposes to use seven exclusionary criteria to limit the medications that would be considered as Tier 1 medications entitled to the lowest copayment amount of $5. A medication must meet all of these criteria to be selected as a Tier 1 medication. These criteria would appear in proposed paragraph (b)(2) and its subparagraphs. VA would use these criteria not less than once per year to select which medications would qualify as Tier 1 medications. This annual (or more frequent) review would ensure that VA regularly reviews new medications and changes in prescription patterns and patient needs.
The first five criteria appear in paragraph (b)(2)(i). The first, in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A), would be that VA's acquisition cost for the medication must be less than or equal to $10 for a 30-day supply of medication. This is an economic criterion designed to limit the effects of the proposed rule on VA's overall budget. The $10 amount is currently the greatest amount that VA may consider while also keeping the cost of the reduced copayment amounts within acceptable budgetary limits.
Second, in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B), VA would exclude topical
Third, under proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C), we would require that the medication be on the VA National Formulary (VANF). The VANF is a list of medications approved by VA for VA patients based on considerations of safety, quality, effectiveness, and the ability of the medications to meet the needs of VA's unique patient population. Requiring a medication to be on the VANF ensures that VA has already reviewed the medication in terms of its safety, quality, effectiveness, and general applicability, thereby ensuring sound clinical care. Medications that are not on the VANF are not approved on a national level, even if they may have specialized uses and may be appropriate for prescribing in individual cases. Non-formulary medications can be prescribed by VA when clinically warranted, on a case-by-case basis. However, these medications are much less likely to meet VA's goal of reaching the largest number of VA patients possible through this rulemaking. In addition, a drug may not be included on the VANF because we have determined that another medication from the same drug class is selected based on clinical effectiveness. Finally, many non-VANF drugs are prescribed by VA clinicians to treat conditions with a low prevalence among veterans or to treat non-chronic conditions. Requiring that the medication be on the VANF is medically appropriate and consistent with the purposes of this rulemaking. VA periodically revises the medications that appear on the formulary, and to the extent it appears that a drug meets the other criteria of this proposed rule, and a lower copayment for that drug would serve the clinical objectives animating this rulemaking, we would consider adding the drug to the VANF.
Fourth, under proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D), VA would exclude antibiotics that primarily are used for short periods of time to treat infections. These medications may lead to harmful health outcomes if overprescribed, and this exclusion is intended to support clinical care. A veteran in need of antibiotics for a short-term illness likely only pays a single copayment for this prescription during the course of a year. Accordingly, the clinical incentive for patient medication adherence over time that VA intends to promote through this rulemaking is less relevant for these medications.
Fifth, under proposed paragraph (b)(2)(i)(E), VA would only consider medications that primarily are prescribed to either treat or manage a chronic condition, or to reduce the risk of adverse health outcomes of secondary conditions that are often more dangerous than the chronic condition itself. We believe this is crucial to maximizing the clinical benefit under this proposed rule. For example, VA would select medications used to treat high blood pressure because they reduce the risks of heart attack, stroke, and kidney failure. Some examples of chronic conditions prevalent among veterans include hypertension (more than 40 percent of enrolled veterans), diabetes (25 percent), and various types of heart disease (between 5 and 10 percent). VA anticipates that reducing copayments for medications treating these conditions would improve health outcomes for veterans by increasing the rate of adherence to prescribed medication regimens. VA may also benefit from secondary cost savings resulting from improved health outcomes and reduced demand for high cost treatments, such as surgery, for potentially life-threatening conditions that could have been prevented.
This criterion is also crucial because it serves to focus budgetary resources onto drugs used to treat and prevent conditions for which we expect the clinical benefits of this proposed rule will be the most pronounced. Improving our ability to monitor patients' compliance and increased patient compliance with treatment plans would have the most dramatic health benefits for veterans who take medications that fall within this criterion. It is well established that adherence to medications used in the management of chronic diseases such as hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia and heart disease slows progression of major diseases that result in disability and increased consumption of health care resources.
Further, we propose that conditions that persist for 3 months or more will be considered chronic. We are aware that 38 CFR 3.317(a)(4) provides that a condition must persist for 6 months before it may be considered chronic. However, that section is designed to identify conditions that form the basis of a monthly monetary payment of compensation, which is a different goal than the treatment of a medical condition. Treating a persistent medical condition can be critical in preventing additional or worsening symptoms as well as secondary illnesses. Moreover, § 3.317(a)(4) of 38 CFR deals with undiagnosed illnesses arising out of the comparatively narrow context of the Gulf War. When a disease is difficult to diagnose, requiring a longer period of persistence helps VA ensure that condition in question actually is chronic as that term is commonly understood. We would also apply this criterion to conditions, not to individual patients. For example, just because it is technically possible for a common cold to persist for 3 months does not mean that colds are chronic. Rather, conditions which typically persist for 3 months in most or all patients would meet this criterion. For example, VA would select medications used to treat high blood pressure because that condition typically persists for more than 3 months and, under the proposed rule, we would charge the $5 copayment for such medication (as long as it met all other criteria) regardless of whether the patient for whom the medication is prescribed has actually been diagnosed as having had high blood pressure for 3 months.
Under the sixth criterion in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(ii), we would consider, among those medications that satisfy all of the criteria in paragraph (b)(2)(i), those medications that are among the top 75 most commonly prescribed multi-source medications based on the number of prescriptions issued for a 30-day or less supply on an outpatient basis during a fixed period of time to determine our annual list of Tier 1 medications. This would enable VA to consider veteran utilization when adopting the list. By looking at how many prescriptions are filled by veterans, VA can identify those medications that are in greatest demand and reduce their copayments, thereby providing the greatest benefit to veterans in terms of cost reduction. VA clinicians are also most likely to prescribe medications that have the greatest clinical benefit to veterans, and as a result, veterans are also likely to benefit from improved health care delivery. This factor would also ensure that, as the clinical needs of veterans change, VA reassesses the list to determine if new drugs should qualify
After identifying the top multi-source medications prescribed that also satisfy the criteria in paragraph (b)(2)(i), VA would evaluate these medications to determine their clinical value under the seventh criterion, which appears in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iii), and in the context of VA's available budgetary resources, as described in more detail below. VA would make a medical determination concerning the clinical value of each entry on the list of the most utilized medications. New developments, such as a shift in the health care needs of the veteran population, newly released data or clinical treatment guidelines, or newly released multi-source medications could help VA determine which medications should be Tier 1 medications, but the possible range of factors are too numerous to be set forth in regulation. For example, many veterans have cardiovascular conditions that require treatment or management, such as high blood pressure, high cholesterol, heart disease, diabetes, and others. VA would take the prevalence of these conditions into account when selecting medications to ensure that a large number of veterans would be able to receive medications at a reduced copayment. As another example, VA would consider the recommendations of clinical practice guidelines it follows in the treatment of serious, chronic conditions. These clinical practice guidelines are developed in consultation with experts in each disease and are based on the latest available research in terms of efficacy and health outcomes. A medication that is identified as a first course of treatment would likely receive preference over a medication that is primarily used as second treatment option. In a similar way, VA would also look to empirical data on morbidity and mortality rates for conditions following treatment with certain medications. If one medication does a better job at improving health outcomes than another based on these measures, VA would likely select that better performing medication. There may be certain medications that treat a larger segment of the population than others, and VA would likely consider these attributes as well. If one medication is particularly effective with a sub-group, but is less effective with the average patient, it would be less likely to be selected. Similarly, VA may apply public health principles to identify conditions that are either under-treated or that, if treated early, can prevent the onset of more complex conditions that are more expensive to treat. For example, VA may look for medications that treat glaucoma or osteoporosis, which have a low prevalence in the veteran population, but that if treated and managed early can prevent more serious conditions such as blindness or broken bones. Ultimately, these determinations would be made by VA using the clinical expertise of its physicians, pharmacists, public health specialists, and other clinicians as appropriate to ensure that VA is able to offer at a reduced copayment the right mix of medications for its patient population. This approach is commonly used by other health care plans to select medications under their pharmacy benefits programs. As new multi-source medications become approved and available, VA would need to reassess this list and, as the health profile of its patient population changes, VA would need to maintain flexibility to ensure that the medications identified for a reduced copayment are appropriate.
The purpose of the criterion of clinical value in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) would be to ensure that those medications that would most improve clinical care would be available at a reduced copayment; however, we note that this evaluation should not be read to suggest that other multi-source mediations do not have clinical value. The Tier 1 and Tier 2 classifications are designed simply to distinguish between two similar classes of medications and do not reflect on the quality of the medication itself. VA would make determinations regarding which medications should be included in Tier 1 in light of available budgetary resources to ensure that it does not select more medications than it can afford to maintain at a reduced copayment amount.
The decision regarding which medications qualify for Tier 1 would also be made in the context of VA's available budgetary resources, as noted in proposed paragraph (b)(2)(iii). Each year, VA assembles a budget request that is carefully calculated based on its enrolled patient population, their clinical needs, and the cost of delivering health care. Included in VA's budget projections is an estimate for how much VA will receive from first- and third-party payers for certain types of treatment. These payments are deposited into the Medical Care Collections Fund (MCCF). Medication copayments are one source of revenue for the MCCF. In each year's budget recommendation submitted by VA, we identify the MCCF estimates, and in each budget enacted by Congress, the MCCF estimates are also included. VA's budget for the Medical Services, Medical Support and Compliance, and Medical Facilities accounts are appropriated in advance under 38 U.S.C. 117, so VA knows in one year what resources it will have in the following year. VA would use these figures to determine how it can enhance the value of the pharmacy portion of the medical benefits package by offering the maximum number of Tier 1 medications while maintaining the established budget parameters. VA does not anticipate dramatic changes in the numbers or types of medications that are available for a Tier 1 reduced copayment from year to year.
VA is aware that as a result of using these proposed criteria, some veterans who have conditions that are very serious but not very common may receive no Tier 1 medication copayment reduction under the proposed rule. Whether a particular veteran realizes reduced medication expenditures in a given year would depend on the medications VA selects for a reduced copayment amount and the medications prescribed to that veteran. However, as explained above, the purpose of this rule is to improve clinical outcomes for a large number of veterans while maintaining a responsible budget. VA does not expect that veterans' obligations for copayments would increase by a notable amount, and any increases resulting from this rule would be less than they would have been over time with the current regulations.
VA would also modify § 17.110(b)(3) to state that VA would publish a list of Tier 1 medications not less than once per year in the
VA has published a list of medications that it would classify as Tier 1 medications on its Web site,
VA would further modify § 17.110(b) by moving the discussion of the copayment cap from current paragraph (b)(2) to a new paragraph (b)(5). VA would amend this provision, which establishes a current rate and a methodology for increasing that rate, and replace it with a single rate that could only be changed through subsequent rulemaking. VA proposes to establish a fixed copayment cap of $700 in a calendar year for all enrolled veterans. VA is extending application of the copayment cap to include veterans in priority groups 7 and 8. A typical veteran fills two to three prescriptions per month, and at the current copayment rates, a veteran must fill 10 prescriptions per month each month of the year to hit the copayment cap. Presently, less than three percent of all veterans realize savings as a result of the copayment cap. With a copayment cap of $700, veterans filling six to eight prescriptions per month would likely reach the cap over a calendar year. Reducing the copayment cap would also provide a unique benefit to veterans who exclusively use Tier 3 medications, as their total annual expenses would be no more than $700, whereas under the current regulations, they would be $960 or more. We estimate approximately nine percent of veterans subject to a copayment would benefit from a $700 copayment cap. If, in the future, VA engaged in further rulemaking to raise the copayment rates from those proposed in this rule, it could also then consider whether to raise the copayment cap.
VA would also make a formatting revision to paragraph (b)(4), titling this section “Veterans Choice Program,” to maintain consistency with other paragraph headings. This would result in no formal or substantive change to the copayment rule articulated in this paragraph for the Veterans Choice Program, authorized by 38 CFR 17.1500-17.1540.
The Code of Federal Regulations, if revised as proposed by this rulemaking, would represent the exclusive legal authority on this subject. No contrary rules or procedures would be authorized. All VA guidance would be read to conform with this rulemaking once made final, if possible or, if not possible, such guidance would be superseded by this rulemaking.
This proposed rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) defines a “significant regulatory action,” requiring review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), as “any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive Order.”
The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action have been examined, and it has been determined that it is an economically significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking proposes to amend its regulations concerning copayments and the copayment cap charged to certain Veterans for medications required on an outpatient basis to treat non-service connected conditions. In addition, this rule would eliminate the formula used to calculate future rate increases and change the copayment amount beginning January 1, 2017, to $5 for a 30-day supply of Tier 1 medications, to $8 for a 30-day supply of Tier 2 medications, and $11 for a 30-day supply of Tier 3 medications. The Tiers of medications would be defined in regulation, but generally would reflect selected multi-source medications (Tier 1), other multi-source medications (Tier 2), and single source medications (Tier 3), with certain exceptions.
Based on a comparison of the current and proposed copayment amounts, we anticipate that most veterans would realize between a 10 and 50 percent reduction in their overall pharmacy copayment liability each year based on historic utilization patterns. By our estimates, 94 percent of copayment eligible veterans would experience no cost increase, and 80 percent would realize a savings of between $1 and $5 per 30-day equivalent of medications. The proposed copayment amounts are intended to support patient adherence, reduce instances of veterans not filling prescription medications and assisting veteran health improvements from chronic disease. Table 1 above, shows how copayments would vary for veterans and different types of medications. Annual savings would be even greater for veterans with a large number of medication copayments. VA estimates that at least 50 percent of all billable prescriptions would be in Tier 1, with no more than 35 percent in Tier 2, and approximately 15 percent in Tier 3. Exact estimates for Tier 1 and Tier 2
VA anticipates the implementation of a tiered copayment plan in CY2017 would reduce First Party Pharmacy copayment revenue from current budget levels for Veterans in PGs 2 through 8 who are required to make a copayment for certain medications. VA's regulatory impact analysis can be found as a supporting document at
The Secretary hereby certifies that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612). This proposed rule would generally be small business neutral. The rule would not affect pharmaceutical manufacturers, as it does not change the amount VA pays for medications to supply its pharmaceutical benefits program, only the amount VA collects from veterans as copayments. To the extent there are effects on pharmaceutical companies, we believe it would most likely have a positive affect if VA is purchasing more medications and supplies from them. Similarly, VA does not believe that this rule would have a significant economic impact on small pharmacies. It is possible that some veterans would choose to fill their prescriptions within VA rather than from a community pharmacist, but we anticipate such a shift would not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of such entities. Therefore, under 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this rulemaking would be exempt from the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.
This proposed rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801,
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. This proposed rule would have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments, or on the private sector.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance numbers and titles for the programs affected by this document are 64.007, Blind Rehabilitation Centers; 64.008, Veterans Domiciliary Care; 64.009, Veterans Medical Care Benefits; 64.010, Veterans Nursing Home Care; 64.011, Veterans Dental Care; 64.012, Veterans Prescription Service; 64.013, Veterans Prosthetic Appliances; 64.014, Veterans State Domiciliary Care; 64.015, Veterans State Nursing Home Care; 64.019, Veterans Rehabilitation Alcohol and Drug Dependence; and 64.022, Veterans Home Based Primary Care.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Robert L. Nabors II, Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on September 1, 2015, for publication.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Alcoholism, Claims, Day care, Dental health, Drug abuse, Foreign relations, Government contracts, Grant programs—health, Grant programs—Veterans, Health care, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Homeless, Medical and dental schools, Medical devices, Medical research, Mental health programs, Nursing homes, Philippines, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Scholarships and fellowships, Travel and transportation expenses, Veterans.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, VA proposes to amend 38 CFR part 17 as follows:
38 U.S.C. 501, and as noted in specific sections.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) For a 30-day or less supply of Tier 1 medications, the copayment amount is $5.
(ii) For a 30-day or less supply of Tier 2 medications, the copayment amount is $8.
(iii) For a 30-day or less supply of Tier 3 medications, the copayment amount is $11.
(iv) For purposes of this section:
(A)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B)
(C)
(D)
(2)
(i) A medication must meet all of the following criteria:
(A) The VA acquisition cost for the medication is less than or equal to $10 for a 30-day supply of medication;
(B) The medication is not a topical cream, a product used to treat musculoskeletal conditions, an antihistamine, or a steroid-containing medication;
(C) The medication is available on the VA National Formulary;
(D) The medication is not an antibiotic that is primarily used for short periods of time to treat infections; and
(E) The medication primarily is used to either treat or manage a chronic condition, or to reduce the risk of adverse health outcomes secondary to the chronic condition, for example, medications used to treat high blood pressure to reduce the risks of heart attack, stroke, and kidney failure. For purposes of this section, conditions that typically are known to persist for 3 months or more will be considered chronic.
(ii) The medication must be among the top 75 most commonly prescribed multi-source medications that meet the criteria in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, based on the number of prescriptions issued for a 30-day or less supply on an outpatient basis during a fixed period of time.
(iii) VA must determine that the medication identified provides maximum clinical value consistent with budgetary resources.
(3)
(4)
(5)
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) seeks comment on revisions to the Commission's wireless hearing aid compatibility rules. The Commission proposes to adopt a consensus approach developed cooperatively by consumer advocates and industry trade associations, which would require manufacturers and service providers to increase the percentage of new wireless handset models that are hearing aid compatible over time, culminating in a system in which all wireless handset models are accessible to people with hearing loss.
Interested parties may file comments on or before January 14, 2016, and reply comments on or before January 29, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by WT Docket No. 15-285; FCC 15-155, by any of the following methods:
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In addition to filing comments with the Secretary, a copy of any comments on the Paperwork Reduction Act information collection modifications proposed herein should be submitted to the Commission via email to
For further information regarding the NPRM, contact Michael Rowan, Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, (202) 418-1883, email
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) in WT Docket No. 15-285; FCC 15-155, adopted November 19, 2015, and released on November 20, 2015. This summary should be read with its companion document, the Fourth Report and Order summary published elsewhere in this issue of the
1. In this NPRM, the Commission seeks comment on potential revisions to the Commission's part 20 rules governing wireless hearing aid compatibility. The Commission initiates this proceeding to develop a record on an innovative and groundbreaking proposal, advanced collaboratively by industry and consumer groups, to replace the current fractional regime with the staged adoption of a system under which all covered wireless handsets will be hearing aid-compatible. The Commission proposes to adopt this consensus approach, which recognizes that the stakeholders themselves are best positioned to craft a regime that ensures full accessibility while protecting incentives to innovate and invest.
2. The Joint Consensus Proposal provides that within two years of the effective date of the adoption of the new benchmark rules, 66 percent of wireless handset models offered to consumers should be compliant with the Commission's acoustic coupling radio frequency interference (M rating) and inductive coupling (T rating) requirements. The proposal provides that within five years of the effective date of new rules adopted, 85 percent of wireless handset models offered to consumers should be compliant with the Commission's M and T ratings.
3. The proposal provides that these new benchmarks should apply to manufacturers and carriers that offer six or more digital wireless handset models in an air interface, except that Tier I and Non-Tier I carriers would receive six months and eighteen months of additional compliance time, respectively, to account for availability of handsets and inventory turn-over rates. The proposal states that the existing
4. In addition to these two-year and five-year benchmarks, the proposal provides that “[t]he Commission should commit to pursue that 100% of wireless handsets offered to consumers should be compliant with [the M and T rating requirements] within eight years.” The Joint Consensus Proposal conditions the transition to 100 percent, however, on a Commission determination within seven years of the rules' effective date that reaching the 100 percent goal is “achievable.” The Joint Consensus Proposal prescribes the following process for making that determination:
[The Commission shall create] a task force, including all stakeholders, identifying questions for exploration in year four after the effective date that the benchmarks described above are established. After convening, the stakeholder task force will issue a report to the Commission within two years.
The Commission, after review and receipt of the report described above, will determine whether to implement 100 percent compliance with [the M and T ratings requirements] based on concrete data and information about the technical and market conditions involving wireless handsets and the landscape of hearing improvement technology collected in years four and five. Any new benchmarks resulting from this determination, including 100 percent compliance, would go into effect no less than twenty-four months after the Commission's determination.
Consumer groups and the Wireless Industry shall work together to hold meetings going forward to ensure that the process will include all stakeholders: including at a minimum, consumer groups, independent research and technical advisors, wireless industry policy and technical representatives, hearing aid manufacturers and Commission representatives.
5. The Commission proposes to adopt the general approach discussed in the Joint Consensus Proposal, including the staged benchmark revisions, the Commission's determination of achievability, and the process for moving to a 100 percent compliance standard, and the Commission seeks comment on this proposal and its various components. The Commission recognizes that the Joint Consensus Proposal reflects the intensive efforts and commitment of consumer and industry stakeholders to develop an approach that expands access for consumers with hearing loss while preserving the flexibility that allows innovation to flourish. The Commission notes that the current hearing aid compatibility rules, including the current benchmarks, are also based on a consensus proposal developed and submitted in 2007 by representatives of the wireless industry and consumers with hearing loss. In substantially adopting the terms of that proposal, the Commission found that broad multi-stakeholder support “testifie[d] to the success of the proffered proposals in meeting the goals of the Hearing Aid Compatibility Act, and in addressing the concerns of manufacturers and service providers while still advancing the interests of consumers with hearing loss in having greater access to advanced digital wireless communications.” Given the success of the previous consensus proposal, and recognizing that the Joint Consensus Proposal was generated by the very stakeholders that it will impact most directly, the Commission considers favorably the Joint Consensus Proposal—particularly to the extent that it moves toward a 100 percent hearing aid compatibility requirement without discouraging or impairing the development of improved technology. The Commission also believes that an approach developed through consensus among the relevant stakeholders may yield outcomes that most effectively leverage innovative technological solutions.
6. Accordingly, below, the Commission seeks comment on the merits of the Joint Consensus Proposal, both with respect to its overall effectiveness in fulfilling Congress's intent to ensure access to telephones for people with hearing loss under Section 710 of the Communications Act as amended by the CVAA, and more specifically with respect to its various components as these have been
7.
8.
9.
10. The Commission also seeks comment on how the Commission should determine achievability, including the appropriate substantive definition, standard, or framework to govern the Commission's determination. For example, should the determination of achievability be based on relevant factors specified in Section 710,
11. In considering whether the 100 percent goal is achievable, should the Commission consider innovative approaches, including standards or technologies that are different from the currently applicable ANSI standard, that can achieve telephone access for consumers with hearing loss? For example, Apple has explained that it “work[ed] outside the existing Part 20 framework to advance its goal of dramatically improving the user experience for individuals with hearing loss,” and that it developed a new hearing aid platform that relies on Bluetooth® technology. The Commission urges stakeholders to think broadly in developing alternative approaches, whether they build on Apple's experience or other efforts, as the Commission is confident that creativity and innovation can significantly advance the interests of consumers with hearing loss without hobbling wireless innovation. The Commission is particularly interested in commenters' insights regarding alternative compliance approaches that can, in a technologically neutral manner, ensure that devices are fully accessible for users with hearing loss.
12. The Joint Proposal itself recommends that the Commission seek comment on various issues related to modifying the benchmark regime. In particular, it suggests that the Commission seek comment on the following issues, which it now does:
The Commission should seek comment in the NPRM on how the FCC's rules should be modified to ensure manufacturers and service providers meet the new benchmarks while preserving the ability to offer innovative wireless handsets in a rapidly changing market. For example, the Commission should seek comment on whether wireless handsets can be deemed compliant with the HAC rules through means other than by measuring RF interference and inductive coupling. In addition, the Commission should seek comment on which compliance processes, such as waivers, should be modified to accommodate innovation and carriers', especially rural and regional carriers', handset inventories and turn-over rates, within a compliance regime with the enhanced benchmarks described above. The Commission also should seek comment on whether disclosures to consumers could serve as a means of compliance for wireless handsets utilizing new air interfaces or technologies where HAC standards or testing protocols are not yet available. In addition to examining the effect on innovation, the Commission should seek comment on the impact of the new benchmarks on U.S. product offerings.
The Commission should also seek comment on the best ways to improve collaboration on consumer education including but not limited to: making
13. In connection with the suggested questions regarding waivers, the Commission also seeks comment on how to best to apply the Section 710(b)(3) waiver process in the context of the Joint Consensus Proposal. Should the Commission establish a fixed time period within which the Commission must take action on waiver requests? If so, would 180 days be an appropriate amount of time, considering both the need to develop a full record and the importance of avoiding delay in the introduction of new technologies? If not 180 days, what amount of time would be appropriate? If the Commission establishes a time period for Commission action, are there situations in which the Commission should have the ability to extend the deadline?
14. The Commission seeks comment on whether the Joint Consensus Proposal is consistent with and warranted under Section 710 of the Communications Act. Section 710(b)(2)(B) directs the Commission to use a four-part test to periodically reassess exemptions from the hearing aid compatibility requirements for wireless handsets. Specifically, the statute directs the Commission to revoke or limit an exemption if it finds that (1) Continuing the exemption without such revocation or limitation would have an adverse effect on individuals with hearing loss; (2) compliance with the hearing aid compatibility requirements would be technologically feasible for devices to which the exemption applies; (3) the cost of compliance would not increase costs to such an extent that the newly covered devices could not be successfully marketed; and (4) revoking or limiting the exemption is in the public interest. The Commission seeks comment on whether this analysis is applicable to the changes proposed in the Joint Consensus Proposal, whether such changes would meet this four-part test, and whether the proposal requires any modifications to satisfy the statutory standard.
15. Section 710 further directs that, in any rulemaking to implement hearing aid compatibility requirements, the Commission should (1) specifically consider the costs and benefits to all telephone users, including people with and without hearing loss, (2) ensure that hearing aid compatibility regulations encourage the use of currently available technology and do not discourage or impair the development of improved technology, and (3) use appropriate timetables and benchmarks to the extent necessary due to technical feasibility or to ensure marketability or availability of new technologies to users. The Commission therefore asks commenters to address these factors in their analysis of the proposal and to explain whether modifications are warranted.
16. The Commission seeks comment on whether the compatibility requirement—revised pursuant to the Joint Consensus Proposal or in any other manner—should specifically require both a minimum M3 and minimum T3 rating, or whether manufacturers should be allowed to meet the requirement by incorporating other methods of achieving compatibility with hearing aids, such as Bluetooth®. The Commission is mindful that some innovative advances in accessibility features have resulted from outside-of-the-box solutions, and the Commission does not wish to discourage these types of pioneering advances. The Commission seeks comment on the extent to which such alternative approaches are able to meet the communications needs of people with hearing loss. Specifically, in addition to commenting on the effectiveness of such alternatives for aiding in comprehending telephone conversation, the Commission asks commenters to provide information about the cost of such devices to consumers, as well as the ease of procuring devices needed to use such alternatives. Given these criteria, what approaches should the Commission recognize as viable alternatives, how should such alternative approaches be incorporated into the hearing aid compatibility rules, what customer disclosures should be required for alternative approaches, and what standards should apply to the alternative approaches, particularly with respect to testing and rating alternative devices and technologies? How, if at all, would such alternative approaches impact the efficacy of the Joint Consensus Proposal?
17. What are the costs and benefits of allowing these alternative approaches? For example, Apple proposes that the Commission apply the ANSI standards as a “safe harbor” for hearing aid compatibility but to “reward innovators for finding other, better solutions that result in real accessibility even if they do not meet the ANSI standards.” Although Apple proposes this approach as an alternative method of meeting the existing benchmarks, the Commission seeks comment on whether to adopt it in conjunction with the Joint Consensus Proposal. The Commission also seeks comment on how to determine hearing aid compatibility outside of compliance with the applicable ANSI standard. The Commission invites commenters to consider alternatives of this kind when evaluating the Joint Consensus Proposal.
18. The current
19. The Commission seeks comment on whether to preserve the
20. The Commission seeks comment on whether it should include any other exceptions in the event the Commission adopts a 100 percent compatibility requirement, and how such exceptions are consistent with and warranted under Section 710's requirements. The Commission seeks comment on whether there are particular air interfaces, such as GSM operating in the 1900 MHz band, which will face particular difficulties in meeting a 100 percent compatibility requirement and, if so, whether and how such difficulties should be specifically addressed or accommodated under a 100 percent compatibility requirement. Are there new technological solutions that should better enable GSM/1900 handsets to achieve hearing aid compatibility and, if so, what requirements should apply to GSM/1900 handsets given such solutions?
21. In the event the Commission adopts a 100 percent compatibility requirement, the Commission seeks comment on the appropriate treatment of legacy models. Should non-hearing aid-compatible handsets that received equipment authorization prior to the end of any transition period be grandfathered to better ensure that manufacturers are able to recoup their investments in their legacy handsets? The Commission seeks comment on this option, on alternative approaches to grandfathering, and on whether, following some additional period after a transition to a 100 percent compatibility regime, the Commission should require hearing aid compatibility for all handset models offered (as opposed to just models released after transitioning to the 100 percent regime).
22. The Commission further seeks comment on how best to ensure that people with hearing loss are able to find hearing aid compatible phones that can meet their communication needs during the transition period to a 100 percent compatibility requirement. The Commission notes that Section 717(d) of the Communications Act, added by the CVAA, requires the Commission to maintain a clearinghouse of information about accessible products and services required under sections 255, 716, and 718 of the Act. The Commission launched its Accessibility Clearinghouse in October 2011. Among other things, this database allows consumers to search for wireless handsets with accessibility features that meet the needs of various disabilities, including hearing aid compatible handsets. Does this Accessibility Clearinghouse, or the Web sites upon which it relies, effectively provide the information needed by consumers to locate hearing aid compatible phones? In other words, does it enable a consumer to determine without difficulty whether any particular handset model is hearing aid compliant? If not, the Commission seeks comment on the format and type of information that the Commission should include in the Accessibility Clearinghouse in order to empower consumers to make educated decisions about their handset purchases. The Commission notes, for example, that currently, manufacturers are required to electronically file annual compliance reports with the Commission on FCC Form 655 in July of each year and service providers must electronically file this form with the Commission in January of each year. These reports include, among other information, the M and T ratings for each handset. Is there a way that such information can be used to automatically supplement the information now provided in the Accessibility Clearinghouse database? In addition, in the event the Commission adopts a 100 percent compatibility requirement, will it be necessary to continue providing information on hearing aid compatible phones in the Accessibility Clearinghouse? It is not the Commission's intention to create additional reporting burdens on manufacturers and service providers, therefore, the Commission seeks comment on approaches to ensuring that the improvements contemplated above do not impose such burdens.
23. The Commission also seeks comment on whether service providers should be able to rely on information in the Accessibility Clearinghouse and on Form 655 to the extent that it reflects compliance information submitted by manufacturers. Are there any reasons service providers should not be able to rely on the Accessibility Clearinghouse or Form 655? For example, how should the Commission treat a service provider if it offers a handset that a manufacturer has included in the Accessibility Clearinghouse and indicated to be compliant in the manufacturer's annual FCC Form 655, even if it is later determined that the handset does not in fact meet the hearing aid compatibility requirements? Should such information create a presumption that the service provider is not in breach of the Commission's hearing aid compatibility rules?
24. In the event the Commission ultimately transitions to a 100-percent compatibility regime, the Commission proposes to ease or eliminate the reporting, disclosure, labeling, and other requirements imposed under the current rules. The Commission seeks comment on the extent to which these requirements are unnecessary or unwarranted in the event the Commission moves to a 100 percent regime, and on the costs and benefits of easing such requirements as they relate to consumers, manufacturers, and service providers.
25. Currently, manufacturers are required to electronically file annual compliance reports with the Commission on FCC Form 655 in July of each year and service providers must electronically file this form with the Commission in January of each year. The Commission seeks comment on whether to end the reporting requirements for manufacturers and service providers in the event the Commission moves to a 100 percent regime or at some point thereafter. The Commission notes that numerous parties, especially rural and small service providers, have asserted that preparing these annual reports is burdensome. While these reports help the Commission monitor compliance with the hearing aid compatibility benchmarks, will such monitoring still be necessary, and will the benefits of these reports still outweigh the burdens, in the event the Commission moves to a 100 percent compatibility regime? Alternatively, should the Commission eliminate the reporting requirement only for service providers, on the grounds that manufacturers' reports will be sufficient under a 100 percent regime to ensure all models available to consumers are compliant? Should the Commission maintain the reporting requirement for other groups for a certain period of time while non-compliant legacy models remain in inventory? Should the Commission maintain reporting requirements for manufacturers and service providers who offer handsets that are exempt from hearing aid compatibility requirements or can be used for services that are exempt from these rules? The Commission notes that the Joint Consensus Plan would establish two new benchmarks, at year two and year five. Should the Commission modify the content or applicability of the reporting requirements that apply during the period following either the two or five
26. The existing hearing aid compatibility rules also require manufacturers and service providers to label their hearing aid-compatible handsets with the appropriate M and T ratings and provide information on the rating system, and to meet certain disclosure requirements for hearing aid-compatible handsets that are not compatible over all their operations. The rules also require manufacturers and service providers to provide information on their Web sites, such as a list of all hearing aid-compatible models currently offered, the associated rating information for those handsets, and an explanation of the rating system. The Commission seeks comment on whether, in the event the Commission moves to a 100 percent compatibility regime, the current labeling and disclosure requirements should be eliminated, simplified, or amended. Alternatively, should the Commission continue to require disclosure of rating information in packaging and on Web sites for hearing aid-compatible handset models so that consumers can distinguish between M3 and M4 ratings, between T3 and T4 ratings, and between hearing aid-compatible handsets and grandfathered non-compatible models?
27. The Commission also seeks comment on whether to eliminate the product refresh rule applicable to manufacturers and the differing levels of functionality rule applicable to service providers if the Commission moves to a 100 percent compatibility regime or adopts other modifications to the benchmarks. The product refresh rule requires manufacturers that offer new handset models in a year to ensure that a certain number of the new models are hearing aid-compatible. The differing levels of functionality rule requires service providers to offer a range of hearing aid-compatible models with differing levels of functionality in terms of capabilities, features, and price. In the context of benchmarks that do not require 100 percent of handsets to be hearing aid-compatible, these additional requirements help to ensure that people with hearing loss have access to handsets with the latest features and functions and at different price points. The Commission tentatively concludes that a refresh rule would serve no purpose after a 100 percent requirement takes effect, given that it merely imposes a fractional obligation on new models, which would be entirely subsumed by the new requirement. The Commission seeks comment on this conclusion. The Commission further seeks comment on whether a 100 percent requirement on manufacturers would also be sufficient to ensure that service providers offer a range of hearing aid-compatible models with differing levels of functionality. Will maintaining the differing levels of functionality requirement help to ensure that low-income Americans with hearing loss have access to affordable hearing aid-compatible handsets?
28. Finally, to the extent the Commission moves to a 100 percent compatibility regime, the Commission seeks comment on whether the Commission should eliminate or otherwise ease the deployment benchmarks applicable to the overall handset portfolios of manufacturers and service providers. Will benchmarks remain necessary, even after a transition to a 100 percent requirement, to ensure that manufacturers and service providers do not weight their portfolios toward non-compliant grandfathered handsets? If so, for how long? Would an additional two-year period be an appropriate time-frame to sunset these service provider requirements? Alternatively, should the Commission eliminate deployment benchmarks for Tier III service providers immediately upon moving to a 100 percent regime, but preserve it for Tier I and II service providers for an additional two or three years? What are the costs and benefits of eliminating the benchmarks on service providers if all or nearly all new models offered by manufacturers will be compliant?
29. The Commission seeks comment on whether and how to revise the current benchmark system in the event that, based on the record the Commission receives, the Commission determines not to adopt the Joint Consensus Proposal. Should the Commission pursue another approach to transition to a 100 percent compatibility requirement, consistent with the factors identified in Section 710? What would be an appropriate transition period? Should the Commission consider exceptions, waivers, burden reductions, legacy handset rules, and alternative approaches to measuring compliance, as discussed above in connection with the Joint Consensus Proposal?
30. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities of the policies and rules proposed in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM). Written public comments are requested on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA and must be filed by the deadlines for comments on the NPRM provided above. The Commission will send a copy of the NPRM, including this IRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA).
31. To ensure that a wide selection of digital wireless handset models is available to consumers with hearing loss, the Commission's rules require both manufacturers and service providers to meet defined benchmarks for offering hearing aid-compatible wireless phones. Specifically, manufacturers and service providers are required to offer minimum numbers or percentages of handset models that meet specified technical standards for compatibility with hearing aids operating in both acoustic coupling and inductive coupling modes. These benchmarks apply separately to each air interface for which the manufacturer or service provider offers handsets.
32. The wireless hearing aid compatibility rules have incorporated this fractional benchmark approach since the provision was first established in 2003, but the Commission has on occasion revised the specific benchmarks that manufacturers and service providers are required to meet. The current benchmarks were established in 2008 when the Commission adopted the Joint Consensus Plan submitted by an Alliance for Telecommunications Industry Solutions (ATIS) working group that included Tier I carriers, handset manufacturers, and several organizations representing the interests of people with hearing loss. That plan provided for benchmarks to increase over time, up to a final set of benchmarks that became effective in 2010 and remain in place today.
33. The current deployment benchmarks require that, subject to a
34. In the NPRM, the Commission seeks comment on a historic agreement (hereinafter, the “Joint Consensus Proposal”) among key consumer and industry stakeholders that would revise the current benchmarks. In brief, the Joint Consensus Proposal provides that within two years of the effective date of new rules adopted, 66 percent of wireless handsets offered to consumers should be compliant with the Commission's acoustic coupling radio frequency interference (M rating) and inductive coupling (T rating) requirements. The proposal provides that within five years of the effective date of new rules adopted, 85 percent of wireless handsets offered to consumers should be compliant with the Commission's M and T ratings. The proposal provides that this benchmark should apply directly to manufacturers and carriers that offer six or more digital wireless handset models in an air interface, with additional compliance periods for Tier I and Non-Tier I carriers of six months and eighteen months, respectively, to account for limits on handset availability and inventory turn-over rates. In addition to these two-year and five-year benchmarks, the proposal provides that the Commission should commit to pursue that 100 percent of wireless handsets offered to consumers should be compliant within eight years. The Joint Consensus Proposal conditions the transition to 100 percent, however, on a Commission determination within seven years of the rules' effective date that reaching the 100 percent goal is achievable, based in part on review of a report by a task force to be established for this purpose.
35. While the Commission finds that the existing fractional benchmarks have been successful in making a broad variety of hearing aid-compatible handsets available to consumers with hearing loss, the Commission recognizes its statutory obligation to periodically reassess any exemptions from the hearing aid compatibility requirements. The Commission proposes to adopt the Joint Consensus Proposal, finding that it provides an effective approach to replacing the fractional system with one that will give consumers with hearing loss the same selection of wireless handsets that is available to the general public.
36. The potential actions about which comment is sought in this NPRM would be authorized pursuant to the authority contained in sections 4(i), 303(r), and 710 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 303(r), and 610.
37. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA. To assist the Commission in analyzing the total number of potentially affected small entities, the Commission requests commenters to estimate the number of small entities that may be affected by any rule changes that might result from this NPRM.
38. As discussed above, in the NPRM, the Commission seeks comment on a revision to the deployment benchmarks. While these changes would affect the specific obligations of covered entities under the rules, it would not alter the scope of entities subject to the rules, and accordingly, the Commission finds that the analysis of the categories and number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules is the same as for the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis the Commission provided in connection with the revision to those rules adopted in the Fourth Report and Order. Accordingly, the Commission incorporates the analysis in the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis accompanying the Fourth Report and Order, as the description and estimate of the number of small entities to which the proposed rules would apply.
39. The Commission is not proposing to impose any additional reporting or record keeping requirements. Rather, as discussed in the next section, the Commission is seeking comment on whether, if it adopts a 100 percent requirement, it can reduce regulatory burden on all wireless handset manufacturers and wireless service providers regardless of size by eliminating and streamlining the related hearing aid compatibility requirements. Presently, these requirements include annual reporting, disclosure, labeling, and other regulatory requirements. As part of its decision to eliminate or reduce regulatory burden, the Commission will consider whether it can reduce regulatory burden for small service providers and manufactures, if it cannot be done for all service providers and manufacturers.
40. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.”
41. In the NPRM, the Commission proposes to adopt the terms of the Joint Consensus Proposal, including provisions that will help to minimize impact on small entities. The Joint Consensus Proposal recommends, and the Commission proposes, that while increasing the benchmarks at year two and year five, the Commission keeps in place the existing
42. With respect to adoption of a 100 percent requirement, the Joint Consensus Proposal conditions the transition to 100 percent hearing aid compatibility on a Commission determination, after the receipt and review of a report from a newly established task force, that reaching the 100 percent goal is “achievable.” The NPRM seeks comment on how the Commission should determine achievability and what criteria should be utilized in making this determination. The NPRM also seeks comment on whether the current
43. In addition to the
44. In the event the Commission adopts a 100 percent requirement, the NPRM seeks comment on grandfathering legacy handsets that are not hearing aid-compatible. The NPRM ask whether the Commission should allow manufacturers, including small manufacturers, of wireless handsets the ability to recoup their investment in non-hearing aid-compatible legacy handsets. Under this proposal, the Commission would allow wireless handset manufacturers to continue to offer handset models that have not been certified as hearing aid-compatible after the transition period to 100 percent ends if the manufacturer received equipment authorization for the handset prior to the end of that period. This proposal should help to minimize the economic impact of a 100 percent requirement on small entities.
45. The NPRM also seeks comment on whether transitioning to a 100 percent requirement would justify easing or eliminating several requirements associated with the hearing aid compatibility rules, which would further reduce the net economic impact of the adopted changes on these manufacturers and providers, including small entities. First, under the current rules, manufacturers are required to electronically file annual compliance reports with the Commission on FCC Form 655 in July of each year and service providers must electronically file this form with the Commission in January of each year. While these reports help the Commission to monitor compliance with the hearing aid compatibility benchmarks, numerous parties, especially rural and small entities, have asserted that having to file these annual reports is burdensome. The Commission seeks comment on whether to end or modify the reporting requirements for manufacturers and service providers at some point as the benchmarks increase. These changes to the reporting requirements would benefit all service providers and manufacturers, including small providers and manufacturers.
46. The existing hearing aid compatibility rules also require that manufacturers and service providers meet certain labeling and disclosure requirements for hearing aid-compatible handsets, and provide information on their Web sites, such as making available on their publicly-accessible Web sites a list of all hearing aid-compatible models currently offered, the associated rating information for those handsets, and an explanation of the rating system. The Commission seeks comment on whether, upon implementation of the 100 percent requirement, the current labeling and disclosure requirements should be eliminated or amended.
47. The Commission also seeks comment on whether, if it adopts a 100 percent requirement or other modifications to the benchmarks, it should eliminate the product refresh rule applicable to manufacturers, which provides that each manufacturer that offers any new model for a particular air interface during the calendar year must “refresh” its offering of hearing aid-compatible handset models by offering a mix of new and existing models that comply with the hearing aid compatibility technical standards. It further seeks comment on eliminating the differing levels of functionality rule applicable to service providers. Finally, if the Commission adopts a 100 percent requirement, the NPRM seeks comment on whether to eliminate or otherwise ease the deployment benchmarks applicable to the overall handset portfolios of manufacturers and service providers. Elimination of these rules would benefit small entities as well as larger manufacturers and service providers.
48. The Commission seeks comment generally on the effect, economic impact, or burden of the rule changes considered in the NPRM on small entities. It further seeks comment on any alternatives that would reduce the economic impact on small entities. It also seeks comment on whether there are any alternatives the Commission could implement that could achieve the Commission's goals while at the same time minimizing or further reducing the burdens on small entities, and on what effect such alternative rules would have on those entities. The Commission invites comment on ways in which it can achieve its goals while minimizing the burden on small wireless handset manufacturers and service providers. For the duration of this docketed proceeding, the Commission will continue to examine alternatives with
49. None.
50. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking contains proposed modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
51. The proceeding that the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking initiates shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
52. Pursuant to sections 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. All filings related to this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking should refer to WT Docket No. 15-285. Comments may be filed using: (1) The Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS), (2) the Federal Government's eRulemaking Portal, or (3) by filing paper copies.
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Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
• All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th St. SW., Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. The filing hours are 8:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of before entering the building.
• Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9300 East Hampton Drive, Capitol Heights, MD 20743.
• U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
53.
54.
55.
Communications common carriers, Communications equipment, Incorporation by reference, Radio.
For the reason discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR part 20 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 152(a) 154(i), 157, 160, 201, 214, 222, 251(e), 301, 302, 303, 303(b), 303(r), 307, 307(a), 309, 309(j)(3), 316, 316(a), 332, 610, 615, 615a, 615b, 615c, unless otherwise noted.
(c) Phase-in of requirements relating to radio frequency interference. Until [eight years after the effective date of the rules], the following applies to each manufacturer and service provider that offers wireless handsets used in the delivery of the services specified in paragraph (a) of this section and that does not fall within the
(1) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) [Beginning two years after the effective date of the rules], each manufacturer of wireless handsets models must ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. [Beginning five years after the effective date of the rules], each manufacturer of wireless handsets must ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(ii)
(2) * * *
(iii) [Beginning two and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. [Beginning five and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) * * *
(iii) [Beginning three and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. [Beginning six and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(4) * * *
(ii)
(d) Phase-in of requirements relating to inductive coupling capability. Until [eight years after the effective date of the rules], the following applies to each manufacturer and service provider that offers wireless handsets used in the delivery of the services specified in paragraph (a) of this section and that does not fall within the
(1) * * *
(iii) [Beginning two years after the effective date of the rules], each manufacturer of wireless handsets models must ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. [Beginning five years after the effective date of the rules], each manufacturer of wireless handsets must ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(2) * * *
(iii) [Beginning two and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. [Beginning five and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(3) * * *
(iii) [Beginning three and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 66 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. [Beginning six and half years after the effective date of the rules], ensure that 85 percent of the wireless handset models offered to consumers shall comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(4) * * *
(ii)
(e) * * *
(3) Beginning [two years after the effective date of the rules], manufacturers that offer four or five digital wireless handset models in an air interface must offer at least two handset models compliant with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section in that air interface.
(4) Beginning [two and a half years after the effective date of the rules] for Tier I carriers and [three and half years after the effective date of the rules] for other service providers, service providers that offer four or five digital wireless handset models in an air interface must offer at least two handset models compliant with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section in that air interface.
(i) * * *
(1)
(m)
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; reopening of public comment period and notice of public hearing.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the reopening of the comment period on our October 13, 2015, proposed rule to list five species from American Samoa—two endemic American Samoan land snails, the American Samoa distinct population segment of the friendly ground-dove, the Pacific sheath-tailed bat (South Pacific subspecies), and the mao—as endangered species under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). We now reopen the public comment period for an additional 30 days and announce notice of a public hearing and public information meeting on our proposed rule. We are reopening the public comment period to allow all interested parties additional time and opportunity to comment on the proposed rule.
(1)
(2)
(3)
We request that you provide comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on
Mary Abrams, Field Supervisor, Pacific Islands Fish and Wildlife Office, 300 Ala Moana Boulevard, Honolulu, HI 96850; by telephone at 808-792-9400; or by facsimile at 808-792-9581. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
We are reopening the public comment period for 30 days on our October 13, 2015, proposed rule to list the five American Samoa species (80 FR 61568), to allow all interested parties additional time to comment on the proposed rule. We received a request for a public hearing and to extend the public comment period beyond the December 14, 2015, due date in our October 13, 2015, proposal. We will accept comments and information until the date specified above in
For details on specific information that we are requesting, please see the Information Requested section in our proposed listing rule (80 FR 61568) for the five American Samoa species. The proposed rule is available at the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
You may submit your comments and materials concerning the proposed rule by one of the methods listed in
If you submit a comment via
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing the proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes regulations to implement Comprehensive Ecosystem-Based Amendment 1 (CEBA 1), which includes amendments to the Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Council's) four fishery management plans (FMPs): The Coastal Pelagic Species (CPS) FMP, the Pacific Coast Groundfish FMP, the FMP for U.S. West Coast Highly Migratory Species (HMS), and the Pacific Coast Salmon FMP. If approved, CEBA 1 would amend the Council's FMPs to bring new ecosystem component species (collectively, “Shared EC Species”) into each of those FMPs, and would prohibit directed commercial fisheries for Shared EC Species within the U.S. West Coast Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). Implementing regulations for CEBA 1 would define and prohibit directed commercial fishing for Shared EC Species, and would prohibit, with limited exceptions, at-sea processing of Shared EC Species.
Comments must be received on or before February 9, 2016.
You may submit comments on CEBA 1 and this proposed rule, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0123, by any of the following methods:
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Electronic copies of CEBA 1 may be obtained from the Council Web site at
Yvonne deReynier, 206-526-6129,
Ocean fisheries in the EEZ off Washington, Oregon, and California are managed under the Council's CPS, Groundfish, HMS, and Salmon FMPs. The Council also maintains a Fishery Ecosystem Plan (FEP), which includes an ecosystem initiative process for reviewing fisheries management issues that may affect multiple FMPs and for developing policies and regulations to address those issues under the authority of its FMPs. Under the ecosystem initiative process, the Council has reviewed trophic connections between the West Coast EEZ's unfished forage fish species and the EEZ's predator species managed under the MSA, the Marine Mammal Protection Act, and the Endangered Species Act. Through that review, the Council determined that it wanted to bring a suite of unfished and unmanaged forage fish species into its FMPs as ecosystem component (EC) species, and to prohibit directed fisheries for those species (unless and until science indicates that the stocks could support such fisheries).
The Council has recommended amending its FMPs to include the following species as Shared EC Species: Round herring (
CEBA 1, through its implementing FMP amendments and regulations, would prohibit the future development of fisheries for Shared EC Species within the U.S. West Coast EEZ until
FMPs for EEZ fisheries off the U.S. West Coast are implemented under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA) by regulations at 50 CFR 660. This proposed rule would revise 50 CFR 660.1(a,) subpart A, to clarify that the regulations in Part 660 of Title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations apply to all vessels fishing within the U.S. West Coast EEZ. This proposed rule would also add new regulations at 50 CFR part 660, subpart B, that: (1) Identify Shared EC Species as including the unfished forage species listed earlier in the preamble to this proposed rule; (2) define what is meant by “directed commercial fishing” for Shared EC Species within the U.S. West Coast EEZ; (3) prohibit directed commercial fishing for Shared EC Species; and (4) prohibit at-sea processing of Shared EC Species, except while otherwise lawfully processing groundfish in accordance with 50 CFR part 600, subpart D. Directed commercial fishing for Shared EC Species is proposed to be defined as: Any vessel landing Shared EC Species without landing any other species; or any vessel landing Shared EC Species with other species and in amounts more than 10 mt combined weight of all Shared EC Species from any fishing trip, or 30 mt combined weight of all Shared EC Species in any calendar year.
Proposed landings limits are based on historic daily and annual per vessel landings levels of Shared EC Species, and take into account 99 percent of all Shared EC Species daily vessel landings and 97 percent of annual vessel total landings from the 2005-2014 period. This proposed rule also addresses the potential for incidental catch of Shared EC Species within the at-sea whiting sectors of the groundfish trawl fishery by providing an exception to the prohibition on at-sea processing of Shared EC Species when those species are retained and processed in amounts smaller than 1 mt for all Shared EC Species other than squid, and 40 mt for all Shared EC squid species. Over the 2002-2014 period, the highest annual catch of Shared EC Species other than squid, for the combined catcher-processor and mothership whiting fleets was 1.2 mt in 2011. Over the 2006-2014 period, all at-sea processors received fewer than 40 mt of Shared EC squid species, except for one vessel that in one year received 60 mt of Shared EC squid species.
This action is needed to proactively protect unmanaged, unfished forage fish of the U.S. West Coast EEZ, in recognition of the importance of these forage fish to the species managed under the Council's FMPs and to the larger California Current Ecosystem. Shared EC Species have not historically been targeted or processed in EEZ fisheries, and the limits provided in this proposed rule are intended to recognize that low levels of incidental catch if Shared EC Species may continue to occur. This action does not supersede tribal or state fishery management for these species.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the MSA, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the CPS FMP, the Pacific Coast Groundfish FMP, the FMP for U.S. West Coast HMS, the Pacific Coast Salmon FMP, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
An environmental assessment (EA) for this action is available on NMFS's Web site at
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, requires agencies to assess the economic impacts of their proposed regulations on small entities. The objective of the RFA is to consider the impacts of a rulemaking on small entities, and the capacity of those affected by regulations to bear the direct and indirect costs of regulation.
An initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) was prepared, as required by section 603 of the RFA (RFA). The IRFA describes the economic impact this proposed rule, if adopted, would have on small entities. A description of the action, why it is being considered, and the legal basis for this action are contained at the beginning of this section in the preamble and in the
Small entities include “small businesses,” “small organizations,” and “small governmental jurisdictions.” The SBA has established size standards for all major industry sectors in the U.S. including commercial finfish harvesters (NAICS code 114111), commercial shellfish harvesters (NAICS code 114112), other commercial marine harvesters (NAICS code 114119), for-hire businesses (NAICS code 487210), marinas (NAICS code 713930), seafood dealers/wholesalers (NAICS code 424460), and seafood processors (NAICS code 311710). A business primarily involved in finfish harvesting is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual receipts not in excess of $20.5 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide (13 CFR part 121; August 17, 2015). For commercial shellfish harvesters, the other qualifiers apply and the receipts threshold is $5.5 million. For other commercial marine harvesters, for-hire businesses, and marinas, the other qualifiers apply and the receipts threshold is $7.5 million. A business primarily involved in seafood processing is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has combined annual employment not in excess of 500 employees for all its affiliated operations worldwide. For seafood dealers/wholesalers, the other qualifiers apply and the employment threshold is 100 employees. A small organization is any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field. Small governmental jurisdictions are governments of cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts, with populations less than 50,000.
The Council considered three alternatives for the implementation of this rule. The No Action and the selected/preferred alternatives are not expected to have a signficiant impact on any small entities. The third alternative was not selected and would likely increase costs for a substantial number of small entities. A summary of each alternative and the economic impacts follows below.
Fifty-eight vessels are currently permitted in the Federal CPS limited entry fishery. All of these vessels currently fish off California. Average annual per vessel revenue in 2013 for the West Coast CPS finfish fleet was well below $20.5 million; therefore, all of these vessels are considered small businesses under the RFA. Approximately 95 vessels participated in the pink shrimp fishery on the West Coast in 2014, all of which would be considered small businesses according to the standards. Because each affected vessel is a small business, this proposed rule has an equal effect on all of these small entities, and therefore will impact a substantial number of these small entities in the same manner.
Currently, the Shorebased IFQ Program is composed of 149 Quota Share permits/accounts, 152 vessel accounts, and 43 first receivers. Many companies participate in multiple sectors of the fishery. After accounting for cross participation, multiple Quota Share account holders, and for affiliation through ownership, NMFS estimates that there are 103 non-tribal entities directly affected by these proposed regulations, 89 of which are considered to be “small” businesses.
The mothership (MS) fishery is currently composed of a single cooperative, the Whiting Mothership Cooperative with six mothership processor permits, and 34 mothership/catcher-vessel (MS/CV) endorsed permits, with three permits each having two catch history assignments. The catcher/processor (C/P) Program is composed of 10 C/P permits owned by three companies that have formed a single cooperative, the Pacific Whiting Conservation Cooperative. These two cooperatives are considered large entities from several perspectives: They have participants that are large entities, cooperative revenues exceed or have exceeded $20.5 million, combined employment exceeds 500 employees, and co-op members are connected to American Fishing Act permits or co-ops where the NMFS Alaska Region has determined they are all large entities (79 FR 54597, September 12, 2014).
Therefore, 17 large groundfish fishery entities and 242 small entities would be affected by Alternative 3 (the non-preferred alternative): 89 small entities in the trawl fishery, 58 small entities in the CPS fishery, and 95 small entities in the pink shrimp fishery. We expect Alternative 3 would have moderate, indirect and negative effects on coastal pelagic species, shrimp, bottom trawl, and whiting fisheries and fishery management practices; however, these effects cannot be quantified without better data on the costs vessels would incur discarding at sea.
This proposed rule was developed after meaningful collaboration, through the Council process, with the tribal representative on the Council. NMFS is not aware of any Treaty Indian tribe or subsistence fisheries in the EEZ other than those listed in 50 CFR 600.725(v). This action does not supersede or otherwise affect exemptions that exist for Treaty Indian fisheries.
This proposed rule does not contain a collection of information requirement subject to review and approval by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA).
Administrative practice and procedure, Fisheries, Fishing.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a) The regulations in this part govern fishing activity of vessels of the United States that fish or support fishing inside the outer boundary of the EEZ off the states of Washington, Oregon, and California.
(a)
(1) Round herring (
(2) Mesopelagic fishes of the families
(3) Pacific sand lance (
(4) Pacific saury (
(5) Silversides (family
(6) Smelts of the family
(7) Pelagic squids (families:
(b)
(1) 10 mt combined weight of all Shared EC Species from any fishing trip; or
(2) 30 mt combined weight of all Shared EC Species in any calendar year.
In addition to the general prohibitions specified in § 600.725 of this chapter, and the other prohibitions specified in this part, it is unlawful for any person to:
(a)
(1) Fishing authorized by the Hoh, Makah, or Quileute Indian Tribes, or by the Quinault Indian Nation, or
(2) Fishing trips conducted entirely within state marine waters.
(b)
(d) * * *
(16) Retain and process more than 1 mt of Shared EC Species other than squid species in any calendar year; or, retain and process more than 40 mt of any Shared EC squid species in any calendar year.
(e) * * *
(10) Retain and process more than 1 mt of Shared EC Species other than squid species in any calendar year; or, retain and process more than 40 mt of any Shared EC squid species in any calendar year.
Risk Management Agency, USDA.
Notice.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments regarding (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB),
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full affect if received within February 4, 2016. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling (202) 720-8681.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Economic and Statistics Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Economic and Statistics Administration (ESA) is giving notice of virtual meetings to be held by the following Commerce Data Advisory Council (CDAC) Working Groups (WG): Data Governance, Data Usability, and Commerce Data Advisory Council (CDAC). Each CDAC WG will hold a separate meeting, through virtual means, to discuss perspective WG matters. Agendas for each CDAC WG meeting will be posted the ESA.gov Web site at:
January 14, 2016. Each CDAC WG's meeting time and agenda will be posted to the
Meeting access information will be posted the esa.gov Web site at:
Burton Reist,
Charters for each CDAC WG is available on the
The Committee is established in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Title 5, United States Code, Appendix 2, Section 10(a)(b)).
All meetings are open to the public. Individuals questions or statements must submit them in writing to:
Canon Virginia, Inc. (Canon), operator of Subzone 20D, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facility within Subzone 20D, in Newport News, Virginia. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on December 14, 2015.
Canon already has authority to produce a range of printers, copiers and their parts and supplies, including toner, toner cartridges, toner bottles and cartridge parts, within Subzone 20D. The current request would add foreign-status materials/components to the scope of authority. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), additional FTZ authority would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt Canon from customs duty payments on the foreign-status materials/components used in export production. On its domestic sales, Canon would be able to choose the duty rates during customs entry procedures that apply to toner cartridges or toner bottles (duty-free) for the foreign-status materials/components noted below and in the existing scope of authority. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The materials/components sourced from abroad include: Carbon black and aluminum flanges (duty rates: Duty-free and 5.7%, respectively).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is February 16, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Diane Finver at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (“Department”) is conducting the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on magnesium metal from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”). The period of review (“POR”) is April 1, 2014, through March 31, 2015. This review covers two PRC companies, Tianjin Magnesium International, Co., Ltd. (“TMI”) and Tianjin Magnesium Metal, Co., Ltd. (“TMM”). The Department preliminarily finds that TMI and TMM did not have reviewable entries during the POR. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
James Terpstra or Brendan Quinn, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3965 or (202) 482-5848, respectively.
The product covered by this antidumping duty order is magnesium metal from the PRC, which includes primary and secondary alloy magnesium metal, regardless of chemistry, raw material source, form, shape, or size. Magnesium is a metal or alloy containing by weight primarily the element magnesium. Primary magnesium is produced by decomposing raw materials into magnesium metal. Secondary magnesium is produced by recycling magnesium-based scrap into magnesium metal. The magnesium covered by this order includes blends of primary and secondary magnesium.
The subject merchandise includes the following alloy magnesium metal products made from primary and/or secondary magnesium including, without limitation, magnesium cast into ingots, slabs, rounds, billets, and other shapes; magnesium ground, chipped, crushed, or machined into rasping, granules, turnings, chips, powder, briquettes, and other shapes; and
The scope of this order excludes: (1) All forms of pure magnesium, including chemical combinations of magnesium and other material(s) in which the pure magnesium content is 50 percent or greater, but less than 99.8 percent, by weight, that do not conform to an “ASTM Specification for Magnesium Alloy”
On April 1, 2015, the Department published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on magnesium metal from the PRC for the period April 1, 2014 through March 31, 2015.
On July 9, 2015, we notified U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) that we were in receipt of no-shipment certifications from TMI and TMM and requested CBP to report any contrary information within 10 days.
As noted in the “Background” section above, TMI and TMM submitted timely-filed certifications indicating that they had no shipments of subject merchandise to the United States during the POR. In addition, CBP did not provide any evidence that contradicts TMI's and TMM's claims of no shipments. Further, on August 21, 2015, the Department released to interested parties the results of a CBP query to corroborate TMI and TMM's no shipment claims.
Based on TMI's and TMM's certifications and our analysis of CBP information, we preliminarily determine that TMI and TMM did not have any reviewable entries during the POR. In addition, the Department finds that it is not appropriate to rescind the review in this circumstance but, rather, to complete the review with respect to TMI and TMM and issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results of the review, consistent with its practice in non-market economy (“NME”) cases.
Interested parties may submit case briefs within 30 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results of review in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days of the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the following information: (1) The party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of the issues parties intend to discuss. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case and rebuttal briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a date and time to be determined.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of all issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication date of the final results of this review. Additionally, pursuant to a refinement to its assessment practice in NME cases, if the Department continues to determine that an exporter under review had no shipments of the subject merchandise, any suspended entries that entered under that exporter's case number (
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For TMI, which claimed no shipments, the cash deposit rate will remain unchanged from the rate assigned to TMI in the most recently completed review of the company; (2) for previously investigated or reviewed PRC and non-PRC exporters who are not under review in this segment of the proceeding but who have separate rates, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the exporter-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) for all PRC exporters of subject merchandise that have not been found to be entitled to a separate rate (including TMM, which claimed no shipments, but has not been found to be separate from the PRC-wide entity), the cash deposit rate will be the PRC-wide rate of 141.49 percent; and (4) for all non-PRC exporters of subject merchandise which have not received their own rate, the cash deposit rate will be the rate applicable to the PRC exporter(s) that supplied that non-PRC exporter. These deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This administrative review and notice are in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On November 25, 2015, the Department of Commerce (the Department) initiated a changed circumstances review and published a notice of preliminary results of changed circumstances review of the antidumping duty order on certain frozen warmwater shrimp (shrimp) from Thailand.
Dennis McClure or Elizabeth Eastwood, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973 or (202) 482-3874, respectively.
On September 17, 2015, Thai Union Group, a producer/exporter of Thai shrimp covered by this order, changed its name from Thai Union Frozen to Thai Union Group. On October 5, 2015, Thai Union Group requested that the Department conduct an expedited changed circumstances review under section 751(b) of the Act, 19 CFR 351.216(c), and 19 CFR 351.221(c)(3)(ii) to confirm that Thai Union Group is the successor-in-interest to Thai Union Frozen for purposes of determining antidumping duty cash deposits and liabilities. On November 25, 2015, the Department initiated this changed circumstances review and published the notice of preliminary results, determining that Thai Union Group is the successor-in-interest to Thai Union Frozen.
The merchandise subject to the order is certain frozen warmwater shrimp.
For the reasons stated in the
We are issuing this determination and publishing these final results and notice in accordance with sections 751(b)(1) and 777(i)(1) and (2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.216 and 351.221(c)(3).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On December 14, 2015, the United States Court of International Trade (CIT or the Court) sustained the Department of Commerce's (Department's) results of redetermination,
Kristen Johnson, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-4793.
In the
In
On remand, the Court instructed the Department to reconsider its corroboration methodology with regard to location-specific subsidy programs included in Kam Kiu's rate and the “Export Rebate for Mechanic, Electronic, and High-Tech Products” program also included in Kam Kiu's rate, as well as to explain how the final AFA rate relates to Kam Kiu.
In its final results of redetermination pursuant to
On December 14, 2015, the Court sustained the Department's final results of redetermination pursuant to remand.
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision with respect to the
Since the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516A(e)(1), 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.
Notice.
The 101st Interim Meeting of the National Conference on Weights and Measures (NCWM) will be held in San Diego, California, from Sunday, January 10, 2016, through Wednesday, January 13, 2016. This notice contains information about significant items on the NCWM Committee agendas but does not include all agenda items. As a result, the items are not consecutively numbered.
The meeting will be held on Sunday, January 10, 2016, through Tuesday, January 12, 2016, from 8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Pacific time, and on Wednesday, January 13, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. Pacific time. The meeting schedule is available at
This meeting will be held at the Westin San Diego Gaslamp Quarter, 910 Broadway Circle, San Diego, California 92101.
Ms. Carol Hockert, Chief, NIST, Office of Weights and Measures, 100 Bureau Drive, Stop 2600, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-2600. You may also contact Ms. Hockert at (301) 975-5507 or by email at
Publication of this notice on the NCWM's behalf is undertaken as a public service; NIST does not endorse, approve, or recommend any of the proposals or other information contained in this notice or in the publications of the NCWM.
The NCWM is an organization of weights and measures officials of the states, counties, and cities of the United States, federal agencies, and representatives from the private sector. These meetings bring together government officials and representatives of business, industry, trade associations, and consumer organizations on subjects related to the field of weights and measures technology, administration, and enforcement. NIST participates to
The following are brief descriptions of some of the significant agenda items that will be considered at the NCWM Interim Meeting. Comments will be taken on these and other issues during several public comment sessions. At this stage, the items are proposals. This meeting also includes work sessions in which the Specification and Tolerances Committee (S & T Committee) and the Laws and Regulations Committee (L & R Committee) may also accept comments, and where recommendations will be developed for consideration and possible adoption at the NCWM 2016 Annual Meeting. The Committees may withdraw or carryover items that need additional development.
Some of the items listed below provide notice of projects under development by groups working to develop specifications, tolerances, and other requirements for devices used in transportation network systems and the establishment of approximate gallon and liter equivalents to diesel fuel that would be used in marketing both compressed and liquefied natural gas.
These notices are intended to make interested parties aware of these development projects and to make them aware that reports on the status of the project will be given at the NCWM Interim Meeting. The notices are also presented to invite the participation of manufacturers, experts, consumers, users, and others who may be interested in these efforts.
The S&T Committee will consider proposed amendments to NIST Handbook 44, “Specifications, Tolerances, and other Technical Requirements for Weighing and Measuring Devices.” Those items address weighing and measuring devices used in commercial applications, that is, devices that are used to buy from or sell to the public or used for determining the quantity of products or services sold among businesses. Issues on the agenda of the NCWM L&R Committee relate to proposals to amend NIST Handbook 130, “Uniform Laws and Regulations in the area of Legal Metrology and Engine Fuel Quality” and NIST Handbook 133, “Checking the Net Contents of Packaged Goods.”
The following items are proposals to amend NIST Handbook 44:
LPG and Anhydrous Ammonia Liquid-Measuring Devices Item 332-2. S.1.4.3. Provisions for Power Lost, S.1.5.1.1. Unit Price, S.1.5.1.2. Product Identity, S.1.6. For Retail Motor Vehicle Fuel Devices Only, S.1.7. For Wholesale Devices Only, UR. 2.7. Unit Price and Product Identity, and UR.2.8.
Retail motor-fuel dispensers used to dispense refined fuels such as gasoline and diesel are regulated under the Liquid-Measuring Devices (LMD) Code in NIST Handbook 44. The LMD Code has been repeatedly revised over the past 20 years to reflect changes in technology and marketing practices surrounding the sale of these fuels; however, corresponding changes have not always been made to the LPG and Ammonia Liquid-Measuring Devices Code: The proposed changes under this item are designed to align the LPG and Ammonia Liquid-Measuring Devices Code with the LMD code and help promote uniformity in device requirements and practices and ensure a level playing field among competing businesses.
In 1994 both liter and gallon “equivalents” for gasoline were established by the NCWM to provide a means for consumers to make value and fuel economy comparisons between compressed natural gas (CNG) and gasoline, and to promote broader acceptance and use of CNG as a vehicle fuel. These “equivalents” are based on a specific weight (mass) per volume, called the gasoline liter equivalent (GLE) and gasoline gallon equivalent (GGE), and are calculated using an estimate of the “average” equivalent energy content—a number provided by industry. For several years, the NCWM Specifications and Tolerances (S&T) and Laws and Regulations (L&R) Committees have deliberated on proposals to establish and/or revise requirements for the method of sale and commercial measurement of LNG and CNG. The purpose of this item is to define acceptable units of measurement and identify requirements for equipment used to commercially measure these products.
The NIST Handbook 44, Hydrogen-Gas Measuring Devices code was added to NIST Handbook 44 in 2010 as a “Tentative Code.” As is often the case with a tentative code, it is expected that adjustments will need to be made to the code prior to changing its status to “permanent” as experience is gained by industry and regulatory offices on the operation, testing, and use of the devices covered by that code.
The tolerances currently specified in the NIST Handbook 44, Hydrogen-Gas Measuring Devices code are ±1.5% for Acceptance Tolerance and ±2.0% for Maintenance Tolerance. According to the submitter of this proposal, no hydrogen-gas dispenser manufacturers can meet the tolerances currently specified in the tentative code. This item proposes establishing multiple accuracy classes in which Acceptance Tolerances would range from ±1.5% to ±5.0% and Maintenance Tolerances would range from ±2.0% to ±10.0%. The proposal places limits on the installation of certain accuracy classes after specified dates. After January 1, 2020, newly installed devices will be required to meet the current, more stringent tolerances; however, larger tolerances may continue to apply to devices installed prior to that date. This proposal would also permit devices of different accuracies to be used in the same application.
For several years, the NIST USNWG on Taximeters has discussed possible approaches for amending the NIST Handbook 44, Taximeters Code to specifically recognize GPS-based time and distance measuring systems that are used to assess charges for transportation services such as taxicabs and limousines. Appropriate specifications, tolerances, and other technical requirements for these devices must be developed for manufacturers and users of these devices, as well for weights and measures officials. Such requirements help ensure accuracy and transparency for customers and a level playing field for transportation service companies, enabling consumers to make value
The following items are proposals to amend NIST Handbook 130 or NIST Handbook 133:
NIST Handbook 130—Section on Uniform Regulation for the Method of Sale of Commodities:
The L&R Committee will consider a proposal to recommend adoption of a uniform method of sale for animal bedding that will enhance the ability of consumers to make value comparisons and will ensure fair competition. Animal Bedding is generally defined as any material, except for baled straw, that is kept, offered or exposed for sale or sold to retail consumers for primary use as a medium for any pet or companion or livestock animal to nest or eliminate waste. If adopted, the proposal will require packers to advertise and sell packages of animal bedding on the basis of the expanded volume of the bedding. Most packages of animal bedding are compressed during packaging and the expanded volume is the amount of product that consumers will recover through unwrapping and decompressing the bedding according to the instructions provided by the packer. See also Item 260-5, Section 3.15. Test Procedure for Verifying the Usable Volume Declaration on Packages of Animal Bedding.
The current test procedure in NIST Handbook 133, Section 3.14., Firewood—(Volumetric Test Procedure for Packaged Firewood with a Labeled Volume of 113 L [4 ft
15 U.S.C. 272(b).
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Commerce.
Notice of public workshop.
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) announces the Genome in a Bottle Consortium—Progress and Planning Workshop to be held on Thursday, January 28, 2016, and Friday, January 29, 2016. The Genome in a Bottle Consortium is developing the reference materials, reference methods, and reference data needed to assess confidence in human whole genome variant calls. A principal motivation for this consortium is to enable performance assessment of sequencing and science-based regulatory oversight of clinical sequencing. The purpose of this workshop is to update participants about progress of the consortium work, continue to get broad input from individual stakeholders to update or refine the consortium work plan, continue to broadly solicit consortium membership from interested stakeholders, and invite members to participate in work plan implementation.
Topics of discussion at this workshop will include progress and planning of the Analysis Group, which is analyzing and integrating the large variety of sequencing data for four candidate NIST Reference Materials (RMs), with a particular focus on challenging types of variants and challenging regions of the genome. Other potential NIST RMs that might be developed by the consortium will also be discussed.
The Genome in a Bottle Consortium workshop will be held on Thursday, January 28, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. Pacific Time, and Friday, January 29, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. Pacific Time. Attendees must register by 5:00 p.m. Pacific Time on Thursday, January 21, 2016.
The meeting will be held on the second floor of the Li Ka Shing Conference Center, Stanford University, 291 Campus Drive, Palo Alto, CA 94305. Please note admittance instructions under the
For further information contact Justin Zook by email at
Clinical application of ultra high throughput sequencing (UHTS) for hereditary genetic diseases and oncology is rapidly growing. At present, there are no widely accepted genomic standards or quantitative performance metrics for confidence in variant calling. These standards and quantitative performance metrics are needed to achieve the confidence in measurement results expected for sound, reproducible research and regulated applications in the clinic. On April 13, 2012, NIST convened the workshop “Genome in a Bottle” to initiate a consortium to develop the reference materials, reference methods, and reference data needed to assess confidence in human whole genome variant calls (
At the August 2012 meeting, the consortium established work plans for four technical working groups with the following responsibilities:
(1) Reference Material (RM) Selection and Design: Select appropriate sources for whole genome RMs and identify or design synthetic DNA constructs that could be spiked-in to samples for measurement assurance.
(2) Measurements for Reference Material Characterization: Design and carry out experiments to characterize
(3) Bioinformatics, Data Integration, and Data Representation: Develop methods to analyze and integrate the data for each RM, as well as select appropriate formats to represent the data.
(4) Performance Metrics and Figures of Merit: Develop useful performance metrics and figures of merit that can be obtained through measurement of the RMs.
The products of these technical working groups will be a set of well-characterized whole genome and synthetic DNA RMs along with the methods (documentary standards) and reference data necessary for use of the RMs. These products will be designed to help enable translation of whole genome sequencing to regulated clinical applications. The pilot, NIST “Human DNA for Whole-Genome Variant Assessment (Daughter of Utah/European Ancestry)” RM was released in May 2015 and is available at
There is no cost for participating in the consortium. No proprietary information will be shared as part of the consortium, and all research results will be in the public domain.
All attendees are required to pre-register. Anyone wishing to attend this meeting must pre-register at
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before March 7, 2016.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Theresa L. Goedeke, 240-533-0383 or
Pursuant to the Outer Continental Shelf Land Act, the National Environmental Policy Act and the Coastal Zone Management Act, this request is for a new data collection to benefit the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), and policy-makers on the state and local level in North Carolina. BOEM has identified three wind energy areas for potential development on the outer continental shelf of North Carolina. The National Ocean Service (NOS) proposes to collect data on the knowledge, beliefs, social values, and attitudes of North Carolina and South Carolina residents relative to marine and coastal landscapes, alternative energy production options, and offshore wind energy development. Respondents will be sampled from households in eight to ten coastal counties.
The required information will be used to objectively assess the level of support and/or opposition for offshore wind energy development in the region, as well as identify the relevant issues and concerns most salient to residents. The information will be used by BOEM, NOAA, and others to improve agency understanding about the beliefs, social values, attitudes, and concerns of people potentially affected by offshore wind energy development. Such information will be used to ascertain the possible sociocultural outcomes of offshore wind energy development in the region, such as an enhancement or reduction in enjoyment of the coastal landscape/seascape. Additionally, information collected will be used to improve communication efforts targeted to residents, enabling agencies to more effectively and efficiently direct outreach and community inclusion activities.
The data collection will take place over a three to four month period and will be comprised of a questionnaire to be completed by the respondent. The data will be collected via a mail-back survey instrument.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DOD.
Notice of Intent.
The Los Angeles District intends to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) to support a cost-shared feasibility study with the Port of Long Beach, California, for navigation improvements to existing navigation channels within the Port. The purpose of the feasibility study is to provide safe, reliable, and efficient waterborne transportation improvements to the Port of Long Beach. The EIS will analyze potential impacts of the recommended plan and a range of alternatives for navigation improvements. Alternatives will include both structural and non-structural measures.
You may submit your concerns in writing to the Los Angeles District at the address below. Comments, suggestions, and requests to be placed on the mailing list for announcements should be sent to Larry Smith, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Los Angeles District, 915 Wilshire Boulevard, Suite 930, Los Angeles, CA 90017-3401, or email to
For further information contact Mr. Larry Smith, Project Environmental Coordinator, (213) 452-3846.
Authorization: Resolution of the Senate Committee on Public Works adopted 11 May 1967 and the Resolution of the House Committee on Public Works adopted 10 July 1968. The Army Corps of Engineers intends to prepare an EIS to assess the environmental effects associated with proposed navigation improvements measures in the study area.
(1) Due to depth limitations along channels accessing the Port's container terminals, existing container vessels cannot load to their maximum draft, which is causing light-loading of vessels at the point of origin and delays to an increasing number of containerships.
(2) The dimensions of the world-wide fleet of container vessels have increased significantly, and it is anticipated that this trend will continue into the future. Delays and light-loading due to container vessel draft limits will increase as new, larger vessels are added to the fleet.
(3) There are diminished recreation opportunities and environmental degradation in coastal areas outside of the study area.
Scoping: The scoping process is ongoing and has involved preliminary coordination with Federal, State, and local agencies. A public scoping meeting is scheduled on 19 January 2016, from 2:00 to 4:00 p.m. at the Port of Long Beach Harbor Department Interim Administrative Offices; 4801 Airport Plaza Drive, Long Beach, California. The public will have an opportunity to express opinions and raise any issues relating to the scope of the Feasibility Study and the EIS. The public as well as Federal, State, and local agencies are encouraged to participate by submitting data, information, and comments identifying relevant environmental and socioeconomic issues to be addressed in the study. Useful information includes other environmental studies, published and unpublished data, alternatives that could be addressed in the analysis, and potential mitigation measures associated with the proposed action. All comments enter into the public record.
Availability of the Draft EIS: The Draft EIS is scheduled to be published and circulated in late 2016, and a public hearing to receive comments on the Draft EIS will be held after it is published.
Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of orders.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy gives notice that during November 2015, it issued orders granting authority to import and export natural gas, to import and export liquefied natural gas (LNG), to vacate prior authority, and errata. These orders are summarized in the attached appendix and may be found on the FE Web site at
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Energy.
Notice and request for comments.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) invites public comment in Docket No. RD16-2-000 on a proposed change to collections of information (FERC-725P and FERC-725P1) that the Commission is developing for submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before March 7, 2016.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
• Electronic Filing through
• Mail/Hand Delivery: Those unable to file electronically may mail or hand-deliver an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
Ellen Brown may be reached by email at
The Commission will submit the reporting and recordkeeping requirements of Reliability Standard PRC-005-6 to OMB for review. Reliability Standard PRC-005-6 replaces or supplements requirements from previous versions of the PRC-005 Reliability Standard, which are approved under FERC-725P (Mandatory Reliability Standards: Reliability Standard PRC-005-3, OMB Control No. 1902-0269) and FERC-725P1 (Mandatory Reliability Standards, PRC-005-4 Reliability Standard, OMB Control No. 1902-0280). The requirements and associated burden of Reliability Standard PRC-005-6 will be included in FERC-725P1.
On February 3, 2006, the Commission issued Order No. 672, implementing section 215 of the FPA.
On November 13, 2015, the North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC) filed a petition for Commission approval of proposed Reliability Standard PRC-005-6 (Protection System, Automatic Reclosing, and Sudden Pressure Relaying Maintenance). NERC also requested approval of the proposed implementation plan for PRC-005-6, and the retirement of previous versions of Reliability Standard PRC-005. NERC explained in its petition that Reliability Standard PRC-005-6 represents an improvement upon the most recently-approved version of the standard, PRC-005-4.
On December 29, 2015, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL16-21-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of C.P. Crane LLC's reactive power rate schedule.
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL16-21-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) is cooperating with the U.S. Coast Guard (Coast Guard), the lead federal agency for environmental review of the Delfin LNG Project. This proposal involves the construction and operation of an offshore liquefied natural gas (LNG) deepwater port (under the jurisdiction of the Coast Guard and the Maritime Administration) and associated pipeline facilities, including about 1.1 mile of onshore pipeline and aboveground facilities under the Commission's jurisdiction. FERC staff is assisting the Coast Guard in its preparation of an environmental impact statement (EIS) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Delfin LNG Project. This cooperative effort is to comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), which requires the Commission to take into account the
NEPA requires the FERC to discover and address concerns the public may have about proposals under its review. This process is referred to as “scoping.” On November 19, 2015, Delfin LNG, LLC (Delfin LNG) amended its application with the FERC regarding the proposed aboveground facilities. Thus, the FERC is opening a scoping period to solicit input from the public and interested agencies
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the planned facilities. Delfin LNG would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, Delfin LNG could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
This notice is being sent to affected landowners; federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; Native American tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. State and local government representatives are asked to notify their constituents of this proposed project and to encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” is available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
Delfin LNG proposes to activate the formerly abandoned U-T offshore system (UTOS) pipeline and construct new connecting pipelines, a compressor station, and appurtenant facilities the majority of which would be within the PSI Midstream Partners, L.P. (PSI) Cameron Meadows Gas Plant and adjacent Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line, LLC (Transco) Station 44 in Cameron Parish. The proposed facilities consist of:
• 1.1 miles of the existing onshore portion of the 42-inch-diameter UTOS pipeline from the landward side of the mean high water mark along the coast of Cameron Parish to just inside the boundary of Transco Station 44;
• a mainline block valve and blowdown site located south of Louisiana Highway 82;
• a new meter station and connecting piping within the Transco Station 44 site;
• a new 0.25-mile-long 42-inch-diameter pipeline to connect the UTOS line to the new meter station;
• new twin 0.6-mile-long 30-inch diameter header pipelines;
• a new compressor station consisting of:
four 30,000 horsepower (hp) Solar Tital 250 gas turbine-driven compressors;
four gas coolers;
three 600 kilowatt generators;
two control buildings, office and warehouse buildings; and
pig launcher and check meter.
The general location of the proposed onshore pipeline is shown in appendix 1.
Approximately 19.4 acres of land would be affected by construction, with about 13.0 acres permanently impacted for operation. The construction right-of-way width for the three adjacent pipelines—the twin 0.6-mile, 30-inch-diameter header pipelines and the 0.25-mile 42-inch-diameter pipeline would be 120 feet wide, of which 70 feet would be retained as permanent right-of-way. The majority of aboveground facilities would be constructed within the existing fence lines of the Cameron Meadows Gas Plant and Transco Station 44.
Of the land effected by construction, approximately 36.4 percent is classified as industrial land use and approximately 35.9 percent is currently maintained in an herbaceous state. The remaining land comprises intermediate marsh, coastal dune shrub thicket, scrub/shrub swamp, and roads.
NEPA requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us to discover and address concerns the public may have about proposals. This process is referred to as “scoping.” The main goal of the scoping process is to focus the analysis in the EIS on the important environmental issues.
As mentioned previously, the Coast Guard is the lead federal agency preparing the EIS for the overall Delfin LNG Deepwater Port Project. According to the Maritime Administration's December 24, 2015
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP15-490) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
In addition to involvement in the EIS scoping process, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the “Document-less Intervention Guide” under the “e-filing” link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
This constitutes notice, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2201(b), of the receipt of prohibited and exempt off-the-record communications.
Order No. 607 (64 FR 51222, September 22, 1999) requires Commission decisional employees, who make or receive a prohibited or exempt off-the-record communication relevant to the merits of a contested proceeding, to deliver to the Secretary of the Commission, a copy of the communication, if written, or a summary of the substance of any oral communication.
Prohibited communications are included in a public, non-decisional file associated with, but not a part of, the decisional record of the proceeding. Unless the Commission determines that the prohibited communication and any responses thereto should become a part of the decisional record, the prohibited off-the-record communication will not be considered by the Commission in reaching its decision. Parties to a proceeding may seek the opportunity to respond to any facts or contentions made in a prohibited off-the-record communication, and may request that the Commission place the prohibited communication and responses thereto in the decisional record. The Commission will grant such a request only when it determines that fairness so requires. Any person identified below as having made a prohibited off-the-record communication shall serve the document on all parties listed on the official service list for the applicable proceeding in accordance with Rule 2010, 18 CFR 385.2010.
Exempt off-the-record communications are included in the decisional record of the proceeding, unless the communication was with a cooperating agency as described by 40 CFR 1501.6, made under 18 CFR 385.2201(e)(1)(v).
The following is a list of off-the-record communications recently received by the Secretary of the Commission. The communications listed are grouped by docket numbers in ascending order. These filings are available for electronic review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Docket Numbers:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
Description: Application for Authorization Under Section 204 of the Federal Power Act to Issue Securities of NorthWestern Corporation.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
In accordance with the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), EPA is issuing a notice of receipt of requests by the registrants to voluntarily cancel their registrations of certain products containing the pesticides alachlor, atrazine, fludioxonil, glyphosate, POE isooctadecanol, pyrithiobac, quizalofop-p-ethyl, thiamethoxam, and thiophanate methyl, and to amend three dodine product registrations to terminate use on strawberries. The requests would not terminate the last atrazine, fludioxonil, glyphosate, POE isooctadecanol, pyrithiobac, quizalofop-p-ethyl, thiamethoxam, and thiophanate methyl products registered for use in the United States. One request, if granted, would terminate the last alachlor products registered for use in the United States. EPA intends to grant these requests at the close of the comment period for this announcement unless the Agency receives substantive comments within the comment period that would merit its further review of the requests, or unless the registrants withdraw their requests. If these requests are granted, any sale, distribution, or use of products listed in this notice will be permitted after the registrations have been cancelled and uses terminated only if such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms as described in the final order.
Comments must be received on or before February 4, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0741, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Miguel Zavala, Pesticide Re-Evaluation Division (7508P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 347-0504; email address:
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
1.
2.
This notice announces receipt by EPA of requests from ADAMA Agricultural Solutions, Gowan Company, Syngenta Crop Protection, BASF Corporation, and Monsanto Company to cancel certain product registrations and from Agriphar S.A. to amend certain registrations to terminate uses on strawberry.
Alachlor is an herbicide registered for on beans, corn, peanuts, sorghum, and soybeans. There are no non-agricultural use sites. Atrazine is an herbicide registered for use on corn, sorghum, and sugarcane. In a letter dated October 13, 2015, Monsanto requested that EPA cancel all alachlor product registrations identified in Table 1 of Unit III. Several of these alachlor products also contain atrazine. Such action would terminate the last alachlor pesticide products registered in the United States, but would not terminate the last atrazine
Dodine is a fungicide registered for use on almonds, apples, bananas, cherries, nectarines, peaches, peanuts and pecans. There are no non-agricultural use sites. In a letter dated June 22, 2015, Ceres International LLC requested on behalf of Agriphar S.A. that EPA amend certain registrations identified in Table 2 of Unit III to delete the use of dodine on strawberry. This request would delete the strawberry use site from all dodine product labels registered for use in the United States, but would not terminate the last dodine pesticide products registered in the United States.
Fludioxonil is a broad spectrum contact fungicide and antimicrobial that is used on a variety of crops, berries, fruit trees, grasses, herbs, ornamentals, and residential turf, as a preservative for mold remediation and other non-food uses. Thiamethoxam is a broad spectrum nitroguanidine insecticide that is registered for use on several agricultural and non-agricultural commodities. In a letter dated November 19, 2015, Syngenta requested that EPA cancel one pesticide product registration containing both fludioxonil and thiamethoxam identified in Table 1 of Unit III. This action will not terminate the last fludioxonil or thiamethoxam pesticide products registered in the United States.
Glyphosate is a non-selective herbicide registered for use on many food and non-food crops as well as in non-crop and residential areas. Quizalofop-p-ethyl is a systemic herbicide registered for use to control annual and perennial weeds in various food/feed and non-food/feed crops. In a letter dated September 23, 2015, Monsanto Company requested that EPA cancel one pesticide product registration containing both glyphosate and quizalofop-p-ethyl identified in Table 1 of Unit III. This action will not terminate the last glyphosate or quizalofop-p-ethyl pesticide products registered in the United States.
POE isooctadecanol is registered for insect control including mosquitos as a larvicide and pupicide in flooded areas, swamps, sewage, irrigation and drainage systems, and other aquatic sites. In letters dated October 16, 2015, BASF Corporation requested that EPA cancel certain POE isooctadecanol product registrations identified in Table 1 of Unit III. This action will not terminate the last POE isooctadecanol pesticide products registered in the United States.
Pyrithiobac is a selective pre- and post-emergent herbicide used to control a variety of broadleaf weeds in cotton fields. In a letter dated October 1, 2015, ADAMA Agricultural Solutions requested that EPA cancel one pyrithiobac product registration identified in Table 1 of Unit III. This action will not terminate the last pyrithiobac pesticide products registered in the United States.
Thiophanate methyl is a systemic benzimidazole fungicide registered for use on row, field and orchard crops, greenhouses, nurseries, and for commercial seed and bulb dip treatment. In a letter dated May 19, 2015, Gowan Company requested that EPA cancel certain thiophanate methyl product registrations identified in Table 1 of Unit III. This action will not terminate the last thiophanate methyl pesticide products registered in the United States.
This notice announces receipt by EPA of requests from registrants to cancel certain product registrations of alachlor, atrazine, fludioxonil, glyphosate, POE isooctadecanol, pyrithiobac, quizalofop-p-ethyl, thiamethoxam, and thiophanate methyl, and terminate uses on strawberries for certain dodine registrations. The affected products and the registrants making the requests are identified in Tables 1-3 of this unit.
Unless a request is withdrawn by the registrant or if the Agency determines that there are substantive comments that warrant further review of this request, EPA intends to issue an order canceling the affected registrations and amending to terminate certain uses the affected registrations for which the Agency received use termination requests.
Table 3 of this unit includes the names and addresses of record for the registrants of the products listed in Table 1 and Table 2 of this unit, in sequence by EPA company number. This number corresponds to the first part of the EPA registration numbers of the products listed in Table 1 and Table 2 of this unit.
Section 6(f)(1) of FIFRA (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)(1)) provides that a registrant of a pesticide product may at any time request that any of its pesticide registrations be canceled or amended to terminate one or more uses. FIFRA further provides that, before acting on the request, EPA must publish a notice of receipt of any such request in the
Section 6(f)(1)(B) of FIFRA (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)(1)(B)) requires that before acting on a request for voluntary cancellation, EPA must provide a 30-day public comment period on the request for voluntary cancellation or use termination. In addition, FIFRA section 6(f)(1)(C) (7 U.S.C. 136d(f)(1)(C)) requires that EPA provide a 180-day comment period on a request for voluntary cancellation or termination of any minor agricultural use before granting the request, unless:
1. The registrants request a waiver of the comment period, or
2. The EPA Administrator determines that continued use of the pesticide would pose an unreasonable adverse effect on the environment.
The alachlor, atrazine, dodine, fludioxonil, glyphosate, pyrithiobac, POE isooctadecanol, quizalofop-p-ethyl, thiamethoxam, and thiophanate methyl registrants have requested that EPA waive the 180-day comment period. Accordingly, EPA will provide a 30-day comment period on the proposed requests.
Registrants who choose to withdraw a request for product cancellation or use deletion should submit the withdrawal in writing to the person listed under
Existing stocks are those stocks of registered pesticide products that are currently in the United States and that were packaged, labeled, and released for shipment prior to the effective date of the action. If the requests for voluntary cancellation and amendments to delete uses are granted, the Agency intends to publish the cancellation order in the
In any order issued in response to these requests for cancellation of product registrations and for amendments to delete uses, EPA proposes to include the following provisions for the treatment of any existing stocks of the products listed in Tables 1 and 2 of Unit III.
The registrants reported to the Agency via written correspondence that there are no existing stocks of these products. Therefore, no existing stocks provision was requested by or is needed for these registrants. The registrants will be prohibited from selling or distributing these products upon cancellation of these products, except for export consistent with FIFRA section 17 (7 U.S.C. 136o) or for proper disposal.
Because the Agency has identified no significant potential risk concerns associated with these pesticide products, upon cancellation, EPA anticipates allowing the registrants to sell and distribute existing stocks these products for 1 year after the effective date of the cancellation;
Persons other than the registrant will generally be allowed to sell, distribute, or use existing stocks of the affected canceled products until such stocks are exhausted, provided that such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms of the previously approved labeling on, or that accompanied, the canceled products.
Once EPA has approved product labels reflecting the requested amendments to terminate uses, registrants will be permitted to sell or distribute products under the previously approved labeling for a period of 18 months after the date of
Persons other than the registrant may sell, distribute, or use existing stocks of the products whose labels include the terminated uses until supplies are exhausted, provided that such sale, distribution, or use is consistent with the terms of the previously approved labeling on, or that accompanied, the products with the terminated uses.
7 U.S.C. 136
Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board.
Notice.
The Exposure Draft is available on the FASAB Web site at
Respondents are encouraged to comment on any part of the exposure draft. Written comments are requested by March 29, 2016, and should be sent to
Ms. Wendy M. Payne, Executive Director, 441 G St. NW., Mail Stop 6H20, Washington, DC 20548, or call (202) 512-7350.
Federal Advisory Committee Act, Pub. L. 92-463.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of an existing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on renewal of the information collection described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before March 7, 2016.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Gary A. Kuiper, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently-approved collection of information:
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
10:00 a.m., Wednesday, January 13, 2016.
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will hear oral argument in the matter
Any person attending this oral argument who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
10:00 a.m., Thursday, January 14, 2016
The Richard V. Backley Hearing Room, Room 511N, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004 (enter from F Street entrance).
Open.
The Commission will consider and act upon the following in open session:
Any person attending this meeting who requires special accessibility features and/or auxiliary aids, such as sign language interpreters, must inform the Commission in advance of those needs. Subject to 29 CFR 2706.150(a)(3) and 2706.160(d).
Emogene Johnson (202) 434-9935/(202) 708-9300 for TDD Relay/1-800-877-8339 for toll free.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by March 7, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
• Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION”. The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The draft guidance is intended to provide sponsors and FDA review staff with information regarding target product profiles (TPPs). A TPP can be prepared by a sponsor and then shared voluntarily with the appropriate FDA review staff to facilitate communication regarding a particular drug development program. A Clinical Development Working Group recommended use of a template that provides a summary of drug labeling concepts to focus discussions and aid in the understanding between sponsors and FDA. The resulting TPP is a format for a summary of a drug development program described in terms of labeling concepts. With the TPP, a sponsor specifies the labeling concepts that are the goals of the drug development program, documents the specific studies that are intended to support the labeling concepts, and then uses the TPP to assist in a constructive dialogue with FDA. The draft guidance describes the purpose of a TPP, its advantages, and its optimal use. It also provides information on how to complete a TPP and relates case studies that demonstrate a TPP's usefulness.
Sponsors are not required to submit a TPP. The TPP does not represent an implicit or explicit obligation on the sponsor's part to pursue all stated goals. Submission of a TPP summary does not constrain the sponsor to submit draft labeling in a new drug application (NDA) or biologics license application (BLA) that is identical to the TPP. The TPP is part of the proprietary investigational new drug application (IND) file.
The TPP is organized according to the key sections of the drug labeling and links drug development activities to specific concepts intended for inclusion in the drug labeling. The TPP is not a long summary. Generally, the TPP is shorter than the ultimate annotated draft labeling because it captures only a summary of the drug development activities and labeling concepts. Early TPPs can be brief depending on the status of the drug's development process.
The Target Product Profile Template in Appendix C of the draft guidance details the suggested information to be included in each section of the TPP. The TPP includes information from each discipline comprising an NDA/BLA. Within each discipline, the TPP briefly summarizes the specific studies that will supply the evidence for each conclusion that is a labeling concept. A TPP is organized according to key sections in the drug's labeling. Typical key sections are:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; renewal of advisory committee.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the renewal of the Food Advisory Committee by the Commissioner of Food and Drugs (the Commissioner). The Commissioner has determined that it is in the public interest to renew the Food Advisory Committee for an additional 2 years beyond the charter expiration date. The new charter will be in effect until the December 18, 2017.
Authority for the Food Advisory Committee will expire on December 18, 2017, unless the Commissioner formally determines that renewal is in the public interest.
Karen Strambler, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Office of Regulations, Policy, and Social Sciences, Food and Drug Administration, 5100 Paint Branch Pkwy., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-2589,
Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.65 and approval by the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to 45 CFR part 11 and by the General Services Administration, FDA is announcing the renewal of the Food Advisory Committee. The committee is a discretionary Federal advisory committee established to provide advice to the Commissioner.
The Food Advisory Committee (the Committee) advises the Commissioner or designee in discharging responsibilities as they relate to helping to ensure safe and effective drugs for human use and, as required, any other product for which FDA has regulatory responsibility.
The Committee reviews and evaluates emerging food safety, nutrition, and other food- or cosmetic-related health issues that FDA considers of primary importance for its food and cosmetics programs. The Committee may be charged with reviewing and evaluating available data and making recommendations on matters such as those relating to: (1) Broad scientific and technical food- or cosmetic-related issues; (2) the safety of food ingredients and new foods; (3) labeling of foods and cosmetics; (4) nutrient needs and nutritional adequacy; and (5) safe exposure limits for food contaminants. The Committee may also be asked to provide advice and make recommendations on ways of communicating to the public the potential risks associated with these issues and on approaches that might be considered for addressing the issues.
The Committee shall consist of a core of 15 voting members including the Chair. Members and the Chair are selected by the Commissioner or designee from among authorities knowledgeable in the fields of physical sciences, biological and life sciences, food science, risk assessment, nutrition, food technology, molecular biology, epidemiology, and other relevant scientific and technical disciplines. Members will be invited to serve for overlapping terms of up to 4 years. Almost all non-Federal members of this committee serve as Special Government Employees. The core of voting members may include two technically qualified member(s), selected by the Commissioner or designee, who are identified with consumer interests and are recommended by either a consortium of consumer-oriented organizations or other interested persons. In addition to the voting members, the Committee may include two non-voting member(s) who are identified with industry interests.
Further information regarding the most recent charter and other information can be found at
This document is issued under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app.). For general information related to FDA advisory committees, please visit us at
Office of Minority Health, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice of meeting.
As stipulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) is hereby giving notice that the Advisory Committee on
The meeting will be held on Thursday, January 28, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. and on Friday, January 29, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Omni Shoreham Hotel, 2500 Calvert St. NW., Washington, DC 20008.
Dr. Minh Wendt, Alternate Designated Federal Officer, ACMH; Tower Building, 1101 Wootton Parkway, Suite 600, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Phone: 240-453-8222, Fax: 240-453-8223;
In accordance with Public Law 105-392, the ACMH was established to provide advice to the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Minority Health in improving the health of each racial and ethnic minority group and on the development of goals and specific program activities of the Office of Minority Health.
Topics to be discussed during this meeting will include strategies to improve the health of racial and ethnic minority populations through the development of health policies and programs that will help eliminate health disparities, as well as other related issues.
Public attendance at this meeting is limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the designated contact person at least fourteen (14) business days prior to the meeting. Members of the public will have an opportunity to provide comments at the meeting. Public comments will be limited to three minutes per speaker. Individuals who would like to submit written statements should mail or fax their comments to the Office of Minority Health at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting. Any members of the public who wish to have printed material distributed to ACMH committee members should submit their materials to the Designated Federal Officer, ACMH, Tower Building, 1101 Wootton Parkway, Suite 600, Rockville, Maryland 20852, prior to close of business on Thursday, January 21, 2016.
Department of Health and Human Services, Office of the Secretary, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health.
Notice.
As stipulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the U.S. Department of Health and Human Service is hereby giving notice that the Presidential Advisory Council on HIV/AIDS (PACHA) will be holding a meeting to continue discussions and possibly develop recommendations regarding People Living with HIV/AIDS. PACHA members will have discussions regarding Health System Transformations, community approaches to implementing the Updated National HIV/AIDS Strategy, and food as medicine. The meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on January 28, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to approximately 5:00 p.m. (ET) and January 29, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to approximately 12:30 p.m. (ET).
200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201.
Ms. Caroline Talev, Public Health Analyst, Presidential Advisory Council on HIV/AIDS, Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Room 443H, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, Washington, DC 20201; (202) 205-1178. More detailed information about PACHA can be obtained by accessing the Council's Web site
PACHA was established by Executive Order 12963, dated June 14, 1995, as amended by Executive Order 13009, dated June 14, 1996. The Council was established to provide advice, information, and recommendations to the Secretary regarding programs, policies, and research to promote effective treatment, prevention, and cure of HIV disease and AIDS, including considering common co-morbidities of those infected with HIV as needed to promote effective prevention and treatment and quality services to persons living with HIV disease and AIDS. The functions of the Council are solely advisory in nature.
The Council consists of not more than 25 members. Council members are selected from prominent community leaders with particular expertise in, or knowledge of, matters concerning HIV and AIDS, public health, global health, philanthropy, marketing or business, as well as other national leaders held in high esteem from other sectors of society. Council members are appointed by the Secretary or designee, in consultation with the White House Office on National AIDS Policy. The agenda for the upcoming meeting will be posted on the Council's Web site at
The Council consists of not more than 25 members. Council members are selected from prominent community leaders with particular expertise in, or knowledge of, matters concerning HIV and AIDS, public health, global health, philanthropy, marketing or business, as well as other national leaders held in high esteem from other sectors of society. Council members are appointed by the Secretary or designee, in consultation with the White House Office on National AIDS Policy. The agenda for the upcoming meeting will be posted on the AIDS.gov Web site at
Public attendance at the meeting is limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify Caroline Talev at
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as atentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4245-DR), dated November 25, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the Public Assistance program for the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of November 25, 2015.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Idaho (FEMA-4246-DR), dated December 23, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated December 23, 2015, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Idaho resulting from a severe storm and straight-line winds on November 17, 2015, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Thomas J. Dargan, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Idaho have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Benewah, Bonner, Boundary, and Kootenai Counties and the Coeur d'Alene Tribe for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Idaho are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households in Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Oklahoma (FEMA-4247-DR), dated December 29, 2015, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated December 29, 2015, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Oklahoma resulting from severe winter storms and flooding during the period of November 27-29, 2015, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, William J. Doran III, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Oklahoma have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Alfalfa, Beckham, Blaine, Caddo, Canadian, Custer, Dewey, Ellis, Grady, Grant, Kingfisher, Kiowa, Logan, Major, Oklahoma, Roger Mills, Washita, and Woods Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Oklahoma are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households in Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for possible use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7262, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565, (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), or call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588.
In accordance with the December 12, 1988 court order in
Office of Administration, HUD.
Notice of a Computer Matching Program between U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development and the U.S Small Business Administration (SBA).
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended by the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-503), and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidelines on the Conduct of Matching Programs (54 FR 25818 (June 19, 1989); and OMB Bulletin 89-22, “Instructions on Reporting Computer Matching Programs to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Congress and the Public,” HUD is issuing a public notice of its intent to conduct a recurring computer matching program with SBA for the purpose of incorporating SBA debtor files into the Credit Alert Verification Reporting System (CAIVRS), which is a HUD computer information system.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this notice to the Rules Docket Clerk, Office of General Counsel, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 10110, Washington, DC 20410. Communications should refer to the above docket number and title. A copy of each communication submitted will be available for public inspection and copying between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. weekdays at the above address.
The “Recipient Agency,” Acting Departmental Privacy Officer, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410-0001; telephone number 202-402-6147, or the “Source Agency” U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 Third Street SW., Suite 8300, Washington, DC, telephone number 202-205-7736. (These are not a toll-free numbers). Persons who are deaf or hard hard hearing and person with speech impairments can assess these numbers through TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (This is a toll free number).
HUD's CAIVRS database includes delinquent debt information from the U.S. Departments of Veteran's Affairs (VA), Education (ED), Justice (DOJ), Agriculture (USDA) and the Small Business Administration (SBA). This data match will allow the prescreening of applicants for Federal direct loans or federally guaranteed loans, for the purpose of determining the applicant's credit worthiness, by ascertaining whether the applicant is delinquent or in default on a loan owed directly to, or federally guaranteed by, the Federal Government. Lending Federal agencies and authorized private lending institutions will be able to use the CAIVRS debtor file to verify that the loan applicant is not in default, or delinquent on a Federal direct or federally guaranteed loan, prior to granting the applicant a loan. The CAIVRS database contains Personally Identifiable Information (PII) contributed by participating Federal agencies, including Social Security numbers (SSNs) and other records of borrowers delinquent or in default on debts owed to, or guaranteed by HUD and other Federal agencies. Authorized users may not deny, terminate, or make a final decision concerning any loan assistance to an applicant or take other adverse action against such applicant based on the information produced by data matches conducted under CAIVRS, until such authorized users have independently verified such adverse information.
In accordance with Public Law 100-503, the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 as amended, and OMB Bulletin 89-22, “Instructions on Reporting Computer Matching Programs to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Congress and the Public,” copies of this notice and report are being provided to the U.S. House Committee on Oversight Government Reform, the U.S. Senate Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs Committee, and OMB.
HUD has authority to collect and review mortgage data pursuant to the National Housing Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1701
The objective of this matching program is to give program agencies access to a system that allows them to prescreen applicants for loans made or loans guaranteed by the Federal Government, to ascertain if the applicant is delinquent in paying a debt owed to or guaranteed by the Federal Government. As part of this process, HUD will be provided access to SBA's debtor data, for prescreening purposes.
The use of CAIVRS will allow HUD to better monitor its credit programs and to reduce the credit extended to individuals with outstanding delinquencies on debts owed to HUD and other Federal agencies. SBA expects to achieve savings through risk reduction and debt recovery. By the very nature of debt prevention, expected savings must be the subject of some assumptions, including the anticipated behavior of the matching subjects. SBA also participates in CAIVRS as a cooperative effort in a Governmentwide credit plan that may benefit other agencies as much, if not more, than SBA.
Under this computer matching program, HUD/CAIVRS receives limited information on borrowers who have defaulted on loans administered by
• Yes/No as to whether the holder of that SSN/EIN is in default on a Federal loan; and
• If Yes, then CAIVRS provides to the lender:
○ Loan case number;
○ Record type (claim, default, foreclosure, or judgment);
○ Agency administering the loan program;
○ Phone number at the applicable Federal agency (to call to clear up the default); and
○ Confirmation code associated with the query.
Federal law mandates the suspension of the processing of applications for Federal credit benefits (such as Government-insured loans) if the applicants are delinquent on Federal or federally guaranteed debt. Processing may continue only after the borrower satisfactorily resolves the debt (
HUD will use records from the Single Family Default Monitoring System (SFDMS/F42D) (72 FR 65350, November 20, 2007, and Single Family Insurance System—Claims Subsystem, CLAIMS, A43C (79 FR 10825, February 26, 2014), as combined in CAIVRS to provide an up-to-date dataset to be used in records matching. SFDMS maintains data on mortgages that are 90 or more days delinquent. The mortgagee or servicer must submit a Monthly Delinquent Loan Report (form HUD-92068-A) to HUD on a monthly basis until the mortgage status has been completed by all mortgagees, or is otherwise terminated or deleted. Mortgagees and servicers provide default data to HUD via the Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) or using the Internet via FHA Connection, through which the data is sorted, prescreened, key entered, edited, and otherwise processed. Reports are generated for HUD Headquarters and field offices to review.
CLAIMS provides automated receipt, tracking, and processing of form HUD-27011, “Single Family Application for Insurance Benefits.” CLAIMS provides online update and inquiry capability to Single Family Insurance and Claims databases, and to cumulative history files. Claims payments are made by Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT), via a Hitachi Data Systems (HDS) platform (IBM mainframe/Treasury interface), on a daily basis.
For the actual data match, SBA will use records from the system of records entitled Disaster Loan Case File (SBA 20) and the Loan System (SBA 21).
HUD and SBA have separate procedures for notifying individuals that their records will be matched to determine whether they are delinquent or in default on a Federal debt. HUD will notify individuals at the time of application for a HUD/FHA mortgage, and SBA will notify individuals at the time of application for SBA loan services. SBA may disclose information from the applications to other Federal agencies under a published “routine use,” without the applicants' consent, as permitted by law.
HUD and SBA published notices concerning routine use disclosures in the
Data elements disclosed in computer matching governed by this Agreement are PII from the specified SBA system of record. The data elements supplied by SBA to CAIVRS are the following:
• Borrower ID Number—The SSN, EIN, or TIN of the borrower on a delinquent or defaulted Federal direct loan or Federally guaranteed loan.
• Case Number—A reference number issued by the reporting agency for the delinquent or defaulted Federal direct loan or federally guaranteed loan.
• Agency Code—A code assigned to the reporting agency.
• Type Code—A code that indicates the type of record claim, default, foreclosure, or judgment.
• Borrower ID Type—A code that indicates whether the Borrower ID Number is a SSN, an EIN, or a TIN.
Matching will begin at least 40 days from the date that copies of the computer, matching agreement, signed by HUD and SBA Data Integrity Boards, are sent to both Houses of Congress and to OMB or at least 30 days from the date this notice is published in the
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of receipt of permit applications; request for comment.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications to conduct certain activities with endangered species. With some exceptions, the Endangered Species Act (Act) prohibits activities with endangered and threatened species unless a Federal permit allows such activity. The Act also requires that we invite public comment before issuing recovery permits to conduct certain activities with endangered species.
Comments on these permit applications must be received on or before February 4, 2016.
Written data or comments should be submitted to the Endangered Species Program Manager, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Region 8, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2606, Sacramento, CA 95825 (telephone: 916-414-6464; fax: 916-414-6486). Please refer to the respective permit number for each application when submitting comments.
Daniel Marquez, Fish and Wildlife Biologist; see
The following applicants have applied for scientific research permits to conduct certain activities with endangered species under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
The applicant requests a permit to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, conduct nest monitoring, release, collect biological samples, fit with radio transmitters, transport, band, captive rear, display publically, and conduct daily husbandry) the California condor (
The applicant requests a permit to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release, collect adult vouchers, and collect branchiopod cysts) the Conservancy fairy shrimp (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release, collect adult vouchers, and collect branchiopod cysts) the Conservancy fairy shrimp (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (survey by pursuit) the Quino checkerspot butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, collect and sacrifice for diet and isotope analysis, collect scales, implant passive integrated transponder (PIT) and visible implant elastomer (VIE) tags, and release) the Lahontan cutthroat trout (
The applicant requests a permit amendment and renewal to take (harass by survey and locate and monitor nests) the California least tern (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release, collect adult vouchers, and collect branchiopod cysts) the Conservancy fairy shrimp (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (capture, handle, collect biological samples, radio-collar, survey, euthanize critically ill or injured wild or captive-reared individuals unable to recover, and release) the Nelson bighorn sheep (Peninsular Ranges distinct population segment; Peninsular bighorn sheep) (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (survey by pursuit) the Quino checkerspot butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (harass by survey) the southwestern willow flycatcher (
The applicant requests a permit to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release) the giant kangaroo rat (
The applicant requests a permit to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, and release) the California tiger salamander (Santa Barbara County and Sonoma County Distinct Population Segment (DPS)) (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, mark, collect tissue samples, and release) the California tiger salamander (Santa Barbara County and Sonoma County DPS) (
The applicant requests a permit renewal and amendment to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, measure, implant PIT tags, radio-collar, vaccinate, collect and test biological samples, transport, maintain in captivity, release to the wild, and euthanize for humane reasons) the Santa Catalina Island fox (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (survey by pursuit) the Quino checkerspot butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit amendment to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release, and collect) the delta smelt (
The applicant requests a permit to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, release, collect adult vouchers, and collect branchiopod cysts) the Conservancy fairy shrimp (
The applicant requests a permit renewal to take (harass by survey, capture, handle, and release) the California tiger salamander (Santa Barbara County and Sonoma County Distinct Population Segment (DPS)) (
We invite public review and comment on each of these recovery permit applications. Comments and materials we receive will be available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the address listed in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comment.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application from Central Coastal Water Authority (CCWA) for a 30-year incidental take permit (ITP) under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). The application addresses the potential for “take” of the federally endangered San Joaquin kit fox (
To ensure consideration, please send your written comments by February 4, 2016.
You may download a copy of the draft HCP and draft environmental action statement and low-effect screening form on the Internet at
Julie M. Vanderwier, Fish and Wildlife Biologist, at the above address, or by calling (805) 644-1766, extension 222.
We invite comments from the public on the draft HCP and our NEPA compliance.
Section 9 of the Act and its implementing regulations (16 U.S.C. 1531
Measures to minimize the amount and severity of take proposed by the applicant are discussed in detail in section 2.10 of the draft HCP. Mitigation for unavoidable take of California red-legged frog and California tiger salamander includes the purchase of credits in the Palo Prieto Conservation Bank in San Luis Obispo County, with an additional credit for California tiger salamander purchased in the La Purisima Conservation Bank in Santa Barbara County. Mitigation for San Joaquin kit fox was provided at the time of project construction as part of its compliance with the California Environmental Quality Act and its terms memorialized in a Memorandum of Understanding between applicant and the California Department of Fish and Game (now California Department of Fish and Wildlife). The mitigation requirements were included in the project description of our biological opinion 1-8-93-F-20. As such, no additional mitigation is deemed necessary for San Joaquin kit fox.
The draft HCP provides for, and discusses, five alternatives to the proposed project: No Project, No Action, Maintenance Alternative, Minimum Conservation, and Maximum Conservation. These are discussed in detail in section 9 of the HCP.
We are requesting comments on our preliminary determination that the HCP qualifies for processing as a low-effect HCP as defined by our Habitat Conservation Planning Handbook (November 1996). Three criteria form the basis for our determination: (1) Implementation of the proposed project as described in the HCP would result in minor or negligible effects on federally listed, proposed, and/or candidate species and their habitats; (2) implementation of the HCP would result in minor negligible effects on other environmental values or resources; and (3) HCP impacts, considered together with those of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future projects, would not result in cumulatively significant effects. It is our preliminary determination that HCP approval and ITP issuance qualify for categorical exclusion under the NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
We will evaluate the permit application, including the HCP, and comments we receive to determine whether the application meets the requirements of section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. We will also evaluate whether issuance of the ITP would comply with section 7(a)(2) of the Act regarding jeopardy for federally listed fish, wildlife, or plant species by conducting an intra-Service consultation pursuant to section 7(a)(2) of the Act.
We are requesting comments on our determination that the applicant's proposal will have a minor or negligible effect on the San Joaquin kit fox, California red-legged frog, and California tiger salamander and that the plan qualifies as a low-effect HCP. We will evaluate the permit application, including the HCP and comments we receive, to make a final determination regarding whether the application meets the requirements of section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. We will use the results of our intra-Service consultation, in combination with the above findings, in our final analysis to determine whether to issue the ITP. If all permit issuance requirements are met, we will issue the permit to the applicant to authorize incidental take of San Joaquin kit fox, California red-legged frog, and California tiger salamander. We will make the final permit decision no sooner than 30 days after the date of this notice.
If you wish to comment on the HCP and associated documents, you may submit comments by any one of the methods provided in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public view, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10(c) of the Act and the NEPA public involvement regulations (40 CFR 1500.1(b), 1500.2(d), and 1506.6).
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95) [44 U.S.C. 3506(c) (2)(A)]. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is soliciting comments concerning the proposed extension of the “Veterans Supplement to the Current Population Survey (CPS),” to be conducted in August 2016, August 2017, and August 2018.
A copy of the proposed information collection request (ICR) can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the Addresses section of this notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the Addresses section of this notice on or before March 7, 2016.
Send comments to Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, Division of Management Systems, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Room 4080, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20212. Written comments also may be transmitted by fax to 202-691-5111 (this is not a toll free number).
Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, 202-691-7763 (this is not a toll free number). (See Addresses section.)
The CPS has been the principal source of official Government statistics on employment and unemployment since 1940 (75 years). Collection of labor force data through the CPS is necessary to meet the requirements in Title 29, United States Code, Sections 1 and 2. The Veterans Supplement provides information on the labor force status of veterans with a service-connected disability, combat veterans, past or present National Guard and Reserve members, and recently discharged veterans. Also, Afghanistan, Iraq, and Vietnam veterans are identified by location of service. Data are provided by period of service and a range of demographic characteristics. The supplement also provides information on veterans' participation in various transition and employment and training programs. The data collected through this supplement will be used by the Veterans Employment and Training Service and the Department of Veterans Affairs to determine policies that better meet the needs of our Nation's veteran population.
Office of Management and Budget clearance is being sought for the Veterans Supplement to the CPS. An extension without change of a currently approved collection is needed to continue to provide the Nation with timely information about the labor force status of veterans with a service-connected disability, combat veterans, past or present National Guard and Reserve members, recently discharged veterans, and veterans who have served in Afghanistan, Iraq, or Vietnam.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they also will become a matter of public record.
Notice.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA95) [44 U.S.C. 3506(c) (2)(A)]. This program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. The Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) is soliciting comments concerning the proposed extension of the “Eating and Health Supplement to the American Time Use Survey.”
A copy of the proposed information collection request (ICR) can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the Addresses section of this notice.
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the Addresses section of this notice on or before March 7, 2016.
Send comments to Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, Division of Management Systems, Bureau of Labor Statistics, Room 4080, 2 Massachusetts Avenue NE., Washington, DC 20212. Written comments also may be transmitted by fax to 202-691-5111 (this is not a toll free number).
Erin Good, BLS Clearance Officer, at 202-691-7763 (this is not a toll free number). (See Addresses section.)
The American Time Use Survey (ATUS) is the Nation's first federally administered, continuous survey on time use in the United States. It measures, for example, time spent with children, working, sleeping, or doing leisure activities. In the United States, several existing Federal surveys collect income and wage data for individuals and families, and analysts often use such measures of material prosperity as proxies for quality of life. Time-use data substantially augment these quality-of-life measures. The data also can be used in conjunction with wage data to evaluate the contribution of non-market work to national economies. This enables comparisons of production between nations that have different mixes of market and non-market activities.
The ATUS is used to develop nationally representative estimates of how people spend their time. This is done by collecting a time diary about the activities survey respondents did over a 24-hour period “yesterday,” from 4 a.m. on the day before the interview until 4 a.m. on the day of the interview. In the one-time interview, respondents also report who was with them during the activities, where they were, how long each activity lasted, and if they were paid. All of this information has numerous practical applications for sociologists, economists, educators, government policymakers, businesspersons, health researchers, and others.
Time use data allows researchers to analyze the choices people make in how they spend their time, along with the time and income constraints they face. The data from the proposed Eating and Health module supplement can be used for research on the inter-relations and inter-associations of time use patterns and body mass index (BMI), food assistance participation, grocery shopping, and meal preparation. These data enhance the understanding of peoples' overall well-being.
The Eating and Health module supplement includes questions about peoples' eating and drinking behaviors, food assistance participation, grocery and meal shopping, food preparation, and food sufficiency. It also includes questions on general health and physical exercise. Information collected in the supplement will be published as a public use data set to facilitate research on numerous topics, such as: The association between eating patterns, physical activity, and BMI; time-use patterns of food assistance program participants and low-income nonparticipants; and how time-use varies by health status. Sponsored by the Economic Research Service (ERS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), the supplement is asked of respondents immediately upon their completion of the American Time Use Survey (ATUS).
The Eating and Health supplement supports the mission of the Bureau of Labor Statistics by providing relevant information on economic and social issues, specifically the association between time-use patterns and eating and physical activity behavior and health. The data from the Eating and Health Module Supplement also closely support the mission of its sponsor, ERS, to improve the nation's nutrition and health. The supplement surveys individuals aged 15 and up from a nationally representative sample of approximately 2,190 sample households each month.
Office of Management and Budget clearance is being sought for the Eating and Health Supplement to the American Time Use Survey. An extension without change of a currently approved collection is needed to continue collecting data on time-use and how it relates to BMI, food assistance participation, grocery shopping, and meal preparation. Fielding the Eating and Health Module Supplement in calendar year 2016 will allow researchers to monitor changes in Americans' time use patterns along with changes in Americans' eating activities, BMI values, and food assistance participation.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request; they also will become a matter of public record.
Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress.
Notice announcing commencement of proceeding with request for Petitions to Participate.
The Copyright Royalty Judges announce commencement of a proceeding to determine reasonable rates and terms for the digital performance of sound recordings and the making of ephemeral recordings by satellite radio and “preexisting” subscription services
Petitions to Participate and the filing fee are due no later than February 4, 2016.
This notice and request is also posted on the agency's Web site (
LaKeshia Keys, CRB Program Specialist, by telephone at (202) 707-7658 or email at
Under the Copyright Act, the Copyright Royalty Judges (Judges) must commence a proceeding every five years to determine reasonable rates and terms to license the digital transmission of sound recordings and the making of ephemeral recordings to facilitate those transmissions by preexisting subscription services and preexisting satellite digital audio radio services.
Parties with a significant interest in the outcome of the rate proceeding must file Petitions to Participate in accordance with § 351.1(b) of the Judges' regulations.
Only attorneys who are admitted to the bar in one or more states or the District of Columbia and are members in good standing will be allowed to represent parties before the Judges. Only an individual may represent herself or himself and appear without legal counsel. 37 CFR 350.2.
Any party wishing to participate in the proceeding to determine cable royalty rates for 2015 through 2019 must submit to the Copyright Royalty Board the filing fee (U.S. $150), an original (paper) Petition to Participate, five paper copies, and an electronic copy on a CD or other portable memory device in Portable Document Format (PDF) that contains searchable, accessible text (not a scanned image of text). Participants should conform all filed electronic documents to the Judges' Guidelines for Electronic Documents posted on the Copyright Royalty Board Web site at
Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress.
Notice announcing commencement of proceeding with request for Petitions to Participate.
The Copyright Royalty Judges announce commencement of a proceeding to determine reasonable rates and terms for making and distributing phonorecords for the period beginning January 1, 2018, and ending December 31, 2022. The Copyright Royalty Judges also announce the date by which a party wishing to participate in the rate determination proceeding must file its Petition to Participate and the accompanying $150 filing fee.
Petitions to Participate and the filing fee are due no later than February 4, 2016.
This notice and request is also posted on the agency's Web site (
LaKeshia Keys, CRB Program Specialist,
The Copyright Act provides that the Copyright Royalty Judges (Judges) commence a proceeding every fifth year to determine rates and terms for making and distributing phonorecords pursuant to the statutory license in 17 U.S.C. 115. 17 U.S.C.
Parties with a significant interest in the outcome of the phonorecords royalty rate proceeding must file Petitions to Participate in accordance with § 351.1(b) of the Judges' regulations.
Only attorneys admitted to the bar in one or more states or the District of Columbia and members in good standing will be allowed to represent parties before the Judges. Only an individual may represent herself or himself and appear without legal counsel. 37 CFR 350.2.
Any party wishing to participate in the proceeding to determine phonorecord royalty rates for 2018 through 2022 must submit to the Copyright Royalty Board the filing fee (US $150), an original (paper) Petition to Participate, five paper copies, and an electronic copy on a CD or other portable memory device in Portable Document Format (PDF) that contains searchable, accessible text (not a scanned image of text). Participants should conform all filed electronic documents to the Judges' Guidelines for Electronic Documents posted on the Copyright Royalty Board Web site at
Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress.
Notice announcing commencement of proceeding with request for Petitions to Participate.
The Copyright Royalty Judges announce commencement of a proceeding to determine reasonable rates and terms for the use of certain copyrighted works by public broadcasting entities
Petitions to Participate and the filing fee are due no later than February 4, 2016.
This notice and request is also posted on the agency's Web site (
LaKeshia Keys, CRB Program Specialist, by telephone at (202) 707-7658 or email at
The Copyright Act provides that the Copyright Royalty Judges (Judges) commence a proceeding every fifth year to determine rates and terms for the reproduction, distribution, performance or display of certain works by public broadcasting entities (as defined in 17 U.S.C. 118(f)) in the course of the activities described in 17 U.S.C. 118(c). 17 U.S.C. 803(b)(1)(A)(i)(V);
Parties with a significant interest in the outcome of this royalty rate proceeding must file Petitions to Participate in accordance with 351.1(b) of the Judges' regulations.
Only attorneys who are admitted to the bar in one or more states or the District of Columbia and are members in good standing will be allowed to represent parties before the Judges. Only an individual may represent herself or himself and appear without legal counsel. 37 CFR 350.2.
Any party wishing to participate in the proceeding to determine cable royalty rates for 2015 through 2019 must submit to the Copyright Royalty Board the filing fee (US $150), an original (paper) Petition to Participate, five paper copies, and an electronic copy on a CD or other portable memory device in Portable Document Format (PDF) that contains searchable, accessible text (not a scanned image of text). Participants should conform all filed electronic documents to the Judges' Guidelines for Electronic Documents posted on the Copyright Royalty Board Web site at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Biweekly notice.
Pursuant to Section 189a.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is publishing this regular biweekly notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This biweekly notice includes all notices of amendments issued, or proposed to be issued from December 8, 2015, to December 21, 2015. The last biweekly notice was published on December 22, 2015.
Comments must be filed by February 4, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed March 7, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Mable Henderson, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3760, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0288 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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•
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0288, facility name, unit number(s), application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in § 50.92 of title 10 of the
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the requestor/petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The requestor/petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the amendment under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the requestor/petitioner to relief. A requestor/petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by March 7, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under § 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by March 7, 2016.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
For further details with respect to these license amendment applications,
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises or adds Surveillance Requirement(s) (SRs) that require verification that the Emergency Core Cooling System (ECCS), the Residual Heat Removal (RHR) System, and the Reactor Core Isolation Cooling (RCIC) System are not rendered inoperable due to accumulated gas and to provide allowances which permit performance of the revised verification. Gas accumulation in the subject systems is not an initiator of any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. The proposed SRs ensure that the subject systems continue to be capable to perform their assumed safety function and are not rendered inoperable due to gas accumulation. Thus, the consequences of any accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises or adds SRs that require verification that the ECCS, the RHR System, and the RCIC System are not rendered inoperable due to accumulated gas and to provide allowances which permit performance of the revised verification. The proposed change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant (
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change revises or adds SRs that require verification that the ECCS, the RHR System, and the RCIC System are not rendered inoperable due to accumulated gas and to provide allowances which permit performance of the revised verification. The proposed change adds new requirements to manage gas accumulation in order to ensure the subject systems are capable of performing their assumed safety functions. The proposed SRs are more comprehensive than the current SRs and will ensure that the assumptions of the safety analysis are protected. The proposed change does not adversely affect any current plant safety margins or the reliability of the equipment assumed in the safety analysis. Therefore, there are no changes being made to any safety analysis assumptions, safety limits or limiting safety system settings that would adversely affect plant safety as a result of the proposed change.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The `B' Train ESW supply and supported equipment will remain fully operable during the 14 day completion time. The `A' ESW pump and supported equipment function as accident mitigators. Removing the `A' Train ESW pump from service for a limited period of time does not affect any accident initiator and therefore cannot change the probability of an accident. The proposed changes and the `A' Train ESW pump replacement activity have been evaluated to assess their impact on the systems affected and upon the design basis safety functions.
The activities covered by this LAR also include defense-in-depth actions. Weather patterns will be monitored and this activity schedule will be adjusted if tornado/high wind conditions become imminent.
In addition, completing the lineups required by the operations work procedure (OWP) for the Service Water (SW) system, OWP-SW, “Service Water,” which is necessary when an ESW pump is inoperable, provides defense in depth for prevention of core damage and containment failure. The lineup steps for time periods when the `A' ESW pump is inoperable include the lifting of leads to disable the Safety Injection (SI) close signal to service water valve `1SW-39' and service water valve `SW-276.' This allows the breakers to be maintained on and allows expeditious isolation capability in the event of a SW leak in the Reactor Auxiliary Building. This lineup also defeats the SI signal to service water valve `SW-276' to maintain it open. As long as service water valves `1SW-274' and `1SW-40' are operable, the `B' Train ESW header is isolable, and operable. The simplified flow diagrams provided in Attachment 5 (enclosed in original document) illustrate the flow paths affected by the valves discussed above. Quantitative measures and qualitative measures will be taken during the planned ESW pump replacement, which are identified in Attachment 7 (enclosed in original document) as Regulatory Commitments.
There will be no effect on the analysis of any accident or the progression of the accident since the operable ESW `B' train is capable of serving 100 percent of all the required heat loads. As such, there is no impact on consequence mitigation for any transient or accident.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of
The proposed amendment is a one-time extension of the required completion times from 72 hours for the Charging Pumps, Emergency Core Cooling Systems Subsystems, Containment Spray System, Spray Additive System, Containment Cooling System, Auxiliary Feedwater System, Component Cooling Water System, ESW System, Essential Services Chilled Water System, and AC [Alternating Current] Sources systems to 336 hours. Additionally, proposed amendment is a one-time extension of the required completion times from 7 days for the Control Room Emergency Filtration System and the Reactor Auxiliary Building Emergency Exhaust Systems to 336 hours. The requested change does not involve the addition or removal of any plant system, structure, or component.
The proposed temporary TS changes do not affect the basic design, operation, or function of any of the systems associated with the TS impacted by the amendment. Implementation of the proposed amendment will not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from that previously evaluated.
HNP intends to isolate and replace the `A' ESW pump. During the period in which the `A' Train ESW pump is not available, the (NSW System will remain available to supply the `A' Train ESW loads and the `B' Train ESW Train will be operable.
Throughout the pump replacement project, compensatory measures will be in place to provide additional assurance that the affected systems will continue to be capable of performing their intended safety functions.
In conclusion, this proposed LAR does not impact any plant systems that are accident initiators and does not impact any safety analysis.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety?
Margin of safety is related to the confidence in the ability of the fission product barriers to perform their design functions during and following an accident situation. These barriers include the fuel cladding, the reactor coolant system, and the containment system. The performance of the fuel cladding, reactor coolant, and containment systems will not be impacted by the proposed LAR.
Additionally, the proposed amendment does not involve a change in the operation of the plant. The activity only extends the amount of time the `A' Train ESW system is allowed to be inoperable for the replacement of the `A' ESW pump to improve design margin.
The estimated incremental conditional core damage probability (ICCDP) during the 14 day completion time extension is much less than the limits presented in Regulatory Guide 1.177. Therefore, it is concluded that the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed License Amendment Request is an administrative change. The proposed change relocates the specified [f]requencies for periodic Surveillance Requirements [SRs] to licensee control under the SFCP. Surveillance Frequencies (SF) are not an initiator to any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. The systems and components required by the TS for which the SF are relocated are still required to be operable, meet the acceptance criteria for the SR, and be capable of performing any mitigation function assumed in the accident analysis. As a result, the consequences of any accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed License Amendment Request is an administrative change. The proposed change relocates the specified [f]requencies for periodic SR to licensee control under the SFCP. No new or different accidents result from utilizing the proposed change. The change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant (
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed License Amendment Request is an administrative change. The proposed change relocates the specified [f]requencies for periodic SR to licensee control under the SFCP. The design, operation, testing methods, and acceptance criteria for systems, structures, and components, specified in applicable codes and standards (or alternatives approved for use by the NRC) will continue to be met as described in the plant licensing basis (including the Final Safety Analysis Report and Bases to TS), since these are not affected by [relocating] the SF[s]. Similarly, there is no impact to safety analysis acceptance criteria as described in the plant licensing basis.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendments request involves no significant hazards consideration.
This amendment request involves the adoption of approved changes to NUREG-1433, “Standard Technical Specifications [STS] General Electric BWR/4 Plants,” Revision 4.0, to allow relocation of specific Technical Specifications (TS) surveillance frequencies to a licensee-controlled program. The proposed changes are described in Technical Specification Task Force (TSTF) Traveler 425 “Relocate Surveillance Frequencies to Licensee Control—RITSTF [Risk Informed TSTF] Initiative 5b,” Revision 3 (TSTF-425) ADAMS Accession No. ML090850642, and are described in the Notice of Availability published in the FR on July 6, 2009 (74 FR 31996). The proposed changes are consistent with NRC-approved TSTF-425. The proposed changes relocate surveillance frequencies to a licensee-controlled program, the Surveillance Frequency Control Program (SFCP). The changes are applicable to licensees using probabilistic risk guidelines contained in NRC-approved NEI (Nuclear Energy Institute) 04-10, “Risk-Informed Technical Specifications Initiative 5b, Risk-Informed Method for Control of Surveillance Frequencies” (ADAMS Accession No. ML071360456).
1. Do the proposed changes involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes relocate the specified frequencies for periodic surveillance requirements to licensee control under a new Surveillance Frequency Control Program. Surveillance frequencies are not an initiator to any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. The systems and components required by the technical specifications for which the surveillance frequencies are relocated are still required to be operable, meet the acceptance criteria for the surveillance requirements, and be capable of performing any mitigation function assumed in the accident analysis. As a result, the consequences of any accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed changes create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
No new or different accidents result from utilizing the proposed changes. The changes do not involve a physical alteration of the plant (
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety?
Response: No.
The design, operation, testing methods, and acceptance criteria for systems, structures, and components (SSCs), specified in applicable codes and standards (or alternatives approved for use by the NRC) will continue to be met as described in the plant licensing basis (including the final safety analysis report and bases to TS), since these are not affected by changes to the surveillance frequencies. Similarly, there is no impact to safety analysis acceptance criteria as described in the plant licensing basis. To evaluate a change in the relocated surveillance frequency, Exelon will perform a probabilistic risk evaluation using the guidance contained in NRC approved NEI 04-10, Rev. 1, in accordance with the TS SFCP. NEI 04-10, Rev. 1, methodology provides reasonable acceptance guidelines and methods for evaluating the risk increase of proposed changes to surveillance frequencies consistent with Regulatory Guide 1.177.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed changes involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes address temporary conditions during which the secondary containment SRs are not met. The secondary containment is not an initiator of any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not increased. The consequences of an accident previously evaluated while using the proposed changes are not impacted and are bounded by the existing design bases calculations and analyses. As a result, the consequences of an accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed changes create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not alter the protection system design, create new failure modes, or change any modes of operation. The proposed changes do not involve a physical alteration of the plant, and no new or different kind of equipment will be installed. Consequently, there are no new initiators that could result in a new or different kind of accident.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes would provide an allowance for brief, inadvertent, simultaneous opening of redundant secondary containment personnel access doors during normal entry and exit conditions. The allowance for both an inner and outer secondary containment access door to be open simultaneously for entry and exit does not affect the safety function of secondary containment as the doors are promptly closed after entry or exit, thereby restoring the secondary containment boundary. In addition, brief, inadvertent, simultaneous opening and closing of redundant secondary containment personnel access doors during entry and exit conditions does not affect the ability of the Emergency Ventilation System (NMP1) or the Standby Gas Treatment (SGT) System (NMP2) to establish the required secondary containment vacuum.
Therefore, the safety function of the secondary containment is not affected.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change to the reactor steam dome pressure in Reactor Core Safety Limits 2.1.1.1 and 2.1.1.2 does not alter the use of the analytical methods used to determine the safety limits that have been previously reviewed and approved by the NRC. The proposed change is in accordance with an NRC approved critical power correlation methodology, and as such, maintains required safety margins. The proposed change does not adversely affect accident initiators or precursors, nor does it alter the design assumptions, conditions, or configuration of the facility or the manner in which the plant is operated and maintained.
The proposed change does not alter or prevent the ability of structures, systems, and components (SSCs) from performing their intended function to mitigate the consequences of an initiating event within the assumed acceptance limits. The proposed change does not require any physical change to any plant SSCs nor does it require any change in systems or plant operations. The proposed change is consistent with the safety analysis assumptions and resultant consequences.
Lowering the value of reactor steam dome pressure in the TS has no physical effect on plant equipment and therefore, no impact on the course of plant transients. The change is an analytical exercise to demonstrate the applicability of correlations and methodologies. There are no known operational or safety benefits.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed reduction in the reactor dome pressure safety limit from 785 psig [pounds per square inch gauge] to 685 psig is a change based upon previously approved documents and does not involve changes to the plant hardware or its operating characteristics. As a result, no new failure modes are being introduced. There are no hardware changes nor are there any changes in the method by which any plant systems perform a safety function. No new accident scenarios, failure mechanisms, or limiting single failures are introduced as a result of the proposed change.
The proposed change does not introduce any new accident precursors, nor does it involve any physical plant alterations or changes in the methods governing normal plant operation. Also, the change does not impose any new or different requirements or eliminate any existing requirements. The change does not alter assumptions made in the safety analysis.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The margin of safety is established through the design of the plant structures, systems, and components, and through the parameters for safe operation and setpoints for the actuation of equipment relied upon to respond to transients and design basis accidents. Evaluation of the 10 CFR part 21 condition by General Electric determined that since the Minimum Critical Power Ratio improves during the PRFO transient, there is no decrease in the safety margin and therefore there is no threat to fuel cladding integrity. The proposed change in reactor steam dome pressure supports the current safety margin, which protects the fuel cladding integrity during a depressurization transient, but does not change the requirements governing operation or availability of safety equipment assumed to operate to preserve the margin of safety. The change does not alter the behavior of plant equipment, which remains unchanged.
The proposed change to Reactor Core Safety Limits 2.1.1.1 and 2.1.1.2 is consistent with and within the capabilities of the applicable NRC approved critical power correlation for the fuel designs in use at PBAPS Units 2 and 3. No setpoints at which protective actions are initiated are altered by the proposed change. The proposed change does not alter the manner in which the safety limits are determined. This change is consistent with plant design and does not change the TS operability requirements; thus, previously evaluated accidents are not affected by this proposed change.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed changes involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The Auxiliary Building Chilled Water (AB CH) system will continue to meet the design cooling requirements for both normal and accident conditions. The Two chiller and Cross Tied configuration analyses verify the capability of the system to perform its design function. The configuration analyses were performed assuming that one of the required chillers is out of service for the supplying unit to account for a possible failure of a chiller, demonstrating that only the remaining required chillers are required to be operating for normal operation and accident conditions. This supports operating with the required chillers available and the potential loss of a chiller during an accident as the single failure, or the unexpected loss of a chiller during normal operation.
The AB CH system is not an initiator or precursor to any anticipated (or abnormal) operational transients or postulated design basis accidents. Operating with only two chillers required does not alter the design requirements of the system; the required cooling capability is still met. The AB CH systems for Salem Unit 1 and Unit 2 are designed to allow the systems to be cross-tied; allowing for the pumps and chillers of one Unit to cool the heat loads of both Units. In cross-tie configuration the analyses demonstrate the system will continue to provide required cooling capability to the control room and safety related areas during normal operation and in the event of an accident.
Therefore there is no increase in the probability of any previously evaluated accident.
Two Chiller or Cross-Tied operation has no effect on the consequences of any previously analyzed accident. Evaluations were performed assuming that one of the required chillers is out of service to account for a possible failure of a chiller. The two chiller analyses determined that certain heat loads are required to be isolated, certain environmental conditions are required, and that single filtration alignment of the CREACS [Control Room Emergency Air Conditioning System] must be restricted. The cross-tied analyses determined that certain heat loads are required to be isolated, certain environmental conditions are required, and both trains of the CREACS must be in service. The proposed TS changes incorporate these restrictions ensuring the design requirements of the system will continue to be met. The temperatures of the Control Area Rooms continue to be below the acceptance criteria during AB CH system Two Chiller and Cross-Tied operations for both normal operation and accident conditions.
Therefore this proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed changes create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to the TS permitting AB CH system Two Chiller and Cross-Tied operation do not introduce any new accident initiators or create any new failure mechanisms or malfunctions. The analyses demonstrate the system continues to perform its design functions for both normal and accident conditions. To ensure the system has adequate cooling capability, restrictions are placed in TS isolating non-safety related loads, verifying certain environmental conditions, and restricting single filtration train alignment operation. These restrictions do not cause the system to be operated outside its design basis and therefore do not create any new failure mechanisms.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not alter setpoints or limits established or assumed by any accident analyses. The proposed change does not exceed or alter a design basis or safety limit (
The sharing of the AB CH system between Units in the Cross-Tied configuration does not impair its ability to perform its safety function for both normal and accident conditions. Design cooling requirements for the accident condition unit continue to be met, and the operating unit cooling requirements are also met such that there can be an orderly shutdown and cool down.
Therefore, these changes do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
Neither the Containment Fan Cooling Units (CFCUs) nor the MSSVs [main steam line code safety valves] are accident initiators. These proposed changes will not increase the probability of occurrence of any design basis accident since the corrections to the affected Technical Specifications, in and of themselves, cannot initiate an accident. Should a previously evaluated accident occur, the proposed changes will ensure that the plant equipment is operable in all required applicable modes of operation and that the Technical Specification action statements are consistent with those applicable modes. There will be no impact on the source term or pathways assumed in accidents previously evaluated. No design functions of structures, systems and components required to mitigate the consequences of an accident are affected. Therefore, the consequences of an accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not involve physical changes (installing new equipment or modifying existing equipment) related to the design functions or operations of the CFCUs or MSSVs. In addition, the proposed changes to the affected Technical
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes, which correct a non-conservative TS and eliminate an inconsistency between applicability mode and action statement, do not exceed or alter a setpoint, design basis or safety limit.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to identify that there is more than one turbine building sump and to add two turbine building sump pumps (WWS-MP-07A and B) to [combined license] COL Appendix C, Section 2.3.29, and corresponding Table 2.3.29-1 will provide consistency within the current licensing basis. The main turbine building sumps and sump pumps are not safety-related components and do not interface with any systems, structures, or components (SSC) accident initiator or initiating sequence of events; thus, the probability of accidents evaluated within the plant-specific [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report] UFSAR are not affected. The proposed changes do not involve a change to the predicted radiological releases due to accident conditions, thus the consequences of accidents evaluated in the UFSAR are not affected.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes to identify that there is more than one turbine building sump and to add two turbine sump pumps to the non-safety waste water system (WWS) do not affect any safety-related equipment, nor does it add any new interface to safety-related SSCs. No system or design function or equipment qualification is affected by this change. The changes do not introduce a new failure mode, malfunction, or sequence of events that could affect safety or safety-related equipment.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The WWS is a non-safety-related system that does not interface with any safety-related equipment. The proposed changes to identify that there is more than one turbine building sump and to add two turbine building sump pumps do not affect any design code, function, design analysis, safety analysis input or result, or design/safety margin. No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed change.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes relocate and clarify the requirements currently addressed in the BFN TS governing the safety functions for the ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. Requirements are neither added nor deleted. The proposed TS 3.3.8.3 continues to provide LCO [Limiting Condition for Operation], Required Actions and Completion Times, and Surveillance Requirements for ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. A TVA risk assessment has determined that the risk of changing the Completion Time for the ECCS Preferred Pump Logic from 24 hours to seven days, and maintaining the current
Based on the above discussions, the proposed changes do not involve an increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes relocate and clarify the requirements currently addressed in the BFN TS governing the safety functions for the ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. Requirements are neither added nor deleted. The proposed TS 3.3.8.3 continues to provide LCO, Required Actions and Completion Times, and Surveillance Requirements for ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. The proposed changes result in no physical change to the plant configuration or method of operation.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes relocate and clarify the requirements currently addressed in the BFN TS governing the safety functions for the ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. Requirements are neither added nor deleted. The proposed TS 3.3.8.3 continues to provide LCO, Required Actions and Completion Times, and Surveillance Requirements for ECCS Preferred Pump Logic (BFN, Units 1 and 2 only), Common Accident Signal Logic, and the Unit Priority Re-Trip Logic. A TVA risk assessment has determined that the risk of changing the Completion Time for the ECCS Preferred Pump Logic from 24 hours to seven days, and maintaining the current Surveillance Test Intervals as the current Surveillance Test Interval for the rest of the ECCS Instrumentation in the technical specifications is acceptable.
Accordingly, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
The following notices were previously published as separate individual notices. The notice content was the same as above. They were published as individual notices either because time did not allow the Commission to wait for this biweekly notice or because the action involved exigent circumstances. They are repeated here because the biweekly notice lists all amendments issued or proposed to be issued involving no significant hazards consideration.
For details, see the individual notice in the
During the period since publication of the last biweekly notice, the Commission has issued the following amendments. The Commission has determined for each of these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
Unless otherwise indicated, the Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments. If the Commission has prepared an environmental assessment under the special circumstances provision in 10 CFR 51.22(b) and has made a determination based on that assessment, it is so indicated.
For further details with respect to the action see (1) the applications for amendment, (2) the amendment, and (3) the Commission's related letter, Safety Evaluation and/or Environmental Assessment as indicated. All of these items can be accessed as described in the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 11, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 17, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of this amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 11, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 17, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 18, 2015.
The April 30, 2015, and October 9, 2015, supplements contained clarifying information and did not change the NRC staff's original proposed no significant hazards consideration determination as published in the
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 21, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 17, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in an SE dated December 16, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 11, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 15, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 14, 2015.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in an SE dated December 16, 2015.
During the period since publication of the last biweekly notice, the Commission has issued the following amendments. The Commission has determined for each of these amendments that the application for the amendment complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
Because of exigent or emergency circumstances associated with the date the amendment was needed, there was not time for the Commission to publish, for public comment before issuance, its usual notice of consideration of issuance of amendment, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing.
For exigent circumstances, the Commission has either issued a
In circumstances where failure to act in a timely way would have resulted, for example, in derating or shutdown of a nuclear power plant or in prevention of either resumption of operation or of increase in power output up to the plant's licensed power level, the Commission may not have had an opportunity to provide for public comment on its no significant hazards consideration determination. In such case, the license amendment has been issued without opportunity for comment. If there has been some time for public comment but less than 30 days, the Commission may provide an opportunity for public comment. If comments have been requested, it is so stated. In either event, the State has been consulted by telephone whenever possible.
Under its regulations, the Commission may issue and make an amendment immediately effective, notwithstanding the pendency before it of a request for a hearing from any person, in advance of the holding and completion of any required hearing, where it has determined that no significant hazards consideration is involved.
The Commission has applied the standards of 10 CFR 50.92 and has made a final determination that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. The basis for this determination is contained in the documents related to this action. Accordingly, the amendments have been issued and made effective as indicated.
Unless otherwise indicated, the Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments. If the Commission has prepared an environmental assessment under the special circumstances provision in 10 CFR 51.12(b) and has made a determination based on that assessment, it is so indicated.
For further details with respect to the action see (1) the application for amendment, (2) the amendment to Facility Operating License or Combined License, as applicable, and (3) the Commission's related letter, Safety Evaluation and/or Environmental Assessment, as indicated. All of these items can be accessed as described in the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
The Commission is also offering an opportunity for a hearing with respect to the issuance of the amendment. Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the requestor/petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by March 7, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under § 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by March 7, 2016.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the Internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment, finding of emergency circumstances, state consultation, and final NSHC determination are contained in a Safety Evaluation dated December 11, 2015.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment request; opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene; order.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) received and is considering approval of two amendment requests. The amendment requests are for Limerick Generating Station, Unit 1, and Browns Ferry Nuclear Plant, Unit 1. The NRC proposes to determine that the amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. In addition, each amendment request contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI).
Comments must be filed by February 4, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed by March 7, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
•
• Mail comments to: Cindy Bladey, Office of Administration, Mail Stop: OWFN-12-H08, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001.
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Janet Burkhardt, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1384, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0277 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0277, facility name, unit number(s), application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
Pursuant to Section 189a.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the NRC is publishing this notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This notice includes notices of amendments containing SUNSI.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 50.92, this means that operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendment would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated, or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated, or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. The basis for this proposed determination for each amendment request is shown below.
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period should circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. Should the Commission take action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish a notice of issuance in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the requestor/petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The requestor/petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the amendment under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the requestor/petitioner to relief. A requestor/petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by March 7, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under § 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by March 7, 2016.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to the license amendment applications, see the applications for amendment which are available for public inspection at the NRC's PDR. For additional direction on obtaining information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments,” section of this document.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The derivation of the cycle specific Safety Limit Minimum Critical Power Ratios (SLMCPRs) for incorporation into the Technical Specifications (TS), and their use to determine cycle specific thermal limits, has been performed using the methodology
The basis of the SLMCPR calculation is to reasonably assure that during normal operation and during anticipated operational transients, at least 99.9% of all fuel rods in the core do not experience transition boiling if the limit is not violated. The new SLMCPRs preserve the existing margin to transition boiling.
The MCPR safety limit is reevaluated for each reload using NRC-approved methodologies. The analyses for LGS, Unit 1 Cycle 17, have concluded that a two recirculation loop MCPR safety limit of ≥1.10, based on the application of Global Nuclear Fuel's NRC-approved MCPR safety limit methodology, will ensure that this acceptance criterion is met. For single recirculation loop operation, a MCPR safety limit of ≥1.14 also ensures that this acceptance criterion is met. The MCPR operating limits are presented and controlled in accordance with the LGS, Unit 1, Core Operating Limits Report (COLR).
The requested TS changes do not involve any additional plant modifications or operational changes that could affect system reliability or performance or that could affect the probability of operator error. The requested changes do not affect any postulated accident precursors, do not affect any accident mitigating systems, and do not introduce any new accident initiation mechanisms.
Therefore, the proposed TS changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The SLMCPR is a TS numerical value, calculated to ensure that during normal operation and during anticipated operational transients, at least 99.9% of all fuel rods in the core do not experience transition boiling if the limit is not violated. The new SLMCPRs are calculated using [the] NRC-approved methodology discussed in NEDE-24011-P-A, “General Electric Standard Application for Reactor Fuel,” Revision 21. The proposed changes do not involve any new modes of operation, any changes to setpoints, or any plant modifications. The proposed revised MCPR safety limits have been shown to be acceptable for Cycle 17 operation with the MELLLA+ operating domain. The core operating limits will continue to be developed using NRC-approved methods. The proposed MCPR safety limits or methods for establishing the core operating limits do not result in the creation of any new precursors to an accident.
Therefore, this proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
There is no significant reduction in the margin of safety previously approved by the NRC as a result of the proposed change to the SLMCPRs. The new SLMCPRs are calculated using methodology discussed in NEDE-24011-P-A, “General Electric Standard Application for Reactor Fuel,” Revision 21. The SLMCPRs ensure that, during normal operation and during anticipated operational transients, at least 99.9% of all fuel rods in the core do not experience transition boiling if the limits are not violated, thereby preserving the fuel cladding integrity.
Therefore, the proposed TS changes do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety previously approved by the NRC.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed TS revision is based on the implementation of a previously approved methodology [by the NRC staff for BFN Unit 2 in 2014 (ML14108A334). Based on experience with the methodology as implemented at BFN Unit 2, this revision will involve] no changes to the operation of any system or component during normal, accident, or transient operating conditions. The change does not affect the initiators of any accident.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed reduction of the SLMCPR values is based upon previously approved methodologies and does not involve changes to the plant hardware or its operating characteristics. As a result, no new failure modes are being introduced.
Therefore, the change does not introduce a new or different kind of accident from those previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety?
Response: No.
The margin of safety is established through the design of plant structures, systems, and components, and through the parameters for safe operation and setpoints of equipment relied upon to respond to transients and design basis accidents. The proposed change in SLMCPR does not change the requirements governing operation or availability of safety equipment assumed to operate to preserve the margin of safety. The change does not alter the behavior of the plant equipment.
The reduction of the SLMCPR values does not change the requirement that no more than 0.1% of fuel rods in the core experience boiling transition during normal operation and anticipated operational occurrences.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing SUNSI.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request such access. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requester shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1); and
(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requester's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly-available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention.
D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C.(3) the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.
E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after the requestor is granted access to that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the date the petitioner is granted access to the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI contentions by that later deadline. This provision does not extend the time for filing a request for a hearing and petition to intervene, which must comply with the requirements of 10 CFR 2.309.
G. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff after a determination on standing and need for access, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) The requester may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an administrative law judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) officer if that officer has been designated to rule on information access issues.
H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requester may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed with the Chief Administrative Judge within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. Attachment 1 to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an additional Global Expedited Package Services 3 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On December 29, 2015, the Postal Service filed notice that it has entered into an additional Global Expedited Package Services 3 (GEPS 3) negotiated service agreement (Agreement).
To support its Notice, the Postal Service filed a copy of the Agreement, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-90 for consideration of matters raised by the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than January 7, 2016. The public portions of the filing can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Derrick D. Dennis to serve as Public Representative in this docket.
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-90 for consideration of the matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Derrick D. Dennis is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than January 7, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning an additional Global Reseller Expedited Package Contracts 2 negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On December 29, 2015, the Postal Service filed notice that it has entered into an additional Global Reseller Expedited Package Contracts 2 (GREP 2) negotiated service agreement (Agreement).
To support its Notice, the Postal Service filed a copy of the Agreement, a copy of the Governors' Decision authorizing the product, a certification of compliance with 39 U.S.C. 3633(a), and an application for non-public treatment of certain materials. It also filed supporting financial workpapers.
The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-89 for consideration of matters raised by the Notice.
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than January 7, 2016. The public portions of the filing can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Curtis E. Kidd to serve as Public Representative in this docket.
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. CP2016-89 for consideration of the matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Curtis E. Kidd is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding (Public Representative).
3. Comments are due no later than January 7, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 28, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Valerie J. Pelton, 202-268-3049.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 24, 2015, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a Closed Meeting on Thursday, January 7, 2016 at 2:00 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the Closed Meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (5), (7), 9(ii) and (10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the Closed Meeting.
Commissioner Piwowar, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the Closed Meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the Closed Meeting will be:
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to modify certain fees for executions at the close, effective January 4, 2016. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to change certain fees for executions at the close, effective January 4, 2016. The proposed change would only apply to transactions in securities priced $1.00 or more.
Other than for market at-the-close (“MOC”) and limit at-the-close (“LOC”) orders, the Exchange does not charge for orders executed at the close, including Floor broker orders swept into the close. However, member organizations that execute during the billing month average daily volume (“ADV”) of at least 1,000,000 shares through orders executed at the close (except MOC and LOC orders) and Floor broker orders swept into the close, are charged $0.0003 per share for such orders. The Exchange proposes to increase this fee to $0.00035 per share, but to apply that fee only to shares executed in excess of 750,000 ADV during the billing month. For example, a member organization that has an ADV of 3 million shares during a billing month consisting of 20 trading days would pay the $0.00035 per share fee on the 2.25 million shares that exceed 750,000 on average each day. For the 20 trading days, this would be a total of 45 million shares for that month, and a total fee of $15,750. By comparison with the current fee, the member organization that has an ADV of 3 million shares would pay the $0.0003 per share fee on an ADV of 3 million shares over 20 trading days, or a total of 60 million shares for that month, for a total fee of $18,000. Member organizations with execution volumes below an ADV of 750,000 shares during the billing month would continue not to be charged for these trades.
The proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that member organizations would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fee increases for certain executions at the close are reasonable. The Exchange's closing auction is a recognized industry benchmark,
The Exchange believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to modify fees for executions at the close (other than MOC and LOC orders) and Floor broker executions swept into the close for member organizations that execute an ADV of at least 750,000 of such executions on a combined basis, by increasing the applicable fee but to apply that fee only to shares executed over 750,000 ADV during the billing month, because member organizations that reach 750,000 ADV threshold are generally larger member organizations that are deriving a substantial benefit from this high volume of closing executions. Nonetheless, the Exchange must continue to encourage liquidity from multiple sources. Allowing member organizations with execution volumes of an ADV below 750,000 shares during the billing month to continue to obtain executions at the close at no charge, and to charge the fee only with respect to shares executed over 750,000 ADV during the billing month, continues to encourage member organizations to send orders to the Exchange for the closing auction. The Exchange believes that its proposal would equitably balance these interests and continue to encourage order flow from multiple sources, which helps to maintain the quality of the Exchange's closing auctions for the benefit of all market participants. The proposed fee is also reasonable, in that it is lower than applicable closing rates on the NASDAQ Stock Market, LLC (“NASDAQ”).
Finally, the Exchange believes that it is subject to significant competitive forces, as described below in the Exchange's statement regarding the burden on competition.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change is effective upon filing pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of such proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The proposed rule change consists of changes to Addendum A (Fee Structure) of the Rules & Procedures (“Rules”) of NSCC in order to adjust fees related to NSCC's Automated Customer Account Transfer Service, Obligation Warehouse, Fund/SERV®, Insurance and Retirement Processing Services, and Alternative Investment Product Services, as more fully described below.
In its filing with the Commission, NSCC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements
The proposed rule change would adjust fees associated with NSCC's Automated Customer Account Transfer Service (“ACATS”) in order to align these fees with the costs of providing these services. ACATS is a non-guaranteed service offered by NSCC that enables its Members to effect automated transfers of customer accounts among themselves.
Therefore, NSCC is proposing to increase the following fees: (1) Fee for transfer initiation input, per submission, from $0.15 to $0.18; (2) settling fee for assets received, per item settled, from $0.05 to $0.06; (3) fee for adding, changing or deleting assets from a record, per asset entered, from $0.05 to $0.06; (4) fee for each receive/deliver instruction, per instruction issued, from $0.10 to $0.12; and (5) fee for each account transfer reject, per full account per side, from $1.00 to $1.20.
The proposed rule change would also adjust fees associated with NSCC's Obligation Warehouse (“OW”), a non-guaranteed, automated service that tracks, stores, and maintains unsettled ex-clearing and failed obligations, as well as obligations exited from NSCC's Continuous Net Settlement (“CNS”) system, non-CNS ACATS Receive and Deliver Instructions, Balance Orders, and Special Trades, as such terms are defined in the Rules.
NSCC is proposing to adjust the fee for matching within OW to align this fee with the fees charged for matching through NSCC's Real Time Trade Matching platform through which fixed income securities (corporate and municipal bonds, and unit investment trusts) are validated and matched.
NSCC is also proposing to align the fees associated with closing obligations from OW. Obligations that are identified as eligible for NSCC's CNS service may be closed from OW to be processed through CNS, for a fee of $0.20. Obligations may also be closed from OW as a result of the Reconfirmation and Pricing Service (“RECAPS”), for a fee of $0.20. Obligations may also be closed from OW if paired off with other obligations in the same CUSIP, pursuant to NSCC's Pair Off function, for a $1.50 fee.
Finally, NSCC is proposing to adjust the fee charged to the recipient of a delivery notification request advisory that informs the recipient that the submitting party has acknowledged that an OW obligation between those parties has settled, if that notification is aged two days or older (“Aged Delivery Advisories”); and the fee charged to the recipient of a pending cancel request advisory that requests that the recipient cancel a previously compared OW obligation, if that request is aged two days or older (“Aged Cancel Advisories”). NSCC is proposing to increase these fees from $2.00 to $2.50. NSCC is also proposing to adjust the fee charged to the recipient of a comparison advisory that requests that the recipient affirm the comparison of an obligation, if that advisory is aged five days or older (“Aged Comparison Advisories”). NSCC is proposing to increase this fee from $5.00 to $5.50.
The proposed increase in fees for Aged Delivery Advisories, Aged Cancel Advisories, and Aged Comparison Advisories would encourage more timely action by the recipients of these advisories, which, in turn, would reduce the frequency of these fees and align the fees associated with the OW service with the costs of delivering that service to NSCC's Members.
The proposed rule change would also reduce the transaction fees associated with NSCC's Fund/SERV (“Fund/SERV”) service, a non-guaranteed service offering within NSCC's Mutual Fund Services that enables its members to process and settle mutual fund transactions through automated, standardized formats and a centralized platform.
The proposed rule change would also adjust the fee schedule, as well as introduce new fees, associated with NSCC's Insurance and Retirement Processing Services (“I&RS”), as more fully described below. NSCC's I&RS is a suite of non-guaranteed services that enables its members to exchange information, and settle payments, with respect to insurance products, retirement plans or programs, and other benefit plans or programs.
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The proposed rule change would also adjust the fee schedule associated with NSCC's Alternative Investment Product (“AIP”) Services, a non-guaranteed processing platform for the exchange of information and settlement of payments with respect to alternative investment products such as hedge funds, funds of hedge funds, commodities pools, managed futures, and real estate investment trusts.
No other changes to the Rules are contemplated by this proposed rule change. The proposed changes would take effect on January 1, 2016.
Section 17A(b)(3)(D) of the Act
The proposed rule changes would not have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. As stated above, the proposed changes would align NSCC's fees with the costs of delivering associated services to its members, and would not disproportionally impact any NSCC members.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not yet been solicited or received. NSCC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by NSCC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to extend ICC's single name backloading incentive program for client account clearing of single name credit default swap (“CDS”) contracts.
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
The proposed changes are intended to extend a single name backloading incentive program for client account
ICC believes the proposed rule changes are consistent with the requirements of the Act including Section 17A of the Act.
ICC does not believe the proposed rule change would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. The proposed changes modify pricing for client account clearing of single name CDS contracts. There is no limit to the number of client participants that may participate in the backloading incentive program; it will be open to all clients and rebates will be applied to all transaction fees for client accounts clearing eligible single name CDS contracts. As such, the proposed changes apply consistently across all eligible market participants and the implementation of such changes does not preclude the implementation of similar incentive programs by other market participants. Therefore, ICC does not believe the changes impose any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective upon filing pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICC-2015-019 and should be submitted on or before January 26, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule, effective December 16, 2015.
In light of the above, the Exchange proposes to amend the Fees Schedule to provide that for all equity, multiply-listed index (excluding RUT), ETF and ETN options classes, transactions in which simple orders or quotes execute against a resting complex order, no fees or rebates will be assessed to any component of the resting complex order or the simple orders or quotes. In conjunction with the proposed change, the Exchange proposes to clarify in section 1B of the C2 Fees Schedule that for transactions in which resting simple orders or quotes execute against an incoming marketable complex order, each component of the complex order will be assessed the complex order fees listed in section 1B of the C2 Fees Schedule, while the simple orders and quotes will be assessed the transaction fees listed in section 1A of the C2 Fees Schedule. Particularly, the Exchange notes that it does not wish to assess transaction fees on any simple orders or quotes that make a resting complex order marketable because, as discussed above, the sender of a simple order or quote would likely not know at the time of submission whether that order or quote would trigger the execution of a resting complex order and be assessed Taker fees instead of receive Maker rebates as otherwise expected. Additionally, when a Market-Maker updates a quote, that improved quote may make a resting complex order marketable unexpectedly. Upon execution of that transaction that Market-Maker would then be assessed fees as a Taker. In order to avoid discouraging Market-Makers from improving their markets (so as to avoid transaction fees as a Taker) the Exchange proposes to waive transaction fees in these instances as well. As the Exchange would not be assessing transaction fees on the simple order or quote that triggers the execution of a resting complex order, the Exchange similarly also proposes to not assess a fee or provide a rebate on the components of the resting complex order that executed against the simple order or updated quote. Additionally, since the Exchange is not generating any fees on these transactions, the Exchange proposes to not provide rebates to the other simple order(s) or quote(s) that execute against the resting complex order.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is reasonable because market-participants won't be assessed fees for transactions in which a simple order or quote triggers the execution of a resting complex order. The Exchange also believes it's reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to not assess transaction fees for these transactions because market participants will likely not know whether their submitted order or quote will trade against a resting complex order resulting in that market participant being assessed Taker fees when they might otherwise have expected to be treated as a Maker based on the resting simple orders and quotes. Also as mentioned above, the Exchange does not want to discourage Market-Makers from improving their quotes by charging Taker fees when they unexpectedly execute against a resting complex order. The Exchange believes it's reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to not provide rebates to the Makers in these transactions, as the Exchange is not generating a fee from these transactions. Finally, the Exchange believes the proposed change is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it applies to all market participants.
C2 does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intramarket competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because the proposed rule change applies to all Permit Holders and because the Exchange wants to encourage liquidity and price improvement. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed change will impose any burden on intermarket competition because it only effects trading on C2. Should the proposed change make C2 a more attractive trading venue for market participants at other exchanges, such market participants may elect to become market participants at C2. Additionally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market, comprised of thirteen options exchanges, in which market participants can easily and readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive or rebates to be inadequate.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Social Security Administration (SSA).
Notice.
We are announcing that the assessment percentage rate under sections 206(d) and 1631(d)(2)(C) of the Social Security Act (Act), 42 U.S.C. 406(d) and 1383(d)(2)(C), is 6.3 percent for 2016.
Jeffrey C. Blair, Associate General Counsel for Program Law, Office of the General Counsel, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401. Phone: (410) 965-3157, email
A claimant may appoint a qualified individual as a representative to act on his or her behalf in matters before the Social Security Administration (SSA). If the claimant is entitled to past-due benefits and was represented either by an attorney or by a non-attorney representative who has met certain prerequisites, the Act provides that we may withhold up to 25 percent of the past-due benefits and use that money to pay the representative's approved fee directly to the representative.
When we pay the representative's fee directly to the representative, we must collect from that fee payment an assessment to recover the costs we incur in determining and paying representatives' fees. The Act provides that the assessment we collect will be the lesser of two amounts: a specified dollar limit; or the amount determined by multiplying the fee we are paying by the assessment percentage rate. (Sections 206(d), 206(e), and 1631(d)(2) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 406(d), 406(e), and 1383(d)(2).)
The Act initially set the dollar limit at $75 in 2004 and provides that the limit will be adjusted annually based on changes in the cost-of-living. (Sections 206(d)(2)(A) and 1631(d)(2)(C)(ii)(I) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 406(d)(2)(A) and 1383(d)(2)(C)(ii)(I).) The maximum dollar limit for the assessment currently is $91, as we announced in the
The Act requires us each year to set the assessment percentage rate at the lesser of 6.3 percent or the percentage rate necessary to achieve full recovery of the costs we incur to determine and pay representatives' fees. (Sections 206(d)(2)(B)(ii) and 1631(d)(2)(C)(ii)(II) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 406(d)(2)(B)(ii) and 1383(d)(2)(C)(ii)(II).)
Based on the best available data, we have determined that the current rate of 6.3 percent will continue for 2016. We will continue to review our costs for these services on a yearly basis.
Federal Aviation Administration, Transportation.
Notice.
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the National Park Service (NPS) are inviting interested persons to apply to fill two upcoming openings on the National Parks Overflights Advisory Group (NPOAG) Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC). The upcoming openings will represent commercial air tour operator and environmental interests, respectively. The selected members will serve 3-year terms.
Persons interested in applying for these NPOAG openings representing air tour operator and environmental interests need to apply by February 12, 2016.
Keith Lusk, Special Programs Staff, Federal Aviation Administration, Western-Pacific Region Headquarters, P.O. Box 92007, Los Angeles, CA 90009-2007, telephone: (310) 725-3808, email:
The National Parks Air Tour Management Act of 2000 (the Act) was enacted on April 5, 2000, as Public Law 106-181. The Act required the establishment of the advisory group within 1 year after its enactment. The NPOAG was established in March 2001. The advisory group is comprised of a balanced group of representatives of general aviation, commercial air tour operations, environmental concerns, and Native American tribes. The Administrator of the FAA and the Director of NPS (or their designees) serve as ex officio members of the group. Representatives of the Administrator and Director serve alternating 1-year terms as chairman of the advisory group.
In accordance with the Act, the advisory group provides “advice, information, and recommendations to the Administrator and the Director-
(1) On the implementation of this title [the Act] and the amendments made by this title;
(2) On commonly accepted quiet aircraft technology for use in commercial air tour operations over a national park or tribal lands, which will receive preferential treatment in a given air tour management plan;
(3) On other measures that might be taken to accommodate the interests of visitors to national parks; and
(4) At the request of the Administrator and the Director, safety, environmental, and other issues related to commercial air tour operations over a national park or tribal lands.”
The NPOAG ARC is made up of one member representing general aviation, three members representing the commercial air tour industry, four members representing environmental concerns, and two members representing Native American interests. Current members of the NPOAG ARC are as follows:
The current NPOAG consists of Melissa Rudinger representing general aviation; Alan Stephen, Mark Francis, and Matthew Zuccaro representing commercial air tour operators; Michael Sutton, Nicholas Miller, Mark Belles, and Dick Hingson representing environmental interests; and Leigh Kuwanwisiwma and Martin Begaye representing Native American interests. The 3-year membership terms of Mr. Francis and Mr. Sutton expire on May 19, 2016.
In order to retain balance within the NPOAG ARC, the FAA and NPS are
On June 18, 2010, President Obama signed a Presidential Memorandum directing agencies in the Executive Branch not to appoint or re-appoint federally registered lobbyists to advisory committees and other boards and commissions. Therefore, before appointing an applicant to serve on the NPOAG, the FAA and NPS will require the prospective candidate to certify that they are not a federally registered lobbyist.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces that CRST Expedited (CRST) has applied for an exemption from the requirement in 49 CFR 383.25(a)(1) that requires a commercial learner's permit (CLP) holder to always be accompanied by a commercial driver's license (CDL) holder with the proper CDL class and endorsements seated in the front seat of the vehicle while the CLP holder performs behind-the-wheel training on public roads or highways. CRST requests an exemption to allow CLP holders who have successfully passed the CDL skills test to be able to drive a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) without having a CDL holder seated beside them in the CMV. CRST states that the CDL holder would remain in the CMV at all times while the CLP holder is driving, but not necessarily in the passenger seat. CRST believes that the exemption, if granted, would promote greater productivity and help individuals who have passed the CDL skills test return to actively earning a living faster while achieving a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety provided by complying with the regulations. FMCSA requests public comment on CRST's application for exemption.
Comments must be received on or before February 4, 2016
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Number FMCSA-2015-0480 by any of the following methods:
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• Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Richard Clemente, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 202-366-4325. Email:
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2015-0480), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comments online, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
CRST is one of the nation's largest transportation companies with a fleet of more than 4,500 commercial motor vehicles (CMVs). CRST seeks an exemption from 49 CFR 383.25(a)(1) that would allow CLP holders who have successfully passed a CDL skills test and are thus eligible to receive a CDL, to be able to drive without having a CDL holder seated beside them in the vehicle. CRST, however, indicates in their exemption request that the CDL holder will remain in the vehicle at all times while the CLP holder is driving—just not in the front seat. CRST further requests that the exemption include that the CLP holder could drive for the remainder of the time available on the driver's CLP before expiration, provided the driver can supply evidence of passing the CDL exam to law enforcement personnel. This would allow such a driver to operate more freely and in a way that benefits the driver, the carrier, and the economy as a whole.
CRST states that FMCSA is aware that the trucking industry is facing a shortage of qualified and well-trained drivers to meet the ever-growing shipping demands. CRST believes that 49 CFR 383.25(a)(1) limits its ability to effectively recruit, train, and employ new entrants to the trucking industry. Prior to the implementation of section 383.25(a)(1), States routinely issued temporary CDLs to drivers who passed the CDL skills test. The temporary CDL allowed CRST time to route the new driver to his or her State of domicile to obtain a CDL, and to place the new driver into an on-the-job training position with a driver-trainer. In this scenario, a more experienced driver could mentor and observe the new driver, but was not required to be on duty and in the front seat at all times. Thus, the new driver could become productive immediately, allowing more freight movement for CRST and compensation for the new driver.
CRST contends that compliance with the CDL rule places them in a very difficult position regarding how they return the CLP holder who has passed his or her skills testing back to their State of domicile to obtain their CDL. According to CRST, the two possible courses of action in this scenario are simple, yet costly: (1) CRST sends CLP holders to their home State by public transportation to obtain the CDL and hopes the drivers return to CRST for employment; and (2) CRST sends CLP holders back to their home State as passengers on one of its trucks. CRST goes on to detail the negative consequences of these courses of action, including: (1) The new drivers would suffer financially because it could be several days or even weeks before they obtain their home State CDL and are available to return to work; (2) safety would also be degraded in these situations because there will be a break in driving for CLP holders who have passed the skills test until they can receive their CDL and return to CRST to start work; (3) increased costs to CRST for public transportation to return CLP holders who have passed the skills test in another State to their home State for issuance of the CDL; (4) further financial loss as CRST would undoubtedly lose control of some CLP holders once they returned home and obtained their CDL—as they may find employment elsewhere, or in a different industry; and (5) if CRST elected to send CLP holders who have passed their skills test home on a CRST truck, CRST must operate at double the cost for half of the productivity.
CRST asserts that the exemption is consistent with FMCSA's comments in the preamble to the final rule published on May 9, 2011, that promulgated 49 CFR 383.25(a). The Agency said: “FMCSA does not believe that it is safe to permit inexperienced drivers who have not yet passed the CDL skills test to drive unaccompanied.” (76 FR 26861). The exemption sought would apply only to those CRST drivers who have passed the CDL skills test and hold a CLP.
CRST states that granting this exemption will result in a level of safety that is equal to or greater than the level of safety of the rule without the exemption. The practical result of the exemption is that a CLP holder who has passed a CDL skills test would be able to drive without the requirements of § 383.25(a)(1) and begin immediate and productive on-the-job training. This allows these drivers to continue to use and sharpen their recently acquired driving skills and put them to work—in addition to immediately earning an income—under the mentoring and observation of a more experienced driver until they can return to their home State to be issued a CDL.
In the June 11, 2015,
A copy of CRST's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and Request for Comments.
The DOT invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for new information
In compliance with these requirements, this notice announces that the following information collection request has been forwarded to OMB. A
Written comments should be submitted by February 4, 2016.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. (Identify by Docket No. DOT-NHTSA-2015-0051).
Susan McHenry, (202) 366-6540, Office of Emergency Medical Services, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
The information collected in the National EMS Database will be used to: (1) Better describe EMS across the country, (2) provide information that will help NHTSA better understand the serious injuries sustained as a result of motor vehicle crashes, (3) inform the NHTSA Office of EMS on changes in clinical practices/protocols, medications and other factors that impact National EMS Education Standards, developed by NHTSA, (4) support EMS research, and (5) support a comprehensive set of local and State EMS Performance Measures that are currently under development, with support of NHTSA.
The National EMS Database is populated by collecting data from State EMS databases. State EMS databases are populated with patient care records from local or regional EMS agencies. The most complete report is the local EMS electronic patient care report completed for each EMS response. A subset of each the local EMS report is submitted electronically to the State EMS database and the State EMS office electronically transmits a smaller subset of all the local data to the NEMSIS TAC for inclusion in the National EMS Database. The data at the national level contains no personally identifiable information, and is reported in the aggregate.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1:48.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is partially approving and partially disapproving a revision to the Texas State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted on March 31, 2009, to address the regional haze requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA). The EPA is partially approving this SIP revision as meeting certain requirements of the regional haze program, including the Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) requirements for facilities other than Electric Generating Units (EGUs). The EPA is partially disapproving the Texas SIP revision for not adequately addressing other requirements of the regional haze program related to reasonable progress, the long-term strategy, and the calculation of natural visibility conditions. The EPA is promulgating a Federal Implementation Plan (FIP), which includes sulfur dioxide (SO
In a previous rulemaking, the EPA had issued a limited disapproval of the Texas regional haze SIP with regard to Texas' reliance on the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR), without promulgating a FIP. The EPA is not taking final action to address this deficiency at this time. The EPA is also disapproving portions of several separate infrastructure SIP revisions submitted by Texas for the purpose of addressing the requirements of the CAA regarding interference with other states' programs for visibility protection (interstate visibility transport) triggered by the issuance of the 1997 fine particulate matter (PM
Finally, the EPA is finalizing its proposed partial disapproval of a revision to the Oklahoma SIP submitted on February 19, 2010, to address the regional haze requirements of the CAA. Specifically, the EPA is disapproving portions of the Oklahoma SIP related to reasonable progress and the establishment of reasonable progress goals for the Class I area located within the state. The EPA is promulgating a FIP to address these deficiencies.
The EPA takes seriously its disapproval of SIPs, or portions thereof, and stands ready to work with the States to develop SIPs that would replace the Federal plans the EPA is promulgating today.
This final rule is effective on February 4, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-EPA-R06-OAR-2014-0754. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Joe Kordzi at 214-665-7186; or
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA. Also throughout this document, when we refer to the Oklahoma Department of Environmental Quality (ODEQ), or the Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ), we mean Oklahoma and Texas, respectively.
The purpose of Federal and state regional haze plans is to achieve a national goal, declared by Congress, of restoring and protecting visibility at 156 Federal Class I areas across the United States, most of which are national parks and wilderness areas with scenic vistas enjoyed by the American public. The national goal, as described in CAA Section 169A, is “the prevention of any future, and the remedying of any existing, impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I Federal areas which impairment results from man-made air pollution.” States are required to submit SIPs that ensure reasonable progress toward the national goal of remedying anthropogenic visibility impairment in Federal Class I areas, such as Big Bend National Park in Texas and the Wichita Mountains National Wildlife Refuge in Oklahoma.
In today's action, we are partially approving and partially disapproving portions of a SIP revision submitted by Texas to address the requirements of the regional haze program. Texas' regional haze SIP submittal included long-term strategies for making reasonable progress towards improving visibility at all Class I areas impacted by emissions from Texas sources and set reasonable progress goals for the two Class I areas
We took partial action in 2012 on Texas' regional haze SIP submittal. In our 2012 action, we issued a limited disapproval of the SIP revision because of Texas' reliance on CAIR to satisfy SO
We are also disapproving several SIP revisions submitted by Texas to address the requirements of CAA Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) with respect to visibility. This provision of the CAA requires that each state's SIP have adequate provisions to prohibit in-state emissions from interfering with measures required to protect visibility in any other state. To address this requirement, the SIP must address the potential for interference with visibility protection caused by the pollutant (including precursors) to which the new or revised NAAQS applies. In its SIP submittals addressing these requirements, Texas indicated that its regional haze SIP fulfilled its obligation for addressing emissions that would interfere with measures required to be included in the SIP for any other state to protect visibility.
Finally, we are taking action on an element of the Oklahoma regional haze SIP submitted in February 2010. We previously issued a partial approval, and partial disapproval of the Oklahoma SIP in 2011, and promulgated a FIP to address the deficiencies that we had identified in our partial disapproval.
When we reviewed the Oklahoma regional haze SIP, we noted that sources in Texas had significant impacts on visibility in the Wichita Mountains. Given the magnitude of these interstate impacts, we determined that the Oklahoma and Texas regional haze SIPs were interconnected, especially considering the relationship between upwind and downwind states in the reasonable progress and long-term strategy provisions of the Regional Haze Rule. Although we were able to act on the majority of Oklahoma's SIP at that time, we deferred action on Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains until we could first assess whether Texas had reasonably considered the potential for controls on those of its sources that were impacting visibility at the Wichita Mountains.
During the interstate consultation required by the Regional Haze Rule, Oklahoma and Texas discussed the significant contribution of sources in Texas to visibility impairment at the Wichita Mountains, but Texas concluded that no additional controls were warranted for its sources during the first planning period to ensure reasonable progress at the Wichita Mountains, or at its own Class I areas, the Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains National Parks. In reaching this conclusion, Texas relied on an analysis that obscured the benefits of potentially cost-effective controls on those sources or groups of sources with the largest visibility impacts in these Class I areas by inclusion of those controls with little visibility benefit, but which served to increase the total cost figures. This flawed analysis deprived Oklahoma of the information it needed to properly assess the reasonableness of controls on Texas sources during the consultation process and prevented Texas from properly assessing the reasonableness of controls to remedy visibility at Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains. As a result, Oklahoma established reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains that did not reflect any emission reductions from Texas beyond those that will be achieved by compliance with other requirements of the CAA. Texas established reasonable progress goals for its own Class I areas based on a similar assessment.
Our proposed action on the Texas regional haze and interstate visibility transport SIP submittals and the Oklahoma regional haze SIP is discussed in detail in our notice of proposed rulemaking promulgated on
Finally, we also proposed to disapprove Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains because Oklahoma did not satisfy several of the requirements related to setting those goals. In assessing the measures necessary to achieve the uniform rate of progress, Oklahoma demonstrated that eliminating all emissions from Oklahoma sources would not be sufficient to meet the uniform rate of progress in 2018. Oklahoma realized that the efforts to meet natural visibility conditions would require emission reductions from other states. The work done by the Central Regional Air Planning Association (CENRAP) showed that SO
We proposed FIPs for Texas and Oklahoma to remedy these deficiencies. Our proposed Texas FIP included SO
We proposed new reasonable progress goals for 2018 for Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains in Texas and for the Wichita Mountains in Oklahoma that take into account the additional emission reductions required in our proposed FIP for Texas. We proposed new estimates of natural conditions for the two Class I areas in Texas and proposed new uniform rates of progress for these areas. We proposed to rely on CSAPR to satisfy the SO
Our electronic docket at
Below we present a summary of the major points of our final decision regarding the Texas regional haze SIP, the portions of Texas SIP submittals addressing interstate visibility transport, and those parts of the Oklahoma regional haze SIP that we have not previously acted upon. We summarize which parts of the Texas and Oklahoma regional haze SIPs and the interstate visibility transport portions of Texas' SIP submittals we are disapproving, which parts are cured by our FIP, and which parts we are deferring action upon.
In this action, we are partially approving and partially disapproving portions of the SIP revision submitted by Texas to address the requirements of the regional haze program. We are also disapproving portions of several SIP revisions addressing the requirements of the CAA that prohibit air pollutant emissions from interfering with measures required to protect visibility in any other state, as described below.
We are finalizing our disapproval of Texas' reasonable progress goals for Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains. We have determined that Texas has not demonstrated that its reasonable progress goals provide for reasonable progress towards meeting the national visibility goal. Specifically, we find that Texas did not satisfy several of the requirements of the regional haze rule at 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1) (hereinafter referred to as § 51.308(d)) with regard to setting reasonable progress goals, most notably the requirement to reasonably consider
At the outset and as we discussed in detail in our proposal, we find the set of potential controls identified by Texas and how it analyzed and weighed the four reasonable progress factors under § 51.308(d)(1)(i)(A) was inappropriate.
We are also finalizing our disapproval of Texas' assessment of the emission reduction measures needed to achieve the uniform rate of progress for the period covered by the SIP, under § 51.308(d)(1)(i)(B). Although Texas correctly followed the procedures for analyzing and determining the rate of progress needed to attain natural visibility conditions by the year 2064, we find that Texas calculated this rate of progress on the basis of, and compared baseline visibility conditions to, a flawed estimation of natural visibility conditions for Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains.
We also find that Texas failed to adequately justify reasonable progress goals that are less stringent than the uniform rate of progress under § 51.308(d)(1)(ii).
With regard to the requirement under § 51.308(d)(1)(iv) to consult with other states which may reasonably be anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment at its Class I areas, we find that Texas appropriately identified those states with the largest impacts on Texas Class I areas and invited them for consultation. Based on our review of the CENRAP's source apportionment modeling and given the small modeled contributions from individual nearby states, especially when only considering anthropogenic sources that can be easily controlled in comparison with the size of impacts from Texas sources and international sources, we find that it was reasonable for Texas to have focused the analysis of additional controls on sources within Texas. We agree with Texas' determination that it was not reasonable to request additional controls from other states at this time. Therefore, we are finalizing our determination that Texas has satisfied the requirement under § 51.308(d)(1)(iv).
Under § 51.308(d)(1)(vi), Texas may not adopt a reasonable progress goal that represents less visibility improvement than is expected to result from implementation of other requirements of the CAA during the applicable planning period. As discussed in our proposal, we find that Texas' reasonable progress goals for 2018, based on the CENRAP model projections, represent at least as much visibility improvement as was expected to result from implementation of other requirements of the CAA (
As required by § 51.308(d)(2)(i) of the Regional Haze Rule, Texas calculated baseline/current conditions for its two Class I areas, Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains, on the most impaired and least impaired days. Texas calculated baseline visibility conditions for Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains using available monitoring data over the 2000-2004 period and the new IMPROVE equation, as discussed in our proposal.
Under § 51.308(d)(2)(iii), Texas must determine natural visibility conditions for the most impaired and least impaired days for the Class I areas in the state. Our guidance
Section 51.308(d)(3)(i) requires that where Texas has emissions that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in any mandatory Class I area located in another state, it must consult with that state in order to develop coordinated emission management strategies. Texas also must consult with any other state having emissions that are reasonably anticipated to contribute to visibility impairment in any mandatory Class I area within it (we have discussed this consultation requirement above). Texas and Oklahoma agreed that visibility impairment at the Wichita Mountains due to emissions from sources in Texas is significant and that the impacts from point sources in Texas are several times greater than the impact from Oklahoma point sources. Furthermore, the ODEQ asserted in its consultations with the TCEQ, and elsewhere in its regional haze SIP, that it would not be able to reach natural visibility by 2064 without additional reductions from Texas sources. Oklahoma and Texas discussed the significant contribution of sources in Texas to visibility impairment at the Wichita Mountains during the interstate consultation process required by the Regional Haze Rule. The results of the CENRAP analysis demonstrated that Texas point sources, and in particular EGUs in northeast Texas, have large visibility impacts at the Wichita Mountains and that cost-effective controls were potentially available for some of these sources. Ultimately, Texas unreasonably determined that no additional controls were warranted for its sources during the first planning period to help achieve reasonable progress at the Wichita Mountains. In analyzing whether additional controls should be required for some of its sources under the long-term strategy provisions of the Regional Haze Rule, Texas relied on the same flawed analysis discussed above that it relied on to evaluate additional controls under the reasonable progress provisions to address visibility impairment at Texas' own Class I areas. Texas' analytical approach obscured the contributions of individual sources that Texas' own analysis indicated could be cost-effectively controlled. This deprived Oklahoma of the information it needed to properly assess whether there were reasonable controls for Texas sources and to properly establish reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains that included the resulting emission reductions. We are therefore finalizing our disapproval of the portion of the Texas regional haze SIP addressing the requirement in § 51.308(d)(3)(i) to “consult with the other State(s) in order to develop coordinated emission management strategies.”
Section 51.308(d)(3)(ii) requires that if Texas emissions cause or contribute to impairment in another state's Class I area, it must demonstrate that it has included in its regional haze SIP all measures necessary to obtain its share of the emission reductions needed to meet the progress goal for that Class I area. Section 51.308(d)(3)(ii) also requires that since Texas participated in a regional planning process, it must ensure it has included all measures needed to achieve its apportionment of emission reduction obligations agreed upon through that process. As discussed in our proposal, we find that the technical analysis developed by CENRAP and supplemented by Texas did not provide the information needed to evaluate the reasonableness of controls on those sources with the greatest potential to impact visibility at the Wichita Mountains.
Section 51.308(d)(3)(iv) requires that Texas identify all anthropogenic sources of visibility impairment considered by it in developing its long-term strategy. We proposed to find that Texas' 2002 and 2018 emission inventories are acceptable and that it satisfies § 51.308(d)(3)(iv) and today, we take final action to approve that finding. However, under § 51.308(d)(3)(iii), Texas must document the technical basis, including modeling, monitoring, and emissions information, on which it is relying to determine its apportionment of emission reduction obligations necessary for achieving reasonable progress in each mandatory Class I area it affects. Texas addressed this requirement mainly by relying on technical analyses developed by CENRAP and approved by all state participants, but it also performed an additional analysis building upon the work of CENRAP in order to evaluate additional controls under the reasonable progress and long-term strategy provisions of the Regional Haze Rule. As discussed in our proposal, we find that this additional analysis was inadequate because the large control set Texas selected was not appropriately refined, targeted, or focused on those sources having significant and potentially cost-effective visibility benefits and did not provide the information necessary to determine the reasonableness of controls at those
In developing its long-term strategy, the state must consider a number of factors identified in § 51.308(d)(3)(v)(A)-(G). In this action, for the reasons discussed in our proposal,
Section 51.308(d)(4) requires that the Texas regional haze SIP contain a monitoring strategy for measuring, characterizing, and reporting of regional haze visibility impairment that is representative of all mandatory Class I areas within the state. This monitoring strategy must be coordinated with the monitoring strategy required in 40 CFR 51.305 for RAVI. Compliance with this requirement may be met through participation in the IMPROVE network. Since the monitors used for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend are IMPROVE monitors, we have determined that Texas has satisfied this requirement.
Section 51.308(d)(4)(ii) requires that Texas establish procedures by which monitoring data and other information are used in determining the contribution of emissions from within Texas to regional haze visibility impairment at mandatory Class I areas both within and outside the state. The monitors at Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains are operated through the IMPROVE monitoring program, which is national in scope, and other states have similar monitoring and data reporting procedures, ensuring a consistent and robust monitoring data collection system. Section 51.308(d)(4)(iv) requires that the SIP must provide for the reporting of all visibility monitoring data to the Administrator at least annually for each mandatory Class I area in the state. Section 51.308(d)(4)(vi) also requires that Texas provide for other elements, including reporting, recordkeeping, and other measures, necessary to assess and report on visibility. We are finalizing our determination that Texas has met these requirements through participation in the IMPROVE program.
Section 51.308(d)(4)(v) requires that Texas maintain a statewide inventory of emissions of pollutants that are reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment in any mandatory Class I area. The inventory must include emissions for a baseline year, emissions for the most recent year for which data are available, and estimates of future projected emissions. Texas must also include a commitment to update the inventory periodically. As discussed in the proposal, Texas has provided in the SIP a baseline emission inventory, estimates of future emissions, and emissions for the most recent year for which data was available at the time the SIP was developed.
We also approve Texas' coordination with the Federal Land Managers (FLMs) under 40 CFR 51.308(i). As detailed in our proposal, Texas has satisfied these requirements through communications with the FLMs, providing for review of the draft Texas regional haze SIP by the FLMs, and describing how all FLM comments were addressed in the SIP. Texas also provided procedures for continuing consultations.
We approve Texas' BART determinations for non-EGUs under 40 CFR 51.308(e). We are approving Texas' determination of which non-EGU sources in the state are BART-eligible and the determination that none of the state's BART-eligible non-EGU sources are subject to BART because they are not reasonably anticipated to cause or contribute to visibility impairment at any Class I areas. We reviewed the various modeling techniques utilized by the TCEQ in evaluating and screening out the BART-eligible non-EGU sources and we concur with the results of analysis.
However, we are not finalizing our proposed actions with regard to the state's BART-eligible EGU sources. As described above, we issued a limited disapproval of the Texas regional haze SIP in 2012 because of Texas' reliance on CAIR to meet certain requirements of the regional haze program. To address the deficiencies in Texas' plan arising from its reliance on CAIR to meet the SO
In addition, we note that we proposed to approve Texas' determination that for its EGUs no PM BART controls were appropriate, based on a screening analysis of the visibility impacts from just PM emissions and the premise in our proposal that EGU SO
The EPA is also disapproving portions of several separate infrastructure SIP revisions submitted by Texas for the purpose of addressing the requirements of the CAA regarding interference with other states' programs for visibility protection (interstate visibility transport). Section 110(a) of the CAA directs states to submit a SIP that provides for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of each NAAQS, which is commonly referred to as an infrastructure SIP. Among other things, CAA 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires that SIPs contain adequate provisions to prohibit interference with measures required to protect visibility in other states. We have concluded that to meet the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II): (1) Texas may not rely on its regional haze SIP, which relied heavily upon CAIR, to ensure that emissions from Texas do not interfere with measures to protect visibility in nearby states and (2) additional control of SO
We proposed to rely on CSAPR and the emission reductions required by our FIP for Texas to address these deficiencies in Texas' SIP submittals, but we have determined that it is not appropriate to finalize this determination at this time. Again, given the uncertainty following the D.C. Circuit Court's partial remand of the CSAPR budgets, we do not consider it appropriate to rely on CSAPR at this time to address the deficiencies on the Texas SIP, included those associated with interstate visibility transport obligation with respect to visibility. Therefore, this action does not finalize the portion of our proposed FIP addressing Texas' visibility transport obligations, as that portion of the FIP would have partially relied on CSAPR. We will address the visibility transport requirements for Texas in a future rulemaking, once the issues surrounding the partial remand are resolved.
We are taking final action to disapprove the reasonable progress goals established by Oklahoma, and we are approving one portion and disapproving the other portions of the Oklahoma regional haze SIP that address the requirements of § 51.308(d)(1). We find that Oklahoma's flawed consultation with Texas denied it the knowledge it needed—the extent to which cost-effective controls were available for those sources or groups of sources in Texas with the greatest potential to impact visibility at the Wichita Mountains—in order to properly construct its reasonable progress goal for the Wichita Mountains. Oklahoma and Texas discussed the significant contribution of sources in Texas to visibility impairment at the Wichita Mountains during the interstate consultation process required by the Regional Haze Rule. The results of the CENRAP analysis demonstrated that Texas point sources, and in particular EGUs in northeast Texas, have significant visibility impacts on the Wichita Mountains and that cost-effective controls were potentially available for some of these sources. However, Oklahoma did not pursue the point in its consultations with Texas under § 51.308(d)(1)(iv). Oklahoma did not have adequate information to establish its reasonable progress goal for the Wichita Mountains, and should have requested that the TCEQ further investigate these sources or requested additional reductions from Texas sources to ensure that all reasonable measures to improve visibility were included in Texas' long term strategy and incorporated into Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains. Furthermore, because of the flawed consultations with Texas, Oklahoma did not consider the emission reduction measures necessary to achieve the uniform rate of progress for the Wichita Mountains and did not adequately demonstrate that the reasonable progress goals it established were reasonable based on the four statutory factors under § 51.308(d)(1)(ii).
Under § 51.308(d)(1)(vi), Oklahoma may not adopt a reasonable progress goal that represents less visibility improvement than is expected to result from implementation of other requirements of the CAA during the applicable planning period. As discussed in our proposal, we find that Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals for 2018, based on the CENRAP model projections, represent at least as much visibility improvement as was expected to result from implementation of other requirements of the CAA (
As explained above, we have identified a number of deficiencies in the SIP revisions submitted by Texas and Oklahoma to address the CAA's regional haze requirements and are finalizing partial disapproval of those plans. Accordingly, in this action we are also finalizing a FIP to address the deficiencies identified by our partial Texas SIP disapproval, except for those identified in our prior disapproval of the provisions in the Texas SIP addressing the EGU BART requirements. In this rulemaking, we are also disapproving those portions of the Texas SIP addressing the interstate visibility transport provisions of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), and are also not finalizing a FIP to address these deficiencies.
During our review of the reasonable progress and long-term strategy provisions of the Texas regional haze SIP, we realized that a more in-depth analysis of Texas sources was needed to determine whether additional measures should be required to ensure reasonable progress. Although our technical approach is more fully described in our proposal
• We used an analysis known as Q/d (
• We realized that, due to the particular challenges presented by the geographic distribution and number of sources in Texas and the ability of a full photochemical model to assess visibility impacts on the 20% worst days, CAMx photochemical modeling
• The CAMx modeling revealed that a relative handful of the point sources in Texas (less than 1%) were responsible for a large percentage of the visibility impairment at impacted Class I areas.
• Based on our consideration of these modeled visibility impacts, we determined that nine facilities (with 21 units) merited further modeling to assess what the visibility benefits might be from requiring emission reductions at these units. We modeled high and low emissions scenarios that spanned the available control scenarios for each unit.
After identifying the sources with the largest visibility impacts at the three Class I areas of interest, and modeling the estimated visibility benefits corresponding to a robust range of potential controls, we considered whether controls on these sources would be necessary to ensure reasonable progress. As required by the CAA and the Regional Haze Rule, we took into account the following factors:
We noted that, with one exception,
A number of the sources with the largest visibility impacts had units with no current SO
Some of the units we analyzed were already fitted with underperforming
We also considered projected visibility benefits in our analysis. As we previously stated in proposing to take action on an Arizona regional haze SIP:
Having identified the sources that have the greatest visibility impacts on the three Class I areas of interest, the visibility benefits that could be obtained by controlling those sources, and the costs of potential controls, we developed a strategy to determine which sources, if any, should be controlled under the reasonable progress and long-term strategy provisions of the CAA and Regional Haze Rule. To make this determination, we took into account the cost-effectiveness ($/ton of emissions removed) of the potential controls along with their projected visibility benefits. The ample precedent of other SIPs and FIPs has established a range of cost-effectiveness values within which controls have generally been required to meet provisions of the Regional Haze Rule. All of the new DSI, SDA, and wet FGD controls and upgraded scrubber controls we costed easily fell within this range. In fact, the highest cost-effectiveness value for the controls we analyzed was $3,221/ton for the Tolk Unit 172B SDA, a value that is less than the cost threshold adopted by Texas, after adjusting for the escalation of costs over time.
As explained above, due to the challenges presented by the geographic distribution and number of sources in Texas and the ability of a full photochemical model to assess visibility impacts on the 20% worst days, we determined that the CAMx photochemical model was best suited to our needs. While CALPUFF modeling was often used for assessing visibility benefits in other regional haze SIP actions, the large transport distances in Texas and our concerns about the technical capabilities of CALPUFF made the use of CALPUFF impractical.
To evaluate the projected visibility benefits of controls in our cost evaluation, we considered a number of metrics, such as change in deciviews under 2018 projected levels of air pollution at the three Class I areas and under estimated natural visibility conditions, change in light extinction, and change in the percentage of total light extinction.
After extending our public comment period from the original date of February 17, 2015, to an extended date of April 20, 2015, we considered and responded to thousands of comments both for and against our proposal, the
As discussed further in our FIP TSD,
As we discuss in our proposal,
• Five years of the effective date of our final rule for Big Brown Units 1 and 2, Monticello Units 1 and 2, Coleto Creek Unit 1, and Tolk Units 171B and 172B.
• Three years of the effective date of our final rule for Sandow 4; Martin Lake Units 1, 2, and 3; Monticello Unit 3; and Limestone Units 1 and 2.
• One year of the effective date of our final rule for San Miguel.
In the Cost TSD that accompanied our proposal, we discussed how we calculated the SO
We also proposed that the units required to conduct scrubber upgrades must meet SO
Similarly, to ensure that San Miguel can meet our final FIP emission limitation, we are finalizing the following compliance option for the owner and operator of San Miguel as an alternative to the final emission limit of 0.60 lbs/MMBtu based on a 30 day BOD average:
• Install a CEMS at the inlet of the scrubber system. The 30 BOD SO
Consistent with our proposal and as discussed further in our FIP TSD,
We recommend that the State of Texas re-evaluate the natural conditions for its Class I areas in its next regional haze SIP in consultation with us and the FLMs.
Consistent with our proposal and as discussed further in our FIP TSD,
Consistent with our proposal and as discussed further in our FIP TSD,
We are finalizing our technical analysis that was lacking in Texas' development of its reasonable progress goals for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend. As discussed in our proposal and FIP TSD,
Our new reasonable progress goals for 2018 reflect only the additional estimated visibility benefit from the required controls anticipated to be in place by 2018, which are the scrubber upgrades. While the required scrubber retrofits will provide for additional visibility improvement at the Class I areas
We are finalizing our technical analysis that was lacking in Oklahoma's development of reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains, including appropriate consideration of emission reduction measures in Texas that Oklahoma should have asked Texas explicitly to obtain during its consultations with Texas. We are establishing new reasonable progress goals, as discussed in more detail in our proposal and FIP TSD,
We received both written and oral comments at the public hearings we held in Austin and Oklahoma City. We also received comments by the Internet and the mail. The full text of comments received from these commenters, except what was claimed as CBI, is included in the publicly posted docket associated with this action at
Some commenters argued that our proposal to disapprove Texas' and Oklahoma's regional haze SIPs disregarded the primary role of the states under the CAA, the Regional Haze Rule, and relevant case law. We do not agree. Congress designed the CAA to provide for states to take the lead in developing SIPs but also required EPA to review SIPs for compliance with statutory and regulatory requirements. We recognize that states have the primary responsibility of drafting a SIP to address the requirements of the regional haze program. We also recognize that we have the responsibility of ensuring that the state plans, including regional haze SIPs, conform to the CAA requirements. We have determined that the Texas and Oklahoma SIPs do not meet certain elements of these Federal requirements and are accordingly partially disapproving these SIPs.
Additionally, our review of SIPs is not limited to a ministerial review and approval of a state's decisions. Some commenters argued that the principles of cooperative Federalism in the CAA require EPA to defer to states in their development of SIPs, so long as necessary statutory requirements are met. Commenters stated that our proposal ignores such limits and would impose FIPs that ignore the primary implementation role given to Texas and Oklahoma. We disagree with the commenters' arguments regarding cooperative Federalism. Under this framework, the CAA directs us to act if a state fails to submit a SIP, submits an incomplete SIP, or submits a SIP that does not meet the statutory requirements. Thus, the CAA provides us with a critical oversight role in ensuring that SIPs meet the CAA's requirements.
Commenters stated that Texas' plan was complete by operation of law, met all requirements, and that we had no authority to impose a FIP. We disagree. The commenters confuse the action of merely submitting a SIP and having it deemed complete with the action of submitting a SIP that complies with the applicable Federal requirements. We agree that the CAA gives each state flexibility in developing a SIP, but in doing so, it must ensure the SIP meets Federal requirements. We must review the state's SIP and determine whether it meets such Federal requirements. If it does not, we must disapprove it (or portions thereof), and adopt a FIP to address the disapproved parts. In undertaking such a review, we do not “usurp” the state's authority arbitrarily, as some commenters stated, but rather we ensure that such authority is reasonably exercised. In this instance, portions of the states' SIPs were not approvable for reasons discussed elsewhere in this document, the responses to comments, and the proposed rulemaking.
Some commenters argued that the appropriate remedy for a substantially inadequate plan under our Regional Haze Rule is periodic updates, as opposed to a FIP. We disagree. The Regional Haze Rule's requirements for comprehensive periodic revisions (
Several commenters criticized the aspect of our proposal that provided potential commenters and states with clarification regarding our interpretation of the reasonable progress and long-term strategy provisions found at 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1) and (3). Some of these commenters alleged that our proposal did not clarify an existing interpretation, but rather outlined a new one that was being applied to Texas and Oklahoma after the fact. They argued that the provisions in question require upwind states to include in their long-term strategy only those measures necessary to achieve the reasonable progress goals set by downwind states, regardless of whether the goals were based on sound analyses and adequate interstate consultation or reflect all reasonable control measures. Some commenters argued that upwind states have no obligation to conduct four-factor analyses with respect to downwind Class I areas at all. In essence, these commenters asserted that the only obligation that the CAA and Regional Haze Rule impose upon upwind states is a requirement to consult with their neighbors and make good on any commitments made during the consultation process. They further argued that their preferred interpretation is mandated by the plain language of the Regional Haze Rule, such that the interpretation laid out in our proposal is plainly erroneous and not entitled to judicial deference. Other commenters asserted the opposite. They agreed with our clarifications and argued that our interpretation of the provisions found at 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1) and (3) is not only reasonable, but mandated by the CAA and the plain language of the provisions themselves.
After carefully considering these comments, we stand by our clarified interpretation as outlined in the proposal. The alternative interpretations offered by some of the commenters are not in accord with the plain language of CAA sections 169A(b)(2) and (g)(1),
CAA section 169A(g)(1) goes on to state that, in determining “reasonable progress,” states must consider four factors: “the costs of compliance, the time necessary for compliance, and the energy and nonair quality environmental impacts of compliance, and the remaining useful life of any existing source subject to such requirements.” This consideration is commonly referred to as the “four-factor analysis.”
While we agree that visibility is not one of the four mandatory factors explicitly listed for consideration in CAA section 169A(g)(1) or 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1)(i)(A), the term “reasonable progress” itself means reasonable progress towards the national goal of natural visibility conditions. The Supreme Court has stated that, “[i]n determining whether Congress has specifically addressed the question at issue, a reviewing court should not confine itself to examining a particular statutory provision in isolation. The meaning—or ambiguity—of certain words or phrases may only become evident when placed in context. It is a `fundamental canon of statutory construction that the words of a statute must be read in their context and with a view to their place in the overall statutory scheme.' A court must therefore interpret the statute `as a symmetrical and coherent regulatory scheme' and `fit, if possible, all parts into an harmonious whole.' ”
To ensure a coherent regulatory scheme, we believe that states (or EPA when promulgating a FIP) can consider
Second, once a universe of sources has been identified for analysis, we believe that states can consider the visibility improvement that will result from potential control options when weighing the four statutory factors. Allowing consideration of visibility improvement is appropriate for several reasons. Most importantly, it aligns with Congress' national goal, which is to remedy existing impairment of visibility in Class I areas. While section 169A(g)(1) of the CAA contains a list of factors states
Further, allowing states to consider visibility improvement alongside the four statutory factors ensures that only those cost-effective controls that will achieve reasonable visibility benefits are required during each phase towards the national goal. If states were not permitted to consider visibility improvement when conducting their control determinations, then states arguably would have to require all cost-effective controls during the first planning period (assuming no limiting energy or non-air quality environmental impacts) regardless of whether some of those controls would be far more beneficial than others.
We also note that Congress did not provide any direction as to how states should consider “the costs of compliance” when determining reasonable progress. One permissible way a state could “consider” costs is to compare them to prospective benefits. In other words, we believe the first statutory factor is capacious enough to allow for a comparison of cost-effectiveness to visibility improvement. Finally, we note that our 2007 guidance explicitly permits states to consider other relevant factors when conducting a four-factor analysis,
Some commenters alluded that visibility improvement is irrelevant to a four-factor analysis because Congress did not include it as one of the four factors, but did include it as a factor to be considered in determining BART. We do not find this reasoning to be persuasive. The sources that Congress subjected to the BART requirement (
We also disagree with the commenters that we cannot disapprove a state's SIP where the state has considered visibility improvement in an unreasonable fashion. As the Eighth Circuit explained in
We note that the Tenth Circuit's decision in
Finally, we disagree with the commenter that we elevated visibility improvement to a place of primary importance, either in disapproving Texas' SIP or in promulgating our FIP. The flaws with Texas' consideration of visibility benefits were only one aspect of our disapproval. Moreover, we stated on multiple occasions in our proposal that we considered all four statutory factors in our analysis. Our analysis does not give greater weight to one factor over another; rather, we considered all four factors fully, revealing that the cost factor, which included visibility improvement consideration, was the most determinative in our decisions. The
As we explain further in supporting documents, we also disagree with the commenter's suggestion that we should have screened only by using the Q/d metric. A Q/d analysis compares a source's emissions and distance to nearby Class I areas to provide an initial estimate of the potential visibility impacts of those sources. After conducting our Q/d analysis, we then used photochemical modeling to estimate the visibility impacts of this set of sources in a much more refined manner that accounts for chemistry, meteorological conditions, and stack parameters in addition to emissions and location. The results of our modeling indicated that a subset of 38 facilities were the primary contributors to visibility impairment at each Class I area. We then used the modeling results to narrow the group of sources further because it was reasonable to conduct a
Nonetheless, the EPA arbitrarily disapproved the Texas consultation process with Oklahoma without reference to its rules, guidance, and prior SIP approvals. The proposal never details what information Oklahoma lacked in establishing its reasonable progress goals, and EPA must provide a more adequate explanation of how additional information would have changed Oklahoma's ultimate determination that additional controls on Texas sources would not move the Wichita Mountains perceptibly closer to its regional haze goals.
Although Texas participated in CENRAP, it retained the duty to do whatever additional analysis was necessary to fully address the requirements of the Regional Haze Rule for addressing its long-term strategy and setting its reasonable progress goals. While the long-term strategy requirements allow a state to rely on the RPO technical analysis, that is true only to the extent it provides the necessary information. A state must address any gaps in that analysis. For Texas, inadequate information existed not only for the reasonable progress analysis for its own Class I areas, but also for the long-term strategy development for addressing significant impacts at the Wichita Mountains. CENRAP was not required, nor did it provide state-specific analyses and information on the cost-effectiveness and visibility benefits of potential control strategies under consideration by each state to address the specific sources or groups of sources within that state that have the largest visibility impacts. Rather, CENRAP provided more general information on overall projected visibility conditions, potential controls and associated costs for some sources and the potential benefit of regional emission reductions to inform the development of potential control strategies that may require additional analysis.
Recognizing that the information made available by CENRAP indicated the significant impact of Texas emissions and potential for cost-effective controls, Texas used the CENRAP analysis as a starting point, and performed supplemental analysis for both its reasonable progress and long-term strategy demonstrations. However, that additional technical analysis performed by Texas was flawed and therefore did not provide the type of information necessary to fully evaluate the reasonableness of controls at Texas sources with the largest potential to impact visibility at its own Class I areas and the Wichita Mountains. Allowing this lack of adequate information to continue was a critical misstep for ODEQ in setting its reasonable progress goals, and a critical misstep for Texas when determining its fair share of emissions reductions under the long-term strategy requirement. The plain language of the CAA requires that states consider the four factors used in determining reasonable progress in developing the technical basis for the reasonable progress goals both in their own Class I areas and downwind Class I areas. Such documentation is necessary so that interstate consultations can proceed on an informed basis, and so that downwind states can properly assess whether any additional upwind emissions reductions are necessary to achieve reasonable progress at their Class I areas. Therefore, Texas had an obligation to provide appropriate information to Oklahoma so it could establish a proper progress goal for the Wichita Mountains. Further, Texas had an obligation to conduct an appropriate technical analysis, and demonstrate through that analysis (required under paragraph (d)(3)(ii)), that it provided its fair share of emissions reductions to Oklahoma. In summary, Texas was required through the consultation process to provide Oklahoma the information it needed to establish its reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains, and it failed to do so.
The Regional Haze Rule required that Oklahoma use the consultation process under 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1)(iv) in the development of reasonable progress goals in tandem with Texas. Nevertheless, throughout the consultations, Oklahoma failed to explicitly request that Texas further investigate whether reasonable controls were available or that Texas reduce emissions from these significantly impacting sources to ensure that all reasonable measures to improve visibility were included in Texas' long-term strategy and incorporated into Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains. This failure resulted in the development of improper reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains.
Whatever its label, we proposed to disapprove Texas' reasonable progress analysis because it was flawed in several specific ways. A primary flaw was that the control set was over-inclusive. It included controls on sources that served to increase the total cost with little visibility benefit. As was
Therefore, whether the state's analysis is labelled a source category analysis, an analysis of multiple individual sources, or some hybrid, we conclude that it contained serious deficiencies that would materially affect the outcome of the state's SIP process. As a result, we conclude this component of the SIP requires disapproval.
Finally, it bears noting that the approach we have taken in our FIP to identifying appropriate controls does not dictate the approach that Texas or any other state must take to assess controls. Given Texas' size and the range of distances from point sources to Class I areas, the mix of controls at EGUs and other large point sources in the state, and the overall significance of the impacts from these point sources, we considered it appropriate to undertake a source specific analysis to avoid the potential for over-controlling sources.
One commenter cited to the Commerce Clause, Fifth Amendment and Constitutional non-delegation principles in support of its contention that EPA should not be able to regulate sources under our regional haze program. We disagree with these comments. First, under the Commerce Clause, the commenter argues that we cannot regulate regional haze on the theory that regulated conduct—such as “carbon emissions” from coal-fired power plants—will have some effect on interstate commerce. We disagree with the comment because owners and operators of the Texas sources subject to this regional haze FIP are engaged in economic activities (the operation of coal-fired power plants) that cause haze-forming air pollution to travel into other states and substantially affect interstate commerce. Each of the Federal Class I areas receives substantial numbers of visitors, including those from out-of-state, each year. Our regulation of these sources of visibility impairing pollution pursuant to the CAA is squarely within the Federal government's Commerce Clause authority. Our regulation of emissions from coal-fired power plants, which cause and contribute to regional haze in multiple states, to fill a gap left by disapproval of a SIP seeks to fulfill
Second, the commenter contends that our Regional Haze Rule suffers from a non-delegation problem. We disagree. The CAA's visibility provisions provide extensive intelligible principles that guide our exercise of discretion. CAA section 169A, as well as other provisions, required us to promulgate regulations directing the states to revise their SIPs to include emission limits and other measures as necessary to make “reasonable progress.”
Third, a commenter claims that the EPA has commandeered the states in violation of the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution. We disagree with this comment. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that, “the Federal Government may not compel the states to implement Federal regulatory programs.”
Furthermore, such a simplistic comparison ignores the meaningful differences between Texas and the other states cited by commenters in which no controls on NO
Several comments assert that our FIP authority is limited to “filling the gaps” in a state's SIP submission. These commenters further contend that our FIP authority is limited by the scope of the SIP submission. Because the required reasonable progress goals should be met at the conclusion of the first planning period, the commenters' argument continues, our FIP authority is likewise limited to those controls that can be implemented by 2018. We disagree. Our authority to use a FIP to address a “gap” or “inadequacy” in a SIP refers to a “gap” in the plan's coverage of requirements contained in the statute and regulations, and is not limited to the specific “gap” left by the disapproved portions of the scope of action covered in the state's SIP submission, as commenters suggest.
In this action, we are determining whether Texas has addressed the regional haze requirements set forth in the CAA and our implementing regulations. Our FIP determines that under a proper assessment of reasonable progress factors, additional controls for some sources in Texas are warranted for the first planning period. Regulatory delays created by a complex Texas submission and EPA actions regarding the state's regional haze requirements, including the time needed for EPA to assess the complex 2009 submission and the thousands of comments received on our proposed action, cannot provide an exemption from the CAA requirement to address regional haze. Nor can regulatory delays make additional delays excusable when the requisite CAA analysis concludes the controls are warranted at the earliest opportunity to make reasonable progress. Additionally, there is nothing in the CAA or the regional haze rules that constrains our FIP authority to only those controls that can be installed in the first planning period. While reasonable progress goals reflect that degree of visibility improvement attainable during the first planning period (which extends to 2018), as was indicated in our proposal, the long-term strategy requirements of the program by their very nature look beyond these interim goals to the state's “long term” approach to addressing regional haze and may include control measures and accompanying visibility improvements that extend beyond the first planning period.
Comments also asserted that our proposed FIP disregards the “time necessary for compliance” factor of the reasonable progress analysis. As we discuss in detail in the RTC document, we are required by regulation to “
Other comments asserted that our requirement for controls outside of the planning period is inconsistent with previous FIPs. We disagree with this comment. First, we have proposed or promulgated FIPs requiring controls with compliance dates beyond the first planning period, including FIPs for Arkansas and Wyoming. The Oklahoma FIP includes requirements beyond the first planning period as the result of a stay during litigation. Further, we have applied the requirements of the regional haze program to ensure consistency in the requirements upon the sources subject to regulation. If we were to follow the commenters' arguments and fail to require application of necessary controls on Texas sources past the first planning period, those sources would be treated inconsistently with sources in other states that were required to apply the controls necessary to meet the CAA's requirement to address regional haze. We cannot agree to inconsistent application of necessary controls at Texas sources due to delays in promulgating a FIP or time-intensive installation schedules, but rather, we address these program requirements through the long-term strategy, which, as discussed above, allows for control strategies that can begin design and construction but cannot be completed within the planning period.
Several comments assert that our regulatory delays preclude EPA from imposing certain emission limitations that may not be achieved within the first planning period. Despite any delays in finalizing our action on the Texas SIP or in promulgating the FIP, we have a duty to act on the SIP and a duty to fulfill the regional haze requirements of the Act, including the authority to promulgate a FIP that imposes the controls required by the CAA where a SIP submission fails to do so. This duty and authority is not forfeited or constrained by delays, whatever their cause. We likewise disagree with commenters who consider it inappropriate for controls to be required after the planning period because corresponding visibility benefits may not be realized during the planning period. The fact that benefits of such controls may not be realized within the first planning period does not affect our determination that the controls are necessary nor deprive us of our authority to impose the requirements.
A commenter asserted that all of the controls required under the proposed FIP can be installed within the first planning period. We agree that in some cases scrubber retrofits can and have been installed in less than five years; however, we do not have the information necessary to make that determination for each specific facility included under the proposed FIP. Thus, we proposed an installation timeframe consistent with past successful BART-related scrubber retrofits that, while conservative, ensures the necessary time to install the controls.
We received numerous comments related to the cost analyses we performed to support the seven scrubber retrofits and the seven scrubber upgrades we proposed. These comments were received from both industry and environmental groups, and covered all aspects of our cost analyses.
Some of the comments we received from industry concerning our proposed scrubber retrofits were objections to our use of the IPM cost algorithms that were developed by Sargent and Lundy (S&L) under contract to us. As we discuss in our Cost TSD, we programmed the DSI, SDA, and wet FGD cost. algorithms, as employed in version 5.13 of our IPM model, into spreadsheets.
In summary, we disagree with these commenters and conclude that the IPM cost algorithms provide reliable, study-level, unit-specific costs for regulatory cost analysis such as required for BACT, BART, and reasonable progress.
As we discuss in our proposal,
Below we present a summary of our responses to the more significant comments we received that relate to our proposed cost analyses.
We generally disagree that our analysis was flawed. We specifically used information provided by Luminant's and NRG's own independent contractors (
We do not believe there is enough information concerning NID installations at this time to warrant an intensive analysis of that technology. Given the vendor advertised control efficiency of NID, the selection of NID technology rather than wet FGD would not change our proposed SO
With respect to the comment that we should have considered blending the coal used at the units with low sulfur coal, we note that most of the units in question either burn lower sulfur Powder River Basin (PRB) coal or they blend it with lignite. We do not believe we have the necessary technical information (
S&L does not provide any documentation to support its contention that the IPM wet FGD cost algorithms are based on a generic scrubber inlet temperature of 300 F. We have researched all available references on this issue and cannot find anything to support this conclusion. Rather, we conclude that the IPM cost algorithms estimate costs from regression equations based on actual completed projects. There are a number of factors other than temperature that affect the volume of gas flow that passes through a scrubber system. These include the amount of in-leakage in the system (which often increases due to inefficient or worn seals in the air preheater) and the type and characteristics of the coal that is being burned. This is made clear by examination of two of the scrubber retrofit reports for Big Brown (one of the units S&L cites), which were issued by S&L in 2004 and 2007, we received in response to our CAA Section 114 requests.
Even though the visibility improvement from an individual source may not be perceptible, it should still be considered in setting BART because the contribution to haze may be significant relative to other source contributions in the Class I area.
Given that sources are subject to BART based on a contribution threshold of no greater than 0.5 deciviews, it would be inconsistent to automatically rule out additional controls where the improvement in visibility may be less than 1.0 deciview or even 0.5 deciviews. A perceptible visibility improvement is not a requirement of the BART determination because visibility improvements that are not perceptible may still be determined to be significant.
Thus, in our visibility improvement analysis, we have not considered perceptibility as a threshold criterion for considering improvements in visibility to be meaningful. Rather, we have considered visibility improvement in a holistic manner, taking into account all reasonably anticipated improvements in visibility and the fact that, in the aggregate, improvements from controls on multiple sources will contribute to progress towards the goal of natural visibility conditions. Visibility impacts below the thresholds of perceptibility cannot be ignored because regional haze is produced by a multitude of sources and activities which are located across a broad geographic area. In this action, as discussed below, we found that the required cost-effective controls reduce visibility impairment from those sources with the largest visibility impacts and result in meaningful visibility benefits towards the goal of natural visibility conditions.
As we have noted and discussed in a separate response to comment, the results of the CAMx modeling we have utilized in our proposal cannot be directly compared to the results of CALPUFF modeling, which has been utilized in the vast majority of other BART and reasonable progress/long-term strategy actions, because of differences in the models, model inputs, and metrics used.
The CENRAP modeling showed that Texas sources have significant visibility impacts at the Wichita Mountains and the Texas Class I areas. Our analysis identified those point sources with the greatest contributions to visibility impairment at these Class I areas, and the required controls reduce visibility impairment from those sources with the largest impacts where controls were determined to be available and reasonable for this first planning period. For example, the Monticello and Big Brown facilities are projected to contribute approximately 1.3 Mm
The difference between comparing visibility improvement on a “clean” and “dirty” background is analogous to comparing the change in sound volume that would occur if one person stopped singing loudly in an empty room (clean background) to the change that would occur if one person stops singing loudly in a room crowded with a 100 people singing loudly (dirty background). In both cases, to return the room to natural background sound level, the individual singers must be addressed, but there will be little or no perceptible difference in volume when one singer in the crowded room stops singing. To carry the analogy further, our analysis was designed to identify the Texas sources with the greatest visibility impact (the loudest singers) and address them in this first planning period.
Second, the 0.5 dv threshold in the context of BART is used to assess the maximum total visibility
Even setting aside Texas' approach of aggregating sources with varying impacts on visibility, the use of a 0.5 dv threshold as applied by Texas for determining the significance of visibility benefits of all controls combined would have ensured that little visibility improvement would occur during this planning period. Texas and Oklahoma acknowledged in their SIP submittals that sources in Texas have a large impact on visibility at the Wichita Mountains; indeed, the visibility impacts at this Class I area from Texas point sources are several times greater than the impacts from Oklahoma's own point sources. Based on CENRAP 2018 modeling, all point sources in Texas combined have a visibility impact in terms of light extinction of 10.58 Mm
We received a number of comments alleging specific instances of inconsistency with our previous SIPs and FIPs, as well as with our regional consistency rules at 40 CFR 56.5(a)(1) and (2). We have extracted all of these alleged instances of inconsistency, and we address them in detail in a separate consistency section within our RTC document. We recognize that we have a duty to ensure our regional haze actions are carried out in accordance with the CAA, Federal regulations, and our policies, and are as consistent as reasonably possible with other regional haze actions as required under our regional consistency rules (40 CFR 56.5(a)(2)), recognizing the fact-specific nature of individual regional haze plans and determinations. As we discuss below, we believe that in this action, which is one of the last remaining regional haze SIP reviews of the first planning period, we have been as consistent with our previous actions as is reasonably possible. We disagree that our action is inconsistent with the reasonable progress requirements or our prior SIP actions. While our regional consistency regulations and policies require us to carry out our actions pursuant to the CAA in a consistent manner across EPA regions as reasonably as possible, they do not require uniformity between those actions in all circumstances and instead, “allow for some variation” in actions taken in different regions.
Developing solutions to the complex problem of regional haze requires effective consultation among states. During the first planning period, the states worked together through RPOs to help develop their regional haze SIPs. To assist in this effort, we provided tens of millions of dollars to the RPOs following the issuance of the 1999 Regional Haze Rule to fund the development of the technical tools and analyses necessary to address regional haze and to facilitate consultation among the states. The states set up five RPOs to address visibility impairment from a regional perspective. The technical analyses done by the RPOs for the first round of regional haze SIPs greatly increased the understanding of the problem of visibility impairment at the Federal Class I areas, including that of the specific contribution of different species of pollutants.
Given the regional differences in the degree of visibility impairment, the pollutants of concern, and the impacts of fire and international emissions, we did not prescribe a one size fits all approach to reasonable progress. The RPOs accordingly adopted somewhat different approaches to recommending potential measures to ensure reasonable progress. However, the RPOs and the states all agreed that large stationary sources of SO
In our review of the regional haze SIPs, we have attempted to take into account the differences among states in assessing the reasonableness of each state's SIP submittal. By its nature, each regional haze decision is a very fact specific determination requiring the consideration of multiple factors. After examining all instances of perceived inconsistency with other actions, we believe that when all of the factors are considered in their full context, the situation for Texas and Oklahoma differs sufficiently from these other actions cited as being inconsistent with this action to warrant the approach that we have taken. Furthermore, we found that in many instances some commenters reproduced incomplete quotes from our previous actions, or otherwise took those quotes out of their proper context, leading to an inaccurate characterization of the facts in some cases.
Many commenters compared our CAMx modeled visibility impairments or improvements with those in other actions modeled using CALPUFF and concluded that our proposed visibility improvements were not enough to merit controls when compared to those other actions. These commenters universally failed to account for the differences between these two modeling platforms, the model inputs, and the metrics used.
Some commenters criticized us for disapproving the reasonable progress and long-term strategy consultations between Oklahoma and Texas, when other state-to-state consultations similarly failed to result in additional controls. Often these comparisons were made without regard to the specific facts, such as the magnitude of the visibility impacts that Texas sources have on the Wichita Mountains in Oklahoma in relation to the relative impact of the sources in those other actions, or the overlooked cost-effective controls that were available to Texas sources to address those impacts. Other commenters' comparisons simply focused on the result without regard to the substance: They noted instances where two other states consulted and neither required additional controls, and concluded that Texas was being treated unfairly.
Commenters also argued that our proposed disapproval of Texas' reasonable progress analysis was based on Texas' decision not to undertake a source-by-source analysis of emission controls. The commenters pointed to a number of other regional haze SIPs approved by EPA where states had relied on analyses of the reasonableness of controls for various source categories. The commenters claimed that these examples demonstrate that we accepted analyses of source categories in other states and that we should not, therefore, disapprove Texas' reasonable progress analysis on the grounds that it failed to look at controls on a source-by-source basis. These commenters ignore the fact that Texas' reasonable progress analysis was, in part, based on a source-by-source analysis. However, Texas set that analysis aside in favor of comparing the combined costs of all controls— not those for specific source categories— against its calculation of the total visibility benefit. More importantly, however, as we have explained elsewhere in this action, our objection to Texas' approach to evaluating potential reasonable progress controls was not grounded in whether it used a category or source-by-source analysis. Rather, our disapproval of Texas' reasonable progress analysis is based on the fact that its flawed methodology ignored cost-effective controls that, as we demonstrated in our proposal, would result in significant visibility benefits.
Commenters also raise questions concerning our approval of regional haze SIPs where states relied on implementation of CAIR or CSAPR to satisfy BART. The commenters argue we repeatedly found that participation in these trading programs also satisfied reasonable progress obligations for these states. One commenter claimed it would be illogical to find that CAIR or CSAPR was an appropriate substitute for BART but to then require controls for reasonable progress. We noted in 2005 that the determination that CAIR provided for greater reasonable progress than BART did not answer the question of whether more than CAIR would be required in a regional haze SIP.
We also discussed our selection of CAMx vs. CALPUFF and included in the Modeling TSD a number of references to performance analysis comparisons between the two models. There are also many comparisons available in journal articles and online that support using a photochemical grid model (most of these comparison
In sum, there are many reasons for the selection of CAMx over CALPUFF for the purposes of this rule making. CAMx is better suited for evaluating the reasonable progress metric of improvement on the 20% worst days. It is also better suited for evaluating multiple sources in a complex airshed. In addition many references point to CALPUFF's potential overprediction at the distances at issue here. Any bias issues in CAMx are ameliorated by tethering the model to real monitoring data, through the use of relative response factors generated by modeling of base and future cases to predict future monitored values.
With regard to comments that we should have performed a more complete update of the inventory, a full emission inventory update for all emission categories such as biogenic, mobile, non-road, area, and point sources for 2002 and 2018 was well beyond the scope of our review of the SIP submittal. Such an update was not necessary to evaluate whether the modeling and analyses submitted with the original SIP could have led to a conclusion that additional reasonable progress controls are appropriate. Once our evaluation concluded that it could be appropriate for some sources to be better controlled for reasonable progress, we did do minor updates to evaluate the most recent emission levels of EGUs in Texas for the ones being further evaluated for potential controls in our 2018 emissions. Because of the additional focus on these particular sources it was appropriate to use more up to date emissions. We also used the most recent CAMx model version and updated chemical mechanism that included improvements to the source apportionment of single point sources and plume in grid algorithms to use the most recent science for our evaluations.
We evaluated the existing CENRAP 2002 and 2018 emission inventories and whether to update parts of these emission inventories in 2018. After our initial modeling analyses, we did update emissions for the EGUs evaluated for potential controls to use recent actuals in the 2018 modeling, which were thought to better represent emissions from EGUs in Texas based on comments from Texas and EGU owners.
Lastly, we disagree with the commenter that the SIP modeling and our further evaluation of 2018 expected levels are not representative. In fact, the recent ambient monitoring data at the IMPROVE sites in the three Class I areas (2011-2013) are influenced by meteorology that has lower than normal transport of pollution from sources in Texas when compared to the base period on which projections are based (2000-2004) and to the 30-year meteorology analysis of transport to the three Class I areas (1984-2013). Thus, examining the 2011-2013 time period overstates the progress that can be expected over long term. In response to comments and information provided we conducted further analysis to appropriately evaluate whether the base period was suited for projections to 2018 and also an analysis of how the meteorology accompanying the more recent monitoring data for 2011-2013 compared to normal meteorology conditions. We further note that 2014 also was not quite a normal year
We reached these conclusions by performing our own HYSPLIT modeling of a 30-year period (1984-2013) and concluded that in years with wind flow patterns consistent with the climatological norms over that period a significant number of days have back trajectories that did include areas where the sources proposed for additional controls are located. Furthermore our analysis of the 2011-13 period which was less representative of normal pollution transport patterns also showed a number of back trajectories went through or near the areas with the sources being considered for controls. Therefore these back trajectories do indicate the sources being considered
Our analysis of 30-years of back trajectories to assess whether the 2011-13 and 2000-2004 periods were within the climatological norm also indicated that the base period (2000-2004) was more similar to the climatological norm than the 2011-2013 period, so we conclude that using the base period is more representative for projecting 2018 levels.
In sum, the number of trajectories that go near the sources in Texas is large enough to not rule them out from consideration for potential control. In general, we have treated back trajectories as a tool to potentially screen an area out if no trajectories go through an area but if some trajectories go through an area then the area may be evaluated further or, as in this case, the full analysis may rely on more sophisticated tools such as CAMx.
The commenter indicated that a number of back trajectories went through Mexico but failed to mention that many of these also went through Texas. Therefore, sources in Mexico and Texas could contribute emissions to the visibility impairment at the Class I Areas. We have concluded that the back trajectory data provided by the commenter do not support their assertions that transport from the regions with those sources we are controlling is rare. The data they have provided are inconsistent with the guidance and general practices and are for years that are not representative of normal climatological patterns with respect to transport wind flow to the Class I areas. Furthermore, the back trajectories submitted by the commenter do in fact show transport from regions of Texas for some days. Our additional analysis identified the normal wind patterns over a 30-year period and determined that based on normal conditions, transport does occur from the regions in Texas with those sources we are controlling.
HYSPLIT is a meteorological transport model but does not assess the dispersion of and impacts from pollutants from differing sources and does not have chemistry to correctly assess the potential impacts of secondary particulate matter. We used the CAMx model, which does account for pollutants and utilizes atmospheric chemistry mechanisms to calculate changes in visibility impacts from the proposed emission reductions at specific sources. As discussed in a response to comment above in this section, photochemical grid models such as CAMx are best suited for this analysis and determination of the benefit of potential emission reductions.
CALPUFF modeling is used to provide estimates of the maximum visibility impacts from a source based on maximum emissions and simplified chemistry, irrespective of the relationship to the 20% worst days. It is
We disagree with commenters and we note, as further detailed in our RTC document, that when recent actual emissions and unit-level visibility impacts are considered, the units at the facilities identified by the commenters, such as Oklaunion and Pirkey, fall below the percent of visibility impairment threshold we established to identify units for additional control analysis. This threshold was established to identify a reasonable set of units that had the greatest visibility impacts for additional control analysis for this planning period. We note that any increases in actual emissions at these facilities in the future should be considered during development of the regional haze SIP for future planning periods. In future planning periods, as the facilities with the greatest impacts are controlled, the percent of total visibility impairment due to these lower impact facilities will increase and they in turn should be considered for additional control.
Considering the visibility benefits and costs, we disagree that we should have required controls on units at Parish and Welsh. In evaluating the cost of controls, we also weighed how effective the reductions were in achieving visibility benefits. We considered the anticipated visibility benefit in deciviews (for both a “dirty background” and a “clean background”) as well as the reduction in extinction and the percentage of visibility impairment addressed by the controls. Based on our evaluation of these visibility metrics within the cost factor of the four-factor reasonable progress analysis, we determined that additional controls on Parish and Welsh were not required for reasonable progress for the first planning period. In the FIP TSD and the proposed FIP, we note lesser visibility improvement benefits at the three Class I areas for the W. A. Parish and Welsh units compared to the benefits at other facilities that mainly impact the Wichita Mountains. We also note that when considering the costs of controls and the relative visibility benefit, the Parish scrubber retrofits would be slightly more expensive with respect to $/ton but would be much less effective in improving visibility at the Wichita Mountains, when compared to the required controls at the Monticello or Coleto Creek units. For the Welsh scrubber retrofits, the costs ($/ton) would be approximately 50% greater than the cost of scrubber retrofits at Monticello or Coleto Creek and would result in approximately 50% less visibility improvement at the Wichita Mountains. We also considered comments on cumulative visibility benefits of these controls and determined that the cumulative visibility benefits of each new scrubber at the Parish and Welsh units would be less than those at each of the units where we proposed scrubber retrofits and less than that at each of the units with proposed scrubber upgrades with the exception of Limestone, at a cost significantly higher than the estimated cost of scrubber upgrades. Similarly, the total cumulative visibility benefit of controlling the three units at Welsh and the four units at Parish would be less than half the benefit from all the required scrubber retrofits or all the required scrubber upgrades, and at a greater average $/ton cost.
We agree with the commenter that on a $/ton basis, scrubber upgrades on Parish unit 8 are very cost-effective. However, the visibility benefit and reduction in emissions from this control would be very low when compared to all the other evaluated scrubber upgrades. The estimated visibility benefit from upgrading the scrubber would be an order of magnitude less than all the other evaluated scrubber upgrades and not large enough to require as reasonable progress for this planning period.
Oil and gas emissions are the largest component of area source emissions but are only part of the total NO
The Regional Haze Rule requires the identification of reasonable progress controls and the development of coordinated emission control strategies in order to make reasonable progress towards the goal of natural visibility conditions. Faced with a very large and unwieldy universe of sources, we followed our guidance and chose an approach that focused on the portion of the universe of Texas sources that contributed the greatest impact to visibility impairment, by establishing a threshold of 0.3% contribution to total visibility impairment on a unit basis for this planning period, thereby identifying a reasonable set of units at nine facilities to analyze for additional controls.
As we discuss at length in the FIP TSD and in our RTC document, we, states (including Texas) and RPOs (including CENRAP) have used a Q/d analysis to identify those facilities that have the most potential to impact visibility at a Class I area based on their emissions and distance to the Class I area. These identified facilities could then be considered for further evaluation to estimate visibility impacts, and then undergo the reasonable progress analysis for determination of reasonable progress controls. The BART guidelines
Following the Q/d analysis, we took the additional step of using photochemical modeling, utilizing CAMx with Plume-In-Grid (PiG) and Particulate Source Apportionment Tagging (PSAT). As the commenter states, the Q/d analysis does not take into account stack parameters, meteorological conditions, or chemistry. Given the large geographic distribution of sources and distances to the Class I areas, we recognized that it was highly likely that only a subset of these 38 facilities would have the greatest visibility impacts on downwind Class I areas once meteorology and transport conditions, atmospheric dispersion, chemistry, and stack parameters were taken into consideration, as CAMx with PiG and PSAT can do. We determined it was appropriate to use photochemical modeling to assess the visibility impact from those sources identified by our Q/d analysis. In the same way that Q/d is used as an estimate of the potential visibility impact due to emissions and distance, the photochemical modeling aims to estimate the visibility impacts albeit in a much more refined manner that accounts for chemistry and meteorological conditions. We also note that some RPOs and states used a combination of back trajectory analysis, source apportionment modeling results, and Q/d as a more refined approach to identify sources for additional control analysis for reasonable progress.
There are a number of different approaches used by states in identification of sources for reasonable progress evaluation but these approaches usually centered around the general premise of evaluating the biggest sources and the biggest impacts on visibility. As we explain in the FIP TSD, we considered the visibility modeling results in a number of ways to determine a reasonable approach to identify those sources with the largest impacts for additional analysis for controls for this planning period. We examined the model results for extinction and percent extinction of the modeled facilities as well as estimated impacts based on more recent actual emissions. We considered both facility level and unit level impacts. We concluded that any unit with an estimated impact greater than 0.3% would be further evaluated. We believe that using a percent impacts approach is appropriate because of its linkage to the reasonable progress concept. For example, a source that has a smaller absolute impact on a relatively cleaner area but a higher percentage impact might be considered for control so that the cleaner area can potentially make progress. We used the 0.3% threshold only as a way to identify a reasonable
In summary, our analysis properly identified the sources in Texas with the greatest individual visibility impacts for additional control analysis. Commenters are incorrect in their assertion that the visibility impacts from the identified sources are miniscule, or that we started our analysis with the wrong sources. Starting from the entire universe of Texas point sources, we systematically eliminated those facilities that had less potential to impact visibility based on careful consideration of emissions, location, and finally modeled visibility impacts. After identifying those facilities with the greatest visibility impacts, we performed the four-factor analysis to evaluate whether reasonable progress controls were available and cost-effective.
The deciview metric provides a scale that relates to visibility perception and therefore is useful in assessing the overall visibility conditions that are being or will be perceived at the Class I area. The commenters cite to several actions and the Regional Haze Rule where the benefits of using the deciview metric are discussed, however this is only discussed in the context of overall visibility conditions, such as determining current or natural visibility conditions. This is very different from the fraction of visibility impairment attributable to a source or group of sources. We note that in the final Regional Haze Rule, we do in fact mention the use of light extinction as another metric that states may choose to use.
There is no requirement to use the deciview metric in describing the visibility impairment due to a source or group of sources as part of the analysis required for identifying reasonable controls under reasonable progress. In describing how to identify sources or source categories responsible for visibility impairment, our guidance
When assessing the various contributions to visibility impairment due to either source categories or pollutant species from other states and international sources, Texas routinely relied on light extinction and percent of total visibility impairment metrics. For example, Chapter 11 of the Texas regional haze SIP describes the contributions due to sulfate, nitrate, and other pollutants on the 20% worst and 20% best days at the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend in terms of light extinction (inverse megameters, Mm
We evaluated the information in terms of light extinction and percentage of total impact to identify a reasonable subset of sources with the largest visibility impacts to analyze for additional controls. Because the overall visibility conditions at different Class I areas can vary greatly, particularly Class I areas in the Eastern U.S. compared to Class I areas in the Western U.S., we determined that it is not enough to consider just the magnitude of extinction from a facility; we must also
We agree with the commenters that, in general, the relationship between downwind concentrations and emissions can be complicated and non-linear due to complex chemistry, including the fact that reductions in sulfur emissions can result in an increase in ammonium nitrate. Each modeled emission scenario took this complex chemistry into account in estimating the visibility impacts for that scenario. We estimated control efficiencies for a high and low control case scenario that would span the range and give a reasonable approximation of emission reductions of potential controls and maximize the number of data points available to estimate the visibility benefit due to a reduction in emissions.
In the FIP TSD, we discuss the need to estimate visibility benefits using both a “clean” and “dirty” background:
In considering the visibility benefits of potential controls, we considered deciview improvements as well as the reduction in extinction and percent extinction. By definition, the “clean” background analysis using natural conditions eliminates the impact from all other anthropogenic sources, domestic and international. This approach is aimed at assessing the full potential visibility benefit of controls. It is not reasonable to only assess the visibility benefit of controls, the value of installing a control in the immediate future that will permanently reduce visibility impacts from a source, in such a manner that is dependent on the current level of emissions or impact from other sources or other countries. For example, in considering only the estimated visibility benefit from controlling Big Brown using a “dirty” background, an increase in visibility impacts from Mexico emissions or emissions from another Texas point source would result in a decrease in the visibility benefit in deciviews from installing controls on Big Brown, making controls appear less beneficial. By using a metric that is independent of all other emission sources (“clean”), we avoid this paradox that the dirtier the existing air, the less likely it would be that any control is required. This was also explained in the preamble to the final Regional Haze Rule and Guidelines for BART Determinations.
Our use of “clean” background is also consistent with the methodology used by Texas for BART visibility analysis, which also relied on CAMx photochemical modeling with source apportionment. The TCEQ utilized this approach in assessing the visibility impacts from individual sources and groups of sources to determine their significance for BART screening. As detailed in the screening analysis protocol developed by TCEQ and reviewed by us, “The source's HI [haze index] is
We disagree with the commenter that our use of the “natural background” metric is contrary to regulations. As we discuss in a separate response to comment concerning the legality of the extinction and percent extinction metrics, the commenter fails to distinguish between the required metric used to describe overall visibility conditions at a Class I area at a given point in time and the range of metrics that can be used to describe the visibility impairment due to an individual source, group of sources, a state's sources, or some other portion of the visibility impairment at a Class I area. As explained above, it is necessary to consider the visibility benefit of controls on a “clean” background basis to assess the full benefit from potential controls.
The use of natural background is also supported by our previous action on North Dakota's regional haze SIP and the associated Eighth Circuit Court decision. The full text of our determination in North Dakota is:
In addition to evaluating the four statutory factors, North Dakota also considered the visibility impacts associated with the control options for each RP source. However, in modeling visibility impacts, North Dakota used a hybrid cumulative modeling approach that is inappropriate for determining the visibility impact for individual sources. As with the modeling North Dakota conducted for its NO
The Eighth Circuit Court's decision affirmed our position that the use of degraded, or dirty background, was not consistent with the CAA. The relevant section of the 8th Circuit Court's decision on this point reads:
The use of natural background conditions to assess visibility benefits of individual controls, as we have done here in this action, is consistent with the goals of the CAA. As to the comment that we adjusted the modeled results by updating the baseline uncontrolled emissions for each unit based on SO
The actual SO
In summary, this adjustment from CENRAP 2018 to the baseline calculated from recent actual emissions was not an “artificial adjustment” and was necessary to account for the large difference between specific unit-level emissions in the 2018 CENRAP emissions and a baseline more representative of anticipated future emission levels in 2018. We estimated and presented the estimated visibility benefit of controls based on both the CENRAP 2018 projected emission levels and emission levels consistent with recent actual emissions data. The results considering the 2018 CENRAP emissions baseline were also needed to provide a comparison with the Texas regional haze SIP and an estimate of the change from the 2018 CENRAP modeled reasonable progress goal to a new reasonable progress goal including the controls required in the FIP. The visibility benefit of individual controls calculated based on the CENRAP 2018 emissions baseline represents the additional level of visibility benefit from controlling individual units, consistent with the assumptions/emission projections in the Texas regional haze SIP.
As discussed above, we adjusted the CENRAP modeled reasonable progress goals to translate the emission reductions required in this FIP for Texas sources into quantitative reasonable progress goals. We note that the CENRAP modeling included an assumption for anticipated BART reductions for Oklahoma sources. We considered the comment concerning consideration of the reductions required by the BART FIP in Oklahoma in setting the 2018 reasonable progress goals and we believe these assumptions are a reasonable approximation of the anticipated BART reductions in Oklahoma at this time, considering the uncertainty of the timing of the reductions for some of the sources and the uncertainty in the final control scenario chosen by the operator to meet the requirements. The required enforceable emission limits in the Oklahoma and Texas FIPs remedy the deficiencies in the SIPs and our finalized reasonable progress goals properly consider the visibility benefits anticipated by those required emission reductions.
Unlike the emission limits that apply to specific reasonable progress sources, the reasonable progress goals are not directly enforceable. Rather, the reasonable progress goals are an analytical tool used by EPA and the states to estimate future visibility conditions and track progress towards the goal of natural visibility conditions.
We received comments opposing our proposed disapproval of the visibility protection portion of the interstate transport requirements in Texas infrastructure SIP submittals for the ozone, PM
We disagree with the comments for several reasons. Section 110(a)(2) specifies the
As discussed in this action, the D.C. Circuit Court in
We received numerous comments on our proposed disapproval of the reasonable progress goals selected by Texas and Oklahoma for their respective Class I areas and the recalculated reasonable progress goals we proposed. Some comments were in support of our proposed disapproval of the state's reasonable progress goals and our proposed recalculated reasonable progress goals. However, a majority of the comments raised objections to our proposed action on the reasonable progress goals. These commenters raised numerous issues in support of their objections to our proposal, including that recent monitoring data from IMPROVE monitors indicates the Class I areas are already meeting the new reasonable progress goals we proposed without the need for the additional controls we proposed, that there have been significant SO
Below we present a summary of our responses to the more significant comments we received that relate to our proposed action on the reasonable progress goals for Texas and Oklahoma Class I areas. See our RTC document for a more in-depth presentation of the comments we received and our responses to them.
We agree that § 51.308(d)(1) requires more than just the consideration of the four factors in the establishment of the reasonable progress goals. Also, although we agree Texas conducted an evaluation of the four reasonable progress factors, we determined that that evaluation was flawed. Texas did not fully satisfy the requirements under § 51.308(d)(1) related to the evaluation of the four reasonable progress factors and establishment of the reasonable progress goals for the two Texas Class I areas. We note that § 51.308(d)(1)(iii) provides that in determining whether the State's goal for visibility improvement provides for reasonable progress towards natural visibility conditions, the Administrator will evaluate the demonstrations developed by the State pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii). Thus, we are specifically directed to judge the quality of a state's submission of these key parts
We disagree with the commenter's contention that we should not impose additional controls on Texas sources and instead approve the Texas regional haze SIP and the remaining portion of the Oklahoma regional haze SIP because there may be potential visibility improvements that have not yet been quantified, resulting from early actions and emission reductions accomplished or expected to be accomplished through other EPA programs. If it is determined based on the demonstrations developed pursuant to § 51.308(d)(1)(i) and (ii) that there are reasonable and cost-effective controls available that would provide for reasonable progress, the statute and regional haze regulations do not allow for a delay in requiring these controls to allow time for the quantification and consideration of possible future visibility improvements. Therefore, we are finalizing our proposed disapproval of Texas' and Oklahoma's reasonable progress goals and are finalizing the control requirements we proposed for Texas sources under the reasonable progress and long-term strategy reasonable progress requirements.
We discuss elsewhere in this final action that, while we agree that the Regional Haze Rule requires states to consider the uniform rate of improvement in visibility when formulating reasonable progress goals, we disagree that a state's consideration of the uniform rate of progress and establishment of reasonable progress goals that provide for a slightly greater rate of improvement in visibility than would be needed to attain the uniform rate of progress is all that is needed to satisfy the reasonable progress goal requirements in the Regional Haze Rule. We also disagree that the Regional Haze Rule requires additional analysis only when a state establishes reasonable progress goals that provide for a slower rate of improvement than the uniform rate of progress. Even when recent data from IMPROVE monitors indicate that visibility conditions in the Class I area are better than the established reasonable progress goals and/or that the area may be projected to meet the uniform rate of progress by 2018, the state must still address the requirements under § 51.308(d)(1) and (d)(3)(i) in evaluating controls for additional sources and in establishing reasonable progress goals for its Class I areas.
With regard to the assertion that Texas' five-year regional haze progress report projects SO
We also remind the commenters that even with the controls we are requiring for Texas EGUs under our FIP, additional reductions would be needed for visibility conditions to meet or exceed every uniform rate of progress goal in 2018 as calculated by us in our proposal. For example, current conditions at the Wichita Mountains (based on 2009-2013) is 21.2 dv. Additional reductions would be needed for the area to meet the uniform rate of progress goal of 20.01 dv in 2018.
EPA failed to consider the visibility benefit from imposing the same levels of control on these sources as it is proposing to impose on the targeted Texas sources. EPA is applying a different standard to Texas sources than it is to sources in other states. EPA's “reset” reasonable progress goal is unlawful; and EPA has no basis for disapproving Oklahoma's reasonable progress goal, no basis for issuing a FIP with a substitute reasonable progress goal for the Wichita Mountains, no basis for disapproving Texas' long-term strategy, and no basis for imposing additional SO
Oklahoma's lack of adequate information from Texas prevented it from properly developing its reasonable progress goals for the Wichita Mountains, and we disagree that we are applying a different standard to Texas sources than we are sources in other states. We note that we were not required to do a four-factor analysis for Oklahoma's non-BART sources because, as discussed in our proposal
The comment presents a comparison between the visibility impact from one facility
Lastly, we agree with CCP that the sources it cites, Carbon I and Carbon II, are responsible for significant levels of pollution. Carbon I is a 1,200 MW power plant and Carbon II is a 1,400 MW coal-fired power plant. These two power plants, less than 1.5 miles apart, are less than 20 miles from the U.S.-Mexico border. Together, these power plants comprise one of the largest
1. ERCOT's perspective of market operations is short‐sighted. ERCOT raises concerns that reliability could be impacted if numerous coal units choose to retire simultaneously with little notice to either ERCOT or other market participants. Unlike other competitive market regions, ERCOT's rules do not require meaningful notice. ERCOT's charge as a reliability coordinator may obligate it to implement rules requiring reasonable notice for economic retirements.
2. ERCOT's assumptions about new gas turbine capacity are not realistic. While the FIP, along with other environmental regulations ERCOT included in its study, will strain the economic viability of coal plants and likely lead to less coal capacity, ERCOT has not considered new resources that will be available to help address potential reliability challenges. Specifically, ERCOT does not include approximately 4,500 MW of additional gas‐fired capacity coming online in Texas in the upcoming years. This represents 7.5 percent of current gas capacity, and would double the modeled baseline gas capacity additions through 2029.
3. The set of regulatory scenarios modeled is both incomplete and (now) outdated. Despite an overall thorough analysis ERCOT excluded a critical scenario that would have modeled the impact of the Regional Haze Program FIP by itself. This limits inferences we can make about impacts. Additionally, since ERCOT finalized its study, EPA finalized the Clean Power Plan. The final rule includes substantive changes that are likely to affect all of the CO
4. Electric Generating Unit owners' compliance “burdens” with the regional haze FIP may be over‐stated. Of the 15 coal‐fired units subject to regional haze compliance requirements, eight require upgrades to their existing scrubbers rather than new scrubbers. ERCOT assumed that all of the scrubbers would be priced at the cost of a new retrofit, thereby substantially increasing the cost of the regulation.
We reviewed and accept our contractor's finding and adopt its conclusion that ERCOT's report contained significant flaws. In sum, ERCOT's report cannot support a determination that there is likely to be any significant, adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. During our comment period, we received no non-speculative information to validate claims that sources would retire rather than install demonstrably cost-effective controls. Commenters who have alleged grid reliability concerns in response to our proposed controls have not provided adequate documentation for their assertions.
Several commenters disagreed with our proposed determination of “nationwide scope and effect,” which would require all petitions for judicial review to be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit Court. These commenters argued that our proposed action did not have nationwide scope and effect because it applied only to two states. They further argued that the control requirements in the FIP applied only to sources in Texas. The commenters acknowledged that the proposed action involved our interpretation of our regulations, but asserted that the same is true for many SIP actions. The commenters went on to cite several regional haze SIP actions where we did not make a finding of nationwide scope and effect as evidence that our proposal to do so in this instance was unlawful. Ultimately, these commenters concluded that our proposed action was “locally or regionally applicable” and that any future petitions for review must be filed in the appropriate regional circuit. Some commenters suggested that judicial review would only be appropriate in the Fifth Circuit.
We disagree with these comments. The commenters are conflating two distinct portions of the CAA's judicial review provision. Under CAA section 307(b)(1), “[a] petition for review of . . . nationally applicable regulations promulgated, or final agency action taken, by the Administrator . . . may be filed only in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia.” Contrary to the commenter's assertions, we did not assert at proposal, nor do we
In other words, a final agency action that is locally or regionally applicable, such as a FIP, is appealable only in the D.C. Circuit Court if two conditions are met: (1) The action is based on a determination of nationwide scope or effect, and (2) we find and publish our determination. Both conditions are met here. First, we proposed to find and have confirmed our finding in this final rule that our action on the Texas and Oklahoma regional haze SIPs, which includes the promulgation of a partial FIP for each state, is based on a determination of nationwide scope and effect. Second, we have published that finding in the
While the CAA does not provide any guidance regarding the phrase “nationwide scope and effect,” the legislative history indicates that a determination of nationwide scope and effect is appropriate if a local or regional action encompasses two or more judicial circuits. The commenters made no effort to explain why this legislative history should not be taken into account. Instead, the commenters cited to other EPA actions on regional haze SIPs where we did not make a determination of nationwide scope and effect. However, the commenters failed to mention that all of these actions involved a single state and thus did not implicate multiple judicial circuits. We have routinely made determinations of nationwide scope and effect when more than one circuit is involved. Last year, for instance, we made a determination of nationwide scope and effect in a SIP approval action that involved the States of Florida and North Carolina, which reside in separate judicial circuits.
We also determined that this action has nationwide scope and effect because at the core of this rulemaking is our interpretation of the requirements of sections 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) and 169A(b)(2) of the CAA and multiple complex provisions of the Regional Haze Rule. Many commenters disagreed with our interpretation of these provisions, with some providing alternative interpretations that would substantially eviscerate the Regional Haze Rule. Congress intended for such issues of national importance to be decided by the D.C. Circuit.
For the reasons discussed more fully in section II, above and detailed in our proposal and its accompanying TSDs, in this action, we are partially approving and partially disapproving a revision to the Texas SIP received from the State of Texas on March 31, 2009, that intended to address regional haze for the first planning period from 2008 through 2018. We also are disapproving the interstate visibility transport portions of the Texas SIP that address CAA provisions for prohibiting air pollutant emissions from interfering with measures required to protect visibility in any other state. We also are partially disapproving a revision to the Oklahoma SIP submitted in February 19, 2010, that addresses regional haze for the first planning period. We are finalizing a FIP to remedy certain of the deficiencies and not acting on others. Below is a list of the specific actions we are finalizing in this rulemaking.
We are approving the portions of the Texas regional haze SIP submitted on March 31, 2009, except for the following Regional Haze Rule requirements contained in 40 CFR part 51:
• Section 51.308(d)(1)(i)(A), regarding Texas' reasonable progress four-factor analysis for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend.
• Section 51.308(d)(1)(i)(B), regarding Texas' calculation of the emission reductions needed to achieve the uniform rates of progress for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend.
• Section 51.308(d)(1)(ii), regarding Texas' reasonable progress goals for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend.
• Section 51.308(d)(2)(iii), regarding Texas' calculation of natural visibility conditions.
• Section 51.308(d)(2)(iv)(A), regarding Texas' calculation of the number of deciviews by which baseline conditions exceed natural visibility conditions.
• Section 51.308(d)(3)(i), regarding Texas' long-term strategy consultations with Oklahoma.
• Section 51.308(d)(3)(ii), regarding Texas securing its share of reductions necessary to achieve the reasonable progress goals at Big Bend, the Guadalupe Mountains, and the Wichita Mountains.
• Section 51.308(d)(3)(iii), regarding Texas' technical basis for its long-term strategy for Big Bend, the Guadalupe Mountains the Wichita Mountains.
• Section 51.308(d)(3)(v)(C), regarding Texas' emission limitations and schedules for compliance to achieve the reasonable progress goals for Big Bend and the Guadalupe Mountains and Wichita Mountains.
We are also approving the Texas' BART Rules, 30 TAC 116.1500-116.1540, except for the 30 TAC 116.1510(d) which relies on CAIR and is disapproved.
We are not taking action on 40 CFR 51.308(e) concerning Texas EGU BART.
We are disapproving the portion of the Oklahoma regional haze SIP that addresses the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(d)(1) with respect to reasonable progress goals, with the exception of § 51.308(d)(1)(vi), which we are approving.
We are disapproving portions of Texas SIP submittals that address CAA provisions for prohibiting air pollutant emissions from interfering with measures required to protect visibility in any other state for the 1997 PM
Our final FIP requires the following SO
Compliance with these emission limits is based on a 30 BOD period. We are finalizing requirements providing that compliance with these limits be achieved within:
• Five years of the effective date of our final rule for Big Brown Units 1 and 2, Monticello Units 1 and 2, Coleto Creek Unit 1, and Tolk Units 171B and 172B.
• Three years of the effective date of our final rule for Sandow 4; Martin Lake Units 1, 2, and 3; Monticello Unit 3; and Limestone Units 1 and 2.
• One year of the effective date of our final rule for San Miguel. San Miguel may elect an alternative compliance method by doing the following:
• Install a CEMS at the inlet of the scrubber system. The 30 BOD SO
In this rule, we are finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are finalizing the incorporation by reference of the revisions to the Texas regulations as described in the Final Action section above and the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
This action is exempt from review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) because it is not a rule of general applicability. This action finalizes a source-specific FIP for that applies to eight coal-fired power plants in Texas (Big Brown; Monticello; Coleto Creek; Tolk; Sandow; Martin Lake; Limestone; and San Miguel).
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. This FIP will apply to eight facilities, none of which are small entities. The final partial approval of the SIP merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements.
Title II of the UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on state, local,
EPA has determined that Title II of the UMRA does not apply to this rule. In 2 U.S.C. 1502(1) all terms in Title II of UMRA have the meanings set forth in 2 U.S.C. 658, which further provides that the terms “regulation” and “rule” have the meanings set forth in 5 U.S.C. 601(2). Under 5 U.S.C. 601(2), “the term `rule' does not include a rule of particular applicability relating to . . . facilities.” Because this rule is a rule of particular applicability relating to eight named facilities, EPA has determined that it is not a “rule” for the purposes of Title II of the UMRA.
This action does not have Federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The final rule does not impose significant economic costs on state or local governments. Thus, Executive Order 13132 does not apply to the final rule.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. This action applies to eight facilities in Texas and to Federal Class I areas in Oklahoma and Texas. This action does not apply on any Indian reservation land, any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction, or non-reservation areas of Indian country. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks applies to any rule that: (1) Is determined to be economically significant as defined under Executive Order 12866; and (2) concerns an environmental health or safety risk that we have reason to believe may have a disproportionate effect on children. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because the EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. Moreover, “regulation” or “rule,” is defined in Executive Order 12866 as “an agency statement of general applicability and future effect.” E.O. 12866 does not define “statement of general applicability,” but this term commonly refers to statements that apply to groups or classes, as opposed to statements, which apply only to named entities. The FIP therefore is not a rule of general applicability because its requirements apply and are tailored to only eight individually identified facilities. Thus, it is not a “rule” or “regulation” within the meaning of E.O. 12866. However, as this action will limit emissions of SO
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This action involves technical standards. Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (“NTTAA”), Public Law 104-113, 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs EPA to use voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless to do so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations because it increases the level of environmental protection for all
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
The scope and effect of this rulemaking extend to Texas and Oklahoma, which are located in two judicial circuits. In addition, EPA's clarified interpretation of its regulations as set forth in this final action, including the accompanying RTC and TSD documents, is applicable to regional haze actions in all states, not just the specific actions we are taking here with regard to the regional haze obligations for Texas and Oklahoma. Accordingly, the Administrator determines that this is a rulemaking of nationwide scope or effect and any petitions for review must be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit in accordance with CAA section 307(b)(1). Petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit by March 7, 2016.
In addition, pursuant to CAA section 307(d)(1)(B), this action is subject to the requirements of CAA section 307(d) because it promulgates a FIP under CAA section 110(c). Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review, extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, or postpone the effectiveness of the rule. Per CAA section 307(b)(2), this action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxides, Visibility, Interstate transport of pollution, Regional haze, Best available control technology.
Title 40, chapter I, of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
(a) * * *
(3) “Greater RP Alternative Determination” (Section VI.E);
(4) Separate executed agreements between ODEQ and OG&E, and ODEQ and AEP/PSO entitled “OG&E RH Agreement, Case No. 10-024, and “PSO RH Agreement, Case No. 10-025,” housed within Appendix 6-5 of the RH SIP; and
(5) The reasonable progress goals for the first planning period and the reasonable progress consultation with Texas for the Wichita Mountains Class I area.
The additions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(e) * * *
(a) Requirements for Martin Lake Units 1, 2, and 3; Monticello Units 1, 2, and 3, Limestone Units 1 and 2; Sandow Unit 4; Big Brown Units 1 and 2; Coleto Creek Unit 1; Tolk Units 1 and 2; and San Miguel affecting visibility.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(i) For each unit, SO
(ii) In lieu of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, and if San Miguel meets paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section, it may install a CEMS at the inlet of the scrubber system. The 30 BOD SO
(5)
(ii) Continuous emissions monitoring shall apply during all periods of operation of the coal burning equipment, including periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction, except for CEMS breakdowns, repairs, calibration checks, and zero and span adjustments. Continuous monitoring systems for measuring SO
(6)
(i) For each emissions limit in this section, comply with the notification, reporting, and recordkeeping requirements for CEMS compliance monitoring in 40 CFR 60.7(c) and (d).
(ii) For each day, provide the total SO
(7)
(8)
(ii) Emissions in excess of the level of the applicable emission limit or requirement that occur due to a malfunction shall constitute a violation of the applicable emission limit.
(b) [Reserved]
(d) Portions of SIPs addressing noninterference with measures required to protect visibility in any other state are disapproved for the 1997 PM
(e) The following portions of the Texas regional haze SIP submitted March 19, 2009 are disapproved: The reasonable progress four-factor analysis, reasonable progress goals and the calculation of the emission reductions needed to achieve the uniform rates of progress for the Guadalupe Mountains and Big Bend; calculation of natural visibility conditions; calculation of the number of deciviews by which baseline conditions exceed natural visibility conditions; long-term strategy consultations with Oklahoma; Texas securing its share of reductions necessary to achieve the reasonable progress goals at Big Bend, the Guadalupe Mountains, and the Wichita Mountains; technical basis for its long-term strategy and emission limitations and schedules for compliance to achieve the reasonable progress goals for Big Bend, the Guadalupe Mountains and Wichita Mountains.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is issuing a final order to reclassify surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse (POP) repair from class II to class III. FDA is reclassifying these devices based on the determination that general controls and special controls together are not sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for this device, and these devices present a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury. The Agency is reclassifying surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair on its own initiative based on new information.
This order is effective on January 5, 2016.
Sharon Andrews, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G110, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6529,
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended, established a comprehensive system for the regulation of medical devices intended for human use. Section 513 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c) established three categories (classes) of devices, reflecting the regulatory controls needed to provide reasonable assurance of their safety and effectiveness. The three categories of devices are class I (general controls), class II (special controls), and class III (premarket approval).
Under section 513(d) of the FD&C Act, devices that were in commercial distribution before the enactment of the 1976 amendments, May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as preamendments devices), are classified after FDA has: (1) Received a recommendation from a device classification panel (an FDA advisory committee); (2) published the panel's recommendation for comment, along with a proposed regulation classifying the device; and (3) published a final regulation classifying the device. FDA has classified most preamendments devices under these procedures.
Devices that were not in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as postamendments devices), are automatically classified by section 513(f) of the FD&C Act into class III without any FDA rulemaking process. Those devices remain in class III and require premarket approval unless, and until, the device is reclassified into class I or II or FDA issues an order finding the device to be substantially equivalent, in accordance with section 513(i) of the FD&C Act, to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. The Agency determines whether new devices are substantially equivalent to predicate devices by means of premarket notification procedures in section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and 21 CFR part 807.
On July 9, 2012, the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144) was enacted. Section 608(a) of FDASIA amended section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, changing the mechanism for reclassifying a device from rulemaking to an administrative order. Section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may, by administrative order, reclassify a device based upon “new information.” FDA can initiate a reclassification under section 513(e) of the FD&C Act or an interested person may petition FDA to reclassify a device. The term “new information,” as used in section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, includes information developed as a result of a reevaluation of the data before the Agency when the device was originally classified, as well as information not presented, not available, or not developed at that time. (See,
Reevaluation of the data previously before the Agency is an appropriate basis for subsequent action where the reevaluation is made in light of newly available authority (see
To be considered in the reclassification process, the “valid scientific evidence” upon which the Agency relies must be publicly available. Publicly available information excludes trade secret and/or confidential commercial information,
Section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act sets forth the process for issuing a final reclassification order. Specifically, prior to the issuance of a final order reclassifying a device, the following must occur: (1) Publication of a proposed order in the
FDA published a proposed order (the 513(e) proposed order) to reclassify this device in the
FDA held a meeting on September 8 and 9, 2011 (76 FR 41507, July 14, 2011) of the Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee (“the Panel”), a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the FD&C Act, to discuss whether surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair should be reclassified into class III or remain in class II (Ref. 1). The Panel discussed a number of serious adverse events associated with use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. The Panel consensus was that the safety of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is not well established and that, depending on the compartment, placement of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair may not be more effective than traditional “native-tissue” repair without mesh. As such, the Panel concluded that the risk-benefit profile of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is not well established. The Panel consensus was that general controls and special controls together would not be sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, and that these devices should be reclassified from class II to class III (Ref. 1). FDA is not aware of new information since the
In the 513(e) proposed order, FDA also proposed to reclassify surgical instrumentation for urogynecologic surgical mesh procedures from class I to class II and establish special controls. FDA is not finalizing the proposed reclassification and special controls for surgical instrumentation for use with urogynecologic surgical mesh at this time. As stated in the 513(e) proposed order preamble, FDA will convene a panel to discuss specialized surgical instrumentation for use with urogynecologic surgical mesh prior to finalizing reclassification of instrumentation for this use. On February 26, 2016, the Gastroenterology and Urology Devices Panel of the Medical Devices Advisory Committee will have a panel meeting to discuss and make recommendations for reclassification of these specialized surgical instrumentation devices.
In response to the 513(e) proposed order to reclassify surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, FDA received approximately 200 comments. The comments and FDA's responses to the comments are summarized in this section. Certain comments are grouped together under a single number because the subject matter of the comments is similar. The number assigned to each comment is purely for organizational purposes and does not signify the comment's value or importance or the order in which it was submitted.
(Comment 1) Approximately 70 comments were received from individuals or family members of individuals who underwent mesh repair for POP, stress urinary incontinence (SUI), and/or hernias and reported complications or adverse events experienced during or after their procedures. The complications and adverse events reported included organ perforation, bleeding, chronic pain, mesh exposure or extrusion into the vagina and/or visceral organs (in some cases requiring additional surgery), infection, atypical vaginal discharge, painful sexual intercourse, self-catheterization, recurrent prolapse and/or incontinence, additional corrective surgery, and other permanent and/or life-altering adverse events.
(Response) FDA appreciates the comments received from individuals sharing their experiences following surgical mesh repair for POP, SUI, and/or hernias. The complications and adverse events reported by these commenters are consistent with those addressed in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and discussed at the 2011 Panel meeting. The comments did not identify any adverse event information that was not already considered by FDA and the Panel.
(Comment 2) Approximately 50 comments requested reclassification of surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair, including for SUI and hernia.
(Response) Surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair is outside the scope of the 513(e) proposed order and this document. In the 513(e) proposed order (79 FR 24634 at 24636), FDA stated that this proposed order does not include surgical mesh indicated for surgical treatment of stress urinary incontinence, sacrocolpopexy (transabdominal POP repair), hernia repair, and other non-urogynecologic indications.
(Comment 3) Approximately 50 comments requested a ban, recall, or “suspension of use” of all surgical mesh devices.
(Response) As stated previously, surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair is outside the scope of this final order. For the reasons discussed in this document, FDA does not believe that a ban, recall or suspension of use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is warranted at this time.
Section 516 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360f) authorizes FDA to ban a device when, on the basis of all available data and information, FDA finds that the device presents substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury and, where such deception or risk could be corrected or eliminated by labeling or change in labeling and with respect to which the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (Secretary) provided written notice to the manufacturer specifying the deception or risk of illness or injury, the labeling or change in labeling to correct the deception or eliminate or reduce such risk, and the period within which such labeling or change in labeling was to be done, such labeling or change in labeling was not done within such period.
FDA does not believe there is sufficient evidence at this time to support the banning of this device. Based on a review of the published literature, as described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and this document, input from clinical organizations, and the Panel's recommendations, FDA has determined that the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair has not been established and that the collection of additional clinical evidence on these devices is needed. Such additional evidence may provide information to allow FDA to impose controls to mitigate the risks and more clearly characterize the benefits of these devices. In addition, FDA believes there are potential benefits from surgical mesh used for transvaginal POP repair including treatment of POP in appropriately selected women with severe or recurrent prolapse. As such, FDA has not determined that this device presents an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury.
FDA also does not believe there is sufficient evidence at this time to support a mandatory recall of this device. Under section 518(e) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360h(e)), if the Secretary finds that there is a reasonable probability that a device intended for human use would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the Secretary shall issue an order requiring the appropriate person (including the manufacturers, importers, distributors, or retailers of the device) to immediately cease distribution of such device, and to immediately notify health professionals and device user facilities of the order and to instruct such professionals and facilities to cease use of such device.
FDA does not believe a mandatory recall of all currently marketed surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is warranted. Based on a review of the published literature as described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and this document, input from clinical organizations, and the Panel's recommendations, FDA believes that there is not sufficient evidence at this time to support a finding that there is a reasonable probability that surgical mesh for transvaginal repair of POP would cause serious adverse health consequences or death. As described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and discussed at the 2011 Panel meeting, the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal repair of POP has not been established and these devices should be evaluated in clinical studies that compare the device to native tissue repair in order to establish a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
It is unclear what commenters were referencing when they asked FDA to “suspend the use” of these devices. As stated previously, FDA does not believe a ban or recall is warranted at this time, and as stated in this document, there are other actions FDA has taken and may take in the future to ensure that there is
FDA believes other regulatory actions it has taken will help the Agency to better understand the risk-benefit profile of these devices. FDA issued postmarket surveillance orders under section 522 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360l) to manufacturers of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair starting on January 3, 2012. The postmarket surveillance orders allow FDA to continue to evaluate the benefit-risk profile of the device. Further, by reclassifying these devices to class III and requiring PMA approval, FDA can require an independent demonstration that a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness exists for each device within this type. Elsewhere in this issue of the
FDA will consider other regulatory actions relating to this device as appropriate in the future.
(Comment 4) Approximately 20 comments stated that the polypropylene material used to fabricate surgical mesh is inappropriate for implantation. These comments contend that the degradation of the polypropylene mesh in vivo may lead to systemic effects that can cause serious complications.
(Response) FDA believes that a thorough evaluation of the material used to fabricate surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is needed to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. The findings set forth in the 515(b) proposed order preamble, as discussed in this document, address this issue (these findings are adopted, as amended, in the 515(b) final order that is published elsewhere in this issue of the
In the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA stated that manufacturers should provide information in their PMAs regarding biocompatibility, preclinical bench testing and preclinical animal studies, among other proposed information, to demonstrate reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. Such performance data, which may generally include assessment of the mesh chemical and physical characteristics, in vitro chemical characterization studies, and in vivo preclinical implantation studies, will be reviewed by FDA to determine whether the risks associated with implantation of the polypropylene material are appropriately mitigated. The 515(b) proposed order preamble also stated that a PMA would need to include the information required by section 515(c)(1) of the FD&C Act, which includes manufacturing information. FDA's review of such manufacturing information will allow the Agency to evaluate whether the polypropylene material is safe and effective for transvaginal POP repair.
(Comment 5) One comment stated that FDA should not include non-crosslinked biologic grafts in this reclassification and that such grafts should not be subject to postmarket surveillance studies. The comment stated that the 513(e) proposed order cited relatively few studies that examine the use of biologically derived grafts for POP repair. The comment also noted that FDA's analysis did not distinguish crosslinked versus non-crosslinked biologic grafts. The comment requested that FDA review additional data, including a summary of 18 publications regarding non-crosslinked biologic grafts submitted by the commenter, and consider the different risk profiles of biologic grafts and specifically whether non-crosslinked biologic grafts should be reclassified.
(Response) As discussed in the response to comment 9, FDA performed an updated review of the literature to consider new clinical information available since publication of the 513(e) and 515(b) proposed orders and additional publications cited by the commenter, and whether non-crosslinked biologic grafts should be reclassified. Based on this review, FDA believes that there is currently insufficient evidence to support a finding that the benefit-risk profile of non-crosslinked biologic grafts differs from that of synthetic meshes. There is little evidence overall on biologic grafts (as compared to synthetic meshes), and the majority of studies evaluating non-crosslinked biologic grafts are on small populations and are not prospective. Moreover, the limited clinical evidence that is available indicates that like synthetic surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, non-crosslinked biologic mesh is associated with adverse events and does not demonstrate effectiveness compared to traditional (
The commenter cited 18 publications reporting outcomes for non-crosslinked biologic graft for use in transvaginal or transabdominal POP repair (Refs. 2 through 19). As described in this document, these publications in totality do not provide sufficient evidence of the reasonable safety and effectiveness of non-crosslinked biologic grafts.
Of these publications, 6 of the 18 report outcomes on fewer than 15 study subjects (Refs. 2 through 7). Due to the small sample size, the outcomes from these publications are difficult to interpret and FDA could not conclude that the risk profiles of non-crosslinked biologic grafts were different than synthetic meshes.
Of the remaining 12 publications, 1 describes outcomes after sacrocolpopexy (Ref. 2), 1 describes use of a non-crosslinked biologic graft to cover a vaginal wall defect following explantation of a synthetic mesh to treat prolapse (Ref. 3), and 1 describes transperineal repair of rectocele (Ref. 4). These uses are outside the scope of the reclassification.
One publication reported a retrospective review of non-contemporaneous mesh-augmented (non-crosslinked biologic and synthetic) versus native tissue anterior compartment repair (Ref. 5). One author in that report switched to the mesh-augmented technique part way through the period covered by the study due to dissatisfaction with native tissue repair. This may affect the objectivity of the study results and may lead to a conclusion that inappropriately favors mesh-augmented repair. Anatomic success was greater in mesh-augmented patients; however, objective anatomic success was defined as Stage 0 or 1 using the Baden-Walder system (Stage 0—normal position, Stage 1—descent halfway to the hymen). This may represent an ideal outcome, but does not necessarily represent a clinically relevant outcome. As discussed in the 513(e) proposed order preamble, prolapse staging systems like the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) are “not correlated with POP symptoms or patient assessment of improvement [(Barber et al., 2009)].”
Another publication reported long-term followup in a retrospective patient cohort (N = 41) who had undergone graft repair of anterior or posterior vaginal prolapse compared to a contemporaneous cohort of “matched” native tissue repair controls (Ref. 6). Subjective outcomes were significantly better in the graft cohort; however, recurrence tended to be greater in the graft cohort when defined strictly as ≥POP-Q Stage 2. This means that the graft cohort experienced greater anatomic failure when using POP-Q
One publication described a retrospective case review without native tissue control (Ref. 7). This review (N = 65) found a subjective success (no symptoms and no bulge beyond the hymen) rate of 92 percent. Reoperation rate for de novo and recurrent prolapse was 7.7 percent, and three women had repeat surgery at the same anatomic site (anterior compartment). Because this study did not include a control group, we are unable to compare safety and effectiveness outcomes between patients who received mesh and patients who underwent native tissue repair.
Two publications described prospective cohorts. In one small series (N = 21), women with recurrent prolapse underwent anterior, posterior, or combined anterior/posterior repair with non-crosslinked biologic mesh (Ref. 8). Mean POP-Q scores preoperatively were Ba = 0.63 versus Ba = 1.75 postoperatively. Preoperative Bp score was −0.2 versus Bp −2.2 postoperatively. The authors reported a mean followup of 29 months. Six patients reported persistent bulge, and eight patients reported vaginal discomfort. This study has a small sample size and does not allow for comparison to native tissue repair.
The other prospective cohort study (N = 50) evaluated patient-reported outcomes at 6 months following posterior compartment repair augmented with non-crosslinked mesh (Ref. 9). Although significant improvements were noted for vaginal symptoms, sexual matters score and quality of life on the International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire vaginal symptoms questionnaire, anatomic outcomes were not collected. Therefore, effectiveness outcomes cannot be evaluated from this study.
Only three of the remaining publications described prospective randomized controlled trials (RCTs) comparing anterior or posterior vaginal repair using non-crosslinked biologic graft versus native tissue repair (Refs. 10 through 12). None of the three RCTs defined anatomic success as the leading edge of prolapse at or above the hymenal ring, which is considered a more clinically relevant outcome compared to POP-Q score. The criterion for anatomic success of prolapse repair in the American Urogynecologic Society (AUGS) Pelvic Floor Disorders Registry is leading edge at or above the hymen (Ref. 13).
The final publication identified by the commenter described prospective followup of a cohort assembled from a retrospective chart review (N = 59) (Ref. 14). This report does define anatomic success at the hymenal ring. Objective recurrence of prolapse in this study was approximately 31 percent.
Regarding mesh exposure/erosion, the publications cited by the commenter suggests that the risk of vaginal exposure/erosion for the non-crosslinked mesh is low. In the 513(e) proposed order preamble, FDA noted that the incidence of mesh exposure did not differ between nonabsorbable synthetic mesh (10.3 percent) and biologic graft material (10.1 percent) (Ref. 15).
For other types of surgical complications, one RCT (N = 56) found that the number of complications in the mesh group was greater compared to the native tissue repair group (Ref. 10). Blood loss was greater for mesh versus native tissue rectocele repair in another RCT (N = 160) (Ref. 12). In the same RCT, there was a trend towards increased risk of wound separation following non-crosslinked graft repair versus native tissue repair; however, the outcome did not reach statistical significance.
In addition, serious adverse events are reported in association with non-crosslinked biologic graft, including pain necessitating resurgery (Ref. 14). In this study, surgical complications included cystotomy (6.8 percent) and enterotomy (1.7 percent). Twenty-four percent of subjects had postoperative voiding dysfunction, and there was a 5.1 percent rate of hemorrhage requiring transfusion. (It is unclear whether these complications were device-related). The rate of dyspareunia at followup was 8.3 percent. The study did not include a control group, so it is unknown how the benefits and risks of graft-augmented repair with the non-crosslinked biologic graft would have compared with a native tissue repair.
In summary, there is insufficient available evidence from prospective studies using an appropriate primary endpoint for anatomic success on which to evaluate the effectiveness of transvaginal POP repair using non-crosslinked biologic mesh versus native tissue repair. The available clinical outcomes provide evidence that non-crosslinked biologic mesh is associated with adverse events. There are no data from RCTs with long-term followup that demonstrate clinical effectiveness of this material for transvaginal POP repair compared to native tissue repair.
As a result of these findings, FDA is not differentiating between non-crosslinked biologic grafts and synthetic mesh for transvaginal POP repair in this reclassification order and is reclassifying
(Comment 6) Approximately 20 comments stated that patients were not adequately informed of the possible complications following mesh implantation or that patients were not informed prior to surgery that mesh would be implanted.
(Response) FDA believes that patients should be adequately informed regarding the possible complications associated with surgical mesh. As stated in the FDA Safety Communication published in July 2011 (Ref. 16), health care providers should: (1) Inform patients that implantation of surgical mesh is permanent and that some complications associated with the implanted mesh may require additional surgery that may or may not correct the complication; (2) inform patients about the potential for serious complications and their effect on quality of life, including pain during sexual intercourse, scarring, and narrowing of the vaginal wall in POP repair using surgical mesh; and (3) provide patients with a copy of the patient labeling from the surgical mesh manufacturer, if available. The 2011 Safety Communication also includes recommendations for patients to help them obtain the appropriate information prior to a surgical mesh repair.
The Panel recommended that FDA focus on development of patient labeling and provide patients with benefit-risk information on available treatment options for POP, including surgical and nonsurgical options, to help patients understand long-term safety and effectiveness outcomes (Ref. 1, p. 150).
For these reasons, in the findings of the 515(b) proposed order, which are adopted as amended in the 515(b) final order that is being published elsewhere in this issue of the
(Comment 7) Approximately 30 comments stated that surgical mesh should be adequately tested, including
(Response) FDA agrees that surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair should be adequately tested prior to marketing to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. FDA believes that surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair should undergo mechanical and chemical characterization and performance evaluation, biocompatibility, sterilization validation, shelf life, and preclinical in vivo testing to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device prior to marketing. In addition, surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair should be evaluated clinically, specifically to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of the device compared to native tissue repair. In the 515(b) final order that is being published elsewhere in this issue of the
With respect to long-term effects of surgical mesh, FDA believes that the clinical evaluation of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair should include long-term followup. FDA issued postmarket surveillance orders under section 522 of the FD&C Act for these devices that will collect long-term followup out to 3 years post implantation.
The comments also referenced surgical mesh for SUI and sacrocolpopexy. As stated previously, surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal repair of POP is outside the scope of this final order.
(Comment 8) Approximately five comments stated the mesh for treatment of female SUI and sacrocolpopexy should not be reclassified to class III.
(Response) As stated previously, surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair are outside the scope of this final order.
(Comment 9) One comment stated that FDA should evaluate recent data on POP mesh repair as the recent literature is more representative of current technologies, instructions for use, and physician training of currently marketed devices and that erosion rates and complication rates are lower in current literature than compared to rates cited in the 513(e) proposed order.
(Response) FDA conducted an updated review of the literature published since the 513(e) and 515(b) proposed orders were issued and reviewed additional publications cited by the commenter, summarized in further detail in this document, and determined that the weight of the evidence indicates that use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is not strongly or consistently associated with increased benefits over native tissue repair in the treatment of stage 2 or higher POP. Overall, the evidence indicates that mesh surgeries take longer to perform, result in greater blood loss, and have a considerable risk of postoperative mesh erosion in comparison to native tissue repair. In addition, there is suggestive evidence that use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair may pose a higher risk of de novo POP relative to native tissue repair.
The majority of studies identified by the commenter, and considered in the updated literature review conducted by FDA, assessed the anterior compartment; therefore, it is difficult to draw conclusions on the differential effects of mesh by compartment, relative to native tissue repair. Furthermore, data from prospective, randomized studies comparing surgical mesh and native tissue repair using a clinically relevant definition of success are limited at this time. The benefit-risk profile comparison favors native tissue repair over use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. FDA concludes that the updated literature review further supports the reclassification of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair from class II to class III as reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for the device has not been demonstrated.
The comment stated that four recent systematic reviews on surgical options for POP continue to support use of transvaginal mesh to treat anterior wall prolapse (Refs. 17 through 20). One of these systematic reviews was cited in the 513(e) proposed order preamble (Ref. 19) and therefore is not discussed in detail here. This systematic review evaluated surgical management of POP in women and concluded that “The use of grafts (biological or synthetic) reduces the risk of prolapse symptoms and recurrent anterior vaginal prolapse on examination when compared to native tissue repairs (colporrhaphy). However, the advantages of a permanent polypropylene mesh must be weighed against disadvantages including longer operating time, greater blood loss, prolapse in other areas of the vagina, new onset urinary stress incontinence, and the mesh becoming exposed in the vagina in 11 percent of women. In general, there is a lack of evidence to support transvaginal mesh operations used in apical or posterior compartment surgery.” The second of these two reviews reported on anterior vaginal compartment repair specifically (Ref. 18). The review specific to anterior vaginal compartment repair noted that improved anatomic outcomes conferred by surgical mesh used for anterior POP repair are not always accompanied by improvement in subjective outcomes. Whereas polypropylene mesh appears to lead to improvement in both anatomic and subjective outcomes, these results did not lead to improved functional outcomes using validated questionnaires or to a lower reoperation rate for POP. This review concluded that surgical mesh is significantly associated with longer operating time, greater blood loss, and development of POP in another vaginal compartment. The author also noted a nonsignificant tendency towards higher cystotomy, de novo dyspareunia, and de novo SUI rate compared to native tissue anterior repair.
The third systematic review cited by the commenter was to address nonsurgical treatments for POP, effects of POP surgery by vaginal compartment, and how different mesh materials affect surgical repair of POP (Ref. 17). Regarding anterior prolapse repair with mesh, the author did not reach a conclusion regarding the need for reoperation for POP or SUI following index POP surgery; however, anterior repair using surgical mesh was found to increase risk for revision of the vaginal wound due to mesh exposure.
The focus of the fourth systematic review cited by the commenter described complications following POP repair using surgical mesh (Ref. 20). The review found that the mean total complication rate in the anterior compartment was 27 percent and that there was an 8 percent rate of complications ≥ grade III on the Clavien-Dindo classification system (
The comment also stated that these recent systematic reviews report complication rates that required surgical intervention ranging from 6.3 to 9 percent in the anterior compartment versus the “upper bound of 22 percent cited in the proposed order.” In the 513(e) proposed order preamble, FDA stated the following: “From the one RCT that directly compared sacrocolpopexy to transvaginal POP repair with mesh (both using synthetic nonabsorbable mesh), overall re-surgery within 2 years postoperative was significantly more common following transvaginal POP repair with mesh than laparoscopic sacrocolpopexy, with rates of 22 percent (12/55) and 5 percent (3/53),
In addition to the four recent systematic reviews discussed previously, the commenter cited 43 published reports, of which 31 are abstracts or poster presentations. Based on the limited scientific evidence in these abstracts and poster presentations, they are difficult to evaluate, and therefore, FDA was unable to draw any conclusions from these publications. The comment stated that collectively, the studies report mesh exposure rates of 0 to 8 percent and of the mesh exposures, only approximately 38 percent required surgical intervention. The comment stated this outcome represents a reduction compared to the 7.2 percent rate cited in the 513(e) proposed order. However, the 7.2 percent rate cited by FDA in the 513(e) proposed order preamble was the rate of reoperation due to any complication, and not specifically for mesh exposure-related complications.
The comment also stated that the more recent literature defines success as improved anatomic and subjective outcomes compared to native tissue repair. Of the publications that were not abstracts or posters, there is only one in which surgical mesh repair was compared to native tissue (Ref. 21). In that study, the primary outcome was ideal anatomic support based on POP-Q stage, and not subjective outcomes. Anatomic success, defined as POP-Q stage 0 or 1 was greater for the surgical mesh repair in the anterior compartment; however, improvement in quality of life was not statistically significant between groups. In addition, subjects in the surgical mesh group had statistically significant longer hospital stays, operative time, and estimated blood loss.
With one exception, of the publications cited by the commenter to represent success rates for one line of mesh products, the definition of a success was ideal anatomic support (Refs. 22 through 27). As noted in the 513(e) proposed order preamble, ideal anatomic support is not a prerequisite for improvement in patient symptoms. As stated previously in this document, the anatomic criterion for success following surgical repair of prolapse in the AUGS Pelvic Floor Disorders Registry is absence of leading edge of prolapse beyond the hymen, not POP-Q Stage ≤ 1. In addition, because these studies did not compare outcomes between mesh repair and native tissue repair, it is unknown whether the success among mesh subjects would have exceeded that of native tissue repair.
One publication that evaluated more clinical and/or subjective outcomes compared two mesh products (Ref. 26). The failure of the mesh repair ranged from 24 percent to 46 percent, depending on the outcome measure. Mesh exposure occurred at a rate of 8 percent. Pelvic pain was reported at 7.4 percent, and of study subjects who were sexually active, 12.7 percent reported painful intercourse. In one prospective study (N = 30), no anatomic outcomes were reported; however, the report stated that no patients had symptoms of recurrent prolapse at 12 months of followup. Two patients in this cohort had mesh erosion which required partial mesh excision (Ref. 28).
The remaining publications cited in the comment address mesh exposure, mesh repair as an ambulatory procedure, and stability of an anchor device used to attach the mesh to an anatomic target (Refs. 29 through 31). The rate of mesh exposure in the first study was 8.1 percent (Ref. 28). None of these publications compared mesh repair to native tissue repair, nor does any reflect a study designed to evaluate surgical success.
In summary, FDA concludes that the literature published since the 513(e) and 515(b) proposed orders were issued and the additional literature cited by the commenter further supports the reclassification of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair from class II to class III.
(Comment 10) One comment noted that direct comparison of safety results between sacrocolpopexy, transvaginal repair, and native tissue repair can be misleading if the vaginal repair does not have a vaginal vault component.
(Response) Based on the evidence cited in the 513(e) proposed order preamble, FDA concluded that the types of risks associated with transvaginal mesh for POP repair are similar across different vaginal compartments. FDA is unaware of any new evidence that supports the conclusion that the types of risk associated with transvaginal mesh for POP are different across different vaginal compartments. However, FDA acknowledges that the frequency of different types of adverse events may vary across different vaginal compartments. FDA's conclusion is in line with the Panel, which did not recommend that reclassification be stratified by compartment. For the reasons discussed in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and in this document, the reclassification applies to all transvaginal mesh for POP repair regardless of location of repair.
(Comment 11) One comment stated that the 513(e) proposed order makes definitive statements regarding benefit/risk, when in fact additional studies are needed to establish benefit/risk.
(Response) FDA disagrees that the 513(e) proposed order makes definitive statements regarding benefit/risk. Throughout the 513(e) proposed order preamble, FDA described its conclusions as “tentative.”
Under section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, FDA is adopting its findings as published in the preamble to the 513(e) proposed order (79 FR 24634). FDA is issuing this final order to reclassify surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair from class II to class III. FDA is reclassifying these devices based on the determination that general controls and special controls together are not sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for this device. In addition, in the absence of an established positive benefit-risk profile, FDA has determined that the risks to health associated with the use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair identified previously present a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury.
FDA has modified the proposed identification in § 884.5980(a) for surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse repair to clarify that the materials of construction may include
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subpart B, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; and the collections of information under 21 CFR part 801 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Prior to the amendments by FDASIA, section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provided for FDA to issue regulations to reclassify devices. Although section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, as amended, requires FDA to issue final orders rather than regulations, FDASIA also provides for FDA to revoke previously issued regulations by order. FDA will continue to codify classifications and reclassifications in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Changes resulting from final orders will appear in the CFR as changes to codified classification determinations or as newly codified orders. Therefore, under section 513(e)(1)(A)(i) of the FD&C Act, as amended by FDASIA, in this final order, we are codifying the reclassification of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair into class III in 21 CFR 884.5980.
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 884 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.
(a)
(b)
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is issuing a final order to require the filing of a premarket approval application (PMA) or notice of completion of a product development protocol (PDP) for surgical mesh for transvaginal pelvic organ prolapse (POP) repair.
This order is effective on January 5, 2016.
Sharon Andrews, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G110, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6529,
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended, establishes a comprehensive system for the regulation of medical devices intended for human use. Section 513 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c) established three categories (classes) of devices, reflecting the regulatory controls needed to provide reasonable assurance of their safety and effectiveness. The three categories of devices are class I (general controls), class II (special controls), and class III (premarket approval).
Under section 513(d) of the FD&C Act, devices that were in commercial distribution before the enactment of the 1976 amendments, May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as preamendments devices), are classified after FDA has: (1) Received a recommendation from a device classification panel (an FDA advisory committee); (2) published the panel's recommendation for comment, along with a proposed regulation classifying the device; and (3) published a final regulation classifying the device. FDA has classified most preamendments devices under these procedures.
A preamendments device that has been classified into class III and devices found substantially equivalent by means of premarket notification (section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) procedures to such a preamendments device or to a device within that type (both the preamendments and substantially equivalent devices are referred to as preamendments class III devices) may be marketed without submission of a PMA until FDA issues a final order under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e(b)) requiring premarket approval. Section 515(b)(1) of the FD&C Act directs FDA to issue an order requiring premarket approval for a preamendments class III device.
Under section 515(f) of the FD&C Act, the manufacturer of a preamendments class III device may comply with a call for PMAs by filing a PMA or notice of completion of a PDP. In practice, however, the option of filing a notice of completion of a PDP has rarely been used. For simplicity, although the PDP option remains available to manufacturers in response to a final order under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act, this document will refer only to the requirement for the filing and obtaining approval of a PMA.
On July 9, 2012, the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144) was enacted. Section 608(b) of FDASIA amended section 515(b) of the FD&C Act, changing the process for requiring premarket approval for a preamendments class III device from rulemaking to an administrative order.
Section 515(b)(1) of the FD&C Act sets forth the process for issuing a final order requiring premarket approval. Specifically, prior to the issuance of a final order requiring premarket approval for a preamendments class III device, the following must occur: (1) Publication of a proposed order in the
Section 515(b)(3) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA shall, after the close of the comment period on the proposed order, consideration of any comments received, and a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the FD&C Act, issue a final order to require premarket approval or publish a document terminating the proceeding together with the reasons for such termination.
A preamendments class III device may be commercially distributed without a PMA until 90 days after FDA issues a final order (a final rule issued under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act prior to the enactment of FDASIA is considered to be a final order for purposes of section 501(f) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 351(f))) requiring premarket approval for the device, or 30 months after final classification of the device under section 513 of the FD&C Act, whichever is later. For surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, the later of these two time periods is 30 months after final classification of the device.
Therefore, section 501(f)(2)(B) of the FD&C Act requires that a PMA for such devices be filed by the last day of the 30th calendar month following the effective date of the final order to reclassify these devices into class III. If a PMA is not filed by this date, then the device would be deemed adulterated under section 501(f) of the FD&C Act.
Also, a preamendments device subject to the order process under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act is not required to have an approved investigational device exemption (IDE) (see part 812 (21 CFR part 812)) contemporaneous with its interstate distribution until the date identified by FDA in the final order requiring the filing of a PMA for the device. At that time, an IDE is required only if a PMA has not been filed. If the manufacturer, importer, or other sponsor of the device submits an IDE application and FDA approves it, the device may be distributed for investigational use. If a PMA is not filed by the later of the two dates, and the device is not distributed for investigational use under an IDE, the device is deemed to be adulterated within the meaning of section 501(f)(1)(A) of the FD&C Act, and subject to seizure and condemnation under section 304 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 334) if its distribution continues. Other enforcement actions include, but are not limited to, the following: Shipment of devices in interstate commerce may be subject to injunction under section 302 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 332), and the individuals responsible for such shipment may be subject to prosecution under section 303 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 333). FDA requests that manufacturers take action
Surgical mesh is a preamendments device, which was classified into class II (§ 878.3300 (21 CFR 878.3300)) in 1988. Beginning in 1992, FDA cleared premarket notification (510(k)) submissions for surgical mesh indicated for POP repair under the general surgical mesh classification regulation (§ 878.3300). FDA has cleared over 100 510(k) submissions for surgical mesh with a POP repair indication.
In September 2011, FDA held a meeting of a device classification panel described in section 513(b) of the FD&C Act with respect to surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair (Ref. 1). The Panel discussed a number of serious adverse events associated with use of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. The Panel consensus was that the safety of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is not well established and that, depending on the compartment, vaginal placement of surgical mesh for POP repair may not be more effective than traditional “native-tissue” repair without mesh. As such, the Panel concluded that the risk/benefit profile of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is not well established. The Panel consensus was that general controls and special controls together would not be sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh indicated for transvaginal POP repair, and that these devices should be reclassified from class II to class III (Ref. 1). FDA is not aware of new information since the Panel meeting that would provide a basis for a different recommendation or findings. FDA published proposed orders to reclassify surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair from class II to class III (the 513(e) proposed order) and to require the filing of a PMA if the reclassification is finalized (the 515(b) proposed order) in the
In response to the 515(b) proposed order, FDA received 26 comments. The comments and FDA's responses to the comments are summarized in this section. Certain comments are grouped together under a single number because the subject matter of the comments is similar. The number assigned to each comment is purely for organizational purposes and does not signify the comment's value or importance or the order in which it was submitted.
(Comment 1) Nine comments were received from individuals or family members of individuals who underwent mesh repair for POP and/or stress urinary incontinence (SUI) and reported complications or adverse events experienced during or after their procedures. The complications and adverse events reported including organ perforation, mesh exposure, or extrusion into the vagina and/or visceral organs (in some cases requiring additional surgery), chronic pain, infection, lack of mobility, painful sexual intercourse, self-catheterization, recurrent prolapse and/or incontinence, blood loss during surgery (in some cases requiring transfusion), nerve damage, need for mesh removal and/or additional corrective surgery, and other permanent and/or life-altering adverse events.
(Response) FDA appreciates the comments received from individuals sharing their experiences following surgical mesh repair for POP and SUI. The complications and adverse events reported by these commenters are consistent with those addressed in the 513(e) and 515(b) proposed order preambles, and discussed at the 2011 meeting of the Panel. The comments did not identify any adverse event information that was not already considered by FDA and the Panel.
(Comment 2) Thirteen comments requested reclassification of surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair, including for SUI and hernia.
(Response) Surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair are outside the scope of the proposed order and this final order. As stated in the 513(e) proposed order preamble, “This proposed order does not include surgical mesh indicated for surgical treatment of stress urinary incontinence, sacrocolpopexy (transabdominal POP repair), hernia repair, and other non-urogynecologic indications.”
(Comment 3) Eight comments requested a ban, recall, or “suspension of use” of all surgical mesh devices.
(Response) As stated previously, surgical mesh for indications other than transvaginal POP repair is outside the scope of this final order. For the reasons discussed in this document, FDA does not believe that a ban, recall, or suspension of use of surgical mesh indicated for transvaginal POP repair is warranted at this time.
Section 516 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360f) authorizes FDA to ban a device when, on the basis of all available data and information, FDA finds that the device presents substantial deception or an unreasonable and substantial risk of illness or injury and, where such deception or risk could be corrected or eliminated by labeling or change in labeling and with respect to which the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (Secretary) provided written notice to the manufacturer specifying the deception or risk of illness or injury, the labeling or change in labeling to correct the deception or eliminate or reduce such risk, and the period within which such labeling or change in labeling was to be done, such labeling or change in labeling was not done within such period.
As stated earlier in this document, FDA issued a proposed order (79 FR 24642) under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act to require the filing of PMAs for these devices following reclassification, which would require an individual demonstration of a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. In the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA recognized the recommendations from the Panel that additional work should be focused on patient labeling and providing patients with benefit-risk information on available treatment options for POP, including surgical and nonsurgical options, so patients understand potential long-term safety and effectiveness outcomes. In the 515(b) proposed order, FDA tentatively asserted that it expects PMAs for these devices to include professional and patient labeling, and that the patient labeling include, among other things, the risks and benefits of the device and all available treatment options. These findings are adopted, in part, in the final order (see section IV, “The Final Order”).
Therefore, FDA does not believe that there is sufficient evidence at this time to support the banning of this device. Based on a review of the published literature as described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and this document, input from clinical organizations, and the Panel's recommendations, FDA has determined that the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair has not been established and that the collection of additional clinical evidence on these devices is needed. Such additional evidence may provide information to allow FDA to impose controls to mitigate the risks and more clearly characterize the benefits of these devices. In addition, FDA believes there are potential benefits from surgical
FDA also does not believe that there is sufficient evidence at this time to support a mandatory recall of this device. Under section 518(e)(1) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360h(e)(1)) if the Secretary finds that there is a reasonable probability that a device intended for human use would cause serious, adverse health consequences or death, the Secretary shall issue an order requiring the appropriate person (including the manufacturers, importers, distributors, or retailers of the device) to immediately cease distribution of such device and to immediately notify health professionals and device user facilities of the order and to instruct such professionals and facilities to cease use of such device.
FDA does not believe a mandatory recall of all currently marketed surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is warranted. Based on a review of the published literature as described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and this document, input from clinical organizations, and the Panel's recommendations, FDA believes that there is not sufficient evidence at this time to support a finding that there is a reasonable probability that surgical mesh for transvaginal repair of POP would cause serious adverse health consequences or death. As described in the 513(e) proposed order preamble and discussed at the 2011 Panel meeting, the safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal repair of POP has not been established and these devices should be evaluated in clinical studies that compare the device to native tissue repair in order to establish a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
It is unclear what commenters were referencing when they asked FDA to “suspend the use” of these devices. As stated previously, FDA does not believe a ban or recall is warranted at this time, and as stated in this document, there are other actions FDA has taken and may take in the future to ensure that there is a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair based on valid scientific evidence.
FDA believes other regulatory actions it has taken will help the Agency to better understand the risk-benefit profile of these devices. FDA issued postmarket surveillance orders to manufacturers of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair starting on January 3, 2012. The postmarket surveillance orders allow FDA to continue to evaluate the benefit-risk profile of the device. Further, by reclassifying these devices to class III and requiring PMA approval, FDA can require an independent demonstration that a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness exists for each device within this type.
FDA will consider other regulatory actions relating to this device as appropriate in the future.
(Comment 4) Two comments were related to the need for testing prior to marketing, including an evaluation of the polypropylene material used to fabricate surgical mesh. One commenter stated that polypropylene material is inappropriate for implantation.
(Response) FDA believes that a thorough evaluation of the material used to fabricate the surgical mesh is needed to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of the device. FDA discussed in the 515(b) proposed order preamble information that should be submitted in a PMA to address these issues. FDA is adopting these findings, in part, in the final order (see section IV, “The Final Order”).
Specifically, in the proposed order, FDA stated that manufacturers should provide biocompatibility, preclinical bench testing and preclinical animal studies, among other information, to demonstrate reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair. Such performance data, which may generally include assessment of the mesh chemical and physical characteristics, in vitro chemical characterization studies, and in vivo preclinical implantation studies, will be reviewed by FDA to determine whether the risks associated with implantation of the polypropylene material are appropriately mitigated. The proposed order preamble also states that a PMA would need to include the information required by section 515(c)(1) of the FD&C Act, which includes manufacturing information. FDA's review of such manufacturing information will allow the Agency to evaluate whether the polypropylene material is safe and effective for transvaginal POP repair. FDA is adopting these findings in the final order (see section IV, “The Final Order”).
(Comment 5) Two comments were related to the timeline for requiring PMAs and requested that the requirement for premarket approval be immediately implemented. One commenter requested that the PMA requirement be retroactively applied to devices currently on the market.
(Response) Section 501(f)(2)(B) of the FD&C Act outlines the timeframe in which a PMA must be filed by manufacturers of currently marketed devices that are subject to a 515(b) order for the manufacturers to continue legally marketing their device. For devices subject to a 515(b) order, the provision states that a PMA must be submitted by the 90th day after the date the order to require PMAs is issued or the last day of the 30th calendar month beginning after the month in which the classification in class III becomes effective, whichever occurs later. For surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, the later of these two time periods is 30 months after final classification of the device. FDA must abide by the timeframe outlined in the FD&C Act, and therefore may not require manufacturers of devices subject to the final order to submit a PMA immediately.
(Comment 6) One comment suggested that the timeframe for filing a PMA (within 30 months of the final reclassification) may not allow for adequate patient followup of ongoing clinical studies and requested that FDA consider the current status of clinical studies that may be used to support PMA submission.
(Response) FDA has carefully considered the current status of ongoing clinical studies of currently marketed surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, including studies being conducted in response to FDA postmarket surveillance study orders issued starting on January 3, 2012, under section 522 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360l), and has concluded that the statutory timeframe for filing a PMA (the last day of the 30th calendar month beginning after the month in which the classification in class III becomes effective) is appropriate to allow adequate patient followup of ongoing clinical studies. In the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA stated the expectation that “[a]t least 1 year of outcome data should be provided in the PMA and an additional 2-4 years of followup should be conducted postmarket.” FDA believes it is reasonable to expect that a manufacturer of surgical mesh who is subject to a section 522 postmarket surveillance study order issued in 2012 or 2013 will be able to collect 1 year of outcome data within 30 months of the final reclassification.
(Comment 7) One comment addressed FDA's ability to review a PMA submitted for surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair within 180 days. The comment stated that a 180-day PMA review commitment may not
(Response) Under section 515(d)(1)(A) of the FD&C Act, unless an exception applies, FDA must either issue an order approving or deny approval of a PMA within 180 days after receipt of a PMA. FDA can provide an extension for review when a major amendment is submitted by the applicant or requested by FDA (21 CFR 814.37(c)(1)). The extended time period for submitting an amendment allows for, among other things, additional time for panel review of specific device data. Generally, a major amendment includes a previously unreported study, significant updated data from a previously reported study, detailed new analyses of previously submitted data, or required information previously omitted.
FDA intends to review any submitted PMA for this device type within the required timeframe. As soon as it completes its review of a PMA, FDA will issue an approval order (§ 814.45(d) (21 CFR 814.45(d))), an approvable letter (§ 814.45(e)), a not approvable letter (§ 814.45(e)), or an order denying approval (§ 814.45(a)). FDA strongly encourages manufacturers to meet with the Agency early through the presubmission program for any assistance in preparation of their PMA to help to expedite the PMA review process.
(Comment 8) One comment questioned FDA's reviewing urogynecologic surgical mesh instrumentation in a PMA if the instrumentation is packaged with the surgical mesh versus reviewing instrumentation in a 510(k) notification if the instrumentation is packaged separately from the surgical mesh. The commenter stated that the regulatory requirements for instrumentation should be based on indication and not its packaging configuration.
(Response) FDA agrees that the regulatory requirements for urogynecological surgical mesh instrumentation should be based upon the indications for use of the instruments and the risk of the instrumentation when used as intended. Based on the indications for use and the risks posed by these devices, in the 515(e) proposed order, FDA proposed to reclassify these devices from class I to class II and establish special controls. FDA is not finalizing this proposed reclassification and special controls at this time. On February 26, 2016, FDA will convene a panel to discuss these devices prior to finalizing their reclassification. These devices are currently classified as class I under (21 CFR 876.4730) (
When these devices and surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair are packaged together, after 510(k) notification is required for the instrumentation, manufacturers may wish to include both products in a PMA for convenience. Manufacturers are permitted but not required to do so. If such instrumentation is included in a PMA, FDA is clarifying that information regarding the manufacturing process of the instrumentation does not need to be submitted in a premarket submission, as previously stated in the 515(b) proposed order preamble (see section IV, “The Final Order”).
(Comment 9) One comment related to the types of bench testing FDA outlined in the 515(b) proposed order that should be included in a PMA and whether the various type of tests apply to all mesh types. For example, the commenter noted that many currently marketed surgical meshes indicated for transvaginal POP repair use integrated anchors or are self-fixating and do not utilize sutures; therefore suture pullout strength, which was identified in the 515(b) proposed order as a mesh characteristic that should be evaluated, would not be a relevant performance specification for these types of meshes. The commenter requested that FDA allow manufacturers to include a justification as to why certain testing is not relevant to performance specifications of a particular device design.
(Response) FDA recognizes that the data required to support premarket approval may vary by device. In the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA identified the information that should be included in a PMA to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, including evaluation of specific mechanical characteristics. FDA agrees that manufacturers should be allowed to justify why specific tests are not relevant to their specific mesh design in lieu of testing. As noted in the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA strongly encourages manufacturers to meet with the Agency early through the presubmission program for any assistance in preparation of their PMA.
(Comment 10) One comment related to FDA's expectations regarding biocompatibility and preclinical animal study evaluation. The commenter requested clarification regarding why FDA recommended conducting biocompatibility testing prior to initiation of animal studies. The commenter also noted that in the 515(b) proposed order, FDA identified a biocompatibility test (haemocompatibility), which is not outlined in the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) Blue Book Memo #G-95-1—“Use of International Standard ISO-10993, `Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices Part 1: Evaluation and Testing,' ” as a test for consideration for a permanent implant with tissue/bone contact. The commenter seeks clarity regarding the specific biocompatibility testing FDA believes should be conducted and a rationale for any testing not outlined in the Blue Book Memo.
(Response) The biocompatibility testing outlined in the 515(b) proposed order preamble is consistent with that recommended in the FDA guidance document “Guidance for Industry and/or for FDA Reviewers/Staff and/or Compliance: Guidance for the Preparation of a Premarket Notification Application for a Surgical Mesh” issued on March 2, 1999 (Ref. 2). There are two biocompatibility studies recommended in the guidance document (and the 515(b) proposed order) that are not included in CDRH's Blue Book Memorandum #G95-1—“Use of International Standard ISO-10993, `Biological Evaluation of Medical Devices Part 1: Evaluation and Testing,' ” dated May 1, 1995 (Ref. 3)—pyrogenicity and hemolysis. FDA recommended pyrogenicity testing to help protect patients from the risk of febrile reaction (Ref. 4). FDA recommended hemolysis testing on surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair because red blood lysis in the surgical field may adversely affect the healing process.
FDA generally recommends that biocompatibility testing be completed prior to preclinical animal study evaluation to ensure that the preclinical animal study evaluation results are valid and can be used to support the final device design. If biocompatibility testing and the preclinical animal study evaluation are conducted simultaneously and biocompatibility testing results are problematic or identify a safety concern resulting in changes to the device design or materials, the preclinical animal study evaluation may need to be repeated. In addition, the results of biocompatibility
(Comment 11) One comment stated that the preclinical animal study requirements outlined in the 515(b) proposed order are not clearly defined and requested that FDA provide additional information on study design and animal model selection as well as the risks that are intended to be mitigated by the proposed animal study.
(Response) Preclinical animal studies are intended to evaluate the safety of the device, specifically the local and systemic effects of the device. Preclinical animal studies may not be needed to evaluate all surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair; however, preclinical animal studies may be appropriate in some situations, for example, to evaluate a new mesh material or characterize the resorption rate of a resorbable surgical mesh product. FDA strongly encourages manufacturers to meet with the Agency early through the presubmission program to receive feedback regarding the need for preclinical animal studies, study design, and animal model selection to evaluate a specific surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair.
(Comment 12) One comment stated that the use of postmarket surveillance studies to fulfill clinical requirements for the PMA creates confusion regarding how such a study can have two purposes (postmarket surveillance and PMA approval) without compromising the study design and statistical rigor of the study. The comment also stated that the 5-year followup implied in the 515(b) proposed order is not in line with 3-year followup requested in the postmarket surveillance orders.
(Response) In the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA outlined expectations for data collection, safety and effectiveness outcomes, and study followup. FDA noted that we intend to consider proposals for different study designs and will decide on a case-by-case basis whether each proposed study design is likely to generate data adequate to support a PMA (79 FR 24642 at 24647). In addition, we noted that FDA intends to consider the use of study data collected by manufacturers in response to FDA issued postmarket surveillance study orders (79 FR 24642 at 24647). FDA believes that data from the section 522 postmarket surveillance studies may be able to fulfill the clinical requirements to support PMA approval—in addition to fulfilling the regulatory requirements of the orders issued under section 522 of the FD&C Act—if appropriately designed. However, as noted in the 515(b) proposed order preamble, FDA strongly encourages manufacturers to meet with the Agency to discuss specific proposals utilizing the presubmission program.
In addition, FDA noted the following in the postmarket surveillance orders issued under section 522 of the FD&C Act: “Although FDA has not come to a final decision on reclassification, you may wish to consider the data requirements for a PMA in deciding the design of your 522 study. If you are interested in utilizing data collected to fulfill this 522 order to also fulfill a possible future PMA, we suggest you indicate your interest on the cover letter of your 522 study plan and discuss with FDA possible 522 study designs that may be sufficient to support a PMA application.” For those manufacturers who indicated interest in using a 522 study to support a future PMA, FDA's review of their 522 protocol assessed both the requirements of the 522 order and the ability to generate sufficient data to support premarket approval.
FDA also notes that the 522 orders requested collection of safety and effectiveness outcomes for surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair at 6 months, 12 months, 18 months, 24 months, and 36 months following surgery. Therefore, FDA expects that the 522 studies should be designed to collect the 1-year outcomes requested to support premarket approval. FDA acknowledges that the 522 orders requested 3-year followup. However, FDA notes that based on its detailed review of the information provided in a PMA, we may request additional postmarket followup.
(Comment 13) One comment stated that FDA's expectation, set forth in the 515(b) proposed order, that patient labeling include a notice of availability of an FDA Safety Communication could be “conflicting” and lead to confusion because it is unclear how a reference to this communication would be appropriate for a device with an approved PMA establishing its safety and effectiveness. The commenter stated that the patient labeling should be focused on the benefit-risk profile of each product as established in the related PMA and requested that FDA consider alternative methods for providing the information found in the FDA communication to patients.
(Response) FDA agrees that patient labeling should be reflective of the risks and benefits of individual devices. FDA also believes that there is important, relevant information in FDA's Safety Communication that may be helpful to patients even after PMAs are approved for this device type (Ref. 5). For example, the Safety Communication included information regarding the potential risks of surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, nonsurgical options, and recommended questions that patients should ask their surgeon, which may be relevant even after PMAs are approved for this device type. However, FDA acknowledges that including the notice of availability of the Safety Communication may not be the best way to provide patients with the relevant information. As a result, FDA is revising this expectation and is now recommending that patient labeling include relevant information from FDA's Safety Communication and/or FDA's Urogynecologic Surgical Mesh Implants Web page (Ref. 6), including but not limited to, recommended patient questions for their surgeon, FDA activities related to surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair, and FDA contact information.
To help ensure that patients are adequately informed, FDA also recommends that a link to FDA's Urogynecologic Surgical Mesh Implants Web page be included in the patient labeling because it provides timely and transparent information to the public, including appropriate stakeholders and patients.
(Comment 14) One comment regarding the patient identification card discussed in the 515(b) proposed order noted that the card can be easily provided by the manufacturer, compliance with use of the card is dependent on the implanting physician, and should not lead to followup activities for the manufacturer.
(Response) FDA recognizes that a successful identification system requires support from parties other than the manufacturer, such as the implanting physician and patient. FDA's expectation, as set forth in the 515(b) proposed order preamble, was that patient labeling include a patient identification card, which would be initially provided by the manufacturer. FDA does not anticipate further followup actions by the manufacturer. These findings are adopted, in part, in the final order (see section IV, “The Final Order”).
Under section 515(b)(3) of the FD&C Act, FDA is adopting its findings, in part, as published in the preamble of the 515(b) proposed order (79 FR 24642) and issuing this final order to require the filing of a PMA for surgical mesh for
Under the final order, a PMA for surgical mesh for transvaginal POP repair is required to be filed on or before July 5, 2018, for any preamendments class III devices that were in commercial distribution before May 28, 1976, or that has been found by FDA to be substantially equivalent to such a device on or before July 5, 2018. Any other device subject to this order is required to have an approved PMA in effect before it may be marketed.
If a PMA for any of the preamendments class III devices subject to this order is not filed by this date, that device will be deemed adulterated under section 501(f)(1)(A) of the FD&C Act, and commercial distribution of the device must cease immediately.
The device may, however, be distributed for investigational use, if the applicable requirements of the IDE regulations (part 812), including obtaining IDE approval, are met on or before 30 months after the effective date of this order. There will be no extended period for filing an IDE, nor exemption from the IDE requirements (see § 812.2(d)), and studies may not be initiated without appropriate IDE approvals, as required.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
The collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814, subpart B, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; the collections of information in part 812 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0078; the collections of information under 21 CFR 822 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0449; and the collections of information under 21 CFR 801 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Prior to the amendments by FDASIA, section 515(b) of the FD&C Act provided for FDA to issue regulations to require PMA approval for preamendments devices or devices found substantially equivalent to preamendments devices. Section 515(b) of the FD&C Act, as amended by FDASIA, provides for FDA to require PMA approval for such devices by issuing a final order following the issuance of a proposed order in the
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852 and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 884 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.
(c)
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |