Page Range | 32617-33122 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
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81 FR 32773 - Notice of Availability of the Proposed Cottonwood Resource Management Plan Amendment for Domestic Sheep Grazing and Final Supplemental Environmental Impact Statement, Idaho | |
81 FR 32815 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 32655 - Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005-HHS Guidance Regarding Patient Safety Work Product and Providers' External Obligations | |
81 FR 32753 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
81 FR 32733 - Visiting Committee on Advanced Technology | |
81 FR 32821 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 32820 - In the Matter of NuTech Energy Resources, Inc.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 32819 - In the Matter of Dragon Bright Mintai Botanical Technology Cayman Ltd., JinZangHuang Tibet Pharmaceuticals, Inc., and Macau Resources Group Ltd.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 32820 - In the Matter of Bodisen Biotech, Inc., China Global Media, Inc., China Heli Resource Renewable, Inc., and GFR Pharmaceuticals, Inc.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 32743 - Application To Export Electric Energy; E-T Global Energy, LLC | |
81 FR 32742 - Orders Granting Authority To Import and Export Natural Gas, To Import and Export Liquefied Natural Gas, Denying Request for Rehearing, and Granting Motion for Extension of Time To File During April 2016 | |
81 FR 32743 - International Energy Agency Meetings | |
81 FR 32628 - Energy Conservation Program for Certain Industrial Equipment: Energy Conservation Standards for Small, Large, and Very Large Air-Cooled Commercial Package Air Conditioning and Heating Equipment and Commercial Warm Air Furnaces | |
81 FR 32751 - Wireless Telecommunications Bureau Seeks Comment on Atlantic Tele-Network, Inc., and SAL Spectrum, LLC, Petition for Waiver To Claim Eligibility for a Rural Service Provider Bidding Credit in Auction 1002 | |
81 FR 32728 - Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 32728 - Notice of Determination To Partially Close Two Meetings of the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 32791 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 32635 - Small Business Size Standards | |
81 FR 32816 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 32636 - Change of Newark Liberty International Airport (EWR) Designation; Notification of Availability of Final CATEX Declaration and Supporting Material | |
81 FR 32737 - Federal Need Analysis Methodology for the 2017-18 Award Year-Federal Pell Grant, Federal Perkins Loan, Federal Work-Study, Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant, William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan, Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grant and TEACH Grant Programs | |
81 FR 32771 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Public Housing Reform Act: Changes to Admission and Occupancy Requirements | |
81 FR 32821 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Application for A, G, or NATO Visa | |
81 FR 32645 - Electronic and Information Technology | |
81 FR 32822 - SJI Board of Directors Meeting | |
81 FR 32755 - Safety and Occupational Health Study Section (SOHSS), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH or Institute) | |
81 FR 32753 - CDC/HRSA Advisory Committee on HIV, Viral Hepatitis and STD Prevention and Treatment | |
81 FR 32759 - Board of Scientific Counselors, National Center for Injury Prevention and Control Meeting | |
81 FR 32759 - Request for Nominations of Candidates to Serve on the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) | |
81 FR 32636 - Operating Limitations at John F. Kennedy International Airport | |
81 FR 32757 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 32823 - Meeting: RTCA Program Management Committee (PMC) | |
81 FR 32736 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 32774 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 32822 - Twenty-Sixth Meeting: RTCA Special Committee 217 (SC-217) Aeronautical Databases (Joint With EUROCAE WG-44 Aeronautical Databases) | |
81 FR 32824 - Fourteenth Meeting: RTCA Tactical Operations Committee (TOC) | |
81 FR 32824 - Forty-First Meeting: RTCA Special Committee 224 (SC-224) Airport Security Access Control Systems | |
81 FR 32749 - Rangeland RIO Pipeline, LLC; Notice of Petition for Declaratory Order | |
81 FR 32747 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 32750 - Oasis Midstream Services LLC; Notice of Petition for Declaratory Order | |
81 FR 32747 - LifeEnergy LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 32746 - UIL Distributed Resources, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 32735 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 32733 - Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (MAFMC); Public Meeting | |
81 FR 32734 - Fisheries of the South Atlantic; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR); Stock ID Work Group Meeting for Atlantic Blueline Tilefish (Caulolatilus microps) | |
81 FR 32744 - Paulding Wind Farm III LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 32745 - Invenergy Energy Management LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 32749 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 32745 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 32746 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 32748 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 32744 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 32792 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 32793 - Medical Radioisotope Production Facility; Northwest Medical Isotopes, LLC | |
81 FR 32797 - In the Matter of Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc., Palisades Nuclear Plant | |
81 FR 32719 - Rural Energy Savings Program: Measurement, Verification, Training and Technical Assistance | |
81 FR 32721 - Certain Cold-Rolled Steel Flat Products From Japan: Final Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value and Final Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances | |
81 FR 32775 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
81 FR 32776 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-PDES, INC. | |
81 FR 32777 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-ODPi, Inc. | |
81 FR 32776 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Advanced Combustion Catalyst and Aftertreatment Technologies | |
81 FR 32725 - Certain Cold-Rolled Steel Flat Products From the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value, and Final Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances | |
81 FR 32776 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Open Platform for NFV Project, Inc. | |
81 FR 32729 - Certain Cold-Rolled Steel Flat Products From the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination and Final Partial Affirmative Critical Circumstances Determination | |
81 FR 32643 - Extension of Expiration Dates for Two Body System Listings | |
81 FR 32752 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection Renewals; Comment Request (3064-0070, -0079, -0103, -0139 & -0192) | |
81 FR 32752 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10346, San Luis Trust Bank, FSB, San Luis Obispo, California | |
81 FR 32769 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Controlled Equipment Request Form. | |
81 FR 32724 - Application(s) for Duty-Free Entry of Scientific Instruments | |
81 FR 32764 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32766 - National Institute on Aging; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 32767 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32764 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32777 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 | |
81 FR 32761 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent License: Development of Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors for the Treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease Type Ia | |
81 FR 32762 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent License: Development of Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors for the Treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease Type Ia | |
81 FR 32686 - Performance-Based Investment Advisory Fees | |
81 FR 32643 - Business Conduct Standards for Security-Based Swap Dealers and Major Security-Based Swap Participants; Correction | |
81 FR 32735 - Board of Visitors of the U.S. Air Force Academy Notice of Meeting; Amendment | |
81 FR 32764 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request; Iwin: Navigating Your Path to Well-Being | |
81 FR 32721 - Foreign-Trade Zone 93-Raleigh-Durham, North Carolina, Application for Reorganization (Expansion of Service Area) Under Alternative Site Framework | |
81 FR 32772 - Incidental Take Permit Applications for Alabama Beach Mouse; Gulf Shores, Alabama | |
81 FR 32773 - Notice of Public Meeting, Pecos District Resource Advisory Council Meeting, New Mexico | |
81 FR 32718 - Southwest Montana Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 32767 - Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 32789 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Securities Lending by Employee Benefit Plans, Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2006-16 | |
81 FR 32790 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Unemployment Insurance Data Validation | |
81 FR 32754 - Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) | |
81 FR 32753 - Subcommittee for Dose Reconstruction Reviews (SDRR), Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
81 FR 32755 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 32758 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 32760 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request | |
81 FR 32767 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 32763 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 32761 - National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32765 - National Institute of Environmental Health Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32762 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 32825 - Pipeline Safety: Gas and Liquid Advisory Committee Member Nominations | |
81 FR 32766 - National Institute of Biomedical Imaging and Bioengineering; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 32766 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 32823 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Columbia Helicopters, Inc. | |
81 FR 32660 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
81 FR 32770 - Arkansas; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 32768 - Texas; Amendment No. 2 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 32768 - Texas; Amendment No. 1 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 32819 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 32821 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 32702 - Air Plan Approval; Florida; Regional Haze Progress Report | |
81 FR 32651 - Air Quality Plan Approval; South Carolina; Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 Sulfur Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standard | |
81 FR 32648 - Mailing Address of the Board of Veterans' Appeals | |
81 FR 32818 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 32816 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 32817 - Market Dominant Price Adjustment | |
81 FR 32826 - Multiemployer Pension Plan Application To Reduce Benefits | |
81 FR 32791 - Quarterly Public Meeting | |
81 FR 32707 - Air Plan Approval/Disapproval; Mississippi Infrastructure Requirements for the 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
81 FR 32770 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Application by Refugee for Waiver of Grounds of Excludability, Form I-602; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 32694 - Leasing of Sulfur or Oil and Gas in the Outer Continental Shelf MMAA104000 | |
81 FR 32652 - Air Plan Approval; North Carolina; Regional Haze | |
81 FR 32782 - Notice of Determinations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32778 - TA-W-85,954, Baker Hughes Incorporated Including On-Site Leased Workers From Kelly Services, Claremore, Oklahoma; TA-W-85,954A, Baker Hughes Incorporated, Broken Arrow, Oklahoma; TA-W-85,954B, Baker Hughes Incorporated, Hampton, Arkansas; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32779 - Investigations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32778 - Kimberly Carbonates, LLC, a Wholly Owned Subsidiary of Omya, Inc., Including On-Site Leased Workers From US Tech Force, Kimberly, Wisconsin; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance and Alternative Trade Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32777 - KBR, Inc., Including On-Site Leased Workers From Technical Staffing Resources Including Workers Whose Wages Are Reported Under Kellogg, Brown, and Root, LLC; KBR Technical Services, Inc.; BR Industrial Operations, LLC; Brown & Root Industrial Services, LLC, and Technical Staffing Resources, Ltd. Houston, Texas; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32779 - United States Steel Corporation, Fairfield Works-Flat Roll Operations and Fairfield-Tubular Operations Including On-Site Leased Workers From Total Safety US, Fairfield, Alabama; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 32826 - Proposed Information Collection (Nonprofit Research and Education Corporations (NPCs) Data Collection) | |
81 FR 32720 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 32789 - Notice of Availability of Funds and Funding Opportunity Announcement for YouthBuild Grants | |
81 FR 32680 - Rule Governing Disclosure of Written Consumer Product Warranty Terms and Conditions; Rule Governing Pre-Sale Availability of Written Warranty Terms | |
81 FR 32695 - Safety Zones, Recurring Marine Events Held in the Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone | |
81 FR 32800 - Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations | |
81 FR 32617 - Variable Annual Fee Structure for Small Modular Reactors | |
81 FR 32679 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Park River, ND | |
81 FR 32641 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 32639 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 32935 - SES Positions That Were Career Reserved During CY 2015 | |
81 FR 32688 - National Environmental Policy Act Procedures | |
81 FR 32718 - Lake Tahoe Basin Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 33097 - Acceptance Criteria for Portable Oxygen Concentrators Used On Board Aircraft | |
81 FR 32633 - Rules of Practice and Procedure; Adjusting Civil Money Penalties for Inflation | |
81 FR 33025 - Lifeline and Link Up Reform and Modernization, Telecommunications Carriers Eligible for Universal Service Support, Connect America Fund | |
81 FR 32664 - Inclusion of Four Native U.S. Freshwater Turtle Species in Appendix III of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) | |
81 FR 32716 - Transportation for Individuals With Disabilities; Service Criteria for Complementary Paratransit Fares | |
81 FR 32829 - Arbitration Agreements |
Forest Service
Rural Utilities Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Institute of Standards and Technology
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Air Force Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Antitrust Division
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Employment and Training Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
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Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is amending its licensing, inspection, and annual fee regulations to establish a variable annual fee structure for light-water small modular reactors (SMR). Under the variable annual fee structure, an SMR's annual fee would be calculated as a function of its licensed thermal power rating. This fee methodology complies with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, as amended (OBRA-90).
This final rule is effective June 23, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0664 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Michele Kaplan, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone: 301-415-5256, email:
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) anticipates that it will soon receive license applications for light-water small modular reactors (SMR). In fiscal year 2008, the NRC staff determined that the annual fee structure for part 171 of title 10 of the
The NRC prepared a regulatory analysis for this final rule (see Section XIV, “Availability of Documents”).
Over the past 40 years, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has assessed, and continues to assess, fees to applicants and licensees to recover the cost of its regulatory program. The NRC's fee regulations are governed by two laws: (1) The Independent Offices Appropriations Act of 1952 (IOAA) (31 U.S.C. 9701); and (2) the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990, as amended (OBRA-90) (42 U.S.C. 2214). Under the OBRA-90 framework, the NRC must recover approximately 90 percent of its annual budget authority through fees, not including amounts appropriated for waste incidental to reprocessing activities, amounts appropriated for generic homeland security activities, amounts appropriated from the Nuclear Waste Fund, and amounts appropriated for Inspector General services for the Defense Nuclear Facilities Safety Board.
The NRC assesses two types of fees to meet OBRA-90's requirements. First, the NRC assesses licensing and inspection fees under the IOAA to
The current annual fee structure in 10 CFR part 171 would require SMRs to pay the same annual fee as those paid by the operating reactor fee class. For the operating reactor fee class, the NRC allocates 10 CFR part 171 annual fees equally among the operating power reactor licensees to recover those budgetary resources expended for rulemaking and other generic activities that benefit the entire fee class. If 10 CFR part 171, in its current form, is applied to SMRs, then each SMR reactor would pay the same flat annual fee as an existing operating reactor, even though SMRs are expected to be considerably smaller in size and may utilize designs that could reduce the NRC's regulatory costs per reactor.
Additionally, the current annual fee structure would assess multimodule nuclear plant annual fees on a per-licensed-module basis (rather than a site basis). For example, an SMR site with 12 licensed SMR modules (each with low thermal power ratings) would have to pay 12 times the annual fee paid by a single large operating reactor, even if that single reactor had higher thermal power rating than the cumulative power rating of the 12 SMR modules. This disparity raises fairness and equity concerns under OBRA-90. The SMR licensees could apply for fee exemptions to lower their annual fees. However, fee exemption are appropriate only for unanticipated or rare situations. The OBRA-90 statute requires the NRC to establish, by rule, a schedule of charges fairly and equitably allocating annual fees among its licensees. If the NRC anticipates up front that its annual fee schedule will not be fair and equitable as applied to a particular class of licensees, then amending the fee schedule, rather than planning to rely on the exemption process, is the better course of action for complying with OBRA-90.
To address potential inequities, the NRC re-evaluated its annual fee structure as it relates to SMRs. In March 2009, the NRC published an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPR) (74 FR 12735) for a variable annual fee structure for power reactors in the
The NRC received 16 public comments on the ANPR from licensees, industry groups, and private individuals. These comments provided a wide range of input for agency consideration. Nine commenters supported adjusting the current power reactor annual fee methodology for small and medium-sized power reactors by some means. These commenters suggested basing the annual fee on either: (1) A risk matrix, (2) the thermal power ratings (in megawatts thermal, MWt), (3) the cost of providing regulatory service, or (4) an amount proportional to the size of the system based on megawatt (MW) ratings compared to a fixed baseline. Three commenters, representing small reactor design vendors, supported a variable fee rate structure as a means to mitigate the impacts of the existing fee structure on potential customers of their small reactor designs.
Commenters who did not support a variable annual fee structure recommended the following changes to the fee methodology: (1) Reinstatement of reactor size as a factor in evaluating fee exemption requests under 10 CFR 171.11(c), (2) establishment of power reactor subclasses, or (3) performance of additional analysis before making any changes to the current fee structure. Two commenters expressed an unwillingness to subsidize operating SMRs at the expense of their own businesses and believed that the flat-rate methodology provided regulatory certainty and assisted the ability to make ongoing financial plans.
In September 2009, the NRC staff submitted SECY-09-0137, “Next Steps for Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking on Variable Annual Fee Structure for Power Reactors,” (ML092660166) to the Commission for a notation vote. The paper summarized the comments that the NRC received in response to the ANPR, and it requested Commission approval to form a working group to analyze the commenters' suggested methodologies. The Commission approved the NRC staff's recommendation in the October 13, 2009, Staff Requirements Memorandum (SRM) for SECY-09-0137. (ML092861070)
The NRC subsequently formed a working group to analyze the ANPR comments (ML14307A812), as well as position papers submitted to the NRC from the Nuclear Energy Institute (NEI), “NRC Annual Fee Assessment for Small Reactors,” (ML103070148) dated October 2010; and from the American Nuclear Society (ANS), “Interim Report of the American Nuclear Society President's Special Committee on Small and Medium Sized Reactor (SMR) Generic Licensing Issues,” (ML110040946) dated July 2010.
Four possible alternatives emerged from the working group's analysis of the public comments and the two position papers:
1. Continue the existing annual fee structure, but define a modular site of up to 12 reactors or 4,000 megawatts thermal (MWt) licensed power rating as a single unit for annual fee purposes.
2. Create fee classes for groups of reactor licensees and distribute the annual fee costs attributed to each fee class equally among the licensees in that class.
3. Calculate the annual fee for each licensed power reactor as a function of potential risk to public health and safety using a risk matrix.
4. Calculate the annual fee for each licensed power reactor as a function of its licensed thermal power rating.
The NRC staff further concluded that Alternative 3, which calculated the annual fee for each SMR as a function of its potential risk to public health and safety using a risk matrix, did not warrant further consideration and analysis because of the technical complexities and potential costs of developing the probalistic risk assessments necessary to implement this alternative.
The working group examined the alternatives and informed the NRC's Chief Financial Officer (CFO) that Alternative 4 was the working group's preferred recommendation because it allows SMRs to be assessed specific fee amounts based on their licensed thermal power ratings (measured in MWt) on a variable scale with a minimum fee and a maximum fee. Additionally, the variable portion of the fee allows for multiple licensed SMR reactors on a single site up to 4,000 MWt to be treated as a single reactor for fee purposes. The working group determined that these attributes best aligned with OBRA-90's fairness and equity requirements.
The CFO submitted the final recommendations to the Commission in an informational memorandum dated February 7, 2011, “Resolution of Issue Regarding Variable Annual Fee Structure for Small and Medium-Sized Nuclear Power Reactors.” (ML110380251) The memorandum described the results of the working group's efforts and its recommendation that the annual fee structure for SMRs be calculated for each newly licensed power reactor as a function of its licensed thermal power rating. The memorandum indicated that the NRC staff intended to obtain Commission approval for the planned approach during the process for developing the proposed rule.
In fiscal year (FY) 2014, the NRC staff reviewed the analysis and recommendations in the 2011 memorandum and determined that they remained sound. However, the working group identified one additional area for consideration related to the maximum thermal power rating eligible for a single annual fee.
In the FY 2011 memorandum, the CFO proposed an upper threshold of 4,000 MWt for multi-module power plants to be allocated a single annual fee. This value was comparable to the largest operating reactor units at the time (Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station, Units 1, 2, and 3 at 3,990 MWt each). A subsequent power uprate was approved by the NRC for Grand Gulf Nuclear Station, Unit 1, which raised the maximum licensed thermal power rating to 4,408 MWt. Therefore, the 2014 working group recommended setting the single-fee threshold for a multi-module nuclear plant at 4,500 MWt on the SMR variable annual fee structure scale so that the maximum fee remains aligned with the largest licensed power reactor.
With this change, the NRC staff submitted final recommendations to the Commission and requested approval to proceed with a proposed rulemaking for an SMR annual fee structure in SECY-15-0044, dated March 27, 2015, “Proposed Variable Annual Fee Structure for Small Modular Reactors.” (ML15051A092) The Commission approved the NRC staff's request to proceed with a proposed rulemaking on May 15, 2015, Staff Requirements Memorandum—SECY-15-0044, “Proposed Variable Annual Fee Structure for Small Modular Reactors.” (ML15135A427)
Separately, under Project Aim, the agency is working to improve the transparency of its fees development and invoicing processes and to improve the timeliness of NRC communications on fee changes. More information about this effort can be found in the
The NRC is creating a variable annual fee structure for SMRs. As detailed in the regulatory analysis, the NRC determined the current annual fee structure may not be fair and equitable for assessing fees to SMRs based on the unique size and characteristics of SMRs. The NRC published, for a 30-day public comment period, a proposed rule on November 4, 2015, to address these issues. The NRC developed this final rule based on the comments received on the proposed rule. The comments are discussed in Section IV, “Public Comment Analysis,” of this document. Because the annual regulatory cost associated with an SMR is inherently uncertain before such a licensed facility is operational, the NRC intends to reevaluate the variable annual fee structure at the appropriate time to ensure the continuing satisfaction of OBRA-90 requirements. This reevalulation will occur once one or more SMR facilities becomes operational and sufficient regulatory cost data becomes available.
As explained in Section I, “Background,” of this document, the NRC staff previously solicited public input regarding an annual fee structure for SMRs via an ANPR, and the NRC staff submitted two papers to the Commission discussing alternative annual fee structures, which resulted in the recommendation of the variable annual fee structure as the preferred approach for SMRs. For this final rule and regulatory analysis, the NRC staff examined the following four refined alternatives including a “no action alternative” which served as a baseline to compare all other alternatives:
1. No action.
2. Continue the existing annual fee structure for all reactors but allow for “bundling” of SMR reactor modules up to a total of 4,500 MWt as a single SMR “bundled unit.”
3. Continue the existing annual fee structure for the current fleet of operating power reactors but establish a third fee class for SMRs with fees commensurate with the budgetary resources allocated to SMRs.
4. Continue the existing annual fee structure for the current fleet of operating power reactors but calculate the annual fee for each SMR site as a multi-part fee which includes minimum fee, variable fee and maximum fee.
As explained in the regulatory analysis for this final rule, the NRC staff analyzed Alternative 1 (the no action alternative) and concluded that this alternative continues to be a fair, equitable and stable approach for the existing fleet of reactors. This is because previous agency efforts to manage cost and fee allocations at a more granular level were labor intensive and resulted in minimal additional benefits to licensees when compared to the flat-fee approach (60 FR 32230; June 20, 1995). For SMRs, however, the current fee structure could produce such a large disparity between the annual fees paid by a licensee and the economic benefits that the licensee could gain from using the license that it would be contrary to OBRA-90's requirement to establish a fair and equitable fee schedule. For example, a hypothetical SMR site with 12 SMR reactor modules would have to pay 12 times the annual fee paid by a single current operating reactor—almost $54 million per year based on FY 2015 fee rule data. By comparison, Fort Calhoun, the smallest reactor in the current operating fleet, would pay approximately $4.5 million in annual fees. Such a result would be contrary to OBRA-90's requirement to establish a fair fee schedule, and therefore the no action alternative is unacceptable.
Small modular reactor licensees could apply for annual fee exemptions under 10 CFR 171.11(c). The fee exemption criteria consider the age of the reactor, number of customers in the licensee's rate base, how much the annual fee would add to the per kilowatt-hour (kWh) cost of electricity, and other relevant issues. But, as described in SECY-15-0044, there are no guarantees that an exemption request would be approved, decreasing regulatory certainty. The OBRA-90 statute also requires the NRC to establish, by rule, a schedule of charges fairly and equitably allocating annual fees among its licensees. Therefore, if the NRC anticipates up-front that its annual fee schedule will not be fair and equitable as applied to a particular class of licensees, then amending the fee schedule, rather than planning to rely on the exemption process, is the far better course for complying with OBRA-90.
The NRC staff also evaluated Alternative 2, which continues the existing annual fee structure for all reactors and allows for the bundling of the thermal ratings of SMRs on a single site up to total licensed thermal power rating of up to 4,500 MWt, which is roughly equivalent to the licensed thermal power rating of the largest reactor in the current fleet. Alternative 2 provides more fairness to SMRs than Alternative 1 because it allows SMR licensees to bundle their SMRs on a single site. However, for smaller SMR
Alternative 3 entails creating a separate fee class for SMRs, with fees commensurate with the budgetary resources allocated to SMRs, similar to the operating reactor and research and test reactor fee classes. This alternative would establish a flat annual fee assessed equally among SMR licensees. Although this approach is fair and equitable for the current operating reactor fee class, applying a flat fee approach to SMRs poses fairness problems due to the potential various sizes and types of SMR designs. In particular, a single per-reactor fee could prove unduly burdensome to SMRs with low thermal power ratings (such as 160 MWt for a single NuScale SMR) when compared to SMRs with higher-rated capacities (such as 800 MWt for a single Westinghouse SMR). Additionally, Alternative 3 is similar to the “no action” alternative in the sense that fees are based per licensed reactor or module rather than on the cumulative licensed thermal power rating. This alternative, therefore, fails to address the fee disparity created for SMRs using multiple small modules rather than fewer, larger reactors with a similar cumulative licensed thermal power rating. It is the NRC's intent to select an SMR fee alternative that is fair and equitable for the broadest possible range of SMR designs. Flat-rate alternatives such as this one are inconsistent with the “fair and equitable” requirements of OBRA-90 when applied to a fee class with the wide range of SMR thermal power capacities as described by reactor designers to date. As with the previous alternatives, SMR licensees could apply for annual fee exemptions under 10 CFR 171.11(c); however, there are no guarantees that an exemption would be approved, decreasing regulatory certainty. For these reasons, and as further explained in the regulatory analysis, Alternative 3 is an unacceptable approach.
Ultimately, the NRC staff analyzed the mechanics of the variable annual fee structure under Alternative 4 and determined that it is the best approach for assessing fees to SMRs in a fair and equitable manner under OBRA-90. Unlike the current fee structure, this approach recognizes the anticipated unique characteristics of SMRs in relation to the existing fleet. Unlike Alternative 2, this approach ensures that all SMRs are treated fairly, including those SMRs whose licensed thermal power rating are outside the 2,000 MWt-4,500 MWt range. Unlike Alternative 3, the variable annual fee structure assesses a range of annual fees to SMRs based on licensed thermal power rating, rather than assessing a single flat fee that could potentially apply to a very wide range of SMRs.
The SMR variable annual fee structure under Alternative 4 computes SMR annual fees on a site basis, considering all SMRs on the site—up to a total licensed thermal power rating of up to 4,500 MWt—to be a single “bundled unit” that would pay the same annual fee as the current operating reactor fleet. The SMR fee structure has three parts: A minimum fee (the average of the research and test reactor fee class and the spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning fee class), a variable fee charged on a per-MWt basis for bundled units in a particular size range, and a maximum fee equivalent to the flat annual fee charged to current operating fleet reactors.
Bundled units with a total licensed thermal power rating at or below 250 MWt would only pay a minimum fee; for example, based on FY 2015 fee rule data, that minimum fee would be $153,250. This minimum fee is consistent with the principle that reactor-related licensees in existing low-fee classes may not generate substantial revenue, yet still derive benefits from NRC activities performed on generic work. Therefore, they must pay more than a
Fees for bundled units with a total licensed thermal power rating greater than 250 MWt and less than or equal to 2,000 MWt would be computed as the minimum fee plus a variable fee based on the bundled unit's cumulative licensed thermal power rating. The variable fee should generally correlate with the economic benefits the licensee is able to derive from its NRC license and will ensure that similarly rated SMRs pay comparable fees.
For a bundled unit with a licensed thermal power rating comparable to a typical large light-water reactor—
For SMR sites with a licensed thermal power rating that exceeds 4,500 MWt, the licensee would be assessed the maximum fee for the first bundled unit, plus a variable annual fee for the portion of the thermal rating above the 4,500 MWt level and less than or equal to 6,500 MWt for the second bundled unit (the licensee would not incur a second minimum fee for the same SMR site, because minimum fees are only assessed on a per-site basis). If a site rating exceeds the 6,500 MWt level, and also is less than or equal to 9,000 MWt, then a second maximum fee would be assessed for the second bundled unit. The NRC considered eliminating the second variable portion of the fee structure and simply doubling the maximum fee for the second bundled unit, but this would produce an unfair result if the site's second bundled unit had a small licensed thermal power rating. Similar to the other three alternative fee structures, this method—doubling the maximum fee for the second bundled unit—would not have addressed the inequities that arise when a very small bundled unit pays a very large annual fee.
Therefore, as demonstrated in the regulatory analysis, the NRC staff concludes that the variable annual fee structure allows SMRs to pay an annual fee that is commensurate with the economic benefit received from its license and that appropriately accounts for the design characteristics and current expectations regarding regulatory costs. This complies with OBRA-90's requirement to establish a
Section I B., “Background” of this document discusses the ANPR and the public comments that helped to shape the proposed rule, “Variable Annual Fee Structure for Small Modular Reactors,” that NRC published in the
The NRC held a category 3 public meeting on the proposed rule and draft regulatory analysis (ML15226A588) during the comment period, specifically, on November 16, 2015, to promote transparency and obtain feedback from industry representatives, licensees and other external stakeholders. During the meeting, NRC staff addressed questions pertaining to the 10 CFR parts 170 and 171 definitions, the fee methodology for the bundled unit and out-of-scope comments such as life-cycle costs of SMRs, the charging of fees to future licensees for the monitoring of both air and water emitted around nuclear facilities, and the nuclear waste fee.
The NRC received nine comment submissions on the proposed rule. The comments are posted on
With respect to the degree of fairness achieved by the rule, the NRC disagrees with the comment. The OBRA-90 statutes require the NRC to collect annual fees from licensees, including licensees from the operating reactor fee class. Therefore, adding a new SMR to the reactor fleet would result in a greater base of operating reactors over which to spread the required 10 CFR part 171 annual fee collection; this, in turn, leads to a lower 10 CFR part 171 fee amount per reactor. Under the variable annual fee structure, SMRs with a bundled unit rating below 2,000 MWt will pay less in 10 CFR part 171 fees than a current operating reactor. Therefore, the addition of an SMR would result in a slightly smaller fee reduction than would have been realized for the addition of a large light-water reactor. Using FY15 data, this difference in fee reduction is, at most, about one percent of the 10 CFR part 171 annual fee for each current operating reactor. The NRC believes this is a fair result because SMRs should pay annual fees that are commensurate with the economic benefit received from their license, and this rule achieves that objective without altering the existing fee structure for operating reactors. As previously explained, this rule also achieves this objective with minimal impacts to the existing fleet. No change was made to the final rule in response to this comment.
The following paragraphs describe the specific changes made by this rulemaking.
The NRC is adding definitions for “small modular reactor (SMR),” and “small modular reactor site (SMR site).”
The NRC is adding definitions for “bundled unit,” “maximum fee,” “minimum fee,” “small modular reactor (SMR),” “small modular reactor site (SMR site),” “variable fee,” and “variable rate.”
The NRC is redesignating current paragraph (e) as new paragraph (f) and adding new paragraphs (e)(1), (e)(2), and (e)(3) to define activities that comprise SMR annual fees and the time period in which the NRC must collect annual fees from SMR licensees.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), the NRC certifies that this rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule affects only the licensing and operation of nuclear power plants. The companies that own these plants do not fall within the scope of the definition of “small entities” set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act or the size standards established by the NRC (10 CFR 2.810).
The NRC has prepared a regulatory analysis for this final rule. The analysis examines the costs and benefits of the alternatives considered by the NRC. The regulatory analysis is available as indicated in the “Availability of Documents” section of this document.
The NRC has determined that the backfit rule, 10 CFR 50.109, does not apply to this final rule and that a backfit analysis is not required. A backfit analysis is not required because these amendments do not require the modification of, or addition to, systems, structures, components, or the design of a facility, or the design approval or manufacturing license for a facility, or the procedures or organization required to design, construct, or operate a facility.
The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883).
The NRC has determined that this final rule is the type of action described in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(1). Therefore, neither an environmental impact statement nor environmental assessment has been prepared for this final rule.
This final rule does not contain a collection of information as defined in the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
This final rule is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, Public Law 104-113, requires that Federal agencies use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies unless the use of such a standard is inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. In this final rule, the NRC will revise its licensing, inspection, and annual fee regulations to establish a variable annual fee structure for SMRs. This action does not constitute the establishment of a standard that contains generally applicable requirements.
The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons through one or more of the following methods, as indicated.
Byproduct material, Import and export licenses, Intergovernmental relations, Non-payment penalties, Nuclear energy, Nuclear materials, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Source material, Special nuclear material.
Annual charges, Byproduct material, Holders of certificates, registrations, approvals, Intergovernmental relations, Nonpayment penalties, Nuclear materials, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Source material, Special nuclear material.
For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendments to 10 CFR parts 170 and 171:
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 161(w) (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2201(w)); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 42 U.S.C. 2214; 31 U.S.C. 901, 902, 9701; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 11, 161(w), 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2014, 2201(w), 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 42 U.S.C. 2214; 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
(e)(1) Each person holding an operating license for an SMR issued under 10 CFR part 50 of this chapter or a combined license issued under 10 CFR part 52 after the Commission has made the finding under 10 CFR 52.103(g), shall pay the annual fee for all licenses held for an SMR site. The annual fee will be determined using the cumulative licensed thermal power rating of all SMR units and the bundled unit concept, during the fiscal year in which the fee is due. For a given site, the use of the bundled unit concept is independent of the number of SMR plants, the number of SMR licenses issued, or the sequencing of the SMR licenses that have been issued.
(2) The annual fees for a small modular reactor(s) located on a single site to be collected by September 30 of each year, are as follows:
(3) The annual fee for an SMR collected under paragraph (e) of this section is in lieu of any fee otherwise required under paragraph (b) of this section. The annual fee under paragraph (e) of this section covers the same activities listed for power reactor base annual fee and spent fuel storage/reactor decommissioning reactor fee.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Confirmation of effective date and compliance dates for direct final rule.
The U.S. Department of Energy (“DOE”) published a direct final rule to establish amended energy conservation standards for small, large, and very large air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment and commercial warm air furnaces in the
The direct final rule published on January 15, 2016 (81 FR 2420) became effective on May 16, 2016. Compliance with the amended standards in this final rule will be required for small, large, and very large air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment listed in this final rule starting on January 1, 2018, for the first set of standards and January 1, 2023, for the second set of standards. Compliance with the amended standards established for commercial warm air furnaces in this final rule is required starting on January 1, 2023.
The dockets, which include
A link to the docket Web page for small, large, and very large air-cooled commercial package air conditioning
For further information on how to review the dockets, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
Mr. John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 286-1692. Email:
As amended by the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (“EISA 2007”), Public Law 110-140 (December 19, 2007), the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (“EPCA” or, in context, “the Act”) authorizes DOE to issue a direct final rule (
During the rulemaking proceedings to consider amending the energy conservation standards for small, large, and very large air-cooled commercial package air conditioning and heating equipment (referred to herein as air-cooled commercial unitary air conditioners and heat pumps (“CUACs” and “CUHPs”)) and commercial warm air furnaces (“CWAFs”), interested parties commented that DOE should convene a negotiated rulemaking to develop standards that will result in energy savings using technology that is feasible and economically justified. In addition, AHRI and ACEEE submitted a joint letter to the Appliance Standards and Rulemaking Federal Advisory Committee (“ASRAC”) requesting that it consider approving a recommendation that DOE initiate a negotiated rulemaking for air-cooled commercial package air conditioners and commercial furnaces. (EERE-2013-BT-STD-0007-0080) ASRAC carefully evaluated this request and the Committee voted to charter a working group to support the negotiated rulemaking effort requested by these parties.
Subsequently, after careful consideration, DOE determined that, given the complexity of the CUAC/CUHP rulemaking and the logistical challenges presented by the related CWAF proposal, a combined effort to address these equipment types was necessary to ensure a comprehensive vetting of all issues and related analyses that would be necessary to support any final rule setting standards for this equipment. To this end, while highly unusual to do so after issuing a proposed rule, DOE solicited the public for membership nominations to the working group that would be formed under the ASRAC charter by issuing a Notice of Intent to Establish the Commercial Package Air Conditioners and Commercial Warm Air Furnaces Working Group To Negotiate Potential Energy Conservation Standards for Commercial Package Air Conditioners and Commercial Warm Air Furnaces. 80 FR 17363 (April 1, 2015). The CUAC/CUHP-CWAF Working Group (in context, “the Working Group”) was established under ASRAC in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act and the Negotiated Rulemaking Act—with the purpose of discussing and, if possible, reaching consensus on a set of energy conservation standards to propose or finalize for CUACs, CUHPs and CWAFs. The Working Group was to consist of fairly representative parties having a defined stake in the outcome of the proposed standards, and would consult, as appropriate, with a range of experts on technical issues.
DOE received 17 nominations for membership. Ultimately, the Working Group consisted of 17 members, including one member from ASRAC and one DOE representative.
After carefully considering the consensus recommendations submitted by the Working Group and adopted by ASRAC related to amending the energy conservation standards for CUACs, CUHPs, and CWAFs, DOE determined that these recommendations, which were submitted in the form of a single Term Sheet from the Working Group, comprised a statement submitted by interested persons who are fairly representative of relevant points of view on this matter. In reaching this determination, DOE took into consideration the fact that the Working Group, in conjunction with ASRAC
Pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(4), the Secretary must also determine whether a jointly-submitted recommendation for an energy or water conservation standard satisfies 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) or 42 U.S.C. 6313(a)(6)(B), as applicable. As stated in the direct final rule, in making this determination, DOE conducted an analysis to evaluate whether the potential energy conservation standards under consideration would meet these requirements. This evaluation is the same comprehensive approach that DOE typically conducts whenever it considers potential energy conservation standards for a given type of product or equipment. DOE applies the same principles to any consensus recommendations it may receive to satisfy its statutory obligation to ensure that any energy conservation standard that it adopts achieves the maximum improvement in energy efficiency that is technologically feasible and economically justified and will result in the significant conservation of energy. Upon review, the Secretary determined that the Term Sheet submitted in the instant rulemaking comports with the standard-setting criteria set forth under 42 U.S.C. 6313(a)(6)(B). Accordingly, the consensus-recommended efficiency levels, included as the “recommended trial standard level (TSL)” for CUACs/CUHPs and as TSL 2 for CWAFs were adopted as the amended standard levels in the direct final rule. 81 FR at 2422.
In sum, as the relevant statutory criteria were satisfied, the Secretary adopted the consensus-recommended amended energy conservation standards for CUACs, CUHPs, and CWAFs set forth in the direct final rule. The standards for CUACs and CUHPs are set forth in Table 1, with the CUAC and CUHP cooling efficiency standards presented in terms of an integrated energy efficiency ratio (“IEER”) and the CUHP heating efficiency standards presented as a coefficient of performance (“COP”). The IEER metric will replace the currently used energy efficiency ratio (“EER”) metric on which DOE's standards are currently based. The two-phase standards and compliance dates apply to all equipment listed in Table 1 manufactured in, or imported into, the United States starting on the dates shown in that table. For CWAFs, the amended standards, which prescribe the minimum allowable thermal efficiency (“TE”), are shown in Table 2. These standards apply to all equipment listed in Table 2 manufactured in, or imported into, the United States starting on January 1, 2023. These compliance dates were set forth in the direct final rule published in the
As required by EPCA, DOE also simultaneously published an SNOPR proposing the identical standard levels contained in the direct final rule. DOE considered whether any adverse comment received during the 110-day comment period following the direct final rule provided a reasonable basis for withdrawal of the direct final rule and continuation of this rulemaking under the SNOPR. As noted in the direct final rule, it is the substance, rather than the quantity, of comments that will ultimately determine whether a direct final rule will be withdrawn. To this end, DOE weighs the substance of any adverse comment(s) received against the anticipated benefits of the Consensus Agreement and the likelihood that further consideration of the comment(s) would change the results of the rulemaking. DOE notes that to the extent an adverse comment had been previously raised and addressed in the rulemaking proceeding, such a submission will not typically provide a basis for withdrawal of a direct final rule.
The California Investor Owned Utilities (“IOUs”),
The Joint Efficiency Advocates also noted that the Term Sheet recommended that DOE initiate a test procedure rulemaking for CUACs and CUHPs by January 1, 2016 and issue a final rule by January 1, 2019, with the primary focus of the rulemaking being to better represent fan energy use. The Joint Efficiency Advocates requested that DOE give some public indication of its commencement of work on the test procedure. (Joint Efficiency Advocates, No. 119 at pp. 1-2) The California IOUs also commented that while the January 1, 2016 initiation date has passed, DOE should initiate this test procedure rulemaking as soon as possible to address fan energy use and the lack of high ambient test conditions above 95 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) to account for conditions regularly experienced in the desert Southwest. (California IOUs, No. 116 at p. 2)
DOE appreciates these comments regarding the CUAC/CUHP test procedure and is considering these potential changes to the test procedure in a future rulemaking. DOE notes that any amendments adopted in this future test procedure rulemaking would not be required for use to determine compliance with the energy conservation standards promulgated by this direct final rule.
The California IOUs commented that as DOE conducts future standards and test procedure rulemakings for these equipment, it should explore different options for standards that will improve efficiency and also contribute to peak load reduction for CUACs and CUHPs. The California IOUs stated that DOE could consider the following actions in future rulemakings: Revisiting the possibility of a dual metric for EER and IEER; an IEER test point at an ambient temperature above 95 °F; and using energy modeling software to predict equipment performance at peak conditions. (California IOUs, No. 116 at p. 3)
The Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute (“AHRI”) submitted a letter committing to
DOE appreciates these comments regarding CUAC and CUHP full-load efficiency. DOE notes that AHRI's commitment to continuing to require verification and reporting of EER was discussed and agreed upon by interested parties during the ASRAC Working Group meetings. However, DOE noted that it could not be included as part of the Term Sheet because it was not a recommendation for a specific DOE action. (ASRAC Public Meeting, No. 102 at pp. 79-83, 113-116) DOE recognizes that AHRI's commitment to continuing to require verification and reporting of EER for its certification program would allow utilities, and others, to consider full-load efficiency in their energy efficiency programs. DOE will review its statutory authority at the time it conducts a future standards rulemaking for CUACs and CUHPs to explore options to separately consider full-load efficiency.
DOE also received two comments that discussed the market failures addressed by the direct final rule and made suggestions for actions that would complement the standards. Arthur Laciak commented that by establishing more stringent energy efficiency standards, DOE addressed the principal-agent problem (
EPCA directs DOE to consider any lessening of competition that is likely to result from new or amended standards. It also directs the Attorney General of the United States (“Attorney General”) to determine the impact, if any, of any lessening of competition likely to result from a proposed standard and to transmit such determination to the Secretary within 60 days of the publication of a proposed rule, together with an analysis of the nature and extent of the impact. See 42 U.S.C. 6295(o)(2)(B)(i)(V) and (B)(ii). See also 42 U.S.C. 6316(b)(1) (applying 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) to CUACs, CUHPs, and CWAFs). DOE published an SNOPR containing energy conservation standards identical to those set forth the direct final rule and transmitted a copy of the direct final rule and the accompanying technical support document (“TSD”) to the Attorney General, requesting that the U.S. Department of Justice provide its determination on this issue. DOE has published DOJ's comments at the end of this notice.
DOJ reviewed the amended standards in the direct final rule and the final TSD provided by DOE. As a result of its analysis, DOJ concluded that the amended standards issued in the direct final rule are unlikely to have a significant adverse impact on competition.
Pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (“NEPA”), DOE has determined that the rule fits within the category of actions included in Categorical Exclusion (“CX”) B5.1 and otherwise meets the requirements for application of a CX. See 10 CFR part 1021, App. B, B5.1(b); 1021.410(b) and App. B, B(1)-(5). The rule fits within the category of actions because it is a rulemaking that establishes energy conservation standards for consumer products or industrial equipment, and for which none of the exceptions identified in CX B5.1(b) apply. Therefore, DOE has made a CX determination for this rulemaking, and DOE does not need to prepare an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement for this rule. DOE's CX determination for this rule is available at
In summary, based on the discussion above, DOE has determined that the comments received in response to the direct final rule for amended energy conservation standards for CUACs, CUHPs, and CWAFs do not provide a reasonable basis for withdrawal of the direct final rule. As a result, the amended energy conservation standards set forth in the direct final rule became effective on May 16, 2016. Compliance with these amended standards is required for small, large, and very large CUACs and CUHPs starting on January 1, 2018, for the first set of standards and January 1, 2023, for the second set of standards. Compliance with the amended standards established for CWAFs is required starting on January 1, 2023.
[The following letter from the Department of Justice will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.]
I am responding to your January 15, 2016, letter seeking the views of the Attorney General about the potential impact on competition of proposed energy conservation standards for certain types of commercial warm air furnace equipment, commercial air-conditioning equipment and commercial heat pump equipment. Your request was submitted under Section 325(o)(2)(B)(i)(V) of
In conducting its analysis, the Antitrust Division examines whether a proposed standard may lessen competition, for example, by substantially limiting consumer choice or increasing industry concentration. A lessening of competition could result in higher prices to manufacturers and consumers.
We have reviewed the proposed standards contained in the Supplemental Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (81 FR 2111 & 2420, January 15, 2016) and the related Technical Support Documents.
Based on this review, our conclusion is that the proposed energy conservation standards for commercial warm air furnace equipment, commercial air-conditioning equipment, and commercial heat pump equipment are unlikely to have a significant adverse impact on competition.
Farm Credit Administration.
Final rule.
This regulation implements inflation adjustments to civil money penalties (CMPs) that the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) may impose or enforce pursuant to the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (Farm Credit Act), and pursuant to the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended by the National Flood Insurance Reform Act of 1994 (Reform Act), and further amended by the Biggert-Waters Flood Insurance Reform Act of 2012 (Biggert-Waters Act). The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (1996 Act) and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 2015 (2015 Act) (collectively, 1990 Act, as amended), requires all Federal agencies with the authority to enforce CMPs to evaluate those CMPs each year to ensure that they continue to maintain their deterrent value and promote compliance with the law.
This regulation is effective on August 1, 2016.
The objective of this regulation is to adjust the maximum CMPs for inflation with an initial “catch-up” adjustment through an interim final rulemaking (IFR) to retain the deterrent effect of such penalties.
Section 3(2) of the 1990 Act, as amended, defines a civil monetary penalty
The FCA imposes and enforces CMPs through the Farm Credit Act and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended. FCA's regulations governing CMPs are found in 12 CFR parts 622 and 623. Part 622 establishes rules of practice and procedure applicable to formal and informal hearings held before the FCA, and to formal investigations conducted under the Farm Credit Act. Part 623 prescribes rules with regard to persons who may practice before the FCA and the circumstances under which such persons may be suspended or debarred from practice before the FCA.
The Farm Credit Act provides that any Farm Credit System (System) institution or any officer, director, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of a System institution who violates the terms of a cease-and-desist order that has become final pursuant to section 5.25 or 5.26 of the Farm Credit Act must pay up to a maximum daily amount of $1,000
Section 5.32(a) of the Farm Credit Act also states that “[a]ny such institution or person who violates any provision of the [Farm Credit] Act or any regulation issued under this Act shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of not more than $500
The FCA also enforces the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973,
The 2015 Act requires all Federal agencies with authority to issue CMPs to make inflation-based adjustments to all CMPs within their jurisdictions no later than July 1, 2016. The 2015 Act also requires every Federal agency to adjust the CMPs yearly, starting January 15, 2017.
Under Section 4(b) of the 1990 Act, as amended, for the first adjustment made in accordance with the 2015 Act amendments, Federal agencies are to make a “catch up” adjustment to the civil monetary penalties through an IFR, with the adjustment taking effect no later than August 1, 2016.
Section 5(b) of the 1990 Act, as amended, defines the term “cost-of-living adjustment” as the percentage (if any) for each civil monetary penalty by which (1) the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the month of October of the calendar year preceding the adjustment, exceeds (2) the CPI for the month of October 1 year before the month of October referred to in (1) of the calendar year in which the amount of such civil monetary penalty was last set or adjusted pursuant to law.
The “catch-up” adjustment under the 2015 Act amendments requires Federal agencies to use the cost-of-living adjustment calculated by determining the percentage change (if any) for each civil monetary penalty by which the CPI for the month of October 2015 exceeds the CPI for the month of October during the calendar year in which the CMP was created or last adjusted for any reason other than pursuant to the 1996 Act. Several adjustments have been made since the Farm Credit Act established the CMP maximums. Those maximums are to be disregarded for purposes of the 2015 Act amendment initial “catch-up” adjustment calculation. However, agencies are limited to a 150-percent increase in CMPs, based upon the CMP in effect on November 2, 2015. The 150-percent limitation is on the amount of the increase; therefore, the adjusted penalty level(s) will be up to 250 percent of the level(s) in effect on November 2, 2015.
The increase for each CMP adjusted for inflation must be rounded using a method prescribed by section 5(a) of the 1990 Act, as amended, by the 2015 Act.
If a civil monetary penalty is subject to a cost-of-living adjustment under the 1990 Act, as amended, but is adjusted to an amount greater than the amount of the adjustment required under the Act within the 12 months preceding a required cost-of-living adjustment, the agency is not required to make the cost-of-living adjustment to that CMP in that calendar year.
The adjustment requirement affects two provisions of section 5.32(a) of the Farm Credit Act. For the “catch-up” adjustments to the CMPs set forth by the Farm Credit Act, the calculation required by the 2015 Act is based on the percentage by which the CPI for October 2015 exceeds the CPIs for October 1985 and October 1988, respectively. The maximum CMPs for violations under section 5.32(a) were established in 1985 and 1988. The White House Office of Management and Budget (OMB) set forth guidance, as required by the 2015 Act,
The adjustment also affects the CMPs set by the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended. For the “catch-up” adjustments to the CMP set forth by the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended, the calculation required by the 2015 Act is based on the percentage by which the CPI for October 2012 exceeds the CPI for October 2015. The maximum CMPs for violations were created in 2012 by the Biggert-Waters Act, which amended the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973. The multiplier for the 2012 CMPs is 1.02819.
If any of the CMP increases exceed 150 percent of the maximums in effect as of November 2, 2015, the new maximum CMPs will reflect a simple 150-percent increase over the November 2, 2015, CMP maximums.
While the inflation-adjusted CMP currently in effect for violations of a final order occurring on or after November 2, 2015, is a maximum daily amount of $1,100,
While the inflation-adjusted CMP currently in effect for violations of the Farm Credit Act or regulations issued under the Farm Credit Act occurring on or after November 2, 2015, is a maximum daily amount of $750,
The existing maximum CMP for a pattern or practice of flood insurance violations pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(5) is $2,000. Multiplying $2,000 by the 2012 OMB multiplier, 1.02819, yields a total of $2,056.38. When that number is rounded as required by section 5(a) of the 1990 Act, as amended, the new maximum assessment of the CMP for violating 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(5) is $2,056. The CMP in effect on November 2, 2015 was $2,000. Increasing the 2015 CMP of $2,000 by 150 percent yields $5,000. Since the new CMP maximum calculated with the OMB multiplier is lower than the 150-percent maximum increase established by the 2015 Act amendments, the new CMP maximum is $2,056.
The 1990 Act, as amended, gives Federal agencies no discretion in the adjustment of CMPs for the rate of inflation. Further, these revisions are ministerial, technical, and noncontroversial. For these reasons, the FCA finds good cause to determine that public notice and an opportunity to comment are impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), and adopts this rule in final form.
Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Administrative practice and procedure, Crime, Investigations, Penalties.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, part 622 of chapter VI, title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended to read as follows:
Secs. 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 5.25-5.37 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2244, 2252, 2261-2273); 28 U.S.C. 2461
(a) The maximum amount of each civil money penalty within FCA's jurisdiction is adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461
(1) Amount of civil money penalty imposed under section 5.32 of the Act for violation of a final order issued under section 5.25 or 5.26 of the Act: The maximum daily amount is $2,188 for violations that occur on or after August 1, 2016.
(2) Amount of civil money penalty for violation of the Act or regulations: The maximum daily amount is $989 for each violation that occurs on or after August 1, 2016.
(b) The maximum civil money penalty amount assessed under 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f) is: $385 for each violation that occurs on or after January 16, 2009, but before July 1, 2013, with total penalties under such statute not to exceed $120,000 for any single institution during any calendar year; $2,000 for each violation that occurs on or after July 1, 2013, but before August 1, 2016, with no cap on the total amount of penalties that can be assessed against any single institution during any calendar year; and $2,056 for each violation that occurs on or after August 1, 2016, with no cap on the total amount of penalties that can be assessed against any single institution during any calendar year.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Statement of General Policy, SBA Size Policy Statement No. 3.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) hereby gives notice of its intended application and interpretation of the interaffiliate transactions exclusion from annual receipts set forth in its Small Business Size Regulations. Effective at the issuance of this notice, SBA will apply the exclusion to properly documented transactions between a concern and its domestic or foreign affiliates, regardless of the type of relationship that resulted in the finding of affiliation.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. SBA-2016-0004 by any of the following methods:
•
•
SBA will post all comments on
Brenda Fernandez, U.S. Small Business Administration, Office of Government Contracting, 409 3rd Street SW., 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20416; (202) 205-7337;
Under 13 CFR 121.104(d), the average annual receipts size of a business concern with affiliates is calculated by adding the average annual receipts of the business concern with the average annual receipts of each affiliate. However, in adding the receipts of a concern with its affiliate, SBA excludes “proceeds from transactions between a concern and its domestic or foreign
Recent SBA size determinations and decisions of the Office of Hearings and Appeals have limited the exclusion by applying it only to transactions between affiliates that are eligible to file a consolidated tax return. This interpretation has been supported by reference to a parenthetical that was included with section 121.104(a) from 1996 to 2004, providing that the exclusion would apply to interaffiliate amounts “(if also excluded from gross or total income on a consolidated return filed with the IRS). . . .” 13 CFR 121.104(a)(1) (1996); 61 FR 3280 (Jan. 31, 1996). While this parenthetical was in place, SBA excluded only those interaffiliate transactions that were also excluded from consolidated tax returns filed by a concern and its affiliate. This policy necessarily required that the transaction occur between two firms that filed consolidated returns.
SBA deleted the parenthetical in 2004. In the preamble to the final rule issued May 21, 2004, SBA stated that it was deleting the parenthetical because “[w]hether a consolidated return is filed should have no bearing on whether properly documented interaffiliate transactions are excluded from annual receipts.” 69 FR 29192, 29196 (May 21, 2004). Thus, since May 2004, the regulation has provided for an exclusion from receipts for “proceeds from transactions between a concern and its domestic or foreign affiliates.” 13 CFR 121.104(a). The regulation does not include a limitation on the types of affiliates for which interaffiliate transactions can be excluded, and in no way ties the exclusion to a concern's ability to file a consolidated tax return with the identified affiliate.
SBA believes that the current regulatory language is clear on its face. It specifically excludes all proceeds from transactions between a concern and its affiliates, without limitation. Moreover, the regulatory history supports the position that the exclusion for interaffiliate transactions is available regardless of the manner of affiliation between a concern and its affiliate. SBA recognized that excluding interaffiliate transactions only when they are identified on a consolidated tax return often perpetuated the double-counting of receipts. By saying that “[w]hether a consolidated return is filed should have no bearing on whether properly documented interaffiliate transactions are excluded from annual receipts,” SBA did not mean to imply that a concern and its affiliate must be able to file a consolidated tax return in order to receive the exclusion from double-counting interaffiliate transactions. Conversely, SBA was attempting to make clear that it did not support the practice of double-counting receipts between affiliates generally.
Because the regulatory text does not contain a restriction, a regulatory change is not necessary. SBA will consider comments submitted regarding this policy.
SBA will not restrict the exclusion for interaffiliate transactions to transactions between a concern and a firm with which it could file a consolidated tax return. The exclusion for interaffiliate transactions may be applied to interaffiliate transactions between a concern and a firm with which it is affiliated under the principles in 13 CFR 121.103. Where SBA is conducting a size determination, SBA requires that exclusions claimed under section 121.104(a) be specifically identified by the concern whose size is at issue and be properly documented. This policy is effective immediately.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notification of availability.
This action announces the placement in the docket of the final documented categorical exclusion (the signed CATEX declaration and final Attachment A:
May 24, 2016.
For technical questions concerning this action, contact Susan Pfingstler, System Operations Services, Air Traffic Organization, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (202) 267-6462; email
On April 6, 2016, the FAA published the “Change of Newark Liberty International Airport (EWR) Designation” document in order to redesignate Newark Liberty International Airport as a Level 2 schedule-facilitated airport under the International Air Transport Association Worldwide Slot Guidelines effective for the winter 2016 scheduling season, which begins on October 30, 2016.
On April 5, 2016, the FAA posted a copy of a draft of Env Rev Attach A in the docket associated with the April 6, 2016 document. The FAA has corrected this action by posting the final CATEX documents (the signed CATEX declaration and final Attachment A
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Extension to Order.
This action extends the Order Limiting Operations at John F. Kennedy International Airport (JFK) published on January 18, 2008, and most recently extended March 26, 2014. The Order remains effective until October 27, 2018.
This action is effective on May 24, 2016.
Requests may be submitted by mail to Slot Administration Office,
For questions concerning this Order contact: Susan Pfingstler, System Operations Services, Air Traffic Organization, Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (202) 267-6462; email
You may obtain an electronic copy using the Internet by:
(1) Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
(2) Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at
(3) Accessing the Government Printing Office's Web page at
You also may obtain a copy by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9680. Make sure to identify the amendment number or docket number of this rulemaking.
From 1968, the FAA limited the number of arrivals and departures at JFK during the peak afternoon demand period (corresponding to transatlantic arrival and departure banks) through the implementation of the High Density Rule (HDR).
Under the Order, as amended, the FAA (1) maintains the current hourly limits on 81 scheduled operations at JFK during the peak period; (2) imposes an 80 percent minimum usage requirement for Operating Authorizations (OAs) with defined exceptions; (3) provides a mechanism for withdrawal of OAs for FAA operational reasons; (4) establishes procedures to allocate withdrawn, surrendered, or unallocated OAs; and (5) allows for trades and leases of OAs for consideration for the duration of the Order.
The reasons for issuing the Order have not changed appreciably since it was implemented. Demand for access to JFK remains high and the average weekday hourly flights in the busiest morning, afternoon, and evening hours are generally consistent with the limits under this Order. The FAA has reviewed the on-time and other performance metrics in the peak May to August 2014 and 2015 months and found continuing improvements relative to the same period in 2007, even with runway construction at JFK in 2015.
On January 8, 2015, the DOT and FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking “Slot Management and Transparency at LaGuardia Airport, John F. Kennedy International Airport, and Newark Liberty International Airport.”
The FAA finds that notice and comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest. The FAA further finds that good cause exists to make this Order effective in less than 30 days.
The Order, as amended, is recited below in its entirety.
1. This Order assigns operating authority to conduct an arrival or a departure at JFK during the affected hours to the U.S. air carrier or foreign air carrier identified in the appendix to this Order. The FAA will not assign
a. All U.S. air carriers and foreign air carriers conducting scheduled operations at JFK as of the date of this Order, any U.S. air carrier or foreign air carrier that operates under the same designator code as such a carrier, and any air carrier or foreign-flag carrier that has or enters into a codeshare agreement with such a carrier.
b. All U.S. air carriers or foreign air carriers initiating scheduled or regularly conducted commercial service to JFK while this Order is in effect.
c. The Chief Counsel of the FAA, in consultation with the Vice President, System Operations Services, is the final decisionmaker for determinations under this Order.
2. This Order governs scheduled arrivals and departures at JFK from 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m., Eastern Time, Sunday through Saturday.
3. This Order takes effect on March 30, 2008, and will expire when the final Rule on Slot Management and Transparency for LaGuardia Airport, John F. Kennedy International Airport, and Newark Liberty International Airport becomes effective but not later than October 29, 2016.
4. Under the authority provided to the Secretary of Transportation and the FAA Administrator by 49 U.S.C. 40101, 40103 and 40113, we hereby order that:
a. No U.S. air carrier or foreign air carrier initiating or conducting scheduled or regularly conducted commercial service at JFK may conduct such operations without an Operating Authorization assigned by the FAA.
b. Except as provided in the appendix to this Order, scheduled U.S. air carrier and foreign air carrier arrivals and departures will not exceed 81 per hour from 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m., Eastern Time.
c. The Administrator may change the limits if he determines that capacity exists to accommodate additional operations without a significant increase in delays.
5. For administrative tracking purposes only, the FAA will assign an identification number to each Operating Authorization.
6. A carrier holding an Operating Authorization may request the Administrator's approval to move any arrival or departure scheduled from 6 a.m. through 10:59 p.m. to another half hour within that period. Except as provided in paragraph seven, the carrier must receive the written approval of the Administrator, or his delegate, prior to conducting any scheduled arrival or departure that is not listed in the appendix to this Order. All requests to move an allocated Operating Authorization must be submitted to the FAA Slot Administration Office, facsimile (202) 267-7277 or email
7. For the duration of this Order, a carrier may enter into a lease or trade of an Operating Authorization to another carrier for any consideration. Notice of a trade or lease under this paragraph must be submitted in writing to the FAA Slot Administration Office, facsimile (202) 267-7277 or email
8. A carrier may not buy, sell, trade, or transfer an Operating Authorization, except as described in paragraph seven.
9. Historical rights to Operating Authorizations and withdrawal of those rights due to insufficient usage will be determined on a seasonal basis and in accordance with the schedule approved by the FAA prior to the commencement of the applicable season.
a. For each day of the week that the FAA has approved an operating schedule, any Operating Authorization not used at least 80% of the time over the time-frame authorized by the FAA under this paragraph will be withdrawn by the FAA for the next applicable season except:
i. The FAA will treat as used any Operating Authorization held by a carrier on Thanksgiving Day, the Friday following Thanksgiving Day, and the period from December 24 through the first Saturday in January.
ii. The Administrator of the FAA may waive the 80% usage requirement in the event of a highly unusual and unpredictable condition which is beyond the control of the carrier and which affects carrier operations for a period of five consecutive days or more.
b. Each carrier holding an Operating Authorization must forward in writing to the FAA Slot Administration Office a list of all Operating Authorizations held by the carrier along with a listing of the Operating Authorizations and:
i. The dates within each applicable season it intends to commence and complete operations.
A. For each winter scheduling season, the report must be received by the FAA no later than August 15 during the preceding summer.
B. For each summer scheduling season, the report must be received by the FAA no later than January 15 during the preceding winter.
ii. The completed operations for each day of the applicable scheduling season:
A. No later than September 1 for the summer scheduling season.
B. No later than January 15 for the winter scheduling season.
iii. The completed operations for each day of the scheduling season within 30 days after the last day of the applicable scheduling season.
10. In the event that a carrier surrenders to the FAA any Operating Authorization assigned to it under this Order or if there are unallocated Operating Authorizations, the FAA will determine whether the Operating Authorizations should be reallocated. The FAA may temporarily allocate an Operating Authorization at its discretion. Such temporary allocations will not be entitled to historical status for the next applicable scheduling season under paragraph 9.
11. If the FAA determines that an involuntary reduction in the number of allocated Operating Authorizations is required to meet operational needs, such as reduced airport capacity, the FAA will conduct a weighted lottery to withdraw Operating Authorizations to meet a reduced hourly or half-hourly limit for scheduled operations. The FAA will provide at least 45 days' notice unless otherwise required by operational needs. Any Operating Authorization that is withdrawn or temporarily suspended will, if reallocated, be reallocated to the carrier from which it was taken, provided that the carrier continues to operate scheduled service at JFK.
12. The FAA will enforce this Order through an enforcement action seeking a civil penalty under 49 U.S.C. 46301(a). A carrier that is not a small business as defined in the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632, will be liable for a civil penalty of up to $25,000 for every day
13. The FAA may modify or withdraw any provision in this Order on its own or on application by any carrier for good cause shown.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective May 24, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 24, 2016.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part § 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
RESCINDED: On March 24, 2016 (81 FR 15630), the FAA published an Amendment in Docket No. 31067, Amdt No. 3687, to Part 97 of the Federal Aviation Regulations, under section 97.20 and 97.33. The following entries for Morris, IL effective May 26, 2016, are hereby rescinded in their entirety:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective May 24, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of May 24, 2016.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420) Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, Part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Final rule; correction.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) is making a technical correction to a burden estimate for Paperwork Reduction Act purposes and a corresponding estimate in the Economic Analysis of the business conduct standards for security-based swap dealers and major security-based swap participants.
Lourdes Gonzalez, Assistant Chief Counsel—Sales Practices, Office of Chief Counsel, Division of Trading and Markets, at (202) 551-5550, at the Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
In Business Conduct Standards for Security-Based Swap Dealers and Major Security-Based Swap Participants (FR Doc. 2016-10918), published in the
1. On page 30090, in the third column, under the heading “1.
2. Also on page 30090, in the third column, in the fourth sentence under the same heading, the phrase “complying with the rules, as adopted,” is replaced with the phrase “complying with Rules 15Fh-3(a)(1) and (2)”.
3. On page 30091, in the first column, under the same heading, a new paragraph begins after footnote 1531, beginning with the sentence “We do not anticipate any ongoing burdens with respect to this rule.”
4. Also on page 30091, in the first column, under the same heading, the following sentence is added to the end of the last paragraph under this heading: “We also anticipate that all 55 SBS Entities will incur, on average, an initial internal burden of 30 minutes to prepare the notice required pursuant to Rule 15Fh-3(a)(3) for counterparties defined in Rule 15Fh-2(d)(4), for an aggregate total of 27.5 hours.”
5. On page 30110, in the first column, in the first sentence of the sixth paragraph under the heading “C.
6. Footnote 1655 on page 30110, is corrected to: “Initial outside counsel cost: $500 * (20 non-CFTC registered SBS Entities) = $10,000. Initial adherence letter and notification burden: (In-house attorney at $380 per hour) × 47.5 hours = $18,050.”
7. On page 30120, in the first column, in the fourth paragraph under the heading “4.
Social Security Administration.
Final rule.
We are extending the expiration dates of the following body systems in the Listing of Impairments (listings) in our regulations: Endocrine Disorders and Immune System Disorders. We are making no other revisions to these body systems in this final rule. This extension ensures that we will continue to have the criteria we need to evaluate impairments in the affected body systems at step three of the sequential evaluation processes for
This final rule is effective on May 24, 2016.
Cheryl A. Williams, Director, Office of Medical Policy, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 965-1020. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
We use the listings in appendix 1 to subpart P of part 404 of 20 CFR at the third step of the sequential evaluation process to evaluate claims filed by adults and children for benefits based on disability under the title II and title XVI programs.
In this final rule, we are extending the dates on which the listings for the following two body systems will no longer be effective as set out in the following chart:
We continue to revise and update the listings on a regular basis, including those body systems not affected by this final rule.
We follow the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) rulemaking procedures specified in 5 U.S.C. 553 in promulgating regulations. Section 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 902(a)(5). Generally, the APA requires that an agency provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment before issuing a final regulation. The APA provides exceptions to the notice-and-comment requirements when an agency finds there is good cause for dispensing with such procedures because they are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.
We determined that good cause exists for dispensing with the notice and public comment procedures. 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B). This final rule only extends the date on which two body system listings will no longer be effective. It makes no substantive changes to our rules. Our current regulations
In addition, for the reasons cited above, we find good cause for dispensing with the 30-day delay in the effective date of this final rule. 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). We are not making any substantive changes to the listings in these body systems. Without an extension of the expiration dates for these listings, we will not have the criteria we need to assess medical impairments in these two body systems at step three of the sequential evaluation processes. We therefore find it is in the public interest to make this final rule effective on the publication date.
We consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and determined that this final rule does not meet the requirements for a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, OMB did not review it. We also determined that this final rule meets the plain language requirement of Executive Order 12866.
We certify that this final rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it affects only individuals. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended.
These rules do not create any new or affect any existing collections and, therefore, do not require Office of Management and Budget approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Blind, Disability benefits, Old-Age, Survivors and Disability Insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Social Security.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we are amending part 404 of chapter III of title 20 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below.
Secs. 202, 205(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 216(i), 221(a), (i), and (j), 222(c), 223, 225, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act
10. Endocrine Disorders (9.00 and 109.00): June 8, 2018.
15. Immune System Disorders (14.00 and 114.00): June 18, 2018.
Department of State.
Final rule.
This rule implements Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act (Section 508) for the Department of State. Section 508 requires that when Federal departments and agencies develop, procure, maintain, or use electronic and information technology, they shall ensure that the electronic and information technology is accessible to individuals with disabilities who are Federal employees, applicants for employment, or members of the public.
This rule is effective June 23, 2016.
Alice Kottmyer, Attorney-Adviser, 202-647-2318,
This rule adds a new part 147, which implements Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 794d) (“Section 508”), as it applies to programs and activities conducted by the Department of State (“the Department”).
Sections 147.1 and 147.2 provide that these rules are intended to implement Section 508, consistent with that statute and the regulations promulgated by the Access Board, at 36 CFR part 1194 (“Part 1194”). This rule applies to all development, procurement, maintenance, and use of electronic and information technology by the Department of State. Section 147.3 provides the definitions of “The Department,” “Section 508”, “Section 508 complaint”, and “the Secretary”, and adopts the definitions in 36 CFR 1194.4.
Section 147.4 provides that the Department will ensure that its employees, applicants for employment, and members of the public are provided with adequate notice of the Department's obligations under Section 508, part 1194, and these rules.
Sections 147.5 and 147.6 generally reiterate the requirements of Section 508 regarding the prohibition against discrimination, and the requirement for ensuring that EIT is accessible (in accordance with part 1194), unless an undue burden would be imposed on the Department—in which case an alternative means of access must be provided.
Section 147.7 provides procedures for filing a complaint under Section 508. The procedures included therein are substantially the same procedures the Department has established in implementing Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (22 CFR part 144). The relevant procedures are repeated in this rulemaking, for convenience. A Section 508 complaint must be filed with the Department's Office of Civil Rights, must be in writing, and submitted by fax, email, mail, or hand-delivery. The final, approved complaint form, designated DS-4282, is accessible and fillable and is available on the following page:
An individual with a disability alleging a violation of Section 508 must file a complaint not later than 180 days after the date the complainant knew, or should have known, of the alleged violation of Section 508. Once the Department receives the complaint, it must conduct an investigation and, within 180 days of receiving the complaint, shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing findings of fact and conclusions of law; a description of a remedy for each violation found; and a notice of the right to appeal within 90 days of the complainant's receipt of the notice from the Department. The Department will notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the appeal request.
Section 147.8 provides that a decision from the Department on the merits of a complaint, or no notification in writing from the Department within 180 days of filing the complaint, will constitute exhaustion of the complainant's administrative remedies for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 701,
The Department published a proposed rule on January 4, 2016. See 81 FR 44. The Department received one comment in response to the Paperwork Reduction Act notice, expressing support for the information collection, and received no comments on the proposed rule.
The Department of State published this rulemaking as a proposed rule, with 60-day provision for public comment. The final rule will be in effect 30 days after publication.
This rule is not a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804 for the purposes of Congressional review of agency rulemaking under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801-808).
This rule will not result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in any year; and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
The Department has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not pre-empt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
The Department of State certifies that this rulemaking will not have an impact on a substantial number of small entities. A regulatory flexibility analysis is not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601,
The Department of State has provided this final rule to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for its review. The Department has also reviewed the rule to ensure its consistency with the regulatory philosophy and principles set forth in Executive Order 12866, and finds that the benefits of the rule (in providing mechanisms for individuals to submit complaints of discrimination) outweigh any costs to the public, which are minimal. The Department of State has also considered this rulemaking in light of Executive Order 13563, and affirms that this proposed regulation is consistent with the guidance therein.
The Department of State has reviewed this rule in light of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
This rule will not have substantial direct effect on the states, on the relationships between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. Executive Order 12372, regarding intergovernmental consultation on federal programs and activities, does not apply to this regulation.
The information collection contained in this rule is pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35 and, although not yet in use, has been assigned an OMB Control Number. The Department submitted an information collection request to OMB for the review and approval of the Discrimination Complaint Form, DS-4282, under the PRA.
This information collection will provide a way for employees and members of the public to submit a complaint of discrimination under Section 508 and other federal statutes relating to discrimination, as described below.
The Department of State has submitted the information collection described below to OMB for approval. Direct request for additional information regarding the collection listed herein, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to the Office of the Legal Adviser (L/M), ATTN: Section 508 Final Rule, Suite 4325, U.S. Department of State, 2200 C Street NW., Washington DC 20520; email
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The form created by this information collection (DS-4282) will be used to present complaints of discrimination under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964; or Sections 504 or 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794 and 794d).
The form will be downloaded from
Civil rights, Communications equipment, Computer technology, Government employees, Individuals with disabilities, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Telecommunications.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 22 CFR part 147 is added to subchapter O to read as follows:
22 U.S.C. 2651a; 29 U.S.C. 794, 794d; 36 CFR part 1194.
The purpose of this part is to implement section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 794d), which requires that when Federal departments and agencies develop, procure, maintain, or use electronic and information technology, they shall ensure that the electronic and information technology is accessible to individuals with disabilities who are Federal employees, applicants for employment, or members of the public.
This part applies to all development, procurement, maintenance, and use of electronic and information technology (EIT), as defined in 36 CFR 1194.4.
This part incorporates the definitions in 36 CFR 1194.4. In addition, as used in this part:
(a) The Secretary shall ensure that employees, applicants for employment, and the members of the public are provided with adequate notice of the requirements of Section 508, the Electronic and Information Technology Accessibility Standards (36 CFR part 1194), and this part, as they relate to the programs or activities conducted by the Department.
(b) The Secretary shall ensure that the home page of the Department's public-facing Web site provides Department policy regarding accessibility of EIT in accordance with Section 508 and 36 CFR part 1194, as well as an email address for the public to ask questions or express concerns.
The Department must comply with EIT Accessibility Standards when it develops, procures, maintains, or uses EIT. The Department must ensure that individuals with disabilities who are Federal employees or members of the public have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to that provided to Federal employees or members of the public without disabilities, unless providing comparable access would impose an undue burden on the Department.
(a)
(1) Individuals with disabilities who are Department employees have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of the information and data by Department employees who are not individuals with disabilities; and
(2) Individuals with disabilities who are members of the public seeking information or services from the Department have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of the information and data by such members of the public who are not individuals with disabilities.
(b) In meeting its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section, the Department shall comply with the Electronic and Information Technology Accessibility Standards, 36 CFR part 1194.
(c)
(d)
(a) An individual with a disability who alleges that Department's EIT does not allow him or her to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to access and use by individuals without disabilities, or that the alternative means of access provided by the Department does not allow the individual to use the information and data, may file a complaint with the Department's Office of Civil Rights (S/OCR).
(b) Employees, applicants for employment, or members of the general public are encouraged to contact personnel in the Department office that uses or maintains a system that is believed not to be compliant with Section 508 or 36 CFR part 1194 to attempt to have their issues addressed. Nothing in this complaint process is intended to prevent Department personnel from addressing any alleged compliance issues when made aware of such requests directly or indirectly.
(c) A Section 508 complaint must be filed not later than 180 calendar days after the complainant knew, or should have known, of the alleged discrimination, unless the time for filing is extended by the Department. A Section 508 complaint must be submitted in writing by fax, email, mail, or hand delivery to the S/OCR office, using the Form DS-4282, Discrimination Complaint Form, which can be downloaded at:
(d) Once a Section 508 complaint has been received, S/OCR will conduct an investigation into the allegation(s) and render a decision as to whether a Section 508 violation has occurred. Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint under this part, the Secretary shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
Upon request of the complainant, the decision will be provided in an alternate format, such as an electronic format, braille, or large print.
(e) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the Department of the notice required by § 147.7(d). The Department may extend this time for good cause.
(f) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Department.
(g) The Secretary shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the appeal. If the Secretary determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, the Secretary shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.
(h) Individuals who submit a complaint must keep S/OCR updated at all times with current contact information, to include address, phone number, and working email address. If the Department needs additional information and is unable, after reasonable attempts for 30 days, to contact a complainant using his or her contact information, it may consider the complaint abandoned, and may close the complaint without action. A complainant may re-submit a complaint that was closed due to the inability of the Department to contact the complainant.
(i) A Department employee who receives a Section 508 complaint or a communication that raises an issue that might reasonably be considered a Section 508 complaint, should forward such communication to S/OCR.
Either a decision by the Secretary on the merits of a complaint, or no notification in writing from the Secretary within 180 days of filing the complaint, will a constitute a final agency action and exhaustion of the complainant's administrative remedies for purposes of 5 U.S.C. 701,
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Final rule.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is amending its regulations on representation of claimants and the Rules of Practice of the Board of Veterans' Appeals (Board) to update the Board's mailing address and titles of certain individuals and offices at the Board to whom mail is addressed. These amendments are necessary because of a mailing address change and to ensure that correct titles of certain individuals and offices at the Board are reflected in the regulations.
Donnie R. Hachey, Chief Counsel for Operations, Board of Veterans' Appeals (01C2), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 632-4603. (This is not a toll-free number.)
The Board is updating its mailing address because of new centralized mail procedures. This document amends 38 CFR parts 14 and 20 to update the Board's mailing address and titles of certain individuals and offices to whom mail is addressed. The purpose of these revisions is to ensure that the information contained in 38 CFR parts 14 and 20 is current and correct.
The new centralized mail procedures are consistent with paperless VA claims and appeals processing. The purpose of these procedures is to increase efficiency of mail processing. Centralized mail processing allows Board staff to electronically review mail related to appeals and upload that mail to a Veteran's electronic claims file in the Veterans Benefits Management System (VBMS).
Centralized mail processing allows for electronic processing of the Board's appeals-related mail. The Board also receives mail not intended to be associated with a Veteran's claims file for consideration in a specific case. For example, as indicated above, an individual seeking additional information regarding this rulemaking may contact the Board's Chief Counsel for Operations, via mail. The Board also distributes a Board of Veterans' Appeals Hearing Survey Card, VA Form 0745, which allows an appellant to provide anonymous feedback regarding his or her Board hearing. The Board Hearing Survey Card includes an attached Business Reply Mail envelope addressed to the Board. Additionally, the Board's incoming mail includes various periodicals.
The Board is presently only utilizing centralized mail procedures to process mail related to appeals, which should be mailed to the Board's new post office box. Other types of mail should continue to be mailed to the Board at 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420. VA is amending 38 CFR 20.100(c), to distinguish between these two different mailing addresses for these two different types of mail.
These changes to 38 CFR parts 14 and 20 are being published without regard to notice-and-comment procedures of 5 U.S.C. 553(b) because they involve only matters of agency organization, procedure, or practice, which are exempted from such procedures by virtue of 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). Further, because these changes do not involve substantive rules, they are not subject to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553(d) providing for a 30-day delay in the effective date of substantive rules.
Although this action contains provisions constituting collections of information at 38 CFR 20.608, 20.702, and 20.704, under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), no new or proposed revised collections of information are associated with this final rule. The information collection requirements for §§ 20.608, 20.702, and 20.704 are currently approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and have been assigned OMB control number 2900-0085.
The Secretary hereby certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612). This final rule will directly affect only individuals and will not directly affect small entities. Therefore, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this rulemaking is exempt from the final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of section 604.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) defines a “significant regulatory action” requiring review by OMB, unless OMB waives such review, as “any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: (1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive Order.”
The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action have been examined, and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. VA's impact analysis can be found as a supporting document at
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance program numbers and titles for this rule are 64.100, Automobiles and Adaptive Equipment for Certain Disabled Veterans and Members of the Armed Forces; 64.101, Burial Expenses Allowance for Veterans; 64.103, Life Insurance for Veterans; 64.104, Pension for Non-Service-Connected Disability for Veterans; 64.105, Pension to Veterans Surviving Spouses, and Children; 64.106, Specially Adapted Housing for Disabled Veterans; 64.109, Veterans Compensation for Service-Connected Disability; 64.110, Veterans Dependency and Indemnity Compensation for Service-Connected Death; 64.114, Veterans Housing-Guaranteed and Insured Loans; 64.115, Veterans Information and Assistance; 64.116,Vocational Rehabilitation for Disabled Veterans; 64.117, Survivors and Dependents Educational Assistance; 64.118, Veterans Housing-Direct Loans for Certain Disabled Veterans; 64.119, Veterans Housing-Manufactured Home Loans; 64.120, Post-Vietnam Era Veterans' Educational Assistance; 64.124, All-Volunteer Force Educational Assistance; 64.125, Vocational and Educational Counseling for Servicemembers and Veterans; 64.126, Native American Veteran Direct Loan Program; 64.127, Monthly Allowance for Children of Vietnam Veterans Born with Spina Bifida; and 64.128, Vocational Training and Rehabilitation for Vietnam Veterans' Children with Spina Bifida or Other Covered Birth Defects.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Robert D. Snyder, Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on March 31, 2016, for publication.
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Courts, Foreign relations, Government employees, Lawyers, Legal services, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds, Trusts and trustees, Veterans.
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Veterans.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, VA amends 38 CFR parts 14 and 20 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680; 38 U.S.C. 501(a), 512, 515, 5502, 5901-5905; 28 CFR part 14, appendix to part 14, unless otherwise noted.
(c) * * *
(3) * * * In the case of appeals before the Board in Washington, DC, the signed consent must be submitted to: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
38 U.S.C. 501(a) and as noted in specific sections.
(c)
(b) * * *
(2) * * * Thereafter, file the withdrawal at the following address: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(b) * * *
(2) * * * Such motions must be filed at the following address: Office of the Principal Deputy Vice Chairman (01C), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
The revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(1) * * * In the case of hearings to be conducted by the Board of Veterans' Appeals in Washington, DC, such requests for a new hearing date must be filed with: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(2) * * * In the case of hearings to be conducted by the Board of Veterans' Appeals in Washington, DC, the motion
(d) * * * In the case of hearings to be conducted by the Board of Veterans' Appeals in Washington, DC, the motion must be filed with: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
(e) * * * In the case of hearings to be conducted by the Board of Veterans' Appeals in Washington, DC, the notice of withdrawal must be sent to: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(d) * * * Such motions must be filed with: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
* * * With respect to hearings to be held before the Board at Washington, DC, arrangements for a prehearing conference must be made through: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
(c)
(a) * * *
(1) * * * They must be filed with: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.)
* * * In the case of hearings held before the Board of Veterans' Appeals in Washington, DC, arrangements must be made with the Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
* * * In the case of hearings held before the Board of Veterans' Appeals, whether in Washington, DC, or in the field, the motion must be filed with the Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
(c)
(c) * * *
(2) * * * The motion must be filed with: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(b) * * * Such motions must be filed at the following address: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(b) * * *
(2) * * * These requests must be directed to the Research Center (01C1), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(b) * * *
(1) * * * Such motions must be filed at the following address: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038. * * *
(c) * * * Such motions should be filed at the following address: Director, Office of Management, Planning and Analysis (014), Board of Veterans' Appeals, P.O. Box 27063, Washington, DC 20038.
(c) * * *
(2)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve the portions of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, submitted by the State of South Carolina, through the South Carolina Department of Health and Environmental Control (SC DHEC), on May 8, 2014, for inclusion into the South Carolina SIP. This final action pertains to the infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) for the 2010 1-hour sulfur dioxide (SO
This rule will be effective June 23, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2015-0151. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached via electronic mail at
On June 22, 2010 (75 FR 35520), EPA revised the primary SO
In a proposed rulemaking published on March 7, 2016 (81 FR 11717), EPA proposed to approve portions of South Carolina's 2010 1-hour SO
With the exception of interstate transport provisions pertaining to the contribution to nonattainment or interference with maintenance in other states and visibility protection requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) and (II) (prongs 1, 2, and 4), EPA is taking final action to approve South Carolina 's infrastructure submission submitted on May 8, 2014, for the 2010 1-hour SO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this action for the state of South Carolina does not have Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). The Catawba Indian Nation Reservation is located within the State of South Carolina. Pursuant to the Catawba Indian Claims Settlement Act, South Carolina statute 27-16-120, “all state and local environmental laws and regulations apply to the [Catawba Indian Nation] and Reservation and are fully enforceable by all relevant state and local agencies and authorities.” However, EPA has determined that this rule does not have substantial direct effects on an Indian Tribe because this action is not approving any specific rule, but rather approving that South Carolina's already approved SIP meets certain CAA requirements. EPA notes this action will not impose substantial direct costs on Tribal governments or preempt Tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 25, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Sulfur dioxide.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is finalizing approval of a revision to North Carolina's regional haze State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (formerly known as the North Carolina Department of Environment and Natural Resources (NC DENR)) on October 31, 2014, that relies on an alternative to Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) to satisfy BART requirements for electric generating units (EGUs) formerly subject to the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR). EPA is also finalizing its determination that final approval of this SIP revision corrects the deficiencies that led to EPA's limited disapproval of the State's regional haze SIP on June 7, 2012, and is converting EPA's June 27, 2012, limited approval to a full approval. This submittal addresses the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and EPA's rules that require states to prevent any future, and remedy any existing, manmade impairment of visibility in mandatory Class I areas caused by emissions of air pollutants from numerous sources located over a wide geographic area
This rule is effective June 23, 2016.
Michele Notarianni, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Ms. Notarianni can be reached via electronic mail at
Regional haze is visibility impairment that is produced by a multitude of sources and activities which are located across a broad geographic area and emit fine particles (
In 1999, EPA promulgated the regional haze rule (RHR), which requires states to develop and implement SIPs to ensure reasonable progress toward improving visibility in Class I areas by reducing emissions that cause or contribute to regional haze.
North Carolina submitted its regional haze SIP on December 17, 2007, the regional haze SIP submittal deadline. Fully consistent with EPA's regulations at the time, the SIP relied on CAIR to satisfy NO
In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published on April 5, 2016 (81 FR 19519), EPA proposed to approve North Carolina's October 31, 2014, BART Alternative regional haze SIP revision; to determine that final approval of the SIP revision would correct the deficiencies that led to EPA's limited disapproval of the State's regional haze SIP; and to convert EPA's limited approval of the State's regional haze SIP to a full approval, thereby eliminating the need for EPA to issue a FIP to remedy the deficiencies. The details of North Carolina's submission and the rationale for EPA's actions are explained in the NPRM. Comments on the proposed rulemaking were due on or before April 26, 2016.
EPA received one set of comments supporting the proposed actions and no adverse comments. The supporting comments were provided by Duke Energy. Table 1 in EPA's NPRM indicates that Units 5-9 at Duke Energy's Buck power plant were converted from coal to natural gas.
EPA is finalizing approval of North Carolina's October 31, 2014, regional haze SIP revision because EPA has determined that the BART Alternative contained therein meets the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(e)(2). EPA is also converting EPA's June 27, 2012, limited approval of North Carolina's regional haze SIP to a full approval because EPA finds that final approval of the State's October 31, 2014, regional haze SIP revision corrects the deficiencies that led to EPA's limited disapproval of the State's regional haze SIP.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Are not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735,
• do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• are not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• are not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• are not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• do not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of these actions must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by July 25, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of these actions for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. These actions may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), Office for Civil Rights (OCR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Guidance on Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005.
This guidance sets forth guidance for patient safety organizations (PSOs) and providers regarding questions that have arisen about the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, 42 U.S.C. 299b-21—b-26 (Patient Safety Act), and its implementing regulation, the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Final Rule, 42 CFR part 3 (Patient Safety Rule). In particular, this Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005—Guidance Regarding Patient Safety Work Product and Providers' External Obligations (Guidance) is intended to clarify what information that a provider creates or assembles can become patient safety work product (PSWP) in response to recurring questions. This Guidance also clarifies how providers can satisfy external obligations related to information collection activities consistent with the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule.
The Guidance is effective on May 24, 2016.
The Guidance can be accessed electronically at the following HHS Web site:
Susan Grinder, Center for Quality Improvement and Patient Safety, AHRQ, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06N100B, Rockville, MD 20857; Telephone (301) 427-1327; Email:
HHS issued the Patient Safety Rule to implement the Patient Safety Act. AHRQ administers the provisions of the Act and Rule relating to the listing and operation of PSOs. OCR, within HHS, is responsible for interpretation, administration and enforcement of the confidentiality protections and disclosure permissions of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule.
The Patient Safety Act is part of a larger framework envisioned by the Institute of Medicine and designed to balance two goals: 1) To improve patient safety and reduce medical errors by creating a “culture of safety” to share and learn from information related to patient safety events, and 2) to promote health care providers' accountability and transparency through mechanisms such as oversight by regulatory agencies and adjudication in the legal system. As discussed in “To Err Is Human,” in respect to reporting systems, “they can hold providers accountable for performance or, alternatively, they can provide information that leads to improved safety. Conceptually, these purposes are not incompatible, but in reality, they can prove difficult to satisfy simultaneously.”
The Patient Safety Act promotes the goal of improving patient safety and reducing medical errors by establishing a system in which health care providers can voluntarily collect and report information related to patient safety, health care quality, and health care outcomes to PSOs. The PSOs aggregate and analyze this information and give feedback to the providers to encourage learning and prevent future errors. The providers are motivated to report such information to PSOs because the Patient Safety Act provides broad privilege and confidentiality protections for information meeting the definition of PSWP, which alleviates concerns about such information being used against a provider, such as in litigation.
At the same time, providers are subject to legitimate external obligations regarding certain records about patient safety to ensure their accountability and transparency. For example, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) Hospital Condition of Participation (CoP) for Quality Assessment and Performance Improvement require hospitals to track adverse patient events.
The intent of the system established by the Patient Safety Act is to protect the additional information created through voluntary patient safety activities, not to protect records created through providers' mandatory information collection activities.
Both the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) and the Preamble to the Patient Safety Rule (Preamble) discuss the definition of PSWP and provide examples of what information would and would not meet the definition.
The definition of PSWP also describes information that is not PSWP. Specifically excluded from the definition of PSWP is, “a patient's medical record, billing and discharge information, or any other original patient or provider information.”
Within the category of information prepared for a purpose other than reporting to a PSO, information that is prepared for external obligations has generated many questions. External obligations include, but are not limited to, mandatory requirements placed upon providers by Federal and state health regulatory agencies.
As such, uncovering the purpose for which information is prepared can be a critical factor in determining whether the information is PSWP. Since some types of information can be PSWP or not depending upon why the information was assembled or developed, it is important for providers to be aware of whether information is prepared for reporting to a PSO.
As discussed above, the Patient Safety Act does not permit providers to use the privilege and confidentiality protections for PSWP to shield records required by external recordkeeping or reporting requirements. To this end, the Patient Safety Act specifically states that it shall not limit the reporting of non-PSWP “to a Federal, State, or local governmental agency for public health surveillance, investigation, or other public health purposes or health oversight purposes” or a provider's recordkeeping obligations under Federal, State, or local law.
HHS reiterates that any external reporting or recordkeeping obligations—whether they require a provider to report certain information, maintain specific records, or operate a separate system—cannot be met with PSWP. We also clarify that any information that is prepared to meet any Federal, state, or local health oversight agency requirements is not PSWP. As discussed above, the Patient Safety Act was intended to spur the development of
HHS believes that most providers that engage with a PSO are doing so to further learning about patient safety and health care quality, consistent with the intent of the Patient Safety Act. Nevertheless, we are concerned about two ways that some providers may be attempting to misuse the Patient Safety Act protections to avoid their external obligations—in particular, to circumvent Federal or state regulatory obligations. First, some providers with recordkeeping or record maintenance requirements appear to be maintaining the required records only in their PSES and then refusing to disclose the records, asserting that the records in their PSES fulfill the applicable regulatory requirements while at the same time maintaining that the records are privileged and confidential PSWP. Second, some providers appear to develop records to meet external obligations outside of the PSES, place a duplicate copy of the required record into the PSES, then destroy the original
As stated in the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, original patient and provider records, such as a patient's medical record, billing information, and discharge information, are not PSWP.
To further illustrate what information HHS would consider to be original provider records versus information that could be eligible to be PSWP, consider the following hypothetical examples in scenarios where a provider maintains specific forms regarding adverse events in order to satisfy a federal or state law obligation.
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This clarification should not create problems for providers who have appropriately created and retained the original records required to satisfy their external obligations outside of a PSES. Those original records would be available to meet any external reporting requirements or needs.
To be clear, the above discussion of copies relates to information that begins as non-PSWP (
It has come to HHS' attention that the discussion in the Preamble regarding whether providers need to maintain multiple systems may have caused some confusion. Some commenters on the NPRM expressed concern that providers would need to maintain two duplicate systems: One PSES for information that the provider assembles or develops for reporting to a PSO and a second system containing the same information if the provider is unsure at the time the information is prepared for reporting to the PSO whether that information may be required in the future to fulfill a state law obligation. In response to this concern, the Preamble discusses a way that the Patient Safety Rule allows for information that was PSWP to no longer be PSWP.
As indicated above, the drop out provision is intended as a safety valve for providers who are unsure at the time that information is being prepared for reporting to the PSO whether similar information would, at a later time, be needed for an external obligation. It provides some flexibility for providers as they work through their various external obligations, as information assembled or developed for reporting to the PSO can reside as PSWP within the provider's PSES until the provider makes a future determination as to whether that information must be used to meet an external obligation.
Nevertheless, we reemphasize that where records are mandated by a Federal or State law requirement or other external obligation, they are not PSWP. Thus, a provider should maintain at least two systems or spaces: A PSES for PSWP and a separate place where it maintains records for external obligations.
As described above, the protected system established under the Patient Safety Act works in concert with the external obligations of providers to ensure accountability and transparency while encouraging the improvement of patient safety and reduction of medical errors through a culture of safety. It is the provider's ultimate responsibility to understand what information is required to meet all of its external obligations. If a provider is uncertain what information is required of it to fulfill an external obligation, the provider should reach out to the external entity to clarify the requirement. HHS has heard anecdotal reports of providers, PSOs, and regulators working together to ensure that the regulators can obtain the information they need without requesting that providers impermissibly disclose PSWP. HHS encourages such communication. Regulatory agencies and other entities requesting information of providers or PSOs are reminded that, subject to the limited exceptions set forth in the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, PSWP is privileged and confidential, and it may not be used to satisfy external obligations. Therefore, such entities should not demand PSWP from providers or PSOs.
Some requirements are clear and discrete, which makes it relatively easy for providers to understand what information is mandated, determine what additional information they want to prepare for reporting to a PSO, and to separate the two categories of information. Examples of clear and discrete requirements would include requirements for a provider to fill out a particular form or to provide a document containing specified data points. However, HHS is aware that some requirements are more ambiguous or broad, thus creating uncertainty about the information required to satisfy them. Particularly where laws or regulations may be vague, it is imperative that the regulators work with providers so that the regulators obtain the information they need, and that providers sufficiently understand what is required of them so that they can satisfy their obligations and voluntarily report additional information to a PSO. Where a variety of information could potentially satisfy an external obligation, and where a provider reports similar information to the PSO, the provider may find it helpful to document which information collection activities it does to fulfill its external requirements and which other activities it does in the PSES, to help ensure confidentiality and privilege of the PSWP.
As discussed above, providers should work with regulatory bodies and any other entities with which they have obligations to understand in advance the exact information they will need to satisfy their external obligations. That way, providers can plan ahead to create and maintain any information needed to fulfill their obligations separately from their PSES. However, even if providers and regulators cooperate fully, HHS is aware that situations could arise where a provider has collected information for reporting to the PSO and where the
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• Can the provider obtain authorization from each identified provider to disclose the information, in accordance with 42 CFR 3.206(b)(3)?
• Is the information subject to the disclosure permission to the FDA at 42 CFR 3.206(b)(7)?
• Is the information being voluntarily disclosed to an accrediting body, pursuant to 42 CFR 3.206(b)(8)?
While these disclosure permissions are available in the limited circumstances described in the Patient Safety Rule, relying upon a disclosure permission should not be a provider's primary method to meet an external obligation. As stated in the Preamble, with respect to the FDA disclosure permission, “However, we emphasize that, despite this disclosure permission, we expect that most reporting to the FDA and its regulated entities will be done with information that is not patient safety work product, as is done today. This disclosure permission is intended to allow for reporting to the FDA or FDA-regulated entity in those special cases where, only after an analysis of patient safety work product, does a provider realize it should make a report.”
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Providers are reminded that they should exercise care to ensure that even if the information is not privileged and confidential under the Patient Safety Act or if a permissible disclosure of PSWP has been identified, the intended disclosure of the information is not impermissible under any other law (
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the following tables.
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4149.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are listing the common snapping turtle (
This listing is effective November 21, 2016.
You may obtain information about permits for international trade in these species and their subspecies by contacting the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Division of Management Authority, Branch of Permits, MS: IA, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803; telephone: 703-358-2104 or 800-358-2104; facsimile: 703-358-2281; email:
Craig Hoover, Chief, Division of Management Authority, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: IA; 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803; telephone 703-358-2095; facsimile 703-358-2298. If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD), call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
The Service's International Wildlife Trade Program convened a freshwater turtle workshop in St. Louis, Missouri, in September 2010, to discuss the pressing management, regulatory, scientific, and enforcement needs associated with the harvest and trade of freshwater turtles in the United States. In response to one of the recommendations put forth at the St. Louis workshop, in November 2011, the Service hosted a workshop in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, to develop best management practices for turtle farms operating in the United States. All 16 States with turtle farms attended the 2011 workshop. Information on these workshops can be found on our Web site at
On October 30, 2014, we published in the
The common snapping turtle (
The species is readily distinguished from the alligator snapping turtle (
The Florida softshell turtle (
The smooth softshell turtle (
The spiny softshell turtle (
The spiny softshell inhabits the largest range of the three softshell turtles of North America, occurring from New York, south to Florida, west through Texas to New Mexico, and over most of the midwestern United States, including the States bordering the Great Lakes, and extreme southern portions of Canada, and naturally in northern portions of Mexico. It has also been introduced widely in other parts of Mexico. Disjunct populations also are found from New Mexico to California and in Montana and Wyoming. Isolated populations are found in several States. The spiny softshell inhabits creeks and rivers, but also occurs in other types of water bodies, including artificial bodies, as long as the bottom is sandy or muddy to support its burrowing behavior. The species is almost entirely aquatic and largely carnivorous; its reported list of food items is extensive and includes insects, molluscs, and other invertebrates, fish, amphibians, and small snakes. It will also consume plant material (Ernst and Lovich 2009, pp. 632-633).
For further information on these species, including their subspecies, you may refer to our proposed rule published in the
CITES, an international treaty, regulates the import, export, re-export, and introduction from the sea of certain animal and plant species. Currently 181 countries and the European Union have ratified, accepted, approved, or acceded to CITES; these 182 entities are known as Parties.
The text of the Convention and the official list of all species included in its three Appendices are available from the CITES Secretariat's Web site at
Section 8A of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Species covered by the Convention are listed in one of three Appendices. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction that are or may be affected by international trade, and are generally prohibited from commercial trade. Appendix II includes species that, although not necessarily threatened with extinction now, may become so unless the trade is strictly controlled. It also lists species that must be regulated so that trade in other listed species may be brought under effective control (
To include a species in or remove a species from Appendices I or II, a Party must propose an amendment to the Appendices for consideration at a meeting of the CoP. The adoption of such a proposal requires approval of at least two-thirds of the Parties present and voting. However, a Party may add a native species to Appendix III independently at any time, without the vote of other Parties, under Articles II and XVI of the Convention. Likewise, if the status of an Appendix-III species improves or new information shows that it no longer needs to be listed, the listing country can remove the species from Appendix III without consulting the other CITES Parties.
Inclusion of native U.S. species in Appendix III provides the following benefits:
(1) An Appendix-III listing ensures the assistance of the other CITES Parties, through the implementation of CITES permitting requirements in controlling international trade in these species.
(2) Listing these species in Appendix III enhances the enforcement of State and Federal conservation measures enacted for the species by regulating international trade in the species. Shipments containing CITES-listed species receive greater scrutiny from border officials in both the exporting and importing countries. Many foreign countries have limited legal authority and resources to inspect shipments of non-CITES-listed wildlife. Appendix-III listings for U.S. species will give these importing countries the legal basis to inspect such shipments, and to deal with CITES and national violations when they detect them.
(3) Another practical outcome of listing a species in Appendix III is that better records are kept and international trade in the species is better monitored. We will gain and share improved information on such trade with State fish and wildlife agencies, and others who have jurisdiction over resident populations of the Appendix-III species. They will then be able to better determine the impact of trade on the species and the effectiveness of existing State management activities, regulations, and cooperative efforts. International trade data and other relevant information gathered as a result of an Appendix-III listing will help policymakers determine whether we should propose the species for inclusion in Appendix II, or remove it from or retain it in Appendix III.
(4) When any live CITES-listed species (including an Appendix-III species) is exported (or imported), it must be packed and shipped according to the International Air Transport Association (IATA) Live Animals Regulations or the
Article II, paragraph 3, of CITES states that “Appendix III shall include all species which any Party identifies as being subject to regulation within its jurisdiction for the purpose of preventing or restricting exploitation, and as needing the cooperation of other Parties in the control of trade.” Article XVI, paragraph 1, of the Convention states further that “any Party may at any time submit to the Secretariat a list of species which it identifies as being subject to regulation within its jurisdiction for the purpose mentioned in paragraph 3 of Article II. Appendix III shall include the names of the Parties submitting the species for inclusion therein, the scientific names of the species so submitted, and any parts or derivatives of the animals or plants concerned that are specified in relation to the species for the purposes of subparagraph (b) of Article I.”
At the ninth meeting of the Conference of the Parties to CITES (CoP9), held in the United States in 1994, the Parties adopted Resolution Conf. 9.25 (amended at the 10th, 14th, 15th, and 16th meetings of the CoP), which provides further guidance to Parties for the listing of their native species in Appendix III. The Resolution, which is the basis for our criteria for listing species in Appendix III provided in our regulations at 50 CFR 23.90(c), recommends that a Party:
(a) Ensure that (i) the species is native to its country; (ii) its national regulations are adequate to prevent or restrict exploitation and to control trade, for the conservation of the species, and include penalties for illegal taking, trade, or possession and provisions for confiscation; and (iii) its national enforcement measures are adequate to implement these regulations;
(b) Determine that, notwithstanding these regulations and measures, circumstances indicate that the cooperation of the Parties is needed to control illegal trade; and
(c) Inform the Management Authorities of other range States, the known major importing countries, the Secretariat, and the Animals Committee or the Plants Committee that it is considering the inclusion of the species in Appendix III and seek their opinion on the potential effects of such inclusion.
Therefore, we apply the following criteria in deciding to list U.S. species in Appendix III as outlined at 50 CFR 23.90(c):
(1) The species must be native to the United States.
(2) The species must be protected under State, tribal, or Federal regulations to prevent or restrict exploitation and control trade, and the laws or regulations are being implemented.
(3) The species is in international trade, and circumstances indicate that
(4) We must inform the Management Authorities of other range countries, the known major importing countries, the Secretariat, and the Animals Committee or the Plants Committee that we are considering the listing and seek their opinions on the potential effects of the listing.
We have complied with the criteria outlined at 50 CFR 23.90(c) as follows:
§ 23.90(c)(1): These four freshwater turtle species (including their subspecies, except
§ 23.90(c)(2): These four native U.S. freshwater turtle species are regulated by State laws and regulations throughout their ranges to prevent or restrict exploitation and control trade, and the laws and regulations are being implemented. For further information on the conservation status of these species, including their subspecies, you may refer to our proposed rule published in the
§ 23.90(c)(3): We have documented these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in international trade. In our proposed rule published in the
Although a significant proportion of the exported live specimens originated from turtle farms, the need for increased cooperation from other parties to control illegal trade is based upon the following:
• Despite varying export levels of the species from year to year, there is potential for significant increases in export demands in the future.
• Even with extensive turtle farming operations, the harvest pressure on wild turtle populations remain high (see
• Increased cooperation will help the U.S. better understand temporal trends and the source of exported turtles.
• The level of wild harvest utilized to maintain turtle farm production is unknown.
§ 23.90(c)(4): We have consulted with the CITES Secretariat and the Animals Committee regarding our proposal to list these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III. The Secretariat and the Animals Committee have informed us that our proposal to list these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III is consistent with Resolution Conf. 9.25 (Rev. CoP16), and they have not raised any objections to this proposed listing. Further, we have also informed the Management Authorities of other range countries. Mainland China and Hong Kong are the major importers of these species from the United States. Accordingly, we have sought out their views on the potential effects of including these species in CITES Appendix III. Mainland China referred our request to Hong Kong and Hong Kong replied that they have “no strong view” on our proposal to list these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III. Hong Kong suggested that we consider that visual identification guides and protocols for genetic testing on these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species be available (and preferably shared with the Parties) in advance of the listing.
For further information about the listing process, you may refer to our proposed rule published in the
The export of an Appendix-III species listed by the United States requires an export permit issued by the Service's
To apply for a CITES permit, an individual or business is required to submit a completed CITES export permit application to DMA (with check or money order to cover the application fee). You may obtain information about CITES permits from our Web site at
In addition, live animals must be shipped to reduce the risk of injury, damage to health, or cruel treatment. We carry out this CITES requirement by stating clearly on all CITES permits that shipments must comply with the IATA Live Animals Regulations or the
Under section 3372(a)(1) of the Lacey Act Amendments of 1981 (16 U.S.C. 3371-3378), it is unlawful to import, export, transport, sell, receive, acquire, or purchase any wildlife taken, possessed, transported, or sold in violation of any law, treaty, or regulation of the United States or in violation of any Indian tribal law. This prohibition applies, for example, in instances where these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species were unlawfully collected from Federal lands, such as those Federal lands within the range of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species that are managed by the U.S. Forest Service, the National Park Service, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, or another Federal agency.
It is unlawful under section 3372(a)(2)(A) of the Lacey Act to import, export, transport, sell, receive, acquire, or purchase in interstate or foreign commerce any wildlife taken, possessed, transported, or sold in violation of any law or regulation of any State or in violation of any foreign law.
These four native U.S. freshwater turtle species are protected to varying degrees by State and Tribal laws within the United States, with significant differences in levels and types of protection which we summarized in our proposed rule (79 FR 64553) and clarified in some instances with this final rule (see the Summary of Comments and Our Responses section, below). Because many State laws and regulations regulate the take of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species, certain acts (import, export, transport, sell, receive, acquire, purchase) with these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species taken unlawfully under State law could result in a violation of the Lacey Act Amendments of 1981 and thus provide for Federal enforcement action due to a violation of State law.
We requested comments on our October 30, 2014, proposed rule (79 FR 64553) for 60 days, ending December 29, 2014. We received a total of 26,343 comments during the comment period. Of these, 26,271 were form letters that voiced support for the proposed action, but did not provide significant supporting information for the proposed CITES Appendix-III listing of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species.
For the 72 comments we received that were not form letters, 10 of the comments were from State agencies, 9 were from nongovernmental organizations, and 53 were from private individuals. These comments are summarized and responded to below.
Regarding the State agency comments, five State agencies generally supported listing all four of these native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III, and one State agency generally supported listing the common snapping turtle, smooth softshell turtle, and spiny softshell turtle species in Appendix III, while having no opinion of including the Florida softshell turtle. One State agency generally supported listing the common snapping turtle and spiny softshell turtle species in Appendix III, while having no opinion of including the smooth softshell turtle and the Florida softshell turtle. One State agency generally supported listing the common snapping turtle in Appendix III, but was opposed to including all three softshell turtle species in Appendix III. One State agency was opposed to listing all four of these native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III, and one State agency did not explicitly express support or opposition for the proposal, but rather concern about how the listing would create additional permitting requirements, expenses, potential loss of revenue, and export processing time.
Regarding the comments from nongovernmental organizations and private individuals, 44 generally supported the proposal to list all four of these native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III, and 18 generally opposed the proposal to list these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III.
We have considered all substantive information specifically related to the proposed rule that was provided to us during the open comment period. Several of the comments included opinions or information not directly related to the proposed rule, such as views expressing interest in increasing habitat for these species. We have not
The only foreseeable impact this CITES listing would have would be on those Arkansas harvesters and dealers that wished to ship turtles directly overseas to foreign buyers. The vast majority of Arkansas turtle sales (including the species in question here) are made to buyers and brokers in California who then ship the turtles overseas, and the onus falls on the broker to obtain all required export permits and fulfill any reporting requirements. The proposed CITES Appendix-III listing of these three commercial aquatic turtle species would appear to have no adverse impacts or place any undue regulatory burden on the current commercial aquatic turtle harvester and dealer community in Arkansas. Therefore, the AGFC supports the proposed CITES Appendix-III listing of these species as it would allow better tracking of international exports of these commercially viable turtle species.
Currently, the department has 56 certified aquaculture facilities that are growing and marketing freshwater turtles, the majority of which include one or several of the species proposed for CITES Appendix-III listing. Turtles are marketed domestically and internationally to the pet trade and for food consumption. Florida aquaculture turtle producers reported sales in 2012 of approximately $1.2 million based upon a survey conducted for the FDACS by the Florida Agricultural Statistics Service. Aquaculture farms certified by FDACS are subject to on-farm inspections for compliance with chapter 597, Florida Aquaculture Policy Act, Florida Statutes and with chapter 5L-3, Aquaculture Best Management Practices, Florida Administrative Code.
Since 2009, Florida law has prohibited all commercial harvest and trade of native freshwater turtles and eggs from the wild. Existing farms were able to obtain brood stock under a special permit from Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission; however, the permit is no longer available. Farms must be self-sustaining or obtain stock from other licensed farms or from other States that allow legal commercial harvest and sale of these species. Documentation of stock sources must be maintained by Florida turtle aquaculturists. Wild populations are further protected by these regulations required of all certified Florida turtle farms. Addition of the proposed turtle species in CITES Appendix III will create additional permitting requirements for certified turtle farms exporting products. A Service Import/Export License and filing of the declaration form (FWS Form 3-177) are required for aquaculture turtle shipments along with associated inspection fees. If these species are added to CITES Appendix III, a CITES export permit and potentially a Designated Port Exception Permit will be required for aquaculture shipments. A majority of the Florida turtle farms export hatchlings or market size adults, so a quick turnaround on export applications is critical. Additional permitting requirements increase export time and expenses for farms and potentially result in a loss of revenue if permits cannot be obtained in a timely manner.
An IDNR committee charged with determining the status of wild turtle populations found that the commercial harvest of common snapping turtles, smooth softshell turtles, and spiny softshell turtles is threatening these species due to overharvest and that it is inevitable that these populations will be on a decline if more restrictive harvest regulations are not enacted. However, it should be mentioned that loss of habitat quality and quantity, predation, and water quality are other probable factors influencing turtle populations.
IDNR tentatively supports the Service's efforts to include the four native U.S. freshwater turtle species in Appendix III of CITES. However, there is concern for the IDNR's role in meeting CITES Appendix-III requirements. Undoubtedly more staff time will be needed to administer, coordinate, and enforce Federal CITES regulations. Iowa may also need to promulgate rules for regulatory purposes. Before full support can be given, the Service must clearly communicate with all States the processes involved in issuing CITES tags, and those processes must not be overly burdensome to the States.
• Additional expenses will be incurred by turtle farmers for more CITES permits and inspections. All shipments containing a CITES species must be inspected at the airport prior to shipment. The Service charges an inspection fee, as does the shipping agent responsible for correctly packing and handling the shipment.
• Legitimate farmers are being punished due to the actions of illegal traders that may be collecting turtles from the wild, while Louisiana turtles are captive-raised.
• The Service has no way to determine if exported turtles are wild-caught or captive-raised from export documents because they have no source code for captive-raised turtles. On the export form (FWS Form 3-177), all turtles are required to be listed as “LIV” and “W” for live, wild-caught, and this is not a true reflection of Louisiana exports, which are farm-raised.
• The Service cites export statistics when demand was high but due to the cyclical nature of the turtle market, demand for softshells has dramatically fallen in the last few years and demand for snappers is slowing down, especially in the Asian market.
Personal collection and commercial harvest of these species is permitted in Louisiana. In our proposed rule, we acknowledge that export levels vary from year to year. We also believe that the potential remains for significant exports in the future based on overseas demand. It is not the case, as a matter of law, that all CITES shipments must be inspected. The requirement to declare these species at the time of export and make them available for inspection already applies. Subsequent to this listing, we expect that we will be working with interested parties to explore the feasibility of a Master File system for these species as well as an
Of the three softshell turtle species proposed for listing in CITES Appendix III, the smooth softshell rarely enters into commerce, and exports have declined from about 10,000 in 2003, to about 75 per year in the past 3 years. The spiny softshell has shown no substantial increase: average of 36,000 per year (2003-2006) to an average of 62,000 per year (2010-2013). Hatchlings that were raised on Louisiana turtle farms accounted for 15 percent of spiny softshell exports in 2013. The IUCN considers the conservation status of the smooth and spiny softshells as “Least Concern.” Based on this status, the relatively low export numbers, a relatively inactive market, and the fact that many to most of the exported turtles are farm-raised hatchlings, we see no justification for the action, and therefore recommend against a CITES Appendix-III listing for the smooth and spiny softshells.
The Florida softshell has shown an increase in exports during the past 10 years, from an average of about 44,000 per year (2003-2006) to an average of about 428,000 per year (2010-2013). The proposed rule makes outdated claims relative to this species (
The smooth softshell turtle is restricted to the lower reaches of the St. Croix, Minnesota, and Mississippi Rivers in Minnesota. Due to its vulnerability to channelization, siltation, water pollution, and disturbance of nesting sites by humans and predators, the smooth softshell turtle was designated a Species of Special Concern under Minnesota's Endangered Species Act in 1984, and retains that designation to this date. Research into the habitat use of this species is ongoing within the MDNR. Harvest of the smooth softshell turtle is not permitted in Minnesota. Given the species vulnerable status within the State, MDNR supports the Service's proposal to list the smooth softshell turtle in CITES Appendix III.
The spiny softshell turtle is found throughout the central and southern portions of Minnesota, and commercial harvest is permitted. Because harvest pressure on this species has historically not been as great as the pressure placed upon the common snapping turtle, this species has not received the concern given to the common snapping turtle. The enclosed report provides evidence that the harvest of this species is small and continuing to decline. While improvements in commercial harvest regulations have benefitted this species, concerns that commercial turtle harvest at any scale from wild populations is not sustainable in Minnesota leads the MDNR to support the Service's proposal to include the spiny softshell turtle in Appendix III of CITES.
An additional change made to Minnesota's laws in 2004 created the regulatory framework for turtle farming in the State. While there has been relatively little activity in this area to date, there is evidence that turtle farming will become an increasingly popular activity in Minnesota in the future, and listing of these three turtles in CITES Appendix III would aid the MDNR in monitoring that activity and its relationship to harvest from the wild.
Current North Carolina wildlife regulations allow the common snapping turtle to be collected for personal consumption and trade, while the spiny softshell turtle may not be commercially collected. North Carolina regulations currently allow 10 snapping turtles to be collected per day, and 100 per year, by each collector. These limits were put in place due to high harvest numbers (thousands for some individual collectors) occurring for snapping turtles and other species prior to 2003. At the State level, we increased monitoring efforts and took regulatory action over a decade ago, and efforts should be increased at the Federal level to do the same. International trade in these species to meet the growing demand from other regions of the world could result in population declines within North Carolina and other States.
The apparent increase in exports of the common snapping turtle (as shown in the 2009-2011 data in the October 30, 2014, proposed rule at 79 FR 64557), coupled with declining turtle populations in Asia (see van Dijk, P.P., B.L. Stuart, and A.G.J. Rhodin, Editors. 2000. Asian Turtle Trade: Proceedings of a Workshop on Conservation and Trade of Freshwater Turtles and Tortoises in Asia, Chelonian Research Monographs, Number 2: pp. 1-164), could lead to increasing numbers of common snapping turtles and softshell turtles impacted in the United States. The findings of Congdon, Dunham, and Sels (1994. Demographics of Common Snapping Turtle, (
Export monitoring of common snapping turtles and the three softshell turtles that are the subjects of the proposed rule is warranted to determine if their trade increases over time. At present, declines are not apparent in populations of these turtle species, but as fewer turtles are available from other countries, North American turtle populations are at risk from unregulated export.
Based on the recommendations contained in Resolution Conf. 9.25 (Rev. CoP16) and the listing criteria provided in our regulations at 50 CFR 23.90, these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species, including all subspecies, qualify for listing in CITES Appendix III. Declines have been documented or locally severe declines may be possible in at least some portions of the range of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species, although the Florida softshell seems to be resistant to high levels of commercial harvest. Take of Florida softshells in Florida is regulated, and it is a species of special concern in South Carolina. Although snapping turtle populations are known to be vigorous throughout much of the species' range, long-term persistent take makes the species vulnerable to decline. Existing laws have not been completely successful in preventing the unauthorized collection and trade of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species. Listing these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species, including their subspecies, except the Cuatro Cienegas spiny softshell turtle (
Accordingly, we are listing the common snapping turtle (
Our regulations at 50 CFR 23.90 require us to publish a proposed rule and a final rule for a CITES Appendix-III listing even though, if a proposed rule is adopted, the final rule will not result in any changes to the Code of Federal Regulations. Instead, this final rule will result in DMA notifying the CITES Secretariat to amend Appendix III by including these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species (including their subspecies, except
Subsequent to today's publication in the
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that the regulatory system must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule establishes the means to monitor the international trade in species native to the United States and does not impose any new or changed restriction on the trade of legally acquired specimens. Based on current exports of these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species, we estimate that the costs to implement this rule will be less than $100,000 annually due to the costs associated with obtaining permits.
According to the Small Business Administration, small entities include small organizations, such as independent nonprofit organizations; small governmental jurisdictions, including school boards and city and town governments that serve fewer than 50,000 residents; and small businesses (13 CFR 121.201). Small businesses include aquaculture businesses with less than $750,000.00 in annual sales. This final rule:
(a) Will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.
(b) Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions.
(c) Will not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501), the Service has determined that this rulemaking will not impose a cost of $100 million or more in any given year on local or State governments or private entities. The implementation of this rule is by Federal agencies, and there is no cost imposed on any State or local entities or tribal governments. This rule will not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector because the Service, as the lead agency for CITES implementation in the United States, is responsible for the issuance of permits and the authorization of shipments of live wildlife, and wildlife parts and products, for CITES-listed species.
This final rule does not contain any new collections of information that require approval by Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Information that we will collect under this final rule on FWS Form 3-200-27 is covered by an existing OMB approval and has been assigned OMB control number 1018-0093, which expires on May 31, 2017. We may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This final rule has been analyzed under the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with Executive Order (E.O.) 12630 (“Government Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Private Property Rights”), we have determined that this final rule will not have significant takings implications. While export, which was previously unregulated, will now be regulated, export will still be allowed.
In accordance with E.O. 13132 (Federalism), this final rule will not have significant Federalism effects. A federalism summary impact statement is not required because this final rule will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Although this final rule will generate information that will be beneficial to State wildlife agencies, we do not anticipate that any State monitoring or control programs will need to be developed to fulfill the purpose of this final rule. We have consulted the States, through the Association of Fish and Wildlife Agencies, on this action. In addition, 10 of the comments we received to our proposed rule (October 30, 2014; 79 FR 64553) were from State agencies, and our final decision reflects consideration of the information and opinions we have received from those State agencies. This final rule will help us more effectively conserve these species and will help those affected by CITES to understand how to conduct lawful international trade in wildlife and wildlife products.
The Department, in promulgating this rule, has determined that it will not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988.
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, Government-to-Government Relations With Native American Tribal Governments (59 FR 22951), E.O. 13175, and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we have a responsibility to communicate meaningfully with Federally recognized Indian Tribes on a government-to-government basis. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Regional Native American Liaison's serve as the point of contact between the Service and Tribes. We worked collaboratively with U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Regional Native American Liaison's to contact Tribes where these species occur within their respective regions for the purpose of informing them of our proposed rule and to solicit comments on the proposed rule. In accordance with Secretarial Order 3206 of June 5, 1997
E.O. 13211 requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking actions that significantly affect energy supply, distribution, or use. This final rule will not significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
A complete list of all references cited in this final rule is available upon request from the Division of Management Authority, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (see
The primary author of this final rule is Clifton A. Horton, Division of Management Authority, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (see
Our regulations at 50 CFR 23.90 require us to publish a proposed rule and, if appropriate, a final rule for a CITES Appendix-III listing, even though the final rule will not result in any changes to the Code of Federal Regulations. Accordingly, for the reasons provided in this final rule, we will ask the CITES Secretariat to amend Appendix III of CITES to include for the United States these four native U.S. freshwater turtle species: the common snapping turtle (
As a result of this action, exporters must obtain an export permit issued by the Service's Division of Management Authority; pack and ship live specimens according to the IATA Live Animals Regulations or the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Park River Airport—WC Skjerven Field, Park River, ND. Controlled airspace is necessary to accommodate new Standard Instrument Approach Procedures developed at Park River Airport—WC Skjerven Field, for the safety and management of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations at the airport.
Comments must be received on or before July 8, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; telephone (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-5856; Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-9, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Rebecca Shelby, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5857.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part, A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace at Park River Airport—WC Skjerven Field, Park River, ND.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-5856/Airspace Docket No. 16-AGL-9.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by establishing Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Park River Airport—WC Skjerven Field, Park River, ND, to accommodate new standard instrument approach procedures. Controlled airspace is needed for the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Park River Airport—WC Skjerven Field.
Notice of proposed rulemaking; request for public comment.
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC or Commission) proposes to amend the rules on Disclosure of Written Consumer Product Warranty Terms and Conditions (Disclosure Rule) and Pre-Sale Availability of Written Warranty Terms (Pre-Sale Availability Rule) to give effect to the E-Warranty Act, which allows for the use of Internet Web sites to disseminate warranty terms to consumers in some circumstances.
Comments must be received on or before June 17, 2016.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Gary Ivens, (202) 326-2330, Attorney, Division of Marketing Practices, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20580.
The Disclosure Rule
The Disclosure Rule also specifies the aspects of warranty coverage that must be disclosed in written warranties, as well as the exact language that must be used for certain disclosures with respect to state law regarding the duration of implied warranties and the availability of consequential or incidental damages. Under the Disclosure Rule, warranty information must be disclosed in simple, easily understandable, and concise language in a single document. Similarly, the warrantor must disclose any limitations on the duration of implied warranties on the face of the warranty, as mandated by MMWA.
Briefly, the Commission proposes to revise the Disclosure Rule to specify that disclosures mandated to appear “on the face” of a warranty posted on an Internet Web site or displayed electronically must be placed in close proximity to the location where the text of the warranty terms begins.
The Pre-Sale Availability Rule
Briefly, the Commission proposes to revise the Pre-Sale Availability Rule to allow warrantors to post warranty terms on Internet Web sites if they also provide a non-Internet based method for consumers to obtain the warranty terms and satisfy certain other conditions.
As discussed more fully below, these rule revisions are required to comply with Congress's passage of the E-Warranty Act
The MMWA authorizes the Commission to prescribe rules requiring disclosure of warranty terms and requiring that the terms of any written warranty on a consumer product be made available to the prospective purchaser prior to the sale of the product.
E-Warranty amends the MMWA to allow, under certain circumstances, the posting of warranties on warrantors' Internet Web sites as an alternative method of complying with the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, and to permit sellers to make warranty terms available to consumers pre-sale via electronic means where the warrantor has chosen the online option.
The Commission proposes to modify the Disclosure Rule and the Pre-Sale Availability Rule to implement the E-Warranty Act and effectuate its purposes. Currently, sellers are obliged to provide warranty terms pre-sale to consumers through a variety of methods such as displaying them in close proximity to the warranted products, or by furnishing them upon request prior to sale and posting prominent signs to let customers know that warranties can be examined upon request, posting them in a catalog in close conjunction to the warranted product, or having them available for consumers' review in a door-to-door sales presentation. The proposed amendments will allow sellers the additional option of using an electronic method to make warranty terms available to consumers at the point of sale for warranted products where the warrantor has chosen the online method of disseminating the warranty terms.
Warrantors currently must provide retailers the warranty materials sellers need to meet their requirements under the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, such as providing copies of the warranty, providing warranty stickers, tags, signs, or posters, or printing the warranty on the product's packaging. The amendment does not alter the duties of warrantors who do not choose to employ an online method to supply warranty terms. The E-Warranty Act provides that warrantors who choose the online method of disseminating warranty terms must provide consumers the address of the Internet Web site where the specific product's warranty terms can be reviewed and also supply a non-Internet method, such as a phone number or mailing address, for consumers and sellers to request the warranty terms. If a consumer or seller
The first proposed revisions alter § 701.1 to add a definition of the term “manufacturer” at § 701.1(g) (defining manufacturer as “any person engaged in the business of making a consumer product”), add that term in the definition of “warrantor,” and re-letter the paragraphs in § 701.1 to account for the additional definition. The Commission proposes these revisions in light of E-Warranty's use of the term “manufacturer.”
The next proposed revision adds a new § 701.1(j)(3) to specify that, in conjunction with warranty terms posted on an Internet Web site or displayed electronically, the phrase “on the face” means in close proximity to the location where the warranty terms begin. Although the Disclosure Rule does not explicitly mention online commerce, it applies to the sale of warranted consumer products online. Commission staff recently updated the .Com Disclosures to provide additional guidance on disclosure obligations in
The next proposed revision is to § 702.1(d) to include the manufacturer in the definition of “warrantor.” The Commission proposes this revision to comport with E-Warranty's use of the term “manufacturer.” The next revision adds a new § 702.1(g) to define a “manufacturer” (in the same manner as the proposed revision of § 701.1(g)) as “any person engaged in the business of making a consumer product.”
The next proposed revisions are to § 702.3(a) to provide that sellers can provide warranty terms pre-sale through electronic means if the warrantor of the product has chosen the online option. If a seller uses an electronic means, that seller must still make the warranty text readily available for consumers' examination prior to sale.
The proposed changes to § 702.3(b)(1)(i) would remove superfluous instances of the term “and/or” and “and” in that paragraph, as the prefatory language already notes that the warrantor must use one
The next proposed revision adds a new § 702.3(b)(2) to reflect that, as an alternative method of compliance with the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, a warrantor may refer consumers to an accessible digital copy of the warranty by providing to the consumer the Internet address where the specific product's warranty has been posted in a clear and conspicuous manner. To employ this option, the warrantor, among other duties, must supply in the product manual, or on the product or product packaging, the Internet address where the consumer can review and obtain the specific product's warranty terms, as well as the phone number, postal mailing address, or other reasonable non-Internet based means for the consumer to request a free copy of the warranty terms.
Proposed § 702.3(b)(2)(iv) requires the warrantor utilizing the online option to provide sufficient information with the consumer product or on the Internet Web site so that the consumer can readily locate the specific product's warranty terms. The Commission believes that this requirement comports with Congress's directive that online warranties be available to consumers “in a clear and conspicuous manner.”
The next proposed revision alters § 702.3(c)(2)(i)(B) to reflect that the mail-order or catalog seller must provide the address of the Internet Web site of the warrantor where the warranty terms can be reviewed (if such Internet Web site exists), as well as either a phone number or address that the consumer can use to request a free copy of the warranty, and notes that the copy may be provided electronically if the product's warrantor has used the online option.
Finally, the next proposed revision alters § 702.3(d)(2) to reflect that the door-to-door seller may supply the warranty through an electronic option if the product's warrantor has employed the online method.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act
The small warrantor that does not choose the Internet option to supply warranty terms can remain compliant simply by continuing with its existing practices. The small warrantor that has been including the entire warranty with the warranted product and supplying warranty materials so that sellers can meet Pre-Sale Availability Rule obligations will have a smaller compliance burden under the proposal by being able to provide the warranty terms solely on an Internet Web site. That small warrantor, however, will likely incur costs to establish a phone number, address, or other non-Internet based method that consumers and sellers can use to request a free hard copy of warranty terms.
With respect to the amendments to the Disclosure Rule, a small entity that is in compliance with current law need not take any different or additional action if the proposal is adopted, as the proposed revisions merely explain how the “on the face of the warranty” requirement applies to online warranty terms.
Accordingly, this document serves as notice to the Small Business Administration of the FTC's certification of “no effect.” To ensure the accuracy of this certification, however, the Commission requests comment on whether the proposed rule will have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities, including specific information on the number of entities that would be covered by the proposed rule, the number of these companies that are small entities, and the average annual burden for each entity. Although the Commission certifies under the RFA that the rule proposed in this notice would not, if promulgated, have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities, the Commission has determined, nonetheless, that it is appropriate to publish an IRFA in order to inquire into the impact of the proposed rule on small entities. Therefore, the Commission has prepared the following analysis:
As outlined in Section II, above, the Commission is proposing to amend the Disclosure Rule and Pre-Sale Availability Rule in connection with Congress's passage of E-Warranty. E-Warranty allows, under certain circumstances, the posting of warranties on manufacturers' Web sites as an alternative method of complying with the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, and
The objective of the proposed amendments is to provide warrantors an online method of complying with the Disclosure Rule and the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, allow certain sellers to use an electronic method to provide pre-sale warranty terms to consumers, and to define what “on the face” of an online warranty means in the Disclosure Rule. The legal authority for this NPRM is the E-Warranty Act and the MMWA.
The small entities to which the Disclosure Rule applies are warrantors. The small entities to which the Pre-Sale Availability Rule applies are warrantors and sellers of warranted consumer products costing more than fifteen dollars. The Disclosure Rule and the Pre-Sale Availability Rule currently define a “warrantor” as “any supplier or other person who gives or offers to give a written warranty.” The Pre-Sale Availability Rule defines a “seller” as “any person who sells or offers for sale for purposes other than resale or use in the ordinary course of the buyer's business any consumer product.” The proposed changes add “manufacturers” to both Rules' definitions of “warrantor.” Sellers include retailers, catalog and mail order sellers, and door-to-door sellers.
In 2014, the Commission estimated that there were 13,395 small manufacturers (warrantors) and 452,553 small retailers (sellers) impacted by the Rules.
The proposed amendments to the Disclosure Rule do not impose any new reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements, because the proposed amendments merely explain how the existing “on the face of the warranty” requirement applies to online and electronic warranty terms.
The Pre-Sale Availability Rule imposes disclosure obligations on sellers and warrantors of warranted consumer goods actually costing more than fifteen dollars. Specifically, sellers must make warranty terms available prior to sale. Under the proposed revision, if the warrantor has chosen the online option, sellers may incur minimal additional costs if they need to request the warranty terms from the warrantor to provide them to consumers, but sellers will also have additional flexibility to make pre-sale warranty terms available to consumers electronically. Warrantors must provide sellers with warranty materials for sellers' use at the point of sale, or, under the proposed revision, provide the address of the warrantor's Internet Web site where consumers can review and obtain warranty terms in the product manual or on the product or product packaging, and the warrantor's contact information for the consumer to obtain the warranty terms via a non-Internet method.
Neither the existing Pre-Sale Availability Rule nor the proposed amendments require sellers or warrantors to retain more records than may be necessary to provide consumers the warranty terms. The small entities potentially covered by these proposed amendments will include all such entities subject to the Rules, including suppliers, manufacturers and others who warrant consumer goods costing more than fifteen dollars and retailers, catalog and mail-order sellers, and door-to-door sellers who offer the warranted products. The professional skills necessary for compliance with the Rules as modified by the proposed amendments would include (1) warrantors' office and administrative support staff to receive consumers' and sellers' requests for warranty terms using a non-Internet based method and (2) sellers' office and administrative support staff to request warranty terms for pre-sale availability to consumers for warranted goods where the warrantor has elected only the Internet option.
The Commission invites comment on the proposed amendments' impact on small sellers who might cease to receive point-of-sale warranty materials from those warrantors who choose to employ the online method to supply warranty terms.
The Commission has not identified any other federal statutes, rules, or policies that would duplicate, overlap, or conflict with the proposed amendments. The Commission invites comment and information on this issue.
As noted above at footnote 8, in a recent rule review of the Pre-Sale Availability Rule, the Commission declined commenters' requests to allow offline sellers to comply with the Rule by advising buyers of the availability of the warranty at a particular Web site. The Commission noted that, because the intent of the Rule is to make warranty information available at the point of sale, a seller could not comply with its Pre-Sale Availability Rule obligations simply by referring the consumer to a Web site where the warranty could be found. The proposed revisions allow sellers to provide warranty terms electronically, but only in cases where the warrantor has chosen the online option.
The Commission has not proposed any specific small entity exemption, differing timetables, or other significant alternatives, as the proposed amendments are narrowly tailored to permit E-Warranty's stated objectives of allowing warrantors to post warranty terms on Internet Web sites, certain sellers to use an electronic method to provide warranty terms pre-sale to consumers, and the ancillary purpose of clarifying that “on the face of the warranty” in the Web site or electronic context means “in close proximity” to the location where the warranty text begins. The Commission does not believe a special exemption for small entities or significant compliance alternatives are necessary or appropriate to minimize the compliance burden on small entities while achieving the intended purposes of E-Warranty.
The Commission believes its proposed revisions will be minimally burdensome for small businesses and that they comply with Congress's mandate to allow warrantors to post warranty terms on an Internet Web site and certain sellers to employ a pre-sale electronic option, while ensuring pre-sale availability of warranty terms at the point of sale. The Commission, however, invites comment on regulatory alternatives that the Commission has not expressly considered for complying
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA),
This proposal would amend 16 CFR parts 701 and 702. The collection of information related to the Disclosure Rule has been previously reviewed and approved by OMB in accordance with the PRA and assigned OMB Control Number 3084-0111.
As explained below, the proposed amendments only slightly modify or add to information collection requirements that were previously approved by OMB. Under this proposal, a warrantor will be permitted, but not required, to use an online method for supplying warranty terms. The Commission does not believe that this proposed rule would impose any new or substantively revised collections of information as defined by the PRA.
Under the most recent proposed clearance for the Pre-Sale Availability Rule,
The Commission estimated the total annual capital or other non-labor costs to be
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before June 17, 2016. Write “Amending Warranty Rules Pursuant to the E-Warranty Act, Matter No. P044403” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the Commission Web site, at
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, such as Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, including medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which . . . is privileged or confidential,” as discussed in section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you have to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c).
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Amending Warranty Rules Pursuant to the E-Warranty Act, Matter No. P044403” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex E), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Visit the Commission Web site at
Trade practices, Warranties.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Commission proposes to amend 16 CFR part 701 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2302 and 2309.
(g)
(j)
(1) Where the warranty is a single sheet with printing on both sides of the sheet or where the warranty is comprised of more than one sheet, the page on which the warranty text begins;
(2) Where the warranty is included as part of a larger document, such as a use and care manual, the page in such document on which the warranty text begins;
(3) Where the warranty is on an Internet Web site or displayed electronically, in close proximity to the location where the warranty text begins.
15 U.S.C. 2302 and 2309.
(d)
(g)
The following requirements apply to consumer products actually costing the consumer more than $15.00:
(a)
(1) Displaying it in close proximity to the warranted product (including through electronic or other means, if the warrantor has elected the option described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), or
(2) Furnishing it upon request prior to sale (including through electronic or other means, if the warrantor has elected the option described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) and placing signs reasonably calculated to elicit the prospective buyer's attention in prominent locations in the store or department advising such prospective buyers of the availability of warranties upon request.
(b)
(i) Provide sellers with warranty materials necessary for such sellers to comply with the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, by the use of one or more by the following means:
(A) Providing a copy of the written warranty with every warranted consumer product;
(B) Providing a tag, sign, sticker, label, decal or other attachment to the product, which contains the full text of the written warranty;
(C) Printing on or otherwise attaching the text of the written warranty to the package, carton, or other container if that package, carton or other container is normally used for display purposes. If the warrantor elects this option a copy of the written warranty must also accompany the warranted product; or
(D) Providing a notice, sign, or poster disclosing the text of a consumer product warranty. If the warrantor elects this option, a copy of the written warranty must also accompany each warranted product.
(ii) Provide catalog, mail order, and door-to-door sellers with copies of written warranties necessary for such sellers to comply with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
(2) As an alternative method of compliance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a warrantor may provide the warranty terms in an accessible digital format on the warrantor's Internet Web site. If the warrantor elects this option, the warrantor must:
(i) Provide information to the consumer that will inform the consumer how to obtain warranty terms by indicating, in a clear and conspicuous manner, in the product manual or on the product or product packaging:
(A) The Internet Web site of the warrantor where such warranty terms can be reviewed; and
(B) The phone number, the postal mailing address of the warrantor, or other reasonable non-Internet based means for the consumer to request a copy of the warranty terms;
(ii) Provide a hard copy of the warranty terms promptly and free of charge upon request by a consumer or seller made pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section;
(iii) Ensure that warranty terms are posted in a clear and conspicuous manner and remain accessible to the consumer on the Internet Web site of the warrantor; and
(iv) Provide information with the consumer product or on the Internet Web site of the warrantor sufficient to allow the consumer to readily identify on such Internet Web sites the warranty terms that apply to the specific product purchased by the consumer.
(3) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not be applicable with respect to statements of general policy on emblems, seals or insignias issued by third parties promising replacement or refund if a consumer product is defective, which statements contain no representation or assurance of the quality or performance characteristics of the product; provided that
(i) The disclosures required by § 701.3(a)(1) through (9) of this part are published by such third parties in each issue of a publication with a general circulation, and
(ii) Such disclosures are provided free of charge to any consumer upon written request.
(c)
(i) Catalog or mail order sales means any offer for sale, or any solicitation for an order for a consumer product with a written warranty, which includes instructions for ordering the product which do not require a personal visit to the seller's establishment.
(ii) Close conjunction means on the page containing the description of the warranted product, or on the page facing that page.
(2) Any seller who offers for sale to consumers consumer products with written warranties by means of a catalog or mail order solicitation shall:
(i) Clearly and conspicuously disclose in such catalog or solicitation in close conjunction to the description of warranted product, or in an information section of the catalog or solicitation clearly referenced, including a page number, in close conjunction to the description of the warranted product, either:
(A) The full text of the written warranty; or
(B) The address of the Internet Web site of the warrantor where such warranty terms can be reviewed (if such Internet Web site exists), as well as that the written warranty can be obtained free upon specific request, and the address or phone number where such warranty can be requested. If this option is elected, such seller shall promptly provide a copy of any written warranty requested by the consumer (and may provide such copy through electronic or other means, if the warrantor has elected the option described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section).
(ii) [Reserved].
(d)
(i)
(ii)
(2) Any seller who offers for sale to consumers consumer products with written warranties by means of door-to-door sales shall, prior to the consummation of the sale, disclose the fact that the sales representative has copies of the warranties for the warranted products being offered for sale, which may be inspected by the prospective buyer at any time during the sales presentation. Such disclosure shall be made orally and shall be included in any written materials shown to prospective buyers. If the warrantor has elected the option described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sales representative may provide a copy of the warranty through electronic or other means.
By direction of the Commission.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Notice of intent to issue order.
The Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) intends to issue an order that would adjust for inflation, as appropriate, dollar amount thresholds in the rule under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 that permits investment advisers to charge performance-based fees to “qualified clients.” Under that rule, an investment adviser may charge performance-based fees if a “qualified client” has a certain minimum net worth or minimum dollar amount of assets under the management of the adviser. The Commission's order would increase, to reflect inflation, the minimum net worth that a “qualified client” must have under the rule. The order would not increase the minimum dollar amount of assets under management.
Hearing or Notification of Hearing: An order adjusting the dollar amount tests specified in the definition of “qualified client” will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission's Office of the Secretary by 5:30 p.m. on June 13, 2016. Hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Amanda Hollander Wagner, Senior Counsel, Investment Company Rulemaking Office, at (202) 551-6792, Division of Investment Management, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-8549.
The Commission intends to issue an order under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act” or “Act”).
Section 205(a)(1) of the Advisers Act generally prohibits an investment adviser from entering into, extending, renewing, or performing any investment advisory contract that provides for compensation to the adviser based on a share of capital gains on, or capital appreciation of, the funds of a client.
In 1980, Congress added another exception to the prohibition against charging performance fees, for contracts involving business development companies under certain conditions.
The Commission adopted rule 205-3 in 1985 to exempt an investment adviser from the prohibition against charging a client performance fees in certain circumstances.
The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”)
The May 2011 Release also proposed amendments to rule 205-3 providing, among other things, that the Commission would issue an order every five years in the future adjusting the rule's dollar amount thresholds for inflation.
The Dodd-Frank Act also requires the use of the PCE Index to calculate inflation adjustments for the cash limit protection of each investor under the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970.
Pursuant to section 418 of the Dodd-Frank Act and rule 205-3(e), today we are providing notice
We anticipate that future changes to the dollar amount tests that are issued by order will be reflected in technical amendments to rule 205-3(d), which would be adopted after such order is issued.
We anticipate that, if we issue the order described above, the effective date will be 60 days following the order date.
By the Commission.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
Notice of proposed rule; request for public comment.
The Department of Justice is proposing to promulgate regulations establishing the Federal Bureau of Investigation's (FBI's) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) procedures. These proposed regulations would establish a process for the FBI's implementation of NEPA, Executive Order 11514, Executive Order 12114, and Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) and Department of Justice (Department) regulations addressing the procedural provisions of NEPA. Pursuant to CEQ regulations, the FBI is soliciting comments on the proposed FBI NEPA regulations from members of the interested public.
Written comments must be postmarked and electronic comments must be submitted on or before July 25, 2016. Commenters should be aware that the electronic Federal Docket Management System will not accept comments after 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on the last day of the comment period.
Submit comments online at
Scott Bohnhoff, FBI Occupational Safety and Environmental Programs (OSEP) Unit Chief; Email:
Electronic comments are preferred. For comments sent via U.S. Postal Service, please do not submit duplicate electronic or facsimile comments. Please confine comments to the proposed rule.
All submissions received must include the agency name (FBI) and docket number or RIN for this
CEQ's NEPA implementing regulations contained in 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508 require each Federal agency to adopt procedures (40 CFR 1507.3) to ensure that decisions are made in accordance with the policies and purposes of NEPA (40 CFR 1505.1). The Department has established such policies and procedures at 28 CFR part 61. The FBI NEPA Program has been established to supplement the Department's procedures and to ensure that environmental considerations are fully integrated into the FBI's mission activities.
The FBI NEPA regulations are intended to promote reduction of paperwork by providing guidelines for development of streamlined and focused NEPA documents and to reduce delay by integrating the NEPA process into the early stages of planning. They are also intended to promote transparency by ensuring that NEPA documents are written in plain language and follow a clear format so that they are easily understood by the public and all parties involved in implementation of the proposed action.
The FBI NEPA regulations are not intended to serve as a comprehensive NEPA guide, but will serve as a framework for the FBI NEPA Program. The FBI plans to apply its NEPA regulations in conjunction with NEPA, the CEQ regulations (40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508), the Department's implementing regulations (28 CFR part
The FBI will, as appropriate, keep the public informed of the FBI NEPA program and NEPA actions and ensure that relevant environmental documents, comments, and responses accompany proposals through all levels of decision making (40 CFR 1505.1(d)). The FBI's NEPA program will be implemented primarily by the following key persons within the FBI:
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These proposed regulations have been drafted and reviewed in accordance with Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” section 1(b), Principles of Regulation, and in accordance with Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” section 1(b), General Principles of Regulation.
The Department has determined that these proposed regulations are not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, section 3(f), and accordingly, they have not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Both Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility.
The Department has assessed the costs and benefits associated with implementation of these proposed regulations and believes that the regulatory approach selected maximizes net benefits by better enabling the FBI to comply with NEPA. Further benefits associated with implementation of these proposed regulations include: A streamlined approach to performing NEPA reviews, which is expected to lead to a reduction in delay and excessive paperwork; enhanced environmental awareness; collaborative and participatory public involvement; clear compliance guidelines resulting in reduced liability risk; and enhanced cost savings arising from fewer requirements to prepare Environmental Assessments (EAs) where projects are covered by categorical exclusions (CATEXs).
The FBI contracts out, on average, twenty EAs annually for actions that would be covered by the CATEXs instated by the proposed regulations. The average contracting costs associated with development of each of these EAs is approximately $50,000. Therefore, the proposed rule would result in an annual cost savings of approximately $1,000,000 in contract payouts. The FBI anticipates that its own staffing costs with regard to NEPA compliance will remain roughly the same upon adoption of the new rule, as FBI personnel will still be involved in reviewing projects and developing and implementing a NEPA compliance strategy for each one.
The exact impact of the proposed regulations on staffing and funding requirements cannot be calculated due to uncertainty about the number of future projects and the level at which environmental review will occur (CATEX, EA, or Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)). However, as discussed in the preceding paragraphs, the FBI estimates a net annual cost savings of up to $1,000,000.
These proposed regulations will not have a substantial, direct effect on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. In accordance with Executive Order 13132, these proposed regulations do not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism Assessment.
The Department, in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)) has reviewed these proposed regulations and, by approving them, certifies that these regulations will not have a substantial economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
These proposed regulations will not result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year, and it will not substantially or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no action was deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
These proposed regulations are not a major rule as defined by section 251 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, (5 U.S.C. 804). These proposed regulations will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, a major increase in costs or prices, or have substantial adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises in domestic and export markets.
The collection of information contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
The proposed regulations are intended to promote reduction of paperwork by providing guidelines for the development of streamlined and focused NEPA documents and to reduce delay by integrating the NEPA process into the early stages of planning. They are also intended to promote transparency by ensuring that NEPA documents are written in plain language and follow a clear format so that they are easily comprehensible by the public and all parties involved in implementation of the proposed action. A CATEX is a category of actions that, barring extraordinary circumstances, do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment and for which neither an EA nor an EIS is required. Using CATEXs for such activities reduces unnecessary paperwork and delay. The estimated average document length is 15 pages for an EA and 150 pages for an EIS. EAs, EISs, and their associated administrative records must be retained for at least six years after signature of the NEPA decision document. By contrast, a CATEX requires either no documentation or very brief documentation (records of environmental consideration documenting CATEXs are typically only a few pages long). The estimated total annual NEPA documentation burden associated with these regulations is unknown at this time due to the uncertainty of the number of projects that will require various levels of NEPA review.
The Council on Environmental Quality regulations do not direct agencies to prepare a NEPA analysis or document before establishing agency procedures (such as this regulation) that supplement the CEQ regulations for implementing NEPA. Agencies are required to adopt NEPA procedures that establish specific criteria for, and identification of, three classes of actions: Those that normally require preparation of an environmental impact statement; those that normally require preparation of an environmental assessment; and those that are categorically excluded from further NEPA review (40 CFR 1507.3(b)). Establishing categorical exclusions does not require preparation of a NEPA analysis or document. Agency NEPA procedures are procedural guidance to assist agencies in the fulfillment of agency responsibilities under NEPA, but are not the agency's final determination of what level of NEPA analysis is required for a particular proposed action. The requirements for establishing agency NEPA procedures are set forth at 40 CFR 1505.1 and 1507.3. The issuance of regulations establishing categorical exclusions does not itself require NEPA analysis and documentation.
Environmental impact statements.
Accordingly, part 61 of title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:
28 U.S.C. 509, 510; 5 U.S.C. 301; Executive Order No. 11991.
These procedures are issued pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321,
The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) NEPA Program has been established to assist the FBI in integrating environmental considerations into the FBI's mission and activities. The FBI NEPA regulations have been developed to supplement CEQ and Department NEPA regulations by outlining internal FBI policy and procedures. Through these provisions, the FBI shall promote compliance with NEPA and CEQ's implementing regulations, encourage environmental sustainability by integrating environmental considerations into mission and planning activities, and ensure that environmental analyses reflect consideration of non-regulatory requirements included in Federal orders, directives, and policy guidance.
The FBI is an intelligence-driven national security and law enforcement component within the Department of Justice. The FBI's mission is to protect and defend the United States against terrorist and foreign intelligence threats, to uphold and enforce the criminal laws of the United States, and to provide leadership and criminal justice services to Federal, state, municipal, and international agencies and partners. General types of FBI actions include:
(a) Operational activities, including the detection, investigation, and prosecution of crimes against the United States and the collection of intelligence.
(b) Training activities, including the training of Federal, state, local, and foreign law enforcement personnel.
(c) Real estate activities, including acquisitions and transfers of land and facilities and leasing.
(d) Construction, including new construction, renovations, repair, and demolition of facilities, infrastructure, utilities systems, and other systems.
(e) Property maintenance and management activities, including maintenance of facilities, equipment, and grounds and management of natural resources.
(f) Administrative and regulatory activities, including personnel management, procurement of goods and services, and preparation of regulations and policy guidance.
The FBI will use the NEPA process as a tool to ensure an interdisciplinary review of its actions and to ensure that impacts of those actions on the quality of the human environment are given appropriate consideration in FBI decisions; to identify and assess reasonable alternatives to its actions; and to facilitate early and open communication, when practicable, with the public and other agencies and organizations.
The level of NEPA analysis will depend on the context and intensity of the environmental impacts associated with the proposed action. Environmental Assessments (EAs) and Environmental Impact Statements (EISs) should include a reasonable range of alternatives, and should also include descriptions of other alternatives that the decision maker determined did not require detailed study, with a brief discussion of the reasons for such determinations. If there are no reasonable alternatives, the EA or EIS must explain why no reasonable alternative exists. The decision maker must consider all the alternatives discussed in the EA or EIS. The decision maker may choose an alternative that is not expressly described in a draft EA or EIS, provided it is qualitatively within the spectrum of alternatives that were discussed in the draft.
(1) The FBI's responsibility for NEPA review of actions shall be determined on a case-by-case basis depending on the extent to which the entire project will be within the FBI's jurisdiction and on other factors. For example, if a project involves the construction of a facility, the relevant factors include: The extent of FBI control and funding in the construction or use of the facility, whether the facility is being built solely for FBI requirements, and whether the project would proceed without FBI action.
(2) The extent of the FBI's responsibility for NEPA review of joint Federal actions, where the FBI and another Federal agency are cooperating on a project, will be determined on a case-by-case basis depending on which agency is designated as the lead agency and which is the cooperating agency.
(3) In cases where FBI actions are a component of a larger project involving a private action or an action by a local or state government, the FBI's proposed action analyzed in the NEPA document will include only the portions of the project over which the FBI has sufficient control and responsibility to warrant Federal review. However, the cumulative impacts analysis will account for past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future activities affecting the same natural resources as the FBI project. When actions are planned by private or other non-Federal entities, the FBI will provide the potential applicant reasonably foreseeable requirements for studies or other information for subsequent FBI action. In addition, the FBI will consult with appropriate state and local agencies, tribal entities, interested private persons, and organizations early in a project's planning process when the FBI's involvement is reasonably foreseeable.
(4) Whenever appropriate and practicable, the FBI will incorporate by reference and rely upon the environmental analyses and reviews of other Federal, tribal, state, and local agencies.
A CATEX is a category of actions that, barring extraordinary circumstances, do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the quality of the human environment and for which neither an EA nor an EIS is required. Using CATEXs for such activities reduces unnecessary paperwork and delay. Such activities are not excluded from compliance with other applicable Federal, state, or local environmental laws. To qualify for a CATEX, an action must meet all of the following criteria:
(1) The proposed action fits entirely within one or more of the CATEXs;
(2) The proposed action has not been segmented and is not a piece of a larger action. For purposes of NEPA, actions must be considered in the same review if it is reasonably foreseeable that the actions are connected (
(3) No extraordinary circumstances exist that would cause the normally excluded proposed action to have significant environmental effects. Extraordinary circumstances are assumed to exist when the proposed action is likely to involve any of the following circumstances:
(i) An adverse effect on public health or safety;
(ii) An adverse effect on Federally listed endangered or threatened species, marine mammals, or critical habitat;
(iii) An adverse effect on archaeological resources or resources listed or determined to be eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places;
(iv) An adverse effect on an environmentally sensitive area, including floodplains, wetlands, streams, critical migration corridors, and wildlife refuges;
(v) A material violation of a Federal, state, or local environmental law by the FBI;
(vi) An effect on the quality of the human or natural environment that is likely to be highly scientifically controversial or uncertain, or likely to involve unique or unknown environmental risks;
(vii) Establishment of precedents or decisions in principle for future action(s) that have the potential for significant impacts (
(viii) Significantly greater scope or size than normally experienced for a particular category of action;
(ix) Potential for substantial degradation of already existing poor environmental conditions;
(x) Initiation of a potentially substantial environmental degrading influence, activity, or effect in areas not already substantially modified; or
(xi) A connection to other actions with individually insignificant, but cumulatively significant, impacts.
As noted in paragraph (c) of this section, certain FBI actions qualifying for a CATEX have been predetermined to have a low risk of extraordinary circumstances and, as such, have been designated as not requiring preparation of a Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) Determination Form. A REC Determination Form must be prepared for all other FBI actions subject to NEPA review. The REC Determination Form will help determine if the proposed action falls within a category of actions that has been excluded from further NEPA review or if the action will require further analysis through an EA or EIS. The REC Determination Form will also identify any extraordinary circumstances that require the FBI to perform an EA or an EIS for an action that would otherwise qualify for a CATEX.
(NR1) Reductions, realignments, or relocation of personnel, equipment, or mobile assets that do not result in changing the use of the space in such a way that could cause environmental effects or exceed the infrastructure capacity outside of FBI-managed property. An example of exceeding the infrastructure capacity would be an increase in vehicular traffic beyond the capacity of the supporting road network to accommodate such an increase.
(NR2) Personnel, fiscal, management, and administrative activities, including recruiting, processing, paying, contract administration, recordkeeping, budgeting, personnel actions, and travel.
(NR3) Decisions to close facilities, decommission equipment, or temporarily discontinue use of facilities or equipment, where the facility or equipment is not used to prevent or control environmental impacts. This excludes demolition actions.
(NR4) Preparation of policies, procedures, manuals, and other guidance documents for which the environmental effects are too broad, speculative, or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis and for which the applicability of the NEPA process will be evaluated upon implementation, either collectively or case-by-case.
(NR5) Grants of license, easement, or similar arrangements for use by vehicles (not to include substantial increases in the number of vehicles loaded); electrical, telephone, and other transmission and communication lines; pipelines, pumping stations, and facilities for water, wastewater, stormwater, and irrigation; and for similar utility and transportation uses. Construction or acquisition of new facilities are not included.
(NR6) Acquisition, installation, operation, and maintenance of temporary equipment, devices, or controls necessary to mitigate effects of FBI's missions on health and the environment. This CATEX is not intended to cover facility construction or related activities. Examples include:
(i) Temporary sediment and erosion control measures required to meet applicable Federal, tribal, state, or local requirements;
(ii) Installation of temporary diversion fencing to prevent earth disturbance within sensitive areas during construction activities; and
(iii) Installation of temporary markers to delineate limits of earth disturbance in forested areas to prevent unnecessary tree removal.
(NR7) Routine flying operations and infrequent, temporary (fewer than 30 days) increases in aircraft operations up to 50 percent of the typical FBI aircraft operation rate.
(NR8) Proposed new activities and operations to be conducted in an existing structure that would be consistent with previously established safety levels and would not result in a change in use of the facility. Examples include new types of research, development, testing, and evaluation activities, and laboratory operations conducted within existing enclosed facilities designed to support research and development activities.
(NR9) Conducting audits and surveys; data collection; data analysis; and processing, permitting, information dissemination, review, interpretation, and development of documents. If any of these activities result in proposals for further action, those proposals must be covered by an appropriate CATEX or other NEPA analysis. Examples include:
(i) Document mailings, publication, and distribution, training and information
(ii) Studies, reports, proposals, analyses, literature reviews, computer modeling, and intelligence gathering and sharing;
(iii) Activities designed to support improvement or upgrade management of natural resources, such as surveys for threatened and endangered species or cultural resources; wetland delineations; and minimal water, air, waste, and soil sampling;
(iv) Minimally intrusive geological, geophysical, and geo-technical activities, including mapping and engineering surveys;
(v) Conducting facility audits, Environmental Site Assessments, and environmental baseline surveys; and
(vi) Vulnerability, risk, and structural integrity assessments of infrastructure.
(NR10) Routine procurement, use, storage, and disposal of non-hazardous goods and services in support of administrative, operational, or maintenance activities in accordance with executive orders and Federal procurement guidelines. Examples include:
(i) Office supplies and furniture;
(ii) Equipment;
(iii) Mobile assets (
(iv) Utility services; and
(v) Deployable emergency response supplies and equipment.
(NR11) Routine use of hazardous materials (including procurement, transportation, distribution, and storage of such materials) and reuse, recycling, and disposal of solid, medical, radiological, or hazardous waste in a manner that is consistent with all applicable laws, regulations, and policies. Examples include:
(i) Use of chemicals and low-level radionuclides for laboratory applications;
(ii) Refueling of storage tanks;
(iii) Appropriate treatment and disposal of medical waste;
(iv) Temporary storage and disposal of solid waste;
(v) Disposal of radiological waste through manufacturer return and recycling programs; and
(vi) Hazardous waste minimization activities.
(NR12) Acquisition, installation, maintenance, operation, or evaluation of security equipment to screen for or detect dangerous or illegal individuals or materials at existing facilities or to enhance the physical security of existing critical assets. Examples include:
(i) Low-level x-ray devices;
(ii) Cameras and biometric devices;
(iii) Passive inspection devices;
(iv) Detection or security systems for explosive, biological, or chemical substances;
(v) Access controls, screening devices, and traffic management systems;
(vi) Motion detection systems;
(vii) Impact resistant doors and gates;
(viii) Diver and swimmer detection systems, except sonar; and
(ix) Blast and shock impact-resistant systems for land-based and waterfront facilities.
(NR13) Maintenance of facilities, equipment, and grounds. Examples include interior utility work, road maintenance, window washing, lawn mowing, trash collecting, facility cleaning, and snow removal.
(NR14) Recreation and welfare activities (
(NR15) Training FBI personnel and persons external to the FBI using existing facilities and where the training occurs in accordance with applicable permitting requirements and other requirements for the protection of the environment. This exclusion does not apply to training that involves the use of live chemical, biological, radiological, or explosive agents, except when conducted at a location designed and constructed to accommodate those materials and their associated hazards. Examples include:
(i) Administrative or classroom training;
(ii) Tactical training, including training in explosives and incendiary devices, arson investigation and firefighting, and emergency preparedness and response;
(iii) Chemical, biological, explosive, or hazardous material handling training;
(iv) Vehicle, aircraft, and small boat operation training;
(v) Small arms and less-than-lethal weapons training;
(vi) Security specialties and terrorist response training;
(vii) Crowd control training, including gas range training;
(viii) Enforcement response, self-defense, and interdiction techniques training; and
(ix) Fingerprinting and drug analysis training.
(NR16) Projects, grants, cooperative agreements, contracts, or activities to design, develop, and conduct national, state, local, or international exercises to test the readiness of the nation to prevent or respond to a terrorist attack or a natural or manmade disaster where conducted in accordance with existing facility or land use designations. This exclusion does not apply to exercises that involve the use of live chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive agents or devices (other than small devices such as practice grenades or flash bang devices used to simulate an attack during exercises), unless these exercises are conducted under the auspices of existing plans or permits that have undergone NEPA review.
(R1) Reductions, realignments, or relocation of personnel, equipment, or mobile assets that result in changing the use of the space in such a way that could cause changes to environmental effects, but do not result in exceeding the infrastructure capacity outside of FBI-managed property. An example of exceeding the infrastructure capacity would be an increase in vehicular traffic beyond the capacity of the supporting road network to accommodate such an increase.
(R2) Acquisition or use of space within an existing structure, by purchase, lease, or use agreement. This includes structures that are in the process of construction or were recently constructed, regardless of whether the existing structure was built to satisfy an FBI requirement and the proposed FBI use would not exceed the carrying capacity of the utilities and infrastructure for the use and access to the space. This also includes associated relocation of personnel, equipment, or assets into the acquired space.
(R3) Transfer of administrative control over real property, including related personal property, between another Federal agency and the FBI that does not result in a change in the functional use of the property.
(R4) New construction (
(i) The site is in a developed or a previously disturbed area;
(ii) The proposed use will not substantially increase the number of motor vehicles at the facility or in the area;
(iii) The construction or improvement will not result in exceeding the infrastructure capacity outside of FBI-managed property (
(iv) The site and scale of construction or improvement are consistent with those of existing, adjacent, or nearby buildings; and
(v) The structure and proposed use are compatible with applicable Federal, tribal, state, and local planning and zoning standards and consistent with Federally approved state coastal management programs.
(R5) Renovation, addition, repair, alteration, and demolition projects affecting buildings, roads, airfields, grounds, equipment, and other facilities, including subsequent disposal of debris, which may be contaminated with hazardous materials such as PCBs, lead, or asbestos. Hazardous materials must be disposed of at approved sites in accordance with Federal, state, and local regulations. Examples include the following:
(i) Realigning interior spaces of an existing building;
(ii) Adding a small storage shed to an existing building;
(iii) Retrofitting for energy conservation, including weatherization, installation of timers on hot water heaters, installation of energy efficient lighting, installation of low-flow plumbing fixtures, and installation of drip-irrigation systems;
(iv) Installing a small antenna on an already existing antenna tower that does not cause the total height to exceed 200 feet and where the FCC's NEPA procedures allow for application of a CATEX; or
(v) Closing and demolishing a building not eligible for listing under the National Register of Historic Places.
(R6) Acquisition, installation, reconstruction, repair by replacement, and operation of utility (
(R7) Acquisition, installation, operation, and maintenance of permanent equipment, devices, or controls necessary to mitigate effects of FBI's missions on health and the environment. This CATEX is not intended to cover facility construction or related activities. Examples include:
(i) Pollution prevention and pollution-control equipment required to meet
(ii) Installation of fencing, including security fencing, that would not have the potential to significantly impede wildlife population movement (including migration) or surface water flow;
(iii) Installation and operation of lighting devices;
(iv) Noise-abatement measures, including construction of noise barriers, installation of noise control materials, or planting native trees or native vegetation for use as a noise abatement measure; and
(v) Devices to protect human or animal life, such as raptor electrocution prevention devices, and fencing and grating to prevent accidental entry to hazardous or restricted areas.
(R8) Non-routine procurement, use, storage, and disposal of non-hazardous goods and services in support of administrative, operational, or maintenance activities in accordance with executive orders and Federal procurement guidelines.
(R9) Use of hazardous materials (including procurement, transportation, distribution, and storage of such materials) and reuse, recycling, and disposal of solid, medical, radiological, or hazardous waste in a manner that is consistent with all applicable laws, regulations, and policies, but uncharacteristic of routine FBI use, reuse, recycling, and disposal of hazardous materials and waste. Examples include:
(i) Procurement of a new type of chemical or procurement of a larger quantity of a particular chemical than generally used by FBI; and
(ii) Disposal of items that contain PCBs (
(R10) Herbicide application and pest management, including registered pesticide application, in accordance with Federal, state, and local regulations.
(R11) Natural resource management activities on FBI-managed property to aid in the maintenance or restoration of native flora and fauna, including site preparation and control of non-indigenous species, excluding the application of herbicides.
An EA is a concise public document for actions that do not meet the requirements for applying a CATEX, but for which it is unclear whether an EIS is required. An EA briefly provides evidence and analysis for determining whether to prepare an EIS or a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI), and facilitates preparation of an EIS when one is required. The requirements and contents of an EA are described in 40 CFR 1508.9. Significance of impacts will be determined based on the criteria outlined in 40 CFR 1508.27. The FBI will comment on other agencies' EAs when relevant to the FBI mission, or when the FBI has jurisdiction by law or relevant special expertise.
(a)
(1) Long-term plans for FBI-managed properties and facilities.
(2) Proposed construction, land use, activity, or operation where it is uncertain whether the action will significantly affect environmentally sensitive areas.
(3) New activities for which the impacts are not known with certainty, but where the impacts are not expected to cause significant environmental degradation.
An EIS is a detailed, written statement Federal agencies must prepare for major Federal actions that will significantly affect the quality of the human environment, or when an EA concludes that the significance threshold of the impacts associated with a proposed action would be crossed. An EIS describes effects of the proposed action and any reasonable alternatives. A Notice of Intent (NOI) is published in the
(a) A Record of Decision (ROD) is prepared at the time a decision is made regarding a proposal that is analyzed and documented in an EIS. The ROD will state the decision, discuss the alternatives considered, and state whether all practicable means to avoid or minimize environmental harms have been adopted or, if not, why they were not adopted. Where applicable, the ROD will also describe and adopt a monitoring and enforcement plan for any mitigation. The FBI will comment on other agencies' EISs when relevant to the FBI mission, or where the FBI has jurisdiction by law or relevant special expertise.
(b)
(1) Proposed major construction or construction of facilities that would have a significant effect on wetlands, coastal zones, or other environmentally sensitive areas.
(2) Change in area, scope, type, or frequency of operations or training that will result in significant environmental effects.
(3) Actions where the effects of a project or operation on the human environment are likely to be highly scientifically uncertain, but are perceived to have potential for significant impacts.
Scoping may be used for all NEPA documents in order to streamline the NEPA process by identifying significant issues and narrowing the scope of the environmental review process. The FBI may seek agencies with specialized expertise or authority in environmental planning requirements that may be beneficial to FBI mission planning and encourage such agencies to be cooperating agencies (40 CFR 1501.6 and 1508.5). In cases where an EIS is prepared in response to a finding of significant impact following preparation of an EA, the EIS scoping process shall incorporate the results of the EA development process.
The FBI may use such means as newspaper announcements, electronic media, and public hearings to disseminate information to potentially interested or affected parties about NEPA actions, as appropriate. When preparing an EIS, and in certain cases an EA, the FBI will invite comment from affected Federal, tribal, state, and local agencies, and other interested persons in accordance with 40 CFR part 1503.
(a) Mitigation measures, such as those described in 40 CFR 1508.20, can be used to offset environmental impacts associated with implementation of an action. If a FONSI or ROD is based on mitigation measures, all mitigation measures stipulated in the EA or EIS must be implemented as described in the FONSI or ROD.
(b) Mitigation measures must be included as conditions in grants, permits, and relevant contract documents. Funding of actions shall be contingent on performance of mitigation measures, where such measures are identified in a FONSI or ROD. If mitigation is required, a mitigation monitoring plan must be developed prior to the initiation of the proposed action. To the extent practicable, the FBI will make available the progress or results of monitoring upon request by the public or cooperating or commenting agencies.
(a) Programmatic EAs or EISs may be prepared to cover broad actions, such as programs or plans (
(b) Tiered EAs or EISs may be prepared to cover narrower actions that are a component to previously prepared Programmatic EAs or EISs as described in 40 CFR 1508.28.
(c) Supplemental EAs or EISs shall be prepared when the FBI makes substantial changes to the proposed action that are relevant to environmental concerns; when there are significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts (
(1) Supplemental EAs may either be prepared by tracking changes in the original EA or by preparing a separate document that only discusses the changes in the project scope or new information and the associated changes with regard to impacts. The process concludes with a decision regarding whether to issue a revised FONSI (using one of the methods listed in section 9) or a decision to prepare an EIS.
(2) Supplemental EISs are prepared in the same way as an EIS. If, however, a supplemental EIS is prepared within one year of filing the ROD for the original EIS, no new scoping process is required. The process concludes with a decision regarding whether to issue a revised ROD.
Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), Interior.
Proposed rule; revision to final rulemaking.
On March 30, 2016, the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM) published in the
Submit comments by June 23, 2016.
Robert Sebastian, Office of Policy, Regulation and Analysis at (504) 736-2761 or email at
Address all comments regarding this proposed rule to BOEM by any of the following methods:
•
•
• Hand delivery to Office of Policy, Regulation and Analysis, BOEM, Department of the Interior, at 1849 C Street NW., Room No. 5249, Washington, DC 20240.
Please include your name, return address and phone number and/or email address, so we can contact you if we have questions regarding your submission.
On March 30, 2016 BOEM published in the
The term “You” was defined in proposed rule § 256.103 by providing a list of categories of persons to whom the term would apply. This list was retained in the definition of “You” in final rule § 556.105, but an introductory sentence was added to clarify that some persons not yet in a legal relationship with BOEM were affected by portions of part 556. The resulting definition, included in the final rule, read as follows: “You means any party that has, or may have, legal obligations to the Federal government with respect to any operations on the OCS in which it is or may become involved. Depending on the context of the regulation, the term “you” may include a lessee (record title owner), an operating rights owner, a designated operator or agent of the lessee, a predecessor lessee, a holder of a State or Federal RUE, or a pipeline ROW holder.” The first sentence of that definition, by its reference to operations, may cause confusion as to who is considered to be subject to the regulations in part 556. Therefore, BOEM proposes to change the wording of the definition to remove the introductory sentence and add specific references to: A bidder; a prospective bidder; and an applicant seeking to become an assignee of record title or operating rights. These changes will specify the categories of persons who (depending on the context) must comply with certain sections of part 556, without the ambiguity of the definition as it is stated in the final rule. As amended, the definition would read: “
Section V, Legal and Regulatory Analyses, of the final rule issued on March 30, 2016 (81 FR 18145), summarizes BOEM's analyses of the rule pursuant to applicable statutes and executive orders. This proposed amendment to that rule would not change any conclusion described in that section, because the amendment is only intended to clarify the meaning of the regulatory text in the final rule and would not require any additional actions by either BOEM or the regulated community. Therefore, no additional analysis is necessary.
Administrative practice and procedure, Continental shelf, Environmental protection, Federal lands, Government contracts, Intergovernmental relations, Oil and gas exploration, Outer continental shelf, Mineral resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, BOEM proposes to amend 30 CFR part 556 (as amended by the final rule published on March 30, 2016, at 81 FR 18111) as follows:
30 U.S.C. 1701 note, 30 U.S.C. 1711, 31 U.S.C. 9701, 42 U.S.C. 6213, 43 U.S.C. 1331 note, 43 U.S.C. 1334, 43 U.S.C. 1801-1802.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to add, delete, and modify safety zones for annual marine events in the Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone. When enforced, these proposed safety zones would restrict vessels from portions of water areas during certain annually recurring events. The safety zones are intended to expedite public notification and ensure the protection of the maritime public and event participants from the hazards associated with certain maritime events. We invite your comments on this proposed rulemaking.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before June 23, 2016.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2015-0118 using any one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these four methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Chief Petty Officer Ian M. Fallon, U.S. Coast Guard Waterways Management Division Sector Long Island Sound; telephone (203) 468-4565, or email
Previously, the Coast Guard promulgated safety zones for most of the events associated with this rule and received no public comments. The most recently promulgated rulemaking was on May 24, 2013 when the Coast Guard published a Final Rule, entitled, “Safety Zones and Special Local Regulations; Recurring Marine Events in Captain of the Port Sector Long Island Sound Zone” in the
The purpose of this rulemaking is to carry out three related actions: (1) Establishing new necessary safety zones, (2) removing safety zones that are no longer needed, and (3) updating and reorganizing existing regulations for ease of use and reduction of administrative overhead.
The Coast Guard proposes this rulemaking under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1, which collectively authorize the Coast Guard to establish regulatory safety zones.
The Coast Guard proposes to revise section 33 CFR 165.151 “Safety Zones; Fireworks Displays, Air Shows and Swim Events in the Captain of the Port Long Island Sound Zone” by establishing one new permanent safety zone, removing twenty-four existing safety zones, and modifying twenty existing safety zones. By proposing these permanent regulation updates, we are providing the public with an opportunity to comment on these changes. This rulemaking limits the unnecessary burden of continually establishing temporary rules every year for events that occur on an annual basis.
This rule proposes to establish one new permanent marine event safety zone under 33 CFR 165.151. The events listed in the revised 33 CFR 165.151 table are all fireworks displays throughout the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone. The event created by this rule is 5.1 Bridgeport Bluefish May Fireworks. Event location and details are listed below in the text of the regulation. Due to the pyrotechnics detonation and burning debris, a safety zone is needed to protect both spectators and participants from the safety potential hazards. This rule would permanently establish a safety zone that restricts vessel movement around the location of the marine event to reduce the safety risks associated with it.
During the enforcement period of the safety zone, persons and vessels would be prohibited from entering, transiting through, remaining, anchoring, or mooring within the safety zone unless specifically authorized by the COTP or the designated representative. Persons and vessels would be able to request authorization to enter, transit through, remain, anchor, or moor within the safety zone by contacting the COTP Sector Long Island Sound by telephone at (203) 468-4401, or designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16. If authorization to enter, transit through, remain, anchor, or moor within the regulated area is granted, all persons and vessels receiving authorization would be required to comply with the instructions of the COTP or designated representative.
The Coast Guard COTP Sector Long Island Sound or designated representatives would enforce the safety zone. These designated representatives are comprised of commissioned, warrant, and petty officers of the Coast Guard. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other federal, state and local agencies in the enforcement of these safety zones.
This rulemaking proposes to remove the following twenty-four safety zones from Table 1 to § 165.151: 5.1 Jones Beach Air Show, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 5.2 Greenport Spring Fireworks, as the event has been
This rulemaking also proposes to delete all seven of the safety zones from Table 2 to § 165.151: 1.1 Swim Across the Sound, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.2 Huntington Bay Open Water Championships Swim, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.3 Maggie Fischer Memorial Great South Bay Cross Bay Swim, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.4 Waves of Hope Swim, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.5 Stonewall Swim, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.6 Swim Across America Greenwich, as the regulation will be moved to 33 CFR 100.100 at the Table to § 100.100. 1.7 US Coast Guard Triathlon Swim, as this is not a reoccurring event.
Due to the deletion of twenty-four cites within Table 1 to § 165.151, several of the remaining cites will be renumbered to fill the vacancies created by the deleted cites. The cite numbers used in this section reflect cite numbers as they are currently listed in Table 1 to § 165.151: 2.1 Sag Harbor COC Winter Harbor Frost Fireworks Date was updated for accuracy. 6.1 Barnum Festival Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 6.2 Town of Branford Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 6.3 Vietnam Veterans/Town of East Haven Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 6.4 Salute to Veterans Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.1 Point O'Woods Fire Company Summer Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.7 Southampton Fresh Air Home Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.9 City of Middletown Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.11 City of Norwich July Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.12 City of Stamford Fireworks Date was updated for accuracy. 7.13 City of West Haven Fireworks Date was updated for accuracy. 7.23 Riverfest Fireworks Date was removed due to the fact that the exact date in July would change annually. The public will be notified of the exact date and time annually. The Locations of the safety zones were updated for accuracy. 7.24 Village of Asharoken Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.25 Village of Port Jefferson Fourth of July Celebration Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.33 Groton Long Point Yacht Club Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.42 Connetquot River Summer Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 7.44 National Golf Links Fireworks Name is to be changed to Sebonack Golf Club Links Fireworks per the sponsor's request. 8.8 Ascension Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 9.1 East Hampton Fire Department Fireworks Location was updated for accuracy. 11.2 Christmas Boat Parade Fireworks barge Locations were updated for accuracy.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders (E.O.s) related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and E.O.s, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
E.O.s 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This NPRM has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under E.O. 12866. Accordingly, the NPRM has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard determined that this proposed rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action for the following reasons: The safety zones are of limited duration and vessels may transit the navigable waterways outside of the safety zones. Persons or vessels requiring entry into the safety zones may be authorized to do so by the COTP Sector Long Island Sound or designated representative.
Advanced public notifications will also be made to local mariners through appropriate means, which may include but is not limited to Local Notice to Mariners and Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this proposed rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in E.O. 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rulemaking elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves the establishment of safety zones. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We encourage you to participate in this rulemaking by submitting comments and related materials. All comments received will be posted without change to
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. To submit your comment online, go to
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you go to the online docket by following instructions in the next paragraph, and sign up for email alerts, you will be notified whenever comments are submitted or a final rule is published.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Anyone can search the electronic form of comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review a Privacy Act notice regarding our public dockets in the January 17, 2008, issue of the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 46 U.S.C. Chapter 701, 3306, 3703; 50 U.S.C. 191, 195; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Pub. L. 107-295, 116 Stat. 2064; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
The revision reads as follows:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Florida through the Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP) on March 10, 2015. Florida's March 10, 2015, SIP revision (Progress Report) addresses requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) and EPA's rules that require states to submit periodic reports describing progress towards reasonable progress goals (RPGs) established for regional haze and a determination of the adequacy of a state's existing SIP addressing regional haze (regional haze plan). EPA is proposing to approve Florida's Progress Report on the basis that it addresses the progress report and adequacy determination requirements for the first implementation period for regional haze.
Comments must be received on or before June 23, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2015-0361 at
Sean Lakeman, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street, SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman can be reached by phone at (404) 562-9043 and via electronic mail at
Under the Regional Haze Rule,
On March 10, 2015, FDEP submitted its regional haze progress report, reporting progress made in the first implementation period towards RPGs for Class I areas in the State and for Class I areas outside the State that are
Under 40 CFR 51.308(g), states must submit a regional haze progress report as a SIP revision every five years and must address, at a minimum, the seven elements found in 40 CFR 51.308(g). As described in further detail in section III below, 40 CFR 51.308(g) requires: (1) A description of the status of measures in the approved regional haze plan; (2) a summary of emissions reductions achieved; (3) an assessment of visibility conditions for each Class I area in the state; (4) an analysis of changes in emissions from sources and activities within the state; (5) an assessment of any significant changes in anthropogenic emissions within or outside the state that have limited or impeded progress in Class I areas impacted by the state's sources; (6) an assessment of the sufficiency of the approved regional haze plan; and (7) a review of the state's visibility monitoring strategy.
Under 40 CFR 51.308(h), states are required to submit, at the same time as the progress report, a determination of the adequacy of their existing regional haze plan and to take one of four possible actions based on information in the progress report. As described in further detail in section III below, 40 CFR 51.308(h) requires states to: (1) Submit a negative declaration to EPA that no further substantive revision to the state's existing regional haze plan is needed; (2) provide notification to EPA (and to other state(s) that participated in the regional planning process) if the state determines that its existing regional haze plan is or may be inadequate to ensure reasonable progress at one or more Class I areas due to emissions from sources in other state(s) that participated in the regional planning process, and collaborate with these other state(s) to develop additional strategies to address deficiencies; (3) provide notification with supporting information to EPA if the state determines that its existing regional haze plan is or may be inadequate to ensure reasonable progress at one or more Class I areas due to emissions from sources in another country; or (4) revise its regional haze plan to address deficiencies within one year if the state determines that its existing regional haze plan is or may be inadequate to ensure reasonable progress in one or more Class I areas due to emissions from sources within the state.
On March 10, 2015, FDEP submitted a revision to Florida's regional haze plan to address progress made towards the RPGs for Class I areas in the State and for Class I areas outside the State that are affected by emissions from sources within Florida. This submittal also includes a determination of the adequacy of the State's existing regional haze plan. Florida has three mandatory Class I areas within its borders: Everglades National Park, Chassahowitzka Wilderness Area, and St. Marks Wilderness Area. In Florida's regional haze plan, the State also determined that emissions sources located in Florida may have significant sulfate visibility impacts on the following Class I areas in neighboring states: Okefenokee Wilderness Area and Wolf Island Wilderness Area in Georgia, and Breton Wilderness Area in Louisiana.
The following sections summarize: (1) Each of the seven elements that must be addressed by a progress report under 40 CFR 51.308(g); (2) how Florida's Progress Report addressed each element; and (3) EPA's analysis and proposed determination as to whether the State satisfied each element.
40 CFR 51.308(g)(1) requires a description of the status of implementation of all measures included in the regional haze plan for achieving RPGs for Class I areas both within and outside the state.
The State evaluated the status of all measures included in its regional haze plan in accordance with 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1). Specifically, in its Progress Report, Florida summarizes the status of the emissions reduction measures that were included in the final iteration of the Visibility Improvement State and Tribal Association of the Southeast (VISTAS) regional haze emissions inventory and RPG modeling used by the State in developing its regional haze plan. These measures include, among other things, applicable federal programs (
In its regional haze plan, Florida identified sulfur dioxide (SO
EPA proposes to find that Florida's analysis adequately addresses 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1). The State documents the implementation status of measures from its regional haze plan in addition to describing additional measures not originally accounted for in the final VISTAS emissions inventory that came into effect since the VISTAS analyses for the regional haze plan were completed.
40 CFR 51.308(g)(2) requires a summary of the emissions reductions achieved in the state through implementing measures described in 40 CFR 51.308(g)(1).
In its Progress Report, Florida evaluated the emissions reductions associated with the implementation of many measures identified in its regional haze plan, including the emissions reductions associated with sources subject to BART or reasonable progress control determinations. As described
The data from EPA's Clean Air Markets Division included in the Progress Report for Acid Rain Program units from 2002-2013 show that SO
Florida's Progress Report also includes SO
Between 2009 and 2011, the total VISTAS states' heat input for Acid Rain Program units increased from 6,966,765,915 MMBtu to 7,336,055,333 MMBtu. However, emissions from these units declined from 1,619,348 tons of SO
Florida believes that the reductions in SO
EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(g)(2). As discussed above, the State provides emissions reduction estimates, and where available, actual emissions reductions of visibility-impairing pollutants resulting from the measures relied upon in its regional haze plan. The State appropriately focused on SO
40 CFR 51.308(g)(3) requires that states with Class I areas provide the following information for the most impaired and least impaired days for each area, with values expressed in terms of five-year averages of these annual values:
(i) Current visibility conditions;
(ii) the difference between current visibility conditions and baseline visibility conditions; and
(iii) the change in visibility impairment over the past five years.
The State provides figures with the latest supporting data available at the time of plan development that address the three requirements of 40 CFR 51.308(g)(3) for Class I areas in Florida. Table 1, below, shows the current visibility conditions and the difference between current visibility conditions and baseline visibility conditions. Florida reported current conditions as the 2009-2013 five-year period and used the 2000-2004 baseline period for its Class I areas.
The data summarized above shows that all Class I areas in the State saw an improvement in visibility (
EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(g)(3) because the State provides the information regarding visibility conditions and visibility changes necessary to meet the requirements of the regulation. The Progress Report includes current conditions based on the Interagency Monitoring of Protected Visual Environments (IMPROVE) monitoring data for the years 2009-2013, the difference between current visibility conditions and baseline visibility conditions, and the change in visibility impairment over the most recent five-year period for which data were available at the time of Progress Report development (
40 CFR 51.308(g)(4) requires an analysis tracking emissions changes of visibility-impairing pollutants from the state's sources by type or category over the past five years based on the most recent updated emissions inventory.
In its Progress Report, Florida includes an analysis tracking the change over a five-year period in emissions of pollutants contributing to visibility impairment from the following source categories: point, area, non-road mobile, and on-road mobile. The State evaluated emissions trends in SO
In its evaluation of NO
Also, as discussed in section III.A.2. of this notice, the Progress Report documents reductions in NO
EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(g)(4). Florida tracked changes in emissions of visibility-impairing pollutants from 2002-2011 for all source categories and analyzed trends in SO
40 CFR 51.308(g)(5) requires an assessment of any significant changes in anthropogenic emissions within or outside the state that have occurred over the past five years that have limited or impeded progress in reducing pollutant emissions and improving visibility in Class I areas impacted by the state's sources.
The Progress Report demonstrates that there are no significant changes in emissions of SO
40 CFR 51.308(g)(6) requires an assessment of whether the current regional haze plan is sufficient to enable the state, or other states, to meet the RPGs for Class I areas affected by emissions from the state.
In its Progress Report, Florida states its belief that the elements and strategies outlined in its regional haze plan are sufficient for Class I areas impacted by emissions sources in Florida to meet their RPGs. To support this conclusion, Florida notes the following: Speciated data collected for the period 2006-2010 shows that sulfates continue to be the most significant contributor to visibility impairment, supporting SO
EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(g)(6). EPA views this requirement as a qualitative assessment that should evaluate emissions and visibility trends and other readily available information, including expected emissions reductions associated with measures with compliance dates that have not yet become effective. The State referenced the improving visibility trends and the downward emissions trends in the State, with a focus on SO
40 CFR 51.308(g)(7) requires a review of the state's visibility monitoring strategy and an assessment of whether any modifications to the monitoring strategy are necessary.
In its Progress Report, Florida summarizes the existing visibility monitoring network in Class I areas in Florida and notes that the Interagency Monitoring of Protected Visual Environments (IMPROVE) monitoring network is the primary monitoring network for regional haze. There is currently one IMPROVE site in each Florida Class I area (SAMA1, CHAS1, and EVER1) operated by the responsible Federal Land Manager. Florida intends to continue to rely on the IMPROVE network for complying with regional haze monitoring requirements and on the Visibility Information and Exchange Web System (VIEWS) to access IMPROVE data and data analysis tools. Florida concludes that the existing network is adequate and that no modifications to the State's visibility monitoring strategy are necessary at this time.
EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed the sufficiency of its monitoring strategy as required by 40 CFR 51.308(g)(7). The State reaffirmed its continued reliance upon the IMPROVE monitoring network, explained the importance of the IMPROVE monitoring network for tracking visibility trends in Class I areas in Florida, and determined that no changes to its visibility monitoring strategy are necessary.
Under 40 CFR 51.308(h), states are required to take one of four possible actions based on the information gathered and conclusions made in the progress report. The following section summarizes: (1) The action taken by Florida under 40 CFR 51.308(h); (2) Florida's rationale for the selected action; and (3) EPA's analysis and proposed determination regarding the State's action.
In its Progress Report, Florida took the action provided for by 40 CFR 51.308(h)(1), which allows a state to submit a negative declaration to EPA if the state determines that the existing regional haze plan requires no further substantive revision at this time to achieve the RPGs for Class I areas affected by the state's sources. The State's negative declaration is based on its findings in the Progress Report. EPA proposes to conclude that Florida has adequately addressed 40 CFR 51.308(h) because the visibility trends at the Class I areas impacted by the State's sources and the emissions trends of the State's largest emitters of visibility-impairing pollutants indicate that the RPGs for Class I areas impacted by sources in Florida will be met or exceeded.
EPA is proposing to approve Florida's Regional Haze Progress Report, SIP revision, submitted by the State on March 10, 2015, as meeting the applicable regional haze requirements set forth in 40 CFR 51.308(g) and 51.308(h).
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen oxides, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve in part, and disapprove in part, portions of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission, submitted by the State of Mississippi, through the Mississippi Department of Environmental Quality (MDEQ) on February 28, 2013, to demonstrate that the State meets the infrastructure requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) for the 2010 1-hour nitrogen dioxide (NO
Written comments must be received on or before June 23, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2014-0751 at
Richard Wong, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. The telephone number is (404) 562-8726. Mr. Wong can be reached via electronic mail at
On February 9, 2010, EPA promulgated a new 1-hour primary NAAQS for NO
This action is proposing to approve Mississippi's infrastructure SIP submission for the applicable requirements of the 2010 1-hour NO
Section 110(a) of the CAA requires states to submit SIPs to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of a new or revised NAAQS within three years following the promulgation of such NAAQS, or within such shorter period as EPA may prescribe. Section 110(a) imposes the obligation upon states to make a SIP submission to EPA for a new or revised NAAQS, but the contents of that submission may vary depending upon the facts and circumstances. In particular, the data and analytical tools available at the time the state develops and submits the SIP for a new or revised NAAQS affects the content of the submission. The contents of such SIP submissions may also vary depending upon what provisions the state's existing SIP already contains. In the case of the 2010 NO
More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for “infrastructure” SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. As mentioned previously, these requirements include basic SIP elements such as modeling, monitoring, and emissions inventories that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS. The requirements that are the subject of this proposed rulemaking are summarized later in this preamble and in EPA's September 13, 2013, memorandum entitled “Guidance on Infrastructure State Implementation Plan (SIP) Elements under Clean Air Act Sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2).”
EPA is acting upon the SIP submission from Mississippi that addresses the infrastructure requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) for the 2010 NO
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submissions, and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submissions. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submissions for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submission must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of title I of the Act, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submission, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submission in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submissions separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submissions to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submissions either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submission requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submissions for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submission for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submission to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submissions required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submissions, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submissions. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D have to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2). Thus, for example, attainment plan SIP submissions must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the PSD program required in part C of title I of the CAA, because PSD does not apply to a pollutant for which an area is designated nonattainment and thus subject to part D planning requirements. As this example illustrates, each type of SIP submission may implicate some elements of section 110(a)(2) but not others.
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portions of
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submissions for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submissions. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submissions to ensure that the state's implementation plan appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submissions with respect to the PSD program requirements in sections 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements contained in part C and EPA's PSD regulations. Structural PSD program requirements include provisions necessary for the PSD program to address all regulated sources and new source review (NSR) pollutants, including greenhouse gases (GHGs). By contrast, structural PSD program requirements do not include provisions that are not required under EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.166 but are merely available as an option for the state, such as the option to provide grandfathering of complete permit applications with respect to the 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submission focuses on assuring that the state's implementation plan meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes, among other things, the requirement that states have a program to regulate minor new sources. Thus, EPA evaluates whether the state has an EPA-approved minor NSR program and whether the program addresses the pollutants relevant to that NAAQS. In the context of acting on an infrastructure SIP submission, however, EPA does not think it is necessary to conduct a review of each and every provision of a state's existing minor source program (
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submission is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions (“SSM”); (ii) existing provisions related to “director's variance” or “director's discretion” that may be contrary to the CAA because they purport to allow revisions to SIP-approved emissions limits while limiting public process or not requiring further approval by EPA; and (iii) existing provisions for PSD programs that may be inconsistent with current requirements of EPA's “Final NSR Improvement Rule,” 67 FR 80186 (December 31, 2002), as amended by 72 FR 32526 (June 13, 2007) (“NSR Reform”). Thus, EPA believes it may approve an infrastructure SIP submission without scrutinizing the totality of the existing SIP for such potentially deficient provisions and may approve the submission even if it is aware of such existing provisions.
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submissions is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submission. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submission is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may include some outmoded provisions and historical artifacts. These provisions, while not fully up to date, nevertheless may not pose a significant problem for the purposes of “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of a new or revised NAAQS when EPA evaluates adequacy of the infrastructure SIP submission. EPA believes that a better approach is for states and EPA to focus attention on those elements of section 110(a)(2) of the CAA most likely to warrant a specific SIP revision due to the promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS or other factors.
For example, EPA's 2013 Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submission for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II). Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's implementation plan is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
Mississippi's February 28, 2013, infrastructure submission addresses the provisions of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) as described later on.
1. 110(a)(2)(A)
In this action, EPA is not proposing to approve or disapprove any existing state provisions with regard to excess emissions during SSM operations at a facility. EPA believes that a number of states have SSM provisions which are contrary to the CAA and existing EPA guidance, “State Implementation Plans: Policy Regarding Excess Emissions During Malfunctions, Startup, and Shutdown” (September 20, 1999), and the Agency is addressing such state regulations in a separate action.
Additionally, in this action, EPA is not proposing to approve or disapprove any existing state rules with regard to director's discretion or variance provisions. EPA believes that a number of states have such provisions which are contrary to the CAA and existing EPA
2. 110(a)(2)(B)
3. 110(a)(2)(C)
EPA has made the preliminary determination that Mississippi's SIP and practices are adequate for program enforcement of control measures and regulation of minor sources and modifications related to the 2010 1-hour NO
4. 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) and (II)
110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I)—
110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II)—
110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II)—
5. 110(a)(2)(D)(ii)
6. 110(a)(2)(E)
To satisfy the requirements of sections 110(a)(2)(E)(i) and (iii), Mississippi provides that MDEQ is responsible for promulgating rules and regulations for the NAAQS, emissions standards, general policies, a system of permits, fee schedules for the review of plans, and other planning needs as found in
To meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii), states must comply with the requirements respecting state boards pursuant to section 128 of the Act. Section 128 of the CAA requires that states include provisions in their SIP to address conflicts of interest for state boards or bodies that oversee CAA permits and enforcement orders and disclosure of conflict of interest requirements. Specifically, CAA section 128(a)(1) necessitates that each SIP shall require that at least a majority of any board or body which approves permits or enforcement orders shall be subject to the described public interest service and income restrictions therein. Subsection 128(a)(2) requires that the members of any board or body, or the head of an executive agency with similar power to approve permits or enforcement orders under the CAA, shall also be subject to conflict of interest disclosure requirements.
To meet its section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) obligations for the 2010 1-hour NO
With respect to the public interest requirement of section 128(a)(1) and the adequate disclosure of conflicts of interest requirement of section 128(a)(2), EPA has previously found these requirements to be satisfied by the existing provisions in Mississippi's SIP.
With respect to the significant portion of income requirement of section 128(a)(1), the provisions included in the February 28, 2013 infrastructure SIP submission do not preclude at least a majority of the members of the Mississippi Boards
Accordingly, EPA is proposing to approve the section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) submission as it relates to the public interest requirements of section 128(a)(1) and the conflict of interest disclosure provisions of section 128(a)(2) and proposing to disapprove Mississippi's section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) submission as it pertains to compliance with the significant portion of income requirement of section 128(a)(1) for the 2010 1-hour NO
7. 110(a)(2)(F)
Additionally, Mississippi is required to submit emissions data to EPA for purposes of the National Emissions Inventory (NEI). The NEI is EPA's central repository for air emissions data. EPA published the Air Emissions Reporting Rule (AERR) on December 5, 2008, which modified the requirements for collecting and reporting air emissions data (73 FR 76539). The AERR shortened the time states had to report emissions data from 17 to 12 months, giving states one calendar year to submit emissions data. All states are required to submit a comprehensive emissions inventory every three years and report emissions for certain larger sources annually through EPA's online Emissions Inventory System (EIS). States report emissions data for the six criteria pollutants and the precursors that form them—nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, ammonia, lead, carbon monoxide, particulate matter, and volatile organic compounds. Many states also voluntarily report emissions of hazardous air pollutants. Mississippi made its latest update to the 2012 NEI on January 9, 2014. EPA compiles the emissions data, supplementing it where necessary, and releases it to the general public through the Web site
8. 110(a)(2)(G)
9. 110(a)(2)(H)
10. 110(a)(2)(J)
11. 110(a)(2)(K)
12. 110(a)(2)(L)
13. 110(a)(2)(M)
With the exception of the preconstruction PSD permitting requirements for major sources of section 110(a)(2)(C), prong 3 of (D)(i), and (J), the interstate transport provisions pertaining to the contribution to nonattainment or interference with maintenance in other states and visibility protection of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) and (II) (prongs 1, 2, and 4), and the state board majority requirements respecting the significant portion of income of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii), EPA is proposing to approve that Mississippi's February 28, 2013, SIP submission for the 2010 1-hour NO
Under section 179(a) of the CAA, final disapproval of a submittal that addresses a requirement of a CAA Part D Plan or is required in response to a finding of substantial inadequacy as described in CAA section 110(k)(5) (SIP call) starts a sanctions clock. The portion of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) provisions (the provisions being proposed for disapproval in this action) were not submitted to meet requirements for Part D or a SIP call, and therefore, if EPA takes final action to disapprove this submittal, no sanctions will be triggered. However, if this disapproval action is finalized, that final action will trigger the requirement under section 110(c) that EPA promulgate a federal implementation plan (FIP) no later than 2 years from the date of the disapproval unless the State corrects the deficiency, and EPA approves the plan or plan revision before EPA promulgates such FIP.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Office of the Secretary (OST), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notification of disposition of petition for rulemaking.
This document announces the disposition of a petition for rulemaking from Access Services concerning the Department's regulations implementing
May 24, 2016.
Jill Laptosky, Attorney-Advisor, Office of General Counsel, DOT, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590, telephone: 202-493-0308, or email,
On March 4, 2015, the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) received a petition for rulemaking from Access Services, the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) complementary paratransit provider for 44 fixed route transit providers in Los Angeles County, California. Access Services described that it uses a “coordinated” or two-tier fare structure where it generally charges $2.75 for one-way trips up to 19.9 miles, and $3.50 for one-way trips of 20 miles or more. In some cases, these fares exceed twice the fixed route fare. The DOT's ADA regulation at 49 CFR 37.131(c) provides that the fare for a trip charged to an ADA paratransit-eligible user of the complementary paratransit service shall not exceed twice the fare that would be charged to an individual paying full fare for a trip of similar length, at a similar time of day, on the entity's fixed route system. In recent triennial reviews of some fixed route providers in Los Angeles County, the Federal Transit Administration (FTA) has made findings that the ADA paratransit fares exceed twice the fixed route fare. In other words, some paratransit riders had been paying more for ADA paratransit fares than they should have been under the Department's regulations.
On August 20, 2015, the Department placed Access Services' petition for rulemaking in a public docket and sought comments on the petition in order to help the Department determine whether to grant or deny the petition. The Department received approximately 179 comments to the docket, several with multiple signatures. With the exception of one person, all those in support of the petition were in Access Services' service area, and all opposed were outside of the service area.
On December 4, 2015, Congress enacted the Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act (Pub. L. 114-94). Section 3023 of the FAST Act provides that notwithstanding 49 CFR 37.131(c), any paratransit system currently coordinating complementary paratransit service for more than 40 fixed route agencies shall be permitted to continue using an existing tiered, distance-based coordinated paratransit fare system, if the fare for the existing tiered, distance-based coordinated paratransit fare system is not increased by a greater percentage than any increase to the fixed route fare for the largest transit agency in the complementary paratransit service area.
Given this statutory provision, the Department has determined the issue is moot and no further action is necessary with regard to this petition for rulemaking. As a result, Access Services may continue to operate its coordinated fare structure notwithstanding 49 CFR 37.131(c) and in compliance with section 3023 of the FAST Act.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Southwest Montana Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Dillon, Montana. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held June 24, 2016, from 9:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Beaverhead-Deerlodge National Forest Supervisor's Office, Main Conference Room, 420 Barrett Street, Dillon, Montana. A teleconference phone line (conference call) will be available, for the conference line information, please contact the person listed under
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Breck Hudson, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 406-683-3979 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommumcation devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to review and recommend projects for title II funding:
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by June 24, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time to make oral comments must be sent to Breck Hudson, RAC Coordinator, 420 Barrett Street, Dillon, Montana 59725; by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Lake Tahoe Basin Federal Advisory Committee (Committee) will meet in South Lake Tahoe, California. The Committee is established consistent with the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972. Additional information concerning the Committee, including meeting summary/minutes, can be found by visiting the Committee's Web site at:
The meeting will be held on June 9, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m.
All meetings are subject to cancellation. For updated status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the USDA Forest Service, Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit, The Emerald Bay Conference Room, 35 College Drive, South Lake Tahoe, California.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Karen Kuentz, USDA Forest Service, Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit, Forest Service, 35 College Drive, South Lake Tahoe, California 96150, or by phone at 530-543-2774, or by email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of this meeting is to:
(1) Review and prioritize the Committee's goals and objectives;
(2) Provide a presentation on the TIE steering committee's charter and functions;
(3) Present the Federal partnership program; Presentation on tree mortality activities; and
(4) Discuss the 2016 schedule of meetings.
The meeting is open to the public. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the Committee may file written statements with the Committee staff before the meeting. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by June 2, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Written comments and time requests for oral comments must be sent to Karen Kuentz, USDA Forest Service, Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit, 35 College Drive, South Lake Tahoe, California 96150, or by email at
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Notice of comment solicitation.
Congress recently authorized the implementation of the Rural Energy Savings Program (RESP) in section 6407 of subtitle E of title VI of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002 (Public Law 107-171; 116 Stat. 424). The purpose of RESP is to help rural families and small businesses achieve cost savings by providing loans to qualified consumers to implement durable cost-effective energy efficiency measures. The Rural Utilities Service (RUS or Agency) seeks public comments on carrying out paragraph (e) of section 6407 requiring RUS to establish a plan for measurement and verification of energy efficiency measures implemented and funded pursuant to RESP. Public comments are also invited on the additional requirement under paragraph (e) requiring RUS to develop a program to provide technical assistance and training to the employees of eligible entities carrying out the provisions of RESP. The public input requested on both these required purposes under the RESP Program will allow all affected stakeholders the opportunity to contribute to the development of agency procedures for implementing this statute.
Written comments must be received by RUS no later than June 23, 2016.
Submit comments, identified by docket number RUS-16-ELECTRIC-0028, by any of the following methods:
RUS will post all comments received without change, including any personal information that is included with the comment, on
Titilayo Ogunyale, Senior Advisor, Office of the Administrator, Rural Utilities Service, Rural Development, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 1510, Room 5136-S, Washington DC 20250-1510; Telephone: (202) 720-0736; Email:
RUS provides long-term financing for the purpose of furnishing and improving electric service in rural areas. Eligible purposes for RUS loans also include assisting electric borrowers to implement demand-side management, energy efficiency and energy conservation programs, and on-grid and off-grid renewable energy systems. The Agency's traditional lending program provides RUS loans to eligible electric system borrowers. RESP differs from the Agency's traditional lending program in that it focuses on providing loans to eligible entities that agree to provide consumer loans to qualified consumers for energy efficiency measures which are undertaken on the consumer side of the meter.
Current RUS borrowers are traditionally well-established utilities, most frequently rural electric cooperatives with a history of participation in the RUS program. Entities eligible to borrow from RUS and relend to consumers pursuant to RESP are not restricted to electric utilities per se; entities owned or controlled by current or former RUS borrowers and those entities described in 7 CFR 1710.10 may also participate in the RESP program.
For purposes of this Notice, the statute contemplates that the Secretary, acting through RUS, will (1) establish a plan for the measurement and verification of the energy efficiency activities that are undertaken pursuant to the plans implemented with RUS funds, and (2) develop a program to provide technical assistance and training to the employees of eligible entities to carry out the responsibilities associated with implementing the required implementation plans for the use of loan funds.
RUS is currently determining the best method for carrying out the RESP imposed requirement for establishing such an implementation plan and for crafting the related statement of work for the potential outside contractor that will be engaged to provide support services in this endeavor. RUS is also considering how best to meet its responsibilities under the statute to develop a program to provide technical assistance and training to the employees of eligible entities.
Stakeholder input is vital to ensure that the implementation of the RESP program measurement and verification measures and related training will be valuable, cost effective and achieve the desired results. The Agency recognizes there is a risk that the cost of measurement and verification activities exceed the savings which are intended and expected from the energy efficiency measures. Also, the Agency notes that there are a number of quality training programs already in existence and available in the industry. Accordingly, RUS poses the following questions and discussion items to guide stakeholder comments. RUS also welcomes pertinent comments that are beyond the scope of the following questions.
There is no standard set of energy efficiency measures that RUS proposes to finance with RESP funds. Each entity that applies for a RESP loan will have its own list of energy efficiency measures and related implementation plan. The borrower is also required to measure and verify the results it achieves. The agency requests responses and comments as follows:
1. Is it reasonable to require that the borrower collect data before and after implementation of the energy efficiency measures as part of the measurement and verification of cost savings, or, in the alternative, can a borrower rely on “deemed savings” for certain measures?
2. If “deemed savings” calculations are determined to be reasonable, where can independent resources for this information be found?
1. Is it reasonable for the Agency to rely on representations made by the borrower regarding the results it achieves?
2. What parameters should the Agency impose on self-measurement and verification activities included in a borrower's implementation plan?
RUS has observed that there are a myriad of programs currently available in the market to train employees of eligible entities to carry out measurement and verification functions. RUS invites comments on the best approach for RUS to take to maximize the training results achieved with limited funds.
1. RUS is considering establishing a “tuition reimbursement” program whereby an outside contractor administers a tuition reimbursement fund to reimburse eligible entities for the costs incurred from sending an employee to a course provided by a qualified vendor as part of a recognized certification program. Please comment on how best to structure such a “tuition reimbursement program.”
2. RUS is contemplating setting up a circuit rider program to provide training and technical assistance on location for energy efficiency measures. The intent is to follow the model of a comparable circuit rider program funded by RUS as part of the agency's authorized activities in the water program. In the circuit rider program, experts visit rural water systems around the country and offer training to employees as well as technical assistance. These visits can be requested by a client in response to special needs or are part of a regular schedule that is worked out in advance. Please comment on the pros and cons of taking this approach.
Many traditional RUS electric utility borrowers have an above average number of customers residing in mobile homes or prefabricated dwellings. These dwellings present unique challenges in implementing energy efficiency measures. The agency requests responses and comments on the following questions:
1. What program requirements are recommended for new manufactured housing? Is it reasonable for a Borrower to undertake a rebate program for new buyers agreeing to purchase new homes with certain upgrades? How will a borrower best verify that the upgrades are installed and producing the results as marketed?
2. With respect to pre-existing mobile homes, what measurements can be taken to produce the most cost effective energy savings for the consumer?
3. A disproportionate number of the occupants of manufactured housing are renters. The owners may not necessarily have a financial incentive to invest in more efficient heating and cooling systems, causing the occupant to suffer very high energy bills. Are there programs which have successfully addressed this problem and what are the attributes of these programs?
4. Is there a way to best incorporate consumer financing of energy efficiency measures with pre-paid billing programs?
There are limited funds for implementing the provision of RESP that contemplates RUS entering into one or more contracts for measurement, verification, training or technical assistance. As an initial matter, these funds are not expected to exceed ten percent of available appropriations. As part of the Agency's initial implementation of this portion of the statute, we anticipate that the scope of work cannot extend to all entities and all geographic areas needing these services. Accordingly, comments are invited on how to tailor the scope of the Agency's initial pilot implementation of this requirement in light of the limited funding.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
Data collection for this project is authorized under the authorizing legislation for the questionnaire being tested. This may be Title 13, Sections 131, 141, 161, 181, 182, 193, and 301 for Census Bureau sponsored surveys, and Title 13 and 15 for surveys sponsored by other Federal agencies. We do not now know what other titles will be referenced, since we do not know what survey questionnaires will be pretested during the course of the clearance.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Triangle J Council of Governments, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 93, requesting authority to reorganize the zone to expand its service area under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on May 17, 2016.
FTZ 93 was approved by the FTZ Board on November 4, 1983 (Board Order 233, 48 FR 52108, November 16, 1983) and reorganized under the ASF on November 30, 2012 (Board Order 1872, 77 FR 73978-73979, December 12, 2012), and the service area was expanded on January 9, 2015 (Board Order 1963, 80 FR 3551, January 23, 2015). The zone currently has a service area that includes the Counties of Chatham, Durham, Franklin, Granville, Harnett, Johnston, Lee, Moore, Orange, Person, Sampson, Vance, Wake and Warren.
The applicant is now requesting authority to expand the service area of the zone to include Wilson County, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the expanded service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed expanded service area is adjacent to the Raleigh-Durham Customs and Border Protection port of entry.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is July 25, 2016. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to August 8, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the “Department”) determines that certain cold-rolled steel flat products (“cold-rolled steel”) from Japan are being, or likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (“LTFV”), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”). JFE Steel Corporation (“JFE”) and Nippon Steel & Sumitomo Metal Corporation (“NSSMC”) are the mandatory respondents in this investigation. The period of investigation (“POI”) is July 1, 2014 through June 30, 2015. The estimated weighted average dumping margins of sales at LTFV are shown in the “Final Determination” section of this notice.
Trisha Tran, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4852.
On March 7, 2016, the Department published its preliminary affirmative determination of sales at LTFV and preliminary affirmative determination of critical circumstances, in part, in the LTFV investigation of cold-rolled steel from Japan.
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold-reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
Since the
None of the mandatory respondents in the investigation provided information requested by the Department. Hence, no verification was conducted.
We made no changes to the
In accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily found critical circumstances exist with respect to both of the mandatory respondents in the investigation of cold-rolled steel from Japan. With respect to the “All-Others” group, we preliminarily found that critical circumstances did not exist.
As stated above, the Department did not receive any comments concerning the preliminary determination. Thus, for the final determination, we continue to find that, in accordance with section 735(a)(3) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, critical circumstances exist with respect to both mandatory respondents and that critical circumstances do not exist for the non-individually examined companies receiving the “All-Others” rate in this investigation.
As stated in the
As stated above, we made no changes to our preliminary affirmative LTFV determination. Therefore, we continue to determine that the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists for the following producers or exporters for the period July 1, 2014 through June 30, 2015.
In addition, the Department continues to determine that voluntary respondent Hitachi Metals Limited had no sales of subject merchandise during to POI to examine.
We cannot apply the methodology described in section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act to calculate the “All-Others” rate, as all of the margins in the preliminary determination were calculated under section 776 of the Act.
In accordance with section 735(c)(4)(A) of the Act, for the final determination, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of cold-rolled steel from Japan, as described in the scope of the investigation, from the mandatory respondents (
We described the calculations used to determine the estimated weighted-average dumping margins based on adverse facts available, in the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the International Trade Commission (“ITC”) of our final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV and final affirmative determination of critical circumstances, in part. Because the final determination in the proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of cold-rolled steel from Japan no later than 45 days after our final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all securities posted will be refunded or canceled. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on appropriate imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to the parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APOs in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances. The products covered do not include those that are clad, plated, or coated with metal. The products covered include coils that have a width or other lateral measurement (“width”) of 12.7 mm or greater, regardless of form of coil (
(1) Where the nominal and actual measurements vary, a product is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above, and
(2) where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
Steel products included in the scope of these investigations are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and (3) none of the elements listed below exceeds the quantity, by weight, respectively indicated:
• 2.50 percent of manganese, or
• 3.30 percent of silicon, or
• 1.50 percent of copper, or
• 1.50 percent of aluminum, or
• 1.25 percent of chromium, or
• 0.30 percent of cobalt, or
• 0.40 percent of lead, or
• 2.00 percent of nickel, or
• 0.30 percent of tungsten (also called wolfram), or
• 0.80 percent of molybdenum, or
• 0.10 percent of niobium (also called columbium), or
• 0.30 percent of vanadium, or
• 0.30 percent of zirconium.
Unless specifically excluded, products are included in this scope regardless of levels of boron and titanium.
For example, specifically included in this scope are vacuum degassed, fully stabilized (commonly referred to as interstitial-free (“IF”)) steels, high strength low alloy (“HSLA”) steels, motor lamination steels, Advanced High Strength Steels (“AHSS”), and Ultra High Strength Steels (“UHSS”). IF steels are recognized as low carbon steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as titanium and/or niobium added to stabilize carbon and nitrogen elements. HSLA steels are recognized as steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as chromium, copper, niobium, titanium, vanadium, and molybdenum. Motor lamination steels contain micro-alloying levels of elements such as silicon and aluminum. AHSS and UHSS are considered high tensile strength and high elongation steels, although AI-ISS and UHSS are covered whether or not they are high tensile strength or high elongation steels.
Subject merchandise includes cold-rolled steel that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to annealing, tempering, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the cold-rolled steel.
All products that meet the written physical description, and in which the chemistry quantities do not exceed any one of the noted element levels listed above, are within the scope of this investigation unless specifically excluded. The following products are outside of and/or specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation:
• Ball bearing steels;
• Tool steels;
• Silico-manganese steel;
• Grain-oriented electrical steels (“GOES”) as defined in the final determination of the U.S. Department of Commerce in
• Non-Oriented Electrical Steels (“NOES”), as defined in the antidumping orders issued by the U.S. Department of Commerce in
Also excluded from the scope of this investigation is ultra-tempered automotive steel, which is hardened, tempered, surface polished, and meets the following specifications:
• Thickness: less than or equal to 1.0 mm;
• Width: less than or equal to 330 mm;
• Chemical composition:
• Physical properties:
• Microstructure: Completely free from decarburization. Carbides are spheroidal and fine within 1% to 4% (area percentage) and are undissolved in the uniform tempered martensite;
• Surface roughness: less than or equal to 0.80 µm Rz;
• Non-metallic inclusion:
Sulfide inclusion less than or equal to 0.04% (area percentage)
Oxide inclusion less than or equal to 0.05% (area percentage); and
• The mill test certificate must demonstrate that the steel is proprietary grade “PK” and specify the following:
The exact tensile strength, which must be greater than or equal to 1600 N/mm
The exact hardness, which must be greater than or equal to 465 Vickers hardness number;
The exact elongation, which must be between 2.5% and 9.5%; and
Certified as having residual compressive stress within a range of 100 to 400 N/mm
The products subject to this investigation are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”) under item numbers: 7209.15.0000, 7209.16.0030, 7209.16.0060, 7209.16.0070, 7209.16.0091, 7209.17.0030, 7209.17.0060, 7209.17.0070, 7209.17.0091, 7209.18.1530, 7209.18.1560, 7209.18.2510, 7209.18.2520, 7209.18.2580, 7209.18.6020, 7209.18.6090, 7209.25.0000, 7209.26.0000, 7209.27.0000, 7209.28.0000, 7209.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7211.23.1500, 7211.23.2000, 7211.23.3000, 7211.23.4500, 7211.23.6030, 7211.23.6060, 7211.23.6090, 7211.29.2030, 7211.29.2090, 7211.29.4500, 7211.29.6030, 7211.29.6080, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7225.50.6000, 7225.50.8080, 7225.99.0090, 7226.92.5000, 7226.92.7050, and 7226.92.8050. The products subject to the investigation may also enter under the following HTSUS numbers: 7210.90.9000, 7212.50.0000, 7215.10.0010, 7215.10.0080, 7215.50.0016, 7215.50.0018, 7215.50.0020, 7215.50.0061, 7215.50.0063, 7215.50.0065, 7215.50.0090, 7215.90.5000, 7217.10.1000, 7217.10.2000, 7217.10.3000, 7217.10.7000, 7217.90.1000, 7217.90.5030, 7217.90.5060, 7217.90.5090, 7225.19.0000, 7226.19.1000, 7226.19.9000, 7226.99.0180, 7228.50.5015, 7228.50.5040, 7228.50.5070, 7228.60.8000, and 7229.90.1000.
The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and CBP purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.
Pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301), we invite comments on the question of whether instruments of equivalent scientific value, for the purposes for which the instruments shown below are intended to be used, are being manufactured in the United States.
Comments must comply with 15 CFR 301.5(a)(3) and (4) of the regulations and be postmarked on or before June 13, 2016. Address written comments to Statutory Import Programs Staff, Room 3720, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230. Applications may be examined between 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. at the U.S. Department of Commerce in Room 3720.
Docket Number: 15-051. Applicant: Iowa State University of Science and Technology, 211 TASF, Ames, IA 50011-3020. Instrument: Electron Microscope. Manufacturer: FEI, Co., Czech Republic and Great Britain. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to perform microstructure examination, compositional analysis and orientation analysis on materials such as metals, compounds, alloys, oxides and organic materials. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: There are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: April 13, 2016.
Docket Number: 15-055. Applicant: Rutgers University, 136 Frelinghuysen Road, Piscataway, NJ 08854. Instrument: Optical Floating Zone Furnace. Manufacturer: Crystal Systems Corporation, Japan. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to grow high quality bulk single crystals of a variety of complex quantum materials including multiferroics, ferroelectrics and low-symmetry magnets. Research projects will include the duality between FR and PUA states in hexagonal manganites, the duality between Ising triangular antiferromagnetism and improper ferroelectricity in hexagonal systems, the domains and domain walls in other polar or chiral magnets, the domains and domain walls in new hybrid improper ferroelectrics, the domains and domain walls in metastable phases at the phase boundaries, and magnetic skyrmion in non-centrosymmetric magnets. The instrument is equipped with 5 high power (1000 W in total) continuous wavelength laser diodes as a heating source. Five lasers ensure temperature homogeneity along the azimuthal direction around the crystal rod to be greater than 95%. The maximum temperature gradient along the growth direction is greater than 150 degrees Celsius/mm. Crystal growth can go from extremely stable and slow growth to very rapid quenching mode, 0.01 to 300 mm/h. This enables the growth of incongruently melting and highly evaporating materials. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: There are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: April 29, 2016.
Docket Number: 15-058. Applicant: UChicago Argonne, 9700 South Cass Avenue, Lemont, IL 60439-4873. Instrument: IEX ARPES Cryo-Manipulator. Manufacturer: Omnivac, Hansjoerg Ruppender, Germany. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to cool and position single crystal and thin film samples in an angle-resolved photoemission spectroscopy (ARPES) chamber. ARPES is used to map the electronic band structure of material. Samples include high-temperature superconductors, graphene, and other low dimensional materials, metals and complex oxides. The instrument's unique features include ultra-high vacuum compatible, six-axes of motion with a specified range x: +/- 10mm, 1µm, +/- 0.05µm, y: +/- 10mm, 1µm, +/- 0.05µm, z: 300mm, 1µm, +/- 0.05µm, polar rotation: 360 degrees, 0.005 degrees, 0.0001 degrees, flip rotation: -15/+60 degrees, .1 degree, 0.05 degrees, azimuthal rotation: +/-90 degrees, .1 degree, 0.05 degrees, a low base temperature of 5.5K and high vibrational stability (motion at the sample < 500 nm). Justification for
Docket Number: 16-003. Applicant: Oregon Health & Science University, 3181 SW Sam Jackson Park Road, Portland, OR 97239. Instrument: Electron Microscope. Manufacturer: FEI Company, the Netherlands. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to study how genomic features in model systems and humans encode the molecular, cellular and tissue structures that comprise normal and diseased tissues and apply the resulting information to improve management of human diseases including cancer, cardiovascular disease, immunodeficiency and dementia. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: There are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: April 15, 2016.
Docket Number: 16-006. Applicant: Texas Southwestern Medical Center, 5323 Harry Hinos Blvd., Dallas, TX 75390. Instrument: Electron Microscope. Manufacturer: FEI Company, the Netherlands. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to learn how imaged proteins and molecules perform their cellular functions, which can be used to understand cases where these proteins and molecules malfunction and cause disease, such as cancer. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: There are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: May 6, 2016.
Docket Number: 16-009. Applicant: Stanford University, 299 Campus Drive West, Stanford, CA 94305-5126. Instrument: Electron Microscope. Manufacturer: FEI Company, Netherlands. Intended Use: The instrument will be used to determine the structures of proteins and protein complexes to atomic (3.5 angstroms+) or near atomic (10 angstroms+) resolution. Determining the structures to such high resolution will give insight into the basic biology of systems such as tissue samples, whole cells and purified proteins. Justification for Duty-Free Entry: There are no instruments of the same general category manufactured in the United States. Application accepted by Commissioner of Customs: March 2, 2016.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that certain cold-rolled steel flat products (cold-rolled steel) from the People's Republic of China (the PRC) are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV), as provided in section 735 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The period of investigation is January 1, 2015, through June 30, 2015. The estimated weighted-average dumping margin of sales at LTFV is shown in the “Final Determination” section of this notice.
Scott Hoefke or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-4947 or (202) 482-0679, respectively.
On March 7, 2016, the Department published its preliminary affirmative determination of sales at LTFV and preliminary affirmative determination of critical circumstance in LTFV investigation of cold-rolled steel from the PRC.
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold-reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances from the PRC. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
Since the
The only respondent in the antidumping investigation of cold-rolled steel from the PRC, the PRC-wide entity, did not provide information requested by the Department. Hence, no verification was conducted.
We made no changes to the
In accordance with section 733(e)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily found critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of certain cold-rolled steel flat products from the PRC-wide entity.
As stated in the
In the
As stated above, we made no changes to our affirmative preliminary LTFV determination; therefore, we continue to determine the following estimated weighted-average dumping margin exists for the PRC wide-entity during the period January 1, 2015, through June 30, 2015:
In accordance with section 735(c)(4)(A) of the Act, for the final determination, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of cold-rolled steel from the PRC as described in the “Scope of the Investigation” section which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption 90 days prior to the date of publication of the
As we stated in the
We described the calculations used to determine the estimated weighted-average dumping margins based on adverse facts available, in the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our final affirmative determination of sales at LTFV and final affirmative determination of critical circumstances. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will make its final determination as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of cold-rolled steel from the PRC no later than 45 days after our final determination. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all securities posted will be refunded or canceled. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, the Department will issue an antidumping duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice will serve as a reminder to the parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing this determination in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold-reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances. The products covered do not include those that are clad, plated, or coated with metal. The products covered include coils that have a width or other lateral measurement (“width”) of 12.7 mm or greater, regardless of form of coil (
(1) Where the nominal and actual measurements vary, a product is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above, and
(2) where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
Steel products included in the scope of this investigation are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and (3) none of the elements listed below exceeds the quantity, by weight, respectively indicated:
• 2.50 percent of manganese, or
• 3.30 percent of silicon, or
• 1.50 percent of copper, or
• 1.50 percent of aluminum, or
• 1.25 percent of chromium, or
• 0.30 percent of cobalt, or
• 0.40 percent of lead, or
• 2.00 percent of nickel, or
• 0.30 percent of tungsten (also called wolfram), or
• 0.80 percent of molybdenum, or
• 0.10 percent of niobium (also called columbium), or
• 0.30 percent of vanadium, or
• 0.30 percent of zirconium
Unless specifically excluded, products are included in this scope regardless of levels of boron and titanium.
For example, specifically included in this scope are vacuum degassed, fully stabilized (commonly referred to as interstitial-free (IF)) steels, high strength low alloy (HSLA) steels, motor lamination steels, Advanced High Strength Steels (AHSS), and Ultra High Strength Steels (UHSS). IF steels are recognized as low carbon steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as titanium and/or niobium added to stabilize carbon and nitrogen elements. HSLA steels are recognized as steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as chromium, copper, niobium, titanium, vanadium, and molybdenum. Motor lamination steels contain micro-alloying levels of elements such as silicon and aluminum. AHSS and UHSS are considered high tensile strength and high elongation steels, although AHSS and UHSS are covered whether or not they are high tensile strength or high elongation steels.
Subject merchandise includes cold-rolled steel that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to annealing, tempering, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the cold-rolled steel.
All products that meet the written physical description, and in which the chemistry quantities do not exceed any one of the noted element levels listed above, are within the scope of this investigation unless specifically excluded. The following products are outside of and/or specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation:
· Ball bearing steels;
· Tool steels;
· Silico-manganese steel;
· Grain-oriented electrical steels (GOES) as defined in the final determination of the U.S. Department of Commerce in Grain-Oriented Electrical Steel From Germany, Japan, and Poland.
· Non-Oriented Electrical Steels (NOES), as defined in the antidumping orders issued by the U.S. Department of Commerce in Non-Oriented Electrical Steel From the People's Republic of China, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, and Taiwan.
The products subject to this investigation are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7209.15.0000, 7209.16.0030, 7209.16.0060, 7209.16.0070, 7209.16.0091, 7209.17.0030, 7209.17.0060, 7209.17.0070, 7209.17.0091, 7209.18.1530, 7209.18.1560, 7209.18.2510, 7209.18.2520, 7209.18.2580, 7209.18.6020, 7209.18.6090, 7209.25.0000, 7209.26.0000, 7209.27.0000, 7209.28.0000, 7209.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7211.23.1500, 7211.23.2000, 7211.23.3000, 7211.23.4500, 7211.23.6030, 7211.23.6060, 7211.23.6090, 7211.29.2030, 7211.29.2090, 7211.29.4500, 7211.29.6030, 7211.29.6080, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7225.50.6000, 7225.50.8080, 7225.99.0090, 7226.92.5000, 7226.92.7050, and 7226.92.8050. The products subject to the investigation may also enter under the following HTSUS numbers: 7210.90.9000, 7212.50.0000, 7215.10.0010, 7215.10.0080, 7215.50.0016, 7215.50.0018, 7215.50.0020, 7215.50.0061, 7215.50.0063, 7215.50.0065, 7215.50.0090, 7215.90.5000, 7217.10.1000, 7217.10.2000, 7217.10.3000, 7217.10.7000, 7217.90.1000, 7217.90.5030, 7217.90.5060, 7217.90.5090, 7225.19.0000, 7226.19.1000, 7226.19.9000, 7226.99.0180, 7228.50.5015, 7228.50.5040, 7228.50.5070, 7228.60.8000, and 7229.90.1000.
The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and U.S. Customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.
ITA, DOC.
Notice of federal advisory committee meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda for a meeting of the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee (CINTAC).
The meeting is scheduled for Thursday, June 9, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT). The public session is from 3:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held in Room 1412, U.S. Department of Commerce, Herbert Clark Hoover Building, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230.
Mr. Jonathan Chesebro, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, ITA, Room 4053, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. (Phone: 202-482-1297; Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
The meeting will be disabled-accessible. Public seating is limited and available on a first-come, first-served basis. Members of the public wishing to attend the meeting must notify Mr. Jonathan Chesebro at the contact information below by 5:00 p.m. EDT on Friday, June 3, 2016 in order to pre-register for clearance into the building. Please specify any requests for reasonable accommodation at least five business days in advance of the meeting. Last minute requests will be accepted, but may be impossible to fill.
A limited amount of time will be available for pertinent brief oral comments from members of the public attending the meeting. To accommodate as many speakers as possible, the time for public comments will be limited to two (2) minutes per person, with a total public comment period of 30 minutes. Individuals wishing to reserve speaking time during the meeting must contact Mr. Chesebro and submit a brief statement of the general nature of the comments and the name and address of the proposed participant by 5:00 p.m. EDT on Friday, June 3, 2016. If the number of registrants requesting to make statements is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the meeting, ITA may conduct a lottery to determine the speakers. Speakers are requested to bring at least 20 copies of their oral comments for distribution to the participants and public at the meeting.
Any member of the public may submit pertinent written comments concerning the CINTAC's affairs at any time before and after the meeting. Comments may be submitted to the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, Room 4053, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. For consideration during the meeting, and to ensure transmission to the Committee prior to the meeting, comments must be received no later than 5:00 p.m. EDT on Friday, June 3, 2016. Comments received after that date will be distributed to the members but may not be considered at the meeting.
Copies of CINTAC meeting minutes will be available within 90 days of the meeting.
ITA, DOC.
Notice of determination to partially close two meetings of the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee (CINTAC).
This notice of determination announces the partial closure of the June 9, 2016 and August 4, 2016 meetings of the CINTAC.
The meetings are scheduled for Thursday, June 9, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT) and Thursday August 4, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. EDT. The public sessions of the meetings are from 3:00 p.m. to 4:00p.m.
The meetings will be held in Room 1412, U.S. Department of Commerce, Herbert Clark Hoover Building, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230.
Mr. Jonathan Chesebro, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, ITA, Room 4053, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20230. (Phone: 202-482-1297; Fax: 202-482-5665; email:
In response to requests from representatives of a substantial segment of the U.S. civil nuclear industry and the U.S. Departments of State and Energy, the Secretary of Commerce, under discretionary authority, established the Civil Nuclear Trade Advisory Committee (the committee) in 2008, pursuant to provisions under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 2. The committee was most recently re-chartered in August 2014 and the current charter is set to expire in August 2016. It advises the Secretary of Commerce on the development and administration of programs and policies to expand United States exports of civil
In connection with that function, the committee provides advice on: (1) Matters concerning trade policy development and negotiations relating to U.S. civil nuclear exports; (2) the effect of U.S. Government policies, regulations, and programs, and the policies and practices of foreign governments on the export of U.S. civil nuclear goods and services; (3) the competitiveness of U.S. industry and its ability to compete for civil nuclear products and services opportunities in international markets, including specific problems in exporting, and U.S. Government and public/private actions to assist civil nuclear companies in expanding their exports; (4) the identification of priority civil nuclear markets with the potential for high immediate returns for U.S. exports, as well as emerging markets with a longer-term potential for U.S. exports; (5) strategies to increase private sector awareness and effective use of U.S. Government export promotion programs, and how U.S. Government programs may be more efficiently designed and coordinated; (6) the development of complementary industry and trade association export promotion programs, including ways for greater and more effective coordination of U.S. Government efforts with private sector organizations' civil nuclear export promotion efforts; and (7) the development of U.S. Government programs to encourage producers of civil nuclear products and services to enter new foreign markets, in connection with which the committee may advise on how to gather, disseminate, and promote awareness of information on civil nuclear exports and related trade issues.
Committee members represent U.S. industry and related U.S. civil nuclear trade organizations.
Committee activities are conducted consistent with the provisions of the FACA and its implementing regulations, 41 CFR subpart 102-3. FACA section 10(d) provides that an advisory committee meeting, or portions thereof, may be closed if the head of the agency to which the advisory committee reports determines such meeting may be closed to the public in accordance with subsection (c) of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b(c)).
The closed portions of the meetings will involve committee discussions of proposed U.S. Government strategies and policies regarding: (1) Nuclear cooperation agreements; (2) implementation of the Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damage; (3) proposed bilateral commercial nuclear working groups; and (4) identification of specific trade barriers impacting the U.S. civil nuclear industry.
Subsection (c)(9)(B) of the Government in the Sunshine Act permits closure of a meeting or portion of a meeting if the meeting is likely to disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action. 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(9)(B). Premature disclosure of matters one through three listed in the preceding paragraph would be likely to significantly impair the implementation of proposed agency policies and actions.
Subsection (c)(4) of the Government in the Sunshine Act permits closure of a meeting or portion of a meeting if trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential will be disclosed at the meeting. 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4). As noted above in matter four, the committee will discuss foreign trade barriers facing the U.S. civil nuclear industry, with the aim of developing proposals for how the U.S. Government can develop strategies to strengthen the industry's competitiveness as it competes abroad. This portion of the meeting will include the disclosure of committee members' trade secrets and privileged or confidential commercial or financial information as the members discuss the specific trade barriers their companies and subsectors have encountered.
Accordingly, the Chief Financial Officer and Assistant Secretary for Administration at the U.S. Department of Commerce has determined, pursuant to Section 10(d) of the FACA (5 U.S.C. App. 2 section 10(d)), that the portions of the June 9 and August 4, 2016 meetings described above shall be exempt from the provisions relating to public meetings found in 5 U.S.C. App. 2 sections 10(a)(1) and 10(a)(3). This determination shall be effective from the date of its signing on May 13, 2016.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers/exporters of certain cold-rolled steel flat products (cold-rolled steel) from the People's Republic of China (the PRC). The Department also determines critical circumstances exist for certain imports of the subject merchandise from the PRC. The mandatory respondents in this investigation are the Government of the PRC (the GOC), Angang Group Hong Kong Co., Ltd. (Angang Hong Kong), and Benxi Iron and Steel (Group) Special Steel Co., Ltd. (Benxi Iron and Steel). The period of investigation is January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014.
Yasmin Bordas or John Corrigan, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-3813 or (202) 482-7438, respectively.
On December 22, 2015, the Department published its preliminary affirmative determination that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers/exporters of certain cold-rolled steel from the PRC in the
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold-reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
Since the
None of the mandatory respondents in the investigation provided information requested by the Department. Hence, no verification was conducted.
As discussed above, we received no comments from interested parties pertaining to the
For this final determination, we continue to find all programs in this proceeding countervailable—that is, they provide a financial contribution within the meaning of sections 771(5)(B)(i) and (D) of the Act, confer a benefit within the meaning of section 771(5)(B) of the Act, and are specific within the meaning of section 771(5A) of the Act. We are therefore continuing to include these programs in the determination of the AFA rates for Angang Hong Kong, Benxi Iron and Steel, and Qian'an Golden Point.
On October 30, 2015, Petitioners timely filed a critical circumstances allegation, pursuant to section 703(e)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206(c)(1), alleging that critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of cold-rolled steel from the PRC.
As stated above, the Department did not receive any comments concerning the preliminary determination. Thus, in accordance with section 705(a)(2) of the Act, we continue to find, on the basis of adverse facts available, that critical circumstances exist with respect to Angang Hong Kong, Benxi Iron and Steel and Qian'an Golden Point. We continue to determine that critical circumstances do not exist for all other producers/exporters of cold-rolled steel from the PRC because we do not find massive imports pursuant to 19 CFR 351.206(h)-(i).
In accordance with section 705(c)(1)(B)(i) of the Act, we calculated a countervailing duty rate for the individually investigated producers/exporters of the subject merchandise, Angang Hong Kong, Benxi Iron and Steel, and for non-cooperative exporter Qian'an Golden Point. With respect to
There is no other information on the record with which to determine an all-others rate. As a result, in accordance with section 705(c)(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, we have established the all-others rate by applying the countervailable subsidy rates for mandatory respondents Angang Hong Kong and Benxi Iron and Steel, which are the same as the rate applied to non-selected exporter Qian'an Golden Point. The final countervailable subsidy rates are summarized in the table below.
As a result of our
Moreover, as a result of our preliminary critical circumstances determination for Angang Hong Kong, Benxi Iron and Steel, and Qian'an Golden Point, pursuant to section 703(e)(2) of the Act, we instructed CBP to suspend liquidation of all entries of subject merchandise from the PRC which were entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption by these companies on or after September 23, 2015, the date 90 days prior to the date of the publication of the
If the U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC) issues a final affirmative injury determination, we will issue a CVD order and reinstate the suspension of liquidation under section 706(a) of the Act and will require a cash deposit of estimated CVDs for such entries of merchandise in the amounts indicated above. If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all estimated duties deposited or securities posted as a result of the suspension of liquidation will be refunded or canceled.
We described the calculations used to determine countervailing duty rates based on adverse facts available in the Issues and Decision Memorandum.
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our final affirmative determination of the provision of countervailable subsidies and final affirmative determination of critical circumstances, in part. Because the final determination in this proceeding is affirmative, in accordance with section 705(b)(2) of the Act, the ITC will determine, within 45 days, whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of cold-rolled steel from the PRC, or sales (or the likelihood of sales) for importation, of cold-rolled steel from the PRC. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all securities posted will be refunded or canceled. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, the Department will issue a countervailing duty order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, countervailing duties on appropriate imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information related to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
This notice will serve as a reminder to the parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APOs in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The products covered by this investigation are certain cold-rolled (cold-reduced), flat-rolled steel products, whether or not annealed, painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances. The products covered do not include those that are clad, plated, or coated with metal. The products covered include coils that have a width or other lateral measurement (“width”) of 12.7 mm or greater, regardless of form of coil (
(1) Where the nominal and actual measurements vary, a product is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above, and
(2) Where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
Steel products included in the scope of this investigation are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and (3) none of the elements listed below exceeds the quantity, by weight, respectively indicated:
• 2.50 percent of manganese, or
• 3.30 percent of silicon, or
• 1.50 percent of copper, or
• 1.50 percent of aluminum, or
• 1.25 percent of chromium, or
• 0.30 percent of cobalt, or
• 0.40 percent of lead, or
• 2.00 percent of nickel, or
• 0.30 percent of tungsten (also called wolfram), or
• 0.80 percent of molybdenum, or
• 0.10 percent of niobium (also called columbium), or
• 0.30 percent of vanadium, or
• 0.30 percent of zirconium
Unless specifically excluded, products are included in this scope regardless of levels of boron and titanium.
For example, specifically included in this scope are vacuum degassed, fully stabilized (commonly referred to as interstitial-free (IF)) steels, high strength low alloy (HSLA) steels, motor lamination steels, Advanced High Strength Steels (AHSS), and Ultra High Strength Steels (UHSS). IF steels are recognized as low carbon steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as titanium and/or niobium added to stabilize carbon and nitrogen elements. HSLA steels are recognized as steels with micro-alloying levels of elements such as chromium, copper, niobium, titanium, vanadium, and molybdenum. Motor lamination steels contain micro-alloying levels of elements such as silicon and aluminum. AHSS and UHSS are considered high tensile strength and high elongation steels, although AHSS and UHSS are covered whether or not they are high tensile strength or high elongation steels.
Subject merchandise includes cold-rolled steel that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to annealing, tempering, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the cold-rolled steel.
All products that meet the written physical description, and in which the chemistry quantities do not exceed any one of the noted element levels listed above, are within the scope of this investigation unless specifically excluded. The following products are outside of and/or specifically excluded from the scope of this investigation:
• Ball bearing steels;
• Tool steels;
• Silico-manganese steel;
• Grain-oriented electrical steels (GOES) as defined in the final determination of the U.S. Department of Commerce in
• Non-Oriented Electrical Steels (NOES), as defined in the antidumping orders issued by the U.S. Department of Commerce in
The products subject to this investigation are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7209.15.0000, 7209.16.0030, 7209.16.0060, 7209.16.0070, 7209.16.0091, 7209.17.0030, 7209.17.0060, 7209.17.0070,
The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.
National Institute of Standards and Technology, Department of Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Visiting Committee on Advanced Technology (VCAT or Committee), National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), will meet in an open session on Tuesday, June 7, 2016 from 8:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time and Wednesday, June 8, 2016 from 10:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. Eastern Time. The VCAT is composed of fifteen members appointed by the NIST Director who are eminent in such fields as business, research, new product development, engineering, labor, education, management consulting, environment, and international relations.
The VCAT will meet on Tuesday, June 7, 2016 from 8:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time and Wednesday, June 8, 2016 from 10:30 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.
The meeting will be held in the Portrait Room, Administration Building, at NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, Maryland 20899. Please note admittance instructions under the
Stephanie Shaw, VCAT, NIST, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 1060, Gaithersburg, Maryland 20899-1060, telephone number 301-975-2667. Ms. Shaw's email address is
15 U.S.C. 278 and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App.
The purpose of this meeting is for the VCAT to review and make recommendations regarding general policy for NIST, its organization, its budget, and its programs within the framework of applicable national policies as set forth by the President and the Congress. The agenda will include an update on major programs at NIST and presentations and discussions on safety at NIST. There will be presentations and discussion about how NIST achieves balance between core intramural research and extramural and convening activities in its Laboratory Programs. NIST's role in the Administration's National Strategic Computing Initiative will also be discussed. The agenda may change to accommodate Committee business. The final agenda will be posted on the NIST Web site at
Individuals and representatives of organizations who would like to offer comments and suggestions related to the Committee's affairs are invited to request a place on the agenda.
On Wednesday, June 8, approximately one-half hour in the morning will be reserved for public comments and speaking times will be assigned on a first-come, first-serve basis. The amount of time per speaker will be determined by the number of requests received, but is likely to be about 3 minutes each. The exact time for public comments will be included in the final agenda that will be posted on the NIST Web site at
All visitors to the NIST site are required to pre-register to be admitted. Please submit your name, time of arrival, email address and phone number to Stephanie Shaw by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time, Tuesday, May 31, 2016. Non-U.S. citizens must submit additional information; please contact Ms. Shaw. Ms. Shaw's email address is
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council's (Council's) Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel will hold a public meeting.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, June 22, 2016, from 10 a.m. until 4:30 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Double Tree by Hilton Baltimore—BWI Airport, 890 Elkridge Landing Road, Linthicum, Maryland 21090; telephone: (410) 859-8400.
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D., Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, telephone: (302) 526-5255.
The Council's Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel (AP) will meet jointly with the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission's (ASMFC's) Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel. The purpose of this meeting is to discuss recent performance of the commercial and recreational fisheries for summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass, and develop annual Fishery Performance Reports for these fisheries. The Council and the ASMFC will consider the Fishery Performance Reports later in 2016 when reviewing previously implemented multi-year fishery specifications (
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of SEDAR 50 Stock Identification (ID) Work Group Meeting for Atlantic
The SEDAR 50 assessment(s) of the Atlantic stock(s) of
The meeting will begin at 1 p.m. on Tuesday, June 28, 2016, and end at 3 p.m. on Thursday, June 30, 2016. The established times may be adjusted as necessary to accommodate the timely completion of discussion relevant to the assessment process. Such adjustments may result in the meeting being extended from, or completed prior to the time established by this notice. Additional SEDAR 50 workshops and Webinar dates and times will publish in a subsequent issue in the
The meeting will be held at the Doubletree by Hilton Raleigh Brownstone, 1707 Hillsborough Street, Raleigh, NC 27605; phone 919-828-0811. The meeting will also be broadcast via Webinar so that members of the public can observe the meeting. Those interested in observing the meeting via Webinar should contact Julia Byrd at SEDAR to request an invitation providing Webinar access information. Please request Webinar invitations at least 24 hours in advance of the meeting.
Julia Byrd, SEDAR Coordinator, 4055 Faber Place Drive, Suite 201, North Charleston, SC 29405; phone (843) 571-4366; email:
The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions, have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a three-step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing Webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report which compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report which describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, Highly Migratory Species Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include: data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and non-governmental organizations (NGOs); international experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and federal agencies.
The items of discussion at the Stock ID Work Group meeting are as follows:
1. Participants will use review genetic studies, growth patterns, existing stock definitions, prior SEDAR stock ID recommendations, and any other relevant information on
2. Participants will make recommendations on biological stock structure and define the unit stock or stocks to be addressed through this assessment.
3. Participants will provide recommendations to address Council management jurisdictions, to support management of the stock or stocks, and specification of management benchmarks and fishing levels by
4. Participants will document work group discussion and recommendations through a Data Workshop working paper for SEDAR 50.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for auxiliary aids should be directed to the SAFMC at least ten (10) business days prior to the meeting.
The times and sequence specified in this agenda are subject to change.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting.
The Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) will hold a listening session via webinar regarding the 2017 recreational specifications for blueline tilefish off the Mid-Atlantic (from Virginia north).
The meeting will be held Thursday, June 9, 2016 at 7 p.m.
The meeting will be held via webinar with a telephone-only audio connection option:
Christopher M. Moore, Ph.D. Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council; telephone: (302) 526-5255. The Council's Web site,
In April 2016, the Council recommended 2017 recreational measures for blueline tilefish off the Mid-Atlantic with an open season from May 1 to October 31 and bag limits of 7 fish per person for inspected for-hire vessels, 5 fish per person for uninspected for-hire vessels, and 3 fish per person for private vessels. Based on concerns of constituents regarding this recommendation, the Council has scheduled time at its June 13-16, 2016 meeting to potentially reconsider these measures. To provide additional opportunity for the public to comment on this issue, the Council will hold a webinar-based listening session. During the listening session Council staff will summarize the rationale for the original recommendation, answer questions, and take comments on possible alternatives, which will be provided to the Council. Telephone connection information is provided when individuals enter the webinar, or individuals can call (800) 832-0736 and enter *7833942# to access the audio portion of the webinar. Anyone not familiar with connecting to Council webinars and wishing to get connection assistance should contact Jason Didden at
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aid should be directed to M. Jan Saunders, (302) 526-5251, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
Board of Visitors of the U.S. Air Force Academy.
Amended meeting notice (location change).
In accordance with 10 U.S.C. 9355, the Board of Visitors (BoV) of the U.S. Air Force Academy will hold a meeting at the Cannon Building, Room 340, Washington, DC, on June 9, 2016. On Thursday, the meeting will begin at 8:30 a.m. and will conclude at 3:45p.m. Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Designated Federal Officer and the Department of Defense, the Board of Visitors of the U.S. Air Force Academy is unable to provide public notification, as required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a), concerning the change to the meeting location previously announced in
For additional information or to attend this BoV meeting, contact Lt Col Veronica Senia, Chief, Officer Accessions and Training, AF/A1PT, 1040 Air Force Pentagon, Washington, DC 20330, (703) 692-5577,
Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs, DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by July 25, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to Defense Health Agency, Performance Evaluation & Transition Management Branch, ATTN: Ann Fazzini, 16401 E. Centretech Parkway, Aurora, CO 80011-9066, telephone 303-676-3613.
This collection instrument is for use by medical institutions filing for reimbursement with the Defense Health Program, TRICARE, which includes the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (TRICARE/CHAMPUS). TRICARE/CHAMPUS is a health benefits entitlement program for the dependents of active duty members of the Uniformed Services, and deceased sponsors, retirees and their dependents, of the Department of Homeland Security (Coast Guard) sponsors and certain North Atlantic Treaty Organization, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, and Public Health Service eligible beneficiaries. Use of the UB-04/CMS-1450 continues TRICARE/CHAMPUS commitments to use the national standard claim form for reimbursement of medical services/supplies provided by institutional providers.
Office of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Acquisition Technology and Logistics (Program Support), DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by July 25, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Defense Manpower Data Center, Synchronized Predeployment and Operational Tracker Enterprise Suite (SPOT-ES) Program Management Office, ATTN: Samuel Gregson, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Suite 04E25, Alexandria, VA 22350, or call SPOT-ES PMO at 571-372-1139.
Data collection on contractors is a condition of DoD contracts when DFARS 252.225-7040,
SPOT is the authorized system for contractor accountability and the only system that provides the Letter of Authorization (LOA) which is required for access to Authorized Government Services (AGS) which are assigned on the LOA for each individual contractor IAW their contract by the responsible Contracting Officer. If the data is not collected to generate the LOA, contractors would not be able to obtain AGS in their deployed locations, including access to dining facilities—limiting their ability to obtain critical life support.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice.
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Numbers: 84.063; 84.038; 84.033; 84.007; 84.268; 84.408; 84.379.
The Secretary announces the annual updates to the tables used in the statutory Federal Need Analysis Methodology that determines a student's expected family contribution (EFC) for award year 2017-18 for these student financial aid programs. The intent of this notice is to alert the financial aid community and the broader public to these required annual updates used in the determination of student aid eligibility.
Marya Dennis, U.S. Department of Education, room 63G2, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3385.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Part F of title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), specifies the criteria, data elements, calculations, and tables the Department of Education (Department) uses in the Federal Need Analysis Methodology to determine the EFC.
Section 478 of the HEA requires the Secretary to annually update the following four tables for price inflation—the Income Protection Allowance (IPA), the Adjusted Net Worth (NW) of a Business or Farm, the Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance, and the Assessment
For award year 2017-18, the Secretary is charged with updating the IPA for parents of dependent students, adjusted NW of a business or farm, the education savings and asset protection allowance, and the assessment schedules and rates to account for inflation that took place between December 2015 and December 2016. However, because the Secretary must publish these tables before December 2016, the increases in the tables must be based on a percentage equal to the estimated percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for 2016. The Secretary must also account for any under- or over-estimation of inflation for the preceding year.
In developing the table values for the 2016-17 award year, the Secretary assumed a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2014 through December 2015. Actual inflation for this time period was .7 percent. The Secretary estimates that the increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2015 through December 2016 will be 2.1 percent.
Additionally, section 601 of the College Cost Reduction and Access Act of 2007 (CCRAA, Pub. L. 110-84) amended sections 475 through 478 of the HEA affecting the IPA tables for the 2009-10 through 2012-13 award years and required the Department to use a percentage of the estimated CPI to update the table in subsequent years. These changes to the IPA impact dependent students, as well as independent students with dependents other than a spouse and independent students without dependents other than a spouse. This notice includes the new 2017-18 award year values for the IPA tables, which reflect the CCRAA amendments. The updated tables are in sections 1 (Income Protection Allowance), 2 (Adjusted Net Worth of a Business or Farm), and 4 (Assessment Schedules and Rates) of this notice.
As provided for in section 478(d) of the HEA, the Secretary must also revise the education savings and asset protection allowances for each award year. The Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance table for award year 2017-18 has been updated in section 3 of this notice.
Section 478(h) of the HEA also requires the Secretary to increase the amount specified for the employment expense allowance, adjusted for inflation. This calculation is based on increases in the Bureau of Labor Statistics' marginal costs budget for a two-worker family compared to a one-worker family. The items covered by this calculation are: food away from home, apparel, transportation, and household furnishings and operations. The Employment Expense Allowance table for award year 2017-18 has been updated in section 5 of this notice.
The HEA requires the following annual updates:
1.
For each additional family member add $4,290. For each additional college student subtract $3,050.
The IPAs for independent students with dependents other than a spouse for award year 2017-18 are as follows:
For each additional family member add $6,060. For each additional college student subtract $4,300.
The IPAs for single independent students and independent students without dependents other than a spouse for award year 2017-18 are as follows:
2.
The portion of these assets included in the contribution calculation is computed according to the following
3.
4.
The parents' contribution for a dependent student is computed according to the following schedule:
The contribution for an independent student with dependents other than a spouse is computed according to the following schedule:
5.
The employment expense allowance for parents of dependent students, married independent students without dependents other than a spouse, and independent students with dependents other than a spouse is the lesser of $4,000 or 35 percent of earned income.
6.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
20 U.S.C. 1087rr.
Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of orders.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy gives notice that during April 2016, it issued orders granting authority to import and export natural gas, to import and export liquefied natural gas (LNG), denying request for rehearing, and granting motion for extension of time to file. These orders are summarized in the attached appendix and may be found on the FE Web site at
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of application.
E-T Global Energy, LLC (Applicant or E-T Global) has applied to renew its authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico pursuant to section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before June 23, 2016.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b), 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C.824a(e)).
On June 10, 2011, DOE issued Order No. EA-381 to E-T Global, which authorized the Applicant to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities. That authority expires on June 10, 2016. On May 13, 2016, E-T Global filed an application with DOE for renewal of the export authority contained in Order No. EA-381 for an additional five-year term.
In its application, E-T Global states that it does not own or operate any electric generation or transmission facilities, and it does not have a franchised service area. The electric energy that E-T Global proposes to export to Mexico would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning E-T Global's application to export electric energy to Mexico should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-381-A. An additional copy is to be provided directly to Rebecca DuPont, E-T Global Energy, LLC, 2121 Sage Road, Suite 270, Houston, TX 77056.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program Web site at
Department of Energy.
Notice of meetings.
The Industry Advisory Board (IAB) to the International Energy Agency (IEA) will meet on May 31 through June 1, 2016, at the headquarters of the IEA in Paris, France in connection with a joint meeting of the IEA's Standing Group on Emergency Questions (SEQ) and the IEA's Standing Group on the Oil Market (SOM) on May 31, 2016, in connection with a meeting of the SEQ on that day and on June 1, 2016.
May 31 through June 1, 2016.
9, rue de la Fédération, Paris, France.
Thomas Reilly, Assistant General Counsel for International and National Security Programs, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, 202-586-5000.
In accordance with section 252(c)(1)(A)(i) of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6272(c)(1)(A)(i)) (EPCA), the following notice of meetings is provided:
Meetings of the Industry Advisory Board (IAB) to the International Energy Agency (IEA) will be held at the headquarters of the IEA, 9, rue de la Fédération, Paris, France, on May 31, 2016, commencing at 2:00 p.m.. The purpose of this notice is to permit attendance by representatives of U.S. company members of the IAB at a joint meeting of the IEA's Standing Group on Emergency Questions (SEQ) and the IEA's Standing Group on the Oil Markets (SOM) on May 31, to be held at the same location commencing at 2:00 p.m. The IAB will also hold a preparatory meeting among company representatives at the same location at 8:30 a.m. on June 1. The agenda for this preparatory meeting is to review the agenda for the SEQ meeting. The SEQ meeting will commence, at the same location, on June 1, 2016 at 9:30 a.m.
The agenda of the joint meeting of the SEQ and SOM is under the control of the SEQ and SOM. It is expected that the SEQ and SOM will adopt the following agenda:
The agenda of the SEQ meeting on June 1, 2106 is under the control of the SEQ. It is expected that the SEQ will adopt the following agenda:
As provided in section 252(c)(1)(A)(ii) of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (42 U.S.C. 6272(c)(1)(A)(ii)), the meetings of the IAB are open to representatives of members of the IAB and their counsel; representatives of members of the IEA's Standing Group on Emergency Questions and the IEA's Standing Group on the Oil Markets; representatives of the Departments of Energy, Justice, and State, the Federal Trade Commission, the General Accounting Office, Committees of Congress, the IEA, and the European Commission; and invitees of the IAB, the SEQ, the SOM, or the IEA.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Paulding Wind Farm III LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 7, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Invenergy Energy Management LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 7, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of UIL Distributed Resources, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 6, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of LifeEnergy LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is June 6, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following qualifying facility filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following PURPA 210(m)(3) filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on May 11, 2016, pursuant to Rule 207(a)(2) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.207(a)(2) (2015), Rangeland RIO Pipeline, LLC (Rangeland), filed a petition for a declaratory order approving priority and non-priority service, overall rate structure, and terms of service as more fully set out in the petition, for the 109-mile RIO Pipeline project, to provide interstate and intrastate crude oil and condensate gathering and transportation service to serve producers, marketers, and refiners transport crude oil and condensate from the Delaware Basin production area to a terminus in Midland, Texas, all as more fully explained in the petition.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on June 1, 2016.
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Docket Number: PR16-53-000.
284.123(g) Protests Due: 5 p.m. ET 7/12/16.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on May 10, 2016, pursuant to Rule 207(a)(2) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.207(a)(2) (2015), Oasis Midstream Services LLC (Oasis), filed a petition for a declaratory order approving the overall rates, rate structure and open season for committed service for a new interstate crude oil pipeline. The pipeline will be approximately 19-miles long, have a capacity of approximately 50,000 barrels per day and be located in McKenzie County, North Dakota, all as more fully explained in the petition.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on June 10, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice; comment sought.
The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau seeks comment on petition filed by Atlantic Tele-Network, Inc., and SAL Spectrum, LLC, requesting, to the extent necessary, waiver of the Commission's rules to enable SAL to claim eligibility for a rural service provider bidding credit in its application to participate in Auction 1002.
Comments are due on or before May 26, 2016, and reply comments are due on or before June 2, 2016.
Interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. When filing documents, please reference AU Docket No. 14-252 and GN Docket No. 12-268.
Electronic Filers: Comments may be filed electronically using the Internet by accessing the ECFS:
Paper Filers: Parties who choose to file by paper must file an original and one copy of each filing. If more than one docket or rulemaking number appears in the caption of this proceeding, filers must submit two additional copies for each additional docket or rulemaking number.
Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
All hand-delivered or messenger-delivered paper filings for the Commission's Secretary must be delivered to FCC Headquarters at 445 12th St. SW., Room TW-A325, Washington, DC 20554. The filing hours are 8:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. All hand deliveries must be held together with rubber bands or fasteners. Any envelopes and boxes must be disposed of
Commercial overnight mail (other than U.S. Postal Service Express Mail and Priority Mail) must be sent to 9300 East Hampton Drive, Capitol Heights, MD 20743.
U.S. Postal Service first-class, Express, and Priority mail must be addressed to 445 12th St. SW., Washington DC 20554.
People with Disabilities: To request materials in accessible formats (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
This is a summary of the
1. On May 3, 2016, Atlantic Tele-Network, Inc. (ATN), and its wholly-owned subsidiary SAL Spectrum, LLC (SAL) (together Petitioners), filed a petition requesting, to the extent necessary, waiver of 47 CFR 1.2110(f)(4) to enable SAL to claim eligibility for a rural service provider bidding credit in its application to participate in Auction 1002, the forward auction portion of the broadcast incentive auction. The Bureau seeks comment on the petition.
2. In its application, SAL seeks a rural service provider bidding credit, which provides an eligible applicant with a 15 percent discount on its winning bid(s). To be eligible, an applicant must,
3.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the FDIC is soliciting comment on the renewal of the information collections described below.
Comments must be submitted on or before July 25, 2016.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
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All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Gary Kuiper or Manny Cabeza, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently-approved collections of information:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the collections of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collections of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
Federal Election Commission.
Thursday, May 26, 2016 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC (Ninth Floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
Individuals who plan to attend and require special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should contact Shawn Woodhead Werth, Secretary and Clerk, at (202) 694-1040, at least 72 hours prior to the meeting date.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Federal Election Commission.
Thursday, May 19, 2016 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street, NW., Washington, DC (ninth floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
The Following Item Was Also Discussed: REG 2014-01 Outline of Draft NPRM Implementing Party Segregated Accounts.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) announce the following committee meeting.
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), announces the following meeting for the aforementioned subcommittee:
10:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m., EDT, June 14, 2016
In December 2000, the President delegated responsibility for funding, staffing, and operating the Advisory Board to HHS, which subsequently delegated this authority to CDC. NIOSH implements this responsibility for CDC. The charter was issued on August 3, 2001, renewed at appropriate intervals, rechartered on March 22, 2016 pursuant to Executive Order 13708, and will expire on September 30, 2017.
The agenda is subject to change as priorities dictate.
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announce the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
The meeting will be webcast live via the World Wide Web; for instructions and more information on ACIP please visit the ACIP Web site:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (P. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following committee meeting.
It is the intent of NIOSH to support broad-based research endeavors in keeping with the Institute's program goals. This will lead to improved understanding and appreciation for the magnitude of the aggregate health burden associated with occupational injuries and illnesses, as well as to support more focused research projects, which will lead to improvements in the delivery of occupational safety and health services, and the prevention of work-related injury and illness. It is anticipated that research funded will promote these program goals.
These portions of the meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with provisions set forth in Section 552b(c)(4) and (6), Title 5 U.S.C., and the Determination of the Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, pursuant to Section 10(d) Pub. L. 92-463. Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Ingress/Egress and Work Boot Outsole Wear Investigation at Surface Mines—New—National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The mission of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to promote safety & health at work for all people through research and prevention. NIOSH, under PL 91-173 as amended by PL 95-164 (Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977) has the responsibility to conduct research to improve working conditions and to prevent accidents and occupational diseases in the U.S. mining sector. The goal of the proposed project is to investigate how ingress/egress systems on mobile equipment, and personal protective footwear (boots) used by miners may lead to slips, trips and falls at stone, sand and gravel surface mining facilities. NIOSH is requesting a three-year approval for this data collection.
The project objective will be achieved through two studies. The first study aims to: Identify elements of ingress/egress systems on haulage trucks and front end loaders that pose a risk of slips, trips and falls (STFs) and could lead to STF related injuries; to determine worker behavior associated with STF incidents; and to learn how purchasing/maintenance decisions are made for ingress/egress systems. In the surface mining industry, it is still unclear which component of the ingress/egress system poses the greatest risk for STF. Hence there is a need to understand where, how and why STF incidents occur during ingress/egress on mobile equipment.
NIOSH will conduct semi-structured interviews and focus groups with mobile equipment operators, and interviews with mine management to explore the issues identified above. Focus groups will be conducted in a private setting with 4-6 participants using a predefined list of questions to help guide the discussion. Semi-structured interviews will be conducted either in person or over the telephone. Two separate interview guides will be used for mobile equipment operators and mine management to guide the discussion.
For the focus groups and semi-structured interviews, NIOSH will collect basic demographic information including years of mining experience, years of experience with haul trucks/front end loaders, and models of haul trucks/front end loaders operated most often in the past year. The semi-structured interviews and focus groups will be audio recorded for further analysis of the discussion. The semi-structured interviews will last no longer than 60 minutes and the focus groups will last no longer than 90 minutes.
The second study aims to identify changes in tread (wear) on the work boot outsoles and other outsole characteristics that will be used in further analysis to develop guidelines for work boot replacement based on measureable features of boot outsoles. This information will also be used in further analysis to determine desirable and undesirable features of work boots based on mine characteristics or job activities. Most mining companies replace footwear at a pre-determined interval or based on appearance and comfort (Chiou, Bhattacharya, & Succop, 1996) with little knowledge of the actual condition of the boot outsole and its influence on the likelihood of a STF incident. Although there have been attempts to quantify shoe outsole wear in industrial work when the shoe was ready for disposal (Chiou et al., 1996), there is a lack of knowledge in the mining industry on how quickly the outsoles of work boots wear, what sorts of wear occur, and how wear patterns influence the likelihood of a STF.
For the longitudinal study, NIOSH will provide participants with a pair of new work boots of their choice, in accordance with mine requirements and policies. Afterwards, participants will complete a preliminary survey and provide basic demographic information, details of their current work boots, and details of STF incidents in the past 3 months. Participants will be requested to wear the supplied boots at work and treat the boots as they would any pair of boots they would wear at work.
NIOSH researchers will scan the boot outsoles longitudinally, at 2- to 3-month intervals for the length of the study. To better understand wear patterns and risks, participants will complete an on-going survey that records hours worked, locations commonly visited, and tasks performed along with details of any near miss or STF event. These self-reports will be collected via survey on a bi-weekly basis. Participants will be offered multiple modalities to respond to the survey (in-person, on paper, over the telephone, via email or using an online survey) to increase response rates. When a participant feels their boots need to be replaced (or when the end of the two-year tracking period has been reached), they will complete a final survey assessing why the boots were at the end of their life and will return their boots to NIOSH researchers for further analysis.
For the cross-sectional study, participants' current work boots will be scanned and participants will complete the preliminary survey that includes basic demographic information, details of current work boots, and details of STF events in the past three months.
The results of these research studies will have very different applications, but one goal: Reducing the risks of STF accidents at surface mining facilities. The results of the ingress/egress study will help identify features of the ingress/egress system that may lead to STF accidents so that they can be made safer by the manufacturers and to allow mining companies to make better purchasing decisions and encourage the acquisition of systems with better slip and fall protection. The results of the boot outsole wear study will be used to inform mine policy and practices by providing miners and mine managers with the knowledge to determine when to replace footwear based on measurable features of the boot outsoles.
The total estimated burden hours are 643. There is no cost to the respondents other than their time.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Preventive Health and Health Services Block Grant (OMB Control No. 0920-0106, exp. 8/31/2016)—Revision—Office for State, Tribal, Local and Territorial Support (OSTLTS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The management of the Preventive Health and Health Services (PHHS) Block Grant program has transitioned from the National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion to the Office for State, Tribal, Local and Territorial Support (OSTLTS). The Program continues to provide awardees with a source of flexible funding for health promotion and disease prevention programs. Currently, 61 awardees (50 states, the District of Columbia, two American Indian Tribes, and eight U.S. territories) receive Block Grants to address locally-defined public health needs in innovative ways. Block Grants allow awardees to prioritize the use of funds and to fill funding gaps in programs that deal with the leading causes of death and disability. Block Grant funding also provides awardees with the ability to respond rapidly to emerging health issues, including outbreaks of diseases or pathogens. The PHHS Block Grant program is authorized by sections 1901-1907 of the Public Health Service Act.
CDC currently collects information from Block Grant awardees to monitor their objectives and activities (Preventive Health and Health Services Block Grant, OMB Control No. 0920-0106, expiration 8/31/2016). Each awardee is required to submit an annual application for funding (Work Plan) that describes its objectives and the populations to be addressed, and an Annual Report that describes activities, progress toward objectives, and Success Stories which highlight the improvements Block Grant programs have made and the value of program activities. Information is submitted electronically through the web-based Block Grant Information Management System (BGMIS).
CDC PHHS Block Grant program has benefited from this system by efficiently collecting mandated information in a format that allows data to be easily retrieved in standardized reports. The electronic format verifies completeness of data at data entry prior to submission to CDC, reducing the number of re-submissions that are required to provide concise and complete information.
The Work Plan and Annual Report are designed to help Block Grant awardees attain their goals and to meet reporting requirements specified in the program's authorizing legislation. Each Work Plan objective is defined in SMART format (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and Time-based), and includes a specified start date and end date. Block Grant activities adhere to the Healthy People (HP) framework established by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The current version of the BGMIS associates each awardee-defined activity with a specific HP National Objective, and identifies the location where funds are applied. Although there are no substantive changes to the information collected, the Work Plan guidance document for users has been updated to improve their usability and the clarity of instructions provided to BGMIS users.
There are no changes to the number of Block Grant awardees (respondents), or the estimated burden per response for the Work Plan or the Annual Report. At this time, the BGMIS does not collect data related to performance measures, but a future information collection request may outline additional reporting requirements related to performance measures.
The PHHS Block Grant program must continue to collect data in order to remain in compliance with legislative mandates. The system allows CDC and Grantees to measure performance, identifying the extent to which objectives were met and identifying the most highly successful program interventions.
CDC requests OMB approval to continue the Block Grant information collection for three years. CDC will continue to use the BGMIS to monitor awardee progress, identify activities and personnel supported with Block Grant funding, conduct compliance reviews of Block Grant awardees, and promote the use of evidence-based guidelines and interventions. There are no changes to the number of respondents or the estimated annual burden per respondent. The Work Plan and the Annual Report will be submitted annually. The estimated burden per response for the Work Plan is 20 hours and the estimated burden per response for the Annual Report is 15 hours.
Participation in this information collection is required for Block Grant awardees. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. Awardees continue to submit Success Stories with their Annual Progress reports through BGMIS, without changes.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey Supplement on Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (NAMCS CLAS)—New—National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
As the population of the United States becomes increasingly diverse, it is important that health care providers deliver culturally and linguistically competent services. Culturally and linguistically appropriate services (CLAS) are respectful of and responsive to individual cultural health beliefs and practices, preferred languages, health literacy levels, and communication needs. The National CLAS Standards in Health and Health Care were established in 2000 by the Office of Minority Health (OMH), Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to advance health equity, improve quality, and eliminate health care disparities. In 2013, OMH published the Enhanced Standards for CLAS in Health and Health Care to revise the National CLAS Standards in order to reflect advancements made since 2000, expand their scope and improve their clarity to ensure better understanding and implementation. Although there has been increased awareness and efforts to train culturally and linguistically competent health care providers, there has not been a systematic evaluation of the level of adoption or implementation of the National CLAS Standards among physicians. Due to the limited understanding of how the Standards are adopted and implemented, it is difficult to know what goals have been achieved and which need more work.
OMH came to NCHS' Division of Health Care Statistics with this project because of our expertise collecting data from physicians in the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS). The NAMCS CLAS project meets two of the Division's missions: conduct multidisciplinary research directed towards development of new scientific knowledge on the provision, use, quality, and appropriateness of ambulatory care; and develop and sustain collaborative partnerships internally within DHHS and externally with public, private, domestic and international entities on health care statistics programs. The purpose of the NAMCS CLAS survey is to describe the awareness, training, adoption, and implementation of the Enhanced Standards for CLAS in Health and Health Care among office-based physicians. The information will be collected directly from physician respondents through an online survey, paper form or telephone administration. Telephone interviews will be the follow-up alternative for non-respondents. Information that will be collected includes demographic information, specialty, number of years the physician has provided direct patient care, training related to cultural competency and the National CLAS Standards, provision of CLAS to patients, organizational characteristics that aided or hindered provision of CLAS, and awareness of the National CLAS Standards.
The target universe of the NAMCS CLAS includes non-federally employed physicians who were classified by the American Medical Association (AMA) or the American Osteopathic Association (AOA) as providing “office-based, patient care.” The target universe excludes physicians in the specialties of anesthesiology, radiology, and pathology. The survey sample of 2,400 physicians will be used as the basis to provide regional and national estimates. Participation in the NAMCS CLAS is voluntary. There will be no financial incentive to participate. A one-year approval will be requested.
There is no cost to the respondents other than their time. The total estimated annual burden hours are 676.
Estimated Annualized Burden Hours
In accordance with Section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces, the following meeting of the aforementioned committee:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention CDC is soliciting nominations for membership on the ACIP. The ACIP consists of 15 experts in fields associated with immunization, who are selected by the Secretary of the U. S. Department of Health and Human Services to provide advice and guidance to the Secretary, the Assistant Secretary for Health, and the CDC on the control of vaccine-preventable diseases. The role of the ACIP is to provide advice that will lead to a reduction in the incidence of vaccine preventable diseases in the United States, and an increase in the safe use of vaccines and related biological products. The committee also establishes, reviews, and as appropriate, revises the list of vaccines for administration to children eligible to receive vaccines through the Vaccines for Children (VFC) Program.
Nominations are being sought for individuals who have expertise and qualifications necessary to contribute to the accomplishments of the committee's objectives. Nominees will be selected based on expertise in the field of immunization practices; multi-disciplinary expertise in public health; expertise in the use of vaccines and immunologic agents in both clinical and preventive medicine; knowledge of vaccine development, evaluation, and vaccine delivery; or knowledge about
The next cycle of selection of candidates will begin in the summer of 2016, for selection of potential nominees to replace members whose terms will end on June 30, 2017.
Selection of members is based on candidates' qualifications to contribute to the accomplishment of ACIP objectives (
Current
At least one letter of recommendation from person(s) not employed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services*
The deadline for receipt of all application materials (for consideration for term beginning July 1, 2017) is June 30, 2016. All files must be submitted electronically as email attachments to: Ms. Stephanie Thomas, c/o ACIP Secretariat, Email:
Nominations may be submitted by the candidate him- or herself, or by the person/organization recommending the candidate.
* Candidates may submit letter(s) from current HHS employees if they wish, but at least one letter must be submitted by a person
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than June 23, 2016.
Submit your comments, including the Information Collection Request Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
This notice, in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c)(1) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i), that the National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), is contemplating the grant of an exclusive license to practice the inventions embodied in the following Patent Applications to Dimension Therapeutics, Inc. (“Dimension”) located in Cambridge, Massachusetts, USA:
United States Provisional Patent Application No. 61/908,861, filed November 26, 2013, titled “Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors for the Treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease” [HHS Reference No. E-552-2013/0-US-01]; International Patent Application No. PCT/US2014/067415 filed November 25, 2014 titled “Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors for the Treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease” [HHS Reference No. E-552-2013/0-PCT-02] and continuation applications, divisional applications and foreign counterpart applications claiming priority to the US provisional application No. 61/908,861.
With respect to persons who have an obligation to assign their right, title and interest to the Government of the United States of America, the patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the Government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive licensed territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to: “Development and commercialization of gene therapy using adeno-associated viral vectors for the treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease Type Ia.”
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the NIH Office of Technology Transfer on or before June 8, 2016 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, comments, and other materials relating to the contemplated exclusive license should be directed to: Surekha Vathyam, Ph.D., Senior Licensing and Patenting Manager, National Cancer Institute Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Rm. 1E-530, MSC9702, Rockville, MD 20850-9702, Email:
The subject technologies disclose novel adeno-associated virus (AAV) vectors expressing human glucose-6-phosphatase-alpha (G6Pase-alpha or G6PC) for the treatment of glycogen storage disease, particularly glycogen storage disease type Ia (GSD-Ia). GSD-Ia is an inherited disorder of metabolism associated with life-threatening hypoglycemia, hepatic malignancy, and renal failure caused by the deficiency of G6Pase-alpha, a key enzyme in maintaining blood glucose homeostasis between meals. The two novel gene therapy vectors of the invention, rAAV-GPE-G6PC and rAAV-GPE-co-G6PC are recombinant AAV vectors expressing
The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing and will comply with the terms and conditions of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the NIH receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7.
Complete applications for a license in the prospective field of use that are filed in response to this notice will be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated Exclusive Patent License Agreement. Comments and objections submitted to this notice will not be made available for public inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
This notice, in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(c)(1) and 37 CFR part 404.7(a)(1)(i), that the National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), is contemplating the grant of an exclusive license to practice the inventions embodied in the following Patent Applications to Dimension Therapeutics, Inc. (“Dimension”) located in Cambridge, Massachusetts, USA:
United States Provisional Patent Application No. 62/096,400, filed December 23, 2014, titled “Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors Encoding G6PC and Uses Thereof” [HHS Reference No. E-039-2015/0-US-01]; International Patent Application No. PCT/US2015/067338 filed December 22, 2015 titled “Adeno-Associated Virus Vectors Encoding G6PC and Uses Thereof” [HHS Reference No. E-039-2015/0-PCT-02]; and all continuation applications, divisional applications and foreign counterpart applications claiming priority to the U.S. provisional application No. 62/096,400.
The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned and/or exclusively licensed to the Government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive licensed territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to: “Development and commercialization of gene therapy using adeno-associated viral vectors for the treatment of Glycogen Storage Disease Type Ia.”
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the NIH Office of Technology Transfer on or before June 8, 2016 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, comments, and other materials relating to the contemplated exclusive license should be directed to: Surekha Vathyam, Ph.D., Senior Licensing and Patenting Manager, National Cancer Institute Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Rm 1E-530 MSC9702, Rockville, MD 20850-9702, Email:
The subject technology discloses novel adeno-associated virus (AAV) vectors expressing human G6Pase-alpha (or G6PC) for the treatment of glycogen storage disease, particularly GSD-Ia. GSD-Ia is an inherited disorder of metabolism associated with life-threatening hypoglycemia, hepatic malignancy, and renal failure caused by the deficiency of G6Pase-alpha, a key enzyme in maintaining blood glucose homeostasis between meals. These new recombinant AAV vectors that express human G6Pase-alpha directed by the tissue-specific human G6PC promoter/enhancer at nucleotides -2864 to -1 incorporate the following improvements: (1) One expresses a variant of G6Pase-alpha with enhanced enzymatic activity; (2) the other expresses a codon-optimized variant of G6Pase-alpha with higher enzyme expression levels and enhanced enzymatic activity.
The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing and will comply with the terms and conditions of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.7. The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the NIH receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.7.
Complete applications for a license in the prospective field of use that are filed in response to this notice will be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated Exclusive Patent License Agreement. Comments and objections submitted to this notice will not be made available for public inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications/contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications/contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Under the provisions of Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA), the National Institutes of Health, has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Direct Comments to OMB: Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to the: Office of Management and Budget, Office of Regulatory Affairs,
Comment Due Date: Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of the date of this publication.
To obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, submit comments in writing, or request more information on the proposed project, contact*: Dr. Belinda Sims, Health Scientist, DESPR, PRB, National Institute on Drug Abuse, 6001 Executive Boulevard Room 5153, MSC 9589 Bethesda, Maryland 20892-9589,-toll-free number (301) 402-1533 or Email your request, including your address to:
Proposed Collection: Iwin: Navigating your Path to Well-Being, 0925-NEW, National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA,) National Institutes of Health (NIH).
The overarching objective of this proposal is to conduct a randomized trial to evaluate the effectiveness of the Individual Well-Being Navigator (Iwin) mobile application, a substance abuse prevention and well-being enhancement program designed specifically for military personnel. Iwin provides an innovative, tailored mobile application using best practices in behavior change science and innovative technology to assist military personnel in preventing substance abuse and enhancing well-being by providing them with the most appropriate intervention content at the right time. It integrates Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change based tailoring, SMS messaging, stage of change matched activities, and engaging game-like features in a cutting edge multiple behavior change program. The first year of this project will focus on the completion of development and beta testing of the app. In year 2, the efficacy of the Iwin program will be determined by tests of statistical significance indicating that participants in the Treatment condition had lower scores on an index of substance use and other behavioral risks than the control group at 6 and 9 month follow-up. The overall design is a 2 group (treatment and control group) by 3 Occasions with repeated measures across occasions. Once shown to be effective, the Iwin program will assist organizations that serve military personnel to meet the directives of both the DoD and CJCS indicating that prevention programs be evidence based, evaluated by the specified populations and address full Total Force Fitness paradigm rather than a single behavior.
OMB approval is requested for 1 year. There are no capital, operating, and/or maintenance costs. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 1,760.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The contract proposals and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the contract proposals, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee will meet in Detroit, Michigan to discuss committee matters relating to Great Lakes pilotage, including the review of proposed regulations and policies. This meeting is open to the public.
The Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee will meet on Tuesday, June 14, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Please note that this meeting may close early if the committee completes its business.
The meeting will be held at the Detroit Metro Airport Marriott, Dearborn Room, 30559 Flynn Drive, Romulus, MI, 48174. The telephone number for the hotel is 734-729-7555 and the Web site is:
Commandant (CG-WWM-2), ATTN: Ms. Michelle Birchfield, Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee Alternate Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Coast Guard Stop 7509, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20593-7509; telephone 202-372-1537, fax 202-372-8387, or email at
Notice of this meeting is in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, (Title 5, U.S.C. Appendix). The Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee, established under the authority of 46 U.S.C. 9307, makes recommendations to the Secretary of Homeland Security and the Coast Guard on matters relating to Great Lakes pilotage, including the review of proposed Great Lakes pilotage regulations and policies.
Further information about the Great Lakes Pilotage Advisory Committee is available here:
Public comments or questions will be taken throughout the meeting as the committee discusses the issues and prior to deliberations and voting. There will also be a public comment period at the end of the meeting. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 5 minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the period allotted, following the last call for comments. Contact the individual listed in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4269-DR), dated April 25, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of April 25, 2016.
Austin, Colorado, Waller, and Wharton Counties for Individual Assistance.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4269-DR), dated April 25, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective May 9, 2016.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of April 25, 2016.
Fort Bend, Liberty, Montgomery, and San Jacinto Counties for Individual Assistance.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on an extension, without change, of a currently approved information collection. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice seeks comments concerning the collection of information from grant recipients requesting to purchase controlled equipment.
Comments must be submitted on or before July 25, 2016.
To avoid duplicate submissions to the docket, please use only one of the following means to submit comments:
(1)
(2)
All submissions received must include the agency name and Docket ID. Regardless of the method used for submitting comments or material, all submissions will be posted, without change, to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Abigail Bordeaux, Management & Program Analyst, FEMA, Grant Programs Directorate, at (202) 786-0872. You may contact the Records Management Division for copies of the proposed collection of information at email address:
This form was developed to collect required information as part of the implementation of
In accordance with
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the ADDRESSES caption above. Comments are solicited to (a) evaluate whether the proposed data collection is necessary for the proper performance of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Arkansas (FEMA-4270-DR), dated May 6, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated May 6, 2016, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Arkansas resulting from severe storms, tornadoes, straight-line winds, and flooding during the period of March 8-13, 2016, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Charles Maskell, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Arkansas have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Arkansas, Ashley, Bradley, Calhoun, Chicot, Cleveland, Columbia, Desha, Lincoln, Ouachita, Phillips, and Prairie Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Arkansas are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until June 23, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Acting Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
The collection of information implements changes to the admission and occupancy Requirements for the Public Housing and Section 8 Assisted Housing Programs made by the Quality Housing and Work Responsibility (QHWRA) Act 1998, (Title V of the FY 1999 HUD appropriations Act, Public Law 105-276, 112 Stat. 2518, approved October 21, 1998), which amended the United States Housing Act of 1937. QHWRA made comprehensive changes to HUD's Public Housing Section 8 Programs. Some of the changes made by the 1998 Act (
Revisions are made to this collection to reflect adjustments in calculations based on the total number of current, active public housing agencies (PHAs) to date. The number of active public housing agencies has changed from 4,058 to 3,946 since the last approved information collection. The number of PHAs can fluctuate due to a number of factors, including but not limited to the merging of two or more PHAs or the termination of the public housing and/or voucher programs.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
Under the Endangered Species Act, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, announce the receipt and availability of two proposed low-effect habitat conservation plans and accompanying incidental take permit applications for take of the Alabama beach mouse habitat incidental to construction in Gulf Shores, Alabama. We invite public comments on these documents.
We must receive any written comments at our Alabama Field Office (see
Mr. Bill Lynn, Fish and Wildlife Biologist (see
We announce the availability of two proposed low-effect habitat conservation plans (HCP), which analyze the take of the Alabama beach mouse (
The applicant proposes to minimize and mitigate the take of up to 1.02 acres of ABM habitat at 1932 West Beach Boulevard, Gulf Shores, Alabama, by using routine ABM conservation measures at the proposed development (such as minimizing construction footprint, restoration of native vegetation, and measures to minimize effects to ABM during occupancy and use of the development) and by donating a 0.91-acre “inholding” lot of Bon Secour National Wildlife Refuge (BSNWR). The lot proposed for development currently has a single-family house on it and a large portion of the lot has been previously used as a construction storage yard. The lot proposed for mitigation is within the acquisition boundary of Bon Secour National Wildlife Refuge, and contains high-quality habitat and will be donated to the Alabama Coastal Heritage Trust (ACHT). ACHT will either place a conservation easement on the lot or eventually convey it to BSNWR.
The applicant proposes to minimize and mitigate the take of up to 0.06 acres of ABM habitat at an inholding lot off Mobile Street within the Perdue Unit of Bon Secour National Wildlife Refuge (BSNWR), Gulf Shores, Alabama by using standard ABM conservation measures at the proposed development and by donating an “in-lieu” fee to the Friends of Bon Secour National Wildlife Refuge group (FBSNWR). The lot proposed for development currently is undeveloped, but will utilize an existing driveway to minimize impacts. The “in-lieu” fee will be donated to the FBSNWR group whom will use the fee to either managed, maintain, or acquire ABM habitat within the BSNWR Perdue Unit.
We have made a preliminary determination that the applicants' projects, including the mitigation measures, will individually and cumulatively have a minor or negligible effect on the species covered in the HCPs. Therefore, our proposed issuance of the requested ITPs qualifies as a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), as provided by Department of the Interior implementing regulations in part 46 of
We base our determination that issuance of each ITP qualifies as a low-effect action on the following three criteria: (1) Implementation of the project would result in minor or negligible effects on federally listed, proposed, and candidate species and their habitats; (2) Implementation of the project would result in minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources; and (3) Impacts of the plan, considered together with the impacts of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable similarly situated projects, would not result, over time, in cumulative effects to environmental values or resources that would be considered significant. As more fully explained in our environmental action statement and associated Low-Effect Screening Form, the applicant's proposed project qualifies as a “low-effect” project. This preliminary determination may be revised based on our review of public comments that we receive in response to this notice.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
If you wish to comment, you may submit comments by any one of several methods. Please reference TE84215B-0 (West Beach LLC), or TE84216B-0 (Charles M. Smith) in such comments. You may mail comments to the Fish and Wildlife Service's Alabama Field Office (see
The area encompassed by the HCPs and applications is the 1.02-acre lot located at 1932 West Beach Boulevard, and the 0.39-acre inholding lot located in the Perdue Unit of Bon Secour National Wildlife Refuge, in Gulf Shores, Alabama.
We will evaluate the ITP applications, including the HCP's and any comments we receive, to determine whether the application meets the requirements of section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. We will also evaluate whether issuance of a section 10(a)(1)(B) ITP complies with section 7 of the Act by conducting an intra-Service section 7 consultation. We will use the results of this consultation, in combination with the above findings, in our final analysis to determine whether or not to issue the ITP. If we determine that the requirements are met, we will issue the ITPs for the incidental take of ABM habitat.
We provide this notice under Section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Bureau of Land Management's (BLM) Pecos District Resource Advisory Council (RAC) will meet as indicated below.
The RAC will meet on June 30, 2016, at Concho Resources, 2208 West Main Street, Artesia, New Mexico, from 9:00 a.m.-3:00 p.m. The public may send written comments to the RAC at the BLM Pecos District, 2909 West 2nd Street, Roswell, New Mexico 88201.
Howard Parman, Pecos District Office, Bureau of Land Management, 2909 West 2nd Street, Roswell, New Mexico 88201, 575-627-0212. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8229 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
The 10-member Pecos District RAC advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in the BLM's Pecos District. Planned agenda items include: A presentation of the Draft Carlsbad Resource Management Plan/Environmental Impact Statement; a review of the Lesser Prairie-Chicken ACEC Activity Plan; modifications to the business plan for the Rob Jaggers Campground; a discussion of BLM workload changes due to drop in oil prices; the status of public land along the upper Black River; a presentation of BLM's proposed venting and flaring rule; and a presentation of proposed projects under the Restore New Mexico program.
All RAC meetings are open to the public. There will be a half-hour public comment period at 9:30 a.m. for any interested members of the public who wish to address the RAC. Depending on the number of persons wishing to speak and time available, the time for individual comments may be limited.
Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior.
Notice.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, as amended, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) has prepared a Proposed Resource Management Plan
BLM planning regulations state that any person who meets the conditions as described in the regulations may protest the BLM's Proposed RMP Amendment/Final Supplemental EIS. A person who meets the conditions and files a protest must file the protest within 30 days of the date that the Environmental Protection Agency publishes its notice of availability in the
Copies of the Proposed RMP Amendment/Final Supplemental EIS have been sent to affected Federal, State, and local government agencies and to other stakeholders, including the Nez Perce Tribe. Copies of the Proposed RMP Amendment/Final Supplemental EIS are available for public inspection at the Cottonwood Field Office, 1 Butte Drive, Cottonwood, ID 83522, phone 208-962-3245. Interested persons may also review the Proposed RMP/Final EIS on the Internet at
•
•
Scott Pavey, telephone: (208) 769-5059; address: BLM Coeur d'Alene District, Schreiber Way, Coeur d'Alene, ID 83815; email:
The BLM proposes to amend the 2009 Cottonwood RMP by providing new management direction and allocations for livestock grazing on 19,405 acres of BLM lands within four BLM allotments in Idaho and Adams Counties in Idaho.
In August 2008, the BLM published the Proposed Cottonwood RMP and Final EIS and subsequently received a number of protests on the proposed decision. The Director of the BLM denied all protest issues except one, which was in regard to the adequacy of the range of alternatives for management of domestic sheep grazing on four BLM allotments that are within bighorn sheep habitat. Specifically, the Director found that the Final EIS did not include an adequate range of alternatives to address potential disease transmission from domestic sheep and goats to bighorn sheep, and remanded decisions in the Proposed RMP for managing grazing in four allotments to the State Director to complete a Supplemental EIS that would include a reasonable range of alternatives for planning decisions for managing livestock grazing and that would analyze the impacts of domestic sheep and goat grazing within the four allotments. The Director further specified that the Supplemental EIS would be for the limited purpose of analyzing the impacts of domestic sheep and goat grazing within the four allotments.
The Supplemental EIS identifies and analyzes three related planning issues:
(1) Bighorn Sheep—Domestic sheep and goats may contact and transmit diseases to bighorn sheep, which may be a contributing factor to the downward trend in bighorn populations.
(2) Native American Tribal Interests and Treaty Rights—BLM management of livestock grazing, specifically domestic sheep and goats, may affect the availability of resources and uses (specifically related to bighorn sheep) that are important to the interests and rights of the Nez Perce Tribe.
(3) Livestock Grazing and Social and Economic Interests—Changes to BLM management of livestock grazing may affect the local economy.
Comments on the Draft RMP Amendment/Draft Supplemental EIS received from the public and internal BLM review were considered and incorporated as appropriate into the proposed plan amendment. Analysis of public comments did not result in significant changes to the proposed land use plan decisions, but did lead to the following changes in the analysis: (1) Elimination of an analytical assumption that identified a threshold for inter-species contact resulting in disease outbreak; (2) Replacement of reference to effects on bighorn sheep “population persistence” with effects on population “trends” and “sustainability;” (3) Consideration of two additional alternatives which were eliminated from detailed analysis; (4) Updates to modeling data; (5) Citations of additional and current scientific literature; (6) Clarifications regarding how an area along the Little Salmon River, which does not have a distinct herd, was considered; and (7) Information regarding the recent designation of bighorn sheep as a BLM Idaho sensitive species. Instructions for filing a protest with the Director of the BLM regarding the Proposed RMP/Final EIS may be found in the “Dear Reader” Letter of the Proposed RMP Amendment/Final Supplemental EIS and at 43 CFR 1610.5-2. All protests must be in writing and mailed to the appropriate address, as set forth in the
Before including your phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your protest, you should be aware that your entire protest—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your protest to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
40 CFR 1506.6, 40 CFR 1506.10, 43 CFR 1610.2, 43 CFR 1610.5
United States International Trade Commission.
June 8, 2016 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: none.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. No. 731-TA-1070B (Second Review)(Certain Tissue Paper Products from China). The Commission
5. Outstanding action jackets: none.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission:
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at EDIS,
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at USITC.
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to section 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Segway, Inc.; DEKA Products Limited Partnership; and Ninebot (Tianjin) Technology co., Ltd. on May 18, 2016. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. § 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain personal transporters, components thereof, and packaging and manuals therefor. The complaint names as respondents Inventist, Inc. of Camas, WA; PhunkeeDuck, Inc. of Floral Park, NY; Razor USA LLC of Cerritos, CA; Swagway LLC of South Bend, IN; Segaway of Studio City, CA; and Jetson Electric Bikes LLC. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a general exclusion order, a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or section 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3148”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of sections 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, on April 20, 2016, pursuant to section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
In addition, the following parties have withdrawn as parties to this venture: Watervliet Arsenal/Tobyhanna Army Depot, Watervliet, NY; CostVision, Boulder, CO; Delphi Delco Electronics, Kokomo, IA; DoD/RAMP, Crane, IN; General Dynamics Electric Boat Division, Groton, CT; Ford Motor Company, Dearborn, MI; General Motors Corporation, Warren, MI; IBM Corporation, Southburg, CT; IDA Inc., Westchester, IL; Integrated Support Systems, Inc., Clemson, SC; MacNeal-Schwendler Corporation, Los Angeles, CA; Northrop Grumman Corporation, Pico Rivera, CA; Parametrics Technology Corporation, Waltham, MA; Rockwell Collins, Cedar Rapids, IA; Rolls Royce plc, Derby, UNITED KINGDOM; STEP Tools Inc., Troy, NY; and United Technologies Corporation/Pratt & Whitney, Hartford, CT.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and PDES intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On September 20, 1988, PDES filed its original notification pursuant to section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on August 26, 1998. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on April 25, 2016, pursuant to section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and AC
On March 20, 2015, AC
The last notification was filed with the Department on March 15, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on May 2, 2016, pursuant to section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Stratus Technologies, Inc., Maynard, MA; Midokura USA Inc., San Francisco, CA; Broadcom Corporation, Irvine, CA; and Altera Corporation, San Jose, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Open Platform for NFV Project intends to file
On October 17, 2014, Open Platform for NFV Project filed its original notification pursuant to section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on February 16, 2016. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on April 29, 2016, pursuant to section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and ODPi intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On November 23, 2015, ODPi filed its original notification pursuant to section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on February 8, 2016. A notice was published in the
On May 18, 2015, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the District of Maine in the lawsuit entitled
In the Complaint, Plaintiffs allege that the Defendants are liable to the United States and the State of Maine under Section 1002(a) and (b) of the Oil Pollution Act of 1990, 33 U.S.C. 2702 (a) and (b), and to the State of Maine under the Maine Oil Discharge Prevention and Pollution Control Law, 38 M.R.S. § 552, for damages for injury to, destruction of, loss of, or loss of use of, Natural Resources, including the reasonable cost of assessing the damages, resulting from discharges of oil that occurred starting at least as early as the 1970s at the former Chevron and Texaco marine oil terminal facilities located, respectively, at 799 and 809 Main Road North in Hampden, Maine. The Consent Decree requires the Defendants to pay $880,000 to be used by the Plaintiffs for restoration of Natural Resources, and $42,862 to the United States for reimbursement of Natural Resource Damages assessment costs.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Consent Decree Library, U.S. DOJ—ENRD, P.O. Box 7611, Washington, DC 20044-7611.
Please enclose a check or money order for $7.25 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on February 3, 2016, applicable to workers and former workers of KBR, Inc., Houston, Texas (subject firm). The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of the State of Texas, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers whose wages are reported under: Kellogg, Brown, and Root, LLC; KBR Technical Services, Inc.; BR Industrial Operations, LLC; Brown & Root Industrial Services, LLC, and Technical Staffing Resources, Ltd.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-91,205 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of KBR, Inc., including on-site leased workers from Technical Staffing Resources, and including workers whose wages are reported under Kellogg, Brown, and Root, LLC; KBR Technical Services, Inc.; BR Industrial Operations, LLC; Brown & Root Industrial Services, LLC, and Technical Staffing Resources, Ltd., Houston, Texas, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after December 8, 2014 through February 3, 2018, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on December 8, 2014 through February 3, 2018, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on July 29, 2015, applicable to workers of Baker Hughes Incorporated, Claremore, Oklahoma (TA-W-85,954), Baker Hughes Incorporated, Broken Arrow, Oklahoma (TA-W-85,954A), and Baker Hughes Incorporated, Hampton, Arkansas (TA-W-85,954B). The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of a worker, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers were engaged in activities related to the production of oil field tools (pumps, motors, seals, safety valves, and composite plugs).
The company reports that workers leased from Kelly Services were employed on-site at the Claremore, Oklahoma location of Baker Hughes Incorporated. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm to be considered leased workers.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from Kelly Services working on-site at Claremore, Oklahoma location of Baker Hughes Incorporated.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-85,954 is hereby issued as follows:
“All workers of Baker Hughes Incorporated, including on-site leased workers from Kelly Services, Claremore, Oklahoma (TA-W-85,954), Baker Hughes Incorporated, Broken Arrow, Oklahoma (TA-W-85,954A), and Baker Hughes Incorporated, Hampton, Arkansas (TA-W-85,954B), who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after April 22, 2014 through July 29, 2017, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on the date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.”
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on July 16, 2014, applicable to workers of Kimberly Carbonates, LLC, a wholly owned subsidiary of Omya, Inc., Kimberly, Wisconsin (subject firm). The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of a State of Wisconsin, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm.
The State asserts that workers leased from US Tech Force were employed on-site at the Kimberly, Wisconsin location of Kimberly Carbonates, LLC. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from US Tech Force working on-site at the Kimberly, Wisconsin location of Kimberly Carbonates, LLC.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-85,302 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Kimberly Carbonates, LLC, a wholly owned subsidiary of Omya, Inc., including on-site leased workers from US Tech Force, Kimberly, Wisconsin, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after May 12, 2013 through July 16, 2016, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended, and are also eligible to apply for alternative trade adjustment assistance under Section 246 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on July 2, 2014, applicable to workers and former workers of United States Steel Corporation, Lorain Tubular Operations, Lorain, Ohio. On May 22, 2015, the Department issued an Amended Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance applicable to workers and former workers of United States Steel Corporation, Fairfield Works-Flat Roll and Fairfield-Tubular Operations, Fairfield, Alabama (TA-W-85,286A). The workers are engaged in activities related to the production of steel tubular products such as pipes and include those who are engaged in activities related to production, such as maintenance, administrative support, safety, and security.
Subsequent to the issuance of the amended certification, the Department received information that workers of Total Safety US worked on-site at the Fairfield, Alabama facility.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to clarify that the worker group at United States Steel Corporation, Fairfield Works-Flat Roll and Fairfield-Tubular Operations, Fairfield, Alabama (TA-W-85,286A) includes on-site workers from Total Safety US. The amended notice applicable to TA-W-85,286A is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of United States Steel Corporation, Fairfield Works-Flat Roll Operations and Fairfield-Tubular Operations, including on-site workers leased workers from Total Safety US, Fairfield, Alabama (TA-W-85,286A), who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after May 2, 2013 through July 2, 2016 are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended, and are also eligible to apply for alternative trade adjustment assistance under Section 246 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
Petitions have been filed with the Secretary of Labor under Section 221 (a) of the Trade Act of 1974 (“the Act”) and are identified in the Appendix to this notice. Upon receipt of these petitions, the Director of the Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, has instituted investigations pursuant to Section 221(a) of the Act.
The purpose of each of the investigations is to determine whether the workers are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Title II, Chapter 2, of the Act. The investigations will further relate, as appropriate, to the determination of the date on which total or partial separations began or threatened to begin and the subdivision of the firm involved.
The petitioners or any other persons showing a substantial interest in the subject matter of the investigations may request a public hearing, provided such request is filed in writing with the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, no later than June 3, 2016.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments regarding the subject matter of the investigations to the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, not later than June 3, 2016. The petitions filed in this case are available for inspection at the Office of the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-5428, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2273) the Department of Labor herein presents summaries of determinations regarding eligibility to apply for trade adjustment assistance for workers by (TA-W) number issued during the period of
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for workers of a primary firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(a) of the Act must be met.
I. Under Section 222(a)(2)(A), the following must be satisfied:
(1) a significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the sales or production, or both, of such firm have decreased absolutely; and
(3) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) imports of articles or services like or directly competitive with articles produced or services supplied by such firm have increased;
(B) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles into which one or more component parts produced by such firm are directly incorporated, have increased;
(C) imports of articles directly incorporating one or more component parts produced outside the United States that are like or directly competitive with imports of articles incorporating one or more component parts produced by such firm have increased;
(D) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles which are produced directly using services supplied by such firm, have increased; and
(4) the increase in imports contributed importantly to such workers' separation or threat of separation and to the decline in the sales or production of such firm; or
II. Section 222(a)(2)(B) all of the following must be satisfied:
(1) a significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) there has been a shift by the workers' firm to a foreign country in the production of articles or supply of services like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm;
(B) there has been an acquisition from a foreign country by the workers' firm of articles/services that are like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm; and
(3) the shift/acquisition contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected secondary workers of a firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(b) of the Act must be met.
(1) a significant number or proportion of the workers in the workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the workers' firm is a Supplier or Downstream Producer to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act, and such supply or production is related to the article or service that was the basis for such certification; and
(3) either—
(A) the workers' firm is a supplier and the component parts it supplied to the firm described in paragraph (2) accounted for at least 20 percent of the production or sales of the workers' firm; or
(B) a loss of business by the workers' firm with the firm described in paragraph (2) contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected workers in firms identified by the International Trade Commission and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(e) of the Act must be met.
(1) the workers' firm is publicly identified by name by the International Trade Commission as a member of a domestic industry in an investigation resulting in—
(A) an affirmative determination of serious injury or threat thereof under section 202(b)(1);
(B) an affirmative determination of market disruption or threat thereof under section 421(b)(1); or
(C) an affirmative final determination of material injury or threat thereof under section 705(b)(1)(A) or 735(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b)(1)(A) and 1673d(b)(1)(A));
(2) the petition is filed during the 1-year period beginning on the date on which—
(A) a summary of the report submitted to the President by the International Trade Commission under section 202(f)(1) with respect to the affirmative determination described in paragraph (1)(A) is published in the
(B) notice of an affirmative determination described in subparagraph (1) is published in the
(3) the workers have become totally or partially separated from the workers' firm within—
(A) the 1-year period described in paragraph (2); or
(B) not withstanding section 223(b)(1), the 1-year period preceding the 1-year period described in paragraph (2).
The following certifications have been issued. The date following the company name and location of each determination references the impact date for all workers of such determination.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(A) (increased imports) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(b) (supplier to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(e) (firms identified by the International Trade Commission) of the Trade Act have been met.
In the following cases, the investigation revealed that the eligibility criteria for worker adjustment assistance have not been met for the reasons specified.
The investigation revealed that the criterion under paragraph (a)(1) or (b)(1) (employment decline or threat of separation) of section 222 has not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs (a)(2)(A)(i) (decline in sales or production, or both) and (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country) of section 222 have not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs (a)(2)(A) (increased imports) and (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country) of section 222 have not been met.
After notice of the petitions was published in the
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioner has requested that the petition be withdrawn.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued in cases where these petitions were not filed in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 90.11. Every petition filed by workers must be signed by at least three individuals of the petitioning worker group. Petitioners separated more than one year prior to the date of the petition cannot be covered under a certification of a petition under Section 223(b), and therefore, may not be part of a petitioning worker group. For one or more of these reasons, these petitions were deemed invalid.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioning groups of workers are covered by active certifications. Consequently, further investigation in these cases would serve no purpose since the petitioning group of workers cannot be covered by more than one certification at a time.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitions are the subject of ongoing investigations under petitions filed earlier covering the same petitioners.
I hereby certify that the aforementioned determinations were issued during the period of
Employment and Training Administration, Labor.
Notice of funding opportunity announcement.
The Employment and Training Administration (ETA), U.S. Department of Labor (DOL), announces the availability of approximately $80 million in grant funds authorized by the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) (Pub. L.113-128) for YouthBuild.
Under this Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA), DOL will award grants through a competitive process to organizations to oversee the provision of education, occupational skills training, and employment services to disadvantaged youth while performing meaningful work and service to their communities. DOL hopes to serve approximately 5,250 participants during the grant period of performance, with approximately 80 projects awarded across the country. Individual grants will range from $700,000 to $1.1 million and require an exact 25 percent match from applicants, using sources other than federal funding. The grant period of performance for this FOA is 40 months, including a four-month planning period.
The complete FOA and any subsequent FOA amendments in connection with this funding opportunity are described in further detail on ETA's Web site at
The closing date for receipt of applications under this announcement is July 6, 2016. Applications must be received no later than 4:00:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
Kia Mason, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Room N-4716, Washington, DC 20210; Telephone: 202-693-2606.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Securities Lending by Employee Benefit Plans, Prohibited Transaction Exemption 2006-16,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before June 23, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-EBSA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Securities Lending by Employee Benefit Plans, Prohibited Transaction Exemption (PTE) 2006-16, information collection. PTE 2006-16 permits an employee benefit plan to lend securities to certain broker-dealers and banks and to make compensation arrangements for lending services provided by a plan fiduciary in connection with such securities loans. The PTE includes third-party disclosures, specifically financial statements and lending and compensation agreements. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 section 408(a) authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2016. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) revision titled, “Unemployment Insurance Data Validation,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before June 23, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or sending an email to
This ICR seeks approval under the PRA for revisions to the Unemployment Insurance (UI) Data Validation (DV) information collection. The UI DV Program requires a State to operate a system for ascertaining the validity (
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
9:30 a.m., Tuesday, June 7, 2016.
NTSB Conference Center, 429 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594.
The two items are open to the public.
Telephone: (202) 314-6100.
The press and public may enter the NTSB Conference Center one hour prior to the meeting for set up and seating.
Individuals requesting specific accommodations should contact Rochelle Hall at (202) 314-6305 or by email at
The public may view the meeting via a live or archived webcast by accessing a link under “News & Events” on the NTSB home page at
Schedule updates, including weather-related cancellations, are also available at
Candi Bing at (202) 314-6403 or by email at
Eric Weiss at (202) 314-6100 or by email at
National Women's Business Council.
Notice of open public meeting.
The Public Meeting will be held on Thursday, June 30, 2016 from 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held virtually via teleconference.
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C., Appendix 2), the U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) announces the meeting of the National Women's Business Council. The National Women's Business Council conducts research on issues of importance and impact to women entrepreneurs and makes policy recommendations to the SBA, Congress, and the White House on how to improve the business climate for women.
This meeting is the 3rd quarter meeting for Fiscal Year 2016. The program will include remarks from the Council Chair, Carla Harris; updates on research projects in progress, including: Women's participation in corporate supplier diversity programs, women's participation in accelerators and incubators, entrepreneurship amongst black women, and ecosystems; a recap of the Council's recent engagement efforts; and an announcement of the Council's new research portfolio. The Council will also share a new tool—a resource platform for women in pursuit of growth. Time will be reserved at the end for audience participants to address Council Members directly with questions, comments, or feedback. Additional speakers will be promoted upon confirmation.
The meeting is open to the public however advance notice of attendance is requested. To RSVP and confirm attendance, the general public should
For more information, please visit the National Women's Business Council Web site at
In accordance with the purposes of Sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232b), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold a meeting on June 8-10, 2016, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
Thirty-five hard copies of each presentation or handout should be provided 30 minutes before the meeting. In addition, one electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the Cognizant ACRS Staff one day before meeting. If an electronic copy cannot be provided within this timeframe, presenters should provide the Cognizant ACRS Staff with a CD containing each presentation at least 30 minutes before the meeting.
In accordance with Subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chairman. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room at
Video teleconferencing service is available for observing open sessions of ACRS meetings. Those wishing to use this service should contact Mr. Theron Brown, ACRS Audio Visual Technician (301-415-8066), between 7:30 a.m. and 3:45 p.m. (ET), at least 10 days before the meeting to ensure the availability of this service. Individuals or organizations requesting this service will be responsible for telephone line charges and for providing the equipment and facilities that they use to establish the video teleconferencing link. The availability of video teleconferencing services is not guaranteed.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Construction permit application; opportunity to request a hearing and petition for leave to intervene; order.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is providing notice of an uncontested hearing and an opportunity to request a hearing on the Northwest Medical Isotopes, LLC (NWMI), construction permit application that proposes the construction of a medical radioisotope production facility in Columbia, Missouri. The NRC staff is currently conducting a detailed technical review of the construction permit application. If the NRC issues a construction permit, the applicant, NWMI, would be authorized to construct its proposed production facility in accordance with the provisions of the construction permit. The application contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI).
A request for a hearing must be filed by July 25, 2016. Any potential party as defined in § 2.4 of title 10 of the
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2013-0235 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
•
Michael Balazik, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2856, email:
By letters dated February 5, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15086A261), and July 20, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15210A182), NWMI submitted a construction permit application that proposed to construct a medical radioisotope production facility. The notice accepting part one of the application for docketing was published on June 8, 2015 (80 FR 32418). The notice accepting the second and final portion of NWMI's two-part construction permit application for docketing was published on January 4, 2016 (81 FR 101). The docket number established for this application is 50-609.
The NRC is considering issuance of a construction permit to NWMI that would authorize construction of the NWMI proposed production facility as defined by 10 CFR part 50, “Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities,” to be located in Columbia, Missouri.
Pursuant to the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and 10 CFR parts 2 and 50, “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” and “Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities,” respectively, notice is hereby given that an uncontested (
The uncontested hearing on the application for a construction permit filed by NWMI pursuant to 10 CFR part 50 will be conducted by the Commission. The NRC staff will complete a detailed technical review of the application and will document its findings in a safety evaluation report. The Commission will refer a copy of the application to the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) in accordance with 10 CFR 50.58, “Hearings and Report of the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards,” and the ACRS will report on those portions of the application that concern safety. The NRC staff will also complete an environmental review of the application and will document its findings in an environmental impact statement in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR part 51, “Environmental Protection Regulations for Domestic Licensing and Related Regulatory Functions.”
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene with respect to issuance of the construction permit application. Requests for a hearing and petitions for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure,” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The requestor/petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the construction permit application under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the requestor/petitioner to relief. A requestor/petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by July 25, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under § 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by July 25, 2016.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing SUNSI.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request such access. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requester shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1); and
(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requester's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly-available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention.
D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C.(3) the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.
E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that
G. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff after a determination on standing and need for access, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) The requester may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) The presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an administrative law judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) an officer if that officer has been designated to rule on information access issues.
H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requester may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed with the Chief Administrative Judge within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. Attachment 1 to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing a Confirmatory Order to Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc. (Entergy), confirming agreements reached in an Alternative Dispute Resolution Session held on March 25, 2016. As part of the agreement, Entergy will take a number of actions, including: (1) Developing a case study pertaining to the leakage of the Safety Injection Refueling Water Tank at the Palisades Nuclear Plant and training site personnel with an emphasis on lessons learned from the event; (2) sharing facts and lessons learned with the Entergy Fleet and other reactor licensees; (3) reviewing and revising the Entergy corrective action and operability determination procedures to ensure indeterminate and/or changing conditions are addressed, and (4) modifying the current outreach program at Palisades to include wide audience and discussions of the event, plant safety, and current operations.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0104 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Magdalena Gryglak, Region III, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Lisle, Illinois, 60532; telephone: 630-810-4372, email:
The text of the Order is attached.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Entergy Nuclear Operations, Inc. (Entergy) is the holder of Reactor Operating License No. DPR-20 issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or Commission) pursuant to Title 10 of the
This Confirmatory Order is the result of an agreement reached during an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mediation session conducted on March 25, 2016.
On June 25, 2012, the NRC Office of Investigations (OI), Region III Field Office initiated an investigation (OI Case No. 3-2012-021) to determine whether personnel at Palisades deliberately failed to provide complete and accurate information to the NRC regarding a potential leak in the Safety Injection Refueling Water Tank (SIRWT), thereby violating 10 CFR 50.9, “Completeness and Accuracy of Information.” The Office of Investigations completed its investigation on March 10, 2015, and the NRC provided a factual summary of the investigation in a letter to Entergy dated February 22, 2016 (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Accession No. ML16053A472). Based on the review of the OI investigation report, the NRC determined that four Palisades employees willfully violated 10 CFR part 50, Appendix B, Criterion V, “Instructions, Procedures, and Drawings,” by failing to comply with the Palisades corrective action program procedure. The NRC also determined that Entergy violated 10 CFR part 50, Appendix B, Criterion V, “Instructions, Procedures, and Drawings,” based on an inadequate operability determination. In addition, the NRC found that Entergy violated Technical Specifications (TS), Surveillance Requirement (SR) 3.0.3 by not performing either a missed surveillance test within 24 hours from identification or a risk evaluation to complete the surveillance at a later time.
More specifically, on May 18, 2011, Palisades employees initiated Condition Report (CR) PLP-2011-02491 when leakage from the ceiling in the Palisades main control room was identified following heavy rains in the area. Based on the evidence gathered during the OI investigation, the NRC determined that four Palisades employees willfully violated NRC requirements by failing to enter a condition adverse to quality into Palisades' corrective action program, after they either initiated or received emails that concluded with high certainty that the SIRWT or associated piping was the source of the leakage. Their actions caused Entergy to be in violation of 10 CFR part 50, Appendix B, Criterion V, “Instructions, Procedures, and Drawings,” and Procedure EN-LI-102, “Corrective Action Process,” Revision 16, which requires employees to promptly identify and initiate CRs for conditions adverse to quality.
On June 2, 2011, Entergy performed a direct visual inspection of the catacombs, an area directly above the control room and below the SIRWT, to look for sources of leakage. As a result of the inspection, Palisades identified an active flange leak on a 3-inch SIRWT piping flange (CR PLP-2011-02738) and an active leak from the catacombs ceiling (CR PLP-2011-02740). The NRC determined that Entergy violated NRC requirements by failing to perform an operability determination for the catacombs ceiling leak. Additionally, Entergy failed to perform an engineering evaluation for the SIRWT when Palisades staff identified active boric acid leakage from a safety injection flange with carbon steel bolts. These failures caused Entergy to be in violation of 10 CFR part 50, Appendix B, Criterion V, “Instructions, Procedures, and Drawings,” and Procedure EN-OP-104, “Operability Determination Process,” Revision 5, which required Entergy to assess operability when degraded conditions affecting structures, systems, and components, were identified.
The NRC also determined Entergy to be in violation of Palisades TS, SR 3.0.3, which required it to either perform a missed surveillance test within 24 hours or a risk
Entergy accepted the NRC's offer of ADR to resolve differences it had with the NRC over the results of the investigation and these apparent violations. Alternative Dispute Resolution is a process in which a neutral mediator with no decision-making authority assists the parties in reaching an agreement on resolving any differences regarding the dispute. On March 25, 2016, Entergy and the NRC met in an ADR session mediated by a professional mediator, arranged through Cornell University's Institute on Conflict Resolution.
Prior to the NRC's offer to engage in ADR, Entergy had already taken several corrective actions, including (but not limited to): (1) repair of the SIRWT; (2) waterproofing the concrete support structure below the SIRWT nozzles; (3) changes to management and other personnel at the station; (4) addressing safety culture by training site personnel, increasing leadership communication of safety culture expectations, and completing an independent third party assessment of safety culture; and (5) implementing a Recovery Plan at Palisades to strengthen safety culture, the corrective action program, and leadership effectiveness.
During the ADR session, the NRC and Entergy reached a preliminary settlement agreement. The NRC is issuing this Confirmatory Order pursuant to the agreement reached during the ADR process. The elements of the agreement, as signed by both parties, consist of the following:
1. Entergy does not believe that any of the above violations were committed willfully, but rather were the product of deficiencies in the organizational safety culture that existed at the time those violations occurred. The parties agreed to disagree on the issue of willfulness.
2. Entergy will ensure site personnel understand lessons learned from this matter:
2a. Within 180 days of the effective date of the Confirmatory Order, Entergy will develop a case study with the participation of key personnel in operations, chemistry, radiation protection, and engineering, addressing lessons learned from the events that gave rise to the Confirmatory Order. The case study will include applicable safety culture traits, including the importance of conservative decisionmaking; going forward in the face of uncertainty; the need for nuclear personnel to demonstrate a questioning attitude; and the threshold for initiating corrective action documents, especially when dealing with indeterminate and/or changing conditions.
2b. Within 180 days of the completion of item 2a., Entergy will present the case study to the Palisades site leadership team (first-line supervisors and above) during focused leadership training; licensed and non-licensed operators during routine requalification training; engineering personnel during routine Engineering Support Personnel training; and chemistry, radiation protection, and maintenance personnel during continuing training. This training will include long-term contractor personnel who would normally attend.
2c. No later than December 31, 2017, the Entergy Safety Review Committee, Oversight Subcommittee, will report to the Entergy Chief Nuclear Officer on the effectiveness of the training in item 2b. Upon completion of the report, Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, and make the report available to the NRC for inspection.
3. Entergy will share lessons learned from this matter with other reactor licensees:
3a. Within 180 days of completion of item 2a., Entergy will present the lessons learned from the case study to the Entergy fleet in
3b. Within 360 days of completion of item 2a., Entergy will present the lessons learned from the case study at: (1) A Regional Utility Group meeting in each of the NRC Regions that Entergy operates; and (2) a suitable industry-wide forum such as the Nuclear Energy Institute Licensing Forum.
3c. Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, at least 30 days prior to any scheduled presentation under item 3b, and make the presentation materials available for NRC review.
3d. No later than December 31, 2017, Entergy will affirm in writing to the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, that the presentations in items 3a. and 3b. were conducted.
4. Within 360 days of the effective date of the Confirmatory Order, Entergy will review Procedure EN-OP-104, “Operability Determination Process,” and Procedure EN-LI-102, “Corrective Action Process,” in light of the lessons learned from events associated with leakage of the SIRWT and revise these procedures as appropriate. In particular, the review will evaluate the adequacy of those procedures to address indeterminate and/or changing conditions. Upon completion of the procedure reviews and applicable revisions, Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, and make the procedures available to the NRC for inspection.
5. Entergy will modify its current program of public outreach at Palisades. The modifications will include, at a minimum:
5a. Ensuring key stakeholders, including Federal, State, and local government officials, non-government organizations interested in Palisades, and members of the local community, are invited to the meetings.
5b. Ensuring the subject of each meeting includes plant safety and operations.
5c. Ensuring the format of the meeting permits the audience to raise questions, such as in a town hall environment.
5d. Ensuring at least one meeting is held no later than December 31, 2016, which will address the events that led to this Confirmatory Order.
5e. Ensuring at least two meetings are held per calendar year in 2017 and 2018.
In exchange for Entergy fulfilling its commitments under this Confirmatory Order, and for the corrective actions Entergy has already taken, the NRC agreed to the following conditions:
1. The NRC will consider this Confirmatory Order as an escalated enforcement action for a period of one year from its effective date.
2. The NRC will refrain from issuing a Notice of Violation and proposing a civil penalty for the apparent violations described in the NRC letter to Entergy dated February 22, 2016.
On May 5, 2016, Entergy consented to issuing this Confirmatory Order with the commitments described in Section V. Entergy further agreed that this Confirmatory Order is to be effective 30 calendar days after issuance and waived its right to a hearing on the Confirmatory Order.
Since the Entergy agrees to take additional actions to address NRC concerns, as set forth in Section III above, the NRC concludes that its concerns can be resolved through issuance of this Confirmatory Order.
I find that Entergy's commitments set forth in Section V are acceptable and necessary, and I conclude that with these commitments the public health and safety are reasonably assured. In view of the foregoing, I have determined that public health and safety require that Entergy's commitments be confirmed by this Confirmatory Order. Based on the above and based on Entergy's consent, this Confirmatory Order is effective 30 calendar days after issuance.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 104b, 161b, 161i, 161o, 182, and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202, and 10 CFR part 50, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED THAT:
1. Entergy will ensure site personnel understand lessons learned from this matter:
1a. Within 180 days of the effective date of the Confirmatory Order, Entergy will develop a case study with the participation of key personnel in operations, chemistry, radiation protection, and engineering, addressing lessons learned from the events that gave rise to the Confirmatory Order. The case study will include applicable safety culture traits, including the importance of conservative decisionmaking; going forward in the face of uncertainty; the need for nuclear personnel to demonstrate a questioning attitude; and the threshold for initiating corrective action documents, especially when dealing with indeterminate and/or changing conditions.
1b. Within 180 days of the completion of item 1a., Entergy will present the case study to the Palisades site leadership team (first-line supervisors and above) during focused leadership training; licensed and non-licensed operators during routine requalification training; engineering personnel during routine Engineering Support Personnel training; and chemistry, radiation protection, and maintenance personnel during continuing training. This training will include long-term contractor personnel who would normally attend.
1c. No later than December 31, 2017, the Entergy Safety Review Committee, Oversight Subcommittee, will report to the Entergy Chief Nuclear Officer on the effectiveness of the training in item 1b. Upon completion of the report, Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, and make the report available to the NRC for inspection.
2. Entergy will share lessons learned from this matter with other reactor licensees:
2a. Within 180 days of completion of item 1a., Entergy will present the lessons learned from the case study to the Entergy fleet in
2b. Within 360 days of completion of item 1a., Entergy will present the lessons learned from the case study at: (1) A Regional Utility Group meeting in each of the NRC Regions that Entergy operates; and (2) a suitable industry-wide forum such as the Nuclear Energy Institute Licensing Forum.
2c. Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, at least 30 days prior to any scheduled presentation under item 2b. and make the presentation materials available for NRC review.
2d. No later than December 31, 2017, Entergy will affirm in writing to the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, that the presentations in items 2a. and 2b. were conducted.
3. Within 360 days of the effective date of the Confirmatory Order, Entergy will review Procedure EN-OP-104, “Operability Determination Process,” and Procedure EN-LI-102, “Corrective Action Process,” in light of the lessons learned from events associated with leakage of the SIRWT and revise these procedures as appropriate. In particular, the review will evaluate the adequacy of those procedures to address indeterminate and/or changing conditions. Upon completion of the procedure reviews and applicable revisions, Entergy will notify in writing the Director, Division of Reactor Projects, NRC Region III, and make the procedures available to the NRC for inspection.
4. Entergy will modify its current program of public outreach at Palisades. The modifications will include, at a minimum:
4a. Ensuring key stakeholders, including Federal, State, and local government officials, non-government organizations interested in Palisades, and members of the local community are invited to the meetings.
4b. Ensuring the subject of each meeting includes plant safety and operations.
4c. Ensuring the format of the meetings permits the audience to raise questions, such as in a town hall environment.
4d. Ensuring at least one meeting is held no later than December 31, 2016, which will address the events that led to this Confirmatory Order.
4e. Ensuring at least two meetings are held per calendar year in 2017 and 2018.
5. The conditions of this order are binding upon the successors and assigns of Entergy.
The Regional Administrator, Region III, may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by the Licensee of good cause.
Any person adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order, other than Entergy may request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance date of this Confirmatory Order. Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be directed to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007), as amended by 77 FR 46562; August 3, 2012 (codified in pertinent part at 10 CFR part 2, subpart C). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten (10) days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System (EIE), users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene through the EIE. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted a
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
If a person other than the Licensee requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which his interest is adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f).
If a hearing is requested by a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue a separate Order designating the time and place of any hearings, as appropriate. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Confirmatory Order should be sustained.
In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section V above shall be final 30 days after issuance of the Confirmatory Order without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section V shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
Dated at Lisle, Illinois this 16 day of May, 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Biweekly notice.
Pursuant to Section 189a. (2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is publishing this regular biweekly notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This biweekly notice includes all notices of amendments issued, or proposed to be issued from April 26, 2016, to May 9, 2016. The last biweekly notice was published on May 10, 2016 (81 FR 28891).
Comments must be filed by June 23, 2016. A request for a hearing must be filed by July 25, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and
Mable Henderson, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3760, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0100 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2016-0100, facility name, unit number(s), application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in § 50.92 of title 10 of the
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period should circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example in derating or shutdown of the facility. Should the Commission take action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the requestor/petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with NRC regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by July 25, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under § 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Persons desiring to make a limited appearance are requested to inform the Secretary of the Commission by July 25, 2016.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System, users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC's Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Meta System Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to these license amendment applications, see the application for amendment which is available for public inspection in ADAMS and at the NRC's PDR. For additional direction on accessing information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change would revise the allowable values of the Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station (PVNGS) Engineered Safety Features Actuation System (ESFAS) Class 1E 4.16 [kiloVolt (kV)] bus degraded voltage and loss of voltage relays. Specifically, the proposed change includes a two stage time delay for the degraded voltage relays and a fixed time delay for the loss of voltage relays with corresponding voltage settings. The proposed change is supported by design calculations and analyses to ensure that the Class 1E buses will be isolated from the normal off-site power source at the appropriate voltage level and time delay under either accident or non-accident sustained degraded voltage conditions. The normally operating safety-related motors will continue to operate without sustaining damage or tripping during the worst-case, accident (
The proposed change implements a new design for a reduced (short stage) time delay to isolate safety buses from offsite power if a LOCA were to occur coincident with a sustained degraded voltage condition. This ensures that emergency core cooling system pumps inject water into the reactor vessel within the time assumed and evaluated in the accident analysis, consistent with current NRC requirements and 10 CFR part 50, Appendix A, General Design Criterion 17,
The proposed changes do not adversely affect accident initiators or precursors. The diesel generator start, due to a LOCA signal, and loading sequence are not affected by this change. During an actual loss of voltage or degraded voltage condition, the loss of voltage and/or degraded voltage time delay will isolate the Class 1E 4.16 kV distribution system from offsite power before the diesel is ready to assume the emergency loads, which is the limiting time basis for mitigating system responses to the accident. For this reason, the existing LOCA with coincident LOOP analysis continues to be valid.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of
Response: No.
The proposed change would revise the allowable values of the PVNGS ESFAS Class 1E 4.16 kV bus degraded voltage and loss of voltage relays. Specifically, the proposed change includes a two stage time delay for the degraded voltage relays and a fixed time delay for the loss of voltage relays with corresponding voltage settings.
The proposed change does not introduce any changes or mechanisms that create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident. While the proposed change does install new relays, with new settings and time delays, the relays are not new to the industry and are not being operated in a unique or different manner. No new effects on existing equipment are created nor are any new malfunctions introduced.
The accidents and events previously analyzed remain bounding. Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change would revise the allowable values of the PVNGS ESFAS Class 1E 4.16 kV bus degraded voltage and loss of voltage relays. Specifically, the proposed change includes a two stage time delay for the degraded voltage relays and a fixed time delay for the loss of voltage relays with corresponding voltage settings. The proposed change implements a new design for a reduced time delay to isolate safety buses from offsite power if a LOCA were to occur coincident with a sustained degraded voltage condition. This ensures that emergency core cooling system pumps inject water into the reactor vessel within the time assumed and evaluated in the accident analysis, consistent with current NRC requirements and 10 CFR part 50, Appendix A, General Design Criterion 17,
The diesel generator start, due to a LOCA signal, is not affected by this change. During an actual loss of voltage or degraded voltage condition, the loss of voltage and/or degraded voltage relay voltage settings and time delays will continue to isolate the Class 1E 4.16 kV distribution system from offsite power before the emergency diesel generator is ready to assume the emergency loads. Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on that review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the request for amendments involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The FSAR Chapter 14 accident analyses for MPS2 do not take credit for the flow delivered by the charging pumps. Additionally, the proposed change does not modify any plant equipment or method of operation for any [structures, systems, and components] SSC[s] required for safe operation of the facility or mitigation of accidents assumed in the facility safety analyses.
Therefore, the proposed amendment will not significantly increase the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not modify any plant equipment or method of operation for any SSC required for safe operation of the facility or mitigation of accidents assumed in the facility safety analyses. As such, no new failure modes are introduced by the proposed change. Consequently, the proposed amendment does not introduce any accident initiators or malfunctions that would cause a new or different kind of accident.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety since the proposed changes do not affect equipment design or operation, and no changes are being made to the TS-required safety limits or safety system settings. The proposed changes involve a new safety analysis for the long-term event response for FSAR Chapter 14.6.1, “Inadvertent Opening of a Pressurized Water Reactor Pressurizer Pressure Relief Valve.” The analysis demonstrates that flow from two [high pressure safety injection] HPSI pumps, with no credit for the charging pumps, is sufficient to prevent long-term core uncovery, and thus there is no challenge to the specified acceptable fuel design limits. By meeting the MPS2 FSAR Chapter 14 acceptance criteria for a moderate frequency event, there is no significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment affects some assumptions in the MPS2 FSAR related to the performance of the SFP cooling system and cooling of the fuel in the refueling pool. However, the existing design limits for the SFP remain unchanged. Reducing the decay time from 150 hours to 100 hours prior to allowing fuel movement at an increased average rate of six fuel assemblies per hour does not adversely affect SFP design or operation, provided proposed RBCCW temperature limits are satisfied. The proposed amendment does not change the design or function of the SFP cooling system and is consistent with that previously approved by the NRC under License Amendment 240.
The proposed amendment does not affect the temperature limits of the SFP. The thermal-hydraulic analyses supporting the amendment show that the SFP temperature limits continue to be met with increased heat loads due to reduced time to fuel movement and a higher rate of fuel movement. SFP heat load is not an initiator of any accident discussed in Chapter 14 of the MPS2 FSAR. The proposed amendment does not affect the capability of plant structures, systems, or components (SCCs) to perform their design function and does not increase the probability of a malfunction of any SSC.
The MPS2 FSAR Chapter 14 accident analyses, including the FHA [fuel handling accident] presented in FSAR Section 14.7.4, are not affected by the proposed amendment. The proposed amendment does not increase the probability of a FHA, change the assumptions in the FHA, or affect the conclusions of the current FHA analysis of record. The current FHA analysis of record assumes a minimum 100-hour decay time, which is consistent with the minimum allowable decay time assumed in the thermal-hydraulic analyses that support this amendment. The dose results of the FHA analysis are unchanged, and remain within applicable regulatory limits.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed amendment would revise the minimum allowed start time to begin fuel movement from 150 hours to 100 hours after reactor subcriticality and increase the maximum allowable rate of fuel assembly movement from an average of four assemblies per hour to an average of six assemblies per hour. The revised decay time limit and fuel offload rates do not create the possibility of a new type of accident because the methods for moving fuel and the operation of equipment used for moving fuel are not changed. The proposed amendment does not add or modify any plant equipment. The design and testing of systems designed to maintain the SFP temperature within established limits are not affected by the proposed change. The proposed amendment does not create any credible new failure mechanisms, malfunctions, or accident initiators not considered in the design and licensing basis.
Therefore, the proposed amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The FHA analysis of record already accounts for irradiated fuel with at least 100 hours of decay. This approved analysis has shown that the projected doses will remain within applicable regulatory limits. Therefore, the proposed amendment does not reduce the margin of safety of the currently approved FHA analysis of record.
The SFP heat load analyses submitted demonstrate that the impact of reduced decay time on SFP decay heat load is offset by the reduced cooling water temperatures such that the maximum normally allowed pool temperature is not exceeded. The slight 1.6 °F increase in SFP temperature for full core off-load as a normal event (for 100 hour hold time with 75 °F RBCCW temperature) is not a significant change and remains below the maximum normally allowed SFP temperature of 150 °F. The peak temperature of the SFP during a loss of cooling event is unaffected and the peak temperature of the fuel cladding, or along the fuel, remains within acceptable limits. Therefore, the proposed amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change replaces an existing Surveillance Requiremen[t] to operate the SGT System and CREF System equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes with heaters operating.
These systems are not accident initiators and therefore, these changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability of an accident. The proposed system and filter testing changes are consistent with current regulatory guidance for these systems and will continue to assure that these systems perform their design function which may include mitigating accidents. Thus the change does not involve a significant increase in the consequences of an accident.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change replaces an existing Surveillance Requiremen[t] to operate the SGT System and CREF System equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes with heaters operating.
The change proposed for these ventilation systems does not change any system operations or maintenance activities. Testing
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change replaces an existing Surveillance Requiremen[t] to operate the SGT System and CREF System equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes with heaters operating.
The design basis for the ventilation systems' heaters is to heat the incoming air which reduces the relative humidity. The heater testing change proposed will continue to demonstrate that the heaters are capable of heating the air and will perform their design function. The proposed change is consistent with regulatory guidance.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed LAR is purely an administrative change; therefore, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. The systems and components required by the TS for which SR 3.5.2.10 is applicable, continue to be operable and capable of performing any mitigation function assumed in the accident analysis. As a result, the consequences of any accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed LAR is purely an administrative change. The proposed change to add SR 3.5.2.10 to the list of applicable surveillances in SR 3.5.3.1 does not create a new or different kind of accident previously evaluated.
The change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant (
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed LAR is purely an administrative change to add SR 3.5.2.10 to the list of applicable surveillances in SR 3.5.3.1.
The design, operation, testing methods, and acceptance criteria for systems, structures, and components (SSCs), specified in applicable codes and standards (or alternatives approved for use by the NRC) will continue to be met as described in the plant licensing basis (including the Final Safety Analysis Report and Bases to TS). Similarly, there is no impact to safety analysis acceptance criteria as described in the plant licensing basis.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendments request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes permit the extension of Completion Times provided the associated risk is assessed and managed in accordance with the NRC approved Risk-Informed Completion Time Program. The proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability of an accident previously evaluated because the changes involve no change to the plant or its modes of operation. The proposed changes do not increase the consequences of an accident because the design-basis mitigation function of the affected systems is not changed and the consequences of an accident during the extended Completion Time are no different from those during the existing Completion Time.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not change the design, configuration, or method of operation of the plant. The proposed changes do not involve a physical alteration of the plant (no new or different kind of equipment will be installed).
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes permit the extension of Completion Times provided that risk is assessed and managed in accordance with the NRC approved Risk-Informed Completion Time Program. The proposed changes implement a risk-informed configuration management program to assure that adequate margins of safety are maintained. Application of these new specifications and the configuration management program considers cumulative effects of multiple systems or components being out of service and does so more effectively than the current TS.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendments request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes will revise TS 4.7.4 to conform the TS to the revised Snubber Program. Snubber examination, testing, and service life monitoring will continue to meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.55a(g). Snubber examination, testing, and service life monitoring are not initiators of any accident previously evaluated. Therefore, the probability of an accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. Snubbers will continue to be demonstrated OPERABLE by performance of a program for examination, testing, and service life monitoring in compliance with 10 CFR 50.55a or authorized alternatives. The proposed changes do not adversely affect plant operations, design functions, or analyses that verify the capability of systems, structures, and components to perform their design functions. Therefore, the consequences of accidents previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Based on the above, these proposed changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not involve any physical alteration of plant equipment. The proposed changes do not alter the method by which any safety-related system performs its function. As such, no new or different types of equipment will be installed, and the basic operation of installed equipment is unchanged. The methods governing plant operation and testing remain consistent with current safety analysis assumptions.
Therefore, it is concluded that these proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes ensure snubber examination, testing, and service life monitoring will continue to meet the requirements of 10 CFR 50.55a(g). Snubbers will continue to be demonstrated OPERABLE by performance of a program for examination, testing, and service life monitoring in compliance with 10 CFR 50.55a or authorized alternatives.
Therefore, it is concluded that the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed changes involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change relocates the specified frequencies for periodic surveillance requirements to licensee control under a new SFCP [Surveillance Frequency Control Program]. Surveillance frequencies are not an initiator to any accident previously evaluated. As a result, the probability of any accident previously evaluated is not significantly increased. The systems and components required by the technical specifications for which the surveillance frequencies are relocated are still required to be operable, meet the acceptance criteria for the surveillance requirements, and be capable of performing any mitigation function assumed in the accident analysis. As a result, the consequences of any accident previously evaluated are not significantly increased.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed changes create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
Response: No.
No new or different accidents result from utilizing the proposed change. The change does not involve a physical alteration of the plant (
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety?
Response: No.
The design, operation, testing methods, and acceptance criteria for structures, systems, components, specified in applicable codes and standards (or alternatives approved for use by the NRC) will continue to be met as described in the plant licensing basis (including the final safety analysis report and bases to TS), since these are not affected by changes to the surveillance frequencies. Similarly, there is no impact to safety analysis acceptance criteria as described in the plant licensing basis. To evaluate a change in the relocated surveillance frequency, NPPD will perform a probabilistic risk evaluation using the guidance contained in NRC approved NEI [Nuclear Energy Institute] 04-10, Revision 1, in accordance with the TS SFCP. NEI 04-10, Revision 1, methodology provides reasonable acceptance guidelines and methods for evaluating the risk increase of proposed changes to surveillance frequencies consistent with Regulatory Guide 1.177.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed changes to the Seabrook emergency action levels neither involve any physical changes to plant equipment or systems nor do they alter the assumptions of any accident analyses. The proposed changes do not adversely affect accident initiators or precursors, and they do not alter design assumptions, plant configuration, or the manner in which the plant is operated and maintained. The proposed change does not adversely affect the ability of structures, systems or components (SSCs) to perform their intended safety functions in mitigating the consequences of an initiating event within the assumed acceptance limits.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
No new accident scenarios, failure mechanisms, or limiting single failures are introduced as a result of the proposed changes. The changes do not challenge the integrity or performance of any safety-related systems. No plant equipment is installed or removed, and the changes do not alter the design, physical configuration, or method of operation of any plant SSC. No physical changes are made to the plant, and emergency action levels are not accident initiators[,] so no new causal mechanisms are introduced.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Margin of safety is associated with the ability of the fission product barriers (
Therefore, the proposed change do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change would allow the use of Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
Use of Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change will not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety because it has been demonstrated that the material properties of the Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
This change has no effect on structures, systems, and components (SSCs) of the plants. There are no changes to plant operations, or to any design function or analysis that verifies the capability of an SSC to perform a design function. There are no previously evaluated accidents affected by this change. The proposed changes are administrative in nature, and as such, do not affect indicators of analyzed events or assumed mitigation of accidents or transients.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
This change has no effect on the design function or operation of SSCs, and will not affect the SSCs' operation or ability to perform their design functions. This change does not involve a physical alteration of the plants, add any new equipment, or allow any existing equipment to be operated in a manner different from the present method of operation.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed changes involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
This change is administrative in nature and has no effect on plant design margins. There are no changes being made to safety limits or limiting safety system settings that would adversely affect plant safety as a result of the proposed change.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change would allow the use of Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
Use of Optimized ZIRLO
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed change will not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety because it has been demonstrated that the material properties of the Optimized
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The temporary changes to the completion times for TS 3.8.7, Condition C and TS 3.7.1, Conditions A and B are necessary to implement plant changes, which replace the Unit 1—480 V ESS LC Transformers 1X210 and 1X220 in order to mitigate the loss of the transformer due to failure. The temporary change to the completion time for TS 3.8.7, Condition C is also necessary to implement plant changes, which replace the Unit 1—480 V ESS LC Transformers 1X230 and 1X240 in order to mitigate the loss of the transformer due to failure. These replacements decrease the probability of a transformer failure. The current assumptions in the safety analysis regarding accident initiators and mitigation of accidents are unaffected by these changes. No SSC [structure, system, or component] failure modes or mechanisms are being introduced, and the likelihood of previously analyzed failures remains unchanged.
The proposed change requests the Completion Time to restore a Unit 2 RHRSW subsystem be extended to 7 days in order to replace Unit 1 transformers 1X210 and 1X220. The extended Completion Times for TS 3.7.1 Conditions A and B are only applicable when transformers 1X210 or 1X220 are out of service with the intent of replacing the transformer.
During the replacements, the affected Unit 2 RHRSW subsystem will remain functional while the other subsystem of Unit 2 RHRSW will remain Operable. Operator action required to restore full capability of cooling provided by the Ultimate Heat Sink will only consist of manually operating two (2) valves; the Large Spray Array and the UHS bypass. This action can easily be completed within several hours and would restore full cooling to the RHRSW system.
Therefore, this proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes involve the increase of TS Completion Times to allow replacement of four (4) Unit 1—480 V ESS LC Transformers. New transformers will be installed but will not be operated in a new or different manner. There are no setpoints at which protective or mitigative actions are initiated [which are] affected by this change. These changes do not alter the manner in which equipment operation is initiated, nor will the function demands on credited equipment be changed. No alterations to procedures that ensure the plant remains within analyzed limits are being proposed, and no major changes are being made to procedures relied upon during off-normal events as described in the FSAR [final safety analysis report].
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
Operational safety margin is established through equipment design, operating parameters, and the setpoints at which automatic actions are initiated. The proposed changes are acceptable because the Completion Time extensions allow replacement of the Unit 1—480 V ESS LC Transformers, equipment essential to safe plant operation, while ensuring safety related functions of affected equipment are maintained.
With the RHRSW Spray Pond Return Bypass Valves on the out of service loop electrically de-powered in the open position, a return flow path will be established. Since the RHRSW Pumps on Unit 2 are not impacted by the transformers outages, the affected RHRSW Loop on Unit 2 will be capable of providing cooling. This configuration will continue to provide the margin of safety assumed by the safety analysis, although the affected RHRSW loop will be administratively declared Inoperable.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequence of an accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not affect the design of the DGs, the operational characteristics or function of the DGs, the interfaces between the DGs and other plant systems, or the reliability of the DGs. Required Actions and their associated CTs are not considered initiating conditions for any UFSAR [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report] accident previously evaluated, nor are the DGs considered initiators of any previously evaluated accidents. The DGs are provided to mitigate the consequences of previously evaluated accidents, including a loss of off-site power.
The consequences of previously evaluated accidents will not be significantly affected by the extended DG CT, because a sufficient number of onsite Alternating Current power sources will continue to remain available to perform the accident mitigation functions associated with the DGs, as assumed in the accident analyses. In addition, as a risk mitigation and defense-in-depth action, an independent AC power source, an available FLEX DG, will be available to support the ESF [engineered safety feature] bus with the inoperable DG during a SBO [station blackout].
Therefore, this change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
Response: No.
The proposed change does not involve a change in the permanent design, configuration, or method of operation of the plant. The proposed changes will not alter the manner in which equipment operation is initiated, nor will the functional demands on credited equipment be changed. The proposed changes allow operation of the unit to continue while a DG is repaired and retested with the FLEX DG in standby to mitigate a SBO event. The proposed extensions do not affect the interaction of a DG with any system whose failure or malfunction can initiate an accident. As such, no new failure modes are being introduced. Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Response: No.
The proposed changes do not alter the permanent plant design, including instrument set points, nor does it change the assumptions contained in the safety analyses. The FLEX DG alternate AC system is designed with sufficient redundancy such that a DG may be removed from service for maintenance or testing. The remaining DGs are capable of carrying sufficient electrical loads to satisfy the UFSAR requirements for accident mitigation or unit safe shutdown. The proposed changes do not affect the redundancy or availability requirements of offsite power supplies or change the ability of the plant to cope with station blackout events.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
During the period since publication of the last biweekly notice, the Commission has issued the following amendments. The Commission has determined for each of these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
Unless otherwise indicated, the Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments. If the Commission has prepared an environmental assessment under the special circumstances provision in 10 CFR 51.22(b) and has made a determination based on that assessment, it is so indicated.
For further details with respect to the action see (1) the applications for amendment, (2) the amendment, and (3) the Commission's related letter, Safety Evaluation and/or Environmental Assessment as indicated. All of these items can be accessed as described in the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 29, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 26, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 29, 2016.A24MY3.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 28, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 29, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated May 2, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 27, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated May 9, 2016.
The supplements dated October 15, 2015, and February 8, 2016, contained clarifying information and did not change the NRC staff's initial proposed finding of no significant hazards consideration.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 29, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 27, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 26, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated May 4, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 28, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated May 6, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated April 29, 2016.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendments is contained in an SE dated April 26, 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
May 23, 30, June, 6, 13, 20, 27, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of May 23, 2016.
9:00 a.m. Briefing on Security Issues (Closed Ex. 1).
9:00 a.m. Briefing on Results of the Agency Action Review Meeting (Public Meeting) (Contact: Andrew Waugh: 301-415-5601).
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
2:00 p.m. Discussion of Management and Personnel Issues (Closed—Ex. 2 & 6).
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of June 6, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of June 13, 2016.
9:00 a.m. Meeting with Department of Energy Office of Nuclear Energy (Public Meeting) (Contact: Albert Wong: 301-415-3081).
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
9:00 a.m. Discussion of Security Issues (Closed Ex. 3).
9:30 a.m. Briefing on Human Capital and Equal Opportunity Employment
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Thursday, June 9, 2016, 2 p.m. (OPEN Portion), 2:15 p.m. (CLOSED Portion).
Offices of the Corporation, Twelfth Floor Board Room, 1100 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC.
Meeting OPEN to the Public from 2 p.m. to 2:15 p.m. Closed portion will commence at 2:15 p.m. (approx.)
1. President's Report.
2. Tribute—James Torrey.
3. Approval—Charter of the Risk Committee of the Board.
4. Approval—Amended Charter of the Audit Committee of the Board.
5. Confirmation—Michele Perez.
6. Minutes of the Open Session of the March 17, 2016 Board of Directors Meeting.
1. Finance Project—Turkey.
2. Finance Project—Turkey.
3. Finance Project—Ukraine.
4. Finance Project—Ukraine.
5. Finance Project—Jordan and Middle East and North Africa.
6. Finance Project—Senegal.
7. Finance Project—Africa.
8. Finance Project—Brazil.
9. Finance Project—Global.
10. Minutes of the Closed Session of the March 17, 2016 Board of Directors Meeting.
11. Reports.
12. Pending Projects.
Information on the meeting may be obtained from Catherine F. I. Andrade at (202) 336-8768, or via email at
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning contingency prices for an existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On May 16, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice of contingency prices for the existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Letter and supporting financial information under seal. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal. Notice at 3.
The Postal Service seeks to change the price of International Business Reply Envelopes received from Canada. Letter at 1. The Postal Service intends for the contingency prices to become effective June 1, 2016.
The Commission invites comments on whether the contingency prices presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2015-67 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Jennaca D.
3. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recently-filed Postal Service notice announcing rate adjustments affecting some market dominant domestic and international products and services, along with six temporary mailing promotions and proposed classification changes. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
In accordance with 39 U.S.C. 3622 and 39 CFR part 3010, the Postal Service filed notice of its intent to adjust the prices of certain Market Dominant products.
The Postal Service asserts that it provides the information required by 39 CFR 3010.12.
The Postal Service seeks approval for the following six promotions for the periods indicated:
• Earned Value Reply Mail Promotion (January-June 2017),
• Tactile, Sensory and Interactive Mailpiece Engagement Promotion (February-July 2017),
• Emerging and Advanced Technology Promotion (March-August 2017),
• Direct Mail Starter Promotion (May-July 2017),
• Personalized Color Transpromo Promotion (July-December 2017), and
• Mobile Shopping Promotion (August-December 2017).
The Postal Service represents that its planned price increases would align FCMP “Retail” prices with the corresponding prices for First-Class Package Service (FCPS), a competitive product.
To support its Notice, the Postal Service filed its proposed changes to the Mail Classification Schedule, CY 2017 Promotions Calendar, and calculation of price cap authority. The Postal Service concurrently filed three library references, workpapers supporting its price cap calculation, along with an application for non-public treatment for one library reference.
The Commission establishes Docket No. R2016-5 to consider the matters raised by the Notice. The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's filing is consistent with the requirements of 39 U.S.C. 3622 and 3626 and 39 CFR part 3010. Comments are due June 6, 2016.
The Commission appoints Kenneth E. Richardson to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in these proceedings (Public Representative).
1. The Commission establishes Docket No. R2016-5 to consider the matters raised by the Notice.
2. Comments are due June 6, 2016.
3. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, Kenneth E. Richardson is appointed to serve as an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in these proceedings (Public Representative).
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning contingency prices for an existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On May 16, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice of contingency prices for the existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Letter and supporting financial information under seal. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal. Notice at 3.
The Postal Service seeks to change the price of International Business Reply Envelopes received from Canada. Letter at 1. The Postal Service intends for the contingency prices to become effective June 1, 2016.
The Commission invites comments on whether the changes presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2015-71 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing concerning contingency prices for an existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
On May 16, 2016, the Postal Service filed notice of contingency prices for the existing Global Plus 2C negotiated service agreement approved in this docket.
The Postal Service also filed the unredacted Letter and supporting financial information under seal. The Postal Service seeks to incorporate by reference the Application for Non-Public Treatment originally filed in this docket for the protection of information that it has filed under seal. Notice at 3.
The Postal Service seeks to change the price of International Business Reply Envelopes received from Canada. Letter at 1. The Postal Service intends for the contingency prices to become effective June 1, 2016.
The Commission invites comments on whether the contingency prices presented in the Postal Service's Notice are consistent with the policies of 39 U.S.C. 3632, 3633, or 3642, 39 CFR 3015.5, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016. The public portions of these filings can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to represent the interests of the general public (Public Representative) in this docket.
1. The Commission reopens Docket No. CP2015-69 for consideration of matters raised by the Postal Service's Notice.
2. Pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505, the Commission appoints Jennaca D. Upperman to serve as an officer of the Commission (Public Representative) to represent the interests of the general public in this proceeding.
3. Comments are due no later than May 25, 2016.
4. The Secretary shall arrange for publication of this order in the
By the Commission.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Dragon Bright Mintai Botanical Technology Cayman Ltd. (CIK No. 1516810), a Cayman Islands corporation with its principal place of business listed as Hong Kong, China with stock quoted on OTC Link (previously, “Pink Sheets”) operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc. (“OTC Link”) under the ticker symbol DGBMF, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended December 31, 2012. On November 19, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to Dragon Bright Mintai Botanical Technology Cayman Ltd. requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, and Dragon Bright Mintai Botanical Technology Cayman Ltd. received the delinquency letter on November 20, 2015, but failed to cure its delinquencies.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of JinZangHuang Tibet Pharmaceuticals, Inc. (CIK No. 910832), a void Delaware corporation with its principal place of business listed as Shandong Province, China with stock quoted on OTC Link under the ticker symbol JZHG, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended March 31, 2013. On November 3, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to JinZangHuang Tibet Pharmaceuticals, Inc. requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, and JinZangHuang Tibet Pharmaceuticals, Inc. received the delinquency letter on November 11, 2015, but failed to cure its delinquencies.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Macau Resources Group Ltd. (CIK No. 1557436), a British Virgin Islands corporation with its principal place of business listed as Hong Kong, China with stock quoted on OTC Link under the ticker symbol MRGLF, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended December 31, 2013. On November 19, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to Macau Resources Group Ltd.'s counsel requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, and Macau Resources Group Ltd.'s counel received the delinquency letter on November 20, 2015, but the issuer failed to cure its delinquencies.
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of the above-listed companies.
Therefore, it is ordered, pursuant to Section 12(k) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, that trading in the securities of the above-listed companies is suspended for the period from 9:30 a.m. EDT on May 20, 2016, through 11:59 p.m. EDT on June 3, 2016.
By the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Members of the public who contact the Ombudsman for assistance currently do so by traditional mail, electronic mail, telephone, and facsimile. To make it easier for retail investors and others to contact the Ombudsman electronically, the Commission is developing the Ombudsman Matter Management System (“OMMS”), a new, electronic data collection system for the receipt, collection and analysis of inquiries, complaints, and recommendations from retail investors directed to the SEC Ombudsman and the Office of the Investor Advocate, and invites comment on OMMS. Through OMMS, members of the public may request assistance from the Ombudsman and staff using a web-based form (the “OMMS Form”) tailored to gather information about matters within the scope of the Ombudsman's function and streamline the inquiry and response process.
The OMMS Form will facilitate communication with the Ombudsman via an electronic series of basic
The Commission expects that OMMS will be operative and the OMMS Form publicly available through the Commission's Web site,
The Commission estimates that the total reporting burden for using the OMMS Form will be 250 hours. The calculation of this estimate depends on how many members of the public use the form each year and the estimated time it takes to complete the forms: 500 respondents × 30 minutes per submission = 250 burden hours. The estimates of average burden hours are made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The total estimated one-time cost to the federal government of creating OMMS and the OMMS Form is $400,000.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget control number.
Written comments are invited on all aspects of this proposed information collection request, in particular: (a) Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden imposed by the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on users, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication. Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of NuTech Energy Resources, Inc. (“NERG”) because of concerns regarding the accuracy and adequacy of information in the marketplace about the company's operations and the company's recent public announcements concerning an unsolicited tender offer. NERG is a Delaware corporation with its principal place of business located in Gillette, Wyoming. Its stock is quoted on OTC Link, operated by OTC Markets Group Inc., under the ticker: NERG.
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of the above-listed company.
By the Commission.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of Bodisen Biotech, Inc. (CIK No. 1178552), a forfeited Delaware corporation with its principal place of business listed as Shaanxi, China with stock quoted on OTC Link (previously, “Pink Sheets”) operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc. (“OTC Link”) under the ticker symbol BBCZ, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended June 30, 2013. On August 18, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to Bodisen Biotech, Inc. requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, but Bodisen Biotech, Inc. refused to accept delivery of the delinquency letter.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of China Global Media, Inc. (CIK No. 1450015), a revoked Nevada corporation with its principal place of business listed as Hunan Province, China with stock quoted on OTC Link under the ticker symbol CGLO, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended June 30, 2013. On August 18, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to China Global Media, Inc. requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, and China Global Media, Inc. did not receive the delinquency letter due to its failure to maintain a valid address on file with the Commission as required by Commission rules (Rule 301 of Regulation S-T, 17 CFR 232.301 and Section 5.4 of EDGAR Filer Manual).
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of China Heli Resource Renewable, Inc. (CIK No. 1081823), a British Virgin Islands corporation with its principal place of business listed as Xin Jiang Province, China with stock quoted on OTC Link under the ticker symbol CRRWF, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that there is a lack of current and accurate information concerning the securities of GFR Pharmaceuticals, Inc. (CIK No. 1096294), a Nevada corporation with its principal place of business listed as Shaanxi Province, China with stock quoted on OTC Link under the ticker symbol GFRP, because it has not filed any periodic reports since the period ended March 31, 2013. On November 3, 2015, a delinquency letter was sent by the Division of Corporation Finance to GFR Pharmaceuticals, Inc. requesting compliance with its periodic filing obligations, and GFR Pharmaceuticals, Inc. received the delinquency letter on November 9, 2015, but failed to cure its delinquencies.
The Commission is of the opinion that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of the above-listed companies.
Therefore, it is ordered, pursuant to Section 12(k) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, that trading in the securities of the above-listed companies is suspended for the period from 9:30 a.m. EDT on May 20, 2016, through 11:59 p.m. EDT on June 3, 2016.
By the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17Ad-17 requires transfer agents and broker-dealers to make two searches for the correct address of lost securityholders using an information database without charge to the lost securityholders. In addition, paying agents are required to attempt to notify lost payees at least once. The Commission staff estimates that the rule applies to approximately 301 broker dealers and 2,766 paying agent entities, including carrying firms, transfer agents, indenture trustees, custodians, and approximately 10% of issuers. The Commission staff estimates that the total burden is 88,619 hours, representing the hours associated with searches and notifications. Approximately 2,686 hours are associated with recordkeeping.
The retention period for the recordkeeping requirement under Rule 17Ad-17 is not less than three years following the date the notice is submitted. The recordkeeping requirement under this rule is mandatory to assist the Commission in monitoring compliance with the rule. This rule does not involve the collection of confidential information.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a Closed Meeting on Thursday, May 26, 2016 at 2:00 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the Closed Meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (5), (7), 9(ii) and (10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the Closed Meeting.
Chair White, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the Closed Meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the Closed Meeting will be:
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
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Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Andrea Lage, who may be reached at
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We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
State Justice Institute.
Notice of meeting.
The SJI Board of Directors will be meeting on Monday, June 13, 2016 at 9:30 a.m. The meeting will be held at SJI Headquarters in Reston, Virginia. The purpose of this meeting is to consider grant applications for the 3rd quarter of FY 2016, and other business. All portions of this meeting are open to the public.
State Justice Institute, 11951 Freedom Drive, Suite 1020, Reston, VA 20190.
Jonathan Mattiello, Executive Director, State Justice Institute, 11951 Freedom Drive, Suite 1020, Reston, VA 20190, 571-313-8843,
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Twenty-Sixth RTCA Special Committee 217 meeting.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the Twenty-Sixth RTCA Special Committee 217 meeting.
The meeting will be held July 18-22, 2016 from 9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at Boeing, 7501 12th Ave S., Seattle, WA 98108.
The RTCA Secretariat, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC, 20036, or by telephone at (202) 833-9339, fax at (202) 833-9434, or Web site at
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of RTCA Special Committee 217. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Plenary information will be provided upon request. Persons who wish to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before June 13, 2016.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-0604 using any of the following methods:
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Brent Hart (202) 267-4034, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of RTCA Program Management Committee meeting.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the RTCA Program Management Committee meeting.
The meeting will be held June 21, 2016 from 8:30 a.m.-4:30 p.m.
The meeting will be held at RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036.
The RTCA Secretariat, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036, or by telephone at (202) 833-9339, fax at (202) 833-9434, or Web site at
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of RTCA Program Management Committee. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Plenary information will be provided upon request. Persons who wish to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Fourteenth RTCA Tactical Operations Committee Meeting.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the Fourteenth RTCA Tactical Operations Committee meeting.
The meeting will be held June 23, 2016 from 9:00 a.m.-4:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036.
The RTCA Secretariat, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC, 20036, or by telephone at (202) 833-9339, fax at (202) 833-9434, or Web site at
Pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of RTCA Tactical Operations Committee. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Plenary information will be provided upon request. Persons who wish to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Forty-First RTCA Special Committee 224 Meeting.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of the Forty-First RTCA Special Committee 224 meeting.
The meeting will be held June 16, 2016 from 10:00 a.m.-1:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036.
The RTCA Secretariat, 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC, 20036, or by telephone at (202) 833-9339, fax at (202) 833-9434, or Web site at
Pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of RTCA Special Committee 224. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Plenary information will be provided upon request. Persons who wish to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Request for nominations for members: Gas and Liquid Pipeline Advisory Committees; vacancies.
PHMSA is requesting nominations for individuals to serve on the Gas Pipeline Advisory Committee (GPAC), also known as the Technical Pipeline Safety Standards Committee, and the Liquid Pipeline Advisory Committee (LPAC), also known as the Technical Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety Standards Committee. The GPAC is composed of 15 members appointed by the Secretary of Transportation after consulting with public and private agencies concerned with the technical aspect of transporting gas or operating a gas pipeline facility. The LPAC is composed of 15 members appointed by the Secretary after consulting with public and private agencies concerned with the technical aspect of transporting hazardous liquid or operating a hazardous liquid pipeline facility.
With this notice, PHMSA is seeking nominations for two individuals from the general public: one on the LPAC and one on the GPAC. Additionally, PHMSA is seeking to fill four state commissioner vacancies, two on each committee and one federal government vacancy on the GPAC committee.
Nominations must be received by June 23, 2016.
All nomination material should be emailed to Advisory Committee Program Manager Cheryl Whetsel at
Cheryl Whetsel, (202) 366-4431 or
The GPAC and LPAC are statutorily mandated advisory committees that provide recommendations and advice on PHMSA's proposed safety standards, risk assessments, and safety policies for gas pipelines and for hazardous liquid pipelines. Both committees were established in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and 49 U.S.C. 60115.
No later than 90 days after receiving a proposed standard and supporting analyses, the appropriate committee prepares and submits a report to the Secretary of Transportation on the technical feasibility, reasonableness, cost-effectiveness, and practicability of the proposed standard. The Secretary must publish each report, including any recommended actions and minority views. The Secretary is not bound by the committee's conclusions. However, if the Secretary rejects them, he must publish the reasons.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 60115, the Secretary of Transportation has the authority to appoint to each committee (1) five individuals from departments, agencies, and instrumentalities of the U.S. Government and of the states; (2) five individuals from the natural gas or hazardous liquid industry, selected in consultation with industry representatives; and (3) five individuals selected from the general public. Two of the individuals selected for each committee from the government must be state commissioners.
At least three of the individuals selected for each committee from the industry must be currently in the active operation of natural gas or hazardous liquid pipelines or pipeline facilities. At least one individual selected for each committee serving from the industry must have education, background, or experience in risk assessment and cost-benefit analysis.
Two of the individuals selected for each committee from the general public must have education, background, or experience in environmental protection or public safety. At least one individual selected for each committee serving from the general public must have education, background, or experience in risk assessment and cost-benefit analysis. At least one individual selected for each committee from the general public may not have any financial interest in pipeline, petroleum, or natural gas industries. No individuals selected for a committee serving from the general public may have a significant financial interest in the pipeline, petroleum, or gas industry.
The committee members selected by the Secretary of Transportation must be knowledgeable in the safety regulation of transporting natural gas or hazardous liquids or operating a natural gas or hazardous liquid pipeline facility or, nominees that are technically qualified, by training, experience or knowledge, in at least one field of engineering applicable to transporting gas or hazardous liquids or operating a gas or hazardous liquid pipeline facility. Members must also meet the applicable criteria mentioned under section I of this notice. Nominees should represent a broad constituency whose views the candidate can represent. Individuals associated with organizations concerned with fire safety, pipeline engineering, risk analysis, emergency response, and other similar public safety groups as well as environmental protection groups may have the knowledge and experience
• Each member serves a three-year term, unless the member becomes unable to serve, resigns, ceases to be qualified to serve, or is removed by the Secretary.
• Members may be reappointed.
• All members serve at their own expense and receive no salary from the Federal Government, although travel reimbursement and per diem may be provided.
• The GPAC and LPAC generally meet in-person in the Washington, DC, Metropolitan area.
• PHMSA will ask potential public candidates to provide detailed information concerning such matters related to financial holdings, employment, and research grants and/or contracts to permit evaluation of possible sources of conflicts of interest.
Any interested person may nominate one or more qualified individuals for membership on the advisory committee. Self-nominations are also accepted.
• Nominations must include a current, complete résumé including current business address and/or home address, telephone number, and email address, education, professional or business experience, present occupation, and membership on other advisory committees past or present) for each nominee.
• Each nominee must meet the training, education or experience requirements listed under section II above.
• Nominations must also specify the advisory committee for which the nominee is recommended (the GPAC or LPAC).
• Nominations must also acknowledge that the nominee is aware of the nomination unless self-nominated.
Department of the Treasury.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Board of Trustees of the Teamsters Local Union No. 469 Pension Plan (Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan), a multiemployer pension plan, has submitted an application to Treasury to reduce benefits under the plan in accordance with the Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014 (MPRA). The purpose of this notice is to announce that the application submitted by the Board of Trustees of the Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan has been published on the Treasury Web site, and to request public comments on the application from interested parties, including contributing employers, employee organizations, and participants and beneficiaries of the Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan.
Comments must be received by June 22, 2016.
You may submit comments electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Comments may also be mailed to the Department of the Treasury, MPRA Office, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 1224, Washington, DC 20220. Attn: Deva Kyle. Comments sent via facsimile and email will not be accepted.
For information regarding the application from the Board of Trustees of the Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan, please contact Treasury at (202) 622-1534 (not a toll-free number).
The Multiemployer Pension Reform Act of 2014 (MPRA) amended the Internal Revenue Code to permit a multiemployer plan that is projected to have insufficient funds to reduce pension benefits payable to participants and beneficiaries if certain conditions are satisfied. In order to reduce benefits, the plan sponsor is required to submit an application to the Secretary of the Treasury, which the Department of the Treasury (Treasury), in consultation with the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) and the Secretary of Labor, is required to approve or deny.
On March 31, 2016, the Board of Trustees of the Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan submitted an application for approval to reduce benefits under the plan. As required by MPRA, that application has been published on Treasury's Web site at
Comments are requested from interested parties, including contributing employers, employee organizations, and participants and beneficiaries of the Teamsters Local 469 Pension Plan. Consideration will be given to any comments that are timely received by Treasury.
Comment Request.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Veterans Health Administration (VHA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before July 25, 2016.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 461-6345.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
a. Annual Report Template, VA Form 10-10073.
b. Audit Actions Items Remediation Plans, VA Form 10-10073 A.
c. NPPO Internal Control Questionnaire, VA Form 10-10073 B.
d. NPPO Operations Oversight Questionnaire, VA Form 10-10073 C.
a. NPC Annual Report Template—301 hrs.
b. NPC Audit Actions Items Remediation Plans—84 hrs.
c. NPPO Internal Control Questionnaire—344 hrs.
d. NPPO Operations Oversight Questionnaire—129 hrs.
Estimated Average Burden Per Respondent:
a. NPC Annual Report Template—210 minutes.
b. NPC Audit Actions Items Remediation Plans—120 minutes.
c. NPPO Internal Control Questionnaire—240 minutes.
d. NPPO Operations Oversight Questionnaire—90 minutes.
a. NPC Annual Report Template—86.
b. NPC Audit Actions Items Remediation Plans—42.
c. NPPO Internal Control Questionnaire—86.
d. NPPO Operations Oversight Questionnaire—86.
By direction of the Secretary.
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Proposed rule with request for public comment.
Pursuant to section 1028(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203), the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) is proposing to establish 12 CFR part 1040, which would contain regulations governing two aspects of consumer finance dispute resolution. First, the proposed rule would prohibit covered providers of certain consumer financial products and services from using an agreement with a consumer that provides for arbitration of any future dispute between the parties to bar the consumer from filing or participating in a class action with respect to the covered consumer financial product or service. Second, the proposal would require a covered provider that is involved in an arbitration pursuant to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement to submit specified arbitral records to the Bureau. The Bureau proposes that the rulemaking would apply to certain consumer financial products and services. The Bureau is also proposing to adopt official interpretations to the proposed regulation.
Comments must be received on or before August 22, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CFPB-2016-0020 or RIN 3170-AA51, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
All comments, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included. Comments generally will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.
Owen Bonheimer, Benjamin Cady, Lawrence Lee, Nora Rigby, Counsels; Eric Goldberg, Senior Counsel, Office of Regulations, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, at 202-435-7700.
The Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) is proposing regulations governing agreements that provide for the arbitration of any future disputes between consumers and providers of certain consumer financial products and services. Congress directed the Bureau to study these pre-dispute arbitration agreements in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank or Dodd-Frank Act).
In accordance with this authority, the Bureau is now issuing this proposal and request for public comment. The proposed rule would impose two sets of limitations on the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements by covered providers of consumer financial products and services. First, it would prohibit providers from using a pre-dispute arbitration agreement to block consumer class actions in court and would require providers to insert language into their arbitration agreements reflecting this limitation. This proposal is based on the Bureau's preliminary findings—which are consistent with the Study—that pre-dispute arbitration agreements are being widely used to prevent consumers from seeking relief from legal violations on a class basis, and that consumers rarely file individual lawsuits or arbitration cases to obtain such relief.
Second, the proposal would require providers that use pre-dispute arbitration agreements to submit certain records relating to arbitral proceedings to the Bureau. The Bureau intends to use the information it collects to continue monitoring arbitral proceedings to determine whether there are developments that raise consumer protection concerns that may warrant further Bureau action. The Bureau intends to publish these materials on its Web site in some form, with appropriate redactions or aggregation as warranted, to provide greater transparency into the arbitration of consumer disputes.
The proposal would apply to providers of certain consumer financial products and services in the core consumer financial markets of lending money, storing money, and moving or exchanging money, including most providers that are engaged in:
• Extending or regularly participating in decisions regarding consumer credit under Regulation B implementing the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA), engaging primarily in the business of providing referrals or selecting creditors for consumers to obtain such credit, and the acquiring, purchasing, selling, or servicing of such credit;
• extending or brokering of automobile leases as defined in Bureau regulation;
• providing services to assist with debt management or debt settlement, modify the terms of any extension of consumer credit, or avoid foreclosure;
• providing directly to a consumer a consumer report as defined in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, a credit score, or other information specific to a consumer from a consumer report, except for adverse action notices provided by an employer;
• providing accounts under the Truth in Savings Act and accounts and remittance transfers subject to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act;
• transmitting or exchanging funds (except when integral to another product or service not covered by the proposed rule), certain other payment processing services, and check cashing, check collection, or check guaranty services consistent with the Dodd-Frank Act; and
• collecting debt arising from any of the above products or services by a provider of any of the above products or services, their affiliates, an acquirer or purchaser of consumer credit, or a person acting on behalf of any of these persons, or by a debt collector as defined by the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act.
Consistent with the Dodd-Frank Act, the proposed rule would apply only to agreements entered into after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the regulation's effective date.
Arbitration is a dispute resolution process in which the parties choose one or more neutral third parties to make a final and binding decision resolving the dispute.
In the last few decades, companies have begun inserting arbitration agreements in a wide variety of standard-form contracts, such as in contracts between companies and consumers, employees, and investors. The use of arbitration agreements in such contracts has become a contentious legal and policy issue due to concerns about whether the effects of arbitration agreements are salient to consumers, whether arbitration has proved to be a fair and efficient dispute resolution mechanism, and whether arbitration agreements effectively discourage the filing or resolution of certain claims in court or in arbitration.
In light of these concerns, Congress has taken steps to restrict the use of arbitration agreements in connection with certain consumer financial products and services and other consumer and investor relationships. Most recently, in the 2010 Dodd-Frank Act, Congress prohibited the use of arbitration agreements in connection with mortgage loans,
In addition, and of particular relevance here, Congress directed the Bureau to study the use of arbitration agreements in connection with other, non-mortgage consumer financial products and services and authorized the Bureau to prohibit or restrict the use of such agreements if it finds that such action is in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.
Companies often provide consumer financial products and services under the terms of a written contract. In addition to being governed by such contracts and the relevant State's contract law, the relationship between a consumer and a financial service provider is typically governed by consumer protection laws at the State level, Federal level, or both, as well as by other State laws of general applicability (such as tort law). Collectively, these laws create legal rights for consumers and impose duties on the providers of financial products and services that are subject to those laws.
Prior to the twentieth century, the law generally embraced the notion of
In the late 1960s, Congress began passing consumer protection laws focused on financial products, beginning with the Consumer Credit Protection Act (CCPA) in 1968.
Congress followed the enactment of TILA with several other consumer financial protection laws, many of which provided private rights of action for at least some statutory violations. For example, in 1970, Congress passed the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), which promotes the accuracy, fairness, and privacy of consumer information contained in the files of consumer reporting agencies, as well as providing consumers access to their own information.
Also in the 1960s, States began passing their own consumer protection statutes modeled on the FTC Act to prohibit unfair and deceptive practices. Unlike the Federal FTC Act, however, these State statutes typically provide for private enforcement.
In 1966, shortly before Congress first began passing consumer financial protection statutes, the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (Federal Rules or FRCP) were amended to make class actions substantially more available to litigants, including consumers. The class action procedure in the Federal Rules, as discussed in detail in Part II.B below, allows a representative individual to group his or her claims together with those of other, absent individuals in one lawsuit under certain circumstances. Because TILA and the other Federal consumer protection statutes discussed above permitted private rights of action, those private rights of action were enforceable through a class action, unless the statute expressly prohibited it.
Congress calibrated enforcement through private class actions in several of the consumer protection statutes by specifically referencing class actions and adopting statutory damage schemes that are pegged to a percentage of the defendants' net worth.
The default rule in United States courts, inherited from England, is that only those who appear as parties to a given case are bound by its outcome.
The bill of peace was recognized in early United States case law and ultimately adopted by several State courts and the Federal courts.
That changed in 1966, when Rule 23 was amended to create the class action mechanism that largely persists in the same form to this day.
A class action can be filed and maintained under Rule 23 in any case where there is a private right to bring a civil action, unless otherwise prohibited by law. Pursuant to Rule 23(a), a class action must meet all of the following requirements: (1) A class of a size such that joinder of each member as an individual litigant is impracticable; (2) questions of law or fact common to the class; (3) a class representative whose claims or defenses are typical of those of the class; and (4) that the class representative will adequately represent those interests.
These and other requirements of Rule 23 are designed to ensure that class action lawsuits safeguard absent class members' due process rights because they may be bound by what happens in the case.
A certified class case proceeds similarly to an individual case, except that the court has an additional responsibility in a class case, pursuant to Rule 23 and the relevant case law, to actively supervise classes and class proceedings and to ensure that the lead plaintiff keeps absent class members informed.
Since the 1966 amendments, Rule 23 has generated a significant body of case law as well as significant controversy.
For example, Congress passed the Private Securities Litigation Reform Act (PSLRA) in 1995. Enacted partially in response to concerns about the costs to defendants of litigating class actions, the PSLRA reduced discovery burdens in the early stages of securities class actions.
Federal courts have also shaped class action practice through their interpretations of Rule 23. In the last five years, the Supreme Court has decided several major cases refining class action procedure. In
As described above at the beginning of Part II, arbitration is a dispute resolution process in which the parties choose one or more neutral third parties to make a final and binding decision resolving the dispute.
The use of arbitration to resolve disputes between parties is not new.
In 1920, New York enacted the first modern arbitration statute in the United States, which strictly limited courts' power to undermine arbitration decisions and arbitration agreements.
From the passage of the FAA through the 1970s, arbitration continued to be used in commercial disputes between companies.
One notable feature of these agreements it that they could be used to block class action litigation and often class arbitration as well.
Since the early 1990s, the use of arbitration agreements in consumer financial contracts has become widespread, as shown by Section 2 of the Study (which is discussed in detail in Part III.D below). By the early 2000s, a few consumer financial companies had become heavy users of arbitration proceedings to obtain debt collection judgments against consumers. For example, in 2006 alone, the National Arbitration Forum (NAF) administered 214,000 arbitrations, most of which were consumer debt collection proceedings brought by companies.
The increase in the prevalence of arbitration agreements coincided with various legal challenges to their use in consumer contracts. One set of challenges focused on the use of arbitration agreements in connection with debt collection disputes. In the late 2000s, consumer groups began to criticize the fairness of debt collection arbitration proceedings administered by the NAF, the most widely used arbitration administrator for debt collection.
A second group of challenges asserted that the invocation of arbitration agreements to block class actions was unlawful. Because the FAA permits challenges to the validity of arbitration agreements on grounds that exist at law or in equity for the revocation of any contract,
Before 2011, courts were divided on whether arbitration agreements that bar class proceedings were unenforceable because they violated some states' laws. Then, in 2011, the Supreme Court held in
As arbitration agreements in consumer contracts became more common, Federal regulators, Congress, and State legislatures began to take notice of their impact on the ability of consumers to resolve disputes. One of the first entities to regulate arbitration agreements was the National Association of Securities Dealers—now known as the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)—the self-regulating body for the securities industry that also administers arbitrations between member companies and their customers.
Since 1975, FTC regulations implementing the Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act (MMWA) have barred the use, in consumer warranty agreements, of arbitration agreements that would result in binding decisions.
More recently, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) proposed a rule that would revise the requirements that long-term health care facilities must meet to participate in the Medicare and Medicaid programs.
Congress has also taken several steps to address the use of arbitration agreements in different contexts. In 2002, Congress amended Federal law to require that, whenever a motor vehicle franchise contract contains an arbitration agreement, arbitration may be used to resolve the dispute only if, after a dispute arises, all parties to the dispute consent in writing to the use of arbitration.
As previously noted, Congress again addressed arbitration agreements in the 2010 Dodd-Frank Act. Dodd-Frank section 1414(a) prohibited the use of arbitration agreements in mortgage contracts, which the Bureau implemented in its Regulation Z.
Today, the AAA is the primary administrator of consumer financial arbitrations.
Further, although virtually all arbitration agreements in the consumer financial context expressly preclude arbitration from proceeding on a class basis, the major arbitration administrators do provide procedures for administering class arbitrations and
Section 1028(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act directed the Bureau to study and provide a report to Congress on “the use of agreements providing for arbitration of any future dispute between covered persons and consumers in connection with the offering or providing of consumer financial products or services.” Pursuant to section 1028(a), the Bureau conducted a study of the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements in contracts for consumer financial products and services and, in March 2015, delivered to Congress its
This Part describes the process the Bureau used to carry out the Study and summarizes the Study's results.
At the outset of its work, on April 27, 2012, the Bureau published a Request for Information (RFI) in the
The feedback received through this process substantially affected the scope of the study the Bureau undertook. For example, several industry trade association commenters suggested that the Bureau study not only consumer financial arbitration but also consumer financial litigation in court. The Study incorporates an extensive analysis of consumer financial litigation—both individual litigation and class actions.
In some cases, commenters to the RFI encouraged the Bureau to study a topic, but the Bureau did not do so because certain effects did not appear measurable. For example, some commenters suggested that the Bureau study the effect of arbitration agreements on the development, interpretation, and application of the rule of law. The Bureau did not identify a robust data set that would allow empirical analysis of this phenomenon. Nonetheless, legal scholars have subsequently attempted to quantify this effect in relation to consumer law.
In December 2013, the Bureau issued a 168-page report summarizing its preliminary results on a number of topics (Preliminary Results).
In February 2014, the Bureau invited stakeholders for in-person discussions with staff regarding the Preliminary Results, as well as the Bureau's future work plan. Several external stakeholders, including industry associations and consumer groups, took that opportunity and provided additional input regarding the Study.
In the Preliminary Results, the Bureau indicated that it planned to conduct a survey of consumers. The purpose of the survey was to assess consumer awareness of arbitration agreements, as well as consumer perceptions of, and expectations about, dispute resolution with respect to disputes between consumers and financial services
The Bureau ultimately focused on nine empirical topics in the Study:
1. The prevalence of arbitration agreements in contracts for consumer financial products and services and their main features (Section 2 of the Study);
2. Consumers' understanding of dispute resolution systems, including arbitration and the extent to which dispute resolution clauses affect consumer's purchasing decisions (Section 3 of the Study);
3. How arbitration procedures differ from procedures in court (Section 4 of the Study);
4. The volume of individual consumer financial arbitrations, the types of claims, and how they are resolved (Section 5 of the Study);
5. The volume of individual and class consumer financial litigation, the types of claims, and how they are resolved (Section 6 of the Study);
6. The extent to which consumers sue companies in small claims court with respect to disputes involving consumer financial services (Section 7 of the Study);
7. The size, terms, and beneficiaries of consumer financial class action settlements (Section 8 of the Study);
8. The relationship between public enforcement and consumer financial class actions (Section 9 of the Study); and
9. The extent to which arbitration agreements lead to lower prices for consumers (Section 10 of the Study).
As described further in each subsection below, the Bureau's research on several of these topics drew in part upon data sources previously unavailable to researchers. For example, the AAA voluntarily provided the Bureau with case files for consumer arbitrations filed from the beginning of 2010, approximately when the AAA began maintaining electronic records, to the end of 2012. Compared to data sets previously available to researchers, the AAA case files covered a much longer period and were not limited to case files for cases resulting in an award. Using this data set, the Bureau conducted the first analysis of arbitration frequency and outcomes specific to consumer financial products and services.
The results of the Study also broke new ground because the Study, compared to prior research, generally considered larger data sets than had been reviewed by other researchers while also narrowing its analysis to consumer financial products and services. In total, the Study included the review of over 850 agreements for certain consumer financial products and services; 1,800 consumer financial services arbitrations filed over a three-year period; a random sample of the nearly 3,500 individual consumer finance cases identified as having been filed over a period of three years; and all of the 562 consumer finance class actions identified in Federal and selected State courts of the same time period. The study also included over 40,000 small claims court filings over the course of a single year. The Bureau supplemented this research by assembling and analyzing all of the more than 400 consumer financial class action settlements in Federal courts over a five-year period and more than 1,100 State and Federal public enforcement actions in the consumer finance area.
Section 2 of the Study addresses two central issues relating to the use of arbitration agreements: How frequently such agreements appear in contracts for consumer financial products and services and what features such agreements contain. Among other findings, the Study determined that arbitration agreements are commonly used in contracts for consumer financial products and services and that the AAA is the primary administrator of consumer financial arbitrations.
To conduct this analysis, the Bureau reviewed contracts for six product markets: Credit cards, checking accounts, general purpose reloadable (GPR) prepaid cards, payday loans, private student loans, and mobile wireless contracts governing third-party billing services.
The Bureau's sample of credit card contracts consisted of contracts filed by 423 issuers with the Bureau as required by the Credit Card Accountability, Responsibility and Disclosure Act (CARD Act) as implemented by Regulation Z.
For prepaid cards, the Bureau's sample included agreements from two sources. The Bureau gathered agreements for 52 GPR prepaid cards that were listed on the Web sites of two major card networks and a Web site that provided consolidated card information as of August 2013. The Bureau also obtained agreements from GPR prepaid card providers that had been included in several recent studies of the terms of GPR prepaid cards and that continued to be available as of August 2014.
The analysis of the agreements that the Bureau collected found that tens of millions of consumers use consumer financial products or services that are subject to arbitration agreements, and that, in some markets such as checking accounts and credit cards, large providers are more likely to have the agreements than small providers.
In addition to examining the prevalence of arbitration agreements, Section 2 of the Study reviewed 13 features sometimes included in such agreements.
In contrast, JAMS is specified in relatively fewer arbitration agreements. The Study found that the contracts studied specified JAMS as at least one of the possible arbitration administrators in 40.9 percent of the credit card contracts with arbitration agreements; 34.4 percent of the checking
The Bureau's analysis also found, among other things, that nearly all the arbitration agreements studied included provisions stating that arbitration may not proceed on a class basis. Across each product market, 85 percent to 100 percent of the contracts with arbitration agreements—covering over 99 percent of market share subject to arbitration in the six product markets studied—included such no-class-arbitration provisions.
The Study found that most of the arbitration agreements contained a small claims court “carve-out,” permitting either the consumer or both parties to file suit in small claims court.
The Study analyzed three different types of cost provisions: provisions addressing the initial payment of arbitration fees; provisions that addressed the reallocation of arbitration fees in an award; and provisions addressing the award of attorney's fees.
The Study found that many arbitration agreements permit the arbitrator to reallocate arbitration fees from one party to the other. About one-third of credit card arbitration agreements, one-fourth of checking account arbitration agreements, and half of payday loan arbitration agreements expressly permitted the arbitrator to shift arbitration costs to the consumer.
Further, most of the arbitration agreements the Bureau studied contained disclosures describing the differences between arbitration and litigation in court. Most agreements disclosed expressly that the consumer would not have a right to a jury trial, and most disclosed expressly that the consumer could not be a party to a class action in court.
The Study also examined whether arbitration agreements limited recovery of damages—including punitive or consequential damages—or specified the time period in which a claim had to be brought. The Study determined that most agreements in the credit card, payday loan, and private student loan markets did not include damages limitations. However, the opposite was true of agreements in checking account contracts, where more than three-fourths of the market included damages limitations; prepaid card contracts, almost all of which included such limitations; and mobile wireless contracts, all of which included such limitations. A review of consumer agreements
The Study also found that a minority of arbitration agreements in two markets set time limits other than the statute of limitations that would apply in a court proceeding for consumers to file claims in arbitration. Specifically, these types of provisions appeared in 28.4 percent and 15.8 percent of the checking account and mobile wireless agreements by market share, respectively.
The Study assessed the extent to which arbitration agreements included contingent minimum recovery provisions, which provide that consumers would receive a specified minimum recovery if an arbitrator awards the consumer more than the amount of the company's last settlement offer. The Study found that such provisions were uncommon; they appeared in three out of the six private student loan agreements the Bureau reviewed, but, in markets other than student loans, they appeared in 28.6 percent or less of the agreements the Bureau studied.
Section 3 of the Study presented the results of the Bureau's telephone survey of a nationally representative sample of credit card holders.
The consumer survey found that when presented with a hypothetical situation in which their credit card issuer charged them a fee they knew to be wrongly assessed and in which they exhausted efforts to obtain relief from the company through customer service, only 2.1 percent of respondents stated that they would seek legal advice or consider legal proceedings.
Respondents also reported that factors relating to dispute resolution—such as the presence of an arbitration agreement—played little to no role when they were choosing a credit card. When asked an open-ended question about all the factors that affected their decision to obtain the credit card that they use most often for personal use, no respondents volunteered an answer that referenced dispute resolution procedures.
As for consumers' knowledge and default assumptions as to the means by which disputes between consumers and financial service providers can be resolved, the survey found that consumers generally lack awareness regarding the effects of arbitration agreements. Of the survey's 1,007 respondents, 570 respondents were able to identify their credit card issuer with sufficient specificity to enable the Bureau to find the issuer's standard credit card agreement and thus to compare the respondents' beliefs with respect to the terms of their agreements with the agreements' actual terms.
Respondents were also generally unaware of any opt-out opportunities afforded by their issuer. Only one respondent whose current credit card contract permitted opting out of the arbitration agreement recalled being offered such an opportunity.
While the Study generally limited its scope to empirical analysis of dispute resolution, Section 4 of the Study compared the procedural rules that apply in court and in arbitration. Particularly given changes to the AAA consumer fee schedule that took effect March 1, 2013, the procedural rules are relevant to understanding the context from which the Study's empirical findings arise.
The Study's procedural overview described court litigation as reflected in the Federal Rules and, as an example of a small claims court process, the Philadelphia Municipal Court Rules of Civil Practice. It compared those procedures to arbitration procedures as set out in the rules governing consumer arbitrations administered by the two leading arbitration administrators in the United States, the AAA and JAMS. The Study compared arbitration and court procedures according to eleven factors: The process for filing a claim, fees, legal
Parties in court generally bear their own attorney's fees, unless a statute or contract provision provides otherwise or a party is shown to have acted in bad faith. However, under several consumer protection statutes, providers may be liable for attorney's fees.
Section 5 of the Study analyzed arbitrations of consumer finance disputes between consumers and consumer financial services providers. This section tallied the frequency of such arbitrations, including the number of claims brought and a classification of which claims were brought. It also examined outcomes, including how cases were resolved and how consumers and companies fared in the relatively small share of cases that an arbitrator resolved on the merits. The Study performed this analysis for arbitrations concerning credit cards, checking accounts, payday loans, GPR prepaid cards, private student loans, and auto purchase loans. To conduct this analysis, the Bureau used electronic case files from the AAA.
The Study identified about 1,847 filings in total—about 616 per year—with the AAA for the six product markets combined.
Although claim amounts varied by product, in disputes involving affirmative claims by consumers, the average amount of such claims was approximately $27,000 and the median amount of such claims was $11,500.
Overall, consumers were represented by counsel in 63.2 percent of arbitration cases.
To analyze the outcomes in arbitration, the Bureau confined its analysis to claims filed in 2010 and 2011 in order to limit the number of cases that were pending at the close of the period for which the Bureau had data. The Bureau's analysis of arbitration outcomes was limited by a number of factors that are unavoidable in any review of dispute resolution.
With those significant caveats noted, the Study determined that in 32.2 percent of the 1,060 disputes filed during the first two years of the study period (341 disputes) arbitrators resolved the dispute on the merits. In 23.2 percent of the disputes (246 disputes), the record shows that the parties settled. In 34.2 percent of disputes (362 disputes), the available AAA case record ends in a manner that is consistent with settlement—for example, a voluntary dismissal of the action—but the Bureau could not definitively determine that settlement occurred. In the remaining 10.5 percent of disputes (111 disputes), the available AAA case record ends in a manner suggesting the dispute is unlikely to have settled; for example, the AAA may have refused to administer the dispute because it determined that the arbitration agreement at issue was inconsistent with the AAA's Consumer Due Process Protocol.
As noted above, only a small portion of filed arbitrations reached a decision. The Study identified 341 cases filed in 2010 and 2011 that were resolved by an arbitrator and for which the outcome was ascertainable.
The Study found that consumers appealed very few arbitration decisions and companies appealed none. Specifically, it found four arbitral appeals filed between 2010 and 2012. Consumers without counsel filed all four. Three of the four were closed after the parties failed to pay the required administrator fees and arbitrator deposits. In the fourth, a three-arbitrator panel upheld an arbitration award in favor of the company after a 15-month appeal process.
The Study also found that very few class arbitrations were filed. The Study identified only two filed between 2010 and 2012. One was still pending on a motion to dismiss as of September 2014. The other file contained no information other than the arbitration demand that followed a State court decision granting the company's motion seeking arbitration.
The Study also found that, when there was a decision on the merits by an arbitrator, the average time to resolution was 179 days, and the median time to resolution was 150 days. When the record definitively indicated that a case had settled, the median time to settlement was 155 days from the filing of the initial claim.
The Study's review of consumer financial litigation in court represents, the Bureau believes, the only analysis of the frequency and outcomes of consumer finance cases to date. While there is a large body of research regarding cases filed in court generally, preexisting studies of consumer finance cases either assessed only the number of filings—not typologies and outcomes, as the Study did—or focused on the frequency of cases filed under individual statutes.
The Bureau's class action litigation analysis extended to all Federal district courts. To conduct this analysis, the Bureau collected complaints concerning these six products using an electronic database of pleadings in Federal district courts.
The Study's analysis of putative class action filings identified 562 cases filed by consumers from 2010 through 2012 in Federal courts and selected State courts concerning the six products, or about 187 per year.
As with the Study's analysis of the arbitration proceedings noted above, the Study set out a number of explicit and inherent limitations to its analysis of litigation outcomes.
Outside of case outcomes, however, the Study noted that even comparing frequency or process across litigation and arbitration proceedings was of limited utility.
An additional 24.4 percent of the class cases (137 cases) involved a non-class settlement and 36.7 percent (206 cases) involved a potential non-class settlement.
The Study also identified 3,462 individual cases filed in Federal court concerning the five product markets studied during the period, or 1,154 per year.
The Bureau reviewed outcomes in all of the individual cases from four of the five markets studied and a random sample of the cases filed in the fifth market, resulting in an analysis of 1,205 cases.
Individual cases generally resolved more quickly than class cases. Aside from cases that were transferred to MDLs, Federal class cases closed in a median of approximately 218 days for cases filed in 2010 and 211 days for cases filed in 2011. Class cases in MDLs were markedly slower, closing in a median of approximately 758 days for cases filed in 2010 and 538 days for cases filed in 2011. State class cases closed in a median of approximately 407 days for cases filed in 2010 and 255 days for cases filed in 2011.
Notwithstanding the inherent limitations noted above, the Bureau's large set of individual and class action litigations allowed the Study to explore whether motions seeking to compel arbitration were more likely to be asserted in individual filings or in putative class action filings. Across its entire set of court filings, the Study found that motions seeking to compel arbitration were much more likely to be asserted in cases filed as class actions. For most of the cases analyzed in the Study, it was not apparent whether the defendants in the proceedings had the option of moving to seek arbitration
As described above, Section 2 of the Study found that most arbitration agreements in the six markets the Bureau studied contained a small claims court “carve-out” that typically afforded either the consumer or both parties the right to file suit in small claims court as an alternative to arbitration. Commenters on the RFI urged the Bureau to study the use of small claims courts with respect to consumer financial disputes. The Bureau undertook this analysis, published the results of this inquiry in the Preliminary Results, and also included these results in Section 7 of the Study.
The Study's review of small claims court filings represents the only study of the incidence and typology of consumer financial disputes in small claims court to date. Prior research suggests that companies make greater use of small claims court than consumers and that most company-filed suits in small claims court are debt collection cases.
The Bureau obtained the data for this analysis from online small claims court databases operated by States and counties. No centralized repository of small claims court filings exists.
The Study estimated that, in the jurisdictions the Bureau studied—with a combined population of approximately 85 million people—consumers filed no more than 870 disputes in 2012 against these ten institutions
As the Study noted, the number of claims brought by consumers that were consumer financial in nature was likely much lower. Out of the 31 jurisdictions studied, the Bureau was able to obtain underlying case documents on a systematic basis for only two jurisdictions: Alameda County and Philadelphia County. The Bureau's analysis of all cases filed by consumers against the credit card issuers in its sample found 39 such cases in Alameda County and four such cases in Philadelphia County. When the Bureau reviewed the actual pleadings, however, only four of the 39 Alameda cases were clearly individuals filing credit card claims against one of the ten issuers, and none of the four Philadelphia cases were situations where individuals were filing credit card claims against one of the ten issuers. This additional analysis shows that the Bureau's broad methodology likely significantly overstated the actual number of small claims court cases filed by consumers against credit card issuers.
The Study also found that in small claims court credit card issuers were more likely to sue consumers than consumers were to sue issuers. The Study estimated that, in these same jurisdictions, issuers in the Bureau's sample filed over 41,000 cases against individuals.
Section 8 of the Study contains the results of the Bureau's quantitative assessment of consumer financial class action settlements. As described above, Section 6 of the Study, which analyzes consumer financial litigation, includes findings about the frequency with which consumer financial class actions are filed and the types of outcomes reached in such cases. However, the dataset used for that analysis consisted of cases filed between 2010 and 2012 and outcomes of those cases through February 28, 2014.
To better understand the results of consumer financial class actions that result in settlements, for Section 8, the Bureau conducted a search of class action settlements through an online database for Federal district court dockets. The Bureau searched this database using terms designed to identify final settlement orders finalized
The set of consumer financial class action settlements overlaps with the data set used for the analysis of the frequency and outcomes of consumer financial litigation (Section 6 of the Study) insofar as cases filed in 2010 through 2012 had settled by the end of 2012. The analysis of class action settlements is larger because it encompasses a wider time period (settlements finalized from 2008-12) to decrease the variance across years that could be created by unusually large settlements and to account for the impact of the April 2011 Supreme Court decision in
As the Study noted, there were limitations to the Bureau's analysis. The Study understates the number of class action settlements finalized, and the amount of relief provided, during the period under study because the Bureau could not identify class settlements in State court class action litigation. (The Bureau determined it was not feasible to do so in a systematic way.
The Bureau identified 422 Federal consumer financial class settlements that were approved between 2008 and 2012, resulting in an average of approximately 85 approved settlements per year.
These 419 settlements included cash relief, in-kind relief and other expenses that companies paid. The total amount of gross relief in these 419 settlements—that is, aggregate amounts promised to be made available to or for the benefit of damages classes as a whole, calculated before any fees or other costs were deducted—was about $2.7 billion.
Sixty percent of the 419 settlements (251 settlements) contained enough data for the Bureau to calculate the value of cash relief that, as of the last document in the case files, either had been or was scheduled to be paid to class members. Based on these cases alone, the value of cash payments to class members was $1.1 billion. This excludes payment of in-kind relief and any valuation of behavioral relief.
For 56 percent of the 419 settlements (236 settlements), the docket contained enough data for the Bureau to estimate, as of the date of the last filing in the case, the number of class members who were guaranteed cash payment because either they had submitted a claim or they were part of a class to which payments were to be made automatically. In these settlements, 34 million class members were guaranteed recovery as of the time of the last document available for review, having made claims or participated in an automatic distribution.
The Study also sought to calculate the rate at which consumers claimed relief when such a process was required to obtain relief. The Bureau was able to calculate the claims rate in 25.1 percent of the 419 settlements that contained enough data for the Bureau to calculate the value of cash relief that had been or was scheduled to be paid to class members (105 cases). In these cases, the average claims rate was 21 percent and the median claims rate was 8 percent.
The Study also examined attorney's fee awards. Across all settlements that reported both fees and gross cash and in-kind relief, fee rates were 21 percent of cash relief and 16 percent of cash and in-kind relief. Here, too, the Study did not include any valuation for behavioral relief, even when courts relied on such valuations to support fee awards. The Bureau was able to compare fees to cash payments in 251 cases (or 60 percent of our data set). In these cases, of the total amount paid out in cash by defendants (both to class members and in attorney's fees), 24 percent was paid in fees.
In addition, the Study includes a case study of
The Overdraft MDL cases also provided useful insight into the extent to which consumers were able to obtain relief via informal dispute resolution—such as telephone calls to customer service representatives. As the Study notes, in 17 of the 18 Overdraft MDL settlements, the amount of the settlement relief was finalized, and the number of class members determined, after specific calculations by an expert witness who took into account the number and amount of fees that had already been reversed based on informal consumer complaints to customer service. The expert witness used data provided by the banks to calculate the amount of consumer harm on a per-consumer basis; the data showed, and the calculations reflected, informal reversals of overdraft charges. Even after controlling for these informal reversals, nearly $1 billion in relief was made available to more than 28 million class members in these MDL cases.
Section 9 of the Study explores the relationship between private consumer financial class actions and public (governmental) enforcement actions. As Section 9 notes, some industry trade association commenters (commenting on the RFI) urged the Bureau to study whether class actions are an efficient and cost-effective mechanism to ensure compliance with the law given the authority of public enforcement agencies. Specifically, these commenters suggested that the Bureau explore the percentage of class actions that are follow-on proceedings to government enforcement actions. Other stakeholders have argued that private class actions are needed to supplement public enforcement, given the limited resources of government agencies, and that private class actions may precede public enforcement and, in some cases, spur the government to action. To better understand the relationship between private class actions and public enforcement, Section 9 analyzes the extent to which private class actions overlap with government enforcement activity and, when they do overlap, which types of actions come first.
The Bureau obtained data for this analysis in two steps. First, it assembled a sample of public enforcement actions and searched for “overlapping” private class actions, meaning that the cases sought relief against the same defendants for the same conduct, regardless of the legal theory employed in the complaint at issue.
Second, the Bureau essentially performed a similar search, but in reverse: The Bureau assembled a sample of private class actions and then searched for overlapping public enforcement actions. This sample of private class actions was derived from a sample of the class settlements used for Section 8 and a review of the Web sites of leading plaintiffs' class action law firms. To find overlapping public enforcement actions (typically posted on government agencies' Web sites), the Bureau searched online using keywords specific to the underlying private action.
The Study found that, where the government brings an enforcement action, there is rarely an overlapping private class action. For 88 percent of the public enforcement actions the Bureau identified, the Bureau did not find an overlapping private class action.
Finally, the Study found that, when public enforcement actions and class actions overlapped, private class actions tended to precede public enforcement actions instead of the reverse. When the Study began with government enforcement activity and identified overlapping private class actions, public enforcement activity was preceded by private activity 71 percent of the time. Likewise, when the Bureau began with private class actions and identified overlapping public enforcement activity, private class action complaints were preceded by public enforcement activity 36 percent of the time.
Section 10 of the Study contains the results of a quantitative analysis exploring whether arbitration agreements affect the price and availability of credit to consumers. Commenters on the Bureau's RFI suggested that the Bureau explore whether arbitration agreements lower the prices of financial services to consumers. In academic literature, some hypothesize that arbitration agreements reduce companies' dispute resolution costs and that companies “pass through” at least some cost savings to consumers in the form of lower prices, while others reject this notion.
To address this gap in scholarship, the Study explored the effects of arbitration agreements on the price and availability of credit in the credit card marketplace following a series of settlements in
The Bureau performed a similar inquiry into whether affected companies altered the amount of credit they offered consumers, all else being equal, in a manner that was statistically different from that of comparable companies. The Study notes that this inquiry was subject to limitations not applicable to the price inquiry, such as the lack of a single metric to define credit availability.
As noted, the Bureau released the Arbitration Study in March 2015. After doing so, the Bureau held roundtables with key stakeholders and invited them to provide feedback on the Study and how the Bureau should interpret its results.
In October 2015, the Bureau convened a Small Business Review Panel (SBREFA Panel) with the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) and the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs with the Office of Management and Budget
Prior to formally meeting with the SERs, the Bureau held conference calls to introduce the SERs to the materials and to answer their questions. The SBREFA Panel then conducted a full-day outreach meeting with the small entity representatives in October 2015 in Washington, DC. The SBREFA Panel gathered information from the SERs at the meeting. Following the meeting, nine SERs submitted written comments to the Bureau. The SBREFA Panel then made findings and recommendations regarding the potential compliance costs and other impacts of the proposed rule on those entities. Those findings and recommendations are set forth in the Small Business Review Panel Report, which is being made part of the administrative record in this rulemaking.
At the same time that the Bureau conducted the SBREFA Panel, it met with other stakeholders to discuss the SBREFA Outline and the impacts analysis discussed in that outline. The Bureau convened several roundtable meetings with a variety of industry representatives—including national trade associations for depository banks and non-bank providers—and consumer advocates. Bureau staff also presented an overview at a public meeting of the Bureau's Consumer Advisory Board (CAB) and solicited feedback from the CAB on the proposals under consideration. The Bureau expects to meet with Indian tribes and engage in consultation pursuant to its Policy for Consultation with Tribal Governments after the release of this notice of proposed rulemaking. The Bureau specifically solicits comment on this proposal from Tribal governments.
As discussed more fully below, there are two components to this proposal: A proposal to prohibit providers from the use of arbitration agreements to block class actions (as set forth in proposed § 1040.4(a)) and a proposal to require the submission to the Bureau of certain arbitral records (as set forth in proposed § 1040.4(b). The Bureau is issuing the first component of its proposal pursuant to its authority under section 1028(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act and is issuing the second component of its pursuant to its authority under that section and under sections 1022(b) and (c).
Section 1028(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act authorizes the Bureau to issue regulations that would “prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of an agreement between a covered person and a consumer for a consumer financial product or service providing for arbitration of any future dispute between the parties,” if doing so is “in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.” Section 1028(b) also requires that “[t]he findings in such rule shall be consistent with the Study.”
Section 1028(c) further instructs that the Bureau's authority under section 1028(b) may not be construed to prohibit or restrict a consumer from entering into a voluntary arbitration agreement with a covered person after a dispute has arisen. Finally, Section 1028(d) provides that, notwithstanding any other provision of law, any regulation prescribed by the Bureau under section 1028(b) shall apply, consistent with the terms of the regulation, to any agreement between a consumer and a covered person entered into after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the effective date of the regulation, as established by the Bureau. As is discussed below in Part VI, the Bureau finds that its proposals relating to pre-dispute arbitration agreements fulfill all these statutory requirements and are in the public interest, for the protection of consumers, and consistent with the Bureau's Study.
Section 1022(b)(1) of the Dodd-Frank Act authorizes the Bureau to prescribe rules “as may be necessary or appropriate to enable the Bureau to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the Federal consumer financial laws, and to prevent evasions thereof.” Among other statutes, Title X of the Dodd-Frank Act is a Federal consumer financial law.
Dodd-Frank section 1022(c)(1) provides that, to support its rulemaking and other functions, the Bureau shall monitor for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, including developments in markets for such products or services. The Bureau may make public such information obtained by the Bureau under this section as is in the public interest.
In this section, the Bureau sets forth how it interprets the requirements of Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) and why it preliminarily finds that the proposed rule (as set out more fully in proposed § 1040.4 and the Section-by-Section Analysis thereto) would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers. The Bureau also identifies below why it believes that its proposal would be consistent with the Study. This section first explains the Bureau's interpretation of the legal standard, then discusses its application to the class proposal (proposed § 1040.4(a)) and the monitoring proposal (proposed § 1040.4(b)).
As discussed above in Part V, Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) authorizes the Bureau to “prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of” a pre-dispute arbitration agreement between covered persons and consumers if the Bureau finds that doing so “is in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.” This requirement can be read as either a single integrated standard or as two separate tests (that a rule be both “in the public interest” and “for the protection of consumers”), and the Bureau must exercise its expertise to determine which reading best effectuates the purposes of the statute. As explained below, the Bureau is proposing to interpret the two phrases as related but conceptually distinct. The Bureau invites comment on this proposed interpretation, and specifically on whether “in the public interest” and “for the protection of consumers” should be interpreted as having independent meanings or as a single integrated standard.
The Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) statutory standard parallels the standard set forth in Dodd-Frank section 921(b), which authorizes the SEC to “prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of” a pre-dispute arbitration agreement between investment advisers and their customers or clients if the SEC finds that doing so “is in the public interest and for the protection of investors.” That language in turn parallels language in the Securities Act and the Exchange Act, which, for over 80 years, have authorized the SEC to adopt certain regulations or take certain actions if doing so is “in the public interest and for the protection of investors.”
The Bureau believes, however, that treating the two phrases as separate tests may ensure a fuller consideration of all relevant factors. This approach would also be consistent with canons of construction that counsel in favor of giving the two statutory phrases discrete meaning notwithstanding the fact that the two phrases in section 1028(b)—“in the public interest” and “for the protection of consumers”—are inherently interrelated for the reasons discussed above.
Under this approach the Bureau believes that “for the protection of consumers” in the context of section 1028 should be read to focus specifically on the effects of a regulation in promoting compliance with laws applicable to consumer financial products and services and avoiding or preventing harm to the consumers who use or seek to use those products. In contrast, under this approach the Bureau would read section 1028(b)'s “in the public interest” prong, consistent with the purposes and objectives of Title X, to require consideration of the entire range of impacts on consumers and impacts on other elements of the public. These interests encompass not just the elements of consumer protection described above, but also secondary impacts on consumers such as effects on pricing, accessibility, and the availability of innovative products, as well as impacts on providers, markets, the rule of law and accountability, and other general systemic considerations.
The Bureau's interpretations of each phrase standing alone are informed by several considerations. As noted above, for instance, the Bureau would look to the purposes and objectives of Title X to inform the “public interest” prong. The Bureau's starting point in defining the public interest is therefore section 1021(a) of the Act, which describes the Bureau's purpose as follows: “The Bureau shall seek to implement and, where applicable, enforce Federal
Accordingly, the Bureau proposes to interpret the phrase “in the public interest” to condition any regulation on a finding that such regulation serves the public good based on an inquiry into the regulation's implications for the Bureau's purposes and objectives. This inquiry would require the Bureau to consider benefits and costs to consumers and firms, including the more direct consumer protection factors noted above, and general or systemic concerns with respect to the functioning of markets for consumer financial products or services, the broader economy, and the promotion of the rule of law and accountability.
With respect to “the protection of consumers,” as explained above, the Bureau ordinarily considers its roles and responsibilities as the Consumer [Financial] Protection Bureau to encompass attention to the full range of considerations relevant under Title X without separately delineating some as “in the public interest” and others as “for the protection of consumers.” However, given that section 1028(b) pairs “the protection of consumers” with the “public interest,” the latter of which the Bureau interprets to include the full range of considerations encompassed in Title X, the Bureau believes, based on its expertise, that “for the protection of consumers” should be read more narrowly. Specifically the Bureau believes “for the protection of consumers” should be read to focus on the effects of a regulation in promoting compliance with laws applicable to consumer financial products and services, and avoiding or preventing harm to consumers that may result from violations of those laws or other consumer rights.
The Bureau therefore proposes to interpret the phrase “for the protection of consumers” in section 1028—which relates specifically to arbitration agreements—to condition any regulation on a finding that such regulation would serve to deter and redress violations of the rights of consumers who are using or seek to use a consumer financial product or service. The focus under this prong of the test, as the Bureau is proposing to interpret it, would be exclusively on impacts on the level of compliance with relevant laws, including deterring violations of those laws, and on consumers' ability to obtain redress or relief. This would not include consideration of other benefits or costs or more general or systemic concerns with respect to the functioning of markets for consumer financial products or services or the broader economy. For instance, a regulation would be “for the protection of consumers” if it adopted direct requirements or augmented the impact of existing requirements to ensure that consumers receive “timely and understandable information” in the course of financial decision making, or to guard them from “unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts and practices and from discrimination.”
As discussed above, the Bureau provisionally believes that giving separate consideration to the two prongs best ensures that the purpose of the statute is effectuated. This proposed interpretation would prevent the Bureau from acting solely based on more diffuse public interest benefits, absent a meaningful direct impact on consumer protection as described above. Likewise, the proposed interpretation would prevent the Bureau from issuing arbitration regulations that would undermine the public interest as defined by the full range of factors discussed above, despite some advancement of the protection of consumers.
The Bureau invites comment on its proposed interpretation of section 1028(b). The Bureau specifically invites comment on whether “in the public interest” and “for the protection of consumers” should be interpreted as having independent meaning and, if so, whether the Bureau's proposed interpretation of each effectuates the purpose of this provision. The Bureau also invites comments on whether a single, unitary standard would lead to a substantially different interpretation or application.
The Study provides a factual predicate for assessing whether particular proposals would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers. This Part sets forth the preliminary factual findings that the Bureau has drawn from the Study and from the Bureau's additional analysis of arbitration agreements and their role in the resolution of disputes involving consumer financial products and services. The Bureau emphasizes that each of these findings is preliminary
The Bureau preliminarily concludes, consistent with the Study and based on its experience and expertise, that: (1) The evidence is inconclusive on whether individual arbitration conducted during the Study period is superior or inferior to individual litigation in terms of remediating consumer harm; (2) individual dispute resolution is insufficient as the sole mechanism available to consumers to enforce contracts and the laws applicable to consumer financial products and services; (3) class actions provide a more effective means of securing relief for large numbers of consumers affected by common legally questionable practices and for changing companies' potentially harmful behaviors; (4) arbitration agreements block many class action claims that are filed and discourage the filing of others; and (5) public enforcement does not obviate the need for a private class action mechanism.
The benefits and drawbacks of arbitration as a means of resolving consumer disputes have long been contested. The Bureau does not believe that, based on the evidence currently available to the Bureau, it can determine whether the mechanisms for the arbitration of individual disputes between consumers and providers of consumer financial products and services that existed during the Study period are more or less fair or efficient in resolving these disputes than leaving these disputes to the courts.
The Bureau believes that the predominant administrator of consumer arbitration agreements is the AAA, which has adopted standards of conduct that govern the handling of disputes involving consumer financial products and services. The Study further showed that these disputes proceed relatively expeditiously, the cost to consumers of this mechanism is modest, and at least some consumers proceed without an attorney. The Study also showed that those consumers who do prevail in arbitration may obtain substantial individual awards—the average recovery by the 32 consumers who won judgments on their affirmative claims was nearly $5,400.
At the same time, the Study showed that a large percentage of the relatively small number of AAA individual arbitration cases are initiated by the consumer financial product or service companies or jointly by companies and consumers in an effort to resolve debt disputes. The Study also showed that companies prevail more frequently on their claims than consumers
Arbitration procedures are privately determined and can pose risks to consumers. For example, until it was effectively shut down by the Minnesota Attorney General, NAF was the predominant administrator for certain types of arbitrations. As set out in Part II.C above, NAF stopped conducting consumer arbitrations in response to allegations that its ownership structure gave rise to an institutional conflict of interest. The Study showed isolated instances of arbitration agreements containing provisions that, on their face, raise significant concerns about fairness to consumers similar to those raised by NAF, such as an agreement designating a tribal administrator that does not appear to exist and agreements specifying NAF as a provider even though NAF no longer handles consumer finance arbitration, making it difficult for consumers to resolve their claims.
Whatever the relative merits of individual proceedings pursuant to an arbitration agreement compared to individual litigation, the Bureau preliminarily concludes, based upon the results of the Study, that individual dispute resolution mechanisms are an insufficient means of ensuring that consumer financial protection laws and consumer financial contracts are enforced.
The Study showed that consumers rarely pursue individual claims against their companies, based on its survey of the frequency of consumer claims, collectively across venues, in Federal courts, small claims courts, and arbitration. First, the Study showed that consumer-filed Federal court lawsuits are quite rare compared to the total number of consumers of financial products and services. As noted above, from 2010 to 2012, the Study showed that only 3,462 individual cases were filed in Federal court concerning the five product markets studied during the period, or 1,154 per year.
A similarly small number of consumers file consumer financial claims in arbitration. The Study shows that from the beginning of 2010 to the end of 2012 consumers filed 1,234 individual arbitrations with the AAA, or about 400 per year across the six markets studied.
Collectively, as set out in the Study, the number of all individual claims filed by consumers in individual arbitration, individual litigation in Federal court, or small claims court is relatively low in the markets analyzed in the Study compared to the hundreds of millions of consumers of various types of financial products and services.
The Bureau also believes that the relatively low number of formally filed individual claims may be explained by the low monetary value of the claims that are often at issue.
The Study's survey of consumers in the credit card market reflects this dynamic. Very few consumers said they would pursue a legal claim if they could not get what they believed were unjustified or unexplained fees reversed by contacting a company's customer service department.
Even when consumers are inclined to pursue individual claims, finding attorneys to represent them can be challenging. Attorney's fees for an individual claim can easily exceed expected individual recovery.
For all of these reasons, the Bureau preliminarily finds that the relatively small number of arbitration, small claims, and Federal court cases reflects the insufficiency of individual dispute resolution mechanisms alone to enforce effectively the law for all consumers of a particular provider, including Federal consumer protection laws and consumer finance contracts.
Some stakeholders claim that the low total volume of individual claims, in litigation or arbitration, found by the Study is attributable not to inherent deficiencies in the individual dispute resolution systems but rather to the success of informal dispute resolution mechanisms in resolving consumers' complaints. On this theory, the cases that actually are litigated or arbitrated are outliers—consumer disputes in which the consumer either bypassed the informal dispute resolution system or the system somehow failed to produce a resolution. The Bureau does not find this argument persuasive.
The Bureau understands that when an individual consumer complains about a particular charge or other practice, it is often in the financial institution's interest to provide the individual with a response explaining that charge and, in some cases, a full or partial refund or reversal of the practice, in order to preserve the customer relationship.
Moreover, even where consumers do make complaints informally, the outcome of these disputes may be unrelated to the underlying merits of the claim.
The example of overdraft reordering, which was included in the Study's discussion of the Overdraft MDL, provides an example of the limitations of informal dispute resolution and the important role of class litigation in more effectively resolving consumers' disputes.
Thus, while informal dispute resolution systems may provide some relief to some consumers—and while some stakeholders have argued that arbitration agreements may even enhance the incentives that companies have to resolve those informal disputes that do arise on a case-by-case basis—the Bureau preliminarily finds that these systems alone are inadequate mechanisms to resolve potential violations of the law that broadly apply to many or all customers of a particular company for a given product or service.
The Bureau's experience and expertise includes fielding consumer complaints, supervising a vast array of markets for consumer financial products and services, and enforcing Federal consumer financial laws. Based on this experience and expertise, the Bureau believes that even though systemic factors may discourage individual consumers from filing small claims, the ability of consumers to pursue these claims is important. Based on its experience and expertise, the Bureau preliminarily finds that small claims can reflect significant aggregate harms when the potentially illegal practices affect many consumers, and, more generally, the market for consumer financial products and services. For example, a single improper overdraft fee may only “cost” a consumer $35, but if that fee is charged to tens of thousands of consumers, it can have a substantial impact on both the consumers on whom such fees are imposed and the profits of the company retaining the fees.
The Bureau preliminarily finds, based on the results of the Study and its further analysis, that the class action procedure provides an important mechanism to remedy consumer harm. The Study showed that class action settlements are a more effective means through which large numbers of consumers are able to obtain monetary and injunctive relief in a single case.
In the five-year period studied, 419 Federal consumer finance class actions reached final class settlements. These settlements involved, conservatively, about 160 million consumers and about $2.7 billion in gross relief of which, after subtracting fees and costs, $2.2 billion was available to be paid to consumers in cash relief or in-kind relief.
The Bureau further preliminarily finds that, based on its experience and expertise, class action settlements also benefit consumers not included in a particular class settlement because, as a result of a class settlement, companies frequently change their practices in ways that benefit consumers who are not members of the class. In resolving a class action, many companies stop potentially illegal practices either as part of the settlement or because the class action itself informed them of a potential violation of law and of the risk of future liability if they continued the conduct in question. Any consumer impacted by that practice—whether or not the consumer is in a particular class—would benefit from an enterprise-wide change. For example, if a class settlement only involved consumers who had previously purchased a product, a change in conduct by the company might benefit consumers who were not included in the class settlement but who purchase the product or service in the future.
One example of this appears to have occurred with respect to overdraft practices. In
The Bureau has considered stakeholder arguments that class actions are not effective at securing relief and behavior changes for large numbers of consumers because the Study showed that about three-fifths of cases filed as seeking class treatment are resolved through voluntary individual settlements (or an outcome consistent with a voluntary individual settlement).
For these reasons, the Bureau preliminarily finds that the class action mechanism is a more effective means of providing relief to consumers for violations of law or contract affecting groups of consumers than other mechanisms available to consumers, such as individual formal adjudication (either through judicial or arbitral fora) or informal efforts to resolve disputes.
The Bureau preliminarily finds, based upon the results of the Study, that arbitration agreements have the effect of blocking a significant portion of class action claims that are filed and of suppressing the filing of others.
As noted above in Part III, the Study showed that arbitration agreements are widespread in consumer financial markets and hundreds of millions of consumers use consumer financial products or services that are subject to arbitration agreements. Arbitration agreements give companies that offer or provide consumer financial products and services the contractual right to block the filing of class actions in both court and arbitration. When a plaintiff files a class action in court regarding a claim that is subject to a valid and applicable arbitration agreement, a defendant has the ability to request that the court dismiss or stay the litigation in favor of arbitration. If the court grants such a dismissal or stay in favor of arbitration, the class case could, in principle, be refiled as a class arbitration.
As set out above in Part II.C, the public filings of some companies confirm that the effect—indeed, often the purpose—of such provisions is to allow companies to shield themselves from class liability.
The Study showed that defendants are not reluctant to invoke arbitration agreements to block putative class actions and were successful in many cases. The Study recorded nearly 100 Federal and State class action filings that were dismissed or stayed because companies invoked arbitration agreements by filing a motion to compel arbitration and citing an arbitration agreement in support.
The analysis of cases in the Study further supports the Bureau's preliminary finding that arbitration agreements are frequently used to prevent class actions from proceeding. While the Study reports that motions to compel arbitration were filed in only 16.7 percent of class actions filed from 2010 to 2012, the Bureau was unable to determine in what percentage of class action cases analyzed defendants had arbitration agreements and were in a position to invoke an arbitration agreement.
The Bureau further preliminarily finds that when courts grant a motion to dismiss class claims based on arbitration agreements, the large number of consumers who would have constituted the putative class are unlikely to pursue the claims on an individual basis and are even less likely to pursue them in class arbitration. For instance, for the 46 class cases identified in the Study in which a motion to compel arbitration was granted, there was only an indication of 12 subsequent arbitration filings in the court dockets or the AAA Case Data, only two of which the Study determined were filed as putative class arbitrations.
In these settlements, 3,605 of the 13 million class members chose to opt out of receiving cash relief.
In addition to blocking class actions that are actually filed, the Bureau preliminarily finds that arbitration agreements inhibit a number of putative class action claims from being filed at all for several reasons. Plaintiffs and their attorneys may choose not to file such claims because arbitration agreements substantially lower the possibility of classwide relief. Given that and the fact that attorneys incur costs in preparing and litigating a case (and consumers rarely pay these costs up front in a class action) attorneys may decline to take such cases at all if they calculate that they will incur costs with little chance of recouping them. Not surprisingly, when a consumer or a lawyer considers whether to file a class action, the existence of an arbitration agreement that, if invoked, would effectively eliminate the possibility for a successful class claim likely discourages many of these suits from being filed at all. While it is difficult to measure the full scope of claims that are never filed because of arbitration agreements, stakeholders that surveyed attorneys found that they frequently turn away cases—both individual and class—when arbitration agreements were present.
The Bureau preliminarily concludes, based upon the results of the Study and its own experience and expertise, that public enforcement is not itself a sufficient means to enforce consumer protection laws and consumer finance contracts.
Most consumer protection statutes provide explicitly for private as well as public enforcement mechanisms. For some laws, only public enforcement is available because lawmakers sometimes decide that certain factors favor allowing only government enforcement. For other laws, lawmakers decide there should be both types of enforcement—public and private. On several occasions, Congress expressly recognized the role class actions can have in effectuating Federal consumer financial protection statutes. As described in Part II, for instance, Congress amended TILA in 1974 to limit damages in class cases to the lesser of $100,000 or 1 percent of the creditor's net worth. In reports and floor debates concerning the 1974 TILA amendments, the Senate reasoned that the damages cap it imposed would balance the objectives of providing adequate deterrence while appropriately limiting awards (because it viewed potential TILA class damages as too high).
The market for consumer finance products and services is vast, encompassing trillions of dollars of assets and revenue and tens if not hundreds of thousands of companies. As discussed further in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, this proposal alone would cover about 50,000 firms. And this proposal would leave unaffected the single largest consumer financial market—the mortgage market—because Congress expressly prohibited most arbitration agreements in that market in the Dodd-Frank Act.
In contrast, the resources of public enforcement agencies are limited. For example, the Bureau enforces over 20 separate Federal consumer financial protection laws with respect to every depository institution with assets of more than $10 billion and all non-depository institutions. Yet the Bureau has about 1,500 employees, only some of whom work in its Division of Supervision, Enforcement, and Fair Lending, which supervises for compliance and enforces violations of these laws.
The Study showed private class actions complement public enforcement rather than duplicate it. In 88 percent of the public enforcement actions the Bureau identified, the Bureau did not find an overlapping private class action.
Finally, the Bureau notes that as a general matter public authorities cannot enforce private contracts or violations of the common law affecting consumers. For those types of claims, private class actions are not just complementary but often the only likely means by which consumers can enforce their rights.
The prior section articulated the Bureau's preliminary findings that individual dispute resolution mechanisms are an insufficient means of enforcing consumer financial laws and contracts; public enforcement cannot be relied upon to fully and effectively enforce all of these laws and private contracts; and class actions, when not blocked by arbitration agreements, provide a valuable complement to public enforcement and a means of providing substantial relief to consumers. In light of the Study, the Bureau's experience and expertise, and the Bureau's analysis and findings as discussed above, the Bureau preliminarily finds that precluding providers from blocking consumer class actions through the use of arbitration agreements would better enable consumers to enforce their rights under Federal and State consumer protection laws and the common law and obtain redress when their rights are violated. Allowing consumers to seek relief in class actions, in turn, would strengthen the incentives for companies to avoid potentially illegal activities and reduce the likelihood that consumers would be subject to such practices in the first instance. The Bureau preliminarily finds that both of these outcomes resulting from allowing consumers to seek class action relief would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.
The analysis below discusses the bases for these findings in the reverse order, beginning with a discussion of the protection of consumers and then addressing the public interest. As discussed further below, the Bureau recognizes that creating these incentives and causing companies to choose between increased risk mitigation and enhanced exposure to liability would impose certain burdens on providers. These burdens would be chiefly in the form of increased compliance costs to prevent violations of consumer financial laws enforceable by class actions, including the costs of forgoing potentially profitable (but also potentially illegal) business practices that may increase class action exposure, and in the increased costs to litigate class actions themselves, including, in some cases, providing relief to a class. The Bureau also recognizes that providers may pass through some of those costs to consumers, thereby increasing prices. Those impacts are delineated and, where possible, quantified in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis below and, with regard in particular to burdens on small financial services providers, discussed further below in the Section-by-Section Analysis to proposed § 1040.4(a) and in the initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA).
After reviewing the considerations that would support a potential finding that the class proposal would be for the protection of consumers and in the public interest, this section considers, under the legal standard established by section 1028, costs to providers as well as other potentially countervailing considerations, such as the potential impacts on innovation in the market for consumer financial products and services. In light of all these considerations, the Bureau preliminarily finds that that standard is satisfied.
The Bureau seeks comments on its preliminary finding set forth below—that the class proposal would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.
Under the status quo, arbitration agreements obstruct effective enforcement of the law through class proceedings. This harms consumers in two ways: It makes consumers
To the extent that laws cannot be effectively enforced, the Bureau believes that companies may be more likely to take legal risks,
As discussed in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, economic theory supports the Bureau's belief that the availability of class actions affects compliance incentives. The standard economic model of deterrence holds that individuals who benefit from engaging in particular actions that violate the law will instead comply with the law when the expected cost from violation,
The preliminary finding that class action liability deters potentially illegal conduct and encourages investments in compliance is confirmed by the Bureau's own experience and its observations about the behavior of firms and the effects of class actions in markets for consumer financial products and services. The Bureau has analyzed a variety of evidence that, in its view, indicates that companies invest in compliance to avoid activities that could increase their exposure to class actions.
First, the Bureau is aware that companies monitor class litigation relevant to the products and services that they offer so that they can mitigate their liability by changing their conduct before being sued themselves. This effect is evident from the proliferation of public materials—such as compliance bulletins, law firm alerts, and conferences—where legal and compliance experts routinely and systematically advise companies about relevant developments in class action litigation,
Relatedly, where there is class action exposure, companies and their representatives will seek to focus more attention and resources on general proactive compliance monitoring and management. The Bureau has seen evidence of this motivation in various law and compliance firm alerts. For example, one such alert, posted shortly after the Bureau released its SBREFA Outline, noted that the Bureau was considering proposals to prevent
While the Bureau believes that such monitoring and attempts to anticipate litigation affect the practices of companies that are exposed to class action liability, the impacts can be hard to document and quantify because companies rarely publicize changes in their behavior, let alone publicly attribute those changes to risk-mitigation decisions. The Bureau has, however, identified instances where it believes that class actions filed against one or more firms in an industry led to others changing their practices, presumably in an effort to avoid being sued themselves. For example, between 2003 and 2006, 11 auto lenders settled class action lawsuits alleging that the lenders' credit pricing policies had a disparate impact on minority borrowers under ECOA. In the settlements, the lenders agreed to restrict interest rate markups to no more than 2.5 percentage points. Following these settlements, a markup cap of 2.5 percent became standard across the industry even with respect to companies outside the direct scope of the settlements.
As another example, since 2012, 18 banks have entered into class action settlements as part of the Overdraft MDL,
A third example of companies responding to class actions by changing their practices to improve their compliance with the law relates to foreign transaction fees and debit cards.
These are a few examples of industry-wide change in response to class actions that the Bureau believes support its preliminary finding that exposure to consumer financial class actions creates incentives that encourage companies to change potentially illegal practices and to invest more resources in compliance in order to avoid being sued.
As discussed in more detail in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, the Bureau does not believe it is possible to quantify the benefits to consumers from the increased compliance incentives attributable to the class proposal due in part to obstacles to measuring the value of deterrence directly in a systematic way. Nonetheless, the Bureau preliminarily finds that increasing compliance incentives would be for the protection of consumers.
The Bureau recognizes that some companies may decide to assume the resulting increased legal risk rather than investing more in ensuring compliance with the law and foregoing practices that are potentially illegal or even blatantly unlawful. Other companies may seek to mitigate their risk but miscalibrate and underinvest or under comply. To the extent that this happens, the Bureau preliminarily finds that the class proposal would enable many more consumers to obtain redress for violations than do so today, when companies can use arbitration agreements to block class actions. As set out in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, the amount of additional compensation consumers would be expected to receive from class action settlements in the Federal courts varies by product and service—specifically, by the prevalence of arbitration agreements in those individual markets—but is substantial nonetheless and in most markets represents a considerable increase.
Furthermore, the Bureau preliminarily finds that through such litigation consumers would be better able to cause providers to cease engaging in unlawful or questionable conduct prospectively than under a system in which companies can use arbitration agreements to block class actions. Class actions brought against particular providers can, by providing behavioral relief into the future to consumers, force more compliance where the general increase in incentives due to litigation risk are insufficient to achieve that outcome.
The Overdraft MDL also helps illustrate the potential ongoing value of such prospective relief. A recent study by an academic researcher based on the Overdraft MDL settlements offered rare data on the relationship between the settlement relief offered to class members compared to the sum total of injury suffered by class members that has important implications for the value of prospective relief. The analysis calculated that in the various settlements, the value of cash settlement relief offered to the class constituted between 7 and 70 percent (or an average of 38 percent and a median of 40 percent) of the total value of harm suffered by class members from overdraft reordering during the class period.
This sum—$2.6 billion—can also be used as a basis for determining the potential
For all of these reasons, the Bureau believes that the class proposal would increase compliance and increase redress for non-compliant behavior and thus would be for the protection of consumers. To the extent that the class proposal would affect incentives (or lead to more prospective relief) and enhance compliance, consumers seeking to use particular consumer financial products or services would more frequently receive the benefits of the statutory and common law regimes that legislatures and courts have implemented and developed to protect them. Consumers would, for example, be more likely to receive the disclosures required by and compliant with TILA, to benefit from the error-resolution procedures required by TILA and EFTA, and to avoid the unfair and abusive debt collection practices proscribed by the FDCPA and the discriminatory practices proscribed by ECOA.
The Bureau also preliminarily finds that the class proposal would be in the public interest. This preliminary finding is based upon several considerations, which are discussed below and include the beneficial aspects for consumers (who, as previously discussed, are part of the public whose interests are to be furthered), leveling the playing field for providers, and enhancing the rule of law. Consistent with the legal standard, the Bureau also considers concerns, which have been raised by stakeholders as well, including the class proposal's impacts on costs and financial access, innovation, the potential of class actions to provide windfalls to plaintiffs, and the availability of individual dispute resolution, and preliminarily finds that the class proposal would be for the protection of consumers and in the public interest in light of full consideration of these and other relevant factors.
First, as discussed extensively above, the Bureau believes that its preliminary finding that the class proposal would protect consumers also contributes to a finding that the class proposal would be in the public interest.
Second, the Bureau considers the impact the class proposal would have on leveling the playing field in markets for consumer financial products and services in its public interest analysis. The Bureau preliminarily finds that the class proposal would create a more level playing field between providers that concentrate on compliance and providers that choose to adopt arbitration agreements to insulate themselves from being held to account by the vast majority of their customers and, as the Study showed, from virtually any private liability. The Bureau believes this also supports a determination that the class proposal would be in the public interest.
Specifically, the Bureau believes that companies that adopt arbitration agreements to manage their liability may possess certain advantages over companies that instead make greater investments in compliance to manage their liability, both in their ability to minimize costs and to profit from the provision of potentially illegal consumer financial products and services. The Bureau does not expect that eliminating the advantages enjoyed by companies with arbitration agreements would necessarily shift market share to companies that eschew arbitration agreements and instead focus on up front compliance because the future competitive balance between companies would also depend on many additional factors. It has thus not counted the effects of this factor as a major element of the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis. However, the Bureau believes that eliminating this type of arbitrage as a potential source of competition would be in the public interest.
Finally, the Bureau believes that its preliminary finding that the class proposal would have the effect of achieving greater compliance with the law implicates additional benefits beyond those noted above with respect to the protection of individual consumers and impacts on responsible providers. Federal and State laws that protect consumers were developed and adopted because many companies, unrestrained by a need to comply with such laws, would engage in conduct that is profit-maximizing but that lawmakers have determined disserves the public good by distorting the efficient functioning of these markets. These Federal and State laws, among other things, allow consumer financial markets to operate more transparently and to operate with less invidious discrimination, and for consumers to make more informed choices in their selection of financial products and services.
Thus, the Bureau believes that by creating enhanced incentives and remedial mechanisms to enforce compliance, the class proposal could improve the functioning of consumer financial markets as a whole. First, enhanced compliance would, over the long term, create a more predictable, efficient, and robust regime. Second, the Bureau also believes enhanced compliance and more effective remedies could also reduce the risk that consumer confidence in these markets would erode over time as individuals, faced with the non-uniform application of the law and left without effective remedies for unlawful conduct, may be less willing to participate in certain sections of the consumer financial markets. For all of these reasons, the Bureau believes that promoting the rule of law—in the form of accountability under and transparent application of the law to providers of consumer financial products or services—would be in the public interest as well as for the protection of consumers.
During both the SBREFA process and ongoing outreach with various stakeholders, some participants have suggested that the class proposal would not be in the public interest because it
The Bureau believes that compliance, litigation, and remediation costs generally are a necessary component of the broader private enforcement scheme, and that certain costs are vital to uphold a system that vindicates actions brought through the class mechanism. The specific marginal costs that would be attributable to the class proposal are similarly justified. These costs are justified to protect consumers and produce the benefits discussed above. The fact that some of these costs, described below, may be passed through does not alter the Bureau's belief that it would be in the public interest (and for the protection of consumers) for the class proposal to cause providers to incur these costs.
Further, as noted in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis below, the Bureau believes that it is important given the size of the markets at issue to evaluate cost predictions relative to the number of accounts and consumers so as to properly assess the scale of the predictions. Given hundreds of millions of accounts across affected providers, the hundreds or thousands of competitors in most markets, and the numerical estimates of costs as specified below, the Bureau does not believe that the expenses due to the additional class settlements that would result from this proposed rule would result in a noticeable impact on access to consumer financial products or services.
First, the Bureau notes that some innovation in consumer financial markets can disserve the interest of consumers and the public and that deterring such innovation actually would advance the public interest. For example, a major cause of the financial crisis was “innovation” in the mortgage market—innovation that led to the introduction of a set of high-risk products and underwriting practices.
Conversely, the Bureau notes that some innovation is designed to mitigate risk. For example, many banks and credit unions are experimenting with “safe” checking accounts (accounts that do not allow consumers to overdraft) these products are designed to reduce overdraft risks to consumers. Similarly, some credit card issuers have experimented with products with fewer or no penalty fees as a means of reducing risk to consumers. The Bureau believes that to extent that the class proposal would affect positive innovations of this type, it would tend to facilitate them.
The Bureau recognizes that there may be some innovation that is designed to serve the needs of consumers but that leverages new technologies or approaches to consumer finance in ways that raise novel legal questions and, in that sense, carry legal risk. The Bureau believes that these innovators, in general, consider a variety of concerns when bringing their ideas to market. But, even if at the margin, the effect of the proposed rule would be to deter certain innovations from being launched, the Bureau believes that, on balance, that would be a price worth paying in order to achieve the benefits of the rule for the public and consumers. The Bureau believes that, in general, it is a mark of a well-functioning regulatory regime when entities must balance their desire to profit from innovation with the need to comply with laws designed to protect consumers.
The Bureau recognizes that there is some risk that the class proposal would enable some plaintiffs to file putative class actions and leverage the threat of class liability to obtain a more favorable settlement than could have been obtained in an action filed on an individual basis in the first instance. However, the Study finds that for most consumers the value of their individual claim is too small to be worth pursuing individually, and the Bureau does not believe that the ability to file a putative class action would materially change consumers' interest in pursuing individual relief. The Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis quantifies the potential costs from putative class actions not settled on a class basis and finds those costs to be relatively low.
With respect to the suggestion that the class proposal would result in windfalls to entire classes, the Study showed that certification almost invariably occurs coincident with a settlement and thus is not typically the force that drives settlement. The Study further found that not infrequently, settlements follow a decision by a court rejecting a dispositive motion (
In addition, Congress and the courts also continue to calibrate class action procedures to discourage frivolous litigation.
As for those asserting the first reason, the Bureau believes that, to the extent these providers find that the arbitration agreement provides no benefit to themselves or their consumers in individual disputes, then it is possible the agreement would not be maintained under the class proposal. For such providers, however, the Bureau believes the arbitration agreement has thus effectively been serving no function other than a class action waiver and would have no impact on their individual dispute resolution processes.
As for those asserting this second reason, the Bureau is not persuaded for the reasons discussed here and in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis. These firms must already maintain two systems to the extent that most arbitration agreements allow for litigation in small claims courts, and companies almost never seek to compel other cases to arbitration when first filed in court. The Bureau does not believe that, to the extent there is a burden of maintaining arbitration agreements to resolve individual disputes, the availability of class actions would impact that burden which exists regardless. Companies will always have to defend and resolve individual disputes that their customers bring—whether in court or in
Nor is the Bureau persuaded that if providers eliminated their arbitration agreements that doing so would affect their incentives to resolve disputes informally. As previously noted, the Bureau recognizes that when an individual consumer complains about a particular charge or other action, it is often in the financial institution's interest to preserve the customer relationship by providing the individual with a response explaining that charge and, in some cases, a full or partial refund or reversal of the charge or action. That incentive would not be affected by the elimination of arbitration agreements. The Bureau is skeptical that the risk of individual; litigation is a significant driver of companies' decisions to resolve disputes informally given how infrequently individual cases are filed either in court or arbitration, and the Bureau is also skeptical that if providers were subject to court litigation but not arbitration that would substantially change their assessment of the risk and hence their willingness to provide an informal resolution.
Thus, the Bureau does not preliminarily find that individual dispute resolution (whether formal or informal) is an adequate substitute for group litigation that can provide many consumers relief in a single proceeding.
The Bureau seeks comments on its preliminary findings discussed above that the class proposal would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.
The class proposal would not prohibit covered entities from continuing to include arbitration agreements in consumer financial contracts generally; providers would still be able to include them in consumer contracts and invoke them to compel arbitration in court cases not filed in court as class actions. In addition, the class proposal would not foreclose the possibility of class arbitration so long as the consumer chooses arbitration as the forum in which he or she pursues the class claims and the applicable arbitration agreement does not prohibit class arbitration. Thus, the Bureau separately considers whether the other requirement of its proposal—that providers submit certain arbitral records to the Bureau (proposed § 1040.4(b)), the monitoring proposal)—would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.
As explained in Part VI.A, the evidence before the Bureau is inconclusive as to the relative efficacy and fairness of individual arbitration compared to individual litigation. Thus, the Bureau is not proposing to prohibit arbitration agreements entirely. The Bureau remains concerned, however, that the potential for consumer harm in the use of arbitration agreements in the resolution of individual disputes remains. Among these concerns is that arbitrations could be administered by biased administrators (as was alleged in the case of NAF), that harmful arbitration provisions could be enforced, or that individual arbitrations could otherwise be conducted in an unfair manner.
The Study showed that, in the markets covered by the Study, an overwhelming majority of arbitration agreements specify AAA or JAMS as an administrator (or both) and both administrators have created consumer arbitration protocols that contain procedural and substantive safeguards designed to ensure a fair process.
The Bureau is neither proposing to restrict the use of arbitration agreements with respect to individual arbitrations nor proposing to prescribe specific methods or standards for adjudicating individual arbitrations. The Bureau is instead proposing a system that would allow it and, potentially the public, to review certain arbitration materials. The Bureau expects that its proposed requirements would bring greater transparency to the arbitration process and allow for the Bureau and, potentially, the public to monitor how arbitration evolves.
Specifically, the Bureau is proposing a regime that would require providers to submit five types of documents with respect to any individual arbitration case (see proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)): (1) the initial claim (whether filed by a consumer or by the provider) and any counterclaim; (2) the pre-dispute arbitration agreement filed with the arbitrator or arbitration administrator; (3) the award, if any, issued by the arbitrator or arbitration administrator; (4) any communications from the arbitrator or arbitration administrator with whom the claim was filed relating to a refusal to administer or dismissal of a claim due to the provider's failure to pay required fees; and (5) any communications related to a determination that an arbitration agreement does not comply with the administrator's fairness principles.
Under the monitoring proposal, the Bureau would publish on its Web site the materials it receives in some form, with appropriate redaction or aggregation as warranted.
The Bureau preliminarily finds that the monitoring proposal would have several positive outcomes that, taken into consideration with other relevant factors including costs, would be in the
First, the monitoring proposal would be for the protection of consumers because it would allow the Bureau (and if submissions are published, the public) to better understand arbitrations that occur now and in the future and to ensure that consumers' rights are being protected. The materials the Bureau proposes to collect—similar to the AAA materials the Bureau reviewed in the Study—would allow the Bureau to continue to monitor how arbitrations and arbitration agreements evolve, and allow it to see whether they evolve in ways that harm consumers.
The documents the Bureau proposes to collect would provide the Bureau with different insights. For example, collection of arbitration claims would provide transparency regarding the types of claims consumers and providers are bringing to arbitration. Collecting claims would allow the Bureau to monitor the raw number of arbitrations, which has fluctuated over time, from at least tens of thousands of provider-filed arbitration claims per year before mid-2009, to just hundreds per year in the AAA set reviewed by the Bureau.
The proposed collection of awards would provide insights into the types of claims that reach the point of adjudication and the way in which arbitrators resolve these claims. Collection of arbitration agreements in conjunction with the claims (and awards) would allow the Bureau to monitor the impact that particular clauses in arbitration agreements have on consumers and providers, the resolution of those claims, and how arbitration agreements evolve. Finally, collection of correspondence regarding non-payment of fees and non-compliance with due process principles would allow the Bureau insight into whether and to what extent providers fail to meet the arbitral administrators' standards. Those consumers that may be harmed by these providers' non-payment of fees or failure to adhere to fairness principles would also benefit by having those instances reported to the Bureau for potential further action. The Bureau believes that it is possible that the increased transparency arising from the monitoring proposal and the Bureau's publication of materials it receives may deter some unfair individual arbitrations because providers would have an interest in protecting their reputations and they themselves may be wary to retain an arbitrator or arbitration administrator that proceeds in an unfair manner.
Beyond shedding light on the operation of the arbitration system writ large, the proposed collection of documents also would enhance the Bureau's ability to monitor consumer finance markets for risks to consumers. For example, the collection of claims and awards would provide the Bureau with additional information about the types of potential violations of consumer finance or other laws alleged in arbitration and whether any particular providers are facing repeat claims or have engaged in potentially illegal practices. At the same time, the collection of arbitration agreements and correspondence regarding non-payment of fees or non-compliance with fairness standards would enable the Bureau to identify providers that may have adopted one-sided agreements in an attempt to avoid liability altogether by discouraging a consumer from seeking resolution of a claim in arbitration.
Second, the monitoring proposal would be for the protection of consumers because it would allow the Bureau to take action against providers that are engaging in potentially illegal actions that impede consumers' ability to bring claims against their providers. For example, if the Bureau became aware that a particular company was routinely not paying arbitration fees, it could take action against that company or refer its conduct to another regulator. The Bureau intends to draw upon all of its statutorily authorized tools to address conduct that harms consumers that may occur in the future in connection with providers' use of arbitration agreements.
The Bureau also preliminarily finds that the monitoring proposal would be in the public interest for all of the reasons set forth above as to why it would be for the protection of consumers and for the following additional reasons.
First, it would allow the Bureau to better evaluate whether the Federal consumer finance laws are being enforced consistently. The public interest analysis is informed by one of the purposes of the Bureau, which is to “enforce Federal consumer financial law consistently.”
Second, by allowing the Bureau access to documents about the conduct of arbitrations, the Bureau would be able to learn of and assess consumer allegations that providers have violated the law and, more generally, determine whether arbitrations proceed in a fair and efficient manner. The Bureau believes that creating a system of accountability is an important part of any dispute resolution system. By creating a mechanism through which the Bureau can monitor whether the system is being abused, the Bureau can further the public interest in maintaining a functioning, fair, and efficient arbitration system.
Third, the Bureau preliminarily finds that the monitoring proposal would be in the public interest to the extent that the Bureau publishes the materials it collects because publication would further the Bureau's goal of transparency in the financial markets. The Bureau believes that publishing claims would provide transparency by revealing to the public the types of claims filed in arbitration and whether consumers or providers are filing the claims. Publishing awards would provide transparency by revealing how different arbitrators decide cases and signaling to attorneys for consumers and providers which sorts of cases favor and do not favor consumers, thereby potentially facilitating better pre-arbitration case assessment and resolution of more disputes by informal means.
Further, consumers, public enforcement agencies, and attorneys for consumers and providers would be able to review the records and identify
In these ways, the monitoring proposal would improve the ability of a broad range of stakeholders to understand whether markets for consumer financial products and services are operating in a fair and transparent manner.
The Bureau believes that the compliance burden on providers of the monitoring proposal would be sufficiently low that, especially given the benefits of the proposal, it would not be a significant factor weighing against the proposal being in the public interest.
The Bureau has also considered whether the monitoring proposal, in making claims submitted in arbitration and decisions resolving those claims transparent, would somehow adversely impact the arbitration process. While there conceivably could be other negative impacts on consumers' engagement in the arbitration process arising from adoption of the monitoring proposal, the key potential concern thus far identified by the Bureau would be the concern that consumers would be less likely to engage in arbitration because they feared that submission and possible publication would cause information about them to be divulged. However, the Bureau does not believe that this concern would materialize because the proposal would require the redaction of information that identifies consumers.
With respect to providers, the Bureau does not believe that they should be able to maintain secrecy around their disputes with customers (insofar as the Bureau's Consumer Response function publishes the names of providers). Furthermore, the Bureau notes that expectations of privacy are reduced to the extent arbitration awards and other documents containing parties' names and other information are filed with a court, such as in an effort to enforce an award. Relatedly, the Bureau notes that AAA, which is the largest administrator of consumer arbitrations, maintains consumer rules that permit it to publish consumer awards, and thus providers are already on notice that arbitrations they are involved in might become public.
The Bureau seeks comment on all aspects of its determination that the monitoring proposal would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether consumers should be able to opt-out of the Bureau's publication of documents related to the arbitrations in which they participate.
The Bureau is proposing to create 12 CFR part 1040, which would set forth regulations regarding arbitration agreements. Below, the Bureau explains each of the proposed subsections and commentary thereto for proposed part 1040.
The first section of proposed part 1040 would set forth the Bureau's authority for issuing the regulation and the regulation's purpose.
Proposed § 1040.1(a) would state that the Bureau is issuing this proposed rule pursuant to the authority granted to it by Dodd-Frank sections 1022(b)(1), 1022(c), and 1028(b). As described in Part V, Dodd-Frank section 1022(b)(1) authorizes the Bureau to prescribe rules and issue orders and guidance, as may be necessary or appropriate to enable the Bureau to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the Federal consumer financial laws, and to prevent evasions thereof. Section 1022(c)(4) authorizes the Bureau to monitor for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, including developments in markets for such products or services. Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) states that the Bureau, by regulation, may prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of an agreement between a covered person and a consumer for a consumer financial product or service providing for arbitration of any future dispute between the parties, if the Bureau finds that such a prohibition or imposition of conditions or limitations is in the public interest and for the protection of consumers. Section 1028(b) further states that the findings in such rule shall be consistent with the study conducted under Dodd-Frank section 1028(a).
As part of its authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b), the Bureau may prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements if the Bureau finds that they are “in the public interest and for the protection of consumers.” Proposed § 1040.1(b) would state that the proposed rule's purpose is to further these objectives. Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) also requires the findings in any rule issued under section 1028(b) to be consistent with the Study conducted under section 1028(a), which directs the Bureau to study the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements in connection with the offering or providing of consumer financial products or services. For the reasons described above in Part VI the Bureau believes the preliminary findings in this proposed rule are consistent with the Study.
In proposed § 1040.2, the Bureau proposes to set forth certain terms used in the regulation that the Bureau believes it is appropriate to define.
The substantive provisions of proposed § 1040.4(a)(1), discussed below, concern class actions; thus, the Bureau is proposing to define “class action.” The Bureau believes that the term class action is broadly understood to mean a lawsuit in which one or more
Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) authorizes the Bureau to issue regulations concerning pre-dispute arbitration agreements between a covered person and a “consumer.” Dodd-Frank section 1002(4) defines the term consumer as an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual. Proposed § 1040.2(b) would borrow the definition of consumer from the Dodd-Frank Act and state that a consumer is an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual. The Bureau seeks comment on whether the proposed definition would be appropriate and whether it should consider other definitions of the term consumer.
Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) authorizes the Bureau to issue regulations concerning pre-dispute arbitration agreements between a “covered person” and a consumer. Dodd-Frank section 1002(6) defines the term “covered person” as any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service and any affiliate of such a person if such affiliate acts as a service provider to that person. Section 1002(19) further defines person to mean an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
Throughout the proposed rule, the Bureau uses the term “provider” to refer to the entity to which the requirements in the proposed rule would apply. For example, proposed § 1040.4(a)(1), discussed below, would prohibit providers from seeking to rely in any way on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date set forth in proposed § 1040.5(a) (“compliance date”) with respect to any aspect of a class action that is related to any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3.
Proposed § 1040.2(c) would define provider as a subset of the term covered person. In doing so, proposed § 1040.2(c) would clarify that the proposed rule's intended coverage would be within the parameters of the Bureau's authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b). Specifically, proposed § 1040.2(c) would define the term provider to mean (1) a person as defined by Dodd-Frank section 1002(19) that engages in offering or providing any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) to the extent that the person is not excluded under proposed § 1040.3(b); or (2) an affiliate of a provider as defined in proposed § 1040.2(c)(1) when that affiliate would be acting as a service provider to the provider with which the service provider is affiliated consistent with the meaning set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5481(6)(B). The Bureau derives this formulation from the definition of covered person in Dodd-Frank section 1002(6), 12 U.SC. 5481(6)(B).
The definition of the term “person” includes the phrase “or other entity.” That term readily encompasses governments and government entities. Even if the term were ambiguous, the Bureau believes—based on its expertise and experience with respect to consumer financial markets—that interpreting it to encompass governments and government entities would promote the consumer protection, fair competition, and other objectives of the Dodd-Frank Act. The Bureau also believes that the terms “companies ” or “corporations” under the definition of “person,” on their face, cover all companies and corporations, including government-owned or -affiliated companies and corporations. And even if those terms were ambiguous, the Bureau believes—based on its expertise and experience with respect to consumer financial markets—that interpreting them to cover government-owned or -affiliated companies and corporations would promote the objectives of the Dodd-Frank Act.
The Bureau notes that proposed § 1040.4(a)(1), discussed below, would apply to providers with respect to pre-dispute arbitration agreements entered into by
The Bureau intends the phrase “that engages in offering or providing any of the consumer financial products or services covered by § 1040.3(a)” to clarify that the proposed rule would apply to providers that use a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into with a consumer for the products and services enumerated in proposed § 1040.3(a). The Bureau also intends this phrase to convey that, even if an entity would be a provider under proposed § 1040.2(c) because it offers or provides consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a), it would not be a provider with respect to products and services that it may provide that are not covered by proposed § 1040.3(a).
Proposed comment 2(c)-1 would further clarify this issue and explain that a provider as defined in proposed § 1040.2(c) that also engages in offering or providing products or services not covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) must comply with this part only for the products or services that it offers or provides that are covered by proposed § 1040.3(a). The proposed comment would clarify that, where an entity would be a provider because it offers or provides at least one covered product or service, it need not comply with this part with respect to all its products and services; it need comply only with respect to those that are covered by proposed § 1040.3(a).
The Bureau seeks comment on the proposed definition of provider, including whether proposed comment 2(c)-1 clarifies the scope of the term.
Proposed § 1040.2(d) would define the term pre-dispute arbitration agreement as an agreement between a provider and a consumer providing for arbitration of any future dispute between the parties. The Bureau's proposed definition of pre-dispute arbitration agreement is based on Dodd-Frank section 1028(b), which authorizes the Bureau to regulate the use of such agreements.
The Bureau believes that the meaning of the term arbitration is widely
Proposed comment 2(d)-1 would state that a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a consumer financial product or service includes any agreement between a provider and a consumer providing for arbitration of any future disputes between the parties, regardless of its form or structure. The proposed comment would provide two illustrative examples: (1) A standalone pre-dispute arbitration agreement that applies to a product or service; and (2) a pre-dispute arbitration agreement that is included within, annexed to, incorporated into, or otherwise made a part of a larger agreement that governs the terms of the provision of a product or service. This comment would help clarify that “pre-dispute arbitration agreement” would not be limited to a standalone “agreement” but could be a provision within an agreement for a consumer financial product or service.
The Bureau is not aware of any Federal regulation that defines the term pre-dispute arbitration agreement but seeks comment on whether the proposed text—which restates the relevant statutory provision—would provide sufficient guidance as to when an arbitration agreement is “pre-dispute.” This proposed definition of pre-dispute arbitration agreement would not include a voluntary arbitration agreement between a consumer and a covered person after a dispute has arisen. The Bureau seeks comment on whether the Bureau should define or provide additional clarification regarding when an arbitration agreement is “pre-dispute.”
As discussed above, Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) authorizes the Bureau to issue regulations concerning agreements between a covered person and a consumer “for a consumer financial product or service” providing for arbitration of any future disputes that may arise. Accordingly, proposed § 1040.3 would set forth the products and services to which proposed part 1040 applies. Proposed § 1040.3(a) generally would provide a list of products and services that would be covered by the proposed rule, while proposed § 1040.3(b) would provide limited exclusions.
The Bureau is proposing to cover a variety of consumer financial products and services that the Bureau believes are in or tied to the core consumer financial markets of lending money, storing money, and moving or exchanging money—all markets covered in significant part in the Study. These include, for example: (1) Most types of consumer lending (such as making secured loans or unsecured loans or issuing credit cards), activities related to that consumer lending (such as providing referrals, servicing, credit monitoring, debt relief, and debt collection services, among others, as well as the purchasing or acquiring of such consumer loans), and extending and brokering those automobile leases that are consumer financial products or services; (2) storing funds or other monetary value for consumers (such as providing deposit accounts); and (3) providing consumer services related to the movement or conversion of money (such as certain types of payment processing activities, transmitting and exchanging funds, and cashing checks).
Proposed § 1040.3(a) would describe the products and services in these core consumer financial markets that would be covered by part 1040. Each component is discussed separately below in the discussion of each subsection of proposed § 1040.3(a).
As set forth above, the Bureau's rulemaking authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) generally extends to the use of an agreement between a covered person and a consumer for a “consumer financial product or service” (as defined in Dodd-Frank section 1002(5)). However, as discussed in the Section-by-Section Analysis of proposed § 1040.3(b)(5), Dodd-Frank sections 1027 and 1029 (codified at 12 U.S.C. 5517 and 5519) exclude certain activities by certain covered persons, such as the sale of nonfinancial goods or services, including automobiles, from the Bureau's rulemaking authority in certain circumstances.
In exercising its authority under section 1028, the Bureau is proposing to cover consumer financial products and services in what it believes are core markets of lending money, storing money, and moving or exchanging money. Accordingly, the Bureau is not, at this time, proposing to cover every type of consumer financial product or service as defined in Dodd-Frank section 1002(5), particularly those outside these three core areas, though the Bureau would continue to monitor markets for consumer financial products and services both those that would and would not be within the proposed scope and may at a later time revisit the scope of this proposed rule.
In addition, the Bureau is proposing coverage of core product markets in a way that the Bureau believes would facilitate compliance because several terms in the proposed scope provisions are derived from existing, enumerated consumer financial protection statutes implemented by the Bureau. In so doing, the Bureau expects that the coverage of proposed Part 1040 would incorporate relevant future changes, if any, to the enumerated consumer financial protection statutes and their implementing regulations and to provisions of Title X of Dodd-Frank referenced in proposed § 1040.3(a). For example, changes that the Bureau has proposed regarding the definition of an account under Regulation E would, if adopted, affect the scope of proposed § 1040.3(a)(6).
Specifically, the Bureau is proposing in § 1040.3(a) that proposed part 1040 generally would apply to pre-dispute arbitration agreements for the products or services listed in proposed § 1040.3(a) to the extent they are consumer financial products or services as defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481(5). As
The Bureau seeks comment on all aspects of its proposed approach to coverage in this proposed rulemaking. Specifically, the Bureau seeks comment on whether any products or services that the Bureau has proposed to cover should not be covered, and whether any types of consumer financial products or services that it has not proposed to cover should be covered. The Bureau further seeks comment on its approach to referencing terms in enumerated consumer financial protection statutes and Dodd-Frank sections (and their respective implementing regulations) as set forth in proposed § 1040.3, and the fact that future changes to these terms may affect the scope of the proposed rule.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should apply to consumer credit and related activities including collecting on consumer credit. Specifically, proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) would include in the coverage of proposed part 1040 consumer lending under ECOA, 15 U.S.C. 1691
In particular, proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) would cover specific consumer lending activities engaged in by persons acting as “creditors” as defined by Regulation B, along with the related activities of acquiring, purchasing, selling, or servicing such consumer credit. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) breaks these covered consumer financial products or services into the following five types: (1) Providing an “extension of credit” that is “consumer credit” as defined in Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.2; (2) acting as a “creditor” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(l) by “regularly participat[ing] in a credit decision” consistent with its meaning in 12 CFR 1002.2(l) concerning “consumer credit” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(h); (3) acting, as a person's primary business activity, as a “creditor” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(l) by “refer[ring] applicants or prospective applicants to creditors, or select[ing] or offer[ing] to select creditors to whom requests for credit may be made” consistent with its meaning in 12 CFR 1002.2(l); (4) acquiring, purchasing, or selling an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i); or (5) servicing an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i).
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) would cover providing any “extension of credit” that is “consumer credit” as defined by Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.2.
As indicated in its SBREFA Outline, the Bureau had originally considered covering consumer credit under either of two statutory schemes: TILA or ECOA and their implementing regulations.
The Bureau further notes that in many circumstances, merchants, retailers, and other sellers of nonfinancial goods or services (hereafter, merchants) may act as creditors under ECOA in extending credit to consumers. While such extensions of consumer credit would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1), exemptions proposed in § 1040.3(b) may exclude the merchant itself from coverage. Those exemptions are discussed in detail in the corresponding part of the Section-by-Section Analysis further below. On the other hand, if a merchant creditor were not eligible for any of these proposed exemptions with respect to a particular extension of consumer credit, then proposed Part 1040 generally would apply to the merchant with respect to such transactions. For example, the Bureau believes merchant creditors significantly engaged in extending consumer credit with a finance charge often would be ineligible for these exemptions.
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(iii) would cover persons who, as their primary
In addition, in this proposed rule, the Bureau does not generally propose to cover activities of merchants to facilitate payment for the merchants' own nonfinancial goods or services.
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(iv) and (v) would cover certain specified types of consumer financial products or services when offered or provided with respect to consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i). First, proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(iv) would cover acquiring, purchasing, or selling an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i). In addition, proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(v) would cover servicing of an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i). With regard to servicing, the Bureau is not proposing a specific definition but, proposed comment 3(a)(1)(v)-1 would note other examples where the Bureau has defined servicing: For the postsecondary student loan market in 12 CFR 1090.106 and the mortgage market in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2(b).
The Bureau invites comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) and related proposed commentary. In particular, the Bureau requests comment on defining coverage in proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) by reference to consumer lending activities carried out by “creditors” as defined by Regulation B, and the activities of acquiring, purchasing, selling, and servicing extensions of consumer credit as defined by Regulation B. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether this proposed coverage should be expanded or reduced or whether there are any alternative definitions the Bureau should consider in its proposed coverage of consumer credit transactions and related activities. For example, the Bureau requests comment on the “primary business” limitation in proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(iii), including whether the term “primary business” should be defined and if so, how, or whether a different limitation should be used, such as an exclusion for referral or selection activities that are incidental to the sale of a nonfinancial good or service. In addition, the Bureau notes that a common activity performed by creditors and consumer credit servicers is furnishing information to a consumer reporting agency, an activity that is covered by the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2. The Bureau therefore requests comment on whether such furnishing, by any person covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1), should also be separately identified as a covered product or service.
The Bureau believes the proposed rule should cover brokering or extending consumer automobile leases, consistent with the definition of that activity in the Bureau's larger participant rulemaking for the automobile finance market codified at 12 CFR 1090.108. As the Bureau explained in that rulemaking, from the perspective of the consumer, many automobile leases function similarly to financing for automobile purchase transactions and have a similar impact on the consumer and his or her well-being.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should cover debt relief services, such as services that offer to renegotiate, settle, or modify the terms of a consumer's debt. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(3) would include in the coverage of proposed Part 1040 providing services to assist a consumer with debt management or debt settlement, modifying the terms of any extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(3)(i), or avoiding foreclosure. With the exception of the reference to an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(3)(i), these terms derive directly from the definition of this consumer financial product or service in
In its SBREFA Outline, the Bureau considered defining debt relief coverage more narrowly by reference to the definition of “debt relief services” under the FTC's Telemarketing Sales Rule, 16 CFR part 310.
Another consumer financial product or service, which is listed in Dodd-Frank section 1002(15)(A)(viii)(I), is providing credit counseling to a consumer. Credit counseling can include counseling on consumer credit that would be covered by the proposed rule, including but not limited to credit repair services that may also be subject to the Credit Repair Organizations Act, 15 U.S.C. 1679,
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should apply to providing consumers with consumer reports and information specific to a consumer from consumer reports, such as by providing credit scores and credit monitoring. Specifically, proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) would include in the scope of proposed part 1040 providing directly to a consumer a consumer report as defined by the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d), a credit score, or other information specific to a consumer from such a consumer report, except when such consumer report is provided by a user covered by 15 U.S.C. 1681m solely in connection with an adverse action as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(k) with respect to a product or service not covered by any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) or paragraphs (a)(5) through (10) of proposed § 1040.3.
The FCRA, enacted in 1970, defines which types of businesses are consumer reporting agencies. 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f). Consumer reporting agencies are the original sources of consumer reports as defined by the FCRA.
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) therefore would apply to consumer reporting agencies when providing such products or services directly to consumers, as well as to other types of entities that deliver consumer reports or information from consumer reports directly to consumers. For example, proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) would cover not only credit monitoring services that monitor entries on a consumer's consumer credit report on an ongoing basis, but also a discrete service that transmits a consumer report as defined by the FCRA, a credit score, or other information from a consumer report directly to a consumer. Such discrete services may be provided at the consumer's request or as required by law, such as via a notice of adverse action on a consumer credit application,
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) would not, however, cover users of consumer reports who provide those reports or information from them to consumers solely in connection with adverse action notices with respect to a product or service that is not otherwise covered by proposed § 1040.3(a). For example, a user of a consumer report providing a consumer with a copy of their credit report solely in connection with an adverse action notice taken on an application for employment would not be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(4).
The Bureau invites comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(4), including whether the reference to a consumer report as defined in the FCRA is appropriate and whether the coverage of proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) should be expanded or narrowed, and, if so, how. In particular, the Bureau requests comment on whether the proposed rule also should cover products and services that provide or monitor information obtained from sources other than a consumer report under the FCRA, for example as part of a broader suite of identity theft prevention services, and if so, which such products or services should be covered and why. In addition, the Bureau requests comment on whether proposed § 1040.3(a)(4) should apply to a broader range of services undertaken by consumer reporting agencies as defined by the FCRA that may have a bearing on the ability of consumers to participate in the credit market and the manner in which they do so. Such activities could include conducting investigations of information in consumer reports that is disputed by consumers, opting consumers out of information sharing, placing a fraud alert on a consumer's credit report, or placing a security freeze on a consumer's credit report.
Finally, the Bureau requests comment on whether the use of arbitration agreements by consumer reporting agencies in the provision of the products and services described above may have an impact on the ability of consumers to pursue or participate in class actions asserting claims under FCRA against the consumers reporting agencies more generally, and if so, whether the proposed rule should mitigate those impacts, and if so, how.
The Bureau believes the proposed rule should apply to deposit and share accounts. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(5) would include in the coverage of proposed Part 1040 accounts subject to the Truth in Savings Act (TISA), 12 U.S.C. 4301
TISA created uniform disclosure requirements for deposit and share accounts.
In addition to coverage of deposit and share accounts as defined by (or within the meaning set forth in) TISA in proposed § 1040.3(a)(5), the Bureau believes the proposed rule should cover other accounts as well as remittance transfers subject to EFTA, 15 U.S.C. 1693
The Bureau notes that it has separately proposed a rule to extend the definition of “account” to include “prepaid accounts.”
The Bureau notes that EFTA also regulates preauthorized electronic fund transfers (PEFTs) and store gifts cards and gift certificates. The Bureau has not proposed to include those activities as covered products or services under proposed § 1040.3(a)(6). The Bureau notes that certain gift cards and gift certificates redeemable only at a single store or affiliated group of merchants, while subject to Regulation E,
The Bureau invites comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(6), including the reference to accounts or remittance transfers subject to EFTA, as implemented by Regulation E, and whether it should be expanded or narrowed. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether the proposed rule should cover other types of stored value products and services within the meaning of Dodd-Frank Act section 1002(15)(A)(v), and if so, what these products and services are, why they should be covered, and how they should be defined.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should apply to transmitting or exchanging funds. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(7) would include in the coverage of proposed part 1040 transmitting or exchanging funds, except when integral to another product or service that is not covered by proposed § 1040.3. Dodd-Frank section 1002(29) defines transmitting or exchanging funds broadly to include
For example, a business that provides consumers with domestic money transfers generally would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(7). As noted above, however, proposed § 1040.3(a)(7) would not apply to transmitting or exchanging funds where that activity is integral to a non-covered product or service. Thus, proposed § 1040.3(a)(7) generally would not apply, for example, to a real estate settlement agent, an attorney, or a trust company or other custodian transmitting funds from an escrow or trust account that are an integral part of real estate settlement services or legal services. By contrast, a merchant who offers a domestic money transfer service as a stand-alone product to consumers would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(7). In addition, the Bureau believes that mobile wireless third-party billing services that engage in transmitting funds would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(7), as the Bureau understands that such services would not typically be integral to the provision of wireless telecommunications services.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(7), including whether the Bureau should consider alternatives in defining these terms, and if so, particular definitions or changes the Bureau should consider and why. For example, the Bureau seeks comment on whether the Bureau should define the limitation on this coverage by reference to funds transmitting or exchanging that is necessary or essential to a non-covered product or service, rather than by reference to such activities that are integral to the non-covered product or service.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should cover certain types of payment and financial data processing. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) therefore would include in the coverage of proposed Part 1040 any product or service in which the provider or the provider's product or service accepts financial or banking data directly from a consumer for the purpose of initiating a payment by a consumer via a payment instrument as defined 15 U.S.C. 5481(18)
The coverage of proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would not include all types of payment and financial data processing, but rather only those types that involve accepting financial or banking data directly from the consumer for initiating a payment, credit card, or charge card transaction. An entity would be covered, for example, by providing the consumer with a mobile phone application (or app, for short) that accepts this data from the consumer and transmits it to a merchant, a creditor, or others. An entity also would be covered by itself accepting the data from the consumer at a storefront or kiosk, by electronic means on the Internet or by email, or by telephone. For example, a wireless, wireline, or cable provider that allows consumers to initiate payments to third parties through its billing platform would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(8).
The Bureau notes that the breadth of proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would be limited in several ways. First, the coverage of proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would not include merchants, retailers, or sellers of nonfinancial goods or services when they are providing payment processing services directly and exclusively for purpose of initiating payments instructions by the consumer to pay such persons for the purchase of, or to complete a commercial transaction for, such nonfinancial goods or services. Those types of payment processing services are excluded from the type of financial product or service identified in Dodd-Frank section 1002(15)(A)(vii)(I). As a result, they would not be a consumer financial product or service pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5481(5), which is a statutory limitation on the coverage of proposed § 1040.3(a). For the sake of clarity, proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would state that it would not apply to accepting instructions directly from a consumer to pay for a nonfinancial good or service sold by the person who is accepting the instructions. In addition, proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would not apply to accepting instructions directly from a consumer to pay for a nonfinancial good or service marketed by the person who is accepting the instructions. As a result of this proposed exception, proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) would not reach, for example, a sales agent, such as a travel agent, who accepts an instruction from a consumer to pay for a nonfinancial good or service that is marketed by the agent on behalf of a third party that provides the nonfinancial good or service.
The Bureau further notes that certain forms of payment processing also would be covered by other provisions of proposed § 1040.3(a). For example, proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(v) (servicing of consumer credit), § 1040.3(a)(3) (debt relief services), § 1040.3(a)(5) (deposit and share accounts), § 1040.3(a)(6) (consumer asset accounts and remittance transfers), § 1040.3(a)(7) (transmitting or exchanging funds), or § 1040.3(a)(10) (debt collection) could involve certain forms of payment processing, whether or not those forms also would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(8).
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(8), including on whether it should adopt a broader, narrower, or different definition of covered payment and financial data processing and, if so, why and how it should do so. For example, the Bureau seeks comment on whether proposed § 1040.3(a)(8) should include an exclusion like the exclusion in proposed § 1040.3(a)(7) for products or services that are integral to another product or service not covered by proposed § 1040.3, and if so, what examples of such products or services should be excluded and why.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should apply to cashing checks for consumers as well as to associated consumer check collection and consumer check guaranty services. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(9) would include in the coverage of proposed Part 1040 check cashing, check collection, or check guaranty services, which are types of consumer financial product or service identified in Dodd-Frank section 1002(15)(A)(vi). The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.3(a)(9), including on whether the Bureau should consider alternatives in defining this scope of coverage, and if so, particular definitions or changes the Bureau should consider and why.
The Bureau believes that the proposed rule should apply to debt collection activities arising from products covered by paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of proposed § 1040.3. Dodd-Frank section 1002(15)(A)(x) identifies debt collection as a type of consumer financial product or service that is separate from, but related to, other types of consumer financial products or services. In the proposed rule, the Bureau is similarly proposing to include a separate provision specifying the coverage of activities relating to debt collection in proposed § 1040.3(a)(10). In addition to collections on consumer credit as defined under ECOA, other products and services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) may lead to collections; if any of these collection activities were not separately covered, collectors in these cases could seek to invoke arbitration agreements. Yet the Study showed that FDCPA class actions were the most common type of class actions filed across six significant markets and that debt collection class settlements were by far the most common type of class action settlement in all of consumer finance,
Specifically, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10) would apply the requirements of proposed Part 1040 to collecting debt that arises from any of the consumer financial products or services covered by any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of proposed § 1040.3. For clarity, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10) would identify the specific types of entities that the Bureau understands typically are engaged in collecting these debts: (1) A person offering or providing the product or service giving rise to the debt being collected, an affiliate of such person, or a person acting on behalf of such person or affiliate; (2) a purchaser or acquirer of an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i), an affiliate of such person, or a person acting on behalf of such person or affiliate; and (3) a debt collector as defined by the FDCPA, 15 U.S.C. 1692a(6). The coverage of each of these types of entities engaged in debt collection is discussed separately below.
Proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(i) would apply to collection by a person offering or providing the covered product or service giving rise to the debt being collected, an affiliate of such person,
In addition, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(ii) would cover collection activities by an acquirer or purchaser of an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1), an affiliate of such person, or a person acting on behalf of such person or affiliate. This coverage would reach such persons even when proposed § 1040.3(b) would exclude the original creditor from coverage. For example, such collection activities by acquirers or purchasers would be covered even when the original creditor, such as a government or merchant, would be excluded from coverage in circumstances described in proposed § 1040.3(b). As a result, collection by an acquirer or purchaser of an extension of merchant consumer credit covered by Regulation B, such as medical credit, would be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(ii), even in circumstances where proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) would exclude the medical creditor from coverage.
The Bureau believes that many activities involved in collection of debts arising from extensions of consumer credit would also constitute servicing under proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(v). However, the Bureau is proposing the coverage of collection activities by any other person acting on behalf of the provider or affiliate in § 1040.3(a)(10)(i) and (ii) to confirm that collection activity by a such other persons would be covered even when such other persons do not meet the definition of a debt collector under the FDCPA (
As discussed above, some debt collection activities are carried out by persons hired by the owner of a debt to collect the debt. The FDCPA generally considers such persons to be debt collectors subject to its statutory requirements and prohibitions designed to deter abusive practices. Allegations of violation of the FDCPA by debt collectors also were among the most common type of consumer claim identified in the Study, whether in class actions, individual arbitration, or individual litigation. Proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(iii) therefore would include in the coverage of proposed part 1040 collecting debt by a debt collector as defined by the FDCPA, 15 U.S.C. 1692a(6),
As discussed above, the Bureau believes it is important to cover collection on all of the consumer financial products and services covered by the rule, since all of these products can generate fees that, if not paid, that lead to collection activities by debt collectors as defined in the FDCPA. Of course, one of the most common types of debt collected by FDCPA debt collectors arises from consumer credit transactions. Accordingly, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(iii) would extend coverage, for example, to collection by a third-party FDCPA debt collector acting on behalf of the persons extending credit who are ECOA creditors and thus subject to proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) or their successors and assigns who are subject to proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(iv). The Bureau believes that proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)'s references to these existing regulatory regimes would facilitate compliance, since the Bureau expects that industry has substantial experience with existing contours of coverage under the FDCPA and ECOA. As discussed above, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(iv) would apply proposed Part 1040 to purchasers of consumer credit extended by persons over whom the Bureau lacks authority under Dodd-Frank section 1027 or 1029 or who are otherwise exempt under proposed § 1040.3(b). Similarly, proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(iii) would apply to FDCPA debt collectors when collecting on this type of credit as well as other debts arising from products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1) through (9) provided by persons over whom the Bureau lacks authority under Dodd-Frank section 1027 or 1029 or who are otherwise exempt under proposed § 1040.3(b) .
The Bureau recognizes that FDCPA debt collectors do not typically become party to agreements with consumers for the provision of debt collection services; they instead collect on debt incurred pursuant to contracts between consumers and creditors or other providers. There are, however, a number of ways in which the proposed rule would regulate or otherwise affect the conduct of debt collectors. First, to the extent that the debt collector is collecting on a debt arising from an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1), any pre-dispute arbitration agreement for that product or service that is entered into after the date set forth in proposed § 1040.5(a) already would be required under proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) to contain a provision that expressly prohibits anyone, including the debt collector, from invoking it in response to a class action. Second, independent of the above-described contractual restriction, under proposed § 1040.4(a)(1), discussed below, the debt collector would be prohibited from invoking a pre-dispute arbitration agreement in a class action dispute concerning such collection activities. If a pre-dispute arbitration agreement is the basis for an individual arbitration filed by or against the debt collector related to its collection activities that are covered by the proposal, then the debt collector also would be required to submit to the Bureau the records specified in proposed § 1040.4(b). Finally, to the extent that a collector becomes party to a contract with individual consumers in the course of settling debts, such as a payment plan agreement, and that contract includes a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, then proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) would require the collector to include the prescribed language in that pre-dispute arbitration agreement.
Proposed comment 3(a)(10)-1 would further clarify that collecting debt by persons listed in § 1040.3(a)(1) would be covered with respect to the consumer financial products or services identified in those provisions, but not for other types of credit or debt they may collect, such as business credit.
The Bureau seeks comment on its proposed debt collection coverage. For example, the Bureau requests comment on whether furnishing information to a consumer reporting agency covered by the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2, by any person covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(10) should also be separately identified as a covered product or service. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether there are any persons who neither provide a product or service covered by any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of proposed § 1040.3 nor are an FDCPA debt collector nonetheless engage in debt collection on such products or services, and if so, whether proposed § 1040.3(a)(10) should be expanded to cover such persons, and if so, why and how. Similarly, the Bureau requests comment on whether debt collectors as defined in the FDCPA would include anyone not already covered by § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) and (ii), and if not, whether the proposed rule should simply clarify that debt collectors as defined in the FDCPA are covered under proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) and (ii), as applicable, rather than separately stating their coverage under proposed § 1040.3(a)(10)(iii).
Proposed § 1040.3(b) would identify the set of conditions under which certain persons would be excluded from the coverage of proposed part 1040 when providing a specified product or service covered by proposed § 1040.3(a).
The Bureau further notes that certain additional limitations are inherent in proposed § 1040.3(a). These limitations arise not only from the terms chosen for proposed § 1040.3(a) in general, but also from the fact that in a number of places proposed § 1040.3(a) references terms from other enumerated consumer financial protection statutes and their implementing regulations. For example, a transaction is “credit” as defined by Regulation B implementing ECOA only if there is a “right” to defer payment.
As discussed above, if an exclusion in proposed § 1040.3(b) does not apply to a person that offers or provides a product or service described in proposed § 1040.3(a), that person would meet the definition of a provider in proposed § 1040.2(c) and would be subject to the proposed rule. Even if an exclusion in proposed § 1040.3(b) applies person offering or providing a product or service, however, that person may still be covered by part 1040 when providing a different product or service described in proposed § 1040.3(a) if an exemption in proposed § 1040.3(b) does not apply to that product or service.
For illustrative purposes, the Bureau notes that persons offering or providing consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) described above may include, without limitation, banks, credit unions, credit card issuers, certain automobile lenders, auto title lenders, small-dollar or payday lenders, private student lenders, payment advance companies, other installment and open-end lenders, loan originators and other entities that arrange for consumer loans, providers of certain automobile leases, loan servicers, debt settlement firms, foreclosure rescue firms, certain credit service/repair organizations, providers of consumer credit reports and credit scores, credit monitoring service providers, debt collectors, debt buyers, check cashing providers, remittance transfer providers, domestic money transfer or currency exchange service providers, and certain payment processors.
The Bureau requests comment on the exclusions proposed in § 1040.4(b), and also on whether the proposed rule should include other exclusions. For example, as discussed below in the Section-by-Section Analysis to proposed § 1040.4(b), the Bureau requests comment on whether the proposed rule should include an exclusion for certain small entities. In addition, the Bureau requests comment on how the proposed rule should interact with potential regulations, discussed above, that may be promulgated by the U.S. Department of Education. The Bureau notes, for example, that such a regulation, if adopted, could overlap with the Bureau's proposed rule here, which would apply to postsecondary education institutions that are significantly engaged in provide financing directly to consumers with a finance charge.
Proposed § 1040.3(b)(1) would exclude from the coverage of proposed part 1040 broker-dealers to the extent they are providing any products and services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) that are also subject to specified rules promulgated or authorized by the SEC prohibiting the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class litigation and providing for making arbitral awards public. The term broker-dealer generally refers to persons engaged in the business of effecting securities transactions for the account of others or buying and selling securities for their own account.
As discussed above, since 1992, FINRA, a self-regulatory organization overseen by the SEC, has required pre-dispute arbitration agreements adopted by broker-dealers to include language disclaiming the application of the arbitration agreement to class actions filed in court.
The Bureau invites comment on proposed § 1040.3(b)(1) and comment 3(b)(1)-1, including whether such an exclusion from proposed part 1040 is appropriate and whether it should be expanded or narrowed, and if so, how. In particular, the Bureau seeks comment on the extent to which any other person who is acting in an SEC-regulated capacity, such as an investment adviser, may also be providing a consumer financial product or service that would be subject to proposed § 1040.3.
The CFTC has a regulation requiring that pre-dispute arbitration agreements in customer agreements for products and services regulated by the CFTC be voluntary, such that the customer receives a specified disclosure before being asked to sign the pre-dispute arbitration agreement, is not required to sign the pre-dispute arbitration agreement as a condition of receiving the product or service, and is only subject to the pre-dispute arbitration agreement if he or she separately signs
Under the proposed rule, any product or service that is subject to both the Bureau's proposed rule and the CFTC rule
Proposed § 1040.3(b)(2) would exclude from the coverage of proposed Part 1040 governments and their affiliates, as defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481(1), to the extent providing products and services directly to consumers in circumstances specified in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(i) or (ii). This proposed exclusion would not apply to an entity that is neither a government nor an affiliate of a government but provides services to a government or an affiliate of a government.
The Bureau believes that private enforcement of consumer protection laws, when provided for by statute, is an important companion to regulation, supervision over, and enforcement against private providers by governments at the local, State, and Federal levels. The Bureau believes, however, that financial products and services provided by governments and their affiliates directly to consumers who reside within territorial jurisdiction of the governments should generally not be covered by proposed part 1040 given the unique position that governments are in with respect to products and services the governments and their affiliates themselves provide directly to their own constituents.
Specifically, proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(i) would exclude from coverage any products and services covered by proposed § 1040.3(a) when provided directly by the Federal government and its affiliates. In circumstances where proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(i) would apply, the Bureau believes that the Federal government and its affiliates are uniquely accountable through the democratic process to consumers to whom the Federal government and its affiliates directly provide products and services. The Bureau additionally believes that the democratic process may compel the Federal government and its affiliates to treat consumers fairly with respect to dispute resolution over the products and services they provide directly to consumers. For these reasons, the Bureau proposes to exempt from coverage of part 1040 products and services provided directly by the Federal governmental and its affiliates to consumers. By limiting this exemption to products and services provided directly by the Federal government and its affiliates, proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(i) would not exempt nongovernmental entities that provide covered products or services on behalf of the Federal government or its affiliates, such as a student loan servicer. Proposed comment 3(b)(2)-1 would reiterate this point, with respect to the exclusions in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2), and also would note that the definition of affiliate in Dodd-Frank section 1002(1) would apply to the use of the term in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2).
Proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(ii) would exclude from coverage any State, local, or tribal government, and any affiliate of a State, local, or tribal government, to the extent it is providing consumer financial products and services covered by § 1040.3(a) directly to consumers who reside in the government's territorial jurisdiction. The Bureau believes that such governments and their affiliates are persons pursuant to Dodd-Frank section 1002(19) and that a number of such governments and their affiliates may provide financial products and services that could otherwise be covered by proposed § 1040.3(a). In circumstances where proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(ii) would apply, the Bureau believes that governments and their affiliates are uniquely accountable through the democratic process to consumers for products and services the governments and their affiliates provide directly to consumers who reside within their territorial jurisdiction. The Bureau additionally believes that the democratic process may compel governments and their affiliates to treat consumers who reside within the government's territorial jurisdictions fairly with respect to dispute resolution over the products and services the governments and affiliates provide directly to those consumers. For these reasons, the Bureau proposes to exempt from coverage of part 1040 products and services provided directly by governments and their affiliates to consumers who reside within the territorial jurisdiction of these governments.
By limiting this exclusion to services provided “directly” by these governments and their affiliates, the proposal would make clear that proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(ii) would not exclude from the coverage of part 1040 nongovernmental entities that provide covered products or services on behalf of State, local, or tribal governments or their affiliates, such as a bank that issues a payroll card account for State, local, or tribal government employees or a private debt collector that collects on consumer credit extended by a State,
Accordingly, proposed comment 1040.3(b)(2)-2 would provide examples of consumer financial products and services that are offered or provided by State, local, or tribal governments or their affiliates directly to consumers who reside in the government's territorial jurisdiction. These would include the following: (1) A bank that is an affiliate of a State government providing a student loan or deposit account directly to a resident of the State; and (2) a utility that is an affiliate of a State or municipal government providing credit or payment processing services directly to a consumer who resides in the State or municipality to allow a consumer to purchase energy from an energy supplier that is not an affiliate of the same State or municipal government. Proposed comment 3(b)(2)-2 would provide examples of consumer financial products and services that are offered or provided by State, local, or tribal governments or their affiliates directly to consumers who do not reside in the government's territorial jurisdiction. These would include the following: (1) A bank that is an affiliate of a State government providing a student loan to a student who resides in another State; and (2) a tribal government affiliate providing a short-term loan to a consumer who does not reside in the tribal government's territorial jurisdiction and completes the transaction via Internet. These examples are illustrative, and non-exhaustive. The use of the term “affiliated” in these examples also indicates that this exemption would not apply to services provided by persons who are not affiliates of governments. For example, so-called “public utilities” would not be exempt unless they control, are controlled by, or are under common control with a government or its affiliates. The Bureau requests comment on these proposed examples, and on whether other examples should be included.
The Bureau further notes that the proposed rule would not cover any government utility, or other affiliates of governments such as schools, when eligible for other exemptions in proposed § 1040.3(b). For example, a government would be exempt when providing consumer credit for its own services if the government does this below the frequency specified in proposed § 1040.3(b)(3), or if the credit does not include a finance charge, in which case the exemption in proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) may apply.
The Bureau seeks comment on the exclusions in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2), including on the use of the terms “government,” “affiliate,” “resides,” and “territorial jurisdiction” in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2)(i) and (ii), and, if clarifications are needed in general or for specific types of governments or governmental affiliates, what those should be. The Bureau specifically solicits comment on the exclusions in proposed § 1040.3(b)(2) from tribal governments under its Policy for Consultation with Tribal Governments.
The Bureau proposes in § 1040.3(b)(3) an exemption for a person in relation to any product or service listed in a paragraph under proposed § 1040.3(a) that the person and any affiliates collectively offer or provide to no more than 25 consumers in the current calendar year and that it and any affiliates have not provided to more than 25 consumers in the preceding calendar year.
The Bureau believes that a threshold of the type described above (based upon provision of a product or service to only 25 or fewer persons annually) may be appropriate to exclude covered products and services from coverage when they are not offered or provided on a regular basis for several reasons. First, the Bureau believes that services and products offered or provided to only 25 or fewer consumers per year are unlikely to cause harms that are eligible for redress in class actions under the “numerosity” requirement of Federal Rule 23 governing class actions or State analogues, as discussed above in Part II. Second, when covered products or services are offered or provided so infrequently, the likelihood of an individual claim in arbitration also is especially low. Therefore, the Bureau believes that applying the proposed rule to persons who engage in so little activity involving a covered product or service is unlikely to have a significant impact on consumers. Third, the Bureau believes that excluding covered products and services that entities offer or provide so infrequently would relieve these entities of the burden of complying with the proposed rule for those products and services.
The Bureau is aware that some of the terms in statutes or their implementing regulations referenced in proposed § 1040.3(a) have their own exclusions for persons who do not regularly engage
For purposes of this rule, the Bureau believes that a single uniform numerical threshold may facilitate compliance and reduce complexity, particularly given that application of the proposed rule would not just affect consumers' ability to bring class claims under specific Federal consumer financial laws, but also other types of State and Federal law claims. The proposed 25-consumer threshold also would be generally consistent with the threshold for “regularly extend[ing] consumer credit” under 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17)(v), which applies certain TILA disclosure requirements to persons making more than 25 non-mortgage credit transactions in a year. The Bureau emphasizes that it is proposing this uniform standard in the unique context of this proposed rule, and that it expects to continue to interpret thresholds under the enumerated consumer financial protection statutes and their implementing regulations according to their specific language, contexts, and purposes. The Bureau further notes that basing an exemption on the level of activity in the current and preceding calendar year is consistent with the threshold under 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17)(v).
The Bureau seeks comment on this proposed exclusion from coverage, including whether the proposed uniform numerical threshold for excluding persons who do not regularly engage in providing a covered product or service is warranted and if not, what alternatives should be considered. For example, the Bureau seeks comment on whether the threshold should be higher or lower, determined by aggregating the number of times all covered products are offered or provided, or incorporate other elements. The Bureau also seeks comment on the proposal to base the exclusion on total activities in the current and preceding calendar years. Finally, the Bureau seeks comment on whether to adopt a grace period or other transition mechanism for entities when they first cross the 25-consumer threshold.
Merchants, retailers, and other sellers of nonfinancial goods and services generally may be subject to the proposed rule when acting as creditors as defined by Regulation B when they extend consumer credit or participate in consumer credit decisions, or when they engage in collection on or sale of these consumer credit accounts, unless they are excluded from the Bureau's rulemaking authority under Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2). Section 1027(a)(2)(A) generally excludes these activities by a merchant, retailer, or other seller of nonfinancial goods or services to the extent that person extends credit directly to a consumer exclusively for the purchase of a nonfinancial good or service directly from that person. Section 1027(a)(2) also states, however, that the general exclusion in section 1027(a)(2)(A) is limited by subparagraphs (B) and (C) of section 1027(a)(2).
To explain this proposed exemption, it is necessary to describe further the limitations on the merchant creditor exclusion in Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2). As noted above, there are a number of circumstances when merchants engaged in these activities are not excluded by Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2). Section 1027(a)(2)(B) confers authority upon the Bureau generally over such extensions of consumer credit and associated debt collection activities by the merchants in three circumstances, set forth in subparagraphs (i), (ii), and (iii) of section 1027(a)(2)(B) respectively. Subparagraph (i) relates to certain circumstances where the merchant, retailer, or other seller “assigns, sells, or otherwise conveys” a debt to a third party. Subparagraph (ii) relates to certain circumstances where the amount of credit extended significantly exceeds the value of a good or service. Subparagraph (iii), as clarified by Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(C), relates to certain circumstances where a merchant creditor is engaged significantly in providing consumer financial products and services and imposes a finance charge.
Proposed § 1040.3(b)(4) would provide an exemption from coverage under Part 1040 to merchants, retailers, and other sellers of nonfinancial goods or services extending consumer credit as described in section 1027(a)(2)(A)(i) when only the first of these three circumstances described above is present and the second and third of these circumstances is not present. If the Bureau did not adopt this proposed exemption, then merchants extending credit subject to ECOA by allowing consumers to defer payment for goods or services—even without imposing a finance charge—would themselves be covered by the proposed rule to the extent they were to sell, assign, or otherwise convey that credit account, when not in delinquency or default, to a third party consistent with Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(B)(i). Such sale, assignment, or conveyance could occur, for example, in certain types of commercial borrowing engaged in by merchants, such as factoring, or collateralized lines of credit under which the merchant assigns its interest in its receivables. However, under the proposed exemption, such merchants would not be covered by Part 1040 in this context unless the amount of credit they extended significantly exceeds the value of the good or service or they engage significantly in extending credit with a finance charge.
Proposed § 1040.3(b)(4)(i) would thus exclude from the coverage of proposed part 1040 merchants, retailers, or other sellers of nonfinancial goods or services to the extent providing an extension of consumer credit covered by proposed § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) and described by Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(A)(i) in connection with a credit transaction pursuant to Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(B)(i) unless the same credit transactions are also credit transactions pursuant to Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(B)(ii) or (iii). Thus, a merchant who is a creditor under Regulation B that is extending consumer credit as described in Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(A)(i) would be eligible for this exemption with respect to such consumer credit transactions when they are sold, assigned, or otherwise conveyed to a third party, if the consumer credit was not extended in an amount that significantly exceeded the value of the good or service under section 1027(a)(2)(B)(ii) and did not have a finance charge under section 1027(a)(2)(B)(iii) (or it did have a finance charge but the creditor was not engaged significantly in that type of lending under section 1027(a)(2)(C)(i)). Proposed § 1040.3(b)(4) would only exempt a merchant, retailer, or seller of the nonfinancial good or service and therefore would not affect coverage of other persons who may conduct servicing, debt collection activities, or provide covered products and services pursuant to proposed § 1040.3(a) in connection with the same extension of consumer credit. As discussed below in the Section-by-Section Analysis to proposed comments 4-1 and 4-2, those providers would be subject to the proposed rule.
Further, the exclusion in proposed § 1040.3(b)(4)(ii) would apply to a merchant who purchases or acquires credit extended by another merchant in a sale, assignment, or other conveyance that is subject to Dodd-Frank section 1027(a)(2)(B)(i). As a result, the proposed rule would not apply, for example, to a merchant who, in a merger or acquisition transaction, acquires customer accounts of another merchant who had extended credit with no finance charge and not in an amount that significantly exceeded the value of the goods or services (
The Bureau invites comment on the exception in proposed § 1040.3(b)(4) including on whether the Bureau should consider alternatives in defining this exception, and if so, particular definitions or changes the Bureau should consider and why.
The proposed rule would not apply to persons to the extent they are excluded from the rulemaking authority of the Bureau under Dodd-Frank sections 1027 and 1029. For the sake of clarity, the Bureau proposes to make this limitation an explicit exemption in proposed § 1040.3(b)(5). Proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) thus would clarify that Part 1040 would not apply to a person to the extent the Bureau lacks rulemaking authority over that person or a product or service offered or provided by the person under Dodd-Frank sections 1027 and 1029 (12 U.S.C. 5517 and 5519).
However, the application of proposed § 1040.4 would be limited under proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) only to the extent that sections 1027 and 1029 constrain the Bureau's authority. Consistent with these restraints in sections 1027 and 1029, the Bureau may have section 1028 rulemaking authority in certain circumstances over a person that assumes or seeks to use an arbitration agreement entered into by another person over whom the Bureau lacked such authority. Notably, entities excluded from Bureau rulemaking authority under sections 1027 and 1029 may still be covered persons as defined by Dodd-Frank section 1002(6). Thus, proposed § 1040.4 may apply to a provider that assumes or seeks to use an arbitration agreement entered into by a covered person over whom the Bureau lacks rulemaking authority under Dodd-Frank sections 1027 and 1029 with respect to the activity at issue.
For example, proposed § 1040.4 may apply to a provider that is a debt collector as defined in the FDCPA collecting on debt arising from a consumer credit transaction originated by a merchant, even if the merchant would be exempt under proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) because the merchant is excluded from Bureau rulemaking authority under Dodd-Frank section 1027 for the particular extension of consumer credit at issue. As noted in the discussion of proposed § 1040.3(a)(10) above, for example, hospitals, doctors, and other service providers extending incidental ECOA credit would not be subject to the requirements of § 1040.4 to the extent the Bureau lacks rulemaking authority over them under Dodd-Frank section 1027. Similarly, proposed § 1040.4 may apply to a provider that is acquiring an automobile loan originated by an automobile dealer in circumstances where the automobile dealer is exempt by proposed § 1040.3(b)(5) because the auto dealer is excluded from Bureau rulemaking authority under Dodd-Frank section 1029.
Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) authorizes the Bureau to prohibit or impose conditions or limitations on the use of an agreement between a covered person and a consumer for a consumer financial product or service providing for arbitration of any future dispute between the parties, if the Bureau finds that doing so is in the public interest and for the protection of consumers. Section 1028(b) also requires that the findings in such rule be consistent with the Study conducted under Dodd-Frank section 1028(a). Section 1028(d) further states that any regulation prescribed by the Bureau under section 1028(b) shall apply to any agreement between a consumer and a covered person entered into after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the effective date of the regulation.
Specifically, proposed § 1040.4 would contain three provisions. Proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would generally prohibit providers from seeking to rely in any way on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date with respect to any aspect of a class action that is related to any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3. Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) would require providers, upon entering into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a product or service covered by proposed § 1040.3 after the compliance date, to include a specified plain-language provision in their pre-dispute arbitration agreements disclaiming the agreement's applicability to class actions. And proposed § 1040.4(b) would require a provider that includes a pre-dispute arbitration agreement in its consumer contracts to submit specified arbitral records to the Bureau for any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date.
Each of these three proposed provisions contains the phrase “entered into.” To aid interpretation of proposed
Proposed comment 4-1.i would provide illustrative examples of when a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for purposes of § 1040.4 and proposed comment 4-1.ii would provide illustrative examples of when a provider does not enter into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for purposes of § 1040.4. Proposed comments 4-1.i.A through C would state that examples of when a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement include, but are not limited to, the following three scenarios. First, proposed comment 4-1.i.A would explain that a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement where it provides to a consumer a new product or service that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, and the provider is a party to the pre-dispute arbitration agreement. The Bureau does not interpret this example to include new charges on a credit card covered by a pre-dispute arbitration entered into before the compliance date. Second, proposed comment 4-1.i.B would explain that a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement where it acquires or purchases a product covered by proposed § 1040.3 that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement and becomes a party to that agreement, even if the person selling the product is excluded from coverage under proposed § 1040.3(b). Third, proposed comment 4-1.i.C would explain that a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement where it adds a pre-dispute arbitration agreement to an existing product or service. The Bureau interprets Dodd-Frank section 1028(b) to include authority that would allow the Bureau to require that providers comply with proposed § 1040.4 to the extent they choose to add pre-dispute arbitration agreements to existing consumer agreements after the compliance date.
Proposed comments 4-1.ii would then state that examples of when a provider
Proposed § 1040.4, in general, would apply to a provider regardless of whether the provider itself entered into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, as long as the agreement was entered into after the compliance date.
Proposed comment 4-2 would explain that pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(a)(1), a provider cannot rely on any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into by another person after the effective date with respect to any aspect of a class action concerning a product or service covered by § 1040.3 and pursuant to § 1040.4(b). That comment would further clarify that a provider may be required to submit certain specified records related to claims filed in arbitration pursuant to such pre-dispute arbitration agreements and cross-reference comment 4(a)(2)-1 which is discussed below. The comment would go on to provide an example of a debt collector collecting on covered consumer credit that is prohibited by § 1040.4(a)(1) from relying on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into by the creditor with respect to a class action even when the debt collector does not itself enter a pre-dispute arbitration agreement. The Bureau seeks comment whether proposed comments 4-1 and -2 are helpful in facilitating compliance, and whether the Bureau should provide additional or different examples.
For the reasons discussed more fully in Part VI and pursuant to its authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b), the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(a). Proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would require that a provider shall not seek to rely on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date with respect to any aspect of a class action that is related to any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3, unless the court has ruled that the class action may not proceed and any appellate review of that ruling has been resolved.
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) would generally require providers to ensure that any pre-dispute arbitration agreements entered into after the compliance date contain a specified provision disclaiming the applicability of those agreements to class action cases concerning a consumer financial product or service covered by the proposed rule.
The Bureau notes that proposed § 1040.4(a) would permit an arbitration agreement that allows for class
As discussed above, the Bureau preliminarily finds that the proposed rule would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers and would be consistent with the Study. Those findings are subject to further revision in light of comments received, however. In addition, the Bureau continues to consider recommendations made to it by the SBREFA Panel Report as part of the SBREFA process.
As the Panel Report indicates, many of the SERs expressed concern about the impacts of limiting the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class action litigation. Specifically, the SERs expressed concern that defending even one class action litigation—including defense counsel fees and any settlements ultimately paid out—could put a small entity out of business. In response to these concerns, the SBREFA Panel recommended that the Bureau continue to evaluate the costs to small entities of defending class actions and how such costs may differ from the costs to larger entities.
This proposed rule's impacts analyses pursuant to section 1022(b)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (Part VIII below) and section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act
Further, despite the fact that the Bureau is not certifying, at this time, that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the Bureau believes that the arguments and calculations outlined both in Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, as well as the arguments and calculations that follow, strongly suggest that the proposed rule would indeed not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities in any of the covered markets. As discussed in greater detail in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, while the expected cost per provider from the Bureau's rule is about $200 per year from Federal class cases, these costs would not be evenly distributed across small providers. In particular, the Bureau estimates that about 25 providers per year would be involved in an additional Federal class settlement—a considerably higher expense than $200 per year. In addition, the additional Federal cases filed as class litigation that would end up not settling on class basis (121 per year according to the Bureau's estimates) are also likely to result in a considerably higher expense that $200. However, as noted in the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, the vast majority of the providers covered by the proposal would not experience any of these effects.
The Bureau also notes that, under proposed § 1040.3(b)(4), its proposed rule would not apply to any person when providing a product or service covered by § 1040.3(a) that the person and any of its affiliates collectively provide to no more than 25 consumers in the current calendar year and to no more than 25 consumers in the preceding calendar year. Consistent with the Panel's recommendation, however, the Bureau solicits further feedback on the costs of defending class actions and whether those costs may differ or be disproportionate for small entities as compared to larger ones.
The Panel Report reflects a concern expressed by several SERs that preventing providers from relying on pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class litigation would affect the small entities' ability to obtain insurance coverage for class action litigation defense costs, which the SERs noted was already expensive. The Panel recommended that the Bureau further assess the availability and costs of insurance for small entities including impacts on insurance premiums and deductibles and any costs related to pursuing unpaid claims against an insurer, particularly whether and how insurance covers class action defense costs and whether exposure to class actions would impact the cost and availability of this insurance.
As discussed in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, the Bureau recognizes that, in response to the Bureau's proposal, providers may make various investments to reduce the potential financial impacts of class litigation. For example, providers might opt for more comprehensive insurance coverage that would presumably cover more class litigation exposure or would have a higher reimbursement limit. However, during the Small Business Review Panel, the SERs noted that it often is not clear to them which type of class litigation exposure a policy covers nor was it clear that providers typically ask insurers about this sort of coverage. The SERs explained that their coverage is often determined on a more specialized case-by-case basis that limits at least small providers' ability to plan ahead. Larger firms may have more sophisticated policies and more systematic understanding of their coverage, however, or they may self-insure. Finally, the insurance providers might require at least some of the changes to compliance discussed above as a prerequisite for coverage or for a discounted premium. Consistent with the Panel's recommendation, the Bureau seeks comment on whether and, if so, how the rule would affect class action litigation defense insurance costs for covered entities.
Some SERs rejected the Bureau's reasoning, discussed in Part VI, that the potential for class action litigation encourages companies to comply with relevant consumer finance laws and
A few of the SERs further expressed concern that the Bureau's class proposal would expose their businesses to more class litigation which could, in turn, increase their companies' litigation defense costs and therefore increase the cost of business credit that the entities rely on to facilitate their operations. These SERs stated that they believed that their lenders would increase the cost of business credit for their companies if their companies could no longer rely on arbitration agreements in class actions. The Panel recommended that the Bureau consider whether there are alternative actions that the Bureau could take that would still accomplish the Bureau's goals of encouraging increased compliance with relevant consumer financial laws and providing relief to harmed consumers while not increasing small entities' exposure to class action lawsuits that could increase their cost of credit.
The Bureau has analyzed the potential impacts on small providers' own costs of credit and the availability of other alternatives, as discussed further in Part IX (the Regulatory Flexibility Analysis). Consistent with that more extended discussion and the Panel's recommendation, the Bureau seeks comment on whether proposed § 1040.4(a) would increase the cost of credit for small entities and whether there are alternatives to proposed § 1040.4(a) that would accomplish the Bureau's objectives while mitigating any potential increases to the cost of credit for small entities. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether and to what extent commercial lenders inquire in the course of underwriting a loan about a potential borrower's exposure to class actions or ability to rely on pre-dispute arbitration agreements to reduce exposure to class actions.
The SERs suggested alternatives to the Bureau's class proposal that, in their view, would protect small entities from the costs of class litigation. One such alternative would be exempting small entities from some, or all, of the proposed rule's requirements. Accordingly, the Panel recommended that the Bureau evaluate the impact of its class proposals on small entities and consider exempting small entities from some requirements of the class proposal or consider delaying implementation of the rule for small entities.
At this time, the Bureau is not proposing an exemption for small entities because it believes that the availability of class actions protects consumers who do business with small entities. While the Study shows that small entities are less likely to have arbitration agreements than larger entities,
In the event the Bureau were to adopt a small entity exemption, the Bureau seeks comment on how to formulate such an exemption for all small providers or for small providers in particular industries. One approach could be to use the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standards to determine whether an entity is small, although that could involve complexity particularly as to entities that might qualify in more than one category.
Some of the SERs also suggested that, rather than prohibit providers from relying on pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class actions, the Bureau instead mandate improved disclosures regarding arbitration and educate consumers regarding their dispute resolution rights. These SERs stated that consumer education could encourage consumers to pursue individual claims in small claims court or arbitration that they might otherwise abandon or be discouraged from pursuing, thereby reducing the need for class action litigation to address consumer harms. The SERs thus echoed what some other industry participants have told the Bureau—that, rather than limit the use of arbitration in any way, the Bureau should advocate for arbitration and encourage consumers to take their individual claims before an arbitrator. The Panel recommended that the Bureau consider whether, through improved disclosure requirements and consumer education initiatives, the Bureau could increase consumers' awareness and understanding of their available dispute resolution mechanisms and use of these mechanisms to resolve disputes and redress consumer harms.
The Bureau has considered the issue carefully and preliminarily concludes that better consumer understanding through either disclosure or consumer education would not lead to a material increase in the filing of individual claims to the level necessary that would
Further, where a provider has violated the law, many consumers may be unaware that they have been harmed. Class actions address this problem, because, typically, all consumers harmed by a course of conduct become part of the class. In contrast, improved disclosures do not, because improved awareness of dispute resolution options is not likely to affect a consumer's behavior where the consumer does not know that the consumer has suffered a legally actionable harm. Thus, the Bureau believes that making class actions available to consumers would result in consumers being able to pursue their claims on a much greater scale than would improving disclosures and increasing consumer education.
Consistent with the Panel's recommendation, and to gather additional views about this issue, the Bureau solicits comment on whether improved disclosure or consumer education could increase consumers' understanding of dispute resolution and use of individual arbitration to resolve disputes and redress consumer harms sufficient to obviate the need for the class proposal. The Bureau also continues to evaluate whether it should provide additional consumer education materials regarding dispute resolution rights, in addition to rather than in lieu of the proposed interventions.
Finally, the SERs expressed concern about exposure to class action litigation based on certain statutory causes of action that have no limit on statutory damages in a class action, such as the TCPA.
The Bureau has considered, but is not at this time proposing, an exemption to this part for particular causes of action. The Bureau believes that Congress and State legislatures, as applicable, are better positioned than the Bureau to establish the appropriate level of damages for particular harms under established statutory schemes. While the Bureau recognizes the concern, expressed by SERs, among others, that particular statutes may create the possibility of disproportionate damages awards, the Bureau believes that Congress and the courts are the appropriate institutions to address such issues. For example, industry groups have lobbied, and may continue to lobby Congress and the FCC to amend the TCPA, including its statutory damages scheme.
In furtherance of the Bureau's goal to ensure that class actions are available to consumers who are harmed by providers of consumer financial products and services, for the reasons discussed above in Part VI and in accordance with the Bureau's authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b), the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(a)(1). Proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would require that a provider shall not rely in any way on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date with respect to any aspect of a class action that is related to any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3 including to seek a stay or dismissal of particular claims or the entire action, unless and until the presiding court has ruled that the case may not proceed as a class action and, if that ruling may be subject to appellate review on an interlocutory basis, the time to seek such review has elapsed or the review has been resolved.
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would bar providers from relying on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date of the rule, as described above, even if the pre-dispute arbitration agreement does not include the provision required by § 1040.4(a)(2). Examples of this scenario include where a provider uses preprinted agreements that would be temporarily excepted from proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) (
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would prevent providers from relying on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement in a class action unless and until the presiding court has ruled that the case may not proceed as a class action, and, if the ruling may be subject to interlocutory appellate review, the time to seek such
Proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1 provides a non-exhaustive list of examples illustrating what it means for a provider to “rely on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement with respect to any aspect of a class action.” The proposed comment would provide six examples: Seeking dismissal, deferral, or stay of any aspect of a class action (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.i); seeking to exclude a person or persons from a class in a class action (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.ii); objecting to or seeking a protective order intended to avoid responding to discovery in a class action (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.iii); filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.iv); filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action after the trial court has denied a motion to certify the class but before an appellate court has ruled on an interlocutory appeal of that motion, if the time to seek such an appeal has not elapsed and the appeal has not been resolved (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.v); and filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action after the trial court has granted a motion to dismiss the claim where the court has noted that the consumer has leave to refile the claim on a class basis, if the time to refile the claim has not elapsed (proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.vi).
One purpose of proposed comments 4(a)(1)-1.iv through vi would be to prevent providers from evading proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) by filing an arbitration claim against a consumer who has already filed a claim on the same issue in a putative class action. The Bureau notes, however, that proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would not prohibit a provider from continuing to arbitrate a claim that was filed before the consumer filed a class action claim. For example, if a provider files an arbitration claim to collect a debt from a consumer, and the consumer later files a class action claim, the arbitration of that claim would still be permitted to go forward, although, under proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) the provider could not use the pre-dispute arbitration agreement to block the class action.
The Bureau seeks comment on these examples and whether further clarification regarding when this provision would apply in the course of litigation would be helpful to providers. Specifically, the Bureau seeks comment on whether the language “claim on the same issue,” which appears in proposed comment 4(a)(1)-1.v and vi, is sufficiently limiting and would not prevent, for example, arbitrations involving unrelated claims to go forward even if they involve the same consumer. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether entities may seek to circumvent or evade proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) and whether additional clarification would be needed to prevent such circumvention or evasion.
Proposed comment 4(a)(1)-2 would state that, in a class action concerning multiple products or services only some of which are covered by proposed § 1040.3, the prohibition in proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) applies only to claims that concern the covered products or services. The Bureau seeks comment on this comment and whether providers need additional clarification regarding the application of proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) in class actions for multiple products and services, only some of which are covered by proposed § 1040.3.
In furtherance of the Bureau's goal to ensure that class actions are available to consumers who are harmed by consumer financial service providers, for the reasons discussed above in Part VI and in accordance with the Bureau's authority under Dodd-Frank section 1028(b), proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) would generally require providers to ensure that pre-dispute arbitration agreements contain specified provisions explaining that the agreements cannot be invoked in class proceedings. These proposed requirements are discussed in greater detail below.
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) would state that, except as permitted by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii) and (iii) and proposed § 1040.5(b), providers shall, upon entering into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a product or service covered by proposed § 1040.3 after the compliance date, ensure that any such agreement contains the following provision:
We agree that neither we nor anyone else will use this agreement to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
Requiring a provider's arbitration agreement to contain such a provision would ensure that consumers, courts, and other relevant third parties, including potential purchasers, are made aware when reading the agreement that it may not be used to prevent consumers from pursuing class actions concerning consumer financial products or services covered by the proposed rule. Moreover, to the extent a provider attempts to invoke a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, consumers could invoke this contractual provision to enforce their right to proceed in court for class claims. The Bureau intends this provision to be limited to class action cases that concern a consumer financial product or service that would be covered by proposed § 1040.3. In addition, the Bureau intends the phrase “neither we nor anyone else shall use this agreement”—rather than merely “we shall not use this agreement”—to make clear to consumers that the proposed rule would bind both the provider that initially enters into the agreement and any third party that might later be assigned the agreement or otherwise seek to rely on it.
The Bureau has attempted to draft the proposed contractual provision—as well as the contractual provisions in proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii) and (iii)—to be in plain language. While the Bureau does not believe that disclosure requirements or consumer education could lead to a material increase in the filing of individual claims, the Bureau does believe that consumers who consult their contracts should be able to
The Bureau intends the phrase “contains the following provision” in proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) to clarify that the text specified by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) shall be included as a provision of the pre-dispute arbitration agreement, as for example, the FTC's Holder in Due Course Rule also requires.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) generally. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether the rule should mandate that covered entities insert the provision into their pre-dispute arbitration agreements. In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on whether the provision, as drafted, is in plain language and would be understandable to consumers. The Bureau further seeks comment on whether the proposed provision would accomplish its purpose of binding both the provider that forms an initial agreement with the consumer and any future acquirers of it, as well as third parties that may seek to rely on it, such as debt collectors.
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii) would permit providers to include in a pre-dispute arbitration agreement covering multiple products or services—only some of which are covered by proposed § 1040.3—an alternative provision in place of the one required by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i). Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii) would require this alternative provision to contain the following text:
We are providing you with more than one product or service, only some of which are covered by the Arbitration Agreements Rule issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau. We agree that neither we nor anyone else will use this agreement to stop you being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it. This provision applies only to class action claims concerning the products or services covered by that Rule.
Under proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii), providers using one contract for transactions involving both products and services covered by proposed § 1040.3 and products and services not covered by proposed § 1040.3 would have the option to—but would not be required to—use the alternative provision. Where contracts cover products and services covered by proposed § 1040.3 and products and services not covered by proposed § 1040.3, the Bureau believes that the alternative provision would improve consumer understanding because the alternative provision would more accurately describe consumers' dispute resolution rights. As with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i), discussed above, the Bureau intends for the text to be included as a provision in the pre-dispute arbitration agreement and for the text to have binding legal effect.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii) generally. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether it would be appropriate to permit the use of an alternative provision; whether the text of the proposed provision would be understandable to consumers; whether providers should be permitted to specify which products being provided are covered by the Rule; and whether the Bureau should consider making the alternative provision mandatory, rather than optional, in contracts for multiple products and services, only some of which would be covered by the proposed rule.
Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii) would set forth how to comply with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) in circumstances where a provider enters into a pre-existing pre-dispute arbitration agreement that does not contain either the provision required by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) or the alternative permitted by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii). Under proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii), within 60 days of entering into the pre-dispute arbitration agreement, providers would be required either to ensure that the agreement is amended to contain the provision specified in proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(A) or provide any consumer to whom the agreement applies with the written notice specified in proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(B). For providers that choose to ensure that the agreement is amended, the provision specified by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(A) would be as follows:
We agree that neither we nor anyone else that later becomes a party to this pre-dispute arbitration agreement will use it to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
For providers that choose to provide consumers with a written notice, the required notice provision specified by § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(B) would be as follows:
We agree not to use any pre-dispute arbitration agreement to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
The Bureau believes that by permitting providers to furnish a notice to consumers, in lieu of amending their agreements, the notice option afforded by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(B) would yield consumer awareness benefits while reducing the burden to providers for whom amendment may be challenging or costly. Further, the Bureau intends the notice option to ensure that consumers are adequately informed even if the provider that enters into a pre-existing agreement lacks a legally permissible means for amending the agreement to add the required provision. The Bureau notes that, whether the provider elects to ensure that the agreement is amended, chooses to provide the required notice, or violates proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii) by failing to do either of the above, the provider would still be required to comply with proposed § 1040.4(a)(1).
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii). The Bureau also seeks comment on whether the text of proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(A) and (B) would be understandable to consumers. The Bureau further seeks comment on whether 60 days would be an appropriate timeframe for requiring providers to ensure that agreements are amended or provide notice, taking into consideration situations where, for example, providers are acquiring accounts.
As discussed in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis below, buyers of medical debt would, in some cases, need to perform due diligence to determine how this proposed rule would apply to the debts they buy. For example, proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) would require buyers of consumer credit,
Proposed comment 4(a)(2)-1 would highlight an important difference in the application of proposed § 1040.4(a)(2), as compared with proposed § 1040.4(a)(1). Proposed § 1040.4, in general, would apply to a provider regardless of whether the provider itself entered into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, as long as the agreement was entered into after the compliance date. For example, proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) would prohibit a debt collector that does not enter into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement from moving to compel a class action case to arbitration on the basis of that agreement, so long as the original creditor entered into the pre-dispute arbitration agreement after the compliance date. Proposed § 1040.4(a)(2), in comparison, would apply to providers only when they enter into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a product or service.
Proposed comment 4(a)(2)-2 would provide an illustrative example clarifying what proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii) requires when a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement that the consumer had previously entered into with another entity and does not contain the provision required by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) or the alternative permitted by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii). The proposed comment would explain that such a situation could arise where Bank A is acquiring Bank B after the compliance date, and Bank B had entered into pre-dispute arbitration agreements before the compliance date. The proposed comment would state that if, as part of the acquisition, Bank A acquires products of Bank B's that are subject to pre-dispute arbitration agreements (and thereby enters into such agreements), proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii) would require Bank A to either (1) ensure the account agreements are amended to contain the provision required by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(A), or (2) deliver the notice in accordance with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii)(B).
Proposed comment 4(a)(2)-3 would state that providers that elect to deliver a notice in accordance with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(iii) may provide the notice in any way the provider communicates with the consumer, including electronically. The proposed comment would further explain that the notice may be provided either as a standalone document or included in another notice that the customer receives, such as a periodic statement to the extent permitted by other laws and regulations. The Bureau believes that permitting providers a wide range of options for furnishing the notice would accomplish the goal of consumer understanding while affording providers flexibility, thereby reducing the burden on providers.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed comments 4(a)(2)-1, -2, and -3. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether proposed comment 4(a)(2)-3's explanation that the notice permitted by proposed § 1040.4(a)(3) may be provided in any way the provider typically communicates with the consumer, including electronically, provides adequate clarification to providers while helping ensure that consumers receive the notice.
While proposed § 1040.4(a) would prevent providers from relying on pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class actions, it would not prohibit covered entities from maintaining pre-dispute arbitration agreements in consumer contracts generally. Providers could still invoke such agreements to compel arbitration in cases not filed as class actions. Thus, the Bureau has separately considered whether regulatory interventions pertaining to these “individual” arbitrations would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers, as well as whether the findings for such interventions are consistent with the Bureau's Study.
For reasons discussed more fully in Part VI and pursuant to its authority under section 1028(b), the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(b), which would mandate the submission of certain arbitral records to the Bureau. Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) would require, for any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date, providers to submit copies of specified arbitration records enumerated in proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau. As with all the requirements in this proposed rule, compliance with this provision would be required beginning on the compliance date. The Bureau would develop, implement, and publicize an electronic submission process that would be operational before this date, were proposed § 1040.4(b) to be adopted.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(2) would require that providers submit any record required pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) within 60 days of filing by the provider of any such record with the arbitration administrator and within 60 days of receipt by the provider of any such record filed or sent by someone other than the provider, such as the arbitration administrator or the consumer. Proposed § 1040.4(b)(3) would set forth the information that providers shall redact before submitting records to the Bureau. Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) through (3) are discussed in greater detail below.
The Bureau notes that proposed § 1040.4(b) would require submission only of records arising from arbitrations pursuant to pre-dispute arbitration agreements entered into after the
As noted above, the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(b) pursuant to its authority under Dodd-Frank sections 1028(b) and 1022(c)(4). Section 1022(c)(4) authorizes the Bureau to “gather information from time to time regarding the organization, business conduct, markets, and activities of covered persons and service providers.” The Bureau notes that it is not proposing to obtain information in this rule for the purpose of gathering or analyzing the personally identifiable financial information of consumers. Proposed § 1040.4(b)(3) would require providers to redact information that could directly identify consumers.
As discussed above, the Bureau is not now proposing to ban pre-dispute arbitration agreements entirely, nor is it proposing to prohibit specific practices in individual arbitration other than the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements to block class actions. Nevertheless, the Bureau will continue to evaluate the impacts on consumers of arbitration and arbitration agreements. To the extent necessary and appropriate, the Bureau intends to draw upon all of its statutorily authorized tools to address conduct that harms consumers. Specifically, the Bureau will continually analyze all available sources of information, including, if the proposed rule is finalized, information submitted to the Bureau pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b) as well as other information garnered through its supervisory, enforcement, and market monitoring activities. The Bureau will draw upon these sources to assess trends pertinent to its statutory mission, including trends in the use of arbitration agreements; the terms of such agreements; and the procedures, conduct, and results of arbitrations.
Among other regulatory tools, the Bureau may consider conducting additional studies on consumer arbitration pursuant to Dodd-Frank section 1028(a) for the purpose of evaluating whether further rulemaking would be in the public interest and for the protection of consumers; improving its consumer education tools; or, where appropriate, undertaking enforcement or supervisory actions.
The Bureau notes that the question of whether the use of individual arbitration in consumer finance cases is in the public interest and for the protection of consumers is discrete from the question of whether some covered persons are engaged in unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices in connection with their individual arbitration agreements. The Bureau intends to use its supervisory and enforcement authority as appropriate to evaluate whether specific practices in relation to arbitration—such as the use of particular provisions in agreements or particular arbitral procedures—constitute unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts and practices pursuant to Dodd-Frank section 1031. The Bureau will pay particular attention to any provisions in arbitration agreements that might function in such a way as to deprive consumers of their ability to pursue their claims in arbitration. For example, in certain circumstances, an agreement that requires consumers to resolve disputes, in arbitration or otherwise, in person in a particular location regardless of the consumer's location could violate Dodd-Frank section 1031. In certain circumstances, requiring consumers to resolve claims in a systematically biased forum or before a biased decision-maker, in a forum that does not exist, or in a forum that does not have a procedure to allow a consumer to bring a claim could similarly violate Dodd-Frank section 1031. The Bureau is actively monitoring the use of such practices that may function in such a way as to deprive consumers of their ability to pursue their claims in arbitration and will continue to evaluate them in accordance with all applicable law and the full extent of the Bureau's authorities.
Consumer advocates and some other stakeholders have expressed concern that a proposal under consideration similar to proposed § 1040.4(b) that the Bureau described in its SBREFA Outline would allow the Bureau to monitor certain arbitration trends, but not to monitor or quantify the claims that consumers may have been deterred from filing because of the existence of a pre-dispute arbitration agreement. In particular, consumer advocates and some other stakeholders have expressed concern that pre-dispute arbitration agreements discourage consumers from filing claims in court or in arbitration and discourage attorneys from representing consumers in such proceedings. Consumer attorneys have noted, for example, that arbitration does not allow them to file cases that can develop the law (because the outcomes are usually private and do not have precedential effect) and, thus, they are wary of expending limited resources.
Proposed comment 4(b)-1 would clarify that, to comply with the submission requirement in proposed § 1040.4(b), providers would not be required to submit the records themselves if they arranged for another person, such as an arbitration administrator or an agent of the provider, to submit the records on the providers' behalf. Proposed comment 4(b)-1 would also make clear, however, that the obligation to comply with proposed § 1040.4(b) nevertheless remains on the provider and, thus, the provider must ensure that such person submits the records in accordance with proposed § 1040.4(b). This proposed comment anticipates that arbitration administrators may choose to provide this service to providers.
The Bureau seeks comment on its approach to arbitration agreements generally and all aspects of its proposal to collect certain arbitral records. The Bureau further seeks comment on known and potential consumer harms in individual arbitration. In particular, it seeks comment on whether it should consider fewer, more, or different restrictions on individual arbitration, whether it should prohibit individual arbitration altogether and whether it has accurately assessed the harm to consumers that occurs when covered
The Bureau intends to publish arbitral records collected pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(1). The Bureau is considering whether to publish such records individually or in the form of aggregated data. Prior to publishing such records, the Bureau would ensure that they are redacted, or that the data is aggregated, in accordance with applicable law, including Dodd-Frank section 1022(c)(8), which requires the Bureau to “take steps to ensure that proprietary, personal, or confidential consumer information that is protected from public disclosure under [the Freedom of Information Act or the Privacy Act] . . . is not made public under this title.”
The Bureau seeks comment on the publication of the records that would be required to be submitted by proposed § 1040.4(b)(1), including whether it should limit any publication based on consumer privacy concerns arising out of the publication of such records after their redaction pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(3) or if providers would have other confidentiality concerns. In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on whether it should publish arbitral records individually or in the form of aggregated data.
The Bureau also seeks comment on whether there are alternatives to publication by the Bureau—such as publication by other entities—that would further the purposes of publication described above.
During the Small Business Review Panel process, the SERs expressed some concern about the indirect costs of requiring submission of arbitral claims and awards to the Bureau, such as whether the requirement might cause the cost of arbitration administration to increase and whether it might require companies to devote employee resources to redacting consumers' confidential information before submission. The SERs also expressed concern about the possibility of the Bureau publishing arbitral claims and awards (as was set forth in the SBREFA Outline) due to perceived risks to consumer privacy, impacts on their companies' reputation, and fear that publication of data regarding claims and awards might not present a representative picture of arbitration.
In response to these and other concerns raised by the SERs, the Panel recommended that the Bureau seek comment on whether the publication of claims and awards would present a representative picture of arbitration. The Panel also recommended that the Bureau continue to assess whether and by how much the proposal to require submission of arbitral records would increase the costs of arbitration including administrative fees or covered entities' time. In addition, the Panel recommended that the Bureau consider the privacy and reputational impacts of publishing claims and awards for both the businesses and consumers involved in the dispute. The Bureau appreciates the SERs' concern about privacy risks and has sought to mitigate these risks by proposing the redaction requirements in proposed § 1040.4(b)(3), described below. The Bureau understands the SERs' concerns that publishing certain arbitral records could affect companies' reputations or paint an unrepresentative picture of arbitration (for example, by publishing awards, but not settlements). However, the Bureau notes that published court opinions also have this effect (in that settlements are typically not public), and the Bureau is not aware of any distinctions specific to arbitration in this respect. The Bureau has considered several aspects of the costs of its proposed submission requirement in its Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, below. However, the Bureau continues to assess each of these issues and believes public comment would assist the Bureau in its assessment. Consistent with the SERs' recommendation, the Bureau seeks comment on each of the above issues.
As stated above, proposed § 1040.4(b) would require that, for any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date, providers submit a copy of the arbitration records specified by proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i) would require, in connection with any claim filed by or against the provider in arbitration pursuant to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date, that providers submit (A) the initial claim form and any counterclaim; (B) the pre-dispute arbitration agreement filed with the arbitrator or administrator; (C) the judgment or award, if any, issued by the arbitrator or arbitration administrator; and (D) if an arbitrator or arbitration administrator refuses to administer or dismisses a claim due to the provider's failure to pay required filing or administrative fees, any communication the provider receives from the arbitrator or an arbitration administrator related to such a refusal.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(A) would require providers to submit any initial claims filed in arbitration pursuant to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement and any counterclaims. By “initial claim,” the Bureau means the filing that initiates the arbitration, such as the initial claim form or demand for arbitration. The Bureau believes that collecting claims would permit the Bureau to monitor arbitrations on an ongoing basis and identify trends in arbitration proceedings, such as changes in the frequency with which claims are filed, the subject matter of the claims, and who is filing the claims. Based on the Bureau's expertise in handling and monitoring consumer complaints as well as monitoring private litigation, the monitoring of claims would also help the Bureau identify business practices that harm consumers. The Bureau seeks comment on its proposal to require submission of claims. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether further clarification of the meaning of “claim,” either in proposed § 1040.2 or in commentary, would be helpful to providers. In addition, the Bureau also seeks comment on whether it should collect the response by the opposing party, if any, in addition to the claim. The Bureau further seeks comment on whether providers would encounter
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(B) would require providers to submit, in connection with any claim filed in arbitration by or against the provider, the pre-dispute arbitration agreement filed with the arbitrator or arbitration administrator. The Bureau notes that, due to concerns relating to burden on providers and the Bureau itself, the Bureau is not proposing to collect all pre-dispute arbitration agreements that are provided to consumers. Instead, it is proposing only to require submission in the event an arbitration filing occurs.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(C) would require providers to submit the judgment or award, if any, issued by the arbitrator or arbitration administrator in an arbitration subject to proposed § 1040.4(b). This proposed requirement would be intended to reach only awards issued by an arbitrator that resolve an arbitration and not settlement agreements where they are not incorporated into an award. The Bureau believes that the proposed submission of these awards would aid the Bureau in its ongoing review of arbitration and help the Bureau assess whether arbitrations are being conducted fairly and without bias. The Bureau seeks comment on this aspect of the proposal and on whether it should consider requiring the submission of records that are not awards but that also close arbitration files.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(D) would apply where an arbitrator or arbitration administrator refuses to administer or dismisses a claim due to the provider's failure to pay required filing or administrative fees. If this occurs, proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(D) would require the provider to submit any communication the provider receives from the arbitration administrator related to such a refusal or dismissal. With regard to communications relating to nonpayment of fees, the Bureau understands that arbitrators or administrators, as the case may be, typically refuse to administer an arbitration proceeding if filing or administrative fees are not paid. The Bureau understands that arbitrators or administrators will typically send a letter to the parties indicating that the arbitration has been suspended due to nonpayment of fees.
Where providers successfully move to compel a case to arbitration (and obtain its dismissal in court), but then fail to pay the arbitration fees, consumers may be left unable to pursue their claims. The Study identified at least 50 instances of such non-payment of fees by companies in cases filed by consumers.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(D) would require providers to submit communications from arbitration administrators related to the dismissal or refusal to administer a claim for nonpayment of fees even when such nonpayment is the result of a settlement between the provider and the consumer. The Bureau believes this requirement would prevent providers who are engaging in strategic non-payment of arbitration fees to claim, in bad faith, ongoing settlement talks to avoid the disclosure to the Bureau of communications regarding their non-payment. The Bureau anticipates that companies submitting communications pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(D) could indicate in their submission that nonpayment resulted from settlement and not from a tactical maneuver to prevent a consumer from pursuing the consumer's claim. Further, as stated above in the discussion of proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(i)(C), the Bureau would not be requiring submission of the underlying settlement agreement or notification that a settlement has occurred.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(D). In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on the submission of communications from arbitration administrators related to the dismissal or refusal to administer a claim for nonpayment of fees even when such nonpayment is the result of a settlement between the provider and the consumer, including whether doing so would serve the policy goal of discouraging non-payment of arbitral fees by providers. The Bureau also seeks comment on the impact such a requirement would have on providers.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(ii) would require providers to submit to the Bureau any communication the provider receives from an arbitrator or arbitration administrator related to a determination that a provider's pre-dispute arbitration agreement that is entered into after the compliance date for a consumer financial product or service covered by proposed § 1040.3 does not comply with the administrator's fairness principles, rules, or similar requirements, if such a determination occurs. The Bureau is concerned about providers' use of arbitration agreements that may violate arbitration administrators' fairness principles or rules. Several of the leading arbitration administrators maintain fairness principles or rules, which the administrators use to assess the fairness of the company's pre-dispute arbitration agreement.
The Bureau believes that requiring submission of communications from administrators concerning agreements that do not comply with arbitration administrators' fairness principles or rules would allow the Bureau to monitor which providers could be attempting to harm consumers or discourage the filing of claims in arbitration by mandating that disputes be resolved through unfair pre-dispute arbitration agreements. The Bureau also believes that requiring submission of such communications could further discourage covered entities from inserting pre-dispute arbitration agreements in consumer contracts that do not meet arbitrator fairness principles. The Bureau notes that, pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(ii), communications that the provider receives would include communications sent directly to the provider as well as those sent to a consumer or a third party where the provider receives a copy.
Proposed comment 4(b)(1)(ii)-1 would clarify that, in contrast to the other records the Bureau proposes to collect under proposed § 1040.4(b)(1), proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(ii) would require the submission of communications both when the determination occurs in connection with the filing of a claim in arbitration as well as when it occurs if no claim has been filed. Proposed comment 4(b)(1)(ii)-1 would state further that, if such a determination occurs with respect to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement that the provider does not enter into with a consumer, submission of any communication related to that determination is not required. The Bureau understands that providers may submit pre-dispute arbitration agreements to administrators, which review such agreements for compliance with rules even where an arbitral claim has not been filed.
Proposed comment 4(b)(1)(ii)-2 would clarify that what constitutes an administrator's fairness principles or rules pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(ii)(B) should be interpreted broadly. That comment would further provide current examples of such principles or rules, including the AAA's Consumer Due Process Protocol and the JAMS Policy on Consumer Arbitrations Pursuant to Pre-Dispute Clauses Minimum Standards of Procedural Fairness.
The Bureau seeks comment on proposed § 1040.4(b)(1)(ii)(B) and proposed comments 4(b)(1)(ii)(B)-1 and -2. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether these provisions would encourage providers to comply with their arbitration administrators' fairness principles or rules. In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on whether there are other examples of fairness principles the Bureau should list or concerns regarding the principles that the Bureau has proposed to list as examples.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(2) would state that a provider shall submit any record required by proposed § 1040.4(b)(1) within 60 days of filing by the provider of any such record with the arbitration administrator and within 60 days of receipt by the provider of any such record filed or sent by someone other than the provider, such as the arbitration administrator or the consumer. The Bureau proposes a 60-day period for submitting records to the Bureau to allow providers a sufficient amount of time to comply with these requirements. The Bureau proposes what it believes is a relatively lengthy deadline because it expects that providers will continue to face arbitrations infrequently,
The Bureau also notes that, as proposed comment 4(b)-1 indicates, providers would comply with proposed § 1040.4(b) if another person, such as an arbitration administrator, submits the specified records directly to the Bureau on the provider's behalf, although the provider would be responsible for ensuring that the person submits the records in accordance with proposed § 1040.4(b).
This proposed 60-day period is consistent with feedback the Bureau received from the SERs during the Small Business Review panel process who expressed concern that a short deadline might burden companies given the relative infrequency of arbitration and, thus, their potential unfamiliarity with this particular requirement. The Bureau seeks comment on whether 60 days would be a sufficient period for providers to comply with the requirements of proposed § 1040.4(b).
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(3) would require providers to redact certain specific types of information that can be used to directly identify consumers before submitting arbitral records to the Bureau pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(1). The Bureau endeavors to protect the privacy of consumer information. Additionally, as discussed more fully above, the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(b), in part, pursuant to its authority under Dodd-Frank section 1022(c)(4), which provides that the Bureau may not obtain information “for the purpose of gathering or analyzing the personally identifiable financial information of consumers.” The Bureau has no intention of gathering or analyzing information that directly identifies consumers. At the same time, the Bureau seeks to minimize the burden on providers by providing clear instructions for redaction.
Accordingly, the Bureau proposes § 1040.4(b)(3), which would require that providers, before submitting arbitral records to the Bureau pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b), redact nine specific types of information that directly identify consumers. The Bureau believes that these nine items would be easy for providers to identify and, therefore, that redacting them would
Pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b)(3)(i) through (v), the Bureau would require providers to redact names of individuals, except for the name of the provider or arbitrator where either is an individual; addresses of individuals, excluding city, State, and zip code; email addresses of individuals; telephone numbers of individuals; and photographs of individuals from any arbitral records submitted to the Bureau. The Bureau notes that, with the exception of the names of providers or arbitrators where either are individuals, information related to
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(3)(ii) would require redaction of street addresses of individuals, but not city, State, and zip code. The Bureau believes that collecting such high-level location information for arbitral records could, among other things, help the Bureau match the consumer's location to the arbitral forum's location in order to monitor issues such as whether consumers are being required to arbitrate in remote fora, and assist the Bureau in identifying any local or regional patterns in consumer harm as well as arbitration activity. The Bureau believes that collecting city, State, and zip code would pose limited privacy risk and that any residual risk would be balanced by the benefit derived from collecting this information.
Proposed § 1040.4(b)(3)(vi) through (ix) would require redaction from any arbitral records submitted to the Bureau, of account numbers; social security and tax identification numbers; driver's license and other government identification numbers; and passport numbers. These redaction requirements would not be limited to information for individual persons because the Bureau believes that the privacy of any account numbers, social security, or tax identification numbers should be maintained, to the extent they may be included in arbitral records.
The Bureau notes that it is not broadly proposing to require providers to redact all types of information that could be deemed to be personally identifiable financial information (PIFI). Because Federal law prescribes an open-ended definition of PIFI,
The Bureau seeks comment on its approach of requiring these redactions and on the burden to providers of this redaction requirement. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether it should require redaction of a consumer's city, State, and zip code, in addition to the consumer's street address. In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on whether it should require redaction of any additional types of consumer information, including other types of information that may be considered PIFI and that are likely to be present in the arbitral records. The Bureau further seeks comment on whether any of the items described in proposed § 1040.4(b)(3)(i) through (ix), such as “account number,” should be further defined or clarified. Finally, the Bureau also seeks comment on whether the scope of any of the items should be expanded; for example, whether “passport number” should be expanded to include the entire passport.
Proposed § 1040.5 would set forth the compliance date for part 1040 as well as a limited and temporary exception to compliance with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) for certain consumer financial products and services.
Dodd-Frank section 1028(d) provides that any regulation prescribed by the Bureau under section 1028(b) shall apply to any agreement between a consumer and a covered person entered into after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the effective date of the regulation, as established by the Bureau. The Bureau interprets the statutory language “shall apply to any agreement . . . entered into after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the effective date” to mean that the proposed rule may apply beginning on the 181st day after the effective date, as this day would be the first day “after the end of the 180-day period beginning on the effective date of the regulation.” The Bureau proposes that the proposed rule establish an effective date of 30 days after publication of a final rule in the
The Bureau believes that stating in the regulatory text the specific date on which the rule would begin to apply and adopting a user-friendly term such as “compliance date” for this date would improve understanding among providers of their obligations, and consumers of their rights, under the rule. As such, proposed § 1040.5(a) would state that compliance with this part is required for any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the date that is 211 days after publication of the rule in the
The Bureau expects that most providers, with the exception of providers that would be covered by proposed § 1040.5(b), discussed below, would be able to comply with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) by the 211th day after publication of a final rule. Typically, contracts that contain pre-dispute arbitration agreements are standalone documents provided in hard copy or electronic form. These contracts are provided to the consumer at the time of contracting by either the provider or a third party (for example, a grocery store where a consumer can send remittances through a remittance transfer provider). The Bureau believes that, for all providers—except those that would be covered by the temporary exception in proposed § 1040.5(b)—a 211-day period would give providers sufficient time to revise their agreements to comply with proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) (and to make any other changes required by the rule)
As noted above, the Bureau proposes a 30-day effective date. The Bureau has chosen 30 days based on the Administrative Procedure Act, which requires that, with certain enumerated exceptions, a substantive rule be published in the
The Bureau seeks comment on whether a different formulation would provide greater clarity to providers and consumers as to when the rule's requirements would begin to apply. In addition, the Bureau seeks comment on whether a period of 211 days between publication of a final rule in the
As described above in the Section-by-Section Analysis to proposed § 1040.5(a), that provision would specify the rule's compliance date—the date on which the rule's requirements would begin to apply—and that such date would be 211 days after publication of a final rule in the
However, for certain products, there may be additional factors that would make compliance by the 211th day challenging. The Bureau has concerns about whether providers of certain types of prepaid cards would be able to ensure that only compliant products are offered for sale or provided to consumers after the compliance date. Prepaid cards are typically sold in an enclosed package that contains a card and a cardholder agreement. These packages are typically printed well in advance of sale and are distributed to consumers through third-party retailers such as drugstores, check cashing stores, and convenience stores.
For these reasons, proposed § 1040.5(b) would establish a limited exception from proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)'s requirement that the provider's pre-dispute arbitration agreement contain the specified provision by the compliance date. Proposed § 1040.5(b) would state that proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) shall not apply to a provider that enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a general-purpose reloadable prepaid card if certain conditions are met. For a provider that cannot contact the consumer in writing, proposed § 1040.5(b)(1) would set forth the following requirements: (1) The consumer acquires the card in person at a retail store; (2) the agreement was inside of packaging material when it was acquired; and (3) the agreement was packaged prior to the compliance date of the rule. For a provider that has the ability to contact the consumer in writing, proposed § 1040.5(b)(2) would require that the provider meet all of the requirements specified in proposed § 1040.5(b)(1) as well as one additional requirement; within 30 days of obtaining the consumer's contact information, the provider notifies the consumer in writing that the pre-dispute arbitration agreement complies with the requirements of proposed § 1040(a)(2) by providing an amended pre-dispute arbitration agreement to the consumer.
In the Bureau's view, this exception would permit prepaid card providers to avoid the considerable expense of pulling and replacing packages at retail stores while adequately informing consumers of their dispute resolution rights, where feasible, due to the notification requirement in proposed § 1040.5(b)(2). The Bureau notes that proposed § 1040.5(b)(2) would not impose on providers an obligation to obtain a consumer's contact information. Where providers
Proposed comment 5(b)(2)-1 would clarify that the 30-day period would not begin to elapse until the provider is able to contact the consumer. Proposed comment 5(b)(4)-1 would also provide illustrative examples of situations where the provider has the ability to contact the consumer, including when the provider obtains the consumer's mailing address or email address.
Importantly, providers who avail themselves of the exception in proposed § 1040.5(b) would still be required to comply with proposed § 1040.4(a)(1) and proposed § 1040.4(b) as of the compliance date. As such, providers who avail themselves of this exception would still be prohibited, as of the compliance date, from relying on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date with respect to any aspect of a class action concerning any of the consumer financial products or services covered by proposed § 1040.3, pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(a)(1). The amended pre-dispute arbitration agreement submitted by providers in accordance with proposed § 1040.5(b)(4) would be required to include the provision required by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(i) or the alternative permitted by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2)(ii). And providers would also still be required to submit certain arbitral records to the Bureau, pursuant to proposed § 1040.4(b), in connection
The Bureau seeks comment on whether the temporary exception in proposed § 1040.5(b) is needed, and, if so, on the exception as proposed. While the Bureau believes that the term “general-purpose-reloadable prepaid card” has an accepted meaning, the Bureau seeks comment on whether a definition of this term or additional clarification regarding its meaning would be helpful to providers. Additionally, the Bureau seeks comment on whether the exception should use a different term describing prepaid products. The Bureau also seeks comment on whether the proposed exception should be available to providers of other products—instead of, or in addition to, prepaid products—or whether the exception's coverage should not be limited based on product type, but based on other criteria.
The Bureau also seeks comment on whether requiring providers who take advantage of the exception in proposed § 1040.5(b) to make available a compliant pre-dispute arbitration agreement within 30 days after the provider becomes aware that the agreement has been provided to the consumer would be a feasible process for providers while also adequately protecting consumers. Further, the Bureau seeks comment on whether alternatives to the proposed exception would better accomplish the objectives of furthering consumer awareness of their dispute resolution rights and ensuring consumers receive accurate disclosures without imposing excessive costs on providers. One alternative, for example, could be for the Bureau to prohibit providers from selling non-compliant agreements after the compliance date, except for agreements that were printed prior to a specified number of days (such as 90 or 120 days) before the compliance date.
In developing this proposed rule, the Bureau has considered the potential benefits, costs, and impacts required by section 1022(b)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act. Specifically, section 1022(b)(2) calls for the Bureau to consider the potential benefits and costs of a regulation to consumers and covered persons (which in this case would be the providers subject to the proposed rule), including the potential reduction of access by consumers to consumer financial products or services, the impact on depository institutions and credit unions with $10 billion or less in total assets as described in section 1026 of the Dodd-Frank Act, and the impact on consumers in rural areas.
The Bureau requests comment on the preliminary analysis presented below as well as submissions of additional data that could inform the Bureau's analysis of the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed rule. The Bureau has consulted, or offered to consult with, the prudential regulators, the Federal Housing Finance Agency, the Federal Trade Commission, the U.S. Department of Agriculture, the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, the U.S. Commodities Futures Trading Commission, the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, and the Federal Communications Commission including consultation regarding consistency with any prudential, market, or systemic objectives administered by such agencies.
The Bureau has chosen to consider the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed provisions as compared to the status quo in which some, but not all, consumer financial products or services providers in the affected markets (see proposed § 1040.2(c), defining the entities covered by this rule as “providers”) use arbitration agreements.
The Bureau invites comment on all aspects of the data that it has used to analyze the potential benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed provisions.
In this analysis, the Bureau focuses on the benefits, costs, and impacts of the main aspects of the proposed rule: (1) The requirement that providers with arbitration agreements include a provision in the arbitration agreements they enter into in the future stating that the arbitration agreement cannot be invoked in class litigation; and (2) the
The effect of the proposal on arbitration of individual disputes, both the indirect effect of the class provision discussed above and the direct effect of provisions that would require the reporting of certain arbitral records to the Bureau for monitoring purposes, is relatively minor. The Bureau is aware of only several hundred consumers participating in such disputes each year and the Bureau does not expect a sizable increase, regardless of whether the proposed rule is finalized.
Providers that currently use arbitration agreements can be divided into two categories. The first category is comprised of providers that currently include arbitration agreements in contracts they make with consumers. For these providers, which constitute the vast majority of providers using arbitration agreements, the Bureau believes that the proposed class rule would result in the change from virtually no exposure to class litigation to at least as much exposure as is currently faced by those providers with similar products or services that do not use arbitration agreements.
The second category includes providers that invoke arbitration agreements contained in consumers' contracts with another person. This category includes, for example, debt collectors and servicers who, when sued by a consumer, invoke an arbitration agreement contained in the original contract formed between the original provider and the consumer. For these providers, the additional class litigation exposure caused by the proposed rule would be somewhat less than the increase in exposure for providers of the first type because the providers in this second category are not currently uniformly able to rely on arbitration agreements in their current operations. For example, debt collectors typically collect both from consumers whose contracts with their original creditor contain arbitration agreements and from consumers whose contracts with their original creditor do not contain arbitration agreements. Thus, these debt collectors already face class litigation risk, but if the proposal were adopted, this risk would be increased, at most, in proportion to the fraction of the providers' consumers whose contracts contain arbitration agreements.
The analysis below applies to both types of providers. For additional clarity and to avoid unnecessary duplication, the discussion is generally framed in terms of the first type of provider (which faces virtually no exposure to class claims today), unless otherwise noted. The Bureau estimates below the number of additional Federal class actions and putative class proceedings that are not settled on a class basis for both types of provider.
Before considering the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed provisions on consumers and covered persons, as required by Section 1022(b)(2), the Bureau believes it may be useful to provide the economic framework through which it is considering those factors in order to more fully inform the rulemaking, and in particular to describe the market failure that is the basis for the proposed rule.
While the Bureau assumes that the underlying laws are addressing a range of market failures, it also recognizes that compliance with these underlying laws requires some costs. There are out-of-pocket costs required to,
The Bureau believes, based on its knowledge and expertise, that the current incentives to comply are weaker than the economically efficient levels. It further believes that conditions are such that this implies that the economic costs of increased compliance (due to the additional incentives provided by the proposed rule) are justified by the economic benefits of this increased compliance. If these conditions do not hold in particular cases, the increased compliance due to the proposed rule would likely lower economic welfare. The data and methodologies available to the Bureau do not allow for an economic analysis of these premises on a law-by-law basis.
The Study shows that class litigation is currently the most effective private enforcement mechanism for most claims in markets for consumer financial products or services in providing monetary incentives (including forgone profits due to in-kind or injunctive relief) for providers to comply with the law.
The relative efficacy of class litigation—as compared to individual dispute resolution, either in courts or in front of an arbitrator—in achieving these incentives is not surprising. As discussed in Part VI, the potential legal harm per consumer arising from violations of law by providers of consumer financial products or services is frequently low in monetary terms. Moreover, consumers are often unaware that they may have suffered legal harm. For any individual, the monetary compensation a consumer could receive if successful will often not be justified by the costs (including time) of engaging in any formal dispute resolution process even when a consumer strongly suspects that a legal harm might have occurred. This is confirmed by the Study's nationally representative survey of consumers.
The Bureau's economic framework also takes into account other incentives that may cause providers to conform their conduct to the law; there are at least two other important mechanisms, which are both described here. The first incentive is the economic value for the provider to maintain a positive reputation with its customers, which will create an incentive to comply with the law to the extent such compliance is correlated with the provider's reputation. As the Study shows, many consumers might consider switching to a competitor if the consumer is not satisfied with a particular provider's performance.
However, economic theory suggests that these other incentives (including reputation and public enforcement) are insufficient to achieve optimal compliance (again, assuming that the current levels of compliance are below those that would be economically efficient),
Reputation concerns will create the incentive for a firm to comply with the law only to the extent legally compliant or non-compliant conduct would be visible to consumers and affect the consumer's desire to keep doing business with the firm, and even then, with a lag.
Economic theory also suggests that regardless of whether relief is warranted under the law, the provider has a relatively strong incentive to correct issues only for the consumers who complain directly about particular practices to the provider—as those are the consumers for whom the provider's reputation is most at risk—and less of an incentive to correct the same issues for other consumers who do not raise them or who may be unaware that the practices are occurring. Accordingly, the providers' incentive to comply due to reputational concerns is, in part, driven by the fraction of consumers who could become aware of the issue. In addition, with such informal dispute resolution, correcting issues for a particular
Furthermore, economic theory suggests that providers will decide how to resolve informal complaints by weighing the expected profitability of the consumer who raises the complaint against the probability that the consumer will indeed stop patronizing the provider, rather than legal merit per se. In the Bureau's experience, some companies implement this through profitability models which are used to cabin the discretion of customer service representatives in resolving individual disputes. Indeed, providers may be more willing to resolve disputes favorably for profitable consumers even in cases where the disputes do not have a legal basis, than for non-profitable consumers with serious legal claims. Thus, reputation incentives do not always coincide with complying with the law.
Public enforcement could theoretically bring some of the same cases that are not going to be brought by private enforcement absent the proposed rule. However, public enforcement resources are limited relative to the thousands of firms in consumer financial markets. Public enforcement resources also focus only on certain types of claims (for instance, violations of state and Federal consumer protection statutes but not the parties' underlying contracts).
The Bureau has considered arguments that arbitration agreements provide a sufficiently strong incentive to providers to address consumers' concerns and obviate the need to strengthen private enforcement mechanisms. One reason suggested is that many such agreements contain fee-shifting provisions that require providers to pay consumers' up front filing fees.
As noted above, however, there is little if any empirical support for such an argument. The Bureau has only been able to document several hundred consumers per year actually filing arbitration claims,
Additionally, the Bureau believes that this argument is flawed conceptually as well. The Bureau disagrees that, even for consumers who are aware of the legal harm, the presence of arbitration agreements changes many negative-value individual legal claims into positive-value arbitrations and, in turn, creates additional incentives for providers to resolve matters internally. Notably, consumers weigh several other costs before engaging in any individual dispute resolution process, including arbitration. It still takes time for a consumer to learn about the process, to prepare for the process, and to go through the process. There is also still a risk of losing and, if so, of possibly having initial filing fees shifted back to the consumer.
In addition, where arbitration agreements exist, consumers are still, in practice, more likely to use formal dispute resolution mechanisms (including small claims courts) than arbitration, and this suggests that arbitration does not turn negative-value claims positive.
In general, if the extant laws were adopted to solve some other underlying market failures, it means that, by definition, the market could not resolve these failures on its own. Therefore, given the Bureau's assumptions outlined above, a practice (arbitration agreements that can be invoked in class litigation) that lowers providers' incentive to follow these laws is a market failure since it allows the underlying market failures to reappear. The providers (and the market in general) are unable (do not find it profitable) to resolve this market failure for the same reasons (and frequently additional other reasons) that the providers could not (did not find it profitable to) solve the underlying market failures in the first place.
The proposed rule would require providers to include language in their arbitration agreements stating that the agreement cannot be used to block a class action with respect to those consumer financial products and services that would be covered by the
In this Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, the Bureau abides by standard economic practice, and omits non-economic considerations which the Bureau considers above in Part VI (the Findings). In standard economic practice, individuals' well-being results primarily from tangible impacts and is affected by direct costs or payments, changes in behavior, and so on. Conceptually, it also includes less concrete impacts on individuals, such as their “degree of aesthetic fulfillment, their feelings for others, or anything else they might value, however intangible.”
To take one example specific to this rulemaking, the economic conception of well-being would count any value that consumers derive from perceiving class settlements as indications that justice is being served and the rule of law is being upheld, but it would not recognize as an economic benefit any value to society at large from justice being served.
Another example would be the impact on some consumers of lost privacy that could result when providers would be required to send redacted arbitration records about them to the Bureau. Unlike the impact on consumers when their data becomes public in a data breach, the impact of the lost privacy that the proposed rule could create is generally something that, if it exists, the Bureau does not have the ability to assess meaningfully, especially given the nature of the proposed redactions. And, as discussed above with the value that consumers may derive from the rule of law being upheld, the Bureau is unaware of any applicable studies that would allow the Bureau to assess the strength of this privacy value.
Accordingly, while as discussed in Part VI above, the Bureau believes that the proposal is in public interest due, in part, to reinforcing the rule of law, the discussion in this section considers the standard economic concept of individual well-being and focuses in particular on more tangible impacts on individual consumers and providers that are readily ascertainable in the framework under which the Bureau is assessing the costs and benefits of the proposed rule for purposes of this Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis.
As discussed above, class litigation exposure provides a deterrence incentive to providers, above and beyond other incentives they may have to comply with the law. So long as the level of class litigation exposure is related to the level of providers' compliance with laws (that is, so long as class litigation is not brought randomly without regard to the level of compliance and thus is meritless in general), providers would want to ensure more compliance than if there was no threat of class litigation.
At least two sources might inform a provider's determination of its profit-maximizing level of compliance in a regime in which there is potential class action exposure for non-compliance. First, the potential exposure can cause a provider to devote increased resources to monitoring and evaluating compliance, which can in turn lead the provider to determine that its compliance is not sufficient given the risk of litigation. Second, the potential exposure to class litigation can cause a provider to monitor and react to class litigation or enforcement actions (that could result in class litigation) against its competitors, regardless of whether the provider previously believed that its compliance was sufficient.
A class settlement could result in three types of relief to consumers: (1) Cash relief (monetary payments to consumers); (2) in-kind relief (free or discounted access to a service); and (3) injunctive relief (a commitment by the defendant to alter its behavior prospectively, including the commitment to stop a particular practice or follow the law).
When a class action is settled, the payment from the provider to consumers is intended to compensate class members for injuries suffered as a result of actions asserted to be in violation of the law and is a benefit to
Much of the discussion above also applies to in-kind and injunctive relief. In-kind relief is intended to compensate class members for injuries suffered as a result of actions asserted to be in violation of the law in ways other than by directly providing them with money. Injunctive relief is typically intended to stop or alter the defendant's practices that were asserted to be in violation of law. Both forms of relief benefit consumers. However, this benefit to consumers is also frequently a cost to providers (
Unlike with monetary relief, however, the benefits to consumers of in-kind and injunctive relief may not be a mirror image of the costs to providers, and the cost of providing the relief might be lower than consumer's value of receiving the relief.
The proposed class rule would mandate that providers with arbitration agreements include a provision in their future contracts stating that the provider cannot use the arbitration agreement to block a class action. This administrative change would require providers to incur expenses to change their contracts going forward, and amend contracts they acquire or provide a notice.
Given that providers using arbitration agreements have chosen to do so and would be limited in their ability to continue doing so by the proposed rule, these providers are unlikely to experience many notable benefits from the Bureau's proposed rule.
Providers' costs correspond directly to the three aforementioned effects of the proposed rule: (1) Providers would experience costs to the extent they act on additional incentives for ensuring more compliance with the law; (2) providers would spend more to the extent that the exposure to additional class litigation materializes into additional litigation; and (3) providers would incur a one-time administrative change cost or ongoing amendment or notices costs. The Bureau considers each of these effects in turn. To the extent providers would pass these costs through to consumers, providers' costs
Persons exposed to class litigation have a significant monetary incentive to avoid class litigation. The proposed rule would prohibit providers from using arbitration agreements to limit their exposure to class litigation. As a result, providers may attempt to lower their class litigation exposure (both the probability of being sued and the magnitude of the case if sued) in a multitude of other ways. All of these ways of lowering class litigation exposure would likely require incurring expenses or forgoing profits. The investments in (or the costs of) avoiding class litigation described below, and other types of investments for the same purpose, would likely be enhanced by monitoring the market and noting class litigation settlements by the competitors, as well as actions by regulators. Providers would also likely seek to resolve any uncertainty regarding the necessary level of compliance by observing the outcomes of such litigation. These investments might also reduce providers' exposure to public enforcement.
The Bureau has previously attempted to research the costs of complying with Federal consumer financial laws as a general matter, and found that providers themselves often lack the data on compliance costs.
The Bureau believes that, as a general matter, the proposed rule would increase some providers' incentives to invest in additional compliance. The Bureau believes that the additional investment would be significant, but cannot predict precisely what proportion of firms in particular markets would undertake which specific investments (or forgo which specific activities) described below.
However, economic theory offers general predictions on the direction and determinants of this effect. Whether and how much a particular provider would invest in compliance would likely depend on the perceived marginal benefits and marginal costs of investment. For example, if the provider believes that it is highly unlikely to be subject to class litigation and that even then the amount at stake is low (or the provider is willing to file for bankruptcy if necessary to ward off a case), then the incentive to invest is low. Conversely, if the provider believes that it is highly likely to be subject to class litigation and that the amount at stake would be large if it is sued, then the incentive to invest is high.
Providers' calculus on whether and how much to invest in compliance may also be affected by the degree of uncertainty over whether a given practice is against the law, as well as the size of the stakes. Where uncertainty levels are very high and providers do not believe that they can be reduced by seeking guidance from legal counsel or regulators or by forgoing a risky practice that creates the uncertainty, providers may have less incentive to invest in lowering class litigation exposure under the logic that such actions will not make any difference in light of the residual uncertainty about the underlying law. In the limit, if a provider believes that class litigation is completely unrelated to compliance, then the provider will rationally not invest in lowering class litigation exposure at all: the deterrence effect is going to be absent. Nonetheless, the Bureau believes that many providers know that class litigation is indeed related to their actual compliance with the law and adherence to their contracts with consumers.
Providers who decide to make compliance investments might take a variety of specific actions with different cost implications. First, providers might spend more on general compliance management. For example, upon the effective date of the rule, if finalized, a provider might decide to go through a one-time review of its policies and procedures and staff training materials to minimize the risks of future class litigation exposure. This review might result in revisions to policies and additional staff training. There might also be an ongoing component of costs arising from periodic review of policies and procedures and regularly updated training for employees, as well as third-party service providers, to mitigate conduct that could create exposure to class litigation.
Second, providers might incur costs due to changes in the consumer financial products or services themselves. For example, a provider might conclude that a particular feature of a product makes the provider more susceptible to class litigation, and therefore decide to remove that feature from the product or to disclose the feature more transparently, possibly resulting in additional costs or decreased revenue. Similarly, a provider might update its product features based on external information, such as actions against the provider's competitors by either regulators or private actors. The ongoing component could also include changes to the general product design process. Product design could consume more time and expense due to additional rounds of legal and compliance review. The additional
Some of the compliance changes that providers might make are relatively inexpensive changes in business processes that nonetheless are less likely to occur in the absence of class litigation exposure. Three examples of such investments in compliance follow. First, under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, debt collectors are not allowed to contact a consumer at an unusual time or place which the collector knows or should know to be inconvenient to the consumer.
As a second example, consider a bank stopping an Automated Clearing House (ACH) payment to a third party at a consumer's request. While important to a consumer, absent the possibility of class litigation, the bank's primary incentive to ensure that the ACH payment is discontinued is to maintain a positive reputation with this particular consumer.
The third example is a creditor sending a consumer an adverse action notice explaining the reasons for denial of a credit application.
Additional investments in compliance are unlikely to eliminate additional class litigation completely, at least for some providers.
To provide an estimate of costs related to class settlements of incremental class litigation that would be permitted to proceed under the proposed rule, the Bureau developed estimates using the data underlying the Study's analysis of Federal class settlements over five years (2008-12), the Study's analysis of arbitration agreement prevalence, and additional data on arbitration agreement prevalence collected by the Bureau through outreach to trade associations in several markets during the development of this proposal.
To estimate the impact of the rule the Bureau used the Study data to estimate the percentage of providers in each market with an arbitration agreement today. The Bureau assumed that the class settlements that occurred involved providers without an arbitration agreement. The Bureau was then able to calculate the incidence and magnitude of class action settlements for those providers in each market and use these calculations to estimate the impact of the proposed rule going forward in each market if the providers who currently have arbitration agreements were no longer insulated from class actions.
The Bureau's estimation of additional Federal class litigation costs is based upon the set of Federal class settlements analyzed in the Study, with adjustments to align those data with the scope of the proposed rule, which is somewhat narrower.
The resulting set of 312 cases used to estimate impact of the proposed rule on Federal class litigation are identified in Appendix A hereto, along with a list of the 117 excluded cases described above in Appendix B. The Bureau notes that the total amount of payments and attorney's fees—the two statistics that the Bureau uses for its estimates in this Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis—for the 312 cases are not materially different than the totals for the aforementioned cases from the 419 used in the Study. That is largely a function of the fact that the additions and subtractions were for the most part relatively small class actions that did not contribute materially to the amount of aggregate gross or net relief.
With regard to the Bureau's estimations overall, the accuracy of the estimates is limited by the difficulty that often arises in data analysis of disentangling causation and correlation, namely unobserved factors than can affect multiple outcomes. As noted above, the core assumptions underlying the Bureau's estimates are that the settlements identified in the Study were all brought against providers without an arbitration agreement and that providers with arbitration agreements affected by the rule would be subject to class settlements to the same extent as providers without arbitration agreements today. The first assumption is a conservative one: It is likely that some of the settlements involved providers with arbitration agreements that they either chose not to invoke or failed to invoke successfully, in which event the Bureau's incidence estimates here are overstated. On the other hand, similar to issues discussed above with regard to estimating compliance-related expenditures, it may be that some other underlying factor (such as a general difference in risk tolerance and management philosophy) might prompt providers that use arbitration agreements today to take a different approach to underlying business practices and product structures than providers who otherwise appear similar but have never used arbitration agreements. This might make providers who use arbitration agreements today more prone to class litigation than providers who do not, and increase both the costs to providers and benefits to consumers discussed below.
The Bureau also generally assumed for purposes of the estimation that litigation data from 2008 to 2012 were representative of an average five-year period. However, the Bureau recognizes that the Bureau's own creation in 2010 may have increased incentives for some providers to increase compliance investments, although it did not begin enforcement actions until 2012. To the extent that the existence and work of the Bureau, including its supervisory activity and enforcement actions, increased compliance since 2010 in the markets the proposed rule would affect, the estimates of costs to providers and the benefits to consumers going forward would be overestimates.
To provide a more specific illustration of the Bureau's methodology, suppose for example that out of 1,000 providers in a particular market (NAICS code), 20 percent currently use arbitration agreements, and the Bureau found 40 class litigation settlements over five years. That implies that 800 providers (1,000—1,000 * 20 percent) did not use arbitration agreements and the overall exposure for these 800 providers was 40 cases total, for a rate of 5 percent (40/800) for five years. In turn, this implies that the 200 providers (1,000 * 20 percent) that currently use arbitration agreements would be expected to face, collectively, 10 class settlements in five years (200 * 5 percent), or 2 class settlements per year (10/5).
In the Study, the Bureau reports both the amount defendants agreed to provide as cash relief (gross cash relief) and the amount that public court filings established a defendant actually paid or was unconditionally obligated to pay to class members because of either submitted claims, an automatic distribution requirement, or a pro rata distribution with a fixed total amount (payments).
The Study documents relief provided to consumers and attorney's fees paid to attorneys for the consumers,
By reviewing the cases used in Section 8 of the Study, the Bureau documented lodestar multipliers in about 10 percent of the settlements. The average multiplier across those cases was 1.71, and thus the Bureau uses this number for calculations below.
The Bureau also notes that the estimates provided below are exclusively for the cost of additional Federal class litigation filings and settlements. The Bureau does not attempt to monetize the costs of additional state class litigation filings and settlements because limitations on the systems to search and retrieve state court cases precluded the Bureau from developing sufficient data on the size or costs of state court class action settlements. Based on the Study's analysis of cases filed, the Bureau believes that there is roughly the same number of class settlements in state courts as there is in Federal courts across affected markets;
In some markets, such as the payday loan market, there were Federal class settlements related to debt collection practices, which this Part classifies as relating to the debt collection market.
The Bureau estimates that the proposed rule would create class action exposure for about 53,000 providers (those who fall within the coverage of the proposed rule and currently have an arbitration agreement).
These numbers should be compared to the number of accounts across the affected markets. While the total number of all accounts across all markets is unavailable, there are, for example, hundreds of millions of accounts in the credit card market alone. Thus, averaged across all markets, the monetized estimates provided above amount to less than one dollar per account per year. However, this exposure could be higher for particular markets.
The Bureau believes that these providers would enter into a similar number of class settlements in state court; however, with markedly lower amounts paid out to consumers and attorneys on both sides. Many cases also feature in-kind relief.
The Bureau performed a similar analysis to estimate the number of cases that would be filed as putative class actions, but would not result in a class settlement. Based on the data used in the Study, the Bureau believes that roughly 17 percent of cases that are filed as class litigations end up settling on a classwide basis.
In order to estimate the costs associated with these incremental Federal putative class actions, the Bureau notes that the Study showed that an average case filed as a putative class action in Federal court takes roughly 2.5 times longer to resolve if it is settled as a class case than if it is resolved in any other way.
For the purposes of the first defense cost estimate, the Bureau assumed that putative class action cases that are not settled on a class basis (for whatever reason) cost 40 percent (1 divided by 2.5) less to litigate. Therefore, the Bureau estimated that these additional 501 Federal class cases that do not settle on a class basis would result in $76 million per year in defense costs to providers. The Bureau did not include in this estimate recovery amounts in these putative class cases that did not result in a class settlement, as the Bureau believes those are negligible amounts (for example, a few thousand dollars per case that had an individual settlement). Based on similar numbers of Federal and State cases, it is likely that there would also be an additional 501 State cases filed that do not settle on class basis, whose cost the Bureau does not estimate due to the lack of nationally representative data; however, these cases would likely be significantly cheaper for providers.
The Bureau believes that the calculation above might be an overestimate of time spent on such cases because both defendant's and plaintiff's attorneys frequently come to the conclusion, relatively early in the case, that the case will not result in a class settlement. Once such a conclusion is reached, the billable hours incurred by either side (in particular the defense) are likely significantly lower than for a case that is headed towards a class settlement, even if the final outcome of the two cases might be achieved in comparable calendar time. Similarly, many cases are resolved before discovery or motions on the pleadings; such cases are cheaper to litigate. In other words, at some point early in many putative class actions, the case becomes effectively an individual case (in terms of how the parties and their counsel treat the stakes of it), and from that point on, its cost should be comparable to the cost of an individual case (as opposed to a case settled on a classwide basis). The calculation above assumes that this point of transition to an individual case is the last day of the case.
In contrast, the opposite assumption is that from the first day of the case the parties (in particular, the defense) know that the case is not going to be settled on a classwide basis. Using this assumption, the 501 cases cost as much to defend as 501 individual cases. Using $15,000 per individual case as a defense cost estimate, the cost of these 501 cases would be approximately $8 million per year.
The Bureau notes that for several markets the estimates of additional Federal class action settlements are low.
The Bureau notes that providers might attempt to manage the risks of increased class litigation exposure by opting for more comprehensive insurance coverage or a higher reimbursement limit. However, the
Providers that currently have arbitration agreements (or who purchase contracts with arbitration agreements that do not include the Bureau's language) would also incur administrative expenses to make the one-time change to the arbitration agreement itself (or a notice to consumers concerning the purchased contract). Providers are likely to incur a range of costs related to these administrative requirements.
The Bureau believes that providers that currently have arbitration agreements would manage and incur these costs in one of three ways. First, the Bureau believes that some providers rely exclusively on third-party contract forms providers with which they already have a relationship, and for these providers the cost of making the required changes to their contracts is negligible (
Second, there might be providers that perform an annual review of the contracts they use with consumers. As a part of that review (provided it comes before the proposed rule becomes effective), they would either revise their arbitration agreements or delete them, whether or not most of these contracts are supplied by third-party providers. For these providers, it is also unlikely that the proposed rule would cause considerable incremental expense of changing or taking out the arbitration agreement insofar as they already engage in a regular review, as long as this review occurs before the rule becomes effective.
Third, there are likely to be some providers that use contracts that they have highly customized to their own needs (relative to the first two categories above) and that might not engage in annual reviews. These would require a more comprehensive review in order to either change or remove the arbitration agreement.
The Bureau believes that smaller providers are likely to fall into the first category. The Bureau believes that the largest providers would fall into either the second or the third category. On average across all categories, the Bureau believes that the average provider's expense for the administrative change to be about $400. This consists of approximately one hour of time from a staff attorney or a compliance person and an hour of supporting staff time. Given the Bureau's estimate of approximately 48,000 providers that use arbitration agreements,
In addition to the one-time change described directly above, some providers could be affected on an ongoing or sporadic basis in the future as they acquire existing contracts as the result of regular or occasional activity, such as a merger. Under proposed § 1040.4(a)(2), that would require providers who become a party to an existing contract with a pre-dispute arbitration agreement that does not already contain the language mandated by proposed § 1040.4(a)(2) to amend the agreement to include that provision, or send the consumer a notice indicating that the acquirer would not invoke that pre-dispute arbitration agreement in a class action.
For example, buyers of medical debt could incur additional costs due to additional due diligence they would undertake to determine which acquired debts arise from consumer credit transactions (that would be subject to the proposed rule), or alternatively by the additional exposure created from sending consumer notices on debts that did not arise from credit transactions (
Indirect auto lenders might face a somewhat different impact. While a loan purchased from an auto dealer would be from a credit transaction, the dealer's contract might contain an arbitration agreement that does not include the language specified by the Bureau because the dealer would not be a provider under the rule. However, the Bureau believes that because dealers would be aware that their partner indirect auto lenders would be subject to the proposed rule, it is likely that dealers would voluntarily change their contracts to streamline the process for indirect auto lenders.
There would also be a minor cost related to the proposed rule's requirements regarding sending records to the Bureau related to providers' arbitrations. In the Study, the Bureau documented significantly fewer than 1,000 individual arbitrations per year.
The Bureau believes that most providers would pass through at least portions of some of the costs described above to consumers. This pass-through can take multiple forms, such as higher prices to consumers or reduced quality of the products or services they provide to consumers. The rate at which firms pass through changes in their marginal costs onto prices (or interest rates) charged to consumers is called the pass-through rate.
A pass-through rate of 100 percent means that an increase in marginal costs would not be absorbed by the providers, but rather would be fully passed through to the consumers.
Determining the extent of pass-through involves evaluating a trade-off between volume of business and margin (the difference between price and marginal cost) on each customer served. Any amount of pass-through increases price, and thus lowers volume. A pass-through rate below 100 percent means that a firm's margin per customer is lower than it was before the provider had to incur the new cost. Economic theory suggests that, without accounting for strategic effects of competition, the pass-through rate ends up somewhere in between the two extremes of: (1) No pass-through (and thus completely preserving the volume at the expense of lowering margin) and (2) full pass-through (completely preserving the margin at the expense of lowering volume).
Economic theory does not provide useful guidance about what the magnitude of the pass-through of marginal cost is likely to be with regard to the proposed rule. The Bureau believes that providers might treat the administrative costs as fixed. Whether the costs due to additional compliance are marginal depends on the exact form of this spending, but most examples discussed above would likely qualify as largely fixed. The Bureau believes that providers might treat a large fraction of the costs of additional class litigation as marginal: Payments to class members, attorney's fees (both defendant's and plaintiff's), and the cost of putative class cases that do not settle on a class basis. The extent to which these marginal costs are likely to be passed through to consumers cannot be reliably predicted, especially given the multiple markets affected. Empirical studies are mostly unavailable for the markets covered. Empirical studies for other products, mainly consumer package goods and commodities, do not produce a single estimate.
The available pass-through estimates for the consumer financial products or services are largely for credit cards, where older literature found pass-through rates of close to 0 percent.
More directly related to the proposal, the Study analyzed the effect on prices of several large credit card issuers agreeing to drop their arbitration agreements for a period of time as a part of a class settlement.
Consumers would benefit from the proposed class rule to the extent that providers would have a larger incentive to comply with the law; from the class payments in any class settlement that occurs due to a provider not being able to invoke an arbitration agreement in a class proceeding; and, from any new compliance with the law they experience as a result of injunctive relief in a settlement or as a result of changes in practices that the provider adopts in the wake of the settlement to avoid future litigation.
Consumer benefits due to providers' larger incentive to comply with the law are directly related to the aforementioned investments by providers to reduce class litigation exposure. Specifically, consumers would benefit from the forgone harm resulting from fewer violations of law. A full catalog of how all laws applicable to affected products benefit consumers when they are followed is far beyond the scope of this analysis. However, a few examples of types of benefits are offered. These benefits could take a form that is easier to monetize—for example, a credit card issuer voluntarily discontinuing (or not initiating) a charge to consumers for a service that generates $1 of benefit to consumers for every $10 paid by consumers; a depository ceasing to charge overdraft fees with respect to transactions for which the consumer has sufficient funds on deposit at the time the transaction settles to cover the transaction; or, a lender ceasing to charge higher rates to minority than non-minority borrowers. Or this could take a form that is harder to monetize—for example, a debt collector investing more in insuring that the correct consumers are called and in complying with various provisions limiting certain types of contacts and calls under the FDCPA and TCPA; or, a creditor taking more time to assure the accuracy of the information furnished to a credit reporting agency or to investigate disputes of that information.
Just as the Bureau is unable to quantify and monetize the investment that providers would undertake to lower their exposure to class litigation, the Bureau is unable to quantify and monetize the extent of the consumer benefit that would result from this investment, or particular subcategories of investment such as improving disclosures, improving compliance management systems, expanding staff training, or other specific activities. The Bureau requests comment on any representative data sources that could assist the Bureau in both of these quantifications.
Consumers would also benefit from class payments that they receive from settlements of additional class actions. According to the calculation above, this benefit would be on the order of $342 million per year for Federal class settlements, and an unquantified amount in State court settlements.
Moreover, as noted above as well, the Bureau believes that there would also be significant benefits to consumers when settlements include in-kind and injunctive relief.
The cost to consumers is mostly due to the aforementioned pass-through by providers, to the extent it occurs, as discussed above. The Bureau does not repeat this general discussion here.
A second possible impact could occur if some providers decide to remove arbitration agreements entirely from their contracts, although there is no empirical basis to determine the proportion of providers that would do so. Assuming that some providers would remove these agreements, some consumers who can currently resort to arbitration for filing claims against providers would no longer be able to do so if the provider is unwilling to engage in post-dispute arbitration. The Bureau is unable to determine empirically whether individual arbitration is more beneficial to consumers than individual litigation, and if so the magnitude of the additional consumer benefit of arbitration.
In short, if a consumer initiates a formal dispute relating to a consumer financial product or service, it is possible that the consumer would fare somewhat better in individual arbitration than in individual litigation.
Moreover, the stakeholder feedback that the Bureau has received so far suggests that if any provider dropped arbitration agreements entirely, the decision could be a result of the provider not finding it cost-effective to support a dual-track system of litigation (on a class or putative class basis) and individual arbitrations. However, the Study shows that providers often do not invoke arbitration agreements in individual lawsuits,
As discussed above, at least some providers might decide that a particular feature of a product makes the provider more susceptible to class litigation, and therefore the provider would decide to remove that feature from the product. A provider might make this decision even if that feature is actually beneficial to consumers and does not result in legal harm to consumers. In this case, consumers would incur a cost due to the provider's over-deterrence with respect to this particular decision. The Bureau is not aware of any data showing this theoretical phenomenon (over-deterrence) to be prevalent among providers who currently do not have an arbitration agreement or likely among providers who would be required to forgo using their arbitration agreement to block class actions. The Bureau requests comment on the extent of this phenomenon in the context of the proposed rule, and it specifically requests data and suggestions about how to quantify both the prevalence of this phenomenon and the magnitude of consumer harm if the phenomenon exists.
The prevalence of arbitration agreements for large depository institutions is significantly higher than that for smaller depository institutions.
Thus, using the same method discussed above to estimate additional class settlements (and putative class cases) among depository institutions with no more than $10 billion in assets suggests that the proposed rule would have practically no effect that could be monetized. Specifically, the calculation predicts approximately one additional Federal class settlement and about three putative Federal class cases over five years involving depositories below the $10 billion threshold if the proposed rule is finalized.
However, there might be other ways in which impacts on smaller depository institutions, and smaller providers in general, would differ from impacts on larger providers. The Bureau describes some of these in this Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis.
One possibility might be that the managers of smaller providers (depository institutions or otherwise) are sufficiently risk averse, or generally sensitive to payouts, such that putative class actions have an
There is a significant amount of academic finance literature suggesting that management should not be risk averse, unless the case involves a possibility of a firm going bankrupt in case of a loss.
The bargaining theory literature generally suggests that the party with deeper pockets and relatively less at stake will be the party that gets the most out of the settlement.
Finally, given the considerably lower frequency of class litigation for smaller providers, it is possible that it is not worth the cost for smaller providers to invest in lowering class litigation exposure. This might also explain the relatively lower frequency of arbitration agreement use by smaller depositories.
Rural areas might be differently impacted to the extent that rural areas tend to be served by smaller providers, as discussed above with regard to depository institutions with less than $10 billion in assets and below with regard to providers of all types that are below certain thresholds for small businesses. In addition, markets in rural areas might also be less competitive. Economic theory suggests that less competitive markets would have lower pass-through with all else being equal; therefore, if there were any price increase due to the proposed rule, it would be lower in rural areas.
Given hundreds of millions of accounts across affected providers and the numerical estimates of costs above, the expected additional marginal costs due to additional Federal class settlements to providers are likely to be negligible in most markets. Each of the product markets affected has hundreds of competitors or more. Thus, the Bureau does not believe that this proposed rule would result in a noticeable impact on access to consumer financial products or services.
The Bureau does not believe that access to consumer financial products or services would be diminished due to effects on providers' continuing viability or, as discussed below in Part IX, due to effects on providers' access to credit to facilitate the operation of their businesses. It is possible that consumers might experience temporary access concerns if their particular provider was sued in a class action. These concerns might become permanent if such litigation significantly depleted the provider's financial resources, potentially resulting in the provider exiting the market.
Of course, the incentive for a class counsel to pursue a case to the point where it would cause a defendant's bankruptcy is low because this would leave little, or no, resources from which to fund a remedy for consumers in a class settlement or any fees for the class counsel and could make the process longer. In addition, the potential consumers of this provider presumably have the option of seeking this consumer financial product or service from a different company that is not facing a class action, and thus a bankruptcy scenario is substantially more of an issue for the particular provider affected than for the provider's consumers. Moreover, especially given the low prevalence of cases against smaller providers outlined above and the amounts of documented payments to class members, the Bureau does not believe that out of the Federal class settlements analyzed in the Study, many settlements threatened the continued existence of the defendant and the resulting access to credit.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) generally requires an agency to conduct an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) and a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) of any rule subject to notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements.
The Bureau is not certifying that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the RFA. Accordingly, the Bureau convened and chaired a Small Business Review Panel under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) to consider the impact of the proposed rule on small entities that would be subject to that rule and to obtain feedback from representatives of such small entities. The Small Business Review Panel for this proposed rule is discussed in the SBREFA Panel Report.
Among other things, this IRFA estimates the number of small entities that will be subject to the proposed rule and describes the impact of the proposed rule on those entities. Throughout this IRFA, the Bureau draws on the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above.
Despite not certifying that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities at this time, the Bureau believes that the arguments and calculations outlined both in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, as well as the arguments and calculations that follow, strongly suggest that the proposed rule would indeed not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities in any of the covered markets. The Bureau is requesting comment on the assumptions and methodology used, and on potential certification if the proposed rule is finalized.
In preparing this proposed rule and this IRFA, the Bureau has carefully considered the feedback from the SERs participating in the SBREFA process and the findings and recommendations in the SBREFA Panel Report. The Section-by-Section analysis of the proposed rule, above in Part VII, and this IRFA discuss this feedback and the specific findings and recommendations of the Small Business Review Panel, as applicable. The SBREFA process provided the Small Business Review Panel and the Bureau with an opportunity to identify and explore opportunities to minimize the burden of the proposed rule on small entities while achieving the proposed rule's purposes. As in other Bureau's rulemakings, it is important to note, however, that the Small Business Review Panel prepared the SBREFA Panel Report at a preliminary stage of the proposal's development and that the
Under RFA section 603(a), an IRFA “shall describe the impact of the proposed rule on small entities.”
As the Bureau outlined in the SBREFA Panel Report and discussed above, the Bureau is considering a rulemaking because it is concerned that consumers do not have sufficient opportunity to obtain remedies when they are legally harmed by providers of consumer financial products and services, because arbitration agreements effectively block consumers from participating in class proceedings. The Bureau is also concerned that by blocking class actions, arbitration agreements reduce deterrent effects and compliance incentives in connection with the underlying laws. Finally, the Bureau is concerned about the potential for systemic harm if arbitration agreements were to be administered in biased or unfair ways. Accordingly, the Bureau is considering proposals that would: (1) Prohibit the application of certain arbitration agreements regarding consumer financial products or services as to class litigation; and (2) require submission of arbitral claims, awards, and two other categories of documents to the Bureau. This proposed rulemaking is pursuant to the Bureau's authority under sections 1022(b) and (c) and 1028 of the Dodd-Frank Act. The latter section directs the Bureau to study pre-dispute arbitration agreements in connection with the offering or providing of consumer financial products or services and authorizes the Bureau to regulate their use if the Bureau finds that certain conditions are met.
As noted in the SBREFA Panel Report, the Panel identified 22 categories of small entities that may be subject to the proposed rule. These were later narrowed (see discussion and table below with estimates of the number of entities in each market). The NAICS industry and SBA small entity thresholds for these 22 categories are the following:
For purposes of assessing the impacts of the proposals under consideration on small entities, “small entities” are defined in the RFA to include small businesses, small nonprofit organizations, and small government jurisdictions that would be subject to the proposals under consideration. A “small business” is defined by the SBA Office of Size Standards for all industries through the NAICS.
To arrive at the number of entities affected, the Bureau began by creating a list of markets that would be covered if the proposals under consideration were to be adopted. The Bureau assigned at least one, but often several, NAICS codes to each market. For example, while payday and other installment loans are provided by storefront payday stores (NAICS 522390), they are also provided by other small businesses, such as credit unions (NAICS 522120). The Bureau estimated the number of small firms in each market-NAICS combination (for example, storefront payday lenders in NAICS 522390 would be such a market-NAICS combination), and then the Bureau added together all the markets within a NAICS code if there is more than one market within a NAICS code, accounting for the potential overlaps between the markets (for example, probably all banks that provide payday-like loans also provide checking accounts, and the Bureau does not double-count them, to the extent possible given the data).
The Bureau first attempted to estimate the number of firms in each market-NAICS combination by using administrative data (for example, Call Reports that credit unions have to file with the NCUA). When administrative data was not available, the Bureau attempted to estimate the numbers using public sources, including the Bureau's previous rulemakings and impact analyses. When neither administrative nor other public data was available, the Bureau used the Census's NAICS numbers. The Bureau estimated the number of small businesses according to the SBA's size standards for NAICS codes (when such data was available).
NAICS numbers were taken from the 2012 NAICS Manual, the most recent version available from the Census Bureau. The data provided employment, average size, and an estimate of the number of firms for each industry, which are disaggregated by a six-digit ID. Other industry counts were taken from a variety of sources, including other Bureau rulemakings, internal Bureau data, public data and statistics, including published reports and trade association materials, and in some cases from aggregation Web sites. For a select number of industries, usually NAICS codes that encompass both covered and not covered markets, the Bureau estimated the covered market in this NAICS code using data from Web sites that aggregate information from multiple online sources. The reason the Bureau relied on this estimate instead of the NAICS estimate is that NAICS estimates are sometimes too broad. For example, the NAICS code associated with virtual wallets includes dozens of other small industries, and would overestimate the actual number of firms affected by an order of magnitude or more.
Although the Bureau attempted to account for overlaps wherever possible, a firm could be counted several times if it participates in different industries and was counted separately in each data source. While this analysis removes firms that were counted twice using the NAICS numbers, some double counting may remain due to overlap in non-NAICS estimates. For the NAICS codes that encompass several markets, the Bureau summed the numbers for each of the market-NAICS combinations to produce the table of affected firms.
In addition to estimating the number of providers in the affected markets, the Bureau also estimated the prevalence of arbitration agreements in these markets. The Bureau first attempted to estimate the prevalence of arbitration agreements in each market using public sources. However, this attempt was unsuccessful.
The table below sets forth potentially affected markets (and the associated NAICS codes) in which it appears reasonably likely that more than a few small entities use arbitration agreements. Some affected markets (and
Other notable exceptions were Other Depository Credit Intermediation (NAICS 522190) and attorneys who collect debt (NAICS 541110). The Bureau believes that for these codes virtually all providers that are engaged in these activities are already reporting under other NAICS codes (for example, Commercial Banking, NAICS 52211, or collection agencies, NAICS 561440).
In addition, the proposed rule would apply to mortgage referral providers for whom referrals are their primary business. For example, the Bureau estimates that there are 7,007 entities classified as mortgage and nonmortgage brokers (NAICS 522310), 6,657 of which are small.
Merchants are not listed in the table because merchants generally would not be covered by the proposal, except in limited circumstances. For example, the Bureau believes that most types of financing consumers use to buy nonfinancial goods or services from merchants is provided by third parties other than the merchant or, if the merchant grants a right of deferred payment, this is typically done without charge and for a relatively short period of time. For example, a provider of monthly services may bill in arrears, allowing the consumer to pay 30 days after services are rendered each month. Thus the Bureau believes that merchants rarely offer their own financing with a finance charge, or in an amount that significantly exceeds the market value of the goods or services sold.
Similarly, the Bureau does not list utility providers (NAICS 221) because when these providers allow consumers to defer payment for these providers' services without imposing a finance charge, this type of credit is not subject to the proposed rule. In some cases, utility providers may engage in billing the consumer for charges imposed by a third-party supplier hired by the consumer. However, government utilities providing these services to consumers who are located in their territorial jurisdiction would be exempt and, with respect to private utility providers providing these services, the Bureau believes that these private utility providers' agreements with consumers, including their dispute resolution mechanisms, are generally regulated at a State or local level. The Bureau is not aware that those dispute resolution mechanisms provide for mandatory arbitration.
Further, the proposal would apply to extensions of credit by providers of whole life insurance policies (NAICS 524113) to the extent that these companies are ECOA creditors and that activity is not the “business of insurance” under the Dodd-Frank section 1002(15)(C)(i) and 1002(3) and arbitration agreements are used for such policy loans. However, it is unlikely that a significant number of such providers would be affected because a number of state laws restrict the use of arbitration agreements in insurance products and, in any event, it is possible that the loan feature of the whole life policy could be part of the “business of insurance” depending on the facts and applicable law.
The Bureau also does not believe that a significant number of new car dealers offer or provide consumer financial products or services that render these dealers subject to the Bureau's regulatory jurisdiction. As a result, new car dealers (NAICS 44111) and passenger car leasing companies (NAICS 532112) are not included in the table below; rather, the table covers dealer portfolio leasing and lending with the used car dealer category (NAICS 441120) and indirect auto lenders with the sales financing category (NAICS 522220).
In addition, the Bureau does not believe that it is common for commodities merchants subject to CFTC jurisdiction to extend credit to consumers as defined by Regulation B.
The Bureau does not account for various types of entities that are indirectly affected (and thus would likely not need to change their contracts) and for which the Bureau did not find any Federal class settlements in the Study (and thus would not be significantly affected by additional class litigation exposure). These entities include, for example, billing service providers for providers of merchant credit (third-party servicers NAICS 522390).
Similarly, the Bureau is unaware of the number of software developers
The providers that use arbitration agreements would have to change their contracts to state that the arbitration agreements cannot be used to block class litigation. The Bureau believes that, given that the Bureau is specifying the language that must be used, this can be accomplished in minimal time by compliance personnel, who do not have to possess any specialized skills, and in particular who do not require a law degree.
Additionally, as discussed above, debt buyers and other providers who become parties to existing contracts with pre-dispute arbitration agreements that do not contain the required language would be subject to the ongoing requirements of proposed § 1040.4(a)(2), which would require them to issue contract amendments or notices when they
The proposed rule also includes a reporting requirement when covered entities exercise their arbitration agreements in individual lawsuits and in several other circumstances. Given the small number of individual arbitrations in the Study, the Bureau believes that there would be at most a few hundred small covered entities affected by this requirement each year, and most likely considerably fewer since most defendants that participated in arbitrations analyzed by the Study were large repeat players.
The Bureau requests comment on whether there are any additional costs or skills required to comply with reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements of the proposed rule that the Bureau had not mentioned here. As noted in its Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above, the Bureau believes that the vast majority of the proposed rule's impact is due to additional exposure to class litigation and to any voluntary investment (spending) in reducing that exposure that providers might undertake. The Bureau believes that neither of these categories is a reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirement; however, the Bureau discusses them below.
The costs and types of additional investment to reduce additional exposure to class litigation and the components of the cost of additional class litigation itself are described above in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis. As noted above, it is difficult to quantify how much all covered providers, including small entities, would invest in additional compliance; that applies to all covered providers.
With respect to additional class litigation exposure, using the same calculation as in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, limited to providers below the SBA threshold for their markets,
While the expected cost per provider that the Bureau can monetize is about $200 per year from Federal class cases, these costs would not be evenly distributed across small providers. In particular, the estimates above suggest that about 25 providers per year would be involved in an additional Federal class settlement—a considerably higher expense than $200 per year, as noted in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above. In addition, the additional Federal cases filed as class litigation that would end up not settling on class basis (121 per year according to the estimates above) are also likely to result in a considerably higher expense that $200. However, the vast majority of the 51,000 providers would not experience any of these effects.
As discussed above, these entities would also face increased exposure to state class litigation. While the Study's Section 6 reports similar numbers for State and Federal cases, it is likely that the State to Federal class litigation ratio is higher for small covered entities to the extent that they are more likely to serve consumers only in one State. However, as discussed above, the Bureau believes that State class litigation is also likely to generate lower costs than Federal litigation. The Bureau believes that these calculations strongly suggest that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the RFA; however, the Bureau requests comment on that preliminary conclusion.
The Bureau notes that the estimates are higher for small debt collectors than for other categories: Small debt collectors account for 22 of the 25 Federal settlements estimated above for small providers overall, and $5 million (out of $8 million for small providers) in costs combined. With about 4,400 debt collectors below the SBA thresholds, the estimates suggest a roughly 2 percent chance per year of being subject to an additional putative Federal class litigation, a lower than 1 percent chance of that resulting in a Federal class settlement, and an expected cost of about $1,100 per year from these additional settlements. The same State class litigation assumptions outlined above apply to smaller debt collectors.
As evident from the data and from feedback received during the SBREFA process, providers that are debt collectors might be the most affected relative to providers in other markets, despite the fact that debt collectors do not enter into arbitration agreements directly and already frequently collect on debt without an arbitration agreement in the original contract. However, for the reasons described above, the Bureau believes it is unlikely that class settlement amounts would in fact drive companies out of business. Indeed, as discussed above, debt collectors already face class litigation exposure in connection with a significant proportion of debt they collect. Much of that debt comes from creditors that do not have arbitration agreements, and even where the credit contract includes an arbitration agreement, collectors are not always able to invoke the agreements successfully.
Several other Federal laws and regulations address the use of arbitration agreements. For example, arbitration agreements that apply to
In addition to providing the Bureau the authority to regulate the use of arbitration agreements in consumer financial contracts, the Dodd-Frank Act prohibited all arbitration agreements in consumer mortgages
The Bureau describes several potential alternatives below. The Bureau believes that none of these are significant alternatives insofar as they would not accomplish the goal of the proposed rulemaking with substantially less regulatory burden. Unless otherwise noted, the Bureau discusses these alternatives both for SBA small providers and for larger providers as well. The Bureau requests comment on these and other potential alternatives and on their further quantification.
In principle, effective disclosures coupled with consumer education could make consumers more cognizant in selecting a financial product or service, of the existence and consequences of an arbitration provision in the standard form contract and,
Furthermore, there is reason to doubt that disclosures would be very effective in raising consumer awareness in any event. The Study indicates that the current consumer understanding of arbitration agreement is low,
Similar concerns arise with regard to opt-in and opt-out regimes. An opt-out regime would require providers to give consumers an option to opt out of the arbitration agreement when the consumer signs the contract or for some additional period. An opt-in regime would presume that a consumer is not bound by the arbitration agreement, unless a consumer affirmatively indicates otherwise. Many providers currently offer arbitration agreements that allow consumers to opt out at the point of contract formation or for a limited period afterward.
Much as with disclosures, the Bureau believes that opt-in and opt-out arrangements would not meet the objectives of the proposed rule because neither would alleviate the market failure that the proposed rule is designed to address. Further, and again similar to disclosures, the fact that opt-out agreements are already used by a number of providers in markets for consumer financial services today but that very few consumers are aware whether they have arbitration agreements in their contracts suggest that such regimes are subject to many of the same awareness and effectiveness issues discussed above with regard to disclosures. Finally, economic theory suggests that even with regard to a more consumer-friendly “opt-in” system, an individual consumer would not have a sufficient incentive, from the market perspective, to refuse an opt-in offer.
Consider an individual consumer's decision to opt-in. First, suppose that this consumer expects other consumers to opt-in. In this case, this individual consumer does not benefit from refusing an opt-in offer: The option of class
The Study shows that, currently, consumers are unlikely to even attempt such a calculation. Most, if not virtually all, consumers do not realize the significance of an arbitration agreement that can block class litigation, most consumers do not have an option to opt out of the agreement (though in some markets such as payday loans and private student loans opt-outs appear to be the norm), and in many markets the vast majority of providers use arbitration agreements.
Under this potential alternative, arbitration would only occur if parties agree to it after a dispute arises. The primary difference between this option and the proposed rule is that individual disputes would not be subject to mandatory pre-dispute arbitration agreements. The Study could not determine empirically whether individual arbitration is more beneficial to consumers than individual litigation.
This potential alternative alleviates the market failure discussed in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above and gives the providers same incentives to comply with the law as the proposed rule. However, this potential alternative could be more costly if individual arbitration proceedings are less expensive than individual litigation and parties do not voluntarily agree to post-dispute individual arbitration.
The Bureau believes that the current level of individual arbitrations, summed over all affected consumer financial products or services providers, is hundreds of arbitrations per year.
During the SBREFA process, some of the SERs stated that some of the statutes (for example, TCPA) are particularly problematic and onerous if arbitration agreements cannot be used to block class litigation. The Bureau understands the SERs' argument that cases putatively seeking very large amounts of damages have a potential to amplify SERs' costs.
The Bureau's analysis of this argument is discussed in greater detail above in Part VI. From an economic theory perspective, the potential for these cases to be filed seeking very large damages also amplifies the incentive to comply with the law (for example, TCPA), and thus amplifies the benefits to consumers, even if providers pass on some of the costs to consumers in terms of higher prices. Thus, unless there is considerable evidence that compliance with or the remedial scheme established by a particular statute is against the public good the Bureau believes this issue, for the reasons discussed in Part VI, may be more appropriately addressed by Congress, state legislatures, and the courts.
As outlined above in the Section-by-Section analysis to proposed § 1040.4(a), the Bureau requests comment on a small entity exemption, including which thresholds could be used for such an exemption for each market covered. The Bureau's estimates, based on current litigation levels, suggest that small providers would not be particularly affected by this proposed rule. However, a handful of small providers would likely face a Federal class action settlement due to this rule (and slightly higher numbers for providers who are
The Bureau is concerned, however, that an exemption would eliminate the additional incentives to comply with the law provided by the exposure to class litigation. This is a particular concern for markets such as payday loans, where the vast majority of the market currently uses arbitration agreements, and thus it is harder to estimate the impact of the proposed rule and this potential alternative. Moreover, the Bureau is concerned that smaller providers without arbitration agreements might not be representative of small providers with arbitration agreements: In other words, that the providers that currently might not be complying with the law to the full extent might self-select into inserting arbitration agreements in their contracts.
At the same time, the Bureau acknowledges that, as discussed above, based on the evidence from providers that do not currently have arbitration agreements, the low monetized impact of class litigation estimated for small providers might suggest that the proposed rule would create weaker incentives to comply than for larger providers, since a given small provider is highly unlikely to face a class action. Moreover, as noted by the SERs during the SBREFA process, many small providers believe that they are already complying with the law to the fullest extent, notwithstanding the presence of arbitration agreements in their contracts. As discussed above, the Bureau is seeking comment on all issues relating to a small entity exemption.
Various stakeholders suggested alternatives related to public enforcement. Aside from an alternative that the Bureau does not have the power to accomplish—sizably increasing enforcement at all regulators of the providers affected by the proposed rule—most of these suggestions would mostly duplicate what the providers can do already. For example, providers that discover a compliance issue before a class action is filed can already (and sometimes do) submit a description of the compliance issue to their regulator and attempt to work out a solution (that may or may not involve fines and payments to consumers). If consumers are compensated during the process, then there is less potential recovery for any following private litigation. Moreover, as the Study demonstrates, such private litigation following the same matter decided by public enforcement is rare.
The Bureau requests comment on these and any other alternative policy options that may accomplish the goals of the proposed rulemaking with substantially less regulatory burden, including a detailed description of the option and any evidence that would indicate that the option could achieve such goals.
Although SERs expressed concern that the proposed rule could affect costs that they bear when they seek out business credit to facilitate their operations, the Bureau believes based on its estimates derived from current litigation levels as discussed above that the vast majority of small providers' cost of credit would not be impacted by the proposed rule. However, given a higher likelihood that a smaller debt collector would be subject to incremental class litigation at any given time, it is possible that a fraction of small debt collectors might experience an adverse impact on their cost of credit if they were subject to ongoing class litigation at a time when they were seeking credit. However, the Study indicated that the majority of cases filed as class actions are resolved within a few months, such that any such adverse impact is likely to be only temporary.
As stated above, the Bureau does not believe that the vast majority of the small providers' cost of credit will be impacted. The Bureau also is not aware of any significant alternatives that would minimize the impact on small debt collectors' cost of credit while accomplishing the objectives of the proposed rule. The Bureau notes that any alternatives would be particularly complicated with regard to application to smaller debt collectors, as they typically use the contract of another firm, for example a credit card issuer.
As noted in the SBREFA Panel Report, the small entity representatives (SERs) expressed concerns about how the proposals under consideration would affect their borrowing costs. One SER believed his business would lose its line of credit if it could not use arbitration agreements to block class actions. Another SER stated that the class proposal under consideration would increase her business's borrowing costs, and also that drawing on its credit to pay litigation costs related to a class action would “raise warning signs” for her business's lender. Another SER stated that mere exposure to class action liability would cause his business's lender to “raise an eyebrow.” One debt collector SER stated that his company's bank had closed its line of credit in recent years due to concerns over the industry but that the company was able to obtain a line of credit at another bank relatively quickly. None of these SERs reported that they actually had spoken with their lender or that, when they sought credit in the past, their lender inquired as to whether they used arbitration agreements in their consumer contracts.
In general, SERs in the business of extending credit stated that the proposal under consideration regarding class actions might cause them to increase the cost of credit they offer to their consumers. One of these SERs stated that the proposal may increase his business's expenses overall—such as insurance premiums, compliance investment, and exposure to class actions for which his business is uninsured—and, due to that SER's thin margins, such increases may require his business to increase the cost of consumer credit. However, another SER—a short-term, small-dollar lender—stated that he would be unable to increase the cost of his business's consumer loans due to limitations imposed by state law. Another SER, a buy-here-pay-here auto dealer, stated that, in addition to potentially raising the cost of credit, his business could
Three SERs predicted that, if the class proposal under consideration goes into effect, some small entities would reduce their product offerings. One of these SERs speculated that products designed for underserved groups may be especially vulnerable because cases involving such products are more attractive to plaintiff's attorneys.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal agencies are generally required to seek the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval for information collection requirements prior to implementation. Under the PRA, the Bureau may not conduct or sponsor—and, notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person is not required to respond to—an information collection unless the information collection displays a valid control number assigned by OMB.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, the Bureau conducts a preclearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new information collection requirements in accordance with the PRA.
The Bureau believes that this proposed rule would impose the following two new information collection requirements (recordkeeping, reporting, or disclosure requirements) on covered entities or members of the public that would constitute collections of information requiring OMB approval under the PRA. Both information collections would apply to agreements entered into after the compliance date of the rule.
The first information collection requirement relates to proposed disclosure requirements. The proposal would require providers that enter into arbitration agreements with consumers to ensure that these arbitration agreements contain a specified provision, with two limited exceptions as described below.
The proposed rule contains two exceptions to this first information collection requirement. Under the first exception, if a provider enters into an arbitration agreement that existed previously (and was entered into by another person after the compliance date),
The second information collection requirement relates to proposed reporting requirements. The proposal would require providers to submit specified arbitral records to the Bureau relating to any arbitration agreement entered into after the compliance date.
The proposal would require providers to submit any record described above to the Bureau within 60 days of filing by the provider or, in the case of records filed by other persons (such as arbitrators, arbitration administrators, or consumers), receipt by the provider.
The estimated burden on Bureau respondents from the proposed adoption of part 1040 are summarized below. A complete description of the
Please send your comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection. Send these comments by email to
If applicable, in any notice of final rule the Bureau would display the control number assigned by OMB to any information collection requirements proposed herein and adopted in any final rule. If the OMB control number has not been assigned prior to publication of any final rule in the
Banks, banking, Business and industry, Claims, Consumer protection, Contracts, Credit, Credit unions, Finance, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations.
For the reasons set forth above, the Bureau proposes to add part 1040 to chapter X in title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 5512(b) and (c) and 5518(b).
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) A person as defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481(19) that engages in offering or providing any of the consumer financial products or services covered by § 1040.3(a) to the extent that the person is not excluded under § 1040.3(b); or
(2) An affiliate of a provider as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section when that affiliate is acting as a service provider to the provider as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section with which the service provider is affiliated consistent with 12 U.S.C. 5481(6)(B).
(d)
(a)
(1)(i) Providing an “extension of credit” that is “consumer credit” as defined in Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.2;
(ii) Acting as a “creditor” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(l) by regularly participating in a credit decision consistent with its meaning in 12 CFR 1002.2(l) concerning “consumer credit” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(h);
(iii) Acting, as a person's primary business activity, as a “creditor” as defined by 12 CFR 1002.2(l) by referring applicants or prospective applicants to creditors, or selecting or offering to select creditors to whom requests for credit may be made consistent with its meaning in 12 CFR 1002.2(l);
(iv) Acquiring, purchasing, or selling an extension of consumer credit covered by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; or
(v) Servicing an extension of consumer credit covered by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; or
(2) Extending automobile leases as defined by 12 CFR 1090.108 or brokering such leases;
(3) Providing services to assist with debt management or debt settlement, modify the terms of any extension of consumer credit covered by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, or avoid foreclosure;
(4) Providing directly to a consumer a consumer report as defined by the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d), a credit score, or other information specific to a consumer from such a consumer report, except when such consumer report is provided by a user covered by 15 U.S.C. 1681m solely in connection with an adverse action as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(k) with respect to a product or service not covered by any of paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) or (a)(5) through (10) of this section;
(5) Providing accounts subject to the Truth in Savings Act, 12 U.S.C. 4301
(6) Providing accounts or remittance transfers subject to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693
(7) Transmitting or exchanging funds as defined by 15 U.S.C. 5481(29) except when integral to another product or service that is not covered by this section;
(8) Accepting financial or banking data or providing a product or service to accept such data directly from a consumer for the purpose of initiating a payment by a consumer via any payment instrument as defined by 15 U.S.C. 5481(18) or initiating a credit card or charge card transaction for the consumer, except when the person accepting the data or providing the product or service to accept the data also is selling or marketing the nonfinancial good or service for which the payment or credit card or charge card transaction is being made;
(9) Check cashing, check collection, or check guaranty services; or
(10) Collecting debt arising from any of the consumer financial products or services described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section by:
(i) A person offering or providing the product or service giving rise to the debt being collected, an affiliate of such person, or, a person acting on behalf of such person or affiliate;
(ii) A person purchasing or acquiring an extension of consumer credit covered by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, an affiliate of such person, or, a person acting on behalf of such person or affiliate; or
(iii) A debt collector as defined by 15 U.S.C. 1692a(6).
(b)
(1) Broker dealers to the extent that they are providing products or services described in paragraph (a) of this section that are subject to rules promulgated or authorized by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission prohibiting the use of pre-dispute arbitration agreements in class action litigation and providing for making arbitral awards public;
(2)(i) The federal government and any affiliate of the Federal government providing any product or service described in paragraph (a) of this section directly to a consumer; or
(ii) A State, local, or tribal government, and any affiliate of a State, local, or tribal government, to the extent it is providing any product or service described in paragraph (a) of this section directly to a consumer who resides in the government's territorial jurisdiction;
(3) Any person when providing a product or service described in paragraph (a) of this section that the person and any of its affiliates collectively provide to no more than 25 consumers in the current calendar year and to no more than 25 consumers in the preceding calendar year;
(4) Merchants, retailers, or other sellers of nonfinancial goods or services to the extent they:
(i) Provide an extension of consumer credit covered by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section that is of the type described in 12 U.S.C. 5517(a)(2)(A)(i) and they would be subject to the Bureau's authority only under 12 U.S.C. 5517(a)(2)(B)(i) but not 12 U.S.C. 5517(a)(2)(B)(ii) or (iii); or
(ii) Purchase or acquire an extension of consumer credit excluded by paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section; or
(5) Any person to the extent the limitations in 12 U.S.C. 5517 or 5519 apply to the person or a product or service described in paragraph (a) of this section that is offered or provided by the person.
(a)
(2)
(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section or in § 1040.5(a), a provider shall ensure that the agreement contains the following provision:
We agree that neither we nor anyone else will use this agreement to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
(ii) When the pre-dispute arbitration agreement is for multiple products or services, only some of which are covered by § 1040.3, the provider may include the following alternative provision in place of the one otherwise required by paragraph 4(a)(2)(i) of this section:
We are providing you with more than one product or service, only some of which are covered by the Arbitration Agreements Rule issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau. We agree that neither we nor anyone else will use this agreement to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it. This provision applies only to class action claims concerning the products or services covered by that Rule.
(iii) When the pre-dispute arbitration agreement existed previously between other parties and does not contain either the provision required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section or the alternative permitted by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the provider shall either ensure the agreement is amended to contain the provision specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section or provide any consumer to whom the agreement applies with the written notice specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(B) of this section. The provider shall ensure the agreement is amended or provide the notice to consumers within 60 days of entering into the pre-dispute arbitration agreement.
(A)
We agree that neither we nor anyone else who later becomes a party to this pre-dispute arbitration agreement will use it to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
(B)
We agree not to use any pre-dispute arbitration agreement to stop you from being part of a class action case in court. You may file a class action in court or you may be a member of a class action even if you do not file it.
(b)
(1)
(i) In connection with any claim filed in arbitration by or against the provider concerning any of the consumer financial products or services covered by § 1040.3;
(A) The initial claim and any counterclaim;
(B) The pre-dispute arbitration agreement filed with the arbitrator or arbitration administrator;
(C) The judgment or award, if any, issued by the arbitrator or arbitration administrator; and
(D) If an arbitrator or arbitration administrator refuses to administer or dismisses a claim due to the provider's failure to pay required filing or administrative fees, any communication the provider receives from the arbitrator or an arbitration administrator related to such a refusal; and
(ii) Any communication the provider receives from an arbitrator or an arbitration administrator related to a determination that a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for a consumer financial product or service covered by § 1040.3 does not comply with the administrator's fairness principles, rules, or similar requirements, if such a determination occurs.
(2)
(3)
(i) Names of individuals, except for the name of the provider or the arbitrator where either is an individual;
(ii) Addresses of individuals, excluding city, State, and zip code;
(iii) Email addresses of individuals;
(iv) Telephone numbers of individuals;
(v) Photographs of individuals;
(vi) Account numbers;
(vii) Social Security and tax identification numbers;
(viii) Driver's license and other government identification numbers; and
(ix) Passport numbers.
(a)
(b)
(1) For a provider that does not have the ability to contact the consumer in writing:
(i) The consumer acquires a general-purpose reloadable prepaid card in person at a retail store;
(ii) The pre-dispute arbitration agreement was inside of packaging material when the general-purpose reloadable prepaid card was acquired; and
(iii) The pre-dispute arbitration agreement was packaged prior to [DATE 211 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE].
(2) For a provider that has the ability to contact the consumer in writing:
(i) The provider meets the requirements set forth in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section; and
(ii) Within 30 days of obtaining the consumer's contact information, the provider notifies the consumer in writing that the pre-dispute arbitration agreement complies with the requirements of § 1040.4(a)(2) by providing an amended pre-dispute arbitration agreement to the consumer.
1.
1.
1.
1.
1.
1.
1.
1.
1.
2.
1.
1.
2.
i. Such products or services provided to a consumer who resides in the territorial jurisdiction of the government may include, but are not limited to, the following:
A. A bank that is an affiliate of a State government providing a student loan or deposit account directly to a resident of the State; or
B. A utility that is an affiliate of a State or municipal government providing credit or payment processing services directly to a consumer who resides in the State or municipality to allow a consumer to purchase energy from an energy supplier that is not an affiliate of the same State or municipal government.
ii. Such products or services provided to a consumer who does not reside in the territorial jurisdiction of the government may include, but are not limited to, the following:
A. A bank that is an affiliate of a State government providing a student loan to a student who resides in another State; or
B. A tribal government affiliate providing a short-term loan to a consumer who does not reside in the tribal government's territorial jurisdiction and completes the transaction via the Internet.
1.
1.
i. Examples of when a provider enters into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for purposes of § 1040.4 include but are not limited to when the provider:
A. Provides to a consumer a new product or service that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, and the provider is a party to the pre-dispute arbitration agreement;
B. Acquires or purchases a product covered by § 1040.3(a) that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement and becomes a party to that pre-dispute arbitration agreement, even if the person selling the product is excluded from coverage under § 1040.3(b); or
C. Adds a pre-dispute arbitration agreement to an existing product or service.
ii. Examples of when a provider does not enter into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement for purposes of § 1040.4 include but are not limited to when the provider:
A. Modifies, amends, or implements the terms of a product or service that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement that was entered into before the date set forth in § 1040.5(a); or
B. Acquires or purchases a product that is subject to a pre-dispute arbitration agreement but does not become a party to the pre-dispute arbitration agreement.
2.
i. Pursuant to § 1040.4(a)(1), a provider cannot rely on any pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into by another person after the effective date with respect to any aspect of a class action concerning a product or service covered by § 1040.3 and pursuant to § 1040.4(b) may be required to submit certain specified records related to claims filed in arbitration pursuant to such pre-dispute arbitration agreements.
ii. For example, when a debt collector collecting on consumer credit covered by § 1040.3(a)(1)(i) has not entered into a pre-dispute arbitration agreement, § 1040.4(a)(1) nevertheless prohibits the debt collector from relying on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into by the creditor with respect to any aspect of a class action filed against the debt collector concerning its debt collection products or services covered by § 1040.3. Similarly, § 1040.4(a)(1) would also prohibit the debt collector from relying with respect to any aspect of such a class action on a pre-dispute arbitration agreement entered into by a merchant creditor who was excluded from coverage by § 1040.3(b)(5).
1.
i. Seeking dismissal, deferral, or stay of any aspect of a class action;
ii. Seeking to exclude a person or persons from a class in a class action;
iii. Objecting to or seeking a protective order intended to avoid responding to discovery in a class action;
iv. Filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action;
v. Filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action after the trial court has denied a motion to certify the class but before an appellate court has ruled on an interlocutory appeal of that motion, if the time to seek such an appeal has not elapsed or the appeal has not been resolved; and
vi. Filing a claim in arbitration against a consumer who has filed a claim on the same issue in a class action after the trial court in that class action has granted a motion to dismiss the claim and, in doing so, the court noted that the consumer has leave to refile the claim on a class basis, if the time to refile the claim has not elapsed.
2.
1.
2.
3.
1.
1.
2.
i. The American Arbitration Association's Consumer Due Process Protocol; or
ii. JAMS Policy on Consumer Arbitrations Pursuant to Pre-Dispute Clauses Minimum Standards of Procedural Fairness.
1.
1.
The following appendixes will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
As stated in the Bureau's analysis of the costs, benefits, and impacts of the proposed class rule under Dodd-Frank section 1022(b)(2), the Bureau's estimate of additional federal class litigation costs, benefits, and impacts seeks to use the federal class settlements identified in the Bureau's Study to project the number and size of incremental class action settlements expected to result if the proposal were finalized, as well as other additional costs associated with incremental class litigation. To make that projection the Bureau has sought to confine its analysis to class settlements of class action cases of a type from which providers of consumer financial services are today able to insulate themselves by using an arbitration agreement but would not be able to do so under the proposed rule. For that reason, in making its projections the Bureau excluded two types of federal class settlements that were analyzed in Section 8 of the Study: (1) Class action settlements involving providers or financial products or services which fall outside the scope of the proposal so that providers would still be able to insulate themselves from such cases under the proposal;
In addition, to avoid potential underestimates of the costs of the proposal in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis, the Bureau included for purposes of its calculations 10 federal class settlements that were identified as part of the Study but were not include in the results reported in the Study. Seven of these cases involve allegations of “cramming” of third-party charges on consumer telecommunications bills. One case involved long-term auto leasing.
After accounting for all of the foregoing adjustments, the list below identifies the resulting set of 312 federal class settlements used in the Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis to project the estimated impact of the proposed rule on federal class litigation against providers, with 10 added cases noted with a “*.” (Cases consolidated in the checking account overdraft reordering multidistrict litigation are listed under their original docket numbers, but are consolidated under Docket 1:09-MD-2036-JLK in the U.S. District Court, Southern District of Florida; these settlements are noted with “**.”)
U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Notice.
As required by section 3132(b)(4) of title 5, United States Code, this gives notice of all positions in the Senior Executive Service (SES) that were career reserved during calendar year 2015.
Eloise Jefferson, Senior Executive Resources Services, Senior Executive Services and Performance Management, Employee Services, 202-606-2246.
Below is a list of titles of SES positions that were career reserved at any time during calendar year 2015, regardless of whether those positions were still career reserved as of December 31, 2015. Section 3132(b)(4) of title 5, United States Code, requires that the head of each agency publish such lists by March 1 of the following year. The Office of Personnel Management is publishing a consolidated list for all agencies.
5 U.S.C. 3132.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (the Commission) fully modernizes the Lifeline program so it supports broadband services and obtains high value from the expenditure of Universal Service funds. This Order will increase consumer choice and encourage competition among Lifeline providers to deliver supported broadband services.
Effective June 23, 2016 except for §§ 54.101, 54.202(a)(6), (d), and (e), 54.205(c), 54.401(a)(2), (b), (c), and (f), 54.403(a), 54.405(e)(1) and (e)(3) through (5), 54.407(a), (c)(2), and (d), 54.408, 54.409(a)(2), 54.410(b) through (h), 54.411, 54.416(a)(3), 54.420(b), and 54.422(b)(3) which contain information collection requirements that are not effective until approved by the Office of Management and Budget. The Federal Communications Commission will publish a separate document announcing such approval and the relevant effective date(s).
Nathan Eagan, Wireline Competition Bureau, (202) 418-7400 or TTY: (202) 418-0484.
This is a summary of the Commission's Third Report and Order, Further Report and Order, and Order on Reconsideration (
1. The time has come to modernize Lifeline for the 21st Century to help low-income Americans afford access to today's vital communications network—the Internet, the most powerful and pervasive platform in our Nation's history. Accessing the Internet has become a prerequisite to full and meaningful participation in society. For those Americans with access, the Internet has the power to transform almost every aspect of their lives, including their ability to stay in contact with work, friends, and family; to stay abreast of news, to monitor important civic initiatives, to look for a new home, or to make essential financial decisions. Households with schoolchildren access the Internet to research issues, check assignments, and complete homework, while people with critical or even routine health needs use the Internet to access information about their condition and stay in touch with health care providers.
2. But not all Americans are able to enjoy the benefits of broadband in today's society, even as the importance of broadband grows. There are still 64.5 million people without a connection to the Internet and that figure hits hardest on those with the lowest incomes. The biggest reason these Americans don't sign up for broadband today is cost. Only half of all households in the lowest income tier subscribe to a broadband service and 43 percent say the biggest reason for not subscribing is the cost of the service. Of the low-income consumers who have subscribed to mobile broadband, over 40 percent have to cancel or suspend their service due to financial constraints. Affordability remains the primary barrier to broadband adoption.
3. In this Order, we adopt reforms to make the Commission's Lifeline program a key driver of the solution to our Nation's broadband affordability challenge. Intended initially as a mechanism to reduce the cost of phone service for low-income customers, the Lifeline program has worked in lockstep with telephone providers and consumers to increase the uptake in phone service throughout the country and has kept pace with changes in technology as the Nation moved from a wireline world to one where the number of mobile devices and services now exceeds the population of the United States. But at a time when our economy and lives are increasingly moving online and millions of Americans remain offline, the Lifeline program must keep pace with this technological evolution to fulfill its core mission.
4. Our actions here are also compelled by the Congressional directives that guide our approach to all of universal service. Congress expressed its intent in the Communications Act of 1934 to make available communications service to “all the people of the United States” and, more recently, in the Telecommunications Act of 1996, Congress asserted the principle that rates should be “affordable,” and that access should be provided to low-income consumers in all regions of the nation. Congress also recognized at the same time that new technologies, in addition to landline telephone service, could provide telecommunication services to consumers and that “[u]niversal service is an evolving level of telecommunications services.” Given the evolution of communications technologies and the great strides the Commission has made in improving the performance of the Lifeline program, we must modernize the Lifeline program so it can play an essential and important role in helping those low-income Americans that most need access to valuable broadband services.
5. The Order we adopt today focuses the Lifeline program on broadband by encouraging broadband providers to offer supported broadband services that meet standards we set to ensure ratepayers supporting the program are obtaining value for their contributions and Lifeline subscribers can participate fully in today's society. We also take important steps to improve the management and design of the program by streamlining program rules and eliminating outdated program obligations with the goal of providing incentives for broadband providers to participate and increasing competition and meaningful broadband offerings to Lifeline subscribers. Finally, we follow through on the important and highly effective reforms the Commission initiated in 2012 by making several additional changes to combat waste, fraud, and abuse, including establishing a National Lifeline Eligibility Verifier (National Verifier) that will remove the responsibility of determining Lifeline subscriber eligibility from providers.
6. To create a competitive Lifeline broadband program, this Order takes a variety of actions that work together to encourage more Lifeline providers to deliver supported broadband services as we transition from primarily supporting voice services to targeting support at modern broadband services. We first allow support for robust, standalone fixed and mobile broadband services to ensure meaningful levels of connectivity and we continue to support bundled voice and broadband services. We also establish minimum service standards for broadband and mobile voice services to ensure those services meet the needs of the consumers, and we recognize and allow an exception in areas where fixed
7. We next take a step that will curb abuse in the program and encourage provider participation by creating the National Verifier, which will transfer the responsibility of eligibility determination away from Lifeline providers. By lowering Lifeline providers' costs of conducting verification and reducing the risks of facing a verification-related enforcement action, the National Verifier will make the Lifeline program more attractive to providers. The National Verifier will also remove many opportunities for Lifeline providers to inappropriately enroll subscribers. This step—taking determination of eligibility out of the hands of the same parties that stand to benefit financially from a finding of eligibility—is critical to preventing waste, fraud, and abuse. At the same time, we streamline the criteria for Lifeline program qualification in recognition of the way the vast majority of Lifeline subscribers gain entry to the program as well as through a new program for veterans. We will allow entry based on participation in SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, Federal Public Housing Assistance, and the Veterans Pension benefit program, as well as all current Tribal qualifying programs. We will continue to allow low-income consumers to qualify by demonstrating income of less than 135 percent of the federal poverty guidelines.
8. The Order also encourages entry of new Lifeline providers to supply broadband by creating a streamlined federal Lifeline Broadband Provider (LBP) designation process. (Since Lifeline Broadband Providers will be a subset of eligible telecommunications carriers (ETCs) but ETCs that are not LBPs may also be eligible to receive reimbursement for offering Lifeline-supported broadband Internet access service, some of our rules will apply specifically to LBPs while others will apply more broadly to all ETCs participating in the Lifeline program. In this Order we refer to LBPs specifically when the rule being discussed applies only to LBPs.) Working within the statutory construct in Sections 214 and 254 limiting support to eligible telecommunications carriers (ETCs), we establish a process by which broadband providers may receive a designation from FCC staff to provide broadband Lifeline to qualifying low-income consumers. This new LBP designation process provides an additional alternative to the current ETC designation processes, which remain in place. At the same time, we modernize the obligations of broadband Lifeline providers by interpreting and forbearing from parts of the statute that are not needed in the modern broadband marketplace to ensure just and reasonable rates and the protection of consumers. In particular, we allow for broadband-only provision of service, flexibility in service areas, and streamlining of the relinquishment process. We also interpret Section 214(e)(1)(B) to minimize advertising burdens on providers. We establish a pathway for certain existing Lifeline providers currently obligated to provide voice services to obtain relief from such obligations as clear, measurable benchmarks are met. The benchmarks are designed in such a way that providers have strong incentives to encourage uptake of broadband services.
9. We also recognize that increasing digital inclusion means more than addressing the affordability of broadband service. To that end, we require that Lifeline providers make available Wi-Fi enabled devices when providing such devices for use with the Lifeline-supported service. We also require Lifeline providers of mobile broadband service to make available hotspot-enabled devices. We believe these measures will help to extend the connectivity of the service Lifeline supports. We also direct the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau (CGB) to develop and execute a digital inclusion plan that will bring together a variety of stakeholders to determine how Lifeline can best be leveraged.
10. This Order next recognizes the importance of fiscal responsibility in the program, establishes an annual budget of $2.25 billion, and directs the Bureau to submit a report to the Commission if Lifeline disbursements in a year exceed 90 percent of this level, with an expectation that the Commission will act within six months of this report. It is essential that we ensure the program is designed to operate in an efficient, highly accountable manner that obtains great value from the expenditure of ratepayer dollars. In establishing a budget mechanism, we bring the Lifeline program into alignment with the other three programs of the Universal Service Fund, each of which operates within a budget.
11. We also make a number of changes to further improve the efficient administration and accountability of the Lifeline program. We implement measures to evaluate the Lifeline program to determine whether it is achieving its objectives, we reform the non-usage rules, we make recertification a rolling process, we establish a 12-month benefit port freeze for broadband offerings, we take steps to increase transparency in the program, and we modify program forms to reduce administrative burdens on providers.
12. There is widespread consensus among commenters that the time has come for the Commission to modernize the Lifeline program to support broadband consistent with the national policy of promoting universal service. Based on the record before us, we take the important step toward achieving one of the express goals of the program by amending the definition of Lifeline to include broadband Internet access service (BIAS) as a supported service in the Lifeline program. Through our actions today, we hereby amend § 54.101 to include BIAS as a supported service. More specifically, our definition of BIAS mirrors that under section 8.2(a) of the Commission rules, which defines BIAS as a mass-market retail service by wire or radio that provides the capability to transmit data to and receive data from all or substantially all Internet endpoints, including any capabilities that are incidental to and enable the operation of the communications service, but excluding dial-up Internet access service. Finally, consistent with our change to Section 54.101, we also amend Section 54.401 in our Lifeline rules to include BIAS as eligible for Lifeline support. (These amendments to the Commission rules will take effect on the same date as the minimum service standards set forth in Section 54.408 of the Commission rules.
13. Our actions today are consistent with the universal service goals
14. Within the record before us, there is ample evidence to find that BIAS meets the standard set forth in Section 254(c) given the many ways that individuals rely on broadband in their daily lives, the significant percentage of the population with means subscribing to such services, and the deployment and investment spent on infrastructure. Taking these factors into account, we conclude it is imperative for us to include BIAS as a supported service.
15. More than 200 commenters responded to the Commission's
16. Moreover, objections to modernizing the Lifeline program to include support for broadband principally concern collateral effects that can be addressed without sacrificing program modernization. We do so elsewhere in this Order. For example, both AT&T and Verizon have expressed concern over amendments to Section 54.101 to include BIAS as a supported service on the theory that all ETCs receiving high-cost support would be obligated to offer BIAS throughout their designated service areas, even in those areas where they do not receive high-cost support or have not deployed broadband networks with the minimum speed standards. We recognize that, subsequent to the 1996 Act, state public utilities commissions designated ILECs as ETCs wherever they offered voice telephony service in a state and defined their designated service areas for purposes of receiving federal universal service support as such, including Census blocks where the provider does not currently receive high-cost support or is not obligated to build-out broadband at 10 megabits per second (Mbps) download/1 Mbps upload (10/1 Mbps) speeds pursuant to Commission rules. As a result, ILECs have had the Lifeline obligation to provide discounted voice service throughout their designated service area. (Existing ETCs currently continue to have a Lifeline voice obligation throughout their designated service areas, regardless of their receipt of high-cost support. In this Order, however, we provide conditional forbearance from this obligation). We are sympathetic to ILECs' concerns about requiring them to offer broadband in Census blocks within their ETC designated service areas where the provider is not obligated to build-out broadband services pursuant to our high-cost rules, where broadband services are not commercially available, and in those Census blocks where the provider does not receive high-cost support. To address these concerns, we forbear from Section 214(e)(1) such that ETCs are not required to offer Lifeline-supported broadband service in Census blocks throughout their designated service areas, but instead only where the provider receives high-cost support and is commercially providing broadband consistent with the provider's obligations set forth in the Commission's high-cost rules and requirements.
17. In addition, for recipients of high-cost support, in those areas where the provider receives high-cost support but has not yet deployed a broadband network consistent with the provider's high-cost public interest obligation to offer broadband, the obligation to provide Lifeline broadband services does not begin until such time as the provider has deployed a broadband network and is commercially offering service to that area. We also recognize some carriers' arguments that the Commission should not impose a Lifeline broadband obligation on ETCs in areas where those carriers receive frozen high-cost support, because the frozen support program is an interim program that will be eliminated after the Commission conducts the Connect America Fund Phase II competitive bidding process and frozen support recipients are not required to meet the Lifeline program's minimum speed standards for BIAS offerings. We agree that carriers' receipt of frozen high-cost support should not carry with it a Lifeline broadband obligation, and we therefore clarify that those ETCs receiving frozen high-cost support—whether incumbent providers or competitive ETCs—are not required to offer Lifeline-supported broadband services in their designated service areas where they receive frozen support. (
18. Some parties, such as ITTA, suggest that the Lifeline program should be overhauled before providing support for broadband. (Given the significant changes we adopt within the Lifeline program, we adopt a budget to continue to reduce the contribution burden on consumers). This argument, however, overlooks the significant measures already put in place over the last five years to root out waste, fraud, and abuse and, just as importantly, underestimates the critical importance broadband plays for individuals on a daily basis. Since 2012, when the Universal Service Administrative Company (USAC), the Administrator of the Fund, disbursed more than $2.1 billion in Lifeline support payments, reforms to improve program integrity have reduced disbursements by nearly a third, with Lifeline support payments dropping below $1.5 billion in 2015.
19. In modernizing the Lifeline program to include broadband, we also clarify that the current rule that prohibits the collection of service deposits “for plans that . . . [d]o not charge subscribers additional fees for toll calls,” applies only to standalone voice services. Lifeline service providers are not precluded from collecting service deposits for eligible broadband services. That rule plainly was written with standalone voice service in mind, and it does not have an analog in the context of broadband offerings. For these reasons, Section 54.401(c) is amended to clarify that the prohibition on collecting service deposits is limited to voice-only service plans.
20. The principles listed in Section 254 of the Act make clear that deployment of, and access to, telecommunications and information services are important components of a robust and successful federal universal service program, including the directive to address low-income needs. In Section 254, Congress expressly recognized the importance of ensuring that low-income consumers “have access to telecommunications and information services, including . . . advanced telecommunications and information services” and that universal service is an “evolving level of telecommunications service.” Section 254 of the Act also sets forth the principles that “[q]uality services should be available at just, reasonable, and affordable rates” and that “access to advanced telecommunications and information services should be provided in all regions of the Nation.”
21. Consistent with those statutory objectives, we conclude that Section 254 authorizes us to support bundled voice and BIAS as well as standalone BIAS by defining BIAS as a supported service for purposes of a Lifeline broadband program. For purposes of a given universal service program, Section 254(c)(1) authorizes the Commission to define universal service as an evolving level of telecommunications services that the Commission establishes periodically based on an analysis of several factors. The BIAS that we define as a supported service for the Lifeline broadband program is a telecommunications service that warrants inclusion in the definition of universal service in this context. (In the
22. Based on the record before us, we find there is ample evidence for us to conclude that circumstances have “evolved” where BIAS can and should be included as an element of universal service pursuant to Section 254(c) and made available to Lifeline participants. The criteria set forth in Section 254(c) fully justify our finding. BIAS has, indeed, become “essential to education, public health and public safety. . . . ” (Low-income consumers should have access to the same public safety features as all Americans. Lifeline providers offering a supported service must meet any obligations generally applicable to that service, including, for example, with respect to Next Generation 911 Services.
23. Our approach is also supported by Section 254(c)(1)(A). Under that provision, the Commission considers whether a given supported service is “essential to education, public health, or public safety.” We explain above the importance of BIAS to education and healthcare, among other things, along with the need for discounts in order to enable low-income consumers to realize those benefits. We therefore conclude that BIAS is essential for education and public health for low-income Americans.
24. Section 254(c)(1)(B) directs the Commission to consider whether the service at issue has “through the operation of market choices by customers, been subscribed to by a substantial majority of residential customers.” As noted above, it is reported that 84 percent of American adults use the Internet and surveys have shown that when households have the means, they connect to the Internet at home at rates upward of 95 percent with approximately two-thirds of Americans subscribing to broadband at home. Based on this data, we find that a substantial majority of residential customers subscribe to broadband services. Likewise, we find that BIAS is widely “being deployed in public telecommunications networks by telecommunications carriers” under Section 254(c)(1)(C) given the billions of dollars in capital investment that broadband service providers have spent on broadband networks over the last few years.
25. We also conclude that our action to include BIAS as a supported service is consistent with and advances the Congressional direction and goals set forth under Section 706 of the 1996 Act. Section 706(a) directs the Commission to “encourage the deployment on a reasonable and timely basis of advanced telecommunications capability to all Americans.” Section 706(b) requires the Commission to determine whether “advanced telecommunications capability is being deployed to all Americans in a reasonable and timely fashion. . . .,” and, if the Commission concludes that it is not, to “take immediate action to accelerate deployment of such capability by removing barriers to infrastructure investment and by promoting competition in the telecommunications market.” The Commission has determined that broadband deployment is not proceeding in a reasonable and timely manner, most recently in the
26. In Section III.A, Modernizing Lifeline to Support Broadband, we take the important step of amending our rules to include BIAS as a supported service. In this Section, we now act on several proposals in the
27.
28.
29. We allow Lifeline subscribers to apply the discount to fixed or mobile standalone broadband offerings. (In the
30. We are persuaded that giving qualifying consumers the option of receiving support for either fixed or mobile standalone broadband will better serve consumers as competitive forces encourage Lifeline providers to make valuable broadband offerings supported by the Lifeline program. More attractive offers which result in higher consumer benefits will mean that the funds provided by contributors will be used to provide greater value. For example, we envision a Lifeline provider seeking to address various “digitally divided” consumers with attractive offers of service unique to families with children or the elderly.
31.
32. As a general matter, we adopt a technologically neutral approach and the schedule with respect to support for standalone voice service will apply equally to mobile and fixed providers of voice services. We recognize, however, that in some limited circumstances an ETC that is providing voice service may be the only Lifeline provider in a given area when Lifeline support for standalone voice service otherwise would have been phased out. With respect to any area where a provider is the only Lifeline provider, consistent with the transition described in detail below, the provider will retain its ETC obligations as a Lifeline provider and may receive Lifeline support up to $5.25 per month for standalone voice service provided to eligible subscribers. (
33. The animating principle of the Lifeline program has always been affordability. For years, Lifeline support focused on making affordable fixed residential voice services, providing a discount that combined with a customer contribution to help low-income Americans connect to the telephone network. In 2005, we expanded the program to allow participation by non-facilities-based providers, including prepaid wireless resellers. Since then, the marketplace for both Lifeline and non-Lifeline voice offerings has evolved dramatically. Indeed, non-Lifeline voice rates have fallen drastically since the
34. Our review of the record reveals that voice service is declining in price within the marketplace. This is particularly true of mobile voice services. Some voice-only plans run as low as $10 per month. As we recognized in the
35. Technological evolution and market dynamics have also resulted in more choices and decreasing prices for fixed voice service. The record reflects that customers are increasingly opting for voice services made possible through fixed broadband connections, including VoIP as well as over-the-top voice applications. While some differences between VoIP and traditional fixed voice service remain, we agree with commenters that note that such VoIP services will likely improve and introduce more competition into the marketplace over time. Meanwhile, the Consumer Price Index, maintained by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, has found that telephone services, including both mobile and fixed offerings, have only increased in price during one year from 2010 to 2014, while the price of all goods and services generally increased each year during the same time period. We also recognize the nationwide trend that consumers are increasingly migrating away from fixed residential voice service to mobile voice services, which, as discussed above, have decreased in price. This information further supports our technologically neutral conclusion that, while recent trends in fixed and mobile voice service offerings are not identical, both modes of voice service are undergoing significant change in response to technological developments and new competitive service offerings enabled by those developments.
36. Affordability must remain a central touchstone within the Lifeline program. Mindful of Congress's Section 254 mandate that “[q]uality services should be available at just, reasonable and affordable rates,” we believe that the Lifeline program should directly support those services that are otherwise unaffordable to consumers, but for a Lifeline discount. We also find that continuing to support a voice-only product that is reasonably priced will result in a Lifeline program that fails to deliver the “evolving level” of services that “
37. Several commenters have argued that the Commission should continue to permit Lifeline providers to offer standalone voice service. These parties contend that the Commission should retain support for standalone voice service given that many low-income and unemployed Americans rely on such means of communication within their daily lives. We agree with such commenters that voice continues to be an important resource for consumers to utilize in communicating with others. But we are not persuaded that such service will no longer be available or affordable if it is part of a bundle with broadband services. We make this judgment based on evidence of the power of market forces in the marketplace to compete and innovate to meet consumer demand. We take it as given that many consumers have demanded and will continue to demand voice communications. We predict that Lifeline providers will be responsive to this consumer demand by bundling voice with data offerings and otherwise ensuring consumers are able to easily use a voice service with their data plan. We believe that the innovative Lifeline providers currently in the program will be just as innovative in packaging competitive voice offerings with the supported broadband service. Indeed, wireless Lifeline providers have already recognized the increased demand for broadband and as a result are starting to include broadband options within their Lifeline offerings.
38. We further recognize that, in the existing Lifeline marketplace, Lifeline providers have met consumers' demands for texting, although it is not a Lifeline-supported service. Many Lifeline providers under their own volition have offered unlimited texting with the Lifeline voice service. Mobile plans offered to non-Lifeline subscribers are priced as low as $20 for unlimited talk and text when bundled with data, whereas some Lifeline plans offer as much as approximately 500 voice minutes and text. In the same way, we would expect Lifeline providers would be incentivized by competitive forces to meet the demand for voice service and make voice services available to customers.
39. We emphasize that nothing in our rule change will prevent a Lifeline provider from offering a bundle of voice and broadband service that delivers the voice component over either non-IP or IP technologies. In this way, we allow for Lifeline providers to choose how, whether, and when to transition to the use of newer technologies for delivering voice service. As part of the overall Lifeline modernization, this change sets the stage for a full program modernization where Lifeline providers are delivering voice services to customers over modern technologies in a much more efficient way that benefits consumers and provides more value to the Fund.
40. In summary, to ensure that future Lifeline offerings are sufficient for consumers to participate in the 21st Century economy at affordable rates, and to obtain the most value possible from the Lifeline benefit, we modify the Lifeline rules to support voice services only through a bundle that includes broadband services pursuant to the transition period detailed below. This phase-out of support will not apply to ETCs providing voice service in census blocks where they are the only Lifeline service provider. We are persuaded that Lifeline must provide a robust, affordable service and be forward-looking so that as newer technologies become more widely available, the program can continue to deliver value to the low-income subscriber and to the ratepayers supporting the program. Encouraging use of such voice-only service indefinitely is inconsistent with the Act's guidance that “[u]niversal service is an evolving level of telecommunications services” that “are being deployed in public telecommunications networks.”
41.
42. This initial voice-only minimum service standard will become effective the later of December 1, 2016 or 60 days after the date when the Commission receives approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the new information collection requirements in this Order subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. At the same time, beginning on the same date, a phase-in of mobile broadband will begin. As described below, this transition is scheduled to continue until December 1, 2021. During the initial phase-in period, from December 1, 2016 through November 30, 2019, a voice and broadband Lifeline bundle must include at least one supported service meeting the minimum service standards applicable at that time. From December 1, 2019 to November 30, 2021, a voice and broadband Lifeline bundle must include a BIAS offering that meets the broadband minimum service standards applicable at that time in order to receive the full $9.25 benefit. From December 1, 2019 to November 30, 2021, a voice and broadband Lifeline bundle with a broadband offering that does not meet the applicable mobile broadband minimum service standards but does meet the mobile voice minimum service standard may receive the applicable support level for standalone mobile voice.
43. Prior to December 1, 2019, voice-only support will be set at $9.25 per month. Beginning December 1, 2019 the support amount will decline to $7.25 per month; beginning December 1, 2020, it will decline further to $5.25 per month. During that time period, we will also phase-in increasing minimum service standards for mobile voice service. Beginning the later of December 1, 2016 or 60 days after PRA approval, supported mobile voice offerings must include at least 500 minutes per month; beginning December 1, 2017, supported mobile voice offerings must include at least 750 minutes per month; and beginning December 1, 2018, supported mobile voice offerings must include 1000 minutes per month. Beginning December 1, 2021, there will no longer be support for voice-only service, or voice service bundled with a broadband offering that does not meet the applicable minimum service standard for BIAS, unless the Commission has acted upon recommendations to do otherwise presented in the State of the Lifeline Marketplace Report. However, voice service will continue to be supported as long as it is offered with
44. Over the same period for which the voice-only support level declines for fixed and mobile voice services, fixed and mobile broadband will receive $9.25 in monthly support and the minimum service standard for mobile broadband service will gradually increase. Specifically, on the later of December 1, 2016 or 60 days after the Commission receives PRA approval of the information collection requirements in this Order, the mobile broadband minimum service standards for data usage allowance will be set at 500 megabytes (MB) monthly at 3G speeds. The minimum data usage allowance will increase to 1 gigabyte (GB) on December 1, 2017 and to 2 GB on December 1, 2018. On December 1, 2019, the minimum standard for mobile data usage will be set based on a forward-facing updating mechanism using objective data as described below. From December 1, 2016 to November 30, 2019, a voice and broadband Lifeline bundle must include at least one supported service meeting the minimum service standard applicable at that time for such supported service. (
45.
46. However, given the inherent uncertainty in the future Lifeline marketplace, we also direct the Bureau by June 30, 2021, to submit to the Commission a State of the Lifeline Marketplace Report. This report should review the Lifeline marketplace for the purpose of recommending to the Commission whether the transition set out in this Order should be completed or whether the Commission should act to continue delaying Lifeline's transition to chiefly supporting broadband services. This report should in particular consider the prevalence of subscriptions to various service offerings in the Lifeline program, the affordability of both voice and broadband services, the pace since adoption of this Order at which voice and data usage has changed, and the associated net benefits of continuing to support voice service as a standalone option. (The Bureau in the State of the Lifeline Marketplace Report should in particular follow the principles presented in Part E of OMB Circular A-4 for the purpose of determining whether to continue support for voice-only service.
47.
48.
49. In the
50. The minimum service standards we adopt are rooted in the statutory directives to ensure that quality services are available at “just, reasonable, and affordable rates,” and that advanced telecommunications services, the services which have “been subscribed to by a substantial majority of residential customers,” are available throughout the nation. We interpret these directives as requiring the Commission to ensure that low-income consumers can both afford and physically access services that are available throughout the Nation. The standards adopted below ensure that Lifeline supports the type of service the Act specifically requires, and the updating mechanisms will give Lifeline subscribers confidence that their supported service will remain robust as technology improves through a predictable mechanism.
51. The minimum standards we establish will also account for the need for Lifeline service offerings to be affordable. As we noted, “the Lifeline program is specifically targeted at affordability,” and it is necessary to establish minimum service levels that are both affordable and reasonably comparable. Commenters also
52. We first explain which services will have minimum service standards. We also set initial minimum service standards and provide updating mechanisms. Finally, we describe exceptions made for providers who do not offer services meeting our minimum standards.
53.
54. Numerous commenters support establishing minimum service standards for broadband; they emphasize that Lifeline customers should not need to accept “second-tier” service, and that functional Internet access is essential to allow consumers to fully participate in society. Broadband access can help households meet their “basic needs for education, health care, disabilities access, and public safety.” While other commenters argue that minimum service standards are unnecessary, or unduly burdensome, we generally believe that, at a minimum, services that are subscribed to by a substantial majority of the nation's consumers should receive Lifeline funding. We are unpersuaded by the argument that minimum service standards are unduly burdensome. As discussed in greater detail,
55. In the
56. Finally, while setting initial minimum service standards is necessary to guarantee access to services that a “substantial majority” of residential consumers have already subscribed to, it is equally important to regularly update those standards to make sure that Lifeline continues to support an evolving level of telecommunications service. Because technology develops at a rapid pace, any minimum standards we set would quickly become outdated without a timely updating mechanism. Commenters also agree that any minimum service level must be updated regularly. Accordingly, we conclude that minimum standards must be updated on a regular basis to ensure that consumers are able to continue to receive sufficiently robust service similar to what a substantial majority of American consumers subscribe to. We also conclude that the updating mechanism will rely on an “objective, data-based methodology,” as we proposed in the
57. We first discuss the minimum standards for fixed broadband service. In the
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59. In the
60. We conclude that the minimum service standards for fixed broadband speed should be based on the service to which a “substantial majority” of consumers subscribe as determined using available subscriber data reported on the Form 477. As we discuss in greater detail below, while we do not formally define the term “substantial majority” for all supported services, we believe that 70 percent of consumers constitutes a “substantial majority” in the context of fixed broadband speeds. (While we conclude that 70 percent of consumers constitutes a “substantial majority” as it relates to fixed broadband speeds, we lack the data to precisely determine what percent of consumers subscribe to other modes of services at particular service levels. Despite this, we still set minimum standards for other supported services at levels that in our judgement constitute
61. We also conclude that focusing solely on the “functionality” of a consumer's Internet service would not provide a workable standard for the Commission to use when updating annual service standards because it would require the Commission to determine the numerical threshold of “functionality” on a regular basis. By using numerical thresholds indexed to what consumers actually subscribe to, the Commission will allow consumer usage to determine what speeds are “reasonably comparable.”
62. Because providers already “report extensively on their offerings” on Form 477 twice a year, it is an appropriate repository for data to set and regularly update the minimum service standard for fixed broadband speeds. Additionally, the Commission previously emphasized that it uses Form 477 to “update our universal service policies and monitor whether our statutory universal service goals are being achieved.” Because Form 477 provides an accurate picture of what services American consumers actually subscribe to, and because it is collected on a regular basis, we conclude that Form 477 provides the best data with which to set and update the minimum service standard for fixed broadband speeds.
63. In addition, for the fixed broadband data usage allowance minimum service standard, we conclude that the data usage allowance standards currently used in the Connect America Fund for rate of return carriers electing A-CAM support are appropriate. We base the initial data usage allowance standard on this CAF standard because we do not currently have a source of available data that could be used to determine what percentage of subscribers purchase offerings with certain data usage allowance limits. We therefore set the initial data usage allowance standard for fixed broadband at the CAF rate-of-return standard for carriers electing A-CAM support, which is 150 GB per month for fixed broadband. We further conclude that the minimum service standards for data usage shall be updated based on data in the Commission's Urban Rate Survey and other appropriate and relevant data sources. The Urban Rate Survey was originally created as part of the Commission's Connect America Fund initiative in part to allow the Bureau “to specify an appropriate minimum for data usage allowance allowances” in CAF, and we believe it can serve a similar purpose here. While we set the initial data usage allowance standard for fixed broadband based on the CAF rate-of-return standard for carriers electing A-CAM support, we also believe the Urban Rate Survey in the future will help guide the Bureau to determine the usage allowance most commonly offered in the fixed broadband marketplace. (We also encourage providers to explore options for increasing usage allowances for Lifeline consumers who are deaf, hard of hearing, deaf-blind, or have a speech disability and rely on video connection for Video Relay Services and point-to-point calls and other bandwidth-intensive accessibility functionalities.).
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68. For the fixed broadband minimum service standards, the Bureau will, on delegated authority, on an annual basis, release a Public Notice on or before July 31 notifying the public of the updated standard levels for speed and data usage allowance to be effective on December 1 for the next twelve months. The updated speed standard will be calculated using the above specified values from the most recent available Form 477. In the event the Bureau does not issue the Public Notice by July 31, or if any of the data required by the calculation are older than 18 months, the minimum service level for fixed broadband speed will be set at the greater of either (1) its current level; or (2) the fixed broadband speed standard used in the Connect America Fund for rate-of-return carriers. Because the Connect America Fund is also designed to provide advanced telecommunications services to America's consumers, we conclude that its fixed broadband speed standards provide an acceptable alternative in the event the Bureau does not complete its update in a timely manner.
69. For the fixed broadband minimum service data allowance usage standard, the Bureau will, on delegated authority, on an annual basis, release a Public Notice on or before July 31 notifying the public of the updated standard level to be effective on December 1 for the next twelve months. The updated fixed broadband minimum service standard for data allowance usage will be the greater of (1) an amount the Bureau concludes a “substantial majority” of American consumers already subscribe to; or (2) the Connect America Fund data usage allowance standard set for rate-of-return carriers.
70. We next discuss the minimum service levels for mobile broadband services in the Lifeline program and revise Section 54.408 of the rules. In the
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• First, the average number of mobile subscriptions per household will be determined by dividing the total number of mobile-cellular subscriptions in the United States, as reported in the
• Second, the number of mobile subscriptions per American household will be multiplied by the percentage of mobile subscribers who own a smart phone, as reported by the Commission in its annual
• Third, the calculated average number of mobile smartphone subscriptions per household will be multiplied by the average data used per mobile smartphone subscriber, as reported by the Commission in its annual
• Fourth, to provide more simplicity for providers, the per-household capacity will be rounded down to the nearest 250 MB. (Based on current data, the 2.22 GB household capacity leads to a minimum capacity standard of 2 GB per month).
74. If applied today, the minimum service standards for mobile data usage allowance would be set at 2 GB per month, however, as discussed
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77. We recognize that the minimum service standards for mobile broadband speeds may not need to be updated as frequently as the mobile data usage allowance standard given the pace at which new mobile technology generations are deployed. We therefore direct the Bureau to consider updating the mobile broadband speed standard at the same time it updates the minimum service standard for mobile broadband data usage allowance. The Bureau should consider mobile Form 477 data and other relevant sources to determine whether the mobile speed standard should be updated. Because we recognize that the minimum standard for mobile broadband speeds may not need to be updated on an annual basis, it will not be subject to an automatic increase; instead, it will only be adjusted if the Bureau determines that it ought to be adjusted after determining that, based on Form 477 data or other relevant sources, the “substantial majority” principle is best satisfied by an adjusted speed standard. In any case, the same Public Notice updating the mobile broadband data usage allowance standard should also establish the mobile broadband speed standard in effect beginning December 1, regardless of whether it is adjusted from its previous level.
78. In the
79. In the
80. Based on recently available data, it is clear that a “substantial majority” of American consumers already subscribe to plans that offer 1,000 or more minutes, because “none of the smartphone plans for the United States have limited minutes,” and 77 percent of cell phones in the United States are smartphones. Accordingly, we conclude that Lifeline providers that seek support for mobile voice-only service, after the transition set out here, must provide 1,000 voice minutes in order to satisfy the minimum service standards until mobile voice is no longer a supported standalone service. Because we will require mobile voice providers to offer at least 1,000 minutes beginning on December 1, 2018, the mobile voice minimum service standard will not be updated annually after that date.
81. We therefore adopt the following transition for mobile voice minimum service requirements. The minimum service standards for mobile voice are as follows. Beginning the later of December 1, 2016 or 60 days after PRA approval, providers will be required to offer at least 500 minutes per month to mobile voice consumers. Multiple providers have indicated that they will be able to offer consumers 500 minutes a month, (To the extent that some of these providers suggest we should not at this time schedule any increase above 500 minutes, we disagree. Under the schedule we have adopted, providers will have well over 18 months to prepare for a phase-in of the 750-minute
82. In the
83. While numerous commenters supported minimum service standards, many commenters worried about reduced consumer choice, or providers being forced from the Lifeline market if they could not offer services that meet the minimum standard. We are mindful of these issues, but we conclude that allowing the Lifeline benefit to be used on services that do not meet our minimum service standards would lead to the type of “second class” service that the minimum service standards are meant to eliminate. One of the reasons behind adopting minimum service standards was our belief that such standards would “remove the incentive for providers to offer minimal, un-innovative services.” If providers were able to collect support for services that did not meet our standards, this would lead providers to continue to offer low-quality services. For this reason, we require, for fixed broadband, that any Lifeline supported service meet both the speed and data usage allowance minimum standards.
84. We also decline to allow mobile broadband services to be supported if the service does not meet the minimum service standards for both speed and data usage allowance. We do not believe that mobile broadband speeds of less than 3G are sufficiently advanced to warrant Lifeline funding. Further, we believe the current wireless and Lifeline marketplaces would allow mobile service providers to structure their offerings in such a way that the minimum service standards would not promote robust service. For this reason, we require that any Lifeline mobile broadband service meet both the speed and data usage allowance minimum service standards. For mobile voice-only service, as long as it is supported as a standalone service and subject to the transition detailed above, the service provided must meet the minimum service standard.
85. In order to ensure that Lifeline service meets the minimum service standards, we require service providers to annually certify compliance with the applicable minimum service level rules. Accordingly, we amend Section 54.422(b) to require carriers to certify their compliance with these requirements on our Form 481.
86. We next provide an exception to our minimum standard requirements targeted towards fixed providers who have yet to deploy broadband capable networks in specific geographic areas that meet the minimum service standards. While we are mindful of our statutory directive to ensure that residents of underserved areas have access to services that are “reasonably comparable to those services provided in urban areas and that are available at rates that are reasonably comparable to rates charged for similar services in urban areas,” we have also recognized that many people, especially those living in rural areas, might not yet have access to broadband services that meet our minimum service requirements. Many commenters have similarly emphasized the different levels of infrastructure present in rural areas. In the
87. We recognize that the necessary infrastructure is not present in all areas, and that there are providers which are not currently capable of offering services which meet or exceed the minimum service standards. Accordingly, we address commenters' concerns with a limited exception to our minimum service standards. This approach maintains our objective of providing robust service where available while also not precluding a subscriber from obtaining a Lifeline benefit in situations where the infrastructure does not yet support the minimum service standard. Additionally, our conclusion is consistent with Commission precedent, as the Commission has previously granted certain recipients of Universal Service funding waivers from our minimum service standards because of infrastructure constraints. As we explain in more detail below, the exception applies in the following circumstances.
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91. A provider qualifying for this exception may claim Lifeline support for a household even when providing service that does not meet the minimum standards for fixed broadband as long as the Lifeline discount is applied only to the purchase of its highest performing generally available residential offering that meets or exceeds 4Mbps/1Mbps. A provider will certify that it is providing the service in accordance with Commission rules, including that this exception has been appropriately applied. However, as always, the Commission will retain its audit authority and may use it to periodically evaluate whether a provider is complying with the rule.
92. Finally, while we do not at this time provide an exception to the minimum service standards for mobile broadband, our longstanding waiver rule permits the Commission to waive any rule “in whole or in part, for good cause shown.” We accordingly will consider waivers on a case-by-case basis for providers who do not meet our minimum speed standard for mobile broadband in particular areas. Pursuant to our general waiver rule, waiver of the mobile minimum service standards for broadband would be appropriate only if special circumstances warrant a deviation from those standards, and such a deviation will serve the public interest. We could envision that such special circumstances and public interest benefits would most likely be present in cases in which a provider seeks a waiver to apply the Lifeline benefit to the fastest mobile broadband product it offers, but that product does not meet the minimum service standards for mobile broadband due to lack of a deployed network able to achieve that standard.
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94. Many commenters argue that the current $9.25 support level may be insufficient to cover the total cost of the supported service. Other commenters support the adoption of “tiered” service levels, with the amount of Lifeline support varying with the service provided, and the provision of a greater benefit for broadband service and a smaller benefit for voice-only service. We partially adopt such proposals, because we conclude that a greater benefit amount should be offered for broadband providers to facilitate the program's transition to broadband.
95. Although we take no position on whether $9.25 will be sufficient to support the entire cost of supported service, we emphasize that Lifeline was created to provide affordable, rather than free service, and past Commission decisions have emphasized this point. Additionally, we believe that other changes made in today's Order, such as the creation of a National Verifier and the streamlined eligibility determination process, will lower Lifeline providers' costs, and those savings can be passed on to consumers.
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97. Although we decide generally to phase-out Lifeline support for voice-only service as of December 1, 2021, we create an exception where particular circumstances are met. Specifically, we preserve the final phase-down level of Lifeline support ($5.25) even after December 1, 2021, for the provision of voice-only service to eligible subscribers by a provider that is the only Lifeline provider in a Census block. In particular, in any such Census block, such a provider will continue to receive $5.25 per month in federal Lifeline support for providing voice telephony service meeting the minimum standards to eligible subscribers, and thus will discount such voice service in the amount of the support received in accordance with our Lifeline rules.
98. Although we conclude that Lifeline should transition to focus more on broadband Internet access service given the increasingly important role that service plays in the marketplace, we remain mindful of the importance historically placed on voice service. We also recognize that although we provide a transition during which support is phased down, consumer migration to new technologies is not always uniform, and certain measures to continue addressing the affordability of voice service may be appropriate consistent with the objectives of Sections 254(b)(1), (b)(3) and (i). At the same time, in implementing Section 254 the Commission has a “responsibility to be a prudent guardian of the public's resources.” Collectively, this persuades us that although it remains appropriate to use some universal service resources for Lifeline voice even after such support otherwise generally has been phased out, we should prioritize supporting, in an administrable way, those areas where we anticipate there to be the greatest likely need for doing so.
99. Balancing those objectives, we conclude that the pre-December 1, 2021, level of Lifeline support—$5.25—will remain available even after December 1, 2021, for a provider to provide voice-only service to eligible subscribers in any Census block where it is the only Lifeline provider. Although one theoretically could imagine targeting this continued Lifeline support for voice-only service in other ways—
100. Further, having focused on these areas, we conclude that it makes more sense to provide any continued Lifeline support for voice-only service to the existing, single ETC serving the relevant Census block, rather than necessitating the designation of an entirely new ETC simply to serve this post-phase out role, particularly given that the Commission is phasing out Lifeline support for voice-only service more generally. With respect to any such Census block, Lifeline support for voice-only service provided by the sole Lifeline provider shall remain in place—together with the ETC's obligations as a Lifeline provider (This assumes that the ETC has not qualified for the conditional forbearance described in Section III.E.2.c (Forbearance Regarding the Lifeline Voice Service Obligations) or relinquished its ETC status in relevant part)—until the first year after the Commission (or the Bureau, acting on delegated authority) announces that a second Lifeline provider has begun providing service in the Census block.
101. For purposes of identifying the providers and Census blocks initially subject to this rule, we direct the Bureau to conduct a process to identify the Census blocks where there only is one Lifeline provider. The results of that initial process should be announced at least six months prior to the date on which support for standalone voice is scheduled to phase down to $0,
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104. Finally, we address the issue of whether the Lifeline program should support the cost of handsets or customer premise equipment. In the
105. In this Section, we establish a National Lifeline Eligibility Verifier (National Verifier) to make eligibility determinations and perform a variety of other functions necessary to enroll eligible subscribers into the Lifeline Program. The National Verifier is more than simply a piece of technology; it is a system relying on both human resources and technological elements to increase the integrity and improve the performance of the Lifeline program for the benefit of a variety of Lifeline participants, including Lifeline providers, subscribers, states, community-based organizations, USAC, and the Commission. As described below, the National Verifier will have both electronic and manual methods to process eligibility determinations and will have at its center a Lifeline Eligibility Database (LED), which will contain records of all subscribers deemed eligible by the National Verifier. The National Verifier will also engage in a variety of other functions, such as, but not limited to, enabling access by authorized users, providing support payments to providers, and conducting recertification of subscribers, to add to the efficient administration of the Lifeline program. This Order directs
106. The Commission's key objectives for the National Verifier are to protect against and reduce waste, fraud, and abuse; to lower costs to the Fund and Lifeline providers through administrative efficiencies; and to better serve eligible beneficiaries by facilitating choice and improving the enrollment experience.
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110. As supported by the record, we establish the National Verifier and explain how its core functions will achieve each objective described above. The National Verifier is a comprehensive integrator of processes and systems. The National Verifier will, first and foremost, determine subscriber eligibility for the Lifeline program. It will also perform other necessary functions, such as enabling Lifeline providers to verify eligibility of a subscriber, providing access to authorized users, and providing support payments to providers. At the core of the National Verifier will be the Lifeline Eligibility Database (LED), which will contain a list of Lifeline eligible, non-duplicative potential subscribers. (As described below, USAC may propose to the Bureau how and whether the information in the NLAD can or should be used to populate the LED). While we set forth the basic functions and structure below, we direct USAC to work with the Bureau, and OMD as appropriate, to implement the National Verifier and to make administrative and efficiency improvements consistent with the core elements described below.
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112. Both the manual and electronic approaches will apply program rules, including identity verification, as necessary, to determine a subscriber's eligibility. (For example, if a state administrator verifies identity in the same robust manner as the federal identification verification check, USAC may propose to the Bureau to rely on the state's check). The National Verifier will also check to ensure that the subscriber is not a duplicate of any existing subscriber already receiving a Lifeline benefit. By checking this, the National Verifier will reinforce and build on the NLAD to enforce Lifeline's one-per-household rule, and prevent duplicates. Subscribers will be able to submit information about themselves (
113. The National Verifier will have both a manual and electronic certification process. We agree with commenters that our long-term goal should be to determine the eligibility of most subscribers through the more efficient means of electronic certification. We recognize that electronic certification of eligibility will generally have lower long-run costs relative to labor-intensive manual certification. We have streamlined the programs used to determine eligibility for Lifeline to those that have substantial automation and electronic process in place already. We direct USAC to seek the most cost effective and efficient means to incorporate electronic eligibility certification into the National Verifier wherever feasible. We expect USAC and the Bureau to work closely with the states, other federal agencies, and Tribal Nations to foster partnerships that will help the National Verifier develop the most efficient pathways to determining subscriber eligibility. For example, USAC should consider co-enrollment with states, other federal entities, or Tribal Nations or coordination with other entities that have enrollment responsibilities to more efficiently determine eligibility. We believe such actions based on electronic certification will better support our objectives to reduce the costs to the Fund and to better serve subscribers with an improved certification process.
114. The National Verifier will implement a complete eligibility review prior to providing a Lifeline benefit. We believe that it is vital to deploy the National Verifier with the expectation that it will conduct comprehensive and timely reviews. In the
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119. We also expect the National Verifier to use a variety of methods to communicate with subscribers who have limited means of connection, both in terms of the mode used (such as mail, telephone, text messages, email, etc.) and in terms of form used (such as various languages and access for disabled individuals). The mode of communication from the National Verifier to the subscriber at a minimum must be appropriate and commensurate with the mode through which the subscriber initiated contact with the National Verifier or requested to be contacted. We also expect the National Verifier to provide access to subscribers with disabilities in accordance with all applicable laws and to provide service in multiple languages as directed by the Bureau.
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122. Additionally, we direct USAC to consider how the National Verifier might facilitate initiatives that aggregate eligible subscribers' Lifeline benefits so as to streamline the payment of benefits and therefore encourage provider participation. The Bureau will work with USAC to establish procedures and guidance USAC can use to coordinate “aggregation projects” in the Lifeline program consistent with the objective of preventing waste, fraud, and abuse. At a minimum, to create an aggregation project, the Lifeline provider must certify that the aggregation project will provide Lifeline eligible service directly to the eligible low-income subscribers' residences, describe the technologies the Lifeline provider plans to utilize for that specific project, and certify that the service provided through the project will otherwise comply with all other Lifeline rules. We note here that aggregated benefit programs must meet the minimum standards set out in the Lifeline rules, as measured by the service provided to each individual subscriber. We therefore amend § 54.401 to enable payment for providers' servicing aggregation projects. Further, we direct the Bureau to work with USAC, as part of implementing the National Verifier, to provide Lifeline providers with guidance and procedures for creating aggregation projects and for enrolling subscribers in aggregation projects. (USAC's role will be to develop processes to ease and streamline the administration of aggregation projects by implementing special systems, technical support, and coordination efforts. USAC will not fund consumer outreach efforts but may provide administration and expertise to community-based organizations, housing associations, and institutions seeking to coordinate the aggregation of benefits). Finally, total reimbursement distributed to the Lifeline provider will be tied directly to the number of subscribers affiliated with an aggregation project who have been determined eligible for a Lifeline benefit.
123. In this Section, we direct USAC to develop a robust performance management system to advance the objectives and to analyze, on an ongoing-basis, the effectiveness of the National Verifier. We recognize that our success with the National Verifier is integral to the Lifeline program. We provide below a range of components to be utilized in evaluating the performance of the National Verifier. Our list is not exhaustive, and we expect USAC, in consultation with the Bureau and OMD, to continue to update the performance of the National Verifier and its performance management system.
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133. The National Verifier must follow the NIST guidance for secure, encrypted methods for obtaining, transmitting, storing, and disposal of consumer and provider information. The National Verifier should also follow NIST guidance for firewalls, boundary protections, protective naming conventions, and adoption of strong user authentication requirements and usage restrictions to protect the confidentiality of consumer and provider information. (In discussing the privacy of consumer information, we do not limit it to active subscribers. The Verifier must also protect information gathered from applicants to the Lifeline program, whether unsuccessful or successful, and past subscribers.) We further direct USAC to ensure that, per NIST guidance, access to consumer and provider data is limited and subject to secure authentication systems for Verifier personnel, (The personnel for the Verifier, include but are not limited to, personnel at USAC, personnel at an entity procured by USAC to execute the functions of the Verifier, or personnel procured by USAC to support any of the functions of the National Verifier) for service providers and for other users who will have access to consumer or provider data in the possession or control of the National Verifier. We also direct USAC, per NIST guidance, to ensure that Verifier personnel working with consumer or provider data held by the National Verifier receive USAC's yearly rules of behavior, regular privacy and data security training. (We expect that USAC annually will update its rules of behavior as needed.) USAC must maintain records of the trainings and attendees. We further direct USAC, per NIST guidance, to ensure that the National Verifier limit its data collection to information it needs to perform its functions as National Verifier, and to promptly and securely dispose of data that it no longer needs. We direct USAC, in accordance with NIST 800-53 (The NIST 800-53 is a security publication
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140. Before December 1, 2016, USAC shall submit to the Bureau and OMD the “Draft National Verifier Plan” as the first implementation milestone. This plan will comprehensively describe the National Verifier to be developed and implemented. The plan will also set out a proposed strategy, estimated timeline, and estimated budget for progressively deploying each part of the National Verifier. As part of the strategy, this plan will explain in detail how USAC expects to procure services for the National Verifier, to partner with states, and to incorporate other federal databases and systems into the National Verifier. The Bureau and OMD will work with USAC to make any necessary revisions, and will approve the revised “National Verifier Plan.” (While the National Verifier Plan is the official vehicle for approving the planned details of the National Verifier, USAC from the effective date of this order may begin taking actions in preparation for
141. After approval of the National Verifier Plan, on or before July 31 and January 31 of each year until the National Verifier implementation is complete, USAC will submit to the Bureau and OMD a National Verifier Implementation Update. This document will provide regular information to the Bureau and OMD on progress toward the approved National Verifier Plan.
142. Given the complexity of the National Verifier and wide variety of databases and systems to which the National Verifier may connect, we provide flexibility in how and when USAC chooses to incorporate such systems. We require the NLAD opt-out states to provide existing subscriber information to USAC by December 1, 2016, and ongoing thereafter, including any information regarding services that Lifeline subscribers subscribe to as described further below. (These states include California, Texas, Oregon, and Vermont.
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145. We next take steps to streamline eligibility for Lifeline support to increase efficiency and improve the program for consumers, Lifeline providers, and other participants. Beginning on the later of December 1, 2016 or 60 days following PRA approval, low-income households who qualify for and receive SNAP, Medicaid, Supplemental Security Income (“SSI”), Federal Public Housing Assistance (“FPHA”), or the Veterans Pension benefit will be eligible for enrollment in the Lifeline program. (Consistent with the new annual eligibility rules, subscribers already enrolled prior to December 1, 2016 under any of the retired eligibility criteria will be eligible until their next re-certification. We direct USAC to communicate with carriers and consumers as necessary to provide information where a retired eligibility program is being used.). We amend our rules to remove Low-Income Home Energy Assistance Program (“LIHEAP”); National School Lunch Program's free lunch program (“NSLP”); and Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (“TANF”) from the default federal assistance eligibility for Lifeline. Finally, we do not modify the income-based eligibility nor the Tribal eligibility criteria.
146. We make these reforms as part of our modernization of the Lifeline program to increase efficiency and reduce burdens on participants. In the
147. In evaluating the eligibility criteria, we next focus on the ability to develop long-term technological efficiencies by easily accessing systems and databases from other assistance programs. An efficient eligibility database to be used in the administration of Lifeline will streamline the program for consumers and providers alike. The ability to access eligibility databases for federal assistance programs is key to the success of the National Verifier. (For example, the Commission and SNAP have an existing data sharing agreement that allows current ETCs to verify if a low-income consumer is receiving SNAP benefits after coordinating with the state snap administrator.). In streamlining eligibility programs, we selected programs where a database or data sharing agreement could likely be achieved.
148. Finally, we remain committed to preventing waste, fraud and abuse within the Lifeline program. By relying on highly accountable programs that demonstrate limited eligibility fraud, Lifeline will greatly reduce the potential of waste, fraud, and abuse occurring due to eligibility errors. Federal assistance programs that have demonstrated limited eligibility errors offer the ability to leverage prevention efforts within Lifeline. We recognize that fraud is a
149. Today, we modify our rules to grant eligibility for Lifeline to low-income consumers receiving Veterans Pension benefit or Survivors Pension benefit. (Any reference to the Veterans Pension benefit as a default federal assistance program is meant to include the Survivors Pension benefit as well). The Veterans Pension benefit program is a means-based program that supports veterans and their spouses by providing up to $13,855 annually minus any countable family income.
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151. The Veterans Pension benefit also allows the Commission to foster a long-term technological solution to verifying eligibility. By collaborating with Veterans Affairs, the Commission will be able to foster a similar database access agreement as we have with the USDA FNS. (Note also that the Veterans Pension benefit can be used as an eligibility pathway even prior to incorporation of the VA's database as benefit recipients will already have or are able to obtain documentation from the VA). The National Personnel Records Center has digitized armed service personnel records, which will provide an efficient, streamlined solution to verifying eligibility. The Veterans Pension benefit also provides a highly accountable program to further help combat waste, fraud, and abuse within the Lifeline program. (The VA states that approximately 2.17 percent of pension outlays are improper. It is important to note that the improper payment percentage includes both under and overpayments. It is likely that the true eligibility error rate is marginally higher or lower than improper payment rate attributable to eligibility errors since payments may not be proportionally related to participation.). Further, Veterans Affairs is currently implementing the Veterans Benefits Management System (“VBMS”) with the goal of improving processing accuracy of all benefit claims to 98 percent. VBMS, once fully implemented, will provide a completely electronic solution to incrementally validate application requirements, processes, and administrative functions. We find Lifeline will reduce waste, fraud, and abuse by leveraging the Veterans Pension benefits' accountability rather than duplicating eligibility determinations.
152. In our evaluation of the existing ways households may qualify for the Lifeline program, we first consider whether Lifeline eligibility programs are being utilized by subscribers for qualification and how many current subscribers enroll in Lifeline using the eligibility programs. The overwhelming majority of current Lifeline consumers enroll based on participation in SNAP, Medicaid, and SSI, and we maintain these programs in the Lifeline eligibility criteria. As of November 2015, nearly 80 percent of all consumers participating in Lifeline demonstrate eligibility by participation in SNAP, Medicaid, or SSI. Additionally, these programs capture 80 percent of the eligible low-income population under the existing Lifeline eligibility rules. In streamlining Lifeline to rely on the federal assistance programs that are most frequently used to provide access to Lifeline, we will leverage eligibility efficiencies provided by these programs. In sum, we conclude that continuing to use SNAP, Medicaid, and SSI as qualifying programs recognizes the attractiveness of Lifeline to SNAP, Medicaid, and SSI participants, as well as the administrative efficiencies. (While a small percentage of subscribers currently enroll in Lifeline by demonstrating participation in FPHA, Lifeline's goal is to provide meaningful access to needed telecommunication technology for low-income individuals The balance of factors discussed below demonstrate that FPHA provides highly accountable and broad assistance to low-income individuals with an advanced, centralized database to enable a long-term technological solution to Lifeline eligibility verification and recertification.).
153. We are persuaded that SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, and FPHA will maintain access to Lifeline support for those most in need of the Lifeline service. Specifically, SNAP assists 46 million low-income Americans with the majority of the households including children, senior citizens, individuals with disabilities, and working adults. Two-thirds of SNAP benefits go to households with children and three-quarters of recipient households have a child, an elderly member, or a disabled individual. Medicaid provides assistance to 40 million low-income seniors and other adults. Of these individuals, 11 million are non-elderly adults with incomes below 133% of the federal poverty guideline, and 8.8 million are individuals with disabilities. SSI provides assistance to 8.2 million low-income aged, blind, or disabled individuals. 7.2 million are disabled individuals under age 65, and 1.6 million individuals are either elderly-disabled or over 65 with an income less than $733 per month. FPHA provides assistance to 4.8 million low-income households comprising 9.8 million individuals. Of the 4.8 million assisted households, one-half are headed by elderly or disabled individuals. These programs target a broad audience of low-income households in need of improved access to voice and broadband services.
154. It is also vitally important that any qualifying federal assistance program enables Lifeline to access systems and databases in order to develop a National Verifier. Through the use of data sharing agreements and database access, the National Verifier must be able to effectively verify eligibility of potential low-income consumers without relying solely on self-certification or documentation. The existing databases for SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, FPHA, and the Veterans Pension benefit enable a long-term technological solution to eligibility determination.
155. Moving to a technological solution for Lifeline eligibility
156. SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, FPHA, and the Veterans Pension benefit program all provide the potential for streamlined interactions between those programs' systems and the National Verifier. The current data sharing agreement with SNAP, for example, demonstrates an effective technological solution to Lifeline eligibility determinations. SNAP is administrated on the state level with Federal monitoring and oversight by the United States Department of Agriculture, Food and Nutrition Service (“USDA FNS”). The data sharing agreement allows current ETCs to verify if a low-income consumer is receiving SNAP benefits after coordinating with the state SNAP administrator and has enabled a technological solution for the verification of SNAP participation, for Lifeline enrollment purposes, in many states.
157. Medicaid, SSI, FPHA, and the Veterans Pension benefit program also have accessible systems and databases the National Verifier will be able to use. SNAP and Medicaid are often administered by the same state agencies, allowing for more efficient database access solutions. By reaching agreements with the state administrators, the National Verifier will be able to develop an electronic verification system that will reduce the administrative burden of the Lifeline program. SSI is federally administered by the Social Security Administration and the Veterans Pension benefit is administered by the Department of Veterans Affairs. Both have sophisticated computer matching and communication capabilities that can be utilized by the National Verifier to benefit the Lifeline program. FPHA is administered by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development (“HUD”). HUD maintains a federal database containing participation information for all individuals receiving FPHA that can also be utilized by the National Verifier for eligibility verification and recertification.
158. By relying on highly accountable programs that demonstrate limited eligibility fraud, Lifeline will greatly reduce the potential of waste, fraud, and abuse occurring due to eligibility errors. The Commission and stakeholders have made substantial strides to create a more efficient and effective Lifeline program and that has transformed Lifeline into a more accountable program that provides vital telecommunications services to low-income consumers. Lifeline's streamlined eligibility programs will continue to guard against waste, fraud, and abuse by allowing Lifeline to leverage efficiencies from federal programs with limited eligibility and enrollment error rates.
159.
160. Medicaid provides similar efficiencies in eligibility determinations for the Lifeline program. Like SNAP, Medicaid has a low incidence of eligibility fraud (Medicaid's payment error rate due to eligibility errors is only 2.3 percent), and the United States Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General (“HHS OIG”) has instituted new tools to combat waste, fraud, and abuse within Medicaid. By using data analysis, predictive analytics, trend evaluation, and modeling approaches to analyze and target fraudulent behavior, HHS OIG has substantially affected payment errors based on eligibility. Accordingly, we find that conferring eligibility based on Medicaid participation will support the prevention of waste, fraud, and abuse in Lifeline.
161. SSI demonstrates similar accountability. The Social Security Administration conducts routine audits between its own systems and those of other federal and state agencies to verify eligibility and determine if an SSI recipient's information is accurate. SSI has a limited overpayment rate resulting from eligibility errors. (This figure represents an estimate based on publically available data as SSA only reports overpayment (7.2%) and underpayment rates (1.9%). SSA additionally reports the major causes of payment errors of which 89% are attributable to eligibility errors. Therefore, the effective overpayment rate due to eligibility errors is approximately 6.3%. It should be noted that these error rates are based on payment and not participation; therefore, it is possible the eligibility error rate is marginally higher or lower as payments may not be directly proportional to participation). SSI has demonstrated continued accountability and commitment to combating waste, fraud, and abuse. For the same reasons SNAP and Medicaid provide eligibility and verification efficiencies, the utilization of the SSI program's robust eligibility verification process will benefit the Lifeline program.
162. Finally, HUD has undertaken many steps to ensure that FPHA is highly accountable. HUD actively employs an Enterprise Income Verification (EIV) system that matches data from the Social Security Administration and the National Directory of New Hires to provide income data. The EIV system is used to verify annual income and benefit information for FPHA participants, and further enables measures to prevent waste, fraud, and abuse within the program by providing auditable information to collect improper payments. FPHA has limited improper payments. (HUD reports an improper payment percentage of 4.01% due to eligibility errors.). HUD has demonstrated continued accountability and commitment to combating waste, fraud, and abuse. FPHA's accountable eligibility determinations will benefit Lifeline's efforts to combat waste, fraud, and abuse.
163. We amend our rules to remove LIHEAP, NSLP, and TANF from the default federal assistance eligibility for Lifeline. In streamlining the eligibility criteria, we choose to remove these programs in part due to low enrollment in Lifeline. Further weighing our criteria for selecting eligibility programs, these programs do not offer the same advantages in developing a federal eligibility database, preventing waste, fraud, and abuse, nor better targeting of the neediest low-income households as SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, FPHA, and the Veterans Pension benefit.
164.
165. Commenters argue that the elimination of these federal eligibility programs will create “eligibility gaps” where a low-income consumer would be eligible based on income, but other restrictions prevent access. Many commenters argue that limiting Lifeline eligibility will prevent access to the program by low-income consumers in need of support and that Lifeline's low participation rate suggests that we need to increase the number of eligibility programs to capture more consumers. However, we find that focusing on federal assistance programs that serve a broader range of the low-income households will leverage the reach of those programs. SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, and FPHA have high adoption rates among eligible households and currently account for 80 percent of program participation. Additionally, the programs target a wide variety of low-income consumers in different age and life situations, thereby alleviating commenters' concerns of “eligibility gaps” resulting from limiting Lifeline eligibility.
166. We disagree with those commenters who caution against removing NSLP and who argue that providing community-based eligibility or retaining federal assistance programs that allow for such eligibility, such as NSLP, increases administrative efficiency or appropriately protects the use of funds. First, eliminating NSLP as a qualifying program will affect very few participants since NSLP only accounts for 0.31 percent of the total participation in the Lifeline program. In addition, because there is substantial overlap between SNAP participation and NSLP participation, with 87 percent of NSLP students qualifying directly through SNAP participation of the household, we are confident there will be minimal disruption to qualifying households.
167. Also, NSLP cannot be effectively verified by a federal eligibility database. The federal administration of NSLP cannot authorize any access to the databases that maintain participation information. This would require duplicative efforts of the Commission to coordinate with state administrators to verify eligibility, as it currently must with SNAP and Medicaid. However, this access is complicated by federal regulations that would require written consent from all students' parents or guardians in order to disclose any information. The experience of state commissions demonstrates that this process is untenable and works against streamlining the administration of Lifeline.
168. Further, NSLP is currently undergoing program overhauls and transitioning to a community-based approach that will complicate the ability to determine individual household eligibility. The Community Eligibility Provision (“CEP”) allows for participation in free or reduced meals for an entire school district, group of schools, or individual school if 40 percent of its students are “identified students.” (“Identified students” are students that qualify without application due to participation in low-income assistance programs like SNAP, or students that are considered at risk of
169. We also have administrative concerns with using LIHEAP and TANF in the Lifeline program. Providers and state commissions have experienced difficulty in developing long-term, technology-based solutions for these federal eligibility programs. The majority of providers and state commissions choose only to provide database eligibility verification for a select group of programs, often SNAP, Medicaid, and SSI, due to the lack of centralized administration of many federal assistance programs, the wide varieties of documentation, differing technologies, and complications presented by controlling regulations. We intend to foster a centralized, technology-driven solution to eligibility determination, certification, and verification and the federal eligibility programs need to enable a database eligibility solution.
170. By using SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, FPHA, and the VA Pension benefit as eligibility avenues for Lifeline, the Commission will modernize the program while remaining committed to providing support to low-income consumers. Millions of low-income households remain eligible under the streamlined eligibility criteria while allowing the Commission to reduce the administrative burden to consumers, providers, and itself. Currently, LIHEAP eligibility accounts for only 1.23 percent of Lifeline participants. TANF accounts for only 1.20 percent. The retained programs account for 80 percent of all participants and enable 80 percent of all eligible low-income consumers to qualify with SNAP, Medicaid, SSI, or FPHA. The retained programs will allow the Commission to develop a long-term technological solution to determining and verifying Lifeline eligibility.
171. We next maintain our rules regarding income-based eligibility as an avenue to access Lifeline support. In doing so, we acknowledge that maintaining independent income verification allows low-income households to qualify for the program without being required to receive assistance from another program. However, we amend the Lifeline
172. In the
173.
174. Maintaining income-eligibility requires a focused approach to verifying the low-income consumer's complete household income. Income verification has typically been more onerous for both the consumer and Lifeline provider than establishing eligibility through another program. Under the current definition of income, verifying income requires a provider to review documentation that demonstrates the household's income. Income includes all forms derived by all members of a household, including payments normally deductible from taxable income, like child support. While verifying income with the IRS can give a baseline, (for example, the IRS provides a system normally used by mortgage lenders to verify income of individuals with the individual's signed consent), the Lifeline provider must look to all sources of income within the household and sources that would be excluded from taxable income to ensure compliance with Commission rules. Thus, income verification is highly susceptible to intentional or unintentional underreporting of income. Commenters agree with this concern, noting the difficulty in ensuring that a produced tax return accurately represents income and that “virtually no Lifeline applicants present their tax returns to demonstrate eligibility” especially given the ease of demonstrating program eligibility. The consumer must present the household's income including “salary before deductions for taxes, public assistance benefits, social security payments, pensions, unemployment compensation, veteran's benefits, inheritances, alimony, child support payments, worker's compensation benefits, gifts, lottery winnings, and the like.” The only exceptions are for student financial aid, military housing and cost-of-living allowances, and irregular income from occasional small jobs. Additionally, the consumer must certify they have presented all income for themselves and their household.
175. We also amend the definition of income in Section 54.400(f) of our Lifeline rules to align with the Internal Revenue Service's (IRS) definition of gross income. This revised definition of income simplifies what a subscriber must demonstrate for income-based eligibility. Gross income, as defined by the tax code, includes all income for whatever source derived unless specifically excluded. By relying on a definition of income that subscribers use every year, we will greatly reduce instances of intentional or unintentional underreporting of income and will reduce the burden on the qualifying low-income consumer by eliminating the need for them to make additional income calculations. Further, tax information and employment information can readily be determined electronically through the IRS or third-party services. Aligning the Lifeline definition of income to mirror the tax definition of gross income, enables electronic verification by utilizing already reported information to a single source where previously this was not possible due to the expansive definition of income. (The Commission stresses the importance of verifying a complete household income picture when income eligibility is used. The Commission's rules have and continue to require that a consumer establish income for both themselves and for the rest of the household. This may require a low-income consumer to provide additional documentation or information for other individuals in the consumer's household to verify household income. These documents often contain additional sensitive and personally identifying information, and carriers must continue to protect this information in compliance with current Lifeline document retention and protection policies).
176. Continuing to allow income-based eligibility is also essential for Lifeline households in United States Territories. Due to the unique combination of high poverty rates (For the United States Territories currently receiving Lifeline support, the average poverty rate of the population is: Puerto Rico—45.4%; U.S. Virgin Islands—23.3%; American Samoa—57.8%; Guam—22.9%; Northern Mariana Islands—31.4%), and non-uniform federal assistance programs in the United States Territories, the United States Territories rely on income-based eligibility. Lifeline serves low-income consumers in all states as well as the Territories (United States Territories include all areas currently controlled by the United States and specifically the territories of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of Northern Mariana Islands, the United States Virgin Islands, and Guam), of the United States. However, the Territories do not have full access to the default federal eligibility programs for several reasons. For the United States Territories, the USDA offers Nutrition Assistance Block Grants (NABG) in lieu of operating SNAP in these areas. The same is true for Medicaid, which is operated similarly to block grants with an annual funding cap. Moreover, besides the Northern Mariana Islands, SSI is not available for individuals in the United States Territories.
177. Puerto Rico's Telecommunications Regulatory Board (“TRBPR”) cautions against limiting program eligibility to only federal assistance programs. The differing administration and eligibility criteria for SNAP, Medicaid, and SSI requires income-verification remain in Puerto Rico and other United States Territories. For example, the income levels for the Nutrition Assistance Program for Puerto Rico (“PAN”) range between 23.9 percent and 35.3 percent of FPG, which is substantially lower than SNAP. As a result, participation in PAN is 30 percent lower than if the default federal eligibility existed. Given the unequal treatment of Puerto Rico in federal assistance programs, TRBPR recommends retaining income verification. Retaining income-based eligibility prevents “qualification gaps” between low-income consumers in
178. After careful consideration, we maintain the current set of Tribal-specific eligibility programs. The Commission embraced these Tribal assistance programs to encourage adoption among low-income residents on Tribal lands. We agree with commenters and find that the disproportionately low adoption of telecommunication services on Tribal lands, especially those in remote and underserved areas, makes clear that there is much more progress to be made in increasing penetration and adoption of Lifeline services.
179. In the
180. In the
181.
182. The retention of these Tribal programs as Lifeline qualifying programs allows continued access to a specifically underserved group of potential subscribers. The Commission has noted previously that consumers living on Tribal lands have limited access to advanced telecommunications technologies. We recognize that retaining the programs may add additional complications to developing a uniform set of eligibility criteria to enable a long-term technological solution to eligibility determinations. However, we find that continuing to support low-income consumers living on Tribal lands through these Tribal-specific eligibility programs outweighs the limited administrative difficulties.
183. We make clear that our determination here to retain Tribal-specific eligibility programs does not prejudge a decision on any of the other Tribal-related or other outstanding issues for which the Commission sought comment in the
184. We amend our rules to remove state-specified eligibility criteria for Lifeline support. While the Commission has traditionally allowed states to establish eligibility for the federal program, we ultimately conclude that Lifeline eligibility needs to be updated to allow for more efficient administration that enables comprehensive eligibility verification to continue to prevent waste, fraud, and abuse.
185.
186. The size, scope, and technology of the Lifeline program has changed drastically from 1997 when the Commission allowed state Lifeline eligibility to grant eligibility in federal Lifeline. The program has grown from 5.1 million households in 1997 to 13.1 million currently. Disbursements have grown from $422 million in 1997 to $1.5 billion in 2015. In this Order, we have instituted sweeping changes to the Lifeline program regarding verification of federal Lifeline eligibility on a national level. These require us to revisit the initial decision in 1997 to allow states to determine if eligibility verification was needed. Instituting a National Verifier requires specifically targeted federal assistance programs that have demonstrated use by current low-income consumers within the federal Lifeline program. State eligibility often relies on federal Lifeline eligibility programs, proving the criteria redundant in the majority of cases. In
187. We recognize that in order to truly modernize the Lifeline marketplace, it is incumbent on the Commission to examine and reform three key aspects of providers' participation in the Lifeline program. Specifically, we must update providers' processes for entering the Lifeline program, providers' obligations as Lifeline providers, and providers' responsibilities when they may seek to exit the program. These three aspects of being a Lifeline provider—entry, service obligations, and exit—are crucial to providers' decisions about whether to participate in the program at all, and they are accordingly fundamental pieces of a revitalized Lifeline program. We expect that our actions today will encourage market entry and increase competition among Lifeline providers, which will result in better services for eligible consumers to choose from and more efficient usage of universal service funds.
188. In this Section, we continue to require Lifeline providers to be designated as ETCs, but we take several steps to modernize the processes and obligations necessary to obtain and maintain ETC status. We first establish our authority to designate Lifeline Broadband Provider (LBP) ETCs and create a designation process for such Lifeline Broadband Providers. This action preserves states' authority to designate ETCs to receive Lifeline reimbursement for qualifying voice and/or broadband services, while adding to that structure the option for carriers to seek designation as Lifeline Broadband Providers through the FCC.
189. We next establish reformed service and relinquishment obligations for different categories of ETCs. For Lifeline Broadband Providers, we establish a streamlined relinquishment process that gives providers greater certainty while retaining the Commission's ability to protect consumers. For Lifeline-only ETCs, those carriers that have received limited designations to participate only in the Lifeline program, we establish that such ETCs are eligible to receive support for broadband service but may choose to only offer supported voice service instead. For ETCs that are designated to receive high-cost support (High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs), we establish that such ETCs are also eligible to receive support for broadband service and forbear from requiring such High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs to offer Lifeline-supported broadband service, except in areas where the ETC commercially offers broadband pursuant to its high-cost obligations. We also establish conditional forbearance from existing ETCs' Lifeline voice obligations where certain objective competitive criteria are met.
190. These reforms balance low-income consumers' reliance on existing service providers while encouraging new market entry in the Lifeline program and creating a level playing field for existing and new providers. We expect that these reforms will unleash increased competition in the Lifeline marketplace, providing more choice and better service for the consumers benefitting from the program.
191. As part of our comprehensive modernization and reform of the Lifeline program, we must address the barriers potential Lifeline providers face when attempting to enter the program and the burdens existing providers shoulder while participating in the program. Through a number of actions, in this Section we modernize carriers' process for entering the Lifeline program to become LBPs, their obligations within the program, and the process for relinquishing their participation in the program. We also take certain steps to streamline the LBP designation process to encourage broader provider participation in the Lifeline program with the expectation that increased participation will create competition in the Lifeline market that will ultimately redound to the benefit of Lifeline-eligible consumers.
192. First, we decide that the Lifeline program will continue to be limited to providers that are ETCs. However, to ease the burden of becoming an LBP providing BIAS to eligible consumers, we improve the designation process, clarify LBP obligations, and modernize the relinquishment process to better reflect the modern competitive Lifeline market. We establish our authority to designate such ETCs pursuant to our responsibility under Section 214(e)(6) and take steps to streamline the LBP designation process to encourage greater nationwide participation in the program.
193. We first maintain the existing, statutorily compelled paradigm for providing Lifeline service and continue to require Lifeline providers be designated as ETCs. At this time, we decline to extend Lifeline participation to non-ETCs. We find that continuing to require providers to be ETCs to receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program will protect consumers and facilitate continuing efforts to prevent waste, fraud, and abuse. As discussed below, however, we also take steps later in this Section to streamline the ETC designation process and ETC service obligations to increase provider participation in the Lifeline program.
194. In the
195. In response to the
196. Regarding the Commission's authority to permit non-ETC providers to receive Lifeline funds, AT&T argues that Section 254(j) and Section 254(e) of the Act permit the Commission to expand Lifeline participation to non-ETCs. Public Knowledge argues that the Commission's decisions in the
197. We agree with the commenters who assert that the Commission should continue to limit reimbursement through the Lifeline program to ETCs, but we take significant action to address the concerns that animate suggestions that we provide support to non-ETCs. Requiring participating Lifeline providers to be ETCs facilitates Commission and state-level efforts to prevent waste, fraud, and abuse in the program, and serves the public interest by helping the Commission and state commissions ensure that consumers are protected as providers enter and leave the program. For federally-designated ETCs, in implementing Section 214(e)(6) of the Act, the Commission's rules state that common carriers must meet certain requirements to obtain an ETC designation, including certification to the relevant service requirements for its support, demonstrating the ability to function in emergency situations, satisfying consumer protection and service quality standards, and demonstrating financial and technical capability to provide Lifeline service (for Lifeline-only ETCs). For state designations, states that retain the relevant designating authority also ensure that carriers have the financial and technical means to offer service, including 911 and E911, and have committed to consumer protection and service quality standards. These structures that protect consumers and ensure carriers meet service quality standards ensure that the services supported by the Lifeline program serve the Commission's goals of achieving “[q]uality services” offered at “just, reasonable, and affordable rates.” Considering the protections and standards already built into the ETC designation framework, we find that working within an updated ETC framework is a more sound approach to modernizing how carriers enter and exit the Lifeline program than creating entirely new registration processes and requirements for Lifeline providers.
198. We share commenters' concerns that requiring providers to obtain ETC designation could limit provider participation in the Lifeline program, but we address this concern by the targeted steps we take in this Order to streamline the ETC designation process, reduce compliance burdens, and implement a National Verifier. (For example, if a non-traditional provider like a school, library, or other anchor institution wishes to provide Lifeline-supported BIAS and can meet the streamlined requirements to enter the program and offer service as a Lifeline Broadband Provider, such a provider could seek designation to participate in Lifeline just as any other qualifying provider may). We are confident that these changes will encourage provider participation through reduced administrative burdens. Finally, because we decide not to permit non-ETCs to receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program at this time, we need not decide the Commission's authority to do otherwise. We next revisit the Commission's authority to designate ETCs offering BIAS in the Lifeline program under Section 214(e).
199. Having established that providers must become ETCs to receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program, we now turn to the issue of when the Commission retains authority to designate ETCs for the purpose of offering BIAS in the Lifeline program. In addition to including BIAS as a supported service in the Lifeline program, we must also determine who may provide that service. We establish the Commission's jurisdiction to designate broadband Internet access service providers as ETCs solely for the purpose of receiving reimbursement through the Lifeline program for providing BIAS to eligible low-income subscribers. We interpret Section 214(e) to permit carriers to obtain ETC designations specific to particular mechanisms of the overall universal service fund. We also find that state designations for this new LBP ETC designation would thwart federal universal service goals and broadband competition, and accordingly preempt such designations.
200. To provide guidance regarding our authority to designate LBPs under Section 214(e)(6), we clarify that a carrier need only provide some service or services—not necessarily the supported service—that constitute “telephone exchange service and exchange access” to qualify for designation by the Commission. Even though we anticipate that many providers will be able to meet the requirement of “providing telephone exchange service and exchange access,” we also grant forbearance from the provisions of Section 214(e)(6) that require carriers to provide telephone exchange service and exchange access in order to seek designation as an ETC by the Commission under that Section.
201. Accordingly, LBPs will be designated by the Commission under the authority granted to it in Section 214(e)(6) of the Act. (We note that, in certain circumstances, we also have authority under Section 214(e)(3)). We find that these measures enable the Commission to efficiently designate LBPs and unlock the Lifeline program to new innovative service providers and robust broadband offerings for the benefit of our Nation's low-income consumers.
202. To facilitate the Lifeline program's goal of promoting competition and facilitating new services for eligible low-income consumers, we preempt states from exercising authority to designate Lifeline-only broadband ETCs for the purpose of receiving Lifeline reimbursement for providing BIAS to low-income consumers. (Some commenters assert that although the Commission has concluded that broadband Internet access service is interstate for regulatory purposes, at least some states still could have sufficient jurisdiction to perform an ETC designation. This question is moot insofar as we preempt any state jurisdiction to perform ETC designations specifically for Lifeline broadband purposes, and thus we need not, and do not, address the scope or contours of any state authority regarding broadband Internet access service.). Accordingly, Section 214(e)(6) grants to the Commission the responsibility to resolve carriers' requests for designation as an ETC for the purposes of receiving such Lifeline broadband support. (Further, we need not establish the Commission's jurisdiction to designate Tribally-owned and operated ETCs seeking to serve within the external boundaries of their Reservation, as that jurisdiction has already been established).
203.
204.
205. We interpret the inquiry as to whether a carrier is “subject to the jurisdiction of a State commission” under Section 214(e)(6) in light of the merits analysis required for designating a carrier as an ETC under either Section 214(e)(2) or (e)(6). In particular, the state (under Section 214(e)(2)) or the Commission (under Section 214(e)(6)) must find that the carrier seeking designation as an ETC will comply with the service obligations in Section 214(e)(1). In relevant part, Section 214(e)(1) requires ETCs to “offer the services that are supported by Federal universal service support mechanisms under Section 254(c)” at least in part using their own facilities “throughout the service area for which the designation is received.”
206. To the extent that the Commission previously interpreted Section 214(e)(6) to only apply if the relevant state commission had no authority over any of the services offered by the carrier—or any of the services supported by the federal universal service support mechanisms (As originally implemented, ETC designations were not specific to a particular supported service or a particular universal service support mechanism, and thus, as interpreted and implemented by the Commission, ETCs' service obligations under Section 214(e)(1) encompassed the duty to offer all the supported services designated under Section 254(c)(1). Congress initially provided only for state ETC designations under Section 214(e) while simultaneously recognizing in Section 214(e)(3) that universal services could include interstate services.)—we now revise that interpretation to more closely match the services supported by federal universal service support mechanisms. In a 2014 Order, the Commission adopted an interpretation of Section 254(c)(1) that enables it to define universal service(s) under Section 254(c)(1) that differs among different rules (
207. Further, interpreting the relevant scope of state jurisdiction under Section 214(e)(6) against the backdrop of the above interpretation and implementation of Sections 254(c)(1) and 214(e)(1), the relevant state jurisdiction would be jurisdiction specific to that scope of services defined as universal service for purposes of the specific mechanism or mechanisms for which the carrier is seeking designation as an ETC. Insofar as there is a specific mechanism or program within the overall universal service fund that, for instance, only has broadband Internet access as the supported service, a carrier that has obtained designation as an ETC just in that narrow context would bear service obligations that mirror that program's supported services, absent any other forbearance, waiver, or clarification by the Commission. Alternatively, carriers would remain free to seek broader ETC designations that would involve designation by the state commission.
208. We interpret Section 214(e)(1)'s service obligation, which applies to “the services that are supported by Federal universal service support mechanisms under Section 254(c),” to be limited to the services that are supported by the relevant Federal universal service support mechanisms under Section 254(c). Such an interpretation makes sense against the backdrop of the Commission's 2014 interpretation of Section 254(c)(1) in the
209. Section 214(e)(1)(A)'s reference to “mechanisms,” rather than a “mechanism,” does not prevent this interpretation because we interpret Section 214(e)(1)(A) to be drafted broadly enough to encompass the obligations of an ETC participating in multiple universal service mechanisms without demanding that the ETC provide services that are supported by universal service mechanisms in which that ETC does not participate. To interpret Section 214(e)(1)(A) otherwise would point to the conclusion that whenever the Commission exercised its authority to designate additional services for support in programs for schools, libraries, and health care providers, Section 214(e)(1)(A) would require ETCs participating in the Lifeline or High-Cost programs to also offer those additional services as services “supported by Federal universal service support mechanisms under 254(c).” Section 254(c)(3)'s specific reference to particular mechanisms within the overall universal service fund counsel against such a conclusion, and so we interpret Section 214(e)(1)(A) inclusion of “mechanisms” to simply mean that, to the extent that an ETC participates in multiple universal service mechanisms, its service obligations include the
210. Section 254(e) bolsters this interpretation by both requiring that, in general, recipients of federal universal service support must be ETCs designated under Section 214(e) and simultaneously limiting ETCs to using the support they receive “only for the provision, maintenance, and upgrading of facilities and services for which the support is intended.” At a high level, then, Section 254(e) supports the view that ETC designations (which generally are required for support)—and the associated service obligations under Section 214(e)(1)—should be tailored to the particular services “for which the support is intended.”
211. We find further support for this interpretation in Section 214(e)(3). That provision expressly recognizes the possibility of carriers being designated ETCs with respect to either interstate or intrastate services, rather than more generally. In addition to supporting the general concept that ETC designations need not encompass all possible supported services, it also lends support to the view that Section 214(e)(1) service obligations can be specific to particular services. Section 214(e)(1) applies, by its terms, to ETCs designated under Section 214(e)(3), as well as those designated under (e)(2) or (e)(6). Interpreting Section 214(e)(1) only to impose service obligations associated with the particular mechanism or mechanisms for which a carrier is designated an ETC seems most consistent with the dual FCC and state roles established under Section 214(e)(3). Where both interstate and intrastate services are supported services, the FCC identifies the carrier best positioned to provide the interstate services and the relevant state commission identifies the carrier best positioned to provide the intrastate services. It is consistent with this framework for the carrier designated for interstate services by the FCC only to be obligated to provide those services under Section 214(e)(1). By the same token, it is consistent with this framework for the carrier designated for intrastate services by the state commission only to be obligated to provide those services under Section 214(e)(1). A contrary reading of Section 214(e)(1) would mean that the carrier designated an ETC by the FCC for interstate services also would have to provide the intrastate services even where the state commission identified a different carrier as best positioned to provide those services (and vice versa). Section 214(e)(3) appears designed to ensure that there is one ETC providing each supported service in areas that otherwise would have none, however. But if any single ETC designated under Section 214(e)(3) would have to provide all the supported services—both interstate and intrastate—the requirement for separate designations by the FCC (for interstate services) and the state commission (for intrastate services) would make little sense, since either one of those carriers individually would have to provide all the supported services.
212. Finally, as an implementation matter, we find that this interpretation counsels in favor of creating a separate element of the overall universal service fund to support BIAS for eligible low-income households in the Lifeline program. As a separate subset of the Lifeline mechanism in the overall universal service fund, supporting BIAS for low-income consumers, this separate element of the Lifeline program will help the Commission designate carriers seeking to become ETCs only in the specific context of Lifeline-supported BIAS. (This could be seen as roughly analogous to the current Rural Health Care mechanism, which includes a separate Telecommunications Program and Healthcare Connect Fund program).
213.
214. A robust and successful Lifeline broadband program will serve the purposes of Section 254(b) by enabling the Commission to utilize universal service funds to give eligible low-income households affordable access to advanced telecommunications services. The success of that modernized program, however, depends on participation from providers to give eligible low-income households a choice between quality services. Many providers that may be interested in competing for Lifeline broadband funds are not currently designated as ETCs, and in particular larger providers with infrastructure and market offerings that span multiple states must be afforded a reasonable, clear pathway into the Lifeline broadband program.
215. Preempting the states from designating Lifeline Broadband Providers and permitting carriers to seek designation from the Commission for multiple states at once would serve the universal service principles of Section 254(b) by increasing low-income consumers' access to advanced telecommunications and information services at affordable rates. (In
216. We find that the Commission should not similarly preempt state ETC designations for providers seeking Lifeline-only ETC designations to provide voice service, nor for providers seeking broader ETC designations that are not Lifeline-only and include high-cost funding. Today, multiple providers already serve the Lifeline voice market, and the states' traditional role in designating voice ETCs argues in favor of preserving the existing de-centralized structure for designating ETCs other than LBPs. We also note that Section 706 of the Telecommunications Act directs us to focus our efforts on removing barriers to investment in “advanced telecommunications services.” We therefore focus our streamlining efforts on broadband services within the Lifeline program.
217. Additionally, the Commission has previously found that Section 706 of the 1996 Act authorizes preemption, and that conclusion is applicable to our current efforts to modernize the Lifeline program to support BIAS. “In light of Congress's delegation of authority to the Commission to `encourage' and `accelerate' the deployment of broadband to all Americans, we interpret Sections 706(a) and (b) to give us authority to preempt state laws that stand as barriers to broadband infrastructure investment or as barriers to competition.” Section 706(a) grants the Commission authority to “encourage the deployment on a reasonable and timely basis of advanced telecommunications capability to all Americans.” Indeed, Section 706(a) specifically states that the Commission “shall” encourage such deployment, using a variety of tools including “measures that promote competition in the local telecommunications market” and “other regulating methods that remove barriers to infrastructure investment.” We find that our preemption authority falls within these categories listed by Section 706(a), and the Commission therefore has authority to preempt state laws that conflict with Section 706(a) by preventing market entry and competition in the Lifeline program.
218. Additionally, the Commission's
219. More broadly, as the Commission has previously found, broadband Internet access service is jurisdictionally interstate for regulatory purposes. Although Section 214(e)(2) authorizes states to perform ETC designations and, under the
220. In addition to declaring that states are preempted from exercising authority to designate Lifeline Broadband Providers, we adopt a legislative rule consistent with that outcome. As described above, the ETC designation process is an important tool to protect consumers and prevent waste, fraud, and abuse in the Lifeline program, but should not become a barrier that discourages legitimate carrier participation and inhibits universal access to advanced communications services. Accordingly, for the reasons discussed above, the Commission revises Section 54.201 of its rules to prohibit state commissions from designating Lifeline Broadband Providers.
221. Some commenters have argued that the Commission should not preempt or limit states' roles in ETC designations. To that end, we note that in this Order we do not preempt states' authority to designate ETCs for Lifeline voice service, nor to grant broader ETC designations that are not Lifeline-only and include support from the USF High-Cost Program. (We also note that, to the extent that state commissions have declined to designate carriers as ETCs over concerns about those carriers' 911 services, this Order does not prevent states from inquiring into such issues for carriers offering voice service seeking a non-Lifeline Broadband Provider ETC designation). For those areas in which states have traditionally held a role and which more often involve jurisdictionally intrastate services, our preemption here does not change states' responsibility to designate ETCs. (States will therefore continue to be in a position to evaluate issues like a non-LBP ETC's ability to meet ETC service and facilities requirements. We find that the Commission is capable of determining whether common carriers seeking designation as an LBP will be able to fulfill those requirements, as detailed below. We recognize that Section 254(i) contemplates that “the Commission and the States should ensure that universal service is available at rates that are just, reasonable, and affordable.” 47 U.S.C. 254(i). We do not here preempt any otherwise permissible efforts, consistent with state law, to provide state support). Additionally, although some commenters argue that Section 214(e)
222. Some commenters suggest the FCC is ill-equipped to assume the responsibility of designating broadband providers for the Lifeline program. In response, we expect our reforms to the federal ETC designation process for Lifeline Broadband Providers to prevent petitions from pending longer than is necessary to ensure the continued integrity of the program and protection of consumers. Other commenters argued that the current ETC designation process is not generally lengthy or onerous, and is an important tool in combatting waste, fraud, and abuse in the Lifeline program. We find, however, that a centralized LBP designation process can further streamline the burdens of seeking designation while continuing to prevent waste, fraud, and abuse in the program. Similar to the state measures to prevent fraud that NARUC discusses, Commission rules require annual reporting, annual certifications, and audits for Lifeline providers, the Commission may deny an ETC designation petition if the provider does not meet the relevant requirements, and the Commission's Enforcement Bureau is equipped to investigate and take action against providers that violate the Lifeline program's rules. Some commenters cautioned the Commission to limit the extent to which it streamlines or centralizes the designation process, because of the unique characteristics of the Lifeline market. We note that our preemption and forbearance actions in this Order are tailored to ensure a more competitive, effective program without sacrificing the integrity of the program or the Commission's authority to act in cases of waste, fraud, or abuse.
223. Having established our authority to designate where state commissions lack jurisdiction under Section 214(e)(6), we next turn to the question of what types of carriers are eligible for designation by the Commission under 214(e)(6).
224.
225. The text of Section 214(e)(6) does not require that the relevant supported service or services for which the carrier is being designated an ETC must constitute telephone exchange service and exchange access. Nor is there any requirement in Section 254(c)(1) that services must be telephone exchange service or exchange access—let alone both—in order to be included in the definition of universal service. Insofar as supported services need not be telephone exchange service and/or exchange access, we decline to interpret Section 214(e)(6) to impose such a requirement on carriers seeking Commission designation under that Section where the text does not itself require it. (Interpreting Section 214(e)(6) to mean that the telephone exchange service and exchange access requirement be met by the supported service would lead to anomalous results. As an illustrative example, if the Commission were to establish a universal service program with telephone toll service as the supported service under Section 254(c), it would be impossible for a provider seeking designation as an ETC to provide telephone exchange service and exchange access as the supported service if that were needed to meet the criteria of Section 214(e)(6).
226. We make clear that in considering whether a carrier is providing telephone exchange service and exchange access for purposes of Section 214(e)(6), we look beyond the corporate entity that itself is seeking designation as a Lifeline Broadband ETC, and also consider affiliates of that entity. This approach is consistent with the Commission's interpretation of Section 214(e)(1), under which the “requirement that an ETC offer the supported services through `its own facilities or a combination of its own facilities and resale of another carrier's service' would be satisfied when service is provided by any affiliate within the holding company structure.” If the duties of an ETC can be satisfied through an affiliate, we find no reason why the Commission, to find Section 214(e)(6) triggered, should have to adopt a stricter interpretation of what entity must provide telephone exchange service and exchange access. This is particularly true because, as explained below, the telephone exchange service and exchange access criteria in Section 214(e)(6) does not bear directly on the carrier's qualifications or responsibilities as an ETC in providing supported services. Further, Section 214(e) was codified as part of Section 214, and prior to the 1996 Act, certain references to “carriers” in Section 214 were interpreted to extend beyond just the relevant corporate entity itself. (Thus, although the 1996 Act codified a definition of “affiliate” in Section 3 of the Act distinct from the definition of “common carrier” there, that does not, by implication, undercut our interpretation of Section 214 because the 1996 “Act and the amendments made by [the 1996] Act shall not be construed to modify, impair, or supersede Federal . . . law unless expressly so provided in such Act or amendments.” 1996 Act, 601(c). Indeed, Commission rules implementing Section 214(a) make clear that their use of the term “carrier” includes affiliates within the meaning of Section 3(1) of the Act.). This further bolsters our interpretation of Section 214(e)(6). Thus, we expect that many carriers likely already provide some telephone exchange and exchange access services, whether through the entity providing broadband Internet access service or an affiliate. For example, such services
227. Furthermore, we interpret the requirement that a carrier seeking designation under Section 214(e)(6) be “providing” telephone exchange service and exchange access in a broad and flexible manner. The Commission in other contexts has interpreted the term “providing” as more inclusive than the offering of the relevant service. Thus, we conclude that it is sufficient for purposes of Section 214(e)(6) that a carrier is making available telephone exchange service and exchange access, whether or not it actually has customers for those services at the time of the ETC designation.
228. In addition, in contrast to Section 214(e)(1)(A), which requires ETCs to provide supported services at least in part over their own facilities, there is no analogous “facilities” requirement in Section 214(e)(6) as to any non-supported services relied on by the carrier for its provision of telephone exchange service and exchange access to trigger that Section. Thus, we interpret Section 214(e)(6) as enabling a carrier to satisfy the “telephone exchange service and exchange access” criteria through pure resale of services that satisfy those definitions.
229. The text of Section 214(e)(6) also does not require the carrier to be providing telephone exchange service and exchange access for any particular period of time before or after the Commission invokes its Section 214(e)(6) designation authority. So we further conclude that the relevant requirement of Section 214(e)(6) can be met by a service or services introduced by the carrier in order to meet the Section 214(e)(6) criteria. We note as well that carriers subject to dominant carrier regulation likely otherwise already are providing services that constitute telephone exchange service and exchange access (and, indeed, likely already are designated as ETCs in relevant respects), so any carriers needing to introduce a new service to satisfy the telephone exchange service and exchange access criteria of Section 214(e)(6) are likely to be nondominant. Thus, they generally are subject to comparatively fewer, if any,
230.
231. As a result, pursuant to our authority under Section 10 of the Act, we grant certain forbearance from applying the provision of Section 214(e)(6) requiring carriers to be providing telephone exchange service and exchange access. In particular, we forbear from applying that provision to carriers seeking designation from the Commission as an LBP that do not otherwise provide a service or services already classified by the Commission as telephone exchange service and exchange access. We conclude that doing so will help maximize the potential for the widest possible participation by broadband Internet access service providers in a manner targeted to our policy objectives in this proceeding.
232. In pertinent part, Section 10 directs the Commission to “forbear from applying . . . any provision of [the Act] to a telecommunications carrier or . . . class of telecommunications carriers . . ., in any or some of its or their geographic markets, if the Commission determines that” three criteria are met. Namely, such forbearance is authorized if “the Commission determines that—(1) enforcement of such regulation or provision is not necessary to ensure that the charges, practices, classifications, or regulations by, for, or in connection with that telecommunications carrier or telecommunications service are just and reasonable and are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory; (2) enforcement of such regulation or provision is not necessary for the protection of consumers; and (3) forbearance from applying such provision or regulation is consistent with the public interest.” The basic forbearance framework is discussed in greater detail below.
233. We find that our forbearance from applying the requirement that carriers be “providing telephone exchange service and exchange access” in the Section 214(e)(6) designation process is a reasonable exercise of our Section 10 authority for several reasons. First, although not unambiguous, the practical impact of that provision in Section 214(e)(6) persuades us that it imposes an obligation on carriers—namely, carriers must provide telephone exchange service and exchange access in order to obtain an ETC designation from the Commission under that Section. The Commission in the past has recognized that Congress intended Section 10 to sweep broadly, (
234. Second, we conclude that this grant of forbearance readily satisfies the Section 10(a)(1)-(3) criteria. In particular, we find that applying that provision is not necessary to ensure just, reasonable, and not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory rates and practices under Section 10(a)(1) nor to protect consumers under Section 10(a)(2). The text of Section 214(e)(6) does not illuminate the purpose served by the requirement that carriers seeking ETC designations from the Commission under Section 214(e)(6) be providing telephone exchange service and exchange access. As explained above, because supported services need not be telephone exchange service or exchange access service (let alone both), there is no inherent nexus between a carrier's provision of telephone exchange service and exchange access and its ability to satisfy the requirements for ETC designation under Section 214(e)(1). Nor is there any inherent nexus between a carrier's provision of those services and the public interest analysis under Section 214(e)(6). Thus, nothing in the text of Section 214(e)(6) demonstrates that the “providing telephone exchange service and exchange access” provision is intended to, or is likely to, have any practical effect on carriers' rates and practices for purposes of Section 10(a)(1) or on the protection of consumers under Section 10(a)(2).
235. Nor do we find in the context specifically at issue here that our application of the “providing telephone exchange service and exchange access” provision is necessary under the Section 10(a)(1) and (a)(2) criteria. To the contrary, we conclude that forbearance from applying that provision better advances the objective of just and reasonable rates and practices and protection of consumers, by promoting competition among Lifeline broadband Internet access service providers. If we continued to apply that provision in full, given the concerns expressed about the deterrent effect of the historical ETC designation process in other respects, we expect that carriers otherwise willing to participate in the Lifeline broadband program will be deterred at least incrementally from seeking an LBP designation from the Commission under Section 214(e)(6) if they do not otherwise provide a service or services already clearly classified by the Commission as telephone exchange service and exchange access. (Section 10 permits the Commission to evaluate forbearance assuming
236. Granting forbearance from the specified provision of Section 214(e)(6) for carriers seeking designation as an LBP that do not otherwise provide a service or services already classified by the Commission as telephone exchange service and exchange access eliminates uncertainty that otherwise risk deterring those providers' participation. This is likely to promote competition for Lifeline broadband Internet access services, and the Commission previously has found that competition helps ensure just and reasonable rates. Moreover, we anticipate that the availability of competing LBPs will better protect consumers receiving the benefits of that increased competition. We further observe that our evaluation of what is necessary to ensure just and reasonable and not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory rates under Section 10(a)(1) and what is necessary to protect consumers under Section 10(a)(2) is guided by the Commission's responsibilities under Section 254 of the Act and Section 706 of the 1996 Act. As we explain elsewhere, we are modernizing our Lifeline efforts to support broadband Internet access service given its importance to consumers, and ensuring the widest possible participation in the Lifeline broadband program is an important element of those reforms.
237. These same considerations likewise persuade us that forbearance is in the public interest under Section 10(a)(3). Indeed, Section 10(b) directs the Commission, as part of the Section 10(a)(3) analysis, to consider whether forbearance will promote competitive market conditions and, if “forbearance will promote competition among providers of telecommunications services, that determination may be the basis for a Commission finding that forbearance is in the public interest.” As explained above, we anticipate that the specified forbearance from applying the “providing telephone exchange service and exchange access” provision in Section 214(e)(6) will promote competition among providers of Lifeline broadband Internet access services. Based on that, coupled with the forgoing analysis, we conclude that forbearance is in the public interest under Section 10(a)(3).
238. We next turn from the Commission's authority to designate Lifeline Broadband Provider ETCs and take steps to modernize the process by which carriers can obtain such designation. We take additional steps to decrease the burdens of obtaining and maintaining Lifeline Broadband Provider ETC status, while still protecting consumers. We therefore take action to streamline the process by which we will designate Lifeline Broadband Providers to encourage broader participation in the program.
239. In this Section, we create a streamlined ETC designation process for carriers seeking designation as Lifeline Broadband Providers, solely for the purpose of receiving Lifeline support for broadband service. We expect that this streamlined process will facilitate market entry and allow new competition to enter the Lifeline market while continuing to protect consumers and the Fund. (Contrary to some commenters' claims, we expect that increasing provider participation will increase competition among providers in the Lifeline program and incentivize providers to offer better quality services).
240. A broadband provider's petition for ETC designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider for the limited purpose of receiving Lifeline support for BIAS will be subject to expedited review and will be deemed granted within 60 days of the submission of a completed filing provided that the
241. Additionally, as part of our efforts to encourage broadband service on Tribal lands, we will apply the above-described expedited review process to petitions for designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider submitted by Tribally-owned and -controlled facilities-based providers that provide service on Tribal lands, regardless of whether they meet the above-discussed prior service or existing customer criteria. To qualify as a Tribally-owned and -controlled, facilities-based provider, the provider must be greater than 50 percent owned and actually controlled by one or more federally-recognized Tribal Nation(s) or Tribal consortia.
242. Once a provider has obtained designation as an LBP, that provider may expand their LBP service area designation by submitting a letter to the Commission identifying the service areas in which the LBP plans to offer Lifeline-supported service and a certification that there has been no material change to the information submitted in the petition for which the LBP received designation as an LBP. Such a request shall be deemed granted five business days after it is submitted to the Commission, unless the Bureau notifies the applicant that the grant will not be automatically effective. We therefore amend Section 54.202 of the Commission's rules to reflect these changes. We expect that this process will empower LBPs to rapidly expand Lifeline-supported broadband service offerings to new areas, while retaining the Commission's ability to protect consumers and the Fund.
243. We want to facilitate a robust competitive marketplace for Lifeline customers and therefore encourage providers, including nontraditional providers, that do not meet the streamlined criteria to submit a request to be an LBP. All such petitions will be reviewed thoroughly and not automatically deemed granted after a set time, but the Bureau shall act on such petitions within six months of the submission of a completed filing. Accordingly, we update Section 54.202 of the Commission's rules to reflect these targeted changes to the Commission's designation process for the purpose of designating Lifeline Broadband Provider ETCs. (Providers seeking designation as an LBP that are not facilities-based are not required to obtain Commission approval of a compliance plan prior to receiving designation as an LBP. We find that the designation process for LBPs is distinct from the process set out for Lifeline-only ETCs in the
244. A provider seeking designation as an LBP should submit the following information in its filing. First, the provider must certify that it will comply with the service requirements applicable to the support that it receives, including any applicable minimum service standards. Second, the provider must demonstrate its ability to remain functional in emergency situations, including a demonstration that it has a reasonable amount of back-up power to ensure functionality without an external power source, is able to reroute traffic around damaged facilities, and is capable of managing traffic spikes resulting from emergency situations. Third, the provider must demonstrate that it will satisfy applicable consumer protection and service quality standards. (A commitment by wireless applicants to comply with the Cellular Telecommunications and Internet Association's Consumer Code for Wireless Service will satisfy this requirement). Fourth, the carrier must demonstrate that it is financially and technically capable of providing the Lifeline service, which could be satisfied in a number of ways, including showing compliance with subpart E of part 54 of the Commission's rules.
245. Section 54.202(a) of the Commission's rules currently requires common carriers seeking designation as an ETC solely for the purpose of receiving Lifeline support to “submit information describing the terms and conditions of any voice telephony service plans offered to Lifeline subscribers.” We now revise this rule to also require such ETCs, including LBPs, to submit information describing the terms and conditions of any broadband Internet access service plans offered to Lifeline subscribers at the time of designation. Such information should include details regarding the speeds offered, data usage allotments, additional charges for particular uses, if any, and rates for each such plan. While this information should be filed at the time of LBP designation, providers need not refile or notify the Commission of changes to their plans so long as they certify compliance with the applicable minimum standards. Providing this snapshot of Lifeline offerings will allow the Commission to better understand and evaluate whether prospective ETCs, including prospective LBPs, are seeking to launch service offerings that comply with the Lifeline program's rules.
246. We find that this process for prospective LBPs protects the integrity of the Lifeline program and guards against waste, fraud, and abuse, while facilitating market entry and encouraging competition. All LBPs, regardless of whether they qualify for streamlined treatment, must meet the requirements for designation as a Lifeline-only ETC established in Section 214(e) of the Act and §§ 54.201 and 54.202 of the Commission's rules. (We note that the requirement to submit a five-year plan describing proposed improvements or upgrades to the provider's network does not apply to providers seeking designation solely for the purpose of receiving support through the Lifeline program, including LBPs). The Commission will examine all petitions for designation as an LBP to ensure that petitioning carriers meet the requirements in the Act and the Commission's implementing rules. The Commission will use its authority to deny petitions, remove petitions from streamlined treatment, or both, if the circumstances so require. Additionally, LBPs must comply with the Lifeline program rules and will be subject to auditing and enforcement in accordance with the Commission's rules.
247. We are also mindful of the many existing Lifeline providers designated by states and the FCC that intend to offer standalone broadband to Lifeline consumers. We note that, as set out below, Lifeline-only ETCs may receive Lifeline support for BIAS provided to eligible low-income consumers but existing ETCs also retain the option to avail themselves of forbearance from the obligation to offer broadband. Lifeline-only ETCs will thus be able to receive support for BIAS through Lifeline without re-submitting a petition for ETC designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider.
248. Nothing in this Order preempts states' ability to develop and manage their own state Lifeline programs. Nor does the creation of the LBP designation disturb states' current processes for designating non-LBP ETCs, where they retain jurisdiction. In these ways, states will continue to play an important role in the administration of state Lifeline programs and traditional non-LBP ETC designations, where state law grants them authority to do so.
249. We recognize that a number of states have put in place state Lifeline programs that provide state-funded subsidies to low-income consumers for communications services. We applaud these state programs for devoting resources designed to help close the affordability gap for communications services. Nothing in this Order preempts states' ability to create or administer such state-based Lifeline programs that include state funding for Lifeline support to support voice service, BIAS, or both. States that do maintain state Lifeline programs may therefore enact their own rules for the administration of those programs. For example, a state may deem consumers eligible to participate in that state's Lifeline program based on the consumer's participation in another state-based program, even if that eligibility program does not make the consumer eligible for federal Lifeline support.
250. Additionally, we make clear that states retain the ability to designate Lifeline-only ETCs and ETCs that are not Lifeline-only, to the extent that state law grants them authority to do so. For the reasons discussed above, our preemption in this Order with regard to LBPs does not impact states' authority to designate other categories of ETCs, even if those ETCs receive designations from states that are broad enough to encompass Lifeline support for BIAS. As a result, to the extent a provider wants to receive state Lifeline funds in addition to federal Lifeline support, the provider must seek approval and (to the extent required by a state for receipt of state funding) ETC designation from the relevant state commission and comply with any applicable state laws. To the extent a provider only seeks the federal LBP, however, providers are not required to seek approval or designation from the states.
251. We anticipate that preserving the roles that states have traditionally played in Lifeline will benefit low-income consumers by enabling states to offer their own support for services provided to low-income households and encouraging competition from non-LBP ETCs that have traditionally been designated by states.
252. In this Section, we turn to the issue of what ETC service obligations are appropriate and best suited for a successful modernized Lifeline program. We consider the substantive obligations placed on ETCs through the Act and the Commission's rules, and streamline certain of those obligations through targeted forbearance and other regulatory tools to encourage broader participation and more robust competition among providers in the Lifeline market. We find that such actions will further modernize the Lifeline program to encourage market entry by providers offering BIAS while still protecting consumers and ensuring the services Lifeline subscribers receive are of high quality.
253. In the
254. Section 10 of the Act provides that the Commission “shall” forbear from applying any regulation or provision of the Communications Act to telecommunications carriers or telecommunications services if the Commission determines that: (1) Enforcement of such regulation or provision is not necessary to ensure that the charges, practices, classifications, or regulations by, for, or in connection with that telecommunications carrier or telecommunications service are just and reasonable and are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory; (2) enforcement of such regulation or provision is not necessary for the protection of consumers; and (3) forbearance from applying such provision or regulation is consistent with the public interest.
255. In evaluating whether a rule is “necessary” under the first two prongs of the three-part Section 10 forbearance test, the Commission considers whether a current need exists for a rule. In particular, the current need analysis assists in interpreting the word “necessary” in Sections 10(a)(1) and 10(a)(2). For those portions of our forbearance analysis that require us to assess whether a rule is necessary, the D.C. Circuit concluded that “it is reasonable to construe `necessary' as referring to the existence of a strong connection between what the agency has done by way of regulation and what the agency permissibly sought to achieve with the disputed regulation.” Section 10(a)(3) requires the Commission to consider whether forbearance is consistent with the public interest, an inquiry that also may include other considerations. Forbearance is warranted under Section 10(a) only if all three of the forbearance criteria are satisfied. The Commission has found that nothing in the language of Section 10 precludes the Commission from proceeding on a basis other than the competitiveness of a market where warranted.
256. Also relevant to our analysis, Section 706 of the 1996 Act “explicitly directs the FCC to `utiliz[e]' forbearance to `encourage the deployment on a reasonable and timely basis of advanced telecommunications capability to all Americans.' ” In its most recent
257. Section 10(b) directs the Commission to consider whether forbearance will promote competitive market conditions as part of its public interest analysis under Section 10(a)(3). However, we recognize that Section 10 does not compel us to treat a competitive analysis as determinative when we reasonably find, based on the record, that other considerations are more relevant to our statutory analysis. We make our decision as to each category of ETC requirements as they relate to the provision of Lifeline-supported services based on the information we deem most relevant to the analysis prescribed from Section 10(a).
258. In streamlining Lifeline ETC obligations for participating carriers, we first turn to the broadband service obligations of various categories of ETCs. In this Section we use targeted forbearance from certain ETC obligations to encourage market entry and competition while continuing to protect consumers and the Fund.
259. For Lifeline-only ETCs, we establish that such ETCs are eligible to receive Lifeline support for broadband service but may choose to only offer a supported voice service instead. For other ETCs that are not Lifeline-only, we establish that such ETCs are also eligible to receive Lifeline support for broadband service and forbear from requiring such ETCs to offer Lifeline-supported broadband service, except in areas where the ETC commercially offers broadband pursuant to its high-cost obligations. For Lifeline Broadband Providers, we establish a streamlined relinquishment process that gives providers greater certainty while retaining the Commission's ability to protect consumers.
260. For Lifeline-only ETCs, we interpret such carriers' ETC designations as broad enough to make them eligible for Lifeline broadband support. Lifeline-only ETCs may therefore receive support for Lifeline-discounted BIAS provided to eligible low-income subscribers within their designated service areas without receiving federal designation as Lifeline Broadband Providers. However, we forbear from Lifeline-only ETCs' obligations to offer BIAS to permit such ETCs to solely offer voice if they so choose. (We note that when the Lifeline discount no longer applies to voice-only offerings, a Lifeline-only ETC that does not choose to offer Lifeline-discounted fixed voice service will have the option of seeking relinquishment of its statutory obligation to offer supported voice telephony service under Section 214(e)(4) of the Act and continuing to receive Lifeline support for its BIAS offerings. Alternatively, a Lifeline-only ETC may obtain an ETC designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider, seek relinquishment of its existing Lifeline-only ETC designation, and operate solely as a federally-designated LBP). To the extent that Lifeline-only ETCs elect to also offer BIAS to eligible subscribers, they may receive reimbursement for such service through the Lifeline program.
261.
262.
263. To facilitate program administration, we require any ETC that plans to not offer a Lifeline-discounted BIAS offering under the reforms in this Order to notify the Commission that it is availing itself of the forbearance relief granted in this Section. Such notification must be filed by the later of 60 days after announcement of OMB approval of this Order under the PRA or 30 days after receiving designation as a Lifeline-only ETC. This notification requirement, as a condition to our grant of forbearance, is a critical element of our actions today. To ensure that the Commission is well informed about the state of the marketplace of Lifeline providers offering voice-only versus Lifeline BIAS, we must impose this notification requirement prior to ETCs availing themselves of this forbearance.
264. We find that enforcement of this requirement is not necessary to ensure that the charges, practices, classifications, or regulations by, for, or in connection with this class of telecommunications carrier and telecommunications service are just and reasonable and are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory. We also find that enforcement of this requirement is not necessary for the protection of consumers and that the above-described forbearance is consistent with the public interest.
265. We find that it is not necessary to impose an obligation to offer Lifeline-supported BIAS within the Lifeline marketplace for Lifeline-only ETCs and that they should be permitted, but not required, to offer Lifeline-discounted BIAS when such ETCs give notice to the Commission of their intent to limit offerings to voice service. This forbearance will not alter the Commission's authority over Lifeline-only ETCs' charges, practices, and classifications in providing Lifeline-supported voice service, nor will it allow such ETCs to unjustly or unreasonably discriminate in their voice offerings. Lifeline-only ETCs will continue to comply with all existing regulations to protect consumers and will, in many instances, face more competition within the marketplace from other Lifeline providers offering
266. Preserving this option for Lifeline-only ETCs is also consistent with concerns raised by commenters. In response to the Commission's inquiries about including broadband as a supported service in the Lifeline program and setting minimum service levels for voice and broadband services, several providers responded that the Commission should preserve providers' ability to offer a voice-only service option. For example, Sprint argued that “the provision of Lifeline broadband service should be voluntary, not mandatory,” noting that some existing Lifeline carriers may not be able to offer broadband service because of the nature of their existing resale agreements with their underlying providers.
267. We also agree with commenters that permitting Lifeline-only ETCs offering voice service to participate in Lifeline even if they do not offer BIAS will give eligible low-income customers more Lifeline-discounted options in the market. (This decision is consistent with the Commission's decision to transition Lifeline funding away from voice service as a standalone option. While Lifeline-only ETCs are able to receive reimbursement for voice service they may choose to focus on that service, but when voice service as a standalone option is no longer eligible for reimbursement through the Lifeline program those ETCs must choose another supported service to offer or seek to relinquish their ETC status under Section 214(e)(4)). We expect that permitting Lifeline-only ETCs offering voice service to participate in Lifeline even if they do not offer BIAS will give eligible low-income customers more Lifeline-discounted options in the market. Accordingly, this forbearance, while not preventing existing or future Lifeline-only ETCs from offering discounted BIAS, will permit those ETCs to continue to offer a discounted standalone voice option if they so choose, which will preserve additional options for consumers in addition to new BIAS options that we expect will enter the Lifeline market. This increase in competition will, in turn, lead to higher quality service offerings at lower prices for eligible low-income subscribers.
268. We find this forbearance is not necessary for the protection of consumers so long as Lifeline-only ETCs are required to notify the Commission of their intent to avail themselves of this forbearance. To ensure that the Commission stays informed of the Lifeline marketplace and knows the number of providers offering voice versus Lifeline-supported BIAS, it is critical that the Commission is able to stay informed of the Lifeline market and consumer options. This notification requirement will give the Commission critical information in understanding and evaluating the Lifeline market to determine how well its regulatory structure provides incentives for participation in the Lifeline program.
269. Forbearance from this requirement is consistent with the public interest. Forbearance from the requirement that a Lifeline-only ETC offer Lifeline-supported BIAS allows service providers to continue serving the existing voice market while permitting those ETCs (to the extent they have not elected to avail themselves of forbearance) to also easily introduce new Lifeline-discounted BIAS offerings. (As discussed above, this forbearance also provides ETCs with greater options to continue serving eligible low-income consumers during the transition to the point where voice will no longer be supported by the Lifeline program). These additional options will promote competitive market conditions by providing low-income consumers with more Lifeline-discounted offerings and a diversity of providers to serve them. With more providers in the Lifeline marketplace, this will open the Lifeline program to innovative new service offerings that will better meet the needs of eligible subscribers and further modernize the program by encouraging BIAS offerings for Lifeline subscribers.
270. As an additional benefit, this forbearance will serve the Lifeline program's purpose of ensuring affordable access to high-quality telecommunications services to eligible low-income households. As detailed above, we recognize that many consumers rely on voice service as their primary form of communication. This forbearance will allow service providers that do not intend to offer BIAS, to continue to serving consumers this supported service. As noted by commenters, certain providers might be required to exit the market given their limitations in offering BIAS. Those providers that avail themselves of this forbearance will have the option of continuing to offer voice service.
271. For ETCs offering voice service that are not Lifeline-only, we interpret such carriers' ETC designations as broad enough to make them eligible for Lifeline broadband support. Such ETCs may therefore receive support for Lifeline-discounted BIAS provided to eligible low-income subscribers within their designated service areas. However, we forbear from these ETCs' obligation to offer Lifeline BIAS to permit such ETCs to solely offer voice in the Lifeline program, provided such ETCs file a notification with the Commission that they are availing themselves of this relief. This forbearance, however, does not apply to areas where ETCs commercially offer broadband that meets the Lifeline minimum service standards pursuant to their high-cost USF obligations, in which case they remain subject to the Lifeline broadband service obligation. (As detailed above, we also require carriers receiving high-cost support to provide Lifeline-supported broadband services in areas where they receive high-cost support and are already offering broadband services at the minimum service levels). To the extent that these ETCs elect to also offer BIAS to eligible subscribers even when not required, they may receive reimbursement for such service through the Lifeline program.
272.
273.
274. In the areas subject to forbearance, existing ETCs remain eligible for Lifeline broadband support to the extent that they elect to provide that service. As a result of this forbearance, ETCs that are not Lifeline-only will only be required to offer Lifeline BIAS in those areas where the ETC commercially offers qualifying BIAS pursuant to the ETC's obligations under the high-cost rules. ETCs that seek to avail themselves of this forbearance must file a notification with the FCC that they are availing themselves of this relief and to identify those areas by Census block where they intend to avail themselves of this forbearance relief.
275. To facilitate program administration, we require any ETC that plans to not offer a Lifeline-discounted BIAS offering under the reforms in this Order to notify the Commission that it is availing itself of the forbearance relief granted in this Section and to identify those areas by Census block where they intend to avail themselves of this forbearance relief. Such notification must be filed by the later of 60 days after announcement of OMB approval of this Order under the PRA or 30 days after receiving designation as an ETC. This notification requirement, as a condition to our grant of forbearance, is a critical element of this grant of forbearance. To ensure that the Commission is well informed about the state of the marketplace of Lifeline providers offering voice-only service versus Lifeline BIAS, we must impose this notification requirement prior to ETCs availing themselves of this forbearance.
276. We find that enforcement of this requirement is not necessary to ensure that the charges, practices, classifications, or regulations by, for, or in connection with this class of telecommunications carrier and telecommunications service are just and reasonable and are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory. We also find that enforcement of this requirement is not necessary for the protection of consumers and that the above-described forbearance is consistent with the public interest.
277. With the exception discussed below, we find that this forbearance meets the criteria set out in Section 10(a) of the Act for much the same reasons that led us to grant forbearance to Lifeline-only ETCs in the prior Section. This forbearance will not alter the Commission's authority over the charges and practices of ETCs, nor will it allow ETCs to unjustly or unreasonably discriminate in offering their Lifeline-supported services. The Commission has recognized that granting forbearance relief in light of other still-applicable regulatory requirements is reasonable and appropriate while both retaining necessary safeguards and reducing costs.
278. Forbearance from this requirement is consistent with the public interest. We find that such forbearance will create a level playing field as between Lifeline-only ETCs and ETCs that are not Lifeline-only where the latter are not commercially offering qualifying broadband service pursuant to their high-cost obligations. Similar to our analysis with Lifeline-only ETCs, this forbearance serves the public interest because it permits ETCs to focus their Lifeline offerings on the voice market where they are not able to offer qualifying Lifeline-discounted BIAS, while still permitting such ETCs to easily introduce Lifeline-discounted BIAS offerings if they so choose. We find that this forbearance will give eligible low-income consumers more Lifeline-discounted choices in the market, and will lead to higher quality service offerings at lower prices.
279.
280. In areas where the provider receives high-cost support but has not yet deployed a broadband network consistent with the provider's high-cost service obligations, the obligation to provide Lifeline-supported BIAS begins only when the provider has deployed a high-cost supported broadband network to that area and makes its BIAS commercially available. (For example, we recognize that many high-cost recipients receiving CAF Phase II support have not deployed broadband capable networks in all of the Census blocks where they receive high-cost support, but are required to do so pursuant to deadlines set forth in the Commission's high-cost rules). For example, a rate-of-return carrier must provide Lifeline-supported BIAS if it deploys a network providing a minimum of 10/1 Mbps upon reasonable request from a qualified low-income consumer in satisfaction of its high-cost obligations. (In the event speeds of 10/1 Mbps are not available, such providers are required to offer Lifeline-supported BIAS if speeds at 4 Mbps/1 or above are commercially available). Or, as another example, a price cap carrier that accepted Connect America Phase II model-based support, must provide Lifeline-supported BIAS in an area where that price cap carrier has already deployed broadband facilities capable of providing the minimum service levels set forth above and is commercially offering service. However, an authorized rural broadband experiment bidder is not required to provide Lifeline-supported BIAS until it has deployed broadband-capable facilities to the location of a qualified
281. For providers that receive ETC designation as Lifeline Broadband Providers, such a designation makes them eligible for Lifeline broadband support, with the accompanying obligation to offer Lifeline broadband service. In this Section, we establish a streamlined LBP relinquishment process to further reduce the perceived risk of entering the Lifeline broadband market.
282. In implementing the ETC relinquishment process for LBPs, we establish the streamlined relinquishment procedures described below, except for relinquishments by LBPs also receiving high-cost universal service support. (We note that this relinquishment process will only apply to LBPs designated under Section 214(e)(6) of the Act). We find that a streamlined relinquishment process will encourage new providers to enter the Lifeline market by giving them clarity as to how they may responsibly exit that market, while fulfilling the Commission's responsibility to protect consumers, ensure that subscribers will continue to be served, and ensure that subscribers are given sufficient notice. We therefore revise Section 54.205 of the Commission's rules to create a streamlined relinquishment process for LBPs. Under this process, an LBP's advance notice of its intent to relinquish its designation pursuant to Section 214(e)(4) shall be deemed granted by the Commission 60 days after the notice is filed, unless the Bureau notifies the LBP that the relinquishment will not be automatically effective. Consistent with Congressional directives, the Commission will issue such a notification that the relinquishment will not be automatically effective if an automatic grant would violate any of the criteria listed in Section 214(e)(4).
283. We expect that a streamlined ETC relinquishment process for LBPs will reduce the perceived risk for broadband providers to enter the Lifeline market. This will encourage providers to offer Lifeline-supported broadband services and increase competition, which will, in turn, lead to greater choices among affordable, higher quality service offerings for eligible low-income subscribers. Pursuant to the new LBP relinquishment procedures, the Commission will notify the relevant LBP if its relinquishment will not be automatically effective in cases where, for example, customers may need more time to transition to a new carrier. As a result, the Commission will still have the authority and responsibility to at least temporarily prevent a relinquishment that would harm consumers until an appropriate solution can be found.
284. We find that a streamlined relinquishment process for LBPs will serve the Lifeline program's purpose of ensuring affordable access to high-quality advanced telecommunications services to eligible low-income households. By giving providers greater flexibility and encouraging investment in the Lifeline market, this streamlined process will open the Lifeline program to innovative new service offerings that will better meet the needs of eligible subscribers and further modernize the program by encouraging BIAS offerings for Lifeline subscribers.
285. Having described the tailored broadband service obligations of various categories of ETCs in the previous Section, we next turn to the Lifeline voice service obligations. As to Lifeline-only ETCs, which historically participated specifically in order to provide Lifeline voice service, we do not alter the preexisting voice service obligation. Regarding existing ETCs that are not Lifeline-only, we deny the broadest requests for unconditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice obligation, but find it justified to grant certain conditional forbearance designed to promote broadband policy goals while protecting Lifeline consumers. We further make clear that entities newly designated as ETCs specifically for Lifeline broadband purposes do not have any Lifeline voice obligation under our interpretation of Section 214(e).
286. We decline to forbear from existing Lifeline-only ETCs' obligations to offer Lifeline-discounted voice service. Lifeline-only ETCs were designated as ETCs for the specific purpose of providing Lifeline voice service. (At the time existing Lifeline-only ETCs were designated, the only service for which they could receive support was voice service supported by the Lifeline mechanism, including the multiple functionalities that are encompassed within voice telephony service). The proposals for forbearance or other relief from Lifeline voice service obligations also have focused on ETCs that are not Lifeline-only, as we discuss below. We thus find no basis in the record here to conclude that existing Lifeline-only ETCs are similarly situated to the ETCs for which we grant some relief from otherwise-applicable Lifeline voice service obligations in the Section below. As a result, existing Lifeline-only ETCs remain subject to Lifeline voice service obligations unless or until they relinquish their designations or otherwise seek—and justify—relief. Of course, consistent with the Lifeline reforms adopted in this Order, Lifeline-only ETCs not only can receive support for providing voice telephony to qualifying low-income subscribers, but alternatively when they provide Lifeline broadband Internet access service (with or without voice). Given our phase-out of Lifeline support for voice-only service for many providers, we recognize that such ETCs might well take steps in response, such as relinquishing their Lifeline voice ETC designations, thereby eliminating any obligation under Section 214(e)(1) and our implementing rules to provide the supported Lifeline voice telephony service. Consistent with our interpretation and implementation of Sections 214(e) and 254, however, we emphasize that ETCs have the option to seek relinquishment of only their Lifeline voice ETC designation, leaving them still eligible to receive Lifeline broadband support.
287.
288. Although the Commission stated in the
289. With respect to the Section 10(a)(2) consumer protection inquiry, the Commission, informed by the consumer protection goals in Section 214(e)(4), found insufficient evidence to persuade it that the Lifeline voice service obligation for High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs was unnecessary to protect consumers. As a threshold matter, the Commission was not persuaded that the geographic areas subject to potential forbearance were subject to the sort of marketplace conditions that would give it comfort with a less detailed analysis of the sort previously used when granting certain relief from high-cost service obligations in the
290. In this proceeding, we likewise find it necessary to evaluate forbearance based on detailed marketplace evidence as to forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations other than the conditional forbearance we grant below. For one, we cannot take sufficient comfort in the marketplace conditions to justify evaluating unconditional forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations via the less detailed analysis used in the
291. Likewise, outside the context of the conditional forbearance we grant below, we do not find other consumer protection interests sufficient to counsel in favor of a less detailed marketplace analysis in granting forbearance. Absent a condition like that imposed on the forbearance we adopt below, we do not find a basis to expect that forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations necessarily will advance our broadband policy goals. We thus reject speculative assertions that unconditioned forbearance will promote broadband policy sufficient to warrant forbearance in-and-of themselves or justify a less detailed marketplace analysis to evaluate forbearance.
292. Having concluded that a detailed evaluation of the sort described in the
293. Our conclusions regarding unconditional forbearance from Lifeline voice obligations in this proceeding under Section 10(a)(1) likewise are in accord with the Commission's Section 10(a)(1) analysis in the
294. We likewise find on the record here that unconditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice obligation for High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs would not be in the public interest under Section 10(a)(3). In large part, this conclusion flows from the same considerations underlying our findings above that Sections 10(a)(2) and 10(a)(1) are not satisfied as to such forbearance. Further, insofar as commenters premise arguments for forbearance on the costs of complying with Lifeline rules, we
295. Some commenters argue that for competitive neutrality or other reasons, existing ETCs with broad designations should be allowed to choose whether or not to provide Lifeline voice service, or that participation in Lifeline should be de-linked from participation in high-cost. We are not persuaded that such arguments are sufficient to justify forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations. In particular, we are not persuaded that such concerns are sufficient to overcome our identified need for detailed marketplace information to evaluate unconditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation. Further, as the Commission observed in the
296.
297. We conclude that such conditional forbearance is, on net, in the public interest under Section 10(a)(3) because it strikes the right balance between creating additional incentives for providers to promote the deployment and availability of broadband networks and services while adequately protecting the interests of low-income voice service users. In particular, it is clear from the record that a number of carriers that historically have provided Lifeline voice telephony service—particularly incumbent LECs—no longer wish to do so, at least not to the full extent they did so in the past. When existing High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs were designated, the designations broadly encompassed both high-cost and Lifeline voice mechanisms by default, consistent with the Commission's policy intent at the time—which we now depart from in certain respects, as described in this Order—and without the type of more nuanced designations that are feasible under our current interpretation and implementation of Sections 214(e) and 254. These ETCs also commonly provide both voice telephony service and BIAS (among other services), (Indeed, the provision of broadband Internet access service now is a public interest obligation associated with the receipt of high-cost universal service support), and it is our predictive judgment that providing relief from Lifeline voice service requirements based on an area reaching a defined level of Lifeline broadband subscribership and competition will give these providers strengthened incentives to take steps to promote subscribership, whether for their own broadband Internet access service offerings in particular or for broadband Internet access service offerings more generally.
298. Creating additional incentives for providers to promote broadband subscribership advances Section 254's goals of access to, and affordability of, advanced telecommunications services. The increased demand for, and usage of, broadband Internet access service that will be fostered by the broadband providers' efforts also will further Section 706 of the 1996 Act. (The Commission, for example, conducts its Section 706(b) inquiry regarding deployment and availability of advanced telecommunications capability under Section 706 by considering factors such as such as price, quality, and adoption by consumers, as well as physical network). We also are persuaded that forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations also at least incrementally is likely to free up service provider funds
299. We recognize that the Commission has in the past identified the public interest benefits of promoting affordable voice service for low-income consumers, but we expect that any effect on such consumers from the conditional forbearance is likely to be limited, and outweighed by the anticipated broadband policy benefits. For one, we conclude elsewhere in this item that the need for such Lifeline-subsidized voice service is substantially reduced, leading us to phase out support for standalone voice service more generally. (Although we provide a multi-year phase-out for Lifeline support for stand-alone mobile voice generally, the potential for this Lifeline voice forbearance to grant relief from Lifeline voice service obligations on a more rapid timeframe is offset as to these consumers by the benefits in promoting our broadband policy goals). Moreover, as we explain there, we fully expect increasingly lower-priced voice service to continue to be available even absent a Lifeline benefit for standalone voice service, for example as part of packages or bundles of services including broadband Internet access service, which will remain subject to Lifeline support, and which this Lifeline voice forbearance does not affect. We thus conclude that the conditional forbearance we grant is unlikely to harm that set of consumers, nor, as to that group of consumers, is conditional forbearance likely to be in any tension with the principle in Section 254(b) to preserve and promote affordable service.
300. At the same time, we also recognize that our policy judgment about how best to transition the Lifeline program to become more broadband-focused envisions a continuing role for some Lifeline voice support, more so in the near term, but potentially even to some degree over the longer term. Based on the record, we cannot readily quantify the anticipated broadband policy benefits from this conditional forbearance, nor can we readily quantify any countervailing effects of forbearance on any low-income consumers who would prefer the Lifeline voice service offerings that otherwise would be available under our Lifeline rules if the Lifeline voice service obligation remained. (In particular, although we cannot precisely quantify the anticipated benefits of conditional forbearance in terms of broadband deployment and availability, the record also does not enable a price quantification of any costs of conditional forbearance. We thus weigh these considerations in the best manner feasible given the record and our associated policy judgment as described in the text. We note that the context of our forbearance decision here is different from that of a Section 10(c) petition, where the petitioner bears the burden of proof. Rather, our forbearance decision is conducted under the general reasoned decision making requirements of the APA. Nonetheless, we are persuaded that the public interest, on net, counsels in favor of forbearance for several reasons.
301. First, our conditional forbearance does not grant relief from the Lifeline voice service obligation as to those Lifeline subscribers that the High-Cost/Lifeline ETC serves at the time the forbearance condition is met. Those subscribers effectively are grandfathered to avoid possible disruption that otherwise might occur when forbearance newly applies in the area they live. We anticipate that this, in and of itself, is likely to protect the interests of many, if not most, Lifeline subscribers who prefer the legacy Lifeline voice service offerings, and whose interests we recognize in our broader Lifeline policy decisions. At the same time, the High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs have a discrete, well-defined remaining Lifeline voice service obligation, and can provide such subscribers incentives to transition to new service offerings to enable the ETCs to take full advantage of the Lifeline voice service forbearance.
302. Second, if the Commission were to deny conditional forbearance from Lifeline voice service obligations as to the remaining consumers—those who are not subject to the grandfathering described above—we expect that providers would need to retain much, if not all, of their infrastructure used to serve Lifeline voice subscribers just to potentially serve that narrower segment of overall Lifeline subscribers, not knowing if or when such subscribers might seek service. The High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs thus would continue incurring costs that they otherwise could direct to broadband investment. (By this we mean not only physical network infrastructure, but also other infrastructure like that required for billing and other administrative functions associated with providing Lifeline voice service). Insofar as the benefit of forbearance to providers thus would be substantially reduced, we conclude that this likewise would materially dampen—and in some cases, entirely eliminate—what otherwise would be increased incentives by those providers to spur greater broadband penetration.
303. Third, conditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation for High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs does not preclude carriers from electing to provide the supported Lifeline voice service and from receiving universal service support for doing so. Rather, it simply eliminates that mandatory obligation for them to do so under Section 214(e)(1) and our implementing rules. Further, as the Commission observed in the
304. Fourth, we expect that the actions broadband providers take to promote broadband penetration in an effort to gain relief from Lifeline voice service obligations are likely to benefit low-income consumers, as well as the public more generally. In particular, we expect that providers seeking to trigger the conditional forbearance we grant are likely to undertake a variety of efforts, ranging from reducing the price and/or increasing the capabilities of a service at a given price point for retail broadband Internet access service offerings, making available attractive wholesale broadband Internet access service offerings, or undertaking other efforts such as digital literacy training or other measures to overcome barriers to broadband adoption. As broadband Internet access service becomes ever more important for all consumers, such efforts are likely to benefit many of the same consumers who currently might desire the otherwise-available Lifeline voice service offerings. In this scenario, then, the effects of conditional forbearance on such consumers inherently are themselves mixed, with benefits to those consumers coupled with, at most, some potential risks for those consumers.
305. Finally, we also expect that the efforts providers undertake to trigger the conditions necessary for Lifeline voice forbearance are likely to promote competitive market conditions for broadband Internet access service. As indicated above, we anticipate that by making available this conditional forbearance, providers will have incentives to take steps such as reducing the price and/or increasing the capabilities of their broadband Internet access service at a given price point to spur adoption of their own broadband Internet access service. Facilities-based providers with a voice obligation may also seek to offer attractive wholesale data prices, for example, so other Lifeline providers can also increase broadband penetration. Where there are alternative broadband Internet access service providers to the existing ETCs, such actions are likely to promote competition. Under Section 10(b), the Commission is directed, in making the Section 10(a)(3) public interest evaluation, to “consider whether forbearance from enforcing the provision or regulation will promote competitive market conditions.” “If the Commission determines that such forbearance will promote competition among providers of telecommunications services, that determination may be the basis for a Commission finding that forbearance is in the public interest.” Our finding that forbearance is likely to promote competitive market conditions reinforces the remainder of our analysis above, which persuades us that the conditional forbearance we adopt is in the public interest.
306. We are unpersuaded by claims that forbearance would be contrary to the public interest insofar as it might reduce the number of Lifeline voice service providers and/or competition for Lifeline voice service customers. Although competition for Lifeline service can have benefits, that must be evaluated in the context of other policy considerations. As we explain above, we are modernizing our Lifeline efforts to support broadband Internet access service given its importance to consumers and consistent with the Commission's responsibilities under Section 254 of the Act and Section 706 of the 1996 Act. At the same time, we find an at least somewhat diminished need for Lifeline-supported voice service where the relevant conditions are met. Moreover, we grandfather existing Lifeline voice service customers obtaining service at the time forbearance newly applies in a given county, providing protection for the customers at greatest potential risk of disruption. In this context, and for the reasons described above, we conclude that the conditional forbearance we grant properly weighs our various universal service objectives and our broader broadband policy goals, and that such forbearance is in the public interest.
307. We also reject arguments suggesting that the Act requires the Commission to prioritize competition in the provision of Lifeline-subsidized service over all other considerations. Although Section 214(e)(2) anticipates multiple ETCs, at least in some areas, ETC designation deals only with the eligibility for support, and does not actually guarantee the receipt of support—and, consequently, does not guarantee that all ETCs will provide services discounted through the receipt of universal service funding. We therefore conclude that in evaluating forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation, Section 214(e) does not require us to prioritize having a greater number of providers over the other policy considerations relevant in this context under Section 254 of the Act and Section 706 of the 1996 Act.
308. We also disagree that any diminution in competition or loss of options for voice service from conditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice obligation for High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs necessarily will leave only inferior or less desirable service offerings so as to render conditional forbearance contrary to the public interest. As we explain above, the extent to which the loss of competition or of particular service offerings is, in fact, likely to occur is itself speculative, particularly against the backdrop of other Lifeline reforms adopted in this Order. Moreover, any comparison of different service offerings involves some trade-offs, and we are not persuaded that the examples in the record demonstrate that a particular offering is inherently superior for all customers. (We also find it speculative whether, or to what extent, historical differences cited in the record are material to our analysis here and are likely to persist in the future, given our Lifeline reforms). We thus find no basis to depart from our Section 10(a)(3) determination above that conditional forbearance is in the public interest.
309. Nor does our conditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation in Section 214(e)(1) and our implementing rules interfere with state interests in a manner that cuts
310. The forgoing analysis also persuades us that retaining the Lifeline voice service obligation in areas where the Lifeline broadband subscribership and competition condition is met is not necessary for the protection of consumers under Section 10(a)(2). For the reasons described in the paragraphs above, we conclude that consumers as a whole are likely to benefit more from our conditional forbearance than from retaining the Lifeline voice service obligation. Even as to low-income consumers who desire the Lifeline voice service offerings that otherwise would remain available under our rules, the result of forbearance appears to be at most mixed, and under these circumstances, particularly as guided by policies of Section 706 of the 1996 Act, we conclude that the Lifeline voice requirement is not necessary to protect consumers under Section 10(a)(2) where the Lifeline broadband subscribership and competition condition is met.
311. We also conclude that the Lifeline voice service obligation is not necessary to ensure just, reasonable, and not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory rates and practices under Section 10(a)(1). As relevant to Section 10(a)(1), commenters' arguments appear to center on the effect of forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation on rates. Thus, we focus our Section 10(a)(1) analysis here by considering whether the conditional forbearance we grant from the Lifeline voice service obligation for High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs would have a negative effect on the justness and reasonableness of rates. Because we are dealing with obligations relating to supported services under Section 254, our interpretation of what is “just” and “reasonable” for purposes of Section 10(a)(1) is informed by Section 254. Notably, under Section 254(b)(1) and 254(i), the question of whether rates are “just” and “reasonable” is distinct from whether they are “affordable.” Given the relevant overlay of Section 254 here, in this context we therefore consider under Section 10(a)(1) only whether the Lifeline voice service obligation is necessary to ensure just and reasonable and not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory rates distinct from the question of affordability (which we fully consider in our analysis under other prongs above). (In particular, we consider possible effects on affordability of the services within the definition of universal service for Lifeline purposes under our public interest and consumer protection analyses above. We note that in the
312. On the record here, we are not persuaded that the Lifeline voice service obligation is necessary to ensure just and reasonable rates or rates that are not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory where the conditions on forbearance are met. Some of these areas will remain served by ETCs with high-cost voice service obligations, requiring them to offer and advertise voice telephony service throughout their designated service area. We find no basis in the record here to conclude that the rates charged for voice telephony services in these areas are likely to be unjust, unreasonable, or unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory as relevant to our Section 10(a)(1) inquiry here if we forbear from the Lifeline voice service obligation where the relevant conditions are met.
313. As to the remaining areas, the Commission granted forbearance from high-cost voice service obligations only after concluding that competition and other regulatory protections were adequate to, among other things, ensure just and reasonable and not unjustly or unreasonably discriminatory rates. We find no basis on the record here to reach a different conclusion regarding forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation in these areas under Section 10(a)(1), insofar as the relevant conditions on forbearance are satisfied.
314. As an overlay to the forgoing analysis regarding voice telephony service rates, we note that in evaluating forbearance from applying Lifeline voice service obligations to a class of telecommunications carriers (carriers that are ETCs for both high-cost and legacy Lifeline voice purposes), Section 10(a)(1) speaks to the justness and reasonableness of rates (and practices) by those telecommunications carriers generally. Although we consider whether forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation will affect the justness and reasonableness of rates for voice telephony service, we also consider the effect of forbearance on these ETCs' broadband Internet access service. As described above, we anticipate that the potential to achieve conditional forbearance will spur ETCs to take actions that spur competition in the marketplace for broadband Internet access service. The Commission previously has recognized that competition helps ensure just and reasonable rates. As part of our Section 10(a)(1) analysis, we thus include the predictive judgment that, in the context of broadband Internet access service, forbearance is likely to have some effect in promoting or enhancing just and reasonable rates. Under the totality of the analysis above, we therefore find that the Lifeline voice service obligation is not necessary to ensure just, reasonable, and not unjustly and unreasonably discriminatory rates and practices under Section 10(a)(1).
315.
316. We adopt the first two elements of our forbearance condition to advance our policy goals of creating incentives to promote broadband Internet access service subscribership and competition, particularly for low-income consumers, but recognize that we are engaged in a line-drawing exercise that cannot be resolved by available data. Regarding our subscribership criteria, we find that a requirement that a county have at least 51 percent of Lifeline subscribers that are subscribing to Lifeline broadband Internet access service establishes a threshold demonstrating that a meaningful portion of Lifeline subscribers are taking advantage of our new Lifeline broadband program. (As we explain elsewhere, given the increasing importance of broadband Internet access service today we are modernizing our universal service policies for low-income subscribers to reflect that increased importance, and taking this step to further promote broadband Internet access service subscribership by low-income consumers helps advance those overall goals). At the same time, we recognize that, because the Lifeline broadband program is newly-established, setting the threshold too high could result in diminished or delayed incentives by High-Cost/Lifeline ETCs to encourage such subscribership and competition if the threshold was viewed as unattainable in any reasonable timeframe. We believe the threshold we adopt appropriately balances these considerations.
317. Our competition criteria likewise seeks to balance our goal of promoting a meaningful level of competition for Lifeline broadband Internet access service subscribers, with the realities that this is a new program. (As explained earlier in this Section, we conclude that it advances our universal service policy implementation of Section 254 of the Act to promote competition for Lifeline broadband services). A requirement that a county have at least 3 other providers of Lifeline BIAS besides the High-Cost/Lifeline ETC that would avail itself of our forbearance, with each of those other Lifeline broadband providers serving at least 5 percent of the Lifeline broadband subscribers in the county demonstrates some level of competition. (The Commission has previously acknowledged that competition between even two providers theoretically can result in meaningful competition in some circumstances, but by adopting a materially higher threshold for the number of competitors we avoid such questions. By requiring that each of the other providers need only serve 5% of the Lifeline broadband Internet access service subscribers we are persuaded that that this threshold remains realistically attainable, while guarding against the possibility of counting purely
318. The subscribership and competition thresholds we adopt also have the advantage of being calculations we can make based on NLAD, state administrator, or National Verifier data. Those data will be readily available to the Commission, making these calculations readily administrable. In the interim period of time before the National Verifier is in place, we direct USAC to obtain and have systems for regularly updating the relevant data from the NLAD or from the states that have opted-out of the NLAD by December 1, 2016. (One of the requirements for any state that opted-out of the NLAD was that it ensure that the Commission and USAC would have access to records as needed for oversight purposes). In addition, because the NLAD or National Verifier data (as well as the state data) are, in the first instance, used to guard against improper universal service support disbursements, there already is a strong incentive to ensure that they are as accurate and up-to-date as possible. We also direct USAC, in coordination with the Bureau, to collect as part of its administrative function the information necessary to determine whether Lifeline consumers are receiving Lifeline-supported BIAS either on a standalone basis or as part of a bundle so that the necessary determinations called for can be made.
319. We further conclude that evaluating whether the condition is met at the county level strikes a reasonable balance in this context. Smaller geographic areas could have more widely variable numbers of Lifeline subscribers, leading to anomalous results under our subscribership and competition thresholds that do not accurately capture the policies we are seeking to advance. (For example, as of the end of 2015 USAC estimates that there were approximately 13.1 million subscribers participating in Lifeline. Thus, on average, there are approximately 172 Lifeline subscribers per census tract. In practice, however, we anticipate that there is likely to be sufficient variability census tract-to-census tract that some tracts could have only an extremely small number of Lifeline subscribers. Use of census tracts
320. In a county where the first two criteria of our forbearance condition are met, our forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation is further conditioned on the High-Cost/Lifeline ETC not actually receiving federal high-cost universal service support. Thus, for any county where the first two criteria of our forbearance condition are met, our conditional forbearance from the Lifeline voice obligation only applies in those areas within the county where the High-Cost/Lifeline ETC is not, in fact, receiving federal high-cost universal service support. In areas where the ETC does receive federal high-cost universal service support, the public, through the federal universal service fund, is making an ongoing investment in the ETC's provision of voice telephony service and in the underlying broadband-capable network used to offer that service. In that context, we are persuaded that there is an ongoing, overriding policy interest that such networks and services—already being supported by universal service support, with the associated high-cost voice service obligation—continue to be available to advance our low-income voice policy goals, as well. By contrast, where there is no such ongoing federal high-cost universal service investment, we are persuaded that the potential to advance our broadband policy goals tips the balance in favor of forbearance for all the reasons described in this Section above. (In the context of the overall balancing of policy interests with respect to the conditional forbearance we grant, we thus reject arguments that high-cost ETCs should perpetually have Lifeline voice service obligations throughout their entire designated service areas).
321. To effectuate this condition on forbearance, we direct USAC, one year after the effective date of this Order and annually thereafter, to submit data to the Bureau to enable the identification of counties where the subscribership and competition criteria are met. After review, within thirty days of the receipt of these data from USAC, we direct the Bureau to issue a Public Notice announcing the counties where the subscribership and competition criteria of our forbearance condition are met. Sixty days after the release of that Public Notice, forbearance from the Lifeline voice service obligation will apply to each High-Cost/Lifeline ETC in the identified counties insofar as each ETC is not receiving high-cost support. This forbearance will continue to apply in each county identified in the Public Notice—subject to the high-cost support condition—until sixty days after the next year's Public Notice. At that time, the list of counties identified in the next year's public notice will govern, including any additions of newly-qualifying counties or the elimination of counties that no longer meet the criteria (and thus no longer fall within the scope of the conditional forbearance).
322. As explained above, we interpret Section 214(e)(1) to impose service obligations on ETCs that mirror the service defined as supported under Section 254(c) in the context of the specific universal service rules, mechanisms, or programs for which they were designated. Consequently, providers that obtain an ETC designation as an LBP receive a designation that is specific to the Lifeline broadband program and will only have Section 214(e)(1) service obligations for BIAS. Thus, by default, providers do not have any Lifeline voice service obligations as a result of their designation specifically as an LBP.
323. In addition to the actions described above, we further encourage competition and market entry in the Lifeline program by interpreting ETCs' obligation to advertise the availability of Lifeline services and the charges thereof for purposes of receiving reimbursement from the Lifeline program. We find that interpreting ETCs' obligations under Section 214(e)(1)(B) will provide clarity and reduce burdens on providers, making it easier to enter and remain in the Lifeline program.
324. Under Section 214(e)(1)(B) of the Act, an ETC must, among other requirements, “advertise the availability of such services and the charges therefor using media of general distribution.” The requirement to advertise the availability and price of service on “media of general distribution” creates ambiguity that, added with other obligations for ETCs, can discourage providers from seeking designation and entering the Lifeline program. This ultimately harms Lifeline-eligible consumers, who are left with few choices among discounted services. However, as Free Press and New America's Open Technology Institute have argued, we acknowledge that the requirement to advertise the availability and price of service need not necessarily be overly burdensome if implemented properly.
325. We therefore find that, while the requirement to advertise the availability and price of service is a useful one, the Commission can reduce the perhaps unintended burden of this provision on carriers by interpreting the phrase “media of general distribution” to provide further clarity. Under Section 214(e)(1)(B), “media of general distribution” is any media reasonably calculated to reach the general public or, for an LBP, the specific audience that makes up the demographic for a particular service offering. For example, for an LBP partnering with a school to offer Lifeline-discounted BIAS to that school's community, “media of general distribution” may include flyers, newspaper advertisements, or local television advertisements in that school's geographic area. For a Lifeline-only broadband ETC offering a service designed with eligible low-income subscribers with hearing disabilities, “media of general distribution” may include web advertisements reasonably
326. Combined with our other actions in this Order to encourage provider participation in the Lifeline program and create a robust, competitive market for Lifeline subscribers, we expect that our interpretation of the requirement of Section 214(e)(1)(B) will give clarity to participating providers and remove one more potential source of uncertainty to encourage providers to enter the program.
327. To fully obtain the benefits of a modernized Lifeline program, the Commission and others must encourage and facilitate the meaningful access and adoption to quality advanced telecommunications services among low-income households. We recognize that in order to access and adopt advanced telecommunications services, households will require devices that enable them to bridge the digital divide. We therefore require Lifeline providers that provide both supported mobile broadband service and devices to their consumers to provide devices that are Wi-Fi enabled, and we also require the same providers to offer the choice to Lifeline customers of devices that are equipped with hotspot functionality. We also require fixed broadband Lifeline providers that provide devices to their customers to provide devices that are Wi-Fi enabled. The requirement to provide Wi-Fi-enabled devices does not apply to devices provided to consumers prior to the effective date of the requirement. Additionally, we direct the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau (CGB) to develop a comprehensive plan for the Commission to better understand the non-price barriers to digital inclusion and to propose how the Commission can facilitate efforts to address those barriers.
328. In recognition of the need for students, job applicants, and others to access the Internet on multiple platforms and in various ways we now require Lifeline providers that provide supported broadband service and devices to their consumers to provide devices that are Wi-Fi enabled, and to offer devices that are equipped with hotspot functionality. We adopt these requirements because Wi-Fi enabled phones are essential tools to help individuals stay connected, and because the hotspot requirement will help to ensure that households without fixed Internet access will be able to share their access to the Internet among multiple members if so desired.
329.
330. As explained in more detail in the paragraphs that follow, this condition on support under the Lifeline broadband mechanism for providers that make devices available to Lifeline subscribers promotes Lifeline subscribers' access to advanced services and the affordability of those services. Importantly, the condition guards against the risk that the Lifeline subscribers and their households would be hindered in their ability to avail themselves of options for using the Internet that are less expensive than purchasing additional usage or additional services as could be necessitated if Lifeline providers only provided devices that lack the capabilities required under this condition. Adopting this condition on the Lifeline broadband support mechanism advances the objectives in Section 254(b) and (i) of the Act, as well as our responsibilities under Section 706 of the 1996 Act. The Commission has invoked Section 254(b) of the Act and Section 706 of the 1996 Act to place conditions on the receipt of universal service support in the past, and courts likewise have affirmed conditions on the receipt of universal service support in other ways. Greater availability of devices with the capabilities we require under our condition also provides greater incentives for the public to fund advanced services to schools and libraries, including those in low-income areas, given that a larger proportion of the students or patrons can avail themselves of the opportunities made available, thereby advancing additional objectives of Section 254 of the Act and Section 706 of the 1996 Act. We discuss the specific elements of our condition on Lifeline broadband funding in greater detail below.
331.
332.
333. To ensure that the market can adjust and reflect the evolution of available devices while also ensuring that consumers have affordable choices, we adopt a phase in transition for this requirement. Beginning in December 1, 2016, we require that providers of broadband Lifeline service that make devices available include at least one device that has hotspot capability. Building on that, fifteen percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2017 to November 30, 2018 shall be hotspot enabled. Twenty percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2018 to November 30, 2019, shall be hotspot enabled. Twenty-five percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2019 to November 30, 2020 shall be hotspot enabled. Thirty-five percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2020 to November 30, 2021 shall be hotspot enabled. Forty-five percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2021 to November 30, 2022 shall be hotspot enabled. Fifty-five percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023 shall be hotspot enabled. Sixty-five percent of the devices a provider makes available from December 1, 2023 to November 30, 2024 shall be hotspot enabled. Seventy-five percent of the devices a provider makes available beginning December 1, 2024 onward shall be hotspot enabled. We believe that this approach ensures that consumers have robust choices—both with and without hotspot functionality. Accordingly, we amend Section 54.422(b) of our rules to require carriers to certify their compliance with these requirements on our Form 481.
334. In this Section, we direct the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau (CGB) to develop a comprehensive plan for the Commission to better understand the non-price barriers to digital inclusion and to propose how the Commission can facilitate efforts to address those barriers. This plan should address promoting digital inclusion generally and also as it particularly relates to the new Lifeline program established in this Order. CGB should specifically work with other bureaus and offices, as well as USAC, to ensure all Lifeline stakeholders' views are incorporated into this effort. We direct CGB to submit this plan to the Commission within six months of the effective date of the order. Through this effort, we initiate an ongoing campaign to build the Commission's digital literacy capacity and to keep us apprised and abreast of the state of digital inclusion across the country.
335. Lowering non-price barriers to digital inclusion is an important component of increasing the availability of broadband service for low-income consumers. As explained above, the key purpose of our actions in this order is to increase the affordability of broadband service, which remains the chief impediment to broadband adoption among low-income consumers. We nonetheless recognize, and concur with, the findings of other governmental and private researchers that there are multiple barriers to digital inclusion among low-income consumers. (Digital inclusion includes but reaches beyond broadband adoption and affordability). Notably, lack of digital literacy and perceived relevance are significant non-price barriers. All of these barriers are interrelated. Recent studies confirm that consumers may consider broadband service to be relevant if other barriers, such as digital literacy and price are overcome. The fact that a consumer may not be able to afford broadband service may also reduce the relevance of broadband service to that consumer. Many low-income consumers that are online may not be able to take advantage of all that the Internet has to offer. By one estimate, approximately 36 million Americans don't use the Internet at all and approximately 70 million Americans have low digital skills. Based on the foregoing, we believe that low-cost broadband coupled with strategic, effective digital inclusion efforts will significantly impact the lives of millions of consumers across the Nation, particularly those with lower incomes and in key demographic groups, such as
336. We recognize the important role consumer groups, community and philanthropic organizations, local government, and industry stakeholders play in assisting consumers in overcoming the non-price barriers to digital inclusion. Therefore, CGB's plan should include proposals for engagement of these groups to explore strategies for promoting increased broadband adoption as well as increased digital literacy of low-income and other consumers. In its plan, CGB should explore how to connect efforts to increase the availability of affordable service and equipment, digital literacy training, and relevance programming to make digital inclusion a reality in light of the modernized regulatory framework.
337. In addition, we encourage Lifeline providers to work with schools, libraries, community centers and other organizations such as food banks and senior citizen centers that serve low-income consumers to increase broadband adoption and address non-price barriers to adoption. Providers should make available contact information for Lifeline subscribers as part of their outreach. CGB's plans should further this objective. Broadband can be a critical tool for seniors to realize many economic and health gains as well as increased socialization, but seniors lag behind other demographic groups in terms of adoption and digital inclusion. Education and awareness programs targeting seniors can be effective in overcoming these barriers and increasing broadband adoption among low-income seniors.
338. CGB's plan should propose how it will convene stakeholders, including both Lifeline and non-Lifeline broadband providers, community and philanthropic organizations, local governments, and anchor institutions to explore how digital inclusion efforts can be tailored to local conditions by trusted community-based partners to maximize their effect. Digital inclusion organizations have found that the most successful training is provided through a trusted, community-based partner that provides the social support necessary for increasing broadband access. Moreover, local social and demographic conditions may make one solution work in one place while another approach is more appropriate elsewhere. Based on their experience, many digital inclusion organizations have moved from classes to one-on-one training to improve outcomes. One-on-one training can be the most effective in part because it helps lower the barrier of perceived relevance; each consumer learns how the Internet can assist them accomplish tasks of particular importance to them. CGB's plan should address how digital inclusion organizations can share their experience in tailoring digital inclusion efforts to local conditions.
339. In addition, CGB's plan should address information and studies available from digital inclusion experts regarding best practices for increasing the digital skills of those already online and how those best practices can be spread throughout the digital inclusion community. Digital literacy efforts can increase the digital inclusion of those who already have access to the Internet to be fully “digitally ready.” Schools, libraries, and community organizations across the country have already begun developing digital learning curriculums that have enabled low-income populations to more meaningfully engage with all the Internet has to offer. Some of the same community-based, grass-roots approaches to increasing digital inclusion for those who do not have access may also be useful in closing the digital readiness gap among those that already have access to broadband. As with programs promoting digital inclusion generally, a “one-size-fits all” solution to increasing digital skills may not be the most efficient or effective approach. CGB's plan should propose how to facilitate communication among these organizations regarding how to tailor digital inclusion efforts to deepen the value of broadband to those already online.
340. To further incentivize investment in high-qualify Lifeline service offerings, we implement Lifeline benefit port freezes—of 12 months for data services and 60 days for voice services—that will give providers greater certainty when planning new or updated Lifeline offerings. Providers may not seek or receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber who used the Lifeline benefit to enroll in a qualifying Lifeline-supported BIAS offering with another Lifeline provider within the previous 12 months. Providers also may not seek or receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber who used the Lifeline benefit to enroll in a qualifying Lifeline-supported voice telephony service offering with another Lifeline provider within the previous 60 days. These port freeze rules for both BIAS and voice service will be subject to certain conditions to ensure Lifeline consumers are sufficiently protected.
341.
342. Except in circumstances described below, providers may not seek or receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber who used the Lifeline benefit to enroll with another Lifeline provider for qualifying Lifeline-supported BIAS service within the previous 12 months. For a subscriber to continue receiving the Lifeline benefit after the subscriber has received Lifeline-supported service from a provider for 12 months, the subscriber
343. A provider that enrolls Lifeline-eligible subscribers cannot materially change the initial terms or conditions of that service offering without the consent of the subscriber until the end of the 12 months, except to increase the offering's speeds or usage allowances. Changes that lower the quality or speed of service, lower the offering's usage allowance, or increase the service's price are presumptively material changes to the terms or conditions of service, even if such changes are made in response to an amendment to the Commission's rules or a change to the Lifeline program's minimum service standards. If a subscriber cancels service or is de-enrolled for non-usage, the Lifeline provider cannot continue to receive reimbursement for that subscriber, nor can the subscriber re-enroll in the program with another provider until the end of the initial 12-month period. Where permitted by the terms and conditions of the service offering, a Lifeline subscriber at any time may move their Lifeline benefit to a different qualifying Lifeline service offered by the same provider, whether broadband, voice, or a bundled offering so long as the service is eligible for support by the Lifeline program. However, if the subscriber switches to another plan offered by the Lifeline provider that offers Lifeline qualifying voice telephony service but not Lifeline qualifying BIAS, the subscriber's 12-month port freeze will end immediately and the subscriber will instead be subject to a 60-day benefit port freeze.
344.
345.
• The subscriber moves their residential address;
• the provider ceases operations or otherwise fails to provide service;
• the provider has imposed late fees for non-payment related to the supported service(s) greater than or equal to the monthly end-user charge for service; or
• the provider is found to be in violation of the Commission's rules during the benefit year and the subscriber is impacted by such violation.
346. In any of the above circumstances, Lifeline subscribers may cancel service and receive a new Lifeline-supported service with another provider until the end of the
347. In the
348.
349. Currently, approximately 13.1 million households are enrolled in Lifeline, and USAC estimates a 32 percent participation rate. As occurred after the last major expansion of Lifeline, we can expect program participation to increase. We note, however, that the Commission has instituted many significant safeguards against waste, fraud, and abuse in the last five years and that some measures we adopt in this item today—such as the imposition of new minimum service standards that may result in higher subscriber out-of-pocket costs versus today's program—may depress demand for Lifeline services in the near term. For the purpose of establishing a budget for this program, we prepare for participation in the program to increase. A $2.25 billion budget would allow over 20 million households to participate in the program with basic support for an entire year before the budget is reached. We believe this budget establishes a ceiling with appropriate room for organic growth in the modernized, accountable Lifeline program we adopt today. (While some Lifeline subscribers will receive enhanced tribal support, it is difficult to forecast the number well in light of other changes that we make to the program).
350.
351.
352. In this Section, we clarify our goals and goal measurements to better align them with the modernized Lifeline program. We also direct the Bureau, working with USAC, to conduct a program evaluation of the newly reformed program so that the Commission and the public may have better information about the operation and effectiveness of the program.
353.
354. First, we explicitly include affordability of voice and broadband service as a component of our first and second program goals and separately measure progress towards that goal component. We clarify that the Lifeline program includes as its goal ensuring the affordability of voice and broadband service. We will measure progress toward this component of our first two goals by measuring the extent to which voice and broadband service expenditures exceed two percent of low-income consumers' disposable household income as compared to the next highest income group. (This approach is similar to the approach taken in other measures of affordability. We note that the United Nations set a goal for developing countries that, by 2015 “entry level” broadband Internet access should account for no more than 5% of disposable income. The most recent data from 2014 indicates that for the poorest 20 percent of U.S. households, a fixed broadband connection constitutes 2.47 percent of monthly disposable income while a 500MB month mobile broadband plan is 4.94 percent of disposable income). We direct the Bureau to implement the details of this measurement, examine the available data, and publish the results in the annual Universal Service Monitoring Report.
355. Second, we begin a thorough, long-term process of evaluating the newly revitalized Lifeline program. Within 12 months of
356. Our direction here is consistent with prior direction given to USAC to undertake reviews of the extent to which our universal service rules, as implemented, are advancing relevant program goals. Because a key element of this forthcoming review will involve the evaluation of whether the implementation of the modified Lifeline rules is achieving our program goals, we follow a similar approach here. We also note that the efficacy of the legacy voice program has already been studied in depth by third parties, and therefore find that limited USF funds should be better spent designing and implementing, as soon as possible to enable a full analysis of a revamped program, an evaluation of the Lifeline program, which includes analysis of its effectiveness in meeting its newly revised goals.
357. We next provide additional flexibility for those Lifeline subscribers and service providers who must demonstrate that the subscriber has used the service within the established time frame, while still maintaining fiscal responsibility. In the
358. In the
359. All those who commented on whether to allow the sending of text messages to constitute usage for purposes of Section 54.407(c)(2) of our rules supported this broadening of our requirements. Many commenters stated that for many of today's wireless consumers, including Lifeline subscribers, text messaging is the prevalent means of communication. Sprint, for example, stated that a significant percentage of Assurance Wireless customers used their Lifeline handset for text messaging even when they did not have any voice usage. Several commenters also highlighted that texting is the primary means by which many people with disabilities communicate.
360. Based on our review of the record and the communications landscape overall, we conclude that it is appropriate to allow the sending of a text message by the subscriber to qualify as “usage” for purposes of Section 54.407(c)(2). (This determination should not be confused with any decision regarding the regulatory status of texting service. Likewise, we make no decisions at this time regarding whether text messaging qualifies as a Lifeline-supported service). Our decision is based on the reality that many consumers today view texting, voice, and broadband as interchangeable means of communication and often use text messages as the sole or primary means of communication. Many Lifeline subscribers may assume that using any of the services available from the device provided by their Lifeline service provider will qualify as usage, and it seems unnecessarily burdensome to require them to distinguish among the services to ensure compliance with the program's usage requirement. While TracFone continues to urge the Commission to allow both the sending and receipt of texts to qualify as “usage,” we conclude, consistent with the
361. Broadening the list of services that can be used to demonstrate “usage” for purposes of Section 54.407(c)(2) of our rules should greatly ease consumers' ability to show their desire to retain Lifeline service. Consequently, we find it appropriate at this time to shorten the non-usage period from 60 to 30 days, along with a corresponding reduction in the time allotted for service providers to notify their subscribers of possible termination from 30 to 15 days. Under this scheme, Lifeline service providers must notify subscribers of possible termination on the 30th day and terminate service if, during the subsequent 15 days, the subscriber has not used the service. In this way, the subscriber will have a total of 45 days in which to demonstrate “usage.” In making this determination, we are mindful of the concerns raised by commenters such as Sprint who assert that decreasing the time period may lead to a higher number of de-enrollments. We note, however, that such assessments are based on a scenario in which the Commission did not permit texting, one of the most prevalent means of wireless communications, to be used as a basis for demonstrating usage. Moreover, we expect that Lifeline service providers will educate their subscribers about the usage requirements and de-enrollment that will result from non-usage. Hence, we will modify Section 54.405(e)(3) of our rules to reflect the change in the non-usage interval. Finally, we emphasize that only if a carrier bills on a monthly basis and collects or makes a good faith effort to collect any money owned within a reasonable amount of time will the carrier not be subject to the non-usage requirements. Carriers that fail to take such steps and do not de-enroll subscribers pursuant to the non-usage requirements may be subject to enforcement action or withholding of support.
362. In the
363. We find that, particularly as the National Verifier is launched in multiple states, annually recertifying subscribers on a rolling basis, based on the subscriber's service initiation date, will prevent the entity responsible for recertification from processing recertification and potential de-enrollment procedures for all subscribers at the same time. This will make the recertification process more manageable and result in a recertification process that reflects the amount of time the subscriber has actually been enrolled in the Lifeline program. We also expect that this change will enable providers and the National Verifier to respond to any customers who need assistance in the recertification process without being overwhelmed by customer service requests.
364. Prior to the implementation of the National Verifier in a state, to prevent the enrollment of ineligible customers, we require providers to conduct an initial eligibility
365. We also revise Section 54.410(f) to clarify that the entity responsible for recertifying subscribers must first query the appropriate state or federal database to determinate on-going eligibility prior to using other means to recertify subscribers. In the
366. Further, we revise Section 54.405(e)(4) to require a subscriber be given 60 days to respond to recertification efforts, and consistent with our other de-enrollment rules, non-responsive subscribers will be de-enrolled within five days following the expiration of the 60-day response window. We take this step to ease the recertification burden for providers and the National Verifier. Expanding the recertification period will allow batching of daily subscriber recertification deadlines into more manageable weekly or monthly groupings.
367. Finally, we revise Section 54.405(e)(1) to require de-enrollment within five business days after the expiration of the subscriber's time to demonstrate eligibility. In so doing, we add consistency to the various provisions in Section 54.405 related to de-enrollment due to ineligibility. We also adopt Section 54.405(e)(5) to require service providers to de-enroll a subscriber who has requested de-enrollment within two business days after making such a request. We take this action to ensure that subscriber de-enrollment requests are resolved in a timely manner.
368.
369. We direct USAC to work with the Bureau and OMD to formulate a plan for making available additional Lifeline information consistent with the Commission's historical commitment to transparency as well as taking into consideration any valid concerns about divulging non-public information. USAC should consider how other useful information can be made publically available, such as by using the National Verifier. In addition, we direct USAC to consider new ways in which states or other government entities may be given increased access to the National Verifier or NLAD for the purposes of better program administration. Before giving such access, USAC should obtain approval from the Bureau.
370. In this Section, we adopt our proposal to revise Section 54.420 of our rules requiring all Lifeline providers to undergo an audit within their first year of receiving Lifeline disbursements. Adopting the revised Section 54.420 will allow the Commission flexibility to determine the appropriate and most cost effective time to audit entities that are new providers in the Lifeline program.
371.
372. We also believe that the overall audit program should include a check on whether the service was provided and whether the service provided met the standards articulated in this Order. We delegate to OMD working with USAC to include such performance auditing in its overall audit plan. We view our audit program as a key factor in promoting program integrity and direct USAC working with OMD to continue to improve and focus the overall program on providers for whom the risk of non-compliance is high and whose non-compliance would have a large impact on the overall fund.
373. In this Section we delegate to the Bureau to create uniform, standardized Lifeline forms approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for all subscribers receiving a federal Lifeline benefit, if it believes that doing so will aid program administration.
374.
375. Given the complexities associated with modifying existing rules as well as other reforms adopted in this Order, we delegate authority to the Wireline Competition Bureau to make any further rule revisions as necessary to ensure the reforms adopted in this Order are reflected in the rules. This includes correcting any conflicts between the rules and this Order. If any such rule changes are warranted, the Bureau shall be responsible for such change, but in no event shall such change create new or different policy than that articulated by this Order. We note that any entity that disagrees with a rule change made on delegated authority will have the opportunity to file an Application for Review by the full Commission.
376. In the
377. In this Section, we grant petitions filed by GCI, USTelecom, TracFone and Sprint asking that we reconsider three rules, adopted in the
378.
379. All of the Lifeline rules that are adopted in this Order are designed to work in unison to make telecommunications services more affordable to low-income households and to strengthen the efficiency and integrity of the program's administration. However, each of the separate Lifeline reforms we undertake in this Order serve a particular function toward those goals. Therefore, it is our intent that each of the rules adopted herein shall be severable. If any of the rules is declared invalid or unenforceable for any reason, it is our intent that the remaining rules shall remain in full force and effect.
380. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), the Commission has prepared a Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) relating to this Third Report and Order, Further Report and Order, and Order on Reconsideration. The FRFA is set forth in in section VII.D of this document.
381. This Third Report and Order, Further Report and Order, and Order on Reconsideration contains new information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. It will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under Section 3507(d) of the PRA. OMB, the general public, and other Federal agencies will be invited to comment on the revised information collection requirements contained in this proceeding. In addition, we note that pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, the Commission previously sought specific comment on how it might further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
382. The Commission will include a copy of this Third Report and Order, Further Report and Order, and Order on Reconsideration in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office (GAO) pursuant to the Congressional Review Act,
383. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA), the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) included an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities by the policies and rules proposed in the
384. The Commission is required by section 254 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, to promulgate rules to implement the universal service provisions of section 254. The Lifeline program was implemented in 1985 in the wake of the 1984 divestiture of AT&T. On May 8, 1997, the Commission adopted rules to reform its system of universal service support mechanisms so that universal service is preserved and advanced as markets move toward competition. Since the 2012
385. Specifically, in this Order, to create a competitive Lifeline broadband program, we take a variety of actions to encourage more Lifeline providers to deliver supported broadband services. Most significantly, we allow support for robust, standalone fixed and mobile broadband services to ensure meaningful levels of connectivity. At the same time, we transition the Lifeline program from primarily supporting voice services to targeting support at
386. Additionally, in order to ensure that the Lifeline program is designed to operate in an efficient, and highly accountable manner with the reorientation of the Lifeline program to broadband, we take a number of additional actions in this Order to reform the program. Most significantly, we set minimum service standards for broadband and mobile services to ensure those services meet the needs of consumers; create a National Lifeline Eligibility Verifier (National Verifier) to transfer the responsibility of making eligibility determinations away from Lifeline providers and remove the opportunities for Lifeline providers to inappropriately enroll subscribers; streamline the criteria for Lifeline program qualification in recognition of the way the vast majority of Lifeline subscribers gain entry to the program; require Lifeline providers to make available Wi-Fi enabled devices and hotspot capable devices when providing devices for use with Lifeline-supported service; and adopt a budget for the Lifeline program to bring the Lifeline program in to alignment with the other three universal service fund programs, each of which operates within a budget, and to ensure that the program is designed to operate in an efficient, highly accountable manner. We also take several other measures to improve the efficient administration and accountability of the Lifeline program, such as establishing an annual eligibility process, imposing a port freeze on Lifeline services, revising the audit procedures, and creating standardized Lifeline forms. We believe that these new rules and reforms, taken together, will greatly expand the reach of the Lifeline program to all consumers and further increase utilization of the Lifeline program.
387. We received one comment specifically addressing the IRFA from the Small Carriers Coalition (Coalition). In the 2015
388. In this Order, we do not adopt this proposal as a final rule. We recognize the additional compliance burden and cost imposed upon small entities of this requirement. As an alternative measure to increase eligible telecommunications carrier (ETC) accountability and compliance with the Lifeline rules, in this Order, we have established the National Verifier with its primary function being to verify customer eligibility for Lifeline support. The National Verifier will also perform a variety of other functions necessary to enroll eligible subscribers into the Lifeline program, such as, but not limited to, enabling access by authorized users, providing support payments to providers, and conducting recertification of subscribers, to add to the efficient administration of the Lifeline program. Additionally, we have streamlined eligibility for Lifeline support to increase efficiency and improve the program for consumers, Lifeline providers, and other participants. By relying on highly accountable programs that demonstrate limited eligibility fraud, we will reduce the potential of waste, fraud, and abuse occurring due to eligibility errors. These alternative measures therefore will help ensure compliance with the Commission's rules and reduce the potential risk for error when interfacing with customers while at the same time limiting any additional burden upon small businesses.
389. Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel of the Small Business Administration (SBA), and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule(s) as a result of those comments.
390. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rule(s) in this proceeding.
391. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one that: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA). Nationwide, there are a total of approximately 28.2 million small businesses, according to the SBA. A “small organization” is generally “any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.”
392.
393.
394.
395.
396.
397.
398.
399.
400.
401.
402.
403.
404. The category of
405. The second category,
406.
407. In addition, in the Paging
408. Currently, there are approximately 74,000 Common Carrier Paging licenses. According to the most recent Trends in Telephone Service, 291 carriers reported that they were engaged in the provision of “paging and messaging” services. Of these, an estimated 289 have 1,500 or fewer employees and two have more than 1,500 employees. We estimate that the majority of common carrier paging providers would qualify as small entities under the SBA definition.
409.
410. The 2007 Economic Census places these firms, whose services might include voice over Internet protocol (VoIP), in either of two categories, depending on whether the service is provided over the provider's own telecommunications facilities (
411. A number of our rule changes will result in additional reporting, recordkeeping, or compliance requirements for small entities. For all of those rule changes, we have determined that the benefit the rule change will bring for the Lifeline program outweighs the burden of the increased requirement/s. Other rule changes decrease reporting, recordkeeping, or compliance requirements for small entities. We have noted the applicable rule changes below impacting small entities.
412.
413.
414.
415.
416.
417.
418.
419.
420.
421.
422.
423. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) the use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for such small entities.”
424. This rulemaking could impose minimal additional burdens on small entities. We considered alternatives to the rulemaking changes that increase projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements for small entities.
425.
426.
427. While the above forbearances could have a significant impact on small entities insofar as it would make this conditional forbearance theoretically available to many small entities (all rate-of-return incumbent local exchange carriers (ILECs), for instance), it would be a benefit to small entities, not a burden. However, it is unclear how many small entities (vs. large entities like price cap ILECs) actually will take advantage of the forbearances provided.
428.
429.
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431.
432.
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438.
Communications common carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Telecommunications, Telephone.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR part 54 as follows:
Section 1, 4(i), 5, 201, 205, 214, 219, 220, 254, 303(r), and 403 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, and section 706 of the Communications Act of 1996, as amended; 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 155, 201, 205, 214, 219, 220, 254, 303(r), 403, and 1302 unless otherwise noted.
(a)
(1) Eligible voice telephony services must provide voice grade access to the public switched network or its functional equivalent; minutes of use for local service provided at no additional charge to end users; access to the emergency services provided by local government or other public safety organizations, such as 911 and enhanced 911, to the extent the local government in an eligible carrier's service area has implemented 911 or enhanced 911 systems; and toll
(2) Eligible broadband Internet access services must provide the capability to transmit data to and receive data by wire or radio from all or substantially all Internet endpoints, including any capabilities that are incidental to and enable the operation of the communications service, but excluding dial-up service.
(b) An eligible telecommunications carrier eligible to receive high-cost support must offer voice telephony service as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section in order to receive federal universal service support.
(c) An eligible telecommunications carrier (ETC) subject to a high-cost public interest obligation to offer broadband Internet access services and not receiving Phase I frozen high-cost support must offer broadband services as set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section within the areas where it receives high-cost support consistent with the obligations set forth in this part and subparts D, K, L and M of this part.
(d) Any ETC must comply with subpart E of this part.
(j) A state commission shall not designate a common carrier as a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier.
(a) * * *
(6) For common carriers seeking designation as an eligible telecommunications carrier for purposes of receiving support only under subpart E of this part, submit information describing the terms and conditions of any broadband Internet access service plans offered to Lifeline subscribers, including details on the speeds offered, data usage allotments, additional charges for particular uses, if any, and rates for each such plan. To the extent the eligible telecommunications carrier offers plans to Lifeline subscribers that are generally available to the public, it may provide summary information regarding such plans, such as a link to a public Web site outlining the terms and conditions of such plans.
(d) A common carrier seeking designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. The Commission should process such petitions for designation as follows:
(1) If the petitioning common carrier has offered broadband Internet access service to the public for at least two years before the date of the filing and serves at least 1,000 non-Lifeline customers with voice telephony and/or broadband Internet access service as of the date of the filing, the common carrier's petition for designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier shall be deemed granted within 60 days of the submission of a completed filing unless the Commission notifies the common carrier that the grant will not be automatically effective.
(2) If the petitioning common carrier provides service on Tribal lands and is a facilities-based provider more than 50 percent owned by one or more federally recognized Tribal Nations or Tribal consortia and actually controlled by one or more federally recognized Tribal Nations or Tribal consortia, the common carrier's petition for designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier shall be deemed granted within 60 days of the submission of a completed filing unless the Commission notifies the common carrier that the grant will not be automatically effective.
(3) If the petitioning common carrier does not qualify under paragraph (d)(1) or (2) of this section, the common carrier's petition for designation as a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier shall be acted upon within six months of the submission of a completed filing.
(e) A provider designated as a Lifeline Broadband Provider (LBP) may obtain designation as an LBP in additional service areas by submitting to the Commission a request identifying the service areas in which the LBP plans to offer Lifeline-supported service and a certification that there has been no material change to the information submitted in the petition for which the LBP received designation as an LBP. Such a request shall be deemed granted five business days after it is submitted to the Commission, unless the Commission notifies the applicant that the grant will not be automatically effective.
(c) In the case of a Lifeline Broadband Provider eligible telecommunications carrier, a Lifeline Broadband Provider's notice of relinquishment shall be deemed granted by the Commission 60 days after the notice is filed, unless the Commission notifies the Lifeline Broadband Provider that the relinquishment will not be automatically effective. This paragraph (c) shall not apply to Lifeline Broadband Providers that also receive high-cost universal service support.
(f)
(j)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(a) * * *
(2) That provides qualifying low-income consumers with voice telephony service or broadband Internet access service as defined in § 54.400. Toll limitation service does not need to be offered for any Lifeline service that does not distinguish between toll and non-toll calls in the pricing of the service. If an eligible telecommunications carrier charges Lifeline subscribers a fee for toll calls that is in addition to the per month or per billing cycle price of the subscribers' Lifeline service, the carrier must offer toll limitation service at no charge to its subscribers as part of its Lifeline service offering.
(b) Eligible telecommunications carriers may allow qualifying low-income consumers to apply Lifeline discounts to any residential service plan with the minimum service levels set forth in § 54.408 that includes fixed or mobile voice telephony service, broadband Internet access service, or a bundle of broadband Internet access service and fixed or mobile voice telephony service; and plans that include optional calling features such as, but not limited to, caller identification, call waiting, voicemail, and three-way calling.
(1) Eligible telecommunications carriers may permit qualifying low-income consumers to apply their Lifeline discount to family shared data plans.
(2) Eligible telecommunications carriers may allow qualifying low-income consumers to apply Lifeline discounts to any residential service plan that includes voice telephony service without qualifying broadband Internet access service prior to December 1, 2021.
(3) Beginning December 1, 2016, eligible telecommunications carriers must provide the minimum service levels for each offering of mobile voice service as defined in § 54.408.
(4) Beginning December 1, 2021, eligible telecommunications carriers must provide the minimum service levels for broadband Internet access service in every Lifeline offering.
(c) Eligible telecommunications carriers may not collect a service deposit in order to initiate Lifeline for voice-only service plans that:
(f) Eligible telecommunications carriers may aggregate eligible subscribers' benefits to provide a collective service to a group of subscribers, provided that each qualifying low-income consumer subscribed to the collective service receives residential service that meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and § 54.408.
(a) * * *
(1)
(2) For a Lifeline provider offering either standalone voice service, subject to the minimum service standards set forth in § 54.408, or voice service with broadband below the minimum standards set forth in § 54.408, the support levels will be as follows:
(i) Until December 1, 2019, the support amount will be $9.25 per month.
(ii) From December 1, 2019 until November 30, 2020, the support amount will be $7.25 per month.
(iii) From December 1, 2020 until November 30, 2021, the support amount will be $5.25 per month.
(iv) On December 1, 2021, standalone voice service, or voice service not bundled with broadband which meets the minimum standards set forth in § 54.408, will not be eligible for Lifeline support unless the Commission has previously determined otherwise.
(v) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section, on December 1, 2021, the support amount for standalone voice service, or voice service not bundled with broadband which meets the minimum standards set forth in § 54.408, provided by a provider that is the only Lifeline provider in a Census block will be the support amount specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section.
(e) * * *
(1)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(a) Universal service support for providing Lifeline shall be provided directly to an eligible telecommunications carrier based on the number of actual qualifying low-income customers it serves directly as of the first day of the month. After the National Verifier is deployed in a state, reimbursement shall be provided to an eligible telecommunications carrier based on the number of actual qualifying low-income customers it serves directly as of the first day of the month found in the National Verifier.
(c) * * *
(2) After service activation, an eligible telecommunications carrier shall only continue to receive universal service support reimbursement for such Lifeline service provided to subscribers who have used the service within the last 30 days, or who have cured their non-usage as provided for in § 54.405(e)(3). Any of these activities, if undertaken by the subscriber, will establish “usage” of the Lifeline service:
(i) Completion of an outbound call or usage of data;
(ii) Purchase of minutes or data from the eligible telecommunications carrier to add to the subscriber's service plan;
(iii) Answering an incoming call from a party other than the eligible telecommunications carrier or the eligible telecommunications carrier's agent or representative;
(iv) Responding to direct contact from the eligible communications carrier and confirming that he or she wants to continue receiving Lifeline service; or
(v) Sending a text message.
(d) In order to receive universal service support reimbursement, an officer of each eligible telecommunications carrier must certify, as part of each request for reimbursement, that:
(1) The eligible telecommunications carrier is in compliance with all of the rules in this subpart; and
(2) The eligible telecommunications carrier has obtained valid certification and recertification forms to the extent required under this subpart for each of the subscribers for whom it is seeking reimbursement.
(a) As used in this subpart, with the following exception of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a minimum service standard is:
(1) The level of service which an eligible telecommunications carrier must provide to an end user in order to receive the Lifeline support amount.
(2) The minimum service standard for mobile broadband speed, as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, is the level of service which an eligible telecommunications carrier must both advertise and provide to an end user.
(b) Minimum service standards for Lifeline supported services will take effect on December 1, 2016. The minimum service standards set forth below are subject to the conditions in § 54.401. The initial minimum service standards, as set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, will be subject to the updating mechanisms described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(1) Fixed broadband will have minimum service standards for speed and data usage allowance, subject to the exceptions in paragraph (d) of this section.
(i) The minimum service standard for fixed broadband speed will be 10 Megabits per second downstream/1 Megabit per second upstream.
(ii) The minimum service standard for fixed broadband data usage allowance will be 150 gigabytes per month.
(2) Mobile broadband will have minimum service standards for speed and data usage allowance.
(i) The minimum service standard for mobile broadband speed will be 3G.
(ii) The minimum service standard for mobile broadband data usage allowance will be:
(A) From December 1, 2016 until November 30, 2017, 500 megabytes per month;
(B) From December 1, 2017, until November 30, 2018, 1 gigabyte per month;
(C) From December 1, 2018 until November 30, 2019, 2 gigabytes per month; and
(D) On and after December 1, 2019, the minimum standard will be calculated using the mechanism set forth in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section. If the data listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A) through (D) do not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, then the updating mechanism in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) will be used instead.
(3) The minimum service standard for mobile voice service will be:
(i) From December 1, 2016, until November 30, 2017, 500 minutes;
(ii) From December 1, 2017, until November 30, 2018, 750 minutes; and
(iii) On and after December 1, 2018, the minimum standard will be 1000 minutes.
(c) Minimum service standards will be updated using the following mechanisms:
(1) Fixed broadband will have minimum service standards for speed and data usage allowance. The standards will updated as follows:
(i) The standard for fixed broadband speed will be updated on an annual basis. The standard will be set at the 30th percentile, rounded up to the nearest Megabit-per-second integer, of subscribed fixed broadband downstream and upstream speeds. The 30th percentile will be determined by analyzing FCC Form 477 Data. The new standard will be published in a Public Notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau on or before July 31, which will give the new minimum standard for the upcoming year. In the event that the Bureau does not release a Public Notice, or the data are older than 18 months, the minimum standard will be the greater of:
(A) The current minimum standard; or
(B) The Connect America Fund minimum speed standard for rate-of-return fixed broadband providers, as set forth in 47 CFR 54.308(a).
(ii) The standard for fixed broadband data usage allowance will be updated on an annual basis. The new standard will be published in a Public Notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau on or before July 31, which will give the new minimum standard for the upcoming year. The updated standard will be the greater of:
(A) An amount the Wireline Competition Bureau deems appropriate, based on what a substantial majority of American consumers already subscribe to, after analyzing Urban Rate Survey data and other relevant data; or
(B) The minimum standard for data usage allowance for rate-of-return fixed broadband providers set in the Connect America Fund.
(2) Mobile broadband will have minimum service standards for speed and capacity. The standards will be updated as follows:
(i) The standard for mobile broadband speed will be updated when, after analyzing relevant data, including the FCC Form 477 data, the Wireline Competition Bureau determines such an adjustment is necessary. If the standard for mobile broadband speed is updated, the new standard will be published in a Public Notice issued by the Wireline Competition Bureau.
(ii) The standard for mobile broadband capacity will be updated on an annual basis. The standard will be determined by:
(A) Dividing the total number of mobile-cellular subscriptions in the United States, as reported in the
(B) The percentage of Americans who own a smartphone, according to the Commission's annual
(C) The average data used per mobile smartphone subscriber, as reported by the Commission in its annual
(D) Seventy (70) percent. The result will then be rounded up to the nearest 250 MB interval to provide the new monthly minimum service standard for the mobile broadband data usage allowance.
(iii) If the Wireline Competition Bureau does not release a Public Notice giving new minimum standards for mobile broadband capacity on or before July 31, or if the necessary data needed to calculate the new minimum standard are older than 18 months, the data usage allowance will be updated by multiplying the current data usage allowance by the percentage of the year-over-year change in average mobile data usage per smartphone user, as reported in the
(d)
(1) Does not offer any fixed broadband service that meets our minimum service standards set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; but
(2) Offers a fixed broadband service of at least 4 Mbps downstream/1 Mbps upstream in that given area; then,
(3) In that given area, a fixed broadband provider may receive Lifeline funds for the purchase of its highest performing generally available residential offering, lexicographically ranked by:
(i) Download bandwidth;
(ii) Upload bandwidth; and
(iii) Usage allowance.
(4) A fixed broadband provider claiming Lifeline support under this section will certify its compliance with this section's requirements and will be subject to the Commission's audit authority.
(e) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, eligible telecommunications carriers shall not apply the Lifeline discount to offerings that do not meet the minimum service standards.
(f)
(2) A provider may not institute an additional or separate tethering charge for any mobile data usage that is below the minimum service standard set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(3) Any mobile broadband provider which provides devices to its consumers must offer at least one device that is capable of being used as a hotspot. This requirement will change as follows:
(i) From December 1, 2017 to November 30, 2018, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 15 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(ii) From December 1, 2018 to November 30, 2019, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 20 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(iii) From December 1, 2019 to November 30, 2020, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 25 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(iv) From December 1, 2020 to November 30, 2021, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 35 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(v) From December 1, 2021 to November 30, 2022, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 45 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(vi) From December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 55 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(vii) From December 1, 2023 to November 30, 2024, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 65 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(viii) On December 1, 2024, a provider that offers devices must ensure that at least 75 percent of such devices are capable of being used as a hotspot.
(a) * * *
(2) The consumer, one or more of the consumer's dependents, or the consumer's household must receive benefits from one of the following federal assistance programs: Medicaid; Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; Supplemental Security Income; Federal Public Housing Assistance; or Veterans and Survivors Pension Benefit.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) Except where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator or other state agency is responsible for the initial determination of a subscriber's eligibility, when a prospective subscriber seeks to qualify for Lifeline using the income-based eligibility criteria provided for in § 54.409(a)(1) an eligible telecommunications carrier:
(i) * * *
(B) If an eligible telecommunications carrier cannot determine a prospective subscriber's income-based eligibility by accessing income databases, the eligible telecommunications carrier must review documentation that establishes that the prospective subscriber meets the income-eligibility criteria set forth in § 54.409(a)(1). Acceptable documentation of income eligibility includes the prior year's state, federal, or Tribal tax return; current income statement from an employer or paycheck stub; a Social Security statement of benefits; a Veterans Administration statement of benefits; a retirement/pension statement of benefits; an Unemployment/Workers' Compensation statement of benefit; federal or Tribal notice letter of participation in General Assistance; or a divorce decree, child support award, or other official document containing income information. If the prospective subscriber presents documentation of income that does not cover a full year, such as current pay stubs, the prospective subscriber must present the same type of documentation covering three consecutive months within the previous twelve months.
(ii) Must securely retain copies of documentation demonstrating a prospective subscriber's income-based eligibility for Lifeline consistent with § 54.417, except to the extent such documentation is retained by National Verifier.
(2) Where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for the initial determination of a subscriber's eligibility, an eligible telecommunications carrier must not seek reimbursement for providing Lifeline service to a subscriber, based on that subscriber's income eligibility, unless the carrier has received from the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency:
(i) Notice that the prospective subscriber meets the income-eligibility criteria set forth in § 54.409(a)(1); and
(c) * * *
(1) Except in states where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for the initial determination of a subscriber's program-based eligibility, when a prospective subscriber seeks to qualify for Lifeline service using the program-based criteria set forth in § 54.409(a)(2) or (b), an eligible telecommunications carrier:
(ii) Must securely retain copies of the documentation demonstrating a subscriber's program-based eligibility for Lifeline, consistent with § 54.417, except to the extent such documentation is retained by the National Verifier.
(2) Where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for the initial determination of a subscriber's eligibility, when a prospective subscriber seeks to qualify for Lifeline service using the program-based eligibility criteria provided in § 54.409(a)(2) or (b), an eligible telecommunications carrier must not seek reimbursement for providing Lifeline to a subscriber unless the carrier has received from the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator or other state agency:
(i) Notice that the subscriber meets the program-based eligibility criteria set forth in § 54.409(a)(2) or (b); and
(d)
(1) The form provided by the entity enrolling subscribers must provide the information in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section:
(2) The form provided by the entity enrolling subscribers must require each prospective subscriber to provide the information in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section:
(3) The form provided by the entity enrolling subscribers shall require each prospective subscriber to initial his or her acknowledgement of each of the certifications in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (viii) of this section individually and under penalty of perjury:
(e) The National Verifier, state Lifeline administrators or other state agencies that are responsible for the initial determination of a subscriber's eligibility for Lifeline must provide each eligible telecommunications carrier with a copy of each of the certification forms collected by the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator or other state agency for that carrier's subscribers.
(f) * * *
(1) All eligible telecommunications carriers must re-certify all subscribers 12 months after the subscriber's service initiation date and every 12 months thereafter, except for subscribers in states where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for the annual re-certification of subscribers' Lifeline eligibility.
(2) * * *
(ii) Querying the appropriate income databases, confirming that the subscriber continues to meet the income-based eligibility requirements for Lifeline, and documenting the results of that review.
(iii) If the subscriber's program-based or income-based eligibility for Lifeline cannot be determined by accessing one or more state databases containing information regarding enrollment in qualifying assistance programs, then the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or state agency may obtain a signed certification from the subscriber on a form that meets the certification requirements in paragraph (d) of this section. If a Federal eligibility recertification form is available, entities enrolling subscribers must use such form to re-certify a qualifying low-income consumer.
(iv) In states in which the National Verifier has been implemented, the eligible telecommunications carrier cannot re-certify subscribers not found in the National Verifier by obtaining a certification form from the subscriber.
(3) Where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for re-certification of a subscriber's Lifeline eligibility, the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or state agency must confirm a subscriber's current eligibility to receive a Lifeline service by:
(ii) Querying the appropriate income databases, confirming that the subscriber continues to meet the income-based eligibility requirements for Lifeline, and documenting the results of that review.
(iii) If the subscriber's eligibility for Lifeline cannot be determined by accessing one or more databases containing information regarding enrollment in qualifying assistance programs, then the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or state agency may obtain a signed certification from the subscriber on a form that meets the certification requirements in paragraph (d) of this section. If a Federal eligibility recertification form is available, entities enrolling subscribers must use such form to recertify a qualifying low-income consumer.
(4) Where the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency is responsible for re-certification or subscribers' Lifeline eligibility, the National Verifier, state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency must provide to each eligible telecommunications carrier the results of its annual re-certification efforts with respect to that eligible telecommunications carrier's subscribers.
(5) If an eligible telecommunications carrier is unable to re-certify a subscriber or has been notified by the National Verifier, a state Lifeline administrator, or other state agency's inability to re-certify a subscriber, the eligible telecommunications carrier must comply with the de-enrollment requirements provided for in § 54.405(e)(4).
(g)
(h)
(a) A provider shall not seek or receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber who has used the Lifeline benefit to enroll in a qualifying Lifeline-supported broadband Internet access service offering with another Lifeline provider within the previous 12 months.
(b) A provider shall not seek or receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber who has used the Lifeline benefit to enroll in a qualifying Lifeline-supported voice telephony service offering with another Lifeline provider within the previous 60 days.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, a provider may seek and receive reimbursement through the Lifeline program for service provided to a subscriber prior to the completion of the 12-month period described in paragraph (a) of this section or the 60-day period described in paragraph (b) of this section if:
(1) The subscriber moves their residential address;
(2) The subscriber's current provider ceases operations or otherwise fails to provide service;
(3) The provider has imposed late fees for non-payment greater than or equal to the monthly end-user charge for the supported service; or
(4) The subscriber's current provider is found to be in violation of the Commission's rules during the 12-month period and the subscriber is impacted by such violation.
(d) If a subscriber transfers his or her Lifeline benefit pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the subscriber's Lifeline benefit will apply to the newly selected service until the end of the original 12-month period. In these circumstances, the subscriber is not required to re-certify eligibility until the end of the original 12-month period. The subscriber's original provider must provide the subscriber's eligibility records to either the subscriber's new provider or the subscriber to comply with the 12-month service period.
(a) * * *
(3) An officer of the eligible telecommunications carrier must certify that the carrier is in compliance with the minimum service levels set forth in § 54.408. Eligible telecommunications carriers must make this certification annually to the Administrator as part of the carrier's submission of re-certification data pursuant to this section.
(b)
(b) * * *
(3) Certification of compliance with applicable minimum service standards, as set forth in § 54.408, service quality standards, and consumer protection rules;
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3) The Wireline Competition Bureau shall issue a public notice on or before July 31 containing the results of the calculations described in § 54.403(a)(2) and setting the budget for the upcoming year beginning on January 1.
(b) If spending in the Lifeline program meets or exceeds 90 percent of the Lifeline budget in a calendar year, the Wireline Competition Bureau shall prepare a report evaluating program disbursements and describing the reasons for the program's growth along with any other information relevant to the operation of the Lifeline program. The Bureau shall submit the report to the Commission by July 31st of the following year.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and Office of the Secretary (OST), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This final rule replaces the existing process by which the Federal Aviation Administration (Agency or FAA) approves portable oxygen concentrators (POC) for use on board aircraft in air carrier operations, commercial operations, and certain other operations using large aircraft. The FAA currently assesses each POC make and model on a case-by-case basis and if the FAA determines that a particular POC is safe for use on board an aircraft, the FAA conducts rulemaking to identify the specific POC model in an FAA regulation. This final rule replaces the current process and allows passengers to use a POC on board an aircraft if the POC satisfies certain acceptance criteria and bears a label indicating conformance with the acceptance criteria. The labeling requirement only affects POCs intended for use on board aircraft that were not previously approved for use on aircraft by the FAA. Additionally, this rulemaking will eliminate redundant operational requirements and paperwork requirements related to the physician's statement. As a result, this rulemaking will reduce burdens for POC manufacturers, passengers who use POCs while traveling, and affected aircraft operators. This final rule also makes conforming amendments to the Department of Transportation's (Department or DOT) rule implementing the Air Carrier Access Act (ACAA) to require carriers to accept all POC models that meet FAA acceptance criteria as detailed in this rule.
The amendments to 14 CFR 1.1, 1.2, 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91 are effective June 23, 2016. The amendments to 14 CFR 11.201, 121.306, 125.204, 135.144, 382,27, and 382.133, and the removal of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 106 are effective August 22, 2016.
For information on where to obtain copies of rulemaking documents and other information related to this final rule, see “How to Obtain Additional Information” in the
For technical questions concerning this action, contact DK Deaderick, 121 Air Carrier Operations Branch, Air Transportation Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, AFS-220, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (202) 267-7480; email
This final rule affects the use of POCs on board aircraft in operations conducted under title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) parts 121, 125, and 135, by replacing the existing FAA case-by-case approval process for each make and model of POC in Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) No. 106, with FAA acceptance criteria. Under SFAR No. 106, each time the FAA approves a specific model of POC for use on board aircraft, the agency updates the list of approved POCs in the SFAR.
This final rule removes SFAR No. 106 and replaces it with POC acceptance criteria and specific labeling requirements to identify POCs that conform to the acceptance criteria. POCs that conform to the final rule acceptance criteria will be allowed on board aircraft without additional FAA review and rulemaking.
As with existing requirements for FAA approval of POCs that may be used on aircraft, the final rule acceptance criteria and labeling requirement only apply to POCs intended for use on board aircraft. Table 1 provides a comparison of the final rule acceptance criteria and
This final rule requires all POC models to conform to the acceptance criteria.
SFAR-approved POC models need not bear a label. The final rule regulatory text includes a list of POCs approved in accordance with SFAR No. 106 so that passengers and crewmembers can continue to identify these POCs as approved for use on board aircraft.
In addition, this final rule eliminates SFAR No. 106 requirements related to POC use on board aircraft that are addressed elsewhere in titles 14 or 49 of the CFR. This final rule also eliminates specific SFAR No. 106 requirements applicable to passengers that are not necessary for safe POC use on board aircraft, and impose an unnecessary and unreasonable paperwork burden on POC-using passengers and their physicians as well as crewmembers and aircraft operators. This final rule also increases accessibility in air travel for passengers who require oxygen therapy during flight. Table 2 summarizes the final rule disposition of all SFAR No. 106 provisions.
This final rule also includes several conforming changes to 14 CFR part 382 to ensure that the Department's rule requiring carriers to accommodate passengers with disabilities who are traveling with POCs is consistent with the FAA changes to POC carriage and use on aircraft.
Finally, the amendments provided in this final rule are consistent with the retrospective regulatory review requirements of Executive Order 13563. On January 18, 2011, the President signed Executive Order 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review. Among other things, Section 6 of that Executive Order directs agencies to conduct a retrospective analysis of existing rules. Specifically, Executive Order 13563 provides that “[t]o facilitate the periodic review of existing significant regulations, agencies shall consider how best to promote retrospective analysis of rules that may be outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome, and to modify, streamline, expand, or repeal them in accordance with what has been learned.”
Consistent with Executive Order 13563, the FAA routinely evaluates existing regulations and other requirements. The FAA works to identify unnecessary, duplicative, or ineffective regulations and to mitigate the impacts of those regulations, where possible, without compromising safety.
As part of the FAA's continuing obligation to review its regulations, the agency conducted an analysis of SFAR No. 106 and determined that it involves several unnecessary burdens. As a result of this determination and the resulting final rule amendments, the final rule will provide relief to POC manufacturers, passengers who use a POC, aircraft operators and the FAA. The final rule will provide relief to POC manufacturers and the FAA by eliminating the SFAR No. 106 POC approval process, to passengers who use a POC by eliminating the FAA requirement to obtain a physician's statement, and to aircraft operators by eliminating the requirements for crewmember review of the physician's statement and pilot in command (PIC) notification. The quantification of benefits follows the same methodology as the proposed rule as the agency did not receive negative comments on this methodology. The agency presents cost savings in Table 3 below.
The total cost savings from this final rule is $39.5 million ($27.6 million at 7% present value and $33.6 million at 3% present value). The largest cost savings of $39 million occurs from the reduction of crew time to review the physician's statement. These are the same estimated benefits and costs as presented for the proposed rule and since the FAA received no comments regarding these estimates, there are no changes to this final rule.
The FAA estimates that manufacturers will save $108,000 over ten years because they will no longer have to petition the FAA for rulemaking with each new device they want to add to the list of POCs approved for use
The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority.
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in 49 U.S.C. 106(f), which vests final authority in the Administrator for carrying out all functions, powers, and duties of the administration relating to the promulgation of regulations and rules, and section 44701(a)(5), which requires the Administrator to promulgate regulations and minimum standards for other practices, methods, and procedures necessary for safety in air commerce and national security. Further, 49 U.S.C. 41705 provides the Secretary of Transportation the authority to prohibit discrimination against a qualified individual with a disability in air travel.
On July 12, 2005, the FAA published a final rule adding SFAR No. 106 to part 121 of title 14 (70 FR 40156). The final rule adding SFAR No. 106 permitted the use of POCs identified in the SFAR to address the needs of passengers requiring oxygen therapy while traveling on board aircraft.
Prior to SFAR No. 106, passengers could carry and operate equipment generating, storing or dispensing medical oxygen on board an aircraft only if the equipment was furnished by the certificate holder and certain other conditions prescribed in 14 CFR 121.547, 125.219 and 135.91 were satisfied. In 2005, only a limited number of air carriers provided compressed medical oxygen, for a fee, to passengers who required medical oxygen therapy during flight. Because compressed oxygen is considered a hazardous material, it was an expensive and logistically challenging exercise for air carriers to provide medical oxygen. Today, virtually no certificate holders conducting part 121 operations provide in-flight medical oxygen for a fee to passengers.
Further, passengers requiring oxygen therapy during travel also faced difficulty coordinating service between the carrier and the medical oxygen supplier to ensure coverage at the terminal, on board the aircraft, and gate-to-gate. Sometimes, passengers would spend at least part of the time travelling without medical oxygen due to service problems with the oxygen supplier.
In 2002, POCs were brought to the attention of the FAA as a new portable technology for dispensing medical oxygen for purposes of oxygen therapy. POCs work by filtering nitrogen from the air and providing the POC user with oxygen at a concentration of approximately 90 percent. Thus, POCs do not require the same level of special handling as compressed oxygen. However, due to existing FAA regulations applicable to the use of devices that dispense oxygen (§§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91), including POCs, the FAA informed the POC community that an exemption would be required for a passenger to carry on and operate a POC that the passenger supplied for his or her own use (
Rather than wait for petitions for exemption from the existing regulations (§§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91), the FAA completed rulemaking to address the issue of passenger-supplied POCs by adding SFAR No. 106 to title 14.
Passengers may not use a POC on board an aircraft in part 121, 125, or 135 operations unless the FAA has identified the device they wish to use in SFAR No. 106 as approved for use in such operations. In 2005, SFAR No. 106 identified the first specific POC models approved for use on board aircraft. Although the agency intended SFAR No. 106 to serve as a special, temporary regulation, until POC performance standards (acceptance criteria) could be developed, it has remained in place for the last decade.
Over the last ten years, FAA regulations and guidance regarding the use of POCs on aircraft, POC technology itself, and air carrier programs concerning the use of POCs on board their aircraft have rapidly evolved. The combined result of these initiatives is an increase in accessibility to air travel for many passengers who require oxygen therapy during flight. In keeping with the Department's ongoing commitment to increase accessibility to air travel, this final rule removes certain burdensome and time-consuming requirements that were put in place to ensure safety when POC technology was first introduced for use on board aircraft but are no longer necessary.
On September 19, 2014, the FAA published an NPRM entitled “Acceptance Criteria for Portable Oxygen Concentrators Used On Board Aircraft” in which the FAA proposed to replace SFAR No. 106 with acceptance criteria for POCs to be used by passengers on board aircraft in operations conducted under parts 121, 125 and 135.
The comment period for this NPRM closed November 18, 2014.
The final rule differs from the NPRM as follows:
• Replaces the proposed prescriptive requirement for radio frequency (RF) emissions evaluation with a performance-based standard that allows POC manufacturers to determine the means by which to assess whether its POC will radiate RF emissions that interfere with aircraft systems.
• Modifies verbiage for required label text.
• Retains the SFAR No. 106 prohibition on exit row seating for passengers using a POC and the SFAR No. 106 requirements pertaining to POC stowage.
• Amends 14 CFR part 382 to ensure that it is consistent with the FAA changes to POC carriage and use on aircraft.
The FAA received 33 comments on the NPRM. Commenters included 21 individuals or anonymous commenters, the Airline Pilots Association (ALPA), Airlines for America (A4A), the Association of Flight Attendants (AFA), American Airlines, Delta Air Lines, Main Clinic Supply, Phillips Respironics, BPR Medical Limited, Oxygen to Go (OTG), the Mayo Clinic, and one commenter identified as the past president of the Airlines Medical Directors Association (AMDA).
Although the FAA received general support for the NPRM from many commenters, some commenters recommended modifications to the proposed acceptance criteria, POC labeling requirements, and issues related to the identification of POCs that may be used on board aircraft. Other commenters did not support the elimination of certain SFAR No. 106 provisions, including those pertaining to exit row seating for passengers using a POC, POC stowage, the physician's statement and passenger notification of intended POC use to the PIC and aircraft operator. Comments are addressed in the preamble discussion entitled, “Discussion of Public Comments and Final Rule.”
The agency also received a request from OTG to reopen the comment period. The agency denied this request, because the agency satisfied the requirement of the Administrative Procedure Act to publish a general notice of a proposed rule in the
Currently, SFAR No. 106 applies only to those POC models intended for use on board aircraft in operations conducted under parts 121, 125, and 135 of title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. SFAR No. 106 authorizes the use of specific POCs on board aircraft in operations conducted under parts 121, 125, or 135, if the conditions in the SFAR are satisfied.
Consistent with SFAR No. 106 and the NPRM, this final rule applies only to those POC models intended for use on board aircraft in part 121, 125, and 135 operations, and like SFAR No. 106 it does not create a requirement for operators to allow POC use. The Department's requirements for air carriers to allow the use of a POC on board an aircraft (designed to have a maximum capacity of more than 19 passenger seats) continue to be found in 14 CFR 382.133.
In the NPRM, the agency proposed an effective date of 90 days after publication of the final rule in the
The agency seeks to allow compliance with this final rule as soon as possible. The agency recognizes, however, that affected aircraft operators may need to revise operating manuals and training programs, and expects these revisions to occur within the normal course of business. Accordingly, the SFAR will remain in place until August 22, 2016 and compliance with the new rule will be permitted beginning on August 22, 2016 to allow a sufficient amount of time for operating manuals and training programs to be amended in the normal course of business.
As proposed, this final rule defines “portable oxygen concentrator” in 14 CFR 1.1 as a medical device that separates oxygen from other gasses in ambient air and dispenses this concentrated oxygen to the user. This definition is consistent with the description of POCs in existing SFAR No. 106. The § 1.1 definition of a POC added by this final rule is also consistent with Advisory Circular (AC) 120-95, Portable Oxygen Concentrators,
By including this definition in § 1.1, the FAA distinguishes POCs from portable oxygen generators and other medical devices that use compressed or liquid oxygen for medical oxygen therapy. Devices that use compressed or liquid oxygen must satisfy separate and more rigorous requirements to mitigate the risks they present.
Under SFAR No. 106, the FAA allows the carriage and use of specific POC models only if they are identified in the SFAR as approved for use on board aircraft. A POC may be identified in the SFAR only after the POC manufacturer has petitioned the FAA for rulemaking (to add the POC to the SFAR) and has demonstrated to the FAA that the specific POC model satisfies the requirements of the SFAR (
Each time the FAA approves a specific model of POC for use on board an aircraft, the agency must update the list of POCs in the SFAR through rulemaking. Additionally, the aircraft operator is responsible for determining that the POC does not cause interference with aircraft equipment. The FAA notes that in practice, aircraft operators use data supplied by POC manufacturers to the FAA to determine compliance with the requirement to ensure that a POC will not interfere with aircraft equipment.
In the NPRM, the agency proposed to replace the SFAR No. 106 case-by-case POC approval and rulemaking with requirements for POCs used on board aircraft to conform to specified acceptance criteria and to bear a label indicating that the device conforms to these criteria. The proposal further stated that POCs conforming to the acceptance criteria and bearing the appropriate label would be allowed on board aircraft without further rulemaking. The proposed acceptance criteria are summarized as follows:
• The POC manufacturer complies with all FDA requirements to legally market the device in the United States.
• The POC does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the HMR except as provided for in the exceptions for crewmembers and passengers in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power electronic devices when operator approval is not required.
• The maximum oxygen pressure generated by the POC must fall below the threshold for the definition of a compressed gas per the HMR.
• The POC radio frequency (RF) emissions must fall below the threshold permitted in RTCA standard 160G, Section 21, Category M.
As addressed in more detail in this section of the preamble discussion, this final rule adopts the proposal with modifications to the RF emissions acceptance criterion and labeling requirement.
POCs are medical devices regulated by the FDA in accordance with the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301
SFAR No. 106 requires all POCs used on board aircraft in operations conducted under 14 CFR parts 121, 125, and 135 to be legally marketed as a POC, in compliance with FDA regulations. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure the device is actually what the manufacturer holds it out to be—a POC. To demonstrate compliance with this requirement, POC manufacturers submit evidence that the device has been cleared or approved by the FDA for marketing in the United States. The FAA accepts FDA premarket clearance in response to a 510(k) submission as evidence the device may be marketed in the United States.
In the NPRM, the agency proposed to continue to require any POC used on board an aircraft to be cleared or approved by the FDA for marketing in the United States prior to such use. However, given that FDA requirements for legal marketing of a POC in the United States already apply to POCs, independent of the SFAR, manufacturers would no longer need to submit evidence of this clearance or approval to the FAA to demonstrate compliance because it would be unnecessarily burdensome. Rather, the FAA proposed that POCs conforming to the proposed acceptance criteria, including the manufacturer's authority to legally market the device as a POC, would be identified by a label affixed to the device. This final rule adopts this proposed acceptance criterion without change.
Sections 121.306, 125.204, and 135.144 place responsibility on the aircraft operator for determining which portable electronic devices (PED) may be safely used on its aircraft. Although the agency recognizes POCs as a type of PED, SFAR No. 106, includes a requirement for an aircraft operator to make a determination that the device does not cause interference with the electrical, navigation, or communication system of the aircraft in which the device will be used. The SFAR No. 106, section 3(a)(1) requirement pertaining to POC interference with aircraft equipment has the same effect as the requirements in §§ 121.306, 125.204, and 135.144 pertaining to all PEDs.
Each operator may establish a method to make a determination regarding the effects of PEDs on its aircraft's avionics systems. Historically, FAA guidance material (
Consistent with the historical device-by-device approach to RF emissions evaluation and agency guidance, it is current practice for POC manufacturers to provide the RTCA test compliance statements to the FAA.
On October 31, 2013, the agency announced a new means of compliance with §§ 121.306, 125.204, and 135.144, allowing operators to expand the use of passenger supplied and operated PEDs throughout all phases of flight, based on a determination by the operator that the aircraft systems themselves are PED tolerant (
In the NPRM, the agency proposed to require the RF emissions for each POC intended for use on board aircraft to be tested in accordance with RTCA DO-160G, Section 21, Category M. The agency also proposed to add POCs to the list of devices excepted from the general PED non-interference requirements in §§ 121.306, 125.204, and 135.144 to eliminate redundancy with the POC-specific non-interference requirements.
This final rule retains a POC-specific non-interference requirement, modified to reflect a performance-based standard. The Agency recognizes that the majority of operators conducting part 121 operations and several of the larger operators conducting part 135 operations have already conducted aircraft systems safety risk assessments for PED tolerance in accordance with InFO 13010 and InFO 13010SUP with results allowing for continuous use of PEDs from gate to gate. A determination that an aircraft is “PED tolerant” would make an independent assessment of RF emissions for any PED used on that aircraft unnecessary. Nevertheless, because of the need to ensure service for passengers who require oxygen therapy during air travel, the FAA believes it is necessary to maintain a regulatory structure to ensure that passengers may continue to use POCs on board aircraft even if the aircraft operator has not determined that the aircraft is “PED tolerant.” Therefore, consistent with the SFAR and the NPRM, this final rule retains a requirement to assess POC RF emissions as one of the POC acceptance criteria. (The agency notes that POCs previously approved by the FAA for use on aircraft in accordance with SFAR No. 106 that demonstrated RF emissions below the maximum emissions threshold in DO-160G, Section 21, Category M would not need to be retested or reassessed by the operators prior to use on board aircraft because those prior assessments remain valid.)
Delta Air Lines generally supported inclusion of RTCA DO-160, Environmental Conditions and Test Procedures for Airborne Equipment, Section 21, Category M, in the proposed acceptance criteria. Recognizing, however, that FDA may require RF emissions assessments that may test to standards that could be used to demonstrate compliance with the FAA prohibition on PEDs interference with aircraft systems, the agency sought comment on whether POC manufacturers complete RF emissions assessments in accordance with requirements by other federal agencies that could also be used to demonstrate compliance with the generally applicable PED requirements. The agency did not receive any comments related to this specific issue except as provided by Delta. After further review of the proposal and other RF emissions assessments that POC manufacturers may conduct (
Historically, the FAA identified RTCA DO-160 Section 21, Category M in guidance material for medical portable electronic devices intended for use on board aircraft. Although POCs are not installed aircraft systems, the agency identified RTCA DO-160 as one method to demonstrate compliance with the PED non-interference requirement because RTCA DO-160 establishes safe and conservative RF emissions limits for installed aircraft systems. The agency recognizes, however, that there are other methods to assess POC RF emissions and ensure that POC use will not cause interference with aircraft systems. Thus, this final rule includes a performance-based RF emissions acceptance criterion that allows POC manufacturers to determine how to assess whether their POC meets the aircraft system non-interference requirement before they affix a label to the device confirming that this criterion has been satisfied.
Guidance material in AC 91.21-1C identifies examples of methods appropriate to ensure compliance with this requirement, including RTCA DO-160 and other industry EMC standards identified in the AC. The FAA emphasizes, however, that FDA approval or clearance to market a POC does not necessarily mean that the POC complies with the FAA's aircraft system non-interference requirement.
In addition to Delta's comment, an individual commented that the POC manufacturer should include the electromagnetic interference test results on the POC label, eliminating the need for the air carrier to test the device. The agency clarifies that the purpose of the label is to identify those devices that conform to the FAA acceptance criteria. One of those criteria prohibits the POC from radiating radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems. Therefore, a device that bears the required label must also not radiate RF emissions such that it causes interference with aircraft systems. The POC manufacturer identifies devices that meet this and other criteria by affixing a label. In this way, the label indicates that the device will not radiate RF emissions that cause interference with aircraft systems and does not need to be retested by the aircraft operator. Thus, adding specific test results to the label would be unnecessary.
SFAR No. 106 allows passengers to use one of the specific POCs identified in the SFAR only if the POC does not contain hazardous materials as determined by PHMSA.
POCs typically operate using either rechargeable batteries (usually lithium ion) or AC/DC electrical power via an external power cord. Although the POC units themselves are not considered hazardous materials, the lithium ion batteries typically used to power POCs are hazardous materials.
Other HMR exceptions are provided in 49 CFR 175.10 that apply to POC units containing lithium ion batteries and associated spare batteries when carried on board aircraft by passengers and crewmembers.
The PHMSA determination letters required by the SFAR were limited to a determination regarding the HMR exceptions for a POC unit containing small lithium ion batteries (
Consistent with the proposal in the NPRM, this final rule eliminates the SFAR No. 106 provision requiring a PHMSA determination that the POC does not contain hazardous materials. Instead, this final rule prohibits POCs used on board aircraft from containing hazardous materials subject to the HMR and references the HMR. Further, as noted above, POC users may carry an unlimited number of small spare lithium ion batteries (
There is no safety basis for requiring the PHMSA “no hazardous materials” determination letter as a prerequisite to the use of a POC on board an aircraft. The HMR conditional exceptions provided in §§ 175.10 and 173.185 apply to passengers, crew and the POC manufacturer, respectively, independent of the SFAR and this final rule. Further, the FAA does not require a PHMSA determination letter prior to passenger carriage of any other PED that may contain hazardous materials and POCs do not present any unique hazardous materials safety issues that would be mitigated by the requirement to obtain a PHMSA determination letter.
Pursuant to 49 CFR 175.10(a)(18), passengers seeking to use a POC powered by a spare lithium ion battery that is over 100 Wh but less than 160 Wh are permitted to do so only with the approval of the operator. Given that the POC manufacturer cannot assume knowledge of and approval by each carrier regarding passenger and crewmember carriage of larger batteries, under this final rule, a POC manufacturer will be unable to label a POC as conforming to the final rule acceptance criteria if the POC has an installed lithium battery larger than 100 Wh. The final rule regulatory text clarifies the conditions under which POCs used on aircraft may contain batteries as a power source, including this limitation. Nonetheless, the passenger is ultimately responsible for compliance with the exceptions in § 175.10(a)(18) for spare batteries used to power a POC. For example, if a passenger wants to bring a spare lithium ion battery larger than 100 Wh into the aircraft cabin to power a POC unit, the passenger is responsible for compliance with § 175.10(a)(18) and reviewing airline acceptance policies.
A manufacturer must only affix a label to a POC powered by an installed lithium ion battery that does not exceed 100 Wh because the manufacturer cannot ensure compliance with the 49 CFR 175.10(a)(18) condition under which a passenger may carry and use a battery that exceeds 100 Wh (
Finally, although the FAA did not receive any comments regarding its proposal to remove the requirement for a PHMSA determination of no hazardous materials, the agency notes that an individual commented that the rules pertaining to lithium ion batteries must be updated, citing potential lithium ion battery hazards. The agency finds that revisions to the requirements applicable to passenger carriage of lithium ion batteries generally, are outside of the scope of the proposal because the proposal was narrowly tailored to address only POC carriage and use on aircraft. Further, PHMSA recently updated the requirements applicable to lithium ion batteries as part of a comprehensive rulemaking addressing the transportation of lithium batteries.
As previously discussed, the SFAR No. 106 approval process requires POC manufacturers to obtain a PHMSA determination letter stating the POC device does not contain any hazardous materials. As part of this determination, PHMSA reviews information provided by the POC manufacturer regarding the oxygen pressure generated by a POC. If the POC generates oxygen pressure of 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) or greater at 20 °C (68 °F), PHMSA would classify the POC as an article containing Hazard Class 2, Division 2.2 (non-flammable, non-poisonous compressed gas) and the POC would be subject to the applicable HMR (49 CFR 173.115). However, a POC does not contain a compressed gas subject to the HMR if it generates an oxygen pressure below this threshold.
In the NPRM, the agency proposed to include as a POC acceptance criterion a design limitation that would restrict POCs used on aircraft from generating a maximum oxygen pressure of 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F), or more. The agency did not receive any comments on this proposal.
The final rule includes the proposed POC design limitation as one of the POC acceptance criterion so as to ensure that newly manufactured POCs used on board aircraft will continue to incorporate this existing design limitation, thus ensuring that POCs will not present the hazards associated with devices that generate compressed oxygen. Accordingly, as proposed, the final rule establishes a maximum oxygen pressure allowed for POCs intended for use on board aircraft.
A POC designed to generate a maximum oxygen pressure of 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F), or more, would constitute a hazardous material and thus be subject to the HMR. As such, it must not be labeled as meeting the standards for use on board aircraft.
The agency has determined that inclusion of the requirement regarding oxygen pressurization does not overlap with 49 CFR 173.115 or the general prohibition on hazardous materials in this final rule, because it applies a design standard regarding the operation of the device. Further, it addresses concentrated oxygen that falls below the pressure threshold for the definition of compressed gasses subject to 49 CFR 173.115.
The FAA does not currently require POCs to bear a label indicating FAA approval and compliance with the SFAR. Aircraft operators, crewmembers, and passengers must identify POCs approved for use on aircraft by reviewing the list of FAA-approved devices in the SFAR.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to require POCs that satisfied the proposed acceptance criteria and were intended for use on aircraft to bear a label indicating that the device satisfies these criteria as a condition of its carriage and use on aircraft. However, the NPRM excluded SFAR-approved POCs from the labeling requirement.
The FAA also proposed specific label attributes. The proposed label would be required to contain the following statement in red text: “The manufacturer of this portable oxygen concentrator has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA requirements for portable oxygen concentrator carriage and use on board aircraft.” Finally, the agency proposed that the label would have to be applied in a manner to ensure it remains affixed for the life of the POC.
The individuals cited concern regarding potential confusion due to the two methods (
A4A noted that air carrier employees with responsibility for determining device acceptability should be able to make this determination efficiently, without having to refer to the CFR. A4A also stated that its comments on extending the labeling requirement to POCs approved under the SFAR should only be applied to newly manufactured POCs because retrofitting existing devices would be unreasonably burdensome.
Philips Respironics objected to the extension of the labeling requirement to existing SFAR-approved POCs citing a significant burden and stating that passengers and aircraft operators would have sufficient means by which to identify POCs that may be used on board aircraft.
The final rule retains the proposal to label POCs that have not been previously identified in SFAR No. 106 as approved for use on aircraft. SFAR-approved POCs will continue to be identified in §§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91.
The labeling requirement provides a simple, efficient and effective method by which to identify POCs that may be used on aircraft. In order to determine whether a POC may be used on an aircraft, a POC user or an aircraft operator need only examine the POC to determine whether it bears the label required by this final rule. As is the case today, for those POCs that do not bear the required label, a POC user and aircraft operator need only verify that the model is identified in the regulatory
The FAA maintains that it is not necessary or practical to require POC manufacturers to label POCs previously identified in SFAR No. 106 as approved for use on board aircraft. POC models previously identified in SFAR No. 106 as approved for use on board aircraft have satisfied the SFAR No. 106 criteria and would also satisfy the proposed acceptance criteria. Further, the FAA expects that the use of SFAR-approved POC models will lessen over time as those POCs age and their users replace those older models with newer ones, obviating the need to retrofit existing SFAR-approved POC models with a label.
Although the agency appreciates the intent of the Mayo Clinic's comment regarding a “bridging strategy” by which adhesive stickers could be used to identify previously manufactured SFAR-approved POCs, a label used to satisfy the requirements of this final rule must be sufficiently durable so as to remain affixed to the POC for the life of the device and prevent the transfer to another type of oxygen dispensing device, such as a device that uses compressed oxygen.
In comments related to the identification of SFAR-approved POCs, Delta Air Lines suggested that the list of SFAR-approved POCs provided in the proposed regulatory text was incomplete because it did not identify all devices that the FAA previously approved in accordance with the SFAR. The list of SFAR-approved POCs identified in the proposed and final rule regulatory text is identical to the list of POCs identified in SFAR No. 106. The agency stresses that SFAR approval is device-specific. For instance, while the SFAR identifies the SeQual Eclipse as approved for use on aircraft, the approval does not extend to any other variants of SeQual Eclipse models that were not specifically reviewed and approved for use on aircraft by the FAA and identified in the SFAR. Thus, only those specific POCs identified in the SFAR by manufacturer and model name are currently approved for use on aircraft. This final rule continues to identify those SFAR-approved devices as they appear in the SFAR, since those SFAR-approved POCs need not bear a label as a condition of their use on aircraft.
Delta Air Lines further commented that the FAA should update the list of POCs approved under SFAR No. 106 with the names of all POCs currently under review by the FAA, in accordance with the SFAR prior to publication of the final rule. This final rule includes a list of all POCs approved by the FAA under the SFAR.
The FAA disagrees with A4A's comment that unless the FAA maintains a list of POCs that satisfy the acceptance criteria, POC identification will be unnecessarily burdensome. The process of examining a POC to determine whether it bears a label is less burdensome than the existing process of examining a POC to identify the model name and then verifying that the model is identified in the SFAR. In either case, a crewmember of an aircraft operator must examine the POC.
A4A also recommended that the FAA maintain a list of POCs that are labeled as conforming to FAA requirements for POC use on board aircraft to track POCs that are subsequently determined to be non-compliant. However, the FAA has alternate appropriate methods by which to notify aircraft operators in the unlikely event that a POC intended for use on aircraft is no longer compliant with FAA requirements. For example, the FAA can provide such notice through a Safety Alert for Operators (SAFO) or an InFO, as appropriate. All SAFOs and InFOs are made available on the agency's Web site.
Consistent with the NPRM, this final rule also requires a labeling method that ensures the label remains affixed to the POC for the life of the device. The purpose of this requirement is to ensure the label is durable and cannot be transferred to another type of oxygen dispensing device (such as a device that uses compressed oxygen).
Several commenters suggested changes related to the proposed label that would standardize label features in addition to the proposed required text and color. A4A commented that the FAA should mandate additional specific label attributes so that labels are identical and can be easily recognized by gate agents.
Philips Respironics commented that the proposed label text is overly burdensome due to the length of the text and the color requirement. This commenter proposed an alternate label that states, “Complies with FAA requirements for airline use” and includes an airplane graphic. Together with this alternate label, Philips Respironics suggested a POC manual update to further describe the label. Main Clinic Supply supported the label example included in the Philips Respironics comment.
The agency has considered comments regarding additional standard label features but has determined that it is unnecessary to require standardized features beyond the proposed label verbiage and text color. The use of red text is sufficient to draw attention to the label identifying a POC that may be carried and used on board an aircraft.
The specific label language proposed in the NPRM and included in this final rule is necessary to facilitate the identification of the device as a POC that satisfies the acceptance criteria for POCs intended for use on board aircraft. A more generic or general label such as the label proposed by Philips Respironics and supported by Main Clinic Supply would not effectively serve this purpose. The agency is aware that manufacturers of some POC models approved under SFAR No. 106 may have voluntarily applied labels similar to the label recommended by Philips Respironics and Main Clinic Supply. The FAA determined, however, that the label proposed by commenters could hinder a passenger's ability to use an SFAR-approved POC by introducing confusion into the POC identification process due to multiple similar labels (
Further, the FAA analyzed the costs associated with the NPRM labeling requirement and estimated that the requirement would not result in a significant burden. Commenters did not challenge the FAA assumptions that
Additionally, the FAA notes that, although the agency supports the Philips Respironics comment regarding POC manufacturer manual updates to describe the label, it would reach beyond the scope of the proposal for the FAA to require POC manufacturers to include additional information in the POC user manual. However, the FAA encourages manufacturers to inform POC users of issues pertaining to POC use on board aircraft.
Finally, A4A commented that if the POC acceptance criteria were to change, the FAA should change the label requirements to distinguish those POCs that meet the new acceptance criteria from those that do not meet the new acceptance criteria. The agency will consider this comment if it finds that a future rulemaking is required to revise POC acceptance criteria.
Two individuals questioned whether the FAA should rely on POC manufacturers to determine that a POC is safe and fits within the regulatory requirements. One of the individual commenters recommended that POC manufacturers demonstrate compliance with the acceptance criteria to the FAA before labeling the device as satisfying those criteria. In a related comment, Delta Airlines recommended that the FAA should require POC manufacturers to provide airlines with the data that demonstrates compliance with the acceptance criteria at the airlines' request.
The FAA employs a range of oversight approaches throughout title 14. The process in this final rule that allows manufacturers to self-certify that their POC conforms to all applicable requirements for use on board aircraft and to affix a label that can be reviewed by aircraft operators and passengers is consistent with other existing agency oversight practices. For example, child restraint system (CRS) manufacturers self-certify (via a label) that their CRS meets all applicable performance criteria and is approved for use on aircraft. In another example, the Technical Standard Order (TSO) program involves a process where a manufacturer makes statements of conformance to the standards in a particular TSO for many different types of articles used on aircraft.
In the case of POCs, the FAA has determined that the devices present minimal risk to aircraft operations. Additionally, the proposed and final rule acceptance criteria for POCs leverage existing regulatory requirements that are applicable to POCs and relevant to the safe carriage and use of POCs, including the use of POCs on board aircraft. The purpose of the label applied by POC manufacturers is to facilitate aircraft operator and passenger identification of devices that meet the acceptance criteria required for POCs intended for use on board aircraft.
Accordingly, a case-by-case POC approval process is unnecessarily burdensome to mitigate any potential risk presented by POCs. An aircraft operator seeking specific information regarding a POC may reach out to a POC manufacturer without FAA regulation. The agency also notes that POC user manuals and POC manufacturer Web sites also provide information pertaining to the attributes and functions of the associated POCs.
SFAR No. 106 prohibits smoking or open flame within 10 feet of any person using a POC. In the NPRM, the agency proposed to retain this restriction. The agency did not receive any comments on the proposal to retain the SFAR prohibition on smoking or open flame near a person using a POC. Accordingly, the final rule includes this proposal without change.
Although the risk posed by concentrated oxygen is minimal when generated at a pressure below that which would trigger the application of the HMR, given the unique environment of an aircraft, the agency has determined that it is reasonable to provide an additional margin of safety by prohibiting smoking or open flame in the vicinity of a person using a POC. Accordingly, the agency will maintain the existing prohibition on smoking or open flame within 10 feet of a person using a POC by extending the smoking prohibitions in existing §§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91 to POCs and adding language to specifically prohibit an open flame.
The smoking prohibition in existing §§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91 effectively results in a prohibition on an open flame. However, given the risks created by smoking near a person using medical oxygen and the storage of such oxygen, in this final rule the agency will ensure that this restriction is clear by explicitly prohibiting an open flame in addition to smoking.
Finally, as proposed, this final rule amends the regulatory text in § 125.219(b) to prohibit smoking not only within 10 feet of where medical oxygen is being used but also within 10 feet of where it is stored. This amendment is consistent with the preamble for the final rule issuing § 125.219 as well as the prohibitions on smoking within 10 feet of the location of medical oxygen storage or use in §§ 121.574 and 135.91.
Section 3(a)(4) of SFAR No. 106 prohibits a person using a POC from sitting in an exit row. The FAA proposed to eliminate this SFAR No. 106 provision from the final rule.
AFA and an anonymous commenter recommended that the FAA retain the provision in SFAR No. 106 prohibiting a passenger from using a POC while sitting in an exit row. Both commenters noted that POC tubing would create obstacles in the exit row. AFA stated that generally, certificate holders should have the responsibility for determining the suitability of passengers who occupy exit seats; however, they maintained that an explicit restriction on exit row seating would eliminate any ambiguity about a POC user's ability to assist in an emergency.
The FAA agrees with commenters in that a passenger's ability to perform exit row functions could be impeded by the presence of the device, possibly creating a tripping hazard and an obstacle to egress. Thus, although §§ 121.585 and 135.129 require the certificate holder to determine the suitability for passengers it permits to occupy exit seats, the final rule retains the SFAR No. 106 provision prohibiting passengers using a POC from sitting in exit seats to eliminate any potential ambiguity pertaining to whether a passenger using a POC may occupy an exit seat.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(a)(3) states that during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing, the POC must either be stowed under the seat in front of the user, or in another approved stowage location, so as not to block the aisle way or entryway into a row. Further, SFAR No. 106 limits the location of POC use to a seat location that does not restrict any passenger's access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the aisle(s) in the passenger compartment. However, FAA regulations in parts 121,
AFA recommended that the FAA retain the requirements in section 3(a)(3) of SFAR No. 106 that pertain to POC stowage. AFA stated that, for consistency with existing medical oxygen rules that require certificate-holder provided equipment to be “appropriately secured,” (§§ 121.574, 125.219 and 135.91) the final rule regulatory text should continue to address stowage requirements for passengers' POCs. The commenter stated that some operators might conclude that only devices furnished by the certificate holder are required to be secured or stowed unless POC stowage is specifically addressed.
Although the FAA continues to expect that POC stowage will be addressed in an operator's carry-on baggage program in accordance with the requirements of 14 CFR 121.285, 121.589, 125.183 and 135.87, the FAA agrees with the commenter that retaining and specifically addressing POC stowage (and thereby reinforcing POC stowage requirements) could increase the likelihood of safe stowage of passenger supplied POCs. Accordingly, as found in SFAR No. 106, this final rule includes a specific requirement for POCs to be stowed during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
Notably, the user manuals for 18 of the POC models currently approved under SFAR No. 106 specify oxygen tube length. Every manual specifying oxygen tube length indicates the associated POC has at least 7 feet of tubing, which is long enough to allow a passenger to use a device stowed under a seat.
The FAA has determined that many of the requirements included in SFAR No. 106 are overly prescriptive or redundant with existing rules and are therefore not necessary. Accordingly, the FAA has not retained them in this final rule. A discussion of the SFAR No. 106 requirements excluded from this final rule follows.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(a)(6) states that when the PIC turns off the “Fasten Seat Belt Sign,” or otherwise grants permission to move about the passenger cabin, passengers may continue to use their POC while moving about the cabin. The agency included this provision in SFAR No. 106 in response to commenters' concerns that the agency should allow passengers using a POC to operate the device for the entirety of the flight, if necessary. Therefore, in the final rule implementing SFAR No. 106, the agency stated that passengers are allowed to use a POC for the duration of the flight, including during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. The agency also stated that once passengers were allowed to move about the cabin of the aircraft, they would be allowed to bring the POC with them.
In the NPRM, the agency proposed to remove section 3(a)(6) of the SFAR. Section 3(a)(6) of the SFAR is unnecessary because there are no regulations directed at passengers using a POC that would limit their movement about the cabin when passenger movement is permitted by the PIC. Accordingly, as proposed in the NPRM, the final rule does not include a provision similar to section 3(a)(6) of the SFAR. The agency did not receive any comments on the proposed elimination of this SFAR No. 106 provision.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(6) requires passengers to ensure all POC batteries carried on board the aircraft in carry-on baggage are protected from short circuit and packaged in a manner that protects them from physical damage. Batteries protected from short circuit include: (1) Those designed with recessed battery terminals; or (2) those packaged so that the battery terminals do not contact metal objects (including the battery terminals of other batteries). Additionally, when a passenger carries a POC on board an aircraft as carry-on baggage, and does not intend to use the POC during the flight, the passenger must remove the battery and package it separately unless the POC contains at least two effective protective features to prevent accidental operation and potential overheating of the battery within the POC during transport.
The FAA proposed to eliminate the SFAR No. 106 provisions applicable to spare batteries carried by passengers on board aircraft for use in POCs because they are unnecessary. The portion of SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(6) addressing spare batteries is redundant with PHMSA regulations applicable to spare lithium batteries carried by passengers on board aircraft.
A4A commented that the FAA should strongly recommend that POC manufacturers include a carrying case for spare lithium battery packs to ensure battery isolation and insulation. The FAA supports any action a POC manufacturer takes to facilitate passenger, crewmember, and operator compliance with the requirements for the safe carriage of lithium ion batteries on board aircraft, including spares. However, the agency does not agree that the commenter's recommendation is necessary because PHMSA has identified the requirements for safe carriage of spare lithium batteries used to power all PEDs carried by aircraft passengers or crewmembers.
PHMSA requires all lithium batteries to be of a type proven to meet the requirements of each test, including Test T.7 (Overcharge), in Part III, Sub-section 38.3 of the UN Manual of Tests and Criteria.
The agency notes that the SFAR diverges from PHMSA requirements pertaining to installed batteries.
Based on the analysis of currently approved POCs and PHMSA requirements applicable to lithium ion batteries carried by passengers and crewmembers to power PEDs, an independent FAA requirement for two protective features as a prerequisite to leaving an installed battery in a POC is unnecessary. The agency reviewed the
In addition, current PHMSA regulations address the safe transportation of lithium ion batteries as well as passenger carriage of lithium ion batteries. Lithium batteries must be of a type proven to meet the requirements of each test, including Test T.7 (Overcharge), in Section 38.3 of the UN Manual of Tests and Criteria.
Based on the analysis of SFAR-approved POCs and the applicable HMR, an independent FAA requirement for two protective features as a prerequisite to leaving an installed battery in a POC is unnecessary. All POCs currently used on board aircraft are equipped with two protective features and all lithium ion batteries must be designed to satisfy the overcharge test protection, therefore, the risk of a fire originating from the battery is minimal. Accordingly, this final rule eliminates SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(6) from title 14.
Section 3(b)(3) of SFAR No. 106 requires passengers intending to use a POC to have a written statement signed by a licensed physician, and kept in that person's possession that states whether the user of the device has the physical and cognitive ability to see, hear, and understand the device's aural and visual cautions and warnings and is able, without assistance, to take the appropriate action in response to those cautions and warnings; states whether or not oxygen use is medically necessary for all or a portion of the duration of the trip; and specifies the maximum oxygen flow rate corresponding to the pressure in the cabin of the aircraft under normal operating conditions.
Section 3(b)(3) of SFAR No. 106 further requires a passenger to inform the aircraft operator that he or she intends to use a POC on board the aircraft and to allow the crew of the aircraft to review the contents of the physician's statement. Similarly, section 3(a)(5) of SFAR No. 106 requires PIC notification whenever a passenger brings and intends to use a POC on board the aircraft. The PIC must be apprised of the physician's written statement required by section 3(b)(3) of the SFAR including the nature of the passenger's oxygen needs and the passenger's ability to understand operational and warning information presented by the POC.
As proposed, the FAA will no longer require POC-using passengers to present a physician's statement, to notify the aircraft operator and PIC of their intended POC use, to inform the PIC of the contents of their physician's statement, and, to allow the crew of the aircraft to review the content of their physician's statement. The FAA received comments related to these proposals from two POC suppliers (Main Clinic Supply and OTG), the Mayo Clinic, AMDA, and a number of individuals. The FAA has reviewed and considered all comments regarding the physician's statement and pre-flight notification of POC use.
OTG, AMDA, the Mayo Clinic, and some individual commenters did not support the FAA proposal to remove the requirement for passengers to carry a physician's statement as a condition of POC use on aircraft. OTG, AMDA, and some individual commenters indicated that removal of the existing physician's statement and notification requirements would cause diversions, impact passenger travel, and be costly to the airlines. Generally, commenters asserted that the FAA should retain the SFAR No. 106 requirement for a physician's statement because it ensures that passengers seeking to use a POC on board an aircraft have consulted with a physician regarding POC use in the aircraft environment prior to travel. Commenters also challenged statements in the NPRM regarding POC function in the aircraft environment.
The Mayo Clinic commented that it is particularly important for individuals who have “poor respiratory reserve” to have health care provider oversight. In this regard, the physician statement is a form of “safety net” to trigger these conversations between passengers and their treating providers. It is critical that these conversations occur prior to air travel since decompensation on board a flight may require urgent response. OTG and some individual commenters commented that additional interaction between a POC user and his or her physician is necessary to educate passengers with limited experience with POC use; to address discrepancies between the POC prescription and the POC provided by a supplier; and to help the POC user account for the effects of cabin pressurization on POC use.
OTG indicated in its comments that the flow rate on a POC prescription may not be appropriate for cabin altitudes. In a related comment, the Mayo Clinic stated, “[A]lthough a physician or other health care provider with prescribing privileges writes prescriptions for devices to deliver supplemental oxygen, many providers are unfamiliar with the physiology of altitude.” OTG also commented that, in its experience, a large percentage of physicians and the majority of passengers incorrectly assume aircraft cabins are pressurized to sea level. OTG stated that based on this assumption, physicians do not provide their POC-using patients with recommendations regarding oxygen flow adjustments during air travel when most will require higher flow rates in a pressurized cabin than at sea level. OTG further asserted that the POC will not produce the same percentage of oxygen in a pressurized cabin and the oxygen saturation level of the passenger will be decreased due to the normal physics of the partial pressure of the oxygen on pulmonary tissue.
The agency clarifies that SFAR No. 106 does not specifically require a passenger to obtain a new physician's statement prior to each flight.
The FAA appreciates and concurs with comments regarding the need for vigilance and understanding of all nuances associated with POC use on aircraft. The agency appreciates and has considered commenters' concerns about the physiology of flight and its relationship to POC use. The FAA emphasizes that pre-flight preparation on the part of the POC-using passenger, working closely with an appropriate medical professional, should always occur when traveling with any medical device. While preparation may differ for each POC-using passenger, depending on the aircraft and kind of operation included in his or her travel plans, passengers may wish to consider such factors with their medical professional such as past experience using a POC, cabin pressurization, layovers, length of flight, and pre-flight activities that could lead to compromised lung function in flight. The FAA also encourages POC-using passengers to carry documentation regarding the device they intend to use including any pertinent documentation provided to them by a medical professional or any medical certificate required by the carriers in accordance with the Department's air travel disability regulation in 14 CFR 382.23.
However, the FAA believes that retaining the SFAR No. 106 requirement for a physician's statement as evidence of this medical consultation is not the most effective education tool in those circumstances in which the physiology of altitude could come to bear on POC use and should not be relied on as the means to address the range of variables potentially affecting passengers using POCs during flight. The FAA has determined that it is more effective to provide reasoned guidance and public outreach to educate POC users and physicians regarding considerations pertaining to POC use during flight in a pressurized cabin. The FAA provides information on passenger health and safety on its Web site (
As is the case with in flight use of any medical device, passengers who need to use a POC on board an aircraft should always consult with an appropriate medical professional and their chosen air carrier before traveling. Doing so ensures that passengers are prepared for each flight they take, particularly if, as one commenter noted a prescription may not address adjustments that may be appropriate for POC use on a pressurized aircraft. However, the FAA has determined that the specific, regulatory requirement set forth in the SFAR requiring POC-using passengers to obtain, present, and allow for scrutiny of a physician's statement, as a condition of admission on board an aircraft is particularly burdensome for passengers seeking to use a POC during air travel.
The FAA intended for the SFAR to provide a framework, not previously available, under which persons with a need to use personal oxygen therapy could use their own devices during a flight, thereby increasing accessibility to air travel for POC-using passengers. With more than 10 years of experience with POC technology and POC use on aircraft, the FAA has determined that the requirement for a passenger to provide for aircraft operator, crewmember, and PIC scrutiny, a physician statement pertaining to a medical device that the passenger is solely responsible for during the flight, was an overly conservative addition to the POC oversight framework. Removing the requirement to obtain a physician's statement affects a paperwork requirement; it does not affect passengers' responsibility to be prepared for travel. The purpose of this final rule is to continue to provide POC-using passengers access to air travel, while addressing device safety for aircraft use; it is not intended (and is not within FAA authority) to set forth a standard of medical care for POC-using passengers. Further, the FAA does not require passengers who supply any other medical device for their own use during a flight to provide a physician's statement as a condition of device usage during flight.
Additionally, as mentioned previously, existing DOT requirements in 14 CFR part 382 continue to include a provision to further mitigate the possibility of medical events including those that could result in a diversion. Sections 382.23(b) and 382.133 authorize carriers to require a passenger needing medical oxygen inflight to provide a medical certificate to ensure the passenger can complete the flight safely without requiring extraordinary medical assistance during the flight.
AMDA indicated that the FAA should conduct additional research regarding the potential impact of the elimination of the physician's statement. The FAA has determined that additional research is not necessary at this time because the FAA expects physician consultation to continue as appropriate for the use of any medical device, and that pre-flight notice of POC use on the aircraft will continue in light of the requirement for each aircraft operator to determine whether the POC bears the label required for use on board aircraft.
The purpose of the SFAR and the FAA's action in this final rule is to address continued use of POCs on aircraft without compromising the safety of the aircraft operation. The agency has determined the SFAR No. 106 requirement for a physician statement creates an unnecessary burden that may not ultimately serve the purpose contemplated by commenters. The FAA emphasizes that removing the requirement to obtain a physician's statement affects a paperwork requirement; it does not affect passengers' responsibility to be prepared for travel, including obtaining a medical certificate if the carrier chooses to require one as allowed by 14 CFR 382.23 and 382.133. All passengers using a medical device in an aircraft environment are responsible for preparing for the flight such that they can ensure that the device will function properly during the flight and provide the requisite medical support. Therefore, as proposed, this final rule discontinues the SFAR requirement for a physician statement.
Under this final rule, the PIC and aircraft operator (through a crewmember or gate agent) will continue to receive notice of a passenger's POC use during flight as the operator determines during pre-boarding procedures whether the device has the label now required for POC use on the aircraft. Accordingly, as proposed, the FAA discontinues the specific requirement for passengers to notify the aircraft operator and PIC of intended POC use during a flight because a specific notification requirement is unnecessary.
OTG also stated that several POC-related incidents have occurred in flight but did not provide any specific examples, information, or data regarding such diversions or incidents. OTG
The agency reviewed air carrier safety data collected from 2005 through 2014—a period of nearly 10 years—and found no instances of POC malfunction during flight or any related medical incident or diversion. This review included information from several accident, incident, and voluntary reporting databases.
Although the FAA is removing the requirement for pre-flight notification, under existing DOT requirements in 14 CFR part 382, carriers continue to be permitted to require individuals who wish to use a POC on aircraft to contact them 48 hours before scheduled departure. Carriers are permitted to require this pre-flight notification so they can ensure that a passenger knows the expected maximum flight duration and can use this information in determining the number of spare batteries that he or she will need to power the POC during the flight.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(1) requires a passenger using a POC on board an aircraft to be capable of hearing the unit's alarms and seeing alarm light indicators. SFAR No. 106 also requires passengers using a POC to have the cognitive ability to take appropriate action in response to the various POC caution alarms, warning alarms, and alarm light indicators, or travel with someone capable of performing those functions.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to eliminate the requirement for a passenger using a POC on board an aircraft to be capable of hearing the unit's alarms and seeing alarm light indicators. An anonymous commenter stated that the FAA should retain this requirement because a continuous audio alarm could be very disruptive and compound other abnormal events occurring in the cabin. The commenter added that the absence of alarm events over the last 10 years does not mean that an alarm event will not occur in the future. Additionally, OTG commented that in its experience, an individual may not be able to respond to alarms even if a physician states that the individual can respond to the POC alarms.
Crewmembers receive training on how to respond to unanticipated events that may arise on board the aircraft including disruptions in the cabin and other abnormal events. Further, it is a passenger's responsibility to read the POC operator's manual and direct questions to their physician to ensure understanding of oxygen flow settings and the appropriate responses to alarms.
The SFAR No. 106 requirements pertaining to POC alarms are based on information in the user manual of the first POC approved by the FAA.
The FAA also emphasizes that it has not identified any incidents regarding POC malfunctions on board aircraft during the period of time that POCs have been permitted on aircraft. A 10-year look-back period includes data from almost 78 million domestic flights with no adverse POC incidents.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(2) requires a passenger using a POC to ensure the POC is free of oil, grease, or other petroleum products and is in good condition free from damage or other signs of excessive wear or abuse. This provision is similar to a warning statement found in the user manual of the first POC approved by the FAA and to a provision in the medical oxygen rules (§§ 121.574, 125.219, and 135.91). See 69 FR at 42325. The agency proposed to eliminate this SFAR No. 106 provision.
OTG commented that for passengers who rent their POCs, the condition of the device and its batteries is dependent on the purveyor of the equipment. The FAA expects POC users to ensure that a POC they intend to use is in good condition so that it may function properly to provide the needed oxygen therapy whether the POC user is on the ground or on an aircraft. Further, while petroleum products may accelerate an existing fire, the volume of petroleum products necessary to accelerate a fire is unlikely to be found on the exterior of a POC, and this concern is not addressed as a specific requirement for other PEDs carried on board aircraft. Therefore, this final rule eliminates the requirements in section 3(b)(2) of SFAR No. 106 because the requirements are unnecessary.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(4) states only oxygen approved lotions or salves may be used by persons using a POC on board an aircraft. In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to eliminate this prohibition in its entirety and did not receive any comments on this proposal.
The requirement in SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(4) came from the user manual of the first POC approved by the FAA. The FAA believes it is the passenger's responsibility to ensure he or she is using products that meet the POC manufacturer's requirements for salve and lotion usage with a POC. The risks and responsibilities associated with lotions or salves that are not oxygen approved or are petroleum-based are addressed in the preceding discussion on the elimination of the requirement for the user to ensure that the POC is free from petroleum products. Therefore, as proposed, this final rule does not retain the prohibition in section 3(b)(4) of SFAR No. 106.
SFAR No. 106, section 3(b)(5) requires passengers intending to use a POC during a flight to obtain from the aircraft operator, or by other means, the duration of the planned flight and carry a sufficient number of batteries to power the device for the duration of the oxygen use specified in the passenger's physician statement, including a conservative estimate of any unanticipated delays. In the NPRM, the agency proposed to eliminate this SFAR No. 106 requirement.
Delta Air Lines commented that this final rule should retain the battery carriage requirements found in SFAR No. 106 and current 14 CFR 382.133(f)(2) because passengers often mistakenly assume that electrical outlets are available to power portable medical devices. The FAA is not aware of any specific incidents of confusion
Additionally, as noted in the Delta Air Lines comment, existing DOT regulations (14 CFR part 382) permit carriers to require an individual traveling with a POC to bring an adequate number of fully charged batteries into the cabin that will power the POC for no less than 150% of the expected maximum flight duration.
OTG commented that it is almost impossible for the average passenger to assess the amount of battery power that they may need for the duration of a trip due to time zone changes, the effect of flow rate on battery duration and mistaken assumptions about their ability to recharge batteries between flights. OTG also indicated that POC manufacturer manuals are “overly optimistic” about battery duration, often basing their assumptions on data from new batteries.
The Mayo Clinic commented that many passengers only use a POC temporarily, during a flight, and thus are unfamiliar with the device. The Mayo Clinic added that an FAA requirement for passengers using a POC to carry a certain amount of battery power, would serve as a reminder for the passenger and his or her health care provider regarding the necessity of sufficient power for POC use, noting that the consequences of inadequate supplemental oxygen could result in the need to administer medical oxygen during the flight or divert the aircraft.
The FAA maintains that it is the passengers' responsibility to understand the performance of their POC and its battery life under varying conditions and ensure their POC will enable them to adhere to their physician's instructions. All manuals for the POCs identified in SFAR No. 106 have liter flow and battery duration charts to help users make informed decisions regarding the number of spare batteries they need to bring to power the device and it is the responsibility of passengers using a POC during air travel to be familiar with the manual and consult their physician and POC provider as necessary. As highlighted by OTG, passengers may also want to consider the age of the device and the batteries as they assess the batteries required to power the POC for the amount of time required. The intent of the SFAR and this rulemaking is to allow passengers needing oxygen therapy during a flight to have ready access to a device that can supply that therapy, not to oversee passenger medical care.
Thus, as proposed, the FAA has eliminated the SFAR requirement to carry a certain amount of battery power. However, the Department continues to allow airlines to require individuals using POCs inflight to bring an adequate number of fully charged batteries based on the battery manufacturer's estimate of the hours of battery life while the POC is in use and the maximum duration of the flight. Also, to facilitate a passenger's ability to prepare for POC use during a flight, in AC 120-95B, published with this final rule, the FAA has provided references to the DOT requirements regarding the carriage of spare batteries. The FAA also expects to update its Web site with information a passenger may want to consider when traveling with a POC.
BPR Medical Limited recommended that the six continuous flow POCs approved under SFAR No. 106 should be retrofitted with an accessory to stop the flow of oxygen in the event that the POC tubing ignites. BPR states that during testing for fire propagation in tubing, BPR found that where a pulse dose mechanism provides oxygen, a fire that has developed will automatically be extinguished and will not propagate along the tubing to the oxygen source. The commenter added that while having a means to stop the flow of oxygen may be more of a concern where cigarettes might be a source of ignition, there are other possible sources of ignition on aircraft such as electro-static discharge from blankets.
FDA has recently recognized a POC performance standard (ISO 80601-2-69:2014) that includes a clause stating that the device shall be equipped with a means to stop the flow of gas towards the patient in the case that the accessory (tubing) becomes ignited. This standard will be considered as the FDA approves or clears new POC models.
Additionally, the previous FDA recognized performance standard for POCs (ISO 8359:1996 including Amendment 1 (2012)) stated that POCs shall include a means to prevent the propagation of fire back through the oxygen concentrator outlet in the case that the tubing ignites. Although it is not clear whether all of the continuous flow devices approved under the SFAR include this means to prevent fire propagation, the FDA is allowing continued use of these devices and is not requiring existing POCs to be modified to comply with the performance standard the agency currently recognizes (ISO 80601-2-69:2014).
Nevertheless, the commenter's suggestion to retrofit continuous flow POCs with an accessory to extinguish fire propagation in tubing is outside of the scope of the proposal and a prohibition on the use of continuous flow POCs on aircraft is not supported by aviation safety data. As previously noted, the FAA reviewed data from VDRP, SDRS, NTSB, ASRS and AIDS, and has not found any instances of POC malfunction during flight since the agency first published the SFAR.
The FAA also researched the service difficulty report (SDR) database for the period beginning the time SFAR No. 106 published (July 12, 2005) through December 2014, and ran multiple queries for the terms fires, blankets, POCs, electrostatic discharges, and insulation materials. This research covers a period where almost 78 million U.S. domestic flights occurred, revealing no SDRs related to POCs.
Finally, although the FAA has not identified a single instance of a fire due to passenger's use of a POC on an aircraft, passenger-carrying aircraft are equipped with effective mitigation (
Accordingly, the agency has determined that no aviation safety data exists that would support further FAA action to preclude continuous flow POC models from use onboard aircraft.
This final rule makes two technical amendments. First, it updates a cross reference to the HMR that appears in §§ 121.574(a)(3), 125.219(a)(3), and 135.91(a)(3) and pertains to the definition of a compressed gas. Second, it removes the OMB Control No. 2120-0702 from § 11.201(b) because the information collection burdens
The Air Carrier Access Act (ACAA) prohibits discrimination by U.S. and foreign carriers against passengers with disabilities.
With regard to POCs, part 382 establishes a framework to ensure accessibility for passengers using POCs and other respiratory assistive devices on aircraft, subject to applicable aviation safety, security, and hazardous materials regulations. In this final rule, the FAA revises its acceptance criteria on POCs, based on which air carriers may choose to, but are not required to, accept those POCs meeting FAA's criteria. On the other hand, part 382 mandates that carriers must accept POCs if they meet the FAA's acceptance criteria. Accordingly, this final rule includes amendments to 14 CFR part 382 to remove the references to SFAR No. 106, to ensure that the requirements of part 382 are consistent with the new acceptance criteria and labeling requirements set forth by the FAA in this rule, and to ensure the continued use of the POCs previously approved under SFAR No. 106, as permitted by the FAA.
When amending regulations, the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) generally requires agencies to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking and give interested persons an opportunity to comment. However, the APA authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment if the agency finds for good cause that notice and public comment thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B). “Good cause” exists in situations in which notice unavoidably prevents the due and required execution of agency functions or when an agency finds that due and timely execution of its functions is impeded by the notice otherwise required by the APA.
In this case, the agency finds that there is good cause to conclude that providing notice and public comment for the Department's conforming amendments is unnecessary, impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Notice and public comment are impracticable because they would cause undue delay. Providing additional notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest because during the delay caused by providing notice and public comment, the Department's disability regulations would be inconsistent with FAA regulations. This could potentially cause confusion and affect disabled individuals' ability to bring necessary medical devices on flights.
Notice and comment on these conforming amendments is also unnecessary because the public has already had an opportunity to comment on the substantive issues addressed by this rulemaking. The Department is making minor amendments to part 382 that simply conform the Department's disability regulations to the FAA's safety regulations. The Department does not believe that it would receive new substantive comments, in addition to those already received and addressed in this document, if it sought comment on the conforming amendments. For these reasons the Department has determined that the notice and comment rulemaking process is unnecessary, impracticable, and contrary to the public interest for these conforming amendments.
In 2008, DOT amended part 382 to include a provision requiring covered carriers to permit a passenger with a disability to use an SFAR-approved POC on all covered flights. More specifically, part 382 requires U.S. carriers to permit an individual with a disability to use an SFAR-approved POC, a ventilator, a respirator, or a continuous positive airway pressure machine (CPAP machine) on all flights unless the device does not meet applicable FAA requirements for medical portable electronic devices and does not display a manufacturer's label that indicates the device meets those FAA requirements.
In 2009, because the SFAR-approved POCs were not required to have labels under the FAA's regulations, DOT issued guidance encouraging carriers to allow passengers to use these approved POCs even if the device had not been labeled, although carriers were not legally obligated to do so.
In this final rule, the Department is amending its disability regulation to ensure that, consistent with the FAA's actions in this rule, passengers with SFAR-approved POCs continue to be permitted to use these devices on aircraft, regardless of whether they are labeled, and that passengers with other POCs that satisfy the FAA acceptance criteria and labeling requirements will be able to use those POCs on their flights. As the FAA's regulations are enabling rules, these changes in the Department's disability regulation require carriers covered by part 382 to accept these POCs for air travel.
The Department is revising § 382.133(c)(3) (redesignated as § 382.133(e)(3)) by eliminating the reference to SFAR No. 106 with respect to the packaging and protection of spare batteries carried in an aircraft cabin, as this final rule removes the SFAR from the CFR. Instead, the Department is referring directly to the applicable PHMSA requirements.
The Department is also revising § 382.133(c)(6) (redesignated as § 382.133(e)(6) in this final rule) by eliminating the reference to federal aviation regulations with respect to the physicians statement, as in this final rule the FAA eliminates the SFAR No. 106 requirement for a physician's statement. The Department, however, is retaining the reference to § 382.23(b)(1)(ii) that permits carriers to require a medical certificate from passengers who need medical oxygen during a flight. In that regard, there is also no change to our rules that permit a U.S. carrier or a foreign carrier to ensure that the passengers traveling with POCs have sufficient numbers of spare batteries to power the POC for up to 150% of the maximum flight duration.
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a
In conducting these analyses, FAA has determined that this final rule: (1) Has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is not an economically “significant regulatory action” as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, (3) is not “significant” as defined in DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures; (4) will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities; (5) will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States; and (6) will not impose an unfunded mandate on state, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector by exceeding the threshold identified above. These analyses are summarized below.
The total cost savings from this final rule is $39.5 million ($27.6 million at 7% present value and $33.6 million at 3% present value). The largest cost savings of $39 million occurs from the reduction of crew time to review the physician's statement.
The FAA estimated that POC manufacturers that are expected to market POCs for use on aircraft will save a total of $108,000 over the ten year analysis period because the FAA will no longer require POC models to be identified in SFAR No. 106 prior to their use on aircraft. As a result of this action, POC manufacturers will no longer incur the administrative costs of petitioning the FAA which the FAA estimated would be $108,000. Further, because the manufacturer will no longer have to await resolution of that petition in order for a POC to be permitted for use on aircraft they will be able to introduce these devices sooner to the market.
The FAA estimates that the cost of this final rule will be a one-time total cost of $22,000 incurred by all those POC manufacturers who comply with this final rule to modify a label and the associated costs that manufacturers will incur to change their current labeling process to affix a label with the language on the devices.
• Present Value Discount rates—7% and 3%
• Period of Analysis—ten years
• 24 new POCs over ten years
• POC manufacturers
• Passengers carrying POCs on board aircraft
• Physicians providing written statements to POC users
• Aircraft operators (including crewmembers)
The replacement of the SFAR No. 106 device approval process with a process by which POC manufacturers label those devices that satisfy FAA acceptance criteria, will shorten the time for manufacturers to begin selling new POC models that can be used on aircraft. Therefore, one benefit of this rule will be to eliminate delays and enable manufacturers to bring their devices to market sooner. Further the FAA estimates total industry cost savings of $108,000 because manufacturers will no longer incur the administrative costs of petitioning the FAA for each new device. These cost savings easily exceed the labeling costs.
Furthermore, this final rule will result in cost savings because POC-using passengers will no longer have to obtain a physician's written statement as a prerequisite to bringing POCs on board aircraft in parts 121, 125, and 135 operations.
The largest cost-savings will accrue to airline crews as there will no longer be a requirement for the crew to review the contents of the physician's statement and to notify the pilot in command about the contents of the physician's statement and the intention of the passenger to use the POC on board.
The quantified cost savings of this final rule are summarized in table 4.
The FAA also identified another benefit that it did not quantify. This benefit comes from the use of a performance-based RF emissions acceptance criterion. Currently the manufacturers provide radiated RF emissions tests results showing that the device does not exceed thresholds established in Section 21 Category M of RTCA DO-160 to the FAA which posts these results on its Web site for aircraft operators to access. This final rule will include a performance-based RF emissions acceptance criterion that allows POC manufacturers to determine how to assess whether their POC meets the RF emissions limits for use on aircraft before they affix a label to the device confirming that this criterion has been satisfied. This might save manufacturers some cost if they can demonstrate in a less expensive way that their device meets the RF emissions criteria and will not degrade safety as
As estimated in the NPRM, the FAA expects that POC manufacturers will incur costs of $22,000 to modify labels that they already affix to the POC, to contain the language required by this rule.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) (RFA) establishes “as a principle of regulatory issuance that agencies shall endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale of the businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation. To achieve this principle, agencies are required to solicit and consider flexible regulatory proposals and to explain the rationale for their actions to assure that such proposals are given serious consideration.” The RFA covers a wide-range of small entities, including small businesses, not-for-profit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions.
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA.
However, if an agency determines that a rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, section 605(b) of the RFA provides that the head of the agency may so certify and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. The certification must include a statement providing the factual basis for this determination, and the reasoning should be clear.
This final rule is expected to reduce SFAR No. 106 requirements that currently result in a burden on POC manufacturers who produce POC devices for use on aircraft. This final rule will also result in small costs to manufacturers by requiring POCs intended for use on aircraft to bear a label indicating the device meets FAA requirements for use on board aircraft. The FAA learned from five of the small POC manufacturers that they might incur a one-time cost ranging from $200 to $1,500 which averages $0.20 to $1 per label.
The FAA identified nine companies that produce POCs intended for use on board aircraft. The FAA determined that the appropriate North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes of these manufacturers are 339112 and 339113 and the threshold for determining whether a company is a small business is 500 employees for those industries. Through online research, the FAA found data
Although a substantial number of operators conducting parts 121, 125 and 135 operations are small entities, all parts 121, 125 and 135 operators are expected to experience cost savings because the proposal will no longer require the PIC to be apprised when a passenger brings and intends to use a POC on board the aircraft and be informed on the contents of the physician's statement as does SFAR No. 106. The FAA did not receive comments on the initial regulatory flexibility analysis where we first discussed these cost savings. Therefore, as provided in section 605(b), the head of the FAA certifies that this rulemaking will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this final rule and determined that it will have only a domestic impact and therefore no effect on international trade.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (in 1995 dollars) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector; such a mandate is deemed to be a “significant regulatory action.” The FAA currently uses an inflation-adjusted value of $155.0 million in lieu of $100 million. This final rule does not contain such a mandate; therefore, the requirements of Title II of the Act do not apply.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. The FAA has determined that there is no new requirement for information collection associated with this final rule.
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. Annex 18 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation requires that dangerous goods are carried in accordance with the ICAO Technical Instructions on the Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air. The ICAO Technical Instructions do not contain specific provisions for POCs but Part 8 of the ICAO Technical Instructions (passenger and crew exceptions) allows for their carriage on board aircraft as portable medical electronic devices subject to certain conditions. Although the format is different, the conditions in
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6 and involves no extraordinary circumstances.
The FAA has analyzed this final rule under the principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The agency determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, does not have Federalism implications.
The FAA analyzed this final rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). The agency has determined that it is not a “significant energy action” under the executive order and it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
An electronic copy of a rulemaking document may be obtained by using the Internet —
1. Search the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
2. Visit the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at
3. Access the Government Publishing Office's Web page at
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request (identified by notice, amendment, or docket number of this rulemaking) to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9677.
Comments received may be viewed by going to
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the
Air transportation.
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Air carriers, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Charter flights, Safety, Transportation.
Aircraft, Aviation safety.
Air taxis, Aircraft, Aviation safety.
Air Carriers, Consumer protection, Individuals with disabilities.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration and the Office of the Secretary amend chapters I and II of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701.
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, 40103, 40105, 40109, 40113, 44110, 44502, 44701-44702, 44711, and 46102.
(b) * * *
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40119, 41706, 42301 preceding note added by Public Law 112-95, sec. 412, 126 Stat. 89, 44101, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722, 44729, 44732, 46105; Public Law 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note); Public Law 112-95, 126 Stat. 62 (49 U.S.C. 44732 note).
The addition reads as follows:
(b)* * *
(5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the requirements in § 121.574; or
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) A certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the storage, generation, or dispensing of oxygen when all of the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section are satisfied.
(b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no certificate holder may allow any person to smoke or create an open flame within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section or a portable oxygen concentrator carried and operated in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
(e)
(i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR;
(ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems;
(iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F);
(iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and
(v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: “The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.” The label requirements in this paragraph (e)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016:
(A) AirSep Focus;
(B) AirSep FreeStyle;
(C) AirSep FreeStyle 5;
(D) AirSep LifeStyle;
(E) Delphi RS-00400;
(F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;
(G) Inogen One;
(H) Inogen One G2;
(I) Inogen One G3;
(J) Inova Labs LifeChoice;
(K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;
(L) International Biophysics LifeChoice;
(M) Invacare Solo2;
(N) Invacare XPO2;
(O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;
(P) Oxus RS-00400;
(Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse;
(R) Respironics EverGo;
(S) Respironics SimplyGo;
(T) SeQual Eclipse;
(U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);
(V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);
(W) SeQual SAROS; and
(X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44705, 44710-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722.
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the requirements in § 125.219; or
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section, no certificate holder may allow the carriage or operation of equipment for the storage, generation or dispensing of medical oxygen unless the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section are satisfied.
(1) * * *
(iv) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage during that carriage or operation; and
(b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no certificate holder may allow any person to smoke or create an open flame within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried under paragraph (a) of this section or a portable oxygen concentrator carried and operated under paragraph (f) of this section.
(f)
(i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR;
(ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems;
(iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F);
(iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and
(v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: “The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.” The label requirements in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016:
(A) AirSep Focus;
(B) AirSep FreeStyle;
(C) AirSep FreeStyle 5;
(D) AirSep LifeStyle;
(E) Delphi RS-00400;
(F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;
(G) Inogen One;
(H) Inogen One G2;
(I) Inogen One G3;
(J) Inova Labs LifeChoice;
(K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;
(L) International Biophysics LifeChoice;
(M) Invacare Solo2;
(N) Invacare XPO2;
(O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;
(P) Oxus RS-00400;
(Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse;
(R) Respironics EverGo;
(S) Respironics SimplyGo;
(T) SeQual Eclipse;
(U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);
(V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);
(W) SeQual SAROS; and
(X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 41706, 40113, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709, 44711-44713, 44715-44717, 44722, 44730, 45101-45105; Public Law 112-95, 126 Stat. 58 (49 U.S.C. 44730).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, no certificate holder may allow the carriage or operation of equipment for the storage, generation or dispensing of medical oxygen unless the conditions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section are satisfied. Beginning August 22, 2016, a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section are satisfied.
(1) * * *
(iv) Constructed so that all valves, fittings, and gauges are protected from damage during carriage or operation; and
(b) No person may smoke or create an open flame and no certificate holder
(f)
(i) Is legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements in title 21 of the CFR;
(ii) Does not radiate radio frequency emissions that interfere with aircraft systems;
(iii) Generates a maximum oxygen pressure of less than 200 kPa gauge (29.0 psig/43.8 psia) at 20 °C (68 °F);
(iv) Does not contain any hazardous materials subject to the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR parts 171 through 180) except as provided in 49 CFR 175.10 for batteries used to power portable electronic devices and that do not require aircraft operator approval; and
(v) Bears a label on the exterior of the device applied in a manner that ensures the label will remain affixed for the life of the device and containing the following certification statement in red lettering: “The manufacturer of this POC has determined this device conforms to all applicable FAA acceptance criteria for POC carriage and use on board aircraft.” The label requirements in this paragraph (f)(1)(v) do not apply to the following portable oxygen concentrators approved by the FAA for use on board aircraft prior to May 24, 2016:
(A) AirSep Focus;
(B) AirSep FreeStyle;
(C) AirSep FreeStyle 5;
(D) AirSep LifeStyle;
(E) Delphi RS-00400;
(F) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;
(G) Inogen One;
(H) Inogen One G2;
(I) Inogen One G3;
(J) Inova Labs LifeChoice;
(K) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;
(L) International Biophysics LifeChoice;
(M) Invacare Solo2;
(N) Invacare XPO2;
(O) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;
(P) Oxus RS-00400;
(Q) Precision Medical EasyPulse;
(R) Respironics EverGo;
(S) Respironics SimplyGo;
(T) SeQual Eclipse;
(U) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);
(V) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);
(W) SeQual SAROS; and
(X) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(5) Portable oxygen concentrators that comply with the requirements in § 135.91; or
49 U.S.C. 41705.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and § 382.133(e)(4) and (5) and (f)(5) and (6), as a carrier you must not require a passenger with a disability to provide advance notice in order to obtain services or accommodations required by this part.
(a) Except for on-demand air taxi operators, as a U.S. carrier conducting passenger service you must permit any individual with a disability to use in the passenger cabin during air transportation an electronic assistive device specified in paragraph (c) of this section on all aircraft originally designed to have a maximum passenger capacity of more than 19 seats unless:
(1) The device does not meet applicable FAA requirements for medical portable electronic device; or
(2) The device cannot be stowed and used in the passenger cabin consistent with applicable TSA, FAA, and PHMSA regulations.
(b) Except for foreign carriers conducting operations of a nature equivalent to on-demand air taxi operations by a U.S. carrier, as a foreign carrier conducting passenger service you must permit any individual with a disability to use in the passenger cabin during air transportation to, from or within the United States, an electronic assistive device specified in paragraph (d) of this section on all aircraft originally designed to have a maximum passenger capacity of more than 19 seats unless:
(1) The device does not meet requirements for medical portable electronic devices set by the foreign carrier's government if such requirements exist;
(2) The device does not meet requirements for medical portable electronic devices set by the FAA for U.S. carriers in circumstances where requirements for medical portable electronic devices have not been set by the foreign carrier's government and the foreign carrier elects to apply FAA requirements for medical portable electronic devices; or
(3) The device cannot be stowed and used in the passenger cabin consistent with applicable TSA, FAA and PHMSA
(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, as a covered U.S. air carrier, you must accept the passenger supplied electronic assistive device in this paragraph (c):
(1) A portable oxygen concentrator (POC), a ventilator, a respirator or a continuous positive airway pressure machine that displays a manufacturer's label that indicates the device meets FAA requirements; and
(2) The following POC models whether or not they are labeled:
(i) AirSep Focus;
(ii) AirSep FreeStyle;
(iii) AirSep FreeStyle 5;
(iv) AirSep LifeStyle;
(v) Delphi RS-00400;
(vi) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;
(vii) Inogen One;
(viii) Inogen One G2;
(ix) Inogen One G3;
(x) Inova Labs LifeChoice;
(xi) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;
(xii) International Biophysics LifeChoice;
(xiii) Invacare Solo2;
(xiv) Invacare XPO2;
(xv) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;
(xvi) Oxus RS-00400;
(xvii) Precision Medical EasyPulse;
(xviii) Respironics EverGo;
(xix) Respironics SimplyGo;
(xx) SeQual Eclipse;
(xxi) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);
(xxii) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);
(xxiii) SeQual SAROS; and
(xxiv) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.
(d) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, as a covered foreign air carrier, you must accept the supplied electronic assistive devices in this paragraph (d):
(1) A POC, a ventilator, a respirator or a continuous positive airway pressure machine that displays a manufacturer's label according to FAA requirements in circumstances where requirements for labeling these devices have not been set by the foreign carrier's government; and
(2) The following POC models whether or not they are labeled:
(i) AirSep Focus;
(ii) AirSep FreeStyle;
(iii) AirSep FreeStyle 5;
(iv) AirSep LifeStyle;
(v) Delphi RS-00400;
(vi) DeVilbiss Healthcare iGo;
(vii) Inogen One;
(viii) Inogen One G2;
(ix) Inogen One G3;
(x) Inova Labs LifeChoice;
(xi) Inova Labs LifeChoice Activox;
(xii) International Biophysics LifeChoice;
(xiii) Invacare Solo2;
(xiv) Invacare XPO2;
(xv) Oxlife Independence Oxygen Concentrator;
(xvi) Oxus RS-00400;
(xvii) Precision Medical EasyPulse;
(xviii) Respironics EverGo;
(xix) Respironics SimplyGo;
(xx) SeQual Eclipse;
(xxi) SeQual eQuinox Oxygen System (model 4000);
(xxii) SeQual Oxywell Oxygen System (model 4000);
(xxiii) SeQual SAROS; and
(xxiv) VBox Trooper Oxygen Concentrator.
(e) As a U.S. carrier, you must provide information during the reservation process as indicated in paragraphs (e)(1) through (6) of this section upon inquiry from an individual concerning the use in the cabin during air transportation of a ventilator, respirator, continuous positive airway machine, or a POC. The information in this paragraph (e) must be provided:
(1) Any applicable requirement for a manufacturer-affixed label to reflect that the device has been tested to meet applicable FAA requirements for medical portable electronic devices;
(2) The maximum weight and dimensions (length, width, height) of the device to be used by an individual that can be accommodated in the aircraft cabin consistent with FAA safety requirements;
(3) The requirement to bring an adequate number of batteries as outlined in paragraph (h)(2) of this section and to ensure that extra batteries carried onboard to power the device are packaged and protected from short circuit and physical damage in accordance with applicable PHMSA regulations regarding spare batteries carried by passengers in an aircraft cabin;
(4) Any requirement, if applicable, that an individual contact the carrier operating the flight 48 hours before scheduled departure to learn the expected maximum duration of his/her flight in order to determine the required number of batteries for his/her particular ventilator, respirator, continuous positive airway pressure machine, or POC;
(5) Any requirement, if applicable, of the carrier operating the flight for an individual planning to use such a device to check-in up to one hour before that carrier's general check-in deadline; and
(6) For POCs, the requirement of § 382.23(b)(1)(ii) to present to the operating carrier at the airport a physician's statement (medical certificate).
(f) As a foreign carrier operating flights to, from or within the United States, you must provide the information during the reservation process as indicated in paragraphs (f)(1) through (7) of this section upon inquiry from an individual concerning the use in the cabin during air transportation on such a flight of a ventilator, respirator, continuous positive airway machine, or POC. The information in this paragraph (f) must be provided:
(1) Any applicable requirement for a manufacturer-affixed label to reflect that the device has been tested to meet requirements for medical portable electronic devices set by the foreign carrier's government if such requirements exist;
(2) Any applicable requirement for a manufacturer-affixed label to reflect that the device has been tested to meet requirements for medical portable electronic devices set by the FAA for U.S. carriers if requirements for medical portable electronic devices have not been set by the foreign carrier's government and the foreign carrier elects to apply FAA requirements for medical portable electronic devices;
(3) The maximum weight and dimensions (length, width, height) of the device to be used by an individual that can be accommodated in the aircraft cabin consistent with the safety regulations of the foreign carrier's government;
(4) The requirement to bring an adequate number of batteries as outlined in paragraph (h)(2) of this section and to ensure that extra batteries carried onboard to power the device are packaged in accordance with applicable government safety regulations;
(5) Any requirement, if applicable, that an individual contact the carrier operating the flight 48 hours before scheduled departure to learn the expected maximum duration of his/her flight in order to determine the required number of batteries for his/her particular ventilator, respirator, continuous positive airway pressure machine, or POC;
(6) Any requirement, if applicable, of the carrier operating the flight for an individual planning to use such a device to check-in up to one hour before that carrier's general check-in deadline; and
(7) Any requirement, if applicable, that an individual who wishes to use a POC onboard an aircraft present to the operating carrier at the airport a physician's statement (medical certificate).
(g) In the case of a codeshare itinerary, the carrier whose code is used on the flight must either inform the individual inquiring about using a ventilator, respirator, CPAP machine or POC onboard an aircraft to contact the carrier operating the flight for information about its requirements for use of such devices in the cabin, or provide such information on behalf of the codeshare carrier operating the flight.
(h)(1) As a U.S. or foreign carrier subject to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, you must inform any individual who has advised you that he or she plans to operate his/her device in the aircraft cabin, within 48 hours of his/her making a reservation or 24 hours before the scheduled departure date of his/her flight, whichever date is earlier, of the expected maximum flight duration of each segment of his/her flight itinerary.
(2) You may require an individual to bring an adequate number of fully charged batteries onboard, based on the battery manufacturer's estimate of the hours of battery life while the device is in use and the information provided in the physician's statement, to power the device for not less than 150% of the expected maximum flight duration.
(3) If an individual does not comply with the conditions for acceptance of a medical portable electronic device as outlined in this section, you may deny boarding to the individual in accordance with § 382.19(c) and in that event you must provide a written explanation to the individual in accordance with § 382.19(d).
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |