Page Range | 76271-76491 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 76491 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to Sudan | |
81 FR 76487 - National Diabetes Month, 2016 | |
81 FR 76485 - National College Application Month, 2016 | |
81 FR 76483 - Delegation of Authority Pursuant to Sections 5, 6(a) and 6(c), and 8(a) of the Global Food Security Act of 2016 | |
81 FR 76347 - Deletion of Items From Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 76383 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 76358 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 76362 - Science Board to the Food and Drug Administration Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 76403 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Order Granting Approval of Proposed Rule Change Amending Section 907.00 of the NYSE Listed Company Manual To Adjust the Timing of Entitlements to Complimentary Products and Services for Special Purpose Acquisition Companies | |
81 FR 76365 - Organization and Functional Statement; Part GFG; California Area Office; Proposed Functional Statement | |
81 FR 76348 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 76408 - Overseas Security Advisory Council (OSAC) Meeting Notice; Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 76379 - Georgia; Amendment No. 5 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76378 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 9 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76348 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10299-WestBridge Bank and Trust Company, Chesterfield, Missouri | |
81 FR 76347 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10345-Habersham Bank, Clarksville, Georgia | |
81 FR 76347 - Notice of Termination; 10499-Columbia Savings Bank, Cincinnati, Ohio | |
81 FR 76379 - Kentucky; Amendment No. 1 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76376 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 3 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76379 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 4 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76377 - Kansas; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 76378 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 5 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76377 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 6 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76331 - Foreign-Trade Zone 134-Chattanooga, Tennessee Application for Subzone Wacker Polysilicon North America LLC Charleston, Tennessee | |
81 FR 76376 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 7 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76377 - North Carolina; Amendment No. 8 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 76348 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 76332 - Countervailing Duty Investigation of Ammonium Sulfate From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Determination | |
81 FR 76408 - Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, U.S. Department of State Procedures for the Receipt of Written Communications Regarding Decisions That Have Been Issued by the Department of Transportation That Are Subject to Approval by the President Under 49 U.S.C. 41307 | |
81 FR 76385 - Improving the Management and Use of Government Aircraft | |
81 FR 76414 - Notice of Open Public Hearing | |
81 FR 76393 - Biweekly Notice; Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations; Correction | |
81 FR 76381 - Notice of Amended Proposed Withdrawal and Notice of Public Meetings; Oregon; Correction | |
81 FR 76288 - Supplemental Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Department of the Interior | |
81 FR 76392 - Combined License Application for Turkey Point Nuclear Plant, Units 6 and 7 | |
81 FR 76373 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 76407 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
81 FR 76367 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 76367 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 76368 - Proposed Collection; 60-Day Comment Request; Public Health Service Applications and Pre-Award Reporting Requirements (Office of the Director) | |
81 FR 76371 - Proposed Collection; 60-Day Comment Request; Post-Award Reporting Requirements Including Research Performance Progress Report Collection (Office of the Director) | |
81 FR 76370 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request, National Institutes of Health Electronic Application System for Certificates of Confidentiality | |
81 FR 76342 - SociVolta Inc.; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 76344 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 76343 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 76341 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 76331 - Agenda and Notice of Public Meeting of the New Mexico Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 76410 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Request for Comments for New Information Collection | |
81 FR 76409 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; William Daley | |
81 FR 76409 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received | |
81 FR 76307 - Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS)/TRICARE: Refills of Maintenance Medications Through Military Treatment Facility Pharmacies or National Mail Order Pharmacy Program | |
81 FR 76384 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Amended Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act | |
81 FR 76375 - Current List of HHS-Certified Laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities Which Meet Minimum Standards To Engage in Urine Drug Testing for Federal Agencies | |
81 FR 76333 - Market Risk Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 76345 - Order on Intent To Revoke Market-Based Rate Authority | |
81 FR 76344 - Louisiana Public Service Commission and the Council for the City of New Orleans v. Entergy Services, Inc.; Notice of Compliance Filing | |
81 FR 76346 - National Fuel Gas Supply Corporation; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 76342 - Texas Eastern Transmission, LP; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Bayway Lateral Project | |
81 FR 76271 - Executive Branch Ethics Program Amendments | |
81 FR 76333 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Practice by Former Members and Employees of the Commission | |
81 FR 76325 - DoD Identity Management | |
81 FR 76383 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection, eComments Requested; Extension Without Change of a Previously Approved Collection, Application for Permit To Import Controlled Substances for Domestic and/or Scientific Purposes | |
81 FR 76411 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
81 FR 76340 - Secretary of Energy Advisory Board | |
81 FR 76393 - Product Change-Priority Mail and Parcel Select Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 76364 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program Core Medical Services Waiver Application Requirements | |
81 FR 76323 - Reference Amount Customarily Consumed for Flavored Nut Butter Spreads and Products That Can Be Used To Fill Cupcakes and Other Desserts, in the Labeling of Human Food Products; Request for Information and Comments | |
81 FR 76360 - Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions; Draft Revised Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 76400 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of Shares of SolidX Bitcoin Trust Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.201 | |
81 FR 76400 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change Relating to a Change to the Underlying Index for the PowerShares Build America Bond Portfolio | |
81 FR 76393 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Exchange Rule 11.26 To Correct Defective Numbering in the Interpretations and Policies of the Rule | |
81 FR 76363 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request | |
81 FR 76395 - NF Investment Corp., et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 76384 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection; eComments Requested; Assessing the Potential Monetized Benefits of Captioning Web Content for Individuals Who Are Deaf or Hard of Hearing | |
81 FR 76359 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry on Hypertension Indication: Drug Labeling for Cardiovascular Outcome Claims | |
81 FR 76361 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Human Tissue Intended for Transplantation | |
81 FR 76382 - Certain Access Control Systems and Components Thereof; Commission Determination Not To Review an Initial Determination Granting Complainant's Motion To Amend the Complaint and Notice of Investigation | |
81 FR 76357 - Information Collection; Reporting Purchases From Sources Outside the United States | |
81 FR 76406 - North Carolina Disaster Number NC-00081 | |
81 FR 76406 - Florida Disaster Number FL-00121 | |
81 FR 76406 - South Carolina Disaster Number SC-00040 | |
81 FR 76406 - Georgia Disaster Number GA-00081 | |
81 FR 76412 - U.S. Merchant Marine Academy Board of Visitors Meeting | |
81 FR 76372 - Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing | |
81 FR 76373 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 76374 - National Institute of Allergy And Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 76374 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute Of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 76370 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 76381 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments; Relating to the Public Interest | |
81 FR 76412 - Michelin North America, Inc., Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
81 FR 76414 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee: Correction | |
81 FR 76334 - Announcement of Requirements and Registration for the EdSim Challenge | |
81 FR 76311 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Adding Ten Species and Updating Five Species on the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife | |
81 FR 76315 - Revisions to Indexing Policies and Page 700 of FERC Form No. 6 | |
81 FR 76300 - Reporting of Data for Mishandled Baggage and Wheelchairs and Scooters Transported in Aircraft Cargo Compartments | |
81 FR 76446 - Family Violence Prevention and Services Programs | |
81 FR 76306 - Various National Indian Gaming Commission Regulations | |
81 FR 76291 - Technical and Conforming Changes and Corrections to FHFA Regulations | |
81 FR 76380 - Golden Eagles; Programmatic Take Permit Decision; Finding of No Significant Impact for Final Environmental Assessment; Alta East Wind Project, Kern County, California | |
81 FR 76416 - Technological Modernization |
In the printed version of the
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
Indian Health Service
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Land Management Bureau
National Indian Gaming Commission
Foreign Claims Settlement Commission
Federal Procurement Policy Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Maritime Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Office of Government Ethics (OGE).
Final rule.
The U.S. Office of Government Ethics is issuing a final rule amending the regulation that sets forth the elements and procedures of the executive branch ethics program. This comprehensive revision is informed by the experience gained over the last several decades administering the program, and was developed in consultation with agency ethics officials, the federal inspector general community, the Office of Personnel Management, and the Department of Justice. The final rule defines and describes the executive branch ethics program, delineates the responsibilities of various stakeholders, and enumerates key executive branch ethics procedures.
This final rule is effective January 1, 2017.
Monica Ashar, Assistant Counsel, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917; Telephone: (202) 482-9300; TTY: (800) 877-8339; FAX: (202) 482-9237.
The U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) published a proposed rule in the
These amendments, which are described in the preamble to the proposed rule, draw upon the collective experience of agency ethics officials across the executive branch and OGE as the supervising ethics office. They reflect extensive input from the executive branch ethics community and the inspector general community, as well as OGE's consultation with the Department of Justice (DOJ) and the Office of Personnel Management pursuant to 5 U.S.C. app. 402(b)(1). In short, they present a comprehensive picture of the executive branch ethics program, its responsibilities and its procedures, as reflected through nearly 40 years of interpreting and implementing the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended (the Act), as well as other applicable statutes, regulations, Executive orders, and authorities.
The proposed rule provided a 60-day comment period, which ended on August 5, 2016. OGE received one set of timely and responsive comments, which were submitted by an individual. OGE also received one set of timely comments from an executive branch agency, but the agency withdrew its comments prior to the deadline. After carefully considering the individual's comments and making appropriate modifications, and for the reasons set forth below and in the preamble to the proposed rule, OGE is publishing this final rule.
OGE plans to issue several pieces of guidance to the executive branch ethics community in order to provide assistance and instruction regarding the implementation of these amendments. Additionally, OGE Desk Officers are available to answer questions from their respective agencies.
As noted above, OGE received one set of comments on the proposed rule. In several instances, the commenter proposed minor, largely technical changes in wording. These proposed changes pertained to §§ 2638.107(g) and (h) (adding the words “payment for” before “travel”), 2638.202 (deleting the citation to section 402 of the Act), and 2638.204 (adding the words “filed with or” before “transmitted”). For various reasons, OGE has not adopted these recommendations. OGE did, however, adopt the commenter's recommendation at § 2638.207(a) to change “the” agency to “an” agency. The more substantive changes proposed by the commenter are discussed in further detail below.
Additionally, as described below, OGE is making several technical changes to provisions involving Inspectors General. OGE is making these changes based on its continuing collaboration with the federal inspector general community and with the Council of the Inspectors General on Integrity and Efficiency (CIGIE), of which the Director of OGE (Director) is a statutory member. OGE has taken into consideration the views of CIGIE, as expressed both in CIGIE meetings and in various communications with individual members of CIGIE and CIGIE's leadership. OGE believes the changes will increase the effectiveness of its ongoing coordination with CIGIE. These changes are intended to align the regulation more closely with the Act and the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended (the Inspector General Act).
Section 2638.101 sets forth the mission of the executive branch ethics program, which is to prevent conflicts of interest on the part of executive branch employees. The one commenter recommended revising the second sentence of § 2638.101(b), which describes the sources of potential conflicts of interest, so as to make the language clearer and to broaden the discussion of the mission to reference helping employees uphold their ethical responsibilities. Although OGE has revised this language for clarity consistent with the general aim of this comment, OGE has not adopted the specific recommendation to reference assistance to employees. Section 2638.101 is intended to articulate overarching, program-level principles, rather than focus on assisting employees individually.
OGE made several technical changes to § 2638.106, which describes the
Section 2638.206 establishes the requirement to provide the Director with notice of referrals made to DOJ regarding potential violations of criminal conflict of interest laws. OGE made several technical changes to this section to delete references to “agencies” in order to avoid potential confusion as to the appropriate channel for making required notifications. OGE sought neither to limit the independence of Inspectors General nor to exclude them from this regulatory requirement. OGE is, however, sensitive to general concerns about Inspector General independence and has eliminated the reference to “agencies” as a prophylactic measure to avoid creating any perception that Inspectors General would need to act in concert with various agency offices when filing the required notifications. Additionally, the one commenter suggested deleting the citation to section 402 of the Act from the undesignated paragraph of § 2638.206. As a result of the technical changes described above, the citation has been removed.
Related technical changes include deleting from § 2638.206(a) the 30-day deadline by which the Director must be notified of a referral to DOJ. This change aligns the regulation with the statutory language of 5 U.S.C. app. 402(e)(2), which requires notification “upon referral.” Accordingly, OGE also deleted the corresponding reference to the 30-day deadline from § 2638.604(n). Other technical changes include deleting the language at § 2638.206(b), which required the referring agency to provide the Director with certain information, because the provision was redundant of § 2638.202, “furnishing records and information generally.” In its place, OGE has added language committing that it will obtain the concurrence of CIGIE's Chairperson before implementing substantive changes to the OGE Form 202. With this self-imposed requirement, OGE is choosing to institutionalize its current collaboration with CIGIE as to the processes and procedures related to referrals to DOJ for prosecution. This language is not intended to require formal action other than agreement between OGE's Director and CIGIE's Chairperson. Further, concurrence would not be required when merely updating references to telephone numbers, email addresses, or similarly non-substantive information contained in the form. Finally, OGE deleted the language in § 2638.206(c) that recommended that an Inspector General, when making a covered referral to DOJ, provide the DAEO with copies of documents that are also provided to the Director. Because this provision offered only a recommendation, and would not have established a binding requirement, OGE found this language superfluous. The deletion of this language would not prevent an Inspector General from providing a DAEO with copies of documents, unless such disclosure were prohibited by law, and there may in fact be instances when OGE would encourage such sharing of documents in order to ensure that appropriate corrective action is taken.
Section 2638.209 sets forth the procedures for OGE's formal advisory opinion service, including the criteria that the Director will consider when determining whether to issue a formal advisory opinion. The sole commenter suggested replacing the fifth criterion, “the interests of the executive branch ethics program” at § 2638.209(b)(5), with “the importance of the question to upholding the ethics responsibilities of employees, as listed in § 2638.102.” OGE has not adopted this recommendation. The fifth criterion could already reasonably encompass the standard the commenter proposed. As currently drafted, the fifth criterion has the advantage of supplementing the first four criteria, which are unchanged from the prior regulation.
Section 2638.302 contains the definitions for the two training formats prescribed in subpart C. Regarding the definition of “live training” at § 2638.302(a), which requires that “the presenter personally communicate[] a substantial portion of the material at the same time as the employees being trained are receiving [it],” the sole commenter requested additional guidance on the minimum for satisfying the “substantial portion” criteria. He cites example 5, in which OGE demonstrates that the “substantial portion” standard can be been met with at least a 20-minute discussion following a 40-minute video. Although the 40-minute video or other non-live material alone would not satisfy this criterion, coupling the non-live material with at least a 20-minute phone call would bring the training into compliance with the minimum standard. Further, the phone call and the video presentation are not required to occur on the same day. Although OGE did not adopt the commenter's recommendation, OGE emphasizes that the default, as illustrated in examples 1 through 4, will be for the presenter to personally communicate the material for the full duration or nearly the full duration of the training, except when to do so is impracticable.
Section 2638.304 sets forth the requirements for administering initial ethics training to new agency employees. The sole commenter observed that the deadlines for completion at § 2638.304(b) and (b)(1) are expressed in months, while the deadline at § 2638.304(a)(2)(iii) is expressed in days. He suggested that the deadlines in this section should be expressed consistently. In response, OGE is making the deadlines consistent by changing the deadline at § 2638.304(a)(2)(iii) from 90 days to 3 months. OGE selected 3 months rather than 90 days because a 3-month deadline would allow agencies to offer initial ethics training four times a year, whereas four 90-day periods would fall slightly short of a full year. The commenter also addressed the 60-day period pertaining to special Government employees at § 2638.304(b)(2), mistakenly characterizing it as a deadline. The 60-day period tracks provisions in the Act, 5 U.S.C. app. 101(d), and in criminal conflict of interest statutes, 18 U.S.C. 203 and 205, that modify certain requirements for employees who serve no more than 60 days in a year. OGE has not adopted the recommendation, which was based on an incorrect reading of the proposed rule. In considering this comment, however, OGE identified an error in its proposed language and made a technical correction at § 2638.304(b)(2), changing “less than 60 days” to “no more than 60 days” so as to conform to the statutory time frame. OGE also made the same technical correction at § 2638.305(b)(2)(ii).
OGE made a similar technical correction at § 2638.305(a) to remedy an inconsistency. In the proposed rule, OGE stated that this section, with some exceptions, “applies to public filers who are Senate-confirmed Presidential nominees and appointees.” At the same time, § 2638.305(b)(2)(ii) prescribes procedures for certain special Government employees who are “expected to serve for less than 60 days in a calendar year.” Because these individuals are not public filers, OGE deleted the words “public filers who are” in § 2638.305(a).
Subpart E implements the limited authority of the Director to take certain actions against individual employees. The commenter challenged the authority of Inspectors General to investigate matters within DOJ's authority and recommended deleting language in §§ 2638.501 and 2638.502 authorizing referrals to Inspectors General. OGE has not adopted this recommendation. As noted above, OGE consulted with DOJ prior to submitting the proposed rule for publication, and DOJ did not object to this provision.
Section 2638.504 contains the procedures that OGE may use when the Director has reason to believe that an executive branch employee is violating or has violated a noncriminal government ethics law or regulation. OGE made two technical changes to this section. First, in § 2638.504(a), OGE is clarifying that, consistent with 5 U.S.C. app. 402(f)(2)(A)(ii)(II), the Presidential notification procedure is triggered only in connection with investigations to be initiated by agency heads. Second, in § 2638.504(b), OGE is clarifying that OGE may close only its own involvement in the matter. This provision was not intended to suggest that any other office would necessarily close its involvement.
The sole commenter also raised a question regarding the definition of disciplinary action at § 2638.603 with respect to military officers. He asserted that the phrase “comparable provisions may include those in the Uniform Code of Military Justice” was “overly vague and largely beside the point.” In response to this comment and to avoid any confusion, OGE has deleted examples of disciplinary actions, as well as examples of provisions that may apply to employees who are not subject to title 5 of the United States Code. Because agencies interpret the authority under which they administer disciplinary actions, as well as determine specific disciplinary actions, OGE does not want this provision to be misconstrued as seeking to limit the authority of agencies.
As noted above in the discussion of § 2638.206(a), OGE has also deleted the language of § 2638.604(n) in the proposed regulation, which reiterated a deadline that has since been removed. As a result, OGE has also renumbered the subsequent paragraphs.
As Director of the Office of Government Ethics, I certify under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) that this final rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it primarily affects current and former federal executive branch employees.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) does not apply because this regulation does not contain information collection requirements that require approval of the Office of Management and Budget.
For purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. chapter 5, subchapter II), this final rule would not significantly or uniquely affect small governments and will not result in increased expenditures by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (as adjusted for inflation) in any one year.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select the regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rulemaking has been designated as a “significant regulatory action” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this final rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
As Director of the Office of Government Ethics, I have reviewed this final rule in light of section 3 of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, and certify that it meets the applicable standards provided therein.
Administrative practice and procedure, Conflict of interests, Government employees, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
5 U.S.C. App. 101-505; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.
(a)
(b)
(c)
Consistent with the fundamental principle that public service is a public trust, every employee in the executive branch plays a critical role in the executive branch ethics program. As provided in the Standards of Conduct at part 2635 of this chapter, employees must endeavor to act at all times in the public's interest, avoid losing impartiality or appearing to lose impartiality in carrying out official duties, refrain from misusing their offices for private gain, serve as good stewards of public resources, and comply with the requirements of government ethics laws and regulations, including any applicable financial disclosure requirements. Employees must refrain from participating in particular matters in which they have financial interests and, pursuant to § 2635.402(f) of this chapter, should notify their supervisors or ethics officials when their official duties create the substantial likelihood of such conflicts of interest. Collectively, the charge of employees is to make ethical conduct the hallmark of government service.
Every supervisor in the executive branch has a heightened personal responsibility for advancing government ethics. It is imperative that supervisors serve as models of ethical behavior for subordinates. Supervisors have a responsibility to help ensure that subordinates are aware of their ethical obligations under the Standards of Conduct and that subordinates know how to contact agency ethics officials. Supervisors are also responsible for working with agency ethics officials to help resolve conflicts of interest and enforce government ethics laws and regulations, including those requiring certain employees to file financial disclosure reports. In addition, supervisors are responsible, when requested, for assisting agency ethics officials in evaluating potential conflicts of interest and identifying positions subject to financial disclosure requirements.
(a)
(b)
(1) The DAEO must be an employee at an appropriate level in the organization, such that the DAEO is able to coordinate effectively with officials in relevant agency components and gain access to the agency head when necessary to discuss important matters related to the agency's ethics program.
(2) The DAEO must be an employee who has demonstrated the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to manage a significant agency program, to understand and apply complex legal requirements, and to generate support for building and sustaining an ethical culture in the organization.
(3) On an ongoing basis, the DAEO must demonstrate the capacity to serve as an effective advocate for the executive branch ethics program, show support for the mission of the executive branch ethics program, prove responsive to the Director's requests for documents and information related to the ethics program, and serve as an effective liaison with the Office of Government Ethics.
(4) In any agency with 1,000 or more employees, any DAEO appointed after the effective date of this regulation must be an employee at the senior executive level or higher, unless the agency has fewer than 10 positions at that level.
(c)
(1) Serving as an effective liaison to the Office of Government Ethics;
(2) Maintaining records of agency ethics program activities;
(3) Promptly and timely furnishing the Office of Government Ethics with all documents and information requested or required under subpart B of this part;
(4) Providing advice and counseling to prospective and current employees regarding government ethics laws and regulations, and providing former employees with advice and counseling regarding post-employment restrictions applicable to them;
(5) Carrying out an effective government ethics education program under subpart C of this part;
(6) Taking appropriate action to resolve conflicts of interest and the appearance of conflicts of interest, through recusals, directed divestitures, waivers, authorizations, reassignments, and other appropriate means;
(7) Consistent with § 2640.303 of this chapter, consulting with the Office of Government Ethics regarding the issuance of waivers pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b);
(8) Carrying out an effective financial disclosure program, by:
(i) Establishing such written procedures as are appropriate relative to
(ii) Requiring public and confidential filers to comply with deadlines and requirements for financial disclosure reports under part 2634 of this chapter and, in the event of noncompliance, taking appropriate action to address such noncompliance;
(iii) Imposing late fees in appropriate cases involving untimely filing of public financial disclosure reports;
(iv) Making referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice in appropriate cases involving knowing and willful falsification of financial disclosure reports or knowing and willful failure to file financial disclosure reports;
(v) Reviewing financial disclosure reports, with an emphasis on preventing conflicts of interest;
(vi) Consulting, when necessary, with financial disclosure filers and their supervisors to evaluate potential conflicts of interest;
(vii) Timely certifying financial disclosure reports and taking appropriate action with regard to financial disclosure reports that cannot be certified; and
(viii) Using the information disclosed in financial disclosure reports to prevent and resolve potential conflicts of interest.
(9) Assisting the agency in its enforcement of ethics laws and regulations when agency officials:
(i) Make appropriate referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice;
(ii) Take disciplinary or corrective action; and
(iii) Employ other means available to them.
(10) Upon request of the Office of Inspector General, providing that office with ready and active assistance with regard to the interpretation and application of government ethics laws and regulations, as well as the procedural requirements of the ethics program;
(11) Ensuring that the agency has a process for notifying the Office of Government Ethics upon referral, made pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 535, to the Department of Justice regarding a potential violation of a conflict of interest law, unless such notification would be prohibited by law;
(12) Providing agency officials with advice on the applicability of government ethics laws and regulations to special Government employees;
(13) Requiring timely compliance with ethics agreements, pursuant to part 2634, subpart H of this chapter;
(14) Conducting ethics briefings for certain agency leaders, pursuant to § 2638.305;
(15) Prior to any Presidential election, preparing the agency's ethics program for a potential Presidential transition; and
(16) Periodically evaluating the agency's ethics program and making recommendations to the agency regarding the resources available to the ethics program.
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Request approval of supplemental agency regulations, pursuant to § 2635.105 of this chapter;
(2) Recommend a separate component designation, pursuant to § 2641.302(e) of this chapter;
(3) Request approval of an alternative means for collecting certain public financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2638.204(c);
(4) Request determinations regarding public reporting requirements, pursuant to §§ 2634.202(c), 2634.203, 2634.205, and 2634.304(f) of this chapter;
(5) Make determinations, other than exceptions in individual cases, regarding the means the agency will use to collect public or confidential financial disclosure reports, pursuant to §§ 2638.204 and 2638.205;
(6) Request an alternative procedure for filing confidential financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2634.905(a) of this chapter;
(7) Request a formal advisory opinion on behalf of the agency or a prospective, current, or former employee of that agency, pursuant to § 2638.209(d); and
(8) Request a certificate of divestiture, pursuant to § 2634.1005(b) of this chapter.
(a) The lead human resources official, as defined in § 2638.603, acting directly or through delegees, is responsible for:
(1) Promptly notifying the DAEO of all appointments to positions that require incumbents to file public or confidential financial disclosure reports, with the notification occurring prior to appointment whenever practicable but in no case occurring more than 15 days after appointment; and
(2) Promptly notifying the DAEO of terminations of employees in positions that require incumbents to file public financial disclosure reports, with the notification occurring prior to termination whenever practicable but in no case occurring more than 15 days after termination.
(b) The lead human resources official may be assigned certain additional ethics responsibilities by the agency.
(1) If an agency elects to assign such responsibilities to human resources officials, the lead human resources official is responsible for coordinating, to the extent necessary and practicable, with the DAEO to support the agency's ethics program;
(2) If the lead human resources official is responsible for conducting ethics training pursuant to subpart C of this part, that official must follow the DAEO's directions regarding applicable requirements, procedures, and the qualifications of any presenters, consistent with the requirements of this chapter;
(3) If the lead human resources official is responsible for issuing the required government ethics notices in written offers of employment, pursuant to § 2638.303, or providing supervisory ethics notices, pursuant to § 2638.306, that official must comply with any substantive and procedural requirements established by the DAEO, consistent with the requirements of this chapter; and
(4) To the extent applicable, the lead human resources official is required to provide the DAEO with a written summary and confirmation regarding procedures for implementing certain requirements of subpart C of this part by January 15 each year, pursuant to § 2638.310.
(c) Nothing in this section prevents an agency head from delegating the duties described in paragraph (b) of this section to another agency official. In the event that an agency head delegates the duties described in paragraph (b) of this section to an agency official other than the lead human resources official, the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will apply to that official.
An agency's Inspector General has authority to conduct investigations of suspected violations of conflict of interest laws and other government ethics laws and regulations. An Inspector General is responsible for giving due consideration to a request made pursuant to section 403 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (the “Act”) by the Office of Government Ethics for investigation of a possible violation of a government ethics law or regulation. Inspectors General provide the Office of Government Ethics notification of certain referrals to the Department of Justice, pursuant to § 2638.206. Inspectors General may consult with the Director for legal guidance on the application of government ethics laws and regulations, except that the Director may not make any finding as to whether a provision of title 18, United States Code, or any criminal law of the United States outside of such title, has been or is being violated. Nothing in this section will be construed to limit or otherwise affect the authority of an Inspector General under section 6 of the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, including the authority under section 6(a)(2) to make such investigations and reports relating to the administration of the programs and operations of the applicable establishment as are, in the judgment of the Inspector General, necessary or desirable.
The agency head is responsible for, and will exercise personal leadership in, establishing and maintaining an effective agency ethics program and fostering an ethical culture in the agency. The agency head is also responsible for:
(a) Designating employees to serve as the DAEO and ADAEO and notifying the Director in writing within 30 days of such designation;
(b) Providing the DAEO with sufficient resources, including staffing, to sustain an effective ethics program;
(c) Requiring agency officials to provide the DAEO with the information, support, and cooperation necessary for the accomplishment of the DAEO's responsibilities;
(d) When action is warranted, enforcing government ethics laws and regulations through appropriate referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice, investigations, and disciplinary or corrective action;
(e) Requiring that violations of government ethics laws and regulations, or interference with the functioning of the agency ethics program, be appropriately considered in evaluating the performance of senior executives;
(f) Requiring the Chief Information Officer and other appropriate agency officials to support the DAEO in using technology, to the extent practicable, to carry out ethics program functions such as delivering interactive training and tracking ethics program activities;
(g) Requiring appropriate agency officials to submit to the Office of Government Ethics, by May 31 each year, required reports of travel accepted by the agency under 31 U.S.C. 1353 during the period from October 1 through March 31;
(h) Requiring appropriate agency officials to submit to the Office of Government Ethics, by November 30 each year, required reports of travel accepted by the agency under 31 U.S.C. 1353 during the period from April 1 through September 30; and
(i) Prior to any Presidential election, supporting the agency's ethics program in preparing for a Presidential transition.
The Office of Government Ethics is the supervising ethics office for the executive branch, providing overall leadership and oversight of the executive branch ethics program designed to prevent and resolve conflicts of interest. The Office of Government Ethics has the authorities and functions established in the Act.
(a)
(1) The Office of Government Ethics issues regulations regarding conflicts of interest, standards of conduct, financial disclosure, requirements for agency ethics programs, and executive branch-wide systems of records for government ethics records. In issuing any such regulations, the Office of Government Ethics will, to the full extent required under the Act and any Executive order, coordinate with the Department of Justice and the Office of Personnel Management. When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics will also consult with a diverse group of selected agency ethics officials that represents a cross section of executive branch agencies to ascertain representative views of the DAEO community when developing substantive revisions to this chapter.
(2) The Office of Government Ethics reviews and approves or disapproves agency supplemental ethics regulations.
(3) The Office of Government Ethics issues formal advisory opinions to interested parties, pursuant to § 2638.209. When developing a formal advisory opinion, the Office of Government Ethics will provide interested parties with an opportunity to comment.
(4) The Office of Government Ethics issues guidance and informal advisory opinions, pursuant to § 2638.208. When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics will consult with selected agency ethics officials to ascertain representative views of the DAEO community when developing guidance or informal advisory opinions that the Director determines to be of significant interest to a broad segment of the DAEO community.
(5) The Office of Government Ethics supports agency ethics officials through such training, advice, and counseling as the Director deems necessary.
(6) The Office of Government Ethics provides assistance in interpreting government ethics laws and regulations to executive branch Offices of Inspector General and other executive branch entities.
(7) When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics convenes quarterly executive branch-wide meetings of key agency ethics officials. When the Office of Government Ethics convenes a major executive branch-wide training event, the event normally serves in place of a quarterly meeting.
(8) Pursuant to sections 402(b)(10) and 403 of the Act, the Director requires agencies to furnish the Office of Government Ethics with all information, reports, and records which the Director determines to be necessary for the performance of the Director's duties, except when such a release is prohibited by law.
(9) The Office of Government Ethics conducts reviews of agency ethics programs in order to ensure their compliance with program requirements and to ensure their effectiveness in advancing the mission of the executive branch-wide ethics program. The Office of Government Ethics also conducts single-issue reviews of individual agencies, groups of agencies, or the executive branch ethics program as a whole.
(10) The Office of Government Ethics reviews financial disclosure reports filed by employees, former employees, nominees, candidates for the Office of the President of the United States, and candidates for the Office of the Vice President of the United States who are required to file executive branch financial disclosure reports with the Office of Government Ethics pursuant to sections 101, 103(c), and 103(l) of the Act.
(11) By January 15 each year, the Office of Government Ethics issues year-end reports to agencies regarding their compliance with the obligations, pursuant to section 103(c) of the Act and part 2634 of this chapter:
(i) To timely transmit the annual public financial disclosure reports of certain high-level officials to the Office of Government Ethics; and
(ii) To promptly submit such additional information as is necessary to obtain the Director's certification of the reports.
(12) The Office of Government Ethics oversees the development of ethics agreements between agencies and Presidential nominees for positions in the executive branch requiring Senate confirmation and tracks compliance with such agreements. The Office of Government Ethics also maintains a guide that provides sample language for ethics agreements of Presidential nominees requiring Senate confirmation.
(13) The Office of Government Ethics proactively assists Presidential Transition Teams in support of effective and efficient Presidential transitions and, to the extent practicable, may provide Presidential campaigns with advice and counsel on preparing for Presidential transitions.
(14) The Office of Government Ethics orders such corrective action on the part of an agency as the Director deems necessary, pursuant to subpart D of this part, and such corrective action on the part of individual executive branch employees as the Director deems necessary, pursuant to subpart E of this part.
(15) The Office of Government Ethics makes determinations regarding public financial disclosure requirements, pursuant to §§ 2634.202(c), 2634.203, 2634.205, and 2634.304(f) of this chapter.
(16) The Office of Government Ethics conducts outreach to inform the public of matters related to the executive branch ethics program.
(17) The Director and the Office of Government Ethics take such other actions as are necessary and appropriate to carry out their responsibilities under the Act.
(b)
This subpart establishes certain procedures of the executive branch ethics program. The procedures set forth in this subpart are in addition to procedures established elsewhere in this chapter and in the program advisories and other issuances of the Office of Government Ethics.
Consistent with sections 402 and 403 of the Act, each agency must furnish to the Director all information and records in its possession which the Director deems necessary to the performance of the Director's duties, except to the extent prohibited by law. All such information and records must be provided to the Office of Government Ethics in a complete and timely manner.
The public financial disclosure reports of individuals, other than candidates for elected office and elected officials, whose reports are required by section 103 of the Act to be transmitted to the Office of Government Ethics will be transmitted through the executive branch-wide electronic filing system of the Office of Government Ethics, except in cases in which the Director determines that using that system would be impracticable.
This section establishes the procedure that the executive branch ethics program will use to collect, pursuant to section 101 of the Act, public financial disclosure reports of individuals whose reports are not required by section 103 of the Act to be transmitted to the Office of Government Ethics.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
This section establishes the procedure that the executive branch will use to collect confidential financial disclosure reports from employees of the executive branch. To the extent not inconsistent with part 2634 of this chapter or with the approved forms, instructions, and other guidance of the Office of Government Ethics, the DAEO of each agency will determine the means by which the agency will collect confidential financial disclosure reports, including a determination as to whether the agency will collect such reports in either paper or electronic format. Nothing in this paragraph limits the authority of the agency to provide reasonable accommodations under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112), as amended, or other applicable legal authority.
This section establishes the requirement to provide the Director with notice of certain referrals.
(a) Upon any referral made pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 535 to the Department of Justice regarding a potential violation of a conflict of interest law, the referring office must notify the Director of the referral by filing a completed OGE Form 202 with the Director, unless prohibited by law.
(b) In order to ensure effective coordination of this section, the Office of Government Ethics will obtain the concurrence of the Chairperson of the Council of the Inspectors General on Integrity and Efficiency before implementing substantive changes to the OGE Form 202.
(c) If an agency's procedures authorize an official outside the Office of Inspector General to make a referral covered by this section, that official must provide the Inspector General and the DAEO with copies of documents provided to the Director pursuant this section, unless prohibited by law.
(a) By February 1 of each year, an agency must file with the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to section 402(e)(1) of the Act, a report containing such information about the agency's ethics program as is requested by the Office of Government Ethics. The report must be filed electronically and in a manner consistent with the instructions of the Office of Government Ethics.
(b) In order to facilitate the collection of required information by agencies, the Office of Government Ethics will provide agencies with advance notice regarding the contents of the report prior to the beginning of the reporting period for information that would be expected to be tracked over the course of the reporting period. Otherwise, it will provide as much notice as practicable, taking into consideration the effort required to collect the information.
This section describes several means by which the Office of Government Ethics provides agencies, employees, and the public with guidance regarding its legal interpretations, program requirements, and educational offerings. Normally, guidance documents are published on the official Web site of the Office of Government Ethics.
(a)
(b)
(c)
This section establishes the formal advisory opinion service of the Office of Government Ethics.
(a)
(b)
(1) The unique nature of the question and its precedential value;
(2) The potential number of employees throughout the government affected by the question;
(3) The frequency with which the question arises;
(4) The likelihood or presence of inconsistent interpretations on the same question by different agencies; and
(5) The interests of the executive branch ethics program.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) An express statement indicating that the submission is a request for a formal advisory opinion;
(2) The name, street address, and telephone number of the person requesting the opinion;
(3) The name, street address, and telephone number of any representative of that person;
(4) All material facts necessary for the Director to render a complete and correct opinion;
(5) The date of the request and the signature of either the requester or the requester's representative; and
(6) In the case of a request signed by a representative, a written designation of the representative that is dated and signed by the requester.
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(i) Any person directly involved in the specific transaction or activity with respect to which such advisory opinion has been rendered; and
(ii) Any person directly involved in any specific transaction or activity which is indistinguishable in all its material aspects from the transaction or activity with respect to which such formal advisory opinion was rendered.
(2) Any person who relies upon any provision or finding of any formal advisory opinion in accordance with this paragraph and who acts in good faith in accordance with the provisions and findings of such opinion will not, as a result of such act, be subject to prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 202-209 or, when the opinion is exculpatory, be subject to any disciplinary action or civil action based upon legal authority cited in that opinion.
Prior to any Presidential election, each agency has a responsibility to prepare its agency ethics program for a Presidential transition. Such preparations do not constitute support for a particular candidate and are not reflective of a belief regarding the likely outcome of the election; rather, they reflect an understanding that agencies are responsible for ensuring the continuity of governmental operations.
(a)
(b)
(1) Prior to the election, offer training opportunities for agency ethics officials on counseling departing noncareer appointees on post-employment restrictions, reviewing financial disclosure reports, drafting ethics agreements for Presidential nominees, and counseling new noncareer appointees on conflict of interest laws and the Standards of Conduct; and
(2) After the election, in the event of a Presidential transition, proactively assist the Presidential Transition Team in preparing for Presidential nominations, coordinate with agency ethics officials, and develop plans to implement new initiatives related to government ethics.
Every agency must carry out a government ethics education program to teach employees how to identify government ethics issues and obtain assistance in complying with government ethics laws and regulations. An agency's failure to comply with any
The following definitions apply to the format of the various types of training required in this subpart. The agency may deviate from these prescribed formats to the extent necessary to provide reasonable accommodations to participants under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112), as amended, or other applicable legal authority.
(a)
An agency ethics official provides a presentation regarding government ethics and takes questions from participants who are assembled in a training room with the ethics official. At the end of the session, the ethics official provides contact information for participants who wish to pose additional questions. This training is considered live.
An agency ethics official provides a presentation to a group of employees in an auditorium. She presents an introduction and a brief overview of the material that will be covered in the training. She has participants watch a prerecorded video regarding government ethics. She stops the video frequently to elaborate on key concepts and offer participants opportunities to pose questions before resuming the video. At the end of the session, she recaps key concepts and answers additional questions. She then provides contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions. This training is considered live.
The ethics official in Example 2 arranges for several Senate-confirmed public filers stationed outside of headquarters to participate in the live training via streaming video or telephone. For these remote participants, the ethics official also establishes a means for them to pose questions during the training, such as by emailing questions to her assistant. She also provides these remote participants with instructions for contacting the ethics office to pose additional questions after the training. This training is also considered live for the remote participants.
Agency ethics officials present training via a telephone conference. A few dozen agency employees dial into the conference call. The ethics officials take questions that are submitted by email and provide contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions later. This training is considered live.
Several Senate-confirmed public filers required to complete live training in a particular year are stationed at various facilities throughout the country. For these filers, an ethics official schedules a 20-minute conference call, emails them copies of the written materials and a link to a 40-minute video on government ethics, and instructs them to view the video before the conference call. During the conference call, the ethics official recaps key concepts, takes questions, and provides his contact information in case participants have additional questions. The public filers then confirm by email that they watched the video and participated in the conference call. This training is considered live because a substantial portion of the training was live.
(b)
An automated system allows employees to view a prerecorded video in which an agency ethics official provides training. At various points, the system poses questions and an employee selects from among a variety of possible answers. The system provides immediate feedback as to whether the selections are correct or incorrect. When the employee's selections are incorrect, the system displays the correct answer and explains the relevant concepts. This training is considered interactive.
If, instead of a video, the training described in Example 1 were to include animated or written materials interspersed with questions and answers, the training would still be considered interactive.
A DAEO emails materials to employees who are permitted under part 2638 to complete interactive training. The materials include a written training presentation, questions, and space for employees to provide written responses. Employees are instructed to submit their answers to agency ethics officials, who provide individualized feedback. This training is considered interactive.
A DAEO emails materials to employees who are permitted under part 2638 to complete interactive training. The materials include a written training presentation, questions, and an answer key. The DAEO also distributes instructions for contacting an ethics official with any questions about the subjects covered. This training meets the minimum requirements to be considered interactive, even though the employees are not required to submit their answers for review and feedback. However, any DAEO who uses this minimally interactive format is encouraged to provide employees with other opportunities for more direct and personalized feedback.
Written offers of employment for positions covered by the Standards of Conduct must include the information required in this section to provide prospective employees with notice of the ethical obligations associated with the positions.
(a) Content. The written offer must include, in either the body of the offer or an attachment:
(1) A statement regarding the agency's commitment to government ethics;
(2) Notice that the individual will be subject to the Standards of Conduct and the criminal conflict of interest statutes as an employee;
(3) Contact information for an appropriate agency ethics office or an explanation of how to obtain additional information on applicable ethics requirements;
(4) Where applicable, notice of the time frame for completing initial ethics training; and
(5) Where applicable, a statement regarding financial disclosure requirements and an explanation that new entrant reports must be filed within 30 days of appointment.
(b)
(c)
Each new employee of the agency subject to the Standards of Conduct must complete initial ethics training that meets the requirements of this section.
(a) Coverage. (1) This section applies to each employee appointed to a position in an agency who was not an employee of the agency immediately prior to that appointment. This section also permits Presidential nominees for Senate-confirmed positions to complete the initial ethics training prior to appointment.
(2) The DAEO may exclude a non-supervisory position at or below the
(i) The DAEO signs a written determination that the duties of the position do not create a substantial likelihood that conflicts of interest will arise;
(ii) The position does not meet the criteria set forth at § 2634.904 of this chapter; and
(iii) The agency provides an employee described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section who is appointed to the position with the written materials required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section within 3 months of appointment.
(b)
(1) In the case of a Presidential nominee for a Senate-confirmed position, the nominee may complete the ethics training before or after appointment, but not later than 3 months after appointment.
(2) In the case of a special Government employee who is reasonably expected to serve for no more than 60 days in a calendar year on a board, commission, or committee, the agency may provide the initial ethics training at any time before, or at the beginning of, the employee's first meeting of the board, commission, or committee.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1)
(i) Financial conflicts of interest;
(ii) Impartiality;
(iii) Misuse of position; and
(iv) Gifts.
(2)
(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;
(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;
(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and
(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.
(f)
The DAEO of a large agency decides that the agency's ethics officials will conduct live initial ethics training for high-level employees and certain procurement officials. The DAEO directs ethics officials to cover concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts during the live training sessions. She also coordinates with the agency's Chief Information Officer to develop computerized training for all other new employees, and she directs her staff to include concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts in the computerized training. The computerized training poses multiple-choice questions and provides feedback when employees answer the questions. At the DAEO's request, the agency's human resources officials distribute the required written materials as part of the onboarding procedures for new employees. The computerized training automatically tracks completion of the training, and the ethics officials use sign-in sheets to track participation in the live training. After the end of the calendar year, the DAEO reviews the materials submitted by the Office of Human Resources under § 2638.310 to confirm that the agency has implemented procedures for identifying new employees, distributing the written materials, and providing their initial ethics training. The agency's program for initial ethics training complies with the requirements of § 2638.304.
The agency head, the DAEO, and the lead human resources official of an agency with more than 1,000 employees have agreed that human resources officials will conduct initial ethics training. The DAEO provides the lead human resources official with written materials for use during the training, approves the content of the presentations, and trains the human resources officials who will conduct the initial ethics training. After the end of the calendar year, the lead human resources official provides the DAEO with a copy of the agency's procedures for identifying new employees and providing initial ethics training, and the lead human resources official confirms that there is a reasonable basis for concluding that the procedures have been implemented. The DAEO reviews these procedures and finds them satisfactory. The agency has complied with its tracking obligations with regard to initial ethics training.
In addition to other applicable requirements, each individual covered by this section must complete an ethics briefing to discuss the individual's immediate ethics obligations. Although the ethics briefing is separate from the initial ethics training, the agency may elect to combine the ethics briefing and the initial ethics training, provided that the requirements of both this section and § 2638.304 are met.
(a)
(b)
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each individual covered by this section must complete the ethics briefing after confirmation but not later than 15 days after appointment. The DAEO may grant an extension of the deadline not to exceed 30 days after appointment.
(2)(i) In extraordinary circumstances, the DAEO may grant an additional extension to an individual by issuing a written determination that an extension is necessary. The determination must describe the extraordinary circumstances necessitating the extension, caution the individual to be vigilant for conflicts of interest created by any newly acquired financial interests, remind the individual to comply with any applicable ethics agreement, and be accompanied by a copy of the ethics agreement(s). The DAEO must send a copy of the determination to the individual before expiration of the time period established in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The agency must conduct the briefing at the earliest practicable date thereafter. The written determination must be retained with the record of the individual's briefing.
(ii) In the case of a special Government employee who is expected to serve for no more than 60 days in a calendar year on a board, commission, or committee, the agency must provide the ethics briefing before the first meeting of the board, commission, or committee.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) If the individual acquired new financial interests reportable under section 102 of the Act after filing the nominee financial disclosure report, the agency ethics official must appropriately address the potential for conflicts of interest arising from those financial interests.
(2) The agency ethics official must counsel the individual on the basic recusal obligation under 18 U.S.C. 208(a).
(3) The agency ethics official must explain the recusal obligations and other commitments addressed in the individual's ethics agreement and ensure that the individual understands what is specifically required in order to comply with each of them, including any deadline for compliance. The ethics official and the individual must establish a process by which the recusals will be achieved, which may consist of a screening arrangement or, when the DAEO deems appropriate, vigilance on the part of the individual with regard to recusal obligations as they arise in particular matters.
(4) The agency ethics official must provide the individual with instructions and the deadline for completing initial ethics training, unless the individual completes the initial ethics training either before or during the ethics briefing.
(g)
A group of ethics officials conducts initial ethics training for six Senate-confirmed Presidential appointees within 15 days of their appointments. At the end of the training, ethics officials meet individually with each of the appointees to conduct their ethics briefings. The agency and the appointees have complied with both § 2638.304 and § 2638.305.
The Senate confirms a nominee for a position as an Assistant Secretary. After the nominee's confirmation but several days before her appointment, the nominee completes her initial ethics briefing during a telephone call with an agency ethics official, and the ethics official records the date of the briefing. The agency and the nominee have complied with § 2638.305. During the telephone call, the ethics official also discusses the content required for initial ethics training and provides the nominee with instructions for accessing the required written materials online. The agency and the nominee have also complied with § 2638.304.
The agency must provide each employee upon initial appointment to a supervisory position with the written information required under this section.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Each calendar year, employees covered by this section must complete ethics training that meets the following requirements.
(a)
(1) Each employee who is required to file an annual confidential financial disclosure report pursuant to § 2634.904 of this chapter during that calendar year, except an employee who ceases to be a confidential filer before the end of the calendar year;
(2) Employees appointed by the President and employees of the Executive Office of the President;
(3) Contracting officers described in 41 U.S.C. 2101; and
(4) Other employees designated by the head of the agency.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, employees covered by this section are required to complete interactive training.
(2) If the DAEO determines that it is impracticable to provide interactive training to a special Government employee covered by this section who is expected to work no more than 60 days in a calendar year, or to an employee who is an officer in the uniformed services serving on active duty for no more 30 consecutive days, only the requirement to provide the written materials required by this section will apply to that employee each year. The DAEO may make the determination as to individual employees or a group of employees.
(e)
(1)
(i) Financial conflicts of interest;
(ii) Impartiality;
(iii) Misuse of position; and
(iv) Gifts.
(2)
(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;
(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;
(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and
(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.
(f)
Each calendar year, public filers and other employees specified in this section must complete ethics training that meets the following requirements.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) Employees whose pay is set at Level I or Level II of the Executive Schedule must complete 1 hour of live training each year, unless a matter of vital national interest makes it necessary for an employee to complete interactive training in lieu of live training in a particular year.
(2) Other civilian employees identified in section 103(c) of the Act who are stationed in the United States must complete live training once every 2 years and interactive training in alternate years. In extraordinary circumstances, the DAEO may grant written authorization for an employee who is required to complete live training in a particular year to complete interactive training.
(3) All other employees covered by this section must complete interactive training.
(f)
(1)
(i) Financial conflicts of interest;
(ii) Impartiality;
(iii) Misuse of position; and
(iv) Gifts.
(2)
(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;
(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;
(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and
(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.
(g)
The DAEO of a small agency distributes the written materials for annual training by emailing a link to a Web site that contains the required materials. He then conducts a live training session for all of the agency's public filers. He spends the first 15 minutes of the training addressing concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts. Because several participants are published authors, he spends the next 15 minutes covering restrictions on compensation for speaking, teaching, and writing. He then spends 20 minutes discussing hypothetical examples related to the work of the agency and 10 minutes answering questions. The training meets the content requirements of this section. Further, because live training satisfies the requirements for interactive training, this training meets the formatting requirements for all public filers, including those required to complete interactive training.
An ethics official personally appears at each monthly senior staff meeting to conduct a 10-minute training session on government ethics. Across the year, he addresses concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, gifts, and other subjects related to government ethics laws and regulations, although no one session covers all of these subjects. During each meeting, he distributes a one-page handout summarizing the key points of his presentation, takes questions, and provides contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions. He records the names of the public filers in attendance at each meeting. Once a year, he emails them the required written materials, as well as the one-page summaries. While many of these public filers do not attend all 12 meetings, each attends at least six sessions during the calendar year. Although some of the filers missed the sessions that addressed gifts, they all received the handout summarizing the presentation on gifts. The training satisfies the annual training requirement for the public filers who attended the meetings, including those required to complete interactive training. Moreover, because the ethics official recorded the names of the public filers who attended, the filers are not required to separately confirm their completion of the training.
One of the Presidentially appointed, Senate-confirmed employees in Example 2 was required to complete live training that year. Because she attended only four senior staff meetings during the year, she completed only 40 minutes of annual ethics training. The DAEO allows the employee to spend 20 minutes reviewing the handouts and written materials and send an email confirming that she completed her review before the end of the calendar year. This arrangement satisfies the requirements for live annual training because a substantial portion of the training was live.
The DAEO may establish additional requirements for the agency's ethics education program, with or without a supplemental agency regulation under § 2635.105 of this chapter.
(a)
(b)
(c)
In an agency with 1,000 or more employees, any office that is not under the supervision of the DAEO but has been delegated responsibility for issuing notices, pursuant to § 2638.303 or § 2638.306, or conducting training, pursuant to § 2638.304, must submit the following materials to the DAEO by January 15 each year:
(a) A written summary of procedures that office has established to ensure compliance with this subpart; and
(b) Written confirmation that there is a reasonable basis for concluding that the procedures have been implemented.
The Office of Government Ethics has authority, pursuant to sections 402(b)(9) and 402(f)(1) of the Act, to take the action described in this subpart with respect to deficiencies in agency ethics programs. Agency ethics programs comprise the matters described in this subchapter for which agencies are responsible.
If the Director has information indicating that an agency ethics program is not compliant with the requirements set forth in applicable government ethics laws and regulations, the Director is authorized to take any or all of the measures described in this section. The Director may:
(a) Contact agency ethics officials informally to identify the relevant issues and resolve them expeditiously;
(b) Issue a notice of deficiency to make the agency aware of its possible noncompliance with an applicable government ethics law or regulation;
(c) Require the agency to respond in writing to the notice of deficiency;
(d) Require the agency to provide such additional information or documentation as the Director determines to be necessary;
(e) Issue an initial decision with findings as to the existence of a deficiency in the agency's ethics program;
(f) Require the agency to correct or, at the Director's discretion, satisfactorily mitigate any deficiency in its ethics program;
(g) Provide the agency with guidance on measures that would correct or satisfactorily mitigate any program deficiency;
(h) Monitor the agency's efforts to correct or satisfactorily mitigate the deficiency and require the agency to submit progress reports; or
(i) Take other actions authorized under the Act to resolve the matter informally.
If the Director determines that informal action, pursuant to § 2638.402, has not produced an acceptable resolution, the Director may issue an order directing the agency to take specific corrective action.
(a) Before issuing such an order, the Director will:
(1) Advise the agency in writing of the deficiency in its ethics program;
(2) Describe the action that the Director is considering taking;
(3) Provide the agency with 30 days to respond in writing; and
(4) Consider any timely written response submitted by the agency.
(b) If the Director is satisfied with the agency's response, no order will be issued.
(c) If the Director decides to issue an order, the order will describe the corrective action to be taken.
(d) If the agency does not comply with the order within a reasonable time, the Director will:
(1) Notify the head of the agency of intent to furnish a report of noncompliance to the President and the Congress;
(2) Provide the agency 14 calendar days within which to furnish written comments for submission with the report of noncompliance; and
(3) Report the agency's noncompliance to the President and to the Congress.
This subpart addresses the Director's limited authority, pursuant to sections 402(b)(9) and 402(f)(2) of the Act, to take certain actions with regard to individual employees if the Director suspects a violation of a noncriminal government ethics law or regulation. Section 402(f)(5) of the Act prohibits the Director from making any finding regarding a violation of a criminal law. Therefore, the Director will refer possible criminal violations to an Inspector General or the Department of Justice, pursuant to § 2638.502. If, however, the Director is concerned about a possible violation of a noncriminal government ethics law or regulation by an employee, the Director may notify the employee's agency, pursuant to § 2638.503. In the rare circumstance that an agency does not address a matter after receiving this notice, the Director may use the procedures in § 2638.504 to issue a nonbinding recommendation of a disciplinary action or an order to terminate an ongoing violation. Nothing in this subpart relieves an agency of its primary responsibility to ensure compliance with government ethics laws and regulations.
Consistent with section 402(f) of the Act, nothing in this subpart authorizes the Director or any agency official to make a finding as to whether a provision of title 18, United States Code, or any other criminal law of the United States outside of such title, has been or is being violated. If the Director has information regarding the violation of a criminal law by an individual employee, the Director will notify an Inspector General or the Department of Justice.
The Director may make such recommendations and provide such advice to employees or agencies as the Director deems necessary to ensure compliance with applicable government ethics laws and regulations. The Director's authority under this section includes the authority to communicate with agency heads and other officials regarding government ethics and to recommend that the agency investigate a matter or consider taking disciplinary or corrective action against individual employees.
In the rare case that consultations made pursuant to § 2638.503 have not resolved the matter, the Director may use the procedures in this section if the Director has reason to believe that an employee is violating, or has violated, any noncriminal government ethics law or regulation. Any proceedings pursuant
(a)
(b)
(1) If the Director initiates further proceedings, the Director will notify the employee in writing of the suspected violation, the right to respond orally and in writing, and the right to be represented. The notice will include instructions for submitting a written response and requesting an opportunity to present an oral response, copies of this section and sections 401-403 of the Act, and copies of the material relied upon by the Office of Government Ethics.
(2) If the Director is considering issuing an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate an ongoing violation, the Director will also provide notice of the potential issuance of an order and the right to request a hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
(c)
(d)
(1) If the employee has not had an opportunity to comment on any newly obtained material relied upon for the recommendation, the General Counsel will provide the employee with an opportunity to comment on that material before submitting the recommendation to the Director.
(2) The recommendation will include findings of fact and a conclusion as to whether it is more likely than not that a violation has occurred. The General Counsel will provide the Director with copies of the material relied upon for the recommendation, including any timely written response and a transcript of any oral response of the employee.
(3) In the case of an ongoing violation, the General Counsel may recommend an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate the violation, provided that the employee has been afforded the notice required under paragraph (f) of this section and an opportunity for a hearing.
(e)
(1) A copy of the decision and order will be furnished to the employee and, if applicable, the employee's representative. Copies will also be provided to the DAEO and the head of the agency or, where the employee is the head of an agency, to the President. The Director's decision and any order will be posted on the official Web site of the Office of Government Ethics, except to the extent prohibited by law.
(2) The Director's decision may include a nonbinding recommendation that appropriate disciplinary or corrective action be taken against the employee. If the agency head does not take the action recommended within a reasonable period of time, the Director may notify the President.
(3) In the case of an ongoing violation, the Director may issue an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate the violation, provided that the employee has been afforded the notice required under paragraph (f) of this section and an opportunity for a hearing.
(f)
(1) If the employee submits a written request for a hearing within 30 calendar days of the date of the employee's receipt of the notice, the hearing will be conducted pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section;
(2) If the employee does not submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days of receipt of the notice, the General Counsel may issue a recommendation, pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, in lieu of a hearing after first considering any timely response of the employee, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and
(3) If the employee timely submits written requests for both a hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, and an oral response, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, only a hearing will be conducted, pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
(g)
(1) The General Counsel of the Office of Government Ethics will designate attorneys to present evidence and argument at the hearing in support of a possible finding that the employee is engaging in an ongoing violation. The General Counsel will serve as Advisor to the Director and will not, in connection with the presentation of evidence and argument against the employee, direct or supervise these attorneys. Any attorney who presents evidence, argument, or testimony against the employee at the hearing will be recused from assisting the Director or the General Counsel in connection with the contemplated order.
(2) The administrative law judge will issue written instructions for the conduct of the hearing, including deadlines for submitting lists of proposed witnesses and exchanging copies of documentary evidence. The hearing will be conducted informally,
(3) The parties to the hearing will be the employee and the attorneys of the Office of Government Ethics designated to present evidence and arguments supporting a finding that a violation is ongoing, respectively. The parties will not engage in
(4) If either party requests assistance in securing the appearance of an approved witness who is an employee, the administrative law judge may, at his or her discretion, notify the General Counsel, who will assist the Director in requesting that the head of the employing agency produce the witness, pursuant to section 403(a)(1) of the Act. The Director will notify the President if an agency head fails to produce the approved witness.
(5) The hearing will be conducted on the record and witnesses will be placed under oath and subject to cross-examination. Following the hearing, the administrative law judge will provide each party with a copy of the hearing transcript.
(6) Hearings will generally be open to the public, but the administrative law judge may issue a written order closing, in whole or in part, the hearing in the best interests of national security, the employee, a witness, or an affected person. The order will set forth the reasons for closing the hearing and, along with any objection to the order by a party, will be made a part of the record. Unless specifically excluded by the administrative law judge, the DAEO of the employee's agency will be permitted to attend a closed hearing. If the administrative law judge denies a request by a party or an affected person to close the hearing, in whole or in part, that denial will be immediately appealable by the requester. The requester must file a notice of appeal with the Director within 3 working days. In the event that such a notice is filed, the hearing will be held in abeyance pending resolution of the appeal. The notice of appeal, exclusive of attachments, may not exceed 10 pages of double-spaced type. The Director will afford the parties and, if not a party, the requester the opportunity to make an oral presentation in person or via telecommunications technology within 3 working days of the filing of the appeal. The oral presentation will be conducted on the record. If the appellant or either party is unavailable to participate in the oral presentation within the 3-working-day period, the Director will convene the oral presentation without that party or affected person. The Director will issue a decision on the appeal within 3 working days of the oral presentation. If the Director is unavailable during this time period, the Director may designate a senior executive of the Office of Government Ethics to hear the oral presentation and decide the appeal. The notice of appeal, the record of the oral presentation, the decision on the appeal, and any other document considered by the Director or the Director's designee in connection with the appeal will be made a part of the record of the hearing.
(7) After closing the record, the administrative law judge will certify the entire record to the Director for decision. When so certifying the record, the administrative law judge will make a recommended decision, which will include his or her written findings of fact and conclusions of law with respect to material issues. After considering the certified record, the Director may issue a decision and an order, pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
(h)
(1) The employee or the agency has taken appropriate action to address the Director's concerns;
(2) The employee has undertaken, or agreed in writing to undertake, measures the Director deems satisfactory; or
(3) A question has arisen involving the potential application of a criminal law.
(i)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Each agency may, subject to the prior approval of the Office of Government Ethics, issue regulations not inconsistent with this part and this subchapter, using the procedures set forth in § 2635.105 of this chapter.
For the purposes of this part:
(1) Chapter 11 of title 18 of the United States Code;
(2) The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-521, as amended);
(3) The Stop Trading on Congressional Knowledge Act of 2012 (STOCK Act) (Pub. L. 112-105, as amended);
(4) Executive Order 12674 (Apr. 12, 1989) as amended by Executive Order 12731 (Oct. 17, 1990); and
(5) Subchapter B of this chapter.
Except as amended by program advisories of the Office of Government Ethics, the following list summarizes key deadlines of the executive branch ethics program:
(a)
(1) The Office of Government Ethics to issue its year-end status reports, pursuant to § 2638.108(a)(11); and
(2) In an agency with 1,000 or more employees, any office not under the supervision of the DAEO that provides notices or training required under subpart C of this part to provide a written summary and confirmation, pursuant to § 2638.310.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
Department of the Interior (DOI).
Direct final rule.
The Department of the Interior (DOI), with the concurrence of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE), is amending the Supplemental Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Department of the Interior (Supplemental Standards). The Supplemental Standards apply only to DOI personnel and augment the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch (OGE Standards). This direct final rule amends portions of the Supplemental Standards to account for the current DOI structure resulting from organizational changes that established new bureaus and an office within DOI.
This rule is effective on January 3, 2017 unless we receive any significant adverse comments on or before December 2, 2016. If adverse comment is received, DOI will publish a timely withdrawal of the rule in the
You may submit comments on this rule by either of the methods listed below. Please use Regulation Identifier Number 1092-AA12 in your message.
1. Federal eRulemaking Portal:
2. U.S. mail, courier, or hand delivery: Departmental Ethics Office, Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW., MS 7346, Washington, DC 20240.
We request that you send comments only by one of the methods described above. We will post all comments on
Edward McDonnell, Departmental Ethics Office,
On August 7, 1992, OGE published the OGE Standards, which, as corrected and amended, are codified at 5 CFR part 2635 (57 FR 35006). Effective on February 3, 1993, the OGE Standards establish uniform standards of ethical conduct that apply to all executive branch officers and employees. Section 2635.105 of the OGE Standards authorizes an agency, with the concurrence of OGE, to adopt and jointly issue agency-specific supplemental regulations that are necessary to properly implement its ethics program. On October 16, 1997, DOI, with OGE's concurrence and joint issuance, established the Supplemental Standards that became effective on June 24, 1998. See 62 FR 53713-53726; 63 FR 34258-34259. Employees of DOI are subject to the Supplemental Standards promulgated by OGE and DOI. The Supplemental Standards are necessary for successful implementation of DOI's ethics program in light of DOI's unique programs and operations. DOI is therefore amending portions of the Supplemental Standards to account for current DOI structure resulting from organizational changes that established new bureaus and an office within DOI.
The direct final rule amends § 3501.102(a) of the Supplemental Standards to reflect the current organizational structure mandated by Secretarial Order 3299 issued on May 19, 2010, and as further amended, in accordance with statutory authority that resulted in the establishment of new bureaus and an office within DOI. As currently organized and relevant to the Supplemental Standards, the duties and responsibilities of the former Minerals Management Service (MMS) were separated and reassigned to two newly established bureaus and an office. The new bureaus and office are the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE), and the Office of Natural Resources Revenue (ONRR). BOEM and BSEE are distinct and separate bureaus under the Assistant Secretary for Land and Minerals Management. Section 2635.203(a) of the OGE Standards authorizes an executive department, by supplemental regulation, to designate as a separate agency any component of the department that the department determines exercises a distinct and separate function. Pursuant to this authority, DOI amends the Supplemental Standards to designate BOEM and BSEE as separate agencies in § 3501.102(a) for purposes of the regulations contained in subpart B of 5 CFR part 2635, government gifts from outside sources, including determining whether the donor of a gift is a prohibited source under 5 CFR 2635.203(d); 5 CFR 2635.807 governing teaching, speaking and writing; and § 3501.105(b) of this part governing prior approval requirements for outside employment by an employee with a prohibited source (other than for an employee of the U.S. Geological Survey or for a special Government employee). ONRR is organizationally placed within DOI under the Assistant Secretary for Policy, Management and Budget. Therefore, ONRR is included in the remainder of DOI under § 3501.102(b).
The direct final rule amends § 3501.103(b)(1)(i) of the Supplemental Standards to include all BOEM, BSEE and ONRR employees in the restrictions against holding financial interests in Federal lands or resources administered or controlled by DOI. Following the establishment of MMS in 1982, to address ethics concerns, DOI promulgated a regulation extending the restrictions on ownership of interests in Federal lands to all employees of the MMS. See 62 FR 53714 (October 16, 1997). Therefore, in order to continue to protect the integrity of the programs of the former MMS, that were subsequently reassigned to the newly established entities of BOEM, BSEE and ONRR, DOI is revising § 3501.103(b) to explicitly cover all employees of these three entities.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
This direct final rule is not a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by E.O. 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of that Order. Accordingly, this direct final rule is not subject to review by OMB. As discussed previously, this direct final rule only regulates DOI employees and consequently does not impose any additional direct costs on the private sector. In addition, DOI does not believe this rulemaking would increase government costs. The direct final rule is also expected to result in stronger public confidence in the integrity of DOI programs and operations.
This direct final rule will not impact the ability of BOEM, BSEE or ONRR to accomplish their missions and will not impact off-shore operators, lessees, contractors, or third parties. It is an internal procedural rule applicable solely to BOEM, BSEE, and ONRR employees and establishes rules for ethical conduct in the performance of official duties that protects their integrity and impartiality.
We are publishing this rule as a direct final rule because we view this action as an administrative action that relates solely to certain DOI employees and is non-controversial. This rule will be effective on the date shown in the
DOI certifies that this direct final rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This direct final rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This direct final rule:
a. Will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.
b. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions.
c. Will not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
This direct final rule will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. The direct final rule will not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531
Under the criteria in E.O. 12630, this direct final rule does not have significant takings implications. The direct final rule is not a governmental action capable of interference with constitutionally protected property rights. A Takings Implication Assessment is not required.
Under the criteria in E.O. 13132, this direct final rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism Assessment. This direct final rule will not substantially and directly affect the relationship between the Federal and State governments. A Federalism Assessment is not required.
This direct final rule complies with the requirements of E.O. 12988. Specifically, this direct final rule:
(a) Meets the criteria of section 3(a) requiring that all regulations be reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and be written to minimize litigation; and
(b) Meets the criteria of section 3(b)(2) requiring that all regulations be written in clear language and contain clear legal standards.
The Department of the Interior strives to strengthen its government-to-government relationship with Indian tribes through a commitment to consultation with Indian tribes and recognition of their right to self-governance and tribal sovereignty. We have evaluated this direct final rule under the Department's consultation policy and under the criteria in E.O. 13175 and have determined that it has no potential effects on federally recognized Indian tribes.
The direct final rule contains no new public reporting or recordkeeping requirements, and an OMB submission under the PRA is not required. The PRA provides that an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Until OMB approves a collection of information and assigns a control number, the public is not required to respond.
This direct final rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. DOI analyzed this direct final rule under the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act and implementing regulations issued by the Council on Environmental Quality (40 CFR parts 1500-1508) and DOI (43 CFR part 46). This direct final rule meets the criteria set forth in 43 CFR 46.210(i) for a Departmental “Categorical Exclusion” in that this direct final rule is a regulation “of an administrative, financial, legal, technical, or procedural nature; or whose environmental effects
In developing this direct final rule, we did not conduct or use a study, experiment, or survey requiring peer review under the Data Quality Act (Pub. L. 106-554, app. C § 515, 114 Stat. 2763, 2763A-153-154).
This direct final rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in E.O. 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, require the Department to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule the Department publishes must:
(a) Be logically organized;
(b) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(c) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(d) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(e) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that the Department did not meet these requirements, please send comments by one of the methods listed in the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask the Department in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
If you send an email comment directly to the Department without going through
The Department cannot ensure that comments received after the close of the comment period (
Conflict of interests, Department components, Gifts, Government employees, Prior approval of outside employment, Speaking and writing, and Teaching.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOI, with the concurrence of OGE, amends title 5 of CFR part 3501 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 7301; 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978); 30 U.S.C. 1211; 43 U.S.C. 11, 31(a); E.O. 12674, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306; 5 CFR 2635.105, 2635.203(a), 2635.403(a), 2635.502, 2635.803, 2635.807.
(a) Each of the following eleven components of the Department is designated as an agency separate from each of the other ten listed components and, for employees of that component, as an agency distinct from the remainder of the Department, for purposes of the regulations in subpart B of 5 CFR part 2635 governing gifts from outside sources, 5 CFR 2635.807 governing teaching, speaking and writing, and § 3501.105 requiring prior approval of outside employment. However, the following eleven components are not deemed to be separate agencies for purposes of applying any provision of 5 CFR part 2635 or this part to employees of the remainder of the Department:
(1) Bureau of Indian Affairs, including the Office of Indian Education Programs;
(2) Bureau of Land Management;
(3) Bureau of Reclamation;
(4) Bureau of Ocean Energy Management;
(5) Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement;
(6) National Indian Gaming Commission;
(7) National Park Service;
(8) Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement;
(9) Office of the Special Trustee for American Indians;
(10) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; and
(11) U.S. Geological Survey.
(b)
(i) All employees of the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement, and Office of Natural Resources Revenue; and
Federal Housing Finance Agency.
Final rule.
The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is amending its rules to make a number of conforming changes and corrections intended to fix citations, provide for consistent use of terminology, and remove duplicative definitions. FHFA is also removing provisions that are no longer applicable, clarifying other provisions by incorporating language to implement existing FHFA regulatory interpretations, and making other changes and corrections.
Effective December 2, 2016.
Thomas E. Joseph, Associate General Counsel,
Effective July 30, 2008, the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA)
In May 2016, FHFA issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPR) that would have amended its regulations to make a number of technical and conforming changes and corrections that corrected citations, provided for consistent use of terminology, and removed outdated or duplicative provisions and definitions.
FHFA intended the NPR to address errors that had arisen in its regulations as it amended, readopted, and transferred a large number of the Finance Board or OFHEO regulations. Given that this process occurred over several years, not all cross-references in the FHFA current regulations are correct. In addition, in January 2013, FHFA adopted 12 CFR part 1201 (part 1201), which provides general definitions of terms used in all FHFA's regulations. Not all terminology in FHFA's regulations is consistent with the terms in part 1201. FHFA also identified certain provisions in its regulations that require corrections to bring them more in line with statutory mandates. Finally, a number of provisions in the regulations address now-completed transition periods or events or otherwise do not have future applicability to the Enterprises or the Banks.
FHFA received two comments on the NPR. One comment letter was a joint letter from all eleven Banks. The other came from a smaller group of Banks. One comment letter objected to the proposed removal of the provision on out-of-district advances from the regulations and to statements FHFA made in the preamble of the proposed rule about the need for Banks to assure that members capitalize any participated advances. It also identified additional errors in current regulations that FHFA had not included in the proposed rule and suggested a change to one of the definitions proposed by FHFA. The other letter did not comment specifically on any amendments proposed by FHFA but objected to some aspects of what FHFA described in the preamble as the current policy for identifying which Bank directorships would be eliminated when a state is slated to lose a director's seat as a result of the annual designation of directorships.
Removal of this provision [§ 1266.25] would not prevent one Bank from selling an advance or participation to another Bank, based solely on the statutory authority, but FHFA would expect that before doing so a Bank would first obtain the concurrence of FHFA about how a non-member could capitalize those advances through some means other than buying stock. Proposed Rule, 81 FR at 33430.
While the comment letter contended that the Finance Board did not require the capitalization of participation interests in advances when it originally adopted what is currently § 1266.25, the rule specifically states that any creditor/debtor relationships established under the rule “shall be subject to all the provisions of [the advances regulation] that would apply to an advance made by a Bank to its own members or housing associates.”
In fact, part of FHFA's reason for proposing to delete § 1266.25 is the ambiguity and difficulty in applying the broad requirement that any participation interest in an advance or direct creditor/debtor relationship with an out-of-district member meet all requirements of the advances regulation, as if that out-of-district member were a member of the Bank ultimately holding the advance.
The comment letter, however, correctly noted that prior to the adoption of the predecessor to § 1266.25, the Finance Board had not required non-member capitalization of participated advances. The comment letter, therefore, raised a fair point that FHFA's statements in the preamble about capitalization of participation interests were likely to create uncertainties about the Banks' ability to exercise their statutory authority to buy and sell participation interests in advances. Notwithstanding the language of the preamble to the NPR, FHFA did not intend to alter the long-standing agency policy that allows a Bank to purchase a participation interest in an advance made by another Bank without requiring the borrowing member to capitalize the participation interest acquired by the purchasing Bank. The final rule does nothing to change that policy, and thus the Banks may continue to purchase and sell participation interests in advances as they have done previously. The only substantive effect of removing § 1266.25 is to eliminate the language that addresses the establishment of debtor/creditor relationships other than those created through the sale of a participation interest in an advance. Because that provision does not describe the type of relationships encompassed by its language, it has created some uncertainty as to its scope, which has prompted inquiries from the Banks about what types of transactions are permitted. FHFA has informally advised some Banks that the “arrangement with the other Bank” language of § 1266.25(a) does not authorize a Bank to originate an advance to a member of another Bank, nor does it authorize a Bank to issue standby letters of credit on behalf of a member of another Bank. By removing that language FHFA will eliminate such uncertainties and should not adversely affect any Bank because none has established any such debtor/creditor relationships with members of other Banks in reliance on that provision.
As an initial matter, these comments did not address any of the specific technical amendments that FHFA proposed to make to the part 1261 regulation. Indeed, FHFA did not propose to revise any regulations pertaining to the reduction of directorships caused by the annual designation process, and the preamble statements that appear to have prompted the comments were simply background information that FHFA provided as context to the FHFA's proposed revisions to other provisions of part 1261. As background information, the preamble statements did not purport to make any changes to agency policy regarding Bank directorships, but simply described the existing practice for one particular situation. Therefore, FHFA is not making any changes in the final rule as a result of these comments.
Moreover, FHFA disagrees with the comment letter's contention that a Bank's board of directors should be permitted in all cases to determine which particular directorship must be eliminated when the annual designation of directorships reduces the number of directorships allocated to a particular state. By statute, FHFA is required annually to establish the size of the board of directors for each Bank and to designate the number of member directorships to be allocated to each state within each Bank's district. Occasionally, FHFA's designation of directorships order reduces the number of directorships allocated to a particular state, which means that one of the incumbent directorships must be eliminated as of the end of that calendar year. If one of those directorships has a
The commenters did not provide a reason for the suggested change or why FHFA's proposed definition was problematic. FHFA notes that the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) uses the term “principal executive officer” in the context of its disclosure rules on compensation, which the Banks already apply.
First, commenters pointed out that cross references in 12 CFR 1266.17(c)(2) to § 1266.3(b) of FHFA's rules appear to be incorrect, and the reference instead should be to § 1266.5(b). FHFA agrees and is adding to the final rule a provision to make this correction. The cross reference in § 1266.17(c)(2) is intended to incorporate standards that Banks must apply when making advances to members to any advance that a Bank makes to a housing associate. The current cite in the rule to § 1266.3(b), however, references requirements that apply to long-term advances made to members rather than the pricing criteria, which are set forth in § 1266.5(b). The Finance Board appears to have added the erroneous cross reference to the rule when it first adopted it in 2002, and FHFA carried over the mistake to part 1266 when it re-adopted the rule in 2010.
Second, commenters identified two corrections to appendix A of part 1273 (appendix A), which sets forth exceptions to the general SEC disclosure standards that the Office of Finance (OF) otherwise must follow in preparing the Bank System's Combined Financial Report. The first error is a reference to “Item 402(1) of SEC Regulation S-K” in paragraph C of appendix A. SEC Regulation S-K, however does not contain an “Item 402(1).” The Finance Board erroneously cited to “Item 402(1), 17 CFR 229.402(1)” when it first adopted appendix A in 2000.
Commenters also pointed out that a statement in paragraph D of appendix A is no longer accurate given recent regulatory changes. Specifically, paragraph D, which addresses matters submitted for shareholder vote, contains a statement that: “The only item shareholders vote upon is the annual election of directors.” Under the voluntary merger rules adopted by FHFA after HERA, however, a Bank's shareholders also may vote to ratify a voluntary merger agreement between their Bank and another Bank.
As just discussed, FHFA is adopting as part of the final rule a number of additional technical corrections suggested by commenters but is otherwise not changing the proposed rule based on the comments received. In addition, FHFA is updating the table in § 1200.4 providing the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control numbers and expiration dates for FHFA information collections under the Paperwork Reduction Act to reflect recent OMB actions and approvals.
Further, after publication of the NPR, FHFA identified additional instances in which terms defined in part 1201 of its regulations, which provides general definitions applicable to all FHFA regulations, are also defined in other FHFA regulations. As a result, FHFA is adopting provisions as part of this final rule to remove duplicative definitions from part 1281 for the terms “Bank System” and “data reporting manual (DRM)” and from part 1282 for the term “HUD.”
Other than incorporating the additional corrections highlighted above, FHFA is adopting the changes proposed by the NPR as final without further substantive changes.
When promulgating regulations relating to the Banks, section 1313(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act requires the Director to consider the differences between the Banks and the Enterprises with respect to the Banks' cooperative ownership structure; mission of providing liquidity to members; affordable housing and community development mission; capital structure; and joint and several liability.
The final rule does not contain any collections of information pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The final rule applies only to the Banks and the Enterprises, which do not come within the meaning of small entities as defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA).
Organization and functions (Government agencies), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Seals and insignia.
Administrative practice and procedure, Federal home loan banks, Government-sponsored enterprises, Office of finance, Regulated entities.
Capital, Federal home loan banks, Government-sponsored enterprises, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Capital, Federal home loan banks, Government-sponsored enterprises, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Stress test.
Administrative practice and procedure, Federal home loan banks, Government-sponsored enterprises, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Banking, Banks, Conflicts of interest, Elections, Ethical conduct, Federal home loan banks, Financial disclosure, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Community development, Credit, Federal home loan banks, Housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Community development, Credit, Federal home loan banks, Housing, Letters of credit.
Accounting, Federal home loan banks, Government securities.
Federal home loan banks, Securities.
Accounting, Federal home loan banks, Financial disclosure.
Banks, Banking, Federal home loan banks, Mergers.
Credit, Federal home loan banks, Housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Mortgages, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Community development, Credit, Federal home loan banks, Housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, for reasons stated in the
5 U.S.C. 552, 12 U.S.C. 4512, 12 U.S.C. 4526, 44 U.S.C. 3506.
(a) Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3531) and the implementing regulations of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) (5 CFR part 1320), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
(b) OMB has approved the collections of information contained in FHFA's regulations and has assigned each collection a control number. The following table displays the sections of FHFA's regulations (both those located in this chapter and those promulgated by the former Federal Housing Finance Board that appear in chapter IX of this title) containing collections of information, along with the applicable OMB control numbers and the expirations dates for those control numbers:
12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b).
12 U.S.C. 1426, 4513, 4526, 4613, 4614, 4615, 4616, 4617, 4618, 4622, 4623.
(a) * * *
(3) Not make any capital distribution unless:
(i) The distribution meets the requirements of § 1229.5(b) and paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section and the Director has provided permission for such distribution as set forth in § 1229.5(b);
(ii) The capital distribution will not result in the Bank being reclassified as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized; and
(iii) The capital distribution does not violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the declaration or payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or in any other applicable regulation;
12 U.S.C. 1426; 4513; 4526; 4612; 5365(i).
12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432(a), 1436(a), 1440, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b), 4526, and 15 U.S.C. 78
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(d) * * *
(3) Each Bank's audit committee charter shall:
(i) Provide that the audit committee has the responsibility to select, evaluate and, where appropriate, replace the internal auditor and that the internal auditor may be removed only with the approval of the audit committee;
(ii) Provide that the internal auditor shall report directly to the audit committee on substantive matters and that the internal auditor is ultimately accountable to the audit committee and board of directors;
(iii) Provide that the audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, retention, and oversight of the work of the external auditor;
(iv) Provide that the external auditor shall report directly to the audit committee;
(v) Provide that both the internal auditor and the external auditor shall have unrestricted access to the audit committee without the need for any prior management knowledge or approval; and
(vi) Provide that the Bank shall make available appropriate funding, as determined by the audit committee, for payment of compensation to the external auditor, to any independent advisors or counsel engaged by the audit committee, and ordinary administrative expenses that are necessary or appropriate for the audit committee to carry out its duties.
(e) * * *
(4) Oversee the external audit function by:
(i) Approving the external auditor's annual engagement letter; and
(ii) Reviewing the performance of the external auditor.
(10) Establish procedures for the receipt, retention, and treatment of complaints received by the Bank regarding accounting, internal accounting controls, or auditing matters, and for the confidential, anonymous submission by employees of the Bank of concerns regarding questionable accounting or auditing matters.
12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432, 4511 and 4526.
The revision reads as follows:
(a)
(2) The number of shares of Bank stock that any member was required to hold as of the record date shall be determined in accordance with the minimum investment established by the capital plan for that Bank.
(b)
(b)
(a)
(1) A ballot shall include at least the following provisions:
(i) For states in which one or more member directorships are to be filled in the election, an alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for such directorship, the name, location, and FHFA ID number of the member each nominee serves, the nominee's title or position with the member, and the number of member directorships to be filled by the members in that voting state in the election;
(ii) An alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for a public
(iii) An alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for the other independent directorships and a brief description of each nominee's qualifications, including his or her knowledge or experience in the areas of financial management, auditing and accounting, risk management practices, derivatives, project development, organizational management, and any other area of knowledge or experience set forth in § 1261.7(e);
(iv) A statement that write-in candidates are not permitted; and
(v) A confidentiality statement prohibiting the Bank from disclosing how any member voted.
(2) At the election of the Bank, a ballot also may include, in the body or as an attachment, a brief description of the skills and experience of each nominee for a member directorship.
(c)
(a)
(c)
(1) Communicate in any manner that a director, officer, attorney, employee, or agent of a Bank, directly or indirectly, supports or opposes the nomination or election of a particular individual for a directorship; or
(2) Take any other action to influence the voting with respect to any particular individual.
Except with respect to member directorships of a Bank resulting from the merger of any two or more Banks, the number of member directorships allocated to each state shall not be less than the number of directorships allocated to that state on December 31, 1960. The following table sets forth the states within Bank districts not created from the merger of two or more Banks whose members held more than one directorship on December 31, 1960:
12 U.S.C. 1430b, 4511, 4513 and 4526.
12 U.S.C. 1426, 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511(b), 4513, 4526(a).
(1) Capital, calculated according to GAAP, less “intangible assets” except for purchased mortgage servicing rights to the extent such assets are included in a member's core or Tier 1 capital, as reported in a member's Report of Condition and Income for members whose primary federal regulator is the FDIC, the OCC, or the FRB.
(2) Capital calculated according to GAAP, less intangible assets, as defined by a Bank for members that are not regulated by the FDIC, the OCC, or the FRB; provided that a Bank shall include a member's purchased mortgage servicing rights to the extent such assets are included for the purpose of meeting regulatory capital requirements. In addition, for those members that are insurance companies and that do not file or otherwise prepare financial statements based on GAAP, Banks may base this calculation on the member's financial statements prepared using Statutory Accounting Principles as implemented by the insurance company member's appropriate state regulator.
(a)
(2) Such request must certify that the savings association member:
(i) Is solvent but presents a supervisory concern to the OCC or FDIC, as appropriate, because of the member's financial condition; and
(ii) Has reasonable and demonstrable prospects of returning to a satisfactory financial condition.
12 U.S.C. 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 1436, 4511, 4513, 4526.
12 U.S.C. 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511, 4513 and 4526.
12 U.S.C. 1431, 1432, 1435, 4511, 4512, 4513, and 4526.
12 U.S.C. 1431, 1440, 4511(b), 4513, 4514(a), 4526(a).
(a)
(d)
(a)
(1) Each of the Bank presidents,
(2) Five Independent Directors who—
(i) Each shall be a citizen of the United States;
(ii) As a group, shall have substantial experience in financial and accounting matters; and
(iii) Shall not have any material relationship with a Bank, or the OF (directly or as a partner, shareholder, or officer of an organization), as determined under criteria set forth in a policy adopted by the OF board of directors. At a minimum, such policy shall provide that an Independent Director may not:
(A) Be an officer, director, or employee of any Bank or member of a Bank, or have been an officer, director, or employee of a Bank or member of a Bank during the previous three years;
(B) Be an officer or employee of the OF, or have been an officer or employee of the OF during the previous three years; or
(C) Be affiliated with any consolidated obligations selling or dealer group under contract with OF, or hold shares or any other financial interest in any entity that is part of a consolidated obligations seller or dealer group in an amount greater than the lesser of $250,000 or 0.01% of the market capitalization of the seller or dealer group, or in an amount that exceeds $1,000,000 for all entities that are part of any consolidated obligations seller dealer group, combined. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(C), a holding company of an entity that is part of a consolidated obligations seller or dealer group shall be deemed to be part of the consolidated obligations selling or dealer group if the assets of the holding company's subsidiaries that are part of a consolidated obligation seller or dealer group constitute 35% or more of the consolidated assets of the holding company.
(b)
(2) The OF board of directors shall fill any vacancy among the Independent Directors occurring prior to the scheduled end of a term by majority vote, subject to FHFA's review of, and non-objection to, the new Independent Director. The OF board of directors shall provide FHFA with the same biographic and background information about the new Independent Director required under paragraph (c) of this section, and FHFA shall have the same rights of non-objection to the Independent Director (and to appoint a different Independent Director) as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. A person shall be elected (or otherwise appointed by FHFA) under this paragraph (b)(2) to serve only for the remainder of the term associated with the vacant directorship.
(c)
(d)
(2) The OF board of directors shall promptly inform FHFA of the election of a Chair or Vice Chair. If FHFA objects to any Chair or Vice Chair elected by the OF board of directors, FHFA shall provide written notice of its objection within 20 business days of the date that FHFA first receives the notice of the election of the Chair and or Vice Chair, and the OF board of directors must then promptly elect a new Chair or Vice Chair, as appropriate.
(e)
(2) In addition to the Audit Committee required under § 1273.9, the OF board of directors may establish other committees, including an Executive Committee. The duties and powers of such committee, including any powers delegated by the OF board of directors, shall be specified in the by-laws of the board of directors or the charter of the committee.
(f)
(2) The OF shall pay reasonable compensation and expenses to the Independent Directors in accordance with the requirements for payment of compensation and expenses to Bank directors as set forth in part 1261 of this chapter.
(g)
(2)
(A) The law of the jurisdiction in which the principal office of the OF is located;
(B) The Delaware General Corporation Law (Del. Code Ann. Title 8); or
(C) The Revised Model Business Corporation Act.
(ii) The OF board of directors shall designate in its by-laws the body of law elected pursuant to this paragraph (g)(2).
(3)
(h)
(i)
(b) * * *
(5) The Audit Committee shall oversee internal audit activities, including the selection, evaluation, compensation, and, where appropriate, replacement of the internal auditor. The internal auditor shall report directly to the Audit Committee on substantive matters, and is ultimately accountable to the Audit Committee and the board of directors.
12 U.S.C. 1426, 1431, 4511(b), 4513, 4526(a).
12 U.S.C. 1432(a), 1446, 4511.
12 U.S.C. 1430c.
12 U.S.C. 4501, 4502, 4511, 4513, 4526, 4561-4566.
12 U.S.C. 1430(g), 4511, 4513.
12 U.S.C. 1430(j).
Office of the Secretary (OST), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) is issuing a final rule that changes the mishandled-baggage data that air carriers are required to report, from the number of Mishandled Baggage Reports (MBR) and the number of domestic passenger enplanements to the number of mishandled bags and the number of enplaned bags. Fees for checked baggage may have changed customer behavior regarding the number of bags checked, potentially affecting mishandled-baggage rates. Finally, this rule fills a data gap by collecting separate statistics for mishandled wheelchairs and scooters used by passengers with disabilities and transported in aircraft cargo compartments. An additional topic covered in the proposed rule, the reporting of airline fee revenues, remains open and is not addressed in this rulemaking.
This rule is effective December 2, 2016.
Zeenat Iqbal, Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590, 202-366-9293 (phone), 202-366-5944 (fax),
On July 15, 2011, the Department published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
The Department received 278 comments in response to the NPRM, including several representing the views of multiple entities. Of these, eight comments were from members of the airline industry, representing the views of Allegiant Air, American Airlines, Delta Air Lines, Southwest Airlines, Spirit Airlines, United Air Lines, US Airways, and Virgin America. Six comments were from industry associations, representing the views of Airports Council International, North America (ACI-NA), the Air Transport Association of America (ATA) [now known as Airlines For America (A4A)], the American Aviation Institute (AAI), the American Society of Travel Agents (ASTA), the Association of Retail Travel Agents (ARTA), and the Regional Airline Association (RAA). The Department received two comments from
On April 27, 2012, the Department published a notice of public meeting in the
In general, consumers, consumer associations, disability associations, and airports support the rule as proposed while many airlines and airline associations oppose it. The section-by-section analysis will describe each provision of the final rule.
On January 17, 2014, President Obama signed into law the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2014 (Pub. L. 113-76), which included language transferring the powers and duties, functions, authorities and personnel of the Department's Research and Innovative Technology Administration (RITA) to the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R) in the Department's Office of the Secretary. Thus, the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology is now an office within the Office of the Secretary. Based on the Act, this rulemaking received a new regulation identifier number.
The Department bifurcated its rulemaking on the reporting of ancillary fee revenue into two separate rules: this rule to address the reporting of data used in the computation of mishandled baggage and wheelchair/scooter rates (2104-AE41), and another rule to address the reporting of ancillary fee revenue (2105-AE31). These rulemakings were split as they address unrelated matters and their separation will make it easier for stakeholders to locate information about a particular topic embodied in each separate rule. The Department's rulemaking on the reporting of ancillary fee revenue, including an analysis of the public comments received in response to the 2011 NPRM and 2012 public meeting, remains open.
On the other hand, A4A (excluding JetBlue and Southwest Airlines), RAA, and the carriers that submitted comments, with the exception of Southwest Airlines, contend that the Department's long-standing methodology for calculating mishandled baggage is useful and valid. They commented that the proposed methodology would cost industry more than the current methodology. Increased costs would stem primarily from recording interlined baggage, gate-checked baggage, and “valet” bags. (Interlined baggage is checked baggage of a passenger whose itinerary does not involve a code-share but includes more than one airline. Gate-checked baggage is baggage that the passenger brought to the gate but which was taken by the carrier at that location and checked into the baggage compartment of the aircraft. Valet bags, sometimes called planeside bags, are bags that a passenger drops at the end of the loading bridge or on the tarmac near the aircraft and which carrier personnel load into the baggage compartment of the aircraft, a process
American Airlines, Delta Air Lines, and US Airways commented that the Department severely underestimated the cost of complying with the proposed rule. They noted for gate-checked and “valet” bags, carriers would have to replace a manual bag tagging system with an automated one. Delta Air Lines stressed the importance of using an automated system because less than one hundredth of one percent often separates competitors in the Department's mishandled baggage rankings. That carrier estimated this would cost up to $10 million in new equipment and $900,000 in programming, while requiring 18 to 24 months to fully implement. US Airways estimated that automation would cost $1 million in new equipment and $1 million in programming. In addition, Delta Air Lines commented that the rule would cause operational delays and passenger inconvenience because of the time involved in printing and then scanning automated bag tags.
On January 12, 2016, A4A filed supplemental comments. The organization objected to language in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking on Transparency of Airline Ancillary Fees and Other Consumer Issues (“Consumer Rule 3”)
Finally, the Department received comments questioning which airline must report baggage in interline situations or when multiple airlines place their codes on a single flight.
Passenger behavior was reportedly altered when many air carriers began charging passengers for each checked bag. Specifically, the GAO report cited above stated that the introduction of baggage fees resulted in a decline of 40 to 50 percent in the number of checked bags with a corresponding 40 percent decline in the number of MBRs per 1,000 passengers (GAO-10-785, July 2010, page 25). The ratio between checked bags and the number of passengers can vary greatly depending on the fees charged. Moreover, there is not a direct relationship between the number of MBRs and the number of mishandled (
The Department agrees with the suggestion from A4A (excluding JetBlue and Southwest Airlines) and RAA that the Department use the number of domestic bag enplanements rather than origin-and-destination bags in the denominator. We have revised the language of the relevant section accordingly. Using the enplaned-bag approach will avoid the costs that would be entailed for tracking a given bag from origin to destination for connecting passengers under an origin-and-destination approach. The use of “enplaned bag” language in the final rule also results in a carrier receiving “credit” for a properly-handled bag on each flight of a passenger's journey. This ensures that when bags travel on multi-carrier itineraries or when interline agreements allow carriers to check bags through to the passenger's final destination, even when that passenger possesses more than one ticket, the operating carrier on each flight will receive “credit” for a properly-handled bag. For example, if a passenger travels on a flight operated by airline A from Washington, DC to Los Angeles, and a flight operated by airline B from Los Angeles to Honolulu, for the “denominator” figure airline A would include the passenger's checked baggage in its reporting for the Washington—Los Angeles flight while airline B would include the passenger's checked baggage in its reporting for the Los Angeles—Honolulu flight. The same piece of luggage would be reported by both airlines (on different flights), thus giving both airlines the chance to receive “credit” for handling the bag. Whether or not airlines A and B operate one or both of those flights as part of a code-share or as part of an interline agreement would have no impact on their reporting requirements. In the comments received from A4A (excluding JetBlue and Southwest) and RAA, the associations noted that the “enplanement” approach would resolve much of the complexity stemming from
Using the total number of domestic bag enplanements rather than bags checked for origin-destination trips further reduces the rule's cost because air carriers already count pieces of checked baggage in order to comply with the Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA) existing weight-and-balance requirements. The FAA requires that carriers maintain, for at least three months, the number of “standard,” “heavy,” and “non-luggage” bags carried in the cargo compartment. Delta Air Lines confirmed at the May 17, 2012, public meeting that, because of the FAA requirements, the carrier already possesses a tally of bags transported in the cargo compartment on each of its domestic scheduled flights.
With respect to A4A's January 12, 2016, supplemental comments, the language in the “Consumer Rule 3” NPRM concerning reporting by flight segment referred to a separate proposal in that proceeding that would require carrier reports about on-time performance, oversales, and mishandled baggage to include data for flights operated by their domestic code-share partners. The phrase “for all domestic scheduled passenger flight segments that are held out with the reporting carrier's code” in that NPRM was simply intended to capture the code-share operations, not to require reporting by flight segment. If this Consumer Rule 3 proposal is finalized, we will modify the phrase in question to make this clear. This final rule simply requires carriers to count the number of checked bags that are enplaned on each flight; it does not require carriers to conduct segment-by-segment tracking of the number of bags on board each segment of a direct flight, nor does it require origin-destination (“O&D”) tracking based on each passenger's itinerary.
A4A also contended in its January 12, 2016, comments that in order to comply with the instant rule as proposed, the only realistic solution for most carriers is to begin tracking “valet bags” in the same way that all other checked bags are tracked today—with an automated bag tag (ABT) that is linked to the passenger's Passenger Name Record, rather than the existing paper valet tags. A4A further asserted that once a bag is tagged with an ABT, TSA requires it to be treated like all other checked baggage and prohibits the traveler from having access to it in the sterile area of the airport. A4A stated that this means that carriers could no longer return these bags to passengers on the jet bridge at the conclusion of the flight. However, the rule does not require the use of ABTs. In addition, TSA has advised the Department that TSA's interest is in ensuring that passengers do not have access in the secure area of an airport to a checked bag that has not passed through the passenger security screening checkpoint. Valet bags are screened at that checkpoint. TSA explained that attaching an ABT to a bag that the passenger has carried through the screening checkpoint, or referring to such a bag as a checked bag, would not trigger the prohibition on the passenger having access to that bag in the airport's secure area.
The Department is not prescribing a particular mechanism through which air carriers must capture the data required by this rule. Carriers may adopt whichever method they find best suited to their business model. In terms of “valet” bags, for example, this rule does not require air carriers to provide passengers with individual bag claims that must be matched to bags on arrival; instead, air carriers need only ensure that the “valet” bag is properly counted in the data reported to the Department.
Finally, the Department has made a ministerial change to its proposed rule. In its NPRM, the Department cited “49 U.S.C. 329 and chapters 41101 and 41701” as the authority for the mishandled baggage portion of the rule. The correct citation is: “49 U.S.C. 329, 41101 and 41701.”
On the other hand, A4A (excluding Southwest Airlines) and RAA commented that the Department had no basis for concluding that passengers with disabilities are reluctant to travel by air due to wheelchair mishandling, and that the proposal lacked a public policy justification. Several air carriers asserted that the Air Carrier Access Act and its implementing regulation (14 CFR part 382) already provide carriers with an incentive to handle these devices properly. The associations, individual airlines, and ARTA commented that the proposed rule was unduly burdensome on industry. In particular, these comments noted that wheelchairs and scooters are manually tagged and checked, and thus air carriers would need to implement a new mechanism to capture the required data. In written comments, American Airlines and Delta Air Lines commented that there would be high costs involved in programming systems to differentiate wheelchairs and scooters transported in the cargo compartment from the larger universe of all checked baggage. At the May 17, 2012, public meeting, US Airways stated that costs would be high, while others, including Delta Air Lines and Southwest Airlines, indicated the opposite. As an alternative to the Department's proposal, several carriers proposed the establishment of a working group to devise a workable method of capturing the required data.
The Open Doors Foundation did not support the proposed rule. This organization commented that collecting this data would lead to competition among carriers in an area that should not be competitive, would cause airlines to reduce training and policies to the bare minimum needed to obtain “good” numbers, and would divert Department resources from other projects intended to make air travel more accessible.
Although A4A's comments opposing the Department's proposal represented the views of all of that association's members except Southwest Airlines, US Airways filed a supplemental comment
The number of wheelchairs and scooters accepted for transport in the aircraft cargo compartment is to be included in the total number of checked bags enplaned. Similarly, the number of mishandled wheelchairs and scooters is to be included in the number of mishandled checked bags. We believe that the number of mishandled bags (and the rate of mishandled bags per 1,000 bags enplaned, which will be calculated by DOT and included in our Air Travel Consumer Report) should include all items of which the carrier took custody.
In response to comments from industry that there is no basis to conclude that passengers with disabilities are reluctant to travel by air due to wheelchair and scooter mishandling, the Department believes that the public comments received from air travelers with disabilities and disability rights organizations are representative of a widespread reluctance. It is public policy that air travel should be accessible to all members of the public, and the Department believes that this rule advances that policy goal. The Department appreciates that the Air Carrier Access Act and 14 CFR part 382 have provided air carriers with an incentive to handle wheelchairs and scooters properly. The Department believes that this final rule will not only act as an additional incentive, but most importantly will provide passengers with disabilities with a metric that they may use to compare air carriers and to make informed travel decisions. The Department agrees with US Airways' comment that capturing data on the incidence of wheelchair and scooter mishandling is in line with a carrier's obligations and duties to passengers with disabilities.
The Department appreciates the concerns raised by Open Doors. While we believe that air carriers do strive to provide good service to passengers with disabilities, we continue to think that consumers with disabilities have the right to know which airlines provide the best service and have a right to select their air carriers based on that knowledge. In addition, the Department's existing disability regulations already require airlines to provide training to their employees. The new rule provides further incentive to airlines to provide the training necessary to result in as little mishandling as possible to wheelchairs and scooters. Finally, this rulemaking does not divert the Department's attention from other objectives,
Members of the public made numerous recommendations intended to improve the air travel experience for passengers with disabilities. These recommendations included the creation of a uniform damage form, a requirement that air carriers maintain a list of repair shops located near each airport served, a blanket exemption from all ancillary fees for passengers with disabilities, a mandated retrofitting of aircraft so that all mobility devices may be transported in the passenger cabin, and a prohibition on the gate-checking of assistive devices.
The Department appreciates the additional recommendations received from the general public, including the application of this rule to cover other modes or to foreign air carriers, but concludes that these recommendations fall outside the scope of the current rulemaking.
Based on this compliance date, data in this new format on mishandled baggage for the month of January 2018 will be due February 15, 2018. Data on mishandled wheelchairs and scooters transported in aircraft cargo compartments for the month of January 2018 will also be due February 15, 2018.
This action has been determined not to be significant under Executive Order 12866 and the Department of Transportation's Regulatory Policies and Procedures. It has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. These changes make the measure of the published mishandled baggage rate more informative for ticket purchasers trying to assess risk. The new metric of number of bags reported as mishandled reveals more than the old figure of the number of reports of mishandled bags, since a single passenger report can cover multiple bags or even multiple passengers (
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132 (“Federalism”). This final rule does not include any provision that: (1) Has substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibility among the various levels of government; (2) imposes substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments; or (3) preempts State law. States are already preempted from regulating in this area by the Airline Deregulation Act, 49 U.S.C. 41713. Therefore, the consultation and funding requirements of Executive Order 13132 do not apply.
This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13084 (“Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments”). Because this final rule does not significantly or uniquely affect the communities of the Indian Tribal governments or impose substantial direct compliance costs on them, the funding and consultation requirements of Executive Order 13084 do not apply.
This rule adopts new and revised information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The Department will publish a separate notice in the
The Department has determined that the requirements of Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 do not apply to this rule.
The Department has analyzed the environmental impacts of this proposed action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
Air carriers, Mishandled baggage, On-time statistics, Reporting, Uniform system of accounts.
Accordingly, the Department of Transportation amends 14 CFR chapter II as follows:
49 U.S.C. 329, 41101, and 41701.
(a) For air transportation taking place before January 1, 2018, each reporting carrier shall report monthly to the Department on a domestic system basis, excluding charter flights, the total number of passengers enplaned system-wide and the total number of mishandled-baggage reports filed with the carrier.
(b) For air transportation taking place on or after January 1, 2018, each reporting carrier shall report monthly to the Department on a domestic system basis, excluding charter flights:
(1) The total number of checked bags enplaned, including gate checked baggage, “valet bags,” interlined bags, and wheelchairs and scooters enplaned in the aircraft cargo compartment;
(2) The total number of wheelchairs and scooters that were enplaned in the aircraft cargo compartment;
(3) The number of mishandled checked bags, including gate-checked baggage, “valet bags,” interlined bags and wheelchairs and scooters that were enplaned in the aircraft cargo compartment; and
(4) The number of mishandled wheelchairs and scooters that were enplaned in the aircraft cargo compartment.
(c) The information in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall be submitted to the Department within 15 days after the end of the month to which the information applies and must be submitted with the transmittal accompanying the data for on-time performance in the form and manner set forth in accounting and reporting directives issued by the Director, Office of Airline Information.
National Indian Gaming Commission.
Correcting amendments.
The National Indian Gaming Commission (NIGC) amends various regulations previously issued. The NIGC moved its headquarters and needs to update the address. The agency also revises two headings by shortening them.
Effective November 17, 2016.
Mary Modrich-Alvarado, Staff Attorney, (202) 632-7003.
The Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA or the Act), Public Law 100-497, 25 U.S.C. 2701
This document revises 25 CFR 517.2 to reflect the correct physical address. This document also amends 25 CFR 517.4(a) and 517.8(b)(2) to reflect the correct mailing address.
This document revises the heading of 25 CFR part 584.
This document revises the heading of 25 CFR part 585.
Under the Administrative Procedure Act, a notice of proposed rulemaking is not required when an agency, for good cause, finds that notice and public comments are impractical, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. Because the revisions here are technical in nature and intended solely to update the NIGC's current mailing address the NIGC is publishing a technical amendment.
The National Indian Gaming Commission is committed to fulfilling its tribal consultation obligations—whether directed by statute or administrative action such as Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments)—by adhering to the consultation framework described in its Consultation Policy published on July 15, 2013. Due to the ministerial nature of the action being taken here, consultation is not required under the NIGC's Consultation Policy.
This rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities as defined by the
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rule will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million per year or more. This rule will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, federal, state, or local government agencies, or geographic regions and does not have a significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
The Commission, as an independent regulatory agency, is exempt from compliance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, 2 U.S.C. 1502(1); 2 U.S.C. 658(1).
In accordance with Executive Order 12630, the Commission determined the rule does not have significant takings implications. A takings implication assessment is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988, the Commission determined the rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Executive Order.
The Commission determined this rule does not constitute a major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment and that a detailed statement is not required pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321,
The rule does not contain any information collection requirements for which Office of Management and Budget approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) is required.
Freedom of information.
Administrative practice and procedure, Gambling.
Administrative practice and procedure, Gambling, Indians—lands, Penalties.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the NIGC amends 25 CFR parts 517, 584, and 585 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 552, as amended.
Records that are required to be maintained by the Commission shall be available for public inspection and copying at 90 K Street NE., Suite 200, Washington, DC 20002. * * *
(a)
(b) * * *
(2) * * * The appeal shall be addressed to the National Indian Gaming Commission, Attn: FOIA Appeals Officer, C/O Department of Interior, 1849 C Street NW., Mailstop #1621, Washington, DC 20240.
25 U.S.C. 2706, 2710, 2711, 2712, 2713, 2715, 2717.
25 U.S.C. 2706, 2710, 2711, 2712, 2713, 2715, 2717.
Office of the Secretary, Department of Defense (DoD).
Final rule.
This final rule implements section 702 (c) of the Carl Levin and Howard P. “Buck” McKeon National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2015 which states that beginning October 1, 2015, the pharmacy benefits program shall require eligible covered beneficiaries generally to refill non-generic prescription maintenance medications through military treatment facility pharmacies or the national mail-order pharmacy program. An interim final rule is in effect. Section 702(c) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2015 also terminates the TRICARE For Life Pilot Program on September 30, 2015. The TRICARE For Life Pilot Program described in section 716(f) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013, was a pilot program which began in March 2014 requiring TRICARE For Life beneficiaries to refill non-generic prescription maintenance medications through military treatment facility pharmacies or the national mail-order pharmacy program. TRICARE for Life beneficiaries are those enrolled in the Medicare wraparound coverage option of the TRICARE program. This rule includes procedures to assist beneficiaries in transferring covered prescriptions to the mail order pharmacy program.
Dr. George Jones, Jr., Chief, Pharmacy Operations Division, Defense Health Agency, telephone 703-681-2890.
This final rule implements Section 702(c) of the Carl Levin and Howard P. “Buck” McKeon National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2015 which states that beginning October 1, 2015, the pharmacy benefits program shall require eligible covered beneficiaries generally to refill non-generic prescription maintenance medications through military treatment facility pharmacies or the national mail-order pharmacy program. Eligible covered beneficiaries are defined in sections 1072(5) and 1086 of title 10, United States Code.
TRICARE beneficiaries are generally required to obtain all prescription refills for select non-generic maintenance medications from the TRICARE mail order program (where beneficiary copayments are much lower than in retail pharmacies) or military treatment facilities (where there are no copayments). Covered maintenance medications are those prescribed for chronic, long-term conditions that are taken on a regular, recurring basis, but do not include medications to treat acute conditions. TRICARE will follow best commercial practices, including that beneficiaries will be notified of the new rules and mechanisms to allow them to receive adequate medication during their transition to mail for their refills. The statute and rule authorize a waiver of the mail order requirement based on patient needs and other appropriate circumstances.
The effect of the statutory requirement, implemented by this rule, is to shift a volume of prescriptions from retail pharmacies to the mail order pharmacy program. This will produce savings to the Department of approximately $81 million per year and savings to beneficiaries of approximately $20 million per year in reduced copayments.
In Fiscal Year 2014, 61 million prescriptions were filled for TRICARE beneficiaries through the TRICARE retail pharmacy benefit at a net cost of $5.1 billion to the government. On average, the government pays 32% less for brand name maintenance medication prescriptions filled in the mail order program or military treatment facility pharmacies than through the retail program. Not all prescriptions filled through the retail program are maintenance/chronic medications. However, there is potential for significant savings to the government by shifting a portion of TRICARE prescription refills to the mail order program or military treatment facility pharmacies. In addition, there will be significant savings to TRICARE beneficiaries who will receive up to a 90 day refill at no charge for generics in the mail order program compared to $10 copay for up to a 30 day in retail. The savings is even greater for brand-name prescriptions: $20 for up to 90 days in mail versus $24 for up to 30 days in retail, meaning that for a 90-day supply the copayment comparison is $20 in mail to $72 in retail. The non-formulary copayment amount is $49 for up to 90 days in mail non-formulary drugs are generally not available in retail.
The final rule revises paragraph (r) to 32 CFR 199.21. This paragraph (r) establishes rules for the new program of refills of maintenance medications for TRICARE through the mail order pharmacy program. Paragraph (r)(1) requires that for covered non-generic maintenance medications, TRICARE beneficiaries are generally required to obtain their prescription refills through the national mail order pharmacy program or through military treatment facility pharmacies. TRICARE beneficiaries are defined in sections 1072(5) and 1086 of title 10, United States Code, including those enrolled in the Medicare wraparound coverage option of the TRICARE program.
Paragraph (r)(2) provides that the Director, Defense Health Agency will establish, maintain, and periodically revise and update a list of covered maintenance medications, which will be accessible through the TRICARE Pharmacy Program Web site and by telephone through the TRICARE Pharmacy Program Service Center. Each medication included on the list will be a medication prescribed for a chronic, long-term condition that is taken on a regular, recurring basis. It will be clinically appropriate and cost effective to dispense the medication from the mail order pharmacy. It will be available for an initial filling of a 30-day or less supply through retail pharmacies, and will be generally available at military treatment facility pharmacies for initial fill and refills. It will be available for refill through the national mail-order pharmacy.
Paragraph (r)(3) provides that a refill is a subsequent filling of an original prescription under the same prescription number or other authorization as the original prescription, or a new original prescription issued at or near the end date of an earlier prescription for the same medication for the same patient.
Paragraph (r)(4) provides that a waiver of the general requirement to obtain maintenance medication prescription refills from the mail order pharmacy or military treatment facility pharmacy will be granted in several circumstances. There is a case-by-case waiver to permit prescription maintenance medication refills at a retail pharmacy when necessary due to personal need or hardship, emergency, or other special circumstance, for example, for nursing home residents. This waiver is obtained through an administrative override request to the TRICARE pharmacy benefits manager under procedures established by the Director, Defense Health Agency.
Paragraph (r)(5) establishes procedures for the effective operation of the program. The Department will implement the program by utilizing best commercial practices to the extent practicable. An effective communication plan that includes efforts to educate beneficiaries in order to optimize participation and satisfaction will be implemented. Beneficiaries with active prescriptions for a medication on the maintenance medication list will be notified that their medication is covered under the program. Beneficiaries will be advised that they may receive up to two 30 day fills at retail while they transition their prescription to the mail order program. The beneficiary will be contacted after each of these two fills reminding the beneficiary that the prescription must be transferred to mail. Requests for a third fill at retail will be blocked and the beneficiary advised to call the pharmacy benefits manager (PBM) for assistance. The PBM will provide a toll free number to assist beneficiaries in transferring their prescriptions from retail to the mail order program. With the beneficiary's permission, the PBM will contact the physician or other health care provider who prescribed the medication to assist in transferring the prescription to the mail order program. In any case in which a beneficiary is required to obtain a maintenance medication prescription refill from the national mail-order pharmacy program and attempts instead
Paragraph (r)(6) provides that the program will remain in effect indefinitely with any adjustments or modifications required by law.
The interim final rule was published in the
Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 requires that a comprehensive regulatory impact analysis be performed on any economically significant regulatory action, defined primarily as one that would result in an effect of $100 million or more in any one year. The DoD has examined the economic and policy implications of this final rule and based on the resulting analysis, the Office of Management and Budget has concluded that this is an economically significant regulatory action under the Executive Order. The program rule will produce savings to the Department of approximately $81M per year and savings to beneficiaries of approximately $20 million per year in reduced copayments. This rule results in a shift of workload from retail pharmacies to the mail order program. This workload shift is estimated to result in a net impact to retail pharmacy margins nationwide of $15.6 million in FY17 dollars. This rule has been designated an economically significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Under the Congressional Review Act, a major rule may not take effect until at least 60 days after submission to Congress of a report regarding the rule. A major rule is one that would have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or have certain other impacts. This final rule is not a major rule under the Congressional Review Act.
This rule does not contain a Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local and tribal governments, in aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted for inflation) in any one year.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires that each Federal agency prepare and make available for public comment, a regulatory flexibility analysis when the agency issues a regulation which would have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule does not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This final rule contains no new information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3511).
This final rule does not have federalism implications, as set forth in Executive Order 13132. This rule does not have substantial direct effects on the States; the relationship between the National Government and the States; or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of Government.
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Dental health, Fraud, Health care, Health insurance, Individuals with disabilities, Military personnel.
Accordingly, 32 CFR part 199 is amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301; 10 U.S.C. chapter 55.
(r)
(2)
(i) It will be a medication prescribed for a chronic, long-term condition that is taken on a regular, recurring basis.
(ii) It will be clinically appropriate to dispense the medication from the mail order pharmacy.
(iii) It will be cost effective to dispense the medication from the mail order pharmacy.
(iv) It will be available for an initial filling of a 30-day or less supply through retail pharmacies.
(v) It will be generally available at military treatment facility pharmacies for initial fill and refills.
(vi) It will be available for refill through the national mail-order pharmacy program.
(3)
(i) A subsequent filling of an original prescription under the same prescription number or other authorization as the original prescription; or
(ii) A new original prescription issued at or near the end date of an earlier prescription for the same medication for the same patient.
(4)
(i) There is a blanket waiver for prescription medications that are for acute care needs.
(ii) There is a blanket waiver for prescriptions covered by other health insurance.
(iii) There is a case-by-case waiver to permit prescription maintenance medication refills at a retail pharmacy when necessary due to personal need or hardship, emergency, or other special circumstance. This waiver is obtained through an administrative override request to the TRICARE pharmacy benefits manager under procedures established by the Director, DHA.
(5)
(i) The Department will implement the program by utilizing best commercial practices to the extent practicable.
(ii) An effective communication plan that includes efforts to educate beneficiaries in order to optimize participation and satisfaction will be implemented.
(iii) Beneficiaries with active retail prescriptions for a medication on the maintenance medication list will be notified that their medication is included under the program. Beneficiaries will be advised that they may receive two 30 day fill at retail while they transition their prescription to the mail order program.
(iv) Requests for a third fill at retail will result in 100% patient cost shares and will be blocked from any TRICARE payments and the beneficiary advised to call the pharmacy benefits manager (PBM) for assistance.
(v) The PBM will provide a toll free number to assist beneficiaries in transferring their prescriptions from retail to the mail order program. With the beneficiary's permission, the PBM will contact the physician or other health care provider who prescribed the medication to assist in transferring the prescription to the mail order program.
(vi) In any case in which a beneficiary required under paragraph (r) of this section to obtain a maintenance medication prescription refill from national mail order pharmacy program and attempts instead to refill such medications at a retail pharmacy, the PBM will also maintain the toll free number to assist the beneficiary. This assistance may include information on how to request a waiver, consistent with paragraph (r)(4)(iii) of this section, or in taking any other appropriate action to meet the beneficiary's needs and to implement the program.
(vii) The PBM will ensure that a pharmacist is available at all times through the toll-free telephone number to answer beneficiary questions or provide other appropriate assistance.
(6) This program will remain in effect indefinitely with any adjustments or modifications required by law.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), in accordance with the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act), are amending the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (List) by adding: three foreign coral species (
This rule is effective November 2, 2016.
Sarah Quamme, Chief, Unified Listing Team, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS-ES, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803; 703-358-1796.
In accordance with the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
On December 16, 2014, NMFS published a proposed rule (79 FR 74953) to list the dusky sea snake (
The listing of the dusky sea snake and three foreign coral species was applicable as of November 6, 2015. The listing of the Banggai cardinalfish was applicable as of February 19, 2016. In the final rules for these species (dusky sea snake and three corals: 80 FR 60560;
On March 3, 2015, NMFS published a proposed rule (80 FR 11363) to list the Tanzanian DPS of African coelacanth (
On September 2, 2014, NMFS published a proposed rule (79 FR 51929) to list Nassau grouper (
On July 14, 2015, NMFS published a proposed rule (80 FR 40969) to list the sawback angelshark (
We are also updating the entries on the List for the Puget Sound-Georgia Basin canary rockfish (
The designation of critical habitat for the Puget Sound-Georgia Basin rockfish DPSs was applicable as of February 11, 2015. The designation of critical habitat for the lower Columbia River coho salmon and Puget Sound steelhead was applicable as of March 25, 2016. In the respective final rules (79 FR 68042 and 81 FR 9252), NMFS addressed all public comments received in response to the proposed rules. By publishing this final rule, we are simply taking the necessary administrative step to codify these changes in the List at 50 CFR 17.11(h).
Finally, we are updating the entry on the List for the North Atlantic right whale (
The rulemaking actions discussed above are presented in Table 1. As mentioned above, in all cases, NMFS addressed the public comments received.
Because NMFS provided a public comment period on the proposed rules for these taxa, and because this action of the Service to amend the List in accordance with the determination by NMFS is nondiscretionary, the Service finds good cause that the notice and public comment procedures of 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are unnecessary for this action. We also find good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to make this rule effective immediately. The NMFS rules extended protection under the Act to these species and listed them in 50 CFR parts 223 and 224 or designated critical habitat under 50 CFR part 226; this rule is an administrative action to amend the List at 50 CFR 17.11(h) to reflect that NMFS has completed final listing determinations or revisions, or final critical habitat determinations, for these species. The public would not be served by delaying the effective date of this rulemaking action.
We have determined that an environmental assessment, as defined under the authority of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, need not be prepared in connection with regulations adopted pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act. We outlined our reasons for this determination in the
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
Accordingly, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(h) * * *
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Commission seeks comment regarding potential modifications to its policies for evaluating oil pipeline indexed rate changes. The Commission also seeks comment regarding potential changes to FERC Form No. 6, page 700. The Commission invites all interested persons to submit comments in response to the proposals.
Initial Comments are due December 19, 2016, and Reply Comments are due January 31, 2017.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
• Electronic Filing through
•
1. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is considering modifications to its policies for evaluating oil pipeline index rate changes and to the data reporting requirements reflected in page 700 of Form No. 6. As discussed below, the Commission's index ratemaking methodology has become the predominant mechanism for adjusting oil pipeline rates under the Interstate Commerce Act (ICA). Therefore, ensuring that index rate increases do not cause pipeline revenues to unreasonably depart from oil pipeline costs, and that both the Commission and oil pipeline shippers have sufficient information to assess the relationship between oil pipeline rates and costs, is essential to the Commission's implementation of its statutory obligations under the ICA. In this Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANOPR), the Commission is considering a series of reforms to improve the Commission's and shippers' ability to ensure that oil pipeline rates are just and reasonable.
2. This ANOPR is the result of the Commission's ongoing monitoring and evaluation of the relationship between oil pipeline costs and rates. In 2015, the Liquids Shippers Group,
3. In addition, the Commission recently completed the 2015 Five-Year Indexing Review proceeding, which involved an assessment of the relationship between the oil pipeline
4. However, through the Commission's ongoing monitoring of how the index affects pipeline rates, the Commission has observed that some pipelines continue to obtain additional index rate increases despite reporting on Form No. 6, page 700 revenues that significantly exceed costs. The Commission's experience with index proceedings has also indicated that our standards for evaluating shipper objections to index filings could be strengthened and clarified, to both protect against excessive rate increases and, consistent with the streamlined and simplified methodology required by Congress,
5. Accordingly, in this ANOPR, the Commission proposes reforms to its review of oil pipeline index rate filings and the reporting requirements for Form No. 6, page 700 to better fulfill its statutory obligations under the ICA. First, the Commission is considering a new policy that would deny proposed index increases if (a) a pipeline's Form No. 6, page 700 revenues exceed the page 700 total cost-of-service by 15 percent for both of the prior two years or (b) the proposed index increases exceed by 5 percent the annual cost changes reported on the pipeline's most recently filed page 700.
6. Second, in response to the Joint Shippers' Petition, the Commission is also considering applying these new reforms to costs more closely associated with the proposed indexed rate than the total company-wide costs and revenues presently reported by oil pipelines on page 700. Accordingly, the Commission is considering requiring pipelines to file supplemental page 700s for (a) crude pipelines and product pipelines, (b) non-contiguous systems, and (c) major pipeline systems. The Commission also seeks comments regarding a proposed requirement that pipelines report (a) information regarding the allocations used to prepare the supplemental page 700s, and (b) separate revenues for cost-based rates (
7. The Commission regulates the rates, terms, and conditions that oil pipelines charge under the Interstate Commerce Act (ICA).
8. In the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct 1992), Congress mandated that the Commission establish a simplified and generally applicable ratemaking methodology for oil pipelines and streamline procedures in oil pipeline rate proceedings.
9. At the same time it created the indexing methodology, the Commission added page 700 to Form No. 6 to serve as a preliminary screening tool to evaluate indexed rates.
10. Page 700 serves as the means for the Commission's initial evaluation of protests and complaints alleging that a pipeline's indexed rate change is “substantially in excess” of the pipeline's cost changes.
11. The Commission also relies upon page 700 as a preliminary screen to evaluate complaints against an indexed rate change. Whereas the percentage comparison test has served as the means for evaluating a protest to an index rate change, the Commission applies a wider range of factors to evaluate complaints.
12. The Commission is contemplating changes to indexing policies for evaluating annual oil pipeline indexed filings. These changes would modify both the existing percentage comparison test and the substantially exacerbate test. Through these modifications, the Commission seeks to ensure that oil pipeline rates under the ICA are just and reasonable by reducing the likelihood that an oil pipeline's rates substantially deviate from its costs through the application of indexed rate increases. The Commission also is exploring whether and how such changes would further streamline and simplify its regulations consistent with the objectives of EPAct 1992.
13. Accordingly, the Commission is considering a two-part evaluation of index filings.
14. The Commission anticipates that the new exacerbate test, which considers the relationship between an oil pipeline's revenues and its costs, will have several benefits. Under indexing, individual oil pipelines may change their rates based upon industry-wide cost changes.
15. Through the new exacerbate test, shippers could raise objections to proposed rate increases when pipeline revenues already appreciably exceed costs. The contemplated 15 percent threshold is intended to preserve an indexing regime based upon industry-wide cost changes while also ensuring that the index does not cause a particular oil pipeline's rates to unreasonably depart from its costs. For example, an oil pipeline with costs corresponding to industry-wide averages and with revenues 115 percent of costs would earn a real return on equity (ROE)
16. Similarly, the Commission also anticipates that the new percentage comparison test will help ensure that rates better reflect costs. By reducing the gap between an annual rate increase and a pipeline's cost changes from 10 to 5 percent, the Commission constrains the difference that can emerge in a one-year period between a pipeline's costs and its revenues.
17. The Commission is also considering requiring pipelines, whether or not they modify their indexed rates, to make an annual filing showing changes in their ceiling levels.
18. The Commission anticipates these tests can be used to simplify and streamline oil pipeline ratemaking procedures. While page 700 has been used as a “preliminary screen,” under the tests proposed here, the pipeline's own reported cost data on page 700 would serve as a sufficient basis for a decision to deny a challenged index rate filing. In such circumstances, a full hearing before an administrative law judge would not be necessary. By relying more upon the pipeline's self-reported page 700 data, the Commission could simplify and streamline the process for evaluating indexed rate changes. To the extent that commenters believe there may be circumstances in which the new exacerbate test and the revised percentage comparison tests when applied to page 700 (or the supplemental page 700s described below) would not provide a reasonable basis for accepting or rejecting an indexed filing, commenters should (a) identify those circumstances and (b) specifically discuss how those circumstances could be addressed for evaluating indexed rate changes in a simplified and streamlined ratemaking process.
19. Along similar lines, the Commission anticipates that these modifications would streamline and simplify Commission policies by establishing clearer standards. For example, under the new exacerbate test, the Commission would be identifying the specific threshold for what constitutes a “substantial over-recovery.” Further, when the Commission sets an indexed rate filing for hearing based upon either the percentage comparison test or the substantially exacerbate test, there is limited precedent providing guidance regarding the parameters and scope of such a hearing subject to a simplified ratemaking methodology.
20. Whether relying upon the existing page 700 or the supplemental page 700s, the Commission expects that these new tests would serve as the primary mechanism for evaluating oil pipeline indexed rate changes.
21. The Commission has preliminarily concluded that additional reporting requirements may enhance the ability of shippers and the Commission to monitor oil pipeline rates. First, the Commission is considering a requirement that pipelines file supplemental page 700s for (a) crude pipelines and product pipeline systems, (b) non-contiguous systems, and (c) certain major pipeline systems. These changes would complement the proposed new exacerbate and percentage comparison tests. Using the supplemental page 700s, the Commission could evaluate indexed rate changes based upon costs and revenues more closely related (and thus more relevant) to the proposed indexed rate change.
22. Second, the Commission is considering requiring pipelines on page 700 and the supplemental page 700s to report additional information regarding (a) cost allocations used on the supplemental page 700s and (b) separate revenues for cost-based rates (
The Commission's reevaluation of page 700 originated with the Joint Shippers' petition for rulemaking. In the petition, the Joint Shippers requested that the Commission require pipelines to disaggregate the total company data reported on page 700 and to file supplemental page 700s with summary costs-of-service for (a) crude and product systems and (b) for each “rate design” segment. The Joint Shippers' proposal also requested that all interested parties be given access to the work papers used to prepare page 700. A technical conference held July 30, 2015, discussed the Joint Shippers' petition. The Commission provided the opportunity for initial comments due September 25, 2015 and reply comments due October 30, 2015. At the technical conference and in subsequent comments, the Association of Oil Pipelines (AOPL) opposed the proposal as unduly burdensome and inconsistent with the Commission's indexing ratemaking regime. In addition to the comments from AOPL the Commission also received nine separate initial comments from pipeline entities opposing the petition.
23. In its reply comments, AOPL advanced a limited alternative proposal to the petition that would require pipelines to report carrier property data shown on Form No. 6, pages 212-213 and accrued depreciation data shown on Form No. 6, page 216 separately for crude oil and products.
24. The Commission's preliminary assessment indicates that providing supplemental page 700s for different parts of a pipeline system may enhance the Commission's and shippers' ability to evaluate a pipeline's indexed rates.
25. For some pipelines, the total company data on page 700 consolidates costs and revenues from several different assets, including (a) pipeline systems that move crude oil as opposed to petroleum products, (b) non-contiguous systems that use geographically separate assets, and (c) major pipeline systems that extend at least 250 miles and serve fundamentally different markets. The costs associated with providing service on one of these systems may be fundamentally different from the costs associated with providing service on other parts of the total company pipeline system. Accordingly, these supplemental page 700s would be useful both in the evaluation of index filings (as discussed above) and for cost-of-service challenges to oil pipeline rates. When a pipeline seeks an indexed increase to a particular rate, shippers and the Commission could use the supplemental page 700s to compare the rate change with costs that are more closely associated with that particular rate.
26. Accordingly, as discussed below, the Commission is considering requiring pipelines to file supplemental page 700s for crude oil systems (labeled 700c) and petroleum product systems (labeled 700p). Within each of these crude and product systems, the Commission is considering a further requirement that pipelines provide a supplemental page 700 for (a) non-contiguous (geographically separate) pipeline systems
27. The Commission anticipates that these supplemental page 700s would allow index rate changes to be evaluated using data that is more relevant to a particular shipper's rates than the currently reported company-wide data. These criteria identify pipeline systems associated with (a) separate transportation movements and (b) costs due to the use of different assets.
28. The Commission expects that the benefits described above will outweigh the accounting burden for disaggregating the cost data on these supplemental page 700s. For crude and product systems, pipelines are already required to disaggregate significant data on the Form No. 6. For non-contiguous pipelines, geographically separate systems are also more likely to be recorded separately on a company's books and records.
29. The Commission does not presently intend to pursue additional segmentation of page 700, such as the “rate design” segments proposed in the Joint Shippers' petition. Indexing does not require an exact correlation between a pipeline's costs and rates,
30. Moreover, the Commission is concerned about the application of the Joint Shippers' proposal on an industry-wide basis. Most pipelines have never made a filing with the Commission identifying their rate design segments, and Commission precedent provides limited guidance for identifying rate design segments.
31. The comments filed in Docket No. RM15-19-000 demonstrate our concerns. As an initial matter, different shipper comments supporting the segmentation proposal identify conflicting lists of pipelines that “could” have different rate design segments.
32. The Commission is also considering requiring pipelines to report additional data on the page 700 and supplemental page 700s. First, in order to facilitate the creation of the supplemental page 700s above, the Commission is considering requiring pipelines to explain the allocation of costs between the different supplemental page 700s. Second, the Commission is considering requiring all pipelines to report separate revenues and throughput for cost-based transportation rates (resulting from indexing and cost-of-service), non-cost-based transportation rates (resulting from settlement rates and market-based rates), and other jurisdictional revenues (such as penalties).
33. The Commission is contemplating reporting requirements involving the cost allocation methodologies used to derive the system-specific data reported on the supplemental page 700s. As discussed below, the Commission recognizes pipeline arguments that it may be difficult or costly for pipelines to directly assign certain costs to the system-specific supplemental page 700s. Thus, the Commission is considering whether to permit pipelines to use reasonable methodologies for allocating those costs. However, to ensure transparency, the Commission is considering also requiring pipelines to provide information regarding these allocations on page 700. This information would allow the Commission and other interested parties to observe (a) how these allocations are affecting the supplemental page 700s' costs-of-service and (b) any changes in direct assignment or allocation practices between annual page 700 filings.
34. Page 700 includes ratemaking information that, unlike typical accounting data, pipelines may not be able to cost-effectively determine on a segmented basis. For example, the Opinion No. 154-B trended original cost rate base
35. Accordingly, to the extent the Opinion No. 154-B rate base information is not available in company records, the Commission would permit pipelines to perform a one-time allocation of these costs for preparing the supplemental page 700s. Reasonable allocations of this data should not significantly reduce the usefulness of the supplemental page 700 data. The Deferred Earnings and Starting Rate Base Write-Up are a relatively small part of an overall cost-of-service,
Deferred Earnings = Accumulated Net Deferred Earnings, line 5c * Real Cost of Stockholders' Equity, line 6d
Taxes on Deferred Earnings = Accumulated Net Deferred Earnings, line 5c * Adjusted Capital Structure Ratio for Stockholders' Equity, line 6b * Real Cost of
Stockholders' Equity, line 6d * (Composite Tax Rate, line 8a/(1-Composite Tax Rate, line 8a))
Deferred Earnings as a Percent of Cost of Service = (Deferred Earnings + Taxes on Deferred Earnings)/Total Cost of Service, line 9.
Using this formula, deferred earnings accounted for 6.71 percent of the median pipeline's cost of service, 3.29 percent for the pipeline at the 25th percentile and 9.44 percent for the pipeline at the 75th percentile. The industry-wide mean was 6.71 percent. Because the starting rate base write-up (line 5b) has been depreciated since 1984, it is either fully depreciated or quite small on most pipelines.
36. The Commission would also permit other allocations where appropriate. Currently, when the pipeline's business records do not allow direct cost assignment, pipelines filing page 700s use Commission-approved cost allocation methodologies for (a) allocating parent company overhead to the pipeline filing page 700 and (b) identifying the jurisdictional costs reported on page 700 as opposed to the non-jurisdictional costs. To the extent necessary, the pipelines may use reasonable methodologies for allocating costs
37. The Commission, however, also seeks to ensure transparency regarding the costs allocated among the supplemental page 700s. The choice and application of cost allocation methodologies involves judgment that, to some degree, may be subjective.
38. Thus, for certain line items on page 700 oil pipelines would be required to report (a) directly assigned costs and (b) allocated costs.
39. Second, in order to facilitate understanding of these allocations, on both page 700 and the supplemental page 700s, the Commission is considering requiring additional data involving rate base.
40. By permitting oil pipelines to use estimates and cost allocations for certain costs, the Commission would seek to reduce the compliance costs associated with the supplemental page 700s. However, the use of allocations would be balanced by the additional reporting requirements that would enable the Commission and shippers to monitor both the level of allocated costs and, in general terms, how those costs were allocated.
41. The Commission is also considering requiring pipelines to disaggregate page 700 revenue, barrel, and barrel-mile data associated with (a) cost-based rates (resulting from indexing and cost-of-service), (b) non-cost-based rates (resulting from settlement rates
42. When page 700 was created following EPAct 1992, most oil pipeline revenues resulted from rates subject to cost-based regulation. Therefore, comparing total revenue to total costs served as an effective preliminary means to determine whether to challenge a pipeline's cost-based rates. However, in recent years, an increasing percentage of pipelines are using settlement rates (including negotiated rates associated with new construction). Also, at the same time the Commission created page 700, the Commission formalized its market-based rates policy in Order No. 572.
43. Separating the cost-based and non-cost-based revenue could help the Commission and pipeline shippers to assess, on a preliminary basis, whether a gap between total company costs and revenues likely results from cost-based rates (which could be challenged on a cost-of-service basis) or from non-cost-based rates (which could not be challenged on a cost basis). Also, because a pipeline must know the rate to charge a shipper seeking service, this revenue data should be relatively simple for the pipeline to identify and to track.
44. Certain limitations apply to this data. Different revenue sources may apply to different parts of the pipeline with different costs.
45. Based on our consideration of the record in Docket No. RM15-19, and our proposed revisions to page 700 included in this ANOPR, we do not propose requiring pipelines to make the work papers used to prepare page 700 available to all interested parties as requested by the Joint Shippers' petition.
46. As described earlier in the ANOPR, the Commission is proposing to significantly revise pipeline reporting requirements for page 700. Page 700 data filed by the pipelines is under oath and subject to Commission audit. The current data on page 700 allows a shipper to compare (a) a pipeline's revenues to its total cost-of-service and (b) changes to a pipeline's total cost-of-service. Under both the Commission's current policy and the policy changes proposed above, this is the data directly used to evaluate challenged index filings. Page 700 also provides significant context for these total costs, including several major cost-of-service subcomponents. By requiring additional information on page 700 and the supplemental page 700s regarding (a) rate base (proposed lines 5a1-5a4), (b) the cost allocations, and (c) revenues, the Commission is providing additional context for the data on page 700.
47. In support of their proposal, the Joint Shippers emphasize that the Commission currently has access to pipeline work papers. While true, we believe that, on balance, mandating disclosure of work papers is not necessary to provide shippers with sufficient information when considering challenges to pipelines' proposed or existing rates. In particular, we note that the dissemination of this data to shippers raises potential confidentiality concerns that do not exist when the Commission reviews the work papers. These issues include (a) shipper information protected by section 15(13) of the ICA, which prohibits disclosure of an individual shipper's movements and (b) the pipeline's competitive business information. On balance, we find that the general disclosure of this information, even subject to confidentiality agreements, is not appropriate at this time.
48. The Commission invites commenters to also address the potential cost of the proposals being considered in this ANOPR. Comments could include an estimate of both the one-time implementation costs and the ongoing compliance costs. The Commission will provide a burden estimate in any future notice of proposed rulemaking.
49. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues presented in this notice to be adopted. Initial comments are due December 19, 2016 and reply comments are due January 31, 2017. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM17-1-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
50. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
51. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission,
52. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
53. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
54. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
55. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
By direction of the Commission.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notification of request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing the establishment of a docket to receive comments, particularly data and other information, on the appropriate reference amount customarily consumed (RACC) and product category for flavored nut butter spreads (
Comments must be received on or before January 3, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Cherisa Henderson, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-830), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1450.
Under section 403(q)(1)(A)(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 343(q)(1)(A)(i)), food that is intended for human consumption and offered for sale must bear nutrition information that provides a serving size that reflects the amount of food customarily consumed (
The 1993 final rule included a reference (Ref. 1) to a memorandum to the file entitled “List of products for each product category,” which listed “Nutella” as an example of a product in the product category “Other dessert toppings,
In the
On March 10, 2016, we received a comment in response to the 2014 proposed rule in which a report prepared by a scientific consulting firm analyzed the NHANES data from 2003 through 2012 among participants aged 1 year and older for “Nutella” and other similar products used as chocolate-flavored hazelnut spreads (n = 92) (Ref. 2). The comment stated that the results showed that the mean, median, and mode consumption amounts were 28.6 g, 18 g (about 1 tbsp.), and 12 g, respectively. The comment included a report of an online survey designed to estimate the amount of “Nutella” typically consumed in an eating occasion. The comment asserted that the survey was administered to a representative sample of the U.S. population aged 18 to 80 years, with an average age of 27.3 years. Four hundred and thirty respondents consumed “Nutella” in the year before the survey was administered, and these respondents reported 824 eating occasions. Based on the categorical consumption amount selections weighted by the frequency of such amount consumed, the comment concluded that median consumption per eating occasion was 18.5 g (about 1 tbsp.), that the mean consumption per eating occasion was 32.6 g, and that almost half of the eating occasions (46.9 percent) involved using the product as a spread with bread or toast, as compared to use with crackers or cookies (17.2 percent), use by itself (13.9 percent), use as a spread for fruit (10.8 percent), use as a spread over pancakes or waffles (8.2 percent), and other uses (3 percent). The report concluded that the median consumption amount from both analyses was one tbsp., consistent with the RACC of one tbsp. that we had established for sweet spreads for bread such as honey, jams, and jellies.
Following the receipt of the citizen petition and comment, in the
In response to the 2014 proposed rule, one comment requested that we establish an RACC for icing intended for use as cupcake filling. In the preamble to the 2016 final rule, we said that we recognize a need for an RACC for this specific food product as well as for other types of cake or pastry fillings,” but we further explained that, because the proposed rule was silent about an RACC for cupcake filling, and because we intended to provide the opportunity for public comment on this specific issue, we intend to establish an RACC for this product category in future rulemaking” (81 FR 34000 at 34029). This notification of request for comments represents the first step of our evaluation of the appropriate RACC and product category for products used as a filling for cupcakes and other desserts.
We invite interested persons to comment on the appropriate RACC and product category for flavored nut butter spreads (
We are particularly interested in responses to the following questions:
• What additional data and information are available to determine the customary consumption amounts of and appropriate product category for flavored nut butter spreads (
• What is the major intended use of flavored nut butter spreads (
• What other products on the market, if any, are similar to flavored nut butter spreads (
• What additional data and information are available regarding the customary consumption amounts and product category of products used as fillings for cupcakes and other desserts, such as cakes and pastries?
• What is the major intended use of fillings for cupcakes and other desserts, such as cakes and pastries?
• What other products on the market, if any, are similar to cupcake filling, such as cakes and pastries fillings? What product characteristics make these products similar? What dietary usage makes these products similar? Which product categories do fillings for cupcakes and other desserts, such as cakes and pastries, compete with or take market share and volume from? What data and information are available regarding the customary consumption amounts and product category for these similar products?
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (see
1. Park, Y., Memorandum to the File, List of Products for Each Product Category, October 8, 1992.
2. Ferrero Inc., Comment to the Food Labeling: Serving Sizes of Foods That Can Reasonably Be Consumed at One-Eating Occasion; Dual Column Labeling; Updating, Modifying, and Establishing Certain Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed; Proposed Rule. August 1, 2014.
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)), DoD.
Proposed rule.
This rulemaking establishes implementation guidelines for DS Logon to provide a secure means of authentication to applications containing personally identifiable information (PII) and personal health information (PHI). This will allow beneficiaries and other individuals with a continuing affiliation with DoD to update pay or health-care information in a secure environment. This service can be accessed by active duty, National Guard and Reserve, and Commissioned Corps members of the uniformed services when separating from active duty or from the uniformed service.
Comments must be received by January 3, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and/or RIN number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Mr. Robert Eves, Defense Human Resources Activity, 571-372-1956.
This proposed rule describes procedures for obtaining a DS Logon credential for all active duty, National Guard and Reserve, and Commissioned Corps members of the uniformed services when separating from active duty or from the uniformed service. It discusses how credential holders may maintain and update their credentials and manage their personal settings. Finally, it discusses the permissions credential holders have to access their information, who has access to view and edit their information, and who is eligible to act on their behalf.
DoD collects and maintains information on Service members, beneficiaries, DoD employees, and other individuals affiliated with the DoD in order to issue DoD identification (ID) cards that facilitate access to DoD benefits, DoD installations, and DoD information systems. This action formally establishes DoD policy requirements for DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon credentials that are used to facilitate logical access to self-service Web sites. This regulatory action will update the CFR for DoD Manual (DoDM) 1341.02, volume 1, “DoD Identity Management: DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon Program and Credential.
The DoD PIP Program uses emerging technologies to support the protection of individual identity and to assist with safeguarding DoD physical assets, networks, and systems from unauthorized access based on fraudulent or fraudulently obtained credentials. DEERS is the authoritative data source for identity and verification of affiliation with the DoD in accordance with the DoD PIP Program. Specific authorities are listed below.
• Title 10 U.S.C. 1044a. This section establishes the authority for a Judge Advocate, other member of the armed forces, designated by law and regulations, or other eligible persons to have the powers to act as a notary. The persons identified in Title 10 U.S.C. 1044a subsection (b) have the general power of a notary and may notarize a completed and signed DD Form 3005, “Application for Surrogate Association for DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon.”
• DoD Instruction 1000.25, “DoD Personnel Identity Protection (PIP) Program” (available at
• DoD Instruction 1341.2, “Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) Procedures” (available at
• Office of Management and Budget M-04-04, “E-Authentication Guidance for Federal Agencies” (available at
• 32 CFR part 310. This CFR part established the DoD Privacy Program in accordance with the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, and prescribes uniform procedures for the implementation of and compliance with the DoD Privacy Program.
The annual operating costs for the DS Logon program are approximately $1,265,305.35. Based on 6 million active users, the cost per user is about $0.21. The benefits include extending a secure means of authentication to PII and PHI to all DoD beneficiaries and other individuals with a continuing affiliation with DoD who previously had no logical access. Only one DS Logon credential may exist for an individual eliminating separate username/password combinations for each application to be accessed, allowing users to better manage their means of authentication to DoD information systems. The DS Logon credentials are credentialed at National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) e-authentication levels 1, 2, and 3, in accordance with NIST Special Publication 800-63-2 (available at:
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the proposed rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2014, that threshold is approximately $141 million. This proposed rule would not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
The Department of Defense certifies that this proposed rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial
Section 221.6(d)(2)(i)(A) of this proposed rule contains information collection requirements. DoD has submitted the following proposal to OMB under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35). Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of DoD, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This information collection is needed to obtain the necessary data to establish eligibility for a DS Logon credential and enrollment in DEERS.
This information shall be used to establish an individual's eligibility for DEERS enrollment and DS Logon credential issuance as a surrogate. Once this information has been collected, a record will be established in DEERS and a DS Logon credential issued in accordance with DoDM 1341.02, volume 1. The information that is collected may be released to Federal and State agencies and private entities, on matters relating to utilization review, professional quality assurance, program integrity, civil and criminal litigation, and access to Federal government facilities, computer systems, networks, and controlled areas.
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed information collection should be sent to Jasmeet Seehra at
You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method:
•
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to Defense Human Resources Activity, Suite 06J25, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Alexandria, Virginia 22350-4000; Mr. Robert Eves; 571-372-1956.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. This proposed rule will not have a substantial effect on State and local governments.
Identity management, Identification cards, Logon credentials.
10 U.S.C. 1044a.
(a) The purpose of the overall part is to implement policy, assign responsibilities, and provide procedures for DoD personnel identification.
(b) This part establishes implementation guidelines for DS Logon.
This part applies to:
(a) The Office of the Secretary, the Military Departments (including the Coast Guard at all times, including when it is a Service in the Department of Homeland Security by agreement with that Department), the Office of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities within the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
(b) The Commissioned Corps of the U.S. Public Health Service (USPHS), under agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), under agreement with the Department of Commerce.
Unless otherwise noted, the following terms and their definitions are for the purposes of this part:
(1) Conveys the appropriate seal or markings of the issuer;
(2) Has a means to validate the authenticity of the document by a reference or source number;
(3) Is a notarized legal document or other document approved by a judge advocate, member of any of the armed forces, or other eligible person in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 1044a; or
(4) Has the appropriate certificate of authentication by a U.S. Consular Officer in the foreign country of issuance which attests to the authenticity of the signature and seal.
(1) Twenty years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 20 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/20). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce;
(2) Twenty years marriage, 20 years creditable service for retirement, and 15 years overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 20/20/15). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce; or
(3) A spouse whose marriage was terminated from a uniformed service member who has their eligibility to receive retired pay terminated as a result of misconduct based on Service-documented abuse of the spouse and has 10 years of marriage, 20 years of creditable service for retirement, 10 years of overlap between the marriage and the service (referred to as 10/20/10). The benefits eligibility begins on the date of divorce.
In accordance with DoD Directive 1000.25, “DoD Personnel Identity Protection (PIP) Program” (available at
(a) The Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)) oversees implementation of the procedures within this part.
(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&R), and in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, the Director, DoDHRA, through the Director, DMDC:
(1) Approves the addition or elimination of population categories for DS Logon eligibility.
(2) Develops and fields the required Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) and RAPIDS infrastructure and all elements of field support required to support the management of the DS Logon credential including, but not limited to, issuance, storage, maintenance, and customer service.
(3) Obtains and distributes DS Logon credentials, and provides a secure means for delivery.
(c) The DoD Component heads:
(1) Comply with this part and distribute this guidance to applicable stakeholders.
(2) Provide manpower for issuance of DS Logon credentials and instruction for use to all eligible individuals who are requesting a DS Logon credential in conjunction with the issuance of a DoD identification (ID) card or who are applying for a DS Logon credential as a surrogate, when responsible for a DoD ID card site(s).
(d) The Secretaries of the Military Departments, in addition to the responsibilities in paragraph (c) of this section, and the heads of the non-DoD uniformed services:
(1) Comply with this part and distribute this guidance to applicable stakeholders.
(2) Provide manpower for issuance of DS Logon credentials and instruction for use to all eligible individuals who are requesting a DS Logon credential in conjunction with the issuance of a DoD ID card or who are applying for a DS Logon credential as a surrogate.
(3) Ensure all Active Duty, National Guard and Reserve, and Commissioned Corps members of their uniformed services obtain a DS Logon credential when separating from active duty or from the uniformed service.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(i) Veterans, including former members, retirees, Medal of Honor recipients, disabled American veterans, and other veterans with a continuing affiliation to the DoD.
(ii) Retired DoD civilian employees, including retired NOAA Wage Mariners.
(iii) Eligible dependents in accordance with volume 2 of DoD Manual 1000.13, “DoD Identification (ID) Cards: Benefits for Members of the Uniformed Services, Their Dependents, and Other Eligible Individuals” (available at
(iv) DBs, including eligible widows, widowers, and former spouses, in accordance with volume 2 of DoD Manual 1000.13.
(v) Surrogates, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(vi) Other populations as determined by the Director, DMDC.
(c)
(i)
(A)
(B)
(
(
(C)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(2)
(3)
(i) Activate or deactivate an account.
(ii) Reset password.
(iii) Update challenge questions and answers.
(iv) Upgrade from a Basic DS Logon to a Premium DS Logon credential.
(v) Select or update preferred sponsor, if a dependent of two sponsors.
(vi) Manage personal and advanced security settings.
(vii) Manage contact information.
(viii) Manage relationships and access granting.
(ix) Manage the DS Logon credential using additional capabilities as implemented by the Director, DMDC.
(4)
(5)
(d)
(1)
(i)
(ii)
(2)
(i)
(A) A completed and signed DD Form 3005, “Application for Surrogate Association for DoD Self-Service (DS) Logon.”
(B) Any additional eligibility documents required by the DD Form 3005 which describe the scope of the surrogate's authority.
(C) Proof of identity, in accordance with the requirements for in-person proofing in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section.
(ii)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(F)
(e)
(1)
(2)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a planning meeting of the New Mexico Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene at 11:00 a.m. (MDT) on Wednesday, November 16, 2016, via teleconference. The purpose of the meeting is to receive comments and report from SAC members on their recommendations to develop an outline in preparation of the SAC's report on Elder Abuse in New Mexico. The committee will also discuss next steps for the project.
Wednesday, November 16, 2016, at 11:00 a.m. (MDT).
To be held via teleconference:
Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-298-3457, Conference ID: 2806935.
Malee V. Craft, DFO,
Members of the public may listen to the discussion by dialing the following Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-298-3457; Conference ID: 2806935. Please be advised that before being placed into the conference call, the operator will ask callers to provide their names, their organizational affiliations (if any), and an email address (if available) prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free phone number.
Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the discussion by first calling the Federal Relay Service (FRS) at 1-800-977-8339 and provide the FRS operator with the Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-298-3457, Conference ID: 2806935. Members of the public are invited to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by Friday, December 16, 2016. Written comments may be mailed to the Rocky Mountain Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1961 Stout Street, Suite 13-201, Denver, CO 80294, faxed to (303) 866-1050, or emailed to Evelyn Bohor at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) by the Chattanooga Chamber Foundation, grantee of FTZ 134, requesting subzone status for the facility of Wacker Polysilicon North America LLC, located in Charleston, Tennessee. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on October 28, 2016.
The proposed subzone (564 acres) is located at 553 Wacker Blvd. NW., Charleston. A notification of proposed production activity has been submitted and is being processed under 15 CFR 400.37 (Doc. B-52-2016).
In accordance with the Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the Executive Secretary.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is December 12, 2016. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to December 27, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Kathleen Boyce at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of ammonium sulfate from the People's Republic of China (PRC). The period of investigation is January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015. We invite interested parties to comment on this preliminary determination.
Effective November 2, 2016.
Robert Galantucci, AD/CVD Operations, Office IV, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-2923.
The product covered by this investigation is ammonium sulfate from the PRC. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
The Department is conducting this countervailing duty (CVD) investigation in accordance with section 701 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For each of the subsidy programs found countervailable, we preliminarily determine that there is a subsidy,
In making these findings, we relied on facts otherwise available. Additionally, because we find that the mandatory respondents did not act to the best of their ability to respond to the Department's requests for information, and therefore impeded this investigation, we drew an adverse inference where appropriate in selecting from among the facts otherwise available.
In accordance with sections 776(a)(1), 776(a)(2), and 776(b) of the Act, we applied facts otherwise available with an adverse inference to assign countervailable subsidy rates for non-cooperative mandatory respondents Wuzhoufeng Agricultural Science & Technology Co. Ltd. (Wuzhoufeng AST) and Yantai Jiahe Agriculture Means of Production Co. Ltd. (Yantai AMP). With respect to the all-others rate, section 705(c)(5)(B) of the Act provides that if the countervailable subsidy rates established for all exporters and producers individually investigated are determined entirely in accordance with section 776 of the Act, the Department may use any reasonable method to establish an all-others rate for exporters and producers not individually investigated. In this case, the rates assigned to Wuzhoufeng AST and Yantai AMP are based entirely on facts otherwise available, with an adverse inference, under section 776 of the Act. There is no other information on the record with which to determine an all-others rate. As a result, in accordance with section 705(c)(5)(B) of the Act, we have established the all-others rate by applying the countervailable subsidy rates for mandatory respondents Wuzhoufeng AST and Yantai AMP. The preliminary estimated countervailable subsidy rates are summarized in the table below.
In accordance with sections 703(d)(1)(B) and (d)(2) of the Act, we will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of ammonium sulfate from the PRC as described in the “Scope of the Investigation” entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
In accordance with section 703(f) of the Act, we will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order, without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
In accordance with section 705(b)(2) of the Act, if our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will make its final determination within 45 days after the Department makes its final determination.
Interested parties may submit case and rebuttal briefs, as well as request a hearing.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 703(f) and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is ammonium sulfate in all physical forms, with or without additives such as anti-caking agents. Ammonium sulfate, which may also be spelled as ammonium sulphate, has the chemical formula (NH
The scope includes ammonium sulfate that is combined with other products, including by, for example, blending (
Ammonium sulfate that has been combined with other products is included within the scope regardless of whether the combining occurs in countries other than China.
Ammonium sulfate that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled (
The Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) registry number for ammonium sulfate is 7783-20-2.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is currently classifiable under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading 3102.21.0000. Although this HTSUS subheading and CAS registry number are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice of meeting.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) announces that on November 17, 2016 from 10:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m., the Market Risk Advisory Committee (MRAC) will hold a public meeting at the CFTC's Washington, DC, headquarters. The meeting will be held in the Conference Center at the Commodity Futures Trading Commission's headquarters in Washington, DC. At this meeting: (1) The CCP Risk Management Subcommittee (CRM) will present to the MRAC its final recommendations on how Central Counterparties (CCPs) can further enhance their efforts in preparing for the default of a significant clearing member as discussed at the April 2, 2015, November 2, 2015, and June 27, 2016 meetings of the MRAC; and (2) the MRAC will discuss the Bank of England's coordinated CCP default fire drill.
The meeting will be held on November 17, 2016 from 10:00 a.m. to 1:30 p.m. Members of the public who wish to submit written statements in connection with the meeting should submit them by November 24, 2016.
The meeting will take place in the Conference Center at the CFTC's headquarters, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581. Written statements should be submitted by mail to: Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581, attention: Office of the Secretary, or by electronic mail to:
Petal Walker, MRAC Designated Federal Officer, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581; (202) 418-5010.
The meeting will be open to the public with seating on a first-come, first-served basis. Members of the public may also listen to the meeting by telephone by calling a domestic toll-free telephone or international toll or toll-free number to connect to a live, listen-only audio feed. Call-in participants should be prepared to provide their first name, last name, and affiliation.
5 U.S.C. app. 2 § 10(a)(2).
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”) is
Comments must be submitted on or before January 3, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by “Practice by Former Members and Employees of the Commission Pursuant to 17 CFR 140.735-6” or by “OMB Control No. 3038-0025, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Please submit your comments using only one method.
All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
Bianca Gomez, Counsel, Office of the General Counsel, Commodities Futures Trading Commission, 202-418-5627; email:
Under the PRA, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
• Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have a practical use;
• The accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Ways to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology;
There are no startup capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection.
44 U.S.C. 3501
Office of Career, Technical, and Adult Education, Department of Education.
Notice; public challenge.
The U.S. Department of Education (the Department) is announcing the EdSim Challenge (Challenge), a prize competition funded by the Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006 (Perkins IV or Act). The Challenge calls upon the virtual reality, video game developer, and educational technology communities to design next-generation computer-generated simulations for career and technical education (CTE) that prepare students for the globally competitive workforce of the 21st century.
The Challenge seeks designs that lead to the acquisition of academic, technical, and employability skills through engaging simulated experiences in the hybrid reality continuum. For the purpose of this notice, “hybrid reality continuum” refers to the range of computer-generated simulations that extend from completely simulated environments to environments that incorporate aspects of the real world.
The purpose of this Challenge is to stimulate the marketplace for computer-
We must receive your first round Challenge submission on or before 4:59:59 p.m., Washington, DC time on January 17, 2017.
The timeframes for judging the first round submissions and selecting the finalists will be determined by the Department.
The Department will conduct at least one online information session during the first round submission phase of the Challenge. The date of the session will be determined and announced by the Department, posted on
The date for the final judging will be determined and announced by the Department following Demonstration Day.
The winner(s) will be announced on a date determined and announced by the Department.
Submit entries for the Challenge on
Albert Palacios, U.S. Department of Education, 550 12th Street SW., Room 11086, Washington, DC 20202 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The Challenge will be conducted by the U.S. Department of Education. Luminary Labs, L.L.C. (Luminary Labs) has been contracted by the Department to assist and support the Department in organizing and managing this competition. Activities conducted by Luminary Labs may also include providing technical assistance to potential entrants, entrants, and finalists.
Simulated digital learning environments, such as virtual and augmented reality experiences, training simulations, and multiplayer video games, represent an emerging class of instructional content delivery in education. Research indicates that simulation-based learning provides students with enriched experiences in information retention, engagement, skills training, and learning outcomes.
A call for public feedback, which took place from November 4 to December 9, 2015, helped to shape the Challenge. This public feedback informed the design of several Challenge elements, including the selection criteria, approach to technology, and the content of the submission form. Specifically, the public feedback indicated that the field was interested in the Department allowing maximum flexibility to entrants designing concepts. More information regarding the call for public feedback can be found on the Challenge Web page.
The Challenge will be conducted in four phases:
(1) Challenge launch and the first round submission phase;
(2) Judging of first round submissions and selection of finalists;
(3) Virtual Accelerator Phase (inclusive of finalist mentorship, Innovator's Boot Camp, second round submissions, and Demonstration Day); and
(4) Final judging and selection of winner(s).
The Challenge calls upon potential entrants to submit information concerning concepts that would allow users to gain and demonstrate new academic, technical, and employability skills through engaging simulation experiences. The Department is most interested in immersive and engaging simulations that will help define the next generation of applied learning.
The Department invites potential entrants to submit concepts which may include a prototype for discrete, playable simulations with clearly defined learning goals. The Department seeks concepts that aim to build competency in multiple skills by familiarizing the user with a particular career pathway or providing the user with guided experiences.
The Department seeks concepts with the potential to connect to other simulations and set the stage for a more competitive and robust marketplace for educational simulations. The Department encourages developers to make aspects of their EdSims available through open source licenses and low-cost sharable components in order to increase access to CTE and educational simulations.
Up to five finalists will be selected from the pool of submissions received during the first round submission phase. From the total prize pool of $680,000, each of the finalists will be awarded $50,000 for their submission based on a review by the judging panel using the criteria in paragraph (a) in the
The Virtual Accelerator Phase begins on the date finalists are announced and concludes on Demonstration Day,
General Elements of the Virtual Accelerator Phase include the following—
(1)
(2)
(3)
Following Demonstration Day, a judging panel will provide recommendations to the Department on the selection of one or more winners from the pool of finalists to receive the remainder of the prize money.
(a) Eligible entrants must be:
(1) Individuals at least 18 years of age and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States;
(2) Teams of individuals that:
(i) Are all at least 18 years of age;
(ii) Include at least one citizen or permanent resident of the United States; and
(iii) May also include foreign citizens who affirm at the time of submission of an entry for the Challenge that they are foreign citizens, who are not permanent residents; or
(3) An entity registered or incorporated in accordance with applicable State and local laws, and maintaining a primary place of business in the United States. The entity may include foreign citizens participating as employees of the entity.
(b) Ineligible entrants include—
(1) A foreign citizen unless participating as part of an eligible team or entity;
(2) A Federal entity;
(3) A Federal employee acting within the scope of his or her employment; and
(4) All employees of the Department, Luminary Labs, Challenge sponsors, or any other individual or entity associated with the development or administration of the Challenge, as well as members of such persons' immediate families (spouses, children, siblings, parents), and persons living in the same household as such persons, whether or not related.
(c) Entrants must:
(1) Register on the Challenge Web page (see
(2) Enter a submission on the Challenge Web page according to the rules, terms, and conditions in this notice;
(3) Comply with all requirements of the Challenge;
(4) Provide affirmation upon submission of an entry for the Challenge that an entrant is eligible under subsection (a) of this section. If selected as a finalist, entrants must provide documentation to demonstrate their eligibility at that time.
(5) Agree to—
(i) Assume any and all risks and waive claims against the Federal government and its related entities, except in the case of willful misconduct, for any injury, death, damage, or loss of property, revenue, or profits, whether direct, indirect, or consequential, arising from their participation in the Challenge, whether the injury, death, damage, or loss of property, revenue, or profits, whether direct, indirect, or consequential, arises through negligence or otherwise;
(ii) Indemnify the Federal government against third party claims for damages arising from, or related to, competition activities, patents, copyrights, and trademark infringements; and
(iii) Comply with and abide by the
(d) Entrants are not required to obtain liability insurance or demonstrate financial responsibility in order to participate in the Challenge.
The total prize pool for the Challenge is $680,000. From the $680,000 Challenge prize pool funds, up to five finalists will be awarded $50,000 each following the judging of the first round submissions. Finalists will improve upon and revise their submissions during the Virtual Accelerator Phase. At the conclusion of the Virtual Accelerator Phase, finalists must submit a second round submission and present their submissions on Demonstration Day. After Demonstration Day, a judging panel will provide recommendations to the Department on the selection of one or more winners from the pool of finalists to receive the remainder of the prize money.
Prizes awarded under this competition will be paid by electronic funds transfer. Winners are responsible for any applicable local, State, and Federal taxes and reporting that may be required under applicable tax laws.
(a) To participate in the Challenge, an entrant must submit an eligible entry according to the
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(b) When judging the finalist submissions, including a prototype, judges will recommend to the Department the winner(s) from the pool of the finalists. From the pool of finalists, the winner(s) will be selected based on the following six criteria. Each of the six selection criteria may be assigned up to five points during the selection of the winner(s) from the pool of finalists (for a total of up to 30 points). The following criteria will be used to select the winner(s):
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(i) Demonstrates the entrant's evolution and improvement of the concept; and
(ii) Illustrates the entrant's ability and intention to improve upon and scale the simulation beyond the Challenge timeframe.
(5)
(6)
(i) Demonstrates a plan for encouraging collaboration among the developer community, including making aspects of the solution available through open source licenses; and
(ii) Provides a vision of how the entrant's plan will stimulate the broader educational simulation market.
1. To participate in the Challenge, an entrant must—
(a) Register on the Challenge Web page.
(b) Enter the required information on the Challenge Web page submission form.
2.
To submit an entry to the first round of the Challenge, an entrant must complete the submission form on the Challenge Web page. Finalists must submit a second round submission using the second round submission form on the Challenge Web page to be eligible for winner selection.
3.
The first round submissions phase officially begins November 2, 2016 with this announcement of the Challenge and continues to January 17, 2017 at 4:59:59 p.m., Washington, DC time. Luminary Labs is the official timekeeper for the Challenge.
Submissions must be received during the first round submissions phase of the Challenge to be eligible. To submit an entry to the Challenge, an entrant must go to the Challenge Web page and complete all required fields of the submission form before the close of the first round submissions phase. Each entrant must complete all of the required fields in the submission form in accordance with the
Entrants may enter individually or as part of a team, and teams are strongly encouraged. Each team member must be clearly identified on the team's submission form for the team to be eligible. Teams must designate a primary contact to serve as the team lead (Team Lead) and manage the distribution of any awarded prizes. In the event a dispute regarding the identity of the entrant who actually submitted the entry cannot be resolved by the Department, the affected entry will be deemed ineligible.
The first round submissions phase closes at 4:59:59 p.m., Washington, DC time on January 17, 2017. The Department encourages entrants to submit entries as far in advance of the deadline as possible and suggests not later than one hour before the deadline to ensure the completed submission is received. If an entrant is unable to submit an entry before the deadline date because of a technical problem with the Challenge Web page system, the entrant must immediately contact the person listed under
These extensions apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the Challenge Web page system. The Department will not grant an entrant an extension if the entrant failed to submit an entry in the system by the submission deadline date and time, or if the technical problem experienced is unrelated to the Challenge Web page system.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the submission process should contact the person listed under
Should the volume of first round submissions exceed the capacity of the independent judges to conduct a thorough evaluation of the submissions, an independent review panel with expertise relevant to the criteria described in the
The size of the independent review panel will be based on the number of submissions received. Each member of the independent review panel will score a maximum of thirty submissions and all submissions will receive scores from three different independent review panelists.
The submissions with the thirty highest scores assigned by the independent review panel will then be scored by independent judges based on the quality of each entry according to the criteria described in the
Based on their individual expertise, judges will recommend up to five finalists to be selected by the Department. Once the Department has selected a group of finalists based on the recommendations of the judges consistent with the selection criteria, the finalists will then refine their submissions during the Virtual Accelerator Phase. At the conclusion of the Virtual Accelerator Phase, finalists will submit a second round submission and present their submissions on Demonstration Day.
Entries will be scored by the judges based on the quality of each entry according to the criteria described in paragraph (a) of the
By participating in the Challenge, each entrant acknowledges and agrees that such recommendations of the judges based on the criteria may differ and agrees to be bound by, and not to challenge, the final decisions of the Department.
The Department reserves the right to suspend, postpone, cease, terminate, or otherwise modify this Challenge or any entrant's participation in the Challenge, at any time at the Department's sole discretion.
All entry information submitted on the Challenge Web page and all materials, including any copy of the submission, becomes property of the Department and will not be acknowledged or returned by Luminary Labs or the Department. However, entrants retain ownership of their concepts, including any software, research, or other intellectual property (IP) that they develop in connection therewith, subject to the license granted to the Department to use submissions as set forth in the
By participating in the Challenge, each entrant represents, warrants, and covenants as follows:
(a) The entrants are the sole authors, creators, and owners of the submission;
(b) The entrant's submission—
(i) Is not the subject of any actual or threatened litigation or claim;
(ii) Does not, and will not, violate or infringe upon the intellectual property rights, privacy rights, publicity rights, or other legal rights of any third party;
(iii) Does not contain any harmful computer code (sometimes referred to as “malware,” “viruses,” or “worms”); and
(c) The submission, and entrants' use of the submission, does not, and will not, violate any applicable laws or regulations of the United States.
If the submission includes the work of any third party (such as third party content or open source code), the entrant must be able to provide, upon the request of the Department or Luminary Labs, documentation of all appropriate licenses and releases for such third party works. If the entrant cannot provide documentation of all required licenses and releases, the Department reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to disqualify the applicable submission, or direct the entrant to secure the licenses and releases for the Department's benefit within three days of notification of the missing documentation and allow the applicable submission to remain in the Challenge. In addition, the Department reserves all rights to pursue an entrant for claims based on damages incurred by entrant's failure to obtain such licenses and releases.
Entrants will indemnify, defend, and hold harmless the Department and Luminary Labs from and against all third party claims, actions, or proceedings of any kind and from any and all damages, liabilities, costs, and expenses relating to, or arising from, entrant's submission or any breach or alleged breach of any of the representations, warranties, and covenants of entrant hereunder. The Department reserves the right to disqualify any submission that the Department, in its discretion, deems to violate these
Each entrant retains title to, and full ownership of, its submission. The entrant expressly reserves all intellectual property rights not expressly granted under this agreement. By participating in the Challenge, each entrant hereby irrevocably grants a license to the Department and Luminary Labs to store and access submissions in perpetuity that may be reproduced or distributed in the future. Please refer to the
By participating in the Challenge, each entrant hereby irrevocably grants to the Department and Luminary Labs the right to use such entrant's name, likeness, image, and biographical information in any and all media for advertising and promotional purposes relating to the Challenge in perpetuity and otherwise as stated in the
The Department reserves the right in its sole discretion to disqualify any entrant who is found to be tampering with the entry process or the operation of the Challenge, Challenge Web page, or other Challenge-related Web pages; to be acting in violation of these
The Challenge Web page may contain links to third-party Web pages that are not owned or controlled by Luminary Labs or the Department. Luminary Labs and the Department do not endorse or assume any responsibility for any such third party sites. If an entrant accesses a third-party Web page from the Challenge Web page, the entrant does so at the entrant's own risk and expressly relieves Luminary Labs or the Department from any and all liability arising from use of any third-party Web page content.
The Challenge Web page contains information and resources from public and private organizations that may be useful to the reader. Inclusion of this information does not constitute an endorsement by the Department or Luminary Labs of any products or services offered or views expressed. Blog articles provide insights on the activities of schools, programs, grantees, and other education stakeholders to promote continuing discussion of educational innovation and reform. Blog articles do not endorse any educational product, service, curriculum, or pedagogy.
The Challenge Web page also contains hyperlinks and URLs created and maintained by outside organizations, which are provided for the reader's convenience. The Department and Luminary Labs are not responsible for the accuracy of the information contained therein.
Attempts to notify finalists and winner(s) will be made using the email address associated with the Team Lead's Luminary Lightbox
If, despite reasonable efforts, an entrant does not respond within three days of the first notification attempt regarding selection as a finalist (or a shorter time as exigencies may require) or if the notification is returned as undeliverable to such entrant, that entrant may forfeit the entrant's finalist status and associated prizes, and an alternate finalist may be selected.
If any potential prize winner is found to be ineligible, has not complied with these
To maintain eligibility, finalists are required to participate in Challenge activities organized by the Department and Luminary Labs, which include the Virtual Accelerator Phase, Innovator's Boot Camp, and Demonstration Day. If a finalist is unable to participate in any mandatory activities, the finalist will not be eligible to win the Challenge. Finalists and winner(s) are required to attend these events at their own expense.
Entrants retain ownership of their submission, including any software, research or other IP that they develop in connection therewith, subject to the license granted to the Department to use submissions as set forth herein.
Entrants retain all rights to the submission and any invention or work, including any software, submitted as part of the submission, subject to the following—
If the submission wins, the Department retains an exclusive, nontransferable, irrevocable, paid-up world-wide license to publish and publicly demonstrate any such invention or work of the submission throughout the world, in perpetuity, for Federal purposes.
As specified in
The Department reserves the right to modify any dates or deadlines set forth in these
The Department reserves the right to suspend, postpone, cease, terminate or otherwise modify this Challenge, or any entrant's participation in the Challenge, at any time at the Department's discretion.
By participating in the Challenge, each entrant hereby agrees that—
(a) The Department and Luminary Labs shall not be responsible or liable for any losses, damages, or injuries of any kind (including death) resulting from participation in the Challenge or any Challenge-related activity, or from entrants' acceptance, receipt, possession, use, or misuse of any prize; and
(b) The entrant will indemnify, defend, and hold harmless the Department and Luminary Labs from and against all third party claims, actions, or proceedings of any kind and from any and all damages, liabilities, costs, and expenses relating to, or arising from, the entrant's participation in the Challenge.
Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the Department and Luminary Labs are not responsible for incomplete, illegible, misdirected, misprinted, late, lost, postage-due, damaged, or stolen entries or prize notifications; or for lost, interrupted, inaccessible, or unavailable networks, servers, satellites, Internet Service Providers, Web pages, or other connections; or for miscommunications, failed, jumbled, scrambled, delayed, or misdirected computer, telephone, cable transmissions or other communications; or for any technical malfunctions, failures, difficulties, or other errors of any kind or nature; or for the incorrect or inaccurate capture of information, or the failure to capture any information.
These
The failure of the Department to exercise or enforce any right or provision of these
All issues and questions concerning the construction, validity, interpretation, and enforceability of these
By participating in the Challenge, each entrant hereby agrees that occasionally, the Department and Luminary Labs may also use the entrant's information to contact the entrant about Federal Challenge and innovation related activities, and acknowledges that the entrant has read and accepted the privacy policy at:
Please review the Luminary Lightbox
Participation in the Challenge constitutes an entrant's full and unconditional agreement to these
Luminary Labs collects personal information from entrants to the Challenge. The information collected is subject to the privacy policy located here:
To obtain a list of finalists and winner(s) (after the conclusion of the Challenge) or a copy of these Official Rules, Terms, and Conditions, send a self-addressed envelope with the proper postage affixed to: Luminary Labs, 30 West 22nd St., Floor 6, New York, NY 10010. Please specify “Winners List” or “Official Rules” and the name of the specific Challenge in this request.
Please contact the person listed under
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the FRS, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces an open meeting of the Secretary of Energy Advisory Board (SEAB). SEAB was reestablished pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act. This notice is provided in accordance with the Act.
December 13, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-12:30 p.m.
Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Room 1E-245, Washington, DC 20585.
Karen Gibson, Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585;
• U.S. Passport or Passport Card
• An Enhanced Driver's License or Enhanced ID-Card issued by the state of Washington (Enhanced licenses issued by these states are clearly marked Enhanced or Enhanced Driver's License)
• A military ID or other government issued Photo-ID card
Individuals and representatives of organizations who would like to offer comments and suggestions may do so during the meeting. Approximately 30 minutes will be reserved for public comments. Time allotted per speaker will depend on the number who wish to speak but will not exceed 5 minutes. The Designated Federal Officer is empowered to conduct the meeting in a fashion that will facilitate the orderly conduct of business. Those wishing to speak should register to do so beginning at 8:15 a.m. on December 13th.
Those not able to attend the meeting or who have insufficient time to address
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following open access transmission tariff filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of SociVolta Inc.'s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability is November 15, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
On June 29, 2016, Texas Eastern Transmission, LP (Texas Eastern) filed an application in Docket No. CP16-473-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act to construct and operate certain natural gas pipeline facilities. The proposed project is known as the Bayway Lateral Project (Project). The Project would transport an incremental volume of approximately 300,000 dekatherms per day from Texas Eastern's existing Line 38 to serve new commercial customers (the Linden Cogen Power Plant and the Phillips 66 Bayway Refinery).
On July 14, 2016, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) issued its Notice of Application for the Project. Among other things, that notice alerted agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on a request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's Environmental Assessment (EA) for the Project. This instant notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for the completion of the EA for the Project.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the Project's progress.
Texas Eastern proposes to construct, operate, and maintain new pipeline and aboveground facilities in the City of Linden, Union County, New Jersey. The Project would consist of the installation of approximately 2,300 linear feet of 24-inch-diameter pipeline connecting Texas Eastern's existing Line 38 to the Linden Cogen Power Plant and Phillips 66 Bayway Refinery. The Project also includes construction of one new fenced metering and regulating station on the Phillips 66-owned property adjacent to the Linden Cogen Power Plant.
On August 5, 2016, the Commission issued a
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EA and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Additional information about the Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on October 26, 2016, Entergy Services, Inc. submitted a compliance filing, pursuant to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) September 26, 2016 Order.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
1. Section 205 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824d (2012), and 18 CFR part 35 (2016), require, among other things, that all rates, terms, and conditions of jurisdictional services be filed with the Commission. In Order No. 2001, the Commission revised its public utility filing requirements and established a requirement for public utilities, including power marketers, to file Electric Quarterly Reports summarizing the contractual terms and conditions in their agreements for all jurisdictional services (including market-based power sales, cost-based power sales, and transmission service) and providing transaction information (including rates) for short-term and long-term power sales during the most recent calendar quarter.
2. The Commission requires sellers with market-based rate authorization to file Electric Quarterly Reports.
3. In Order No. 2001, the Commission stated that,
4. The Commission further stated that,
5. Pursuant to these requirements, the Commission has revoked the market-based rate tariffs of market-based rate sellers that failed to submit their Electric Quarterly Reports.
6. Sellers must file Electric Quarterly Reports consistent with the procedures set forth in Order Nos. 2001, 768
7. In the event that any of the above-captioned market-based rate sellers has already filed its Electric Quarterly Reports in compliance with the Commission's requirements, its inclusion herein is inadvertent. Such market-based rate seller is directed, within 15 days of the date of issuance of this order, to make a filing with the Commission identifying itself and providing details about its prior filings that establish that it complied with the Commission's Electric Quarterly Report filing requirements.
8. If any of the above-captioned market-based rate sellers does not wish to continue having market-based rate authority, it may file a notice of cancellation with the Commission pursuant to section 205 of the FPA to cancel its market-based rate tariff.
(A) Within 15 days of the date of issuance of this order, each public utility listed in the caption of this order shall file with the Commission all delinquent Electric Quarterly Reports. If a public utility subject to this order fails to make the filings required in this order, the Commission will revoke that public utility's market-based rate authorization and will terminate its electric market-based rate tariff. The Secretary is hereby directed, upon expiration of the filing deadline in this order, to promptly issue a notice, effective on the date of issuance, listing the public utilities whose tariffs have been revoked for failure to comply with the requirements of this order and the Commission's Electric Quarterly Report filing requirements.
(B) The Secretary is hereby directed to publish this order in the
By the Commission.
Take notice that on October 14, 2016, National Fuel Gas Supply Corporation (National Fuel), 6363 Main Street, Williamsville, New York 14221, filed in Docket No. CP17-2-000, an application pursuant to section 7(b) of the Natural Gas Act and part 157 of the Commission's regulations requesting authorization to abandon its Heath Compressor Station and associated appurtenances located in Heath Township, Jefferson County, Pennsylvania, and to refunctionalize Line FM-92 from a transmission to gathering function, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. This filing may be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding this Application should be directed to Laura P. Berloth, Attorney for National Fuel, 6363 Main Street, Williamsville, New York 14221, or call at 716-857-7001.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 7 copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
The following consent agenda has been deleted from the list of items scheduled for consideration at the Thursday, October 27, 2016, Open Meeting and previously listed in the Commission's Notice of October 20, 2016. The Consent Agenda has been adopted by the Commission.
The Commission will consider the following subjects listed below as a consent agenda and these items will not be presented individually:
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10499 Columbia Savings Bank, Cincinnati, Ohio (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of Columbia Savings Bank (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds. Effective November 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than November 29, 2016.
1.
1.
Federal Trade Commission (“FTC” or “Commission”).
Notice.
The FTC is submitting the information collection requirements described below to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for review, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”). The FTC is seeking public comments on proposed information requests to marketers of electronic cigarettes (“e-cigarettes”). The FTC proposes to issue compulsory process orders to up to 15 e-cigarette manufacturers, distributors, and marketers per year for information concerning, among other things, data on annual sales and marketing expenditures. The Commission intends to ask OMB for a three-year clearance to collect this information.
Comments on the proposed information requests must be received on or before December 2, 2016.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Requests for additional information should be addressed to Elizabeth Sanger or Rosemary Rosso, Division of Advertising Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission. Telephone: (202) 326-2757 (Sanger) or (202) 326-2174 (Rosso).
In the past few years, sales of e-cigarettes have grown rapidly in the United States.
For many years, the Commission has published reports on sales and marketing expenditures by the major cigarette and smokeless tobacco manufacturers. These data allow the agency to analyze industry sales and assess how industry members allocate their promotional activities and expenditures. The data also provide information to policymakers and public health researchers that, in many instances, is not available from other sources. Given their increasing prevalence, the Commission believes it is important and necessary for the agency to begin collecting information about e-cigarette sales and marketing activities. The Commission intends to publish a report with the data it obtains,
The Commission intends to issue information requests to up to 15 industry members, including larger and smaller entities, and will seek information about the different types of e-cigarette products marketed, certain characteristics of those products, and information about marketing expenditures for broad categories of media. While the data may not represent overall sales and marketing activities for the entire e-cigarette industry, the information provided should provide a valuable snapshot of the current e-cigarette market, including its major players. Because the number of separately incorporated companies affected by the Commission's requests will exceed nine entities, the Commission is seeking OMB clearance under the PRA before requesting any information from the industry members.
Pursuant to the OMB regulations that implement the PRA (5 CFR part 1320), the FTC is providing this second opportunity for public comment while requesting that the OMB grant the clearance for the proposed collection of information. All comments should be filed as prescribed in the Request for Comment part below, and must be received on or before December 2, 2016.
The FTC received 37 comments in response to the October 2015 Notice.
Five comments were received from industry members: R.J. Reynolds Vapor Company and RAI Services Company (“Reynolds”); Altria Client Services Inc. and Nu Mark LLC (“Altria”); Rock River Manufacturing, the tobacco products manufacturing division of Ho-Chunk, Inc. (“Ho-Chunk”); (4) Fontem US, Inc. (“Fontem”), and (5) Logic Technology Development LLC (“Logic”). None of these comments expressly opposed the proposed data collection, although two companies questioned whether the data collection was premature given the then-pending FDA deeming regulation that, among other provisions, asserts regulatory authority over e-cigarettes and other tobacco products.
The remaining 12 comments did not substantively address the proposed data collection.
In its October 2015 Notice, the FTC sought comments regarding whether the proposed collection is necessary.
A number of comments made favorable comparisons between the proposed collection of information on e-cigarette sales and marketing expenditures and the FTC's existing reports on cigarettes and smokeless tobacco, noting that the existing reports are widely used by public health
The FTC believes that these information requests are in the public interest and essential to the agency's performance of its authority to investigate and report publicly on industry practices that affect the economic well-being of consumers. Consistent with the agency's information collection for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, the data will also provide important information for researchers and policymakers.
The FTC's October 2015 Notice also sought comment on whether the proposed data collection is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the FTC, including whether the information will be practically useful.
One industry member, Ho-Chunk, questioned whether the value of the proposed data collection could be outweighed by the risk that a negative public perception of e-cigarettes would damage the growth of the industry. The company expressed concern that the FTC's data collection could send a premature message that the industry is engaged in predatory marketing or that there are as-yet-unknown health and safety risks associated with the use of these products.
The Commission intends to use the data collection to provide useful baseline information (starting with 2015 data) concerning sales of the various e-cigarette products and allow the Commission to analyze how industry members allocate their promotional activities and expenditures across various media. The data also will provide researchers and policymakers with sales and marketing information that will assist their research and regulatory efforts. The Commission does not believe that the data collection itself will create any negative public perception of e-cigarettes or damage the growth of the industry. In particular, the proposal seeks sales and marketing expenditure data only and does not include an inquiry into any hypothetical predatory practices or health or safety information. In addition, the data collection here is very similar in content and methodology to studies that the Commission for many years has undertaken with respect to other markets, including cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products (OMB Control No. 3084-0134); alcoholic beverages (OMB Control No. 3084-0138); and food (OMB Control No. 3084-0139).
In its October 2015 Notice, the FTC invited comments concerning ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
The Commission's October 2015 Notice anticipated collecting and reporting data obtained from as many as 15 entities that would vary in size, in the number of products sold, and in the extent and variety of their advertising and marketing.
The Commission agrees that seeking data from a broad cross-section of the overall market, including distributors to conventional retail sellers, online sellers, and vape shops, would provide a fuller perspective on the overall e-cigarette market. However, the Commission was not able to find sufficient, reliable market data that would permit it to identify and select which smaller online sellers and vape shops should receive data requests. The available data from which the Commission could identify a sample of online sellers or vape shops are so limited and insufficient that any separate samples of these sellers would at best provide anecdotal information.
In contrast, the available market data do permit a reliable sample of the largest e-cigarette marketers and some online sellers. The Commission believes that a sample of these companies will account for at least 80 percent of the conventional retail market and a sizable share of the online market. Thus, the data will provide useful information concerning at least this large subset of the overall market. At the same time, the Commission remains interested in collecting and reporting sales and marketing expenditure data from a broader cross-section of the market. Should more reliable market data become available, the Commission may seek OMB clearance to collect sales and marketing expenditure data for a broader cross-section of companies at such time, and would report on the data received.
As discussed above, reliable data permitting the Commission to identify a representative sample of a broad cross-section of the market do not appear to be available at this time. As a result, the Commission does not believe it necessary to increase the number of entities from whom it will seek to collect and report data.
The FTC's October 2015 Notice asked whether the agency should seek data on state-by-state sales of e-cigarettes.
Although the Commission agrees that state-by-state data collection could provide useful information, such data collection would significantly increase the complexity and burden of the data requests and might not be readily practical for some e-cigarette sellers. Thus, the Commission has decided against requesting approval for state-by-state data collection at this time. The Commission remains interested in this issue, however, and could request OMB clearance to collect state-by-state data in the future.
Reynolds recommended against differentiating by product type, noting that the different products generally could be categorized by the retail market where the products are sold, with conventional retail stores selling disposable and rechargeable products, and “vape stores” selling tank products. Reynolds preferred categorizing by type of marketer rather than type of product.
Given the wide variety of products available, the Commission believes that separate reporting by product type will be useful and important in tracking future developments in the e-cigarette market. Thus, the proposed data collection contemplates separate reporting across three categories: (1) Non-refillable (
Reynolds and Fontem opposed the collection of detailed flavor data. Fontem noted that there is no standardized method of reporting flavors across the industry, and both stated that characterizing flavors is subjective. Reynolds stated that the utility of seeking flavor data is not clear.
Given the potential importance of flavors for trial and use of e-cigarettes, especially among youth, the Commission will seek to collect data that differentiate among flavors. However, as discussed
Fontem and Reynolds opposed collection of data concerning nicotine strength. Fontem commented that collection of nicotine content data would not be useful because there is no standardized method of reporting nicotine content across the industry. Reynolds also questioned whether nicotine content data would provide useful information.
The Commission believes that collection of data concerning nicotine strength will provide useful information that is not readily available from other sources. The agency does not believe that the lack of a standardized reporting method invalidates the utility of these data. The FTC will take into account the various comments received in the course of developing its report on the data collection.
On balance, requiring companies to report the total number of refill units will provide a more accurate picture of e-cigarette sales. Thus, if an e-cigarette product is sold with more than one cartridge or e-liquid unit, each cartridge or unit above one should be reported as a refill. Likewise, each cartridge or e-liquid unit sold individually also would count as a refill. In addition, the Commission believes this approach is consistent with the approach it has taken with regard to the collection of sales data for other tobacco products. For example, if three pouches of smokeless tobacco are packaged together as a single unit for sale to consumers, the Commission's compulsory process orders have required a responding company to report each pouch separately, for a total of three units.
The Commission agrees that data on sales and give-aways should be collected and reported separately given the distinct role each plays in the overall market. In addition, the agency collects and reports data on sales and give-aways separately in its data collection for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products and, therefore, separate collection and reporting will be consistent with the approach taken for these other tobacco products.
A number of comments supported data collection for the various media specifically identified in the FTC's October 2015 Notice, as well as other marketing channels.
The Joint Public Health Comment and the CTFK comment stated that it is important to collect marketing expenditures for television, radio, and other broadcast media, noting that unlike cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, no statutory broadcast ban applies to e-cigarettes. Several
Reynolds recommended that the data collection focus on the marketing expenditure categories already used by the FTC in its data collection for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, noting that the Commission has decades of experience collecting those data. One individual commenter also recommended that the Commission seek and report the same categories of marketing expenditure data tracked for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products in order to facilitate comparisons.
The Commission agrees that collecting and reporting data for broad categories of marketing expenditures will be useful, including data concerning traditional and newer media, product placement, sponsorship, endorsements, and price promotions. The agency will seek to collect marketing data in categories that generally track those used for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, with two primary differences. First, the Commission will seek to collect and report data for marketing expenditures on broadcast media such as television and radio because, unlike cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, no statute prohibits using these media to advertise and market e-cigarettes. Second, some of the categories have been updated to explicitly recognize newer forms of media now used for advertising and marketing, such as digital and social media.
The Commission's October 2015 Notice invited comments on ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on entities required to respond to the data requests.
Reynolds and Fontem suggested that the Commission defer its data collection until after FDA issued its final Deeming Regulation. Reynolds noted that the final regulation would clarify the scope and impact of FDA's regulation of e-cigarettes. As noted above, FDA issued its final regulation on May 10, 2016. There is no overlap between FDA's regulation and the proposed data collection. Accordingly, it is not necessary to defer the data collection.
As discussed above, the Commission plans to collect data concerning e-cigarette flavors and nicotine strength. To reduce the burden of reporting each individual flavor, the Joint Public Health comment and comments from CTFK and the American Lung Association recommended that companies report three categories of flavors: Tobacco, menthol/mint, and other. The Joint Public Health comment stated that these three categories would most easily capture the breadth of flavors available, and make it easier for the industry and the FTC to count all the flavors. CTFK noted that categorizing in this manner would also eliminate the overlap that might result from more limited flavor categories. Comments from UCSF and NAAG, on the other hand, stated that the Commission should collect data on each individual flavor. Given the variety and number of different flavors, the Commission believes that classifying e-cigarettes into three categories of flavors—tobacco, menthol/mint, and other—will provide useful information while significantly reducing the burden on reporting companies, and will use these categories in the data collection, if approved.
The Joint Public Health Comment and the CTFK comment also indicated that reporting nicotine strength by categories might be sufficient and would reduce the reporting burden on responding entities. The UCSF comment, on the other hand, recommended that the Commission require companies to report each different nicotine strength. Categorizing nicotine strengths would require consultation with scientific authorities to determine the appropriate categories for reporting. In addition, reporting in categories could blur trends over time due to inherent imprecision. Thus, the Commission plans to require reporting for each individual nicotine strength sold by the reporting entity, rather than for categories. Once the Commission has these data, it will consider how best to organize and discuss them in the course of developing its report.
Reynolds and Fontem each recommended that the Commission require less detail in the data requests as a means of reducing the burden of responding, and suggested that the collection of certain information might not be useful. Fontem suggested that the Commission not seek information concerning product flavors, nicotine strength, or blister packs and refills. The company suggested that if the Commission did decide to collect flavor data, it require only two categories of information: Tobacco and other. It also suggested that if the agency decided that some information about refills was needed, it simply track total number of refills sold. Reynolds suggested that the Commission model its requests on the information requests for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, and not require differentiation by type of product, nicotine concentration, size, method of sale, and flavors. If the Commission opted to seek information about flavors, Reynolds recommended that the agency request data based on brand style names and descriptions the product manufacturers created to describe their products. For the reasons discussed above, the Commission believes that the information collection should include information concerning flavors, nicotine strength, refill units, and other product characteristics. Collection of flavor information by broad categories, rather than individually, will reduce the burden on responding to the information requests.
In its comment, Logic proposed that the Commission limit its information collection to data applicable to: (1) Youth access and (2) illegal, inaccurate, or deceptive advertising claims about e-cigarettes. According to Logic, these two areas address the relevant societal issues for information collection, consistent with the FTC's mandate to prevent unfair or deceptive business practices. Logic stated that collecting substantial data concerning sales and marketing expenditures would represent a substantial burden and, thus, suggested that the Commission confine the information sought to companies' age-screening mechanisms and to production of their advertising campaigns for review to ensure they are not making deceptive claims. The Commission disagrees with limiting the data collection to these two categories of information. Rather, broader information collection about sales and marketing expenditures is in the public interest, because it will allow the Commission to analyze sales and assess how industry members allocate their promotional activities and expenditures. For decades, the Commission has collected and reported information about sales and marketing expenditures for other tobacco products, as well as for other consumer products, and the e-cigarette information requests are consistent with the data collection and reporting for those products. Although the Commission agrees that preventing false and deceptive advertising is an important component of its consumer protection mission, law enforcement action against specific marketers, rather than information collection, is a better means of addressing potentially unfair or deceptive e-cigarette advertising.
In its October 2015 Notice, the Commission anticipated that its data collection requests would include seeking information concerning efforts such as age-screening mechanisms to prevent youth from being exposed to advertising and promotion of e-cigarettes or from obtaining free product samples. One industry member, Logic, supported data collection regarding age-verification methods, stating that many online sellers use no age-verification methods at all while conventional retail stores require rigorous age-verification. The Joint Public Health comment, and comments from CTFK, Georgia State, UCSF, and one individual, also supported data collection for this category, with Georgia State and UCSF also specifying age verification for online purchases. The Georgia State comment noted that data collection and reporting for this category would be useful to determine whether more stringent regulatory action was needed.
The Commission agrees that data concerning age-verification methods would be useful, and plans to collect and report data concerning age-screening mechanisms to prevent youth from being exposed to e-cigarette advertising and promotion or from obtaining free product samples.
The Commission's October 2015 Notice invited comments on the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
The comment from Reynolds asserted that the Commission had underestimated the total hours burden. The company stated that it usually takes it twice as long as the FTC's estimated time burden to compile information for similar data collections for cigarette and smokeless tobacco companies. Reynolds also stated that the FTC should include in its estimate the amount of time companies will need to communicate directly with Commission staff when seeking clarification regarding the data collection. Reynolds and Fontem commented that the FTC's labor cost estimate also underestimates the total burden costs, stating that an average wage of $100/hour was too low. Neither company, however, provided an alternative figure or other information indicating what a more accurate hourly labor cost should be.
The Commission believes that its estimate burdens with respect to both average hours and labor costs are reasonable, especially in the absence of more specific information to calculate estimates that are more precise. However, out of an abundance of caution, the Commission has revised its burden estimate from that stated in the October 2015 Notice by increasing its estimated hours burden by 50 percent. As revised, the Commission calculates a per company average of 300 hours for the first year, and 225 hours for each of the two remaining years, resulting in a cumulative total of 11,250 hours for 15 information requests over three years. The Commission has not changed is average hourly cost estimate. The Commission's estimate is based on the assumption that the labor costs will include varying compensation levels among staff, management, and legal review, with most work performed by non-legal staff. In the absence of more precise data, the Commission believes that the same $100/hour wage that it used in its recent application for reauthorization of information requests to cigarette and smokeless tobacco companies is appropriate here as well. As discussed
The Joint Public Health Comment and the comments from CTFK and American Lung Association recommended that the Commission coordinate its data collection with FDA. The American Lung Association stated that coordination might be mutually beneficial for both agencies, and CTFK indicated that coordination might help assure consistency in measures. Altria also encouraged the Commission to consider how it would interact with FDA once the Deeming Regulation was issued. The FTC staff and FDA staff already have a long tradition of working together on tobacco issues and the many other areas where the two agencies share jurisdiction. The FTC staff expects that tradition will continue. To the extent that coordination is required for specific issues concerning the proposed information collection, the agencies already have processes and procedures in place to address those issues.
The Georgia State comment recommended that the FTC require detailed brand-specific information, noting that the Commission's reports for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products report aggregated rather than brand-specific data. The UCSF comment also recommended that the Commission collect and report brand-specific data.
Commenters also recommended that the Commission seek more detailed differentiation of certain marketing expenditure data. The Joint Public Health Comment recommended that the Commission obtain data concerning the demographic composition of social media networks. The UCSF comment suggested collecting data regarding the amounts spent for different population subgroups, specific information concerning the time when marketing activities occurred, and requiring each responding company to identify its top three outlets and top three marketing programs within each media category. The added detail would significantly increase the complexity and burden of responding to the information requests. In addition, as indicated above, the Commission cannot publicly identify sales and marketing data on particular brands or companies and, thus, would not be able to include the specific data in its report. Thus, the Commission will not seek to include these data in the proposed information requests.
The Georgia State comment recommended that the Commission collect data on e-cigarette device specifications and capabilities. The comment indicated that this information would permit assessment of product differences concerning characteristics such as nicotine delivery, patterns of use, and puff topography. Collection of these data, however, is beyond the scope of the information requests' purpose.
Fontem's comment recommended that the Commission review e-cigarettes as smoking cessation devices and that it expand the information requests in order to collect data on other smoking cessation products, such as nicotine patches. This suggestion is beyond the scope of the proposed information collection, which concerns sales and marketing data for e-cigarette products, not products intended to treat nicotine addiction, which is the intended use for smoking cessation products. Whether any product is approved for use as a smoking cessation product is a question within the jurisdiction of FDA, not the FTC.
As noted earlier, the FTC received twelve comments that did not address the proposed data collection. One individual raised concerns that some e-cigarette marketers were making false claims that the products were effective for smoking cessation, and four individuals indicated that e-cigarettes helped with smoking cessation. Three individuals called for regulation of e-cigarettes, which FDA's recent issuance of its Deeming Regulation accomplishes. One individual stated that e-cigarettes should not be available to persons under the age of 18. FDA's Deeming Regulation prohibits the sale (both in-person and online) of e-cigarettes and other tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.
The Commission proposes to send information requests to the ultimate U.S. parent entities of up to 15 e-cigarette marketers in the United States. These companies will vary in size, the number of products sold, and in the extent and variety of their advertising and marketing activities, and will include the largest marketers of e-cigarettes. As noted above, based on available market data, the Commission estimates its sample will account for more than 80 percent of the conventional retail market and a sizable portion of the online market.
The proposed information requests will seek sales data about the types and variety of e-cigarette products sold. The sales information will be reported under three broad categories: (1) Non-refillable (
The information requests also will seek information and data concerning advertising and marketing activities and expenditures in a broad variety of media categories, including: (1) Radio, television, and print advertising; (2) Web site, digital, and social media marketing; (3) product placement; (4) endorsements, including celebrity endorsements; (5) sponsorship of concerts and other events and as well as of sports teams or individual athletes such as racing car drivers; (6) distribution of free samples; and (7) price promotions, including couponing programs. These expenditure categories generally track those used by the FTC in its data collections for cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products, with two exceptions. First, the proposed information requests will seek data concerning television and radio expenditures, since e-cigarette advertising is not subject to statutory broadcast media prohibitions. In addition, the media categories have been updated to provide more differentiation among online and digital advertising media.
The proposed information requests also will include information about company policies pertaining to age-screening mechanisms to prevent youth from being exposed to e-cigarette advertising and promotion or from obtaining free samples of e-cigarettes.
FTC staff's estimate of the hours burden is based on the time that would be required to respond to the Commission's information requests. The FTC currently anticipates sending information requests to as many as 15 e-cigarette companies each year. Because the Commission anticipates that these companies will vary in size, in the number of products they sell, and in the extent and variety of their advertising and promotion, and given the currently evolving nature of the e-cigarette industry, FTC staff has not calculated separate burden estimates for large and small companies, as is traditionally the case for the Commission's cigarette and smokeless tobacco information requests. For example, an e-cigarette marketer with a large volume of sales but a relatively small product line could potentially require fewer resources to respond to the Commission's information request than a marketer with lower overall sales but a
The Commission anticipates that even if it provides models for the Excel datafiles the companies will be required to submit, recipients of its information requests will need substantial time to prepare a response the first time. Once an e-cigarette marketer has prepared its first response to a Commission information request, however, it will need less time in subsequent years to prepare its reports because it will know what information it will be required to produce, and will already have a template for its submission.
Accordingly, as an approximation, FTC staff assumes a per company average of 300 hours for each recipient of the Commission's information requests the first year they have to comply with the Commission's information request. Staff anticipates that in subsequent years, the per company average will be 225 hours. Thus, the overall estimated burden for 15 recipients of the information requests is 4,500 hours for the first year and 3,375 hours for each of the two subsequent years, or a total of 11,250 hours. Thus, the average yearly burden, over the course of a prospective three-year clearance, is 3,750 hours, or 250 hours per recipient (large and small). These estimates include any time spent by separately incorporated subsidiaries and other entities affiliated with the ultimate parent company that has received the information request.
Commission staff cannot calculate with precision the labor costs associated with these data requests, as they entail varying compensation levels of management and/or support staff among companies of different sizes. FTC staff assumes that computer analysts and other non-legal staff will perform most of the work involved in responding to the information requests, although legal personnel will likely be involved in reviewing the actual submission to the Commission. FTC staff believes that the same $100 per hour wage that it used in its recent request for reauthorization of information requests to the major cigarette and smokeless tobacco manufacturers is appropriate here also for the combined efforts of these individuals. Using this figure, FTC staff's best estimate for the total labor costs for 15 information requests is $450,000 (4,500 hours × $100 per hour) for the first year and $337,000 for the two subsequent years (3,375 hours × $100 per hour × 2), for a total of $1,125,000 over the entire three-year period. The annualized labor cost per respondent will average approximately $25,000.
Staff believes that the capital or other non-labor costs associated with the information requests are minimal. Although the information requests may necessitate that industry members maintain the requested information provided to the Commission, they should already have in place the means to compile and maintain business records.
Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), bars the Commission from publicly disclosing trade secrets or confidential commercial or financial information it receives from persons pursuant to, among other methods, special orders authorized by Section 6(b) of the FTC Act. Such information also would be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4). Moreover, under Section 21(c) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 57b-2(c), a submitter who designates a submission as confidential is entitled to ten days' advance notice of any anticipated public disclosure by the Commission, assuming that the Commission has determined that the information does not constitute Section 6(f) material. Although materials covered under one or more of these various sections are protected by stringent confidentiality constraints, the FTC Act and the Commission's rules authorize disclosure in limited circumstances (
Finally, the information presented in the report will not reveal company-specific data, except data that are public.
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before December 2, 2016. Write “Electronic Cigarettes: Paperwork Comment, FTC File No. P114504” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, like anyone's Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, like medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which is . . . privileged or confidential” as provided in Section 6(f) of the FTC Act 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you have to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c).
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the
If you file your comment on paper, write “Electronic Cigarettes: Paperwork Comment, FTC File No. P114504” on your comment and on the envelope. You can mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex J), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex J), Washington, DC 20024.
The FTC Act and other laws that the Commission administers permit the collection of public comments to consider and use in this proceeding as appropriate. The Commission will consider all timely and responsive public comments that it receives on or before December 2, 2016. For information on the Commission's privacy policy, including routine uses permitted by the Privacy Act, see
Comments on the information collection requirements subject to review under the PRA should additionally be submitted to OMB. If sent by U.S. mail, they should be addressed to Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Comments sent to OMB by U.S. postal mail, however, are subject to delays due to heightened security precautions. Thus, comments instead should be sent by facsimile to (202) 395-5806.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a currently approved information collection requirement concerning reporting purchases from sources outside the United States.
Submit comments on or before January 3, 2017.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0161, Reporting Purchases from Sources Outside the United States, by any of the following methods:
•
Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching for “9000-0161; Reporting of Purchases from Outside the United States”. Select the link “Submit a Comment” that corresponds with “9000-0161; Reporting of Purchases from Outside the United States”. Follow the instructions provided at the “Submit a Comment” screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and 9000-0161; Reporting of Purchases from Outside the United States” on your attached document.
•
Ms. Cecelia L. Davis, Procurement Analyst, at 202-219-0202 or via email at
The information on place of manufacture was formerly used by each Federal agency to prepare a report to Congress required by 41 U.S.C. 8302(b)(1) for FY 2009 through 2011 on acquisitions of articles, materials, or supplies that are manufactured outside the United States. However, the data is still necessary for analysis of the application of the Buy American statue and the trade agreements and for other reports to Congress. Additionally, contracting officers require this data as the basis for entry into the Federal Procurement Data System for further data on the rationale for purchasing foreign manufactured items.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please cite OMB Control Number 9000-0161, Reporting Purchases from Sources Outside the United States, in all correspondence.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments must be received by January 3, 2017.
When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:
1.
2.
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the
1.
Since the national launch in 2014, CMS has disseminated C2C through speaking engagements, webinars, and meetings sponsored by CMS regional offices. CMS fills product orders and recently completed a redesign of the C2C Web site. C2C has grown to address emerging needs of consumers, as well as stakeholders or organizations that work with and support consumers, across the full continuum of health insurance and care: Plan selection, enrollment, finding a provider, and engaging in care over time.
RAND spent the past year designing and preparing for this evaluation to assess C2C's impact on consumer health insurance literacy and care utilization. This evaluation will also help CMS understand how C2C is spread within a community and disseminated to consumers, and in turn how best to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA).
Fax written comments on the collection of information by December 2, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
This guidance is intended to assist applicants in developing labeling for outcome claims for drugs that are indicated to treat hypertension. With few exceptions, current labeling for antihypertensive drugs includes only the information that these drugs are indicated to reduce blood pressure; the labeling does not include information on the clinical benefits related to cardiovascular outcomes expected from such blood pressure reduction. However, blood pressure control is well established as beneficial in preventing serious cardiovascular events, and inadequate treatment of hypertension is acknowledged as a significant public health problem. FDA believes that the appropriate use of these drugs can be encouraged by making the connection between lower blood pressure and improved cardiovascular outcomes more explicit in labeling. The intent of the guidance is to provide common labeling for antihypertensive drugs except where differences are clearly supported by clinical data. The guidance encourages applicants to submit labeling supplements containing the new language.
The guidance contains two provisions that are subject to OMB review and approval under the PRA and one provision that would be exempt from OMB review:
1. Section IV.C of the guidance requests that the CLINICAL STUDIES section of the Full Prescribing Information of the labeling should include a summary of placebo or active-controlled trials showing evidence of the specific drug's effectiveness in lowering blood pressure. If trials demonstrating cardiovascular outcome benefits exist, those trials also should be summarized in this section. Table 1 in Section V of the guidance contains the specific drugs for which FDA has concluded that such trials exist. If there are no cardiovascular outcome data to cite, one of the following two paragraphs should appear:
“There are no trials of [DRUGNAME] or members of the [name of pharmacologic class] pharmacologic class demonstrating reductions in cardiovascular risk in patients with hypertension,” or “There are no trials of [DRUGNAME] demonstrating reductions in cardiovascular risk in patients with hypertension, but at least one pharmacologically similar drug has demonstrated such benefits.”
In the latter case, the applicant's submission generally should refer to table 1 in section V of the guidance. If the applicant believes that table 1 is incomplete, it should submit the clinical evidence for the additional information to Docket No. FDA-2008-D-0150. The labeling submission should reference the submission to the docket. FDA estimates that no more than one submission to the docket will be made annually from one company, and that each submission will take approximately 10 hours to prepare and submit. Concerning the recommendations for the CLINICAL STUDIES section of the Full Prescribing Information of the labeling, FDA regulations at §§ 201.56 and 201.57 (21 CFR 201.56 and 201.57) require such labeling, and the information collection associated with these regulations is approved by OMB under OMB control number 0910-0572.
2. Section VI.B of the guidance requests that the format of cardiovascular outcome claim prior approval supplements submitted to FDA under the guidance should include the following information:
• A statement that the submission is a cardiovascular outcome claim supplement, with reference to the guidance and related Docket No. FDA-2008-D-0150.
• Applicable FDA forms (
• Detailed table of contents.
• Revised labeling to:
○ Include draft revised labeling conforming to the requirements in §§ 201.56 and 201.57 and
○ include marked-up copy of the latest approved labeling, showing all additions and deletions, with annotations of where supporting data (if applicable) are located in the submission.
FDA estimates that approximately 1 cardiovascular outcome claim supplement will be submitted annually from approximately 1 different companies, and that each supplement will take approximately 20 hours to
3. Section VI.C of the guidance states that applicants are encouraged to include the following statement in promotional materials for the drug.
“[DRUGNAME] reduces blood pressure, which reduces the risk of fatal and nonfatal cardiovascular events, primarily strokes and myocardial infarctions. Control of high blood pressure should be part of comprehensive cardiovascular risk management, including, as appropriate, lipid control, diabetes management, antithrombotic therapy, smoking cessation, exercise, and limited sodium intake. Many patients will require more than one drug to achieve blood pressure goals.”
The inclusion of this statement in the promotional materials for the drug would be exempt from OMB review based on 5 CFR 1320.3(c)(2), which states that the public disclosure of information originally supplied by the Federal government to the recipient for the purpose of disclosure to the public is not included within the definition of collection of information.
In the
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft revised guidance for industry (GFI) #170 entitled “Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions.” This draft revised guidance document describes the types of fees the Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) is authorized to collect under the Animal Drug User Fee Act of 2003 (ADUFA), as amended, and how to request waivers and reductions from these fees.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft revised guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft revised guidance by January 3, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance to the Policy and Regulations Staff (HFV-6), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Diane Heinz, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-6), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5692,
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft revised GFI #170 entitled “Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions.” This draft revised guidance document describes the types of fees FDA is authorized to collect under ADUFA and how to request waivers and reductions from these fees. It clarifies the criteria for Barrier to Innovation waivers, clarifies the procedures for Small Business waivers, and makes additional clarifying changes.
This level 1 draft revised guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft revised guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on “Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
This draft revised guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information referred to in the guidance entitled “Animal Drug User Fees and Fee Waivers and Reductions” have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0540.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the draft revised guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA).
Fax written comments on the collection of information by December 2, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
Under section 361 of the Public Health Services Act (42 U.S.C. 264), FDA issued regulations under part 1270 (21 CFR part 1270) to prevent the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C through the use of human tissue for transplantation. The regulations provide for inspection by FDA of persons and tissue establishments engaged in the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage, or distribution of human tissue. These facilities are required to meet provisions intended to ensure appropriate screening and testing of human tissue donors and to ensure that records are kept documenting that the appropriate screening and testing have been completed.
Section 1270.31(a) through (d) requires written procedures to be prepared and followed for the following steps: (1) All significant steps in the infectious disease testing process under § 1270.21; (2) all significant steps for obtaining, reviewing, and assessing the relevant medical records of the donor as prescribed in § 1270.21; (3) designating and identifying quarantined tissue; and (4) for prevention of infectious disease contamination or cross-contamination by tissue during processing. Section 1270.31(a) and (b) also requires recording and justification of any deviation from the written procedures.
Respondents to this collection of information are manufacturers of human tissue intended for transplantation. Based on information from the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research's (CBER's) database system, FDA estimates that there are approximately 383 tissue establishments, of which 262 are conventional tissue banks and 121 are eye tissue banks. Based on information provided by industry, there are estimated totals of 2,141,960 conventional tissue products and 130,987 eye tissue products distributed per year with an average of 25 percent of the tissue discarded due to unsuitability for transplant. In addition, there are an estimated 29,799 deceased donors of conventional tissue and 70,027 deceased donors of eye tissue each year.
Accredited members of the American Association of Tissue Banks (AATB) and Eye Bank Association of America (EBAA) adhere to standards of those organizations that are comparable to the recordkeeping requirements in part 1270. Based on information provided by CBER's database system, 90 percent of the conventional tissue banks are members of AATB (262 × 90% = 236), and 95 percent of eye tissue banks are members of EBAA (121 × 95% = 115). Therefore, recordkeeping by these 351 establishments (236 + 115 = 351) is excluded from the burden estimates as usual and customary business activities (5 CFR 1320.3(b)(2)). The recordkeeping burden, thus, is estimated for the remaining 32 establishments, which is 8.36 percent of all establishments (383 − 351 = 32, or 32/383 = 8.36%).
FDA assumes that all current tissue establishments have developed written procedures in compliance with part 1270. Therefore, their information collection burden is for the general review and update of written procedures estimated to take an annual average of 24 hours, and for the recording and justifying of any deviations from the written procedures under § 1270.31(a) and (b), estimated to take an annual average of 1 hour. The information collection burden for maintaining records concurrently with the performance of each significant screening and testing step and for retaining records for 10 years under § 1270.33(a), (f), and (h) include documenting the results and interpretation of all required infectious disease tests and results and the identity and relevant medical records of the donor required under § 1270.35(a) and (b). Therefore, the burden under these provisions is calculated together in table 1. The recordkeeping estimates for the number of total annual records and hours per record are based on information provided by industry and FDA experience.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this information collection as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Science Board to the Food and Drug Administration. The Science Board provides advice to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs and other appropriate officials on specific, complex scientific and technical issues important to FDA and its mission, including emerging issues within the scientific community. Additionally, the Science Board provides advice to the Agency on keeping pace with technical and scientific developments including in regulatory science, input into the Agency's research agenda and on upgrading its scientific and research
The meeting will be held on November 15, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. until 5 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Building 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503, Section C), Silver Spring, MD 20993. For those unable to attend in person, the meeting will also be Web cast. The link for the Web cast is available at
Rakesh Raghuwanshi, Office of the Chief Scientist, Office of the Commissioner, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 1, Rm. 3309, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-4769,
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Rakesh Raghuwanshi at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than December 2, 2016.
Submit your comments, including the Information Collection Request Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects (Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995), HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than January 3, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
On October 25, 2013, HRSA published revised standards for core medical services waiver requests in the
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
The California Area Indian Health Service (CAIHS) provides the healthcare delivery system to the State of California, the home of the largest population of American Indians/Alaska Natives (AI/AN) in the country. According to the 2010 Census, California's Indian population was 333,346 in 2010. The 2010 Census also indicated that there were 294,216 additional people who stated that they were American Indian and a combination of one or more other races. California is home to 107 Federally-recognized Tribes. There are presently 31 California Tribal health programs operating 57 ambulatory clinics under the authority of the Indian Self-Determination Act. The IHS funds ten California Area urban health programs that operate under the authority of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act. In fiscal year 2014, California Tribal health programs had 119,362 registered users and 69,238 active users. Registered users are a cumulative total for all Indian patients ever seen at Tribal facilities, and active users are those that have accessed care during the past three years. None of the Tribal facilities and programs currently operating in California originated as facilities previously operated by the IHS, as is the case in other IHS areas. Population sizes and dispersion of Tribal groups in the CAIHS makes it unlikely that a hospital-based service program will develop within the area, similar to other IHS areas where the Federal government has built, staffed and maintained hospitals and satellite clinics on Indian reservations. Tribal programs will continue to rely on private and public hospitals to meet inpatient and emergency needs. Some Tribal health program physicians have privileges at local hospitals and follow their patients through the local hospital system. Otherwise, the patients are referred to private physicians using Purchased Referred Care (PRC) funding, as well as other alternate resources. Most programs have not developed laboratory, pharmacy or x-ray specialties, so these services are purchased from the private sector through PRC funding or other Tribal resources. The CAIHS is proposed to be organized as follows:
Provides overall direction and leadership for the CAIHS by: (1) Encouraging maximum consultation and participation by California area Tribes and Tribal and urban Indian organizations in establishing the goals, objectives and development of policies of the CAIHS; (2) coordinating the CAIHS activities and resources internally and externally with those of other Federal, state, local and privately funded health care programs to maximize quality health care services to Tribal and urban Indians in the State of California; (3) ensuring compliance to the IHS guidelines and administrative procedures pertinent to Indian self-determination contracting processes and Tribal self-governance compacting; (4) assuring that Indian Tribes and Indian organizations are informed regarding pertinent health policy and program management issues and coordinates meetings and other communications with Tribal delegations; (5) advocating for the health needs and concerns of AI/AN; (6) developing and demonstrating methods and techniques for continuous improvement of health services management and delivery by California area Tribes and Tribal and urban Indian organizations; (7) ensuring that the principles of Equal Employment Opportunity laws and the Civil Rights Act are applied in the management of the human resources of the CAIHS; (8) advising the Director, IHS, of issues and potential issues, relevant to the California area, or to the IHS in general, and recommending and participating in actions to prevent or correct problems; (9) providing leadership for the development of emergency preparedness plans, policies, and services, including the continuity of operations plans, deployment, public health infrastructure, and emergency medical services for the CAIHS responsibilities; and (10) advocating and coordinating support for Tribal emergency medical services programs, including training and equipment.
(1) Provides advice to the Area Director and functional area managers on CAIHS administrative and management policy and procedures requirements, delegations of authority, documenting the organizations and functions of the CAIHS, personnel administration and management, and agency agreements management; (2) develops, recommends and implements processes for management accountability and the periodic assessment of managerial performance; (3) provides guidance and support to area managers regarding resources, personal property, acquisition management; (4) provides a full complement of administrative services in support of the Area-wide health services delivery and management systems,
(1) Performs fund reconciliations and assists in coordination of discrepancies with financial officials; (2) provides support and technical assistance to area operational components in the development of area operations budgets; (3) provides fund certification and maintains commitment registers for area components; (4) supports cost accounting activities in IHS; (5) develops and implements budget, fiscal, and accounting procedures and conducts reviews and analyses to ensure compliance in budget activities in collaboration with Headquarters officials and the Tribes; and (6) participates in cross-cutting issues and processes including, but not limited to emergency preparedness/security, budget formulation, self-determination issues, Tribal shares computations, and resolution of audit findings as may be needed and appropriate.
(1) Develops, recommends, and oversees the implementation of policies, procedures and delegations of authority for the acquisition management activities in the CAIHS, consistent with applicable regulations, directives, and guidance from higher echelons in the Department of Health and Human Services and Federal oversight agencies; (2) provides advice, technical consultation, and training to California area managers and staff; (3) reviews and makes recommendations for approval/disapproval of contract-related documents such as: Pre- and post-award documents, unauthorized commitments, procurement planning documents, Justification for Other Than Full and Open Competition, waivers, and deviations; (4) executes and administers contracts for the CAIHS; and (5) reviews, recommends, and issues delegations of acquisition authority in the CAIHS.
(1) Provides leadership and consultation to Tribal and urban public health programs on the IHS goals, objectives, policies, program standards, and priorities; (2) serves as the primary source of technical and policy advice to the Area Director, area office staff, and Tribal and urban health program officials on the full scope of clinical health care programs, including their quality assurance and preventive aspects, and tort claims; (3) participates in identifying and articulating the health needs of the AI/AN population in the State of California; (4) coordinates the availability and accessibility of Medicare and Medicaid programs, and other managed care programs' services, to AI/AN in the State of California; (5) provides consultation and technical support to Tribal and urban public health programs including, but not limited to, dental services, diabetes and other chronic disease prevention, nutrition services, and nursing services, alcohol/substance abuse prevention and treatment, including the coordination of the Youth Regional Treatment Center services; (6) provides assistance in the development and implementation of area policy and procedures regarding managed care services, third-party collections and reimbursements, health care facility accreditation, risk management and quality assurance; (7) coordinates the reimbursement of allowable costs for qualified high cost PRC service cases from the IHS Catastrophic Health Emergency Fund to Tribal health care programs in the State of California; (8) serves as project officer on contracts awarded in the State of California for the delivery of health care services, and coordinates activities for monitoring and evaluating contractor performance; (9) provides advice to the Area Director on the activities and issues related to the implementation of Title V of the American Indian Health Care Improvement Act, as amended, in the State of California; (10) provides support to urban Indian health programs and organizations in managing health programs and attending financial and other types of support available from other public and private agencies and organizations, and (11) designs, maintains, and controls the data collection, analysis, and publication of health program information in the activities.
(1) Develops, implements, and maintains policies, procedures and standards for information resource management and technology products and services in the CAIHS; (2) develops and maintains information technology strategic planning documents; (3) develops and maintains the CAIHS enterprise architecture; (4) develops and implements information technology management initiatives; (5) ensures IHS information technology infrastructure resource consolidation and standardization efforts support IHS healthcare delivery and program administration; (6) represents the IHS to Federal, Tribal, state, and other organizations; and (7) participates in cross-cutting issues and processes that involve information technology.
(1) Serves as the principal advisor, advocate, consultant, and technical assistant on all services relating to sanitation facilities construction, environmental health services, operation and maintenance, injury prevention, and facilities management for the CAIHS; (2) plans, coordinates, implements, and evaluates all aspects of Title I contracting and Title V compacting under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, as amended; (3) consults with Tribal groups/organizations in the development and implementation of environmental health and engineering policies and initiatives; (4) provides consultation and technical guidance to Tribal health programs including preventive maintenance surveys, personnel training, and fiscal reviews; (5) performs or directs surveys and
(1) Maintains relationships with other Federal agencies and Tribes to maximize responses to environmental health issues and maximize benefits to Tribes by coordinating program efforts; (2) identifies environmental health needs of AI/AN populations and supports efforts to build Tribal capacity; (3) provides personnel support services and advocates for environmental health providers; and (4) performs functions related to environmental health programs such as injury prevention, emergency response, water quality, food sanitation, occupational health and safety, solid and hazardous waste management, environmental health issues in health care and non-health care institutions, and vector control.
(1) Manages the environmental engineering programs, including the Sanitation Facilities Construction (SFC) program, and compliance activities associated with environmental protection and historic preservation legislation; (2) consults with Tribal groups/organizations in the development and implementation of SFC policies and initiatives, and in the identification of sanitation needs for single family housing and community facilities; and (3) works closely with other Federal agencies to resolve environmental issues and maximize benefits to Tribes by coordinating program efforts.
(1) Implements the SFC and Environmental Health Services responsibilities; (2) serves as the principal advisor to communities, individuals, contractors, and other organizations on all matters pertaining to SFC and Environmental Health Services; (3) implements activities that assist all health programs to attain accreditation by appropriate accrediting agencies; (4) implements the area fluoridation and operation and maintenance activities, and (5) implements the provision of sanitation facilities for new housing projects sponsored by other government agencies and for existing housing.
(1) Develops, implements, and manages the programs affecting health care facilities operations, including routine maintenance and improvement, real property asset management, realty, facilities environmental, quarters, and clinical engineering programs; (2) serves as the principal resource for coordination of facilities operations and provides consultation to IHS and the Tribes on health care facilities operations; and (3) monitors the improvement, alteration, and repair of health care facilities.
(1) The Desert Sage Youth Wellness Center in Southern California provides inpatient substance abuse and alcohol treatment to eligible AI/AN youth as a Youth Regional Treatment Center (YRTC) and will help California Tribal youth find healthy directions in life; and (2) in addition to providing treatment services, the YRTC will work with Tribal and urban Indian programs to help provide a continuum of care, including preventive and aftercare services.
(1) The Sacred Oaks Healing Center in Northern California provides inpatient substance abuse and alcohol treatment to eligible AI/AN youth as a YRTC and will help California Tribal youth find healthy directions in life; and (2) in addition to providing treatment services, the YRTC will work with Tribal and urban Indian programs to help provide a continuum of care, including preventive and aftercare services.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 to provide opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects to be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval.
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 60 days of the date of this publication.
To obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, submit comments in writing, or request more information on the proposed project, contact: Ms. Mikia P. Currie, Program
Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 requires: Written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited to address one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimizes the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 850,756.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30-days of the date of this publication.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to the: Office of Management and Budget, Office of Regulatory Affairs,
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, contact: Dr. Ann Hardy, NIH Extramural Human Research Protections Officer and NIH Coordinator, Certificates of Confidentiality, 3701 Rockledge Dr. Rm. 3002, Bethesda, MD 20892, or call non-toll-free number (301) 435-2690 or Email your request, including your address to:
Office of Extramural Research (OER), NIH, may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the NIH has submitted to the OMB a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total annualized burden hours estimate is 1,951.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 to provide opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects to be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval.
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 60 days of the date of this publication.
To obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, submit comments in writing, or request more information on the proposed project, contact: Ms. Mikia P. Currie, Program Analyst, Office of Policy for Extramural Research Administration, 6705 Rockledge Drive, Suite 350, Bethesda, Maryland 20892, or call a non-toll-free number 301-435-0941 or Email your request, including your address to
Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 requires: written comments and/or suggestions from the public and affected agencies are invited to address one or more of the following points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the function of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimizes the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 307,116.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and are available for licensing in the U.S. in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve expeditious commercialization of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing.
Licensing information and copies of the U.S. patent applications listed below may be obtained by writing to the indicated licensing contact at the National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute, Office of Technology Transfer and Development, National Institutes of Health, 31 Center Drive Room 4A29, MSC2479, Bethesda, MD 20892-2479; telephone: 301-402-5579. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement may be required to receive copies of the patent applications.
Technology descriptions follow.
Available for licensing and commercial development for both human and veterinary uses is a method of activating mammalian oocytes. These methods include contacting a mammalian oocyte of interest arrested at metaphase II with an effective amount of a Regulator of G-Protein Signaling (RGS)2 inhibitor; and contacting the mammalian oocyte of interest with an effective amount of a G protein coupled receptor activator. In general, RGS proteins stimulate the hydrolysis of GTP bound to activated Gα subunits, leading to signal termination. RGS2, which inhibits both G-αq and G-αs signaling suppresses Ca2+ release in mature mammalian eggs. Regulators of G-Protein Signaling (RGS)2 inhibitor and a G protein coupled receptor activator can be used to artificially activate a mammalian oocyte such that it re-enters the cell cycle. Examples of RGS2 inhibitors can be nucleic acids like siRNAs or dsRNAs. G-protein coupled receptor activators can be acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter such as serotonin, hormones, natural or synthetic G
• U.S. Provisional Patent Application No. 62/405,803 filed 7 October 2016.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the meeting of the President's Cancer Panel.
The meeting will be open to the public, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Division of Intramural Research Board of Scientific Counselors, NIAID.
The meeting will be closed to the public as indicated below in accordance with the provisions set forth in section 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended for the review, discussion, and evaluation of individual intramural programs and projects conducted by the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, including consideration of personnel qualifications and performance, and the competence of individual investigators, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) notifies federal agencies of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITF) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines). The Mandatory Guidelines were first published in the
A notice listing all currently HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs is published in the
If any laboratory or IITF has withdrawn from the HHS National Laboratory Certification Program (NLCP) during the past month, it will be listed at the end and will be omitted from the monthly listing thereafter.
This notice is also available on the Internet at
Giselle Hersh, Division of Workplace Programs, SAMHSA/CSAP, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 16N03A, Rockville, Maryland 20857; 240-276-2600 (voice).
The Mandatory Guidelines were initially developed in accordance with Executive Order 12564 and section 503 of Public Law 100-71. The “Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs,” as amended in the revisions listed above, requires strict standards that laboratories and IITFs must meet in order to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens for federal agencies.
To become certified, an applicant laboratory or IITF must undergo three rounds of performance testing plus an on-site inspection. To maintain that certification, a laboratory or IITF must participate in a quarterly performance testing program plus undergo periodic, on-site inspections.
Laboratories and IITFs in the applicant stage of certification are not to be considered as meeting the minimum requirements described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines. A HHS-certified laboratory or IITF must have its letter of certification from HHS/SAMHSA (formerly: HHS/NIDA), which attests that it has met minimum standards.
In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines dated November 25, 2008 (73 FR 71858), the following HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:
*The Standards Council of Canada (SCC) voted to end its Laboratory Accreditation Program for Substance Abuse (LAPSA) effective May 12, 1998. Laboratories certified through that program were accredited to conduct forensic urine drug testing as required by U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations. As of that date, the certification of those accredited Canadian laboratories will continue under DOT authority. The responsibility for conducting quarterly performance testing plus periodic on-site inspections of those LAPSA-accredited laboratories was transferred to the U.S. HHS, with the HHS' NLCP contractor continuing to have an active role in the performance testing and laboratory inspection processes. Other Canadian laboratories wishing to be considered for the NLCP may apply directly to the NLCP contractor just as U.S. laboratories do.
Upon finding a Canadian laboratory to be qualified, HHS will recommend that DOT certify the laboratory (
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective October 13, 2016.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Dare and Hyde Counties for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
Jones County for Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following area among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Onslow County for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034,
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Lee, Moore, and Wake Counties for Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following area among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Craven County for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Kansas (FEMA-4287-DR), dated October 20, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated October 20, 2016, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Kansas resulting from severe storms and flooding during the period of September 2-12, 2016, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Christian M. Van Alstyne, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Kansas have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Cheyenne, Cowley, Ellis, Graham, Greenwood, Kingman, Norton, Rooks, Russell, Sedgwick, and Sumner Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Kansas are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective October 25, 2016.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Camden, Chowan, Currituck, and Pasquotank Counties for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
Hertford County for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Effective Date: October 17, 2016.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Martin County for Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
Tyrrell and Washington Counties for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for Commonwealth of Kentucky (FEMA-4278-DR), dated August 26, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Lai Sun Yee, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.
This action terminates the appointment of Warren J. Riley as Federal Coordinating Officer for this disaster.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia (FEMA-4284-DR), dated October 8, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Georgia is hereby amended to include the following area among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 8, 2016.
Ware County for Public Assistance, including direct federal assistance.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina (FEMA-4285-DR), dated October 10, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of October 10, 2016.
Duplin and Pender Counties for Individual Assistance (already designated for assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures [Categories A and B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program).
Gates County for Individual Assistance and assistance for debris removal and emergency protective measures (Categories A and B), including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households in Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050 Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, announce the availability of a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) for the final Environmental Assessment (FEA) under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) for the issuance of a take permit for golden eagles pursuant to the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (Eagle Act), in association with the operation of the Alta East Wind Project (Alta East) in Kern County, California. The FEA was prepared in response to an application from Alta Wind X, LLC (applicant), an affiliate of NRG Yield, Inc., for a 5-year programmatic take permit for golden eagles (
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Heather Beeler, Migratory Bird Program, at the address shown in
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, evaluated an application under the Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 U.S.C. 668a-d; Eagle Act) for a 5-year programmatic golden eagle (
We prepared the FEA and FONSI to evaluate the impacts to the human environment of several alternatives associated with this permit application and evaluated compliance with our Eagle Act permitting regulations in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 50 CFR 22.26, as well as impacts of implementation of the supporting ECP, which was included as an appendix to the DEA. The applicant has revised the ECP, and the Final ECP is an attachment to our FONSI (Attachment 3).
We invited public comment on the Draft EA. In response, we received ten submissions; two submissions from Native American tribes, three from nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), three from the public, one from the electric utility industry and one from the applicant. One of the NGO comment letter combined comments from three different environmental organizations. Our responses to the comments on the Draft EA are presented in Attachment 2 of the FONSI.
In total, the comment letters contained approximately 36 individual comments. These comments generally fell under one of five main categories: (1) Effects to the species (including number of fatalities, local and cumulative effects, other sources of fatalities, and overall population numbers); (2) advanced conservation practices (ACPs), Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) role, transparency of the process and future ACPs, project siting, and curtailment); (3) mitigation (addressing scientific basis for electric utility retrofits and location of retrofits); (4) monitoring and reporting (addressing project reporting and Tehachapi Wind Resource Area eagle mortality reporting); and (5) general comments about the permitting program (including comments opposing the issuance of an eagle take permit).
Overall, the comments raised issues regarding the opportunities and challenges associated with issuing eagle take permits. We made changes to three topic areas of the FEA based on these comments. First, we added information on our risk evaluation under the curtailment program. We added more detailed information on the science behind the electric utility pole retrofit process for mitigation. We also expanded our discussion about our National Fish and Wildlife Foundation (NFWF) Eagle Mitigation Account.
We made some additional minor changes to the final EA to improve clarity. After considering all the comments, and in light of the record, we determined that neither substantial revisions nor a new analysis are required for the FEA. Detailed responses to specific comments are included in the FONSI (Attachment 2).
The Eagle Act allows us to authorize bald eagle and golden eagle programmatic take (take that is recurring, is not caused solely by indirect effects, and that occurs over the long term in a location or locations that cannot be specifically identified). Such take must be incidental to actions that are otherwise lawful. The Eagle Act's implementing regulations define “take” as to “pursue, shoot, shoot at, poison, wound, kill, capture, trap, collect, destroy, molest, or disturb” individuals, their nests and eggs (50 CFR 22.3); and “disturb” is further defined as “to agitate or bother a bald or golden eagle to a degree that causes . . . (1) injury to an eagle, . . . (2) a decrease in its productivity, . . . or (3) nest abandonment” (50 CFR 22.3). The Alta East Wind Project will result in recurring eagle mortalities over the life of the project, so the appropriate type of take permit is the programmatic permit under 50 CFR 22.26.
We may consider issuance of programmatic eagle take permits if (1) the incidental take is necessary to protect legitimate interests; (2) the take is compatible with the preservation
The Service's Selected Alternative for our issuance of a programmatic eagle take permit to Alta East contains elements of Alternatives 3, 4 and 5 of the EA. Under the Selected Alternative described in our FONSI, we will issue a 5-year programmatic eagle take permit to Alta X Wind, LLC for take of up to 3 golden eagles requiring implementation of the ECP, curtailment when eagles are detected and additional monitoring and mitigation. The Service has determined that a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) is appropriate for this action. Based on the FONSI and findings prepared associated with the permit application, we intend to issue a permit after 30 days.
We provide this notice under Section 668a of the Eagle Act (16 U.S.C. 668-668c) and NEPA regulations (40 CFR 1506.6).
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice; correction.
This notice corrects a notice that was published in the
Jacob Childers, Oregon State Office, Bureau of Land Management, at 503-808-6225 or by email
A notice that was published in the
The Assistant Secretary of the Interior for Land and Minerals Management has approved an amendment to a previously filed application to withdraw public domain and Revested Oregon California Railroad lands (O&C) managed by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and National Forest System (NFS) lands managed by the U.S. Forest Service (Forest Service) while Congress considers legislation to permanently withdraw those lands.
The notice is hereby corrected to read:
The Deputy Secretary of the Interior has approved an amendment to a previously filed application to withdraw public domain and Revested Oregon California Railroad lands (O&C) managed by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and National Forest System (NFS) lands managed by the U.S. Forest Service (Forest Service) while Congress considers legislation to permanently withdraw those lands.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Celanese International Corporation, Celanese Sales U.S. Ltd. and Celanese IP Hungary Bt on October 26, 2016. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain high-potency sweeteners, processes for making same, and products containing same. The complaint names as respondents Suzhou Hope Technology Co., Ltd. of China; Anhui Jinhe Industrial Co., Ltd. of China; and Vitasweet Co., Ltd. of China. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a general exclusion order, or in the alternative a limited exclusion order, issue cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3180”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined not to review an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 4) of the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”), granting complainant's motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation in the above-captioned investigation.
Clint Gerdine, Esq., Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 708-2310. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
The Commission instituted this investigation on August 9, 2016, based on a complaint filed on behalf of The Chamberlain Group, Inc. of Elmhurst, Illinois. 81 FR 52713. The complaint, as supplemented, alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, by reason of infringement of the following U.S. Patent Nos.: 7,161,319; 7,196,611; and 7,339,336. The complaint further alleges that a domestic industry exists. The Commission's notice of investigation named six respondents. The Office of Unfair Import Investigations is not participating in the investigation.
On September 23, 2016, complainant filed an unopposed motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation (“NOI”) to add two entities as respondents: (1) Techtronic Trading Limited of Kwai Chung, Hong Kong; and (2) Techtronic Industries Factory Outlets Inc., d/b/a Direct Tools Factory Outlet of Anderson, South Carolina.
The ALJ issued the subject ID on September 28, 2016, granting complainant's motion to amend the complaint and NOI. He found that good cause exists to grant the motion to amend under Commission Rule 210.14(b)(1) (19 CFR 210.14(b)(1)). No petitions for review were filed.
The Commission has determined not to review the ID.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR part 210.
By order of the Commission.
The Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, pursuant to its regulations (45 CFR part 503.25) and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice in regard to the scheduling of open meetings as follows:
10:30 a.m.—Issuance of Proposed Decisions in claims against Iraq.
All meetings are held at the Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Washington, DC. Requests for information, or advance notices of intention to observe an open meeting, may be directed to: Patricia M. Hall, Foreign Claims Settlement Commission, 600 E Street NW., Suite 6002, Washington, DC 20579. Telephone: (202) 616-6975.
Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 30 days until December 2, 2016.
If you have comments on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Michael J. Lewis, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration; Mailing Address: 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; Telephone: (202) 598-6812 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
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If additional information is required please contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Suite 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
On October 27, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed amended consent decree with the United States District Court for the Middle District of Pennsylvania in the lawsuit entitled
The United States filed this lawsuit under the Clean Water Act in 2009, seeking injunctive relief and civil penalties for violations of the Clean Water Act relating to the municipal wastewater treatment plant and collection system owned and operated by the Scranton Sewer Authority. The litigation was resolved on January 31, 2013 when the court entered a consent decree that requires the Scranton Sewer Authority to implement a long term control plan to address combined sewer overflows by December 1, 2037. The Scranton Sewer Authority now proposes to sell its wastewater treatment plant and collection system, and to transfer the remaining obligations under the consent decree, to Pennsylvania American Water Company. The proposed amended consent decree would substitute Pennsylvania American Water Company as the defendant to the consent decree, and release the Scranton Sewer Authority from its obligations, in the event that the proposed sale of the treatment plant and collection system proceeds to closing on or before March 31, 2017.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the amended consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $49.75 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the exhibits and signature pages, the cost is $12.00.
Civil Rights Division, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Civil Rights Division, Disability Rights Section (DRS), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until December 2, 2016.
If you have additional comments (especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time), suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or need additional information, please contact Rebecca B. Bond, Chief, Disability Rights Section, Civil Rights Division, U.S. Department of Justice, by any one of the following methods: By email at
You may obtain copies of this notice in an alternate format by calling the ADA Information Line at (800) 514-0301 (voice) or (800) 514-0383 (TTY).
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the
• Evaluate whether, and if so, how, the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and/or;
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Office of Federal Procurement Policy, Office of Management and Budget
Proposed Revision to Office of Management and Budget Circular No. A-126, “Improving the Management and Use of Government Aircraft.”
The Office of Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is proposing to revise OMB Circular A-126 “Improving the Management and Use of Government Aircraft” to update policies associated with the management and use of Government aircraft, including General Services Administration (GSA) and agency roles in regulating and managing the Federal aviation programs that have evolved since the Circular was last revised in 1992. The proposed changes also address recommendations from the Interagency Committee for Aviation Policy (ICAP) to make a clearer distinction between polices that apply to the management of aircraft and policies that apply to travel on Government aircraft.
Interested parties should submit comments in writing to the address below on or before 30 days after publication in the
Comments may be submitted online at
Jim Wade, OFPP,
Federal agencies own more than 1,200 operational aircraft to support a wide range of missions, including fire-fighting, law enforcement, research and development, and other activities. Federal aircraft are also used in various situations to transport certain executives. OMB Circular A-126 sets forth requirements to help ensure the appropriate agency use of Government aircraft.
Traditionally, the Circular has focused primarily on travel policy. When the Circular was last updated in 1992, coverage was strengthened to restrict the operation of aircraft to defined official purposes, restrict travel on such aircraft, require special review of such travel by senior officials or non-Federal travelers, and codify policies for reimbursement. The proposed revisions to A-126 would retain these policies but make several refinements to address recommendations made by the Government Accountability Office (GAO) in a 2014 report (GAO-14-151) recommending clarification on reporting exemptions for the Intelligence Community. Currently, the Circular exempts the reporting of classified trips, but the reporting of unclassified data is not explicitly addressed. To resolve this ambiguity, the proposed revisions to the Circular would include a clear statement that the Intelligence
Other proposed revisions would clarify the requirements for contractors traveling on Government aircraft and expand the guidance for determining whether Government aircraft is the most cost-effective alternative for meeting travel requirements.
Further revisions are proposed to enhance the Circular's coverage on aircraft management. These changes are designed to integrate a number of policies and practices that have been developed or refined since the Circular was last updated that strengthen investment and management practices associated with capital assets. For example, the Circular adds references to long-standing requirements in OMB Circular A-11 to prepare a business case that justifies the acquisition and operation of a capital asset; requires agencies to maintain an office dedicated to aircraft management; establishes flight program standards and performance indicators; and encourages the use of the Exchange/Sale program for replacing and disposing of aircraft. Other changes include broadening the definition of Government aircraft to include unmanned aircraft systems and the addition of definitions of Commercial Aviation Services (CAS), fixed costs, variable costs, performance indicator, and Senior Aviation Management Official (SAMO). Finally, for clarification and ease of use, the Circular is reorganized into separate parts for management, travel, and cost accounting.
OMB requests comments on these proposals as well as on other aspects of the Circular.
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This Circular applies to all Executive Agencies and to all Government aircraft except for aircraft used by or in support of the President or Vice President.
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a. Managing Government Aircraft
i. Acquiring Government Aircraft
1. Executive Agencies must be authorized to acquire aircraft in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 1343.
2. An Executive Agency may not acquire more, larger, or more capable aircraft than it needs to carry out its official Government business.
3. Executive Agencies must choose the most cost-effective alternatives for acquiring aircraft and CAS. Aircraft selection should be based on need, a strong business case, and life-cycle cost analyses, which conform to the requirements in OMB Circular A-11,
ii. Operating Government Aircraft
1. Executive Agencies that operate Government aircraft (
a. Use them only for official purposes,
b. Use them in the most operationally efficient and effective manner to accomplish these purposes.
c. Document all uses of such aircraft and retain that documentation for at least two years. At a minimum, the documentation of each use of Government aircraft must include:
i. The tail number of the aircraft;
ii. The date(s) used;
iii. The name(s) of the crew members and qualified non-crew members;
iv. The purpose(s) of the flight;
v. The cost(s) of flights conducted on Government aircraft used for political activities or required-use travel as identified in section 6.b.iii that require reimbursement. Cost(s) of flights for Senior Federal Officials and Non-Federal Travelers are also required for potential reporting to GSA;
vi. The route(s) flown and flight time; and
vii. The name(s) of all passengers, and an indication if any passenger is either a Senior Federal Official or a Non-Federal Traveler.
d. Unless otherwise exempt from reporting in accordance with FMR 102-33, provide any information requested by GSA on a routine or ad hoc basis on their aircraft inventory, costs, and utilization (flight hours).
2. Executive Agencies that only hire aircraft occasionally for specific flights, must either:
a. Establish an aviation program that complies with the requirements in paragraph 3 of this section (
b. Hire those aircraft through an agency with a policy-compliant aviation program to assure that safety and other critical aviation program requirements are satisfied.
3. Executive Agencies or their components that own and/or operate aircraft, except agencies that only hire aircraft occasionally for specific flights, must:
a. Designate a Senior Aviation Management Official (SAMO) to serve as the primary member of the GSA Interagency Committee for Aviation Policy (ICAP) and provide an alternate for the primary member.
b. Maintain an office to carry out the agency's aircraft management responsibilities.
c. Periodically review the continuing need for each of their aircraft and the cost-effectiveness of their aircraft operations as directed by OMB Circular A-11 as well as other applicable policies used to compare the cost of Government and contractor performance.
d. Develop performance indicators that measure the impact on mission
e. Comply with the internal control requirements of OMB Circular A-123 and assure that the appropriate internal controls for aviation management are included in the agency's Management Control Plan. Any material weaknesses in aviation programs are to be reported in the annual internal control reports to the President and the Congress.
f. Establish and enforce agency-specific flight program standards that include, but are not limited to, the following topics:
g. Ensure that their flight program standards comply with all statutes required to qualify for Public Aircraft Operations status including 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(41) and 49 U.S.C. 40125 and regulations that apply to Federal aviation activities, including GSA regulations and applicable Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations. Also—
i. When using a Government aircraft to transport a Passenger or to transport Passengers or property for compensation or hire, the activity would not qualify as a Public Aircraft Operation, and the Executive Agency flight program standards must comply with the applicable FAA regulations for civil aircraft;
ii. When using Government aircraft to perform a Governmental Function, in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 40125, the Executive Agency flight program need only comply with agency-specific safety standards and with the applicable FAA regulations for all aircraft operating within the National Airspace System and not the safety standards and FAA regulations that apply only to civil aircraft (reference Pub.L. 85-726, Federal Aviation Act of 1958).
h. Use automated aircraft management information systems that comply with data standards and reporting requirements prescribed by GSA, as well as with the agency's internal information requirements, to:
i. Accumulate costs into the standard aircraft program cost elements prescribed in GSA regulations. The uses of these cost elements for various purposes are discussed in section 6.c Accounting for Aircraft Costs.
ii. Unless otherwise exempt from reporting in accordance with FMR 102-33, accumulate and report to GSA information on their Government aircraft inventory, costs, and utilization according to GSA's guidance.
iii. Accumulate data to support aviation performance indicators that measure the effectiveness of their operations, maintenance and logistics programs and the impact of the aviation program on mission performance.
i. Develop agency specific fleet management and modernization plans to optimize the use of Government aircraft through:
i. Sharing common aircraft, transferring, or disposing of underutilized aircraft;
ii. Reducing excessive aircraft operations and maintenance costs; and
iii. Disposing of aircraft that are no longer cost effective or no longer meet agency needs and acquiring replacement aircraft.
iii. Providing Government Aircraft Services to Other Activities
1. In general, agencies that own or operate aircraft are authorized in statute to use those aircraft to serve specific missions and/or agency components and are funded in appropriations acts to provide those services.
2. In a few cases, one agency may be authorized to provide aviation services to another agency without requiring reimbursement for those services,
3. In most cases, however, servicing agencies that provide aviation services to requesting agencies under the Economy Act (31 U.S. Code 1535) are required to recover the actual costs from those entities receiving the service. This is typically handled as an Interagency Acquisition under the Economy Act.
iv. Replacing and Disposing of Government Aircraft
Agencies that want to replace aircraft are encouraged to use the Exchange/Sale Authority to do so. Under this authority, agencies are permitted to exchange or sell aircraft or aircraft parts that need to be replaced and apply the Exchange allowance or the Sale proceeds to the cost of the replacement aircraft or aircraft parts. Agencies that determine that their aircraft or aircraft parts are excess property and do not need replacement property may dispose of the aircraft or aircraft parts via donation, transfer, or sale. Guidance for using the Exchange/Sale Authority to replace aircraft or aircraft parts or for disposing of excess property is provided in regulations issued by the GSA.
b. Traveling on Government Aircraft
i. Who May Travel on Government Aircraft
Federal travelers who, for purposes of this Circular, include contractors traveling on official agency business, invitational travelers, Non-Federal Travelers and any other passengers, crewmembers, and qualified non-crewmembers may travel on Government aircraft, but only if they have authorization from an Executive Agency to do so.
ii. Approving Travel on Government Aircraft
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a. Use of Government aircraft may be required because of bona fide communications needs (
b. Required-use of Government aircraft for travel (
i. The President may determine that all travel, or travel in specified categories, by an agency head or other Federal official satisfies the criteria to qualify as required-use travel, or
ii. The agency head may determine in writing that all travel, or travel in
iii. If neither of the two preceding determinations applies, a Federal officer or employee must obtain written approval for all required-use travel on a trip-by-trip basis from the agency's senior legal official or his/her principal deputy. In special emergency situations, an after-the-fact written approval by an agency is permitted, but in either case, the approval must certify that the travel satisfies the criteria to qualify as required-use travel.
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a. Sufficient capacity exists on a Government aircraft that will meet the traveler's flight requirements (
i. The aircraft is already scheduled for use for an official purpose;
ii. Such space-available use does not require a larger aircraft than needed for the official purpose;
iii. Such space-available use results only in minor additional cost to the Government; and either
iv. The Federal traveler or the dependent of a Federal traveler is stationed by the Government in a remote location that is not accessible to scheduled commercial airline service; or
v. The traveler is authorized to travel space-available under 10 U.S.C. 2648 Persons and supplies: Sea, land, and air transportation.
b. Use of a Government aircraft is the most cost-effective alternative that will meet the travel requirements. To ensure that a Government aircraft is the most cost-effective alternative for travel, the traveler's designated travel-approving official must—
i. Compare the cost of all reasonable travel alternatives, including:
1. The cost of the city-pair fare for scheduled commercial airline service or the cost of the lowest available full coach fare, if a city-pair fare is not available to the traveler.
2. The cost of using Government aircraft, whether owned or hired as a CAS.
3. Travel by other available modes of transportation that are capable of meeting the travel requirements.
ii. Consider the cost of non-productive or lost-work time while in travel status and other relevant costs (
iii. Approve the most cost-effective alternative that meets the agency's needs.
c. Scheduled commercial airline service is less expensive than Government aircraft, but no such service is reasonably available (
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iii. Reimbursement for Use of Government Aircraft
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a. Any incidental private activities (personal or political) of an employee undertaken on an employee's own time while on official travel must not result in any increase in the actual costs to the Government of operating the aircraft.
b. The Government must be reimbursed the appropriate share of the full coach fare for any portion of the time on the trip spent on political activities (except as provided in paragraph 6.b.iii.4. For Any Political Travel).
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a. For a wholly personal or political trip, the full coach fare for the trip;
b. For an official trip during which the employee engages in political activities, the appropriate share of the full coach fare for the entire trip;
c. For an official trip during which the employee flies to one or more locations for personal reasons, the excess of the full coach fare of all flights taken by the employee on the trip over the full coach fare of the flights that would have been taken by the employee had there been no personal activities on the trip.
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iv. Documenting Travel on Government Aircraft.
In addition to the usual information provided on an official travel authorization (
1. Travel to meet mission requirements must be noted as such and identify the mission(s).
2. Required-use travel must be noted as such, the criteria for its use cited, and any required approvals documented.
3. Other official travel must be noted as such and the justification for using Government aircraft documented,
a. Space-available—Space is available on a Government aircraft that meets the traveler's flight requirements.
b. Cost—Use of Government aircraft is the most cost-effective alternative that will meet the travel requirements. If this justification is cited, the estimated cost
c. Lack of reasonable alternatives—For example, scheduled commercial airline service may be less expensive, but not reasonably available to meet the traveler's schedule requirements.
4. All travel authorizations for the use of Government aircraft by Senior Federal Officials and Non-Federal Travelers for mission requirements and other official travel must document all special approvals required.
v. Reporting Travel on Government Aircraft
1. Agencies that use Government aircraft for travel must report semi-annually to GSA each use of such aircraft for non-mission travel by Senior Federal Officials and any Non-Federal Travelers (except for travel authorized under 10 U.S.C. 2648 and regulations implementing that statute). This includes travel as a passenger, crewmember, or qualified non-crewmember.
2. Agencies that are included in the Intelligence Community, as identified in the National Security Act, 50 U.S.C. 3003, must maintain information on trips by Senior Federal Officials and Non-Federal Travelers, but the agencies are not required to report this information to GSA. The information must be made available to Congress or any other organization with the appropriate security clearance and oversight responsibility upon request.
3. Agencies must maintain data on required-use of Government aircraft, but are not required to submit this information to GSA. The information must be made available to Congress or any other organization with oversight responsibility upon request.
4. GSA will provide policies and reporting criteria to agencies that authorize travel on Government aircraft and administer the annual submission of a Senior Federal Travel Report to OMB.
c. Accounting for Aircraft Costs
The costs associated with agency aircraft programs must be accumulated to: (1) Justify acquisitions needed to support the agency's aviation program; (2) justify the use of Government aircraft in lieu of commercially available aircraft, and the use of one Government aircraft in lieu of another; (3) recover the costs of operating Government aircraft when appropriate; and (4) determine the cost effectiveness of various aspects of agency aircraft programs. To accomplish these purposes, agencies must accumulate their aircraft program costs in accordance with GSA's
i. Justifying Aviation Program Acquisitions
When the Circular was revised in 1992, the principal OMB guidance affecting agencies' aviation program acquisition choices was OMB Circular A-76, “Performance of Commercial Activities.” Since that time, OMB has developed more comprehensive guidance for agency use in planning and justifying investments in capital assets, including capital assets needed to support aviation programs. This guidance is contained in OMB Circular A-11 and its supplement, the
ii. Justifying Use of Government Aircraft.
Agencies that use Government aircraft to support recurring travel between locations are encouraged to develop standard trip cost justification schedules, and must ensure that the costs used for such schedules are kept current. These schedules should summarize and compare the projected costs of using one or more specific types of agency aircraft (both owned and hired, as applicable) for travel between selected locations to the costs of using commercial airline service between those locations. Comparative costs for varying passenger loads should also be shown. Agencies that choose to use this approach should be able to see the minimum number of official travelers needed to justify the use of a particular aircraft or aircraft type for a trip between locations on the schedule. Agencies that are not able to use such schedules are required to do a cost justification on a case by case basis.
To make the cost comparisons necessary to justify the use of a Government aircraft, the agency must compare the actual cost of using a Government aircraft to the cost of using a commercial airline service. The actual cost of using a Government aircraft is either: (a) The amount that the agency will be charged by the organization (
Agencies should develop a variable cost rate for each aircraft or aircraft type (
1. Accumulate or allocate to the aircraft or aircraft type all historical costs (for the previous 12 months, or longer periods, as appropriate) grouped under the variable cost category defined in GSA regulations. These costs should be obtained from the agency's accounting system.
2. Reduce or eliminate short-term data volatilities, as needed, by factoring in or out seasonal, cyclic, and infrequent variable cost components, such as engine overhauls and accident repairs, and allocating those costs over time as appropriate.
3. Adjust the historical variable costs from Step 1 for inflation and for any known upcoming cost changes to project the new variable cost total. The inflation and escalation factors used must conform to OMB Circulars A-11 and A-76, as appropriate.
4. Divide the total variable costs of the aircraft or aircraft type by the flying hours corresponding to the historical data timeframe for the aircraft or aircraft type to compute the projected variable cost or usage rate (per flying hour).
To compute the variable cost of using an agency's own aircraft for a proposed trip, multiply the variable cost rate computed in Step 4 (above) by the estimated number of flying hours for the trip. The variable cost of using a Government aircraft for a trip should include, as appropriate, all time required to position or reposition the aircraft prior to and after the trip, if no follow-on trip is scheduled. If a follow-on trip requires any repositioning time, it should be charged with that time. If one aircraft mission (
The cost of using commercial airline services for the purpose of justifying the use of Government aircraft must:
1. Be the current Government contract fare or price or the lowest fare or price known to be available for the trip(s) in question;
2. include, as appropriate, any differences in the costs of any additional ground or air travel, per diem and miscellaneous travel (
3. only include costs associated with passengers on official business. Costs associated with passengers traveling on a space-available basis may not be used in the cost comparison.
iii. Recovering Cost of Operation
Under the Economy Act of 1932, as amended, (31 U.S.C. 1535), and various acts appropriating funds or establishing working funds to operate aircraft, agencies are required to recover the costs of operating their aircraft for use by other agencies, other governments (
The full cost recovery rate for an aircraft is the sum of the variable and fixed cost rates for that aircraft. The computation of the variable cost rate for an aircraft or aircraft type is described under paragraph 6.c.ii. Justifying Use of Government Aircraft. The fixed cost rate for an aircraft or aircraft type is computed as follows:
1. Accumulate from the agency's accounting system (for the previous 12 months or longer, as appropriate) the fixed costs listed in GSA Regulations that are directly attributable to the aircraft or aircraft type (
2. Adjust the historical fixed costs from Step 1 for inflation and for any known upcoming cost changes, including contract price adjustments, to project the new fixed cost total. The inflation and escalation factors used must conform to OMB Circulars A-11 and A-76, as appropriate.
3. Add to the adjusted historical fixed costs amounts representing self-insurance costs and the annual depreciation or replacement costs, as described in GSA regulations.
4. Allocate operations and administrative overhead costs to the aircraft or aircraft type based on the percentage of total aircraft program flying hours attributable to that aircraft or aircraft type.
5. Compute a fixed cost recovery rate for the aircraft or aircraft type by dividing the sum of the projected directly attributable fixed costs (from Step 3) and the allocated fixed costs (from Step 4) by the annual flying hours projected for the aircraft or aircraft type.
6. To compute the full cost recovery rate of using a Government aircraft for a trip, add the variable cost rate for the aircraft or aircraft type to the corresponding fixed cost rate (computed in Step 5 above) and multiply the result by the estimated number of flying hours for the trip using the proposed aircraft.
The variable cost recovery rate for an aircraft or aircraft type is usually the same as the variable cost or usage rate described under paragraph 6.c.ii. Justifying Use of Government Aircraft. In the event that the requesting agency covers some of the costs included in the variable cost recovery rate,
iv. Determining Aircraft Program Cost Effectiveness
Although cost effectiveness measures are not the only performance indicators of the effectiveness of an agency's aircraft program, they can be very useful in identifying opportunities to reduce aircraft operational costs. These opportunities might include changing maintenance practices, purchasing fuel at lower costs, and the replacement of old, inefficient aircraft with aircraft that are more fuel efficient and have lower operations and maintenance costs.
The most common measures used to evaluate the cost effectiveness of various aspects of an aircraft program are expressed as the cost per flying hour or per passenger mile for certain types of aircraft costs. These measures may be developed using the Standard Aircraft Program Cost Elements and include, but are not limited to: Maintenance costs/flying hour, fuel and other fluids cost/flying hour, accident repair costs/flying hour (or per aircraft), and variable cost/passenger mile.
In coordination with the Interagency Committee for Aviation Policy (ICAP), GSA should assist in the development of aviation performance indicators that agencies can use, within the context of their various missions and unique operating environments, to assess the cost-effective management of their aircraft.
7.
a. The head of each Executive Agency must issue the appropriate internal agency directives to implement this Circular within 180 days of its publication. These internal agency directives must include all policies contained in this Circular that apply to the agency's use of Government aircraft, and may contain additional policies unique to the agency.
i. Agencies that own or hire aircraft must assure that their internal directives comply with section 6.a. of this Circular.
ii. Agencies that use Government aircraft to support their travel requirements must assure that their internal travel policies are consistent with section 6.b. of this Circular.
b. The Secretaries of Defense and the uniformed services, the Secretary of State and GSA must incorporate the applicable policies of this Circular into the travel regulations that they publish for uniformed service, foreign service, and civilian employees, respectively. The necessary changes to these regulations should be issued no later than 180 days from the date of this Circular.
c. GSA shall maintain an office to implement Government-wide responsibilities for Government aviation program management that include, but are not limited to, the following:
i. Organizing and maintaining an interagency committee composed of Federal agency senior aviation management officials who advise the Administrator of General Services on Government aircraft policy and management.
ii. Coordinating the development of effectiveness measures, policy recommendations, and guidance for the procurement, operation, safety, and disposal of Government aircraft consistent with section 6.a. of this Circular.
iii. Providing policy recommendations and guidance on the use of Government aircraft to conduct official business.
iv. Operating a Government-wide information system to collect, analyze, and report agency information on Government aircraft.
v. Developing and maintaining common, generic aircraft information
vi. Providing to OMB and, upon request to Congress and other official requestors, analytical reports of the information collected and maintained in the Government-wide aircraft management information system as well as information collected from agencies on an ad hoc basis. Such reports should include, but not be limited to:
1. Aviation related reports that may be required by OMB and other Executive guidance.
2. An annual aviation data set that includes an inventory of agency-owned aircraft and the costs and flight hours associated with each agency's flight operations performed by both agency-owned and CAS aircraft.
3. Periodic reports on the utilization of the Exchange/Sale Authority for aircraft and aircraft parts.
vii. Upon a Federal agency's request, conduct external audits, surveys or reviews of Federal agency aviation programs to identify weaknesses and/or to recommend improvements as needed to increase the efficiency and the effectiveness, as well as to improve the safety culture of Federal agency aviation programs.
viii. Reviewing agency aircraft policies for compliance with Federal regulation and guidance as needed.
ix. Developing, coordinating and providing training, through workshops and other means, to agency aviation professionals on aviation safety, fleet modernization, and any other subjects approved by the ICAP.
8.
a. Aviation related reports.
b. Annual aviation data sets.
c. Exchange/Sale authority utilization reports.
9.
10.
11.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final environmental impact statement; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) and the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE), Jacksonville District, are issuing the final environmental impact statement (EIS), NUREG-2176, “Environmental Impact Statement for Combined Licenses (COLs) for Turkey Point Nuclear Plant, Units 6 and 7,” to support the environmental review for the combined license application Florida Power and Light Company (FPL) submitted an application for COLs to construct and operate two new nuclear power plants at its Turkey Point site near Homestead, Florida.
The final EIS is available as of October 28, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2009-0337, when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by the following methods:
•
•
•
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Alicia Williamson Dickerson, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone: 301-415-1878, email:
In accordance with section 51.118 of title 10 of the
The final EIS also supports the USACE's review and was prepared in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended. The final EIS also supports the Department of the Army's permit application for certain construction activities at the proposed Turkey Point, Units 6 and 7 site. The USACE's Department of the Army permit application number for Turkey Point, Units 6 and 7 project is (SAJ-2009-
As discussed in the final EIS, the NRC staff's recommendation related to the environmental aspects of the proposed action is that the COLs should be issued. This recommendation is based on: (1) The Environmental Report (ER) submitted by FPL, as revised; (2) consultation with Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies; (3) the NRC staff's independent review; (4) the NRC staff's consideration of comments received during the environmental review; and (5) the assessments summarized in the final EIS, including the potential mitigation measures identified in the ER and in the final EIS. In addition, in making its recommendation, the NRC staff has concluded that there are no environmentally preferable or obviously superior sites in the region of interest.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice; correction.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is correcting a notice that was published in the
The correction is effective November 2, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0214 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Janet Burkhardt, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1384, email:
In the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on October 26, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”)
The Exchange is proposing to amend Exchange Rule 11.26, Compliance with Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot to correct defective numbering under the Interpretations and Policies of the rule. The Exchange
The Exchange has designated this proposal as a “non-controversial” proposed rule change pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to make ministerial non-substantive changes to the numbering of the Interpretations and Policies sections of Rule 11.26. The changes are intended to address incorrect numbering that resulted from two recent amendments [sic] the rule filed by the Exchange. On September 28, 2016 the Commission noticed a proposed rule change filed by the Exchange to amend Rule 11.26, including certain sections of the Interpretations and Policies.
On September 29, 2016, the SEC noticed a proposed rule change filed by the Exchange to make further rule changes in connection with the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot, including an amendment to Rule 11.26, Interpretations and Policies.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
Specifically, the proposal is designed to correct an administrative error from a previous filing that resulted in incorrect numbering of certain sections of Rule 11.26, Interpretations and Policies. Correcting these errors will avoid confusion and will promote clarity and ease of reference in the Exchange's rules and is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act in that it will promote just and equitable principles of trade and the protection of investors and the public interest.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is intended to correct defective numbering in the Interpretations and Policies of Rule 11.26 and raises no competitive issues.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to the delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of application for an order to amend a prior order under sections 17(d), 57(a)(4) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d), 57(a)(4) and 57(i) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order (“Order”) to amend a prior order to permit certain business development companies (“BDCs”) and closed-end investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with certain other affiliated investment funds and broker-dealers. The Order would supersede the prior order.
NF Investment Corp. (“NFIC”); Carlyle GMS Finance, Inc. (“CGMSF,” and together with NFIC, the “Existing Regulated Funds”); NFIC SPV LLC (“NFIC Sub”); Carlyle GMS Finance SPV LLC (“CGMSF Sub”'); Carlyle GMS Finance MM CLO 2015-1 LLC (“2015-1 Issuer,” and together with CFMSF Sub and NFIC Sub, the “Existing SPV Subs”) (collectively, the “Existing Co-Investment Affiliates”); Carlyle GMS Investment Management L.L.C. (“CGMSIM”) on behalf of itself and its successors;
The application was filed on May 22, 2015, and amended on October 8, 2015, March 30, 2016, and August 4, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on November 21, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to Rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
The Commission: Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F St. NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Carlyle GMS Finance, Inc., 520 Madison Avenue, 38th Floor, New York, NY 10022.
Jean E. Minarick, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6811 or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Chief Counsel's Office, Division of Investment Management).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. CGMSF and NFIC are both Maryland corporations organized as non-diversified, closed-end management investment companies that have elected to be regulated as BDCs under Section 54(a) of the Act.
2. CGMSIM is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”) and serves as the investment adviser to the Existing Regulated Funds. CGMSIM is a Delaware corporation and a wholly owned subsidiary of The Carlyle Group L.P. (“Carlyle”).
3. TCG, a wholly owned subsidiary of Carlyle, is registered as a limited purpose broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) and is a Delaware limited liability company that, from time to time, may hold various assets in a principal capacity. When acting in this capacity, TCG, and any other future wholly or majority owned broker-dealer subsidiaries of Carlyle and any future wholly owned subsidiaries of such broker-dealer subsidiaries who intend to participate in the Co-Investment Program are collectively referred to as the “Capital Markets Affiliates.”
4. Applicants seek an Order to permit a Regulated Fund
5. Applicants state that a Regulated Fund may, from time to time, form one or more SPV Subs.
6. When considering Potential Co-Investment Transactions for any Regulated Fund, the applicable Investment Adviser will consider only the Objectives and Strategies, investment policies, investment positions, capital available for investment (“Available Capital”),
7. Other than pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, and after making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the applicable Investment Adviser will present each Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the proposed allocation to the directors of the Board that are eligible to vote under section 57(o) of the Act (“Eligible Directors”). The “required
8. With respect to the pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, a Regulated Fund may participate in a pro rata disposition or Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if, among other things: (i) The proposed participation of each Co-Investment Affiliate and Regulated Fund in such disposition or Follow-On Investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition or Follow-On Investment, as the case may be; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved that Regulated Fund's participation in pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. If the Board does not so approve, any such disposition or Follow-On Investment will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors. The Board of any Regulated Fund may at any time rescind, suspend or qualify its approval of pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments with the result that all dispositions and/or Follow-On Investments must be submitted to the Eligible Directors.
9. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than indirectly through share ownership in one of the Regulated Funds.
10. If an Investment Adviser, the principal owners of the Investment Adviser (“Principals”), or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Investment Adviser or the Principals, and the Co-Investment Affiliates (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting shares of a Regulated Fund (the “Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as required under condition 16. Applicants believe that this condition will ensure that the Non-Interested Directors will act independently in evaluating the Co-Investment Program, because the ability of an Investment Adviser or the Principals to influence the Non-Interested Directors by a suggestion, explicit or implied, that the Non-Interested Directors can be removed will be limited significantly. Applicants represent that the Non-Interested Directors will evaluate and approve any such voting trust or proxy adviser, taking into accounts its qualifications, reputation for independence, cost to the shareholders, and other factors that they deem relevant.
1. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit affiliated persons of a registered investment company from participating in joint transactions with the company or a company controlled by such registered investment company unless the Commission has granted an order permitting such transactions. Section 57(a)(4) of the Act prohibits certain affiliated persons of a BDC from participating in joint transactions with the BDC (or a company controlled by such BDC) in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will be deemed to apply to BDCs. Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 applies.
2. Applicants submit that the Investment Advisers and the entities that they advise would be deemed to be a person related to, or affiliated with, a Regulated Fund in a manner described by sections 17(d) or 57(b) and therefore prohibited by sections 17(d) or 57(a)(4) and rule 17d-1 from participating in the Co-Investment Transactions. Further, because the SPV Subs are controlled by the Regulated Funds, the SPV Subs are subject to sections 17(d) or 57(a)(4) and would be prohibited by rule 17d-1 from participating in the Co-Investment Transactions without the Order. Finally, because each Capital Markets Affiliate is under common control with CGMSIM and, therefore, is an “affiliated person” of CGMSIM, each Capital Markets Affiliate could be deemed to be a person related to a Regulated Fund (or an SPV Sub) in a manner described by section 17(d) or section 57(b) and also prohibited from participating in the Co-Investment Program.
3. Rule 17d-1 under the Act generally prohibits participation by a registered investment company, or a company controlled by such registered investment company, and an affiliated person (as defined in section 2(a)(3) of the Act) or principal underwriter for that investment company, or an affiliated person of such affiliated person or principal underwriter, in any joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit sharing plan, as defined in the rule, absent an order by the Commission. Similarly, rule 17d-1, as made applicable to BDCs by section 57(i), prohibits any person who is related to a BDC in a manner described in section 57(b), acting as principal, from participating in, or effecting any transaction in connection with, any joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan in which the BDC (or a company controlled by such BDC) is a participant, absent an order from the Commission. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
4. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, the Regulated Funds would be, in some circumstances, limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants believe that the proposed terms and conditions will ensure that the Co-Investment Transactions are consistent with the protection of each Regulated Fund's shareholders and with the purposes intended by the policies and provisions of the Act. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions will be consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and on a basis that is not different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Each time an investment adviser to any Co-Investment Affiliate or a Co-Investment Affiliate considers a Potential Co-Investment Transaction for a Co-Investment Affiliate that falls within a Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies, the Regulated Fund's Investment Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for the Regulated Fund in light of such Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
2. (a) If the Investment Adviser deems the Regulated Fund's participation in any such Potential Co-Investment Transaction is appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine
(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by an Investment Adviser to be invested by the Regulated Fund in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other Co-Investment Affiliates, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's Available Capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each. The Investment Advisers will provide the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund with information concerning each participating Co-Investment Affiliate's Available Capital to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with these allocation procedures.
(c) After making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the Investment Adviser will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the amount proposed to be invested by each Co-Investment Affiliate, to the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will co-invest with Co-Investment Affiliates only if, prior to such Regulated Fund's and any Co-Investment Affiliates' participation in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, a Required Majority of such Regulated Fund concludes that:
(i) The terms of the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its shareholders and do not involve overreaching of such Regulated Fund or its shareholders on the part of any person concerned;
(ii) the Potential Co-Investment Transaction is consistent with:
(A) The interests of the shareholders of such Regulated Fund; and
(B) such Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;
(iii) the investment by the Co-Investment Affiliates would not disadvantage such Regulated Fund, and participation by such Regulated Fund is not on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of any Co-Investment Affiliate; provided, that if a Co-Investment Affiliate, other than such Regulated Fund, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors or the right to have a board observer or any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company, such event shall not be interpreted to prohibit the Required Majority from reaching the conclusions required by this condition (2)(c)(iii), if:
(A) The Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any;
(B) the Investment Advisers agree to, and do, provide, periodic reports to such Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company; and
(C) any fees or other compensation that any Co-Investment Affiliate or any affiliated person of a Co-Investment Affiliate receives in connection with the right of the Co-Investment Affiliate to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among the participating Co-Investment Affiliates (the Co-Investment Affiliates (other than the Regulated Funds) may, in turn, share their portion with their affiliated persons)) and the applicable Regulated Fund in accordance with the amount of each party's investment; and
(iv) the proposed investment by such Regulated Fund will not benefit the Investment Advisers or the Co-Investment Affiliates or any affiliated person of either of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by condition 13, (B) to the extent permitted by sections 17(e) and 57(k) of the Act, as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C).
3. Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
4. The applicable Investment Adviser will present to the Board of the Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, a record of all investments made by the Co-Investment Affiliates in Potential Co-Investment Transactions during the preceding quarter that fell within such Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why the investment opportunities were not offered to the Regulated Fund. All information presented to the Board of such Regulated Fund pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of such Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
5. Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with condition 8,
6. A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, settlement date, and registration rights will be the same for such Regulated Fund as for the Co-Investment Affiliates. The grant to a Co-Investment Affiliate, but not such Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this condition 6, if conditions 2(c)(iii)(A), (B) and (C) are met.
7. (a) If any Co-Investment Affiliate elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security that was acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Investment Adviser or Co-Investment Affiliate (only as to clause (i)) will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed disposition at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to participation by each Regulated Fund in the disposition.
(b) Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to other Co-Investment Affiliates.
(c) A Regulated Fund may participate in such disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Co-Investment Affiliate in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition; (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to
(d) Each Co-Investment Affiliate will bear its own expenses in connection with any such disposition.
8. (a) If any Co-Investment Affiliate desires to make a Follow-On Investment in a portfolio company whose securities were acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the Investment Adviser or Co-Investment Affiliate (only as to clause (i)) will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed Follow-On Investment, by each Regulated Fund.
(b) A Regulated Fund may participate in such Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Co-Investment Affiliate in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application). In all other cases, the applicable Investment Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(c) If, with respect to any Follow-On Investment:
(i) The amount of the opportunity is not based on the Co-Investment Affiliate's outstanding investments immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and
(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Investment Adviser to be invested by such Regulated Fund in the Follow-On Investment, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other Co-Investment Affiliates in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the opportunity, then the amount invested by each such party will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's Available Capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each.
(d) The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other conditions set forth in the application.
9. The Non-Interested Directors of each Regulated Fund will be provided quarterly for review all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by any Co-Investment Affiliate that the applicable Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Non-Interested Directors may determine whether all investments made during the preceding quarter, including those investments which such Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the conditions of the Order. In addition, the Non-Interested Directors will consider at least annually the continued appropriateness for the applicable Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions. All information presented to such Regulated Fund's Board pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of such Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
10. Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f).
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund also will be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise an “affiliated person” (as defined in the 1940 Act) of any Co-Investment Affiliate (other than any other Regulated Fund).
12. The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the applicable Investment Adviser under its respective investment advisory agreement with the applicable Regulated Fund or other Co-Investment Affiliate, be shared by such Regulated Fund and each Co-Investment Affiliate in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or to be acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
13. Any transaction fee
14. The Capital Markets Affiliates will not be permitted to invest in a Potential Co-Investment Transaction except to the extent the demand from the Regulated Funds and the other Co-Investment Affiliates is less than the total investment opportunity.
15. The Investment Advisers will maintain written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the foregoing Conditions. These policies and procedures will require, among other things, that each of the applicable Investment Advisers will be notified of
16. If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party (such as the trustee of a voting trust or a proxy adviser) when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any matters requiring approval by the vote of a majority of the outstanding voting securities, as defined in section 2(a)(42) of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On May 3, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds it appropriate to designate a longer period within which to issue an order approving or disapproving the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider this proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 13, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
On September 6, 2016, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
This order institutes proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under NYSE Arca
According to the Exchange, the Trust will normally hold only bitcoins as an asset, but may hold a limited amount of cash in connection with the creation and redemption process and to pay Trust expenses. The investment objective of the Trust is to provide investors with exposure to the daily change in the U.S. dollar price of bitcoin, before expenses and liabilities of the Trust, as measured by the TradeBlock XBX Index (“XBX”).
The Trust intends to achieve this objective by investing substantially all of its assets in bitcoin traded on various domestic and international bitcoin exchanges and OTC markets, depending on liquidity and other factors at the Sponsor's discretion. The Trust is not actively managed and will not engage in activities designed to obtain a profit from, or to ameliorate losses caused by, changes in the price of bitcoin. The Trust will generally use the XBX to calculate the Trust's net asset value (“NAV”) on each business day that the NYSE Arca is open for regular trading, as promptly as practicable after 4:00 p.m., Eastern time (“E.T.”).
According to the proposal, given the novelty and unique digital characteristics of bitcoin as an innovative asset class, traditional custodians who normally custody assets do not currently offer custodial services for bitcoin. Accordingly, the Sponsor will secure the bitcoin held by the Trust using multi-signature “cold storage wallets,” which the Exchange describes as an industry best practice.
The Trust will issue and redeem the Shares in “Baskets” only to certain Authorized Participants.
According to the Exchange, Authorized Participants and market makers can hedge their exposure to bitcoin, whether creating and redeeming baskets in-kind or for cash, by using non-deliverable forward contracts (“NDFs”) or swap contracts that will create synthetic long or short exposure to bitcoin. NDFs will be offered by several participants, including the Sponsor itself, operating on a principal basis. Such arrangements, according to the Exchange, will make it possible for Authorized Participants that lack the trading infrastructure to transact in bitcoin to be able to hedge their exposure by entering into an NDF or a swap contract. In addition, according to the Exchange, the Sponsor will, to the extent requested by Authorized Participants and market makers, act as agent by buying and selling bitcoin on behalf of the Authorized Participants and market makers, including-short sale orders for hedging purposes.
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data, and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) or any other provision of the Act, or the rules and regulations thereunder. Although there do not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval that would be facilitated by an oral presentation of views, data, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4, any request for an opportunity to make an oral presentation.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by November 23, 2016.
1. There are currently no exchange-traded products (“ETPs”) available on U.S. markets that hold a digital asset such as bitcoins, which have neither a physical form (unlike commodities) nor an issuer that is currently registered with any regulatory body (unlike securities, futures, or derivatives), and whose fundamental properties and ownership can, by coordination among a majority of its network processing power, be changed (unlike any of the above). What are commenters' views about the current stability, resilience, fairness, and efficiency of the markets on which bitcoins are traded? What are commenters' views on whether an asset with the novel and unique properties of a bitcoin is an appropriate underlying asset for a product that will be traded on a national securities exchange? What are commenters' views on the risk of loss via computer hacking posed by such an asset? What are commenters' views on whether an ETP based on such an asset would be susceptible to manipulation?
2. According to the Exchange, the logic utilized for the derivation of the daily closing index level for the XBX is intended to analyze actual bitcoin transactional data, verify and refine the data set, and yield an objective, fair-market value of one bitcoin as of 4:00 p.m., E.T., each weekday, priced in U.S. dollars. What are commenters' views on the Trust's proposal to value its holdings based on XBX and on the methodology used by XBX? What are commenters' views on the alternative and sequential manner in which the Trust proposes to value its holdings in the event that the Sponsor determines that a rule has failed if a pricing source is unavailable or, in the judgment of the Sponsor, is deemed unreliable?
3. Given the novelty and unique digital characteristics of bitcoin as an asset class, and in the interest of adequate security and investor confidence in bitcoin control, what are commenters' views regarding the Trust's proposed security, control, and insurance measures?
4. The proposal states that bitcoin trades on more than 30 exchanges globally on a 24-hour basis and that, therefore, it is difficult for attempted market manipulation on any one exchange to affect the global market price of bitcoin. The proposal further states that any attempt to manipulate the price would result in an arbitrage opportunity among exchanges, which typically would be acted upon by market participants. What are commenters views on the cost and the efficiency of the arbitrage among the various global markets for bitcoin? What are commenters' views generally with respect to the liquidity and transparency of the bitcoin market, susceptibility to manipulation, and thus the suitability of bitcoins as an underlying asset for an ETP?
5. The proposal states that the dissemination of information on the Trust's Web site, along with quotations for and last-sale prices of transactions in the Shares and the intra-day indicative value and NAV of the Trust will help to reduce the ability of market participants to manipulate the bitcoin market or the price of the Shares. The proposal further states that the Trust's arbitrage mechanism will facilitate the correction of price discrepancies in bitcoin and the Shares and that demand from new investors accessing bitcoin through investment in the Shares will broaden the investor base in bitcoin, which could further reduce the possibility of collusion among market participants to manipulate the bitcoin market. What are commenters' views regarding these statements? Do commenters' agree or disagree with the assertion that Authorized Participants and other market makers will be able to make efficient and liquid markets in the Shares at prices generally in line with the NAV?
6. The proposal states that the Sponsor of the Fund may engage in principal trades of NDFs with market makers and Authorized Participants in order to facilitate hedging for Authorized Participants who do not possess the technical abilities to transact directly in bitcoin. In addition, to the extent requested by Authorized Participants and market makers, the Sponsor would act as agent by buying and selling bitcoin on behalf of the Authorized Participants and market makers. What are commenters' views on any potential conflict of interest that may be created by this arrangement, which would involve the Sponsor acting in a capacity other than as agent for the Fund? Would this arrangement affect the effectiveness and efficiency of the arbitrage mechanism and, if so, how? What other effects, if any, might this activity by the Sponsor have on the operation of the Fund?
7. Under the proposal, Baskets may be created or redeemed utilizing bitcoin or cash.
8. Under the proposal, creation or redemption orders for the Fund would have to be submitted by 1:00 p.m. E.T. to be effected the same business day. The proposal also sets forth conditions under which the Fund's administrator may reject Basket purchase orders. One such condition would be “if the Sponsor thinks it is necessary or advisable for any reason, which the Sponsor determines is in the best interests of the Trust or shareholders.” Similarly, the proposal states that the Fund's administrator “may, in its discretion, suspend the right of redemption or postpone the redemption settlement date (1) for any period during which an emergency exists as a result of which the redemption distribution is not reasonably practicable or (2) for such other period as the Sponsor determines to be necessary for the protection of the shareholders.” What are commenters' views on the 1:00 p.m. cut-off for order submission and on the necessity and scope of the discretion to reject creation or redemption orders? Are these provisions likely to have an effect on the arbitrage mechanisms and, if so, how?
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On August 26, 2016, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposed to amend Section 907.00 of the Manual to adjust the timing of certain entitlements to complimentary products and services for special purpose acquisition companies (“SPACs”) under that rule. In its filing, the Exchange stated that a SPAC is a special purpose company formed for the purpose of effecting a merger, capital stock exchange, asset acquisition, stock purchase, reorganization, or similar business combination with one or more operating businesses or assets.
As set forth in Section 907.00 of the Manual, the Exchange offers complimentary products and services for a period of 24 calendar months from the date of initial listing to a category of listed companies defined as “Eligible New Listings.”
Currently, pursuant to Section 907.00 of the Manual, Eligible New Listings are eligible for services as either a Tier A or Tier B company.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, however, if an Eligible New Listing begins to use a particular product or service provided for under Section 907.00 within 30 days of its initial listing date, the complimentary period begins on the date of first use.
The Exchange has now proposed to amend Section 907.00 of the Manual to provide that a SPAC will no longer be deemed to be an Eligible New Listing at the time of its initial listing, and instead will be deemed to be an Eligible New Listing at such time as it has completed the Business Combination Condition, if it remains listed thereafter on the Exchange. Thus, under the proposal, a SPAC will no longer be eligible to receive complimentary products and services under Section 907.00 as an Eligible New Listing at the time of its initial listing, but will instead be entitled to receive such products and services if and when it meets the Business Combination Condition. A SPAC that remains listed on the Exchange after meeting the Business Combination Condition will be entitled to the complimentary products and services under Section 907.00 as an Eligible New Listing for a period of 24 months from the date on which it meets the Business Combination Condition. Notwithstanding the foregoing, however, if such a company begins to use a particular product or service provided for under Section 907.00 within 30 days of meeting the Business Combination Condition, the complimentary period for that product or service will begin on the date of first use.
The Commission has carefully reviewed the proposed rule change and finds that it is consistent with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act.
The Commission believes that it is consistent with the Act for the Exchange to adjust the timing of when SPACs are eligible to receive complimentary products and services under Section 907.00 of the Manual as Eligible New Listings from the time of initial listing to the time that it completes a Business Combination Condition. The Exchange represented that SPACs are unlikely to utilize these complimentary products and services at the time of initial listing, but would likely find these products and services useful if they remain listed after they meet the Business Combination Condition.
In addition, the Exchange stated that in many cases SPACs will consider transferring to a new listing venue at the time they meet the Business Combination Condition, and that the proposed rule change will enable the Exchange to compete for the retention of these companies by offering them a package of complimentary products and services that assist their transition to becoming a publicly listed operating company for the first time.
The Exchange also stated that it recognizes that not all SPACs will meet the Business Combination Condition and that some listed SPACs will therefore never become eligible for the additional complimentary products and services provided to Eligible New Listings under Section 907.00 that would be provided to an otherwise similarly qualified operating company that is newly-listed on the Exchange.
As noted in the previous order approving Section 907.00 of the Manual, Section 6(b)(5) of the Act does not require that all issuers be treated the same; rather, the Act requires that the rules of an Exchange not unfairly discriminate between issuers.
The Commission has previously found that the package of complimentary products and services offered to Eligible New Listings is equitably allocated among issuers consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act and that describing the values of the products and services adds greater transparency to the Exchange's rules and to the fees applicable to such companies.
Based on the foregoing, the Commission believes that the Exchange has provided a sufficient basis for adjusting the timing of when SPACs are eligible to qualify for additional complimentary products and services, as an Eligible New Listing under Section 907.00 of the Manual, from the time of the SPAC's initial listing to the time that a SPAC meets the Business Combination Condition, and that this change does not unfairly discriminate among issuers and is therefore consistent with the Act. For similar reasons, and as the value of the services offered are not changing, only the timing of when such services are provided to a SPAC, we find that the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act.
The Commission also believes that it is consistent with the Act for the Exchange to allow the complimentary period for a particular service as an Eligible New Listing to begin on the date of first use if a SPAC that has met the Business Combination Condition begins to use the service within 30 days after the date of meeting the Business Combination Condition. The Exchange stated in its filing that, in its experience, it can take companies a period of time to review and complete necessary contracts and training for the complimentary products and services under Section 907.00 following their becoming eligible for those services and that allowing this modest 30 day period, if the company needs it, will help to ensure that the company will have the benefit of the full period permitted under the rule to actually use the services, thereby enabling companies to receive the full intended benefit.
The Commission believes that the Exchange is responding to competitive pressures in the market for listings in making this proposal. Specifically, the Exchange has represented that in many cases, SPACs will consider transferring to a new listing venue at the time they meet the Business Combination Condition, and that the proposed rule change would enable it to compete for the retention of these companies by offering them a package of complimentary products and services that assist their transition to being a publicly listed operating company for the first time.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 3.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of South Carolina (FEMA-4286-DR), dated 10/14/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of South Carolina, dated 10/14/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 8.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of North Carolina (FEMA—4285—DR), dated 10/10/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of North Carolina, dated 10/10/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 2.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Florida (FEMA-4283-DR), dated 10/17/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of Florida, dated 10/17/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Amendment 1.
This is an amendment of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Georgia (FEMA—4284—DR), dated 10/17/2016.
10/24/2016.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416.
The notice of the Presidential disaster declaration for the State of Georgia, dated 10/17/2016 is hereby amended to include the following areas as adversely affected by the disaster:
All counties contiguous to the above listed county have previously been declared.
All other information in the original declaration remains unchanged.
The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions and one extension of OMB-approved information collections.
SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers.
Or you may submit your comments online through
II. SSA submitted the information collections below to OMB for clearance. Your comments regarding the information collections would be most useful if OMB and SSA receive them 30 days from the date of this publication. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than December 2, 2016. Individuals can obtain copies of the OMB clearance packages by writing to
1. Request for Proof(s) from Custodian of Records—20 CFR 404.703, 404.704, 404.720, 404.721, 404.723, 404.725, & 404.728—0960-0766. SSA sends Form SSA-L707, Request for Proof(s) from Custodian of Records, to records custodians on behalf of individuals who need help obtaining evidence of death, marriage, or divorce in connection with claims for benefits. SSA uses the information from the SSA-L707 to determine eligibility for benefits. The respondents are records custodians including statistics and religious entities, coroners, funeral directors, attending physicians, and State agencies.
2. Protection and Advocacy for Beneficiaries of Social Security (PABSS)—20 CFR 435.51-435.52—0960-0768. The PABSS projects are part of Social Security's strategy to increase the number of Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) or Supplemental Security Income (SSI) recipients who return to work and achieve financial independence and self-sufficiency as the result of receiving support, representation, advocacy, or other services. PABSS provides information and advice about obtaining vocational rehabilitation and employment services, and providing advocacy or other services a beneficiary with a disability may need to secure, maintain, or regain gainful employment. The PABSS Annual Program Performance Report collects statistical information from each of the PABSS projects in an effort to manage and capture program performance and quantitative data. Social Security uses the information to evaluate the efficacy of the program, and to ensure beneficiaries receive quality services. The project data is valuable to Social Security in its analysis of and future planning for the SSDI and SSI programs. The respondents are the 57 PABSS project sites, and recipients of SSDI and SSI programs.
3. Methods for Conducting Personal Conferences When Waiver of Recovery of a Title II or Title XVI Overpayment Cannot Be Approved—20 CFR 404.506(e)(3), 404.506(f)(8), 416.557(c)(3), and 416.557(d)(8)—0960-0769. SSA conducts personal conferences when we cannot approve a waiver of recovery of a Title II or Title XVI overpayment. The Social Security Act (Act) and our regulatory citations require SSA to give overpaid Social Security beneficiaries and SSI recipients the right to request a waiver of recovery and automatically schedule a personal conference if we cannot approve their request for waiver of overpayment. We conduct these conferences face-to-face, via telephone, or through video teleconferences. Social Security beneficiaries and SSI recipients or their representatives may provide documents to demonstrate they are without fault in causing the overpayment and do not have the ability to repay the debt. They may submit these documents by completing Form SSA-632, Request for Waiver of Overpayment Recovery (OMB No. 0960-0037); Form SSA-795, Statement of Claimant or Other Person (OMB No. 0960-0045); or through a personal statement submitted by mail, telephone, personal contact, or other suitable method, such as fax or email. This information collection satisfies the requirements for request for waiver of recovery of an overpayment, and allows individuals to pursue further levels of administrative appeal via personal conference. Respondents are Social Security beneficiaries and SSI recipients or their representatives seeking reconsideration of an SSA waiver decision.
The Department of State announces a meeting of the U.S. State Department—Overseas Security Advisory Council on November 15, 16 and 17, 2016. Pursuant to Section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix), 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(7)(E), it has been determined that the meeting will be closed to the public. The meeting will focus on an examination of corporate security policies and procedures and will involve extensive discussion of trade secrets and proprietary commercial information that is privileged and confidential, and will discuss law enforcement investigative techniques and procedures. The agenda will include updated committee reports, a global threat overview, and other matters relating to private sector security policies and protective programs and the protection of U.S. business information overseas.
For more information, contact Marsha Thurman, Overseas Security Advisory Council, U.S. Department of State, Washington, DC 20522-2008, phone: 571-345-2214.
Notice of request for comment.
This notice establishes procedures for the receipt by the Department of State of written communications from private parties regarding decisions that have been issued by the Department of Transportation that are subject to approval by the President under 49 U.S.C. 41307.
This notice is effective on November 2, 2016.
All written communications are to be submitted electronically via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal at
Paul A. Brown, Transportation Affairs, Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, U.S. Department of State (Phone: (202) 647-8001 or Email:
Consistent with E.O. 12597 (May 13, 1987), the Department of State is establishing updated, electronic procedures to receive and make publicly available written communications to the Department of State from private parties regarding decisions that have been issued by the Department of Transportation that are submitted for the President's approval under 49 U.S.C. 41307.
All written communications are to be submitted electronically via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal at
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before November 14, 2016.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-9152 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For technical questions concerning this action, contact Nancy Lauck Claussen, Air Transportation Division, AFS-200, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone 202-267-8166; email:
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before November 22, 2016.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2016-8875 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Brittany Newton (202) 267-6691, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
The FHWA has forwarded the information collection request described in this notice to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for approval of a new information collection. We published a
Please submit comments by December 2, 2016.
You may send comments within 30 days to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention DOT Desk Officer. You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) Whether the proposed collection is necessary for the FHWA's performance; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways for the FHWA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized, including the use of electronic technology, without reducing the quality of the collected information. All comments should include the Docket number FHWA-2016-0032.
Aileen Varela-Margolles, 202-366-1701, Office of Environment, Planning and Realty, Federal Highway Administration, Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Office hours are from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
Persons who elect to provide comments on the draft TNM® version 3.0 will have to download the free TNM® software via the FHWA TNM® version 3.0 Web site at:
In order to encourage users to submit their comments and facilitate FHWA review of these comments, FHWA will set up an online portal on this Web site with standardized questions, which will automatically sort user comments into broad categories. It is this portal's questions which are the subject of this OMB ICR FR Notice.
The tool will include four standard questions. Depending on their responses participants may answer a minimum of one question or the maximum four questions. The first three questions allow the choice of one of two possible responses via drop down menus where one leads to a blank comment box with an option to add attachments, and the other response leads to another standard question for further detailed categorization. The fourth question allows selection of multiple responses via checkboxes.
The first question will sort comments into two categories—those wishing to request documentation and/or guidance, or those who would like to provide
respondents is approximately 3,667 hours over six months.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.48.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and request for comments.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) and its implementing regulations, FRA seeks the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the proposed information collection activities abstracted below. However, before submitting this proposed information collection request (ICR) to OMB for clearance, FRA is soliciting public comment on specific aspects of the activities identified below.
Comments must be received no later than January 3, 2017.
Submit written comments on any or all of the information activities described in this notice by mail to either Ms. Rachel Grice, Engineering Psychologist or Michael Jones, Engineering Psychologist, Office of Railroad Policy and Development, Human Factors Division, RPD-34, FRA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Mail Stop 20, Washington, DC 20590; or Ms. Kimberly Toone, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Information Technology, RAD-20, FRA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Mail Stop 35, Washington, DC 20590. Commenters requesting that FRA acknowledge receipt of their respective comments must include a self-addressed stamped postcard stating, “Comments on OMB Control Number 2130-New,” and should also include the title of the collection of information. Alternatively, comments may be faxed to (202) 493-6172 or (202) 493-6630, or emailed to
Ms. Rachel Grice at (202) 493-8005, or Mr. Michael Jones at 202-493-6106 or Ms. Kimberly Toone, at (202) 493-6132. These telephone numbers are not toll-free.
The PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, Rulemaking Procedures, require Federal agencies to provide 60 days' notice to the public for comment on information collection activities before seeking OMB approval.
FRA believes soliciting public comment will promote its efforts to reduce the administrative and paperwork burdens associated with the collection of information Federal regulations mandate, including: (1) Reducing reporting burdens; (2) organizing information collection requirements in a “user friendly” format to improve the use of such information; and (3) accurately assessing the resources expended to retrieve and produce information requested.
Below is a brief summary of the proposed ICR that FRA will submit for OMB approval as required under the PRA:
FRA seeks to develop an understanding of how the dispatch radio communications could potentially lead to human-performance degradation in the railroad engineer, and if a Head-Up Display (HUD) would be an alternative and superior technology to communicating information usually conveyed over the dispatch radio.
HUDs have been incorporated and researched extensively in aviation and motor vehicle applications because of their relative advantage over head-down displays (HDDs). Research in the Cab Technology Integration Lab (CTIL), FRA's locomotive simulator at the Volpe Center in Cambridge, MA, has shown that in-cab displays, such as moving maps, can lead to prolonged heads-down time (Young, et al., 2015). Additionally, research done in the field in naturalistic studies using passenger vehicles has also shown that looking inside a vehicle for interface control features increases the risk of an accident (Liang, Lee, & Yekhsatyan, 2012). Thus, a HUD has real advantages over an HDD. An investigation of alternative technologies that increase forward-track viewing time is worth pursuing.
To test the hypothesis that display communications on a HUD can reduce workload and distractions while increasing the time the engineer keeps his or her eyes on the forward track, an experiment will be run in the CTIL with four different conditions: HUD presence (present or absent) will be crossed with radio communications (present or absent). Forty train engineers will participate in the simulator study and survey data collection. The HUD will be developed and installed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
A subjective measure of workload, such as the NASA TLX, will be utilized in this study and provided to the train engineers after the simulator experiment. In addition, usability of the system will be rated with a usability scale by the train engineers. Analysis of the simulator data, workload data, and usability survey data will allow FRA to assess whether the HUD has a relative advantage over the HDD in rail, and if it could mitigate performance declines related to the radio communications.
Under 44 U.S.C. 3507(a) and 5 CFR 1320.5(b) and 1320.8(b)(3)(vi), FRA informs all interested parties that FRA may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
Maritime Administration.
Meeting notice.
The U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration (MARAD) announces that the following U.S. Merchant Marine Academy (Academy) Board of Visitors (BOV) meeting will take place:
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The BOV's Designated Federal Officer and Point of Contact Brian Blower; 202 366-2765;
Any member of the public is permitted to file a written statement with the Academy BOV. Written statements should be sent to the Designated Federal Officer at: Brian Blower; 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., W28-314, Washington, DC 20590 or via email at
46 U.S.C. 51312; 5 U.S.C. app. 552b; 41 CFR parts 102-3.140 through 102-3.165.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition.
Michelin North America, Inc. (MNA), has determined that certain MNA tires do not fully comply with paragraph S5.5.1(b) of Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 139,
For further information on this decision contact Abraham Diaz, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), telephone (202) 366-5310, facsimile (202) 366-5930.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h) (see implementing rule at 49 CFR part 556), MNA submitted a petition for an exemption from the notification and remedy requirements of 49 U.S.C. Chapter 301 on the basis that this noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety.
Notice of receipt of the petition was published, with a 30-day public comment period on August 3, 2016 in the
Affected are approximately 186 MNA Uniroyal Tiger Paw AWP II size P215/70R15 97T passenger car tires that were manufactured between January 10, 2016 and January 13, 2016.
MNA explains that two of the digits in the tire identification number (TIN) that identify the week and year of manufacture were inadvertently switched. This resulted in the tires, which were manufactured in the second week of 2016, being molded with a manufacturing date of “0126” rather than the correct marking of “0216,” contrary to the requirements specified in paragraph S5.5.1 of FMVSS No. 139 and 49 CFR 574.5(g)(4).
Paragraph S5.5.1 of FMVSS No. 139 requires in pertinent part:
S5.5.1
. . .
(b)
49 CFR 574.5(g)(4) provides that the fourth grouping of symbols within the tire identification number shall “identify the week and year of manufacture.” The regulation specifies that “[t]he first and second symbols of the date code must identify the week of the year,” and “[t]he third and fourth symbols of the date code identify the last two digits of the year of manufacture.” Applying these requirements, the subject tires, which were manufactured during week 2 of 2016, should display “0216” as the date code, but instead display “0126” as the date code.
MNA believes that this noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety.
In support of its petition, MNA submitted the following information and analysis of the subject noncompliance:
1. MNA stated that although the date code is not correct, it specifies a date well into the future and thus offers a unique identification for the subject tires. Furthermore, the incorrect but unique coding has been recorded in MNA's records and can be used to identify the subject tires in the event of a future market action.
2. MNA also stated that there should be no risk of duplication of the TIN in the future since the current 2 digit plant code will be replaced with a 3 digit plant code by April 25, 2025, thus creating a new TIN sequence prior to week 1 of 2026 (the date inadvertently specified on the subject tires).
3. MNA further noted that the incorrect date code does not compromise the ability to register the tire. Tire registration cards accept the date as marked (0126). Moreover, the Uniroyal tire registration Web page accepts the TIN with the date as described.
4. MNA also stated that Michelin's consumer care team has been informed should there be any questions from a consumer or dealer.
5. MNA concluded by noting that all other markings on the subject tires conform to the applicable regulations and meet all performance requirements of FMVSS No. 139.
In its part 573 Report, MNA stated that there is no imminent safety risk associated with the mismarking.
In summation, MNA believes that the described noncompliance is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt MNA from providing notification of the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118, and a remedy for the noncompliance, as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120, should be granted.
After review of MNA's petition, NHTSA believes that the mislabeling of the date code would not create confusion with manufacturers or consumers should there be a recall since MNA has taken the following measures that would enable correct tire registration: (1) Accepting registration cards for tires that have an incorrectly labeled date code, (2) accepting internet registration through their Web page for tires that have an incorrectly labeled date code, and (3) informing their consumer care team about how to address the mislabeling in response to customers' inquiries.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, this decision on this petition only applies to the subject tires that MNA no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, the granting of this petition does not relieve equipment distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant tires under their control after MNA notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: Delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8).
Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Treasury.
Notice of meeting: Correction.
In the
The meeting will be held Wednesday, November 16, 2016.
Theresa Singleton at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-3329.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee will be held Wednesday, November 16, 2016, at 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Theresa Singleton. For more information please contact: Theresa Singleton at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-3329, TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 1509—National Office, Washington, DC 20224, or contact us at the Web site:
U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.
Notice of official public release of the Commission's 2016 Annual Report to Congress on November 16, 2016, Washington, DC.
Notice is hereby given of the following public hearing of the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission.
Pursuant to this mandate, the Commission will hold an official public conference in Washington, DC to release the 2016 Annual Report on November 16, 2016.
The Commission is subject to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) with the enactment of the Science, State, Justice, Commerce and Related Agencies Appropriations Act, 2006 that was signed into law on November 22, 2005 (Pub. L. 109-108). In accord with FACA, meetings of the Commission to make decisions concerning the substance and recommendations of its 2016 Annual Report to Congress are open to the public.
The Commission's 2016 Annual Report contains the following chapters and sections:
Hart Senate Office Building, Room 902. Wednesday, November 16, 2016, Time TBA. Please check our Web site,
Any member of the public seeking further information concerning the hearing should contact Leslie Tisdale, 444 North Capitol Street NW., Suite 602, Washington, DC 20001; phone: 202-624-1496, or via email at
Congress created the U.S.-China Economic and Security Review Commission in 2000 in the National Defense Authorization Act (Pub. L. 106-398), as amended by Division P of the Consolidated Appropriations Resolution, 2003 (Pub. L. 108-7), as amended by Public Law 109-108 (November 22, 2005), as amended by Public Law 113-291 (December 19, 2014).
Federal Election Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Federal Election Commission requests comment on proposed changes to its regulations to address contributions and expenditures that are made by electronic means, such as through internet-based payment processors or text messaging; to eliminate and update references to outdated technologies; and to address similar issues. The Commission has not made any final decisions about the issues and proposals presented in this rulemaking.
Comments must be received on or before December 2, 2016. The Commission will determine at a later date whether to hold a public hearing on this proposed rule. Anyone wishing to testify at such a hearing must file timely written comments and must include in the written comments a request to testify. If a hearing is to be held, the Commission will publish a document in the
All comments must be in writing. Commenters are encouraged to submit comments electronically via the Commission's Web site at
Mr. Neven F. Stipanovic, Acting Assistant General Counsel, or Ms. Jessica Selinkoff, Attorney, 999 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20463, (202) 694-1650 or (800) 424-9530.
The Federal Election Commission is proposing to revise its regulations at 11 CFR chapter I to address electronic transactions, such as contributions made using credit cards, by text messages, or through internet-based payment processors. The Commission is also proposing regulatory revisions to facilitate electronic accounting, recordkeeping, reporting, and redesignation by political committees. Additionally, as a retrospective assessment of Commission regulations,
On May 2, 2013, the Commission published in the
The Commission received three substantive comments in response to the ANPRM.
After reviewing these comments and engaging in additional deliberation, the Commission is now proposing the changes described in this document. The Commission seeks comment on these proposals.
Electronic financial transactions are commonplace. According to the most recent triennial study conducted by the Federal Reserve System, “payments have become increasingly card-based,” “fewer checks enter the banking system as paper at all,” and the “number of noncash payments in the United States increased at a compound annual rate . . . of 4.4 percent” from 2009 to 2012.
Consistent with general payment trends, people are increasingly using cards and electronic methods to contribute to political committees. A series of studies by the Pew Research Center of the internet and elections from 2006 to 2012 shows that online political contributions have become more common since 2008 (although most contributions are still made in person, over the phone, or by mail).
Coinciding with the increased use of electronic payments is the regular use of electronic records, including transactional records, and electronic communications. A Government Accounting Office report on the U.S. Postal Service in 2013 found that the postal service faces significant decreases in mail volume—the volume of first-class mail has declined 33 percent since 2001 and the volume of standard mail (primarily advertising) has declined 23 percent since 2007—“as online communication and e-commerce expand.”
The public is moving from paper to electronic methods in terms of obtaining government information as well. A 2015 study showed that 40% of smartphone owners had looked up government services or information from their phones in the past year.
In recent years, the Commission has recognized this trend towards electronic records and communication by establishing nonregulatory procedures for the public to electronically submit Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”) requests, comments on rulemakings, and comments on draft advisory opinions.
The statutes that the Commission is charged with implementing—the Presidential Election Campaign Fund Act, 26 U.S.C. 9001-13, and the Presidential Primary Matching Payment Account Act, 26 U.S.C. 9031-42 (collectively, the “Funding Acts”), and the Federal Election Campaign Act, 52 U.S.C. 30101-46 (“FECA”)—largely predate this technological evolution, as do many of the Commission's regulations. For example, these statutes and regulations generally contemplate contributions and disbursements being made only by cash, check, or “draft,” without taking into account electronic transactions, records, or communications. Thus, to implement FECA and the Funding Acts in a manner that accounts for the increased use of and reliance on newer technologies, the Commission is considering updates to its regulations, as described below.
Many of the Commission's current regulations do not account for technological developments in the creation, maintenance, and submission of electronic documentation, particularly in the context of electronic transactions. The Commission therefore proposes to revise its regulations to encompass electronic documents and transactions. Specifically, the Commission proposes to add new general definitions to 11 CFR part 100—for the terms “record,” “written, writing, and a writing,” and “signature and signed”—and to revise the existing definition of “file, filed, and filing” at 11 CFR 100.19. The Commission intends each of these definitions to apply to all regulations implementing FECA and the Funding Acts in 11 CFR chapter 1, subchapters A-F (parts 100 through 300 and 9000 through 9042).
FECA requires each political committee to “keep an account of” its contributions and disbursements and to maintain and preserve certain records.
The Commission now proposes to add a general definition of “record” at 11 CFR 100.34 that would expressly include both paper and electronic records. Proposed 11 CFR 100.34 has two components.
First, § 100.34(a) would define “record” broadly, as “information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium from which the information can be retrieved and reviewed in visual or aural form.” The definition draws on several sources that describe a variety of paper and electronic records. These sources include Black's Law Dictionary,
Similarly, the Commission intends the definition of “record” to be flexible with respect to the media in which information may be memorialized. Thus, the Commission proposes to include in the definition information that is “inscribed on a tangible medium” or “stored in an electronic or other medium.” Similar language is used in the Black's Law Dictionary, E-Sign Act, UETA, and Federal Rules of Civil Procedure definitions of “record.” By including information stored in electronic “or other” media, the Commission intends the definition of “record” to be broad and flexible enough to address any new forms of media on which information may be stored as technology develops.
The Commission proposes to require any information stored on “electronic or other” (non-tangible) media to be retrievable and reviewable in visual or aural form. Most of the source definitions noted above similarly require information to be both retrievable and perceivable. The Commission proposes to require information to be retrievable in “visual or aural” form so that the Commission can review the record and, when appropriate, make it available to the public. In essence, therefore, the Commission intends the definition to enable any person to comply with the Commission's recordkeeping regulations through the use of tangible or intangible media, so long as the information stored in such records can be retrieved and reviewed.
The Commission seeks comment on the proposed definition of “record.” Is it too narrow or too broad? Would the proposed definition benefit from providing specific examples of “records”? If so, what examples should the Commission add?
Second, proposed 11 CFR 100.34(b) requires any person who provides an electronic (or otherwise non-tangible) record to the Commission to provide the equipment and software needed to retrieve and review the information in the record, upon request by, and at no cost to, the Commission. The proposed regulation specifies that the Commission may request such equipment and software when the Commission is unable to review the record using the Commission's existing equipment and software. A comparable requirement currently appears in 11 CFR 102.9(a)(4)(ii) for political committees that maintain digital images of checks or written instruments for contributions exceeding $50 and in 11 CFR 9036.2(b)(1)(vi) for publicly funded candidates submitting certain digital images. If the Commission adopts proposed § 100.34(b), it would remove
In conjunction with the proposed definition, the Commission proposes to make conforming amendments to a number of regulations.
First, the Commission proposes to make conforming changes by replacing references to “copy,” “journal,” “document,” or “documentation” with references to “record” in the following provisions: 11 CFR 100.82(e)(1)(i) (recordkeeping for bank loans), 100.82(e)(2)(ii) (same), 100.93(j)(1) through (3) (recordkeeping requirement for travel by aircraft and other conveyances), 100.142(e)(1)(i) (recordkeeping for bank loans), 100.142(e)(2)(ii) (same), 102.9(b)(2)(i)(B) and (b)(2)(ii) (recordkeeping for disbursements), 102.9(f) (recordkeeping requirements for designations, redesignations, attributions, and dates of contributions), 102.11 (written journal of disbursements from petty cash funds), 104.10(a)(4) (recordkeeping requirement in support of allocation), 104.10(b)(5) (same), 104.14(b)(4)(iv) and (v) (recordkeeping requirement for loan repayments), 104.17(a)(4) (recordkeeping requirement in support of allocation), 104.17(b)(4) (same), 106.2(a)(1) (same), 106.2(b)(2)(ii) (same), 106.2(b)(2)(v) (same), 110.1(l)(1) (recordkeeping for designations of contributions), 110.1(l)(4)(i) (recordkeeping for date contribution made, redesignation, and reattribution), 110.1(l)(6) (same), 111.4(d)(4) (enforcement complaints), 111.12(a) and (b) (subpoenas
Second, the Commission proposes to replace the regulatory requirements that a committee receiving a check or other written instrument designated for a specific election must retain “a full-size photocopy of the check or written instrument.” 11 CFR 110.1(l)(1) and (l)(4)(ii);
The Commission does not propose to revise the references to “full-size photocopies” in 11 CFR 9036.1(b)(3) because that section already provides two procedures for submission of records: one for paper records and another for digital records. The Commission welcomes comment on whether it should simplify § 9036.1(b)(3) to provide only one procedure applicable to all records.
Finally, the Commission proposes to make conforming revisions to two provisions that describe the administrative record in public finance matters. The Commission proposes to add “records” to the lists of materials that comprise the administrative record for final determinations in §§ 9007.7(a) and 9038.7(a).
What additional conforming amendments should the Commission make in conjunction with the proposed definition of “record”? For example, the Commission defines “records” for purposes of the lobbyist bundling rule in 11 CFR 104.22(a)(6)(ii)(A) as “written evidence (including writings, charts, computer files, tables, spreadsheets, databases, or other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained) that the reporting committee or candidate involved attributes to a lobbyist/registrant.” Should the Commission amend this or other provisions in light of the proposed definition of “record”?
FECA requires certain reports, statements, and other materials to be “written” or “in writing.”
To clarify that “written” material or material “in writing” can be either tangible or electronic, the Commission is proposing to add a new general definition at 11 CFR 100.35.
The Commission seeks comment on the proposed definition. Is the definition broad enough to encompass writings in various media, while also specific enough to provide meaningful guidance? Is any part of the definition unnecessary or potentially problematic? Are the examples of “medi[a] and form[s]” helpful? Would the proposed definition benefit from different or additional examples? Should the Commission specifically require that a writing be reviewable
In conjunction with the proposed definition, the Commission proposes to make conforming changes to a number of regulations, as described below.
First, the Commission proposes to amend three regulations that refer to “electronic mail” as a “written method” of notification by which a political committee may notify a contributor that the committee has redesignated or reattributed a contribution.
Second, the Commission proposes to make conforming changes regarding notifications, reports, and other communications that, under existing regulations, must be made by “letter.” In light of the proposed broad definition of “writing,” and to avoid an implication that the communications described in those provisions must be on paper, the Commission proposes to replace each reference to “letter” with “writing” in the following provisions: 11 CFR 100.3(a)(3) (candidate disavowal), 110.6(c)(1)(v) (conduit reporting), 111.9(a) and (b) (Commission notification of reason to believe finding), 111.17(a) and (b) (Commission notification of probable cause finding), 111.18(d) (respondent notification of desire to negotiate conciliation), 111.37(a) and (b) (Commission notification of administrative fine determination), 111.40(a) (same), 116.8(b) (creditor notification of intent to forgive debt), 9003.1(a)(1) (candidate agreement to comply with public funding conditions), 9032.2(d) (candidate disavowal), 9033.1(b)(8) (submission of information changes by publicly funded candidates), and 9033.5(a)(2) (publicly funded candidate notice of inactivity).
Similarly, the Commission proposes to revise several references to “letters” or “mailings” by replacing them with references to the type of information contained therein, such as “certification,” “report,” “notice,” or “agreement.” For example, 11 CFR 9003.2(d) currently states: “Major party candidates shall submit the certifications required under 11 CFR 9003.2 in a letter which shall be signed and submitted within 14 days after receiving the party's nomination for election,” and the provision makes several additional references to “such letter.” The Commission proposes to revise § 9003.2(d) to read: “Major party candidates shall sign and submit the certifications required under 11 CFR 9003.2 within 14 days after receiving the party's nomination for election,” and to replace further references to “such letter” with the phrase “such certification.” The Commission proposes to similarly replace each reference to “letter” or “mailing” in the following provisions: 11 CFR 110.6(c)(1)(ii) (conduit reporting), 111.6(a) (response to complaint in enforcement action), 111.23(a) and (b) (respondent notification of legal representation), 114.8 (trade
The Commission is also proposing to revise some uses of “letter” in regulations to which the proposed definition of “writing” would not apply.
Third, the Commission is proposing to replace the terms “written document” and “written documentation” with “writing” in 11 CFR 100.29(b)(6)(ii)(A) and 9034.2(c)(1)(i).
Finally, the Commission proposes conforming changes to account for the fact that the new general definition of “written” may create confusion when applied to the use of that term in 11 CFR 300.64(c)(3). Section 300.64(c)(3) provides that certain “written” material must satisfy the disclaimer requirements of 11 CFR 110.11(c)(2). Section 110.11, however, sets forth requirements such as font size and display type—requirements that, both on their face and under the explicit terms of the regulation, apply only to “printed” material.
The Commission seeks comment on the conforming changes proposed above.
The Commission also seeks comment on whether any existing regulatory references to “written,” “in writing,” or “a writing” should be excluded from the proposed new definition. For example, several Commission regulations use the term “written instrument” to mean a check, money order, or negotiable instrument. The Commission believes that “written instrument” is generally understood to be a term of art, such that it would not be affected by a new definition of “written,” but should the new definition of “written” nonetheless expressly exclude the term “written instrument”?
FECA and the Funding Acts require certain documents to be signed,
To clarify that the regulatory signature requirements may generally be met electronically, the Commission is proposing to add a general definition of “signature” at 11 CFR 100.36. The proposed definition contains three paragraphs.
Proposed paragraph (a) defines “signature” as “an individual's name or mark on a writing or record that identifies the individual and authenticates the writing or record.” This definition draws on legal and other dictionary definitions of “signature.”
Proposed § 100.36(a) also provides that, unless otherwise specified, the definition of “signature” includes an “electronic signature.” Paragraph (b) of proposed 11 CFR 100.36 in turn defines an “electronic signature” as “an electronic word, image, symbol, or process that an individual attaches to or associates with a writing or record to identify the individual and authenticate the writing or record.” This definition is drawn from several sources, including Black's Law Dictionary,
The proposed definition intentionally differs from the source definitions in certain respects. For example, the proposed definition does not include “sound” as a form of electronic signature because the Commission's current and anticipated reporting technologies would not enable it to receive and make public audio signatures. Further, the Commission does not propose to distinguish between an “electronic signature” and a “digital signature.” Black's Law Dictionary defines the latter as having a heightened level of security, integrity, and authenticity compared to an electronic signature,
Proposed paragraph (b) lists as examples of electronic signatures “a digital image of a handwritten signature” and “a secure, digital code attached to an electronically transmitted message that uniquely identifies and authenticates the sender.” These examples are drawn from the definition of “digital signature” and examples of “electronic signature” in Black's Law Dictionary; the Commission believes them to be the forms of electronic signature most likely to be used by political committees. However, the examples are intended to be illustrative only and not an exhaustive list. Are these examples helpful? Should other examples be included in the regulation?
As noted above, the proposed regulation would provide that electronic signatures are valid signatures “unless otherwise specified.” This language is intended to provide the Commission with flexibility to require more specific forms of electronic signatures, or even to prohibit electronic signatures, in certain circumstances. The Commission believes that preserving such flexibility is important because, as new technologies develop, some forms of electronic signatures may arise that are unreliable or otherwise not suitable for authenticating records. Are there Commission regulations for which the Commission should now require more specific forms of electronic signature in order to safeguard the integrity and authenticity of the signature?
In light of the proposed new definition of “signature,” the Commission also proposes conforming changes to regulations that currently have more specific signature requirements. For example, 11 CFR 104.4(d)(2) and 109.10(e)(2)(ii) currently specify that an independent expenditure report must be verified by one of two methods: By “handwritten signature” on reports filed on paper, or by “typing the treasurer's name” on reports filed by electronic mail. The Commission proposes to revise these provisions to allow electronically filed independent expenditure reports to be verified by “electronic signature” (which might include, but would not be limited to, typing the treasurer's name on the reports). The Commission also proposes to revise the electronic signature requirement at 11 CFR 9034.2(c), which defines “signature” for matchable presidential primary election payments made by credit or debit card, and to make other changes to that section as described further below.
Paragraph (c) of proposed 11 CFR 100.36 provides that a “writing or record may be sworn, made under oath, or otherwise certified or verified under penalty of perjury, by electronic signature.” This proposal tracks the corresponding provision of the E-Sign Act, which provides that a legal requirement for a signature to be “acknowledged, verified, or made under oath” is “satisfied if the electronic signature of the person authorized to perform those acts . . . is attached to or logically associated with the signature or record.” 15 U.S.C. 7001(g).
Finally, proposed paragraph (c) also states that “[a] writing or record may be notarized electronically pursuant to applicable State law.” A number of states currently allow for electronic notarization.
The Commission proposes to revise the definition of “file, filed, or filing” at 11 CFR 100.19 so that interested parties can more easily communicate electronically with the Commission. The Commission also proposes to make conforming amendments throughout 11 CFR chapter I.
Section 100.19 currently defines “file, filed or filing” to include certain forms of electronic submission, but only in the context of documents that must be filed with the Commission or the Secretary of the Senate under 11 CFR parts 101, 102, 104, 105, 107, 108, and 109. As such, the current rule addresses the filing of reports and statements only regarding independent expenditures, electioneering communications, and the organization, contributions, and disbursements of political committees. But, as described in more detail below, the Commission's regulations also require or provide for the submission of numerous other documents to the Commission. Many of these current regulations regarding sending documents to the Commission specifically include the Commission's mailing address (999 E Street, NW., Washington, DC 20463).
To provide the Commission with greater flexibility to accept documents electronically, the Commission proposes to add new paragraph (g) to 11 CFR 100.19. Under new paragraph (g), a document other than those already covered by paragraphs (a) through (f) may be filed with the Commission “in person or by mail, including priority mail or express mail, or overnight delivery service, [at the Commission's street address], or by any alternative means, including electronic, that the Commission may prescribe.” The Commission intends to use this proposed change to adopt such procedures for receiving electronic submissions—such as through online forms
The Commission also proposes to revise the introductory paragraph of 11 CFR 100.19 to explicitly note the scope of new paragraph (g). This proposed change is not intended to have any effect on the existing rules with respect to documents governed by paragraphs (a) through (f).
Similarly, the Commission proposes to make conforming amendments by replacing the Commission's street address in a number of regulations that refer to submissions to the Commission—or to a particular Commission officer, such as the Chief FOIA Officer—with references to “filing” and § 100.19(g), as appropriate, and by removing the Commission's street address from the definition of “Commission.”
For the same reasons, the Commission also proposes to amend other regulatory requirements relating to communications by mail:
• Sections 4.5(a)(4)(i) and 4.8(b) currently require that certain information be included “on the envelope” in which a FOIA request or appeal is sent to the Commission. As revised, these regulations would state that such information must be clearly indicated on the “envelope or subject line, or in a similarly prominent location” of the communication.
• Section 112.4(g) currently provides that an advisory opinion must be “sent by mail, or personally delivered” by the Commission to the person who requested it. As revised, the provision would require only that the advisory opinion “be provided” by the Commission to the requestor, so as to encompass electronic transmission of the advisory opinion.
• Section 102.6(c)(2) currently provides that a solicitation of contributions to a separate segregated fund may be included “in” a bill for membership dues. Because such bills are now sometimes delivered electronically, rather than in paper form, the Commission proposes to change “in” to “with.” The substantive requirements for soliciting contributions to a separate segregated fund would not change.
• In § 114.1(g), which provides a non-exhaustive list of the manner in which
• In § 116.9(a)(2), which describes what constitutes a political committee's reasonable diligence in attempting to locate a creditor, the Commission proposes to add email as a valid means of attempting to contact the creditor.
• Sections 9003.1(b)(7) and 9033.1(b)(8) currently require submission of the “name and mailing address” of the person entitled to receive public fund payments on behalf of a candidate. The Commission proposes to require the person's email address, as well.
To allow for electronic filing, notice, and service of documents and records in the Commission's enforcement process, the Commission proposes several revisions to part 111 of its regulations. First, the Commission proposes to remove or limit requirements to file multiple copies of documents where multiple copies are no longer necessary. In 11 CFR 111.4(a), the Commission proposes to clarify that the requirement for a complainant to file three copies of a complaint applies to non-electronic filings only. In 11 CFR 111.15(a) and 111.16(c), the Commission proposes to delete the provisions that state that a respondent “should . . . if possible” file multiple copies of a motion or brief.
Second, the Commission proposes to revise the following regulations that currently refer to “enclos[ing]” a copy of a document: 11 CFR 111.5(a) (notification to respondent of complaint), 111.5(b) (same), and 111.16(b) (notification to respondent of probable cause recommendation). As revised, the regulations would provide that the Commission shall “provide” a copy of the relevant document.
Third, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 111.13(c) and (d), which govern the service of subpoenas, orders, and notifications, to add explicit electronic service options. The regulations currently allow for service by a number of means, including by mail, in person, and “by any other method whereby actual notice is given.” The Commission proposes to revise this last clause to read “by any other method, including electronically, whereby actual notice is given.”
Finally, at 11 CFR 111.23(a)(1), the Commission proposes to add “email address” to the list of information about respondent's counsel that must be provided to the Commission.
The Commission intends all of these proposed revisions to simplify and modernize the process by which it interacts with respondents and complainants during the enforcement process by providing options for electronic communications. Would these proposed revisions increase efficiency as intended? Would they create any additional burdens?
What other regulations would be implicated by the proposed revision to the definition of “file, filed, or filing” at 11 CFR 100.19? Should the Commission consider revising additional regulations to provide explicitly for electronic communications or for “filing” pursuant to the proposed definition?
The Commission is proposing to revise its regulations to address electronic contributions. These revisions fall into three general categories that correspond to three stages in the electronic flow of funds from a contributor to a political committee: (1) When the contributor authorizes the transaction; (2) when the entity processing the payment (the “payment processor”)
For purposes of the contribution limits, Commission regulations specify that a contribution is made “when the contributor relinquishes control over the contribution”; control is relinquished when the contribution “is delivered by the contributor to the candidate, to the political committee, or to an agent of the political committee.” 11 CFR 110.1(b)(6);
Although the regulations are silent as to when electronic contributions are “made,” the Commission has addressed the issue of when credit card contributions are made in several advisory opinions.
Like the existing regulations regarding when a contribution is “made,” the regulations concerning when a contribution is “received” focus on possession. The regulations provide that the “date of receipt” of a contribution is the date a person “obtains possession of the contribution.” 11 CFR 102.8(a);
In the context of credit card contributions, the Commission has stated that a contribution is received when the contributor's authorization to charge the credit card is received. “Inasmuch as such authorizations may be presented to [the recipient's] bank in order to credit [the recipient's] account, the receipt of such an authorization is the equivalent of the receipt of a check that may be deposited and, thus, the date this occurs is the date upon which [the recipient] obtains possession of the contribution.” Advisory Opinion 1990-04 (American Veterinary Medical Association PAC) at 2-3.
Many contributions are first received not by the ultimate recipient political committees, but by commercial entities that process the payments. In several recent advisory opinions, the Commission has addressed the application of its regulations to the receipt of contributions via commercial entities that process contributions electronically—including entities that process contributions made by text message
Section 102.8 implements FECA's requirement that “[e]very person who receives a contribution” for a political committee must forward the contribution and information about the contributor to the recipient political committee within either 10 or 30 days, depending on whether the recipient is an authorized or unauthorized committee and the amount of the contribution. 52 U.S.C. 30102(b)(2). Under the proposed revisions to the definition of “receipt,” discussed above, this forwarding requirement would be triggered when a commercial payment processor receives a contributor's authorization to make a contribution, even if the payment processor has not yet received the contributor's funds.
Because this scenario occurs frequently in modern electronic transactions,
The proposal would thus reflect how modern transactions are conducted and ensures that FECA's forwarding requirement is satisfied when contributors and political committees make and receive contributions electronically.
Should the Commission adopt this approach? Is it consistent with how electronic transactions are conducted? The Commission is not proposing regulatory language to define “ordinary course of business” but expects that the term would be construed consistently with the definition of the same term in 11 CFR 116.3(c), which looks to the vendor's past practices, as well as industry custom, to determine whether the vendor acted in the ordinary course of business. Should the Commission revise the proposed rule to reflect this expectation?
FECA provides that, for purposes of the contribution limitations, “all contributions made by a person, either directly or indirectly . . ., including contributions which are in any way earmarked or otherwise directed through an intermediary or conduit to such candidate, shall be treated as contributions from such person to such candidate.”
Whether a person is a “conduit or intermediary” turns on whether the person “receives and forwards an earmarked contribution to a candidate.” 11 CFR 110.6(b)(2). Persons prohibited from making contributions and expenditures, however, are also prohibited from being conduits or intermediaries. 11 CFR 110.6(b)(2)(ii). Thus, because FECA prohibits corporations from making contributions to candidate committees,
The Commission's regulations provide for certain exceptions to this rule,
The Commission now proposes to revise § 110.6 to clarify the regulatory status of electronic payment processors and bring the rule into line with the role of “certain electronic transactional services [that] are so essential to the flow of modern commerce.” Advisory Opinion 2012-22 (skimmerhat) at 10. The Commission proposes to do so by exempting commercial payment processors from the definition of “conduit or intermediary” in a proposed new paragraph (F) of 11 CFR 110.6(b)(2)(i). The Commission is proposing two alternative versions of new paragraph (F). Alternative A of proposed paragraph 110.6(b)(2)(i)(F) would provide that a commercial payment processor is any person whose usual and normal business is to process payments and who processes payments to candidates and authorized committees in the ordinary course of business without exercising direction or control over the choice of the recipient candidate or authorized committee. Alternative B of proposed § 110.6(b)(2)(i)(F) would differ only in that Alternative B would not expressly state that a commercial payment processor operates without exercising direction or control over the choice of the recipient candidate or authorized committee.
The Commission seeks comment on the alternatives. Specifically, does Alternative A accurately reflect and codify Commission determinations made in approving prior advisory opinions regarding commercial payment processors?
The Commission anticipates that specific applications of the exemption, regardless of which Alternative is selected, will be informed by its prior advisory opinions and refined through future advisory opinions. The proposed term “commercial payment processors” would not distinguish between persons who process contributions as a service to contributors and those who process contributions as a service to candidates and authorized committees. Thus, the term would encompass processors that transmit funds from wireless service providers to recipient committees, as well as online payment systems such as PayPal and Square, and the requestors in the advisory opinions in which the Commission has approved electronic payment processing.
The Commission intends the proposed revision to 11 CFR 110.6(b)(2)(i) to clarify and codify its existing guidance on the issue, and thus to encourage the use of evolving and emerging technological innovations to process contributions electronically. Does the proposal provide sufficient guidance and clarity to the regulated community as to which persons are not considered conduits and intermediaries? Should the Commission bring § 110.6 in line with the flow of modern commerce by revising the definition of “earmarked” at 11 CFR 110.6(b)(1) rather than revising the definition of “conduit or intermediary” at 11 CFR 110.6(b)(2)? For example, should the Commission clarify that the definition of earmark does not generally include a contributor's authorization to initiate an electronic transaction? Additionally, is existing guidance sufficient with respect to how political committees should report contributions received via commercial payment processors?
Furthermore, in addition to concluding that commercial payment processors are not conduits under 11 CFR 110.6, the Commission has also determined that where a commercial payment processor provides its services to its customers, as opposed to the political committees that receive the customers' contributions, the processor itself would not make contributions to the recipient political committees.
Once a political committee has received a contribution, it must deposit that receipt in an account at a campaign depository within ten days. 52 U.S.C. 30102(h)(1); 11 CFR 103.3(a). The campaign depository must be a state bank, federally chartered depository institution, or depository institution with accounts insured by certain federal agencies.
The Commission is proposing to revise several regulations to address issues related to the deposit into campaign depositories of contributions made electronically. First, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 103.3(a) to clarify the campaign depository requirements with respect to joint merchant accounts. Second, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 102.9(a)(4) and 9036.1(b)(4) to address recordkeeping related to the electronic transfer of contributions from a payment processor to a political committee's campaign depository. Finally, the Commission is considering whether to revise 11 CFR 103.3(a) and 102.10 to address how the requirements for deposits to and disbursements from campaign depositories apply to contributions of internet-based alternative mediums of exchange, such as bitcoin.
Many political committees and payment processors use merchant accounts to process contributions. As one commenter noted in response to the ANPRM: “In order to accept credit card contributions, the committee must have a merchant account with the payment processor which is connected to the Web site on the contribution end and to a specific bank account on the processing end.” ActBlue, Comment at 2,
Merchant accounts operated and controlled by a payment processor may contain contributions for several different political committees.
The Commission is now reconsidering its earlier requirement that political committees should report the joint merchant accounts through which their contributions flow as their own campaign depository accounts. The Commission is not convinced of the disclosure or compliance value of reporting a third party's pass-through account, which the recipient political committee does not own, operate, or control, as the committee's own account.
The Commission proposes to amend 11 CFR 103.3(a), which governs the deposit of receipts in campaign depositories, to provide that contributions deposited in the ordinary course of business in the merchant account of a person whose usual and normal business involves the electronic processing and transmission of payments are not “receipts” of the recipient political committee, but are, instead, contributions to be forwarded by the processor under 11 CFR 102.8.
This proposed change is not intended to apply to merchant accounts over which a recipient political committee exercises control. Should the Commission make this limitation explicit, or does the reference to a payment processor's “ordinary course of business” suffice? Alternatively, should the Commission update its campaign-depository rules by revising 11 CFR 103.2, which defines the term “campaign depository,” instead of 11 CFR 103.3(a)? Under either approach, should the Commission expressly supersede Advisory Opinion 1995-34 (Politechs), Advisory Opinion 1999-22 (Aristotle Publishing), and Advisory Opinion 2012-07 (Feinstein for Senate), to the extent that these advisory opinions can be read as requiring political committees to treat joint merchant accounts as their own campaign depository accounts?
As noted above, FECA and Commission regulations require any person who receives a contribution for or on behalf of a political committee to forward the contribution and information about the contributor to the political committee within a certain period of time. 52 U.S.C. 30102(b)(2); 11 CFR 102.8(a). The Commission has seen, through its auditing function, that committees often receive contributions separately from contributors' information; that is, payment processors often forward contributions as an aggregated amount but forward information about each individual contributor separately. Because of this, marrying individual contributor information with the recipient political committee's records of receipts and deposits can be a challenge when committees are audited.
To address these challenges, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 102.9(a)(4). Section 102.9(a)(4) currently requires political committees to maintain, for each contribution that they receive in excess of $50, either (i) a full-size photocopy of the check or written instrument, or (ii) a digital image of the check or written instrument. As revised, paragraphs (4)(i) and (4)(ii) would be replaced with a new paragraph (4), which would require political committees to maintain a “record” of each contribution received. For checks or written instruments in excess of $50, the revised rule would still require treasurers to maintain an image of the instrument. For all contributions, the revised rule would add a requirement that a record of the receipt must include sufficient information associating that contribution with its deposit in the political committee's campaign depository, such as a batch number. The revised rule would also remove the requirement that committees provide the Commission with the electronic means to read such records because that requirement would appear in the proposed new definition of “record” discussed above.
The Commission proposes a similar revision to the recordkeeping provision at 11 CFR 9036.1(b)(4), which applies to bank documentation of deposits of publicly matched contributions. Section 9036.1(b)(4) requires a candidate to submit “bank documentation, such as bank-validated deposit slips or unvalidated deposit slips accompanied by the relevant bank statements, which indicate that the contributions were deposited into a designated campaign depository.” The Commission proposes to add, after “relevant bank statements,” language that would apply to electronic deposits: “or, for deposits made electronically, information associating contributions to their deposit in the designated campaign depository, such as a batch number.”
The Commission invites comment on whether the proposed rule provides sufficient guidance to enable information about specific contributions and contributors to be matched to political committees' aggregated receipt and deposit of contributions. If so, is the proposed rule flexible enough to accommodate evolving methods of electronic transfers? The Commission is also interested in comment addressing whether the specificity required of records of checks and written instruments is still necessary in light of the new definition of “record,” discussed above.
The Commission is considering whether to revise its rules regarding the receipt of contributions in the form of bitcoin and other internet-based alternative mediums of exchange that cannot currently be deposited in campaign depositories. In Advisory Opinion 2014-02 (Make Your Laws PAC), the Commission determined that a political committee could accept $100 worth of bitcoin contributions per contributor per election. Bitcoin is a privately issued alternative medium of exchange that exists “only as a long string of numbers and letters in a user's computer file.”
Current Commission regulations establish procedures for political committees to receive and report in-kind contributions of “stocks, bonds, art objects, and other similar items to be liquidated.” 11 CFR 104.13(b). Under this provision, political committees may accept such items as in-kind contributions and hold them as investments outside of their campaign depositories until later sale, without being subject to the 10-day deposit requirement.
The Commission is interested in comment on whether the inability to deposit bitcoin and other alternative mediums of exchange in a campaign depository necessitates treating contributions of such alternative mediums of exchange as in-kind contributions rather than contributions of money. Should the Commission revise 11 CFR 103.3 to clarify that all receipts by a political committee must be deposited in campaign depositories, except for in-kind contributions that cannot be deposited? The Commission seeks comment on how best to reconcile an interpretation allowing in-kind contributions to not be deposited in a campaign depository with FECA's requirement that “all receipts . . . shall be deposited” in an account at a campaign depository.
Related to the question of whether in-kind receipts must be deposited in a campaign depository is the question of how to interpret the statutory requirement that all disbursements be made from a campaign depository. The Commission has reached differing conclusions in advisory opinions on whether in-kind contributions received and held outside of a campaign depository may be disbursed from outside of that depository or whether they must first be liquidated and deposited in a campaign depository prior to disbursement.
The Commission is considering revisions to other regulations to modernize requirements concerning the receipt of “currency” and “cash”; the receipt, disbursement, and transfer of funds; the records of contributions eligible for public matching funds; and the designation and attribution of contributions in light of electronic transactions and records.
The term “contribution” includes gifts, advances, and deposits of “money” by any person for the purpose of influencing a federal election.
The legislative history of FECA indicates that Congress was particularly concerned about the role of cash in federal elections. As one legislator noted, “cash offers too facile a medium for unethical and illegal activities”; its “untraceability” and “easy transferability” were of particular concern. 120 Cong. Rec. H7832 (daily ed. Aug. 7, 1974) (statement of Rep. Boland). Thus, Congress limited contributions of currency to $100. 52 U.S.C. 30123.
Some non-cash electronic payment methods—particularly prepaid cards and internet-based alternative mediums of exchange—have characteristics very similar to cash. Like currency, prepaid cards and some internet-based alternative mediums of exchange are easily transferable and relatively untraceable. They are not associated with a depository institution and thus are not subject to those institutions' “know-your-customer” obligations under federal law.
Because prepaid cards present the same concerns as those noted by Congress when it limited contributions of currency to $100, the Commission proposes to update its rules to apply the limitations on contributions of cash or currency at 11 CFR 110.4(c) to contributions made by prepaid cards. To accomplish this, the Commission proposes to add paragraph (c)(4) to 11 CFR 110.4 to clarify that a “cash contribution” includes a contribution (1) of currency of the United States or any foreign country, or (2) made using a prepaid card. The Commission also proposes to make a conforming change to 11 CFR 110.4(c)(1) by updating the current prohibition on making contributions aggregating more than $100 in “currency of the United States, or of any foreign country” to apply to any “cash contribution,” as provided in proposed 11 CFR 110.4(c)(4).
The Commission intends the term “prepaid card” to mean a card, payment code, or device that is not linked to the contributor's checking, savings, or other depository account but is instead purchased or loaded on a prepaid basis and honored, upon presentation, by merchants for goods or services, or at automated teller machines, as provided in federal electronic transfer consumer rights protection laws.
The Commission also seeks comment on any compliance challenges that might result from the proposed rule if adopted. In particular, one commenter noted in response to the ANPRM that a political committee that receives a contribution from a prepaid card “is unlikely to know that . . . a prepaid card” has been used to make the payment because “a prepaid card is treated the same as any other payment card” in the payment processing.
Although internet-based alternative mediums of exchange such as bitcoin are not currency of the United States or of any foreign country, as noted above, they have characteristics very similar to cash (
FECA requires each political committee to maintain at least one checking account and to make all disbursements (other than from petty cash) “by check.” 52 U.S.C. 30102(h)(1). The Commission has implemented this requirement in regulations that require all disbursements (other than petty cash disbursements) to be made “by check or similar draft drawn on” a campaign depository account. 11 CFR 102.10;
In light of the proposed regulatory revisions for disbursements by electronic transfer, and because checks may now be processed electronically without the creation of a canceled check,
Sections 9003.5(b) and 9033.11(b) contain the disbursement documentation requirements for publicly financed candidates. The Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 9003.5(b)(1), 9003.5(b)(1)(iv), 9003.5(b)(2)(ii), 9033.11(b)(1), 9033.11(b)(1)(iv), and 9033.11(b)(2)(ii) to provide explicitly that a record of disbursement may consist of a “record of electronic transfer to the payee,” in addition to canceled checks negotiated by the payee. The Commission seeks comment on these proposed changes.
The Commission intends to make similar revisions to two regulations relating to contributions by “check” to a separate segregated fund (“SSF”). First, the Commission proposes revising 11 CFR 102.6(c)(3), which provides that a contributor may “write a check” representing both a contribution to an SSF and a payment of dues or other fees “drawn on the contributor's personal checking account or on a non-repayable
Second, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 114.6(d)(2)(iii), which requires the custodian of an SSF to forward to the SSF funds from certain separate accounts “by check drawn on” such accounts. Consistent with the proposed revisions concerning disbursements from campaign depositories, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 114.6(d)(2)(iii) to allow such funds to be forwarded “by check or similar draft, including electronic transfer.”
The Commission seeks comment on whether it should revise 11 CFR 110.6(c)(1)(v) to address a conduit or intermediary's electronic forwarding of an earmarked contribution. Section 110.6(c)(1)(v) sets forth the mechanisms for reporting two categories of earmarked contributions: those that pass through a conduit or intermediary's account, and those that the conduit or intermediary forwards to a committee “in the form of a contributor's check or other written instrument” without first depositing them in the conduit's or intermediary's account. The regulation thus does not currently address earmarked contributions that the conduit or intermediary forwards electronically without those funds first passing through the conduit or intermediary's account. Do such transactions occur? If so, then how should the Commission amend 11 CFR 110.6(c)(1)(v) to address reporting requirements for them?
The Funding Acts allow public fund matching only for contributions “made by a written instrument which identifies the person making the contribution by full name and mailing address.” 26 U.S.C. 9034(a). The Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 9034.2, which currently defines “written instrument” in this context to include contributions by credit and debit card—but not when made over the telephone—to a participant in the primary matching fund program.
Comments received on the ANPRM urged the Commission to bring the requirement that committees maintain the full card number of contributors in line with payment industry security standards.
Because § 9034.2(b) and (c) require publicly funded candidates to retain the card number for each contribution by credit or debit card, some committees have historically viewed these regulations as inconsistent with payment industry security practices and requirements. Accordingly, and in recognition of the security risks that are attendant upon storing credit card numbers, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 9034.2(b) and (c) by removing the requirements that the recipient must retain contributors' debit and credit card numbers to be eligible for matching funds. All of the regulation's other requirements would remain in effect, including the requirements that the recipient collect the full name and mailing address of each contributor and maintain a “record that can be reproduced on paper” of each electronic contribution. Would § 9034.2, as revised, provide the necessary level of assurance that a credit or debit card contribution made over the internet is eligible for matching funds?
Should the Commission also revise 11 CFR 9034.2(c)(8)(i), which prohibits public fund matching of credit and debit card contributions “where the cardholder's name and card number are given . . . only orally”? When § 9034.2(c) was first adopted, the Commission explained the exclusion of credit card “signatures” made over the telephone as consistent with the “written instrument” limitation on the definition of “contribution” in 26 U.S.C. 9034(a).
Finally, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 9036.2(b)(1)(iii), which requires committees to provide the Commission with a list of contribution “checks returned unpaid” (
The Commission seeks comment on the foregoing proposals to update its public financing regulations to account for electronic transactions.
The Commission is proposing to revise several provisions concerning the written designation of contributions for particular elections and the attribution of contributions to particular contributors.
First, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 110.1(b)(4), 110.2(b)(4), and 9003.3(a)(1)(vi), which define when contributions are “designated in writing.” Each of these rules now allows a contribution to be designated for a particular election (or account, in the case of 11 CFR 9003.3(a)(1)(vi))
Similarly, the Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 110.1(k)(1) and 9034.2(c), which govern attribution of joint contributions. Section 110.1(k)(1) provides that any contribution made by more than one person, other than a contribution by a partnership, “shall include the signature of each contributor on the check, money order, or other negotiable instrument or in a separate writing.” Because many contributions are made electronically rather than “by check, money order, or other negotiable instrument,” the Commission proposes to remove that reference to how a contribution is made from 11 CFR 110.1(k)(1). The proposed regulation would require instead that any joint contribution be “indicated by the signature of each contributor in writing,” without reference to a particular written instrument.
In the matching-funds context, § 9034.2(c) details the manners in which joint contributions may be attributed, depending on the type of written instrument by which the contribution is made. The Commission proposes to add to this section a provision governing the attribution of matchable contributions made by credit and debit cards. Specifically, proposed § 9034.2(c)(8)(iii) would parallel the joint attribution principles that apply to contributions by check,
The Commission is proposing to update its regulations to reflect technological advances and to remove certain references to outmoded technologies. These revisions are not intended to affect the substance of any of the revised regulations.
Under 11 CFR 104.6, membership organizations and corporations that spend more than $2,000 per election on express advocacy communications to their members or restricted class must file reports with the Commission that identify, among other things, the type of communication, “such as direct mail, telephone or telegram.” 11 CFR 104.6(c)(1). The Commission proposes to remove the reference to “telegram” in 11 CFR 104.6(c)(1) because telegrams are obsolete and therefore not useful to include in the regulation's illustrative, non-exhaustive list of types of communications.
For the same reason, the Commission also proposes to replace the reference to “typewriters” with “computers” in 11 CFR 114.9(d) (requiring reimbursement for use of labor organization or corporate facilities in connection with federal elections) and to remove the references to “typewriters” (without substituting a new term) in 11 CFR 9004.6(a) (identifying certain expenditures that are qualified campaign expenses) and 9034.6(a) (same). The Commission intends the word “computer” in these contexts to include not only PCs, but also tablets, smartphones, and similar devices. The Commission welcomes comment on whether alternative terms may more clearly encompass all of these computing devices.
Similarly, the Commission proposes to add “internet service” to five non-exhaustive illustrative lists that currently include “telephone service”: 11 CFR 106.2(b)(2)(iii)(D) (defining “overhead expenditures” to include utilities and “telephone service base charges”); 11 CFR 9004.6(a) and (b) (describing publicly financed candidates' provision of “facilities” to the media, including “telephone service”); and 11 CFR 9034.6(a) and (b) (same).
Because most recording is now digital rather than on magnetic tape, the Commission proposes to replace all regulatory references to “tapes,” as in, for example, “audio tapes,” with references to “recordings”: 11 CFR 200.6(a)(5) (including “transcripts or audio tapes” of Commission hearings in administrative record); 11 CFR 9007.7(b)(2) (same); 11 CFR 9038.7(b)(2) (same).
The Commission proposes to revise 11 CFR 108.6(b), which requires state officers to preserve certain reports concerning federal elections, by replacing the phrase “in facsimile copy by microfilm or otherwise” with “by copy.” The Commission is not, however, currently proposing to remove all references to “facsimile” from its regulations. For example, certain uses of “facsimile” in the regulations are grounded in the use of the word in FECA, such as the definition of “mass mailing” in 11 CFR 100.27, which is drawn from FECA's definition of “mass mailing” as including “a mailing by . . . facsimile.” 52 U.S.C. 30101(23). The Commission welcomes suggestions regarding whether any technological or conforming revisions are necessary in the definition of “mass mailing” in 11 CFR 100.27 or the separate definition of the same term at 11 CFR 106.2(b)(2)(ii).
The regulations use a similar term, “direct mail,” in reference to a nominating convention delegate's activity. This term is defined at 11 CFR 110.14(f)(4) to include “any mailing(s) made from lists that were not developed by the delegate.”
The Commission proposes to remove most references to “microfilm,” “computer tape,” “magnetic tape,” and similar terms from the regulations because these technologies are, for most purposes, obsolete. These references are largely found in the rules implementing the Funding Acts, FOIA, the Privacy Act, and the Commission's Public Disclosure Division. Specifically, the Commission proposes to make the following revisions, none of which is intended to be substantive:
• Remove the references to “microform,” “computer tape or microfilm,” “computerized,” and “Computerized Magnetic Media Requirements” in 11 CFR 4.1(j) (presenting non-exhaustive list of forms of FOIA copies), 4.9(c)(5) (FOIA fees), 9007.1(b)(1) (public finance audits), 9036.2(b)(1)(vi) (public fund submission procedures), and 9038.1(b)(1) (audit procedures);
• replace references to “machine readable documentation,” “magnetic tape or disk,” “computer disk,” “magnetic tapes or magnetic diskettes,” and “computerized magnetic media” with “digital storage device” in 11 CFR 4.1(j) (non-exhaustive list of forms of FOIA copies), 4.9(a)(3) (FOIA fees), 9003.1(b)(4) (public fund eligibility conditions), 9003.6(a) (same), 9033.1(b)(5) (same), 9033.12(a) (same), and 9036.1(b)(2) (same);
• replace references to a “microfilmed copy” and “photocopy” with “copy” in 11 CFR 105.5(a) and (b);
• delete 11 CFR 9003.6(b) and 9033.12(b), which concern the organization of computer information according to technical specifications of a computer system the Commission no longer uses;
• replace “computers” with “computers or other electronic devices” in 11 CFR 9004.6(a)(1) and 9034.6(a)(1); and
• replace “either solely in magnetic media from or in both printed and magnetic media forms” with “in printed or digital form or a combination of printed and digital forms” in 11 CFR 9036.2(b)(1)(ii).
The Commission also proposes to revise and simplify the fee structures at 11 CFR 4.9 and 5.6, which concern fees for FOIA and Public Disclosure. Specifically, the Commission proposes to remove 11 CFR 4.9(a)(2) (imposing $25 per hour computer access FOIA fee); revise 11 CFR 4.9(c)(4) and 5.6(a) to reduce the fee for document certification; remove from 11 CFR 4.9(c)(4) and 5.6(a) the fees for “microfilm reader-printer” and “microfilm-paper” copies, “reels of microfilm,” publications, computer tapes and indexes, professional research time, and transcripts;
The Commission seeks comment on two parallel provisions concerning accommodations for the hearing impaired in television commercials prepared and distributed by publicly financed candidates. The Funding Acts require such candidates to certify that any television advertisement “contains or is accompanied by closed captioning of the oral content of the commercial to be broadcast in line 21 of the vertical blanking interval, or is capable of being viewed by deaf and hearing impaired individuals via any comparable successor technology to line 21 of the vertical blanking interval.” 26 U.S.C. 9003(e). Commission regulations implement this requirement essentially verbatim at 11 CFR 9003.1(b)(10) and 9033.1(b)(12). Is there a “successor technology” that the Commission should now recognize in these provisions? Are there other technologies that might not apply to traditional broadcast television but are used for cable, satellite, or internet-based television (
Finally, the Commission seeks comment on other regulatory references to specific technologies: “computer column codes [and] the extent of computer tabulations” of polling data, 11 CFR 106.4(e)(1); software that is “provided or approved by the Commission,”
The Commission is considering whether to revise certain regulatory references to “Web sites” to accommodate newer technologies—such as mobile applications (“apps”) on smartphones and tablets, smart TV, interactive gaming dashboards, e-book readers, and wearable network-enabled devices such as smartwatches or headsets—that have taken many of the same roles and characteristics that the Commission previously ascribed to Web sites.
First, the Commission proposes to update the definition of “public communication” in 11 CFR 100.26, which currently refers to communications placed for fee on another person's “Web site.”
The Commission seeks comment on this proposal. Is there any basis in law or fact to distinguish between paid Web site advertising and other paid internet advertising for purposes of the definition of “public communication”? Is the term “internet-enabled device or application” sufficiently clear and technically accurate, or is there a better way to refer to the various media through which paid internet communications can be sent and received? Would providing examples of such paid media be helpful?
Second, the Commission proposes to update the disclaimer provision in 11 CFR 110.11, which currently refers to political committees' “Internet Web sites” that are available to the general public. 11 CFR 110.11(a)(1).
Third, the Commission is proposing to update the definition of “federal election activity” to exclude
Finally, the Commission is proposing to revise references to “World Wide Web site,” “Web site” or “Web site” to read “Web site” in 11 CFR 4.4(g), 100.29(b)(6)(i) and (ii), 100.73, 100.94(b), 100.132, 102.2(a)(1)(vii), 104.22(b)(2)(i) and (ii), 110.1(c)(1)(iii), 110.2(e)(2), and 110.17(e)(1) and (2); “Internet Web site” to read “Web site” in 11 CFR 104.22(a)(6)(ii)(A)(2); “World Wide Web address” to read “Web site address” in 11 CFR 110.11(b)(3); and “Web address” and “Web page” to read “Web site address” and “Web page” in 11 CFR 300.2(m)(1)(iii). As with the other terminological updates discussed above, none of these proposed revisions is intended to effect a substantive change in the regulations. Would the proposed revisions modernize the regulatory language in a useful way?
In addition to inviting comment, including pertinent data, on the issues raised in this document, the Commission welcomes comment and data on any technological modernization issues that are not addressed in this document and that relate to the Commission's regulations implementing FECA, the Funding Acts, or other statutes that the Commission is charged with implementing.
The Commission certifies that the attached proposed rules, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rules would clarify and update existing regulatory language, codify certain existing Commission precedent regarding electronic transactions and communications, and provide political committees and other entities with more flexibility in meeting FECA's recordkeeping and filing requirements. The proposed rules would not impose new recordkeeping, reporting, or financial obligations on political committees or commercial vendors. The Commission therefore certifies that the proposed rules, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Privacy.
Sunshine Act.
Freedom of information.
Archives and records.
Civil rights, Individuals with disabilities.
Administrative practice and procedure, Conflict of interests.
Elections.
Political committees and parties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Banks and banking, Campaign funds, Political committees and parties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds, Political committees and parties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds, Political candidates, Political committees and parties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds, Political committees and parties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Elections, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Coordinated and independent expenditures.
Campaign funds, Political committees and parties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Elections, Law enforcement, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Elections.
Business and industry, Elections, Labor.
Administrative practice and procedure, Business and industry, Credit, Elections, Political candidates, Political committees and parties.
Administrative practice and procedure.
Administrative practice and procedure.
Campaign funds, Nonprofit organizations, Political committees and parties, Political candidates, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds.
Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds.
Administrative practice and procedure, Campaign funds.
Campaign funds.
Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Campaign funds.
Campaign funds, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Federal Election Commission proposes to amend 11 CFR chapter I as follows:
5 U.S.C. 552a.
5 U.S.C. 552b.
5 U.S.C. 552, as amended.
The revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(4) For a paper photocopy of a record, the fee will be $.07 per page, which has been calculated to include staff time. For other forms of duplication, including copies produced by computer, the Commission will charge the direct costs, including staff time and the actual cost of any digital storage device provided. The Commission will charge $7.50 for certification of a document. The Commission will not charge a fee for ordinary packaging and mailing of records requested. When a request for special mailing or delivery services is received the Commission will package the records requested. The requestor shall make all arrangements for pick-up and delivery of the requested materials. The requestor shall pay all costs associated with special mailing or delivery services directly to the courier or mail service.
(5) The Commission will advise the requestor of the identity of any private contractor who will perform the duplication services. If fees are charged for such services, they shall be made payable to that private contractor and shall be forwarded to the Commission.
52 U.S.C. 30108(d), 30109(a)(4)(B)(ii), 30111(a); 31 U.S.C. 9701.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) Fees may be charged for copies of records which are furnished to a requester under this part and for the staff time spent in locating and reproducing such records at the rate of $.05 per page for paper copies, including paper copies from microfilm; $4.50 per half hour of staff time after the first half hour; and $7.50 for certification of a document. Such fees shall not exceed the Commission's direct cost of processing requests for those records computed on the basis of the actual number of copies produced and the staff time expended in fulfilling the particular request.
(b) In the event the anticipated fees for all pending requests from the same requester exceed $25.00, records will not be searched, nor copies furnished, until the requester pays, or makes acceptable arrangements to pay, the total amount due. If any fee is not precisely ascertainable, an estimate will be made by the Commission and the requester will be required to forward the fee so estimated. In the event any advance payment differs from the actual fee, an appropriate adjustment will be made at the time the copies are made available by the Commission.
29 U.S.C. 794.
52 U.S.C. 30106, 30107, and 30111; 5 U.S.C. 7321
52 U.S.C. 30101, 30104, 30111(a)(8), and 30114(c).
With respect to documents required to be filed with the Commission or the Secretary of the Senate under 11 CFR parts 101, 102, 104, 105, 107, 108, and 109, and any modifications or amendments thereto, the terms file, filed, and filing mean one of the actions set forth in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section. With respect to documents to be filed with the Commission under any other provision of 11 CFR, the terms file, filed, and filing mean one of the actions set forth in paragraph (g) of this section. For purposes of this section, document means any report, statement, notice, designation, request, petition, or other writing to be filed with the Commission or the Secretary of the Senate.
(g) A document may be filed in person or by mail, including priority mail or express mail, or overnight delivery service, with the Federal Election Commission, 999 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20463, or by any alternative means, including electronic, that the Commission may prescribe.
(a) A
(b) Any person who provides to the Commission a record stored in an electronic or other non-tangible medium shall, upon request of the Commission, provide at no cost to the Commission any equipment and software necessary to enable the Commission to retrieve and review the information in the record. The Commission may request such equipment and software when the Commission cannot retrieve and review the information using the Commission's existing equipment and software.
(a) A
(b) An
(c) A writing or record may be sworn, made under oath, or otherwise certified or verified under penalty of perjury, by electronic signature. A writing or record may be notarized electronically pursuant to applicable State law.
52 U.S.C. 30102, 30103, 30104(a)(11), 30111(a)(8), and 30120.
The revision reads as follows:
(c) * * *
(3)
(a) * * * Date of receipt shall be the date such person obtains possession of the contribution or, for a contribution made in an electronic transaction in which the receipt of authorization precedes the receipt of funds, obtains the contributor's authorization of the transaction.
(b) * * *
(2) * * * Date of receipt shall be the date such person obtains possession of the contribution or, for a contribution made in an electronic transaction in which the receipt of authorization precedes the receipt of funds, obtains the contributor's authorization of the transaction.
(d) Every person whose usual and normal business involves the processing and transmission of payments and who processes a contribution to a political committee in the ordinary course of its business will satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if such person transmits funds and contributor information to the recipient political committee within the time periods prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section for forwarding contributions.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) In addition to the account to be kept under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for contributions in excess of $50, the treasurer of a political committee or an agent authorized by the treasurer shall maintain a record of each contribution received. A record of a contribution by check or written instrument must contain an image of that instrument. A record of the receipt of a contribution must include sufficient information to associate that contribution with its deposit in the political committee's campaign depository, such as, for example, a batch number.
(f) The treasurer shall maintain the records required by 11 CFR 110.1(l), concerning designations, redesignations, reattributions, and the dates of contributions. If the treasurer does not maintain these records, 11 CFR 110.1(l)(5) shall apply.
52 U.S.C. 30102(h), 30111(a)(8).
(a)(1) All receipts by a political committee shall be deposited in account(s) established pursuant to 11 CFR 103.2, except that any contribution may be, within 10 days of the treasurer's receipt, returned to the contributor without being deposited. The treasurer of the committee shall be responsible for making such deposits. All deposits shall be made within 10 days of the treasurer's receipt. Contributions deposited in the merchant account of a person described in 11 CFR 102.8(d) in the ordinary course of that person's business are not receipts by the committee, but are, instead, contributions to be forwarded by that person under 11 CFR 102.8.
(2) A committee shall make all disbursements by check or similar draft, including electronic transfer, from an account at its designated campaign depository, except for expenditures of $100 or less made from a petty cash fund maintained pursuant to 11 CFR 102.11. Funds may be transferred from the depository for investment purposes, but shall be returned to the depository before such funds are used to make expenditures.
52 U.S.C. 30101(1), 30101(8), 30101(9), 30102(i), 30104, 30111(a)(8) and (b), 30114, 30116, 36 U.S.C. 510.
52 U.S.C. 30102(g), 30104, 30111(a)(8).
52 U.S.C. 30111(a)(8), 30116(b), 30116(g).
52 U.S.C. 30104(a)(2), 30111(a)(8), 30113, 30143.
52 U.S.C. 30101(17), 30104(c), 30111(a)(8), 30116, 30120; Sec. 214(c), Public Law 107-155, 116 Stat. 81.
52 U.S.C. 30101(8), 30101(9), 30102(c)(2), 30104(i)(3), 30111(a)(8), 30116, 30118, 30120, 30121, 30122, 30123, 30124, and 36 U.S.C. 510.
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(6) * * * A contribution made in an electronic transaction is considered to be made when the contributor authorizes the transaction. * * *
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(6) * * * A contribution made in an electronic transaction is considered to be made when the contributor authorizes the transaction. * * *
The addition reads as follows:
(c) * * *
(4) For purposes of this section, a
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(F) A commercial payment processor, which is any person whose usual and normal business is to process payments and who processes payments to candidates and authorized committees in the ordinary course of business without exercising direction or control over the choice of the recipient candidate or authorized committee.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(F) A commercial payment processor, which is any person whose usual and
52 U.S.C. 30102(i), 30109, 30107(a), 30111(a)(8); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711, 3716-3719, and 3720A, as amended; 31 CFR parts 285 and 900-904.
The revision reads as follows:
(c) Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of the General Counsel's brief, respondent may file a brief with the Commission Secretary, setting forth respondent's position on the factual and legal issues of the case.
52 U.S.C. 30108, 30111(a)(8).
52 U.S.C. 30101(8), 30101(9), 30102, 30104, 30107(a)(8), 30111(a)(8), 30118.
52 U.S.C. 30103(d), 30104(b)(8), 30111(a)(8), 30116, 30118, and 30141.
52 U.S.C. 30107(a)(8), 30111(a)(8); 5 U.S.C. 553(e).
52 U.S.C. 30107(a)(8), 30108, 30111(a)(8), and 30111(b); 26 U.S.C. 9007, 9008, 9009(b), 9038, and 9039(b).
52 U.S.C. 30104(e), 30111(a)(8), 30116(a), 30125, and 30143.
26 U.S.C. 9002 and 9009(b).
26 U.S.C. 9003 and 9009(b).
(d)
The revisions read as follows:
(b)
26 U.S.C. 9004 and 9009(b).
26 U.S.C. 9007 and 9009(b).
26 U.S.C. 9032 and 9039(b).
26 U.S.C. 9003(e), 9033 and 9039(b).
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) A candidate seeking to become eligible to receive Presidential primary matching fund payments shall agree in a writing signed by the candidate to the Commission that the candidate and the candidate's authorized committee(s) will comply with the conditions set forth in 11 CFR 9033.1(b). The candidate may submit the written agreement required by this section at any time after January 1 of the year immediately preceding the Presidential election year.
(b) * * *
(8) The candidate and the candidate's authorized committee(s) will submit the name, email address, and mailing address of the person who is entitled to receive matching fund payments on behalf of the candidate and the name and address of the campaign depository designated by the candidate as required by 11 CFR part 103 and 11 CFR 9037.3. Changes in the information required by this paragraph shall not be effective until submitted to the Commission in a writing signed by the candidate or the Committee treasurer.
and
The revisions read as follows:
(b)
26 U.S.C. 9034 and 9039(b).
The addition reads as follows:
(c) * * *
(8) * * *
(iii) To be attributed to more than one person, a signed written statement must accompany the credit or debit card contribution indicating that the contribution was made from each individual's personal funds in the amount so attributed.
26 U.S.C. 9035 and 9039(b).
26 U.S.C. 9036 and 9039(b).
26 U.S.C. 9038 and 9039(b).
26 U.S.C. 9039.
On behalf of the Commission,
Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB), Administration on Children, Youth and Families (ACYF), Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Final rule.
This rule will better prevent and protect survivors of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence, by clarifying that all survivors must have access to services and programs funded under the Family Violence Prevention and Services Act. More specifically, the rule enhances accessibility and non-discrimination provisions, clarifies confidentiality rules, promotes coordination among community-based organizations, State Domestic Violence Coalitions, States, and Tribes, as well as incorporates new discretionary grant programs. Furthermore, the rule updates existing regulations to reflect statutory changes made to the Family Violence Prevention and Services Act, and updates procedures for soliciting and awarding grants. The rule also increases clarity and reduces potential confusion over statutory and regulatory standards. The rule codifies standards already used by the program in the Funding Opportunity Announcements and awards, in technical assistance, in reporting requirements, and in sub-regulatory guidance.
This final rule becomes effective January 3, 2017.
Marylouise Kelley, Ph.D., Division Director, (202) 401-5756 (not a toll-free call),
This final rule is being issued under the authority granted to the Secretary of Health and Human Services by the Family Violence Prevention and Services Act (FVPSA), 42 U.S.C. 10404(a)(4), as most recently amended by the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment (CAPTA) Reauthorization Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-320).
FVPSA grants are administered to: Assist States and Indian Tribes in efforts to increase public awareness about, and primary and secondary prevention of, family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence; assist States and Indian Tribes in efforts to provide immediate shelter and supportive services for victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their dependents; provide for a national domestic violence hotline; provide for technical assistance and training relating to family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence programs to States and Indian Tribes, local public agencies (including law enforcement agencies, courts, and legal, social service, and health care professionals in public agencies), nonprofit private organizations (including faith-based and charitable organizations, community-based organizations, and voluntary associations), Tribal organizations, and other persons seeking such assistance and training. This final rule covers all of these activities.
ACF published a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) on October 14, 2015 to propose regulations that ensure victims of domestic and dating violence and their dependents are provided shelter and supportive services that meet statutory requirements and incorporate field-based best practices. The NPRM proposed regulatory guidance for all FVPSA-funded formula and discretionary grantees and subgrantees.
ACF received 41 public comments from individuals and advocacy organizations. We include a detailed summary of comments as well as HHS' responses to comments in Section IV of this final rule. Public comments on the proposed rule are available for review on
Key provisions to this ACF final rule lay out a framework to address reauthorized statutory language within the context of field-based best practices and programmatic guidance. The rule reflects a reorganization of the previous regulations that specifically divide formula grants and discretionary grants into independent sections and add new grants programs; including
The final rule also includes a definition for “personally identifying information (PII) or personal information” to ensure that all grantees and subgrantees have a clear, shared understanding of confidentiality requirements. The statutory voluntary services and no conditions on the receipt of emergency shelter requirements reinforce that services must be voluntary and no conditions can be imposed on receipt of emergency shelter. The regulation incorporates these new requirements, and further specifies the prohibition on imposing “conditions” to prohibit shelters from
The final rule also includes guidance about State/Tribal planning and State/Tribal Domestic Violence needs assessments that promote greater coordination of these statutorily required activities to foster inclusion of underserved communities and better identify the needs of all victims of domestic and dating violence. Specialized Services for Abused Parents and Their Children and State resource centers to reduce disparities in domestic violence in States with high proportions of Indian (including Alaska Native) or Native Hawaiian populations (§ 1370.30) are newly authorized programs, also included in the rule.
Below we have summarized the primary changes made after the NPRM was published as a direct result of the comments received. It is important to note that all of the changes are fairly minor and none result in a significant impact on the overall direction of the key provisions listed above.
ACF received general comments about this rule. Below, ACF summarizes comments and responds accordingly.
ACF received comments about changes proposed to specific sections in the regulation. Below, ACF identifies each section, summarizes the comments, and responds accordingly.
However, given the other comments identified above, we have revised the definition. The definition of dating violence is revised to read as `violence committed by a person who is or has been in a social relationship of a romantic or intimate nature with the victim and where the existence of such a relationship shall be determined based on a consideration of the following factors: the length of the relationship, the type of relationship, and the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship'. This part of the definition reflects the definition also found in Section 40002(a) of VAWA (as amended), 42 U.S.C. 13925(a), as required by FVPSA. Dating violence also includes but is not limited to the physical, sexual, psychological, or emotional violence within a dating relationship, including stalking. It can happen in person or electronically, and may involve financial abuse or other forms of manipulation which may occur between a current or former dating partner regardless of actual or perceived sexual orientation, gender identity.
As a result of all comments on the domestic violence definition, the term is revised to mean felony or misdemeanor crimes of violence committed by a current or former spouse or intimate partner of the victim, by a person with whom the victim shares a child in common, by a person who is cohabitating with or has cohabitated with the victim as a spouse or intimate partner, by a person similarly situated to a spouse of the victim under the domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction receiving grant monies, or by any other person against an adult or youth victim who is protected from that person's acts under the domestic or family violence laws of the jurisdiction. This definition also reflects the statutory definition of “domestic violence” found in Section 40002(a) of VAWA (as amended
Moreover, an eligible entity under FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10408 may be a local public agency, or a nonprofit private organization (including faith-based and charitable organizations, community-based organizations, Tribal organizations, and voluntary associations), that assists victims of family, domestic, or dating violence, and their dependents (see full description of eligibility including partnerships of agencies at 42 U.S.C. 10408(c)); a city, county, township or any other municipal governmental entity would qualify as a “local public agency” under this section. We also therefore agree with the commenter that FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10407(a)(2)(B)(iii), which provides that in the distribution of funds by a State, the State will give special emphasis to the support of community-based projects of demonstrated effectiveness that are carried out by nonprofit private organizations, does not exclude governmental entities from receiving FVPSA funds. Finally, since the term “service” was inadvertently left out of rule's definition of primary-purpose domestic violence service provider, we made a technical correction to add the term to the rule text.
In the Coalition statutory definition, the term primary-purpose domestic violence service provider is used but not defined. Because of the importance of the term in the context of the membership requirements for Coalitions, we defined the term to ensure that Coalitions understand how to meet FVPSA eligibility requirements. The definition of primary purpose domestic violence service provider does not apply to the eligibility requirements for State or Tribal subgrants; FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10407 through 10409 read together address the eligible entities and activities for direct State and Tribal grants and their subgrants. The words “primary purpose” are statutory terms used in the context of those statutory sections for identifying the kinds of organizations and activities which may be FVPSA-funded by States and Tribes. However, the NPRM did not propose a definition of “primary purpose” because the statute connects the term to State and Tribal subgrants for entities with a documented history of effective work concerning family, domestic, or dating violence, or for the primary purpose of operating shelters (in the context of grants for those purposes). Primary purpose domestic violence service provider is therefore limited to FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10402(11) and 42 U.S.C. 10411, and to this rule in Subpart A, § 1370.2 (definition of primary purpose domestic violence service provider) and Subpart C, § 1370.20.
After consideration of the comments, the definition of primary purpose domestic violence service provider is revised to read: `Primary-purpose domestic violence service provider, for the term only as it appears in the definition of State Domestic Violence Coalition, means an entity that operates a project of demonstrated effectiveness carried out by a nonprofit, nongovernmental, private entity, Tribe,
Regarding the commenter's request that domestic violence projects, funded via subgrants by States and Tribes, be required to submit mission statements if they operate under the umbrella of a larger organization, we believe it should be left to State and Tribal grantees' discretion to set such requirements. Regarding the commenter's request that such projects' work must be to provide domestic violence services that are central to their missions or purposes, we believe that FVPSA eligibility requirements for activities funded by State and Tribal subgrants already address these issues.
One essential element of the Coalition definition is that the membership includes a majority of the primary-purpose domestic violence service providers in the State. Given the repeated Coalition requests over the last 5 years to define primary-purpose domestic violence service provider, ACF has determined that considerable confusion exists as to the term's meaning and that the impact of not defining the term potentially means that FVPSA-funded Coalitions may not be including eligible primary-purpose domestic violence service providers in their membership; or they may be including providers in membership and counting them as primary-purpose domestic violence service providers when they are not. Such confusion could lead to potential statutory non-compliance findings (regarding continued eligibility).
The commenter suggests that using the State formula grant requirements, which include funding providers of supportive services that consist of counseling, advocacy, and self-help services, to define primary-purpose domestic violence service provider, contradicts the “primary-purpose” membership requirement.
However, the commenter acknowledges that one of the requirements for Coalitions is to among other requirements, pursuant to FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10402(11), “provide education, support, and technical assistance to such service providers to enable providers to establish and maintain shelter and
Finally, while the NPRM included a partial focus on helping to define primary purpose domestic violence service provider to complement the State formula grant priorities for funding programs that provide supportive services independently of shelter, the definition also focuses on shelter programs as part of the primary-purpose domestic violence service provider definition. Both types of programs are contemplated in the Coalition definition by identifying both shelter and supportive services, therefore the primary purpose domestic violence service provider definition is aligned with specific statutory language and intent. Pursuant to the public comments received and responses thereto, for the purpose of clarifying the term as it appears in the definition of State Domestic Violence Coalition, a primary-purpose domestic violence service provider is one that operates a project of demonstrated effectiveness carried out by a nonprofit, nongovernmental, private entity, Tribe, or Tribal organization, that has as its project's primary-purpose the operation of shelters and supportive services for victims of domestic violence and their dependents; or has as its project's primary purpose counseling, advocacy, or self-help services to victims of domestic violence. Territorial Domestic Violence Coalitions may include government-operated domestic violence projects as primary-purpose domestic violence service provider for complying with the membership requirement,
Additionally, the commenter identified that the FVPSA shelter definition requires that shelter and supportive services be provided on
Regarding the commenters concern about shelter location confidentiality, as it applies to using hotels or motels as potential shelter/temporary refuge options, FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10406(c)(5)(H), does not require that all shelters be confidential. The statute reads, “the address or location of any shelter facility assisted under this title that otherwise maintains a confidential location, except with written authorization of the person or persons responsible for operation of such shelter, not be made public.” The statutory language is unambiguous and does not require that shelter locations be confidential, but rather that if they maintain a confidential location the location cannot be made public without written leadership authority. The commenter's concerns about the potential lack of confidentiality in shelter services provided by motels or hotels connected to a shelter's referral and placement of a victim there are legitimate. However, FVPSA does not require shelters, and therefore their referral sites or contactors, to be confidential. The safety and security of victims and their dependents are paramount and therefore shelters and other FVPSA-funded programs are prohibited from revealing PII. The commenter's additional concern regarding the placement of victims in unregulated hotels or motels is also legitimate. If FVPSA-funded shelters use hotels or motels as a means of sheltering victims, PII cannot be shared unless the victim signs an informed, time-limited release per FVPSA and this rule at § 1370.4. If shelters and hotels/motels enter into contracts to temporarily house victims, PII cannot be shared. Additionally, all FVPSA-funded shelters that use hotels, motels, or other housing options as shelter must also provide supportive services either at the FVPSA-funded primary shelter location by transporting victims from hotels to shelter or by providing supportive services on-site at hotels, motels, etc.
As a result of the comments made regarding the shelter definition, shelter is re-defined as: The provision of temporary refuge in conjunction with supportive services in compliance with applicable State or Tribal law or regulations governing the provision, on a regular basis, of shelter, safe homes, meals, and supportive services to victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their dependents. State and Tribal law governing the provision of shelter and supportive services on a regular basis is interpreted by ACF to mean, for example, the laws and regulations applicable to zoning, fire safety, and other regular safety, and operational requirements, including State, Tribal, or local regulatory standards for certifying domestic violence advocates who work in shelter. This definition also includes emergency shelter and immediate shelter, which may include housing provision, short-term rental assistance,
The revised definition is: State Domestic Violence Coalition means a Statewide, nongovernmental, nonprofit 501(c)(3) organization whose membership includes a majority of the primary-purpose domestic violence service providers in the State; whose board membership is representative of these primary-purpose domestic violence service providers and which may include representatives of the communities in which the services are being provided in the State; that has as its purpose to provide education, support, and technical assistance to such service providers to enable the providers to establish and maintain supportive services and to provide shelter to victims of domestic violence and their children; and that serves as an information clearinghouse, primary point of contact, and resource center on domestic violence for the State and supports the development of policies, protocols, and procedures to enhance domestic violence intervention and prevention in the State/Territory.
As to the suggestions made to add other allowable funds' uses or to emphasize or deemphasize other uses, or to add definitions to certain terms listed in FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10408(b)(1)(A) through (H), we note Congress' specific statutory language and intent as well as HHS' interim final rule, codifed at 45 CFR part 75, “
We received no public comments for this section and therefore, the proposed regulatory text is retained without change.
Finally, we respectfully disagree that the NPRM preamble discussion of standardizing releases conflates waivers and releases. We will not address this issue further in this rule as the NPRM preamble language is not repeated in this rule.
We agree that shelters which choose to be confidential must develop policies and protocols, if not already in place, to remain secure and must include policies for responding to disruptive or inappropriate contact from abusers. Based on Tribal sovereignty and their unique culture and customs, we also agree that it is appropriate to defer to Tribal governments' local expertise on how best to maintain the confidentiality and safety of shelter locations provided they exercise due diligence to comply with FVPSA requirements in this regard. Therefore, two additional subsections are added to § 1370.4(g) which will read: (1) Shelters which choose to remain confidential pursuant to this rule must develop and maintain systems and protocols to remain secure, which must include policies to respond to disruptive or dangerous contact from abusers and (2) Tribal governments, while exercising due diligence to comply with statutory provisions and this rule, may determine how best to maintain the safety and confidentiality of shelter locations.
Additionally, rule text at § 1370.5(f) is changed to read: (f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate or limit the rights, remedies, procedures, or legal standards available to individuals under other applicable law. (g) The Secretary shall enforce the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section (as also revised below) in accordance with section 602 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1). Section 603 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-2) shall apply with respect to any action taken by the Secretary to enforce this section.
We also added a new section 1370.5(e) to clearly assert that all grantees and subgrantees shall create a plan to ensure effective communication and equal access, including: (1) How to identify and communicate with individuals with Limited English Proficiency, and how to identify and properly use qualified interpretation and translation services, and taglines; and (2) How to take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with applicants, participants, beneficiaries, members of the public, and companions with disabilities are as effective as communications with others; and furnish appropriate auxiliary aids and services where necessary to afford qualified individuals with disabilities, including applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and members of the public, an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a service, program, or activity. Auxiliary aids and services include qualified interpreters and large print materials.
Moreover, to continue to encourage services and supports for human trafficking victims, FVPSA funding opportunity announcements include human trafficking victims who are also victims of co-occurring domestic or dating violence as examples of underserved populations and human trafficking has been and will continue to be an Administration priority that is addressed at FVPSA grantee meetings and by FVPSA-funded technical assistance providers. However, given the numerous challenges identified by commenters about serving human trafficking victims, including the lack of resources, the inability to serve current domestic violence victims who are not human trafficking victims and the potential for confusing programs about FVPSA priorities, ACF has removed the rule text addressing human trafficking from the final rule at § 1370.5(d).
Regarding the comment about complying with the Drug-free Workplace Act requirements, we disagree. The Drug-free Workplace Act targets the drug use activities of employees and not individuals receiving services (see 41 U.S.C. 8103). The commenter's concerns are therefore unwarranted.
The comments that identified concerns about the handling of conflicts of laws are addressed in the following rule text revision. To address concerns raised by all comments, § 1370.5(g) is re-designated § 1370.10(b)(10) and will read as follows: (10) Such additional agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe. Moreover, additional agreements, assurances, and information required by the Funding Opportunity Announcement and other program guidance will include that no requirement for participating in supportive services offered by FVPSA-funded programs may be imposed by grantees or subgrantees for the receipt of emergency shelter and receipt of all supportive services shall be voluntary. Similarly, the receipt of shelter cannot be conditioned on participation in other services, such as, but not limited to counseling, parenting classes, mental health or substance use disorders treatment, pursuit of specific legal remedies, or life skill classes. Additionally, programs cannot impose conditions for admission to shelter by applying inappropriate screening mechanisms, such as criminal background checks, sobriety requirements, requirements to obtain specific legal remedies, or mental health or substance use screenings. An individual's or family's stay in shelter cannot be conditioned upon accepting or participating in services. Based upon the capacity of a FVPSA-funded service provider, victims and their dependents do not need to reside in shelter to receive supportive services. Nothing is these requirements prohibits a shelter operator from adopting reasonable policies and procedures reflecting field-based best practices, to ensure that persons receiving services are not currently engaging in illegal drug use, if
We agree with the comments concerning allowing States to use their own definition of urban and rural. In revised § 1370.10(b)(5), we allow states to use their own definition unless the definition does not achieve the equitable distribution of funds within the State and between urban and rural areas. Section 1370.10(b)(5) is revised to read: A description of the procedures used to assure an equitable distribution of grants and grant funds within the State and between urban and rural areas. States may use one of the Census definitions of rural or non-metro areas or another State-determined definition. A State-determined definition must be supported by data and be available for public input prior to its adoption. The State must show that the definition selected achieves an equitable distribution of funds within the State and between urban and rural areas. The plan should describe how funding processes and allocations will address the needs of underserved populations as defined in § 1370.2, including Tribal populations, with an emphasis on funding organizations that can meet unique needs including culturally- and linguistically-specific populations. Other Federal, State, local, and private funds may be considered in determining compliance.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13, minimizes government imposed burden on the public. In keeping with the notion that government information is a valuable asset, it also is intended to improve the practical utility, quality, and clarity of information collected, maintained, and disclosed. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number. This rule contains no new information collection requirements. There is an existing requirement for grantees to provide performance progress reports under OMB Control Number 0970-0280. Grantees are also required to submit an application and annual financial status report. State domestic violence coalitions are also required to provide certain information to the public. These existing requirements are also approved under the OMB Control Number 0970-0280. Nothing in this rule requires changes in the current requirements, all of which have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The Secretary certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b), as enacted by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354), that this rule will not result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. We have not proposed any new requirements that would have such an effect. These standards would almost entirely conform to the existing statutory requirements and existing practices in the program. In particular, we have proposed imposing only a few new processes, procedural, or documentation requirements that are not encompassed within the existing rule, existing Funding Opportunity Announcements, or existing information collection requirements. None of these would impose consequential burdens on grantees. Accordingly, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required.
Executive Order 12866 and 13563 require that regulations be drafted to ensure that they are consistent with the priorities and principles set forth in these Executive Orders, including imposing the least burden on society, written in plain language and easy to understand, and seeking to improve the actual results of regulatory requirements. The Department has determined that this rule is consistent with these priorities and principles. The Executive Orders require a Regulatory Impact Analysis for proposed or final rules with an annual economic impact of $100 million or more. Nothing in this rule approaches effects of this magnitude. Nor does this rule meet any of the other criteria for significance under these Executive Orders. This rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This rule is not a major rule (economic effects of $100 million or more) as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Executive Order 13132, Federalism, requires that Federal agencies consult with State and local government officials in the development of regulatory policies with Federalism implications. This rule will not have substantial direct impact on the States, on the relationship between the Federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with the Executive Order we have determined that this rule does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact Statement.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This rule would not have any new or adverse impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Like the existing rule and existing program practices, it directly supports family well-being. Since we propose no changes that would affect this policy priority, we have concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
Administrative practice and procedure, Domestic Violence, Grant Programs—Social Programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Technical assistance.
This document was received by the Office of the Federal Register on October 25, 2016.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, title 45 CFR part 1370 is revised to read as follows:
42 U.S.C. 10401
This part addresses sections 301 through 313 of the Family Violence Prevention and Services Act (FVPSA), as amended, and codified at 42 U.S.C. 10401
For the purposes of this part:
(a) A number of government-wide and HHS regulations apply or potentially apply to all grantees. These include but are not limited to:
(1) 2 CFR part 182—Government-wide Requirements for Drug Free Workplaces;
(2) 2 CFR part 376—Nonprocurement Debarment and Suspension;
(3) 45 CFR part 16—Procedures of the Departmental Grant Appeals Board;
(4) 45 CFR part 30—Claims Collection;
(5) 45 CFR part 46—Protection of Human Subjects;
(6) 45 CFR part 75—Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles and Audit Requirements for HHS Awards
(7) 45 CFR part 80—Nondiscrimi-nation Under Programs Receiving Federal Assistance Through the Department of Health and Human Services Effectuation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964;
(8) 45 CFR part 81—Practice and Procedure for Hearings under part 80;
(9) 45 CFR part 84—Nondiscrimi-nation on the Basis of Handicap in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance;
(10) 45 CFR part 86—Nondiscrimi-nation on the Basis of Sex in Education Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance;
(11) 45 CFR part 87—Equal Treatment for Faith-Based Organizations;
(12) 45 CFR part 91—Nondiscrimi-nation on the Basis of Age in Programs or Activities Receiving Federal Financial Assistance for HHS;
(13) 45 CFR part 92—Nondiscrimi-nation in Health Programs and Activities; and
(14) 45 CFR part 93—New Restrictions on Lobbying.
(b) A number of government-wide and HHS regulations apply to all contractors. These include but are not limited to:
(15) 48 CFR Chapter 1—Federal Acquisition Regulations; and
(16) 48 CFR Chapter 3—Federal Acquisition Regulations—Department of Health and Human Services.
(a) In order to ensure the safety of adult, youth, and child victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their families, grantees and subgrantees under FVPSA shall protect the confidentiality and privacy of such victims and their families. Subject to paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, grantees and subgrantees shall not—
(1) Disclose any personally identifying information (as defined in § 1370.2) collected in connection with services requested (including services utilized or denied) through grantees' and subgrantees' programs;
(2) Reveal any personally identifying information without informed, written, reasonably time-limited consent by the person about whom information is sought, whether for this program or any other Federal, Tribal or State grant program, including but not limited to whether to comply with Federal, Tribal, or State reporting, evaluation, or data collection requirements; or
(3) Require an adult, youth, or child victim of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence to provide a consent to release his or her personally identifying information as a condition of eligibility for the services provided by the grantee or subgrantee.
(b) Consent shall be given by the person, except in the case of an unemancipated minor it shall be given by both the minor and the minor's parent or guardian; or in the case of an individual with a guardian it shall be given by the individual's guardian. A parent or guardian may not give consent if: he or she is the abuser or suspected abuser of the minor or individual with a guardian; or, the abuser or suspected abuser of the other parent of the minor. If a minor or a person with a legally appointed guardian is permitted by law to receive services without the parent's or guardian's consent, the minor or person with a guardian may release information without additional consent. Reasonable accommodations shall also be made for those who may be unable, due to disability or other functional limitation, to provide consent in writing.
(c) If the release of information described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is compelled by statutory or court mandate:
(1) Grantees and sub-grantees shall make reasonable attempts to provide notice to victims affected by the release of the information; and
(2) Grantees and subgrantees shall take steps necessary to protect the privacy and safety of the persons affected by the release of the information.
(d) Grantees and subgrantees may share:
(1) Non-personally identifying information, in the aggregate, regarding services to their clients and demographic non-personally identifying information in order to comply with Federal, State, or Tribal reporting, evaluation, or data collection requirements;
(2) Court-generated information and law enforcement-generated information contained in secure, governmental registries for protective order enforcement purposes; and
(3) Law enforcement- and prosecution-generated information necessary for law enforcement and prosecution purposes.
(4) Personally identifying information may be shared with a health care provider or payer, but only with the informed, written, reasonably time-limited consent of the person about whom such information is sought.
(e) Nothing in this section prohibits a grantee or subgrantee, where mandated or expressly permitted by the State or Indian Tribe, from reporting abuse and neglect, as those terms are defined by law, or from reporting imminent risk of serious bodily injury or death of the victim or another person.
(f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to supersede any provision of any Federal, State, Tribal, or local law that provides greater protection than this section for victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence.
(g) The address or location of any shelter facility assisted that maintains a confidential location shall, except with written authorization of the person or persons responsible for the operation of such shelter, not be made public.
(1) Shelters which choose to remain confidential pursuant to this rule must develop and maintain systems and protocols to remain secure, which must include policies to respond to disruptive or dangerous contact from abusers, and
(2) Tribal governments, while exercising due diligence to comply with statutory provisions and this rule, may determine how best to maintain the safety and confidentiality of shelter locations.
(a) No person shall on the ground of actual or perceived sex, including gender identity, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subject to discrimination under, any program or activity funded in whole or in part through FVPSA.
(1) FVPSA grantees and subgrantees must provide comparable services to victims regardless of actual or perceived sex, including gender identity. This includes not only providing access to services for all victims, including male victims, of family, domestic, and dating violence regardless of actual or perceived sex, including gender identity, but also making sure not to limit services for victims with adolescent children (under the age of 18) on the basis of the actual or perceived sex, including gender identity, of the children. Victims and their minor children must be sheltered or housed together, regardless of actual or perceived sex, including gender identity, unless requested otherwise or unless the factors or considerations identified in § 1370.5(a)(2) require an exception to this general rule.
(2) No such program or activity is required to include an individual in such program or activity without taking into consideration that individual's sex in those certain instances where sex is a bona fide occupational qualification or a programmatic factor reasonably
(3) Factors that may be relevant to a grantee's or subgrantee's evaluation of whether sex-segregated or sex-specific programming is essential to the normal or safe operations of the program include, but are not limited, to the following: The nature of the service, the anticipated positive and negative consequences to all eligible beneficiaries of not providing the program in a sex-segregated or sex-specific manner, the literature on the efficacy of the service being sex-segregated or sex-specific, and whether similarly-situated grantees and subgrantees providing the same services have been successful in providing services effectively in a manner that is not sex-segregated or sex-specific. A grantee or subgrantee may not provide sex-segregated or sex-specific services for reasons that are trivial or based on the grantee's or subgrantee's convenience.
(4) As with all individuals served, transgender and gender nonconforming individuals must have equal access to FVPSA-funded shelter and nonresidential programs. Programmatic accessibility for transgender and gender nonconforming survivors and minor children must be afforded to meet individual needs consistent with the individual's gender identity. ACF requires that a FVPSA grantee or subgrantee that makes decisions about eligibility for or placement into single-sex emergency shelters or other facilities offer every individual an assignment consistent with their gender identity. For the purpose of assigning a service beneficiary to sex-segregated or sex-specific services, the grantee/subgrantee may ask a beneficiary which group or services the beneficiary wishes to join. The grantee/subgrantee may not, however, ask questions about the beneficiary's anatomy or medical history or make demands for identity documents or other documentation of gender. A victim's/beneficiary's or potential victim's/beneficiary's request for an alternative or additional accommodation for purposes of personal health, privacy, or safety must be given serious consideration in making the placement. For instance, if the potential victim/beneficiary requests to be placed based on his or her sex assigned at birth, ACF requires that the provider will place the individual in accordance with that request, consistent with health, safety, and privacy concerns of the individual. ACF also requires that a provider will not make an assignment or re-assignment of the transgender or gender nonconforming individual based on complaints of another person when the sole stated basis of the complaint is a victim/client or potential victim/client's non-conformance with gender stereotypes or sex, including gender identity.
(b) An organization that participates in programs funded through the FVPSA shall not, in providing services, discriminate against a program beneficiary or prospective program beneficiary on the basis of religion, a religious belief, a refusal to hold a religious belief, or a refusal to attend or participate in a religious practice.
(1) Dietary practices dictated by particular religious beliefs may require reasonable accommodation in cooking or feeding arrangements for particular beneficiaries as practicable. Additionally, other forms of religious practice may require reasonable accommodation including, but not limited to, shelters that have cleaning schedules may need to account for a survivor's religion which prohibits him/her from working on religious holidays.
(c) No person shall on the ground of actual or perceived sexual orientation be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subject to discrimination under, any program or activity funded in whole or in part through FVPSA.
(1) All programs must take into account participants' needs and be inclusive and not stigmatize participants based on actual or perceived sexual orientation.
(d) All FVPSA-funded services must be provided without requiring documentation of immigration status because HHS has determined that FVPSA-funded services do not fall within the definition of federal public benefit that would require verification of immigration status.
(e) Grantees and subgrantees should create a plan to ensure effective communication and equal access, including:
(1) How to identify and communicate with individuals with Limited English Proficiency, and how to identify and properly use qualified interpretation and translation services, and taglines; and
(2) How to take appropriate steps to ensure that communications with applicants, participants, beneficiaries, members of the public, and companions with disabilities are as effective as communications with others; and furnish appropriate auxiliary aids and services where necessary to afford qualified individuals with disabilities, including applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and members of the public, an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a service, program, or activity. Auxiliary aids and services include qualified interpreters and large print materials.
(f) Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate or limit the rights, remedies, procedures, or legal standards available to individuals under other applicable law.
(g) The Secretary shall enforce the provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in accordance with section 602 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-1). Section 603 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000d-2) shall apply with respect to any action taken by the Secretary to enforce this section.
Each entity receiving a grant or contract under these programs shall submit a performance report to the Secretary at such time as required by the Secretary. Such performance report shall describe the activities that have been carried out, contain an evaluation of the effectiveness of such activities, and provide such additional information as the Secretary may require. Territorial governments which consolidate FVPSA funds with other HHS funds in a Consolidated Block Grant pursuant to 45 CFR part 97 are not required to submit annual FVPSA
(a) These grants assist States and Tribes to support the establishment, maintenance, and expansion of programs and projects to prevent incidents of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence; to provide immediate shelter, supportive services, and access to community-based programs for victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their dependents; and to provide specialized services for children exposed to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, including victims who are members of underserved populations. States must consult with and provide for the participation of State Domestic Violence Coalitions and Tribal Coalitions in the planning and monitoring of the distribution and administration of subgrant programs and projects. At a minimum to further FVPSA requirements, States and State Domestic Violence Coalitions will work together to determine grant priorities based upon jointly identified needs; to identify strategies to address needs; to define mutual expectations regarding programmatic performance and monitoring; and to implement an annual collaboration plan that incorporates concrete steps for accomplishing these tasks. If States also fund State Domestic Violence Coalitions to provide training, technical assistance, or other programming, nothing in this rule is intended to conflict with State contracting requirements regarding conflicts of interest but rather that this rule's requirements should be interpreted to complement States' contracting and procurement laws and regulations. States must involve community-based organizations that primarily serve underserved populations, including culturally- and linguistically-specific populations, to determine how such populations can assist the States in serving the unmet needs of underserved populations and culturally- and linguistically-specific populations. Tribes should be involved in these processes where appropriate, but this rule is not intended to encroach upon Tribal sovereignty. States also must consult with and provide for the participation of State Domestic Violence Coalitions and Tribal Coalitions in State planning and coordinate such planning with needs assessments to identify service gaps or problems and develop appropriate responsive plans and programs. Similar coordination and collaboration processes for Tribes and State Domestic Violence Coalitions are expected when feasible and appropriate with deference to Tribal sovereignty as previously indicated.
(b) A State application must be submitted by the Chief Executive of the State and signed by the Chief Executive Officer or the Chief Program Official designated as responsible for the administration of FVPSA. Each application must contain the following information or documentation:
(1) The name of the State agency, the name and contact information for the Chief Program Official designated as responsible for the administration of funds under FVPSA and coordination of related programs within the State, and the name and contact information for a contact person if different from the Chief Program Official;
(2) A plan describing in detail how the needs of underserved populations will be met, including:
(i) Identification of which populations in the State are underserved, a description of those that are being targeted for outreach and services, and a brief explanation of why those populations were selected to receive outreach and services, including how often the State revisits the identification and selection of the populations to be served with FVPSA funding. States must review their State demographics and other relevant metrics at least every three years or explain why this process is unnecessary;
(ii) A description of the outreach plan, including the domestic violence training to be provided, the means for providing technical assistance and support, and the leadership role played by those representing and serving the underserved populations in question;
(iii) A description of the specific services to be provided or enhanced, such as new shelters or services, improved access to shelters or services, or new services for underserved populations; and
(iv) A description of the public information component of the State's outreach program, including the elements of the program that are used to explain domestic violence, the most effective and safe ways to seek help, and tools to identify available resources; and
(v) A description of the means by which the program will provide meaningful access for limited English proficient individuals and effective communication for individuals with disabilities.
(3) A description of the process and procedures used to involve the State Domestic Violence Coalition and Tribal Coalition where one exists, knowledgeable individuals, and interested organizations, including those serving or representing underserved populations in the State planning process;
(4) Documentation of planning, consultation with and participation of the State Domestic Violence Coalition and Tribal Coalition where one exists, in the administration and distribution of FVPSA programs, projects, and grant funds awarded to the State;
(5) A description of the procedures used to assure an equitable distribution of grants and grant funds within the State and between urban and rural areas. States may use one of the Census definitions of rural or non-metro areas or another State-determined definition. A State-determined definition must be supported by data and be available for public input prior to its adoption. The State must show that the definition selected achieves an equitable distribution of funds within the State and between urban and rural areas. The plan should describe how funding processes and allocations will address the needs of underserved populations as defined in § 1370.2, including Tribal populations, with an emphasis on funding organizations that can meet unique needs including culturally- and linguistically-specific populations. Other Federal, State, local, and private funds may be considered in determining compliance;
(6) A description of:
(i) how the State plans to use the grant funds including a State plan developed in consultation with State and Tribal Domestic Violence Coalitions and representatives of underserved populations;
(ii) the target populations;
(iii) the number of shelters and programs providing shelter to be funded;
(iv) the number of non-residential programs to be funded; the services the State will provide; and
(v) the expected results from the use of the grant funds. To fulfill these requirements, it is critically important that States work with State Domestic
(7) An assurance that the State has a law or procedure to bar an abuser from a shared household or a household of the abused person, which may include eviction laws or procedures, where appropriate;
(8) An assurance that not less than 70 percent of the funds distributed by a State to sub-recipients shall be distributed to entities for the primary purpose of providing immediate shelter and supportive services to adult and youth victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their dependents, and that not less than 25 percent of the funds distributed by a State to subgrantees/recipients shall be distributed to entities for the purpose of providing supportive services and prevention services (these percentages may overlap with respect to supportive services but are not included in the 5 percent cap applicable to State administrative costs). In the distribution of funds, States will give special emphasis to the support of community-based projects of demonstrated effectiveness that are carried out by primary-purpose domestic violence providers. No grant shall be made under this section to an entity other than a State unless the entity agrees that, with respect to the costs to be incurred by the entity in carrying out the program or project for which the grant is awarded, the entity will make available (directly or through donations from public or private entities) non-Federal contributions in an amount that is not less than $1 for every $5 of Federal funds provided under the grant. The non-Federal contributions required under this paragraph may be in cash or in kind;
(9) Documentation of policies, procedures and protocols that ensure individual identifiers of client records will not be used when providing statistical data on program activities and program services or in the course of grant monitoring, that the confidentiality of records pertaining to any individual provided family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence prevention or intervention services by any program or entity supported under the FVPSA will be strictly maintained, and the address or location of any shelter supported under the FVPSA will not be made public without the written authorization of the person or persons responsible for the operation of such shelter;
(10) Such additional agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe. Moreover, additional agreements, assurances, and information required by the Funding Opportunity Announcement and other program guidance will include that no requirement for participating in supportive services offered by FVPSA-funded programs may be imposed by grantees or subgrantees for the receipt of emergency shelter and receipt of all supportive services shall be voluntary. Similarly, the receipt of shelter cannot be conditioned on participation in other services, such as, but not limited to counseling, parenting classes, mental health or substance use disorders treatment, pursuit of specific legal remedies, or life skill classes. Additionally, programs cannot impose conditions for admission to shelter by applying inappropriate screening mechanisms, such as criminal background checks, sobriety requirements, requirements to obtain specific legal remedies, or mental health or substance use disorder screenings. An individual's or family's stay in shelter cannot be conditioned upon accepting or participating in services. Based upon the capacity of a FVPSA-funded service provider, victims and their dependents do not need to reside in shelter to receive supportive services. Nothing is these requirements prohibits a shelter operator from adopting reasonable policies and procedures reflecting field-based best practices, to ensure that persons receiving services are not currently engaging in illegal drug use, if that drug use presents a danger to the safety of others, creates an undue hardship for the shelter operator, or causes a fundamental alteration to the operator's services. In the case of an apparent conflict with State, Federal, or Tribal laws, case-by-case determinations will be made by ACF if they are not resolved at the State or Tribal level. In general, when two or more laws apply, a grantee/subgrantee must meet the highest standard for providing programmatic accessibility to victims and their dependents. These provisions are not intended to deny a shelter the ability to manage its services and secure the safety of all shelter residents should, for example, a client become violent or abusive to other clients.
(c) An application from a Tribe or Tribal Organization must include documentation demonstrating that the governing body of the organization on whose behalf the application is submitted approves the application's submission to ACF for the current FVPSA grant period. Each application must contain the following information or documentation:
(1) Written Tribal resolutions, meeting minutes from the governing body, and/or letters from the authorizing official reflecting approval of the application's submittal, depending on what is appropriate for the applicant's governance structure. Such documentation must reflect the applicant's authority to submit the application on behalf of members of the Tribes and administer programs and activities pursuant to FVPSA;
(2) The resolution or equivalent documentation must specify the name(s) of the Tribe(s) on whose behalf the application is submitted and the service areas for the intended grant services;
(3) Applications from consortia must provide letters of commitment, memoranda of understanding, or their equivalent identifying the primary applicant that is responsible for administering the grant, documenting commitments made by partnering eligible applicants, and describing their roles and responsibilities as partners in the consortia or collaboration;
(4) A description of the procedures designed to involve knowledgeable individuals and interested organizations in providing services under the FVPSA. For example, knowledgeable individuals and interested organizations may include Tribal officials or social services staff involved in child abuse or family violence prevention, Tribal law enforcement officials, representatives of Tribal or State Domestic Violence Coalitions, and operators of domestic violence shelters and service programs;
(5) A description of the applicant's operation of and/or capacity to carry out a family violence prevention and services program. This might be demonstrated in ways such as:
(i) The current operation of a shelter, safe house, or domestic violence prevention program;
(ii) The establishment of joint or collaborative service agreements with a local public agency or a private, non- profit agency for the operation of family violence prevention and intervention activities or services; or
(iii) The operation of social services programs as evidenced by receipt of grants or contracts awarded under Indian Child Welfare grants from the Bureau of Indian Affairs; Child Welfare Services grants under Title IV-B of the Social Security Act; or Family Preservation and Family Support grants under Title IV-B of the Social Security Act.
(6) A description of the services to be provided, how the applicant organization plans to use the grant funds to provide the direct services, to whom the services will be provided, and the expected results of the services;
(7) An assurance that the Indian Tribe has a law or procedure to bar an abuser from a shared household or a household of the abused person, which may include eviction laws or procedures, where appropriate;
(8) Documentation of the policies and procedures developed and implemented, including copies of the policies and procedures, to ensure that individual identifiers of client records will not be used when providing statistical data on program activities and program services or in the course of grant monitoring and that the confidentiality of records pertaining to any individual provided domestic violence prevention or intervention services by any FVPSA-supported program will be strictly maintained; and
(9) Such agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe.
(d) Given the unique needs of victims of trafficking, FVPSA-funded programs are strongly encouraged to safely screen for and identify victims of human trafficking who are also victims or survivors of domestic violence or dating violence and provide services that support their unique needs.
(a) State Domestic Violence Coalitions reflect a Federal commitment to reducing domestic violence; to urge States, localities, cities, and the private sector to improve the responses to and the prevention of domestic violence and encourage stakeholders and service providers to plan toward an integrated service delivery approach that meets the needs of all victims, including those in underserved communities; to provide for technical assistance and training relating to domestic violence programs; and to increase public awareness about and prevention of domestic violence and increase the quality and availability of shelter and supportive services for victims of domestic violence and their dependents.
(b) To be eligible to receive a grant under this section, an organization shall be a Statewide, non-governmental, non-profit 501(c)(3) domestic violence coalition, designated as such by the Department. To obtain this designation the organization must meet the following criteria:
(1) The membership must include representatives from a majority of the primary-purpose domestic violence service providers operating within the State (a Coalition also may include representatives of Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations as defined in the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act);
(2) The Board membership of the Coalition must be representative of such programs, and may include representatives of communities in which the services are being provided in the State;
(3) Financial sustainability of State Domestic Violence Coalitions, as independent, autonomous non-profit organizations, also must be supported by their membership, including those member representatives on the Coalitions' Boards of Directors;
(4) The purpose of a State Domestic Violence Coalition is to provide education, support, and technical assistance to such service providers to enable the providers to establish and maintain shelter and supportive services for victims of domestic violence and their dependents; and to serve as an information clearinghouse, primary point of contact, and resource center on domestic violence for the State; and support the development of polices, protocols, and procedures to enhance domestic violence intervention and prevention in the State.
(c) To apply for a grant under this section, an organization shall submit an annual application that:
(1) Includes a complete description of the applicant's plan for the operation of a State Domestic Violence Coalition, including documentation that the Coalition's work will demonstrate the capacity to support state-wide efforts to improve system responses to domestic and dating violence as outlined in (c)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section. Coalitions must also have documented experience in administering Federal grants to conduct the activities of a Coalition or a documented history of active participation in:
(i) Working with local family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence service programs and providers of direct services to encourage appropriate and comprehensive responses to family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence against adults or youth within the State involved, including providing training and technical assistance and conducting State needs assessments and participate in planning and monitoring of the distribution of subgrants within the States and in the administration of grant programs and projects;
(ii) In conducting needs assessments, Coalitions and States must work in partnership on the statutorily required FVPSA State planning process to involve representatives from underserved populations and culturally- and linguistically-specific populations to plan, assess and voice the needs of the communities they represent. Coalitions will assist States in identifying underserved populations and culturally- and linguistically- specific community based organizations in State planning and to work with States to unify planning and needs assessment efforts so that comprehensive and culturally-specific services are provided. The inclusion of the populations targeted will emphasize building the capacity of culturally- and linguistically-specific services and programs.
(iii) Working in collaboration with service providers and community-based organizations to address the needs of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence victims, and their dependents, who are members of underserved populations and culturally- and linguistically-specific populations;
(iv) Collaborating with and providing information to entities in such fields as housing, health care, mental health, social welfare, or business to support the development and implementation of effective policies, protocols, and programs that address the safety and support needs of adult and youth victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence;
(v) Encouraging appropriate responses to cases of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence against adults or youth, including by working with judicial and law enforcement agencies;
(vi) Working with family law judges, criminal court judges, child protective service agencies, and children's advocates to develop appropriate responses to child custody and visitation issues in cases of child exposure to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence and in cases in which family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence is present and child abuse is present;
(vii) Providing information to the public about prevention of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence, including information targeted to underserved populations, including limited English proficient individuals; and
(viii) Collaborating with Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations (and corresponding Native Hawaiian groups or communities) to address the needs of Indian (including Alaska Native) and Native Hawaiian victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, as applicable in the State;
(2) Contains such agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe.
(d) Nothing in this section limits the ability of a Coalition to use non-Federal or other Federal funding sources to conduct required functions, provided that if the Coalition uses funds received under section 2001(c)(1) of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 to perform the functions described in FVPSA at 42 U.S.C. 10411(e) in lieu of funds provided under the FVPSA, it shall provide an annual assurance to the Secretary that it is using such funds, and that it is coordinating the activities conducted under this section with those of the State's activities under Part T of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968.
(e) In cases in which two or more organizations seek designation, the designation of each State's individual Coalition is within the exclusive discretion of HHS. HHS will determine which applicant best fits statutory criteria, with particular attention paid to the applicant's documented history of effective work, support of primary-purpose domestic violence service providers and programs that serve underserved populations, coordination and collaboration with the State government, and capacity to accomplish the FVPSA-mandated role of a Coalition.
(f) Regarding FVPSA funding, in cases where a Coalition financially or otherwise dissolves, is newly formed, or merges with another entity, the designation of a new Coalition is within the exclusive discretion of HHS. HHS will seek individual feedback from domestic violence service providers, community stakeholders, State leaders, and representatives of underserved populations and culturally- and linguistically-specific populations to identify an existing organization that can serve as the Coalition or to develop a new organization. The new Coalition must reapply for designation and funding following steps determined by the Secretary. HHS will determine whether the applicant fits the statutory criteria, with particular attention paid to the applicant's documented history of effective work, support of primary-purpose domestic violence programs and programs that serve underserved populations, coordination and collaboration with the State government, and capacity to accomplish the FVPSA mandated role of a Coalition.
(a) These grants are to provide resource information, training, and technical assistance to improve the capacity of individuals, organizations, governmental entities, and communities to prevent family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence and to provide effective intervention services. They fund national, special issue, and culturally-specific resource centers addressing key areas of domestic violence intervention and prevention, and may include State resource centers to reduce disparities in domestic violence in States with high proportions of Native American (including Alaska Native or Native Hawaiian) populations and to support training and technical assistance that address emerging issues related to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, to entities demonstrating expertise in these areas. Grants may be made for:
(1) A National Resource Center on Domestic Violence which will conduct the following activities:
(i) offer a comprehensive array of technical assistance and training resources to Federal, State, and local governmental agencies, domestic violence service providers, community-based organizations, and other professionals and interested parties, related to domestic violence service programs and research, including programs and research related to victims and their children who are exposed to domestic violence; and
(ii) Maintain a central resource library in order to collect, prepare, analyze, and disseminate information and statistics related to the incidence and prevention of family violence and domestic violence; and the provision of shelter, supportive services, and prevention services to adult and youth victims of domestic violence (including services to prevent repeated incidents of violence).
(2) A National Indian Resource Center Addressing Domestic Violence and Safety for Indian Women which will conduct the following activities:
(i) Offer a comprehensive array of technical assistance and training resources to Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations, specifically designed to enhance the capacity of the Tribes and Tribal organizations to respond to domestic violence and increase the safety of Indian women; and
(ii) Enhance the intervention and prevention efforts of Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations to respond to domestic violence and increase the safety of Indian women, and
(iii) To coordinate activities with other Federal agencies, offices, and grantees that address the needs of Indians (including Alaska Natives) and Native Hawaiians that experience domestic violence.
(3) Special issue resource centers to provide national information, training, and technical assistance to State and local domestic violence service providers. Each special issue resource center shall focus on enhancing domestic violence intervention and prevention efforts in at least one of the following areas:
(i) Response of the criminal and civil justice systems to domestic violence victims, which may include the response to the use of the self-defense plea by domestic violence victims and the issuance and use of protective orders;
(ii) Response of child protective service agencies to victims of domestic violence and their dependents and child custody issues in domestic violence cases;
(iii) Response of the interdisciplinary health care system to victims of domestic violence and access to health care resources for victims of domestic violence; and
(iv) Response of mental health systems, domestic violence service programs, and other related systems and programs to victims of domestic violence and to their children who are exposed to domestic violence.
(4) Culturally-Specific Special Issue Resource Centers enhance domestic violence intervention and prevention efforts for victims of domestic violence who are members of racial and ethnic minority groups, to enhance the cultural and linguistic relevancy of service delivery, resource utilization, policy, research, technical assistance, community education, and prevention initiatives.
(5) State resource centers to provide Statewide information, training, and technical assistance to Indian Tribes, Tribal organizations, and local domestic violence service organizations serving Native Americans (including Alaska Natives and Native Hawaiians) in a culturally sensitive and relevant manner. These centers shall:
(i) Offer a comprehensive array of technical assistance and training resources to Indian Tribes, Tribal organizations, and providers of services to Native Americans (including Alaska Natives and Native Hawaiians) specifically designed to enhance the capacity of the Tribes, organizations, and providers to respond to domestic violence, including offering the resources in States in which the population of Indians (including Alaska Natives) or Native Hawaiians exceeds 2.5 percent of the total population of the State;
(ii) Coordinate all projects and activities with the National Indian Resource Center Addressing Domestic Violence and Safety for Indian Women, including projects and activities that involve working with State and local governments to enhance their capacity to understand the unique needs of Native Americans (including Alaska Natives and Native Hawaiians); and
(iii) Provide comprehensive community education and domestic violence prevention initiatives in a culturally sensitive and relevant manner; and
(iv) Otherwise meet certain eligibility requirements for state resource centers to reduce tribal disparities, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 10410(c)(4).
(6) Other discretionary purposes to support training and technical assistance that address emerging issues related to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, to entities demonstrating related experience.
(b) To receive a grant under any part of this section, an entity shall submit an application that shall meet such eligibility standards as are prescribed in the FVPSA and contains such agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe.
(a) These grants serve to expand the capacity of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence service programs and community-based programs to prevent future domestic violence by addressing, in an appropriate manner, the needs of children exposed to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence. To be eligible an entity must be a local agency, a nonprofit private organization (including faith-based and charitable organizations, community-based organizations, and voluntary associations), or a Tribal organization, with a demonstrated record of serving victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence and their children.
(b) To be eligible to receive a grant under this section, an entity shall submit an application that:
(1) Includes a complete description of the applicant's plan for providing specialized services for abused parents and their children, including descriptions of:
(i) How the entity will prioritize the safety of, and confidentiality of, information about victims of family violence, victims of domestic violence, and victims of dating violence and their children, and will comply with the confidentiality requirements of FVPSA, 42 U.S.C. 10406(c)(5) and this rule at § 1370.4;
(ii) How the entity will provide developmentally appropriate and age-appropriate services, and culturally and linguistically appropriate services, to the victims and children;
(iii) How the entity will ensure that professionals working with the children receive the training and technical assistance appropriate and relevant to the unique needs of children exposed to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence; and
(iv) How, in the case of victims who choose to or by virtue of their circumstances must remain in contact with an abusive partner/parent, the entity will: consider the victim's decision-making for keeping children safe within the continuum of domestic violence (see the definition of domestic violence in the regulatory text at § 1370.2 which describes the potential range of behaviors constituting domestic violence); not place burdens or demands on the non-abusive parent that the parent cannot comply with due to the coercive control of the offender; and take precautions to avoid actions that discourage victims from help-seeking, such as making unnecessary referrals to child protective services when survivors go to community-based organizations for assistance in safety planning to protect children.
(2) Demonstrates that the applicant has the ability to effectively provide, or partner with an organization that provides, direct counseling, appropriate services, and advocacy on behalf of victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, and their children, including coordination with services provided by the child welfare system, schools, health care providers, home visitors, family court systems, and any other child or youth serving system;
(3) Demonstrates that the applicant can effectively provide services for non-abusing parents to support those parents' roles as caregivers and their roles in responding to the social, emotional, and developmental needs of their children; and
(4) Contains such agreements, assurances, and information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe.
(c) Eligible applicants may use funds under a grant pursuant to this section:
(1) To provide early childhood development and mental health services;
(2) To coordinate activities with and provide technical assistance to community-based organizations serving victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence or children exposed to family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence; and
(3) To provide additional services and referrals to services for children, including child care, transportation, educational support, respite care, supervised visitation, or other necessary services.
(d) If Congressional appropriations in any fiscal year for the entirety of programs covered in this part (exclusive of the National Domestic Violence Hotline which receives a separate appropriation) exceed $130 million, not less than 25 percent of such excess funds shall be made available to carry out this grant program. If appropriations reach this threshold, HHS will specify funding levels in future Funding Opportunity Announcements.
(a) These grants are for one or more private entities to provide for the ongoing operation of a 24-hour, national, toll-free telephone hotline to provide information and assistance to adult and youth victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, family and household members of such victims, and persons affected by the victimization.
(b) Telephone is defined as a communications device that permits two or more callers or users to engage in transmitted analog, digital, short message service (SMS), cellular/wireless, laser, cable/broadband, internet, voice-over internet protocol (IP), video, or other communications, including telephone, smartphone, chat, text, voice recognition, or other technological means which connects callers or users together.
(c) To be eligible to receive a grant under this section, an entity shall submit an application that:
(1) Includes a complete description of the applicant's plan for the operation of a national domestic violence telephone hotline, including descriptions of:
(i) The training program for hotline personnel, including technology training to ensure that all persons affiliated with the hotline are able to effectively operate any technological systems used by the hotline, and are familiar with effective communication and equal access requirements, to ensure access for all, including people who are Limited English Proficient and people with disabilities;
(ii) The hiring criteria and qualifications for hotline personnel;
(iii) The methods for the creation, maintenance, and updating of a resource database;
(iv) A plan for publicizing the availability of the hotline;
(v) A plan for providing service such as advocacy and supportive services to Limited English Proficient callers, including service through hotline personnel who are qualified to interpret in non-English languages;
(vi) A plan for facilitating access to the hotline by persons with disabilities, including persons who are deaf or have hearing impairments; and
(vii) A plan for providing assistance and referrals to youth victims of domestic violence and for victims of dating violence who are minors, which may be carried out through a national teen dating violence hotline.
(2) Demonstrates that the applicant has recognized expertise in the area of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence and a record of high quality service to victims of family violence, domestic violence, or dating violence, including a demonstration of support from advocacy groups and State Domestic violence Coalitions;
(3) Demonstrates that the applicant has the capacity and the expertise to maintain a domestic violence hotline and a comprehensive database of service providers;
(4) Demonstrates the ability to provide information and referrals for callers, directly connect callers to service providers, and employ crisis interventions meeting the standards of family violence, domestic violence, and dating violence providers;
(5) Demonstrates that the applicant has a commitment to diversity and to the provision of services to underserved populations, including to ethnic, racial, and Limited English Proficient individuals, in addition to older individuals and individuals with disabilities;
(6) Demonstrates that the applicant follows comprehensive quality assurance practices; and
(7) Contains such agreements, information, and assurances, including nondisclosure of confidential or private information, in such form, and submitted in such manner as the Funding Opportunity Announcement and related program guidance prescribe.
(d) The entity receiving a grant under this section shall submit a performance report to the Secretary at such time as reasonably required by the Secretary that shall describe the activities that have been carried out with grant funds, contain an evaluation of the effectiveness of such activities, and provide additional information as the Secretary may reasonably require.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |