Page Range | 96329-97110 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 97099 - Adjustments of Certain Rates of Pay | |
81 FR 96337 - Providing an Order of Succession Within the Social Security Administration | |
81 FR 96335 - Providing an Order of Succession Within the National Endowment for the Arts | |
81 FR 96333 - Providing an Order of Succession Within the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service | |
81 FR 96329 - Providing an Order of Succession Within the Department of Labor | |
81 FR 96331 - Designation of Officers of the National Archives and Records Administration to Act as Archivist of the United States | |
81 FR 96526 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 96451 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 96444 - Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, Contract Financing | |
81 FR 96459 - Electronic Filing of Certain Import Data Into the Document Image System Through the Automated Commercial Environment | |
81 FR 96443 - Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, Contract Pricing | |
81 FR 96450 - Proposed Settlement Agreement, Clean Air Act Citizen Suit | |
81 FR 96481 - Notice of Application for Withdrawal and Opportunity for Public Meeting; Washington | |
81 FR 96445 - Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement, Foreign Acquisition | |
81 FR 96484 - Notice of Availability of the Record of Decision for the Moab Master Leasing Plan/Approved Resource Management Plan Amendments for the Moab and Monticello Field Offices, UT | |
81 FR 96457 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 96456 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 96454 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 96461 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 96485 - Notice of Availability of the Final Environmental Impact Report/Final Environmental Impact Statement, Bay Delta Conservation Plan/California WaterFix | |
81 FR 96404 - Use of the Term “Healthy” in the Labeling of Human Food Products; Request for Information and Comments; Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 96462 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Food Labeling Regulations | |
81 FR 96441 - Procurement List; Deletions | |
81 FR 96565 - In the Matter of the Amendment of the Designation of Lashkar-e-Tayyiba (and Other Aliases) as a Foreign Terrorist Organization Pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act | |
81 FR 96435 - Welded ASTM A-312 Stainless Steel Pipe From the Republic of Korea: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 96446 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Mandatory Civil Rights Data Collection | |
81 FR 96476 - Guidelines for Implementing the Indian Child Welfare Act | |
81 FR 96477 - Indian Gaming; Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compacts Taking Effect in the State of New Mexico | |
81 FR 96477 - Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for the Tule River Tribe's Proposed Fee-to-Trust and Eagle Mountain Casino Relocation Project, Tulare County, California | |
81 FR 96453 - Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 96442 - Procurement List; Proposed Additions and Deletions | |
81 FR 96523 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Tier 1 Editorial and Consistency Changes | |
81 FR 96434 - Solid Urea From the Russian Federation and Ukraine: Final Results of Sunset Reviews and Revocation of Antidumping Duty Orders | |
81 FR 96433 - Solid Urea From the Russian Federation: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
81 FR 96440 - BroadbandUSA Webinar Series | |
81 FR 96440 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 96524 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc.; Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Consolidation of Uninterruptible Power Supply System Spare Battery Terminal Boxes | |
81 FR 96452 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
81 FR 96451 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
81 FR 96415 - Petitions for Reconsideration of Action in Rulemaking Proceeding | |
81 FR 96568 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 96521 - BJS Confidentiality Pledge Revision Notice | |
81 FR 96437 - Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; Application for an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) | |
81 FR 96565 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Renewal of an Approved Information Collection: Financial Responsibility-Motor Carriers, Freight Forwarders, and Brokers | |
81 FR 96473 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Permit Applications | |
81 FR 96475 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Incidental Take Permit Application; Proposed Low-Effect Habitat Conservation Plan and Associated Documents; San Diego Gas and Electric, San Diego, Riverside, and Orange Counties, California | |
81 FR 96519 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; A Newly Approved Data Collection National Use-of-Force Data Collection | |
81 FR 96483 - Notice of Public Meetings: Sierra Front-Northwestern Great Basin Resource Advisory Council, Nevada | |
81 FR 96362 - Airworthiness Directives; Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. (Formerly Turbomeca S.A.) Turboshaft Engines | |
81 FR 96471 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Incidental Take Permit Application; Proposed Low-Effect Habitat Conservation Plan and Associated Documents; City of Monterey Park, California | |
81 FR 96361 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 96433 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 96518 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension Without Change, of a Previously Approved Collection Procedures for the Administration of Section 5 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 | |
81 FR 96469 - National Institutes of Health Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority | |
81 FR 96537 - Northern Lights Fund Trust IV and Blue Sky Asset Management, LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 96539 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 2, and 3 Thereto, To List and Trade Shares of the JPMorgan Diversified Event Driven ETF Under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 | |
81 FR 96530 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Eliminate Fees for Historical Trade Data Accessed Through the FINRA ADDS Web Site | |
81 FR 96527 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to Amend the Exchange's Transaction Fees at Rule 7019 (Market Data Distributor Fees) | |
81 FR 96534 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amending NYSE Arca Equities Rules 7.11, 7.31, and 7.34 | |
81 FR 96545 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Shorten the Settlement Cycle From T+3 to T+2 | |
81 FR 96532 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; International Securities Exchange, LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change to Amend the Supplementary Material to ISE Rule 1901 | |
81 FR 96550 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule To Modify the Exchange's Other Market Participant Transaction Fees | |
81 FR 96552 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change in Connection With the Proposed Acquisition of the Exchange by NYSE Group, Inc. | |
81 FR 96527 - Product Change-First-Class Package Service Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 96526 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 96526 - Product Change-Priority Mail Express and Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
81 FR 96366 - Orthopedic Devices; Reclassification of Pedicle Screw Systems, Henceforth To Be Known as Thoracolumbosacral Pedicle Screw Systems, Including Semi-Rigid Systems | |
81 FR 96467 - Medical Device Accessories-Describing Accessories and Classification Pathway for New Accessory Types; Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 96447 - Rubicon NYP Corp; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 96449 - Albany Green Energy, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 96448 - Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
81 FR 96448 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 96449 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 96447 - Central Kentucky Transmission Company; Notice of Filing | |
81 FR 96507 - United States v. Clear Channel Outdoor Holdings, Inc., et al.; Proposed Final Judgment and Competitive Impact Statement | |
81 FR 96486 - United States v. AMC Entertainment Holdings, Inc., et al.; Proposed Final Judgment and Competitive Impact Statement | |
81 FR 96566 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 96381 - Revision to the Near-road NO2 | |
81 FR 96413 - Reconsideration of Finding That Greenhouse Gas Emissions From Aircraft Cause or Contribute to Air Pollution That May Reasonably Be Anticipated To Endanger Public Health and Welfare | |
81 FR 96478 - Notice of Amended Proposed Withdrawal, Release of Draft Environmental Impact Statement, and Notice of Public Meetings; Idaho, Montana, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, and Wyoming | |
81 FR 96405 - Novus International, Inc.; Filing of Food Additive Petition (Animal Use); Reopening of the Comment Period | |
81 FR 96364 - Food Labeling; Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments; Extension of Compliance Date | |
81 FR 96344 - Update To Incorporate FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 Requirements | |
81 FR 96415 - Taking and Importing Marine Mammals; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Russian River Estuary Management Activities | |
81 FR 96406 - Withholding on Payments of Certain Gambling Winnings | |
81 FR 96374 - Information Returns; Winnings From Bingo, Keno, and Slot Machines | |
81 FR 96353 - Industrial and Commercial Metals | |
81 FR 96342 - Pistachios Grown in California, Arizona, and New Mexico; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
81 FR 96380 - Liberty Island Safety Zone; Fireworks Display in Captain of the Port New York Zone | |
81 FR 96388 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Dolphin and Wahoo Fishery Off the Atlantic States; Regulatory Amendment 1 | |
81 FR 96347 - Increase in the Maximum Amount of Primary Nuclear Liability Insurance | |
81 FR 96339 - Fees for Official Inspection and Official Weighing Services Under the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA) | |
81 FR 96469 - Federal Property Suitable as Facilities To Assist the Homeless | |
81 FR 96349 - Inflation Adjustment of Civil Monetary Penalties | |
81 FR 96391 - Fast-Start Pricing in Markets Operated by Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators | |
81 FR 97046 - National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants for Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft, Soda, Sulfite, and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills | |
81 FR 96572 - Revision of Airworthiness Standards for Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, and Commuter Category Airplanes | |
81 FR 96704 - Position Limits for Derivatives | |
81 FR 96992 - Revision of Import and Export Requirements for Controlled Substances, Listed Chemicals, and Tableting and Encapsulating Machines, Including Changes To Implement the International Trade Data System (ITDS); Revision of Reporting Requirements for Domestic Transactions in Listed Chemicals and Tableting and Encapsulating Machines; and Technical Amendments |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
Land Management Bureau
Reclamation Bureau
Antitrust Division
Drug Enforcement Administration
Justice Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Final rule.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA) is announcing the fee schedule for official inspection and weighing services performed under the United States Grain Standards Act (USGSA), as amended, in order to comply with amendments to the USGSA made by the Agriculture Reauthorizations Act of 2015. The USGSA provides GIPSA with the authority to charge and collect reasonable fees to cover the costs of performing official services and the costs associated with managing the program. This action publishes the annual review of fees in Schedule A and the resulting fees that will be effective January 1, 2017.
Effective January 1, 2017.
Denise Ruggles, USDA-GIPSA-FGIS-ODA; Telephone: (816) 659-8406; Email:
USGSA authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture to provide official grain inspection and weighing services and to charge and collect reasonable fees for performing these services. The fees collected are to cover, as nearly as practicable, GIPSA's costs for performing these services, including associated administrative and supervisory costs. The fees are in the regulations at 7 CFR 800.71.
On July 29, 2016, GIPSA published in the
GIPSA has conducted the annual review of the fees and operating reserve for the purposes of the annual adjustment of the fees. Accordingly, GIPSA is setting new tonnage fees which will take effect on January 1, 2017, for all field offices. GIPSA has determined that a 5 percent reduction in all Schedule A fees, including the aforementioned tonnage fees, is necessary to attain the goal of 4
The regulations require GIPSA annually review the national tonnage fees, local tonnage fees, and fees for service. After calculating the tonnage fees according to the regulatory formula in section 800.71(b)(1), GIPSA then reviews the amount of funds in the operating reserve at the end of the fiscal year (FY2016 in this case) to ensure that it has 4
(a) Tonnage fees for the 5-year rolling average tonnage were calculated on the previous 5 fiscal years 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, and 2016. Tonnage fees consist of the national tonnage fee and local tonnage fee and are calculated and rounded to the nearest $0.001 per metric ton. The tonnage fees are calculated as following:
(1)
The national program administrative costs for fiscal year 2016 were $7,214,466. The fiscal year 2017 national tonnage fee, prior to the operating reserve review, is calculated to be at $0.067 per metric ton.
(2)
The field offices fiscal year tons for the previous 5 fiscal years and calculated 5-year rolling average are as follows:
The local field office administrative costs for fiscal year 2016 and the fiscal year 2017 calculated local field office tonnage fee, prior to the operating reserve review, are as follows:
(3)
The program operating reserve at the end of fiscal year 2016 was $18,863,026 with a monthly operating expense of $3,295,937. The target of 4.5 months of operating reserve is $14,831,717 therefore the operating reserve is greater than 4.5 times the monthly operating expenses by $4,031,311. For each $1,000,000, rounded down, above the target level, all Schedule A fees must be reduced by 2 percent. The operating reserve is $4 million above the target level resulting in a calculated 8 percent reduction. As required by 800.71(b)(2)(ii), the reduction is limited to 5 percent. Therefore, GIPSA is reducing all Schedule A fees for service in Schedule A in paragraph (a)(1) by the maximum 5 percent. All Schedule A fees for service are rounded to the nearest $0.10, except for fees based on tonnage or hundredweight.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Grains, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, GIPSA amends 7 CFR part 800 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 71-87k.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Affirmation of interim rule as final rule.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is adopting, as a final rule, without change, an interim rule that implemented a recommendation from the Administrative Committee for Pistachios (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for pistachios grown in California, Arizona, and New Mexico for the 2016-2017 and subsequent production years from
Effective December 31, 2016.
Peter Sommers or Jeffrey Smutny, California Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (559) 487-5901, Fax: (559) 487-5906, or Email:
Small businesses may obtain information on complying with this and other marketing order regulations by viewing a guide at the following Web site:
This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 983, both as amended (7 CFR part 983), regulating the handling of pistachios grown in California, Arizona, and New Mexico, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.”
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
Under the order, pistachio handlers in California, Arizona, and New Mexico are subject to assessments, which provide funds to administer the order. Assessment rates issued under the order are intended to be applicable to all assessable pistachios grown in the production area for the entire production year, and continue indefinitely until amended, suspended, or terminated. The Committee's production year begins on September 1, and ends on August 31.
In an interim rule published in the
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 1,152 producers of pistachios in the production area and 19 handlers subject to regulation under the marketing order. The Small Business Administration defines small agricultural producers as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000. (13 CFR 121.201)
The National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) 2012 data on pistachio farm size indicates that there were 1,305 pistachio farms, of which 1,125 were less than 250 acres. That is, 87 percent were too small to have annual receipts of $750,000. NASS 2015 annual production data indicates that the per-acre production of pistachios was 1,160 pounds. At an average value of $2.54 per pound, each acre of pistachios could return $2,948.40. In order for a producer to have $750,000 in annual receipts, the producer would have to have at least 255.3 acres. Thus, the majority of handlers and producers in the production area may be classified as small entities.
Based on Committee data, it is estimated that about 53 percent of the handlers annually ship less than $7,500,000 worth of pistachios. Nine of the 19 regulated handlers (47 percent) received enough pistachios at an average price of $3.00 pound to be considered large handlers, leaving the percentage of small handlers at 53 percent.
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment rate established for the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2016-17 and subsequent production years from $0.0035 to $0.0010 per pound of pistachios handled. The Committee unanimously recommended 2016-17 expenditures of $922,500 and an assessment rate of $0.0010 per pound of pistachios, which is $0.0025 lower than the 2015-16 rate. The quantity of assessable pistachios for the 2016-17 production year is estimated at 750 million pounds. Thus, the $0.0010 rate should provide $750,000 in assessment income. Income derived from handler's assessments, along with interest and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, should be adequate to cover expenses for the 2016-17 production year.
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers, and may reduce the burden on producers.
In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the pistachio area of production and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the July 12, 2016, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0278. No changes in those requirements as a result of this action are necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This action imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large pistachio handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap or conflict with this rule.
Comments on the interim rule were required to be received on or before November 15, 2016. No comments were received. Therefore, for reasons given in
To view the interim rule, go to:
This action also affirms information contained in the interim rule concerning Executive Orders 12866, 12988, 13175, and 13563; the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35); and the E-Gov Act (44 U.S.C. 101).
After consideration of all relevant material presented, it is found that finalizing the interim rule, without change, as published in the
Marketing agreements, Pistachios, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is amending its regulations to reflect changes to the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA). The FOIA Improvement Act of 2016 requires the NRC to amend its FOIA regulations to update procedures for requesting information from the NRC and procedures that the NRC must follow in responding to FOIA requests.
This final rule is effective on January 30, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0171 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Stephanie Blaney, telephone: 301-415-6975, email:
The FOIA was enacted to give the public a right to access records held by the executive branch that, although not classified, were not otherwise available to them. Since its enactment in 1966, the FOIA has been amended on a number of occasions to adapt to the times and changing priorities.
On June 30, 2016, the FOIA Improvement Act of 2016, Public Law 114-185, 130 Stat. 538 (the Act) was enacted. The Act specifically requires all agencies to review and update their FOIA regulations in accordance with its provisions. The Act addresses a range of procedural issues, including requiring that agencies establish a minimum of 90 days for requesters to file an administrative appeal and that they provide dispute resolution services at various times throughout the FOIA process. The Act also amends Exemption 5, codifies the foreseeable harm standard, and adds two new elements to agency Annual FOIA Reports.
The NRC has identified the areas where the revisions are necessary in order to comply with the Act and is amending parts 2 and 9 of title 10 of the
The following paragraphs describe the specific changes adopted by this rulemaking.
This final rule revises paragraph (a)(5) to be identical to 10 CFR 9.17(a)(5), which this final rule is also revising to include new criteria for FOIA Exemption 5. The Act amended Exemption 5 of the FOIA to provide that the deliberative process privilege does not apply to records that are 25 years or older before the date on which they are requested.
This final rule revises paragraph (a)(5) to include new criteria for FOIA Exemption 5. The Act amended Exemption 5 of the FOIA to provide that the deliberative process privilege does not apply to records that are 25 years or older before the date on which they are requested. This final rule redesignates paragraph (c) as paragraph (d) without change and adds a new paragraph (c) to incorporate the foreseeable harm standard that the Act codified and to include clarifying language derived from the Act about the FOIA's relationship to laws prohibiting disclosure of information.
This final rule revises paragraph (b)(1) to change the reference § 9.17(a) to § 9.17, to account for the foreseeable harm threshold standard in the revised § 9.17(c) that applies to the exemptions listed in § 9.17(a).
This final rule revises paragraph (c) introductory text to include available viewing formats. This final rule revises paragraph (c)(5) to include copies of records regardless of format, as well as adding paragraphs (c)(5)(i), (c)(5)(ii), (c)(5)(ii)(A) and (c)(5)(ii)(B). This revision is to codify frequently requested records.
This final rule revises paragraph (c) to include requirements to make the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison available to assist in resolving any disputes and to notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS). This final rule revises paragraph (f) to change the reference to § 9.17(a) to § 9.17, to account for the foreseeable harm threshold standard in the revised § 9.17(c) that applies to the exemptions listed in § 9.17(a).
This final rule (1) revises paragraph (a) to include a new requirement to notify the requester of the right to seek assistance from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison; (2) revises paragraph (b)(5) to notify the requester they now have 90 calendar days to appeal; (3) adds paragraph (b)(6) to include a new requirement to notify the requester of the right to seek assistance from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison; and (4) adds paragraph (b)(7) to include a new requirement to notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison or OGIS.
This final rule revises paragraph (a) to change the length of time to appeal from 30 calendar days to 90 calendar days.
This final rule adds new section 10 CFR 9.30 to include contact information for obtaining dispute resolution services from OGIS and the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison.
This final rule adds new paragraph (f) to include new fee limitations for search and duplication.
This final rule revises paragraph (d) to change the length of time to appeal from 30 calendar days to 90 calendar days.
This final rule (1) revises the section heading to include the Director of OGIS as a recipient of the annual FOIA report; (2) revises paragraph (a) to include the Director of OGIS as a recipient of the annual FOIA report and to replace the incomplete list of required contents of the report found in paragraphs (a)(1)-(8) with a reference to 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(1), which contains the full list of required contents of the report; and (3) revises the link where you can locate the NRC's annual FOIA reports.
Under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)), an agency may waive the normal notice and comment requirements if it finds, for good cause, that they are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. As authorized by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), the NRC finds good cause to waive notice and opportunity for comment on the amendments. Notice and opportunity for comment are unnecessary, because the NRC is issuing this final rule for the limited purpose of complying with specific direction in the Act requiring agencies to update their FOIA regulations in accordance with the Act, and the final rule updates the NRC's FOIA regulations only as necessary to bring them into compliance with the Act.
The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883).
The NRC has determined that this final rule is the type of action described in categorical exclusion 10 CFR 51.22(c)(1). Therefore, neither an environmental impact statement nor an environmental assessment has been prepared for this final rule.
This final rule does not contain a collection of information as defined in the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
This final rule is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Antitrust, Byproduct material, Classified information, Confidential business information, Freedom of information, Environmental protection, Hazardous waste, Nuclear energy, Nuclear materials, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sex discrimination, Source material, Special nuclear material, Waste treatment and disposal.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Criminal penalties, Freedom of information, Government employees, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sunshine Act.
For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendments to 10 CFR parts 2 and 9:
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 29, 53, 62, 63, 81, 102, 103, 104, 105, 161, 181, 182, 183, 184, 186, 189, 191, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2073, 2092, 2093, 2111, 2132, 2133, 2134, 2135, 2201, 2231, 2232, 2233, 2234, 2236, 2239, 2241, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 206 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5846); Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982, secs. 114(f), 134, 135, 141 (42 U.S.C. 10134(f), 10154, 10155, 10161); Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552, 553, 554, 557, 558); National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332); 44 U.S.C.
(a) * * *
(5) Interagency or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, sec. 161 (42 U.S.C. 2201); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, sec. 201 (42 U.S.C. 5841); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note. Subpart A also issued under 31 U.S.C. 9701. Subpart B also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552a. Subpart C also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552b.
(a) * * *
(5) Interagency or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the agency, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
(c)(1) The NRC shall withhold information under this subpart only if—
(i) The NRC reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in paragraph (a) of this section; or
(ii) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
(2) Nothing in this subpart requires disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited from disclosure by law, or otherwise exempted from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
(c) The following records of NRC activities are available for public inspection in an electronic format:
* * *
(5) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format—
(i) That have been released to any person under § 9.23; and
(ii)(A) That because of the nature of their subject matter, the NRC determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
(B) That have been requested 3 or more times;
(c)
The revision and additions to read as follows:
(a) * * * The NRC's response will notify the requester of the requester's right to seek assistance from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison. * * *
(b) * * *
(6) A statement that the requester has a right to seek assistance from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison; and
(7) A statement that the requester has a right to seek dispute resolution services from the NRC's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services within the National Archives and Records Administration.
(a) NRC's FOIA Public Liaison:
(1) By mail—11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, MD 20852;
(2) By facsimile—301-415-5130; and
(3) By email—
(b) Office of Government Information Services within National Archives and Records Administration:
(1) By mail—8601 Adelphi Road-OGIS, College Park, MD 20740;
(2) By facsimile—202-741-5769; and
(3) By email—
(f)(1) Except as described in paragraphs (f)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, if the NRC fails to comply with any time limit under §§ 9.25 or 9.29, it may not charge search fees or, in the case of requests from requesters described in § 9.33(a)(2), may not charge duplication fees.
(2) If the NRC has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined in § 9.13, apply and the NRC provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 days.
(3) If the NRC has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined in § 9.13, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the NRC may charge search fees or, in the case of requests from requesters described in § 9.33(a)(2), may charge duplication fees, if the NRC has
(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C), a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
(a) On or before February 1 of each year, the NRC will submit a report covering the preceding fiscal year to the Attorney General of the United States and to the Director of the Office of Government Information Services which shall include the information required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(1).
(b) The NRC will make its annual FOIA reports available to the public at the NRC Web site,
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is amending its regulations to increase the required amount
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0164 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Natreon Jordan, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, telephone: 301-415-7410, email:
The NRC's regulations in part 140 of title 10 of the
On June 15, 2016, American Nuclear Insurers (ANI), the underwriter of American nuclear liability policies, acting on behalf of its member companies, notified the NRC that it will be increasing “its maximum available primary nuclear liability limit from $375 million to $450 million, effective on January 1, 2017” (ADAMS Accession No. ML16239A254). The ANI makes such adjustments on a non-periodic basis. The last such adjustment was made in 2010, and the NRC revised § 140.11 to reflect the increased maximum available amount of primary nuclear liability insurance (75 FR 16645; April 2, 2010).
To implement this adjustment, in accordance with the Price-Anderson Act, the NRC is revising 10 CFR part 140 to require large operating reactors to have and maintain $450 million in primary financial protection.
The NRC is not currently revising the appendices in § 140.91, § 140.92, or § 140.93 that provide general forms of liability policies and indemnity agreements that were determined to be acceptable to the Commission. These appendices include historical insurance providers and protection amounts for primary liability insurance that are no longer in use (for example, values of $124 million and $36 million from the 1979 final rule (44 FR 20632; April 6, 1979) and values of $200 million, $155 million, and $45 million from the 1989 final rule (54 FR 24157; June 6, 1989)). However, these appendices continue to provide relevant general forms of policies and agreements.
This final rule is being issued without prior public notice or opportunity for public comments. The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B)) does not require an agency to use the public notice and comment process “when the agency for good cause finds (and incorporates the finding and a brief statement of reasons therefore in the rules issued) that notice and public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” In this instance, the NRC finds, for good cause, that solicitation of public comment on this final rule is unnecessary because the Price-Anderson Act requires a non-discretionary adjustment in the maximum amount required for primary nuclear liability insurance. Requesting public comment on this non-discretionary adjustment, which is required by statute, would not result in a change to the adjusted amount.
The following paragraphs describe the specific changes that are reflected in this final rule.
In paragraph (a)(4), this final rule removes “$375,000,000” and replaces it with the increased maximum amount of primary nuclear liability insurance of “$450,000,000.”
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), the NRC certifies that this final rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This final rule affects only the licensing and operation of nuclear power plants. The companies that own these plants do not fall within the scope of the definition of “small entities” set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act or the size standards established by the NRC (10 CFR 2.810).
A regulatory analysis was not prepared for this final rule because the change in the maximum amount of nuclear liability insurance is mandated by the Price-Anderson Act.
The NRC has determined that the backfit rule does not apply to this final rule. A backfit analysis is not required for this final rule because this amendment is mandated by the Price-Anderson Act.
The Plain Writing Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-274) requires Federal agencies to write documents in a clear, concise, and well-organized manner. The NRC has written this document to be consistent with the Plain Writing Act as well as the Presidential Memorandum, “Plain Language in Government Writing,” published June 10, 1998 (63 FR 31883).
The NRC has determined that this final rule is the type of action described in categorical exclusion 10 CFR 51.22(c)(1). Therefore, neither an environmental impact statement nor an environmental assessment has been prepared for this final rule.
This final rule does not contain any new or amended collections of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The NRC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the document requesting or requiring the collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
This final rule is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
Criminal penalties, Extraordinary nuclear occurrence, Insurance, Intergovernmental relations, Nuclear materials, Nuclear power plants and reactors, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble and under the authority of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended; the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended; and 5 U.S.C. 552 and 553, the NRC is adopting the following amendments to 10 CFR part 140.
Atomic Energy Act of 1954, secs. 161, 170, 223, 234 (42 U.S.C. 2201, 2210, 2273, 2282); Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, secs. 201, 202 (42 U.S.C. 5841, 5842); 44 U.S.C. 3504 note.
(a) * * *
(4) In an amount equal to the sum of $450,000,000 and the amount available as secondary financial protection (in the form of private liability insurance available under an industry retrospective rating plan providing for deferred premium charges equal to the pro rata share of the aggregate public liability claims and costs, excluding costs payment of which is not authorized by section 170o.(1)(D) of the Act, in excess of that covered by primary financial protection) for each nuclear reactor which is licensed to operate and which is designed for the production of electrical energy and has a rated capacity of 100,000 electrical kilowatts or more: Provided, however, that under such a plan for deferred premium charges for each nuclear reactor that is licensed to operate, no more than $121,255,000 with respect to any nuclear incident (plus any surcharge assessed under subsection 170o.(1)(E) of the Act) and no more than $18,963,000 per incident within one calendar year shall be charged.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Department of Energy.
Final rule.
The Department of Energy (“DOE”) publishes this final rule to adjust DOE's civil monetary penalties (“CMPs”) for inflation as mandated by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as further amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (collectively referred to herein as “the Act”). This rule adjusts CMPs within the jurisdiction of DOE to the maximum amount required by the Act.
This rule is effective December 30, 2016.
Preeti Chaudhari, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-8078.
In order to improve the effectiveness of CMPs and to maintain their deterrent effect, the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (“the Inflation Adjustment Act”), as further amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74) (“the 2015 Act”), requires Federal agencies to adjust each CMP provided by law within the jurisdiction of the agency. The 2015 Act requires agencies to adjust the level of CMPs with an initial “catch-up” adjustment through an interim final rulemaking and to make subsequent annual adjustments for inflation, notwithstanding 5 U.S.C. 553. DOE's initial catch-up adjustment interim final rule was published June 28, 2016 (81 FR 41790). DOE received no public comments in response to the interim final rule. The interim final rule is today adopted as final without amendment. The 2015 Act also provides that any increase in a CMP shall apply only to CMPs, including those whose associated violation predated such increase, which are assessed after the date the increase takes effect.
In accordance with the 2015 Act, OMB issued a guidance memorandum on the implementation of the 2017 annual adjustment pursuant to the 2015 Act.
The method of calculating CMP adjustments applied in this final rule is required by the 2015 Act. Under the 2015 Act, annual inflation adjustments subsequent to the initial catch-up adjustment are to be based on the percent change between the October Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) preceding the date of the adjustment, and the prior year's October CPI-U. Pursuant to the aforementioned OMB guidance memorandum, the adjustment multiplier for 2017 is 1.01636. In order to complete the 2017 annual adjustment, each CMP is multiplied by the 2017 adjustment multiplier. Under the 2015 Act, any increase in CMP must be rounded to the nearest multiple of $1.
The following list summarizes DOE authorities containing CMPs, and the penalties before and after adjustment.
The 2015 Act requires that annual adjustments for inflation subsequent to the initial “catch-up” adjustment be made notwithstanding 5 U.S.C. 553.
This rule has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (October 4, 1993). Accordingly, this action was not subject to review under that Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of the Office of Management and Budget.
DOE has determined that this final rule is covered under the Categorical Exclusion found in DOE's National Environmental Policy Act regulations at paragraph A5 of Appendix A to Subpart D, 10 CFR part 1021, which applies to a rulemaking that amends an existing rule or regulation and that does not change the environmental effect of the rule or regulation being amended. Accordingly, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule imposes no new information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) generally requires Federal agencies to examine closely the impacts of regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments. Section 201 excepts agencies from assessing effects on State, local or tribal governments or the private sector of rules that incorporate requirements specifically set forth in law. Because this rule incorporates requirements specifically set forth in 28 U.S.C. 2461 note, DOE is not required to assess its regulatory effects under Section 201. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act sections 202 and 205 do not apply to today's action because they apply only to rules for which a general notice of proposed rulemaking is published. Nevertheless, DOE has determined that this regulatory action does not impose a Federal mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or on the public sector.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any proposed rule that may affect family well being. This rule would not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999) imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have federalism implications. Agencies are required to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and carefully assess the necessity for such actions. DOE has examined this rule and has determined that it would not preempt State law and would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. No further action is required by Executive Order 13132.
With respect to the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996), imposes on Executive agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; and (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard and promote simplification and burden reduction. With regard to the review required by section 3(a), section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable standards in section 3(a) and section 3(b) to determine whether they are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has completed the required review and determined that, to the extent permitted by law, this rule meets the relevant standards of Executive Order 12988.
The Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001) requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to OMB, a Statement of Energy Effects for any proposed significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgated or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed significant energy action,
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will submit to Congress a report regarding the issuance of this final rule prior to the effective date set forth at the outset of this rulemaking. The report will state that it has been determined that the rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 801(2).
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this final rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Energy, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Penalties, Petroleum allocation.
Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practices and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Energy conservation, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Electric power plants, Energy conservation, Natural gas, Petroleum.
Government contracts, Grant programs, Loan programs, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Government contracts, Penalties, Radiation protection.
Government contracts, Nuclear materials, Penalties, Security measures.
Civil penalty, Hazardous substances, Occupational safety and health, Safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Fraud, Penalties.
Administrative practice and procedure, Government contracts, National Defense, Nuclear Energy, Penalties, Security measures.
Decorations, medals, awards, Foreign relations, Government employees, Government property, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, DOE amends chapters II, III, and X of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below.
15 U.S.C. 787
(c) * * * (1) Any person who violates any provision of this subpart or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $10,164 for each violation. * * *
15 U.S.C. 751
(b) * * * (1) Any person who violates any provision of this part 218 or any order issued pursuant thereto shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $22,015 for each violation.
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
Any person who knowingly violates any provision of § 429.102(a) may be subject to assessment of a civil penalty of no more than $440 for each violation. * * *
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(b) In accordance with sections 333 and 345 of the Act, any person who knowingly violates any provision of paragraph (a) of this section may be subject to assessment of a civil penalty of no more than $440 for each violation.
42 U.S.C. 7191
(a)
42 U.S.C. 7101
(c) * * * (1) Any person who violates any provisions of the Act (other than section 402) or any rule or order thereunder will be subject to the following civil penalty, which may not exceed $90,063 for each violation: Any person who operates a powerplant or major fuel burning installation under an exemption, during any 12-calendar-month period, in excess of that authorized in such exemption will be assessed a civil penalty of up to $8 for each MCF of natural gas or up to $36 for each barrel of oil used in excess of that authorized in the exemption.
31 U.S.C. 1352; 42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7256; 31 U.S.C. 6301-6308; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited herein shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $19,246 and not more than $192,459 for each such expenditure.
(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see appendix B to this part) to be filed or amended if required herein, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $19,246 and not more than $192,459 for each such failure.
(e) First offenders under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $19,246, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $19,246 and $192,459, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.
The revisions read as follows:
(3) * * *
* * * Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $19,246 and not more than $192,459 for each such failure.
* * * Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $19,246 and not more than $192,459 for each such failure.
42 U.S.C. 2201; 2282(a); 7191; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 50 U.S.C. 2410.
Any person subject to a penalty under 42 U.S.C. 2282a shall be subject to a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $201,106 for each such violation. * * *
42 U.S.C. 2201, 2282b, 7101
* * * Subsection a. provides that any person who has entered into a contract or agreement with the Department of Energy, or a subcontract or subagreement thereto, and who violates (or whose employee violates) any applicable rule, regulation or order under the Act relating to the security or safeguarding of Restricted Data or other classified information, shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $143,715 for each violation. * * *
(c) The Director may propose imposition of a civil penalty for violation of a requirement of a regulation or rule under paragraph (a) of this section or a compliance order issued under paragraph (b) of this section, not to exceed $143,715 for each violation.
42 U.S.C. 2201(i)(3), (p); 42 U.S.C. 2282c; 42 U.S.C. 5801
(a) A contractor that is indemnified under section 170d. of the AEA (or any subcontractor or supplier thereto) and that violates (or whose employee violates) any requirement of this part shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to $93,332 for each such violation. * * *
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) * * * A Severity Level I violation would be subject to a base civil penalty of up to 100% of the maximum base civil penalty of $93,332.
(2) * * * A Severity Level II violation would be subject to a base civil penalty up
(e) * * *
(1) DOE may assess civil penalties of up to $93,332 per violation per day on contractors (and their subcontractors and suppliers) that are indemnified by the Price-Anderson Act, 42 U.S.C. 2210(d).
31 U.S.C. 3801-3812; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iv) Is for payment for the provision of property or services which the person has not provided as claimed, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $10,957 for each such claim.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement, shall be subject, in addition to any other remedy that may be prescribed by law, to a civil penalty of not more than $10,957 for each such statement.
42 U.S.C. 7101
(c)
The Constitution of the United States, Article I, Section 9; 5 U.S.C. 7342; 22 U.S.C. 2694; 42 U.S.C. 7254 and 7262; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(d) * * * The court in which such action is brought may assess a civil penalty against such employee in any amount not to exceed the retail value of the gift improperly solicited or received plus $19,621.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Final rule.
The OCC is finalizing a rule to prohibit national banks and federal savings associations from dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metals.
This final rule is effective April 1, 2017.
Casey Scott Laxton, Counsel, or Margo Dey, Counsel, Securities and Corporate Practices Division, (202) 649-5510; Carl Kaminski, Special Counsel, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, (202) 649-5490; or, for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing, TTY, (202) 649-5597, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 22019.
In September 2016, the OCC issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) to prohibit national banks from dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metals.
A national bank may engage in activities that are part of, or incidental to, the business of banking under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh). Section 24(Seventh) lists several activities that are part of the business of banking; for example, it expressly provides that national banks may buy and sell exchange, coin, and bullion. In addition to these enumerated powers, section 24(Seventh) authorizes national banks to exercise all such incidental powers as shall be necessary to carry on the business of banking. National banks also are authorized to engage in any other activities not expressly enumerated in the statute that the Comptroller of the Currency
In Interpretive Letter 693,
In the NPRM, the OCC proposed to reconsider the interpretation set forth in Interpretive Letter 693.
Now, the OCC is finalizing the NPRM and revising its regulations to prohibit national banks from dealing and investing in a metal (or alloy), including copper, in a form primarily suited to industrial or commercial use (industrial or commercial metal).
The final rule also applies to FSAs. The Home Owners' Loan Act does not expressly authorize FSAs to buy or sell exchange, coin, and bullion.
The OCC received four comments on the NPRM. Two comments were from financial industry trade associations and two were from individuals. While the comments generally were supportive of the NPRM, the trade association commenters requested that the OCC confirm the permissibility of certain lending and leasing transactions involving physical metals and expressed concern about the potential impact of the rulemaking on the liquidity of the copper market. A detailed discussion of the commenters' concerns and the OCC's response follows.
Two commenters offered general views on the proposed dealing and investing prohibition for industrial and commercial metal, including copper, under the proposed rule. One was generally supportive of the NPRM's treatment of copper cathodes as an industrial and commercial metal. This commenter noted the proposal was consistent with banks' treatment of copper, as banks currently buy and sell copper based on its value for industrial and commercial purposes rather than as a store of value. The commenter also offered additional support for the rulemaking, noting that banks that own copper are exposed to large fluctuations in copper prices, encounter potential conflicts of interest between house positions and client positions, and may be able to manipulate copper markets through large physical positions. This commenter asserted that the proposed treatment is appropriate because bank copper trading activities more closely resemble commercial enterprises rather than a banking business. The commenter pointed to the PSI Report and 620 Study to support these comments.
The second commenter expressed concern that the OCC has not demonstrated a compelling reason to change its 1995 copper interpretation. The commenter argued that the reasons the OCC approved copper activities in Interpretive Letter 693 are still valid today and that the OCC should not pursue the rulemaking in the absence of a compelling need or corresponding regulatory benefit. After carefully considering these comments, the OCC continues to believe that dealing or investing in copper cathodes, and other industrial or commercial metal, is not appropriate for national banks. As the OCC explained in the NPRM, events subsequent to Interpretive Letter 693 have confirmed copper is a base metal and thus, should be distinguished from precious metals that are not held in industrial or commercial form.
The preamble to the NPRM explained that the OCC did not consider the proposed rule to prohibit national banks from buying or selling metal through a transitory title transfer entered into as part of a customer-driven financial intermediation business.
Three commenters addressed transitory title transfers. Two commenters generally supported the OCC's proposed treatment of transitory title transfers. One of these commenters agreed with the assertion in the NPRM that there is no physical possession of the metal in transitory title transfers. This commenter noted that the risks of legal liability typically associated with physical commodity positions are not present in transitory title transfers and that these transactions more closely resemble customer-driven, cash-settled commodity derivatives than physical positions. Another commenter also supported the treatment of transitory title transfers, but suggested the final rule text should limit transitory title transfers to customer-driven financial intermediation transactions that are part of the business of banking. A third commenter disagreed that transitory title transfers are different from dealing and investing in physical metal just because the bank holds the metal for a legal instant. As discussed in detail below, the OCC continues to believe that transitory title transfers do not entail physical possession of industrial and commercial metals. The OCC also notes that relevant precedent already provides that transitory title transfers must be part of a customer-driven financial intermediation business.
In addition to addressing transitory title transfers, one of the commenters also requested that the OCC confirm that interests in unallocated metal accounts are not physical holdings under the final rule. The commenter identified various activities in which national banks are engaged that could involve an interest in an unallocated metals account. The OCC notes that these activities are fact specific, and determinations about fact-specific activities need to be evaluated on a case-by-case basis. Therefore, the OCC believes it is appropriate to address the applicability of the final rule to these activities on a case-by-case basis. National banks with questions regarding the permissibility of transactions that involve unallocated metals accounts should discuss the issue with the OCC. The OCC is willing to entertain requests for such determinations, consistent with its historical practice of providing interpretive opinions in cases where there is doubt about the permissibility of particular activities.
The NPRM explained that the OCC views national banks' lending authority to include reverse repurchase agreements that are the functional and economic equivalent of secured loans.
Two commenters addressed the treatment of reverse repurchase agreements. One suggested the OCC prohibit all reverse repurchase agreements where there is commodity market or liquidity risk. This commenter wrote that a prohibition is a better approach than a facts and circumstances review in light of limited OCC resources. The other commenter asserted that OCC should confirm that these types of reverse repurchase agreements are permissible activities not affected by the rule. This commenter noted that the reuse of the collateral is a long-standing practice in asset-based financing and therefore pledging, selling, or rehypothecating metal owned under a reverse repurchase agreement should not be viewed as indicia of dealing activity.
The OCC continues to have concerns that reverse repurchase agreements that involve commodity price risk or that involve pledging, selling, or rehypothecating metal could be structured in some circumstances in a manner that constitutes dealing or investing activity. The OCC recognizes, as a commenter suggested, that banks may enter into hedges to mitigate price risk that exists at the conclusion of certain reverse repurchase agreements and may pledge collateral for the purpose of funding its customer financing activities. Structuring a transaction in these ways could, in some circumstances, reduce indicia of investing or dealing activity. However, the OCC does not believe it is appropriate to conclude that all reverse repurchase agreements that involve commodity price risk or pledging, etc. of collateral are permissible. Therefore, the OCC continues to believe that it is appropriate to evaluate reverse repurchase agreements that involve commodity price risk or pledging, etc. of collateral on a facts and circumstances basis, as appropriate. This approach will allow the OCC an opportunity to evaluate transactions in context and to consider relevant facts before reaching a determination as to whether a transaction involves dealing or investing. The OCC is therefore declining to make the changes the commenters have requested.
The proposed rule identified two incidental authorities under which
One commenter addressed the proposed treatment of nominal hedging activities. This commenter suggested that the OCC require banks to disclose hedging amounts to the OCC. This commenter also suggested that the OCC require the hedge be designed to reduce risk in order to prevent commodity speculation. The OCC notes that it monitors bank hedging activity through its regular course of bank supervision. Additionally, banks that engage in commodity hedging activities already must do so in accordance with applicable law, including requirements that the hedge be designed to reduce risk.
Another commenter asked that the OCC modify the final rule to expressly permit certain metals-based financing activities. The commenter described several metal leasing and metal consignment transactions. As explained in the NPRM and below, banks may not buy and sell industrial or commercial metal for the purposes of dealing or investing in that metal. However, banks may continue to buy and sell industrial or commercial metal under other incidental authorities that do not involve dealing or investing. To the extent a bank proposes to engage in a metals-based transaction that presents an interpretive issue(s) under the authorities provided for in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), the OCC will address permissibility on a facts and circumstances basis. The OCC may issue interpretive analysis, as appropriate.
The OCC solicited comment in the NPRM on the treatment of existing holdings of industrial and commercial metals. Specifically, the OCC asked whether five years to divest non-conforming assets, with the possibility of a five-year extension, would be an appropriate period of time. The OCC also asked whether there were compelling reasons to grandfather existing industrial and commercial metal holdings indefinitely.
Two commenters addressed the issue of existing holdings of industrial and commercial metal. One commenter argued industrial and commercial metal held before the conformance date should be grandfathered because doing so would limit negative effects on copper markets and bank customers. This commenter also asked that the text of the rule include a minimum of five years to conform to the prohibition, arguing this would minimize the impact of the rule. Another commenter did not support allowing the banks additional time to divest their physical metals holdings.
National banks do not currently engage in significant dealing or investing activities in relation to physical industrial and commercial metal. Nor do national banks currently hold significant stores of industrial and commercial metal. Therefore, the OCC finds no compelling reason to grandfather existing activities. However, the OCC does believe that a short divestiture period would be appropriate. Given national banks' limited industrial and commercial metal activities, the OCC concludes that a full five-year divestiture period is not necessary. The OCC is therefore including a provision in the final rule that requires national banks to divest existing holdings of industrial and commercial metal acquired through dealing or investing activities as soon as practicable, but not later than one year from the effective date of the rule.
Three commenters discussed the impact of the proposed rule. Two commenters noted, very generally, that they expect the rule to increase cost for customers if finalized as proposed. One of these commenters also suggested the proposal would have a negative impact on the copper market as a whole, asserting that the costs of the rule will not be minimal. This commenter also argued there would be no regulatory benefit to this prohibition. Another commenter said the NPRM would reduce financial risk and conflicts of interests for banks while also allowing the OCC to impose limits on copper and other industrial and commercial metals.
As noted above, national banks do not currently engage in significant dealing or investing activities in relation to physical industrial and commercial metal. Because these markets tend to be highly competitive, we expect that the removal of OCC-supervised institutions as just one class of potential investors/dealers will not have a material effect on these markets. Furthermore, as explained in more detail below, national banks may continue to buy and sell industrial and commercial metal under certain incidental authorities. The OCC expects these limited permissible activities will allow banks to continue to serve customers with interests in commercial and industrial metals in capacities that do not involve dealing or investing activities.
As noted above, the National Bank Act authorizes national banks to buy and sell exchange, coin, and bullion. In this final rule, the OCC is interpreting these terms to exclude metals in a form primarily suited to industrial or commercial use.
Banking Circular 58 (BC-58)
Interpretive letters published after BC-58 interpreted national banks' authority to buy coin and bullion to include other precious metals, namely platinum and palladium. Consistent with BC-58's definition of “coin,” the OCC in 1987 found that legal tender platinum coins held for their metallic value were “coin.”
However, other interpretive letters recognized that not every precious metal is coin or bullion. Jewelry, the OCC determined, is not.
The OCC has long concluded that “exchange, coin, and bullion” does not encompass industrial or commercial metal. The OCC believes this conclusion is consistent with the National Bank Act and current market practice. For example, in the mid-19th century, when Congress passed the National Bank Act, “bullion” meant metal suitable for coining, not metal suitable for making wires.
• Trade in troy ounces or grams rather than metric tons;
• Trade in pure forms;
• Trade in a form suitable for coining;
• Trade as precious metals in the world's major organized markets, including the London bullion markets; and
• Are considered currency by the International Organization for Standardization.
Gold, silver, platinum, and palladium in industrial or commercial form are not exchange, coin, or bullion.
Interpretive Letter 693 concluded that national banks could buy and sell copper (including industrial copper) as a part of or incidental to the business of banking. The OCC has reviewed the bases for the conclusion in Interpretive Letter 693 that buying and selling industrial copper is part of the business of banking, including developments in copper markets that followed this letter. For the following reasons, the OCC has determined that buying and selling copper—or any other metal—in industrial or commercial form for the purpose of dealing or investing in that metal is not part of the business of banking.
When the OCC issued Interpretive Letter 693 in 1995, the agency noted increasing similarity between transactions involving copper and those transactions already conducted by national banks with respect to gold, silver, platinum and palladium (precious metals). This increasing similarity informed the OCC's view at that time that buying and selling copper, including dealing and investing, was part of, or incidental to, the business of banking. However, copper markets have not increased in similarity to precious metal markets.
The OCC believes that dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metals, including base and precious metals in this form, is not the functional equivalent of dealing or investing in coin and bullion. The paradigmatic example of functional equivalence is that a lease is in economic substance a secured loan.
The OCC has also considered other factors identified in relevant precedent for determining whether dealing in or investing in industrial or commercial metal is part of the business of banking.
As described above, under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), a national bank has the power to exercise all such incidental powers as shall be necessary to carry on the business of banking. An activity is incidental to the business of banking if it is convenient or useful to an activity that is part of the business of banking.
The OCC believes that dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metal is not incidental to the business of banking. Some customers may wish to trade industrial or commercial metal with national banks. However, because few banks buy or sell industrial or commercial metal in the ordinary course of business, it does not appear that dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metal significantly enhances national banks' ability to offer banking products and services, including those related to precious metals. Moreover, dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metal does not appear to enable national banks to use capacity acquired for banking operations or otherwise avoid economic loss or waste. Therefore, the OCC concludes national banks may not deal or invest in industrial or commercial metal under their incidental powers.
National banks do have incidental authority to buy and sell industrial or commercial metal in limited cases. Buying or selling industrial or commercial metal could be incidental to lending activities. For example, a mining company could post a copper cathode as collateral for a loan. Pursuant to the national bank's authority to acquire property in satisfaction of debt previously contracted, the bank could seize and then sell the copper to mitigate loan losses if the borrower defaulted.
Similarly, national banks may buy and sell industrial or commercial metal as part of their leasing business. 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh); 12 U.S.C. 24(Tenth); 12 CFR 23.4. A car, for example, contains metal in a commercial form, but buying a car to lease it is not dealing or investing in commercial metal. Rather, a lease, like a reverse repurchase transaction, is a secured loan in a different form. National banks may also buy and sell industrial or commercial metals to install pipes and electrical wiring in their physical premises. 12 U.S.C. 29(First); 12 CFR 7.1000. This activity is clearly not dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metal.
In certain situations, national banks may buy and sell industrial and commercial metal as reverse repurchase agreements that are the functional and economic equivalent of secured loans.
The final rule does not prohibit national banks from buying and selling metal through transitory title transfers entered into as part of a customer-driven financial intermediation business.
The final rule prohibits banks from dealing or investing in industrial or commercial metal. However, in response to a request from a commenter, the final rule provides a divestiture period for banks that acquired industrial or commercial metal through dealing or investing in that metal before the effective date of the rule.
This divestiture period is generally consistent with the OCC's approach to other nonconforming assets. Banks with questions about the permissibility of activities or holdings involving industrial or commercial metal should ask the OCC for a review of the specific holding or activity.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, an information collection unless the information collection displays a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. This final rule does not introduce any new collections of information, therefore, it does not require a submission to OMB.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
As of December 31, 2015, the OCC supervised 1,032 small entities.
Therefore, the OCC certifies that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of OCC-supervised small entities.
The OCC analyzed the final rule under the factors set forth in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1532). Under this analysis, the
Although the final rule would apply to all OCC-supervised institutions, very few of these institutions are currently involved in activities involving dealing or investing in copper or other metals in a physical form primarily suited to commercial or industrial use.
While the final rule may prevent OCC-supervised institutions from realizing potential gains from prohibited investments in physical metals, the rule also may protect them from realizing potential losses from investments in physical metals. The OCC is not able to estimate these potential gains or losses because they will depend on future fluctuations in the prices of the various physical metals. However, the OCC does expect OCC-supervised institutions to be able to achieve comparable returns in alternative non-prohibited investment opportunities. Thus, the OCC estimates that the opportunity cost of the final rule will be near zero.
The final rule may impose one-time costs on affected institutions with respect to the disposal of current physical metal inventory that a bank may not deal in or invest in under the rule. This cost will depend to some extent on the amount of physical metal inventory that affected institutions must dispose of. Given the divestiture period in the final rule, a gradual sell-off should not affect market prices and the affected institutions would receive fair value for their metals. Under these circumstances, the OCC estimates that the disposal costs will also be minimal.
Finally, by establishing that buying and selling physical metal in commercial or industrial form is generally not part of the business of banking, the rule implies that customers of OCC-supervised institutions will have to identify another reliable source of supply of physical metals and that OCC-supervised institutions will be less able to compete with non-bank metals dealers. Given how technology has made the physical metals markets more accessible, the OCC expects bank customers will face minimal costs associated with identifying another supplier of physical metals. The OCC also expects that losing the ability to compete with non-bank metal dealers will not significantly detract from the strength of OCC-supervised institutions, especially given that the final rule would recognize several business-of-banking incidental exceptions to the prohibition on buying and selling physical metal. These permissible activities should enable OCC-supervised institutions to continue to provide metals related services to bank customers that do not involve dealing or investing in commercial and industrial metals.
For the reasons described above, the OCC has determined that the final rule would not result in expenditures by state, local, and Tribal governments, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more. Accordingly, the OCC has not prepared a written statement to accompany the final rule.
Banks, banking, Computer technology, Credit, Federal savings associations, Insurance, Investments, Metals, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities, Surety bonds.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, OCC amends 12 CFR part 7 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 1
(a) In this section,
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a) In this section,
(b) Federal savings associations may not deal or invest in industrial or commercial metal.
(c)
(d)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; correction.
The FAA is correcting an airworthiness directive (AD) that published in the
This final rule is effective January 20, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of January 20, 2017 (81 FR 90955, December 16, 2016).
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Fnu Winarto, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6659; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
Airworthiness Directive 2016-25-02 (81 FR 90955, December 16, 2016), requires installing markers to limit the hydraulic system fluid used to a specific brand, doing hydraulic fluid tests of the hydraulic systems, replacing hydraulic system fluid if necessary, and doing all applicable related investigative and corrective actions for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes.
As published, the amendment number specified in the preamble and regulatory text is incorrect. The incorrectly specified number was Amendment 39-18725; the correct number is Amendment 39-18728.
We have reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016. This service information describes procedures for installing markers to limit the hydraulic system fluid used to a specific brand, doing hydraulic fluid tests of the hydraulic systems, replacing the hydraulic system fluid if necessary, and related investigative and corrective actions. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This document corrects an error and correctly adds the AD as an amendment to 14 CFR 39.13. Although no other part of the preamble or regulatory information has been corrected, we are publishing the entire rule in the
The effective date of this AD remains January 20, 2017.
Since this action only corrects an amendment number, it has no adverse economic impact and imposes no additional burden on any person. Therefore, we have determined that notice and public procedures are unnecessary.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the Federal Aviation Administration amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 20, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Control Systems.
This AD was prompted by reports of the accumulation of very fine particle deposits in the power control unit (PCU) electro-hydraulic servo valves (EHSVs) used in the flight control system; this accumulation caused degraded performance due to reduced EHSV internal hydraulic supply pressures, resulting in the display of PCU fault status messages from the engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS). We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of flight control hydraulic PCUs, which could lead to reduced controllability of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, install markers to allow servicing
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016, refers to Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290022-00, Issue 001, dated September 4, 2014, as an additional source of guidance for installing markers to allow servicing of hydraulic systems with only HyJet V hydraulic fluid.
Task 1, Figure 1, and Task 2, Figure 1, of Boeing Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB290022-00, Issue 001, dated September 4, 2014, identify P/N 710Z7290-9##ALT1 for the left and right engine diagonal braces; however, the correct P/N is 710Z7290-9 with no ##ALT suffix.
For airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016, as Group 1, Configuration 2, Group 2: Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, do hydraulic fluid tests of the left, right, and center hydraulic systems, replace the hydraulic system fluid, if necessary, and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions within 36 months after the effective date of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 001, dated November 25, 2014.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(3)(i) and (j)(3)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(4) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Fnu Winarto, Aerospace Engineer, Systems and Equipment Branch, ANM-130S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6659; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (l)(4) and (l)(5) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on January 20, 2017 (81 FR 90955, December 16, 2016).
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB270026-00, Issue 002, dated June 13, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding airworthiness directive (AD) 2016-04-12, that applies to certain Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. (formerly Turbomeca S.A.) Arriel 2B, 2B1, 2C, 2C1, 2C2, 2D, 2E, 2S1, and 2S2 turboshaft engines. AD 2016-04-12 required spectrometric oil analysis (SOA) inspection of the engine accessory gearbox (AGB), and, depending on the results, removal of the engine AGB. This AD requires initial and repetitive wear inspections of the engine AGB cover. This AD was prompted by a report of an uncommanded in-flight shutdown (IFSD) of an Arriel 2S2 engine caused by rupture of the 41-tooth gear, which forms part of the bevel gear in the engine AGB. We are issuing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective February 3, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of February 3, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: 33 0 5 59 74 40 00; fax: 33 0 5 59 74 45 15. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125. It is also available on the Internet at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2016-04-12, Amendment 39-18406 (81 FR 12583, March 10, 2016), (“AD 2016-04-12”). AD 2016-04-12 applied to the specified products. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (81 FR 39601, June 17, 2016).
Since we issued AD 2016-04-12, the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) has issued MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2016-0055R1, dated October 11, 2016, to only specify that periodic wear inspections of the engine AGB cover are necessary. This AD removes the proposed requirements for initial and repetitive SOA of the AGB, which reduces the costs of compliance in this AD.
Also since we issued AD 2016-04-12, Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. has issued Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 292 72 2861, Version D, dated September 23, 2016. The MSB only requires performing periodic wear inspections of the engine AGB cover.
We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously. We determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. has issued MSB No. 292 72 2861, Version D, dated September 23, 2016. The MSB describes procedures for performing periodic wear inspections of the engine AGB cover. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 250 engines installed on helicopters of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take 1 hour to perform the engine AGB cover wear inspection. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. Required parts for the wear inspection cost about $3,100 per engine. We estimate that 5 engines will require AGB replacement at a cost of $44,397 per engine. We also estimate that it will take about 2 hours to replace the engine AGB. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $1,019,085.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends part 39 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR part 39) as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective February 3, 2017.
This AD supersedes AD 2016-04-12, Amendment 39-18406 (81 FR 12583, March 10, 2016).
This AD applies to Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. Arriel 2B, 2B1, 2C, 2C1, 2C2, 2D, 2E, 2S1, and 2S2 turboshaft engines with an engine accessory gearbox (AGB), part number 0292120650, with a machined front casing.
This AD was prompted by a report of an uncommanded in-flight shutdown (IFSD) of an Arriel 2S2 engine caused by rupture of the 41-tooth gear, which forms part of the bevel gear in the engine AGB. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the engine AGB, uncommanded IFSD, damage to the engine, and damage to the helicopter.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Initial Wear Inspection
(i) For all affected engines, perform a wear inspection of the engine AGB cover before the engine AGB, module M01, exceeds 850 engine hours (EH) since new or since last overhaul (SLO), or within 50 EHs after April 14, 2016, or before the next flight after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs latest.
(ii) Reserved.
(2) Repetitive Wear Inspection Intervals
(i) For Arriel 2E engines, repeat the engine AGB cover wear inspection within every 800 EH since last inspection (SLI).
(ii) For all affected engines, except for Arriel 2E engines, repeat the engine AGB cover wear inspection within every 600 EH SLI.
(3) Inspection Criteria
(i) Use paragraph 2.4.2 of Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) No. 292 72 2861, Version D, dated September 23, 2016, to do the inspections required by paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this AD.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) Corrective Actions Based on the Results of the Most Recent Wear Inspection
(i) If the wear measured from the most recent wear inspection is 0.15 mm or less, no further action is required. However, you must still comply with the repetitive inspection requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this AD.
(ii) If the most recent wear inspection was performed while the engine was in service, and the wear is greater than 0.15 mm, do the following:
(A) If the wear measured from the most recent wear inspection is greater than 0.15 mm, but 0.30 mm or less, remove the engine AGB from service within 200 EH SLI and replace with a part eligible for installation.
(B) If the wear measured from the most recent wear inspection is greater than 0.30 mm, but 0.40 mm or less, remove the engine AGB from service within 25 EH SLI and replace with a part eligible for installation.
(C) If the wear measured from the most recent wear inspection is greater than 0.40 mm, remove the engine AGB from service before further flight and replace with a part eligible for installation.
(iii) If the most recent wear inspection was performed on the engine during an engine shop visit, and the wear is greater than 0.15 mm, remove the engine AGB before further flight and replace with a part eligible for installation.
If you have previously performed a wear inspection of the engine AGB cover prior to the effective date of this AD in accordance with the instructions given in Turbomeca MSB No. 292 72 2861, Version C, dated March 9, 2016, or Turbomeca MSB No. 292 72 2861, Version B, dated February 2, 2016, then you may take credit for that wear inspection as the “most recent” wear inspection for the purposes of paragraph (e)(4) of this AD.
For the purpose of this AD, an engine shop visit is defined as the induction of an engine into the shop for maintenance involving the separation of any major mating engine flanges, except that the separation of engine flanges solely for the purposes of transportation without subsequent engine maintenance does not constitute an engine shop visit.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2016-0055R1, dated October 11, 2016, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. Mandatory Service Bulletin No. 292 72 2861, Version D, dated September 23, 2016.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. service information identified in this AD, contact Safran Helicopter Engines, S.A. 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: 33 0 5 59 74 40 00; fax: 33 0 5 59 74 45 15.
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
(5) You may view this service information at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule; extension of compliance date.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is extending the compliance date for the final rule requiring disclosure of certain nutrition information for standard menu items in certain restaurants and retail food establishments. The final rule appeared in the
Ashley Rulffes, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-820), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-2371, email:
In the
• Defines terms, including terms that describe criteria for determining whether an establishment is subject to the rule;
• establishes which foods are subject to the nutrition labeling requirements and which foods are not subject to these requirements;
• requires that calories for standard menu items be declared on menus and menu boards that list such foods for sale;
• requires that calories for standard menu items that are self-service or on display be declared on signs adjacent to such foods;
• requires that written nutrition information for standard menu items be available to consumers who ask to see it;
• requires, on menus and menu boards, a succinct statement concerning suggested daily caloric intake (succinct statement), designed to help the public understand the significance of the calorie declarations;
• requires, on menus and menu boards, a statement regarding the availability of the written nutrition information (statement of availability);
• establishes requirements for determination of nutrient content of standard menu items;
• establishes requirements for substantiation of nutrient content determined for standard menu items, including requirements for records that a covered establishment must make available to FDA within a reasonable period of time upon request; and
• establishes terms and conditions under which restaurants and similar retail food establishments not otherwise subject to the rule could elect to be subject to the requirements by registering with FDA.
In the preamble to the final rule (79 FR 71156 at 71239 through 71241), we stated that the rule would be effective on December 1, 2015, and also provided a compliance date of December 1, 2015, for covered establishments. The final rule (at § 101.11(a)) defines “covered establishment” as a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is a part of a chain with 20 or more locations doing business under the same name (regardless of the type of ownership,
In the
On December 18, 2015, the President signed the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016 (Pub. L. 114-113). Section 747 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act states that none of the funds made available under the Consolidated Appropriations Act may be used to implement, administer, or enforce the final rule entitled “Food Labeling; Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments” until 1 year after the date we publish a Level 1 guidance with respect to nutrition labeling of standard menu items in restaurants and similar retail food establishments.
In the
Therefore, through this final rule, we are clarifying and confirming that the compliance date for the final rule entitled “Food Labeling; Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments,” codified at § 101.11, is May 5, 2017.
We have examined the impacts of the final rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). We have developed a comprehensive Economic Analysis of Impacts that assesses the impacts of the final rule. We believe that this final rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires Agencies to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because this rule provides more flexibility by further extending the compliance date for the “Food Labeling: Nutrition Labeling of Standard Menu Items in Restaurants and Similar Retail Food Establishments” final rule (79 FR 71156) (menu labeling final rule), we certify that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before issuing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $146 million, using the most current (2015) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This final rule would not result in an expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.
This rule extends the compliance date of the menu labeling final rule by approximately 5 months: From December 1, 2016, to May 5, 2017. The estimated costs and benefits accrued in any given year that the menu labeling rule is in effect, relative to the first year of compliance, does not change; however, because the compliance date is being extended by 5 months, the discounted value of both total costs and total benefits decreases. The principal benefit of this final rule will be the reduction in costs associated with extending the compliance date by 5 months. The principal cost of this final rule will be the reduction in benefits associated with extending the compliance date by 5 months. Extending the compliance date of the menu labeling final rule by 5 months reduces the annualized net benefits (discounted at 3 percent) approximately 3 percent, from $457 million to $442
The full analysis of economic impacts is available in the docket for this final rule (Ref. 1) and at
This final rule contains no collection of information. Therefore, clearance by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 is not required.
We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(k) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
The following reference is on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and is available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; it is also available electronically at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is issuing a final order to reclassify pedicle screw systems, a preamendments class III device (regulated under product code NKB), into class II (special controls), renaming the device “thoracolumbosacral pedicle screw systems”; reclassify dynamic stabilization systems, a subtype of pedicle screw systems regulated under product code NQP when used as an adjunct to fusion, into class II (special controls), renaming this device subtype “semi-rigid systems”; and clarify the device identification of pedicle screw systems to more clearly delineate between rigid pedicle screw systems and semi-rigid systems. FDA is finalizing this action based on a reevaluation of information pertaining to the device type.
This order is effective on December 30, 2016. See further discussion in section V, “Implementation Strategy.”
Constance P. Soves, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1437, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6951,
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Medical Device Amendments of 1976 (the 1976 amendments) (Pub. L. 94-295), the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-629), the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (Pub. L. 105-115), the Medical Device User Fee and Modernization Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-250), the Medical Devices Technical Corrections Act (Pub. L. 108-214), the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007 (Pub. L. 110-85), and the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144), among other amendments, established a comprehensive system for the regulation of medical devices intended for human use. Section 513 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c) established three categories (classes) of devices, reflecting the regulatory controls needed to provide reasonable assurance of their safety and effectiveness. The three categories of devices are class I (general controls), class II (special controls), and class III (premarket approval).
Under section 513(d) of the FD&C Act, devices that were in commercial distribution before the enactment of the 1976 amendments, May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as preamendments devices), are classified after FDA has: (1) Received a recommendation from a device classification panel (an FDA advisory committee); (2) published the panel's recommendation for comment, along with a proposed regulation classifying the device; and (3) published a final regulation classifying the device. FDA has classified most preamendments devices under these procedures.
Devices that were not in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as “postamendments devices”) are automatically classified by section 513(f) of the FD&C Act into class III without any FDA rulemaking process. Those devices remain in class III and require premarket approval unless, and until, the device is reclassified into class I or II or FDA issues an order finding the device to be substantially equivalent, in accordance with section 513(i) of the FD&C Act, to a predicate device that does not require premarket approval. The Agency determines whether new devices are substantially equivalent to predicate devices by means of premarket notification procedures in section 510(k) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360(k)) and part 807 (21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 807).
A preamendments device that has been classified into class III and devices found substantially equivalent by means of premarket notification (510(k)) procedures to such a preamendments device or to a device within that type (both the preamendments and substantially equivalent devices are referred to as preamendments class III devices) may be marketed without submission of a premarket approval application (PMA) until FDA issues a final order under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e(b)) requiring premarket approval.
Under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA has the authority to issue an administrative order revising the proposed classification of a device for which FDA has classified as a class III device and for which no administrative order has been issued calling for PMAs under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act, so that the device is classified into class I or class II, after issuance of a proposed order, a meeting of a device classification panel, and consideration of the comments of a proposed order. In determining whether to revise the proposed classification of a device or to require a device to remain in class III, FDA applies the criteria set forth in section 513(a) of the FD&C Act. Section 513(a)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act defines class II devices as those devices for which the general controls in section 513(a)(1)(A) by themselves are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, but for which there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of a device.
On July 9, 2012, FDASIA was enacted. Section 608(a) of FDASIA amended section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, changing the mechanism for reclassifying a device from rulemaking to an administrative order.
Section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may, by administrative order, reclassify a device based upon “new information.” FDA can initiate a reclassification under section 513(e) or an interested person may petition FDA to reclassify a preamendments device. The term “new information,” as used in section 513(e), includes information developed as a result of a reevaluation of the data before the Agency when the device was originally classified, as well as information not presented, not available, or not developed at that time. (See,
Reevaluation of the data previously before the Agency is an appropriate basis for subsequent action where the reevaluation is made in light of newly available authority (see
FDA relies upon “valid scientific evidence” in the classification process to determine the level of regulation for devices. To be considered in the reclassification process, the “valid scientific evidence” upon which the Agency relies must be publicly available. Publicly available information excludes trade secret and/or confidential commercial information,
Section 513(e)(1) of the FD&C Act sets forth the process for issuing a final reclassification order. Specifically, prior to the issuance of a final order reclassifying a device, the following must occur: (1) Publication of a proposed order in the
FDA published a proposed order to propose different classifications for rigid pedicle screw systems and semi-rigid systems (SRSs) in the
Pedicle screw systems consist of multiple component devices made from a variety of materials that allow the surgeon to build an implant system to fit the patient's anatomical and physiological requirements. Such a spinal implant assembly may consist of a combination of hooks, screws, longitudinal members (
Since the 1998 classification (63 FR 40025, July 27, 1998), changes in technological characteristics have occurred, leading to the emergence of a new type of pedicle screw system, SRSs, previously referred to as dynamic stabilization systems (DSSs). SRSs are a subset of the pedicle screw systems regulated under § 888.3070 (21 CFR 888.3070). SRSs are defined as systems that contain one or more non-uniform and/or non-metallic longitudinal elements (
In the 2014 Proposed Order, FDA proposed to modify the identification language from the way it is presently written in § 888.3070(a) and sought comments on the means of providing distinction between rigid pedicle screw systems and pedicle screw systems that allow more motion or flexibility. As discussed in section III, FDA received several comments suggesting that § 888.3070 separate SRSs, which may allow for more flexibility than traditional rigid pedicle screw systems but still facilitate fusion, from truly “dynamic” systems that are intended for non-fusion use. Truly dynamic systems intended for non-fusion use are postamendments devices that are outside the scope of this regulatory action. FDA agrees with these comments and has modified the identification language from the way it is presently written in § 888.3070(a) to include SRSs.
FDA has also, on its own initiative, renamed “pedicle screw spinal system” as “thoracolumbosacral pedicle screw system” to clearly distinguish these devices from posterior cervical screw systems, which are not intended to be covered by § 888.3070.
In response to the 2014 Proposed Order, FDA received 15 comments from industry, trade organizations, professional societies, and individuals. Certain comments are grouped together under a single number because the subject matter of the comments is similar. The number assigned to each comment is purely for organizational purposes and does not signify the comment's value or importance or the order in which it was submitted. The comments that follow are grouped into those that pertain to rigid pedicle screw systems and those that pertain to SRSs.
Of the 15 comments received, several specifically referenced the proposal to reclassify rigid pedicle screw systems when intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of degenerative disc disease (DDD) and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment). Some commenters agreed with the recommendation to reclassify these as class II devices (special controls), most of whom specifically stated that they agreed with the Agency that general and special controls can provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of rigid pedicle screw systems.
(Comment 1) Some commenters did not agree with the proposal to reclassify rigid pedicle screw systems to class II (special controls). One comment stated that labeling special controls are not appropriate risk mitigations and that clinical data should be required for these devices. Another comment noted that adverse events have been identified for rigid pedicle screw systems, and the final comment noted varied results in clinical literature, specifically citing a 1990 study by Matsuzaki et al. that found a 5.7 percent screw breakage rate (Ref. 1).
(Response 1) FDA disagrees that rigid pedicle screw systems for treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment) should remain in class III. The Agency believes the labeling special controls proposed to inform users of the technological features of the device (including identification of device materials and the principles of device operation), intended use and indications for use (including levels of fixation), identification of magnetic resonance compatibility status, cleaning and sterilization instructions, and detailed instructions of each surgical step (including device removal) are appropriate to help mitigate the identified risks to health that may result from improper use of rigid pedicle screw systems. The Agency does not believe clinical data are necessary for rigid pedicle screw systems indicated for treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment). Clinical data from use of rigid pedicle screw systems for these indications were presented to the 2013 Panel to support reclassification to class II. Furthermore, non-clinical methods used to evaluate these devices have been demonstrated to adequately mitigate risks to health. FDA still retains the ability to request appropriate performance testing, including clinical data for individual devices with a different indication for use and/or different technological features that do not raise different questions of safety and effectiveness as compared to a predicate device, to demonstrate that the individual devices are as safe and effective as the predicate device, if necessary. FDA acknowledges that rigid pedicle screw systems, like all medical devices, have risks to health, as evidenced by the adverse events noted by one commenter, and the breakage rate identified in the 1990 Matsuzaki et al. study cited by another commenter (Ref. 1). On May 22, 2013, FDA held the 2013 Panel meeting to discuss the current classification of rigid pedicle screw systems for treatment of degenerative disc disease and spondylolisthesis other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment, which are currently class III indications (Ref. 2). FDA is not aware of evidence that indicates there is a higher rate of screw fracture for the class III indications, which is the focus of this reclassification effort, compared to the class II indications. The 2013 Panel discussed the adverse events and clinical literature associated with rigid pedicle screw systems for all indications, and recommended that traditional, rigid pedicle screw systems as an adjunct to fusion for the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis other than severe grades 3 or 4, or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment be reclassified as class II (special controls).
FDA agrees with the 2013 Panel's recommendation for reclassification. The Agency believes, as stated in the 2014 Proposed Order, that the risks of rigid pedicle screw systems as an adjunct to fusion for the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis other than severe grades 3 or 4, or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment, are sufficiently understood based on valid scientific evidence, which enables FDA to establish special controls to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of rigid pedicle screw systems.
(Comment 2) One commenter provided an additional recommendation for the identification language for rigid pedicle screw systems. Specifically, to more completely characterize components that may be used as a part of these systems, the commenter suggested adding sublaminar wires and cables to the list of components of these systems.
(Response 2) FDA disagrees with this proposed edit to the identification language. These additional components, while often used in conjunction with pedicle screw systems, are classified under a separate classification regulation and, therefore, are not appropriate to include under § 888.3070. However, in review of this information, FDA acknowledges that hooks (currently listed in the identification language for pedicle screw systems) are also classified under a separate classification regulation. Therefore, the Agency has also taken the opportunity to remove “hooks” from the revised identification language for rigid pedicle screw systems.
(Comment 3) One commenter recommended removing design characteristics as a special control because this should be a requirement of all premarket notifications. This commenter also recommended removing the word “rigid” from the identification.
(Response 3) FDA disagrees with the recommendation of this commenter to remove design characteristics as a special control. FDA considers this special control critical to help differentiate technological features for rigid pedicle screw systems from SRSs. Similarly, inclusion of the word “rigid” in the identification language is necessary to distinguish between these and SRSs.
(Comment 4) One commenter recommended revising the biocompatibility special control to state “compliance with biocompatibility standards.”
(Response 4) FDA disagrees with this comment and has determined that it is most appropriate not to reference consensus standards within special controls because relevant standards are subject to change over time. The special controls as worded allow for additional mechanisms by which manufacturers can meet the requirements to ensure conformity.
(Comment 5) One commenter recommended removing “wear” from the list of potential means by which a device could fail.
(Response 5) The risk of wear was raised at the 2013 Panel, specifically in the context of SRSs. FDA still considers there to be a potential for wear in traditional rigid systems as well and, therefore, has elected not to modify the definition of device failure accordingly.
(Comment 6) One commenter suggested editorial revisions to the risks and descriptive text associated with risks as outlined in the 2014 Proposed Order.
(Response 6) These edits were not considered to substantively change the intended meaning of the risks and associated mitigations and, therefore, FDA will not accept these suggested edits in this final order.
(Comment 7) One commenter provided several proposed edits that would impact § 888.3070(b)(1). Additionally, this commenter provided other editorial recommendations to the language from the 2014 Proposed Order.
(Response 7) While FDA agrees with the proposed modifications that would impact § 888.3070(b)(1), these will require a separate regulatory action because this section of the regulation is outside the scope of the call for information under section 515(i) of the FD&C Act. Edits that were proposed to the language from the 2014 Proposed Order did not materially impact the language within this final order.
In reviewing the 2014 Proposed Order, the comments received, and the 2013 Panel's recommendations, FDA is also making minor modifications to the identification for thoracolumbosacral pedicle screw systems. The identification for rigid pedicle screw systems will be revised from “longitudinal members (
In the 2014 Proposed Order, FDA solicited comments to revise the identification language for pedicle screw spinal systems to distinguish between rigid pedicle screw systems and DSSs (now termed SRSs).
(Comment 8) While most commenters did not specifically comment on the proposed up-classification of SRSs to class III, approximately half of the comments suggested revisions to the definition of SRSs. These suggestions propose separating SRSs, which may allow for more flexibility than traditional rigid pedicle screw systems but still facilitate fusion, from truly “dynamic” systems that are intended for non-fusion use. Truly dynamic systems are postamendments devices that are outside the scope of this regulatory action.
(Response 8) FDA agrees with these comments and will henceforth refer to these systems as SRSs in this final order under § 880.3070(b)(3).
(Comment 9) Several commenters provided alternative identification language to FDA's initially proposed definition of DSSs, now termed SRSs, which was as follows: “Dynamic stabilization systems are defined as systems that contain one or more non-uniform and/or non-metallic longitudinal elements (
(Response 9) In response to these comments, FDA has revised this identification to remove reference to “non-metallic” components and has also captured devices with less stiff materials (
In the 2014 Proposed Order, which was issued pursuant to sections 513(e)(1) and 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA initially recommended that SRSs be classified into class III and require PMAs. Some commenters agreed with FDA's class III recommendation and other commenters proposed that SRSs be classified into class II.
(Comment 10) One comment agreed that SRSs for non-fusion uses should remain in class III, but SRSs used as an adjunct to fusion should be classified as class II. The commenter described that “[w]e believe that this matter arose after two [SRS] products from two different manufacturers were recalled in 2008 and 2009. These two recalled devices created FDA concern over the entire category of [SRS], calling into question whether preclinical testing alone is sufficient to predict clinical outcomes for these devices. Other SRSs have not been recalled, nor are there significant safety concerns with these other [SRSs].” Another commenter conducted a Medical Device Reporting (MDR)
Commenters specifically recommend that PEEK, or carbon-fiber reinforced PEEK, should remain in class II. This is based on several reported studies that demonstrate similarities in safety profiles and effectiveness outcomes for these devices as compared to devices incorporating traditional metallic rods, as also described previously in Comment 9 (Refs. 3 to 5). Two non-clinical literature articles provided in response to the proposed order demonstrate similar behavior between systems with PEEK rods and those with titanium rods.
Commenters also provided references to clinical studies using SRSs (Refs. 7 to 9). Each of these studies demonstrates fusion rates within a range deemed to be clinically acceptable in single- or multilevel posterolateral fusion using PEEK rod constructs.
(Response 10) Based on these comments to the proposed order and to corroborate findings from the literature following the 2013 Panel meeting, FDA conducted an additional MDR analysis of SRSs excluding the two recalled systems, as well as an MDR analysis of PEEK rods alone.
A search of the Manufacturer and User Facility Device Experience database was conducted to identify the relevant MDRs and identify the types of adverse events reported for pedicle screw spinal systems on or before October 17, 2016. Results from this MDR analysis demonstrated that the same types of adverse events are present in the same relative incidence for SRS devices as noted in traditional rigid pedicle screw systems (
FDA additionally conducted an independent survey of literature published after the 2013 Panel related to the use of SRSs as an adjunct to fusion to assess current surgical practice and reported treatment outcome. FDA's literature search captured the articles identified previously in the comments as well as articles pertaining to additional SRS designs that have been cleared for marketing in the United States (Refs. 10 and 11). While only a subset of the 16 SRSs that have currently been determined to be substantially equivalent are represented in the literature, a wide range of currently cleared SRS designs is represented by this subset. The data demonstrated similar safety profiles for SRSs compared to traditional rigid pedicle screw systems. The adverse events reported in the literature for SRSs are similar to those cited in the Executive Summary for the 2013 Panel Meeting for traditional rigid pedicle screw systems used in currently class III indications that we proposed to reclassify to Class II rods (Ref. 2). Typical adverse events included pseudarthrosis, reoperation, screw loosening, and screw breakage. There were no reports of breakage of the longitudinal members of any of the SRSs studied.
The fusion rates of SRSs compare favorably to fusion rates of traditional systems for treatment of low-grade spondylolisthesis and DDD, which range from 78 to 100 percent and which the 2013 Panel deemed to be clinically acceptable to support reclassification for these indications (see the 2013 Panel Executive Summary for additional information (Ref. 2)). Based upon the currently available information, FDA agrees with the Panel's assessment that a fusion rate within the range of 78 to 100 percent would be clinically acceptable. Although the information presented to the 2013 Panel was limited in both the number of subjects and the number of SRSs represented, additional information that FDA received and considered after the 2013 Panel meeting supports FDA's determination that there is sufficient information to revise the proposed classification of SRSs from class III to II. FDA believes that the range of fusion rates found clinically acceptable by the 2013 Panel could serve as a performance parameter for providing reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for the device type based on the valid scientific evidence but due to some variability (
Based upon the information provided in response to the proposed order, and including additional analyses of the literature and MDRs since the 2013 Panel, FDA has determined that the risks to health are not substantially different from traditional rigid pedicle screw spinal systems. As discussed previously and in the 2014 Proposed Order, FDA agreed with the 2013 Panel that there is valid scientific evidence on the safety of rigid pedicle screw systems. FDA has also determined, as discussed previously, that an evaluation of additional MDR data and additional clinical literature provide valid scientific evidence regarding the safety of SRS devices for fusion (Refs. 3 to 11).
Whereas non-clinical performance testing appropriately mitigates the risks to health for rigid pedicle screw systems, non-clinical special controls are not sufficient to mitigate the risks to health, specifically, the risk of pseudarthrosis resulting in additional surgical procedures, for SRS devices. Non-clinical performance testing (such as standardized test methods or biomechanical testing of cadaveric specimens) does not adequately differentiate between different SRS technologies nor predict the ability to achieve spinal fusion with a particular SRS. While some SRSs can be tested using the typical bench testing as a means of comparing performance of traditional rigid pedicle screw systems (
While clinical data as a special control was not specifically mentioned in the comments, the 2013 Panel discussed the ability for clinical data to distinguish between successful and unsuccessful SRS device designs. FDA believes that clinical performance data would adequately mitigate the risks to health for SRS devices, particularly the risk of pseudarthrosis resulting in additional surgical procedures. In addition, there is sufficient valid scientific evidence showing that the device type is effective for use as an adjunct to fusion, when the fusion rate is within a clinically acceptable range, as discussed previously. FDA therefore believes there is sufficient information to establish special controls that, in
As discussed in FDA's response to Comment 1, the risks to health and associated mitigation measures for rigid pedicle screw systems remain unchanged from those listed in table 1 of the 2014 Proposed Order.
As stated previously, FDA has reevaluated all of the valid scientific evidence for SRSs in finalizing this order. As described in the proposed order and in section I of this order, FDA has satisfied the requirements under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act for revising the proposed classification for SRSs. Under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act, FDA has the authority to issue an administrative order revising the proposed classification of a device for which FDA has classified as a class III device and for which no administrative order has been issued calling for PMAs under section 515(b) of the FD&C Act, so that the device is classified into class I or class II, after issuance of a proposed order, a meeting of a device classification panel, and consideration of the comments of a proposed order. In determining whether to revise the proposed classification of a device or to require a device to remain in class III, FDA applies the criteria set forth in section 513(a) of the FD&C Act. Section 513(a)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act defines class II devices as those devices for which the general controls in section 513(a)(1)(A) by themselves are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, but for which there is sufficient information to establish special controls to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of a device.
FDA has reviewed all of the initial procedures, scientific information presented at the 2013 Panel meeting, comments received from both the 2014 Proposed Order and 2009 Final Order under section 515(i)(1) of the FD&C Act calling for information on preamendment devices (74 FR 16214, April 9, 2009) for consideration of the classification of SRS devices under section 513(a) of the FD&C Act and has initiated revision of the proposed classification of the device under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act.
The discussion at the 2013 Panel for SRSs was limited, as acknowledged by 2013 Panel members, by the small number of studies available at that time and reports in the MDRs regarding SRSs for fusion. Given limitations of the available data, in literature and MDR analysis, the 2013 Panel concluded that insufficient evidence was available to establish special controls. Although FDA recommended, and the 2013 Panel agreed, that a call for PMAs was the necessary measure to mitigate the risks to health for SRSs and ensure a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness, FDA has since reassessed the scientific evidence based upon comments received and additional information, reevaluating the scientific evidence presented at the 2013 Panel meeting to reconsider FDA's prior position regarding the necessary controls to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for SRSs. Based on FDA's reevaluation of the available body of evidence, FDA has determined that sufficient information exists regarding the risks and benefits of SRSs for FDA to determine that general and special controls can provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device type and, thus, revising the proposed classification for these devices from class III to II under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act is appropriate.
Also, at the 2013 Panel meeting, the panel did discuss the feasibility of clinical data as being able to potentially distinguish between successful and non-successful SRS designs, without specifically discussing what level of data would be necessary. After further review of the scientific literature and comments, FDA believes that clinical performance data as a special control would adequately mitigate the risks to health for SRS devices, particularly the risk of pseudarthrosis resulting in additional surgical procedures (see response to Comment 10 in section II.B.2).
Upon reevaluation of the scientific evidence and additional information, FDA has determined that SRS devices do not have the degree of risk of illness or injury designed to be eliminated or reduced by requiring the device to have an approved PMA under section 515(b)(2) of the FD&C Act. In addition, the level of scientific evidence evaluated has allowed FDA to determine that SRSs can be classified as class II with the establishment of special controls because sufficient valid scientific evidence exists to determine that general controls, in combination with special controls, are sufficient to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. FDA has determined that revision of the proposed classification of SRSs under section 515(i)(2) of the FD&C Act will allow these devices to be classified in class II subject to a clinical performance data special control. As a result, instead of calling for PMAs for SRSs, FDA is finalizing this order to revise the proposed classification for SRS devices from class III to class II (special controls) following reassessment of all relevant scientific evidence and comments received from the 2014 Proposed Order. FDA believes the clinical performance data special control and other special controls, together with general controls, are sufficient to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness for SRS devices.
Under sections 513(e) and 515(i) of the FD&C Act, FDA is adopting its findings as published in the preamble to the proposed order with the modifications discussed in section II of this final order. FDA is issuing this final order to reclassify rigid pedicle screw systems and to revise classification of SRSs when intended to provide
Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may exempt a class II device from the premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act if FDA determines that premarket notification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the devices. FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness of rigid pedicle screw systems and SRSs when intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment). Therefore, these device types are not exempt from premarket notification requirements.
Following the effective date of this final order, firms marketing rigid pedicle screw systems when intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment) and SRSs for any indication must comply with the special controls set forth in this order (see section V, “Implementation Strategy”).
The special controls identified in this final order are effective as of the date of publication of this order, December 30, 2016. Both rigid pedicle screw systems and SRSs covered by this order must comply with the special controls following the effective date of the order. Specifically, devices subject to the special controls in this order include rigid pedicle screw systems intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment), and SRSs for any indication. However, FDA does not intend to enforce compliance with the special controls for currently legally marketed SRSs covered by this order until June 28, 2018. The 30-month enforcement discretion period was selected based on the following factors: (1) The 2014 Proposed Order initially called for PMAs containing clinical performance data to be submitted within a 30-month timeframe, and thus the request in this final order for 510(k) amendments, which include submission of clinical performance data as a special control, maintains the same expectation of sponsors; and (2) the effectiveness endpoint of fusion for SRSs is generally assessed at 1 to 2 years post-implantation, and thus if a new study were to be initiated to collect clinical performance data, FDA would expect the 30-month period to be appropriate for SRS and allow sponsors sufficient time to enroll patients, conduct the study, and analyze the data.
For those manufacturers who wish to continue to offer for sale currently legally marketed SRSs covered by this order, FDA expects them to submit an amendment to their previously cleared 510(k)s for the devices by June 28, 2018 that demonstrates compliance with the special controls. This approach is consistent with prior final orders for reclassifications of preamendment devices in which special controls requiring submission of clinical performance data were issued. An amendment to a 510(k) will be added to the 510(k) file but will not serve as a basis for a new substantial equivalence review. A submitted 510(k) amendment in this context will be used solely to demonstrate to FDA that an SRS system is in compliance with the special controls. If a 510(k) amendment for the device is not submitted by June 28, 2018 or if FDA determines that the amendment does not demonstrate compliance with the special controls, then this compliance policy would not apply, and FDA would intend to enforce compliance with these requirements. In that case, the device is deemed adulterated under section 501(f)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 351(f)(1)(B)) as of the date of FDA's determination of noncompliance or June 28, 2018, whichever is sooner.
For rigid pedicle screw systems intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of DDD and spondylolisthesis (other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment) and SRSs for any indication that have not been legally marketed prior to December 30, 2016, or models that have been legally marketed but are required to submit a new 510(k) under 21 CFR 807.81(a)(3) because the device is about to be significantly changed or modified, manufacturers must obtain 510(k) clearance, among other relevant requirements, and demonstrate compliance with the special controls included in this final order, before marketing the new or changed device.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This final order refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in part 807, subpart E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120 and the collections of information under 21 CFR part 801 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Prior to the amendments by FDASIA, section 513(e) of the FD&C Act provided for FDA to issue regulations to reclassify devices. Although section 513(e) as amended requires FDA to issue final orders rather than regulations, FDASIA also provides for FDA to revoke previously promulgated regulations by
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 888 is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 371.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a)
(2) Semi-rigid systems are defined as systems that contain one or more of the following features (including but not limited to): Non-uniform longitudinal elements, or features that allow more motion or flexibility compared to rigid systems.
(b) * * *
(2) Class II (special controls), when a rigid pedicle screw system is intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion in the treatment of degenerative disc disease and spondylolisthesis other than either severe spondylolisthesis (grades 3 and 4) at L5-S1 or degenerative spondylolisthesis with objective evidence of neurologic impairment. These pedicle screw systems must comply with the following special controls:
(i) The design characteristics of the device, including engineering schematics, must ensure that the geometry and material composition are consistent with the intended use.
(ii) Non-clinical performance testing must demonstrate the mechanical function and durability of the implant.
(iii) Device components must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
(iv) Validation testing must demonstrate the cleanliness and sterility of, or the ability to clean and sterilize, the device components and device-specific instruments.
(v) Labeling must include the following:
(A) A clear description of the technological features of the device including identification of device materials and the principles of device operation;
(B) Intended use and indications for use, including levels of fixation;
(C) Identification of magnetic resonance (MR) compatibility status;
(D) Cleaning and sterilization instructions for devices and instruments that are provided non-sterile to the end user; and
(E) Detailed instructions of each surgical step, including device removal.
(3) Class II (special controls), when a semi-rigid system is intended to provide immobilization and stabilization of spinal segments in the thoracic, lumbar, and sacral spine as an adjunct to fusion for any indication. In addition to complying with the special controls in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, these pedicle screw systems must comply with the following special controls:
(i) Demonstration that clinical performance characteristics of the device support the intended use of the product, including assessment of fusion compared to a clinically acceptable fusion rate.
(ii) Semi-rigid systems marketed prior to the effective date of this reclassification must submit an amendment to their previously cleared premarket notification (510(k)) demonstrating compliance with the special controls in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) and paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Final regulations.
This document contains final regulations under section 6041 regarding the filing of information returns to report winnings from bingo, keno, and slot machine play. The rules update the existing requirements regarding the filing, form, and content of such information returns; allow for an additional form of payee identification; and provide an optional aggregate reporting method. The final regulations affect persons who pay winnings of $1,200 or more from bingo and slot machine play, $1,500 or more from keno, and recipients of such payments.
These regulations are effective on December 30, 2016.
David Bergman, (202) 317-6845 (not a toll-free number).
This document contains final regulations in Title 26 of the Code of Federal Regulations under section 6041 of the Internal Revenue Code. The final regulations replace the existing information reporting requirements under § 7.6041-1 of the Temporary Income Tax Regulations under the Tax Reform Act of 1976 for persons who make reportable payments of bingo, keno, or slot machine winnings. The new requirements are set forth in a new § 1.6041-10 of the regulations. Because the new requirements replace the existing requirements, the regulations under § 7.6041-1 are being removed.
On March 4, 2015, the Treasury Department and the IRS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-132253-11) in the
A public hearing was held on June 17, 2015, and five speakers provided testimony. In addition, over 14,000 written public comments were received. After careful consideration of the written comments and statements made during the hearing, the proposed regulations are adopted as modified by this Treasury Decision.
All of the 14,000 written comments on the notice of proposed rulemaking were considered and are available at regulations.gov or upon request. Many of these comments addressed similar issues and expressed similar points of view. These comments are summarized in this preamble. Comments pertaining to parimutuel gambling in the case of horse races, dog races, and jai alai are being considered in a separate regulations project under section 3402(q).
Commentators supported the proposed rules regarding filing requirements and the form and content of the information returns required to be filed. Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS conclude that the final regulations should adopt the filing requirements without modification.
The proposed regulations created rules for electronically tracked slot machine play, which was defined in proposed § 1.6041-10(b)(1) as slot machine play where an electronic player system controlled by the gaming establishment (such as through the use of a player's card or similar system) records the amount a specific individual wins and wagers on slot machine play. Section 1.6041-10(b)(2)(i)(D) of the proposed regulations provided that gambling winnings for electronically tracked slot machine play are required to be reported if (1) the total amount of winnings netted against the total amount of wagers during the same session of play was $1,200 or more, and (2) at least one single win during the session was $1,200 or more without regard to the wager. A “session” of play was determined with reference to a calendar day. The changes were intended to facilitate reporting by payees on their individual income tax returns under the proposed safe harbor in Notice 2015-21, 2015-12 I.R.B. 765.
Some commentators expressed concern regarding the feasibility of the proposed rules given existing technology and recommended that the proposed rules not be adopted. Commentators stated that one of the purposes of electronic player systems was for marketing and customer loyalty and that current systems should not be used as a mandatory method for tracking winnings and wagers for purposes of tax reporting. Moreover, commentators stated that the use of electronic player systems for tax reporting may chill customer use and have a negative effect on customer relations. In addition, some commentators stated that their electronic player systems lack the necessary controls to be used for tax reporting, and that implementing such controls may be costly and labor-intensive. Based on these comments, the
The proposed regulations retain the rule in § 7.6041-1(c)(3) of the Temporary Income Tax Regulations that the payor must obtain two forms of identification from the payee to verify the payee's identity. However, § 1.6041-10(f) of the proposed regulations modifies the rules for acceptable identification by requiring that one of the forms of identification include the payee's photograph and by providing that the payor may accept a properly completed Form W-9 in lieu of identification that includes the payee's social security number. The proposed regulations provide that payors may rely on this provision prior to publication of final regulations in the
Most commentators supported the proposed rules regarding the types of identification that can be relied on to verify a payee's identity. In particular, commentators supported the provision that allows a Form W-9 to be used as an acceptable means of verifying a payee's identity in lieu of identification that includes the payee's social security number. This rule is consistent with procedures currently used by many payors to address the fact that, today, most forms of identification that payees carry with them do not contain a social security number.
Other commentators suggested that the list of examples of acceptable forms of government-issued identification be expanded to include tribal member identification cards issued by a federally recognized Indian tribe. Some commentators also suggested that an exception from the photo identification requirement be provided for tribal identification cards presented at tribal government gaming facilities because many tribal identification cards do not contain photographs.
In response to the comments received, the list of examples of acceptable government-issued identification has been expanded in § 1.6041-10(e)(1) of the final regulations to include tribal member identification cards issued by a federally recognized Indian tribe. In addition, in response to comments, § 1.6041-10(d)(2) of the final regulations provides an exception to the photo identification requirement if one of the forms of identification is a tribal identification card presented at a gaming establishment owned or licensed by the tribal government that issued the tribal member identification card.
Section 1.6041-10(h) of the proposed regulations provides a new rule for an optional aggregate reporting method. Under § 7.6041-1(a), reporting of gambling winnings from bingo, keno, and slot machine play is required each time a payor makes a payment of reportable gambling winnings (
Commentators were generally supportive of the proposed optional aggregate reporting method but did suggest some changes. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt the proposed optional aggregate reporting method with some modifications.
First, the period for purposes of the aggregate reporting method in the final regulations is not referred to as a “session.” Rather, in § 1.6041-10(g) of the final regulations, the period used for purposes of the aggregate reporting method is now referred to as an “information reporting period.” The proposed regulations' definition of a “session” was intended to mirror the concept of “session” set forth in the safe harbor for the determination of wagering gains and losses from electronically tracked slot machine play that was published in a Notice and draft Revenue Procedure on the same date as the proposed regulations. Notice 2015-21. The Treasury Department and the IRS are still considering the income tax reporting rules in this area, and the draft Revenue Procedure has not been finalized. Therefore, to avoid confusion, the aggregate reporting method rules in § 1.6041-10(g) of the final regulations have been modified so that the period during which reporting may be aggregated is referred to as the “information reporting period” rather than as a “session.”
Second, commentators suggested that rather than a calendar day, payors should have the option of using the 24-hour period known commonly in the industry as the “gaming day” for purposes of the aggregate reporting method. The comments explained that the period of a “gaming day” is used by gaming establishments for financial accounting, gaming control board, and other regulatory purposes, and allows each establishment the flexibility to define a day for these purposes by taking into account peak gaming times. The “gaming day” period is also utilized in complying with anti-money laundering reporting obligations. According to the comments, a gaming day is a 24-hour period that ends at a time during which the gaming establishment is closed or when business is slowest, typically between 3 a.m. and 6 a.m. The comments indicate that allowing payors to use the same period for purposes of information reporting as for other regulatory purposes will enhance the benefits of aggregate reporting for payors by not having a different reporting period for tax reporting, and by allowing aggregate reports to be generated during non-peak gaming times.
To give payors more flexibility, the final regulations adopt these suggestions and provide a flexible “information reporting period” as the period to be used for aggregate reporting. Under § 1.6041-10(b)(2) of the final regulations, an “information reporting period” is either a “calendar day” or a “gaming day,” so long as that period is applied uniformly by the payor to all payees during the calendar year. A payor may adopt a different “information reporting period” from one calendar year to the next, but may not change the “information reporting period” in the middle of a calendar year. Changes to a payor's “information reporting period” from one calendar year to the next must be implemented on January 1. In addition, the final regulations provide that on December 31st, all open information reporting periods must end at 11:59 p.m. in order to end by the end of the calendar year. This rule is necessary to maintain calendar year federal income tax reporting that is the bedrock of the information reporting regime and that is required by section 6041. Section 1.6041-10(b)(2)(iii) of the final regulations provides that if a “gaming day” is adopted for a calendar year, the information reporting period for
Third, commentators noted that the proposed regulations did not specifically define “gaming establishment,” and how to deal with common ownership between various casinos. Section 1.6041-10(b)(2)(iv) of the final regulations defines the term “gaming establishment” as a business entity of a payor of reportable gambling winnings with respect to bingo, keno, or slot machine play, and includes all gaming establishments owned by the payor using the same employer identification number (EIN) issued to such payor in accordance with section 6109.
Finally, commentators requested that the proposed recordkeeping requirements with respect to aggregate reporting be updated to reflect the actual credentials held by various casino representatives. These recordkeeping requirements require that payors maintain a record of every payment that will be reported using the aggregate reporting method and that each entry in the record be verified by a designated casino representative. Section § 1.6041-10(g)(3)(vii) of the proposed regulations requires that the designated individual provide a gaming license number. The final regulations do not require that a gaming license number be provided. Instead, § 1.6041-10(g)(3)(vii) of the final regulations requires that the person authorized by the applicable gaming regulatory control authority to ensure accuracy in reporting provide his or her unique identification number.
The proposed rules maintained the reporting thresholds of $1,200 for bingo and slot machine play and $1,500 for keno in § 7.6041-1(a), but invited comments on the feasibility of reducing these thresholds. Commentators overwhelmingly opposed the idea of reducing these reporting thresholds. Payors opposed lowering the thresholds because it would result in more reporting, which would increase compliance burdens for the industry. In fact, many commentators suggested that rather than reducing the current thresholds, they should be increased to account for inflation. These final regulations do not change the existing reporting thresholds for bingo, keno, and slot machine play.
The proposed regulations retain the rules in § 7.6041-1(b) that, in determining whether the reporting threshold is satisfied, the amount of winnings from bingo and slot machine play is not reduced by the amount of the wager, but the amount of winnings from one keno game is reduced by the amount of the wager in that one game. Commentators were divided as to whether uniform application of netting the wager against the winnings was feasible, citing compliance cost and labor concerns. In light of these concerns, the Treasury Department and the IRS conclude that the existing approach, as described in the proposed regulations, should be retained. Accordingly, § 1.6041-10(b)(1)(i) of the final regulations provides that reportable gambling winnings in the case of bingo and slot machine play are not determined by netting the wager against the winnings, but reportable gambling winnings in the case of keno are determined by netting the wager in that one game against the winnings from that game.
For purposes of information reporting, proposed § 1.6041-10(b)(4) defines a slot machine as a device that, by application of the element of chance, may deliver or entitle the person playing or operating the device to receive cash, premiums, merchandise, or tokens, whether or not the device is operated by inserting a coin, token, or similar object. One commentator suggested that the definition of slot machines be changed to adopt either of the definitions that has been adopted by the states of New Jersey or Nevada, both of which define slot machines more broadly. Other commentators suggested that the definition of slot machine in the proposed regulations is too broad because it could include technologic aids to Class II gaming as defined under the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act, 25 U.S.C. 2701-2721, such as electronic bingo or electronic pull-tabs.
As discussed in the preamble of the proposed regulations, the definition of slot machine in proposed § 1.6041-10(b)(4) is intended to be consistent with the definition of slot machine in § 44.4402-1(b)(1) of the Wagering Tax Regulations. Having consistent definitions benefits tax administration and may prevent unintended confusion that could arise from having different definitions for federal tax purposes. Because the Treasury Department and the IRS conclude that, on balance, the proposed definition of slot machine is the most appropriate definition, the final regulations adopt the proposed definition of the term “slot machine” without modification.
Section 1.6041-10(b)(2)(i) of the proposed regulations provides that all winnings from all cards played during one bingo game are combined and that all winnings from all “ways” on a multi-way keno ticket are combined. In addition, § 1.6041-10(b)(2)(ii) of the proposed regulations provides that winnings from different types of games are not combined to determine whether the reporting thresholds are satisfied, and that bingo, keno, and slot machine play are all different types of games. Commentators did not oppose inclusion of these rules in the definition of reportable gambling winnings in the proposed regulations. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt these aspects of the definition of reportable gambling winnings without modification.
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required.
It is hereby certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This certification is based on the fact that this rule merely provides guidance as to the filing of information reporting returns for payors who make reportable payments of bingo, keno, or slot machine winnings and who are required by section 6041 to make returns reporting those payments. The requirement for payors to make information returns is imposed by statute and not these regulations. In addition, this rule reduces the existing burden on payors to comply with the statutory requirement by simplifying the process for payors to verify payees' identities with a broader range of documents that are more readily available, and also by allowing payors to reduce the number of information returns they issue if they adopt the new aggregate reporting methodology. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. Chapter 6) is not required.
Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, the notice of proposed rulemaking preceding these regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on the regulations' impact on small
The principal author of these regulations is David Bergman of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure & Administration).
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Temporary income tax regulations under the Tax Reform Act of 1976.
Employment Taxes and Collection of Income Tax at Source.
Accordingly, 26 CFR parts 1, 7, and 31 are amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(a)
(b)
(A) For bingo, the term “reportable gambling winnings” means winnings of $1,200 or more from one bingo game, without reduction for the amount wagered. All winnings received from all wagers made during one bingo game are combined (for example, all winnings from all cards played during one bingo game are combined).
(B) For keno, the term “reportable gambling winnings” means winnings of $1,500 or more from one keno game reduced by the amount wagered on the same keno game. All winnings received from all wagers made during one keno game are combined (for example, all winnings from all “ways” on a multi-way keno ticket are combined).
(C) For slot machine play, the term “reportable gambling winnings” means winnings of $1,200 or more from one slot machine play, without reduction for the amount wagered.
(ii) Winnings and wagers from different types of games are not combined to determine if the reporting threshold is satisfied. Bingo, keno, and slot machine play are different types of games.
(iii) Winnings include the fair market value of a payment in any medium other than cash.
(iv) The amount wagered in the case of a free play is zero.
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(B)
(C)
(iv)
(v)
Casino R uses the aggregate reporting method under paragraph (g) of this section to report certain reportable gambling winnings. For other regulatory purposes, Casino R uses a gaming day that begins at 3 a.m. and ends at 2:59 a.m. the following calendar day. Casino R chooses to use its gaming day as its information reporting period for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section during Year 1. Accordingly, the information reporting period for purposes of paragraph (g) of this section for each day during Year 1 begins at 3 a.m. and ends at 2:59 a.m. the following day. The information reporting period for December 31 of Year 1 begins at 3 a.m. on December 31 of Year 1 and ends at 11:59 p.m. on December 31 of Year 1. The information reporting period for January 1 of Year 2 begins at 12 a.m. on January 1 of Year 2 and ends at 2:59 a.m. on January 2 of Year 2.
The facts are the same as Example 1, except Casino R uses a calendar day as its information reporting period for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section during Year 1. Accordingly, the information reporting period for purpose of paragraph (g) of this section for each day during Year 1 begins at 12 a.m. and ends at 11:59 p.m. on the same day.
Casino R uses the aggregate reporting method under paragraph (g) of this section to report certain reportable gambling winnings. For other regulatory purposes, Casino R uses a gaming day that begins at 9:00 p.m. and ends at 8:59 p.m. the following calendar day. Casino R chooses to use its gaming day as its information reporting period for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section during Year 1. Accordingly, the information reporting period for purposes of paragraph (g) of this section for each day during Year 1 begins at 9:00 p.m. and ends at 8:59 p.m. the following day. The
Casino R uses the aggregate reporting method under paragraph (g) of this section to report certain reportable gambling winnings. In Year 1, Casino R chooses to use a “gaming day” that begins at 3 a.m. and ends at 2:59 a.m. the following day as its information reporting period. During the course of Year 1, Casino R decides that it would like to change its information reporting period to instead begin at 5 a.m. and end at 4:59 a.m. the following day. Casino R must wait until January 1 of Year 2 to implement such a change. On January 1 of Year 2, Casino R's information reporting period will begin at 12 a.m. and end at 4:59 a.m. on January 2. On December 31 of Year 2, Casino R's information reporting period will begin at 5 a.m. and end at 11:59 p.m.
(3)
(c)
(d)
(i) The name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the payor;
(ii) The name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the payee;
(iii) A general description of the two types of identification (as described in paragraph (e) of this section), one of which must have the payee's photograph on it (except in the case of tribal member identification cards in certain circumstances as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section) that the payor relied on to verify the payee's name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
(iv) The date and amount of payment;
(v) The type of wagering transaction (bingo, keno, or slot machine play);
(vi) In the case of a bingo or keno game, any number, color, or other designation assigned to the game for which the payment is made;
(vii) In the case of slot machine play, the identification number of the slot machine(s) (for example, location and asset number);
(viii) Any other information required by the forms, instructions, revenue procedures, or other applicable guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.
(2)
(i) The payee is a member of a federally recognized Indian tribe;
(ii) The payee presents the payor with a tribal member identification card issued by a federally recognized Indian tribe stating that the payee is a member of such tribe; and
(iii) The payor is a gaming establishment (as described in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section) owned or licensed (in accordance with 25 U.S.C. 2710) by the tribal government that issued the tribal member identification card referred to in (d)(2)(ii).
(3)
(e)
(1) Government-issued identification (for example, a driver's license, passport, social security card, military identification card, tribal member identification card issued by a federally recognized Indian tribe, or voter registration card) in the name of the payee; and
(2) A Form W-9, “Request for Taxpayer Identification Number and Certification,” signed by the payee, that includes the payee's name, address, taxpayer identification number, and other information required by the form. A Form W-9 is not acceptable for this purpose if the payee has modified the form (other than pursuant to instructions to the form) or if the payee has deleted the jurat or other similar provisions by which the payee certifies or affirms the correctness of the statements contained on the form.
(f)
(g)
(2)
(ii) A payor may use the aggregate reporting method for payments to some payees and not others, at its own discretion. In addition, with respect to a single payee, the payor may use the aggregate reporting method to report
(iii) Failure to report some reportable gambling winnings from a particular type of game during one information reporting period to a particular payee under the aggregate reporting method (for whatever reason, including because the winnings are not permitted to be reported using the aggregate reporting method under paragraph (g)(4) of this section) will not disqualify the payor from using the aggregate reporting method to report other reportable gambling winnings from that type of game during that information reporting period to that payee. The payor may stop using the aggregate reporting method for a particular payee or for all payees before the end of the payor's information reporting period for any reason.
(3)
(i) The payee's signature confirming the information in the record;
(ii) The information required under paragraph (d) of this section;
(iii) The time of the win resulting in the reportable gambling winnings;
(iv) The total amount of reportable gambling winnings with respect to all payments to the payee during the information reporting period;
(v) The amount of reportable gambling winnings with respect to each particular payment;
(vi) The method of payment to the payee (for example, cash, check, voucher, credit, token, or chips); and
(vii) The name and unique identification number of the individual who the payor has determined is responsible for ensuring that the entry with respect to the reportable gambling winnings (including the general description of two types of identification used to verify the payee's name, address, and taxpayer identification number) is complete and accurate and who is authorized to perform that function by the applicable gaming regulatory control authority. Such individual may or may not be the same individual who prepared the entry.
(4)
(i) The payment is to a foreign person, as described in section 1.6041-10(h);
(ii) The payor knows or has reason to know that the person making the wager is not the person entitled to the winnings or is not the only person entitled to the winnings (regardless of whether the person making the wager furnishes a Form 5754, “Statement by Person(s) Receiving Gambling Winnings”); or
(iii) Backup withholding under section 3406(a) applies to the payment.
(5)
On Day 1, between 7 a.m. and 4 p.m., C places five wagers at casino R on five different slot machines. The first two wagers result in no win. The third wager results in a $1,500 win. The fourth wager results in a $2,500 win. The fifth wager results in an $800 win:
(i) Under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C) of this section, there are reportable gambling winnings from the slot machine play of $4,000 ($1,500 + $2,500). The $800 win is not a reportable gambling winning from slot machine play because it does not equal or exceed the $1,200 threshold.
(ii) Because all of the amounts were won on the same type of game (even though each of the winnings occurred on different machines) during the same information reporting period, R is permitted to use the aggregate reporting method under this paragraph (g). If R decides not to use the aggregate reporting method, a separate Form W-2G would have to be filed and furnished for the payment of reportable gambling winnings of $1,500 and for the payment of reportable gambling winnings of $2,500. However, if R decides to use the aggregate reporting method, R may report total reportable gambling winnings from slot machine play of $4,000 ($1,500 + $2,500) on one Form W-2G.
Assume the same facts as
On December 31 of Year 1 at 4:00 p.m., C wins $10,000 from one slot machine play at casino R. At 12:30 a.m. on January 1 of Year 2, C wins $4,000 from one slot machine play at casino R. Under paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(B) and (C) of this section, the win at 4 p.m. on December 31 of Year 1 and the win at 12:30 a.m. on January 1 of Year 2 are wins during different information reporting periods. Under paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, the $4,000 of reportable gambling winnings on January 1 cannot be aggregated with the reportable gambling winnings of $10,000 from December 31 on a single Form W-2G. Accordingly, if R uses the aggregate reporting method, R must file two Forms W-2G with respect to C's reportable gambling winnings on Day 1 and Day 2. R must report $10,000 of reportable gambling winnings from slot machine play paid to C on December 31 on the first Form W-2G and $4,000 of reportable gambling winnings from slot machine play paid to C on January 1 on the second Form W-2G.
Assume the same facts as example 3, except that C also wins $5,000 from one slot machine play at 3:30 p.m. on January 1 and $7,000 from one slot machine play at 1:30 a.m. on January 2. Under the special rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, the “information reporting period” begins at 12:00 a.m. on January 1 and extends until the start of the next information reporting period, in this case 2:59 a.m. on January 2. Under paragraph (b)(1)(C) of this section, Casino R will pay C a total of $26,000 ($10,000 + $4,000 + $5,000 + $7,000) in reportable gambling winnings; however, $10,000 must be reported in Year 1, and $16,000 must be reported in Year 2. Because all of the amounts won in Year 2 were won on the same type of game and during the
At 2 p.m. on Day 1, D won $2,000 (after reducing the amount of the win by the amount wagered) playing one keno game at casino R. D provides R with his driver's license. The driver's license has D's photograph on it, as well as D's name and address. The driver's license does not include D's social security number. D cannot remember his social security number and has no other identification at the time with his social security number on it. D does not provide R with his social security number before R pays the winnings to D. Because D cannot remember his social security number, D cannot complete and sign a Form W-9. R deducts and withholds $560 (28 percent of $2,000) under the backup withholding provisions of section 3406(a) and pays the remaining $1,440 in winnings to D. D returns to casino R and at 6 p.m. on Day 1 wins $1,500 (after reducing the amount of the win by the amount wagered) in one keno game. D provides R with his driver's license as well as D's social security card. R generally uses the aggregate reporting method and in all cases where it is used, R complies with the requirements of this paragraph (g). At 8 p.m. and 10 p.m. on Day 1, D wins an additional $1,800 and $1,700 (after reducing the amount of the win by the amount wagered), respectively, from two different keno games. For each of these two wins, an employee of R obtains the information from D required by this paragraph (g):
(i) Under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(B) of this section, each of D's wins from the four games of keno on Day 1 ($2,000, $1,500, $1,800, and $1,700) are reportable gambling winnings. Because D's first win on Day 1 was at 2 p.m. and D's last win on Day 1 was at 10 p.m., all of D's reportable gambling winnings from keno are won during the same information reporting period. Because R satisfies the requirements of paragraph (g)(2)(i), R may use the aggregate reporting method to report D's reportable gambling winnings from keno. However, pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(iii) of this section, the $2,000 payment made to D at 2 p.m. cannot be reported under the aggregate reporting method because that payment was subject to backup withholding. Accordingly, if R uses the aggregate reporting method under this paragraph (g), R will have to file two Forms W-2G with respect to D's reportable gambling winnings from keno on Day 1. On the first Form W-2G, R will report $2,000 of reportable gambling winnings and $560 of backup withholding with respect to the 2 p.m. win from keno, and, on the second Form W-2G, R will report $5,000 of reportable gambling winnings from keno (representing the three payments of $1,500, $1,800, and $1,700 that D won between 6 p.m. and 10 p.m. on Day 1).
In one information reporting period on Day 1, E won five reportable gambling winnings from five different bingo games at a casino R. R generally uses the aggregate reporting method and in all cases where it is used, R complies with the requirements of this paragraph (g). Although E signed the entry in the record R maintains for payment of the first four reportable gambling winnings, E refuses to sign the entry in the record for the fifth payment of reportable gambling winnings. R may use the aggregate reporting method for the first four payments of reportable gambling winnings to E. However, because the entry in the record for the fifth payment of reportable gambling winnings does not include E's signature, as required by paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section, that payment may not be reported under the aggregate reporting method. Accordingly, if R uses the aggregate reporting method under paragraph (g) of this section, R must prepare two Forms W-2G as follows: On the first Form W-2G, R must report the first four payments of reportable gambling winnings from bingo made to E on Day 1. On the second Form W-2G, R must report the fifth payment of reportable gambling winnings from bingo made to E on Day 1.
(h)
(i)
(j)
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce a safety zone within the Captain of the Port New York Zone on the specified date and time. This action is necessary to ensure the safety of vessels and spectators from hazards associated with fireworks displays. During the enforcement period, no person or vessel may enter the safety zone without permission of the Captain of the Port (COTP).
The regulation for the safety zone described in 33 CFR 165.160 will be enforced on the date and time listed in the table below.
If you have questions on this notice, call or email Petty Officer First Class Ronald Sampert, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 718-354-4154, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone listed in 33 CFR 165.160 on the specified date and time as indicated
Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.160, vessels may not enter the safety zone unless given permission from the COTP or a designated representative. Spectator vessels may transit outside the safety zones but may not anchor, block, loiter in, or impede the transit of other vessels. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.160(a) and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this notice in the
If the COTP determines that a safety zone need not be enforced for the full duration stated in this notice, a Broadcast Notice to Mariners may be used to grant general permission to enter the safety zone.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This action finalizes revisions to the minimum monitoring requirements for near-road nitrogen dioxide (NO
This final rule is effective December 30, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2015-0486. All documents in the docket are listed at
Mr. Nealson Watkins, Air Quality Assessment Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Mail code C304-06, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone: (919) 541-5522; fax: (919) 541-1903; email:
The following topics are discussed in this preamble:
On February 9, 2010, the EPA promulgated minimum monitoring requirements for the ambient NO
As part of the 2010 NO
(a) The first tier of the ambient NO
(b) The second tier of the NO
(c) The third tier of the NO
The near-road component of the ambient NO
As of November of 2016, the EPA estimates that 69 near-road NO
We proposed revisions to the near-road NO
The proposed removal of Phase 3 of the required near-road NO
• The Phase 1 and Phase 2 near-road sites that have been installed to date are located at maximum concentration locations consistent with the guidance in the Near-road NO
• The higher populated CBSAs that contain these near-road NO
• Ambient concentrations collected at all existing near-road monitoring sites are well below both the annual and 1-hour daily maximum NAAQS levels of 53 ppb and 100 ppb, respectively.
The EPA received 22 individual submissions on the proposal during the public comment period from public health and environmental groups, industry groups, state and local air monitoring agencies and multi-agency groups, and one anonymous public commenter.
Overall, 18 of the 22 commenters supported the proposal. This included all 14 state or multi-state groups: Association of Air Pollution Control Agencies (AAPCA); Akron Regional Air Quality Management District (ARAQMD); Central States Air Resource Agencies Association (CENSARA); Colorado; Georgia; Iowa; Kentucky; Michigan; National Association of Clean Air Agencies (NACAA); Northeast States for Coordinated Air Use Management (NESCAUM); North Carolina; Regional Air Pollution Control Agency, Dayton, OH (RAPCA); South Carolina; and Wisconsin. In addition, all 4 of the industry commenters voiced support of the proposal, including: American Petroleum Institute (API); American Road and Transportation Builders Association (ARTBA); NAAQS Implementation Coalition; and the Utility Air Regulatory Group (UARG).
Those commenters who supported the proposal primarily reiterated that the use of existing network data and meta-data, plus other supporting data, provide the rationale necessary to finalize the proposed changes to remove requirements for Phase 3 monitors from the near-road NO
Those commenters who opposed the proposed rule included all 3 submissions from public health and environmental groups. The first of the three adverse comment submissions was collectively from the following entities: Asthma and Allergy Network, Alliance of Nurses for Healthy Environments, American Lung Association, American Public Health Association, American Thoracic Society, Asthma and Allergy Foundation of America, Children's Environmental Health Network, and Health Care Trust for America's Health. For convenience, through the remainder of this preamble, this group will be referred to as the “Public Health Organizations.” The second submission with adverse comments was collectively from the following entities: Earth Justice, Catholic Charities of the Diocese of Stockton, Clean Air Council, Clean Wisconsin, Midwest Environmental Defense Center, Natural Resources Defense Council, Valley Improvement Projects, and We Act for Environmental Justice. For convenience through the remainder of this preamble, this second group will be referred to as the “Environmental Groups.” The third submission with adverse comment to the proposed rule was from Clean Air Watch.
The key issues raised in those adverse comments include: (1) Arguments that the proposal is inconsistent with the original reasoning behind the establishment of the near-road network requirements in the 2010 NO
In regard to the assertion that the proposal is inconsistent with the original reasoning behind the establishment of the near-road network, the Environmental Groups and Clean Air Watch both cited rationale provided in the 2010 NO
The EPA disagrees that the rationale for this action is inconsistent with the
Subsequent to the 2010 NO
The second issue raised by the Environmental Groups and Public Health Organizations was in regard to the network design and physical characteristics of the existing near-road NO
With regard to the Public Health Organizations' comment that the amount of near-road monitoring in a given urban area is limited, the EPA disagrees that additional monitors are needed. The network design targets expected maximum concentrations in the near-road environment. In the 2010 NO
The EPA strongly disagrees with the assertion that the near-road monitors installed to date have not been located to detect maximum NO
The EPA notes that in general, ambient monitor placement is a balancing act of knowing where an ideal monitoring location might be versus the reality of actually being able to place and operate a monitor in a particular location. This concept applies to all ambient monitoring endeavors, as the physical process of siting a monitor is subject to a myriad of logistical influences including, but not limited to: Permissions for access; physical limitations on site placement including the immediate terrain, topography, or the roadway design of a target road in the specific case of near-road monitoring; safety considerations, which are particularly important and evident in near-road siting situations; and utilities availability. Considering the factors and influences involved in the near-road siting process and the known characteristics of the network, the EPA strongly asserts that the network is appropriately deployed and situated to provide measurements that are a good representation of maximum near-road NO
In response to the Public Health Organizations' statement that “new research examining the early results of some of these near-road monitors warn that the assumptions made in the initial siting decisions may not adequately reflect the wors[t] sources of highway emissions, even in major urban areas like Los Angeles,” the EPA would first like to point out that the research conducted for the referenced journal article did not utilize any data from the near-road NO
The third issue raised was the claim that empirical data relied on in the proposal were too limited. To initiate their argument, the Environmental Groups stated that the “. . . EPA has virtually no emissions data for CBSAs with populations under 1 million, so EPA's claim that `higher populated CBSAs,'
In response, the EPA notes that data presented and reviewed in the docket memo clearly show otherwise. The emissions data used in the docket memo analysis came from the 2011 National Emissions Inventory (NEI). The NEI mobile source data come from the EPA's Motor Vehicle Emissions Simulator (MOVES), which aggregates mobile source emissions data from the county level across the entire country. Therefore, the commenter's statement that the EPA has “virtually no emissions data” from CBSAs with populations less than 1 million persons, and their subsequent argument, is incorrect. Still regarding emissions data and analysis, later in their arguments the Environmental Groups state that “. . . NO
Concluding the Public Health Organizations' and Environmental Groups' arguments, they commented that the EPA relied on monitored near-road NO
Because Phases 1 and 2 of the network have nearly been fully deployed, there are sufficient data to analyze and to support a conclusion that the first two phases of the near-road monitoring network are sufficient to protect against risks associated with exposures to peak concentrations of NO
Regarding specific comments on variability of some of the data, particularly in the hourly data across different near-road sites in different CBSAs across a range of population sizes, the EPA notes that such variability is to be expected in more highly time-resolved data. Further, as explained above, each near-road site is influenced by a number of factors, which all can contribute to inter-site variability. The Environmental Groups believe that the Boise and Des Moines CBSAs would not likely be representative of all other CBSAs of the same CBSA size class, without explanation. The EPA notes that no single CBSA is expected to be totally representative of any other individual CBSA. However, as presented in the proposal and the docket memo, despite the expected variability, there are relationships within the data that are evident when analyzing emissions, traffic data, measured concentration data, and CBSA populations. Particularly, higher populated CBSAs correspondingly have more vehicles, which in turn increases the availability of mobile source derived emissions that lead to increased opportunity for higher NO
It is also critical to conduct an analysis of the available near-road data. The analysis of all these data, which include data from the most heavily populated CBSAs and two CBSAs having populations between 500,000 and 1 million persons, reveals that there are no design values for either the annual or hourly NAAQS, or even a single 98th percentile 1-hour daily maximum value, that are approaching or exceeding the NAAQS. The highest recorded values throughout the 2013-2015 time period, analyzed and presented in the docket memo, were an annual average of 27 ppb in Los Angeles and an 98th percentile 1-hour value of 72 ppb from an incomplete year of data in New York City. In comparison, the NO
Further, the EPA expects a continuation in the reduction of on-road mobile source emissions on a per vehicle basis as a result of the implementation of mobile source standards such as the Tier 3 engine and fuel standards, which was echoed in the public comments. These continuing emission reductions should reduce the amount of measured NO
Finally, the EPA notes that EPA Regional Administrators have the authority to work with state and local air monitoring agencies to require monitoring above the minimum requirements as needed to address a
Other comments received were outside the scope of this rule and not discussed in this preamble.
An analysis of available near-road NO
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was, therefore, not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA. The final revisions do not add any information collection requirements beyond those imposed by the existing NO
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. This action will remove a sub-set of the current air monitoring requirements and, therefore, relieve state and local air monitoring agencies from having to provide evidence of compliance with the NO
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. This action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector. This action will reduce the number of required near-road NO
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This final rule imposes no requirements on tribal governments. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets EO 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This action does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations. The results of the network and data evaluation are contained in the Near-road NO
This action is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA), and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure,
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency is amending title 40, chapter I of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7403, 7405, 7410, 7414, 7601, 7611, 7614, and 7619.
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(iv) A plan for establishing a second near-road NO
(c) * * *
(4) January 1, 2015, for a second near-road NO
(a) Within the NO
(1) The near-road NO
(b) Measurements at required near-road NO
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS issues regulations to implement Regulatory Amendment 1 for the Fishery Management Plan for the Dolphin and Wahoo Fishery off the Atlantic States (FMP), as prepared and submitted by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council). This final rule establishes a commercial trip limit for Atlantic dolphin for vessels with a Federal commercial permit for Atlantic dolphin and wahoo. The purpose of this final rule is to reduce the chance of an in-season closure of the dolphin commercial sector as a result of the annual catch limit (ACL) being reached during the fishing year, and to reduce the severity of economic or social impacts caused by these closures.
This rule is effective January 30, 2017.
Electronic copies of Regulatory Amendment 1, which includes an environmental assessment, an assessment under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), a regulatory impact review, and fishery impact statement, may be obtained from
Karla Gore, NMFS SERO, telephone: 727-551-5753, or email:
The dolphin and wahoo fishery of the Atlantic is managed under the FMP. The FMP was prepared by the Council and implemented through regulations at 50 CFR part 622 under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Steven Act).
On June 30, 2016, NMFS published a proposed rule for Regulatory Amendment 1 and requested public comment (81 FR 42625). The proposed rule and Regulatory Amendment 1 outline the rationale for the action contained in this final rule. A summary of the action implemented by Regulatory Amendment 1 and this final rule is provided below.
This final rule establishes a commercial trip limit for dolphin for vessels that have a Federal commercial permit for Atlantic dolphin and wahoo.
Currently, no commercial trip limit exists for vessels that possess a Federal commercial permit for Atlantic dolphin and wahoo. However, there is a
NMFS received four comments on the proposed rule and Regulatory Amendment 1. One comment was outside the scope of the amendment and two were in support of the amendment as proposed. Those comments are not addressed below. The remaining single commenter opposed the management actions in the proposed rule and Regulatory Amendment 1; summaries of and responses to the comments in opposition to the proposed rule and Regulatory Amendment 1 are below.
The commenter did not provide any information on, or citation to, the United Nations resolutions that it believes the rule violates, and thus NMFS cannot evaluate the comment that the rule is inconsistent with those resolutions. However, to the extent that those resolutions seek to minimize bycatch, this final rule is consistent with them. As explained above, although the final rule may increase regulatory discards when the rule is implemented, NMFS does not believe those increases in regulatory discards violate National Standard 9 or other efforts to minimize bycatch.
In addition, with respect to the comment that the rule violates the United Nation's 1995 Code of Conduct
Additionally, the Council is currently developing the Bycatch Reporting Amendment to improve bycatch reporting in all of their managed fisheries. This amendment is intended to improve data collection on discards, including regulatory discards.
The Regional Administrator, Southeast Region, NMFS has determined that this final rule is necessary for the conservation and management of Atlantic dolphin and is consistent with Regulatory Amendment 1, the FMP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Magnuson-Stevens Act provides the statutory basis for this rule. No duplicative, overlapping, or conflicting Federal rules have been identified. In addition, no new reporting, record-keeping, or other compliance requirements are introduced by this final rule.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) during the proposed rule stage that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this determination was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. NMFS did not receive any comments from SBA's Office of Advocacy or the public on the certification in the proposed rule.
On December 29, 2015, NMFS issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for RFA compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the SBA's current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the RFA that are published after July 1, 2016.
Pursuant to the RFA, and prior to July 1, 2016, a certification was developed for this regulatory action using SBA's size standards. NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. All of the entities directly regulated by this regulatory action are finfish commercial fishing businesses and were considered small under the previously applicable SBA size standards. These commercial fishing businesses will not exceed the new threshold standard for small businesses, and thus they all will continue to be considered small under the new standard. Thus, NMFS has determined that the new size standard does not affect analyses prepared for this regulatory action.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce hereby reaffirms that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Because this final rule, if implemented, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, a final regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
Commercial, Dolphin, Fisheries, Fishing, Trip limits.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, NMFS amends 50 CFR part 622 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a)
(ii) See § 622.280(b)(1) for the limitations regarding wahoo after the ACL is reached.
(2) The trip limit for a vessel that does not have a Federal commercial vessel permit for Atlantic dolphin and wahoo but has a Federal commercial vessel permit in any other fishery is 200 lb (91 kg) of dolphin and wahoo, combined, provided that all fishing on and landings from that trip are north of 39° N. lat. (A charter vessel/headboat permit is not a commercial vessel permit.)
(3)
(ii) See § 622.280(a)(1) for the limitations regarding dolphin after the ACL is reached.
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, DOE.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission is proposing to revise its regulations to require that each regional transmission organization and independent system operator incorporate market rules that meet certain requirements when pricing fast-start resources. These reforms should lead to prices that more transparently reflect the marginal cost of serving load, which will reduce uplift costs and thereby improve price signals to support efficient investments.
Comments are due February 28, 2017.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
• Electronic Filing through
• Mail/Hand Delivery: Those unable to file electronically may mail or hand-deliver comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
Paragraph Numbers
1. In this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR), the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is proposing to address the pricing of energy from resources that are able to start quickly (
[a]n inflexible resource generally refers to a resource that may not be able to physically operate much below its maximum output and therefore cannot be dispatched up or down. For this reason, the energy supply offer parameters for these resources may stipulate that they be dispatched either to zero or to a minimum level that is at (or close to) their maximum output, but not in between.
2. Varied approaches exist among RTOs and ISOs to incorporate fast-start resources into energy and ancillary services prices (fast-start pricing). Fast-start resources are unique because they are often dispatched to their inflexible minimum or maximum operating limits, and are thus not eligible to set the locational marginal price (LMP).
3. We preliminarily find that some of these approaches may not result in rates that are just and reasonable for several reasons. We are concerned that some existing practices may not ensure that prices accurately reflect the marginal cost of serving load, potentially resulting in prices that do not reflect the value of fast-start resources, potentially creating unnecessary uplift payments, and potentially failing to provide incentives for market participants to make efficient investments. As a result, we propose to require that each RTO/ISO incorporate the following five requirements for its fast-start pricing. First, an RTO/ISO must apply fast-start pricing to any resource committed by the RTO/ISO that is able to start up within ten minutes or less, has a minimum run time of one hour or less, and that submits economic energy offers to the market. Second, when an RTO/ISO makes a decision to commit a fast-start resource, it should incorporate commitment costs,
4. We seek comment on these proposed reforms 60 days after publication of this NOPR in the
5. In June 2014, the Commission initiated a proceeding, in Docket No. AD14-14-000, Price Formation in Energy and Ancillary Services Markets Operated by Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators, to evaluate issues regarding price formation in the energy and ancillary services markets operated by RTOs/ISOs (Price Formation Proceeding). The notice initiating that proceeding stated that there may be opportunities for the RTOs/ISOs to improve the price formation process in the energy and ancillary services markets. As set forth in the notice, prices used in energy and ancillary services markets ideally “would reflect the true marginal cost of production, taking into account all physical system constraints, and these prices would fully compensate all resources for the variable cost of providing service.”
6. In January 2015, the Commission requested comments on questions that arose from the price formation technical workshops.
7. In the reports filed and the subsequent comments, RTOs/ISOs and other commenters addressed the issue of fast-start pricing, as discussed below.
8. In RTOs/ISOs, LMPs reflect the system marginal cost of serving the next increment of load, taking into account transmission constraints and line losses. With certain exceptions, only resources that are dispatchable,
9. Fast-start pricing can result in improved price signals, especially during tight or unexpected system conditions when the need for fast-start resources is the greatest. However, fast-start pricing can create a disconnect between prices and dispatch instructions, which can lead to over-generation. Specifically, fast-start
10. Further, reflecting commitment costs in LMPs requires some judgment regarding how and when to include those commitment costs. Similarly, reflecting the costs of offline resources in LMPs requires some judgment regarding when these resources are actually economically and technically able to address a reserve shortage or transmission constraint.
11. Each RTO/ISO has developed its own unique pricing to accommodate the specific characteristics of fast-start resources in its respective market.
12. CAISO defines fast-start resources as those that can come online in under two hours and can be committed in CAISO's fifteen-minute market or the short-term unit commitment process. CAISO states that there is no special treatment for the commitment or pricing of generating units related to whether they are fast, medium, or long start.
loaded resources known as Constrained Output Generators.
13. ISO-NE recently proposed revisions to its process for dispatching and pricing fast-start units, which will become effective March 31, 2017.
However, ISO-NE does not allow offline resources to set the LMP.
14. MISO's fast-start pricing logic, referred to as Extended LMP (ELMP), became effective in 2015.
15. NYISO does not apply fast-start pricing to all fast-start resources. Instead, NYISO applies special pricing logic, referred to as “hybrid gas turbine pricing logic,” to all committed block-loaded resources qualified to provide 10-minute non-synchronous reserves. This pricing logic allows block-loaded gas turbines to set prices.
16. PJM's tariff and other governing documents do not include formal definitions for fast-start or block-loaded resources. For the purposes of its report, PJM describes a fast-start resource as a combustion turbine that can start within two hours and a block-loaded resource as one with an economic minimum operating limit equal to its economic maximum operating limit. In practice, PJM allows block-loaded resources to set prices.
17. SPP has special pricing logic that it applies to what it refers to as quick-start resources. SPP defines a quick-start resource as a resource that (1) is registered as a quick-start resource; (2) has a cold start-up time of ten minutes or less; (3) has a minimum run time of one hour or less; and (4) has a total minimum down time of one hour or less.
18. Multiple commenters support the use of fast-start pricing methods that allow resources dispatched at their operating limits to set LMP and allow start-up and no-load costs to affect prices.
19. Commenters identified a number of best practices across the RTOs/ISOs. Entergy, EPSA, and Westar generally support certain aspects of MISO's ELMP. EPSA believes that MISO's ELMP approach yields favorable results by ensuring that generators follow dispatch signals and that generators' minimum operating limits are satisfied in dispatch.
20. On the other hand, EPSA and Golden Spread express concern that the fast-start pricing methods employed by SPP are insufficient.
21. In contrast, the PJM Market Monitor argues that relaxing economic minimum limits for price setting artificially overrides fundamental pricing logic in order to reduce uplift. The PJM Market Monitor argues that
22. Commenters generally support applying enhanced technology-neutral fast-start pricing logic to an expanded set of resources. Exelon and IMG Midstream/Tangibl recommend that the definition of fast-start resources be technology agnostic.
differentiate those that are truly fast-start from those that are not.
23. Multiple commenters believe that the start-up and no-load costs of fast-start resources should be allowed to affect LMPs, particularly when a unit is within its minimum run time.
24. EPSA/IPPNY urges the Commission to direct NYISO to review whether the start-up and no-load costs of fast-start resources should be allowed to affect LMPs and supports NYISO's current efforts in this regard.
25. Conversely, the PJM Market Monitor states that PJM appropriately explains in its report the likely negative impacts of including start-up and no-load costs in PJM's price-setting logic.
26. CAISO asserts that LMPs are intended to reflect the incremental cost of serving load, which does not include commitment costs, but states that the logic by which the no-load costs of block-loaded Constrained Output Generators are included in LMPs could be extended to other resources with a limited operating range.
27. Several commenters argue that the economic minimum operating limit of block-loaded or fast-start resources should be relaxed to zero when determining prices. EPSA, EPSA/P3, Exelon, and PSEG Companies argue that PJM's practice of relaxing the economic minimum operating limit by at most ten percent limits the ability for block-loaded resources to set LMPs whenever they are required to meet load and prevents a full consideration of a block-loaded resource's costs.
28. EPSA encourages the Commission to direct all RTOs/ISOs to incorporate the principles exemplified by MISO's ELMP pricing logic, which it believes relaxes economic minimum operating limits in a pricing run that occurs after the dispatch run, and appears to have resulted in robust dispatch operations and not resulted in significant over-generation. EPSA states that such logic will help adequately compensate resources for their distinct capabilities
29. NYISO states that it allows block-loaded resources to be considered as fully dispatchable from zero to their upper limit when determining prices so that these resources can set the price whenever they are needed to meet load.
30. Several commenters express concern that allowing offline resources to set prices when they are not actually capable of resolving a transmission or reserve shortage could lead to inaccurate price signals.
31. CAISO does not believe that allowing offline resources to contribute to LMP would lead to the most economical market solution.
32. With respect to NYISO's treatment of offline resources, LIPA states that NYISO's model reflects the availability of offline units in LMPs while not accurately representing the actual flexibility of the system. LIPA explains that this leads to inefficient pricing and system dispatch, as well as excessive start-ups of offline units.
33. Commenters also generally support the use of fast-start pricing in both the day-ahead and real-time markets. Some commenters contend that RTOs/ISOs should use consistent fast-start pricing for both day-ahead and real-time models to encourage price convergence, regardless of how infrequently fast-start units are committed in the day-ahead market.
34. We preliminarily find that RTOs'/ISOs' existing practices regarding the pricing of fast-start resources may result in rates that are unjust and unreasonable.
35. The Commission has stated that the goals of price formation are to: (1) Maximize market surplus for consumers and suppliers; (2) provide correct incentives for market participants to follow commitment and dispatch instructions, make efficient investments in facilities and equipment, and maintain reliability; (3) provide transparency so that market participants understand how prices reflect the actual marginal cost of serving load and the operational constraints of reliably operating the system; and (4) ensure that all suppliers have an opportunity to recover their costs.
36. While most RTOs/ISOs have incorporated some form of fast-start pricing into their market-clearing software, based on experience with the different fast-start pricing used by each RTO/ISO, we believe some practices have emerged that better represent the marginal cost of serving load. Specifically, we believe that some existing fast-start pricing practices, or a lack of fast-start pricing practices, may result in market prices that fail to accurately reflect the marginal cost of serving load. These prices may fail to reflect the value of fast-start resources and create unnecessary uplift payments.
37. For the reasons outlined below, we preliminarily find that such market outcomes may produce rates that are unjust and unreasonable. First, we preliminarily find that some current RTO/ISO practices may fail to accurately reflect the marginal cost of serving load because fast-start resources are inappropriately prevented from setting prices.
38. While PJM and NYISO allow certain block-loaded resources to set prices, they do not generally allow fast-start resources that are not block-loaded to set prices. CAISO allows only certain block-loaded and nearly block-loaded resources to set prices. In addition, PJM's practice of relaxing the economic minimum operating limits of block-loaded resources by at most ten percent could restrict the set of circumstances in which such a resource could set prices.
39. Second, even if fast-start resources were allowed to set prices, certain other aspects of some current RTO/ISO fast-start pricing practices, such as not choosing to include commitment costs, can prevent prices from accurately reflecting the marginal cost of serving load. Because of their operating characteristics, fast-start resources are uniquely situated to respond to unforeseen real-time system needs. When fast-start resources are committed in real-time, it is often at short notice to meet some system condition or market need over a short time period, and, as such, we preliminarily find that these commitment costs should be considered marginal costs. However, this is not the current practice in all RTOs/ISOs, and we preliminarily find that market rules in some RTOs/ISOs that prevent prices from reflecting commitment costs of fast-start resources may contribute to inaccurate price signals.
40. Third, some current practices regarding the use of offline resources to set prices in certain RTOs/ISOs may distort price signals. For example, MISO allows offline fast-start resources to set prices under transmission constraint violations or reserve shortage conditions, although sometimes such resources are not feasible (
41. Fourth, we are concerned that implementation of fast-start pricing in the real-time market only, or implementation of fast-start pricing practices in the day-ahead market that are significantly different from the real-time market, can negatively impact day-ahead and real-time price convergence and may result in day-ahead market prices that fail to reflect the marginal cost of fast-start resources. Furthermore, even though some RTOs/ISOs have implemented some form of fast-start pricing in the day-ahead market, current rules limit which resources qualify as fast-start resources in a manner that is inconsistent with the requirements herein.
42. Accordingly, we preliminarily find that, based on experience with existing RTO/ISO fast-start pricing practices, some forms of fast-start pricing may result in prices that fail to reflect the marginal cost of production in intervals when fast-start resources are needed to serve load. As a result, prices in RTO/ISO energy markets in some periods may not reflect the value that fast-start resources provide. As a result, over the long run, prices in RTO/ISO energy markets may fail to reflect the need for fast-start resources and thus fail to provide appropriate incentives for investment.
43. We also preliminarily find that existing RTO/ISO fast-start pricing could create unnecessary uplift payments. For example, when prices do not sufficiently reflect a marginal fast-start resource's commitment cost, the resource must be compensated through out-of-market uplift payments. Compensating resources through uplift payments is less transparent than compensating resources through market clearing prices that reflect the marginal cost of production, which could be based on the costs of a fast-start resource. Additionally, uplift payments are often allocated more broadly, which can mute the investment signals provided by prices over longer time periods, therefore inhibiting efficient market entry and exit. In addition, resources with costs below the market-clearing price may also have a lower financial incentive to perform at times when fast-start resources typically operate, such as during stressed system conditions, when the performance of all resources is particularly important.
44. To remedy the potentially unjust and unreasonable rates caused by existing RTO/ISO fast-start pricing practices, we propose, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act,
45. We expect that the proposed reforms will remedy current RTO/ISO fast-start pricing practices that potentially lead to unjust and unreasonable rates and will provide benefits that are consistent with the goals of the Commission's price formation initiative. For instance, the proposed reforms are intended to more accurately reflect the marginal cost of production in periods when a fast-start resource is the marginal resource and provide price signals that better inform investment decisions, including where and when fast-start resources should be built or maintained. The proposed reforms will also benefit markets by providing more accurate and transparent price signals that better reflect the actual marginal cost of serving load and reduce uplift.
46. In order to establish consistent treatment for fast-start resources across RTOs/ISOs and ensure that prices appropriately reflect the cost of serving load, we propose to require that each RTO/ISO must define fast-start resources as resources that meet the following performance requirements:
47. We preliminarily find that it is appropriate to include both dispatchable fast-start resources and block-loaded fast-start resources in the definition of a fast-start resource, as is done in ISO-NE and MISO. That is, some fast-start resources are committed and dispatched to an output level equal to the resource's economic minimum operating limit that is lower than the resource's economic maximum operating limit. Such a resource would not be eligible to set prices in all circumstances and would therefore create the same concerns we have regarding block-loaded fast-start resources. Further, if only block-loaded fast-start resources are included in the definition, as is done in CAISO and NYISO, certain resources could have the incentive to restrict the operating range in their energy supply offers.
48. We seek comment on this proposed definition of fast-start resources. For example, we seek comment on whether the definition of fast-start resources should include resources that have start-up times of greater than ten minutes. Similarly, we seek comment on whether the definition of fast-start resources should include resources with minimum run times of longer than one hour. We also seek comment on whether there are other characteristics that should be included in the definition of fast-start resources. Additionally, we seek comment on any additional tariff changes that may be necessary to implement the reforms proposed herein. Finally, we seek comment on whether this proposed definition should instead define minimum standards for each operating characteristic necessary to be considered a fast-start resource, to, among other things, allow regional variation.
49. We propose to require RTOs/ISOs to allow fast-start resources' commitment costs,
50. To incorporate a fast-start resource's start-up and no-load costs into prices, we propose to define specific formulations. Recognizing that commitment costs may be determined in different ways in RTOs/ISOs, these proposals are not intended to alter how a resource's start-up and no-load costs are calculated. To incorporate a fast-start resource's start-up cost into prices, we propose to define a resource's amortized start-up cost as equal to its start-up cost divided by the product of its economic maximum operating limit and minimum run time. To determine the portion of a fast-start resource's no-load costs that is reflected in prices, we propose to define the amortized no-load cost as the no-load cost divided by the resource's economic maximum operating limit. For both amortized start-up and no-load costs, we propose to accept any mathematically equivalent formula.
51. We preliminarily find that given the unique operating characteristics of fast-start resources, their commitment costs,
52. As noted above, we propose that the enhanced energy offer can only be used to set prices during the resource's minimum run time. While it could be argued that commitment costs for fast-start resources are still marginal costs of operating the system even beyond a fast-start resource's minimum run time, attempting to amortize start-up costs beyond the minimum run time is problematic from a practical standpoint, specifically in the real-time market. This is because, after the minimum run time is completed, the unit commitment algorithm may decommit the fast-start resource if it is no longer economic, making the total run time unknown. When the actual run time of the fast-start resource is unknown, it is difficult to define an appropriate period over which to amortize that resource's start-up cost. Given that the resource must operate for no less than its minimum run time, we believe that amortizing a fast-start resource's commitment costs during this period represents a reasonable approach.
53. We seek comment on the proposal to include a fast-start resource's start-up and no-load costs as marginal costs. We also seek comment on whether to amortize commitment costs for the purpose of calculating prices, and the proposed formulas to amortize these costs. In particular, we understand that the amortization period for commitment costs acts as a proxy for the timeframe over which the committed fast-start resource is likely to be marginal. Therefore, we seek comment on whether there are better or alternative timeframes over which commitment costs for fast-start resources should be amortized. We also specifically seek comment on whether the economic maximum operating limit is the appropriate value to use when amortizing start-up and no-load costs or whether another capacity value may be more appropriate.
54. We propose to require RTOs/ISOs, in the pricing run, to relax to zero each fast-start resource's economic minimum operating limit, thereby treating these resources as fully dispatchable for the purpose of calculating prices. Relaxing the economic minimum operating limit of a fast-start resource to zero will permit an inflexible or mostly inflexible fast-start resource to be treated as dispatchable by the RTO/ISO market software during the pricing run. The purpose of this proposal is to enable a fast-start resource to set the market clearing price if it is, indeed, the marginal unit needed to serve load. Additionally, RTOs/ISOs must ensure that they sufficiently address over-generation concerns. Specifically, each RTO/ISO must ensure that physical dispatch instructions to resources do not result in over-generation and must have market rules that address the potential for over-generation due to deviations from dispatch instructions. As noted above, RTOs/ISOs with fast-start pricing already use penalties and/or opportunity cost payments to ensure that resources adhere to scheduled dispatch instructions.
55. We seek comment on whether there are challenges associated with relaxing the economic minimum operating limit for the pricing run. We also seek comment on any over-generation concerns, such as whether over-generation can be managed through penalties for deviations, opportunity cost payments, or other existing mechanisms. Additionally, we seek comment on alternative methods to treat fast-start resources as fully dispatchable for the purpose of calculating prices.
56. Allowing offline fast-start resources to set prices can better reflect the cost of providing energy at a given location or of meeting reserve requirements. For instance, if the real-time dispatch algorithm optimizes spinning reserve
57. While allowing offline fast-start resources to set prices can be beneficial, it is imperative that the offline resources actually be feasible (
58. We propose to allow offline fast-start resources to be eligible to set prices if the resource is feasible and economic. As a threshold requirement, an offline fast-start resource may only be used to set prices (1) during a transmission constraint violation; or (2) if energy or ancillary service shortage conditions exist. Transmission constraint violations are defined as any instance where a transmission constraint is exceeded because the cost of redispatching resources to resolve the constraint is greater than the penalty factor associated with that constraint.
59. We seek comment on the proposal to reflect the costs of offline fast-start resources in prices in certain circumstances. Specifically, we seek comment on whether we should establish a standard amortization period for the commitment costs of offline fast-start resources for all RTOs/ISOs, similar to online fast-start resources, or whether RTOs/ISOs should be allowed to propose an amortization period on compliance. To determine a resource's full cost for the purpose of pricing, RTOs/ISOs could amortize a resource's costs over a particular time period. We also seek input on any additional rules for offline fast-start resources to ensure they will respond in time to meet the system needs beyond requiring that they be feasible and economic for addressing system needs. We also seek comment on the market conditions under which offline fast-start resources should be able to set prices (
60. We propose to require RTOs/ISOs to incorporate fast-start pricing in both the day-ahead and real-time markets. We preliminarily find that doing so provides a more accurate price signal in the day-ahead market and supports price convergence between the day-ahead and real-time markets.
61. As discussed above, fast-start resources are frequently used to quickly respond to real-time system conditions. However, under certain market conditions, such as high day-ahead demand or persistent congestion patterns, fast-start resources may economically clear the day-ahead market. For reasons similar to the ones discussed above, we believe that when these resources economically clear the market, market prices should reflect the marginal cost of these resources. By allowing fast-start resources to set prices, RTO/ISO markets will send a transparent price signal that more accurately reflects marginal costs.
62. We further preliminarily find that requiring consistent pricing practices in both the day-ahead and real-time markets will lead to better price convergence, and therefore we believe these benefits merit implementation of fast-start pricing in both the day-ahead and real-time markets. Absent consistent pricing in both the day-ahead and real-time markets, day-ahead and real-time market prices may be different even under similar market conditions. For example, the day-ahead and real-time markets in ISO-NE could produce different energy prices even under identical market conditions because the day-ahead market does not incorporate the commitment costs of fast-start resources in energy prices.
63. We seek comment on the proposal to incorporate consistent fast-start pricing in both day-ahead and real-time markets. Specifically, we acknowledge that implementation in the day-ahead market may have a smaller benefit given that most fast-start resources clear in the real-time market, and we thus seek comment on the extent to which there are benefits or drawbacks to applying the proposed reforms to both the day-ahead and real-time markets, as opposed to only the real-time markets. Further, we seek comment on whether there are any reasons for establishing different fast-start pricing practices in the day-ahead and real-time markets. In particular, we seek comment on including commitment costs in the day-ahead market given different forecast, optimization, and commitment time horizons than the real-time market, where fast-start units can have brief dispatch periods to meet system needs.
64. We seek comment on the need for reform and on the five proposals outlined above.
65. We recognize the potential that the proposed reforms may require significant changes to RTO/ISO software systems, which can be a complex and costly endeavor. We seek comment on the required software changes, updates to optimization modeling and parameter inputs, estimated costs and time necessary to implement aspects of the reforms proposed in this NOPR, and any additional considerations for implementing the requirements proposed herein.
66. We propose to require that each RTO/ISO submit a compliance filing within 90 days of the effective date of any eventual Final Rule in this proceeding to demonstrate that it meets the proposed requirements set forth in any Final Rule. We note that this compliance deadline is for RTOs/ISOs to submit proposed tariff changes or otherwise demonstrate compliance with any Final Rule. We understand that implementing the reforms required by any Final Rule in this proceeding may be a complex endeavor. However, we preliminarily find that implementation of these reforms is important to ensure rates remain just and reasonable. Therefore, we propose that tariff changes filed in response to a Final Rule in this proceeding must become effective no more than six months after compliance filings are due. We seek comment on this proposed compliance timeline.
67. We seek comment on the proposed deadline for RTOs/ISOs to submit the compliance filing 90 days following the effective date of any Final Rule in this proceeding. Specifically, we seek comment on whether 90 days is sufficient time for RTOs/ISOs to develop new tariff language in response to any Final Rule.
68. To the extent that any RTO/ISO believes that it already complies with the reforms proposed in this NOPR, the RTO/ISO would be required to demonstrate how it complies in the compliance filing required 90 days after the effective date of any Final Rule in this proceeding. To the extent that any RTO/ISO seeks to argue on compliance that its existing market rules are consistent with or superior to the reforms adopted in any Final Rule, the Commission will entertain those at that time.
69. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)
70. The reforms proposed in this NOPR would amend the Commission's regulations to improve the operation of organized wholesale electric power markets operated by RTOs/ISOs. The Commission proposes to require each RTO and ISO implement market rules that meet certain requirements when pricing fast-start resources. The reforms proposed in this NOPR would require one-time filings of tariffs with the Commission and potential software upgrades to implement the reforms proposed in this NOPR. The Commission anticipates the reforms proposed in this NOPR, once implemented, would not significantly change currently existing burdens on an ongoing basis. With regard to those RTOs/ISOs that believe that they already comply with the reforms proposed in this NOPR, they could demonstrate their compliance in the compliance filing required 90 days after the effective date of any Final Rule in this proceeding. The Commission will submit the proposed reporting requirements to OMB for its review and approval under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
71. While the Commission expects the adoption of the reforms proposed in this NOPR to provide significant benefits, the Commission understands implementation can be a complex endeavor. The Commission solicits comments on the accuracy of provided burden and cost estimates and any suggested methods for minimizing the respondents' burdens, including the use of automated information techniques. Specifically, the Commission seeks detailed comments on the potential cost and time necessary to implement aspects of the reforms proposed in this NOPR, including (1) hardware, software, and business processes changes; and (2) processes for RTOs/ISOs to vet proposed changes amongst their stakeholders.
72.
65. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the following: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attention: Ellen Brown, Office of the Executive Director], email:
73. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
74. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
75. The SBA classifies an entity as an electric utility if it is primarily engaged in the transmission, generation and/or distribution of electric energy for sale. Under this definition, the six RTOs/ISOs are considered electric utilities, specifically focused on electric bulk power and control. The size criterion for a small electric utility is 500 or fewer employees.
76. Furthermore, because of their pivotal roles in wholesale electric power markets in their regions, none of the RTOs/ISOs meet the last criterion of the two-part RFA definition of a small entity: “not dominant in its field of operation.”
77. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals that commenters may wish to discuss. Comments are due February 28, 2017. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM17-3-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
78. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
79. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
80. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
81. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
82. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
83. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Electric power rates, Electric utilities.
By direction of the Commission.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission proposes to amend Part 35, Chapter I, Title 18,
16 U.S.C. 791a-825r, 2601-2645; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352.
(g) * * *
(10)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
The following appendix will not appear in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notification; extension of comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is extending the comment period for a docket to receive information and comments on the use of the term “healthy” in the labeling of human food products. We established the docket through a notice that appeared in the
FDA is extending the comment period on the notice that published in the
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Vincent de Jesus, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-830), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1450.
In the
We have received requests to extend the comment period. The requests conveyed concern that the current 120-day comment period does not allow sufficient time to develop meaningful or thoughtful comments to the questions and issues we presented in the notice.
We have considered the requests and are extending the comment period for 90 days, until April 26, 2017. We believe that a 90-day extension allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of petition; reopening of the comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is reopening the comment period for the notice of petition, published in the
Submit either electronic or written comments by January 30, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Carissa Doody, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-228), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-6283,
In the
Interested persons were originally given until December 8, 2016, to comment on the petitioner's environmental assessment. The November 8, 2016, notice of petition was published with the incorrect docket number. A correction published in the
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains proposed regulations under section 3402(q) with respect to withholding on certain payments of gambling winnings from horse races, dog races, and jai alai and on certain other payments of gambling winnings. The proposed regulations affect both payers and payees of the gambling winnings subject to withholding under section 3402(q).
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by March 30, 2017.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-123841-16), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-123841-16), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or sent electronically, via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, David Bergman, (202) 317-6845; concerning submissions of comments or to request a public hearing, Regina Johnson, (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The collection of information contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget through Form W-2G (OMB No. 1545-0238) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)). Notice and an opportunity to comment on the proposed changes to burden hours for the forms related to this proposed rule will be published in a separate notice in the
This document contains proposed regulations to amend the Employment Tax Regulations (26 CFR 31) under section 3402 of the Internal Revenue Code relating to withholding from gambling winnings for horse races, dog races, and jai alai. The proposed regulations update and clarify other provisions of § 31.3402(q)-1 and make conforming changes to § 31.3406(g)-2.
Section 3402(q)(1) requires every person, including the United States government, a state, a political subdivision thereof, or any instrumentality of the foregoing, that makes any payment of gambling winnings to deduct and withhold tax on certain payments at the third-lowest tax rate applicable under section 1(c), which for the 2016 tax year is 25 percent. Section 3402(q)(2) provides an exemption from withholding under this section for payments of winnings to nonresident aliens and foreign corporations subject to withholding under sections 1441(a) or 1442(a). Section 3402(q)(3) describes the winnings subject to withholding as proceeds from a wager determined in accordance with the rules in that subsection.
Whether winnings are subject to withholding depends on the type of wagering transaction, the proceeds from a wager, and in some cases the odds associated with a wager. Under sections 3402(q)(3)(B) and (C)(i), payers generally must withhold if the proceeds from a wager exceed $5,000 in a State-conducted lottery, other lottery, sweepstakes, or wagering pool. Under section 3402(q)(3)(A) and (C)(ii), in the case of a wagering transaction in a parimutuel pool with respect to horse races, dog races, or jai alai, the payer must withhold if the proceeds exceed $5,000 and are at least 300 times as large as the amount wagered. Winnings from bingo, keno, and slot machines are exempted from withholding under section 3402(q)(1) by section 3402(q)(5).
Section 3402(q)(4) provides that proceeds from a wager are determined by reducing the amount received by the amount of the wager, and proceeds which are not money are taken into account at fair market value. The current regulations provide rules for determining the amount of proceeds from a wager, including a special rule for “identical wagers.” The rule treats “identical wagers” as paid with respect to a single wager for purposes of
Neither the statute nor the existing regulations explicitly define the terms “wager” or “identical wagers,” but the regulation text of § 31.3402(q)-1(c)(ii), regarding rules for determining the amount of proceeds from a wager, and § 31.3402(q)-1(d) provide examples of wagers that are and are not identical wagers. For example, amounts paid on two bets placed in a parimutuel pool on a particular horse to win a particular race are treated as paid with respect to the same wager. These two bets would not be identical, however, if one bet was for the horse to win and the other bet was for the horse to place (which are bets in two separate parimutuel pools, as explained below). Those two bets would also not be identical if one bet was placed in a pool conducted by the racetrack and the other bet was placed in a separate pool conducted by an off-track betting establishment and such wagers are not pooled with those placed at the racetrack. In addition, two bets on the same race are not identical where the bettor makes an exacta bet on horse M to win and horse N to place and a trifecta bet on horse M to win, horse N to place, and horse O to show. See § 31.3402(q)-1(d), Example 11. The preamble to the current regulations provides the following definition for identical bets: “Identical bets are those in which winning depends on the occurrence (or non-occurrence) of the same event or events.” T.D. 7919 (48 FR 46296) (Oct. 12, 1983).
The statute does not explicitly address how to determine the amount of the wager in the case of exotic wagers. Exotic wagers are those other than straight wagers. Straight wagers include bets to win (selecting the first-place finisher), place (selecting a finisher to place first or second), and show (selecting a finisher to place first, second, or third). Examples of exotic bets include multi-contestant bets, such as an exacta (selecting the first and second-place finishers in a single contest, in the correct order) and a trifecta (selecting the first, second, and third-place finishers in a single contest, in the correct order). Other examples include multi-contest bets such as a Pick 6 (selecting the first-place finisher in six consecutive contests).
The instructions to Form W-2G provide the rule for multiple wagers reflected on a single ticket as follows: “For multiple wagers sold on one ticket, such as the $12 box bet on a Big Triple or Trifecta, the wager is considered as six $2 bets and not one $12 bet for purposes of computing the amount to be reported or withheld.”
The Treasury Department and the IRS requested comments from the public on the treatment of wagers in parimutuel gambling on March 4, 2015, in a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-132253-11) under section 6041 regarding information returns to report winnings from bingo, keno, and slot machine play. The notice of proposed rulemaking stated that taxpayers required to report winnings from parimutuel gambling may have concerns relating to when wagers with respect to horse races, dog races, and jai alai may be treated as identical and that the Treasury Department and the IRS intend to amend the regulations under § 31.3402(q)-1.
Multiple commentators requested a rule that would take into account all money wagered in a particular parimutuel pool when determining proceeds from a wager for purposes of determining whether withholding under section 3402(q) was required. In particular, some commentators requested that the Treasury Department and the IRS revise the regulations to provide a definition of the “amount of the wager” when multiple bets are placed in the same pool to include the total amount wagered by a bettor into a specific parimutuel pool for purposes of determining whether wagering proceeds are subject to withholding and reporting. The commentators stated that this change would reflect innovations and changes to today's modern parimutuel wagering strategies.
Section 3402(q)(6) provides that recipients of gambling winnings subject to withholding must furnish a statement to the payer, under penalties of perjury, containing the name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the recipient and each person entitled to any portion of the payment. The current regulations provide that the statement, furnished on a Form W-2G, Certain Gambling Winnings, or Form 5754, Statement by Person(s) Receiving Gambling Winnings, also must indicate if the payee and any other persons entitled to payment are entitled to winnings from identical wagers. §§ 1.6011-3, 31.3402(q)-1(c)(ii). The payer may rely on this statement in determining the amount of proceeds from the wager. § 31.3402(q)-1(c)(ii).
On or before February 28 (March 31 if filed electronically) of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the payment is made, the payer must file a return on Form W-2G with the Internal Revenue Service reporting the gambling winnings subject to withholding. § 31.3402(q)-1(f). Section 6041(d) and the instructions to Form W-2G require that the payer filing a Form W-2G also furnish a statement to the payee on or before January 31 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which the payment is made.
The current regulations for withholding from gambling winnings under section 3402(q) were last substantively amended in 1983. According to commentators, since that time, exotic bets on horse races, dog races, and jai alai have accounted for an increasing percentage of total bets placed on horse races, dog races, and jai alai. The increase in exotic betting, and in particular the use of certain methods of exotic betting, has resulted in scenarios where the current rules may result in withholding that significantly exceeds the individual gambler's ultimate income tax liability. In light of this, the proposed regulations amend the rules regarding how payers determine the amount of the wager in parimutuel wagering transactions with respect to horse races, dog races, and jai alai. Specifically, these proposed regulations address exotic bets on horse races, dog races, and jai alai by providing a new rule to determine the amount of the wager when wagers are placed in a single parimutuel pool and are reflected on a single ticket. In addition, the current regulations under section 3402(q) are updated to reflect current law regarding the withholding thresholds and certain information reporting requirements.
In parimutuel betting, which translates to betting “amongst ourselves,” the bettors themselves establish the odds and payouts, as opposed to having fixed odds. Each type of bet on a contest or series of contests goes into its own parimutuel pool. For example, each win bet goes into the win pool for that contest, regardless of the finisher selected to win. As amounts are wagered in the pool, the odds and
Parimutuel betting involves both straight and exotic bets. Each type of straight or exotic bet is placed in its own parimutuel pool. For example, a trifecta bet on a particular contest goes into that contest's trifecta pool, regardless of the finishers or order of finish selected, and the trifecta pool is separate from the win pool, the exacta pool, and all other pools associated with that particular contest. Exotic bets provide greater odds and bigger pay-offs than straight bets.
Multiple combinations of exotic bets may be placed on a single ticket, making it easier for bettors to place wagers on the various possible outcomes. For example in horse racing, bettors often use box, key, and wheel bets to place the same type of exotic bet (
Commentators stated that since the regulations were last substantively amended, the rise in the number of exotic bets available at certain racetracks and the popularity of exotic betting has altered parimutuel betting practices. Commentators stated that, for example, in the 1978 Kentucky Derby, there were three types of bets available to be placed at Churchill Downs racetrack, where the Kentucky Derby is run. Those bets were bets to win, place, or show. By contrast, in the 2015 Kentucky Derby, there were twenty-three types of bets available to be placed at Churchill Downs racetrack, including the superfecta, super high five, and pick 7 jackpot. Furthermore, commentators stated that today approximately 67% of all parimutuel wagering occurs on exotic wagers (versus straight wagers), as compared to the 1970s when approximately 10% of parimutuel wagering occurred on exotic wagers.
Further, commentators stated that the increase in availability of exotic betting has caused bettors to substantially increase their amounts wagered, often by placing box, key, and wheel bets, in a particular parimutuel pool to increase their chances of winning and increase the potential payout. In addition, commentators attributed the rise in popularity of exotic bets to the fact that exotic bets offer significantly higher odds. As a result, commentators stated that modern bettors are putting more money towards bets with greater potential payouts in anticipation of significant winnings.
Commentators also stated that payouts from straight bets were rarely subject to withholding because they virtually never came close to exceeding the 300 to 1 ratio of proceeds to the amount of the wager. On the other hand, exotic bets do result in proceeds exceeding the amount of the wager by a 300 to 1 ratio; for example, seven different exotic bets at the 2015 Kentucky Derby produced payouts exceeding the 300 to 1 ratio. However, given the vast number of potential outcomes possible with exotic bets, the commentators stated that bettors are using techniques such as box, key, or wheel bets to increase their odds. As a result, it is undoubtedly the case that the winners wagered far more into the pool than the cost of the winning bet.
Commentators stated that the tax treatment under the current rules ignores the actual investment in a single parimutuel pool and may result in withholding that significantly exceeds the amount necessary to cover the individual gambler's ultimate income tax liability and suggested changing the rule to take into account all wagers in the same parimutuel pool. The commentators provided the following example to illustrate this. A bettor makes a seven-horse trifecta box wager, which involves selecting a group of seven horses to place first, second, and third, in any order. This bet has 210 unique possible results. Assuming the bettor bets $20 on each combination, the total amount wagered is $4,200. At race time the winning combination carries 304 to 1 odds. After the race, the bettor holds a winning ticket that pays $6,100 ($304 × $20 wagered + $20 return of bet). Under the current rules, the racetrack would withhold $1,520 (($6,100−20) × 25%) and report $6,080 in winnings ($6,100−$20) because the rules treat only the $20 paid for the single winning combination as the amount wagered. However, the commentators stated that the individual has netted only $1,900 ($6,100 winnings less $4,200 wagered), and is left with $380 ($1,900−$1,520) once withholding taxes are taken out, which makes the withholding rate 80% of net winnings.
Under the commentators' proposed change, the amount of the wager would be considered to be $4,200. Thus the racetrack would not withhold because the proceeds from the wager ($1,900) are less than the $5,000 withholding threshold and are also less than $1,260,000 (300 times the amount wagered). Similarly, the racetrack would not report the proceeds because they are not at least 300 times the amount wagered.
The commentators noted that although the bettor may be able to deduct the losing wagers on the bettor's tax return at the end of the year as a miscellaneous itemized deduction, there would be other consequences. For example, the $1,520 withholding lowers the amount of money in circulation at the racetrack that day and reduces the bettor's cash on hand, whereas the commentators' proposed change would result in additional cash on hand to be bet in subsequent races.
In addition, the commentators stated that the deduction for losing wagers results in reporting of higher adjusted gross income than would result under the commentator's proposed change. Commentators further stated that a higher adjusted gross income can cause the bettor to lose unrelated tax benefits. In addition, the deduction is only available if the bettor itemizes deductions and is not subject to the alternative minimum tax. Finally the commentators noted that many states limit itemized deductions for state tax purposes.
Proposed § 31.3402(q)-1(c)(ii) provides a new rule for purposes of determining the amount of the wager for wagering transactions in horse races, dog races, and jai alai. The proposed rule allows all wagers placed in a single parimutuel pool and represented on a single ticket to be aggregated and treated as a single wager for purposes of determining the amount of the wager. The proposed rule allows a payer to take into account the total amount wagered
The proposed rule for determining the amount of the wager addresses the fact that the current rules may result in withholding that significantly exceeds the amount necessary to cover the individual gambler's ultimate income tax liability, and that creates an unnecessary burden on the bettor and the horse racing, dog racing, and jai alai industries. As described in the commentators' example, current rules for exotic bets placed as box, key, or wheel bets can result in an 80% withholding rate on net winnings from wagers placed in the same pool. This result has become more common in the decades since the regulations were last amended because the number of exotic bet types and the popularity of exotic bets have increased substantially, and various combinations of these exotic bets are often placed together on a single ticket as part of the same transaction.
By limiting the amount of the wager in a wagering transaction with respect to horse races, dog races, and jai alai to the wagers represented on a single ticket, the proposed rule limits the potential for fraud and creates an administrable system for payers. The rule is administrable because it does not require payers to collect information regarding winning wagers where additional wagers placed in the same pool are reflected on multiple tickets. If bettors want to place additional wagers in the same parimutuel pool after already having purchased a ticket, commentators stated that bettors may be able to cancel the first ticket and place the original and additional wagers for that pool on a new ticket.
The proposed regulations maintain the current rule regarding identical wagers. To clarify the meaning of the term, however, the proposed regulations provide a definition of identical wagers taken from the preamble of the current regulations. T.D. 7919 (48 FR 46296). The proposed regulations also move examples of identical wagers from the regulatory text to the examples section.
The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments regarding whether the proposed rule addressing the amount of the wager in a wagering transaction in the case of horse races, dog races, and jai alai should apply to other types of gambling subject to withholding under section 3402(q), such as lotteries.
In addition to the proposed rule for wagers in horse races, dog races, and jai alai, the proposed regulations make ministerial updates to the current regulations to reflect current law.
Proposed regulations § 31.3402(q)-1(a) and (b) are amended to reflect the current statutory tax rate for withholding (the third-lowest tax rate under section 1(c)) and the current statutory thresholds for withholding for all types of gambling covered by this regulation ($5,000). In 1992 and again in 2001, Congress amended section 3402(q)(1) to change the withholding rate first from 20 percent to 28 percent and then to its current level of “the third lowest rate of tax applicable under section 1(c),” but the current regulations do not reflect either of these statutory amendments.
In addition, proposed regulation § 31.3402(q)-1(c)(4) updates the rule regarding payments to nonresident aliens or foreign corporations.
Proposed regulations § 31.3402(q)-1(d) and (e) update and clarify the reporting rules for gambling winnings subject to withholding under section 3402(q). The amendments to § 31.3402(q)-1(d), regarding the statement by the payee of gambling winnings subject to withholding under section 3402(q), reorganize the current regulations into new sub-sections. Proposed § 31.3402(q)-1(d)(1) provides the general rule that each payer of gambling winnings subject to withholding under section 3402(q) must obtain a payee statement. Proposed § 31.3402(q)-1(d)(2) describes the content of the payee statement. Proposed § 31.3402(q)-1(d)(3) states the reliance rule currently described in § 31.3402(q)-1(c)(1)(ii) that where a payee furnishes the required payee statement and, as required by § 1.6011-3, indicates that he or she is entitled to winnings from identical wagers, the payer may rely on the statement in determining the total amount of proceeds from the wager.
The amendments to proposed § 31.3402(q)-1(e), regarding the information return filed by the payer on Form W-2G, modernize the current reporting rules. First, the proposed regulations replace outdated references to the place of filing with a requirement that the return be filed with the appropriate Internal Revenue Service location designated in the instructions to the form.
Second, the proposed regulations require the payer to report the taxpayer identification number of the winner in lieu of the social security number to allow for a broader range of taxpayer identification numbers, including individual taxpayer identification numbers (ITINs) and adoption taxpayer identification numbers (ATINs). This amendment allows truncation of the taxpayer identification number on the statement furnished by the payer to the payee because the regulation no longer requires a social security number. For provisions relating to the use of truncated taxpayer identification numbers, see § 31.6109-4 of this chapter.
Third, the proposed regulations update the payee identification provisions. Section 31.3402(q)-1(f)(1)(v) of the current regulations provides that the identification verifying the payee's identity must include the payee's social security number. According to the current regulations, examples of acceptable identification include a driver's license, a social security card, or a voter registration card. However, today most forms of identification do not include a person's social security number. Therefore, many payees do not have identification that contains the payee's social security number and, even if they do, they may not have this identification with them at the time that they receive a payment of gambling winnings subject to withholding under section 3402(q).
To address this issue, proposed §§ 31.3402(q)-1(e)(1)(v) and (e)(2) provide that, in addition to government-issued identification, a properly completed Form W-9 signed by the payee is an acceptable form of identification to verify the payee's identifying information. Payers who verify payee information using identification set forth in proposed
Fourth, the proposed regulations contain a special rule in § 31.3402(q)-1(e)(3) that tribal member identification cards need not contain the payee's photograph to meet the identification requirements in § 31.3402(q)-1(e)(1)(v) of the proposed regulations, provided specific criteria are met. This special rule responds to comments raised by Indian tribes in response to the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-132253-11) under section 6041 regarding information returns to report winnings from bingo, keno, and slot machine play that many tribal identification cards do not contain photographs.
Fifth, the proposed regulations update the obsolete reference to Form W-3G to reflect that payers should use Form 1096 to transmit Forms W-2G to the Internal Revenue Service.
Finally, the proposed regulations in § 31.3402(q)-1(e)(5) provides that a payer filing an information return with the Internal Revenue Service must furnish a statement to the payee containing the same information on or before January 31st of the year following the calendar year in which payment of the winnings subject to withholding is made. See section 6041(d).
Proposed amendments to the regulations under section 3406 update the reporting requirements to address horse races, dog races, and jai alai. Proposed § 31.3406(g)-2(d) is amended to clarify the definition of a reportable gambling winning and to add a cross-reference to § 31.3402(q)-1(c) for determining the amount of the wager in a wagering transaction with respect to horse races, dog races, and jai alai, or amounts paid with respect to identical wagers.
These regulations are proposed to apply to payments made after the date of publication of the Treasury Decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
IRS published guidance cited in this preamble is published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin and is available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS Web site at
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required. It is hereby certified that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This certification is based on the fact that this rule merely provides guidance regarding withholding and reporting requirements for payers of certain gambling winnings. The requirement for payers to withhold and make information returns is imposed by statute and not these regulations. In addition, this rule reduces the existing burden on payers to comply with the statutory requirement by decreasing the number of payments subject to withholding and reporting. Therefore, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. Chapter 6) is not required.
Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any written comments (a signed original and eight (8) copies) or electronic comments that are submitted timely to the IRS. In addition to the requests for comments noted in the Background Section, Treasury and the IRS request comments on any other aspects of the proposed rules, and any other issues relating to the payment of gambling winnings that are not addressed in the proposed regulations. All comments will be available at
A public hearing will be scheduled if requested in writing by any person that timely submits written comments. If a public hearing is scheduled, notice of the date, time, and place for the public hearing will be published in the
The principal author of these proposed regulations is David Bergman of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration).
Employment taxes and collection of income tax at source.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 31 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805. * * *
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(i) A wager placed in a State-conducted lottery (defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section) but only if the proceeds from the wager exceed $5,000;
(ii) A wager placed in a sweepstakes, wagering pool, or lottery other than a State-conducted lottery but only if the proceeds from the wager exceed $5,000; or
(iii) Any other wagering transaction (as defined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section) but only if the proceeds from the wager (A) exceed $5,000 and (B) are at least 300 times as large as the amount of the wager.
(2)
(c)
(ii)
(iii)
(B)
(C)
(4)
(d)
(2)
(A) The name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the winner accompanied by a declaration that no other person is entitled to any portion of such payment, or
(B) The name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the payee and of every person entitled to any portion of such payment.
(3) If more than one payment of winnings subject to withholding is to be made with respect to a single wager, for example in the case of an annuity, the payee is required to furnish the payer a statement with respect to the first such payment only, provided that such other payments are taken into account in a return required by paragraph (e) of this section.
(4)
(e)
(i) The name, address, and employer identification number of the payer;
(ii) The name, address, and taxpayer identification number of the winner;
(iii) The date, amount of the payment, and amount withheld;
(iv) The type of wagering transaction;
(v) Except with respect to winnings from a wager placed in a State-conducted lottery, a general description of the two types of identification (as described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section), one of which must have the payee's photograph on it (except in the case of tribal member identification cards in certain circumstances as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section), that the payer relied on to verify the payee's name, address, and taxpayer identification number;
(vi) The amount of winnings from identical wagers; and
(vii) Any other information required by the form, instructions, or other applicable guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.
(2)
(i) Government-issued identification (for example, a driver's license, passport, social security card, military identification card, tribal member identification card issued by a federally-recognized Indian tribe, or voter registration card) in the name of the payee; and
(ii) A Form W-9, “Request for Taxpayer Identification Number and Certification,” signed by the payee that includes the payee's name, address, taxpayer identification number, and other information required by the form. A Form W-9 is not acceptable for this purpose if the payee has modified the form (other than pursuant to instructions to the form) or if the payee has deleted the jurat or other similar provisions by which the payee certifies or affirms the correctness of the statements contained on the form.
(3)
(i) The payee is a member of a federally-recognized Indian tribe;
(ii) The payee presents the payer with a tribal member identification card issued by a federally-recognized Indian tribe stating that the payee is a member of such tribe; and
(iii) The payer is a gaming establishment (as described in § 1.6041-10(b)(2)(iv) of this chapter) owned or licensed (in accordance with 25 U.S.C. 2710) by the tribal government that issued the tribal member identification card referred to in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section.
(4)
(5)
(f)
B places a $15 bet at the cashier window at the racetrack for horse A to win the fifth race at the racetrack that day. After placing the first bet, B gains confidence in horse A's prospects to win and places an additional $40 bet at the cashier window at the racetrack for horse A to win the fifth race, receiving a second ticket for this second bet. Horse A wins the fifth race, and B wins a total of $5,500 (100 to 1 odds) on those bets. The $15 bet and the $40 bet are identical wagers under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section because winning on both bets depended on the occurrence of the same event and the bets are placed in the same parimutuel pool with the same payer. This is true regardless of the fact that the amount of the wager differs in each case.
B cashes the tickets at different cashier windows. Pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section and § 1.6011-3, B completes a Form W-2G indicating that the amount of winnings is from identical wagers and provides the form to each cashier. The payments by each cashier of $1,500 and $4,000 are less than the $5,000 threshold for withholding, but under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, identical wagers are treated as paid with respect to a single wager for purposes of determining the proceeds from a wager. The payment is not subject to withholding or reporting because although the proceeds from the wager are $5,445 ($1,500 + $4,000 − $55), the proceeds from the wager are not at least 300 times as great as the amount wagered ($55 × 300 = $16,500).
B makes two $1,000 bets in a single “show” pool for the same jai alai game, one bet on Player X to show and one bet on Player Y to show. A show bet is a winning bet if the player comes in first, second, or third in a single game. The bets are placed at the same time at the same cashier window, and B receives a single ticket showing both bets. Player X places second in the game, and Player Y does not place first, second, or third in the game. B wins $8,000 from his bet on Player X. Because winning on both bets does not depend on the occurrence of the same event, the bets are not identical bets under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. However, pursuant to the rule in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the amount of the wager is the aggregate amount of both wagers ($2,000) because the bets were placed in a single parimutuel pool and reflected on a single ticket. The payment is not subject to withholding or reporting because although the proceeds from the wager are $6,000 ($8,000 − $2,000), the proceeds from the wager are not at least 300 times as great as the amount wagered ($2,000 × 300 = $600,000).
B bets a total of $120 on a three-dog exacta box bet ($20 for each one of the six combinations played) at the dog racetrack and receives a single ticket reflecting the bet from the cashier. B wins $5,040 from one of the selected combinations. Pursuant to the rule in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the amount of the wager is $120, not $20 for the single winning combination of the six combinations played. The payment is not subject to withholding under section 3402(q) because the proceeds from the wager are $4,920 ($5,040 − $120), which is below the section 3402(q) withholding threshold.
B makes two $12 Pick 6 bets at the horse racetrack at two different cashier windows and receives two different tickets each representing a single $12 Pick 6 bet. In his two Pick 6 bets, B selects the same horses to win races 1-5 but selects different horses to win race 6. All Pick 6 bets on those races at that racetrack are part of a single parimutuel pool from which Pick 6 winning bets are paid. B wins $5,020 from one of his Pick 6 bets. Pursuant to the rule in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the bets are not aggregated for purposes of determining the amount of the wager because the bets are reflected on separate tickets. Assuming that the applicable rate is 25%, the racetrack must deduct and withhold $1,252 (($5,020 − $12) × 25%) because the amounts of the proceeds of $5,008 ($5,020 − $12) is greater than $5,000 and is at least 300 times as great as the amount wagered ($12 × 300 = $3,600). The racetrack also must report B's winnings on Form W-2G pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section and furnish a copy of the Form W-2G to B.
C makes two $50 bets in two different parimutuel pools for the same jai alai game. One bet is an “exacta” in which C bets on player M to win and player N to “place”. The other bet is a “trifecta” in which C bets on player M to win, player N to “place,” and player O to “show.” C wins both bets and is paid $2,000 with respect to
C makes two $100 bets for the same dog to win a particular race. C places one bet at the racetrack and one bet at an off-track betting establishment, but the two pools constitute a single pool. C receives separate tickets for each bet. C wins both bets and is paid $4,000 from the racetrack and $4,000 from the off-track betting establishment. Under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the bets are not aggregated for purposes of determining the amount of the wager because the wager placed at the racetrack and the wager placed at the off-track betting establishment are reflected on separate tickets, despite being placed in the same parimutuel pool. No section 3402(q) withholding is required because neither payment separately exceeds the $5,000 withholding threshold.
C places a $200 Pick 6 bet for a series of races at the racetrack on a particular day and receives a single ticket for the bet. No wager correctly picks all six races that day, so that portion of the pool carries over to the following day. On the following day, C places an additional $200 Pick 6 bet for that day's series of races and receives a new ticket for that bet. C wins $100,000 on the second day. Pursuant to the rule in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the bets are on two separate tickets, so C's two Pick 6 bets are not aggregated for purposes of determining the amount of the wager. Assuming that the applicable rate is 25%, the racetrack must deduct and withhold $24,950 (($100,000 − $200) × 25%) because the amount of the proceeds of $99,800 ($100,000 − $200) is greater than $5,000, and is at least 300 times as great as the amount wagered ($200 × 300 = $60,000). The racetrack also must report C's winnings on Form W-2G pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section and furnish a copy of the Form W-2G to C.
(g)
(h) Effective/applicability date.
(d) * * *
(2)
(i) The amount paid with respect to the amount of the wager reduced, at the option of the payer; by
(ii) The amount of the wager.
(3)
(h)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of final action denying petition for reconsideration.
This action provides notice that the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Administrator, Gina McCarthy, denied a petition for reconsideration of the final Finding that Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Aircraft Cause or Contribute to Air Pollution that May Reasonably Be Anticipated to Endanger Public Health and Welfare, published in the
The EPA took final action to deny the petition for reconsideration on December 21, 2016.
Lesley Jantarasami, Office of Atmospheric Programs, Climate Change Division, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Mail Code 6207-A, Washington DC 20460; Telephone number: (202) 343-9990; Email address:
This
Section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) indicates which Federal Court of Appeals have venue over petitions for review of final EPA actions. This section provides, in part, that the petitions for review must be filed in the Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit if: (i) The agency action consists of “nationally applicable regulations promulgated, or final action taken, by the Administrator;” or (ii) such actions are locally or regionally applicable, if “such action is based on a determination of nationwide scope or effect and if in taking such action the Administrator finds and publishes that such action is based on such a determination.”
The EPA has determined that its action denying the petition for reconsideration is nationally applicable for purposes of CAA section 307(b)(1) because it affects the final Finding that Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Aircraft Cause or Contribute to Air Pollution that May Reasonably Be Anticipated to Endanger Public Health and Welfare, and that finding triggers the EPA's statutory duty to promulgate aircraft engine emission standards under CAA section 231, which are nationally applicable regulations and for which judicial review will be available only in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit. Moreover, EPA already determined that the subject finding was nationally applicable,
Thus, any petition for judicial review of the EPA's decision to deny the petition for reconsideration described in this document must be filed in the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit by February 28, 2017.
On July 25, 2016, EPA Administrator McCarthy signed the action entitled “Finding that Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Aircraft Cause or Contribute to Air Pollution that May Reasonably Be Anticipated to Endanger Public Health and Welfare.” That action included two findings under section 231(a)(2)(A) of the CAA. These findings were that: (1) Concentrations of six well-mixed greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere endanger the public health and welfare of current and future generations (the endangerment finding), and (2) GHGs emitted from certain classes of engines used in certain aircraft
The Biogenic CO
The EPA carefully reviewed the petition for reconsideration and evaluated all the information presented on the issues raised, along with information contained in the docket for the 2016 Findings, in reaching a decision on the petition. The EPA has concluded that the petition does not meet the criteria for reconsideration in CAA section 307(d)(7)(B). In a letter to the petitioner, the EPA Administrator, Gina McCarthy, denied the petition for reconsideration. The letter included an enclosure, a Reconsideration Response document entitled “Response to the Biogenic CO
For the reasons discussed in the letter to the petitioner and the Reconsideration Response document, the petition to reconsider the final Finding that Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Aircraft Cause or Contribute to Air Pollution that May Reasonably Be Anticipated to Endanger Public Health and Welfare is denied.
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for Reconsideration.
Petitions for Reconsideration (Petitions) have been filed in the Commission's rulemaking proceeding by Chris Pearson, on behalf of 5G Americas; Donald L. Herman, Jr., on behalf of Adams Telcom, Inc., jointly with Central Texas Communications, Inc., E.N.M.R. Telephone Cooperative, Louisiana Competitive Telecommunications, Inc., and Pine Belt Communications, Inc.; Audrey L. Allison, on behalf of The Boeing Company; Steven K. Berry, on behalf of Competitive Carriers Association; Brian M. Josef, on behalf of CTIA; Giselle Creeser, on behalf of Inmarsat, Inc., jointly with Jennifer A. Manner, on behalf of EchoStar Satellite Operating Corporation and Hughes Network Systems LLC; Rick Chessen, on behalf of NTCA—The Internet & Television Association; Michele C. Farquhar, on behalf of Nextlink Wireless, LLC; Petra Vorwig, on behalf of SES Americom, Inc., jointly with Suzanne Malloy, on behalf of O3b Limited; Tom Stroup, on behalf of Satellite Industry Association; James Reid, on behalf of Telecommunications Industry Association; Steve B. Sharkey, on behalf of T-Mobile USA, Inc.; and Christopher Murphy, on behalf of ViaSat, Inc.
Oppositions to the Petition must be filed on or before January 17, 2017. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before January 24, 2017.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
John Schauble, Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, (202) 418-0797; email:
This is a summary of the Commission's document, Report No. 3065, released December 22, 2016. The full text of the Petitions is available for viewing and copying at the FCC Reference Information Center, 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554 or may be accessed online via the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System at:
Federal Communications Commission.
Petition for Reconsideration.
Petitions for Reconsideration (Petitions) have been filed in the Commission's rulemaking proceeding by David Oxenford and Kelly Donohue, on behalf of Connoisseur Media, LLC.; Richard J. Bodorff
Oppositions to the Petitions must be filed on or before January 17, 2017. Replies to an opposition must be filed on or before January 24, 2017.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Benjamin Arden, Media Bureau, (202) 418-2605; email:
This is a summary of the Commission's document, Report No. 3064, released December 21, 2016. The full text of the Petitions is available for viewing and copying at the FCC Reference Information Center, 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554 or may be accessed online via the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System at:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule.
NMFS has received a request from the Sonoma County Water Agency (SCWA) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to Russian River estuary management activities in Sonoma County, California, over the course of five years (2017-2022). As required by the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is proposing regulations to govern that
Comments and information must be received no later than January 30, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0163, by any of the following methods:
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Comments regarding any aspect of the collection of information requirement contained in this proposed rule should be sent to NMFS via one of the means provided here and to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Office, Washington, DC 20503,
Ben Laws, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
A copy of SCWA's application and any supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at:
NMFS prepared an Environmental Assessment (EA; 2010) and associated Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) in accordance with NEPA and the regulations published by the Council on Environmental Quality. These documents are posted at the aforementioned Internet address. Information in SCWA's application, NMFS's EA (2010), and this notice collectively provide the environmental information related to proposed issuance of these regulations for public review and comment. We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice as we complete the NEPA process, including a decision of whether the existing EA and FONSI provide adequate analysis related to the potential environmental effects of issuing an incidental take authorization to SCWA, prior to a final decision on the request.
This proposed rule, to be issued under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) (16 U.S.C. 1361
We received an application from SCWA requesting five-year regulations and authorization to take multiple species of marine mammals. Take would occur by Level B harassment incidental to estuary management activities due to disturbance of hauled pinnipeds. The regulations would be valid from 2017 to 2022. Please see “Background” below for definitions of harassment.
Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A)) directs the Secretary of Commerce to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region for up to five years if, after notice and public comment, the agency makes certain findings and issues regulations that set forth permissible methods of taking pursuant to that activity, as well as monitoring and reporting requirements. Section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA and the implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 216, subpart I provide the legal basis for issuing this proposed rule containing five-year regulations, and for any subsequent Letters of Authorization. As directed by this legal authority, this proposed rule contains mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements.
The following provides a summary of some of the major provisions within the proposed rulemaking for SCWA estuary management activities. We have preliminarily determined that SCWA's adherence to the proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures listed below would achieve the least practicable adverse impact on the affected marine mammals. They include:
• Measures to minimize the number and intensity of incidental takes during sensitive times of year and to minimize the duration of disturbances.
• Measures designed to eliminate startling reactions.
• Eliminating or altering management activities on the beach when pups are present, and by setting limits on the frequency and duration of events during pupping season.
Paragraphs 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1371 (a)(5)(A) and (D)) direct the Secretary of Commerce to allow, upon request, the incidental, but not intentional, taking of small numbers of marine mammals by U.S. citizens who engage in a specified activity (other than commercial fishing) within a specified geographical region if certain findings are made and either regulations are issued or, if the taking is limited to harassment, a notice of a proposed authorization is provided to the public for review.
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s); will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant); and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
On September 2, 2016, we received an adequate and complete request from SCWA for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to estuary management activities. On September 20, 2016 (81 FR 64440), we published a notice of receipt of SCWA's application in the
SCWA proposes to manage the naturally-formed barrier beach at the mouth of the Russian River in order to minimize potential for flooding adjacent to the estuary and to enhance habitat for juvenile salmonids, as well as to conduct biological and physical monitoring of the barrier beach and estuary. Flood control-related breaching of the barrier beach at the mouth of the river may include artificial breaches, as well as construction and maintenance of a lagoon outlet channel. The latter activity, an alternative management technique conducted to mitigate impacts of flood control on rearing habitat for Endangered Species Act (ESA)-listed salmonids, occurs only from May 15 through October 15 (hereafter, the “lagoon management period”). Artificial breaching and monitoring activities may occur at any time during the period of validity of the proposed regulations. The requested regulations would be valid for 5 years, from April 21, 2017, through April 20, 2022.
Breaching of the naturally-formed barrier beach at the mouth of the Russian River requires the use of heavy equipment (
Prior to this request for incidental take regulations and a subsequent Letter of Authorization (LOA), we issued seven consecutive incidental harassment authorizations (IHA) to SCWA for incidental take associated with the same ongoing activities. SCWA was first issued an IHA, valid for a period of one year, effective on April 1, 2010 (75 FR 17382), and was subsequently issued one-year IHAs for incidental take associated with the same activities, effective on April 21, 2011 (76 FR 23306), April 21, 2012 (77 FR 24471), April 21, 2013 (78 FR 23746), April 21, 2014 (79 FR 20180), April 21, 2015 (80 FR 24237), and April 21, 2016 (81 FR 22050).
The proposed action involves management of the estuary to prevent flooding while preventing adverse modification to critical habitat for ESA-listed salmonids. Requirements related to the ESA are described in further detail below. During the lagoon management period, this involves construction and maintenance of a lagoon outlet channel that would facilitate formation of a perched lagoon. A perched lagoon, which is an estuary closed to tidal influence in which water surface elevation is above mean high tide, would reduce flooding while maintaining beneficial conditions for juvenile salmonids. Additional breaches of the barrier beach may be conducted for the sole purpose of reducing flood risk. SCWA's proposed activity was described in detail in our notice of proposed authorization prior to the 2011 IHA (76 FR 14924; March 18, 2011); please see that document for a detailed description of SCWA's estuary management activities. Aside from minor additions to SCWA's biological and physical estuary monitoring measures, the specified activity remains the same as that described in the 2011 document.
The specified activity may occur at any time during the five-year period of validity for these proposed regulations (April 21, 2017 through April 20, 2022), although construction and maintenance of a lagoon outlet channel would occur only during the lagoon management period. In addition, there are certain restrictions placed on SCWA during the harbor seal pupping season. These, as well as periodicity and frequency of the specified activities, are described in further detail below.
The estuary is located about 97 kilometers (km) (60 miles (mi)) northwest of San Francisco in Sonoma County, near Jenner, California (see Figure 1 of SCWA's application). The Russian River watershed encompasses 3,847 km
Within the Russian River watershed, the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps), SCWA, and the Mendocino County Russian River Flood Control and Water Conservation Improvement District (District) operate and maintain Federal facilities and conduct activities in addition to the estuary management, including flood control, water diversion and storage, instream flow releases, hydroelectric power generation, channel maintenance, and fish hatchery production. The Corps, SCWA, and the District conducted these activities for many years before salmonid species in the Russian River were protected under the ESA. Upon determination that these actions were likely to affect ESA-listed salmonids, as well as designated critical habitat for these species, formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA was initiated. In 2008, NMFS issued a Biological Opinion (BiOp) for Water Supply, Flood Control Operations, and Channel Maintenance conducted by the Corps, SCWA, and the District in the Russian River watershed (NMFS, 2008). This BiOp found that the activities—including SCWA's estuary management activities—authorized by the Corps and undertaken by SCWA and the District, if continued in a manner similar to
If a project is found to jeopardize a species or adversely modify its critical habitat, NMFS must develop and recommend a non-jeopardizing Reasonable and Prudent Alternative (RPA) to the proposed project, in coordination with the federal action agency and any applicant. A component of the RPA described in the 2008 BiOp requires SCWA to collaborate with NMFS and modify their estuary water level management in order to reduce marine influence (
The analysis contained in the BiOp found that maintenance of lagoon conditions was necessary only for the lagoon management period. See NMFS's BiOp (2008) for details of that analysis. As a result of that determination, there are three components to SCWA's estuary management activities: (1) Lagoon outlet channel management, during the lagoon management period only, required to accomplish the dual purposes of flood risk abatement and maintenance of juvenile salmonid habitat; (2) traditional artificial breaching, with the sole goal of flood risk abatement; and (3) physical and biological monitoring. The latter activity, physical and biological monitoring, will remain the same as in past years and as described in our 2015 notice of proposed authorization (80 FR 14073; March 18, 2015). Please see the previously referenced
NMFS's BiOp determined that salmonid estuarine habitat may be improved by managing the Russian River estuary as a perched, freshwater lagoon and, therefore, stipulates as an RPA to existing conditions that the estuary be managed to achieve such conditions between May 15th and October 15th. In recognition of the complexity and uncertainty inherent in attempting to manage conditions in a dynamic beach environment, the BiOp stipulates that the estuarine water surface elevation RPA be managed adaptively, meaning that it should be planned, implemented, and then iteratively refined based on experience gained from implementation. The first phase of adaptive management, which has been implemented since 2010, is limited to outlet channel management (ESA, 2015).
In order to issue an incidental take authorization (ITA) under section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, “and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for subsistence uses.” NMFS's implementing regulations require applicants for ITAs to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
SCWA has proposed to continue the following mitigation measures, as implemented during the previous ITAs, designed to minimize impact to affected species and stocks:
• SCWA crews would cautiously approach (
• SCWA staff would avoid walking or driving equipment through the seal haul-out.
• Crews on foot would make an effort to be seen by seals from a distance, if possible, rather than appearing suddenly, again preventing sudden flushes.
• During breaching events, all monitoring would be conducted from the overlook on the bluff along Highway 1 adjacent to the haul-out in order to minimize potential for harassment.
• A water level management event may not occur for more than two consecutive days unless flooding threats cannot be controlled.
In addition, SCWA proposes to continue mitigation measures specific to pupping season (March 15-June 30), as implemented in the previous ITAs:
• SCWA will maintain a one week no-work period between water level management events (unless flooding is an immediate threat) to allow for an adequate disturbance recovery period. During the no-work period, equipment must be removed from the beach.
• If a pup less than one week old is on the beach where heavy machinery would be used or on the path used to access the work location, the management action will be delayed until the pup has left the site or the latest day possible to prevent flooding while still maintaining suitable fish rearing habitat. In the event that a pup remains present on the beach in the presence of flood risk, SCWA would consult with NMFS to determine the appropriate course of action. SCWA will coordinate with the locally established seal monitoring program (Stewards' Seal Watch) to determine if pups less than one week old are on the beach prior to a breaching event.
• Physical and biological monitoring will not be conducted if a pup less than one week old is present at the monitoring site or on a path to the site.
For all activities, personnel on the beach would include up to two equipment operators, three safety team members on the beach (one on each side of the channel observing the equipment operators, and one at the barrier to warn beach visitors away from the activities), and one safety team member at the overlook on Highway 1 above the beach. Occasionally, there would be two or more additional people (SCWA staff or regulatory agency staff) on the beach to observe the activities. SCWA staff would be followed by the equipment, which would then be followed by an SCWA vehicle (typically a small pickup truck, the vehicle would be parked at the previously posted signs and barriers on the south side of the excavation location). Equipment would be driven slowly on the beach and care would be taken to minimize the number of shut-downs and start-ups when the equipment is on the beach. All work would be completed as efficiently as possible, with the smallest amount of heavy equipment possible, to minimize disturbance of seals at the haul-out. Boats operating near river haul-outs during monitoring would be kept within posted speed limits and driven as far from the haul-outs as safely possible to minimize flushing seals.
We have carefully evaluated SCWA's proposed mitigation measures and considered a range of other measures in the context of ensuring that we prescribed the means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on the affected marine mammal species and
Any mitigation measure(s) we prescribe should be able to accomplish, have a reasonable likelihood of accomplishing (based on current science), or contribute to the accomplishment of one or more of the general goals listed below:
(1) Avoidance or minimization of injury or death of marine mammals wherever possible (goals 2, 3, and 4 may contribute to this goal).
(2) A reduction in the number (total number or number at biologically important time or location) of individual marine mammals exposed to stimuli expected to result in incidental take (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing takes by behavioral harassment only).
(3) A reduction in the number (total number or number at a biologically important time or location) of times any individual marine mammal would be exposed to stimuli expected to result in incidental take (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing takes by behavioral harassment only).
(4) A reduction in the intensity of exposure to stimuli expected to result in incidental take (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing the severity of behavioral harassment only).
(5) Avoidance or minimization of adverse effects to marine mammal habitat, paying particular attention to the prey base, blockage or limitation of passage to or from biologically important areas, permanent destruction of habitat, or temporary disturbance of habitat during a biologically important time.
(6) For monitoring directly related to mitigation, an increase in the probability of detecting marine mammals, thus allowing for more effective implementation of the mitigation.
Based on our evaluation of SCWA's proposed measures, we have preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
Harbor seals are the most common species inhabiting the haul-out at the mouth of the Russian River (Jenner haul-out) and fine-scale local abundance data for harbor seals have been recorded extensively since 1972. California sea lions and northern elephant seals have also been observed infrequently in the project area. In addition to the primary Jenner haul-out, there are eight peripheral haul-outs nearby (see Figure 1 of SCWA's application). These include North Jenner and Odin Cove to the north; Pocked Rock, Kabemali, and Rock Point to the south; and Penny Logs, Patty's Rock, and Chalanchawi upstream within the estuary.
This section provides summary information regarding local occurrence of these species. We have reviewed SCWA's detailed species descriptions, including life history information, for accuracy and completeness and refer the reader to Sections 3 and 4 of SCWA's application instead of reprinting the information here. Please also see NMFS Stock Assessment Reports, which may be accessed online at
Harbor seals inhabit coastal and estuarine waters and shoreline areas of the Northern Hemisphere from temperate to polar regions. The eastern North Pacific subspecies is found from Baja California north to the Aleutian Islands and into the Bering Sea. Multiple lines of evidence support the existence of geographic structure among harbor seal populations from California to Alaska (Carretta
California harbor seals are not protected under the ESA or listed as depleted under the MMPA, and are not considered a strategic stock under the MMPA because annual human-caused mortality (43) is significantly less than the calculated potential biological removal (PBR; 1,641) (Carretta
Harbor seal pupping normally occurs at the Russian River from March until late June, and sometimes into early July. The Jenner haul-out is the largest in Sonoma County. A substantial amount of monitoring effort has been conducted at the Jenner haul-out and surrounding areas. Concerned local residents formed the Stewards' Seal Watch Public Education Program in 1985 to educate beach visitors and monitor seal populations. State Parks Volunteer Docents continue this effort towards safeguarding local harbor seal habitat. On weekends during the pupping and molting season (approximately March-August), volunteers conduct public outreach and record the numbers of visitors and seals on the beach, other marine mammals observed, and the number of boats and kayaks present.
Ongoing monthly seal counts at the Jenner haul-out were begun by J. Mortenson in January 1987, with additional nearby haul-outs added to the counts thereafter. In addition, local resident E. Twohy began daily observations of seals and people at the Jenner haul-out in November 1989. These datasets note whether the mouth at the Jenner haul-out was opened or closed at each observation, as well as various other daily and annual patterns of haul-out usage (Mortenson and Twohy, 1994). In 2009, SCWA began regular baseline monitoring of the haul-out as a component of its estuary management activity. Table 1 shows average daily numbers of seals observed at the mouth of the Russian River from 1993-2005 and from 2009-15.
The number of seals present at the Jenner haul-out generally declines during bar-closed conditions (Mortenson, 1996). SCWA's pinniped monitoring efforts from 1996 to 2000 focused on artificial breaching activities and their effects on the Jenner haul-out. Seal counts and disturbances were recorded from one to two days prior to breaching, the day of breaching, and the day after breaching (MSC, 1997, 1998, 1999, 2000; SCWA and MSC, 2001). In each year, the trend observed was that harbor seal numbers generally declined during a beach closure and increased the day following an artificial breaching event. Heckel and McIver (1994) speculated that the loss of easy access to the haul-out and ready escape to the sea during bar-closed conditions may account for the lower numbers. Table 2 shows average daily seal counts recorded during SCWA monitoring of breaching events from 2009-15, representing bar-closed conditions, when seal numbers decline.
Mortenson (1996) observed that pups were first seen at the Jenner haul-out in late March, with maximum counts in May. In this study, pups were not counted separately from other age classes at the haul-out after August due to the difficulty in discriminating pups from small yearlings. From 1989 to 1991, Hanson (1993) observed that pupping began at the Jenner haul-out in mid-April, with a maximum number of pups observed during the first two weeks of May. This corresponds with the peaks observed at Point Reyes, where the first viable pups are born in March and the peak is the last week of April to early May (SCWA, 2014). Based on this information, pupping season at the Jenner haul-out is conservatively defined here as March 15 to June 30.
California sea lions range from the Gulf of California north to the Gulf of Alaska, with breeding areas located in the Gulf of California, western Baja California, and southern California. Five genetically distinct geographic populations have been identified: (1) Pacific Temperate, (2) Pacific Subtropical, (3) Southern Gulf of California, (4) Central Gulf of California and (5) Northern Gulf of California (Schramm
California sea lions are not protected under the ESA or listed as depleted
Beginning in January 2013, elevated strandings of California sea lion pups were observed in southern California, with live sea lion strandings nearly three times higher than the historical average. Findings to date indicate that a likely contributor to the large number of stranded, malnourished pups was a change in the availability of sea lion prey for nursing mothers, especially sardines. Although the pups showed signs of some viruses and infections, findings indicate that this event was not caused by disease or a single infectious agent but by the lack of high quality, close-by food sources for nursing mothers. Several different kinds of one sort of virus (astroviruses, including some new species of astrovirus) were identified in a high percentage of the samples; however, the importance of this finding is still under investigation. The causes and mechanisms of this remain under investigation (
Solitary California sea lions have occasionally been observed at or in the vicinity of the Russian River estuary (MSC, 1999, 2000), in all months of the year except June. Male California sea lions are occasionally observed hauled out at or near the Russian River mouth in most years: August 2009, January and December 2011, January 2012, December 2013, February 2014, and February and April 2015. Other individuals were observed in the surf at the mouth of the river or swimming inside the estuary. Juvenile sea lions were observed during the summer of 2009 at the Patty's Rock haul-out, and some sea lions were observed during monitoring of peripheral haul-outs in October 2009. The occurrence of individual California sea lions in the action area may occur year-round, but is infrequent and sporadic.
Northern elephant seals gather at breeding areas, located primarily on offshore islands of Baja California and California, from approximately December to March before dispersing for feeding. Males feed near the eastern Aleutian Islands and in the Gulf of Alaska, while females feed at sea south of 45 °N (Stewart and Huber, 1993; Le Boeuf
Northern elephant seals are not protected under the ESA or listed as depleted under the MMPA. Total annual human-caused mortality (8.8) is substantially less than the PBR (estimated at 4,882); therefore, northern elephant seals are not considered a strategic stock under the MMPA. The best abundance estimate of the California breeding population of northern elephant seals is 179,000 and the minimum population size of this stock is 81,368 individuals (Carretta
Censuses of pinnipeds at the mouth of the Russian River have been taken at least semi-monthly since 1987. Elephant seals were noted from 1987-95, with one or two elephant seals typically counted during May censuses, and occasional records during the fall and winter (Mortenson and Follis, 1997). A single, tagged northern elephant seal sub-adult was present at the Jenner haul-out from 2002-07. This individual seal, which was observed harassing harbor seals also present at the haul-out, was generally present during molt and again from late December through March. A single juvenile elephant seal was observed at the Jenner haul-out in June 2009 and, in recent years, a sub-adult seal was observed in late summer of 2013-14. The occurrence of individual northern elephant seals in the action area has generally been infrequent and sporadic in the past ten years.
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document will include a quantitative analysis of the number of incidents of take expected to occur incidental to this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis” section will include an analysis of how this specific activity will impact marine mammals and will consider the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Proposed Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and from that on the affected marine mammal populations or stocks.
A significant body of monitoring data exists for pinnipeds at the mouth of the Russian River. In addition, pinnipeds have co-existed with regular estuary management activity for decades, as well as with regular human use activity at the beach, and are likely habituated to human presence and activity. Nevertheless, SCWA's estuary management activities have the potential to disturb pinnipeds present on the beach or at peripheral haul-outs in the estuary. During breaching operations, past monitoring has revealed that some or all of the seals present typically move or flush from the beach in response to the presence of crew and equipment, though some may remain hauled-out. No stampeding of seals—a potentially dangerous occurrence in which large numbers of animals succumb to mass panic and rush away from a stimulus—has been documented since SCWA developed protocols to prevent such events in 1999. While it is likely impossible to conduct required estuary management activities without provoking some response in hauled-out animals, precautionary mitigation measures, described later in this document, ensure that animals are gradually apprised of human approach. Under these conditions, seals typically exhibit a continuum of responses, beginning with alert movements (
In the absence of appropriate mitigation measures, it is possible that pinnipeds could be subject to injury, serious injury, or mortality, likely through stampeding or abandonment of pups. However, based on a significant body of site-specific data, harbor seals are unlikely to sustain any harassment that may be considered biologically
California sea lions and northern elephant seals have been observed as less sensitive to stimulus than harbor seals during monitoring at numerous other sites. For example, monitoring of pinniped disturbance as a result of abalone research in the Channel Islands showed that while harbor seals flushed at a rate of 69 percent, California sea lions flushed at a rate of only 21 percent. The rate for elephant seals declined to 0.1 percent (VanBlaricom, 2010). In the event that either of these species is present during management activities, they would be expected to display a minimal reaction to maintenance activities—less than that expected of harbor seals.
Although the Jenner haul-out is not known as a primary pupping beach, pups have been observed during the pupping season; therefore, we have evaluated the potential for injury, serious injury, or mortality to pups. There is a lack of published data regarding pupping at the mouth of the Russian River, but SCWA monitors have observed pups on the beach. No births were observed during recent monitoring, but may be inferred based on signs indicating pupping (
Similarly, the period of mother-pup bonding, critical time needed to ensure pup survival and maximize pup health, is not expected to be impacted by estuary management activities. Harbor seal pups are extremely precocious, swimming and diving immediately after birth and throughout the lactation period, unlike most other phocids which normally enter the sea only after weaning (Lawson and Renouf, 1985; Cottrell
In summary, and based on extensive monitoring data, we believe that impacts to hauled-out pinnipeds during estuary management activities would be behavioral harassment of limited duration (
The purposes of the estuary management activities are to improve summer rearing habitat for juvenile salmonids in the Russian River estuary and/or to minimize potential flood risk to properties adjacent to the estuary. These activities would result in temporary physical alteration of the Jenner haul-out, but are essential to conserving and recovering endangered salmonid species, as prescribed by the BiOp. These salmonids are themselves prey for pinnipeds. In addition, with barrier beach closure, seal usage of the beach haul-out declines, and the three nearby river haul-outs may not be available for usage due to rising water surface elevations. Breaching of the barrier beach, subsequent to the temporary habitat disturbance, likely increases suitability and availability of habitat for pinnipeds. Biological and water quality monitoring would not physically alter pinniped habitat. Please see the previously referenced
During SCWA's pinniped monitoring associated with artificial breaching activities from 1996 to 2000, the number of harbor seals hauled out declined when the barrier beach closed and then increased the day following an artificial breaching event (MSC, 1997, 1998, 1999, and 2000; SCWA and MSC, 2001). This response to barrier beach closure followed by artificial breaching has remained consistent in recent years and is anticipated to continue. However, it is possible that the number of pinnipeds using the haul-out could decline during the extended lagoon management period, when SCWA would seek to maintain a shallow outlet channel rather than the deeper channel associated with artificial breaching. Collection of baseline information during the lagoon management period is included in the monitoring requirements described later in this document. SCWA's previous monitoring, as well as Twohy's daily counts of seals at the sandbar (Table 1) indicate that the number of seals at the haul-out declines from August to October, so management of the lagoon outlet channel (and managing the sandbar as a summer lagoon) would have little effect on haul-out use during the latter portion of the lagoon management period. The early portion of the lagoon management period coincides with the pupping season. Past monitoring during this period, which represents some of the longest beach closures in the late spring and early summer months, shows that the number of pinnipeds at the haul-out tends to fluctuate, rather than showing the more straightforward declines and increases associated with closures and openings seen at other times of year (MSC, 1998). This may indicate that seal haul-out usage during the pupping season is less dependent on bar status. As such, the number of seals hauled out from May through July would be expected to fluctuate but is unlikely to respond dramatically to the absence of artificial breaching events. Regardless, any impacts to habitat resulting from
In summary, there will be temporary physical alteration of the beach. However, natural opening and closure of the beach results in the same impacts to habitat. Therefore, seals are likely adapted to this cycle. In addition, the increase in rearing habitat quality has the goal of increasing salmonid abundance, ultimately providing more food for seals present within the action area. Thus, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term consequences for individual marine mammals or their populations.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as: “. . . any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).”
SCWA has requested, and NMFS proposes, authorization to take harbor seals, California sea lions, and northern elephant seals, by Level B harassment only, incidental to estuary management activities. These activities, involving increased human presence and the use of heavy equipment and support vehicles, are expected to harass pinnipeds present at the haul-out through disturbance only. In addition, monitoring activities prescribed in the BiOp may harass additional animals at the Jenner haul-out and at the three haul-outs located in the estuary (Penny Logs, Patty's Rock, and Chalanchawi). Estimates of the number of harbor seals, California sea lions, and northern elephant seals that may be harassed by the proposed activities is based upon the number of potential events associated with Russian River estuary management activities and the average number of individuals of each species that are present during conditions appropriate to the activity. As described previously in this document, monitoring effort at the mouth of the Russian River has shown that the number of seals utilizing the haul-out declines during bar-closed conditions. Table 3 details the total number of estimated takes for harbor seals.
Events associated with lagoon outlet channel management would occur only during the lagoon management period and are split into two categories: (1) Initial channel implementation, which would likely occur between May and September; and (2) maintenance and monitoring of the outlet channel, which would continue until October 15. In addition, it is possible that the initial outlet channel could close through natural processes, requiring additional channel implementation events. Based on past experience, SCWA estimates that a maximum of three outlet channel implementation events could be required, with each event lasting up to two days. Outlet channel implementation events would only occur when the bar is closed. Therefore, it is appropriate to use data from bar-closed monitoring events in estimating take (Table 2). Construction of the outlet channel is designed to produce a perched outflow, resulting in conditions that more closely resemble bar-closed than bar-open with regard to pinniped haul-out usage. As such, bar-closed data is appropriate for estimating take during all lagoon management period maintenance and monitoring activity. As dates of outlet channel implementation cannot be known in advance, the highest daily average of seals per month—the March average for 2009-15—is used in estimating take. For maintenance and monitoring activities associated with the lagoon outlet channel, which would occur on a weekly basis following implementation of the outlet channel, the average number of harbor seals for each month was used.
Artificial breaching activities would also occur during bar-closed conditions. Data collected specifically during bar-closed conditions may be used for estimating take associated with artificial breaching (Table 2). The number of estimated artificial breaching events is also informed by experience. For those months with more frequent historical bar closure events, we assume that two such events could occur in any given year. For other months, we assume that only one such event would occur in a given year. Please see Table 1 in SCWA's application for more information.
For monthly topographic surveys on the barrier beach, potential incidental take of harbor seals is typically calculated as one hundred percent of the seals expected to be encountered. The exception is during the month of April, when surveyors would avoid seals to reduce harassment of pups and/or mothers with neonates. For the monthly topographic survey during April, a pinniped monitor is positioned at the Highway 1 overlook and would notify the surveyors via radio when any seals on the haul-out begin to alert to their presence. This enables the surveyors to retreat slowly away from the haul-out, typically resulting in no disturbance. For that survey, the assumption is therefore that only ten percent of seals present would be harassed. The number of seals expected to be encountered is based on the average monthly number of seals hauled out as recorded during baseline surveys conducted by SCWA in 2011-15 (Table 1).
For biological and physical habitat monitoring activities in the estuary, it was assumed that pinnipeds may be encountered once per event and flush from a river haul-out. The potential for harassment associated with these events is limited to the three haul-outs located in the estuary. In past experience, SCWA typically sees no more than a single harbor seal at these haul-outs, which consist of scattered logs and rocks that often submerge at high tide.
As described previously, California sea lions and northern elephant seals are occasional visitors to the estuary. Based on limited information regarding occurrence of these species at the mouth of the Russian River estuary, we assume there is the potential to encounter one animal of each species per month throughout the year. Lagoon outlet channel activities could potentially occur over six months of the year, artificial breaching activities over eight months, topographic surveys year-round, and biological and physical monitoring in the estuary over eight months. Therefore, we assume that up to 34 incidents of take could occur per year for both the California sea lion and northern elephant seal. Based on past occurrence records, the proposed take authorization for these two species is likely a precautionary overestimate.
The take numbers described in the preceding text are annual estimates. Therefore, over the course of the 5-year period of validity of the proposed regulations, we propose to authorize a total of 23,460 incidents of take for harbor seals and 170 such incidents each for the California sea lion and northern elephant seal.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “. . . an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.” A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
Consistent with the 1989 preamble for NMFS's implementing regulations (54 FR 40338; September 29, 1989), the impacts from other past and ongoing anthropogenic activities are incorporated into these analyses via their impacts on the environmental baseline (
Although SCWA's estuary management activities may disturb pinnipeds hauled out at the mouth of the Russian River, as well as those hauled out at several locations in the estuary during recurring monitoring activities, impacts are occurring to a small, localized group of animals. While these impacts can occur year-round, they occur sporadically and for limited duration (
No injury, serious injury, or mortality is anticipated, nor is the proposed action likely to result in long-term impacts such as permanent abandonment of the haul-out. Injury, serious injury, or mortality to pinnipeds would likely result from startling animals inhabiting the haul-out into a stampede reaction, or from extended mother-pup separation as a result of such a stampede. Long-term impacts to pinniped usage of the haul-out could result from significantly increased presence of humans and equipment on the beach. To avoid these possibilities, we have worked with SCWA to develop the previously described mitigation measures. These are designed to reduce the possibility of startling pinnipeds, by gradually apprising them of the presence of humans and equipment on the beach, and to reduce the possibility of impacts to pups by eliminating or altering management activities on the beach when pups are present and by setting limits on the frequency and duration of events during pupping season. During the past fifteen years of flood control management, implementation of similar mitigation measures has resulted in no known stampede events and no known injury, serious injury, or mortality. Over the course of that time period, management events have generally been infrequent and of limited duration.
No pinniped stocks for which incidental take authorization is proposed are listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA or determined to be strategic or depleted under the MMPA. Recent data suggests that harbor seal populations have reached carrying capacity; populations of California sea lions and northern elephant seals in California are also considered healthy.
In summary, and based on extensive monitoring data, we believe that impacts to hauled-out pinnipeds during estuary management activities would be behavioral harassment of limited duration (
The proposed number of animals taken for each species of pinniped can be considered small relative to the population size. There are an estimated 30,968 harbor seals in the California stock, 296,750 California sea lions, and 179,000 northern elephant seals in the California breeding population. Based on extensive monitoring effort specific to the affected haul-out and historical data on the frequency of the specified activity, we are proposing to authorize annual levels of take, by Level B harassment only, of 4,692 incidents of harassment for harbor seals, 34 incidents of harassment for California sea lions, and 34 incidents of harassment for northern elephant seals, representing 15.2, 0.01, and 0.02 percent of the populations, respectively. However, this represents an overestimate of the number of individuals harassed annually over the duration of the proposed regulations, because these totals represent much smaller numbers of individuals that may be harassed multiple times. Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the mitigation and monitoring measures, we preliminarily find that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the populations of the affected species or stocks.
In order to issue an incidental take authorization for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(A) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for incidental take authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area.
Any monitoring requirement we prescribe should improve our understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species in action area (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual responses to acute stressors, or impacts of chronic exposures (behavioral or physiological).
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of an individual; or (2) population, species, or stock.
• Effects on marine mammal habitat and resultant impacts to marine mammals.
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
SCWA submitted a marine mammal monitoring plan as part of the ITA application. It can be found online at
1. Under what conditions do pinnipeds haul out at the Russian River estuary mouth at Jenner?
2. How do seals at the Jenner haul-out respond to activities associated with the construction and maintenance of the lagoon outlet channel and artificial breaching activities?
3. Does the number of seals at the Jenner haul-out significantly differ from historic averages with formation of a summer (May 15 to October 15) lagoon in the Russian River estuary?
4. Are seals at the Jenner haul-out displaced to nearby river and coastal haul-outs when the mouth remains closed in the summer?
This primary haul-out is where the majority of seals are found and where pupping occurs, and SCWA's proposed monitoring would allow continued development in understanding the physical and biological factors that influence seal abundance and behavior at the site. In particular, SCWA notes that the proposed frequency of surveys would allow them to be able to observe the influence of physical changes that do not persist for more than ten days, like brief periods of barrier beach closures or other environmental changes, and would allow for assessment of how seals respond to barrier beach closures as well as accurate estimation of the number of harbor seal pups born at Jenner each year.
In addition to the census data, disturbances of the haul-out are recorded. The method for recording disturbances follows those in Mortenson (1996). Disturbances would be recorded on a three-point scale that represents an increasing seal response to the disturbance (Table 4). The time, source, and duration of the disturbance, as well as an estimated distance between the source and haul-out, are recorded. It should be noted that only responses falling into Mortenson's Levels 2 and 3 will be considered as harassment under the MMPA, under the terms of these proposed regulations.
Weather conditions are recorded at the beginning of each census. These include temperature, Beaufort sea state, precipitation/visibility, and wind speed. Tide levels and estuary water surface elevations are correlated to the monitoring start and end times.
In an effort towards understanding possible relationships between use of the Jenner haul-out and nearby coastal and river haul-outs, several other haul-outs on the coast and in the Russian River estuary are monitored as well (see Figure 1 of SCWA's application). Peripheral site monitoring would occur only in the event of an extended period of lagoon conditions (
A one-day pre-event channel survey would be made within one to three days prior to constructing the outlet channel. The haul-out would be monitored on the day the outlet channel is constructed and daily for up to the maximum two days allowed for channel excavation activities. Monitoring would also occur on each day that the outlet channel is maintained using heavy equipment for the duration of the lagoon management period. Monitoring of outlet channel construction and maintenance would correspond with that described under the “Baseline Monitoring” section previously, with the exception that management activity monitoring duration is defined by event duration. On the day of the management event, pinniped monitoring begins at least one hour prior to the crew and equipment accessing the beach work area and continues through the duration of the event, until at least one hour after the crew and equipment leave the beach.
In an attempt to understand whether seals from the Jenner haul-out are displaced to coastal and river haul-outs nearby when management events occur, other nearby haul-outs are monitored concurrently with monitoring of outlet channel construction and maintenance activities. This provides an opportunity to qualitatively assess whether these haul-outs are being used by seals displaced from the Jenner haul-out during lagoon outlet channel excavation and maintenance. This monitoring would not provide definitive results regarding displacement to nearby coastal and river haul-outs, as individual seals are not marked or photo-identified, but is useful in tracking general trends in haul-out use during lagoon outlet channel excavation and maintenance. As volunteers are required to monitor these peripheral haul-outs, haul-out locations may need to be prioritized if there are not enough volunteers available. In that case, priority would be assigned to the nearest haul-outs (North Jenner and Odin Cove), followed by the Russian River estuary haul-outs, and finally the more distant coastal haul-outs.
Pinniped response to artificial breaching will be monitored at each such event during the period of validity of these proposed regulations. Methods would follow the census and disturbance monitoring protocols described in the “Baseline Monitoring” section, which were also used for the 1996 to 2000 monitoring events (MSC, 1997, 1998, 1999, 2000; SCWA and MSC, 2001). The exception, as for lagoon management events, is that duration of monitoring is dependent upon duration of the event. On the day of the management event, pinniped monitoring begins at least one hour prior to the crew and equipment accessing the beach work area and continues through the duration of the event, until at least one hour after the crew and equipment leave the beach.
If, during monitoring, observers sight any pup that might be abandoned, SCWA would contact the NMFS stranding response network immediately and also report the incident to NMFS's West Coast Regional Office and Office of Protected Resources within 48 hours. Observers will not approach or move the pup. Potential indications that a pup may be abandoned are no observed contact with adult seals, no movement of the pup, and the pup's attempts to nurse are rebuffed.
Training on the MMPA, pinniped identification, and the conditions of the ITA is held for staff and contractors assigned to estuary management activities. The training includes equipment operators, safety crew members, and surveyors. In addition, prior to beginning each water surface elevation management event, the biologist monitoring the event participates in the onsite safety meeting to discuss the location(s) of pinnipeds at the Jenner haul-out that day and methods of avoiding and minimizing disturbances to the haul-out as outlined in the ITA.
SCWA is required to submit an annual report on all activities and marine mammal monitoring results to NMFS within ninety days following the end of the monitoring period. These reports would contain the following information:
• The number of pinnipeds taken, by species and age class (if possible);
• Behavior prior to and during water level management events;
• Start and end time of activity;
• Estimated distances between source and pinnipeds when disturbance occurs;
• Weather conditions (
• Haul-out reoccupation time of any pinnipeds based on post-activity monitoring;
• Tide levels and estuary water surface elevation; and
• Pinniped census from bi-monthly and nearby haul-out monitoring.
The annual report includes descriptions of monitoring methodology, tabulation of estuary management events, summary of monitoring results, and discussion of problems noted and proposed remedial measures.
SCWA must also submit a comprehensive summary report with any future application for renewed regulations and Letters of Authorization.
SCWA complied with the mitigation and monitoring required under previous authorizations. Prior notices of proposed authorization have provided summaries of monitoring results from 2009-15; please see those documents for more information. Previous monitoring reports are available online at
While the observed take in all years was significantly lower than the level authorized, it is possible that incidental take in future years could approach the level authorized. Actual take is dependent largely upon the number of water level management events that occur, which is unpredictable. Take of species other than harbor seals depends upon whether those species, which do not consistently utilize the Jenner haul-out, are present. The authorized take, though much higher than the actual take, is justified based on conservative estimated scenarios for animal presence and necessity of water level management. No significant departure from the method of estimation is used for these proposed regulations (see “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment”) for the same activities in 2017-22.
SCWA has continued to investigate the relative disturbance caused by their activities versus that caused by other sources (see Figures 5-6 of SCWA's 2015 monitoring report as well as the 2014 report). Harbor seals are most frequently disturbed by people on foot, with an increase in frequency of people present during bar-closed conditions (see Figure 5 of SCWA's 2015 monitoring report). Kayakers are the next most frequent source of disturbance overall, also with an increase during bar-closed conditions. For any disturbance event it is often only a fraction of the total haul-out that responds. Some sources of disturbance, though rare, have a larger disturbing effect when they occur. For example, disturbances from dogs occur less frequently, but these incidents often disturb over half of the seals hauled out.
The following section provides a summary of information available in SCWA's 2015 monitoring report. The primary purpose of SCWA's pinniped monitoring plan is to detect the response of pinnipeds to estuary management activities at the Russian River estuary. However, as described previously, the questions listed below are also of specific interest. The limited data available thus far precludes drawing definitive conclusions regarding the key questions in SCWA's monitoring plan, but we discuss preliminary conclusions and available evidence below.
1. Under what conditions do pinnipeds haul out at the Russian River estuary mouth at Jenner?
Although multiple factors likely influence harbor seal presence at the haul-out, SCWA has shown that since 2009 harbor seal attendance is influenced by hour of day (increasing from morning through early afternoon; see Figure 2 in SCWA's monitoring plan), tidal state (decrease with higher tides; see Figure 3 of SCWA's monitoring plan), month of year (peak in July and decrease in fall; see Figure 4 of SCWA's monitoring plan), and river mouth condition (
Daily average abundance of seals was lower during bar-closed conditions compared to bar-open conditions. This effect is likely due to a combination of factors, including increased human disturbance, reduced access to the ocean from the estuary side of the barrier beach, and the increased disturbance from wave action when seals utilize the ocean side of the barrier beach. Baseline data indicate that the highest numbers of seals are observed at the Jenner haul-out in July (during the molting season; see Figure 2 of SCWA's 2015 monitoring report), as would be expected on the basis of harbor seal biological and physiological requirements (Herder, 1986; Allen
Overall, seals appear to utilize the Jenner haul-out throughout the tidal cycle. Seal abundance is significantly lower during the highest of tides when the haul-out is subject to an increase in wave overwash. Time of day had some effect on seal abundance at the Jenner haul-out, as abundance was greater in the afternoon hours compared to the morning hours. More analysis exploring the relationship of ambient temperature, incidence of disturbance, and season on time of day effects would help to explain why these variations in seal abundance occur. It is likely that a combination of multiple factors (
2. How do seals at the Jenner haul-out respond to activities associated with the construction and maintenance of the lagoon outlet channel and artificial breaching activities?
SCWA has, thus far, implemented the lagoon outlet channel only once, in 2010. The response of harbor seals at the Jenner haul-out to the outlet channel implementation activities was similar to responses observed during past artificial breaching events (MSC, 1997, 1998, 1999, 2000; SCWA and MSC, 2001). The harbor seals typically alert to the sound of equipment on the beach and leave the haul-out as the crew and equipment approach. Individuals then haul out on the beach while equipment is operating, leaving the beach again when equipment and staff depart, and typically begin to return to the haul-out within thirty minutes of the work ending. Because the barrier beach reformed soon after outlet channel implementation and subsequently breached on its own following the 2010 event, maintenance of the outlet channel was not necessary and monitoring of the continued response of pinnipeds at the Jenner haul-out to maintenance of the outlet channel and management of the lagoon for the duration of the lagoon management period has not yet been possible. As noted previously, when breaching activities were conducted south of the haul-out location seals often remained on the beach during all or some of the breaching activity. This indicates that seals are less disturbed by activities when equipment and crew do not pass directly past their haul-out.
3. Does the number of seals at the Jenner haul-out significantly differ from historic averages with formation of a summer lagoon in the Russian River estuary?
The duration of closures in recent years has not generally been dissimilar from the duration of closures that have been previously observed at the estuary, and lagoon outlet channel implementation has occurred only once, meaning that there has been a lack of opportunity to study harbor seal response to extended lagoon conditions. A barrier beach has formed during the lagoon management period sixteen times since SCWA began implementing the lagoon outlet channel adaptive
4. Are seals at the Jenner haul-out displaced to nearby river and coastal haul-outs when the mouth remains closed in the summer?
Initial comparisons of peripheral (river and coastal) haul-out count data to the Jenner haul-out counts have been inconclusive (see Table 2 and Figures 6-7 of SCWA's 2015 monitoring report). As noted above, SCWA will focus ongoing effort at peripheral sites during periods of extended bar-closure and lagoon formation.
The regulations governing the take of marine mammals incidental to SCWA estuary management activities would contain an adaptive management component.
The reporting requirements associated with this proposed rule are designed to provide NMFS with monitoring data from the previous year to allow consideration of whether any changes are appropriate. The use of adaptive management allows NMFS to consider new information from different sources to determine (with input from SCWA regarding practicability) on an annual or biennial basis if mitigation or monitoring measures should be modified (including additions or deletions). Mitigation measures could be modified if new data suggests that such modifications would have a reasonable likelihood of reducing adverse effects to marine mammals and if the measures are practicable.
SCWA's monitoring program (see “Proposed Monitoring and Reporting”) would be managed adaptively. Changes to the proposed monitoring program may be adopted if they are reasonably likely to better accomplish the MMPA monitoring goals described previously or may better answer the specific questions associated with SCWA's monitoring plan.
The following are some of the possible sources of applicable data to be considered through the adaptive management process: (1) Results from monitoring reports, as required by MMPA authorizations; (2) results from general marine mammal and sound research; and (3) any information which reveals that marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent, or number not authorized by these regulations or subsequent LOAs.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of marine mammals implicated by the specified activity. Therefore, we have determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
No marine mammal species listed under the ESA are expected to be affected by these activities. Therefore, we have determined that section 7 consultation under the ESA is not required.
NMFS prepared an EA (2010) and associated FONSI in accordance with NEPA and the regulations published by the Council on Environmental Quality. These documents are posted at the aforementioned Internet address. Information in SCWA's application, NMFS's EA (2010), and this notice collectively provide the environmental information related to proposed issuance of these regulations for public review and comment. We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice as we complete the NEPA process, including a decision of whether the existing EA and FONSI provide adequate analysis related to the potential environmental effects of issuing an incidental take authorization to SCWA, prior to a final decision on the request.
NMFS requests interested persons to submit comments, information, and suggestions concerning SCWA's request and the proposed regulations (see
Pursuant to the procedures established to implement Executive Order 12866, the Office of Management and Budget has determined that this proposed rule is not significant.
Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce has certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. SCWA is the sole entity that would be subject to the requirements in these proposed regulations, and the Sonoma County Water Agency is not a small governmental jurisdiction, small organization, or small business, as defined by the RFA. Under the RFA, governmental jurisdictions are considered to be small if they are “. . . governments of cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts, with a population of less than 50,000 . . . .” As of the 2010 census, Sonoma County, CA had a population of nearly 500,000 people. Because of this certification, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number. These requirements have been approved by OMB under control number 0648-0151 and include applications for regulations, subsequent LOAs, and reports. Send comments regarding any aspect of this data collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to NMFS and the OMB Desk Officer (see
Exports, Fish, Imports, Indians, Labeling, Marine mammals, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Seafood, Transportation.
For reasons set forth in the preamble, 50 CFR part 217 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1361
(a) Regulations in this subpart apply only to the Sonoma County Water Agency (SCWA) and those persons it authorizes or funds to conduct activities on its behalf for the taking of marine mammals that occurs in the area outlined in paragraph (b) of this section and that occurs incidental to estuary management activities.
(b) The taking of marine mammals by SCWA may be authorized in a Letter of Authorization (LOA) only if it occurs at Goat Rock State Beach or in the Russian River estuary in California.
Regulations in this subpart are effective from [EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE] through [DATE 5 YEARS AFTER EFFECTIVE DATE OF FINAL RULE].
(a) Under LOAs issued pursuant to §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter, the Holder of the LOA (hereinafter “SCWA”) may incidentally, but not intentionally, take marine mammals within the area described in § 217.1(b) of this chapter by Level B harassment associated with estuary management activities, provided the activity is in compliance with all terms, conditions, and requirements of the regulations in this subpart and the appropriate LOA.
Notwithstanding takings contemplated in § 217.1 and authorized by an LOA issued under §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter, no person in connection with the activities described in § 217.1 of this chapter may:
(a) Violate, or fail to comply with, the terms, conditions, and requirements of this subpart or an LOA issued under §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter;
(b) Take any marine mammal not specified in such LOAs;
(c) Take any marine mammal specified in such LOAs in any manner other than as specified;
(d) Take a marine mammal specified in such LOAs if NMFS determines such taking results in more than a negligible impact on the species or stocks of such marine mammal; or
(e) Take a marine mammal specified in such LOAs if NMFS determines such taking results in an unmitigable adverse impact on the species or stock of such marine mammal for taking for subsistence uses.
When conducting the activities identified in § 217.1(a) of this chapter, the mitigation measures contained in any LOA issued under §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter must be implemented. These mitigation measures shall include but are not limited to:
(a)
(2) If SCWA observes a pup that may be abandoned, it shall contact the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) West Coast Regional Stranding Coordinator immediately and also report the incident to NMFS Office of Protected Resources within 48 hours. Observers shall not approach or move the pup.
(b) SCWA crews shall cautiously approach the haul-out ahead of heavy equipment.
(c) SCWA staff shall avoid walking or driving equipment through the seal haul-out.
(d) Crews on foot shall make an effort to be seen by seals from a distance.
(e) During breaching events, all monitoring shall be conducted from the overlook on the bluff along Highway 1 adjacent to the haul-out.
(f) A water level management event may not occur for more than two consecutive days unless flooding threats cannot be controlled.
(g) All work shall be completed as efficiently as possible and with the smallest amount of heavy equipment possible.
(h) Boats operating near river haul-outs during monitoring shall be kept within posted speed limits and driven as far from the haul-outs as safely possible.
(i) SCWA shall implement the following mitigation measures during pupping season (March 15-June 30):
(1) SCWA shall maintain a one week no-work period between water level management events (unless flooding is an immediate threat) to allow for an adequate disturbance recovery period. During the no-work period, equipment must be removed from the beach.
(2) If a pup less than one week old is on the beach where heavy machinery will be used or on the path used to access the work location, the management action shall be delayed until the pup has left the site or the latest day possible to prevent flooding while still maintaining suitable fish rearing habitat. In the event that a pup remains present on the beach in the presence of flood risk, SCWA shall consult with NMFS and the California Department of Fish and Wildlife to determine the appropriate course of action. SCWA shall coordinate with the locally established seal monitoring program (Stewards of the Coast and Redwoods) to determine if pups less than one week old are on the beach prior to a breaching event.
(3) Physical and biological monitoring shall not be conducted if a pup less than one week old is present at the monitoring site or on a path to the site.
(a) Monitoring and reporting shall be conducted in accordance with the approved Pinniped Monitoring Plan.
(b) Baseline monitoring shall be conducted each week, with two events per month occurring in the morning and two per month in the afternoon. These censuses shall continue for four hours, weather permitting; the census days shall be chosen to ensure that monitoring encompasses a low and high tide each in the morning and afternoon. All seals hauled out on the beach shall be counted every 30 minutes from the overlook on the bluff along Highway 1 adjacent to the haul-out using high-powered spotting scopes. Observers shall indicate where groups of seals are hauled out on the sandbar and provide
(c) Peripheral coastal haul-outs shall be visited concurrently with baseline monitoring in the event that a lagoon outlet channel is implemented and maintained for a prolonged period of over 21 days.
(d) During estuary management events, monitoring shall occur on all days that activity is occurring using the same protocols as described for baseline monitoring, with the difference that monitoring shall begin at least one hour prior to the crew and equipment accessing the beach work area and continue through the duration of the event, until at least one hour after the crew and equipment leave the beach. In addition, a one-day pre-event survey of the area shall be made within one to three days of the event and a one-day post-event survey shall be made after the event, weather permitting.
(e) For all monitoring, the following information shall be recorded in 30-minute intervals:
(1) Pinniped counts by species;
(2) Behavior;
(3) Time, source and duration of any disturbance, with takes incidental to SCWA actions recorded only for responses involving movement away from the disturbance or responses of greater intensity (
(4) Estimated distances between source of disturbance and pinnipeds;
(5) Weather conditions (
(6) Tide levels and estuary water surface elevation.
(f)
(ii) These reports shall contain, at minimum, the following:
(A) The number of seals taken, by species and age class (if possible);
(B) Behavior prior to and during water level management events;
(C) Start and end time of activity;
(D) Estimated distances between source and seals when disturbance occurs;
(E) Weather conditions (
(F) Haul-out reoccupation time of any seals based on post-activity monitoring;
(G) Tide levels and estuary water surface elevation;
(H) Seal census from bi-monthly and nearby haul-out monitoring; and
(I) Specific conclusions that may be drawn from the data in relation to the four questions of interest in SCWA's Pinniped Monitoring Plan, if possible.
(2) SCWA shall submit a comprehensive summary report to NMFS in conjunction with any future submitted request for incidental take authorization.
(g) Reporting of injured or dead marine mammals:
(1) In the unanticipated event that the activity defined in § 217.1(a) clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a prohibited manner, SCWA shall immediately cease such activity and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources (OPR), NMFS and the West Coast Regional Stranding Coordinator, NMFS. Activities shall not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS will work with SCWA to determine what measures are necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. SCWA may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS. The report must include the following information:
(i) Time and date of the incident;
(ii) Description of the incident;
(iii) Environmental conditions;
(iv) Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(v) Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
(vi) Fate of the animal(s); and
(vii) Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
(2) In the event that SCWA discovers an injured or dead marine mammal and determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
(3) In the event that SCWA discovers an injured or dead marine mammal and determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities defined in § 217.1(a) (
(4) Pursuant to paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, SCWA may use discretion in determining what injuries (
(a) To incidentally take marine mammals pursuant to these regulations, SCWA must apply for and obtain an LOA.
(b) An LOA, unless suspended or revoked, may be effective for a period of time not to exceed the expiration date of these regulations.
(c) If an LOA expires prior to the expiration date of these regulations, SCWA may apply for and obtain a renewal of the LOA.
(d) In the event of projected changes to the activity or to mitigation and monitoring measures required by an LOA, SCWA must apply for and obtain a modification of the LOA as described in § 217.8 of this chapter.
(e) The LOA shall set forth:
(1) Permissible methods of incidental taking;
(2) Means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact (
(3) Requirements for monitoring and reporting.
(f) Issuance of the LOA shall be based on a determination that the level of taking will be consistent with the findings made for the total taking allowable under these regulations.
(g) Notice of issuance or denial of an LOA shall be published in the
(a) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter for the activity identified in § 217.1(a) shall be renewed or modified upon request by the applicant, provided that:
(1) The proposed specified activity and mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures, as well as the
(2) NMFS determines that the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures required by the previous LOA under these regulations were implemented.
(b) For an LOA modification or renewal requests by the applicant that include changes to the activity or the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting (excluding changes made pursuant to the adaptive management provision in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) that do not change the findings made for the regulations or result in no more than a minor change in the total estimated number of takes (or distribution by species or years), NMFS may publish a notice of proposed LOA in the
(c) An LOA issued under §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter for the activity identified in § 217.1(a) may be modified by NMFS under the following circumstances:
(1) Adaptive Management—NMFS may modify (including augment) the existing mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures (after consulting with SCWA regarding the practicability of the modifications) if doing so creates a reasonable likelihood of more effectively accomplishing the goals of the mitigation and monitoring set forth in the preamble for these regulations.
(i) Possible sources of data that could contribute to the decision to modify the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures in an LOA:
(A) Results from SCWA's monitoring from the previous year(s).
(B) Results from other marine mammal and/or sound research or studies.
(C) Any information that reveals marine mammals may have been taken in a manner, extent or number not authorized by these regulations or subsequent LOAs.
(ii) If, through adaptive management, the modifications to the mitigation, monitoring, or reporting measures are substantial, NMFS will publish a notice of proposed LOA in the
(2) Emergencies—If NMFS determines that an emergency exists that poses a significant risk to the well-being of the species or stocks of marine mammals specified in LOAs issued pursuant to §§ 216.106 and 217.7 of this chapter, an LOA may be modified without prior notice or opportunity for public comment. Notice would be published in the
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by January 30, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on solid urea from the Russian Federation for the period of July 1, 2015 through June 30, 2016.
Effective December 30, 2016.
Brian Smith or Denisa Ursu, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1766 or (202) 482-2285, respectively.
On July 5, 2016, the Department published in the
On September 12, 2016, the Department published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the date of publication of notice of initiation of the requested review. The petitioner withdrew its review request before the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. Therefore, in response to the timely withdrawal of the review request, the Department is rescinding in its entirety the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on solid urea from the Russian Federation for the review period July 1, 2015 through June 30, 2016.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers whose entries will be liquidated as a result of this rescission notice, of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement may result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with section 751 of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On November 1, 2016, the Department of Commerce (Department) initiated the sunset reviews of the antidumping duty orders on solid urea from the Russian Federation and Ukraine. Because the domestic interested parties did not participate in these sunset reviews, the Department is revoking these antidumping duty orders.
Effective December 20, 2016.
Robert James or John Anwesen, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-0649 and 202-482-0131, respectively.
On July 14, 1987, the Department issued an antidumping duty order on solid urea from the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR).
On March 1, 1999, the Department initiated sunset reviews on these orders and later published its notice of continuation of the antidumping duty orders for certain countries.
We did not receive a notice of intent to participate from domestic interested parties in these fourth sunset reviews by the deadline date.
The merchandise subject to the orders is solid urea, a high-nitrogen content fertilizer which is produced by reacting ammonia with carbon dioxide. The product is currently classified under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) item number 3102.10.00.00. Previously such merchandise was classified under item number 480.3000 of the Tariff Schedules of the United States. Although the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to the orders is dispositive.
Pursuant to section 751(c)(3)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.218(d)(1)(iii)(B)(3), if no domestic interested party files a notice of intent to participate, the Department shall, within 90 days after the initiation of the review, issue a final determination revoking the order. Because the domestic interested parties did not file a notice of intent to participate in these sunset reviews, the Department finds that no domestic interested party is participating in these sunset reviews. Therefore, consistent with 19 CFR 351.222(i)(2)(i) we are revoking these antidumping duty orders effective December 20, 2016, the fifth anniversary of the date the Department published its most recent notice of continuation of the antidumping duty orders.
Pursuant to section 751(c)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.222(i)(2)(i), the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection to terminate the suspension of liquidation of the merchandise subject to these orders entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, on or after December 20, 2016. Entries of subject merchandise prior to the effective date of revocation will continue to be subject to suspension of liquidation and antidumping duty deposit requirements. The Department will complete any pending administrative reviews of these orders and will conduct administrative reviews of subject merchandise entered prior to the effective date of revocation in response to appropriately filed requests for review.
We are issuing and publishing the final determination in these five-year (sunset) reviews and notice in accordance with sections 751(c) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on welded ASTM A-312 stainless steel pipe from Republic of Korea (Korea). The period of review (POR) is December 1, 2014, through November 30, 2015. The review covers two exporters and/or producers of the subject merchandise: SeAH Steel Corporation (SeAH) and LS Metal Co., Ltd. (LS Metal). The Department preliminarily determines that during the POR SeAH made sales of subject merchandise at less than normal value and LS Metal had no shipments. We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Effective December 30, 2016.
Lingjun Wang, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2316.
On February 9, 2016, the Department published a notice of initiation of this review.
The products covered by this order are shipments of welded austenitic stainless steel pipe (WSSP) from Korea that meets the standards and specifications set forth by the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) for the welded form of chromium-nickel pipe designated ASTM A-312. Imports of these products are currently classifiable under the following United States Harmonized Tariff Schedule (HTSUS) subheadings: 7306.40.5005, 7306.40.5015, 7306.40.5040, 7306.40.5065, and 7306.40.5085.
LS Metal, in its questionnaire response, claimed that it made no sales or shipments of subject merchandise during the POR. We issued a no shipments inquiry to, and received no contradictory information from, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP). As there is no record information contrary to LS Metal's claim, we preliminarily determine that LS Metal had no shipments of the subject merchandise and, therefore, no reviewable transactions during the POR. The Department intends to complete the review with respect to LS Metal and will issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results of this review.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Constructed export prices or export prices are calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Normal value is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying these preliminary results,
As a result of this review, we preliminarily determine that the weighted-average dumping margin for the POR is as follows:
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. For any individually examined respondents whose weighted-average dumping margin is above
The Department clarified its “automatic assessment” regulation on May 6, 2003.
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results of this review for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for the companies under review will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this review except if that rate is
The Department intends to disclose the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days after the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Interested parties may submit case briefs no later than 30 days after the publication date of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance within 30 days of the publication date of this notice, filed electronically via ACCESS. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues parties intend to discuss. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case and rebuttal briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a date and time to be determined.
We intend to issue the final results of this review within 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, unless otherwise extended.
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
These preliminary results of this review are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of EFP application; request for comments.
NMFS announces the receipt of an exempted fishing permit (EFP) application from the West Coast Seafood Processors Association, Environmental Defense Fund, Oregon Trawl Commission, and Pacific Seafoods for an EFP Program to monitor and minimize salmon bycatch when vessels target rockfish in the shorebased individual fishing quota (IFQ) fishery. The NMFS West Coast Region's Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries has made a preliminary determination that the subject EFP application contains all the required information and the EFP Program warrants further consideration. Therefore, NMFS announces that the Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries proposes to recommend that EFPs be issued under an EFP Program that would allow as many as 50 commercial fishing vessels to conduct fishing operations that are otherwise restricted by the regulations governing the fisheries of the west coast of the United States. If awarded, the EFP Program would exempt participating limited entry bottom trawl vessels from the requirement to use selective flatfish trawl gear shoreward of the Trawl Rockfish Conservation Area (RCA) north of 40°10′ N. latitude in waters off the west coast. In addition, if awarded, the EFP Program would also allow participating bottom trawl vessels that fish any place along the west coast an exemption to the minimum mesh size requirement of 4.5 inches.
The EFP Program is intended to provide additional flexibility in the configuration and use of bottom trawl gear for the vessels, as well as provide additional information on potential impacts to protected resources, particularly Chinook salmon bycatch, resulting from this added flexibility. The additional information would be used to enhance the management of the groundfish fishery and promote the objectives of the Pacific Coast
Comments must be received no later than 5 p.m., local time on January 24, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by 0648-XF068, by any one of the following methods:
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Melissa Hooper: (206) 526-4357 or
This action is authorized by the FMP and implementing regulations at 50 CFR 600.745, which states that EFPs may be used to authorize fishing activities that would otherwise be prohibited.
If awarded, the EFP Program would give participating vessels an exemption from the current requirement at 50 CFR 660.130(b)(3)(ii)(A) to use selective flatfish trawl gear shoreward of the RCA and north of 40°10′ N. lat. EFP vessels would instead be subject to a small footrope requirement similar to what is required south of 40°10′ N. lat. Additionally, if awarded, the EFP Program would give participating vessels an exemption from the current requirement at 50 CFR 660.130(b)(2) to use a 4.5 inch (11.4 cm) mesh throughout the net for bottom trawl vessels with a Federal limited entry permit. Participating vessels would carry observers or electronic monitoring on 100-percent of trips, as is currently required in the IFQ program.
This exempted fishing activity is designed to provide participants with additional flexibility to configure their gear to re-establish a targeted rockfish fishery for widow, yellowtail, and chilipepper rockfish. The annual catch limits (ACLs) for both widow and chilipepper rockfish are increasing to levels not seen in several years, and the additional fish available could provide an opportunity for the redevelopment of processing and harvesting in those areas of the coast that had been constrained by the lower ACLs for these overfished species. Additionally, according to the applicants, the two-seam design of the nets can make it difficult to include some types of bycatch excluders. Eliminating the selective flatfish trawl gear requirement could provide vessels with more flexibility in designing their gear and would increase the opportunity for using bycatch reduction devices of different types.
Changes to the minimum mesh size would provide participating vessels with the flexibility to set their mesh size for the size of fish they intend to target. It is unlikely that vessels would set their mesh size much lower than the current minimum of 4.5 inches as smaller fish tend to be less marketable. However, a smaller mesh size may reduce the number of fish that are gilled (
Information collected during under the EFP Program would be used to support the analysis for potential new and modification to existing gear regulations, including the Council's trawl gear modifications regulatory amendment which the Council took final action on earlier in 2016. With many of the current gear regulations having been in place for more than ten years, it is difficult for NMFS, the Council, and industry to predict the impacts of removing these regulations. In the past ten years, the industry has changed significantly. Reduction in capacity, innovations in gear technologies, and changes in management have all contributed to these changes. The EFP Program would help demonstrate what potential impacts today's fleet could have when some of the current gear regulations are eliminated.
In the early 1990s, the Council redefined bottom trawl gear and established 4.5 inches as the minimum mesh size for bottom trawl codends coastwide, and then required the larger mesh throughout the remainder of the trawl nets. These initial mesh regulations were intended to: (1) Reduce the harvest of small and unmarketable fish, (2) reduce the incidental harvest of unwanted species, and (3) establish a standard, coastwide mesh requirement. However, the two different sizes throughout the mesh created a loophole for some vessels. By 1995, regulations were implemented by the Council to address this loophole. The new regulations required all bottom trawl nets to have a minimum of 4.5 inch mesh throughout the net (60 FR 13377, March 13, 1995). These measures were intended to give smaller-size fish the opportunity to escape from the entire trawl net, reducing the likelihood those fish would be caught.
Beginning in 2005, the Council required the use of selective flatfish trawl for all groundfish trawling on the west coast north of 40°10′ N. lat. shoreward of the RCA. The selective flatfish trawl gear was originally designed and implemented to reduce the bycatch of round fish, such as canary rockfish and salmon, while increasing the catch of flatfish species. Previously, management actions to protect vulnerable rockfish had greatly expanded the boundaries of the trawl RCA, moving the eastern boundary shoreward. These changes, while addressing the issues with vulnerable rockfish, also severely limited access to productive flatfish stocks. Selective flatfish trawl was seen as a way for the fleet to still access the fishing grounds while protecting the vulnerable rockfish species.
NMFS is concerned with the potential impacts a selective flatfish trawl exemption and minimum mesh size exemption may have on protected species. Available information suggests that bycatch rates of ESA-listed salmon, eulachon, and green sturgeon could increase as a result of the increased effort resulting from this EFP Program. NMFS is focused on developing an EFP that would meet the applicants' objectives to better target pelagic rockfish species while collecting information about bycatch and minimizing bycatch to the extent practicable. To address NMFS' concerns, the applicants are proposing that bycatch information, as well as haul level data and genetics will be collected on all salmon caught. Because a targeted fishery for chilipepper, widow, and yellowtail rockfish has not existed in more than a decade, there is limited information about expected bycatch in these target fisheries. The applicants are proposing that all salmon caught under this EFP Program would be counted against a salmon bycatch limit set by the NMFS for the EFP.
The applicants are proposing the following additional measures to minimize and monitor bycatch under the EFP Program:
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○ Klamath River Salmon Conservation Zone—The Klamath River Conservation Zone, as defined in regulation at 50 CFR 660.131(c)(1), will be closed to participating vessels for the duration of the EFP Program.
○ Columbia River Salmon Conservation Zone—The Columbia River Salmon Conservation Zone, as defined in regulation at 50 CFR 660.131(c)(2), will be closed to participating vessels for the duration of the EFP Program.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council reviewed the EFP application at its September and November 2016 meetings and recommended that NMFS issue permits, under this EFP Program, as proposed with the following amendments:
• Set the Chinook salmon bycatch limit for this EFP Program at no more than 4,000 fish.
• Include a sub-limit of 17 percent, or 680 Chinook, for the Eureka management area.
• Remove the provision to trigger a closure of the Columbia River Salmon Conservation Zone to EFP fishing when 1,000 Chinook have been caught by EFP participants.
• Include the following criteria in the definition of a high bycatch trip: 1 adult Chinook (defined as 20 inches or greater) caught in the California portion of the Klamath Management Zone (KMZ) defined consistent with salmon regulations as waters from the California/Oregon border south to Horse Mountain.
• Vessels could fish concurrently under both this EFP Program and the electronic monitoring EFP Program.
• Participants must submit an informal report for the April 2017 Council meeting and a formal report for the June 2017 Council meeting.
• The permits under this EFP Program will not automatically renew for the 2018 year, but a resubmission of an application can be made to the Council in September 2017.
The applicants have not proposed a specific list of participating vessels, as is traditionally the case, but rather are proposing an overall EFP program that any vessel in the fleet could enroll in by applying to NMFS. Depending on the diversity of interested vessels, NMFS may need to develop several EFPs within the overall EFP program to accommodate different protocols for different gear configurations and monitoring types (
In accordance with NAO Administrative Order 216-6, a Categorical Exclusion or other appropriate National Environmental Policy Act document would be completed prior to the issuance of any permits under this EFP Program. Further review and consultation may be necessary before a final determination is made to issue the permits. After publication of this document in the
16 U.S.C. 1801
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The American lobster resource and fishery are cooperatively managed by the states and NMFS under the authority of the Atlantic Coastal Fisheries Cooperative Management Act, according to the framework set forth by the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission (ASMFC) in Amendment 3 of its Interstate Fishery Management Plan (ISFMP). This collection of information is in response to several addenda to Amendment 3 of the ISFMP that work to reduce trap fishing effort through limited entry fishing and trap allocation limit reductions. This program is intended to help control fishing efforts while increasing economic flexibility in the American lobster trap fishery.
Currently, Federal lobster permit holders qualified to fish with trap gear in Lobster Conservation Management Areas 2 and 3 are undergoing scheduled annual trap allocation reductions of 5 percent per year until 2021 (Area 2) and 2020 (Area 3). In 2015, in an effort to help mitigate the initial economic burden of these reductions, NMFS and state agencies implemented the Lobster Trap Transfer Program that allows all qualified Federal lobster permit holders to buy and sell trap allocation from Areas 2, 3, or Outer Cape Cod. Each transaction includes a conservation tax of 10 percent, which deducts a number of traps equal to 10 percent of the total number of traps with each transfer, permanently removing them from the fishery.
NMFS collects annual application forms from Lobster permit holders who wish to buy and/or sell Area 2, 3, or Outer Cape trap allocation through the Trap Transfer Program. The transfer applications are only accepted during a 2-month period (from August 1 through September 30) each year, and the revised allocations for each participating lobster permit resulting from the transfers become effective at the start of the following Federal lobster fishing year, on May 1. Both the seller and buyer of the traps are required to sign the application form, which includes each permit holder's permit and vessel information, the number of traps sold, and the revised number of traps received by the buyer, inclusive of the amount removed according to the transfer tax. The parties must date the document and clearly show that the transferring permit holder has sufficient allocation to transfer and the permit holder receiving the traps has sufficient room under any applicable trap cap. This information allows NMFS to process and track transfers of lobster trap allocations through the Trap Transfer Program, and better enables the monitoring and management of the American lobster fishery as a whole.
Originally, this collection was part of a new rulemaking action, and included efforts to obtain information from American lobster permit holders to implement a limited access permit program. NMFS used the information to qualify permit holders for participation in Area 2 and/or the Outer Cape Area, and to allocate traps to each qualified permit. This limited access portion of the collection is complete and no longer necessary, so a revision is requested to remove it from the collection.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of Open Meetings; Monthly Webinars.
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA), as part of its BroadbandUSA program, will host a series of webinars on a monthly basis to engage the public and stakeholders with information to accelerate broadband access, improve digital inclusion, strengthen policies, and support local community priorities. The webinar series will provide ongoing source information on the range of topics and issues being addressed by BroadbandUSA, including best practices for improving broadband deployment, digital literacy, and e-government.
BroadbandUSA will hold the webinars from 2:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time on the third Wednesday of every month, beginning February 15, 2017, and continuing through September 20, 2017.
These are virtual meetings. NTIA will post the registration information on its BroadbandUSA Web site,
Lynn Chadwick, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 4627, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-8338; email:
NTIA's BroadbandUSA program provides expert advice and field-proven tools for assessing broadband adoption, planning new infrastructure and engaging a wide range of partners in broadband projects. BroadbandUSA convenes workshops on a regular basis to bring stakeholders together to discuss ways to improve broadband policies, share best practices, and connect communities to other federal agencies and funding sources for the purpose of expanding broadband infrastructure and adoption throughout America's communities. Experts from NTIA's BroadbandUSA program are available to provide technical assistance
The public is invited to participate in these webinars. General questions and comments are welcome at any time via email to
Individuals requiring accommodations should review the PowerPoint slides, transcript and recording from the webinar posted at the BroadbandUSA Web site,
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Deletions from the Procurement List.
This action deletes products and services from the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
Effective January 29, 2017.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia, 22202-4149.
Barry S. Lineback, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
On 11/28/2016 (81 FR 85538-85540), the Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled published notice of proposed deletions from the Procurement List.
After consideration of the relevant matter presented, the Committee has determined that the products and services listed below are no longer suitable for procurement by the Federal Government under 41 U.S.C. 8501-8506 and 41 CFR 51-2.4.
I certify that the following action will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. The major factors considered for this certification were:
1. The action will not result in additional reporting, recordkeeping or other compliance requirements for small entities.
2. The action may result in authorizing small entities to furnish the products and services to the Government.
3. There are no known regulatory alternatives which would accomplish the objectives of the Javits-Wagner-O'Day Act (41 U.S.C. 8501-8506) in connection with the products and services deleted from the Procurement List.
Accordingly, the following products and services are deleted from the Procurement List:
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled.
Proposed additions to and deletions from the procurement list.
The Committee is proposing to add products to the Procurement List that will be furnished by nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities, and deletes products previously furnished by such agency.
Comments must be received on or before January 29, 2017.
Committee for Purchase From People Who Are Blind or Severely Disabled, 1401 S. Clark Street, Suite 715, Arlington, Virginia 22202-4149.
Barry S. Lineback, Telephone: (703) 603-7740, Fax: (703) 603-0655, or email
This notice is published pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 8503(a)(2) and 41 CFR 51-2.3. Its purpose is to provide interested persons an opportunity to submit comments on the proposed actions.
If the Committee approves the proposed additions, the entities of the Federal Government identified in this notice will be required to procure the products listed below from nonprofit agencies employing persons who are blind or have other severe disabilities.
The following products are proposed for addition to the Procurement List for production by the nonprofit agencies listed:
The following products are proposed for deletion from the Procurement List:
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice and request for comments regarding a proposed extension of an approved information collection requirement.
DoD announces the proposed extension of a public information collection requirement and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved this information collection requirement for use through March 31, 2017. DoD proposes that OMB extend its approval for an additional three years.
DoD will consider all comments received by February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by OMB Control Number 0704-0232 regarding this public burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden, using any of the following methods:
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Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Mr. Tom Ruckdaschel, telephone 571-372-6088. The information collection requirements addresses in this notice are available at
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35),
The clause at DFARS 252.215-7002, Cost Estimating System Requirements, requires that certain large business contractors—
• Establish an acceptable cost estimating system and disclose the estimating system to the administrative contracting officer (ACO) in writing;
• Maintain the estimating system and disclose significant changes in the system to the ACO on a timely basis; and
• Respond in writing to written reports from the Government that identify deficiencies in the estimating system.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice and request for comments regarding a proposed extension of an approved information collection requirement.
DoD announces the proposed extension of a public information collection requirement and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved this information collection requirement for use through March 31, 2017. DoD proposes that OMB extend its approval for an additional three years.
DoD will consider all comments received by February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by OMB Control Number 0704-0359, using any of the following methods:
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Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Mr. Tom Ruckdaschel, telephone 571-372-6088. The information collection requirements addresses in this notice are available at:
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), DoD invites comments on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of DoD, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
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• DFARS 252.232-7007 is prescribed for use in solicitations and resultant incrementally-funded fixed-price contracts. Paragraph (c) of the clause requires a written notification from the contractor that: (1) States the estimated date when the total amount payable by the Government, including any cost for termination for convenience, will approximate 85 percent of the total amount then allotted to the contract for performance of the applicable items; (2) states an estimate of additional funding, if any, needed to continue performance of applicable line items up to the next scheduled date for allotment of funds, or to a mutually agreed upon substitute date; and (3) advises the contracting officer of the estimated amount of additional funds that will be required for the timely performance of the items funded pursuant to the clause, for a subsequent period as may be specified in the allotment schedule, or otherwise agreed to by the parties to the contract.
• DFARS 252.232-7012 is prescribed for use at DFARS 232.1005-70(a). This clause requires contractors to report the negotiated value of all previously completed performance-based payments; negotiated value of current performance-based payment(s) event(s); cumulative negotiated value of performance-based payment(s) events completed to date; total costs incurred to date; cumulative amount of payments previously requested; and the payment amount requested for the current performance based payment.
• DFARS 252.232-7013 is prescribed for use at 232.1005-70(b). This clause requires contractors to report the negotiated value of current performance-based payment(s) event(s); cumulative negotiated value of performance-based payment(s) events completed to date; total costs incurred to date; cumulative amount of payments previously requested; and the payment amount requested for the current performance based payment.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice and request for comments regarding a proposed extension of an approved information collection requirement.
DoD announces the proposed extension of a public information collection requirement and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved this information collection requirement for use through March 31, 2017. DoD proposes that OMB extend its approval for use for three additional years beyond the current expiration date.
DoD will consider all comments received by February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by OMB Control Number 0704-0398, using any of the following methods:
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Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Ms. Amy Williams, (571) 372-6106. The information collection requirements addressed in this notice are available on the World Wide Web at:
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35),
This information collection includes requirements related to foreign acquisition in DFARS Part 225, Foreign Acquisition, and the related clause at DFARS 252.225.
DFARS 252.225-7000, Buy American Act—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, as prescribed in 225.1101(1), requires an offeror to identify, in its proposal, supplies that are not domestic end products, separately listing qualifying country and other foreign end products.
DFARS 252.225-7003, Report of Intended Performance Outside the United States and Canada—Submission with Offer, and 252.225-7004, Report of Intended Performance Outside the United States and Canada—Submission after Award, as prescribed in 225.7204(a) and (b) respectively, require offerors and contractors to submit a Report of Contract Performance Outside the United States for subcontracts to be performed outside the United States. The reporting threshold is $700,000 for contracts that exceed $13.5 million. The contractor may submit the report on DD Form 2139, Report of Contract Performance Outside the United States, or a computer-generated report that contains all information required by DD Form 2139.
DFARS 252.225-7005, Identification of Expenditures in the United States, as prescribed in 225.1103(1), requires contractors incorporated or located in the United States to identify, on each request for payment under contracts for supplies to be used, or for construction or services to be performed, outside the United States, that part of the requested payment representing estimated expenditures in the United States.
DFARS 252.225-7010, Commercial Derivative Military Article—Specialty Metals Compliance Certificate, as prescribed at 225.7003-5(b), requires the offeror to certify that it will take certain actions with regard to specialty metals if the offeror chooses to use the alternative compliance approach when providing commercial derivative military articles to the Government.
DFARS 252.225-7013, Duty-Free Entry, as prescribed in 225.1101(4), requires the contractor to provide information on shipping documents and customs forms regarding products that are eligible for duty-free entry.
DFARS 252.225-7018, Photovoltaic Devices—Certificate, as prescribed at 225.7017-4(b), requires offerors to certify that no photovoltaic devices with an estimated value exceeding $3,000 will be utilized in performance of the
DFARS 252.225-7020, Trade Agreements Certificate, as prescribed in 225.1101(5), requires an offeror to list the item number and country of origin of any nondesignated country end product that it intends to furnish under the contract. Either 252.225-7020 or 252.225-7022 is used in any solicitation for products subject to the World Trade Organization Government Procurement Agreement.
DFARS 252.225-7021, Alternate II, Trade Agreements, as prescribed in 225.1101(6)(ii), in order to comply with a condition of the waiver authority provided by the United States Trade Representative to the Secretary of Defense, requires contractors from a south Caucasus/central or south Asian state to inform the government of its participation in the acquisition and also advise their governments that they generally will not have such opportunities in the future unless their governments provide reciprocal procurement opportunities to U.S. products and services and suppliers of such products and services.
DFARS 252.225-7023, Preference for Products or Services from Afghanistan, as prescribed in 225.7703-5(a), requires an offeror to identify, in its proposal, products or services that are not products or services from Iraq or Afghanistan.
DFARS 252.225-7025, Restriction on Acquisition of Forgings, as prescribed in 225.7102-4, requires the contractor to retain records showing compliance with the requirement that end items and their components delivered under the contract contain forging items that are of domestic manufacture only. The contractor must retain the records for 3 years after final payment and must make the records available upon request of the contracting officer. The contractor may request a waiver of this requirement in accordance with DFARS 225.7102-3.
DFARS 252.225-7032, Waiver of United Kingdom Levies—Evaluation of Offers, and 252.225-7033, Waiver of United Kingdom Levies, as prescribed in 225.1101(7) and (8), require an offeror to provide information to the contracting officer regarding any United Kingdom levies included in the offered price, and require the contractor to provide information to the contracting officer regarding any United Kingdom levies to be included in a subcontract that exceeds $1 million, before award of the subcontract.
DFARS 252.225-7035, Buy American Act—North American Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act—Balance of Payments Program Certificate, as prescribed in 225.1101(9), requires an offeror to list any qualifying country, NAFTA country, or other foreign end product that it intends to furnish under the contract. The Buy American Act no longer applies to acquisitions of commercial information technology.
DFARS 252.225-7046, Exports of Approved Community Members in Response to the Solicitation, requires a representation whether exports or transfers of qualifying defense articles were made in preparing the response to the solicitation. If yes, the offeror represents that such exports or transfers complied with the requirements of the provision.
Office for Civil Rights (OCR), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 28, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Rosa Olmeda, 202-453-5968.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that on September 19, 2016, pursuant to Rule 212 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.212, Central Kentucky Transmission Company submitted a request for a waiver of the reporting requirement to file the FERC Form 2-A for calendar year ending 2016 and all subsequent years; and a waiver of the reporting requirement to file the FERC Form 3-Q for quarter ending September 30, 2016 and all subsequent quarters.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Rubicon NYP Corp`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is January 12, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that on December 13, 2016, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC (FGT), 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002, filed in Docket No. CP17-23-000 a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205, 157.208, and 157.210 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), as amended, requesting authorization to construct, install, own, maintain, and operate its Western Division Project. Specifically, FGT proposes to construct approximately one mile of 36-inch-diameter pipeline loop, relocate an existing receiver, and install one new mainline valve downstream of Compressor Station 11 in Santa Rosa County, Florida. Additionally, FGT proposes to install approximately 100 feet of 8-inch-diameter connection piping, a custody transfer flange, and other auxiliary and appurtenant facilities at a new interconnection to be constructed with Florida Public Utilities Company (FPU) in Escambia County, Alabama, near the Alabama/Florida border. FGT states that the Western Division Project will provide 68,500 million British thermal units per day of natural gas to FPU and Ascend Performance Materials, Inc. FGT estimates the cost of the Western Division Project to be approximately $10,655,060, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Stephen T. Veatch, Senior Director of Certificates, Florida Gas Transmission Company, LLC, 1300 Main Street, Houston, Texas 77002, by telephone at (713) 989-2024, by fax at (713) 989-1205, or by email at
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenter's will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Albany Green Energy, LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is January 12, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Notice of proposed settlement agreement; request for public comment.
In accordance with section 113(g) of the Clean Air Act, as amended (“CAA”), notice is hereby given of a proposed settlement agreement to address a consolidated set of petitions for review filed by several parties in the United States Court of Appeals for the Tenth Circuit. Basin Electric Power Cooperative (“Basin Electric”) and the State of Wyoming (“Wyoming”) (collectively, “Petitioners”) filed petitions for review of an EPA rule addressing the regional haze requirements in Wyoming. Specifically, Basin Electric challenged the rule as it pertained to the NO
Written comments on the proposed settlement agreement must be received by January 30, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID number EPA-HQ-OGC-2016-0773, online at
Lea Anderson, Air and Radiation Law Office (2344A), Office of General Counsel, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone: (202) 564-5571; fax number (202) 564-5603; email address:
Petitioners filed petitions for review of EPA's rule titled “Approval, Disapproval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; State of Wyoming; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan; Federal Implementation Plan for Regional Haze,” 79 FR 5032 (Jan. 30, 2014) (“Final Rule”). In the Final Rule, EPA disapproved, in part, the Wyoming regional haze SIP, including the NO
Under the terms of the proposed settlement agreement, after the settlement agreement becomes final the parties will take specified actions as provided for in the settlement agreement. Please review the settlement agreement for additional details, available in the public docket at EPA-HQ-OGC-2016-0773.
For a period of 30 days following the date of publication of this notice, the Agency will receive written comments relating to the proposed settlement agreement from persons who were not named as parties or intervenors to the litigation in question. EPA or the Department of Justice may withdraw or withhold consent to the proposed settlement agreement if the comments disclose facts or considerations that indicate that such consent is inappropriate, improper, inadequate, or inconsistent with the requirements of the Act. Unless EPA or the Department of Justice determines that consent to the
The official public docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OGC-2016-0773 contains a copy of the proposed settlement agreement. The official public docket is available for public viewing at the Office of Environmental Information (OEI) Docket in the EPA Docket Center, EPA West, Room 3334, 1301 Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC. The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is (202) 566-1744, and the telephone number for the OEI Docket is (202) 566-1752.
An electronic version of the public docket is available through
It is important to note that EPA's policy is that public comments, whether submitted electronically or in paper, will be made available for public viewing online at
You may submit comments as provided in the
If you submit an electronic comment, EPA recommends that you include your name, mailing address, and an email address or other contact information in the body of your comment and with any disk or CD-ROM you submit. This ensures that you can be identified as the submitter of the comment and allows EPA to contact you in case EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties or needs further information on the substance of your comment. Any identifying or contact information provided in the body of a comment will be included as part of the comment that is placed in the official public docket, and made available in EPA's electronic public docket. If EPA cannot read your comment due to technical difficulties and cannot contact you for clarification, EPA may not be able to consider your comment.
Use of the
Section 309(a) of the Clean Air Act requires that EPA make public its comments on EISs issued by other Federal agencies. EPA's comment letters on EISs are available at:
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before February 28, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before February 28, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Title: Satellite Delivery of Network Signals to Unserved Households for Purposes of the Satellite Home Viewer Act.
Satellite and broadcast industries making field strength measurements for formal submission to the Commission in rulemaking proceedings, or making such measurements upon the request of the Commission, shall follow the procedure for making and reporting such measurements which shall be included in a report to the Commission and submitted in affidavit form, in triplicate. The report shall contain the following information:
(a) Tables of field strength measurements, which for each measuring location; (b) U.S. Geological Survey topographic maps; (c) All information necessary to determine the pertinent characteristics of the transmitting installation; (d) A list of calibrated equipment used in the field strength survey; (e) A detailed description of the calibration of the measuring equipment, and (f) Terrain profiles in each direction in which measurements were made.
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.686 also requires satellite and broadcast companies to maintain a written record describing, for each location, factors which may affect the recorded field (
The information collection requirements contained in 47 CFR 73.686(e) describes the procedures for measuring the field strength of digital television signals. These procedures will be used to determine whether a household is eligible to receive a distant digital network signal from a satellite television provider, largely rely on existing, proven methods the Commission has already established for measuring analog television signal strength at any individual location, as set forth in Section 73.686(d) of the existing rules, but include modifications as necessary to accommodate the inherent differences between analog and digital TV signals. The new digital signal measurement procedures include provisions for the location of the measurement antenna, antenna height, signal measurement method, antenna orientation and polarization, and data recording.
Therefore, satellite and broadcast industries making field strength measurements shall maintain written records and include the following information: (a) A list of calibrated equipment used in the field strength survey, which for each instrument specifies the manufacturer, type, serial number and rated accuracy, and the date of the most recent calibration by the manufacturer or by a laboratory. Include complete details of any instrument not of standard manufacture; (b) A detailed description of the calibration of the measuring equipment, including field strength meters, measuring antenna, and connecting cable; (c) For each spot at the measuring site, all factors which may affect the recorded field, such as topography, height and types of vegetation, buildings, obstacles, weather, and other local features; (d) A description of where the cluster measurements were made; (e) Time and date of the measurements and signature of the person making the measurements; (f) For each channel being measured, a list of the measured value of field strength (in units of dBμ after adjustment for line loss and antenna factor) of the five readings made during the cluster measurement process, with the median value highlighted.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the
Written comments should be submitted on or before January 30, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Kimberly R. Keravuori, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
This information collection addresses the requirement that certain carriers with high cost reporting obligations must file information about their locations which meet their broadband deployment public interest obligations via an electronic portal (“portal”).
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on “Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations Program III.” The purpose of the proposed study is to evaluate body burden levels of priority contaminants in Great Lakes residents,
Written comments must be received on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. ATSDR-2016-0122 by any of the following methods:
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To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations Program III—New—Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR).
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR) is requesting a three-year Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) clearance for a new information collection request (ICR) titled “Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations Program III.” ATSDR awarded funds to the Wisconsin Department of Health Services (WIDHS) to conduct this information collection under cooperative agreement #NU61TS000269-01-00. The purpose of the current program is to evaluate body burden levels of legacy and emerging contaminants in susceptible Great Lakes populations in the Milwaukee Estuary Area of Concern (AOC) in Wisconsin, an area that has not been previously covered by other Great Lakes initiatives.
The Great Lakes Basin has suffered decades of pollution and ecosystem damage. Many chemicals persist in Great Lakes waters and sediments, as well as in wildlife. These chemicals can build up in the aquatic food chain, and eating contaminated fish is a known route of human exposure.
In 2009, the Great Lakes Restoration Initiative (GLRI) was enacted by Public Law 111-88 to make restoration and protection of the Great Lakes a national priority. The GLRI is led by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (US EPA). Under a 2015 interagency agreement with the US EPA, ATSDR initiated the Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations Program III program. This project will provide additional public health information to supplement the previous cooperative agreement programs CDC-RFA-TS10-1001 “Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations” (hereafter referred to as “Program I,” OMB Control Number 0923-0044) and CDC-RFA-TS13-1302 “Biomonitoring of Great Lakes Populations-II” (hereafter referred to as “Program II,” OMB Control Number 0923-0052) initiated in FY2010 and FY2013, respectively.
WIDHS received funding for the current program. WIDHS will recruit and enroll two subpopulations of adults in the Milwaukee Bay Estuary Area of Concern (AOC) who are known to eat fish from the Milwaukee River Basin and Lake Michigan. This study will not include pregnant women.
The target populations are: (1) Licensed anglers living in proximity to the Milwaukee Estuary AOC and (2) Burmese refugees who are known to eat a substantial amount of fish from this area. WIDHS study staff will work closely with local refugee and citizen support organizations on participant recruitment.
The aims of the information collection in this surveillance project are:
1. Assess levels of contaminants (metals, polychlorinated biphenyls, chlorinated pesticides, perfluorinated compounds, and polyaromatic hydrocarbons) in blood and urine of residents who consume fish from contaminated areas that had not been studied in previous Programs I and II;
2. Use the project findings to inform public health officials and offer guidance on public health actions to reduce exposure to Great Lakes contaminants.
This applied public health program aims to measure contaminants in biological samples (blood, urine and hair) from people who may be at high risk of chemical exposure in the Great Lakes area. These measurements will provide a baseline for current and future restoration activities. The results will be compared to available national estimates, such as those reported by the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES).
Respondents will be screened for eligibility and consent will be obtained. Participants who consent will respond to a questionnaire and participate in
Respondents will also be interviewed. They will be asked about demographic and lifestyle factors, hobbies, health conditions that may affect fish consumption and fishing habits, and types of jobs which can contribute to chemical exposure. Some dietary questions will be asked with a focus on consumption of Great Lakes fish.
Participation in the study is voluntary and there is no cost to respondents other than their time. The estimated annualized burden for the program averaged over the three-year study period is 231 hours among 166 respondents. There is no cost to respondents other than their time spent in the study.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed revision of the CDC information collection project entitled “Possession, Use, and Transfer of Select Agents and Toxins.”
Written comments must be received on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0125 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Possession, Use, and Transfer of Select Agents and Toxins (42 CFR 73) (OMB Control No. 0920-0576, exp. 12/31/2018)—Revision—Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response (OPHPR), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Subtitle A of the
CDC is requesting OMB approval to revise the collected information under the select agent regulations through the use of the APHIS/CDC Form 3 (Report of Theft, Loss, or Release of Select Agents and Toxins). The Report of Theft, Loss, or Release of Select Agent and Toxin form (42 CFR 73.19(a),(b)) must be completed by an individual or an entity whenever the individual or entity experiences a theft, loss, or release of a select agent or toxin.
CDC is proposing to revise the form to further clarify what needs to be reported as a “release” and “loss” and additional fields to assist with categorizing the type of release (
The total estimated annualized burden for this collection was calculated using data obtained from the FSAP database and is estimated as 430 hours. Information will be collected via fax, email and hard copy mail from respondents. Upon OMB approval, CDC will continue use of the revised form through November 2018. There is no cost to the respondents.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the revision of the information collection entitled “Colorectal Cancer Control Program (CRCCP) Monitoring Activities.” The change to the collection will include a
Written comments must be received on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0123 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Colorectal Cancer Control Program (CRCCP) Monitoring Activities—(OMB Control No. 0920-1074, exp. 6/30/2018)—Revision—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC is requesting a revision of the information collection approved under OMB Control Number 0920-1074. Based on feedback from grantees and internal subject matter experts, CDC proposes use of a revised annual grantee survey instrument, as well as a revised clinic-level data collection template. The number of respondents will also decrease from 31 to 30 grantees. Total estimated annualized burden will decrease. OMB approval is requested for three years.
Colorectal cancer (CRC) is the second leading cause of death from cancer in the United States among cancers that affect both men and women. CRC screening has been shown to reduce incidence of and death from the disease. Screening for CRC can detect disease early when treatment is more effective and prevent cancer by finding and removing precancerous polyps. Of individuals diagnosed with early stage CRC, more than 90% live five or more years. Despite strong evidence supporting screening, only 65% of adults currently report being up-to-date with CRC screening as recommended by the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, with more than 22 million age-eligible adults estimated to be untested. To reduce CRC morbidity, mortality, and associated costs, use of CRC screening tests must be increased among age-eligible adults with the lowest CRC screening rates.
CDC's Colorectal Cancer Control Program (CRCCP) currently provides funding to 30 grantees under “Organized Approaches to Increase Colorectal Cancer Screening” (CDC-RFA-DP15-1502). CRCCP grantees include state governments or bona-fide agents, universities, and tribal organizations. The purpose of the cooperative agreement program is to increase CRC screening rates among an applicant defined target population of persons 50-75 years of age within a partner health system serving a defined geographical area or disparate population. The CDC significantly redesigned the CRCCP in 2015. The CRCCP has two components.
Two forms of data collection have been implemented to assess program processes and outcomes. In Program Year 1, the annual grantee survey monitored grantee program implementation, including (1) program management, (2) implementation of the EBIs and Supporting Activities (SAs) (3) health information technology (IT), (4) partnerships, (5) data use, (6) training and technical assistance (TA), and (7) clinical service delivery (for programs receiving Component 2 funding only). Clinic-level data collection assessed CRCCP's primary outcome of interest—CRC screening rates within partner health systems—by measuring the following components: (1) Partner health system, clinic, and patient population characteristics, (2) reporting period (for screening rates), (3) Chart review screening rate data, (4) Electronic Health Record (EHR)
For Program Years 2-5, based on feedback from grantees, CDC proposes use of updated data collection instruments. Specifically, CDC plans to implement a revised CRCCP annual grantee survey that eliminates survey items related to implementation of EBIs and SAs as these data are more accurately reported at the clinic level. Conversely, CDC plans to implement a revised CRCCP clinic-level data collection template that includes additional data variables related to implementation of EBIs and SAs, as well as monitoring and evaluation activities, at the clinic level.
Redesigned data elements will enable CDC to better gauge progress in meeting CRCCP program goals and monitor implementation activities, evaluate outcomes, and identify grantee technical assistance needs. In addition, data collected will inform program improvement and help identify successful activities that need to be maintained, replicated, or expanded.
OMB approval is requested for three years. The number of grantees decreased from 31 grantees in program year one to 30 grantees in program year two. In addition, the total estimated annualized burden hours have decreased from 210 to 204 hours. There are no costs to respondents other than their time.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
Through publication of this notice, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) located within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) announces a new policy and guidance for the electronic submission of data related to the importation of CDC-regulated items in the International Trade Data System (ITDS). Certain data, forms, and documents required to be submitted to HHS/CDC will be submitted through the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP)'s Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) system, using the Document Image System (DIS). This electronic process will replace certain paper-based processes in keeping with Federal policy and improve operations to further assist HHS/CDC's mission to protect public health.
This action is effective December 30, 2016.
For information regarding this Notice: Ashley A. Marrone, J.D., Division of Global Migration and Quarantine, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-E03, Atlanta, GA 30329. For information regarding CDC operations related to this Notice: Kendra Stauffer, D.V.M., Division of Global Migration and Quarantine, Quarantine and Border Health Services Branch, Importations and Animal Contact Team, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-E28, Atlanta, GA 30345. Either may also be reached by telephone 404-498-1600 or email
On February 19, 2014, the President signed Executive Order 13659,
This notice announces HHS/CDC's updated policy concerning the electronic transmission of HHS/CDC permits, forms, and documents using CBP's Document Image System (DIS). This DIS capability will satisfy the HHS/CDC data and electronic document requirements for any entry filed electronically in ACE and enable the trade community to have a CBP-managed single window for the electronic submission of data and documents required by HHS/CDC during the cargo importation and review process. The list of PGA forms and documents, including documents required by HHS/CDC, which may be transmitted using DIS may be found at
Under current applicable HHS/CDC policy and operations, the importation of HHS/CDC-regulated commodities into the customs territory of the United States typically requires the submission
(1) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS)/CDC Form 2—Request to Transfer Select Agents and Toxins (42 CFR 73);
(2) CDC Form 0.0728—Permit to Import or Transfer Etiologic Agents or Vectors of Human Disease (42 CFR 71.54);
(3) Rabies Vaccination Certificate (42 CFR 71.51);
(4) CDC Approval of Confinement Agreement Issuance Letter (42 CFR 71.51);
(5) CDC Permission Letter—Permit to Import African Rodents, Civets, or Turtles (42 CFR 71.56, 42 CFR 71.32(b), 42 CFR 71.52);
(6) CDC Nonhuman Primate Notification Message—Confirmation from CDC to the importer that CDC has given permission to import the nonhuman primate shipment (42 CFR 71.53); and
(7) Certification statement of a material that is not known to contain or suspected of containing an infectious biological agent, or has been rendered noninfectious (42 CFR 71.54).
Under the new policy, for those HHS/CDC items filed within ACE, individuals will continue to use the designated HHS/CDC application and filing processes; however, the processes will be electronic rather than paper-based.
Under this new Federal policy, which HHS/CDC has adopted, importers and brokers who file electronic entries for HHS/CDC-regulated items are now required to:
• Obtain the copy of the permit/permission letter, form, or document for submission to DIS:
(1) The APHIS/CDC Form 2, Request to Transfer Select Agents and Toxins, is used by entities to request prior authorization of a transfer including importation into the United States of select agent(s) or toxin(s) from the Federal Select Agent Program as required by regulations (7 CFR 331, 9 CFR 121, and 42 CFR 73). The form is available at:
(2) CDC Form 0.0728—Permit to Import or Transfer Etiologic Agents or Vectors of Human Disease:
(3) A rabies vaccination certificate for a dog must be issued by a licensed veterinarian.
(4) and (5) For certain animals and animal products capable of causing human disease, you must have a permit or letter of permission. See
(6) Only registered importers may bring nonhuman primates into the United States. HHS/CDC emails this approval to the broker after receiving notification of an incoming shipment by a registered importer. For information on how to become a registered importer, see
(7) For material that is not known to contain or suspected of containing an infectious biological agent, or has been rendered noninfectious, importers must provide an importer certification statement with the imported material. The certification statement must include a detailed description of the material and a statement on official letterhead signed by the sender or recipient clearly stating that (1) the material is not known or suspected to contain an infectious biological agent and (2) how the person making the certification knows that the specimen does not contain an infectious biological agent; or why that person believes there is no reason to suspect that the specimen contains an infectious biological agent; or a detailed description of how the material was rendered noninfectious. For more information, see the Import Regulations for Infectious Biological Agents, Infectious Substances and Vectors at
• Follow all applicable rules for obtaining and certifying DIS software as set forth by CBP. For more information, see
• Transmit import filings to CBP via ACE.
• Transmit only information to CBP that has been requested by CBP or CDC.
• Check CDC's Importation Web site
The following processes will remain as paper-based submissions:
A. Human remains for interment or cremation after entering the United States will not have an electronic entry within ACE. The required paper-based documents must continue to accompany the human remains, including those required by 42 CFR 71.55. For more information, see
B. Form 75.37—“Notice to Owners and Importers of Dogs (Requirement for Dog Confinement)” Dogs imported into the United States are expected to be healthy and vaccinated against rabies. There is no requirement to have this information electronically available within ACE. CBP issues a notice to owners and importers post-arrival only when dogs arrive in the U.S. port of entry without the required vaccination, meet certain criteria, and have been preapproved by HHS/CDC. For more information, visit the CDC Web page for how to bring an animal into the United States at
For more information on this policy and updates or changes to the forms eligible for electronic submission, please see
This change does not institute a new collection of information. The collection of information, including the use of the DIS, has been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507) and assigned the following OMB control numbers: (1) Foreign Quarantine: OMB Control No. 0920-0134, expiration date 5/31/2019; (2) Import Permit Applications: OMB Control No. 0920-0199, expiration date 1/31/2017; (3) Requirements for the Importation of Nonhuman Primates into the United States: OMB Control No. 0920-0263, expiration date 9/30/2017; and (4) Possession, Use, and Transfer of Select Agents and Toxins: OMB Control No. 0920-0576, expiration date 12/31/18.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project entitled “Assessment of Interventions Intended to Protect Pregnant Women in Puerto Rico from Zika Infections.” This project consists of telephone interviews with pregnant WIC participants in Puerto Rico.
Written comments must be received on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0124 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Assessment of Interventions Intended to Protect Pregnant Women in Puerto Rico from Zika Infections—New—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC proposes to continue the information collection initially cleared by OMB as an emergency ICR in June, 2016 (OMB Control No. 0920-1118). The expiration date for 0920-1118 is December 31, 2016. However, CDC intends to continue information collection for an additional nine months and is seeking OMB clearance to do so.
In December 2015, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a United States territory, reported its first confirmed locally transmitted Zika virus case.
Starting in March 2016, The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infections Diseases (NCEZID) initiated several interventions targeting pregnant women. The ultimate goal of these interventions is/was to protect pregnant women from Zika virus and encourage Zika prevention behaviors among pregnant women. The interventions include the following:
1. Zika Education Sessions (at WIC clinics;
2. Zika Prevention Kits;
3. Communication activities; and
4. Vector control services in the community.
This ICR is for data collection over the next nine months related to Zika prevention efforts that have been and will be implemented in Puerto Rico. Specifically, CDC needs this assessment to ensure that Zika prevention activities effectively educate, equip, and encourage women to participate in as many Zika prevention behaviors as possible. On-going evaluation is an important part of this program because it can reveal novel ways that women protect themselves from Zika, how effective the distribution of the Zika Prevention Kit has been in Puerto Rico, perceived severity and susceptibility to Zika, pregnant women's self-efficacy in protecting themselves from Zika after the interventions have been implemented, as well as the extent to which target populations are using contents of the Zika Prevention Kit.
Interviews with pregnant women in Puerto Rico can help articulate motivations for and against engaging in Zika prevention behaviors that are critical for preventing Zika-associated birth defects and morbidities. Implementing changes based on results from this assessment is expected to facilitate program improvement and ensure the most efficient allocation of resources for this public health emergency. The goal of this project is to
Findings will be used to improve the delivery of interventions and to inform decisions about future Zika prevention activities for pregnant women in Puerto Rico. The plan is to conduct up to 500 telephone interviews every two months over a 9-month period, (a total of four rounds), analyze the data, and generate a report for leaders of the response to offer insights on the delivery of interventions to pregnant women. The information will be used to make recommendations for improving interventions. Information may also be used to develop presentations, reports, and manuscripts to document the program and lessons learned in order to inform future programs of this sort.
The purpose of this assessment is also to assess core components of CDC's Zika response in communicating prevention behaviors, risk messages to the public about vector control activities, and the Zika Prevention kit.
The following factors will be assessed:
CDC will conduct telephone interviews with a mix of closed-ended and open-ended questions with pregnant women. We estimate 2,000 pregnant women will participate in the project over a nine month period.
Another component of this project is to conduct qualitative inquiry to explore emerging issues related to vector control, sexual transmission, contraception, mental health/emotional support, service/support needs of families with babies affected by Zika, or vaccine communications (if applicable). While pregnant women will be the main focus of most inquiry, other audiences could include community leaders, community members, and health care providers. The goal is to identify specific unmet needs, which can then be shared with the Department of Health and other human service agencies. The plan is to hold up to 7 focus groups (with up to 10 persons each), or up to 20 in-depth individual interviews or up to 75 brief intercept interviews. A maximum of 75 individuals would participate in this part.
Results of this project will have limited generalizability. However, results of this evaluation should provide information that can be used to enhance and revise the existing program as well as offer lessons learned to inform infectious disease control programs that use education materials.
Authorizing legislation comes from Section 301 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 241). There is no cost to respondents other than their time to participate.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Our food labeling regulations require food producers to disclose to consumers and others specific information about themselves or their products on the label or labeling of their products. Related regulations require that food producers retain records establishing the basis for the information contained in the label or labeling of their products and provide those records to regulatory officials. Finally, certain regulations provide for the submission of food labeling petitions to us. We issued our food labeling regulations under parts 101, 102, 104, and 105 (21 CFR parts 101, 102, 104, and 105) under the authority of sections 4, 5, and 6 of the Fair Packaging and Labeling Act (the FPLA) (15 U.S.C. 1453, 1454, and 1455) and sections 201, 301, 402, 403, 409, 411, 701, and 721 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 342, 343, 348, 350, 371, and 379e). Most of these regulations derive from section 403 of the FD&C Act, which provides that a food product shall be deemed to be misbranded if, among other things, its label or labeling fails to bear certain required information concerning the food product, is false or misleading in any particular, or bears certain types of unauthorized claims. The disclosure requirements and other collections of information in the regulations in parts 101, 102, 104, and 105 are necessary to ensure that food products produced or sold in the United States are in compliance with the labeling provisions of the FD&C Act and the FPLA.
Section 101.3 of our food labeling regulations requires that the label of a food product in packaged form bear a statement of identity (
Section 101.10 requires that restaurants provide nutrition information, upon request, for any food or meal for which a nutrient content claim or health claim is made. Section 101.12(b) provides the reference amount that is used for determining the serving sizes for specific products, including baking powder, baking soda, and pectin. Section 101.12(e) provides that a manufacturer that adjusts the reference amount customarily consumed (RACC) of an aerated food for the difference in density of the aerated food relative to the density of the appropriate nonaerated reference food must be prepared to show us detailed protocols and records of all data that were used to determine the density-adjusted RACC. Section 101.12(g) requires that the label or labeling of a food product disclose the serving size that is the basis for a claim made for the product if the serving size on which the claim is based differs from the RACC. Section 101.12(h) provides for the submission of petitions requesting that we change the reference amounts defined by regulation.
Section 101.13 requires that nutrition information be provided in accordance with § 101.9 for any food product for which a nutrient content claim is made. Under some circumstances, § 101.13 also requires the disclosure of other types of information as a condition for the use of a nutrient content claim. For example, under § 101.13(j), if the claim compares the level of a nutrient in the food with the level of the same nutrient in another “reference” food, the claim must also disclose the identity of the reference food, the amount of the nutrient in each food, and the percentage or fractional amount by which the amount of the nutrient in the labeled food differs from the amount of the nutrient in the reference food. It also requires that when this comparison is based on an average of food products, this information must be provided to consumers or regulatory officials upon request. Section 101.13(q)(5) requires that restaurants document and provide to appropriate regulatory officials, upon request, the basis for any nutrient content claims they have made for the foods they sell.
Section 101.14(d)(2) and (d)(3) provides for the disclosure of nutrition information in accordance with § 101.9 and, under some circumstances, certain other information as a condition for making a health claim for a food product. Section 101.15 provides that, if the label of a food product contains any representation in a foreign language, all words, statements, and other information required by or under authority of the FD&C Act to appear on the label must appear in both the foreign language and in English. Section 101.22 contains labeling requirements for the disclosure of spices, flavorings, colorings, and chemical preservatives in food products. Section 101.22(i)(4) sets forth disclosure and recordkeeping requirements pertaining to certifications for flavors designated as containing no artificial flavors. Section 101.30 specifies the conditions under which a beverage that purports to contain any fruit or vegetable juice must declare the percentage of juice present in the beverage and the manner in which the declaration is to be made.
Section 101.36 requires that nutrition information be provided for dietary supplements offered for sale, unless an exemption in § 101.36(h) applies. In particular, § 101.36(b)(2) requires that the amount of
Section 101.42 requests that food retailers voluntarily provide nutrition information for raw fruits, vegetables, and fish at the point of purchase, and § 101.45 contains guidelines for providing such information. Also, § 101.45(c) provides for the submission to us of nutrient databases and proposed nutrition labeling values for raw fruit, vegetables, and fish for review and approval.
Sections 101.54, 101.56, 101.60, 101.61, and 101.62 specify information that must be disclosed as a condition for making particular nutrient content claims. Section 101.67 provides for the use of nutrient content claims for butter, and cross-references requirements in other regulations for information declaration (§ 101.4) and disclosure of information concerning performance characteristics (§ 101.13(d)). Section 101.69 provides for the submission of a petition requesting that we authorize a particular nutrient content claim by regulation. Section 101.70 provides for the submission of a petition requesting that we authorize a particular health claim by regulation. Section 101.77(c)(2)(ii)(D) requires the disclosure of soluble fiber per serving in the nutrition labeling of a food bearing a health claim about the relationship between soluble fiber and a reduced risk of coronary heart disease. Section 101.79(c)(2)(iv) requires the disclosure of the amount of folate in the nutrition label of a food bearing a health claim about the relationship between folate and a reduced risk of neural tube defects.
Section 101.100(d) provides that any agreement that forms the basis for an exemption from the labeling requirements of section 403(c), (e), (g), (h), (i), (k), and (q) of the FD&C Act be
Section 101.105 specifies requirements for the declaration of the net quantity of contents on the label of a food in packaged form and prescribes conditions under which a food whose label does not accurately reflect the actual quantity of contents may be sold, with appropriate disclosures, to an institution operated by a Federal, State, or local government. Section 101.108 provides for the submission to us of a written proposal requesting a temporary exemption from certain requirements of §§ 101.9 and 105.66 for the purpose of conducting food labeling experiments with our authorization.
Regulations in part 102 define the information that must be included as part of the statement of identity for particular foods and prescribe related labeling requirements for some of these foods. For example, § 102.22 requires that the name of a protein hydrolysate will include the identity of the food source from which the protein was derived.
Part 104, which pertains to nutritional quality guidelines for foods, cross references several labeling provisions in part 101 but contains no separate information collection requirements.
Part 105 contains special labeling requirements for hypoallergenic foods, infant foods, and certain foods represented as useful in reducing or maintaining body weight.
The purpose of our food labeling requirements is to allow consumers to be knowledgeable about the foods they purchase. Nutrition labeling provides information for use by consumers in selecting a nutritious diet. Other information enables a consumer to comparison shop. Ingredient information also enables consumers to avoid substances to which they may be sensitive. Petitions or other requests submitted to us provide the basis for us to permit new labeling statements or to grant exemptions from certain labeling requirements. Recordkeeping requirements enable us to monitor the basis upon which certain label statements are made for food products and whether those statements are in compliance with the requirements of the FD&C Act or the FPLA.
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The estimated annual third party disclosure, recordkeeping, and reporting burdens are based on our communications with industry and our knowledge of and experience with food labeling and the submission of petitions and requests to us.
We expect that the burden hours for submissions under § 101.108 will be insignificant. Section 101.108 was originally issued to provide a procedure whereby we could grant exemptions from certain food labeling requirements. Exemption petitions have infrequently been submitted in the recent past; none have been submitted since publication on January 6, 1993, of the final regulations implementing section 403(q) and (r) of the FD&C Act. Thus, in order to maintain OMB approval of § 101.108 to accommodate the possibility that a food producer may propose to conduct a labeling experiment on its own initiative, we estimate that we will receive one or fewer submissions under § 101.108 in the next 3 years.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of the guidance entitled “Medical Device Accessories—Describing Accessories and Classification Pathways for New Accessory Types.” This document provides guidance to industry and FDA staff about the regulation of accessories to medical devices. The guidance explains what devices FDA generally considers an “accessory” and encourages use of the
Submit either electronic or written comments on this guidance at any time. General comments on Agency guidance documents are welcome at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
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An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Erica Takai, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5456, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6353 or Stephen Ripley, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave,. Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
FDA has jurisdiction over accessories because the definition of the term “device” provided in section 201(h) of the FD&C Act defines “device” to include, among other things, an “accessory.” All accessories to articles that meet this definition of “device” are regulated under the FD&C Act.
This guidance is intended to provide guidance to industry and FDA staff about the regulation of accessories to medical devices. Accordingly, this guidance describes the types of devices that FDA generally considers as accessories and discusses the risk- and regulatory control-based classification paradigm for these accessories. This information is expected to provide a greater level of transparency with regards to the classification of accessories and will aid FDA staff and industry in assuring that these devices are subject to an appropriate level of regulatory oversight by FDA. In addition, this guidance describes the use of the
For the purposes of this guidance document, an “accessory” is defined as “a finished device that is intended to support, supplement, and/or augment the performance of one or more parent devices.” It is important to note that FDA does not generally consider articles that do not meet the definition of an accessory as accessories simply because they may be used in conjunction with a device.
This guidance clarifies that classification of accessory devices, as for non-accessory devices, should reflect the risks of the device when used as intended and the level of regulatory controls necessary to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. Classifying an accessory in the same class as its parent device is appropriate when the accessory, when used as intended with the parent device, meets the criteria for placement in the class of the parent device. However, some accessories can have a lower risk profile than that of their parent device and, therefore, may warrant being regulated in a lower class.
In the
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the Agency's current thinking on the regulation of medical device accessories. It does not create or confer any rights for or on any person and does not operate to bind FDA or the public. An alternative approach may be used if such approach satisfies the requirements of the applicable statute and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The guidance also refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. The collections of information in 21 CFR parts 801 and 809 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0485; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 860, subpart C have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0138; and the collection of information for new medical device accessories devices
Part N, National Institutes of Health (NIH), of the Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority for the Department of Health and Human Services (40 FR 22859, May 27, 1975, as amended most recently at 77 FR 1941, January 12, 2012, and redesignated from Part HN as Part N at 60 FR 56605, November 9, 1995), is amended as set forth below to establish the
(HNAK) (1) Oversees the design, development, implementation, and evaluation of the
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This Notice identifies unutilized, underutilized, excess, and surplus Federal property reviewed by HUD for suitability for use to assist the homeless.
Juanita Perry, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 Seventh Street SW., Room 7266, Washington, DC 20410; telephone (202) 402-3970; TTY number for the hearing- and speech-impaired (202) 708-2565 (these telephone numbers are not toll-free), call the toll-free Title V information line at 800-927-7588 or send an email to
In accordance with 24 CFR part 581 and section 501 of the Stewart B. McKinney Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11411), as amended, HUD is publishing this Notice to identify Federal buildings and other real property that HUD has reviewed for suitability for use to assist the homeless. The properties were reviewed using information provided to HUD by Federal landholding agencies regarding unutilized and underutilized buildings and real property controlled by such agencies or by GSA regarding its inventory of excess or surplus Federal property. This Notice is also published in order to comply with the December 12, 1988 Court Order in
Properties reviewed are listed in this Notice according to the following categories: Suitable/available, suitable/unavailable, and suitable/to be excess, and unsuitable. The properties listed in the three suitable categories have been reviewed by the landholding agencies, and each agency has transmitted to HUD: (1) Its intention to make the property available for use to assist the homeless, (2) its intention to declare the property excess to the agency's needs, or (3) a statement of the reasons that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use as facilities to assist the homeless.
Properties listed as suitable/available will be available exclusively for homeless use for a period of 60 days from the date of this Notice. Where property is described as for “off-site use only” recipients of the property will be required to relocate the building to their own site at their own expense. Homeless assistance providers interested in any such property should send a written expression of interest to HHS, addressed to: Ms. Theresa M. Ritta, Chief Real Property Branch, the Department of Health and Human Services, Room 12-07, Parklawn Building, 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20857, (301)-443-2265 (This is not a toll-free number.) HHS will mail to the interested provider an application packet, which will include instructions for completing the application. In order to maximize the opportunity to utilize a suitable property, providers should submit their written expressions of interest as soon as possible. For complete details concerning the processing of applications, the reader is encouraged to refer to the interim rule governing this program, 24 CFR part 581.
For properties listed as suitable/to be excess, that property may, if subsequently accepted as excess by GSA, be made available for use by the homeless in accordance with applicable law, subject to screening for other Federal use. At the appropriate time, HUD will publish the property in a Notice showing it as either suitable/available or suitable/unavailable.
For properties listed as suitable/unavailable, the landholding agency has decided that the property cannot be declared excess or made available for use to assist the homeless, and the property will not be available.
Properties listed as unsuitable will not be made available for any other purpose for 20 days from the date of this Notice. Homeless assistance providers interested in a review by HUD of the determination of unsuitability should call the toll free information line at 1-800-927-7588 or send an email to
For more information regarding particular properties identified in this Notice (
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application from Monterey Park Retail Partners, LLC (applicant) for a 5-year incidental take permit for the threatened coastal California gnatcatcher (
Written comments should be received on or before January 30, 2017.
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Ms. Karen Goebel, Assistant Field Supervisor, Carlsbad Fish and Wildlife Office (see
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application from Monterey Park Retail Partners, LLC (applicant) for a 5-year incidental take permit for one covered species pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
We are requesting comments on the permit application and on the preliminary determination that the proposed HCP qualifies as a “low-effect” HCP, eligible for a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended. The basis for this determination is discussed in the environmental action statement (EAS) and associated low-effect screening form, which are also available for public review.
Section 9 of the Act and its implementing Federal regulations prohibit the “take” of animal species listed as endangered or threatened. Take is defined under the Act as to “harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect listed animal species, or to attempt to engage in such conduct” (16 U.S.C. 1538). “Harm” includes significant habitat modification or degradation that actually kills or injures listed wildlife by significantly impairing essential behavioral patterns such as breeding, feeding, or sheltering (50 CFR 17.3). However, under section 10(a) of the Act, the Service may issue permits to authorize incidental take of listed species. “Incidental take” is defined by the Act as take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, carrying out an otherwise lawful activity. Regulations governing incidental take permits for threatened and endangered species, respectively, are found in the Code of Federal Regulations at 50 CFR 17.22 and 50 CFR 17.32.
The applicant requests a 5-year permit under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. If we approve the permit, the applicant anticipates taking gnatcatcher as a result of permanent impacts to 2.77 acres of habitat the species uses for breeding, feeding, and sheltering. The take would be incidental to the applicant's activities associated with the construction of the Monterey Park Market Place project in the City of Monterey Park, California, and includes restoration and in-perpetuity preservation and management of 12 acres of gnatcatcher habitat.
The Monterey Park Market Place project consists of the construction of a 62-acre commercial retail development in the City of Monterey Park. The project will permanently impact 2.77 acres of gnatcatcher-occupied habitat as a result of clearing and grading activities. Up to three gnatcatcher territories have been documented on the project site.
To minimize take of gnatcatcher by the Monterey Park Market Place project and offset impacts to its habitat, the applicant proposes to mitigate for permanent impacts to 2.77 acres of occupied gnatcatcher habitat through the restoration, conservation, and in-perpetuity management of 12 acres of coastal sage scrub suitable for the gnatcatcher by a Service-approved restoration contractor and the Puente Hills Habitat Authority. The applicant's proposed HCP also contains the following proposed measures to minimize the effects of construction activities on the gnatcatcher:
• Grading limits will be delineated with construction fencing and silt fencing to ensure that impact limits do not extend beyond the allowed limits of development.
• A Service-approved biologist will monitor grading of the site and provide a letter summarizing compliance with the construction limits of the proposed project to the Service within one month of completion of grading.
• Vegetation clearing will take place outside of the bird nesting season (February l5 through August 31) to the fullest extent practicable. Clearing may only occur during this period once a Service-approved biologist has conducted at least three surveys of the impact areas for nesting birds, with each survey taking place one week apart and the last survey conducted within 24 hours prior to clearing. The Service-approved biologist will document compliance with the Migratory Bird Treaty Act (MBTA) and other applicable regulations that protect nesting birds. If an active bird nest is observed, an appropriate buffer (minimum of 300 feet for any active gnatcatcher nest) will be established wherein no project activities will occur until the nest is no longer active.
The Proposed Action consists of the issuance of an incidental take permit and implementation of the proposed HCP, which includes measures to avoid, minimize, and mitigate impacts to the gnatcatcher. If we approve the permit, take of gnatcatcher would be authorized for the applicant's activities associated with the construction of the Monterey Park Market Place project. In the proposed HCP, the applicant considers alternatives to the taking of gnatcatcher under the proposed action. Alternative development configuration was considered; however, because of the small size and irregular shape of the project site, further avoidance of impacts to gnatcatcher habitat could not be achieved. The applicant also considered the No Action Alternative. Under the No Action Alternative, no incidental take of gnatcatcher habitat would occur, and no long-term protection and management would be afforded to the species.
The Service has made a preliminary determination that the approval of the HCP and issuance of an incidental take permit qualify for categorical exclusion under NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
We base our determination that an HCP qualifies as a low-effect plan on the following three criteria:
(1) Implementation of the HCP would result in minor or negligible effects on federally listed, proposed, and candidate species and their habitats;
(2) Implementation of the HCP would result in minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources; and
(3) Impacts of the HCP, considered together with the impacts of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable similarly situated projects, would not result, over time, in cumulative effects to environmental values or resources that would be considered significant.
Based upon this preliminary determination, we do not intend to prepare further NEPA documentation. We will consider public comments in making the final determination on whether to prepare such additional documentation.
We will evaluate the proposed HCP and comments we receive to determine whether the permit application meets the requirements and issuance criteria under section 10(a) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
If you wish to comment on the permit application, proposed HCP, and associated documents, you may submit comments by any of the methods noted in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications for a permit to conduct activities intended to enhance the survival of endangered or threatened species. Federal law prohibits certain activities with endangered species unless a permit is obtained.
We must receive any written comments on or before January 30, 2017.
Send written comments by U.S. mail to the Regional Director, Attn: Carlita Payne, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ecological Services, 5600 American Blvd. West, Suite 990, Bloomington, MN 55437-1458; or by electronic mail to
Carlita Payne, (612) 713-5343.
The Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA), as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
A permit granted by us under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA authorizes the permittee to conduct activities with U.S. endangered or threatened species for scientific purposes, enhancement of propagation or survival, or interstate commerce (the latter only in the event that it facilitates scientific purposes or enhancement of propagation or survival). Our regulations implementing section 10(a)(1)(A) of the ESA for these permits are found at 50 CFR 17.22 for endangered wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.32 for threatened wildlife species, 50 CFR 17.62 for endangered plant species, and 50 CFR 17.72 for threatened plant species.
We invite local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies and the public to comment on the following applications. Please refer to the permit number when you submit comments. Documents and other information the applicants have submitted with the applications are available for review, subject to the requirements of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a) and Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
Proposed activities in the following permit requests are for the recovery and enhancement of survival of the species in the wild.
The proposed activities in the requested permits qualify as categorical exclusions under the National Environmental Policy Act, as provided by Department of the Interior implementing regulations in part 46 of title 43 of the CFR (43 CFR 46.205, 46.210, and 46.215).
We seek public review and comments on these permit applications. Please refer to the permit number when you submit comments. Comments and materials we receive in response to this notice are available for public inspection, by appointment, during normal business hours at the address listed above in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application from the San Diego Gas and Electric Company (SDG&E) for an incidental take permit for 15 animal species pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended. SDG&E is also seeking assurances for 22 plant species under the Service's “No Surprises” regulation. We are requesting comments on the permit application and on the preliminary determination that the proposed habitat conservation (HCP) qualifies as a “low-effect” HCP, eligible for a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended. The basis for this determination is discussed in the environmental action statement (EAS) and the associated low-effect screening form, which are also available for public review.
Written comments should be received on or before January 30, 2017.
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Ms. Karen Goebel, Assistant Field Supervisor, Carlsbad Fish and Wildlife Office (see
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received an application from the San Diego Gas and Electric Company (SDG&E) for a 5-year incidental take permit for 15 animal species pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
The HCP is designed to support the continuation of activities covered by Endangered Species Act (ESA) Permit No. PRT-809637, which is a multi-species incidental take permit issued by the Service to SDG&E in December 1995 (1995 ESA permit). The 1995 permit is subject to SDG&E's compliance with its 1995 Subregional Natural Community Conservation Plan/Habitat Conservation Plan (1995 NCCP/HCP) and a 400-acre cap on habitat impacts. Under this new HCP, SDG&E would continue to apply all of the conservation efforts, mitigation measures, and operational protocols implemented under the 1995 NCCP/HCP. The HCP would allow a maximum of 60 acres of impact over a 5-year permit term.
We are requesting comments on the permit application and on the preliminary determination that the proposed HCP qualifies as a “low-effect” HCP, eligible for a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969, as amended. The basis for this determination is discussed in the environmental action statement (EAS) and associated low-effect screening form, which are also available for public review.
Section 9 of the Endangered Species Act and its implementing Federal regulations prohibit the “take” of animal species listed as endangered or threatened. Take is defined under the Act as to “harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect listed animal species, or to attempt to engage in such conduct” (16 U.S.C. 1538). “Harm” includes significant habitat modification or degradation that actually kills or injures listed wildlife by significantly impairing essential behavioral patterns such as breeding, feeding, or sheltering (50 CFR 17.3). However, under section 10(a) of the Act, the Service may issue permits to authorize incidental take of listed species. “Incidental take” is defined by the Act as take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, carrying out an otherwise lawful activity.
Take of plant species is not prohibited under the Endangered Species Act and therefore cannot be authorized under an incidental take permit. However, 22 plant species, including 16 federally listed plants, are proposed to be included on the permit in recognition of the conservation benefits provided to them under the HCP.
Regulations governing incidental take permits for threatened and endangered species are found in 50 CFR 17.32 and 17.22, respectively. All species included on the incidental take permit, if issued, would receive assurances under the Service's “No Surprises” regulation (50 CFR 17.22(b)(5) and 17.32)(b)(5).
SDG&E seeks incidental take authorization for 15 animal species, including 8 federally endangered, 3 federally threatened, and 4 unlisted species, and assurances for 22 plant species, including 11 federally endangered, 5 federally threatened, and 6 unlisted species. Collectively the 37 listed and unlisted species are referred to as “Covered Species” in the HCP. The permit would provide take authorization for all 15 animal species and assurances for all 22 plant species identified in the HCP as “Covered Species” during the requested permit term of 5 years.
If we approve the permit, incidental take of the 15 animal species and impacts to 22 plant species listed in Table 2 of the HCP would occur as a result of covered species habitat removal at a rate of 5 to 12 acres annually over the course of the 5-year permit term, or up to a 60-acre maximum impact. The 60-acre habitat impact, including take of covered animal species, would be incidental to SDG&E's O&M activities on existing infrastructure and minor new construction within their service territory in San Diego, Orange, and Riverside Counties.
To minimize and mitigate impacts to covered species, including take of animal species, from O&M activities and minor new construction, SDG&E will implement all of the conservation efforts, mitigation measures, and operational protocols identified under
The Proposed Action consists of the issuance of an incidental take permit and implementation of the proposed HCP, which includes measures to avoid, minimize, and mitigate impacts to 37 covered species. If we approve the permit, take of the 15 animal species and impacts to 22 plant species would be authorized for SDG&E to conduct O&M activities and minor new construction. In the proposed HCP, the applicant considers alternatives to the taking of covered species under the proposed action. A “No Action” alternative was considered where SDG&E would continue to conduct its activities in accordance with the applicant's 1995 NCCP/HCP until the 400-acre cap on habitat impacts is reached. Simultaneously, SDG&E would work with the Service and the California Department of Fish and Wildlife to develop and adopt a revised NCCP/HCP. However, if this process is not completed by the time the 400-acre cap is reached, SDG&E would have to suspend its routine O&M activities until the process is complete or seek individual permits for distinct activities. Any suspension would pose significant risks to SDG&E's ability to provide safe and reliable service to its customers and pursuing individual permits for routine activities would impose significant administrative burdens and costs and potential delays on SDG&E.
The Service has made a preliminary determination that approval of the proposed HCP qualifies as a categorical exclusion under NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
We base our determination that a HCP qualifies as a low-effect plan on the following three criteria:
(1) Implementation of the HCP would result in minor or negligible effects on federally listed, proposed, and candidate species and their habitats;
(2) Implementation of the HCP would result in minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources; and
(3) Impacts of the HCP, considered together with the impacts of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable similarly situated projects, would not result, over time, in cumulative effects to environmental values or resources that would be considered significant.
Based upon this preliminary determination, we do not intend to prepare further NEPA documentation. We will consider public comments in making the final determination on whether to prepare such additional documentation.
We will evaluate the proposed HCP and comments we receive to determine whether the permit application meets the requirements and issuance criteria under section 10(a) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
If you wish to comment on the permit application, proposed HCP, and associated documents, you may submit comments by any of the methods noted in
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of availability.
This notice announces the availability of the Department's new
The guidelines are available at:
For information on implementation of these guidelines, please contact Ms. Debra Burton, ICWA Specialist, Bureau of Indian Affairs, U.S. Department of the Interior, 1849 C Street NW., MS 3642, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 513-7610;
The ICWA is a statute passed by Congress and codified in the United States Code (U.S.C.) at 25 U.S.C. 1901
The Department is now issuing
The Department encourages all involved in child custody proceedings who seek to understand and uniformly apply ICWA and the Department's regulations to review the guidelines, which are available at the Web page listed in the
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
The Pueblo of Santa Ana and the State of New Mexico entered into a compact governing Class III gaming. This notice announces that the compact is taking effect.
The effective date of the compact is December 30, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
Section 11 of the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA) requires the Secretary of the Interior to publish in the
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
This notice advises the public that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA), as lead agency, intends to gather information necessary for preparing an environmental impact statement (EIS) in connection with the Tule River Tribe's (Tribe) proposed Eagle Mountain Casino Relocation Project in Tulare County, California. This notice also opens public scoping to identify potential issues, concerns and alternatives to be considered in the EIS.
To ensure consideration during the development of the EIS, written comments on the scope of the EIS should be sent as soon as possible and no later than January 30, 2017. The date of the public scoping meeting will be announced at least 15 days in advance through a notice to be published in the local newspaper (Porterville Recorder) and online at
You may mail or hand-deliver written comments to Ms. Amy Dutschke, Regional Director, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Pacific Region, 2800 Cottage Way, Sacramento, California 95825. Please include your name, return address, and “NOI Comments, Tule River Tribe Casino Relocation Project” on the first page of your written comments. You may also submit comments through email to Mr. John Rydzik, Chief, Division of Environmental, Cultural Resource Management and Safety, Bureau of Indian Affairs, at
The location of the public scoping meeting will be announced at least 15 days in advance through a notice to be published in the local newspaper (Porterville Recorder) and online at
Mr. John Rydzik, Chief, Division of Environmental, Cultural Resource Management and Safety, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Pacific Regional Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2820, Sacramento, California 95825; telephone: (916) 978-6051; email:
The Tribe submitted an application to the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) requesting the placement of approximately 40 acres of fee land in trust by the United States upon which the Tribe would construct a casino resort. The facility would include an approximately 105,000 square foot casino, an approximately 250-room hotel, approximately 36,000 square feet of food and beverage facilities, administrative space, a multi-purpose events center, a conference center, and associated parking and infrastructure. The new facility would replace the Tribe's existing casino, and the existing casino buildings would be converted to tribal government or service uses. Accordingly, the proposed action for the Department is the acquisition requested by the Tribe. The proposed fee-to-trust property is located within the boundaries of the City of Porterville, in Tulare County, California, adjacent to the Porterville Airport and approximately 15 miles west of the Tule River Tribe Reservation. The proposed trust property includes 17 parcels, bound by West Street on the west, an off-highway vehicle park (OHV) owned by the City of Porterville to the north and east, and a photovoltaic power station (solar farm) to the south. The Assessor's parcel numbers (APNs) for the property are 302-400-001 through 302-400-017. The purpose of the proposed action is to improve the economic status of the tribal government so it can better provide housing, health care, education, cultural programs, and other services to its members.
The proposed action encompasses the various Federal approvals which may be required to implement the Tribe's proposed project, including approval of
Areas of environmental concern identified for analysis in the EIS include land resources; water resources; air quality; noise; biological resources; cultural/historical/archaeological resources; resource use patterns; traffic and transportation; public health and safety; hazardous materials and hazardous wastes; public services and utilities; socioeconomics; environmental justice; visual resources/aesthetics; and cumulative, indirect, and growth-inducing effects. The range of issues and alternatives to be addressed in the EIS may be expanded or reduced based on comments received in response to this notice and at the public scoping meeting. Additional information, including a map of the proposed trust property, is available by contacting the person listed in the
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
This notice announces the amendment of the September 24, 2015, application by the Assistant Secretary of the Interior for Land and Minerals Management to withdraw approximately 10 million acres of public and National Forest System lands from location and entry under the United States mining laws to protect the Greater Sage-Grouse and its habitat. The amendment adds 387,981.42 acres in the State of Nevada and refines the proposed withdrawal boundaries in Idaho, Montana, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, and Wyoming. In addition, this notice announces the release of the draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for public review, which analyzes and discloses the impacts of the proposed withdrawal.
Comments must be received by March 28, 2017. Meetings will be held to provide the public with an opportunity to review and comment on the proposed withdrawal amendment and the draft EIS. Please see the
Written comments should be sent to Mark Mackiewicz, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) WO, C/O Price Field Office, 125 South 600 West, Price, UT 84501 or submitted electronically to
Mark A. Mackiewicz, BLM, by telephone at 435-636-3616, or by email at
On September 24, 2015, a Notice of Proposed Withdrawal was published in the
The Assistant Secretary of the Interior for Land and Minerals Management has approved the BLM's petition. This action therefore, constitutes a withdrawal proposal of the Secretary of the Interior (43 CFR 2310.1-3(e)).
Exhibit “A” of the application amendment describes the proposed additional public lands in Nevada being considered for withdrawal.
Exhibit “B” describes all of the lands in both the original withdrawal application and the proposed withdrawal amendment under consideration by the BLM and the U.S. Forest Service (USFS). The withdrawal
The written legal land descriptions and the maps depicting the proposed withdrawal for both Exhibit “A” and Exhibit “B” may be found on the BLM internet Web site link:
The maps, legal land descriptions, and records relating to the amendment application may be examined at the following BLM State Offices or USFS Regional Offices or by contacting Mark Mackiewicz at 435-636-3616.
Idaho State Office, 1387 S. Vinnell Way, Boise, ID 83709.
Montana State Office, 5001 Southgate Drive, Billings, MT 59101-4669.
Nevada State Office, 1340 Financial Boulevard, Reno, NV 89502.
Oregon State Office, 1220 SW 3rd Avenue, Portland OR 97204.
Utah State Office, 440 West 200 South, Suite 500, Salt Lake City, UT 84101.
Wyoming State Office, 5353 Yellowstone Road, Cheyenne, Wyoming 82009.
U.S. Forest Service, Region 1, 200 E Broadway St, Missoula, MT 59802.
U.S. Forest Service, Region 4, Federal Building, 324 25th Street, Ogden, UT 84401.
U.S. Forest Service, Region 6, 1220 SW 3rd Avenue, Portland OR 97204.
The withdrawal proposal (including the amendment) will be processed in accordance with the regulations set forth in 43 CFR part 2300.
The purpose of the proposed withdrawal is to protect the Greater Sage-Grouse and its habitat from adverse effects of locatable mineral exploration and mining.
Publication of this notice segregates the lands described in the amended withdrawal application from location or entry under the United States mining laws, subject to valid existing rights, until September 24, 2017, unless the withdrawal application is denied or cancelled or the withdrawal is approved prior to that date. All of the lands (unless otherwise subject to an existing withdrawal) will remain open to the public land laws, leasing under the mineral and geothermal leasing laws, and disposal under the mineral material sales laws.
Non-Federal mineral lands located within the boundaries of the proposed withdrawal areas will not be affected.
Licenses, permits, cooperative agreements, or discretionary land use authorizations may be allowed during the temporary segregative period, but only with the approval of the authorized officer of the BLM or the USFS.
The use of a right-of-way, interagency or cooperative agreement, or surface management by the BLM under 43 CFR 3715 or 43 CFR 3809 regulations will not adequately constrain nondiscretionary uses, which could result in loss of critical Greater Sage-Grouse habitat.
There are no suitable alternative sites for the withdrawal.
No water rights would be needed to fulfill the purpose of the requested withdrawal.
The proposed action analyzed in the draft EIS considers a withdrawal of approximately 10 million acres of Federal lands from location and entry under the United States mining laws for a maximum period of 20 years, subject to valid existing rights. The lands included in the proposed action are National System of Public Lands and National Forest System lands administered by the BLM and the USFS. Public scoping for this project began on September 24, 2015, and closed on January 15, 2016, with the publication in the
• Development of Federal mineral resources is authorized by law on BLM and National Forest System Lands; restrictions or closures may decrease the ability to provide mineral resources;
• The proposed action could affect the social and economic conditions within the analysis area, particularly in smaller communities;
• The proposed action could reduce the potential for disturbance to vegetation communities and habitat alteration and fragmentation that otherwise might have occurred from mining activity; and
• Mineral exploration and development has the potential to impact wildlife, including special status species and associated habitat within and adjacent to the proposed withdrawal area.
An interdisciplinary approach was used to develop the draft EIS to consider a variety of resource issues and concerns. Based on internal and external scoping, the issues analyzed in detail in the draft EIS include:
• Geology and mineral resources;
• Vegetation, including special status plant species;
• Wildlife and special status animal species, including Greater Sage-Grouse; and
• Socioeconomic conditions, including environmental justice and human health and safety.
In addition to the proposed action, the draft EIS analyzes and discloses the potential effects of the No Action alternative, State of Nevada alternative, High Mineral Potential alternative, and State of Idaho alternative.
Under the No Action alternative, the proposed withdrawal area would remain open to location and entry under the United States mining laws. New mining claims could be located and the BLM and USFS would continue to oversee and regulate locatable mineral exploration and development in accordance with existing programs, polices, and regulations.
Under the State of Nevada alternative, 487,756 acres of lands in Nevada, that are part of the proposed action would not be withdrawn and 387,981.42 acres of priority Greater Sage-Grouse habitat located contiguous to but outside the SFAs in the State would be included in the withdrawal. Nevada suggested that this alternative be considered to reduce the anticipated economic effect of the proposed withdrawal to the State of Nevada while still meeting the purpose and need for the proposed action.
Under the High Mineral Potential alternative, all areas within the SFAs that contain lands with high mineral potential, as defined by the Sagebrush Mineral-Resource Assessment prepared by the U.S. Geological Survey, would not be withdrawn. Under this alternative, 558,918 acres of high mineral potential lands in the six states that are part of the proposed action would not be withdrawn.
Under the State of Idaho alternative, 538,742 acres of economically developable lands in the State of Idaho that are part of the proposed action would be excluded from the proposed withdrawal and left open to location and entry under the United States mining laws. The State of Idaho identified these areas as economically developable. No additional lands are being proposed for inclusion in the withdrawal under this alternative.
Thirty-one agencies and two American Indian Tribes have entered into Cooperating Agency agreements with the BLM for this EIS effort. Cooperating agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to resources potentially affected by the proposal (40 CFR 1508.5). Cooperating agencies participate in the preparation of the NEPA analysis and documentation. Cooperating agency
The BLM also contacted 53 American Indian governments via letter or face-to-face meetings during scoping and prior to the release of the draft EIS. The governments were provided a project update, an offer to provide more information, and an offer for government-to-government consultation.
In accordance with 36 CFR 800.3(a)(1), the BLM determined that the proposed SFA withdrawal is an undertaking that has no potential to affect historic properties, assuming such historic properties were present, and therefore the agency official has no further obligation under the National Historic Preservation Act. The BLM informed 53 American Indian governments; the Idaho, Montana, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, and Wyoming State Historic Preservation Offices; and the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation of this determination of effect.
The draft EIS is available at the following libraries and offices online at:
Specific comments or concerns about the proposed withdrawal will be most helpful to the BLM. Your comments should identify specific concerns with the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to
After the comments are reviewed, any significant new issues will be investigated, modifications will be made to the draft EIS, and a final EIS will be published and distributed. The final EIS will contain the agency's responses to timely comments received on the draft EIS.
In accordance with the requirements of 43 CFR 2310.3-1(b)(2)(iv) and 40 CFR 1506.6(b), for a period until March 28, 2017, all persons who wish to submit comments, suggestions, or objections in connection with the proposed withdrawal amendment as it relates to the lands in the six states and/or the draft EIS may present their views in writing to Mark Mackiewicz, BLM WO, C/O Price Field Office, 125 South 600 West, Price, Utah 84501, or by email to:
Notice is also hereby given that public meetings in connection with the proposed withdrawal and the release of the draft EIS will be held on the following dates, times, and locations:
The public will have an opportunity to provide oral and written comments at the meetings. All comments received will be considered before any recommendation concerning the proposed withdrawal is submitted to the Assistant Secretary of the Interior for Land and Minerals Management for final action.
Comments including names and street addresses of respondents will be available for public review at the BLM Washington Office at the address noted above, during regular business hours, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
The United States Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (USFS) has filed an application with the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) requesting that the Secretary of the Interior withdraw, for a period of 20 years, approximately 340,079 acres of National Forest System lands located in the Methow Valley, Okanagan National Forest. The purpose of the withdrawal is to protect the area while Congress considers legislation to permanently withdraw the lands, and to protect the value of ecological and recreational resources of the Methow Valley. Publication of this notice segregates the lands, subject to valid existing rights, for up to 2 years from settlement, sale, location, and entry under the public land laws, location and entry under the United States mining laws, and operation of the mineral and geothermal leasing laws. This notice also gives the public an opportunity to comment on the application for withdrawal.
Comments must be received by March 30, 2017. The date(s) and location(s) of meetings related to the application for withdrawal will be announced at least 30 days in advance of the meetings through local media, newspapers and the
Comments should be sent to the BLM Oregon/Washington State Director, P.O. Box 2965, Portland, OR 97208-2965.
Jacob Childers, BLM Oregon/Washington State Office, P.O. Box 2965, Portland, OR 97208-2965 or by phone at 503-808-6225. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual. The service is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
The applicant is the USFS. The application requests the Secretary of the Interior withdraw for a period of 20 years, subject to valid existing rights, the following described National Forest System lands from settlement, sale, location, and entry under the public land laws, location and entry under the United States mining laws, and operation of the mineral and geothermal leasing laws to protect the value of ecological and recreational resources of the Methow Valley and to protect the area while legislation to permanently withdraw the lands is being considered. Recreation accounts for a substantial share of the Methow Valley community's economy while the watershed provides habitat for several threatened and endangered species. Legislation is currently pending in the 114th Congress as S.2991 and identified as the “Methow Headwaters Protection Act of 2016.”
The areas described aggregate 340,079 acres of National Forest System lands in Okanogan County, Washington.
Non-Federal mineral lands located within the boundaries of the proposed withdrawal areas will not be affected.
Licenses, permits, cooperative agreements, or discretionary land use authorizations of a temporary nature that will not significantly impact the values to be protected by the withdrawal may be allowed with the approval of the authorized FS officer during the temporary segregation period. FS surface occupancy regulations will not adequately constrain land uses allowed under the General Mining Law (as amended) and the Mineral Leasing Act of 1920 (as amended).
There are no suitable alternative sites for the withdrawal.
No water rights would be needed to fulfill the purpose of the requested withdrawal.
Records related to the application may be examined by contacting Jacob Childers, BLM Oregon/Washington State Office at the address or phone number listed above.
For a period until March 30, 2017, all persons who wish to submit comments, suggestions, or objections in connection with the proposed withdrawal may present their views in writing to the BLM Oregon/Washington State Office, State Director at the address indicated above. Information regarding the withdrawal application will be available for public review at the BLM Oregon State Office, 1220 SW 3rd Avenue, Portland, OR 97204 and at the Okanogan-Wenatchee National Forest, 215 Melody Lane, Wenatchee, WA 98801 during regular business hours, 8:45 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. Individuals who submit written comments may request confidentiality by asking us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review; however, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Notice is hereby given that a minimum of at least one public meeting will be held in conjunction with the withdrawal application. A notice of the time and place will be published in the
For a period until December 31, 2018, subject to valid existing rights, the lands described in this notice will be segregated from settlement, sale, location, and entry under the public land laws, location and entry under the United States mining laws, and operation of the mineral and geothermal leasing laws, unless the application is denied or canceled or the withdrawal is approved prior to that date.
This application will be processed in accordance with the regulations set forth in 43 CFR part 2300.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meetings.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Sierra Front-
January 26, 2017, at the Carson City BLM Office (5665 Morgan Mill Road) in Carson City, Nevada. A field trip will be held the same day in the afternoon within the Carson City BLM District. Approximate meeting time is 8 a.m. to 1 p.m. with a field tour in the afternoon. However, the meeting and field tour could end earlier if discussions and presentations conclude before 4 p.m. The meeting will include a public comment period at approximately 8:15 a.m. and approximately 12:15 p.m.
Lisa Ross, Public Affairs Specialist, Carson City District Office, 5665 Morgan Mill Road, Carson City, NV 89701, telephone: (775) 885-6107, email:
The 15-member Council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in Nevada. Topics for discussion at the meeting will include, but are not limited to:
• January 26—Review of last year's goals and assess achievements, spring/riparian management discussion and recommendations, RAC subcommittee report, and District managers' updates.
The Council may raise other topics at the meetings.
Final agendas will be posted on-line at the BLM Sierra Front-Northwestern Great Basin RAC Web site at
Individuals who need special assistance such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, or who wish to receive a copy of each agenda, may contact Lisa Ross no later than 10 days prior to each meeting.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announces the availability of the Record of Decision (ROD) for the Moab Master Leasing Plan (MLP)/Approved Resource Management Plan Amendments for the Moab and Monticello Field Offices (Approved Plan). On December 15, 2016, the Utah State Director signed the ROD, which constitutes the final decision of the BLM and makes the Approved Plan effective immediately.
Copies of the ROD and Approved Plan are available upon request, and available for public inspection at the following locations:
• Bureau of Land Management, Utah State Office, 440 West 200 South, Suite 500, Salt Lake City, Utah.
• Bureau of Land Management, Moab Field Office, 82 East Dogwood, Moab, Utah.
• Bureau of Land Management, Monticello Field Office, 365 North Main, Monticello, Utah.
The ROD and Approved Plan, together with accompanying background documents, are available online at:
Brent Northrup, Project Manager, BLM Moab Field Office, 82 East Dogwood, Moab, UT 84532, telephone 435-259-2151 or email
The Approved Plan is the culmination of a significant effort by the BLM and interested members of the public, community stakeholders, and other local, State, and Federal partners, to provide for responsible mineral development in balance with healthy wildlife habitat, clean air and water, and a vital recreation economy.
The Approved Plan addresses mineral leasing and development on 785,567 acres of BLM-administered land within the Moab and Monticello Field Offices. The Approved Plan amends mineral leasing decisions in portions of the existing Moab and Monticello Resource Management Plans that were completed in 2008.
The Proposed Plan was selected as the Approved Plan because it is the alternative that best balances competing considerations between outdoor recreation, iconic scenery, and development of oil/gas and potash deposits. The Approved Plan allows recreation and mineral extraction to occur in specified areas in order to minimize conflicts with resources.
The Preferred Alternative in the MLP Draft Amendment/Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS), with adjustments and clarifications, was carried forward as the Proposed Plan in the MLP/Final EIS released to the public on July 21, 2016. Five protest letters were received during the 30-day protest period on the Proposed Plan, which ended on August 22, 2016. The letters were addressed by the BLM Washington Office. During the Governor's Consistency Review Process, the Governor sent correspondence to the BLM on September 22, 2016, identifying alleged inconsistencies between the Proposed Plan and the State's San Juan County Energy Zone. After reviewing the information submitted, the BLM determined that the Proposed Plan is consistent with the Zone to the maximum extent practical based on the identified resource values. No modifications or corrections were made to the Approved Plan in response to the protest process and the Governor's Consistency Review. The Governor did not appeal the BLM Utah State Director's determination to the BLM Director.
The ROD does not include any implementation actions. The mineral leasing decisions in the Approved Plan are planning-level decisions and therefore are not appealable. Future implementation actions must be in conformance with the management direction in the Approved Plan; any such actions will result from future decisionmaking process(es), including appropriate environmental review.
40 CFR 1506.6.
Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.
Notice.
The Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation), in coordination with the California Department of Water Resources (DWR), has prepared a Final Environmental Impact Report/Final Environmental Impact Statement (Final EIR/EIS) for the Bay Delta Conservation Plan/California WaterFix pursuant to the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA) and the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The DWR proposes to implement a strategy to help restore ecological functions of the Delta and improve water supply reliability in the state of California. The Final EIR/EIS describes and analyzes potential environmental impacts of alternatives and identifies mitigation measures to help avoid or minimize impacts. The initial approach focused on a Habitat Conservation Plan, referred to as the Bay Delta Conservation Plan (BDCP), which included modifications to the State Water Project (SWP) and associated Conservation Measures. A new alternative strategy emerged after public input on the Draft EIR/EIS and was further refined in a Recirculated Draft EIR/Supplemental Draft EIS (RDEIR/SDEIS). This new strategy, the California Waterfix, focuses on a new water conveyance facility, habitat restoration measures necessary to minimize or avoid project effects, and a revised set of Conservation Measures. Endangered Species Act compliance would be achieved through Section 7 consultation.
No Federal or State decision on the proposed action will be made until at least 30 days after the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) publishes a notice of availability of the Final EIR/EIS. After the 30-day period, the U.S. Department of the Interior will sign a Record of Decision and DWR will complete a Notice of Decision. The Record of Decision will state the actions that will be implemented by Reclamation and will discuss factors leading to the decisions.
Send requests for the Final EIR/EIS to Brook White, Bureau of Reclamation, Mid-Pacific Region, Bay-Delta Office, 801 I Street, Suite 140, Sacramento, CA 95814-2536, by calling (916) 414-2402, or emailing
To view or download the Final EIR/EIS, or for a list of locations to view hard-bound copies, go to
Brook White, Bureau of Reclamation, (916) 414-2402, or by email at
On January 24, 2008, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issued a Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an EIS on the BDCP (73 FR 4178). The NOI was reissued on April 15, 2008, to include Reclamation as a co-lead Federal agency, update the status of the planning process, and provide revised information related to scoping meetings (73 FR 20326). The NOI dated April 15, 2008 identified scoping meeting locations and stated that written comments would be accepted until May 30, 2008. Additional information was later developed to describe the proposed BDCP, and subsequent scoping activities were initiated on February 13, 2009, with the publication of a revised NOI (74 FR 7257). The NOI identified scoping meeting locations and stated that written comments would be accepted until May 14, 2009.
In December 2010, the California Natural Resources Agency provided to the public a summary of the BDCP, its status, and a list of outstanding issues. In 2011 and 2012, public meetings continued in Sacramento, California, to update stakeholders and the public on elements of the Draft BDCP and EIR/EIS that were being developed.
On December 13, 2013, the Draft BDCP and associated Draft EIR/EIS were released to the public and a 120-day public comment period was opened through notification in the
As a result of considering comments on the Draft BDCP, Draft EIR/EIS, and Draft Implementing Agreement, Reclamation and DWR proposed three additional conveyance alternatives for analysis in a RDEIR/SDEIS released on July 10, 2015 (80 FR 39797). These new alternatives, 2D, 4A, and 5A, each contain fewer Conservation Measures than the alternatives circulated in the Draft EIS/EIR. Each of the new alternatives is not structured as a Habitat Conservation Plan/Natural Communities Conservation Plan but is structured to achieve compliance with the Endangered Species Act through consultation under Section 7 and with the California Endangered Species Act through the incidental take permit process under Section 2081(b) of the California Fish & Game Code. On July 10, 2015, the RDEIR/SDEIS was released to the public. Comments were due on August 31, 2015.
The RDEIR/SDEIS described and analyzed project modifications and refinement of the resource area analyses, alternatives, and actions. Reclamation became the Federal lead agency and NMFS, USFWS, and the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, by virtue of their regulatory review requirements, became cooperating agencies for the RDEIR/SDEIS. All other entities identified as Cooperating Agencies through prior agreements retained their status for the RDEIR/SDEIS.
DWR identified Alternative 4A (known as the California WaterFix) as their proposed project and Reclamation has selected Alternative 4A as the National Environmental Policy Act preferred alternative. This alternative consists of a water conveyance facility with three intakes, habitat restoration measures necessary to minimize or avoid project effects, and modified versions of a subset of Conservation Measures from the BDCP. Alternative 4A is proposed to make physical and operational improvements to the SWP in the Delta necessary to restore and protect ecosystem health, water supplies of the SWP and CVP south-of-Delta, and water quality within a stable regulatory framework, consistent with statutory and contractual obligations. For further background information, see the December 13, 2013
The Final EIR/EIS contains responses to all substantive comments received on the Draft EIR/EIS and RDEIR/SDEIS, and reflects comments and any additional
DWR's certification of the EIR and final decision-making under the CEQA will not occur until at least 30 days after EPA publishes a notice of availability of the Final EIR/EIS. This distribution of the Final EIR/EIS, including the written proposed responses to comments submitted by public agencies, is intended to satisfy the requirement to provide these responses to commenting public agencies at least 10 days prior to certification, consistent with CEQA Guidelines Section 15088(b). In addition, the end of the
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in any correspondence, you should be aware that your entire correspondence—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you may ask us in your correspondence to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(b)-(h), that a proposed Final Judgment, Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, and Competitive Impact Statement have been filed with the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in
Copies of the Complaint, proposed Final Judgment, Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, and Competitive Impact Statement are available for inspection on the Antitrust Division's website at
Public comment is invited within 60 days of the date of this notice. Such comments, including the name of the submitter, and responses thereto, will be posted on the Antitrust Division's website, filed with the Court, and, under certain circumstances, published in the
The United States of America, acting under the direction of the Attorney General of the United States, brings this civil antitrust action to prevent the proposed acquisition by Defendant AMC Entertainment Holdings, Inc. (“AMC”) of all of the outstanding voting securities of Defendant Carmike Cinemas, Inc. (“Carmike”).
1. AMC is a significant competitor to Carmike in the exhibition of first-run commercial movies in multiple areas around the United States, including the areas in and around Montgomery, Alabama; Destin and Miramar Beach, Florida; Orange Park and Fleming Island, Florida; Cumming, Georgia; Lithonia and Conyers, Georgia; Crestwood and Lansing, Illinois; Normal and Bloomington, Illinois; Pekin, Peoria, and Washington, Illinois; Inver Grove Heights and Oakdale, Minnesota; Coon Rapids and Mounds View, Minnesota; Rockaway and Sparta, New Jersey; Westfield and Cranford, New Jersey; Lawton, Oklahoma; Allentown and Center Valley, Pennsylvania; and Madison and Fitchburg, Wisconsin (collectively, the “Local Markets”). If AMC acquires Carmike, AMC would obtain direct control of one of its most significant competitors in the Local Markets, likely resulting in higher ticket prices and/or a lower quality viewing experience for moviegoers in these areas.
2. AMC is also a founding member of National CineMedia, LLC (“NCM”)—the nation's largest provider of preshow services to exhibitors—and remains one of NCM's largest investors and exhibitors. Carmike is the largest exhibitor in the network of NCM's main competitor, Screenvision Exhibitions, Inc. (“Screenvision”), and is one of Screenvision's largest investors. NCM and Screenvision are the country's two leading preshow cinema advertising networks and together cover over 80% of movie theatre screens in the United States. If AMC's proposed acquisition of Carmike were to proceed, it would likely weaken competition between NCM and Screenvision because they would have a significant common owner. In addition, the proposed merger would undermine Screenvision's ability to compete for advertisers and exhibitors because, as explained below, Screenvision will no longer be able to rely on Carmike's growth to expand its network. The loss of competition in the markets for preshow services and cinema advertising will likely result in lower preshow services revenues to exhibitors, higher prices to cinema advertisers, and lower quality preshow services and advertising.
3. Accordingly, AMC's proposed acquisition of Carmike likely would substantially lessen competition in each of the Local Markets for the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies and in the markets for the sale of preshow services to exhibitors and the sale of cinema advertising to advertisers in the United States in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18, and should be enjoined.
4. This action is filed by the United States pursuant to Section 15 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 25, to obtain equitable relief and to prevent a violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18.
5. The distribution and theatrical exhibition of first-run, commercial films, the provision of preshow services to thousands of theatres across the United States, and the sale of cinema advertising to advertisers throughout the United States are commercial activities that substantially affect, and are in the flow of, interstate trade and commerce. Defendants' activities in purchasing preshow advertising and other content, equipment, services, and supplies, as well as licensing films for exhibition, substantially affect interstate commerce.
6. The Court has jurisdiction over the subject matter of this action pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 25 and 28 U.S.C. 1331, 1337(a), and 1345.
7. Defendants consent to personal jurisdiction and venue in this district, and AMC operates theatres in this district. This Court has personal jurisdiction over each Defendant, and venue is proper under 15 U.S.C. 22, and 28 U.S.C. 1391(b) and (c).
8. Defendant AMC is a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Leawood, Kansas. As of September 30, 2016, AMC operated approximately 388 theatres with a total of 5,295 screens located across 31 states and the District of Columbia. AMC reported approximately $1.89 billion in U.S. box office revenues in 2015 and approximately $1.46 billion in U.S. box office revenues for the first nine months of 2016. Measured by number of theatres, screens, and box office revenue, AMC is the second-largest theatre circuit in the United States.
9. Defendant Carmike is a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Columbus, Georgia. As of September 30, 2016, Carmike operated approximately 271 movie theatres with a total of 2,917 screens located across 41 states. Carmike reported approximately $490.0 million in U.S. box office revenues in 2015, and approximately $370.8 million in U.S. box office revenue for the first nine months of 2016. Measured by number of theatres, screens, and box office revenue, Carmike is the fourth-largest theatre circuit in the United States.
10. On March 3, 2016, AMC and Carmike executed an Agreement and Plan of Merger, under which AMC would acquire all outstanding voting securities of Carmike for approximately $1.2 billion. If the parties consummate the merger, AMC will be the nation's largest theatre exhibitor.
11. Viewing movies in a theatre is a popular pastime. Over 1.3 billion movie tickets were sold in the United States and Canada in 2015, with total box office revenues reaching approximately $11.1 billion.
12. Companies that operate movie theatres are called “exhibitors.” Some exhibitors own a single theatre, whereas others own a circuit of theatres within one or more regions of the United States. AMC and Carmike are two of the largest exhibitors in the United States.
13. Exhibitors set ticket prices for a theatre based on a number of factors, including the age and condition of the theatre, the number and type of amenities the theatre offers (such as the range of snacks, food and beverages offered, the size of its screens and quality of its sound systems, and whether it provides stadium and/or reserved seating), competitive pressures facing the theatre (such as the price of tickets at nearby theatres, the age and condition of those theatres, and the number and types of amenities they offer), and the population demographics and density surrounding the theatre.
14. On almost all movie screens, before the previews and feature film begin, the audience is presented with a preshow—a video program consisting of national, regional, and local advertisements; special content segments (
15. Cinema advertising networks act as intermediaries between exhibitors and advertisers. For advertisers, the preshow is a unique opportunity to reach an attentive audience using a large screen with the benefit of high-quality video and sound. For exhibitors, the preshow provides a lucrative way to supplement revenue earned through ticket sales and concessions at a time when its movie screens screens are otherwise unused.
16. To obtain preshow services, exhibitors typically enter into long-term, exclusive contracts with the cinema advertising networks. The contracts for the largest few exhibitors, including AMC and Carmike, tend to be longest—approximately 30 years—whereas the contracts for the smaller exhibitors tend to last five to ten years. Under the contracts, the networks commit to marketing the preshow screen time to advertisers and packaging the advertisements and other content into an entertaining video program. Exhibitors agree to display the preshow on their movie screens. The cinema advertising networks retain a negotiated portion of the advertising proceeds for the services they provide, and the exhibitors retain the remaining portion of the advertising proceeds.
17. Cinema advertising networks sell advertising time in preshows to advertisers seeking to market their products on a local, regional, or national basis. Generally, national advertisers seek to purchase cinema advertising from firms that can provide access to a nationwide network of movie screens. Thus, the cinema advertising networks work hard to enter into contracts with exhibitors throughout the country and compete vigorously to woo exhibitors away from each other.
18. NCM and Screenvision are the dominant cinema advertising networks in the United States. They compete head-to-head to win exclusive contracts with exhibitors and to offer advertisers access to their exhibitors' movie audiences. Together, NCM and Screenvision serve over 80% of all movie screens in the country.
19. NCM has a national cinema advertising network that covers about 20,500 of the approximately 40,500 movie screens in the United States. In 2015, NCM earned approximately $447 million in gross advertising revenue.
20. National CineMedia, Inc. is the managing member and owner of 43.6% of NCM. The remaining 56.4% is owned by the three largest exhibitors in the United States: AMC (17.4%), Regal Entertainment Group (“Regal”) (19.8%), and Cinemark Holdings, Inc. (“Cinemark”) (19.2%). Under NCM's governing documents, post-merger, AMC ownership would increase to approximately 26.5%.
21. Regal, Cinemark, and AMC (the so-called “Founding Members”) exercise a significant degree of control and influence over NCM and account for approximately 83% of its screens. In addition to holding a majority of NCM's equity, they have representatives on NCM's Board of Directors and enjoy substantial governance rights, including approval rights over certain NCM contracts with competing exhibitors. NCM management routinely consults with executives of the Founding
22. Screenvision has a national cinema advertising network that covers 14,300 screens in more than 2,300 theatres. Carmike is by far the largest exhibitor in Screenvision's network, and, as of September 30, 2016, owned approximately 19% of Screenvision through SV Holdco, LLC, a holding company that owns and operates Screenvision. Carmike also holds a seat on Screenvision's board of directors and possesses certain governance rights. No other major theatre exhibitor holds significant equity interests in Screenvision. Following the merger, AMC plans to divest or convert Carmike's Screenvision shares such that AMC will hold no more than 10% of Screenvision's voting stock.
23. The exhibition of first-run, commercial movies in the Local Markets are relevant markets under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18.
24. Movies are a unique form of entertainment. The experience of viewing a movie in a theatre is an inherently different experience from live entertainment (
25. Reflecting the significant differences of viewing a movie in a theatre, ticket prices for movies generally differ from prices for other forms of entertainment. For example, typically, tickets for live entertainment are significantly more expensive than a movie ticket, whereas the costs of home viewing through streaming video, a DVD rental, or pay-per-view is usually significantly less expensive than viewing a movie in a theatre.
26. Viewing a movie at home differs from viewing a movie in a theatre in many ways. For example, the size of the screens differ, the sophistication of the sound systems differ, and, unlike at home, in the theatre, one has the social experience of viewing a movie with other patrons.
27. In addition, the most popular newly released or “first-run” movies are not available for home viewing at the time they are released in theatres. Movies are considered to be in their “first-run” during the four to five weeks following initial release in a given locality. If successful, a movie may be exhibited at other theatres after the first-run as part of a second or subsequent run (often called a “sub-run” or “second-run”).
28. Moviegoers generally do not regard sub-run movies as an adequate substitute for first-run movies. Reflecting the significant difference between viewing a newly released, first-run movie and an older sub-run movie, tickets at theatres exhibiting first-run movies usually cost significantly more than tickets at sub-run theatres.
29. Art movies and foreign-language movies are also not reasonable substitutes for commercial, first-run movies. Art movies, which include documentaries, are sometimes referred to as independent films. Although art and foreign-language movies appeal to some viewers of commercial movies, art and foreign-language movies tend to have more narrow appeal and typically attract an older audience than commercial movies. Exhibitors consider the operation of theatres that predominantly exhibit art and foreign-language movies to be distinct from the operation of theatres that predominantly exhibit commercial movies.
30. A hypothetical monopolist controlling the exhibition of all first-run, commercial movies in a relevant geographic market would profitably impose at least a small but significant and non-transitory increase (SSNIP) in ticket prices. Thus, the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies is a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
31. Moviegoers typically are not willing to travel very far from their home to attend a movie. As a result, geographic markets for the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies are relatively local. Each of the following areas is a relevant geographic market and section of the country for purposes of Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
32. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Montgomery, Alabama. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Chantilly 13 BigD, the Carmike Promenade 12, and the AMC Festival Plaza 16. No other predominately first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
33. Moviegoers who reside in and around Montgomery, Alabama are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Montgomery, Alabama constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
34. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Destin and Miramar Beach, Florida. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the AMC Destin Commons 14 and the Carmike Boulevard 10 BigD. No other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
35. Moviegoers who reside in and around Destin and Miramar Beach, Florida are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Destin and Miramar Beach, Florida constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
36. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Orange Park and Fleming Island, Florida. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Fleming Island 12, the AMC Orange Park 24, and the EPIC Theater at Oakleaf. Other than the EPIC Theater, no other first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
37. Moviegoers who reside in and around Orange Park and Fleming Island, Florida are unlikely to travel significant
38. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Cumming, Georgia. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Movies 400 12, the AMC Avenue Forsyth 12, and the Regal Avalon 12. Other than the Regal Avalon 12, no other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
39. Moviegoers who reside in and around Cumming, Georgia are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Cumming, Georgia constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
40. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Lithonia and Conyers, Georgia. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Conyers Crossing 16 and the AMC Stonecrest Mall 16. No other predominately first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
41. Moviegoers who reside in and around Lithonia and Conyers, Georgia are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Lithonia and Conyers, Georgia constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
42. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Crestwood and Lansing, Illinois. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Digiplex Lansing 8, the AMC Crestwood 18, the AMC Schererville 12, the AMC Schererville 16, the Marcus Country Club Hills Cinema, the Marcus Chicago Heights Cinema, the Studio Movie Grill Chatham, and the Hoosier Theater. Other than the Marcus Country Club Hills Cinema, the Marcus Chicago Heights Cinema, the Studio Movie Grill Chatham, and the Hoosier Theater, no other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
43. Moviegoers who reside in and around Crestwood and Lansing, Illinois are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Crestwood and Lansing, Illinois constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
44. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Normal and Bloomington, Illinois. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Ovation 10, the AMC Normal 14, and the Wehrenberg Bloomington Galaxy 14 Cinema. Other than the Wehrenberg Bloomington Galaxy 14 Cinema, no other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
45. Moviegoers who reside in and around Normal and Bloomington, Illinois are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Normal and Bloomington, Illinois constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
46. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Pekin, Peoria, and Washington, Illinois. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Sunnyland 10, the Carmike Grand Prairie 18, the AMC Pekin 14, the Goodrich Willow Knolls 14, the Morton Cinema, and the Landmark Cinemas. Other than the Goodrich Willow Knolls, the Morton Cinema, and the Landmark Cinemas, no predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
47. Moviegoers who reside in and around Pekin, Peoria, and Washington, Illinois are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Pekin, Peoria, and Washington, Illinois constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
48. AMC and Carmike account for nearly a majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Inver Grove Heights and Oakdale, Minnesota. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the AMC Inver Grove 16, the Carmike Oakdale 20, the Woodbury 10, and the Marcus Oakdale 17. Other than the Woodbury 10 and the Marcus Oakdale 17, no other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
49. Moviegoers who reside in and around Inver Grove Heights and Oakdale, Minnesota are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial
50. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Coon Rapids and Mounds View, Minnesota. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the AMC Coon Rapids 16, the AMC Arbor Lakes, the Carmike Wynnsong 15, the Andover 10, the Regal Brooklyn Center 20, and the Mann Champlin. Other than the Andover 10, the Regal Brooklyn Center 20, and the Mann Champlin, no other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
51. Moviegoers who reside in and around Coon Rapids and Mounds View, Minnesota are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Coon Rapids and Mounds View, Minnesota constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
52. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Rockaway and Sparta, New Jersey. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Digiplex Sparta 3 and the AMC Rockaway 16. No other predominantly first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
53. Moviegoers who reside in and around Rockaway and Sparta, New Jersey are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Rockaway and Sparta, New Jersey constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
54. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Westfield and Cranford, New Jersey. Carmike operates two first-run, commercial movie theatres in the area: the Digiplex Rialto Westfield and the Digiplex Cranford 5. AMC operates five theaters in the area: the Mountainside 10, the Aviation 12, the Jersey Gardens 20, the Menlo Park 12, and the Essex Green 9. While there are several other first-run, commercial movie theatres operating in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres in the area, AMC and Carmike are first and fourth, respectively, in term of the number of screens and box office revenue.
55. Moviegoers who reside in and around Westfield and Cranford, New Jersey are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Westfield and Cranford, New Jersey constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
56. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Lawton, Oklahoma. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Patriot 13 and the AMC Lawton 12. No other predominately first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
57. Moviegoers who reside in and around Lawton, Oklahoma are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Lawton, Oklahoma constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
58. AMC and Carmike account for all of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Allentown and Center Valley, Pennsylvania. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Promenade 16 IMAX, the Carmike Promenade 16, and the AMC Tilghman Square 8. No other predominately first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the Carmike and AMC theatres.
59. Moviegoers who reside in and around Allentown and Center Valley, Pennsylvania are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Allentown and Center Valley, Pennsylvania constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
60. AMC and Carmike account for the majority of the first-run, commercial movie box office revenue in and around Madison and Fitchburg, Wisconsin. The only theatres that predominantly show first-run commercial movies in this area are the Carmike Sundance Madison 6, the AMC Fitchburg 18, and the Marcus Point Cinema 15. Other than the Marcus Point Cinema 15, no predominately first-run, commercial movie theatre is in the vicinity of the AMC and Carmike theatres.
61. Moviegoers who reside in and around Madison and Fitchburg, Wisconsin are unlikely to travel significant distances out of that area to attend a first-run, commercial movie. A small but significant increase in the price of tickets by a hypothetical monopolist of first-run, commercial movie theatres in this area would likely not cause a sufficient number of moviegoers to travel out of that area to make the increase unprofitable. The area in and around Madison and Fitchburg, Wisconsin constitutes a relevant geographic market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
62. Preshow services sold to exhibitors and cinema advertising sold to advertisers in the United States are relevant markets under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. § 18.
63. Preshow services consist of the packaging of advertisements and content into a preshow delivered to exhibitors, enabling them to earn revenue from the use of their screens before the feature film. The price charged to exhibitors for preshow services is the portion of advertising revenue retained by the network.
64. The sale of preshow services to exhibitors constitutes a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. There are no reasonable substitutes for preshow services. Exhibitors cannot easily replace the preshow services that they buy from cinema advertising networks because individual exhibitors generally lack sufficient screens and geographic reach to secure national advertising. Nor can exhibitors sufficiently replace national advertising in preshows with local and regional advertising because local and regional advertising generates far less revenue than national advertising. Because there are no reasonable substitutes for preshow services, a hypothetical monopolist of all such services could profitably impose a SSNIP. Thus, the market for preshow services is a relevant product market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
65. Cinema advertising is the on-screen advertising incorporated in the preshow. The sale of cinema advertising to advertisers is a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. Cinema advertising has important attributes that differentiate it from other forms of video advertising. For example, the preshow is projected on a large screen with high-quality video and sound in a darkened auditorium. In contrast to TV and other video advertising platforms, the audience cannot avoid the advertisements by fast forwarding through them, clicking past them, or changing a channel. The preshow also allows for long-form advertisements typically not available on TV, and it reaches a weekend audience and light TV viewers who are otherwise difficult to reach.
66. Many advertisers value the combination of attributes afforded by cinema advertising, and few would switch to other forms of video advertising in response to a SSNIP of cinema advertising. A hypothetical monopolist over all cinema advertising would profitably impose a SSNIP and, thus, the market for cinema advertising is a relevant product market in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
67. NCM and Screenvision compete with each other throughout the United States. Exhibitors and advertisers in the United States would not switch to cinema advertising networks located outside of the United States in the event of a SSNIP in the United States. Accordingly, the United States is a relevant geographic market for preshow services sold to exhibitors and for cinema advertising sold to advertisers within the meaning of Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
68. Exhibitors compete to attract moviegoers to their theatres over the theatres of their rivals. They do that by competing on price, knowing that if they charge too much (or do not offer sufficient discounted tickets for matinees, seniors, students, or children) moviegoers will begin to frequent their rivals' theatres. Exhibitors also compete by seeking to license the first-run movies that are likely to attract the largest numbers of moviegoers. In addition, exhibitors compete over the quality of the viewing experience by offering moviegoers the most sophisticated sound systems, largest screens, best picture clarity, best seating (including stadium, reserved, and recliner seating), and the broadest variety and highest quality snacks, food, and drinks at concession stands or cafés in the lobby or served to moviegoers at their seats.
69. AMC and Carmike currently compete for moviegoers in the Local Markets. These markets are highly concentrated, and in each market, AMC and Carmike are significant competitors, given their close proximity. Their rivalry spurs each to improve the quality of its theatres and keeps ticket prices in check.
70. In each of the Local Markets, AMC's acquisition of Carmike will lead to significant increases in concentration and eliminate existing competition between AMC and Carmike.
71. Market concentration is often a useful indicator of the level of competitive vigor in a market and the likely competitive effects of a merger. The more concentrated a market, and the more a transaction would increase that concentration, the more likely it is that the transaction would result in reduced competition, harming consumers. Market concentration commonly is measured by the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (“HHI”), as discussed in Appendix A. Markets in which the HHI exceeds 2,500 points are considered highly concentrated, and transactions that increase the HHI by more than 200 points in highly concentrated markets are presumed likely to enhance market power.
72. All of the Local Markets are highly concentrated and will experience significant HHI increases as a result of the transaction. In each of the Local Markets, the proposed acquisition would give AMC control of at least half, and sometimes all, of the first-run, commercial movie theatre screens and between 48% and 100% of the annual box office revenues. In each of the Local Markets, the acquisition would yield post-acquisition HHIs of between 3,800 and 10,000, representing increases in the range of 600 to 5,000 points.
73. Today, were one of Defendants' theatres to increase unilaterally ticket prices in each of Local Markets, the exhibitor that increased price would likely suffer financially as a substantial number of its customers would patronize the other exhibitor. The acquisition would eliminate this pricing constraint. Thus, the acquisition is likely to lead to higher ticket prices for moviegoers, which could take the form of a higher adult evening ticket price or reduced discounting for matinees, children, seniors, or students.
74. The proposed acquisition likely would also reduce competition between AMC and Carmike over the quality of the viewing experience at the theatres in the Local Markets. If no longer motivated to compete, AMC and Carmike would have reduced incentives to maintain, upgrade, and renovate their theatres, to improve the theatres' amenities and services, or to license the most popular movies, thus reducing the quality of the viewing experience for moviegoers in the Local Markets.
75. For all of these reasons, AMC's acquisition of Carmike likely will result in a substantial lessening of competition in each of the Local Markets.
76. The proposed transaction also would likely substantially lessen competition in the markets for the sale of preshow services to exhibitors and the sale of cinema advertising to advertisers in the United States.
77. As a significant owner of equity interests in both NCM and Screenvision post-merger, AMC would have an incentive to reduce the head-to-head competition between NCM and Screenvision. AMC will not benefit from strong competition between NCM and Screenvision post-merger because the competition will lower the profits AMC earns from NCM and Screenvision through its ownership interest.
78. In light of this incentive, AMC will likely use its influence and governance rights in both companies to ensure that NCM and Screenvision compete less aggressively to sign contracts with exhibitors and advertisers at the expense of the other network. AMC will also have the ability to use its access to confidential, nonpublic, and trade secret information from NCM and Screenvision to facilitate collusion by passing that competitively sensitive information between NCM and Screenvision.
79. The lessening of competition between NCM and Screenvision will likely result in lower payments to exhibitors and/or lower quality preshows for exhibitors. Given that NCM and Screenvision control over 80% of screens in the United States, it would be difficult for exhibitors to substitute to other, smaller networks.
80. Additionally, as a result of this lessening of competition, advertisers will no longer benefit from the lower prices that have resulted from the competition between NCM and Screenvision. Advertisers do not have choices other than these two networks to reach a broad number of viewers of their cinema advertising.
81. The loss of an independent Carmike also likely would weaken Screenvision's ability to remain a robust, competitive check on NCM, the only other significant competitor in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets. Scale is an important element of competition for advertisers and, in turn, for exhibitors. Carmike is Screenvision's largest exhibitor, and Screenvision touts the Carmike theatre network's current, broad scale when competing to execute deals with advertisers and exhibitors.
82. Screenvision also relies on Carmike's expansion plans to maintain and possibly expand the scale of its network of screens. Under Carmike's contract with Screenvision, all newly-acquired or -built Carmike theatres that have a preshow are automatically assigned to the Screenvision network. As a result, Carmike has fueled much of Screenvision's growth in recent years through its acquisitions of existing theatres and new theatre builds. This growth is important to maintaining scale since exhibitors, including Carmike, periodically close theaters that are no longer economically viable. Additionally, Screenvision's scale is at risk as the industry consolidates and more of the exhibitors with which it had previously contracted migrate to the contracts between NCM and its Founding Members: AMC, Regal, and Cinemark.
83. NCM's Founding Members and Carmike are the only exhibitors that have made significant acquisitions as the exhibitor industry has been consolidating. These exhibitors have long-term exclusive contracts with either NCM or Screenvision. If AMC acquires Carmike, the AMC/NCM exclusive arrangement will be expanded to Carmike and all of the merged firm's future theatre acquisitions and new builds will affiliate with NCM. Screenvision will lose access to its only substantial source of theatre acquisitions and the number of independent exhibitors unencumbered by long-term exclusive dealing arrangements for which Screenvision can compete will shrink even more as industry consolidation continues. Screenvision will only be able to rely on the other, smaller exhibitors for theatre acquisitions or new builds to maintain its network scale. These exhibitors will be unable to replace the growth that Carmike would have likely provided in the absence of the merger.
84. Competition will be lessened in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets because the merger will weaken one of the only two competitors. In the preshow services market, because NCM and Screenvision closely monitor each other and battle for market share, the competition between them provides tangible benefits for exhibitors with respect to price and quality of preshows. The proposed merger would likely substantially lessen the competition between NCM and Screenvision that has yielded these benefits, potentially forcing exhibitors to raise prices to consumers or forgo theatre improvements to offset the resulting reduction in revenue that they earn from preshows.
85. In the cinema advertising market, the resulting lessening of competition from the proposed acquisition would negatively impact advertisers, who pay NCM and Screenvision to place their ads in the movie preshows. Currently, advertisers benefit from competition between NCM and Screenvision for the placement of their ads. The proposed merger would likely substantially lessen the competition between NCM and Screenvision that has yielded these benefits, likely forcing advertisers to pay higher prices or accept lower quality placement of their advertising in the movie pre-shows.
86. Sufficient, timely entry that would deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects in the relevant markets alleged above is unlikely. Exhibitors are reluctant to locate new, first-run, commercial theatres near existing, first-run, commercial theatres unless the population density, demographics, or the quality of existing theatres makes new entry viable. Timely entry of new, first-run, commercial movie theatres in the areas in and around the Local Markets would be unlikely to defeat a price increase by the merged firm.
87. Additionally, the entry barriers associated with developing a cinema advertising network are high, and thus new entry or expansion by existing competitors is unlikely to prevent or remedy the proposed merger's likely anticompetitive effects in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets. Barriers to entry and expansion include the time and cost of developing a network of screens to achieve sufficient scale. NCM's and Screenvision's lock-up of almost all of the exhibitors in the United States through staggered long-term contracts makes entry a long process. This adds to the already high cost of building the infrastructure necessary to develop and attract national advertisers. It also increases the length of time an entrant must sustain losses before its scale is large enough to sell advertising at long-term profitable rates.
88. Exhibitors generally cannot supply preshow services themselves to replace the likely substantial lessening of competition in the preshow services market. Individual exhibitors or groups of small exhibitors whose contracts with NCM or Screenvision are expiring are unlikely to be able to establish cost-effective sales forces, attract national advertisers, or otherwise develop a
89. Plaintiff hereby reincorporates paragraphs 1 through 88.
90. The likely effect of AMC's proposed acquisition of Carmike would be to substantially lessen competition in each of the relevant markets identified above in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18.
91. Unless enjoined, the proposed transaction would likely have the following effects, among others:
(a) the prices of tickets at first-run, commercial movie theatres in the areas in and around the Local Markets would likely increase above levels that would prevail absent the acquisition;
(b) the quality of first-run, commercial theatres and the viewing experience at those theatres in the Local Markets would likely decrease below levels that would prevail absent the acquisition;
(c) the quality of and revenues from preshow services provided to exhibitors would likely decrease below levels that would prevail absent the acquisition; and
(d) the cost to place ads in theatre preshows to advertisers will likely increase to levels above, and the quality of advertising will decrease to levels below, those that would prevail absent the acquisition.
92. Plaintiff requests that:
(a) AMC's proposed acquisition of Carmike be adjudged to violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18;
(b) Defendants be permanently enjoined from and restrained from carrying out the proposed acquisition or any other transaction that would combine the two companies;
(c) Plaintiff be awarded its costs of this action; and
(d) Plaintiff be awarded such other reliefs as the Court may deem just and proper.
The term “HHI” means the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index, a commonly accepted measure of market concentration. The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in the relevant market and then summing the resulting numbers. For example, for a market consisting of four firms with shares of 30, 30, 20, and 20 percent, the HHI is 2,600 (302 + 302 + 202 + 202 = 2,600). The HHI takes into account the relative size distribution of the firms in a market. It approaches zero when a market is occupied by a large number of firms of relatively equal size, and reaches its maximum of 10,000 points when a market is controlled by a single firm. The HHI increases both as the number of firms in the market decreases and as the disparity in size between those firms increases.
Markets in which the HHI is between 1,500 and 2,500 points are considered to be moderately concentrated, and markets in which the HHI is in excess of 2,500 points are considered to be highly concentrated.
Plaintiff, United States of America, pursuant to Section 2(b) of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act (“APPA” or “Tunney Act”), 15 U.S.C. § 16(b)-(h), files this Competitive Impact Statement relating to the proposed Final Judgment submitted for entry in this civil antitrust proceeding.
On March 3, 2016, Defendant AMC Entertainment Holdings, Inc. (“AMC”) agreed to acquire all of the outstanding voting securities of Defendant Carmike Cinemas, Inc. (“Carmike”). AMC and Carmike are the second-largest and fourth-largest movie theatre circuits, respectively, in the United States.
AMC owns significant equity in National CineMedia, LLC (“NCM”) and Carmike owns significant equity in SV Holdco, LLC, a holding company that owns and operates Screenvision Exhibition, Inc. (collectively “Screenvision”). NCM and Screenvision are the country's two main, preshow cinema advertising networks, covering over 80% of movie theatre screens in the United States.
The United States filed a civil antitrust complaint on December 20, 2016, seeking to enjoin the proposed acquisition and to obtain equitable relief. The Complaint alleges that the acquisition, if permitted to proceed, would give AMC direct control of one of its most significant movie theatre competitors, and in some cases, its only competitor, in 15 local markets (identified as the “Local Markets” in the Complaint)
The Complaint further alleges that because AMC will hold sizable interests in both NCM and Screenvision post-transaction, and Screenvision will lose Carmike as a source of future growth of its network, the acquisition would substantially lessen competition
The likely effect of AMC's acquisition of Carmike will be to substantially lessen competition in the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies in the 15 Local Markets, and in the sale of preshow services and cinema advertising on a nationwide basis, in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. § 18.
At the same time the Complaint was filed, the United States also filed a Hold Separate Stipulation and Order (“Hold
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered after compliance with the APPA. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment would terminate this action, except that the Court would retain jurisdiction to construe, modify, or enforce the provisions of the proposed Final Judgment and to punish violations thereof.
Defendant AMC is a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Leawood, Kansas. As of September 30, 2016, AMC operated approximately 388 theatres with a total of 5,295 screens located across 31 states and the District of Columbia. AMC reported approximately $1.89 billion in U.S. box office revenues in 2015 and approximately $1.46 billion in U.S. box office revenues for the first nine months of 2016. Measured by number of theatres, screens, and box office revenue, AMC is the second-largest theatre circuit in the United States.
AMC is one of the three founders of the NCM cinema advertising network, owns 17.4% of NCM, controls two seats on NCM's Board of Directors, and has certain governance rights over NCM. AMC's ownership interest in NCM will increase to 26.5% after it acquires Carmike.
Defendant Carmike is a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Columbus, Georgia. As of September 30, 2016, Carmike operated approximately 271 movie theatres with a total of 2,917 screens located across 41 states. Carmike reported approximately $490.0 million in U.S. box office revenues in 2015, and approximately $370.8 million in U.S. box office revenue for the first nine months of 2016. Measured by number of theatres, screens, and box office revenue, Carmike is the fourth-largest theatre circuit in the United States.
Carmike is the largest theatre circuit in the Screenvision cinema advertising network. It also owns approximately 19% of Screenvision, controls a seat on Screenvision's Board of Directors, and has certain governance rights over Screenvision.
As alleged in the Complaint, movies are a unique form of entertainment. The experience of viewing a movie in a theatre is an inherently different experience from live entertainment (
Reflecting the significant differences of viewing a movie in a theatre, ticket prices for movies generally differ from prices for other forms of entertainment. For example, typically, tickets for live entertainment are significantly more expensive than a movie ticket, whereas the costs of home viewing through streaming video, a DVD rental, or pay-per-view is usually significantly less expensive than viewing a movie in a theatre.
Viewing a movie at home differs from viewing a movie in a theatre in many ways. For example, the size of the screens and sophistication of the sound systems differ, and, unlike at home, in the theatre, one has the social experience of viewing a movie with other patrons.
In addition, the most popular newly released or “first-run” movies are not available for home viewing at the time they are released in theatres. Movies are considered to be in their “first-run” during the four to five weeks following initial release in a given locality. If successful, a movie may be exhibited at other theatres after the first-run as part of a second or subsequent run (often called a “sub-run” or “second-run”).
Moviegoers generally do not regard sub-run movies as an adequate substitute for first-run movies. Reflecting the significant difference between viewing a newly released, first-run movie and an older sub-run movie, tickets at theatres exhibiting first-run movies usually cost significantly more than tickets at sub-run theatres.
Art movies and foreign-language movies are also not reasonable substitutes for commercial, first-run movies. Art movies, which include documentaries, are sometimes referred to as independent films. Although art and foreign-language movies appeal to some viewers of commercial movies, art and foreign-language movies tend to have more narrow appeal and typically attract an older audience than commercial movies. Exhibitors consider the operation of theatres that predominantly exhibit art and foreign-language movies to be distinct from the operation of theatres that predominantly exhibit commercial movies.
For all of these reasons, the Complaint alleges that a hypothetical monopolist controlling the exhibition of all first-run, commercial movies in a relevant geographic market would profitably impose at least a small but significant and non-transitory increase (“SSNIP”) in ticket prices. Thus, the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies is a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act in which to assess the competitive effects of this acquisition.
Moviegoers typically are not willing to travel very far from their home to attend a movie. As a result, geographic markets for the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies are relatively local. As detailed in the Complaint, there are 15 Local Markets in which AMC and Carmike compete today and each is a relevant geographic market in a section of the country for purposes of Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
Exhibitors compete to attract moviegoers to their theatres over the theatres of their rivals. They do that by competing on price, knowing that if they charge too much (or do not offer sufficient discounted tickets for matinees, seniors, students, or children) moviegoers will begin to frequent their rivals. Exhibitors also compete by seeking to license the first-run movies that are likely to attract the largest numbers of moviegoers. In addition, exhibitors compete over the quality of the viewing experience by offering moviegoers the most sophisticated sound systems, largest screens, best picture clarity, best seating (including stadium, reserved, and recliner seating), and the broadest variety and highest
AMC and Carmike currently compete for moviegoers in the Local Markets. As detailed in the Complaint, all 15 Local Markets are highly concentrated, and will experience significant additional increases in concentration as a result of the transaction. In each of the Local Markets, the proposed acquisition would give AMC control of a majority, or all, of the first-run, commercial movie theatres and between 48% and 100% of the annual box office revenues. The transaction will also eliminate substantial head-to-head competition between AMC and Carmike that has provided consumers with lower prices and a higher quality movie-going experience.
Sufficient, timely entry that would deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects in the Local Markets is unlikely. Exhibitors are reluctant to locate new, first-run, commercial theatres near existing, first-run, commercial theatres unless the population density, demographics, or quality of existing theatres makes new entry viable. Timely entry of new, first-run, commercial movie theatres in the areas in and around the Local Markets would be unlikely to defeat a price increase by the merged firm.
As alleged in the Complaint, both preshow services sold to exhibitors and cinema advertising sold to advertisers in the United States are relevant markets under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. § 18.
Preshow services consist of the packaging of advertisements and content into a preshow delivered to exhibitors, enabling them to earn revenue from the use of their screens before the feature film. The price charged to exhibitors for preshow services is the portion of advertising revenue retained by the network.
The sale of preshow services to exhibitors constitutes a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. There are no reasonable substitutes for preshow services. Exhibitors cannot easily replace the preshow services that they buy from cinema advertising networks because individual exhibitors generally lack sufficient screens and geographic reach to secure national advertising. Nor can exhibitors sufficiently replace national advertising in preshows with local and regional advertising because local and regional advertising generates far less revenue than national advertising. Because there are no reasonable substitutes for preshow services, a hypothetical monopolist of all such services could profitably impose a SSNIP. Thus, the Complaint alleges that the market for preshow services is a relevant product market in which to assess the competitive effects of the acquisition.
Cinema advertising is the on-screen advertising incorporated in the preshow. The Complaint alleges that the sale of cinema advertising to advertisers is a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. Cinema advertising has important attributes that differentiate it from other forms of video advertising. For example, the preshow is projected on a large screen with high-quality video and sound in a darkened auditorium. In contrast to TV and other video advertising platforms, the audience cannot avoid the advertisements by fast forwarding through them, clicking past them, or changing a channel. The preshow also allows for long-form advertisements typically not available on TV, and it reaches a weekend audience and light TV viewers who are otherwise difficult to reach.
NCM and Screenvision compete with each other throughout the United States. Exhibitors and advertisers in the United States would not switch to cinema advertising networks located outside of the United States in the event of a SSNIP in the United States. Accordingly, the Complaint alleges that United States is a relevant geographic market and section of the country for preshow services sold to exhibitors and for cinema advertising sold to advertisers within the meaning of Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
As a significant owner of equity interests in both NCM and Screenvision post-merger, AMC would have an incentive to reduce the head-to-head competition between NCM and Screenvision. AMC will likely use its influence and governance rights in both companies to ensure that NCM and Screenvision compete less aggressively to sign contracts with exhibitors and advertisers at the expense of the other network. AMC will also have the ability to use its access to confidential, nonpublic, and trade secret information of NCM and Screenvision to reduce competition by passing that competitively sensitive information between the companies.
The lessening of competition between NCM and Screenvision will likely result in lower payments and/or lower quality preshows for exhibitors. Additionally, advertisers will no longer benefit from the lower prices that have resulted from the competition between NCM and Screenvision. Advertisers do not have choices other than these two networks to reach a broad number of viewers of their cinema advertising.
As further alleged in the Complaint, the loss of an independent Carmike also likely would weaken Screenvision's ability to remain a robust competitive check on NCM, the only other significant competitor in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets. In 2014, the United States filed a civil antitrust lawsuit to block NCM's acquisition of Screenvision and preserve the intense competition between the companies. NCM and Screenvision subsequently abandoned their merger in early 2015. As was the case in 2014, Carmike remains Screenvision's largest exhibitor, and Screenvision touts the Carmike theatre network's current, broad scale when competing to execute deals with advertisers and exhibitors. The merger, however, will extend AMC's exclusive contract with NCM to include any new theatres that Carmike would have opened or acquired. This shift from Screenvision to NCM will likely weaken Screenvision's ability to compete because: (1) It will be unable to rely on Carmike's growth to increase its network's scale; and (2) the number of independent theatre exhibitors unencumbered by an exclusive preshow agreement with NCM will shrink as exhibitor consolidation continues. For all of these reasons, the Complaint alleges that the merger is likely to substantially lessen competition in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets.
According to the Complaint, the entry barriers associated with developing a cinema advertising network are high, and thus new entry or expansion by existing competitors is unlikely to prevent or remedy the proposed merger's likely anticompetitive effects in the preshow services and cinema advertising markets. Barriers to entry and expansion include the time and cost of developing a network of screens to achieve sufficient scale. NCM's and Screenvision's lock-up of almost all of the exhibitors in the United States through staggered long-term contracts makes entry a long process. This adds
Exhibitors generally cannot supply preshow services themselves to replace the substantial lessening of competition in the preshow services market. Individual exhibitors or groups of small exhibitors whose contracts with NCM or Screenvision are expiring are unlikely to be able to establish cost-effective sales forces, attract national advertisers, or otherwise develop a sufficient infrastructure to reasonably replace lost competition.
The movie theatre divestiture requirement of the proposed Final Judgment will eliminate the anticompetitive effects of AMC's acquisition of Carmike in each of the 15 Local Markets for the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies by establishing new, independent, and economically-viable competitors. The other requirements of the proposed Final Judgment will eliminate the anticompetitive effects of the acquisition on the preshow services and cinema advertising markets by requiring AMC to divest most of its ownership interest in NCM, relinquish its NCM Board seats and all governance rights, transfer 24 AMC theatres with a total of 384 screens to the Screenvision network, and implement firewalls to prevent the misuse of competitively sensitive information.
Section IV.A of the proposed Final Judgment requires Defendants within sixty calendar days after the filing of the Complaint, or five calendar days after the Court's entry of Final Judgment, whichever is later, to divest as viable, ongoing businesses the theatres identified on the “Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets” list in Appendix A to the proposed Final Judgment to one or more acquirers acceptable to the United States in its sole discretion. This will require Defendants to divest a minimum of 15 theatres covering each of the Local Markets.
The theatres must be divested in such a way as to satisfy the United States that they can and will be operated by the purchaser as viable, ongoing businesses that can compete effectively as first-run, commercial theatres. To that end, the proposed Final Judgment provides the acquirer(s) of the theatres with an option to enter into a transitional agreement with Defendants of up to 120 days in length, with the possibility of one or more extensions not to exceed six months in total, for the supply of any goods, services, support, including software service and support, and reasonable use of the name AMC, the name Carmike, and any registered service marks of AMC or Carmike, for use in operating those theatres during the period of transition. The availability of a transitional agreement will ensure that the acquirer(s) of the theatres can operate without interruption while long-term supply agreements are arranged and the theatres rebranded.
In the event that Defendants do not accomplish the theatre divestitures within the periods prescribed in the proposed Final Judgment, Section VI of the proposed Final Judgment provides that the Court will appoint a Divestiture Trustee selected by the United States to effectuate the theatre divestitures required by the Final Judgment.
If Defendants are unable to effectuate any of the divestitures due to their inability to obtain the consent of the landlord from whom a theatre is leased, Section IV.K of the proposed Final Judgment requires them to divest alternative theatre assets that compete effectively with the theatres for which the landlord consent was not obtained. This provision will ensure that any failure by Defendants to obtain landlord consent does not thwart the relief obtained in the proposed Final Judgment.
The theatre divestiture provisions of the proposed Final Judgment will eliminate the anticompetitive effects of AMC's acquisition of Carmike in the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies in the Local Markets.
In addition to the proposed Final Judgment's provisions, the Hold Separate provides that, until the divestitures take place, AMC and Carmike must maintain the sales and marketing of the theatres, and maintain the theatres in operable condition at current capacity configurations. In addition, AMC and Carmike must not transfer or reassign to other areas within the company their employees with primary responsibility for the operation of the theatres, except for transfer bids initiated by employees pursuant to Defendants' regular, established job-posting policies.
The proposed Final Judgment will remedy the anticompetitive effects of the proposed transaction in the markets for preshow services and cinema advertising in two principal ways.
To further reduce AMC's ability to lessen head-to-head competition between NCM and Screenvision, Section X.A of the proposed Final Judgment prohibits AMC from holding NCM board seats or otherwise exercising any governance rights in NCM. In addition, Section X.B of the proposed Final Judgment prohibits AMC from, among other activities, attending NCM board meetings, receiving nonpublic information from NCM, or proposing NCM make future acquisitions. These provisions, along with the loss of AMC's rights to participate in NCM's business as a result of the sell down of AMC's equity interest below 5%, will render AMC unable to direct or influence NCM to soften its competitive actions towards Screenvision.
In order to further ensure that AMC cannot use its position as an owner and major customer of NCM and Screenvision to obtain competitively sensitive information that could be used to facilitate improper coordination or otherwise cause competitive harm, Section XII of the proposed Final Judgment requires AMC to institute firewalls to prevent AMC from obtaining
In addition, the proposed Final Judgment requires AMC to designate a Compliance Officer who will supervise the AMC's compliance with the Final Judgment, distributing the Final Judgment to the company's personnel, and reporting decree violations, including violations of the firewall provisions, to the United States.
Section 4 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 15, provides that any person who has been injured as a result of conduct prohibited by the antitrust laws may bring suit in federal court to recover three times the damages the person has suffered, as well as costs and reasonable attorneys' fees. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment will neither impair nor assist the bringing of any private antitrust damage action. Under the provisions of Section 5(a) of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(a), the proposed Final Judgment has no
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered by the Court after compliance with the provisions of the APPA, provided that the United States has not withdrawn its consent. The APPA conditions entry upon the Court's determination that the proposed Final Judgment is in the public interest.
The APPA provides a period of at least sixty (60) days preceding the effective date of the proposed Final Judgment within which any person may submit to the United States written comments regarding the proposed Final Judgment. Any person who wishes to comment should do so within sixty (60) days of the date of publication of this Competitive Impact Statement in the
Written comments should be submitted to: Owen M. Kendler, Acting Chief, Litigation III, Antitrust Division, United States Department of Justice, 450 5th Street NW., Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20530.
The proposed Final Judgment provides that the Court retains jurisdiction over this action, and the parties may apply to the Court for any order necessary or appropriate for the modification, interpretation, or enforcement of the Final Judgment.
The United States considered, as an alternative to the proposed Final Judgment, a full trial on the merits against Defendants. Plaintiff could have continued the litigation and sought preliminary and permanent injunctions against AMC's acquisition of Carmike. Plaintiff is satisfied, however, that the divestiture of assets and other relief described in the proposed Final Judgment will preserve competition for the exhibition of first-run, commercial movies in the Local Markets, as well as preserve competition in preshow services and cinema advertising. Thus, the proposed Final Judgment would achieve all or substantially all of the relief that the United States would have obtained through litigation, but avoids the time, expense, and uncertainty of a full trial on the merits of the Complaint.
The APPA requires that proposed consent judgments in antitrust cases brought by the United States be subject to a sixty-day comment period, after which the court shall determine whether entry of the proposed Final Judgment is “in the public interest.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(1). In making that determination, the court, in accordance with the statute as amended in 2004, is required to consider:
(B) the impact of entry of such judgment upon competition in the relevant market or markets, upon the public generally and individuals alleging specific injury from the violations set forth in the complaint including consideration of the public benefit, if any, to be derived from a determination of the issues at trial.
As the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit has held, a court conducting inquiry under the APPA may consider, among other things, the relationship between the remedy secured and the specific allegations set forth in the government's complaint, whether the decree is sufficiently clear, whether enforcement mechanisms are sufficient, and whether the decree may positively harm third parties.
Courts have greater flexibility in approving proposed consent decrees than in crafting their own decrees following a finding of liability in a litigated matter. “[A] proposed decree must be approved even if it falls short of the remedy the court would impose on its own, as long as it falls within the range of acceptability or is `within the reaches of public interest.' ”
Moreover, the court's role under the APPA is limited to reviewing the remedy in relationship to the violations that the United States has alleged in its Complaint and does not authorize the court to “construct [its] own hypothetical case and then evaluate the decree against that case.”
In its 2004 amendments, Congress made clear its intent to preserve the practical benefits of utilizing consent decrees in antitrust enforcement, adding the unambiguous instruction that “[n]othing in this section shall be construed to require the court to conduct an evidentiary hearing or to require the court to permit anyone to intervene.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(2);
There are no determinative materials or documents within the meaning of the APPA that were considered by the United States in formulating the proposed Final Judgment.
WHEREAS, Plaintiff United States of America filed its Complaint on December 20, 2016 the United States and Defendants, AMC Entertainment Holdings, Inc. (“AMC”) and Carmike Cinemas, Inc. (“Carmike”), by their respective attorneys, have consented to the entry of this Final Judgment without trial or adjudication of any issue of fact or law, and without this Final Judgment constituting any evidence against or admission by any party regarding any issue of fact or law;
AND WHEREAS, Defendants agree to be bound by the provisions of this Final Judgment pending its approval by the Court;
AND WHEREAS, the essence of this Final Judgment is the prompt and certain divestiture of certain rights or assets by the Defendants to assure that competition is not substantially lessened;
AND WHEREAS, Plaintiff requires Defendants to make certain divestitures, undertake certain actions, and refrain from certain conduct for the purpose of remedying the loss of competition alleged in the Complaint;
AND WHEREAS, Defendants have represented to Plaintiff that the divestitures required below can and will be made and the actions and conduct restrictions can and will be undertaken, and that Defendants will later raise no claim of hardship or difficulty as grounds for asking the Court to modify any of the divestiture and other remedy provisions contained below;
NOW THEREFORE, before any testimony is taken, without trial or adjudication of any issue of fact or law, and upon consent of the parties, it is ORDERED, ADJUDGED AND DECREED:
This Court has jurisdiction over the subject matter of and each of the parties to this action. The Complaint states a claim upon which relief may be granted against Defendants under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. § 18.
As used in this Final Judgment:
A. “Acquirer” or “Acquirers” means the entity or entities to which Defendants divest the Theatre Divestiture Assets.
B. “AMC” means AMC Entertainment Holdings, Inc., a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Leawood, Kansas, its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
C. “Carmike” means Carmike Cinemas, Inc., a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in Columbus, Georgia, its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
D. “NCM Divestiture Assets” means that portion of Defendants' NCM Holdings required to be divested under this Final Judgment.
E. “Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets” means the theatre assets listed in Appendix A. The term “Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets” includes:
1. All tangible assets that comprise the business of operating theatres that exhibit movies, including, but not limited to, real property and improvements, research and development activities, all equipment, fixed assets, and fixtures, personal property, inventory, office furniture, materials, supplies, and other tangible property and all assets used in connection with the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets; all licenses, permits, and authorizations issued by any governmental organization relating to the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets; all contracts (including management contracts), teaming arrangements, agreements, leases, commitments, certifications, and understandings relating to the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets, including supply agreements (provided however, that supply agreements that apply to all of each Defendant's theatres may be excluded from the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)); all customer lists (including rewards and loyalty club data at the option of the Acquirer(s), copies of which may be retained by Defendants at their option), contracts, accounts, and credit records relating to the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets; all repair and performance records and all other records relating to the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets; and
2. All intangible assets relating to the operation of the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets, including, but not limited, to all patents, licenses and sublicenses, intellectual property, copyrights, trademarks, trade names, service marks, service names, (provided, however, that the names Carmike, AMC, and any registered service marks of Carmike or AMC may be excluded from the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)), technical information, computer software and related documentation (provided, however, that Defendants' proprietary software may be excluded from the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)), know-how and trade secrets, drawings, blueprints, designs, design protocols, specifications for materials, specifications for parts and devices, safety procedures for the handling of materials and substances, all research data concerning historic and current research and development, quality assurance and control procedures, design tools and simulation capability, all manuals and technical information Carmike or AMC provide to their own employees, customers,
F. “Screen Transfer Theatres” means the theatres listed in Appendix B.
G. “Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets” means any Screen Transfer Theatres that Defendants must divest pursuant to Section XI(B) of this Final Judgment due to Defendants' failure to fully effect the screen transfers required by Section XI(A). The term “Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets” also includes for any such Screen Transfer Theatre:
1. All tangible assets that comprise the business of operating theatres that exhibit movies, including, but not limited to, real property and improvements, research and development activities, all equipment, fixed assets, and fixtures, personal property, inventory, office furniture, materials, supplies, and other tangible property and all assets used in connection with the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets; all licenses, permits, and authorizations issued by any governmental organization relating to the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets; all contracts (including management contracts), teaming arrangements, agreements, leases, commitments, certifications, and understandings relating to the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets, including supply agreements (provided, however, that supply agreements that apply to all of each Defendant's theatres may be excluded from the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)); all customer lists (including rewards and loyalty club data at the option of the Acquirer(s), copies of which may be retained by Defendants at their option), contracts, accounts, and credit records relating to the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets; all repair and performance records and all other records relating to the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets; and
2. All intangible assets relating to the operation of the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets, including, but not limited to, all patents, licenses and sublicenses, intellectual property, copyrights, trademarks, trade names, service marks, service names, (provided, however, that the names Carmike and AMC, and any registered service marks of Carmike and AMC may be excluded from the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)), technical information, computer software and related documentation (provided, however, that Defendants' proprietary software may be excluded from the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets, subject to the transitional agreement provisions specified in Section IV(F)), know-how and trade secrets, drawings, blueprints, designs, design protocols, specifications for materials, specifications for parts and devices, safety procedures for the handling of materials and substances, all research data concerning historic and current research and development, quality assurance and control procedures, design tools and simulation capability, all manuals and technical information Carmike or AMC provide to their own employees, customers, suppliers, agents, or licensees (except for the employee manuals that Carmike or AMC provide to all its employees), and all research data concerning historic and current research and development.
H. “Theatre Divestiture Assets” means the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets and the Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets.
I. “Landlord Consent” means any contractual approval or consent that the landlord or owner of one or more of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, or of the property on which one or more of the Theatre Divestiture Assets is situated, must grant prior to the transfer of one of the Theatre Divestiture Assets to an Acquirer.
J. “NCM” means National CineMedia, LLC, a Delaware limited liability company together with National CineMedia, Inc., headquartered in Centennial, Colorado, its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
K. “NCM Holdings” means any equity interest of NCM that AMC owns or controls, directly or indirectly, of NCM, whether voting or nonvoting.
L. “Competitively Sensitive Information” means all non-public information, provided, disclosed, or otherwise made available to the Defendants by NCM or Screenvision, including but not limited to, information related to: (i) Current or future business plans; (ii) technological tests or initiatives; (iii) investments, finances or budgets; (iv) pricing; (v) information related to other movie theatre exhibitors; (vi) terms and conditions (including but not limited to fees or prices) of any actual or prospective contract, agreement, understanding, or relationship concerning the exhibition of first-run commercial movies or preshow and cinema advertising services, to specific or identifiable customers or classes of groups of customers; or (vii) the existence of any such prospective contract, agreement, understanding, or relationship, as well as any proprietary customer information.
M. “Person” means any natural person, corporation, association, firm, partnership, or other business or legal entity.
N. “Screenvision” means, SV Holdco, LLC, a Delaware limited liability company, headquartered in New York, New York, and the subsidiary it owns and operates, Screenvision Exhibition, Inc., its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
A. This Final Judgment applies to AMC and Carmike, as defined above, and all other persons in active concert or participation with any of them who receive actual notice of this Final Judgment by personal service or otherwise.
B. If, prior to complying with Sections IV, VI, VII or XI of this Final Judgment, Defendants sell or otherwise dispose of all or substantially all of their assets or of lesser business units that include the Theatre Divestiture Assets or NCM Divestiture Assets, they shall require the purchaser to be bound by the provisions of this Final Judgment. Defendants need not obtain such an agreement from the Acquirer(s) of the assets divested pursuant to this Final Judgment.
A. Defendants are ordered and directed, within sixty (60) calendar days after the filing of the Complaint in this matter, or five (5) calendar days after notice of entry of this Final Judgment by the Court, whichever is later, to divest the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets in a manner consistent with this Final Judgment to one or more Acquirer(s) acceptable to the United States in its sole discretion. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period, not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances. Defendants agree to use their best efforts to divest the Initial Theatre Divestiture Assets as expeditiously as possible.
B. If Defendants fail to accomplish the screen transfer required by Section XI(A) below for any Screen Transfer Theatre, Defendants are ordered and directed, within sixty (60) calendar days after the expiration of the transfer period provided for in Section XI(A), and any extensions to that period
C. In accomplishing the divestitures ordered by this Final Judgment, Defendants promptly shall make known, by usual and customary means, the availability of the Theatre Divestiture Assets. Defendants shall inform any person making an inquiry regarding a possible purchase of the Theatre Divestiture Assets that they are being divested pursuant to this Final Judgment and provide that person with a copy of this Final Judgment. Defendants shall offer to furnish to all prospective Acquirers, subject to customary confidentiality assurances, all information and documents relating to the Theatre Divestiture Assets customarily provided in a due diligence process except such information or documents subject to the attorney-client privilege or work-product doctrine. Defendants shall make available such information to the United States at the same time that such information is made available to any other person.
D. Defendants shall provide the Acquirer(s) and the United States information relating to the personnel involved in the operation and management of the applicable Theatre Divestiture Assets to enable the Acquirer(s) to make offers of employment. Defendants shall not interfere with any negotiations by the Acquirer(s) to employ or contract with any employee of any Defendant whose primary responsibility relates to the operation or management of the applicable Theatre Divestiture Assets being sold to the Acquirer(s).
E. Defendants shall permit prospective Acquirer(s) of the Theatre Divestiture Assets to have reasonable access to personnel and to make inspections of the physical facilities of the Theatre Divestiture Assets; access to any and all environmental, zoning, and other permit documents and information; and access to any and all financial, operational, or other documents and information customarily provided as part of a due diligence process.
F. In connection with the divestiture of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, at the option of the Acquirer(s), Defendants shall enter into a transitional supply, service, support, and use agreement (“transitional agreement”), of up to 120 days in length, for the supply of any goods, services, support, including software service and support, and reasonable use of the names AMC and Carmike, and any registered service marks of AMC or Carmike, that the Acquirer(s) request for the operation of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, during the period covered by the transitional agreement. At the request of the Acquirer(s), the United States in its sole discretion may agree to one or more extensions of this time period not to exceed six (6) months in total. The terms and conditions of the transitional agreement must be acceptable to the United States in its sole discretion. The transitional agreement shall be deemed incorporated into this Final Judgment and a failure by Defendants to comply with any of the terms or conditions of the transitional agreement shall constitute a failure to comply with this Final Judgment.
G. Defendants shall warrant to the Acquirer(s) of the Theatre Divestiture Assets that each asset will be operational on the date of sale.
H. Defendants shall not take any action that will impede in any way the permitting, operation, or divestiture of the Theatre Divestiture Assets.
I. Defendants shall warrant to the Acquirer(s) that there are no material defects in the environmental, zoning, or other permits pertaining to the operation of the Theatre Divestiture Assets. Following the sale of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, Defendants will not undertake, directly or indirectly, any challenges to the environmental, zoning, or other permits relating to the operation of the Theatre Divestiture Assets.
J. Unless the United States otherwise consents in writing, the divestitures made pursuant to Section IV(A) and IV(B), or by a Divestiture Trustee appointed pursuant to Section VI of this Final Judgment, shall include the entire Theatre Divestiture Assets, and shall be accomplished in such a way as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion that the Theatre Divestiture Assets can and will be used by the Acquirer(s) as part of a viable, ongoing business of operating theatres that exhibit primarily first-run, commercial movies. Divestiture of the Theatre Divestiture Assets may be made to one or more Acquirers, provided that in each instance it is demonstrated to the sole satisfaction of the United States that the Theatre Divestiture Assets will remain viable and the divestiture of such assets will remedy the competitive harm alleged in the Complaint. The divestitures, whether pursuant to Section IV (A), IV (B), or VI of this Final Judgment,
(1) shall be made to Acquirers that, in the United States' sole judgment have the intent and capability (including the necessary managerial, operational, technical, and financial capability) of competing effectively in the business of theatres exhibiting primarily first-run, commercial movies; and
(2) shall be accomplished so as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion, that none of the terms of any agreement between Acquirers and Defendants gives Defendants the ability unreasonably to raise the Acquirers' costs, to lower the Acquirers' efficiency, or otherwise to interfere in the ability of any Acquirer to compete effectively.
K. If Defendants are unable to effect any of the divestitures required herein due to the inability to obtain the Landlord Consent for any of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, Defendants shall divest alternative theatre assets that compete effectively with the theatre or theatres for which the Landlord Consent was not obtained. The United States shall, in its sole discretion, determine whether such theatre assets compete effectively with the theatres for which Landlord Consent was not obtained.
L. Within five (5) business days following a determination that Landlord Consent cannot be obtained for any of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, Defendants shall notify the United States, and Defendants shall propose an alternative divestiture pursuant to Section IV(K). The United States shall have then ten (10) business days in which to determine whether such theatre assets are a suitable alternative pursuant to Section IV(K). If Defendants' selection is deemed not to be a suitable alternative, the United States shall in its sole discretion select alternative theatre assets to be divested from among those theatre(s) that the United States has determined, in its sole discretion, compete effectively with the theatre(s) for which Landlord Consent was not obtained.
M. If a Divestiture Trustee is responsible for effecting divestiture of the Theatre Divestiture Assets, it shall notify the United States and Defendants within five (5) business days following a determination that Landlord Consent
A. Within two (2) business days following execution of a definitive divestiture agreement, Defendants or the Divestiture Trustee, whoever is then responsible for effecting the divestitures required herein, shall notify the United States of any proposed divestitures required by Sections IV(A), IV(B), and VI of this Final Judgment. If the Divestiture Trustee is responsible, it shall similarly notify Defendants. The notice shall set forth the details of the proposed divestitures and list the name, address, and telephone number of each person not previously identified who offered or expressed an interest in or desire to acquire any ownership interest in the Theatre Divestiture Assets, together with full details of the same.
B. Within fifteen (15) calendar days of receipt by the United States of such notice, the United States, in its sole discretion, may request from Defendants, the proposed Acquirer(s), any other third party, or the Divestiture Trustee, if applicable, additional information concerning the proposed divestitures, the proposed Acquirer(s), and any other potential Acquirer(s). Defendants and the Divestiture Trustee shall furnish any additional information requested to the United States within fifteen (15) calendar days of receipt of the request, unless the parties otherwise agree.
C. Within thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of the notice or within twenty (20) calendar days after the United States has been provided the additional information requested from Defendants, the proposed Acquirer(s), any third party, and the Divestiture Trustee, whichever is later, the United States shall provide written notice to Defendants, and the Divestiture Trustee, if there is one, stating whether it objects to the proposed divestitures. If the United States provides written notice that it does not object, the divestitures may be consummated, subject only to the Defendants' limited right to object to the sale under Section VI(C) of this Final Judgment. Absent written notice that the United States does not object to the proposed Acquirer(s) or upon objection by the United States, a divestiture proposed under Section IV(A), IV(B), or VI shall not be consummated. Upon objection by Defendants under Section VI(C), a divestiture proposed under Section VI shall not be consummated unless approved by the Court.
A. If Defendants have not divested the Theatre Divestiture Assets within the time period specified in Section IV(A) and IV(B), respectively, Defendants shall notify the United States of that fact in writing, specifically identifying the Theatre Divestiture Assets that have not been divested. Upon application of the United States, the Court shall appoint a Divestiture Trustee selected by the United States and approved by the Court to effect the divestiture of the applicable Theatre Divestiture Assets.
B. After the appointment of a Divestiture Trustee becomes effective, only the Divestiture Trustee shall have the right to sell the applicable Theatre Divestiture Assets. The Divestiture Trustee shall have the power and authority to accomplish the divestitures to Acquirer(s) acceptable to the United States at such price and on such terms as are then obtainable upon reasonable effort by the Divestiture Trustee, subject to the provisions of Sections IV, V, VI VIII, IX, and XIV, of this Final Judgment, and shall have such other powers as this Court deems appropriate. Subject to Section VI (D) of this Final Judgment, the Divestiture Trustee may hire at the cost and expense of Defendants any investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents, who shall be solely accountable to the Divestiture Trustee and reasonably necessary in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment to assist in the divestiture(s). Any such investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents shall serve on such terms and conditions as the United States approves, including confidentiality requirements and conflict of interest certifications.
C. Defendants shall not object to a sale by the Divestiture Trustee on any ground other than the Divestiture Trustee's malfeasance. Any such objections by Defendants must be conveyed in writing to the United States and the Divestiture Trustee within ten (10) calendar days after the Divestiture Trustee has provided the notice required under Section V.
D. The Divestiture Trustee shall serve at the cost and expense of Defendants pursuant to a written agreement, on such terms and conditions as the United States approves, including confidentiality requirements and conflict of interest certifications. The Divestiture Trustee shall account for all monies derived from the sale of the applicable Theatre Divestiture Assets, and all costs and expenses so incurred. After approval by the Court of the Divestiture Trustee's accounting, including fees for its services yet unpaid and those of any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee, all remaining money shall be paid to Defendants and the trust shall then be terminated. The compensation of the Divestiture Trustee and any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall be reasonable in light of the value of the Theatre Divestiture Assets subject to sale by the Divestiture Trustee and based on a fee arrangement providing the Divestiture Trustee with an incentive based on the price and terms of the divestitures and the speed with which they are accomplished, but timeliness is paramount. If the Divestiture Trustee and Defendants are unable to reach agreement on the Divestiture Trustee's or any agents' or consultants' compensation or other terms and conditions of engagement within 14 calendar days of appointment of the Divestiture Trustee, the United States may, in its sole discretion, take appropriate action, including making a recommendation to the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall, within three (3) business days of hiring any other professionals or agents, provide written notice of such hiring and the rate of compensation to Defendants and the United States.
E. Defendants shall use their best efforts to assist the Divestiture Trustee in accomplishing the required divestitures. The Divestiture Trustee and any consultants, accountants, attorneys, and other persons retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall have full and complete access to the personnel, books, records, and facilities of the assets and business to be divested, and Defendants shall develop financial and other information relevant to such assets and business as the Divestiture Trustee may reasonably request, subject to reasonable protection for trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information or any applicable privileges. Defendants shall take no
F. After its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall file monthly reports with the parties and the Court setting forth the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the divestitures ordered under this Final Judgment. To the extent such reports contain information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such reports shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. Such reports shall include the name, address, and telephone number of each person who, during the preceding month, made an offer to acquire, expressed an interest in acquiring, entered into negotiations to acquire, or was contacted or made an inquiry about acquiring, any interest in the Theatre Divestiture Assets, and shall describe in detail each contact with any such person. The Divestiture Trustee shall maintain full records of all efforts made to divest the Theatre Divestiture Assets.
G. If the Divestiture Trustee has not accomplished the divestitures ordered under this Final Judgment within six (6) months after its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall promptly file with the Court a report setting forth (1) the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the required divestitures, (2) the reasons, in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment, why the required divestitures have not been accomplished, and (3) the Divestiture Trustee's recommendations. To the extent such reports contain information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such reports shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall at the same time furnish such report to the United States, which shall have the right to make additional recommendations consistent with the purpose of the trust. The Court thereafter shall enter such orders as it shall deem appropriate to carry out the purpose of the Final Judgment, which may, if necessary, include extending the trust and the term of the Divestiture Trustee's appointment by a period requested by the United States.
H. If the United States determines that the Divestiture Trustee has ceased to act or failed to act diligently or in a reasonably cost-effective manner, it may recommend the Court appoint a substitute Divestiture Trustee.
A. Defendants are hereby ordered and directed, in accordance with the terms of this Final Judgment, on or before June 20, 2019, to divest that portion of the NCM Holdings sufficient to cause Defendants to own no more than 4.99 percent of the outstanding shares of NCM on a fully converted basis (the “NCM Divestiture Assets”). Defendants must divest the NCM Divestiture Assets on the following schedule: (i) On or before twelve (12) months from the date of the filing of the Complaint in this matter that portion of the NCM Holdings sufficient to cause Defendants to own no more than 15 percent of all outstanding shares of NCM on a fully converted basis, (ii) on or before twenty-four (24) months from the date of the filing of the Complaint in this matter that portion of the NCM Holdings sufficient to cause Defendants to own no more than 7.5 percent of all outstanding shares of NCM on a fully converted basis; and (iii) on or before June 20, 2019 that portion of the NCM Holdings sufficient to cause Defendants to own no more than 4.99 percent of all outstanding shares of NCM on a fully converted basis. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period, not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances.
B. Defendants are enjoined and restrained from the date of the filing of the Complaint in this matter from acquiring, directly or indirectly, any additional NCM Holdings except to the extent an NCM annual audience attendance adjustment or an acquisition of a movie theatre or movie theatre chain results in Defendants' NCM Holdings exceeding the thresholds set forth in Section VII (A). To the extent an NCM annual audience attendance adjustment or an acquisition of a movie theatre or movie theatre chain results in Defendants' NCM Holdings' exceeding the thresholds set forth in Section VII (A), then Defendants shall have 90 days from the date their NCM Holdings exceed the applicable threshold in Section VII (A) to sell down their NCM Holdings so that their NCM Holdings comply with the applicable threshold. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period, not to exceed 60 calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances.
C. The divestitures required by Section VII(A) may be made by open market sale, public offering, private sale, repurchase by NCM, or a combination thereof. Such divestitures shall not be made by private sale or placement to any person who provides pre-show and cinema advertising services other than NCM unless the United States, in its sole discretion, shall otherwise agree in writing.
Defendants shall not finance all or any part of any purchase made pursuant to Sections IV or VII of this Final Judgment.
Until the divestitures of the Theatre Divestiture Assets required by this Final Judgment have been accomplished, Defendants shall take all steps necessary to comply with the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order entered by this Court. Defendants shall take no action that would jeopardize the divestitures ordered by this Court.
A. From the date of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, Defendants are enjoined and restrained, directly or indirectly, from holding any governance rights in NCM, including any seats on NCM's Board of Directors and from exercising any voting rights in NCM.
B. From the date of the filing the Complaint in this matter, Defendants are enjoined and restrained, directly or indirectly, from:
1. Suggesting, individually or as part of a group, any candidate for election to NCM's Board of Directors, or having any officer, director, manager, employee, or agent serve as an officer, director, manager, employee, or in a comparable position with or for NCM;
2. Using or attempting to use any ownership interest in NCM to exert any influence over NCM in the conduct of NCM's business, including but not limited to, NCM's strategies regarding the pricing of NCM's services;
3. Using or attempting to use any rights or duties under any advertising agreement or relationship between Defendants and NCM (including any rights or duties Defendants may have as a customer of NCM), to influence NCM in the conduct of NCM's business with respect to any Person other than AMC;
4. Participating in, being present at, or receiving any notes, minutes, or agendas of, information from, or any documents distributed in connection with, any nonpublic meeting of NCM's Board of Directors or any committee thereof, or any other governing body of NCM. For purposes of this provision, the term “meeting” includes any action taken by consent of the relevant directors in lieu of a meeting;
5. Voting or permitting to be voted any NCM shares that Defendants own unless the United States, in its sole discretion, otherwise consents in writing;
6. Communicating to or receiving from any officer, director, manager, employee, or agent of NCM any nonpublic information regarding any aspect of Defendants' or NCM's business, including any plans or proposals with respect thereto; and
7. Proposing to any officer, director, manager, employee, or agent of NCM that NCM merge with, acquire, or sell itself to another Person.
C. Nothing in this Section, however, is intended to prevent: (i) Defendants from procuring preshow and cinema advertising services from NCM, including receiving necessary non-public information from NCM in the context of the Defendants' customer relationship regarding the same, or to prevent NCM from providing pre-show and cinema advertising services to Defendants, including providing necessary non-public information to Defendants in the context of NCM's vendor relationship regarding the same; (ii) joint promotions between NCM and Defendants and communications regarding the provision or procurement of pre-show and cinema advertising services from NCM or Defendants, respectively; (iii) Defendants from hiring NCM personnel or NCM from hiring Defendants personnel (provided that such personnel are not simultaneously employed or otherwise affiliated with NCM or Defendants, respectively); and (iv) nonpublic communications regarding industry-wide issues or possible potential business transactions between the two companies provided that such communications do not violate the antitrust laws or any other applicable law or regulation.
A. Defendants are hereby ordered and directed, within sixty (60) calendar days of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, to (i) implement, use, and continuously display Screenvision pre-show services and cinema advertising at the Screen Transfer Theatres for the term of this Final Judgment; and (ii) discontinue and permanently remove NCM pre-show services and cinema advertising at the Screen Transfer Theatres for the term of this Final Judgment. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period, not to exceed sixty (60) days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances.
B. If Defendants do not effectuate the implementation of Screenvision pre-show services and cinema advertising at any Screen Transfer Theatre and the termination, if applicable, of any NCM pre-show services and cinema advertising at that Screen Transfer Theatre during the time period set forth in Section XI(A) (including any extensions to that time period granted pursuant to that Section), then Defendants are ordered and directed to divest that Screen Transfer Theatre pursuant to the terms of Section IV(B) of this Final Judgment. For the avoidance of doubt, the Screen Transfer Theatres that Defendants must divest pursuant to this paragraph are referred to herein as the “Screen Transfer Divestiture Assets.”
A. Defendants shall implement and maintain reasonable procedures to prevent (i) the sharing of Competitively Sensitive Information between Defendants and NCM except as necessary to administer an exhibitor services agreement or exhibition agreement between NCM and Defendants to supply preshow and cinema advertising services; (ii) the sharing of Competitively Sensitive Information between Defendants and Screenvision except as necessary to administer an exhibitor services agreement or exhibition agreement between Screenvision and Defendants to supply preshow and cinema advertising services; (iii) the sharing of Competitively Sensitive Information or otherwise serving as a conduit to share Competitively Sensitive Information between NCM and Screenvision; and (iv) Defendants from obtaining through their ownership or governance position at Screenvision or NCM any Competitively Sensitive Information of or about the business of any movie theatre exhibitor other than Defendants.
B. Defendants shall, within thirty (30) calendar days of the Court's entry of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, submit to the United States a document setting forth in detail the procedures implemented to effect compliance with this Section. The United States shall notify Defendants within ten (10) business days whether it approves of or rejects Defendants' compliance plan, in its sole discretion.
C. In the event Defendants' compliance plan is rejected, the reasons for the rejection shall be provided to Defendants and Defendants shall be given the opportunity to submit, within ten (10) business days of receiving the notice of rejection, a revised compliance plan. If the parties cannot agree on a compliance plan, the United States shall have the right to request that the Court rule on whether Defendants' proposed compliance plan is reasonable.
D. Defendants may at any time submit to the United States evidence relating to the actual operation of any firewall in support of a request to modify any firewall set forth in this Section. In determining whether it would be appropriate for the United States to consent to modify the firewall, the United States, in its sole discretion, shall consider the need to protect NCM, Screenvision, or movie theatre exhibitor Competitively Sensitive Information and the impact the firewall has had on Defendants' ability to efficiently support the theatrical exhibition of movies.
A. Defendants shall maintain a compliance program that shall include designating, within thirty (30) days of the entry of this Final Judgment, a Compliance Officer with responsibility for achieving compliance with this Final Judgment. The Compliance Officer shall, on a continuing basis, supervise the review of current and proposed activities to ensure compliance with this Final Judgment. The Compliance Officer shall be responsible for accomplishing the following activities:
(1) Distributing, within thirty (30) days of the entry of this Final Judgment, a copy of this Final Judgment to all of Defendants' officers, directors, or any company employee or manager with management responsibility or oversight of theatrical exhibition and preshowcinema advertising services;
(2) Distributing, within thirty (30) days of succession, a copy of this Final Judgment to any Person who succeeds to a position described in Section XIII(A)(1); and
(3) Obtaining within sixty (60) days from the entry of this Final Judgment, and once within each calendar year after the year in which this Final Judgment is entered, and retaining for the term of this Final Judgment, a written certification from each Person designated in Sections XIII(A)(1) and XIII(A)(2) that he or she: (a) Has received, read, understands, and agrees to abide by the terms of this Final Judgment; (b) understands that failure to comply with this Final Judgment may result in conviction for criminal contempt of court; and (c) is not aware of any violation of the Final Judgment. Copies of such written certifications are to be promptly provided to the U.S. Department of Justice, Antitrust Division.
B. Within sixty (60) days of the entry of this Final Judgment, Defendants shall certify to the United States that they have (1) designated a Compliance Officer, specifying his or her name, business address and telephone number; and (2) distributed the Final Judgment in accordance with Section XIII(A)(1).
C. If any of Defendants' directors or officers or the Compliance Officer learns of any violation of this Final Judgment, Defendants shall within ten (10) business days provide to the U.S. Department of Justice, Antitrust Division a written detailed description of the nature of the violation with the names, titles, and company affiliation of each person involved.
A. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, and every thirty (30) calendar days thereafter until the divestitures and screen transfers have been completed
B. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, Defendants shall deliver to the United States an affidavit that describes in reasonable detail all actions taken and all steps implemented on an ongoing basis to comply with Section IX of this Final Judgment. Defendants shall deliver to the United States an affidavit describing any changes to the efforts and actions outlined in their earlier affidavits filed pursuant to this section within fifteen (15) calendar days after the change is implemented.
C. Defendants shall notify the United States no less than sixty (60) calendar days prior to the expiration of each of the deadlines for divesting the NCM Divestiture Assets identified in Section VII (A) of the arrangements Defendants have made to complete such divestitures in a timely fashion. Defendants shall no later than five (5) calendar days after each of the deadlines identified in Section VII(A) deliver to the United States an affidavit as to the fact and manner of its compliance with Section VII(A).
D. For the term of this Final Judgment, on or before each annual anniversary of the date of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, Defendants shall file with the United States a statement as to the fact and manner of its compliance with the provisions of Sections VII (B), X, and XII, including a statement of the percentage of all outstanding shares of NCM owned by Defendants and a description of any violations of Sections VII (B), X, and XII.
E. Defendants shall keep all records of all efforts made to preserve and divest the Theatre Divestiture Assets and the NCM Divestiture Assets until one year after such divestitures have been completed.
A. For the purposes of determining or securing compliance with this Final Judgment or of any related orders such as the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, or of determining whether the Final Judgment should be modified or vacated, and subject to any legally recognized privilege, from time to time authorized representatives of the United States Department of Justice, including consultants and other persons retained by the United States, shall, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, and on reasonable notice to Defendants, be permitted:
(1) access during Defendants' office hours to inspect and copy, or at the option of the United States, to require Defendants to provide hard copy or electronic copies of, all books, ledgers, accounts, records, data, and documents in the possession, custody, or control of Defendants, relating to any matters contained in this Final Judgment; and
(2) to interview, either informally or on the record, Defendants' officers, employees, or agents, who may have their individual counsel present, regarding such matters. The interviews shall be subject to the reasonable convenience of the interviewee and without restraint or interference by Defendants.
B. Upon the written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, Defendants shall submit written reports or responses to written interrogatories, under oath if requested, relating to any of the matters contained in this Final Judgment as may be requested.
C. No information or documents obtained by the means provided in this section shall be divulged by the United States to any person other than an authorized representative of the executive branch of the United States, except in the course of legal proceedings to which the United States is a party (including grand jury proceedings), or for the purpose of securing compliance with this Final Judgment, or as otherwise required by law.
D. If at the time information or documents are furnished by Defendants to the United States, Defendants represent and identify in writing the material in any such information or documents to which a claim of protection may be asserted under Rule 26(c)(1)(G) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, and Defendants mark each pertinent page of such material, “Subject to claim of protection under Rule 26(c)(1)(G) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure,” then the United States shall give Defendants ten (10) calendar days notice prior to divulging such material in any legal proceeding (other than a grand jury proceeding).
Defendants may not reacquire any part of the Theatre Divestiture Assets or the NCM Divestiture Assets during the term of this Final Judgment.
This Court retains jurisdiction to enable any party to this Final Judgment to apply to this Court at any time for further orders and directions as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out or construe this Final Judgment, to modify any of its provisions, to enforce compliance, and to punish violations of its provisions.
Unless this Court grants an extension, this Final Judgment shall expire ten (10) years from the date of its entry.
Entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest. The parties have complied with the requirements of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C. 16, including making copies available to the public of this Final Judgment, the Competitive Impact Statement, and any comments thereon and the United States' responses to comments. Based upon the record before the Court, which includes the Competitive Impact Statement and any comments and response to comments filed with the Court, entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(b)-(h), that a proposed Final Judgment, Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order, and Competitive Impact Statement have been filed with the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in
Copies of the Complaint, proposed Final Judgment, and Competitive Impact Statement are available for inspection on the Antitrust Division's Web site at
Public comment is invited within 60 days of the date of this notice. Such comments, including the name of the submitter, and responses thereto, will be posted on the Antitrust Division's Web site, filed with the Court, and, under certain circumstances, published in the
The United States of America (“Plaintiff”), acting under the direction of the Attorney General of the United States, brings this civil action to enjoin the transaction between Defendants Clear Channel Outdoor Holdings, Inc. (“Clear Channel”) and Fairway Media Group, LLC (“Fairway”) and to obtain other equitable relief.
1. Clear Channel and Fairway sell outdoor advertising on billboards to local and national customers in numerous metropolitan areas throughout the United States. Among other metropolitan areas, they compete head-to-head to sell advertising on billboards that are located in Indianapolis, Indiana and Atlanta, Georgia (collectively, the “Metropolitan Markets”). Within each of the Metropolitan Markets, Clear Channel and Fairway own and operate billboards that are located in close proximity to each other and therefore constitute attractive competitive alternatives for advertisers that seek to advertise on billboards in those specific areas.
2. On March 3, 2016, Clear Channel and Fairway entered into an asset exchange pursuant to which Clear Channel would acquire certain Fairway billboards located in Atlanta and Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards located in Indianapolis, along with billboards in other metropolitan areas.
3. If consummated, the proposed transaction would eliminate the substantial head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway within each of the Metropolitan Markets. Head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway billboards that are located in close proximity to each other in each of the Metropolitan Markets has benefitted advertisers through lower prices and better services. The proposed transaction threatens to end that competition in these areas in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18, and should be enjoined.
4. The United States brings this action pursuant to Section 15 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 25, to prevent and restrain Defendants from violating Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18.
5. The Court has subject matter jurisdiction over this action pursuant to Section 15 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 25, and 28 U.S.C. 1331, 1337(a), and 1345.
6. Defendants are engaged in interstate commerce and in activities substantially affecting interstate commerce. They each own and operate billboards in various locations throughout the United States and sell outdoor advertising in the geographic areas where their billboards are located. Their sale of advertising on billboards has had a substantial effect upon interstate commerce.
7. Defendants have consented to venue and personal jurisdiction in this district. Venue is also proper in this district under Section 12 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 22, and 28 U.S.C. 1391(c).
8. Clear Channel is a Delaware corporation, with its corporate headquarters in San Antonio, Texas. Clear Channel is one of the largest outdoor advertising companies in the United States. Clear Channel reported consolidated revenues of over $2.8 billion in 2015. As of December 31, 2015, Clear Channel owned or operated more than 650,000 outdoor advertising displays worldwide. It owns and operates billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets.
9. Fairway is a Delaware limited liability company with its headquarters in Duncan, South Carolina. Fairway owns or operates outdoor advertising displays in fifteen states. Fairway had revenues of approximately $110 million in 2015. Fairway also owns and operates billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets.
10. Pursuant to an Asset Purchase and Exchange Agreement dated March 3, 2016, Clear Channel and Fairway agreed to exchange billboards in a transaction valued at $150 million. Specifically, the parties agreed that Clear Channel would acquire certain Fairway billboards located in Atlanta and Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards located in Indianapolis and Sherman/Denison, Texas. Although the Asset Purchase and Exchange Agreement originally provided that Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards in Rochester, Minnesota, and that Clear Channel would acquire additional Fairway billboards in Atlanta, the parties subsequently amended their agreement to remove the Rochester assets and the additional Atlanta assets from the transaction.
11. The relevant markets for purposes of Section 7 of the Clayton Act are the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards to advertisers targeting consumers located in areas no larger than the Metropolitan Markets, and likely smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets where the parties own and operate billboards in close proximity to each other.
12. Clear Channel and Fairway generate revenue from the sale of outdoor advertising to local and national businesses that want to promote their products and services. Outdoor advertising is available in a variety of sizes and forms for advertising campaigns of differing styles and duration. Outdoor advertising sales include selling space on billboards and posters, public transportation, such as subways and buses, and other public spaces, such as bus stops, kiosks, and benches.
13. Outdoor advertising has prices and characteristics that are distinct from other advertising media platforms like radio, television, the Internet, newspapers, and magazines. Outdoor advertising is suitable for highly visual, limited-information advertising, because consumers are exposed to an outdoor advertisement for only a brief period of time as they travel through specific geographic areas. Outdoor advertisements typically are less expensive and more cost-efficient when compared to other media at reaching an advertiser's target audience. Many advertisers use outdoor advertisements when they want a large number of exposures to consumers at a low cost per exposure. Such advertisers do not view other advertising mediums or platforms as close substitutes.
14. Advertisers often choose a particular form of outdoor advertising over other outdoor advertising forms based upon the purpose of an advertising campaign, the target demographic group, and the geographic area where that campaign is to occur. For this reason, some outdoor advertising forms compete more closely with each other when compared to other outdoor advertising forms. And certain outdoor advertising forms compete more closely with each other depending upon their specific geographic locations.
15. With respect to outdoor advertising forms, billboards compete most closely with other billboards located in the same geographic area. Advertisers select billboards over other outdoor advertising forms based upon a number of factors. These include the size and demographic of the target audience (individuals most likely to purchase the advertiser's products or services), the traffic and commuting patterns of the audience, and other audience characteristics. Additionally, in certain geographic areas, other forms of outdoor advertising are not present.
16. The precise geographic location of a particular billboard is also important to advertisers. Many advertisers need to reach consumers in a particular city, part of a city, metropolitan area, or part of a metropolitan area. They also seek to reach certain demographic categories of consumers within a city or metropolitan area. Consequently, many advertisers select billboards that are located on highways, roads and streets where the vehicle and pedestrian traffic of that target audience is high, or where that traffic is close to the advertiser's commercial locations. By selecting billboards in these locations, advertisers can ensure that their target audience will frequently view billboards that contain their advertisements. If different firms own billboards that are located in close proximity to each other that would efficiently reach an advertiser's target audience, the advertiser would benefit from the competition among those billboard firms to offer better prices and services.
17. At a minimum, billboard companies could profitably impose a small but significant and non-transitory increase in price (“SSNIP”) to those advertisers who view billboards in certain geographic locations either as their sole method of advertising or as a necessary advertising complement to other media, including other outdoor advertising forms. Consequently, for many advertisers who want to advertise on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets or in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, the imposition of a SSNIP would not cause these advertisers to switch some of their advertising to other media, other outdoor advertising forms, or to billboards located outside each area.
18. For all of the above reasons, for purposes of analyzing the competitive effects of the proposed transaction, the relevant product market is outdoor advertising on billboards and the relevant geographic markets are no larger than each of the Metropolitan Markets, and may consist of considerably smaller areas within each of those Metropolitan Markets where the parties own and operate billboards in close proximity to each other.
19. Market concentration is often one useful indicator of the likely competitive effects of a transaction. Concentration in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would increase significantly as a result of the proposed transaction.
20. As articulated in the
21. In each of the Metropolitan Markets, and in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, the market for outdoor advertising on billboards is highly concentrated. The proposed transaction between Clear Channel and Fairway would result in HHIs in excess of 2,500 in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each Metropolitan Market. These post-transaction HHIs, which reflect
22. In addition to increasing concentration, the proposed transaction will eliminate head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway by bringing under the control of one firm billboards that are close substitutes, based on their geographic locations, in areas with limited alternatives. In some of the areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are no other competing billboards that would be attractive competitive alternatives to Clear Channel's and Fairway's billboards. In other areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are other competitors present, but the number of billboards or their quality is insufficient to preclude the exercise of market power by Clear Channel or Fairway post-transaction.
23. In each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are significant barriers to entry, including governmental regulations that limit new billboard construction. Therefore, it is unlikely that any new entry or repositioning from existing firms would be sufficient or timely to defeat Clear Channel or Fairway from profitably imposing a SSNIP on their billboards in the Metropolitan Markets and in certain smaller areas within the Metropolitan Markets.
24. The United States hereby repeats and realleges the allegations of paragraphs 1 through 23 as if fully set forth herein.
25. Clear Channel's proposed transaction with Fairway likely would substantially lessen competition in interstate trade and commerce in the relevant markets, in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18. Unless enjoined, the proposed transaction likely would have the following anticompetitive effects, among others:
a) competition in the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would be substantially lessened;
b) actual and potential competition between Clear Channel and Fairway in the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would be eliminated; and
c) prices for outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Market and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would likely increase, and the quality of services would likely decline.
26. The United States requests:
a) that the Court adjudge the proposed transaction to violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18;
b) that the Court permanently enjoin and restrain Defendants from carrying out the proposed transaction, or entering into any other agreement, understanding, or plan by which Clear Channel and Fairway would exchange billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets;
c) that the Court award the United States the costs of this action; and
d) that the Court award such other relief to the United States as the Court may deem just and proper.
The term “HHI” means the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index, a commonly accepted measure of market concentration. The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in the market and then summing the resulting numbers. For example, for a market consisting of four firms with shares of 30, 30, 20, and 20 percent, the HHI is 2,600 (30
Markets in which the HHI is between 1,500 and 2,500 points are considered to be moderately concentrated, and markets in which the HHI is in excess of 2,500 points are considered to be highly concentrated.
Pursuant to Section 2(b) of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act (“APPA” or “Tunney Act”), 15 U.S.C. 16(b)-(h), Plaintiff United States of America (“United States”) files this Competitive Impact Statement relating to the proposed Final Judgment submitted for entry in this civil antitrust proceeding.
On March 3, 2016, Defendants Clear Channel Outdoor Holdings, Inc. (“Clear Channel”) and Fairway Media Group, LLC (“Fairway”) entered into an asset exchange pursuant to which Clear Channel would acquire certain Fairway billboards located in Atlanta, Georgia, and Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards located in Indianapolis, Indiana (collectively Atlanta and Indianapolis are the “Metropolitan Markets”), along with billboards in other metropolitan areas.
The United States filed a civil antitrust Complaint on December 22, 2016, seeking to enjoin the proposed transaction. The Complaint alleges that the proposed transaction likely would eliminate the substantial head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway within each of the Metropolitan Markets. Head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway billboards that are located in close proximity to each other in each of the Metropolitan Markets has benefitted advertisers through lower prices and
At the same time the Complaint was filed, the United States also filed an Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order (“Asset Preservation Order”) and proposed Final Judgment, which are designed to eliminate the likely anticompetitive effects of the transaction. The proposed Final Judgment, which is explained more fully below, requires Defendants to divest their interests in 57 identified outdoor billboard assets in the Metropolitan Markets to acquirers approved by the United States in a manner that preserves competition in each of those markets.
The Asset Preservation Order requires Defendants to take certain steps to ensure that each of the divested assets continues to be operated as a competitive, economically viable, and ongoing outdoor advertising asset, uninfluenced by the consummation of the transaction so that competition is maintained until the required divestitures occur.
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered after compliance with the APPA. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment would terminate this action, except that the Court would retain jurisdiction to construe, modify, or enforce the provisions of the proposed Final Judgment and to punish violations thereof.
Clear Channel is a Delaware corporation with its headquarters in San Antonio, Texas. Clear Channel is one of the largest outdoor advertising companies in the United States.
Fairway is a Delaware limited liability company with its headquarters in Duncan, South Carolina. Fairway owns and operates outdoor advertising displays in fifteen states.
Pursuant to an Asset Purchase and Exchange Agreement dated March 3, 2016, Clear Channel and Fairway agreed to exchange billboards in a transaction valued at $150 million. Specifically, the parties agreed that Clear Channel would acquire certain Fairway billboards located in Atlanta and Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards located in Indianapolis and Sherman/Denison, Texas. Although the Asset Purchase and Exchange Agreement originally provided that Fairway would acquire certain Clear Channel billboards in Rochester, Minnesota, and that Clear Channel would acquire additional Fairway billboards in Atlanta, the parties subsequently amended their agreement to remove the Rochester assets and additional Atlanta assets from the transaction.
The proposed transaction, as agreed to by Defendants, likely would lessen competition substantially within each of the Metropolitan Markets. This transaction is the subject of the Complaint and proposed Final Judgment filed today by the United States.
The Complaint alleges that the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards to advertisers that seek to target consumers located in geographic areas no larger than each of the Metropolitan Markets, and likely smaller areas within each of those market where the parties own and operate billboards in close proximity to each other, constitute relevant markets under Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
Clear Channel and Fairway sell outdoor advertising to local and national businesses that seek to promote their products and services to consumers in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets.
Outdoor advertising possesses a unique combination of attributes that sets it apart from advertising using other types of media, like radio, television, the Internet, newspapers and magazines. Outdoor advertising is suitable for highly visual, limited-information advertising, because consumers are exposed to an outdoor advertisement for only a brief period of time as they travel through specific geographic areas. Outdoor advertisements typically are less expensive and more cost-efficient when compared to other media at reaching an advertiser's target audience. Many advertisers use outdoor advertisements when they want a large number of exposures to consumers at a low cost per exposure. Such advertisers do not view other advertising mediums or platforms as close substitutes.
Outdoor advertising is available in a variety of sizes and forms for advertising campaigns of differing styles and duration. Outdoor advertising sales include selling space on billboards and posters, public transportation, such as subways and buses, and other public spaces, such as bus stops, kiosks, and benches. Advertisers often choose a particular form of outdoor advertising over other outdoor advertising forms based upon the purpose of an advertising campaign, the target demographic group, and the geographic area where that campaign is to occur. For this reason, some outdoor advertising forms compete more closely with each other when compared to other outdoor advertising forms. And certain outdoor advertising forms compete more closely with each other depending upon their specific geographic locations.
With respect to outdoor advertising forms, billboards compete most closely with other billboards located in the same geographic area. Advertisers select billboards over other outdoor advertising forms based upon a number of factors. These include the size and demographic of the target audience (individuals most likely to purchase the advertiser's products or services), the traffic and commuting patterns of the audience, and other audience characteristics. Additionally, in certain geographic areas, other forms of outdoor advertising are not present.
The precise geographic location of a particular billboard is also important to advertisers. Many advertisers need to reach consumers in a particular city, part of a city, metropolitan area, or part of a metropolitan area. They also seek to reach certain demographic categories of consumers within a city or metropolitan area. Consequently, many advertisers select billboards that are located on highways, roads and streets where the vehicle and pedestrian traffic of that target audience is high, or where that traffic is close to the advertiser's commercial locations. By selecting billboards in these locations, advertisers can ensure that their target audience will frequently view billboards that contain their advertisements. If different firms own billboards that are located in close proximity to each other that would efficiently reach an advertiser's target audience, the advertiser would benefit from the competition among those billboard firms to offer better prices and services.
At a minimum, billboard companies could profitably impose a small but significant and non-transitory increase in price (“SSNIP”) to those advertisers who view billboards in certain geographic locations either as their sole method of advertising or as a necessary advertising complement to other media, including other outdoor advertising forms. Consequently, for many advertisers who want to advertise on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets or in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan
For all of the above reasons, for purposes of analyzing the competitive effects of the proposed transaction, the relevant product market is outdoor advertising on billboards and the relevant geographic markets are no larger than each of the Metropolitan Markets, and may consist of considerably smaller areas within each of those Metropolitan Markets where the parties own and operate billboards in close proximity to each other.
The Complaint alleges that the proposed acquisition likely would substantially lessen competition in interstate trade and commerce, in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18, and likely would have the following effects, among others:
a) competition in the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain smaller areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would be substantially lessened;
b) actual and potential competition between Clear Channel and Fairway in the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would be substantially lessened; and
c) prices for outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets would likely increase, and the quality of services would likely decline.
As alleged in the Complaint, in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, the market for outdoor advertising on billboards is highly concentrated and the proposed transaction would substantially increase that concentration.
Using the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (“HHI”), a standard measure of market concentration, the proposed transaction between Clear Channel and Fairway would result in HHIs in excess of 2,500 in each of the Metropolitan Markets and in certain areas within each Metropolitan Market. These post-transaction HHIs reflect increases of more than 200 points in each Metropolitan Market and in certain areas within each Metropolitan Market. As a result, the proposed transaction in those Metropolitan Markets is presumed likely to enhance market power under the Horizontal Merger Guidelines issued by the Department of Justice and Federal Trade Commission.
Moreover, in addition to increasing concentration, the proposed transaction will eliminate head-to-head competition between Clear Channel and Fairway by bringing under the control of one firm billboards that are close substitutes, based on their geographic locations, in areas with limited alternatives. In some of the areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are no other competing billboards that would be attractive competitive alternatives to Clear Channel's and Fairway's billboards. In other areas within each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are other competitors present, but the number of billboards or their quality is insufficient to preclude the exercise of market power by Clear Channel or Fairway post-transaction. Because a significant number of advertisers would likely be unable to reach their desired audiences as effectively unless they advertise on billboards that Clear Channel or Fairway would control after the proposed transaction, those advertisers' bargaining positions would be weaker, and the advertising rates they pay would likely increase.
The Complaint alleges that entry or expansion in outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets would not be timely, likely, or sufficient to prevent any anticompetitive effects. In each of the Metropolitan Markets, there are significant barriers to entry including those due to governmental regulations that limit new billboard construction. Therefore, it is unlikely that any new entry or repositioning from existing firms would be sufficient or timely to defeat Clear Channel or Fairway from profitably imposing a SSNIP on their billboards in the Metropolitan Markets and certain areas within the Metropolitan Markets.
The divestiture requirement of the proposed Final Judgment will eliminate the likely anticompetitive effects of the transaction in each of the Metropolitan Markets by maintaining the Divestiture Assets as independent, economically viable and competitive. The proposed Final Judgment requires Clear Channel and Fairway to divest the Divestiture Assets to the following Acquirers:
• Divestiture Assets located in the Indianapolis Metropolitan Market to Circle City Outdoor, LLC; and
• Divestiture Assets located in the Atlanta Metropolitan Market to Link Media Georgia, LLC.
The United States has approved each of these Acquirers as suitable divestiture buyers. The United States required Clear Channel and Fairway to identify each Acquirer of a Divestiture Asset in order to provide greater certainty and efficiency in the divestiture process. If, for any reason, Defendants are unable to complete the divestitures to either of these Acquirers, Defendants must divest the remaining Divestiture Assets to one or more alternative Acquirers approved by the United States in its sole discretion.
The Divestiture Assets are defined in Paragraph II.F of the proposed Final Judgment to include all assets set forth in Schedules A and B to the proposed Final Judgment, tangible or intangible, relating to each outdoor advertising display face, including all real property (owned or leased), all licenses, permits and authorizations issued by any governmental organization relating to the operation of the asset, and all contracts, agreements, leases, licenses, commitments and understandings pertaining to the sale of outdoor advertising on each asset.
To ensure that the Divestiture Assets are operated independently from Clear Channel and Fairway after the divestitures, Section XII of the proposed Final Judgment prohibits Defendants from reacquiring any part of the Divestiture Assets during the term of the Final Judgment and Section VII prohibits Defendants from financing all or any part of the Acquirers' purchase of the Divestiture Assets.
Defendants are required to take all steps reasonably necessary to accomplish the divestitures quickly and to cooperate with prospective purchasers. Pursuant to Paragraph IV.A of the proposed Final Judgment, divestiture of each of the Divestiture Assets must occur within ten calendar days after the Court's signing of the Asset Preservation Order or consummation of the Transaction, whichever is later. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period not to exceed 60 calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances.
In the event that Defendants do not accomplish all of the divestitures within the periods prescribed in the proposed Final Judgment, Section V of the proposed Final Judgment provides that the Court, upon application of the United States, will appoint a trustee selected by the United States to effect any remaining divestitures. If a trustee
Section XI of the proposed Final Judgment requires Defendants to provide advance notification of certain future proposed acquisitions not otherwise subject to the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18a. Specifically, Fairway must provide at least thirty days advance written notice to the United States before it acquires, directly or indirectly, any interest in any outdoor advertising asset in the form of a billboard or any outdoor advertising business that owns billboards in the metropolitan statistical areas associated with Rochester, Minnesota and Indianapolis; and Clear Channel must provide at least thirty days advance written notice to the United States before it (a) acquires any assets located in the Atlanta metropolitan statistical area that were included in, but later removed from, the original transaction agreement between Clear Channel and Fairway; and (b) directly or indirectly acquires any outdoor advertising assets in the form of billboards or any interest, including any financial, security, loan, equity or management interest, in any outdoor advertising business that owns billboards in the Atlanta metropolitan statistical area where the assets or interests acquired have annual revenues for the last twelve months in excess of $5 million. Section XI then provides for waiting periods and opportunities for the United States to obtain additional information similar to the provisions of the HSR Act before acquisitions in these geographic areas may be consummated.
The geographic areas that Section XI applies to include one metropolitan area not subject to divestitures: Rochester, Minnesota. Although, as discussed above, Rochester billboard assets were ultimately excluded from the Defendants' asset swap transaction, given the highly concentrated market for outdoor advertising on billboards in Rochester and the fact that the Rochester billboard assets originally were part of the transaction, the United States sought to ensure that it would have the opportunity to review future acquisitions in that area so that it can seek effective relief, if necessary.
Section 4 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 15, provides that any person who has been injured as a result of conduct prohibited by the antitrust laws may bring suit in federal court to recover three times the damages the person has suffered, as well as costs and reasonable attorneys' fees. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment will neither impair nor assist the bringing of any private antitrust damage action. Under the provisions of Section 5(a) of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(a), the proposed Final Judgment has no prima facie effect in any subsequent private lawsuit that may be brought against Defendants.
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered by the Court after compliance with the provisions of the APPA, provided that the United States has not withdrawn its consent. The APPA conditions entry upon the Court's determination that the proposed Final Judgment is in the public interest.
The APPA provides a period of at least sixty (60) days preceding the effective date of the proposed Final Judgment within which any person may submit to the United States written comments regarding the proposed Final Judgment. Any person who wishes to comment should do so within sixty (60) days of the date of publication of this Competitive Impact Statement in the
Written comments should be submitted to:
The United States considered, as an alternative to the proposed Final Judgment, a full trial on the merits against Defendants. The United States could have continued the litigation and sought preliminary and permanent injunctions against the transaction between Clear Channel and Fairway. The United States is satisfied, however, that the divestiture of assets described in the proposed Final Judgment will preserve competition for the sale of outdoor advertising on billboards in each of the Metropolitan Markets and the affected smaller areas within each Metropolitan Market. Thus, the proposed Final Judgment would achieve all or substantially all of the relief the United States would have obtained through litigation, but avoids the time, expense, and uncertainty of a full trial on the merits of the Complaint.
The Clayton Act, as amended by the APPA, requires that proposed consent judgments in antitrust cases brought by the United States be subject to a sixty-day comment period, after which the Court shall determine whether entry of the proposed Final Judgment “is in the public interest.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(1). In making that determination, the Court, in accordance with the statute as amended in 2004, is required to consider:
(A) the competitive impact of such judgment, including termination of alleged violations, provisions for enforcement and modification, duration of relief sought, anticipated effects of alternative remedies actually considered, whether its terms are ambiguous, and any other competitive considerations bearing upon the adequacy of such judgment that the court deems necessary to a determination of whether the consent judgment is in the public interest; and
(B) the impact of entry of such judgment upon competition in the relevant market or markets, upon the public generally and individuals alleging specific injury from the violations set forth in the complaint
As the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit has held, under the APPA a court considers, among other things, the relationship between the remedy secured and the specific allegations set forth in the government's complaint, whether the decree is sufficiently clear, whether enforcement mechanisms are sufficient, and whether the decree may positively harm third parties.
Courts have greater flexibility in approving proposed consent decrees than in crafting their own decrees following a finding of liability in a litigated matter. “[A] proposed decree must be approved even if it falls short of the remedy the court would impose on its own, as long as it falls within the range of acceptability or is `within the reaches of public interest.' ”
Moreover, the Court's role under the APPA is limited to reviewing the remedy in relationship to the violations that the United States has alleged in its Complaint, and does not authorize the Court to “construct [its] own hypothetical case and then evaluate the decree against that case.”
In its 2004 amendments, Congress made clear its intent to preserve the practical benefits of utilizing consent decrees in antitrust enforcement, adding the unambiguous instruction that “[n]othing in this section shall be construed to require the court to conduct an evidentiary hearing or to require the court to permit anyone to intervene.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(2);
There are no determinative materials or documents within the meaning of the APPA that were considered by the United States in formulating the proposed Final Judgment.
I, Mark A. Merva, of the Antitrust Division of the United States Department of Justice, do hereby certify that true copies of the Complaint, Competitive Impact Statement, Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order, Proposed Final Judgment, and Plaintiff's Explanation of Consent Decree Procedures were served this 22 day of December, 2016, by email, to the following:
WHEREAS, Plaintiff, the United States of America, filed its Complaint on December 22, 2016, and Defendant Clear Channel Outdoor Holdings, Inc. (“Clear Channel”) and Defendant Fairway Media Group, LLC (“Fairway”), by their respective attorneys, have consented to the entry of this Final Judgment without trial or adjudication of any issue of fact or law, and without this Final Judgment constituting any evidence against or admission by any party regarding any issue of fact or law;
AND WHEREAS, Defendants agree to be bound by the provisions of this Final Judgment pending its approval by the Court;
AND WHEREAS, the essence of this Final Judgment is the prompt and certain divestiture of certain rights or assets by the Defendants to assure that competition is not substantially lessened;
AND WHEREAS, the United States requires Defendants to make certain divestitures for the purpose of remedying the loss of competition alleged in the Complaint;
AND WHEREAS, Defendants have represented to the United States that the divestitures required below can and will be made and that Defendants will later raise no claim of hardship or difficulty as grounds for asking the Court to modify any of the divestiture provisions contained below;
NOW THEREFORE, before any testimony is taken, without trial or adjudication of any issue of fact or law, and upon consent of the parties, it is ORDERED, ADJUDGED, AND DECREED:
This Court has jurisdiction over the subject matter and each of the parties to this action. The Complaint states a claim upon which relief may be granted against Defendants under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18.
As used in this Final Judgment:
A. “Clear Channel” means Defendant Clear Channel Outdoor Holdings, Inc., a Delaware corporation headquartered in San Antonio, Texas, its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships, and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
B. “Fairway” means Defendant Fairway Media Group, LLC, a Delaware limited liability company headquartered in Duncan, South Carolina, its successors and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships, and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
C. “Circle City” means Circle City Outdoor, LLC, a Washington limited liability company headquartered in Spokane, Washington, its successor and assigns, and its subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships, and joint ventures, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
D. “Link Media” means Link Media Georgia, LLC, a Georgia limited liability company headquartered in Wichita, Kansas, its successor and assigns, parents, subsidiaries, divisions, groups, affiliates, partnerships, and joint ventures, including Link Media Holdings, LLC and Boston Omaha Corporation, and their directors, officers, managers, agents, and employees.
E. “Acquirer” means Circle City, Link Media, or another entity or entities to which Defendants divest the Divestiture Assets.
F. “Atlanta Divestiture Assets” means all of Defendants' interests in the assets set forth in Schedule A, including all assets, tangible or intangible, relating to each outdoor advertising display face, including all real property (owned or leased), all licenses, permits and authorizations issued by any governmental organization relating to the operation of the assets, and all contracts, agreements, leases, licenses, commitments and understandings pertaining to the sale of outdoor advertising on the assets.
G. “Indianapolis Divestiture Assets” means all of Defendants' interests in the assets set forth in Schedule B, including all assets, tangible or intangible, relating to each outdoor advertising display face, including all real property (owned or leased), all licenses, permits and authorizations issued by any governmental organization relating to the operation of the assets, and all contracts, agreements, leases, licenses, commitments and understandings pertaining to the sale of outdoor advertising on the assets.
H. “Divestiture Assets” means the Indianapolis Divestiture Assets and the Atlanta Divestiture Assets.
I. “Transaction” means the Asset Purchase and Exchange Agreement, dated March 3, 2016, between Clear Channel and Fairway.
A. This Final Judgment applies to Clear Channel and Fairway, as defined above, and all other persons in active concert or participation with any of them who receive actual notice of this Final Judgment by personal service or otherwise.
B. If, prior to complying with Sections IV and V of this Final Judgment, Defendants sell or otherwise dispose of all or substantially all of their assets or of lesser business units that include the Divestiture Assets, they shall require the purchaser to be bound by the provisions of this Final Judgment. Defendants need not obtain such an agreement from the Acquirer(s) of the assets divested pursuant to this Final Judgment.
A. Defendants are ordered and directed, within ten (10) calendar days after (i) the Court's signing of the Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order in this matter or (ii) consummation of the Transaction, whichever is later, to divest in a manner consistent with this Final Judgment the Indianapolis Divestiture Assets to Circle City and the Atlanta Divestiture Assets to Link Media or another Acquirer(s) acceptable to the United States, in its sole discretion. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances. Defendants agree to use their best efforts to divest the Indianapolis Divestiture Assets and the Atlanta Divestiture Assets as expeditiously as possible.
B. In the event that Defendants are attempting to divest the Indianapolis Divestiture Assets to an Acquirer other than Circle City, or the Atlanta Divestiture Assets to an Acquirer other than Link Media:
(1) Defendants promptly shall make known, by usual and customary means, the availability of the Divestiture Assets to be divested; and
(2) Defendants shall inform any person making an inquiry regarding a possible purchase of the relevant Divestiture Assets that they are being divested pursuant to this Final Judgment and provide that person with a copy of this Final Judgment.
C. Defendants shall offer to furnish to all prospective Acquirers, subject to customary confidentiality assurances, all information and documents relating to the relevant Divestiture Assets customarily provided in a due diligence process except such information or documents subject to the attorney-client privilege or work-product doctrine; and Defendants shall make available such information to the United States at the same time that such information is made available to any other person.
D. Defendants shall permit prospective Acquirers of the Divestiture Assets to have reasonable access to make inspections of the Divestiture Assets; access to any and all environmental, zoning, and other permit documents and information; and access to any and all financial, operational, or other documents and information customarily provided as part of a due diligence process.
E. Defendants shall warrant to the Acquirers that each Divestiture Asset will be operational on the date of sale.
F. Defendants shall not take any action that will impede in any way the permitting, operation, or divestiture of the Divestiture Assets.
G. Defendants shall warrant to the Acquirer(s) that there are no material defects in the environmental, zoning, or other permits pertaining to the operation of each Divestiture Asset, and that, following the sale of the Divestiture Assets, Defendants will not undertake, directly or indirectly, any challenges to the environmental, zoning, or other permits relating to the operation of the Divestiture Assets.
H. Unless the United States otherwise consents in writing, the divestitures pursuant to Section IV, or by a Divestiture Trustee appointed pursuant to Section V of this Final Judgment, shall include the entire Divestiture Assets and be accomplished in such a way as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion, that the Divestiture Assets can and will be used by the Acquirers as part of a viable, ongoing outdoor advertising business. Divestiture of the Divestiture Assets may be made to one or more Acquirers, provided that in each instance it is demonstrated to the sole satisfaction of the United States that the Divestiture Assets will remain viable, and the divestiture of such assets will remedy the competitive harm alleged in the Complaint. The divestitures, whether pursuant to Section IV or Section V of this Final Judgment:
(1) shall be made to Acquirers that, in the United States' sole judgment, have the intent and capability (including the necessary managerial, operational, technical, and financial capability) of competing effectively in the outdoor advertising business; and
(2) shall be accomplished so as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion, that none of the terms of any agreement between the Acquirers and Defendants gives Defendants the ability unreasonably to raise the costs of the Acquirers, to lower the efficiency of the Acquirers, or otherwise to interfere in the ability of the Acquirers to compete effectively.
A. If Defendants have not divested the Divestiture Assets within the time period specified in Section IV(A), Defendants shall notify the United States of that fact in writing, specifically identifying the Divestiture Assets that have not been divested. Upon application of the United States, the Court shall appoint a Divestiture Trustee selected by the United States and approved by the Court to effect the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets that have not yet been divested.
B. After the appointment of a Divestiture Trustee becomes effective, only the Divestiture Trustee shall have the right to sell the relevant Divestiture Assets. The Divestiture Trustee shall have the power and authority to accomplish the divestiture to an Acquirer acceptable to the United States at such price and on such terms as are then obtainable upon reasonable effort by the Divestiture Trustee, subject to the provisions of Sections IV, V, and VI of this Final Judgment, and shall have such other powers as this Court deems appropriate. Subject to Section V(D) of this Final Judgment, the Divestiture Trustee may hire at the cost and expense of Defendants any investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents, who shall be solely accountable to the Divestiture Trustee, reasonably necessary in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment to assist in the divestiture. Any such investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents shall serve on such terms and conditions as the United States approves, including confidentiality
C. Defendants shall not object to a sale by the Divestiture Trustee on any ground other than the Divestiture Trustee's malfeasance. Any such objections by Defendants must be conveyed in writing to the United States and the Divestiture Trustee within ten (10) calendar days after the Divestiture Trustee has provided the notice required under Section VI.
D. The Divestiture Trustee shall serve at the cost and expense of Defendants pursuant to a written agreement, on such terms and conditions as the United States approves, including confidentiality requirements and conflict of interest certifications. The Divestiture Trustee shall account for all monies derived from the sale of the relevant Divestiture Assets and all costs and expenses so incurred. After approval by the Court of the Divestiture Trustee's accounting, including fees for its services yet unpaid and those of any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee, all remaining money shall be paid to Defendants and the trust shall then be terminated. The compensation of the Divestiture Trustee and any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall be reasonable in light of the value of the Divestiture Assets subject to sale by the Divestiture Trustee and based on a fee arrangement providing the Divestiture Trustee with an incentive based on the price and terms of the divestiture and the speed with which it is accomplished, but timeliness is paramount. If the Divestiture Trustee and Defendants are unable to reach agreement on the Divestiture Trustee's or any agents' or consultants' compensation or other terms and conditions of engagement within 14 calendar days of appointment of the Divestiture Trustee, the United States may, in its sole discretion, take appropriate action, including making a recommendation to the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall, within three (3) business days of hiring any other professionals or agents, provide written notice of such hiring and the rate of compensation to Defendants and the United States.
E. Defendants shall use their best efforts to assist the Divestiture Trustee in accomplishing the required divestiture. The Divestiture Trustee and any consultants, accountants, attorneys, and other agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall have full and complete access to the personnel, books, records, and facilities of the business to be divested, and Defendants shall develop financial and other information relevant to such business as the Divestiture Trustee may reasonably request, subject to reasonable protection for trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information or any applicable privileges. Defendants shall take no action to interfere with or to impede the Divestiture Trustee's accomplishment of the divestiture.
F. After its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall file monthly reports with the United States and, as appropriate, the Court setting forth the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the relevant divestitures ordered under this Final Judgment. To the extent such reports contain information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such report shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. Such report shall include the name, address, and telephone number of each person who, during the preceding month, made an offer to acquire, expressed an interest in acquiring, entered into negotiations to acquire, or was contacted or made an inquiry about acquiring, any interest in the Divestiture Assets, and shall describe in detail each contact with any such person. The Divestiture Trustee shall maintain full records of all efforts made to divest the relevant Divestiture Assets.
G. If the Divestiture Trustee has not accomplished the divestitures ordered under this Final Judgment within six (6) months after its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall promptly file with the Court a report setting forth (1) the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the required divestiture, (2) the reasons, in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment, why the required divestiture has not been accomplished, and (3) the Divestiture Trustee's recommendations. To the extent such report contains information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such report shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall at the same time furnish such report to the United States which shall have the right to make additional recommendations consistent with the purpose of the trust. The Court thereafter shall enter such orders as it shall deem appropriate to carry out the purpose of the Final Judgment, which may, if necessary, include extending the trust and the term of the Divestiture Trustee's appointment by a period requested by the United States.
H. If the United States determines that the Divestiture Trustee has ceased to act or failed to act diligently or in a reasonably cost-effective manner, it may recommend the Court appoint a substitute Divestiture Trustee.
A. Within two (2) business days following execution of a definitive divestiture agreement, Defendants or the Divestiture Trustee, whichever is then responsible for effecting the divestitures required herein, shall notify the United States of any proposed divestiture required by Section IV or V of this Final Judgment. If the Divestiture Trustee is responsible, it shall similarly notify Defendants. The notice shall set forth the details of the proposed divestiture and list the name, address, and telephone number of each person not previously identified who offered or expressed an interest in or desire to acquire any ownership interest in the Divestiture Assets, together with full details of the same.
B. Within fifteen (15) calendar days of receipt by the United States of such notice, the United States may request from Defendants, the proposed Acquirer, any other third party, or the Divestiture Trustee, if applicable, additional information concerning the proposed divestiture, the proposed Acquirer, and any other potential Acquirers. Defendants and the Divestiture Trustee shall furnish any additional information requested within fifteen (15) calendar days of the receipt of the request, unless the parties shall otherwise agree.
C. Within thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of the notice or within twenty (20) calendar days after the United States has been provided the additional information requested from Defendants, the proposed Acquirer, any third party, and the Divestiture Trustee, whichever is later, the United States shall provide written notice to Defendants and the Divestiture Trustee, if there is one, stating whether or not it objects to the proposed divestiture. If the United States provides written notice that it does not object, the divestiture may be consummated, subject only to Defendants' limited right to object to the sale under Section V(C) of this Final Judgment. Absent written notice that the United States does not object to the proposed Acquirer or upon objection by the United States, a divestiture proposed under Section IV or Section V shall not be consummated. Upon objection by Defendants under Section V(C), a divestiture proposed under Section V shall not be consummated unless approved by the Court.
Defendants shall not finance all or any part of any purchase made pursuant
Until the divestitures required by this Final Judgment have been accomplished, Defendants shall take all steps necessary to comply with the Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order entered by this Court. Defendants shall take no action that would jeopardize the divestitures ordered by this Court.
A. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, and every thirty (30) calendar days thereafter until the divestiture has been completed under Section IV or V of this Final Judgment, Defendants shall deliver to the United States an affidavit as to the fact and manner of their compliance with Section IV or V of this Final Judgment. Each such affidavit shall include the name, address, and telephone number of each person who, during the preceding thirty (30) calendar days, made an offer to acquire, expressed an interest in acquiring, entered into negotiations to acquire, or was contacted or made an inquiry about acquiring, any interest in the Divestiture Assets, and shall describe in detail each contact with any such person during that period. Each such affidavit shall also include a description of the efforts Defendants have taken to solicit buyers for the Divestiture Assets and to provide required information to prospective Acquirers, including the limitations, if any, on such information. Assuming the information set forth in the affidavit is true and complete, any objection by the United States to information provided by Defendants, including limitations on information, shall be made within fourteen (14) calendar days of receipt of such affidavit.
B. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of the Complaint in this matter, Defendants shall deliver to the United States an affidavit that describes in reasonable detail all actions Defendants have taken and all steps Defendants have implemented on an ongoing basis to comply with Section VIII of this Final Judgment. Defendants shall deliver to the United States an affidavit describing any changes to the efforts and actions outlined in Defendants' earlier affidavits filed pursuant to this section within fifteen (15) calendar days after the change is implemented.
C. Defendants shall keep all records of all efforts made to preserve and divest the Divestiture Assets until one year after such divestiture has been completed.
A. For the purposes of determining or securing compliance with this Final Judgment, or of any related orders such as any Asset Preservation Stipulation and Order, or of determining whether the Final Judgment should be modified or vacated, and subject to any legally recognized privilege, from time to time authorized representatives of the United States Department of Justice, including consultants and other persons retained by the United States, shall, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, and on reasonable notice to Defendants, be permitted:
(1) access during Defendants' office hours to inspect and copy, or at the option of the United States, to require Defendants to provide hard copies or electronic copies of, all books, ledgers, accounts, records, data, and documents in the possession, custody, or control of Defendants, relating to any matters contained in this Final Judgment; and
(2) to interview, either informally or on the record, Defendants' officers, employees, or agents, who may have their individual counsel present, regarding such matters. The interviews shall be subject to the reasonable convenience of the interviewee and without restraint or interference by Defendants.
B. Upon the written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, Defendants shall submit written reports or responses to written interrogatories, under oath if requested, relating to any of the matters contained in this Final Judgment as may be requested.
C. No information or documents obtained by the means provided in this section shall be divulged by the United States to any person other than an authorized representative of the executive branch of the United States, except in the course of legal proceedings to which the United States is a party (including grand jury proceedings), or for the purpose of securing compliance with this Final Judgment, or as otherwise required by law.
D. If at the time information or documents are furnished by Defendants to the United States, Defendants represent and identify in writing the material in any such information or documents to which a claim of protection may be asserted under Rule 26(c)(1)(G) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, and Defendants mark each pertinent page of such material, “Subject to claim of protection under Rule 26(c)(1)(G) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure,” then the United States shall give Defendants ten (10) calendar days notice prior to divulging such material in any legal proceeding (other than a grand jury proceeding).
A. Unless such transaction is otherwise subject to the reporting and waiting period requirements of the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18a (the “HSR Act”): (1) Fairway, without providing advance notification to DOJ, shall not directly or indirectly acquire any outdoor advertising assets in the form of billboards or any interest, including any financial, security, loan, equity or management interest, in any outdoor advertising business that owns billboards in the metropolitan statistical areas associated with Rochester, Minnesota and Indianapolis, Indiana; and (2) Clear Channel, without providing advance notification to DOJ, shall not (a) acquire any outdoor advertising assets located in the Atlanta metropolitan statistical area that were originally included in, but later removed from, the Transaction; and (b) directly or indirectly acquire any outdoor advertising assets in the form of billboards or any interest, including any financial, security, loan, equity or management interest, in any outdoor advertising business that owns billboards in the metropolitan statistical area associated with Atlanta, Georgia where the assets or interests to be acquired have annual revenues for the last twelve months in excess of $5 million.
B. Such notification shall be provided to the DOJ in the same format as, and per the instructions relating to the Notification and Report Form set forth in the Appendix to Part 803 of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations as amended, except that the information requested in Items 5 through 8 of the instructions must be provided only about outdoor advertising. Notification shall be provided at least thirty (30) calendar days prior to acquiring any such interest, and shall include, beyond what may be required by the applicable instructions, the names of the principal representatives of the parties to the agreement who negotiated the agreement, and any management or strategic plans discussing the proposed transaction. If within the 30-day period after notification, representatives of the Antitrust Division make a written request for additional information, Defendants shall not consummate the
Defendants may not reacquire any part of the Divestiture Assets during the term of this Final Judgment.
This Court retains jurisdiction to enable any party to this Final Judgment to apply to this Court at any time for further orders and directions as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out or construe this Final Judgment, to modify any of its provisions, to enforce compliance, and to punish violations of its provisions.
Unless this Court grants an extension, this Final Judgment shall expire ten years from the date of its entry.
Entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest. The parties have complied with the requirements of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C § 16, including making copies available to the public of this Final Judgment, the Competitive Impact Statement, and any comments thereon, and the United States' responses to comments. Based upon the record before the Court, which includes the Competitive Impact Statement and any comments and response to comments filed with the Court, entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest.
Civil Rights Division, Department of Justice.
30-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Civil Rights Division, Voting Section, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until January 30, 2017.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Robert S. Berman, Deputy Chief, Department of Justice, Civil Rights Division, Voting Section, 950 Pennsylvania Avenue 7243 NWB, (phone: 202-514-8690).
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Melody D. Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services Division (CJIS) has submitted the following Information Collection Request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the established review procedures of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional days until January 30, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be emailed to
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Ms. Amy Blasher, Unit Chief, FBI CJIS Division, Module D-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The current LEOKA definition of a law enforcement officer is: “All local, county, state, and federal law enforcement officers (such as municipal, county police officers, constables, state police, highway patrol, sheriffs, their deputies, federal law enforcement officers, marshals, special agents, etc.) who are sworn by their respective government authorities to uphold the law and to safeguard the rights, lives, and property of American citizens. They must have full arrest powers and be members of a public governmental law enforcement agency, paid from government funds set aside specifically for payment to sworn police law enforcement organized for the purposes of keeping order and for preventing and
The definition of “serious bodily injury” will be based, in part, on 18 United States Code (U.S.C.), Section 2246 (4), to mean “bodily injury that involves a substantial risk of death, unconsciousness, protracted and obvious disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty.” These actions include the use of a firearm; an electronic control weapon (
Local, state, tribal and federal law enforcement agencies will provide information on characteristics of the incident, subjects of the use of force, and the officers that applied force in the incident. Agencies will also be asked to positively affirm, on a monthly basis, whether they did or did not have any use of force that resulted in a fatality, a serious bodily injury to a person, or firearm discharges at or in the direction of a person. Enrollment information from agencies and state points of contact will be collected at the initiation of the collection and updated no less than annually to assist with the managing of this data. The process for developing a robust national collection on use of force involves a multistage, collaborative approach. With this request, the FBI proposes a pilot study. The pilot study will be conducted in two phases, each with its own focus. The pilot study design will be informed by pretesting activities conducted under the FBI's generic clearance [OMB 1110-0057] as discussed briefly here. Both pretesting and pilot efforts will rely upon effective collaboration between the FBI and the Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS) to achieve and maintain a high level of data quality in an efficient manner.
Pretesting activities were conducted prior to the initiation of a pilot study and allowed for finalization of the data collection instructions and associated instructions before the pilot data collection. These activities provided the preliminary information needed to both construct the sample of targeted agencies for the pilot study and identify early problem areas that could be resolved prior to formal testing. The pretesting consisted of three parts: Cognitive testing of survey items (including those relating to the time of the incident and measures of serious bodily harm), testing of questionnaire design (to better assess respondent burden and functionality), and a canvass of state UCR program managers (to assist with developing the sample frame for the proposed pilot). Cognitive testing was conducted in a manner to capture differences in measurement by region and law enforcement agency type, should they exist. Testing of questionnaire design includes follow-up with respondents to assess any difficulty with definitions or administration. Canvassing state UCR programs indicates the means by which use-of-force statistics are reported—either through the UCR Program itself or directly from state and local law enforcement agencies.
The purpose of the pilot study is to evaluate the quality of information collected through the use-of-force data collection tool against information collected through coding of state law enforcement records. Instructions and manuals, as well as training modules and curricula, all serve to help guide individuals at law enforcement agencies to translate their local records into a uniform manner when reporting. However, it may be difficult to communicate coding schemes based upon a common set of definitions. Therefore, after providing basic instructions to respondents, the pilot study will evaluate the accuracy of codes assigned by respondents to identify concepts with less consensus across locations and types of law enforcement agencies and thereby improve coding instructions. Potential sources of nonresponse and incomplete information will also be evaluated. Both phases of the pilot will include a set of target agencies and states that will allow for sufficient data to evaluate intercoder reliability in the application of definitions and guidance. The phases of the pilot differ by the mode of submission for incident data, the addition of site visits, and the number of sites recruited.
The first phase of the pilot will provide a prospective comparison of reported incidents in the use-of-force data collection through the use-of-force data collection tool to the original records voluntarily provided by the reporting agency to the FBI. Those agencies that are recruited and agree to participate in the pilot study will understand that local records will be forwarded to the FBI upon submission of statistical information to the use of force data collection tool. The local case information will be redacted of any personally identifiable information prior to being forwarded to the FBI, and all local records will be destroyed upon completion of the pilot study.
The goal of this review is to ascertain whether the agencies are applying the definitions and using the provided instructions in a uniform manner. The records review and comparison will also identify problematic areas where instructions need more detail or more training should be provided to agencies. The data will also be used in the planning of the second phase of the pilot that will involve a site visit to a subset of agencies. Finally, the FBI will work with state UCR program managers in the pilot states to identify any potential problems with local and state record-keeping that impedes the ability to provide the use-of-force information to the FBI.
The second phase of the pilot will include the set of agencies recruited for the first phase, as well as two additional states recruited to provide their use-of-force data in a bulk data submission. These states will be nominated based upon the information gained from the canvass of state UCR program managers during pretesting. The FBI will also continue to accept agencies and states that voluntarily provide data to the data collection.
In addition to the records review and comparison begun during Phase 1, Phase II will include targeted, on-site visits with a subsample of pilot agencies. The subsample will be selected to include different geographic areas. The primary goal of the on-site visits is to ascertain the level and source of underreporting of within-scope incidents—especially those with serious bodily injury or firearm discharges. The on-site visits will also allow for an assessment of local record-keeping capabilities and changes to the data collection process.
At the conclusion of Phase II, the FBI will release a report detailing the results of its data collection, analysis, and recommendations to inform the design of a main study.
5.
6.
The table below uses a rate per officer to estimate the anticipated number of reports that could be received within the two pilot phases and an annual collection. Because the nonfatal injury due to legal intervention estimate from the CDC does not provide any overt measure of severity, these injuries are estimated to be as high as 82,283 or as low as 5,546. Based upon these estimates, the FBI is requesting 52,416 burden hours for an annual collection of this data.
If additional information is required contact: Ms. Amy Blasher, Unit Chief, United States DOJ, FBI CJIS Division, Crime Data Modernization Team, Module D-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306.
Bureau of Justice Statistics, Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS), a component of the Office of Justice Programs (OJP) in the U.S. Department of Justice (DOJ), is announcing revisions to the confidentiality pledge(s) it provides to its respondents. These revisions are required by the passage and implementation of provisions of the federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, which requires the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to provide Federal civilian agencies' information technology systems with cybersecurity protection for their Internet traffic. More details on this announcement are presented in the
These revisions become effective on December 30, 2016.
Questions about this notice should be addressed to the Bureau of Justice Statistics, Office of Justice Programs, U.S. Department of Justice, ATTN: Allina Lee, 810 7th Street NW., Washington, DC 20151.
Allina Lee by telephone at 202-305-0765 (this is not a toll-free number); by email at
Federal statistics provide key information that the Nation uses to measure its performance and make informed choices about budgets, employment, health, investments, taxes, and a host of other significant topics. Most federal surveys are completed on a voluntary basis. Respondents, ranging from businesses to households to institutions, may choose whether or not to provide the requested information. Many of the most valuable federal statistics come from surveys that ask for highly sensitive information such as proprietary business data from companies or particularly personal information or practices from individuals. BJS protects all data collected under its authority under the confidentiality provisions of 42 U.S.C. 3789g. Strong and trusted confidentiality and exclusively statistical use pledges under Title 42 U.S.C. 3789g and similar statutes are effective and necessary in honoring the trust that businesses, individuals, and institutions, by their responses, place in statistical agencies.
Under statistical confidentiality protection statutes, federal statistical agencies make statutory pledges that the information respondents provide will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their agents and will be used only for statistical purposes. These statutes protect such statistical information from administrative, law enforcement, taxation, regulatory, or any other non-statistical use and immunize the information submitted to statistical agencies from legal process. Moreover, many of these statutes carry monetary fines and/or criminal penalties for conviction of a knowing and willful unauthorized disclosure of covered information. Any person violating the confidentiality provisions of 42 U.S.C. 3789g may be punished by a fine of up to $10,000, in addition to any other penalties imposed by law.
As part of the Consolidated Appropriations Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (Pub. L. 114-113) signed on December 17, 2015, the Congress included the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015 (codified in relevant part at 6 U.S.C. 151). This act, among other provisions, permits and requires the Secretary of Homeland Security to provide federal civilian agencies' information technology systems with cybersecurity protection for their Internet traffic. The technology currently used to provide this protection against cyber malware is known as Einstein 3A. Einstein 3A electronically searches internet traffic in and out of federal civilian agencies in real time for malware signatures.
When such a signature is found, the internet packets that contain the malware signature are shunted aside for further inspection by DHS personnel. Because it is possible that such packets entering or leaving a statistical agency's information technology system may contain a small portion of confidential statistical data, statistical agencies can no longer promise their respondents that their responses will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their agents. However, federal statistical agencies can promise, in accordance with provisions of the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, that such monitoring can be used only to protect information and information systems from cybersecurity risks, thereby, in effect, providing stronger protection to the integrity of the respondents' submissions.
Consequently, with the passage of the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, the federal statistical community has an opportunity to welcome the further protection of its confidential data offered by DHS' Einstein 3A cybersecurity protection program. The DHS cybersecurity program's objective is to protect federal civilian information systems from malicious malware attacks. The federal statistical system's objective is to endeavor to ensure that the DHS Secretary performs those essential duties in a manner that honors the statistical agencies' statutory promises to the public to protect their confidential data. DHS and the federal statistical system have been successfully engaged in finding a way to balance both objectives and achieve these mutually reinforcing objectives.
However, pledges of confidentiality made pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 3789g and similar statutes assure respondents that their data will be seen only by statistical agency personnel or their agents. Because it is possible that DHS personnel could see some portion of those confidential data in the course of examining the suspicious Internet packets identified by Einstein 3A sensors, statistical agencies are revising their confidentiality pledges to reflect this process change.
Therefore, BJS is providing this notice to alert the public to these confidentiality pledge revisions in an efficient and coordinated fashion. Below is a listing of BJS's current Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) OMB numbers and information collection titles and their associated revised confidentiality pledge(s) for the Information Collections whose confidentiality pledges will change to reflect the statutory implementation of DHS' Einstein 3A monitoring for cybersecurity protection purposes.
The following BJS statistical confidentiality pledge will now apply to the Information Collections conducted by BJS and protected under 42 U.S.C. 3789g, whose PRA OMB numbers and titles are listed below. The new lines added to address the new cybersecurity monitoring activities are bolded for reference only, and will not be bolded in the pledge provided to respondents:
BJS has also added information about the Cybersecurity Enhancement Act and Einstein 3A to the BJS Data Protection Guidelines to provide more details to interested respondents about the new cybersecurity monitoring requirements. The following text has been added to Section V. Information System Security and Privacy Requirements:
The Census Bureau collects data on behalf of BJS for the below listing of PRA OMB numbers and information collection titles. These collections are
The FRN submitted by the Census Bureau can be accessed at
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment No. 56 to Combined Licenses (COL) NPF-91 and NPF-92. The COLs were issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, Authority of Georgia, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (the licensee); for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP) Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia. The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may access information related to this document, which the NRC possesses and is publicly available, using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Chandu Patel, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3025; email:
The NRC is granting an exemption from Paragraph B of section III, “Scope and Contents,” of appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of title 10 of the
Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to the licensee for VEGP Units 3 and 4 (COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92). The exemption
Reproduced below is the exemption document issued to VEGP Units 3 and Unit 4. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:
1. In an application dated June 3, 2016, the licensee requested from the Commission an exemption to allow departures from Tier 1 information in the certified DCD incorporated by reference in 10 CFR part 52, appendix D, as part of license amendment request 16-008, “Tier 1 Editorial and Consistency Changes.”
For the reasons set forth in Section 3 of the NRC's Safety Evaluation, which can be found at ADAMS Accession No. ML16244A345, the Commission finds that:
A. The exemption is authorized by law;
B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;
C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;
D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;
E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and
F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1 information, with corresponding information in COL Appendix C of the Facility Combined License as described in the licensee's request dated June 3, 2016. This exemption is related to, and necessary for the granting of License Amendment No. 56, which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.
3. As explained in Section 5.0 of the NRC's Safety Evaluation (ADAMS Accession No. ML16244A345), this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.
4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.
By letter dated June 3, 2016, the licensee requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VEGP, Units 3 and 4, COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this
The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or COL, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.
Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the NRC granted the exemption and issued the amendment that the licensee requested on June 3, 2016. The exemption and amendment were issued on October 12, 2016 as part of a combined package to the licensee (ADAMS Accession No. ML16308A174).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment No. 54 to Combined Licenses (COL), NPF-91 and NPF-92. The COLs were issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, Authority of Georgia, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (the licensee); for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP) Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia.
The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Chandu Patel, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3025; email:
The NRC is granting an exemption from Paragraph B of Section III, “Scope and Contents,” of Appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of Title 10 of the
Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to the licensee for VEGP Units 3 and 4 (COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92). The exemption documents for VEGP Units 3 and 4 can be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16202A128 and ML16202A136, respectively. The exemption is reproduced (with the exception of abbreviated titles and additional citations) in Section II of this document. The amendment documents for COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16202A112 and ML16202A118, respectively. A summary of the amendment documents is provided in Section III of this document.
Reproduced below is the exemption document issued to VEGP Units 3 and Unit 4. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:
1. In a letter dated April 9, 2015, the licensee requested from the Commission an exemption to allow departures from Tier 1 information in the certified DCD incorporated by reference in 10 CFR part 52, Appendix D, as part of license amendment request 15-004, “Consolidation of Uninterruptible Power System Spare Battery Termination Boxes.”
For the reasons set forth in Section 3.1 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation that supports this license amendment, which can be found at ADAMS Accession Number ML16202A163, the Commission finds that:
A. The exemption is authorized by law;
B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;
C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;
D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;
E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and
F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1 information related to Class 1E DC and Uninterruptible Power Supply System, as described in the licensee's request dated April 9, 2015. This exemption is related to, and necessary for the granting of License Amendment No. 54, which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.
3. As explained in Section 5.0 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation that supports this license amendment (ADAMS Accession Number ML16202A163), this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.
4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.
By letter dated April 9, 2015, the licensee requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VEGP, Units 3 and 4, COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this
The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or COL, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.
Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the staff granted the exemption and issued the amendment that the licensee requested on April 9, 2015.
The exemption and amendment were issued on September 20, 2016, as part of a combined package to the licensee (ADAMS Accession No. ML16202A099).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
January 2, 9, 16, 23, 30, 2017.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of January 2, 2017.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of January 16, 2017.
Monday, January 23, 2017
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of January 30, 2017.
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0981 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 22, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 22, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 22, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on December 22, 2016, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's transaction fees at Rule 7019 (Market Data Distributor Fees) to (i) increase the Monthly Internal Distributor Fee from $500 to $750 for BX TotalView, and (ii) increase the Monthly External Distributor Fee from $1,250 to $1,500 for BX TotalView, as described further below.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to increase the Monthly Internal Distributor Fee from $500 to $750 for BX TotalView, and to increase the Monthly External Distributor Fee from $1,250 to $1,500 for BX TotalView.
TotalView is a proprietary feed that provides subscribers with full depth-of-book data on BX for Nasdaq-listed securities and securities not listed on Nasdaq. TotalView allows customers to view all displayed quotes and orders attributed to specific market participants at every price level on BX, access total displayed anonymous interest at every price level on BX, and to see the total size of all displayed quotes and orders on BX. TotalView also offers trade data for BX executions that occur on BX.
Customers may access TotalView as either a Distributor, or through Direct Access. Rule 7019(b) defines a “distributor” of Exchange data as “any entity that receives a feed or data file of Exchange data directly from the Exchange or indirectly through another entity and then distributes it either internally (within that entity) or externally (outside that entity).”
The Exchange proposed the TotalView fees, among others, in 2009, following its acquisition by Nasdaq, Inc. and the resumption of its cash equities trading business.
In support of these fees, the Exchange noted that the TotalView fee structure is similar to the structure for the TotalView data product offered by The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”), but that the overall level of fees is lower than for Nasdaq TotalView. The lower fee levels for BX TotalView reflected the start-up nature of the Exchange's new equities trading platform, and was designed help to attract order flow to the Exchange, since, at its inception, the Exchange had zero market share and therefore set its fees, including data fees, with a view to attracting order flow. Finally, the Exchange noted that the alternatives that exist for market participants to determine market depth—such as other depth of book products that may be associated with markets with more liquidity, or order routing strategies designed to ascertain market depth—provided incentives for the Exchange to ensure that its fees for BX TotalView were set reasonably.
With this proposal, BX proposes to increase the Monthly Internal Distributor Fee from $500 to $750 for BX TotalView, and increase the Monthly External Distributor Fee from
This fee increase is justified because BX has not increased the Distributor fees for TotalView since they were initially proposed in 2009, although the value of BX TotalView has increased since that time. Since 2009, BX's market share for quoting and trading of Nasdaq-listed securities and securities not listed on Nasdaq has increased, which has, in turn, increased the content and therefore the value of the TotalView product. In addition, various technical changes have enhanced TotalView by improving the performance and the resiliency of the BX matching engine, which, in turn, has improved outbound messaging through TotalView, especially during peak times of messaging traffic.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
More specifically, the SEC recognized the importance of competition in setting fees for non-core market data products when approving the TotalView fees in 2009.
The same arguments apply with respect to the proposed fee increase here. Although BX is a more mature market than in 2009, competition for order flow remains fierce, and some of the market participants that purchase TotalView are the same market participants from whom BX must attract order flow. Additionally, market participants continue to have a range of other market data products that they could purchase as alternatives to TotalView. As with the initial TotalView fees, the significant competitive pressure with respect to order flow and market data products therefore requires BX to act equitably, fairly, and reasonably in setting the terms of its proposed TotalView fees.
The Exchange also believes that the increase in the Monthly Internal Distributor Fee from $500 to $750 and the increase in the Monthly External Distributor Fee from $1,250 to $1,500 is reasonable because these fee increases reflect the current value of the TotalView product. TotalView provides comprehensive order and trade information for Nasdaq-listed securities and securities not listed on Nasdaq, and the value of a product that offers such information increases as BX's market share increases. As noted above, when TotalView was initially proposed, BX was seeking to resume its cash equities trading business, which was reflected in the initial TotalView fees. Given that BX's market share in those securities
The Exchange believes that these fees are an equitable allocation and are not unfairly discriminatory because the proposed fees for subscribers are uniform for all subscribers within a particular category,
The Exchange also believes that it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to increase the fee for internal and external distribution, and not for Direct Access. Rule 7019 provides that a distributor may distribute data either internally (within that entity) or externally (outside that entity), whereas a Direct Access subscriber is not permitted to distribute TotalView data. To the extent that the value of TotalView has increased since 2009 as the BX market has grown, the fee increase for internal and external distribution reflects this increased value and the fact that Distributors, by definition, have more ways than Direct Access subscribers to benefit from this increased value,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or fee levels available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited. In sum, if the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
Here, the proposed changes to the charges assessed for internal and external Distributors of TotalView do not impose a burden on competition because TotalView is completely voluntary and subject to extensive competition both from other exchanges and from off-exchange venues. As is discussed in greater detail below, competition for order flow remains fierce, and some of the market participants that purchase TotalView are the same market participants from whom BX must attract order flow. Firms make decisions regarding TotalView and other proprietary data based on the total cost of interacting with the Exchange, and order flow would be harmed by the supracompetitive pricing of any proprietary data product. Additionally, market participants continue to have a range of other proprietary market data products that they could purchase as alternatives to TotalView. Third, competition among Distributors for customers will further constrain the cost of TotalView. There is therefore significant competitive pressure with respect to order flow and market data products that requires BX to act equitably, fairly, and reasonably in setting the terms of its proposed TotalView fees.
Fees related to TotalView are constrained by competition among exchanges and other entities seeking to attract order flow. Order flow is the “life blood” of the exchanges. Broker-dealers currently have numerous alternative venues for their order flow, including self-regulatory organization (“SRO”) markets, as well as internalizing broker-dealers (“BDs”) and various forms of alternative trading systems (“ATSs”), including dark pools and electronic communication networks (“ECNs”). Each SRO market competes to produce transaction reports via trade executions, and two FINRA-regulated Trade Reporting Facilities (“TRFs”) compete to attract internalized transaction reports. The existence of fierce competition for order flow implies a high degree of price sensitivity on the part of BDs, which may readily reduce costs by directing orders toward the lowest-cost trading venues.
The level of competition and contestability in the market for order flow is demonstrated by the numerous examples of entrants that swiftly grew into some of the largest electronic trading platforms and proprietary data producers: Archipelago, Bloomberg Tradebook, Island, RediBook, Attain, TracECN, BATS Trading and BATS/Direct Edge. A proliferation of dark pools and other ATSs operate profitably with fragmentary shares of consolidated market volume. For a variety of reasons, competition from new entrants, especially for order execution, has increased dramatically over the last decade.
Each SRO, TRF, ATS, and BD that competes for order flow is permitted to produce proprietary data products. Many currently do or have announced plans to do so, including NYSE, NYSE Amex, NYSE Arca, BATS, and IEX. This is because Regulation NMS deregulated the market for proprietary data. While BDs had previously published their proprietary data individually, Regulation NMS encourages market data vendors and BDs to produce proprietary products cooperatively in a manner never before possible. Order routers and market data vendors can facilitate production of proprietary data products for single or multiple BDs. The potential sources of proprietary products are virtually limitless.
The markets for order flow and proprietary data are inextricably linked: a trading platform cannot generate market information unless it receives trade orders. As a result, the competition for order flow constrains the prices that platforms can charge for proprietary data products. Firms make decisions on how much and what types of data to consume based on the total cost of interacting with BX and other exchanges. Data fees are but one factor in a total platform analysis. If the cost of the product exceeds its expected value, the broker-dealer will choose not to buy it. A supracompetitive increase in the fees charged for either transactions or proprietary data has the
The price of depth-of-book data is constrained by the existence of competition from other exchanges, such as NYSE and BATS, which sell proprietary depth-of-book data. While a small number of highly sophisticated traders purchase depth-of-book products from multiple exchanges, most customers do not. Because most customers would not pay an excessive price for TotalView when substitute data is available from other proprietary sources, the Exchange is constrained in its pricing decisions.
Competition among Distributors provides another form of price discipline for proprietary data products. If the price of TotalView were set above competitive levels, Distributors purchasing TotalView would be at a disadvantage relative to their competitors, and would therefore either purchase a substitute or forego the product altogether.
In summary, market forces constrain the price of depth-of-book data such as TotalView through competition for order flow, competition from substitute products, and in the competition among vendors for customers. For these reasons, the Exchange has provided a substantial basis demonstrating that the fee is equitable, fair, reasonable, and not unreasonably discriminatory, and therefore consistent with and in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to amend FINRA Rules 7510, 7710 and 7730 to eliminate the fees for historical trade data accessed through the FINRA Automated Data Delivery System (“FINRA ADDS”) Web site relating to trades reported to the Alternative Display Facility (“ADF”), OTC Reporting Facility (“ORF”) and Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (“TRACE”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
FINRA ADDS is a data delivery system that provides members, by market participant identifier (“MPID”), access to trade journal files containing key information regarding the member's trades reported to the ADF, ORF and TRACE. FINRA ADDS also provides member clearing firms access to data regarding their correspondents' trades reported to the ORF. Members use the trade journal files to reconcile the trade information captured by their own systems and the information captured by the FINRA trade reporting systems. Members can access FINRA ADDS data via the secure FINRA ADDS Web site and via Secure File Transfer Protocol (“SFTP”).
Pursuant to Rules 7510(d), 7710(c) and 7730(g), FINRA makes recent ADF, ORF and TRACE trade journals available for free and offers subscribers the option of receiving historical data and retrieving data automatically via SFTP for a fee.
In addition, members can subscribe to receive their data for dates older than the most recent three or 30 business days through the Data Delivery Plus service for a monthly fee. Through this service, subscribers can access up to two years of trade journal files via the FINRA ADDS Web site. The fee is charged per month to an MPID that is a subscriber for Data Delivery Plus reports (“Plus Reports”), which are provided in response to requests by the MPID. The monthly fees for ORF and TRACE data are based on the subscriber's reported volume and the number of Plus Reports the subscriber receives, and for ADF data, the fees are based on the number of Plus Reports the subscriber receives. The ORF and TRACE fees range from a low of $10 to a high of $100 a month, and the ADF fees range from a low of $60 to a high of $100 a month. Thus, subscribers' fees may vary during a calendar year, depending on the number of reports FINRA makes available to the subscriber in response to the subscriber's requests. Clearing firms that subscribe to access their correspondents' historic ORF data pay a flat fee of $150 per Clearing Number per month, irrespective of the number of reports received.
FINRA is proposing to amend Rules 7510(d), 7710(c) and 7730(g) to eliminate the fees for historical data through the FINRA ADDS Web site. As such, all trade journals (recent and historical for up to two years) through the FINRA ADDS Web site will be free of charge.
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change will assist members in meeting their trade reporting and trade management obligations and will not result in any burden on members. The overall revenue that FINRA collects from fees for Plus Reports through the FINRA ADDS Web site is de minimis, and as such, FINRA does not believe that the fees warrant the administrative burden of calculating members' fees based on reported volume and number of reports under the current fee schedule. In addition, the proposed rule change would eliminate the uncertainty of the current fee schedule for members, whose fees may vary according to the number of Plus Reports the member requests. Under the proposed rule change, members will be able to request an unlimited number of reports through the FINRA ADDS Web site at no charge.
FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. The operative date will be January 3, 2017.
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(5) of the Act,
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. FINRA believes that the proposed rule change, by eliminating the fee for historical ADF, ORF and TRACE data via the FINRA ADDS Web site and enabling all ADF, ORF and TRACE participants to access their trade data at no charge, will assist members in meeting their trade reporting and trade management obligations and will not result in any burden on members. To the extent that the fees that are being proposed to be eliminated were viewed as burdensome among market participants, those participants may choose to utilize the data accessed through the FINRA ADDS Web site to reconcile with transaction and clearing data captured by their own systems, which would permit members to mitigate any direct or indirect costs imposed by the inability to reconcile such data.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Supplementary Material to ISE Rule 1901, titled “Order Protection” in connection with a system migration to Nasdaq INET technology.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this rule change is to amend the Supplementary Material to ISE Rule 1901, titled “Order Protection” to reflect the ISE, ISE Gemini, LLC and ISE Mercury, LLC technology migration to a Nasdaq, Inc. (“Nasdaq”) supported architecture. INET is the proprietary core technology utilized across Nasdaq's global markets and utilized on The NASDAQ Options Market LLC (“NOM”), NASDAQ PHLX LLC (“Phlx”) and NASDAQ BX, Inc. (“BX”) (collectively, “Nasdaq Exchanges”). The migration of ISE to the Nasdaq INET architecture would result in higher performance, scalability, and more robust architecture. With this system migration, the Exchange intends to adopt certain trading functionality currently utilized at Nasdaq Exchanges. The functionality being adopted is described in this filing.
With the re-platform, the Exchange will now be built on the Nasdaq INET architecture, which allows certain trading system functionality to be performed in parallel. The Exchange believes that this architecture change will improve the member experience by reducing overall latency compared to the current ISE, ISE Gemini, LLC and ISE Mercury, LLC system because of the manner in which the system is segregated into component parts to handle processing.
Pursuant to Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901, when the automatic execution of an incoming order would result in an impermissible trade-through, such order is exposed at the current national best bid or offer to all members for a time period established by the Exchange not to exceed one (1) second.
The Exchange intends to begin implementation of the proposed rule change in tandem with a technology migration to Nasdaq INET architecture. The migration will be on a symbol by symbol basis, and the Exchange will issue a notice to provide Members with notification of the symbols that will migrate and the relevant dates. With respect to the amendment to Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901, the rule change impact not only ISE, but also ISE Gemini, LLC and ISE Mercury, LLC because Chapter 19 is incorporated by reference into those rulebooks. The Exchange proposes that the implementation of this rule change into each rulebook occur as specified herein. ISE rule changes will be implemented in Q2 2017 on a symbol by symbol basis, as noted above. ISE Gemini, LLC rule changes will be implemented in Q1 2017 on a symbol by symbol basis. ISE Mercury, LLC rule changes will be implemented in Q3 2017 on a symbol by symbol basis. The Exchange will add the following rule text to make clear the implementation date in each rulebook: “The amended rule text will be implemented on a symbol by symbol basis for ISE Gemini, LLC in Q1 2017, for ISE in Q2 2017 and for ISE Mercury, LLC in Q3 2017, the specific dates will be announced in a separate notice.”
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange's proposal to amend Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901 to add a new provision to memorialize the impact of a trading halt on the exposure period is consistent with the Act because halting the exposure period without execution provides certainty to market participants with respect to how their interest will be handled in the event of a trading halt. This method will also provide consistency of behavior across market centers. Memorializing this behavior will increase transparency of the operation of the Exchange for the benefit of Members and investors.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. As explained above, the Exchange is re-platforming it's trading system onto the Nasdaq INET architecture, and is making certain other changes to its trading functionality in connection with this migration. Amending the Supplementary Material .02 to Rule 1901 will not impact the intense competition that exists in the options market. In fact, the Exchange believes that this proposal will provide clarity as to the manner in which a trading halt impacts exposure periods, thereby providing certainty to all market participants.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend NYSE Arca Equities Rules 7.11, 7.31, and 7.34 to specify order behavior for orders entered via the Pillar phase II protocols. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend NYSE Arca Equities Rules 7.11 (Limit Up-Limit Down Plan and Trading Pauses in Individual Securities Due to Extraordinary Market Volatility) (“Rule 7.11”), 7.31 (Orders and Modifiers) (“Rule 7.31”), and 7.34 (Trading Sessions) (“Rule 7.34”) to specify order behavior for orders entered via the Pillar phase II protocols.
On January 29, 2015, the Exchange announced the implementation of Pillar, which is an integrated trading technology platform designed to use a single specification for connecting to the equities and options markets operated by the Exchange and its affiliates, NYSE MKT, Inc. (“NYSE MKT”) and New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE”).
ETP Holders enter orders and order instructions by using communication protocols that map to the order types and modifiers described in Exchange rules. Currently, all ETP Holders communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace using Pillar phase I protocols. The Exchange is introducing new technology to support how ETP Holders communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace (“Pillar phase II protocols”). Because Pillar phase II protocols will support new order functionality, the Exchange proposes to revise its rules to reflect these changes.
During this implementation, there will be a period when both the Pillar phase I and Pillar phase II protocols will be available to ETP Holders. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to amend its rules to describe how an ETP Holder's orders would behave depending on the protocol an ETP Holder chooses to use.
Currently, under Rule 7.11 any Limit Order that is priced or would trade outside of a Price Band under the Plan
As proposed, when using Pillar phase II protocols, the default behavior would be to reprice Limit Orders rather than cancel them if they would trade or are priced through the Price Bands. In addition, the Exchange proposes to offer a discretionary instruction to cancel such orders rather than reprice them. This proposed default behavior is similar to how Limit Orders are processed on the Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”).
To effect these changes, the Exchange proposes new Rule 7.11(a)(5P), which would specify order behavior for all orders under the Pillar phase II protocols. Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P) would thus consolidate into a single sub-section of Rule 7.11(a) all repricing and cancellation behavior for orders, rather than have this content separated into two sub-sections of Rule 7.11(a), as under the current Rule. Rules 7.11(a)(5) and (a)(6) would continue to govern order processing when an ETP Holder uses Pillar phase I protocols.
Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P) would provide that Exchange systems would reprice or cancel buy (sell) orders that are priced or could be traded above (below) the Upper (Lower) Price Band.
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(A) would govern those order types that would be cancelled if they are priced or could trade at prices outside the Price Bands. This proposed rule text would not make any substantive changes to the current rule and is based on current Rule 7.11(a)(5)(A), which describes the default behavior to cancel orders, and Rule 7.11(a)(6)(A), which specifies the order types that are not eligible for repricing instructions. The Exchange proposes a non-substantive change to restructure the rule into a single sub-paragraph that describes how these orders would be processed when an ETP Holder sends orders using Pillar Phase II protocols.
As proposed, incoming Market Orders, Limit Orders designated IOC, and Day ISOs would be traded, or if applicable, routed to an Away Market, to the fullest extent possible, subject to Rule 7.31(a)(1)(B) (Trading Collars for Market Orders) and 7.31(a)(2)(B) (price check for Limit Orders) at prices at or within the Price Bands. This list of order types is based on the list of order types not eligible for repricing instructions in current Rule 7.11(a)(6)(A).
Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(A)(ii) would further provide that if Price Bands move and the working price of a resting Market Order or Day ISO to buy (sell) is above (below) the updated Upper (Lower) Price Band, such orders would be cancelled. This is new rule text designed to provide additional transparency regarding how resting Market Orders or Day ISOs would be processed if Price Bands move into the working price of such orders. Consistent with proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(A)(i) that states that such orders would not be repriced if they were to trade outside of the Price Bands, such orders would also be cancelled if they were required to be repriced due to a change in Price Bands.
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(B) would set forth the proposed default behavior to reprice a Limit Order priced through the Price Bands, unless the Exchange receives an instruction to cancel such an order. As proposed, incoming Limit Orders would be traded, or if applicable, routed to an Away Market, to the fullest extent possible, subject to Rule 7.31(a)(2)(B) (price check for Limit Orders) at prices at or within the Price Bands. Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(B)(i) would further provide that, unless the ETP holder has entered an instruction to cancel any quantity of a Limit Order that cannot be traded or routed at prices at or within the Price Bands, such order would be assigned a working price, and if applicable, display price, at the Upper (Lower) Price Band, consistent with the terms of the order.
Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(B)(ii) would provide that the repricing of Limit Orders would be applicable to both incoming and resting orders and if the Price Bands move and the limit price of a repriced order is at or within the Price Band, such Limit Order would be adjusted to its limit price. This proposed rule text is based on current Rule 7.11(a)(6)(B) without any substantive changes. The Exchange proposes a non-substantive change to use the term “limit price” instead of “original limit price” because under Rule 7.36(a)(2), the term “limit price” means the highest (lowest) specified price at which a Limit Order to buy (sell) is eligible to trade. Thus, use of the word “original” with the term “limit price” is redundant.
Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(B)(iii) would provide that Primary Until 9:45 Orders and Primary After 3:55 Orders would be priced under Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(B) only when such orders are entered on or resting on the NYSE Arca Book. This proposed rule text is based on the second sentence of Rule 7.11(a)(6)(A), without any substantive changes.
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(C) would specify how sell short orders would be processed and is based on current Rule 7.11(a)(6). The Exchange proposes a substantive change to the proposed rule text to reflect the proposed new default processing for Limit Orders,
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(D) would provide that incoming Q Orders to buy (sell) with a limit price above (below) the Upper (Lower) Price Band would be rejected. The proposed rule would further provide that if Price Bands move and the limit price of a resting Q Order to buy (sell) is above (below) the updated Upper (Lower) Price Band, the
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(E) would provide that Limit IOC Cross Orders with a cross price above (below) the Upper (Lower) Price Band would be rejected. This proposed rule text is based on current Rule 7.11(a)(5)(B), with a non-substantive change to refer to “Limit IOC Cross Orders” rather than “Cross Orders.” Under Rule 7.31(g), the only form of Cross Order available at the Exchange is a Limit IOC Cross Order.
• Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(F) would provide that if the midpoint of the PBBO is above (below) the Upper (Lower) Price Band, an MPL Order to buy (sell) would not be repriced or rejected and would not be eligible to trade and would further provide that an MPL Order would be cancelled or rejected if the ETP Holder enters an instruction to cancel or reject such MPL Order. This proposed rule text is based in part on current Rule 7.11(a)(6)(C), which states that an MPL Order that has an instruction to reprice will not cancel, but will not be repriced or be eligible to trade if the midpoint of the PBBO is below the Lower Price Band or above the Upper Price Band. Proposed Rule 7.11(a)(5P)(F) is different than current Rule 7.11(a)(6)(C) to reflect that the new default behavior is to reprice rather than cancel Limit Orders. As applied to MPL Orders, ETP Holders using Pillar Phase II protocol would not need to include an instruction to reprice an MPL Order. The proposed default behavior for MPL Orders would be that such orders would not be repriced or rejected and would not be eligible to trade outside of the Price Bands. Consistent with the proposed discretionary instruction to cancel a Limit Order, the Exchange proposes to include a discretionary instruction to cancel (a resting) or reject (an incoming) an MPL Order to buy (sell) if the midpoint of the PBBO is above (below) the Upper (Lower) Price Band.
Finally, to provide transparency regarding which rules would govern order behavior under the different protocols, the Exchange proposes to add the following preamble to Rule 7.11:
Rules 7.11(a)(5) and (a)(6) govern order processing when ETP Holders communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace using Pillar phase I protocols. Rule 7.11(a)(5P) governs order processing when ETP Holders communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace using Pillar phase II protocols. The Exchange will file a separate proposed rule change to delete Rules 7.11(a)(5) and (a)(6) when the Pillar phase I protocols are no longer available.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.31 to reflect that under the Pillar phase II protocols, the Exchange would use an ETP Holder's MPID, rather than an ETP ID, to assess whether to apply Self-Trade Prevention Modifiers (“STP”) against two matching orders. To reflect this change, the Exchange proposes to add new subsection (E) to Rule 7.31(i)(2) that would provide that for purposes of STP, references to ETP ID mean an ETP ID when using Pillar phase I protocols to communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace or an MPID when using Pillar phase II protocols to communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.34 to reflect that under the Pillar phase II protocols, the Exchange would reject orders that do not include a designation for which trading session(s) the order will remain in effect. Current Rule 7.34(b)(1) provides that any order entered into the NYSE Arca Marketplace must include a designation for which trading session(s) the order will remain in effect.
However, current Rule 7.34(b)(2) further provides that an order with a day time-in-force instruction entered before or during the Early Trading Session will be deemed designated for the Early Trading Session and the Core Trading Session. Current Rule 7.34(b)(3) further provides that an order with a day time-in-force instruction entered during the Core Trading Session will be deemed designated for the Core Trading Session. Accordingly, under current rules, orders that include a day designation, but do not include a trading session designation, will be accepted and deemed designated for the specified trading sessions.
The Exchange proposes that when ETP Holders use Pillar phase II protocols to enter an order, the Exchange would reject any order that does not include a trading session designation, including day orders entered during the Early or Core Trading Sessions. To reflect this functionality, the Exchange proposes to add the following sentence to Rule 7.34(b)(1): “For ETP Holders that communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace using Pillar phase II protocols, orders entered without a trading session designation will be rejected.” To specify that the current rule processing is available only for orders entered via the Pillar phase I protocols, the Exchange proposes to add the following introductory text to Rules 7.34(b)(2) and (3): “For ETP Holders that communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace using Pillar phase I protocols.”
Because of the technology changes associated with this proposed rule change, the Exchange will announce the implementation date by Trader Update. The Exchange anticipates implementing these changes before the end of the first quarter 2017.
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
Specifically, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to reprice Limit Orders that would trade or are priced through the Price Bands under the Plan rather than cancel them, and instead offer a discretionary instruction to cancel such orders, would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by promoting the display of orders. In addition, the proposed changes are similar to how Nasdaq operates.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to specify that an ETP Holder's MPID rather than ETP ID would be used for STP purposes when an ETP Holder uses Pillar phase II protocols would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by providing notice to ETP Holders of which orders would be matched for purposes of STP, depending on the communication protocol that they use.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change to reject orders that do not include a trading session designation would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system because it provides transparency and uniformity of the circumstances when an order would be rejected.
The Exchange further believes that amending Exchange rules to specify order behavior depending on which Pillar protocol is used to communicate with the NYSE Arca Marketplace would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system by providing transparency to investors and the public.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would not impose any burden on competition because the proposed changes to how Limit Orders would be processed if priced through the Price Bands is similar to the rules of a competing exchange, and thus is familiar behavior to market participants. The proposed change to reject orders if they do not include a trading session designation is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather, would promote transparency and uniformity by specifying when an order would be rejected.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d), and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The requested order would permit (a) index-based series of certain open-end management investment companies (“Funds”) to issue shares
Northern Lights Fund Trust IV (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company, and Blue Sky Asset Management, LLC (the “Initial Adviser”), a Colorado limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”).
The application was filed on August 16, 2016, and amended on November 21, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on January 17, 2017, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: Northern Lights Fund Trust IV, 17605 Wright Street, Omaha, NE 68130, and Blue Sky Asset Management, LLC, 6400 S. Fiddlers Green Circle, Suite 350, Greenwood Village, CO 80111.
Deepak T. Pai, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6876, or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6814 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order that would allow Funds to operate as index exchange traded funds (“ETFs”).
2. Each Fund will hold investment positions selected to correspond generally to the performance of an Underlying Index. In the case of Self-Indexing Funds, an affiliated person, as defined in section 2(a)(3) of the Act (“Affiliated Person”), or an affiliated person of an Affiliated Person (“Second-Tier Affiliate”), of the Trust or a Fund, of the Adviser, of any sub-adviser to or promoter of a Fund, or of the Distributor will compile, create, sponsor or maintain the Underlying Index.
3. Shares will be purchased and redeemed in Creation Units and generally on an in-kind basis. Except where the purchase or redemption will include cash under the limited circumstances specified in the application, purchasers will be required to purchase Creation Units by depositing specified instruments (“Deposit Instruments”), and shareholders redeeming their shares will receive specified instruments (“Redemption Instruments”). The Deposit Instruments and the Redemption Instruments will each correspond pro rata to the positions in the Fund's portfolio (including cash positions) except as specified in the application.
4. Because shares will not be individually redeemable, applicants request an exemption from section 5(a)(1) and section 2(a)(32) of the Act that would permit the Funds to register as open-end management investment companies and issue shares that are redeemable in Creation Units only.
5. Applicants also request an exemption from section 22(d) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act as secondary market trading in shares will take place at negotiated prices, not at a current offering price described in a Fund's prospectus, and not at a price based on NAV. Applicants state that (a) secondary market trading in shares does not involve a Fund as a party and will not result in dilution of an investment in shares, and (b) to the extent different prices exist during a given trading day, or from day to day, such variances occur as a result of third-party market forces, such as supply and demand. Therefore, applicants assert that secondary market transactions in shares will not lead to discrimination or preferential treatment among purchasers. Finally, applicants represent that share market prices will be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities, which should prevent shares from trading at a material discount or premium from NAV.
6. With respect to Funds that effect creations and redemptions of Creation Units in kind and that are based on certain Underlying Indexes that include foreign securities, applicants request relief from the requirement imposed by section 22(e) in order to allow such Funds to pay redemption proceeds within fifteen calendar days following the tender of Creation Units for redemption. Applicants assert that the requested relief would not be inconsistent with the spirit and intent of
7. Applicants request an exemption to permit Funds of Funds to acquire Fund shares beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act; and the Funds, and any principal underwriter for the Funds, and/or any broker or dealer registered under the Exchange Act, to sell shares to Funds of Funds beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The application's terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help prevent any potential (i) undue influence over a Fund through control or voting power, or in connection with certain services, transactions, and underwritings, (ii) excessive layering of fees, and (iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
8. Applicants request an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act to permit persons that are Affiliated Persons, or Second Tier Affiliates, of the Funds, solely by virtue of certain ownership interests, to effectuate purchases and redemptions in-kind. The deposit procedures for in-kind purchases of Creation Units and the redemption procedures for in-kind redemptions of Creation Units will be the same for all purchases and redemptions and Deposit Instruments and Redemption Instruments will be valued in the same manner as those investment positions currently held by the Funds. Applicants also seek relief from the prohibitions on affiliated transactions in section 17(a) to permit a Fund to sell its shares to and redeem its shares from a Fund of Funds, and to engage in the accompanying in-kind transactions with the Fund of Funds.
9. Applicants also request relief to permit a Feeder Fund to acquire shares of another registered investment company managed by the Adviser having substantially the same investment objectives as the Feeder Fund (“Master Fund”) beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(A) and permit the Master Fund, and any principal underwriter for the Master Fund, to sell shares of the Master Fund to the Feeder Fund beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(B).
10. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On June 20, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade Shares of the Fund under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares. The Fund is a series of J.P. Morgan Exchange-Traded Fund Trust (“Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust.
The Fund will seek to provide long-term total return and will seek to achieve its investment objective by employing an event-driven investment strategy, primarily investing in companies that the Adviser believes will be impacted by pending or anticipated corporate or special situation events. Under normal market conditions,
The Adviser will make use of derivatives (as described below) in implementing its strategies. Under normal market conditions, the Adviser currently expects that a significant portion of the Fund's exposure will be attained through the use of derivatives in addition to its exposure through direct investments. Derivatives will primarily be used as an efficient means of implementing a particular strategy in order to gain exposure to a desired return factor. For example, the Fund may use a total return swap to establish both long and short positions in order to gain the desired exposure rather than physically purchasing and selling short each instrument. Derivatives may also be used to increase gain, to effectively gain targeted exposure from its cash positions, to hedge various investments, and/or for risk management. As a result of the Fund's use of derivatives and to serve as collateral, the Fund may hold significant amounts of U.S. Treasury obligations, including Treasury bills, bonds and notes and other obligations issued or guaranteed by the U.S. Treasury, other short-term investments, including money market funds, and foreign currencies, in which certain derivatives are denominated.
The amount that may be invested in any one instrument will vary and generally depend on the return factors employed by the Adviser at that time. However, with the exception of specified investment limitations for certain assets described below, there are no stated percentage limitations on the amount that can be invested in any one type of instrument, and the Adviser may, at times, focus on a smaller number of instruments. Moreover, the Fund will generally be unconstrained by any particular capitalization, style, or sector, and may invest in any developed region or country. The Adviser will make use of quantitative models and information and data supplied by third parties to, among other things, help determine the portfolio's weightings among various investments and construct sets of transactions and investments.
In addition to its main return factors, the Fund may utilize return factors that use debt securities. The Fund may invest, either directly or through financial derivative instruments, debt securities that are subject to a downgrade from investment grade to non-investment grade (also known as high yield/junk bond) status. For example, the Fund may invest in the bonds that have been downgraded while hedging credit risk more broadly by using credit default swaps indices in order to attempt to keep the Fund's exposure market neutral.
The Exchange has made the following representations and statements in describing the Fund.
Under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest principally (
The Fund may invest in exchange-listed and traded common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants and rights of U.S. and foreign corporations (including emerging market securities), and U.S. and non-U.S. real estate investment trusts (“REITs”). Exchange-listed and traded common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants and rights of U.S. corporations, and U.S. REITs will be traded on U.S. national securities exchanges.
The Fund may invest in exchange-listed and OTC “Depositary Receipts”
The Fund may invest in the following cash and cash equivalents: Investments in money market funds (for which the Adviser and/or its affiliates serve as investment adviser or administrator), bank obligations,
The Fund may invest in corporate debt.
In addition to money market funds referenced above, the Fund may invest in shares of non-exchange-traded investment company securities, that is, mutual fund shares, including mutual fund shares for which the Adviser and/or its affiliates may serve as investment adviser or administrator, to the extent permitted by Section 12(d)(1)
In addition, the Fund may invest in exchange traded funds (“ETFs”),
The Fund may invest in U.S. Government obligations, which may include direct obligations of the U.S. Treasury, including Treasury bills, notes and bonds, all of which are backed as to principal and interest payments by the full faith and credit of the United States, and separately traded principal and interest component parts of such obligations that are transferable through the Federal book-entry system known as Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities and Coupons Under Book Entry Safekeeping.
While the Fund, under normal market conditions, will invest at least fifty percent (50%) of its assets in the securities and financial instruments described above, the Fund may invest its remaining assets in other assets and financial instruments, as described below.
The Fund may invest in U.S. and non-U.S. convertible securities, which are bonds or preferred stock that can convert to common stock. The common stock into which convertible securities can be converted will be exchange-traded.
The Fund may invest in reverse repurchase agreements.
The Fund may invest in sovereign obligations, which are investments in debt obligations issued or guaranteed by a foreign sovereign government or its agencies, authorities, or political subdivisions.
The Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets in equity and debt securities that are restricted securities (Rule 144A securities), in addition to Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, as referenced below.
Under normal market conditions, the Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets, in the aggregate, in OTC common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights, and CVRs of U.S. and foreign corporations (including emerging market securities).
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance. The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of liquidity is being maintained, and will consider taking appropriate steps in order to maintain adequate liquidity if, through a change in values, net assets, or other circumstances, more than 15% of the Fund's net assets are held in illiquid assets. Illiquid assets include securities subject to contractual or other restrictions on resale and other instruments that lack readily available markets as determined in accordance with Commission staff guidance.
The Fund may invest in other investment companies to the extent permitted by Section 12(d)(1) of the 1940 Act and rules thereunder and/or any applicable exemption or exemptive order under the 1940 Act with respect to such investments.
The Fund may invest in securities denominated in U.S. dollars, major reserve currencies, and currencies of other countries in which the Fund may invest.
The Fund may invest in both investment grade and high yield debt securities.
The Fund intends to qualify for and to elect treatment as a separate regulated investment company under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code. Furthermore, the Fund may not concentrate investments in a particular industry or group of industries, as concentration is defined under the 1940 Act, the rules or regulations thereunder,
The Fund is a diversified series of the Trust. The Fund intends to meet the diversification requirements of the 1940 Act.
The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
The Fund proposes to seek certain exposures through transactions in the specific derivative instruments described above. The derivatives to be used are futures, swaps, NDFs, foreign forward currency contracts, and call and put options. Derivatives, which are instruments that have a value based on another instrument, exchange rate, or index, may also be used as substitutes for securities in which the Fund can invest. The Fund may use these derivative instruments to increase gain, to effectively gain targeted exposure from its cash positions, to hedge various investments, and/or for risk management.
Investments in derivative instruments will be made in accordance with the 1940 Act and consistent with the Fund's investment objective and policies. To limit the potential risk associated with such transactions, the Fund will segregate or “earmark” assets determined to be liquid by the Adviser in accordance with procedures established by the Trust's Board of Trustees and in accordance with the 1940 Act (or, as permitted by applicable regulation, enter into certain offsetting positions) to cover its obligations under derivative instruments. These procedures have been adopted consistent with Section 18 of the 1940 Act and related Commission guidance. In addition, the Fund will include appropriate risk disclosure in its offering documents, including leveraging risk. Leveraging risk is the risk that certain transactions of the Fund, including the Fund's use of derivatives, may give rise to leverage, causing the Fund to be more volatile than if it had not been leveraged.
The Exchange states that, according to the Adviser, there will be minimal impact to the arbitrage mechanism as a result of the use of derivatives. Market makers and participants should be able to value derivatives as long as the positions are disclosed with relevant information. The price at which Shares trade will continue to be disciplined by arbitrage opportunities created by the ability to purchase or redeem creation Shares at their NAV, which should ensure that Shares will not trade at a material discount or premium in relation to their NAV.
In addition, the Exchange states that, according to the Adviser, there will not be any significant impacts to the settlement or operational aspects of the Fund's arbitrage mechanism due to the use of derivatives. Because derivatives generally are not eligible for in-kind transfer, they will typically be substituted with a “cash in lieu” amount when the Fund processes purchases or redemptions of creation units in-kind.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the Exchange's proposal to list and trade the Shares is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
The Commission also finds that the proposal to list and trade the Shares on the Exchange is consistent with Section 11A(a)(1)(C)(iii) of the Act,
In addition, the Intra-day Indicative Value (“IIV”), which is the Portfolio Indicative Value, as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(c)(3), will be widely disseminated by one or more major market data vendors at least every 15 seconds during the Core Trading Session.
With respect to specific derivatives:
• NDFs and foreign forward currency contracts may be valued intraday using market quotes, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• Futures may be valued intraday using the relevant futures exchange data, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• CDS and CDS indices swaps may be valued using intraday data from market
• Total return swaps may be valued intraday using the underlying asset price, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• Exchange-listed options may be valued intraday using the relevant exchange data, or another proxy as determined to be appropriate by the third party market data provider.
• OTC options may be valued intraday through option valuation models (
On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Core Trading Session (normally, 9:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m., Eastern Time or “E.T.”) on the Exchange, the Adviser will disclose on the Fund's Web site the Disclosed Portfolio for the Fund as defined in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600(c)(2) that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day.
The NAV of Shares, under normal market conditions, will be calculated each business day as of the close of the Exchange, which is typically 4:00 p.m. E.T. On occasion, the Exchange will close before 4:00 p.m. E.T. When that happens, NAV will be calculated as of the time the Exchange closes.
Price information for OTC common stocks (including certain OTC ADRs), preferred stocks, warrants, rights, and CVRs will be available from one or more major market data vendors or broker-dealers in the securities. Quotation information for OTC options, cash equivalents, swaps, money market funds, non-exchange-listed investment company securities (other than money market funds), Rule 144A securities, U.S. Government obligations, U.S. Government agency obligations, sovereign obligations, corporate debt, and reverse repurchase agreements may be obtained from brokers and dealers who make markets in such securities or through nationally recognized pricing services through subscription agreements. The U.S. dollar value of foreign securities, instruments, and currencies can be derived by using foreign currency exchange rate quotations obtained from nationally recognized pricing services. Forwards and spot currency price information will be available from major market data vendors. The Fund's Web site will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information.
The Commission believes that the proposal to list and trade the Shares is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 7.12 have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable,
The Exchange represents that it has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, non-public information by its employees. In addition, Commentary .06 to NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600 further requires that personnel who make decisions on the open-end fund's portfolio composition must be subject to procedures designed to prevent the use and dissemination of material, non-public information regarding the open-end fund's portfolio. The Exchange represents that the Adviser is not registered as a broker-dealer, but is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to such broker-dealer affiliate regarding access to information concerning the composition of, and changes to, the portfolio.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in an Information Bulletin (“Bulletin”) of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. The Exchange represents that that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by the Exchange as well as cross-market surveillances administered by the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The Exchange represents that it deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering the trading of the Shares subject to the Exchange's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities.
In support of this proposal, the Exchange has made the following additional representations:
(1) The Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600.
(2) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(3) The Exchange's surveillance procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
(4) The Exchange, or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares, certain exchange-listed equity securities (including Depositary Receipts, ETFs, REITs, common and preferred stocks, common stock into which convertible securities can be converted, warrants, rights, certain futures, and certain exchange-traded options with other markets and other entities that are members of the ISG, and the Exchange or FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, or both, may obtain trading information regarding trading such securities and financial instruments from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in such securities and financial instruments from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
(5) Not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund, in the aggregate, invested in equity securities (other than mutual fund shares) shall consist of equity securities, including common stock into which convertible securities can be converted and Depositary Receipts, whose principal market is not a member of the ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, not more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund in the aggregate invested in futures contracts or exchange-traded options shall consist of futures contracts or options whose principal market is not a member of ISG or is a market with which the Exchange does not have a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
(6) Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its Equity Trading Permit Holders in a Bulletin of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Bulletin will discuss the following: (a) the procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Unit aggregations (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (b) NYSE Arca Equities Rule 9.2(a), which imposes a duty of due diligence on its Equity Trading Permit Holders to learn the essential facts relating to every customer prior to trading the Shares; (c) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Opening and Late Trading Sessions when an updated IIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (d) how information regarding the IIV and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (e) the requirement that Equity Trading Permit Holders deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (f) trading information. The Bulletin will also discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act.
(7) For initial and continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
(8) Exchange-listed and traded common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants and rights of U.S. corporations, and U.S. REITs will be traded on U.S. national securities exchanges. In addition, no more than 10% of the net assets of the Fund will be invested in Depositary Receipts that are not exchange-listed, and the common stock into which convertible securities holdings can be converted will be exchange-traded.
(9) The ETFs in which the Fund may invest will be registered under the 1940 Act and include Investment Company Units (as described in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 5.2(j)(3)); Portfolio Depositary Receipts (as described in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.100); and Managed Fund Shares (as described in NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600). Such ETFs all will be listed and traded in the U.S. on registered exchanges. While the Fund may invest in inverse ETFs, the Fund will not invest in leveraged or inverse leveraged (
(10) The Adviser expects that, under normal market conditions, the Fund will invest at least 75% of its corporate debt securities in issuances that have at least $100,000,000 par amount outstanding in developed countries, or at least $200,000,000 par amount outstanding in emerging market countries.
(11) The Fund will limit its investments in currencies to those currencies with a minimum average daily foreign exchange turnover of USD $1 billion as determined by the BIS Triennial Central Bank Survey.
(12) The Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets in equity and debt securities that are restricted securities (Rule 144A securities), in addition to Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser. In addition, under normal market conditions, the Fund may invest no more than 5% of its assets, in the aggregate, in OTC common stocks, preferred stocks, warrants, rights, and CVRs of U.S. and foreign corporations (including emerging market securities).
(13) The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser, consistent with Commission guidance. The Fund will monitor its portfolio liquidity on an ongoing basis to determine whether, in light of current circumstances, an adequate level of
(14) The Fund's investments, including derivatives, will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and will not be used to enhance leverage (although certain derivatives may result in leverage). That is, while the Fund will be permitted to borrow as permitted under the 1940 Act, the Fund's investments will not be used to seek performance that is the multiple or inverse multiple (
(15) Investments in derivative instruments will be made in accordance with the 1940 Act and consistent with the Fund's investment objective and policies. To limit the potential risk associated with such transactions, the Fund will segregate or “earmark” assets determined to be liquid by the Adviser in accordance with procedures established by the Trust's Board of Trustees and in accordance with the 1940 Act (or, as permitted by applicable regulation, enter into certain offsetting positions) to cover its obligations under derivative instruments. These procedures have been adopted consistent with Section 18 of the 1940 Act and related Commission guidance. In addition, the Fund will include appropriate risk disclosure in its offering documents, including leveraging risk. Leveraging risk is the risk that certain transactions of the Fund, including the Fund's use of derivatives, may give rise to leverage, causing the Fund to be more volatile than if it had not been leveraged.
The Exchange also represents that all statements and representations made in this filing regarding (a) the description of the portfolio, (b) limitations on portfolio holdings or reference assets, or (c) the applicability of Exchange rules and surveillance procedures shall constitute continued listing requirements for listing the Shares of the Fund on the Exchange.
The issuer has represented to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by the Fund to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will monitor for compliance with the continued listing requirements.
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's representations, including those set forth above and in the Notice,
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 2, and 3 thereto, is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Nasdaq Rules 11140 (Transactions in Securities “Ex-Dividend,” “Ex-Rights” or “Ex-Warrants”), 11150 (Transactions “Ex-Interest” in Bonds Which Are Dealt in “Flat”), 11210 (Sent by Each Party), 11320 (Dates of Delivery), 11620 (Computation of Interest), and IM-11810 (Sample Buy-In Forms), to conform to the Commission's proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from three business days after the trade date (“T+3”) to two business days after the trade date (“T+2”) and the industry-led initiative to shorten the settlement cycle from T+3 to T+2.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements
On September 28, 2016, the Commission proposed amending SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from T+3 to T+2 on the basis that the shorter settlement cycle would reduce the risks that arise from the value and number of unsettled securities transactions prior to the completion of settlement, including credit, market, and liquidity risk directly faced by U.S. market participants.
In 1995, the standard U.S. trade settlement cycle for equities, municipal and corporate bonds, and unit investment trusts, and financial instruments composed of these products was shortened from five business days after the trade date (“T+5”) to T+3.
In April 2014, the Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation (“DTCC”) published its formal recommendation to shorten the standard U.S. trade settlement cycle to T+2 and announced that it would partner with market participants and industry organizations to devise the necessary approach and timelines to achieve T+2.
In an effort to improve the overall efficiency of the U.S. settlement system by reducing the attendant risks in T+3 settlement of securities transactions, and to align U.S. markets with other major global markets that have already moved to T+2, DTCC, in collaboration with the financial services industry, formed an Industry Steering Committee (“ISC”) and an industry working group and sub-working groups to facilitate the move to T+2.
In light of the SEC Proposing Release that would amend SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to require standard settlement no later than T+2 and similar proposals from other SROs,
The details of the proposed rule change are described below.
Rule 11140(b)(1) provides that for dividends or distributions, and the issuance or distribution of warrants, that are less than 25 percent of the value of the subject security, if definitive information is received sufficiently in advance of the record date, the date designated as the “ex-dividend date” shall be the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, or the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day designated by Nasdaq Regulation as a non-delivery date. Nasdaq is proposing to shorten the time frames in Rule 11140(b)(1) by one business day.
Rule 11150(a) prescribes the manner for establishing “ex-interest dates” for transactions in bonds or other similar evidences of indebtedness which are traded “flat.” Such transactions are “ex-interest” on the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, on the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day other than a business day, or on the third business day preceding the date on which an interest payment is to be made if no record date has been fixed. Nasdaq is proposing to shorten the time frames in Rule 11150(a) by one business day.
Paragraphs (c) and (d) of Rule 11210 set forth the “Don't Know” (“DK”) voluntary procedures for using “DK Notices” or other forms of notices, respectively. Depending upon the notice used, a confirming member may follow the “DK” procedures when it sends a comparison or confirmation of a trade (other than one that clears through the National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”) or other registered clearing agency), but does not receive a comparison or confirmation or a signed “DK” from the contra-member by the close of four business days following the trade date of the transaction (“T+4”). The procedures generally provide that after T+4, the confirming member shall send a “DK Notice” (or similar notice) to the contra-member. The contra-member then has four business days after receipt of the confirming member's notice to either confirm or “DK” the transaction.
Nasdaq is proposing to amend paragraphs (c) and (d) of Rule 11210 to provide that the “DK” procedures may be used by the confirming member if it does not receive a comparison or confirmation or signed “DK” from the contra-member by the close of one business day following the trade date of the transaction, rather than the current T+4.
Rule 11320 prescribes delivery dates for various transactions. Paragraph (b) states that for a “regular way” transaction, delivery must be made on, but not before, the third business day after the date of the transaction. Nasdaq is proposing to amend Rule 11320(b) to change the reference to third business day to second business day. Paragraph (c) provides that in a “seller's option” transaction, delivery may be made by the seller on any business day after the third business day following the date of the transaction. Nasdaq is proposing to amend Rule 11320(c) to change the reference to third business day to second business day.
In the settlement of contracts in interest-paying securities other than for cash, Rule 11620(a) requires the calculation of interest at the rate specified in the security up to, but not including, the third business day after the date of the transaction. The proposed amendment would shorten the time frame to the second business day. In addition, the proposed amendment would make non-substantive technical changes to the title of paragraph (a).
Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) sets forth the fail-to-deliver and liability notice procedures where a securities contract is for warrants, rights, convertible securities or other securities which have been called for redemption; are due to expire by their terms; are the subject of a tender or exchange offer; or are subject to other expiring events such as a record date for the underlying security and the last day on which the securities must be delivered or surrendered is the settlement date of the contract or later.
Under Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A), the receiving member delivers a liability notice to the owing counterparty. The liability notice sets a cutoff date for the delivery of the securities by the counterparty and provides notice to the counterparty of the liability attendant to its failure to deliver the securities in time. If the owing counterparty, or delivering member, delivers the securities in response to the liability notice, it has met its delivery obligation. If the delivering member fails to deliver the securities on the expiration date, it will be liable for any damages that may accrue thereby.
Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) further provides that when both parties to a contract are participants in a registered clearing agency that has an automated liability notification service, transmission of the liability notice must be accomplished through such system.
Given the proposed shortened settlement cycle, Nasdaq is proposing to amend Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) in situations where both parties to a contract are not participants of a registered clearing agency with an automated notification service, by extending the time frame for delivery of the liability notice. Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) would be amended to provide that in such cases, the receiving member must send the liability notice to the delivering member as soon as practicable but not later than two hours prior to the cutoff time set forth in the instructions on a specific offer or other event to obtain the protection provided by the Rule. Nasdaq believes that extending the time given to the receiving member to transmit liability notifications will maintain the efficiency of the notification process while mitigating the possible overuse of such notifications.
Currently, Nasdaq understands that the identity of the counterparty, or delivering member, becomes known to the receiving member by mid-day on the business day after trade date (“T+1”), and by that time, the receiving member will generally also know which transactions are subject to an event identified in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) that would prompt the receiving member to issue a liability notice to the delivering member. Nasdaq believes that the receiving member regularly issues liability notices to the seller or other parties from which the securities involved are due when the security is subject to an event identified in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) during the settlement cycle as a way to mitigate the risk of a potential fail-to-deliver. In the current T+3 settlement environment, the one business day time frame gives the receiving member the requisite time needed to identify the parties involved and undertake the liability notification process.
However, Nasdaq believes that the move to a T+2 settlement environment will create inefficiencies in the liability notification process under Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) when both parties to a contract are not participants in a registered clearing agency with an automated notification service. The shorter settlement cycle, with the loss of one business day, would not afford the receiving member sufficient time to: (1) ascertain that the securities are subject to an event listed in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) during the settlement cycle; (2) identify the delivering member and other parties from which the securities involved are due; and (3) determine the likelihood that such parties may fail to deliver. Where the receiving member has sufficient time (
Nasdaq will announce the effective date of the proposed rule change in an Equity Regulatory Alert, which date would correspond with the industry-led transition to a T+2 standard settlement, and the effective date of the Commission's proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to require standard settlement no later than T+2.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change makes changes to rules pertaining to securities settlement and is intended to facilitate the implementation of the industry-led transition to a T+2 settlement cycle. Moreover, the proposed rule changes are consistent with the SEC's proposed amendment to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) to require standard settlement no later than T+2. Accordingly, Nasdaq believes that the proposed changes do not impose any burdens on the industry in addition to those necessary to implement amendments to SEA Rule 15c6-1(a) as described and enumerated in the SEC Proposing Release.
These conforming changes include changes to rules that specifically establish the settlement cycle as well as rules that establish time frames based on settlement dates, including for certain post-settlement rights and obligations. Nasdaq believes that the proposed changes set forth in the filing are necessary to support a standard settlement cycle across the U.S. for secondary market transactions in equities, corporate and municipal bonds, unit investment trusts, and financial instruments composed of these
A previous version of the proposed rule change was published for comment in Equity Regulatory Alert 2016-4 on May 18, 2016. Two comments were received in response to the Regulatory Alert.
Both of the letters received expressed support for the industry led move to T+2 stating, among other benefits, that the move will align U.S. markets with international markets that already work in the T+2 environment, improve the overall efficiency and liquidity of the securities markets, and the stability of the financial system by reducing counterparty risk and pro-cyclical and liquidity demands, and decreasing clearing capital requirements. SIFMA also provided their view on the proposed amendments to two rules under the Nasdaq Rule 11800 Series (Buying In).
In its comment letter, SIFMA raised a concern with the one-day time frame in Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A), asserting that the requirement for the delivering member to deliver a liability notice to the receiving member no later than one business day prior to the latest time and the date of the offer or other event in order to obtain the protection provided by the Rule may no longer be appropriate in a T+2 environment in some situations such as where the delivery obligation is transferred to another party as a result of continuous net settlement, settlements outside of the NSCC, and settlements involving a third party that is not a Nasdaq member firm. SIFMA noted that NYSE Rule 180 (Failure to Deliver) includes a similar requirement for NYSE member firms that are participants in a registered clearing agency to transmit liability notification through an automated notification service and proposed amending Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) to omit the reference to a notification time frame, which would align with NYSE Rule 180.
While Nasdaq did not initially propose amendments to Rule IM-11810 for the T+2 initiative,
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule to increase the fees charged to Exchange Members
In addition, the Exchange proposes to continue to offer Members the opportunity to reduce their Firm transaction fees by $0.02 per executed contract resulting from simple order executions in standard options in the Penny Pilot.
The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed change to the Fee Schedule effective as of January 1, 2017.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fee Schedule to increase the fees charged to Exchange Members
In addition, the Exchange proposes to continue to offer Members the opportunity to reduce their Firm transaction fees by $0.02 per executed contract resulting from simple order executions in standard options in the Penny Pilot.
The Exchange proposes to implement the proposed change to the Fee Schedule effective as of January 1, 2017.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposal is similar to the transaction fees found on other options exchanges; therefore, the Exchange believes the proposal is consistent with robust competition by increasing the intermarket competition for order flow from market participants. The proposal aligns the fees of market participants who are not Priority Customers or MIAX Options Market Makers on the Exchange, as well as aligns such fees assessable to Members to those charged by other exchanges for the same market participant type. Enhanced market quality and increased transaction volume that results from the anticipated increase in order flow directed to the Exchange will benefit all market participants and improve competition on the Exchange.
The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and to attract order flow. The Exchange believes that the proposal reflects this competitive environment.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act” or “Act”)
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act”)
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On December 14, 2016, ICE entered into an agreement with the Exchange pursuant to which its wholly-owned subsidiary NYSE Group would acquire all of the outstanding capital stock of the Exchange (the “Acquisition”). As a result of the Acquisition, the Exchange would be renamed NYSE National, Inc. (“NYSE National”) and would be operated as a wholly-owned subsidiary of NYSE Group. NYSE Group is a wholly-owned subsidiary of NYSE Holdings, which is in turn 100% owned by ICE Holdings. ICE, a public company listed on the New York Stock Exchange LLC (the “NYSE”), owns 100% of ICE Holdings.
Following the Acquisition, the Exchange would continue to be registered as a national securities exchange and as a separate self-regulatory organization (“SRO”). As such, the Exchange would continue to have separate rules, membership rosters, and listings that would be distinct from the rules, membership rosters, and listings of the three other registered national securities exchanges and SROs owned by NYSE Group, namely, the NYSE, NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”), and NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) (together, the “NYSE Exchanges”).
In connection with the Acquisition and as discussed more fully below, the Exchange proposes to amend its Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws and make certain conforming amendments to the headings on the cover page, Table of Contents and first page of the Exchange's rulebook as well as Rules 2.10, 5.7, and the Schedule of Fees and Rebates. Generally, the amendments would reflect the Exchange's proposed new ownership and, in certain cases, align the Exchange's governance provisions to those of other NYSE Exchanges that the Commission has already approved, as described in greater detail below.
The Exchange also proposes amendments to the following organizational documents of NYSE Group and its intermediary and ultimate parent entities:
• ICE bylaws and director independence policy,
• ICE Holdings bylaws and certificate of incorporation,
• NYSE Holdings operating agreement, and
• NYSE Group bylaws and certificate of incorporation.
These proposed changes would reflect the proposed new ownership of the Exchange by the NYSE Group, and, indirectly, ICE.
The Exchange would effect the changes described herein following approval of this rule filing no later than February 28, 2017, on a date determined by its Board.
In connection with the Acquisition, the Exchange proposes to make various revisions to its Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws. Following consummation of the transaction, the Exchange would become part of a corporate family that would include four separate exchanges. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that it is important for each of the four exchanges to have a consistent approach to corporate governance. Therefore, to simplify and create greater consistency with the organizational documents and governance practices of the NYSE Exchanges, the Exchange proposes to revise certain provisions of its Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws.
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes to the Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws are consistent with the requirements of the Exchange Act. Finally, in proposing these revisions to the Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws, the Exchange emphasizes that it also believes that the proposed rule change is not inconsistent with the Order Instituting Administrative and Cease-and-Desist Proceedings Pursuant to Sections 19(h) and 21C of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, Making Findings, and Imposing Remedial Sanctions and Cease-and-Desist Order, entered by the Commission on May 19, 2005 (the “2005 Order”).
Set forth below are the specific proposed changes to the Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws.
The Exchange proposes to make the following amendments to its Certificate of Incorporation.
• To reflect the Exchange's name change, it proposes to replace “National Stock Exchange” with “NYSE National” before the word “Inc.” in the heading, the preamble, Article First and in the signature block.
• In the preamble, the Exchange proposes to add (a) “, and February 18, 2015” following “December 30, 2011” to reflect the last time the Certificate of Incorporation was restated, (b) a reference to Section 228 of the General Corporation Law of the State of Delaware.
The Exchange proposes to restructure and augment Article Third to conform the “Purpose” section to Article 3 of the certificate of incorporation of NYSE Arca.
Proposed subsection (a) would describe the first purpose of the Corporation as being to conduct and carry on the functions of an “exchange,” as that term is defined in the Exchange Act, and state that, in connection with managing the business and affairs of the Exchange, the Exchange Board shall consider applicable requirements for registration as a national securities exchange under Section 6(b) of the Exchange Act, including, without limitation, the requirements that (i) the rules of the Exchange shall be designed to protect investors and the public interest, and (ii) the Exchange shall be so organized and have the capacity to carry out the purposes of the Exchange Act and to enforce compliance by its members, as that term is defined in Section 3 of the Exchange Act (such statutory members being hereinafter referred to as the “ETP Holders”), and persons associated with its ETP Holders, with the provisions of the Exchange Act, the rules and regulations thereunder, and the rules of the Exchange. In addition, proposed subsection (a) would state that the rules of the Exchange may set forth provisions for the regulation of the conduct of ETP Holders, the dues and assessments payable by ETP Holders, the grounds for and the method of expulsion from the status as an ETP Holder and other termination of trading permits held by ETP Holders, the limitations upon or qualifications of the voting power of ETP Holders and such other matters pertaining to the ETP Holders, including the transfer of trading permits, as the Board shall from time to time determine.
Proposed subsection (b) would describe the second purpose as to maintain high standards of commercial honor and integrity among the Exchange's ETP Holders.
Proposed subsection (c) would describe the third purpose as to promote and inculcate just and equitable principles of trade and business.
Finally, proposed subsection (d) would reflect the current text of the “Purpose” section except that the “t” in “to” would be capitalized. Proposed subsection (d) would describe the fourth purpose as to engage in any lawful act or activity for which corporations may be organized under the General Corporation Law of Delaware.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the “Authorized Stock” section of the Certificate of Incorporation to indicate that NYSE Group would be the shareholder. Accordingly, the Exchange would delete the phrase “At all times, a” in the second sentence and begin the sentence with “All.” The Exchange would add “issued and” before “outstanding” and “shares of” after “outstanding” and before “stock” and replace the phrase “owned by National Stock Exchange Holdings, Inc., a Delaware corporation.” with “held by NYSE Group, Inc., a corporation organized and existing under the Delaware General Corporation Law (“NYSE Group”).”
• The Exchange proposes to amend the “Board of Directors” section of the Certificate of Incorporation to replace “ETP Holder Director” with “Non-Affiliated Director” to reflect changes proposed in Section 3.2 of the Bylaws, which are described below.
• The Exchange proposes to amend the “Bylaws” section of the Certificate of Incorporation. In describing the effectiveness of changes to the Bylaws that require a rule filing, the Exchange proposes to replace the current formulation “approved by or filed with” with “filed with or filed with and approved by,” to reflect the fact that, while all changes to the Bylaws must be filed with the Commission, not all rule filings are approved by the Commission. Because “Exchange Act” would be defined in the new text in Article Third, the Exchange proposes to remove the definition in Article Seventh by deleting “Securities” before “Exchange [sic] and the phrase “Act of 1934, as amended (the `Act').”
The Exchange proposes to make the following amendments to the Bylaws.
“Third” would be changed to “Fourth” and “National Stock Exchange” would be replaced with “NYSE National” on the cover page
The Exchange proposes to add and remove certain definitions. Most of the changes to the definitions relate to the proposed amendments to the composition of the Exchange Board in proposed Section 3.2, discussed below, to make the composition of the Board consistent with the make-up of the board of directors of NYSE Arca.
Currently, subsections F-H and J-M are marked “reserved.” Because under the proposed revision subsection (I) would be reserved, the Exchange proposes to amend the list of reserved subsections to read “F.-M. Reserved.”. In current Section 1.1(E)(4), which defines “Exchange”, “NYSE National” would replace “National Stock Exchange.”
The Exchange proposes to restructure and amend Article III of the Bylaws governing the powers, composition, nomination and election of its Board to more closely align the Bylaws with those of the other NYSE Exchanges. To effect these changes, the Exchange proposes to restructure Article III, Section 3.2 (General Composition) of the Bylaws, as follows.
The Bylaws currently provide that the Board is composed of between 7 and 25 directors, the exact number of which is determined by the Board. The Exchange proposes to amend Section 3.2 so that the number of directors would be determined from time to time by the stockholders, provided that the Board must meet the composition requirements in the Bylaws. This change would be consistent with the operating agreements of the NYSE and NYSE MKT, which both provide that the number of directors is determined by the member, provided that the boards of directors meet the composition requirements set out in the operating agreement.
In addition, the Exchange proposes to make the composition of the Board consistent with the make-up of the board of directors of NYSE Arca and its subsidiary NYSE Arca Equities, Inc. (“NYSE Arca Equities”).
New paragraph (a) would require that the Board be made up as follows:
(1) At least fifty percent (50%) of the directors would be persons from the public and would not be, or be affiliated with, a broker-dealer in securities or employed by, or involved in any material business relationship with, the Exchange or its affiliates (“Public Directors”); and
(2) at least twenty percent (20%) of the directors would consist of individuals nominated by the ETP Holders of the Exchange (“Non-Affiliated Directors”).
The Exchange proposes that subsection (a) retain the provision from current subsection (b) that the term of office of a director shall not be affected by any decrease in the authorized number of directors.
Proposed new subsection (b) would provide that nominees for a director position shall provide such information as is reasonably necessary to serve as the basis for a determination of the nominee's qualifications as a director, and that the Secretary shall make such determination concerning the nominee's qualifications.
Proposed subsection (c) would provide that at the first annual meeting and at each subsequent annual meeting of the stockholders, except as otherwise provided by the Bylaws, the stockholders would elect directors to serve until the next annual meeting or until their successors are elected and qualified.
Proposed new subsection (d) would specify that, except as otherwise provided in the Bylaws or its Rules, the stockholders shall nominate directors for election at the annual meeting of the stockholders and that such nominations shall comply with the Rules and the Bylaws.
Current subsection (d) would become new proposed subsection (e).
Second, the Exchange proposes to replace current Article III, Section 3.4 with text from Section 3.02(e) of the NYSE Arca Bylaws. The proposed provision would be renumbered as Section 3.3, which is currently marked “Reserved.” Proposed Section 3.3 would provide that each director shall hold office for a term that expires at the annual meeting of the stockholders next following his or her election, provided that if he or she is not re-elected and his or her successor is not elected and qualified at the meeting and there remains a vacancy on the Board, he or she shall continue to serve until his or her successor is elected and qualified or until his or her earlier death, resignation or removal. Proposed Section 3.3 would also provide that a director may serve for any number of terms, consecutive or otherwise. It would replace the current Section 3.4, which breaks out the term provision by category of director.
Third, current Article III, Section 3.5 (Nomination and Election) would become new Section 3.4, and would incorporate the NYSE Arca process for nominating Non-Affiliate Directors.
The Exchange proposes to retain current subsection (a), but because it proposes to consolidate the ETP Holder Director Nominating Committee and Governance and Nominating Committee into one committee, the “Nominating Committee,” it would accordingly delete “Governance and” from proposed Article III, Section 3.4(a).
The Exchange proposes to delete the remaining subsections (b) through (f) of current Article III, Section 3.5. In their place, the Exchange proposes two new subsections (b) and (c), based on NYSE Arca Rule 3.2(b)(2)(C)(i) and (ii).
Proposed Article III, Section 3.4(b) would provide that the Nominating Committee shall publish the name(s) of one or more ETP Holders or Persons Associated with an ETP Holder (in any combination) as its nominee(s) for Non-Affiliated Directors of the Board of Directors of the Exchange. The Nominating Committee would name sufficient nominees so that at least twenty percent of the directors consist of Non-Affiliated Directors. The proposal would further provide that the names of the nominees shall be published on a date in each year sufficient to accommodate the process described. The date would be known as the “Announcement Date.”
Further, proposed Section 3.4(b) would provide that, after the name of proposed nominee(s) is published, ETP Holders in good standing may submit a petition to the Exchange in writing to nominate additional eligible candidate(s) to fill Non-Affiliated Director position(s) during the next term. Further, if a written petition of at least 10 percent of ETP Holders in good standing were submitted to the Nominating Committee within two weeks after the Announcement Date, such person(s) would also be nominated by the Nominating Committee, provided, however, that no ETP Holder, either alone or together with other ETP Holders that are deemed its affiliates, may account for more than 50% of the signatories to the petition endorsing a particular petition nominee for the Non-Affiliated Director position(s) on the Board.
Proposed Article III, Section 3.5(c) would set forth the petition election process, providing that, in the event that the number of nominees exceeds the number of available seats, the Nominating Committee shall submit the contested nomination to the ETP Holders for selection. The proposed Section contemplates that ETP Holders shall be afforded a confidential voting procedure and shall be given no less than 20 calendar days to submit their votes. Under the proposed Section, each ETP Holder in good standing may select one nominee for the contested seat on the Board of Directors; provided, however that no ETP Holder, either alone or together with other ETP Holders who are deemed its affiliates, may account for more than 20% of the votes cast for a particular nominee for the Non-Affiliated Director position(s) on the Board of Directors of the Exchange. With respect to the contested position, the proposed Section would provide that the nominee for the Board receiving the most votes of ETP Holders shall be submitted by the Nominating Committee to the Board and that the Nominating Committee shall also submit uncontested nominees to the Board. Under the proposed Section, tie votes shall be decided by the Board of Directors at its first meeting following the election.
Current Section 3.6 describes the election and role of the Board Chairman. The Exchange proposes to renumber Section 3.6 as new Section 3.5. The Exchange would delete the second sentence of the current Section 3.6 in its entirety, which currently provides that the Chairman may also serve as the CEO and/or President of the Exchange, but may hold no other offices in the Exchange and that unless the Chairman of the Board also serves as the Exchange CEO, the Board shall elect the Chairman from among the Non-Industry Directors. The proposed Section 3.5 would be consistent with the Bylaws of NYSE Arca, which provide that the board of directors appoints the Chairman by majority vote.
Current Section 3.7 describes the process for filling Board vacancies. The Exchange proposes to renumber Section 3.7 as new Section 3.6, and to make changes to the text to be consistent with Section 3.03 of the NYSE Arca Bylaws.
Current Section 3.7(a)(i) provides that, notwithstanding any provision in the Bylaws to the contrary, any vacancy in the Board, however occurring, including a vacancy resulting from an increase in the number of the directors, may be filled by vote of a majority of the directors then in office, although less than a quorum, or by a sole remaining director, provided such new director qualifies for the category in which the vacancy exists. The Exchange proposes to provide that vacancies would be filled by the Chairman of the Board, subject to approval by a vote of a majority of directors, as is provided in Section 3.03 of the NYSE Arca Bylaws. To effect this change, the phrase “the Chairman of the Board, subject to approval by” would be added after “filled by” and “vote of” immediately following the proposed insertion and before “a majority” would be deleted. The Exchange also proposes to add a new second sentence that would provide that any vacancy will be filled with a person who satisfies the classification (
Current Section 3.7(a)(ii) governs the filling of a vacancy resulting from an ETP Holder Director position becoming vacant prior to the expiration of such ETP Holder Director's term, or resulting from the creation of an additional ETP Holder Director position. The Exchange proposes conforming changes to replace “ETP Holder” Director with “Non-Affiliated” Director throughout proposed Section 3.6(a)(ii) and to delete “ETP Holder Director” in two instances before “Nominating Committee.” The Exchange would also delete the parenthetical in current Section 3.7(b) referring to subsection (c), which as noted below would be deleted. References to Section 3.7 throughout the section would be updated with references to proposed Section 3.6.
The Exchange proposes to delete the remaining subsections of current Article III, Section 3.7. Subsection (c) allows the Board in its discretion to provide a director with a grace period for re-qualification, and subsection (d) would allow an ETP Holder Director not to lose his or her qualification as a director by reason of a suspension. The governing documents of the NYSE Exchanges do not have similar provisions, and so the Exchange proposes to remove them from the Bylaws.
Current Article III, Section 3.8 governs the removal of directors. The Exchange proposes to renumber it Section 3.7 and replace one reference to “ETP Holder Director” with “Non-Affiliated Director.”
Current Article III, Sections 3.9 through 3.15 would be renumbered Section 3.8 through 3.14, respectively. No further changes to these Sections are proposed.
Current Article III, Section 3.16, governing compensation of directors, would be amended to provide that the shareholders, rather than the Board, would have authority to fix compensation of all directors. The change would be consistent with the operating agreements of the New York Stock Exchange and NYSE MKT, which
Current Article III, Section 3.17, governing the Board's power to interpret the Bylaws, would be deleted in its entirety. The governing documents of the NYSE Exchanges do not have similar provisions, and so the Exchange proposes to remove them from the Bylaws.
The Exchange proposes to reduce the number of Board committees following the Acquisition. The Exchange would retain the disciplinary committees (
Article V, Section 5.2 governs appointment, vacancies, and removal of Board committee members. Currently, these functions are undertaken by the Chairman of the Board with Board approval. The Exchange proposes that, consistent with the NYSE Exchanges,
The Exchange proposes that the Exchange CEO, rather than the Chairman of the Board, would fill any committee vacancies, consistent with NYSE Arca Rule 3.2(a)(5). To effect this change, the remaining current text of Section 5.2 governing vacancies would form new subsection (b), and the Exchange would replace “Chairman of the Board” in the existing text with “Chief Executive Officer of the Exchange” after “filled by the.”
Proposed new Article V, Section 5.3 would set forth general provisions applicable to Board committees. The Exchange proposes that the last two sentences of current Section 5.2 would become new Section 5.3(a). The existing text would be amended to reflect that, in appointing new members to Board committees, the Board and not the Chairman of the Board would be responsible for determining that any such committee meets the composition requirements of Article V.
The Exchange also proposes to add subsections (b) through (e) of Section 5.3, which are substantially the same as NYSE Arca Rules 3.2(a)(2)-(4) and (10).
Proposed Section 5.3(b) would provide that the presence of a majority of the members of a committee shall be necessary to constitute a quorum for the transaction of business at a meeting of a committee.
Proposed Section 5.3(c) would provide that the act of a majority of the members present at any meeting at which there is a quorum shall be the act of such committee, except as may be otherwise specifically required by the Bylaws, Exchange Rules, or applicable law.
Proposed Section 5.3(d) would provide that, unless otherwise restricted by the Bylaws, the Rules, applicable law, or rules of the particular committee, members of a committee or of any subcommittee thereof may participate in meetings by means of conference call or similar communications equipped [sic] by means of which all persons participating in the meeting can hear each other, and such participation shall constitute presence in person at the meeting.
Finally, proposed subsection (e) of Section 5.3 would provide that no member of a committee shall participate in the adjudication of any matter in which he or she is personally interested, although his or her presence at a meeting at which such matter is considered shall count toward the quorum requirements for the meeting.
The Exchange proposes to change current Section 5.3 (Powers and Duties of Committees) to Section 5.4. Current Section 5.4 (Conduct of Proceedings) would be renumbered Section 5.5.
The Exchange proposes to recast current Section 5.6 governing the ROC to make it more consistent with the ROCs established by the NYSE Exchanges, as follows.
The Exchange proposes a new subsection (a) that would provide that the Board shall, on an annual basis, appoint the ROC. The existing text of current Section 5.6, with certain minor exceptions, would be deleted.
The Exchange proposes two new subsections (b) and (c) to proposed Section 5.6. First, proposed Section 5.6(b) would describe the ROC composition as consisting of at least three members, each of whom shall be a Public Director of the Exchange.
Second, proposed Section 5.6(c) would set forth the proposed ROC's responsibilities, which would be to:
• oversee the Exchange's regulatory and self-regulatory organization responsibilities;
• evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the Exchange's regulatory and self-regulatory organization responsibilities;
• assess the Exchange's regulatory performance; and
• advise and make recommendations to the Board or other committees of the Board about the Exchange's regulatory compliance, effectiveness and plans.
These three [sic] core responsibilities of the proposed ROC would be substantially similar to those of the ROCs of other SROs.
In furtherance of these functions, proposed new subsection (c) of Section 5.6 would provide the ROC with the authority and obligation to review the regulatory budget of the Exchange and specifically inquire into the adequacy of resources available in the budget for regulatory activities. Under the proposed amendment, the ROC would be charged with meeting regularly with the Chief Regulatory Officer (“CRO”) in executive session and, in consultation with the Exchange's CEO, establish the goals, assess the performance, and recommend the CRO's compensation. Finally, under the proposed rule, the ROC would be responsible for keeping the Board informed with respect to the foregoing matters.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change governing the ROC's authority and responsibility to oversee the adequacy and effectiveness of the Exchange's performance of its self-regulatory responsibilities is consistent with previously approved rule changes for other SROs and would enable the Exchange to discharge its regulatory responsibilities under a corporate governance structure that is consistent with its affiliates and industry peers.
Section 5.7 describes the current ETP Holder Director Nominating Committee. Consistent with the Exchange's proposal to have only one Nominating Committee to nominate Non-Affiliated Directors, as described above, “ETP Holder Director” would be deleted before “Nominating Committee” and “Non-Affiliated” substituted for “ETP Holder” before “Directors” in proposed Section 5.7.
Current Section 5.11 governing the Appeals Committee would be retained and renumbered Section 5.8. The proposed amendments to Section 5.8 would reflect the proposed changes in the makeup of the Board. Specifically, it would provide that the Appeals Committee shall consist of at least one Public Director and at least one Non-Affiliated Director.
Article VI, Section 6.1 describes the officers of the Exchange. The Exchange proposes that, rather than require that certain officers be appointed, the Board shall elect officers of the Exchange as it deems appropriate, which may include a CEO, President, CRO, Secretary, Treasurer, and such other officers as the Board may determine. The proposed change would be consistent with Section 5.01 of the NYSE Arca Bylaws. To effect this change, the Exchange proposes to add “Board shall elect” before “officers” in the first sentence and add “as it deems appropriate, which may include” in place of “shall consist of.”
The Exchange would delete the text of current Section 6.2 governing compensation and the next heading such that current Section 6.3 regarding tenure and appointment would become proposed Section 6.2. Current Section 6.2 provides that the Board or a Board committee shall fix the compensation of
Current Section 6.3 governing removal and vacancies would become new Section 6.4.
Current Section 6.5 governing powers and duties would become new Section 6.4.
Current Section 6.6 governing appointment of an arbitration director would be deleted, as there is no similar provision in the governing documents of the NYSE Exchanges.
The Exchange proposes to restructure its indemnification policies to align with those of its affiliates. Accordingly, the Exchange has amended Article VII to be substantially the same as Article VII of the NYSE Arca bylaws.
Current Section 7.1 would be renamed “Indemnification” and “Extent of” in the heading deleted.
Subsection (a) of Article VII, Section 7.1 would be amended to remove the reference to maximum not prohibited by the Delaware General Corporation Law and clarify that the Exchange will indemnify employees and agents, and not solely directors or officers in actions other than those by or in the right of the Exchange. These proposed changes would conform the formulations in current subsection (a) to those in Article VII of the NYSE Arca bylaws.
To effect these changes, the Exchange would delete “shall, to the maximum extent not prohibited by the General Corporation Law of Delaware or any other applicable laws as” and “from time to time be in effect” in the first sentence and the reference to “hold harmless” after “indemnify”. References to “director” would be replaced by “an employee” and references to “officer” would be replaced by “agent” throughout. The parenthetical clause “other than an action by or in the right of the Exchange” would also be added in the place of a comma after “investigative.” Additional text would be added to the penultimate sentence, to provide that a person indemnified under Section 7.1(a) would be indemnified if he or she acted in good faith and in a manner he or she reasonably believed to be in or not opposed to the best interests of the Exchange and, with respect to any criminal action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe his or her conduct was unlawful. Further, the paragraph would provide that the termination of any action, suit or proceeding by judgment, order, settlement, conviction, or upon a plea of nolo contendere or its equivalent shall not, of itself, create a presumption that such person did not act in good faith and in a manner which they reasonably believed to be in or not opposed to the best interests of the Exchange, and, with respect to any criminal action or proceeding, had reasonable cause to believe that their conduct was unlawful. The last sentence of the first full paragraph of subsection (a) providing that the Exchange shall be required to indemnify an Indemnified Person in connection with an action, suit or proceeding initiated by such person only if such action, suit or proceeding was authorized by the Board, would be deleted.
The Exchange also proposes the following non-substantive changes to Section 7.1(a): replacing a reference to “corporation” with “Exchange”; deleting “all” before “expenses” and adding “and expenses” after “attorneys' fees”; and replacing “such Indemnified Person” with “him or her.”
The Exchange also proposes to delete the entire second full paragraph of current Section 7.1(a).
The following Sections would be deleted in their entirety: Section 7.2. (Expenses), Section 7.3 (Contract), Section 7.4 (Discretionary Indemnification Coverage), Section 7.5 (Continuity of Indemnification and Non-Exclusivity), Section 7.6 (Insurance), and Section 7.7 (Exchange Not Liable).
The Exchange proposes to add new subsections (b) through (j) to Section 7.1, as follows, to align the Exchange's indemnification policy with Article VII of the NYSE Arca bylaws.
Proposed subsection (b) would specify that the Exchange may indemnify any person who was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any threatened, pending or completed action or suit by or in the right of the Exchange to procure a judgment in its favor by reason of the fact that he or she is or was an employee or agent of the Exchange, or is or was serving at the request of the Exchange as an employee or agent of another Exchange, partnership, joint venture, trust or other enterprise against expenses (including attorneys' fees and expenses) actually or reasonably incurred by him or her in connection with the defense or settlement of such action or suit if he or she acted in good faith and in a manner he or she reasonably believed to be in or not opposed to the best interests of the Exchange. The proposed subsection would also specify that no indemnification shall be made in respect of any claim, issue or matter as to which such person shall have been adjudged to be liable to the Exchange unless the Court of Chancery of the State of Delaware or the court in which such action or suit was brought shall determine, despite the adjudication of liability but in view of all the circumstances of the case, that such person is fairly and reasonably entitled to indemnity for such expenses the court deems proper.
Proposed subsection (c) would provide that, to the extent that an employee or agent of the Exchange has been successful on the merits or otherwise in defense of any action, suit or proceeding referred to in proposed subsections (a) and (b), or in defense of any claim, issue or matter therein, they shall be indemnified by the Exchange against expenses (including attorneys' fees and expenses) actually and reasonably incurred by them in connection therewith.
Proposed subsection (d) would specify that any indemnification under proposed subsections (a) and (b) (unless ordered by a court) shall be made by the Exchange only as authorized in the specific case upon a determination that indemnification of the employee or agent is proper in the circumstances because he or she has met the applicable standard of conduct set forth in proposed subsections (a) and (b) and under applicable law. Proposed subsection (d) would further provide that such determination shall be made, with respect to a person who is a director or officer at the time of such determination (1) by a majority vote of the directors who are not parties to such action, suit or proceeding, even though less than a quorum, or (2) by a committee of such directors designated by majority vote of such directors, even though less than a quorum, or (3) if there are no such directors, or, if such directors so direct, by independent legal counsel in a written opinion, or (4) by the stockholders.
Proposed subsection (e) would provide that the Exchange shall indemnify, to the fullest extent permitted by applicable law as such may be amended from time to time, any person who was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any threatened, pending or completed action, suit or proceeding, whether civil,
Proposed subsection (f) would provide that the indemnification provided by Section 7.1 as proposed shall not be deemed exclusive of any other rights to which those seeking indemnification may be entitled under any Bylaw, agreement, vote of the stockholders or disinterested directors or otherwise.
Proposed subsection (h) would clarify that for purposes of proposed Section 7.1, references to “the Exchange” shall include, in addition to the resulting Exchange, any constituent Exchange (including any constituent of a constituent) absorbed in a consolidation or merger which, if its separate existence had continued, would have had power and authority to indemnify its officers, floor officials, directors, ETP Holder committee members and employees or agents.
Proposed subsection (i) would clarify that for purposes of proposed Section 7.1, references to “other enterprises” shall include employee benefit plans; references to “fines” shall include any excise taxes assessed on a person with respect to an employee benefit plan; and references to “serving at the request of the Exchange” shall include any service as a director, officer, employee or agent of the Exchange which imposes duties on, or involves services by, such director, officer, employee or agent with respect to an employee benefit plan, its participants or beneficiaries; and a person who acted in good faith and in a manner he reasonably believed to be in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries of an employee benefit plan shall be deemed to have acted in a manner “not opposed to the best interests of the Exchange” as referred to in proposed Section 7.1.
Finally, proposed subsection (j) would provide that if any provision or provisions of proposed Section 7.1 shall be held to be invalid, illegal or unenforceable for any reason whatsoever, the validity, legality and enforceability of the remaining provisions shall not be affected or impaired and that, to the fullest extent possible, shall be construed so as to give effect to the intent manifested by the provision held invalid, illegal or unenforceable.
Article VIII, Section 8.1 describes the Board's power to adopt, amend or repeal the Bylaws. The Exchange proposes to update the cross references to Sections 3.1 through 3.8, Section 3.12, and Section 4.5, to reflect the proposed changes to Article III discussed above. Accordingly, the cross references would be updated to read “Sections 3.1 through 3.7, Section 3.11, or Section 4.5 of these By-Laws.”
In addition, the Exchange proposes to delete the last three sentences of current Section 8.2, which governs amendment or repeal of Exchange Rules. Such sentences provide that all proposals to adopt, alter or amend any rule shall be presented in writing to the Board by the Chairman of the Board, and that the Board shall act on the proposal. The Exchange proposes to align its processes to adopt, alter or amend any rule with those of the NYSE Exchanges, which provide that senior management may approve proposed rule changes pursuant to authority delegated to it by the relevant board of directors.
Article X, Section 8.1 describes certain considerations relevant to the Exchange's SRO function.
The Exchanges proposes to revise current Section 10.2 governing participation in Board and committee meetings. The Section would be amended to require that all Board and committee meetings relating to the structure of the market which the Exchange regulates (in addition to meetings pertaining to the Exchange's SRO function) shall also be closed to all persons other than members of the Board and officers, staff, counsel or other advisors. To effect this change, the Exchange would add “or relating to the structure of the market which the Exchange regulates” in two places. The Exchange would also replace a reference to “National Stock Exchange Holdings” with “NYSE Group.” The changes will make Section 10.2 consistent with Section 3.13 of the NYSE Arca bylaws.
The current text of Section 10.4, which governs Exchange use of regulatory fees and penalties would also be deleted and replaced with a statement that any regulatory assets or any regulatory fees, fines or penalties collected by the Exchange's regulatory staff will be applied to fund the legal, regulatory and surveillance operations of the Exchange, and the Exchange shall not distribute such assets, fees fines or penalties to pay dividends or be distributed to any other entity. This language is substantially similar to the formulation recently approved for the NYSE and NYSE MKT.
The Exchange proposes to make the following conforming amendments to Rules 2.10 and 5.7 and to the Schedule of Fees and Rebates:
• The Exchange proposes to amend the cover page of the Rules, the Table of Contents and the first page of the Rules above the heading “CHAPTER I. Adoption, Interpretation and Application of Rules, and Definitions” to replace “National Stock Exchange” with “NYSE National,” before the word “Inc.” The cover page would also be amended to replace “November 8” following “Updated through” and the number 6 in “2016” with placeholders for the effective date of the new rules.
• Rule 2.10 (No Affiliation between Exchange and any ETP Holder) prohibits the Exchange or any affiliated entity from acquiring or maintaining an ownership interest in an ETP Holder but does not prohibit any ETP Holder from being or becoming an affiliate of the Exchange, or an affiliate of any affiliate of the Exchange, solely by reason of such ETP Holder or any officer, director, manager, managing member, partner or affiliate of such ETP Holder being or becoming either (a) an ETP Holder Director or an At-Large Director pursuant to the bylaws, or (b) a member
To reflect the proposed amendment to Section 3.2 of the Bylaws as discussed above, the Exchange proposes to replace the phrase “ETP Holder Director or an At-Large Director” with “Non-Affiliated Director.”
• Rule 5.7 (Annual Certification of Compliance and Supervisory Processes) requires the chief executive officer of each ETP Holder to provide an annual certification regarding certain of its processes. The Exchange proposes to replace two references in the Rule to “National Stock Exchange” with “NYSE National” before the word “Inc.” The Exchange proposes to replace two references in the Rule to “National Stock Exchange” with “NYSE National” before the word “Inc.”
• The Exchange proposes to amend the heading and first sentence of the Schedule of Fees and Rebates to add “NYSE” before “National” and to delete “Stock Exchange” and the defined term “NSX.” The Exchange would also replace “NSX” before “Depth of Book feed” in the Market Data section of the price list with “NYSE National”.
The Exchange proposes that, in connection with the Acquisition, the Commission approve the organizational documents of ICE and its wholly-owned subsidiaries ICE Holdings and NYSE Group and the Independence Policy of the Board of Directors of Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE Independence Policy”), all of which are to be amended concurrently with the Acquisition to reflect ownership of the Exchange.
The current organizational documents of ICE and its wholly-owned subsidiaries provide certain protections to the NYSE Exchanges that are designed to protect and facilitate their self-regulatory functions, including certain restrictions on the ability to vote and own shares of ICE.
In addition, obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE), Inc. (formerly NYSE Market, Inc.) (“NYSE Market (DE)”), and NYSE Regulation, Inc. (“NYSE Regulation”) found in various documents are proposed to be deleted.
The ICE Bylaws would be amended to reflect the Acquisition and incorporate the Exchange in the ICE Bylaws' existing voting and ownership restrictions, provisions relating to the qualifications of directors and officers and their submission to jurisdiction, compliance with the federal securities laws, access to books and records, and other matters related to its control of the U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries.
Specifically, the ICE Bylaws would be amended as follows:
• The definition of “U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries” in Article III, Section 3.15, which currently includes the New York Stock Exchange, NYSE Market (DE), NYSE Regulation, NYSE Arca, LLC, NYSE Arca, NYSE Arca Equities, and NYSE MKT, would be amended to include the Exchange. The obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation would also be deleted.
• Article VIII (Confidential Information), Section 8.1, would be amended to extend to the Exchange the same protection regarding confidential information provided to the NYSE Exchanges and NYSE Arca Equities, and to remove the obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation.
• Article XI, Section 11.3, provides that, for so long as ICE controls any of the U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries, any amendment to or repeal of the ICE Bylaws must either be (i) filed with or filed with and approved by the Commission under Section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated thereunder, or (ii) submitted to the boards of directors of the U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries or the boards of directors of their successors, in each case only to the extent that such entity continues to be controlled directly or indirectly by ICE. Section 11.3 would be amended to include the Exchange, and to delete the obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation.
The ICE Bylaws would be further amended to add a new Article XII (Voting and Ownership Limitations). New Section 12.1.a of Article XII would provide that, subject to its fiduciary obligations under applicable law, for so long as ICE directly or indirectly controls the Exchange (or its successor), the board of directors of ICE shall not adopt any resolution pursuant to clause (b) of Section A.2 of Article V of the certificate of incorporation of ICE (which relates to ICE board of directors approval of ownership of ICE capital stock by a person together with its related persons in excess of 20%), unless the board of directors of ICE shall have determined that:
• In the case of a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights in excess of 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter, neither such person nor any of its related persons is an ETP Holder of the Exchange;
• in the case of a resolution to approve the entering into of an agreement, plan or other arrangement under circumstances that would result in shares of stock of ICE that would be subject to such agreement, plan or other arrangement not being voted on any matter, or the withholding of any proxy relating thereto, where the effect of such agreement, plan or other arrangement would be to enable any person, but for Article V of the Certificate of Incorporation of ICE, either alone or together with its related persons, to vote, possess the right to vote or cause the voting of shares of stock of ICE that would exceed 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter neither such person nor any of its related persons is, with respect to the Exchange, an ETP Holder.
New Section 12.1.b would provide that, subject to its fiduciary obligations under applicable law, for so long as ICE directly or indirectly controls the Exchange (or its successor), the Board of Directors of ICE shall not adopt any resolution pursuant to clause (b) of Section B(2) of Article V of ICE's Certificate of Incorporation, unless the Board of Directors shall have determined that neither such person nor any of its related persons is an ETP Holder.
New Section 12.2 would provide that, for so long as ICE shall control, directly
The ICE Holdings Certificate of Incorporation is being amended as follows:
• On the first page, add “Eighth” and delete “Seventh” before “Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation” in the heading and update items (2)-(5) accordingly to reflect that this would be the eighth amendment and restatement, including replacing an incorrect reference to “Sixth” before “Amended” in item (3). The date would also be updated in the preamble on the first page.
• To distinguish between the ETP Holders of NYSE Arca Equities and those of the Exchange, subsection A.3.c.ii of Article V (Limitations on Voting and Ownership) would be amended to define an ETP Holder of NYSE Arca Equities as “NYSE Arca Equities ETP Holder.” Obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation, would also be deleted.
Subsection A.3.c of Article V would be amended to add a new subsection (v), similar to those in place for the other NYSE Exchanges, which would provide that, for so long as the ICE Holdings directly or indirectly controls NYSE National (or its successor), no person nor any of its related persons (as those terms are defined therein) is an ETP Holder (as proposed to be defined in the bylaws of NYSE National, discussed above) of NYSE National.
• Subsection A.3.d of Article V would be amended to add “NYSE Arca” before “ETP Holder” in one place to distinguish between the NYSE Arca Equities ETP Holders of and those of the Exchange.
Subsection A.3.d would be further amended to add a new subsection (v) similar to those in place for the other NYSE Exchanges. The new subsection would incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction, such that the ICE Holdings Board of Directors would be restricted from adopting a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights that would exceed 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter, where neither such person nor any of its related persons is, with respect to NYSE National, an NYSE National ETP Holder.
• Subsection B.3 of Article V would be amended to add a new subsection (g) similar to those in place for the other NYSE Exchanges, incorporating NYSE National into the restriction on the ICE Holdings board of directors adopting any resolution pursuant to clause (b) of Section B.2 of Article V of the ICE Holdings Certificate of Incorporation (which relates to ICE board of directors approval of ownership of ICE capital stock by a person together with its related persons in excess of 20%) unless the NYSE Holdings board of directors determines that, for so long as ICE Holdings controls NYSE National, neither such person nor any of its related persons is an NYSE National ETP Holder.
The ICE Holdings Bylaws are being amended as follows:
• The cover page and heading on the first page would be amended to add “Fifth” and delete “Fourth” before “Amended and Restated Bylaws” to reflect that this would be the fifth amendment and restatement. The effective date on the cover page would also be updated.
• Similar to the ICE Bylaws discussed above, the ICE Holdings Bylaws would be amended to include “NYSE National, Inc.” in:
○ The definition of “U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries” in Article III, Section 3.15, which currently includes the NYSE, NYSE Market (DE), NYSE Regulation, NYSE Arca, LLC, NYSE Arca, NYSE Arca Equities, and NYSE MKT LLC, and to provide that the term “U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries” includes those entities listed or their successors, but only so long as they continue to be controlled, directly or indirectly, by ICE Holdings. Obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation in that section would also be deleted;
○ Article VIII (Confidential Information), Section 8.1, which would be amended to extend the same protection to confidential information relating to the self-regulatory function of the Exchange or its successor;
○ Article XI (Amendment to the Bylaws), Section 11.3, which provides that, for so long as ICE controls any of the U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries, any amendment to or repeal of the ICE Bylaws must either be (i) filed with or filed with and approved by the Commission under section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated thereunder, or (ii) submitted to the boards of directors of the U.S. Regulated Subsidiaries or the boards of directors of their successors, in each case only to the extent that such entity continues to be controlled directly or indirectly by ICE Holdings. Obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation would also be deleted from Article VXI, Section 11.3.
The ICE Director Independence Policy would be amended to add NYSE National to the section describing “Independence Qualifications.” In particular, NYSE National would be added to categories (1)(b) and (c) that refer to “members,” as defined in section 3(a)(3)(A)(i), 3(a)(3)(A)(ii), 3(a)(3)(A)(iii) and 3(a)(3)(A)(iv) of the Exchange Act.
The NYSE Holdings LLC Operating Agreement would be amended as follows:
• The heading and preamble would be amended to add “Eighth” and delete “Seventh” before “Amended and Restated Limited Liability Agreement” to reflect that this would be the eighth amendment and restatement. The effective date would also be updated. After “This Agreement amends and restates in its entirety that” in the second full sentence would be added the clause “certain Seventh Amended and Restated Limited Liability Company Agreement, dated as of May 22, 2015, which amended and restated in its entirety that.”
• The current penultimate whereas clause would be amended by adding “in May 2015” before “the Company” and “now desires to amend and restate” immediately following would be replaced with “amended and restated.” “Have” and “are” would be changed to the past tense “had” and “were” in the final sentence.
• The following new whereas clause would be added immediately above the current last whereas clause: “WHEREAS, the Company now desires to amend and restate the Seventh Amended and Restated Agreement to reflect the acquisition of NYSE National, Inc. by the Company's wholly-owned subsidiary NYSE Group, Inc.;”.
• The definition of ETP Holder in Article I (Interpretation), Section 1.1 would be deleted and new definitions of an NYSE Arca ETP Holder and NYSE National ETP Holder would be added. The obsolete definition of NYSE Market (DE) would be deleted.
• Article IX (Voting and Ownership Limitations), Section 9.1(a)(3)(C) would be amended to add “NYSE Arca” before “ETP Holder” and the defined term “NYSE Arca ETP Holder” to distinguish between the ETP Holders of NYSE Arca Equities and those of the Exchange. An obsolete reference to NYSE Market (DE) would also be deleted from Section 9.1(a)(3)(C).
Section 9.1(a)(3)(C) would be amended to add a new subsection (v) similar to those in place for the other NYSE Exchanges. The new subsection (v) would incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction, such that the ICE Holdings board of directors would be restricted from adopting a resolution pursuant to clause (b) of Section 9.1(a)(2) unless the NYSE Holdings board of directors determines that, for so long as NYSE Holdings directly or indirectly controls NYSE National, Inc. (or its successor), neither such person nor any of its related persons is an ETP Holder (as defined in the bylaws of NYSE National, as such bylaws may be in effect from time to time) of NYSE National (“NYSE National ETP Holder”). The clause would also provide that any such person that is a related person of an ETP Holder shall hereinafter also be deemed to be an “NYSE National ETP Holder” for purposes of the agreement, as the context may require.
• Article IX, Section 9.1(a)(3)(D) would be amended to add “NYSE Arca” before “ETP Holder.” An outdated reference to NYSE Market (DE) would also be deleted.
Further, a new clause (v) would be added to Section 9.1(a)(3)(D) to incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction on the NYSE Holdings Board of Directors, such that it would be restricted from adopting a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights that would exceed 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter for so long as NYSE Holdings controls NYSE National. The clause would provide that “for so long as the Corporation directly or indirectly controls NYSE National, neither such person nor any of its Related Persons is an NYSE National ETP Holder.”
• Article IX, Section 9.1(b)(3) would be amended to add a new subpart (G) to incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction on the NYSE Holdings Board of Directors, so that it would provide that, subject to its fiduciary obligations under applicable law, for so long as NYSE Holdings directly or indirectly controls NYSE National (or its successor), the board of directors of NYSE Holdings shall not adopt any resolution pursuant to (b) of Section 9.1(b)(2) of the NYSE Holdings LLC Operating Agreement, unless the board of directors of NYSE Holdings shall have determined that neither such person nor any of its related persons is an NYSE National ETP Holder.
The NYSE Group Certificate of Incorporation is being amended as follows:
• On the first page, add “Fifth” and delete “Fourth” before “Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation” in the heading. The Recitations would be amended to reflect that this would be the fifth amendment and restatement. First, the Fifth Recitation would be updated to reflect that a Fourth Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation was filed with the Secretary of State of the State of Delaware on December 29, 2014. A new Sixth Recitation would be updated to reflect that the Fifth Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation has been duly adopted. The current Sixth Recitation would become the Seventh and would reflect that the Fourth Amended and Restated Certificate of Incorporation is amended and restated in its entirety.
• The Exchange would be added to the list of “Regulated Subsidiaries” in Article 4 (Stock), Section 4(b)(1), which currently includes the NYSE, NYSE Market (DE), NYSE Regulation, NYSE Arca, LLC, NYSE Arca Equities, and NYSE MKT, and the obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation would be deleted.
• To distinguish between the ETP Holders of NYSE Arca Equities and those of the Exchange, Section 4(b)(1)(y) of Article IV would be amended to define an ETP Holder of NYSE Arca Equities as an “NYSE Arca Equities ETP Holder.” An outdated reference to NYSE Market (DE) would also be deleted.
Section 4(b)(1)(y) would also be amended to add a provision to similar to those in place for the other NYSE Exchanges providing that, for so long as NYSE Group directly or indirectly controls NYSE National (or its successor), neither such Person nor any of its related persons is an ETP Holder (as defined in the rules of NYSE National, as such rules may be in effect from time to time) of NYSE National (defined as an “NYSE National NYSE National ETP Holder”) and that any such person that is a related person of an NYSE National ETP Holder shall hereinafter also be deemed to be an “NYSE National ETP Holder” for purposes of the certificate of incorporation, as the context may require.
• Further, subsection 4(b)(1)(z) of Article IV would be amended to define an ETP Holder of NYSE Arca Equities as an “NYSE Arca Equities ETP Holder” and delete an outdated reference to NYSE Market (DE).
Subsection 4(b)(1)(z) would also be amended to incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction on the ICE Holdings Board of Directors, such that it would be restricted from adopting a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights that would exceed 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be
• A new subpart (vii) would be added to subsection 4(b)(2)(C) of Article IV to incorporate NYSE National into the existing restriction on the NYSE Group Board of Directors, such that it would be restricted from adopting a resolution to approve the exercise of voting rights that would exceed 20% of the then outstanding votes entitled to be cast on such matter, where neither such person nor any of its related persons is, with respect to NYSE National, an NYSE National ETP Holder.
• Article X (Confidential Information) would be amended to extend the same protection to confidential information relating to the self-regulatory function of the Exchange or its successor and delete obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation.
• Article XII (Amendments to Certificate of Incorporation) provides that, for so long as NYSE Group controls the Regulated Subsidiaries, before any amendment or repeal of any provision of the Certificate of Incorporation shall be effective, such amendment or repeal shall either (a) be filed with or filed with and approved by the SEC under Section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated thereunder or (b) be submitted to the boards of directors of NYSE, NYSE Market (DE), NYSE Regulation, NYSE Arca, NYSE Arca Equities, and NYSE MKT or the boards of directors of their successors. Article XII would be amended to add NYSE National to subsection (b) and delete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation.
The NYSE Group Bylaws are being amended as follows:
• Add “Third” and delete “Second” before “Amended and Restated Bylaws” in the heading to reflect that this would be the third amendment and restatement.
• Article VII (Miscellaneous), Section 7.9(A)(b) currently provides that, for so long as NYSE Group controls any of the NYSE Exchanges, any amendment to or repeal of the ICE Bylaws must either be (i) filed with or filed with and approved by the Commission under section 19 of the Exchange Act and the rules promulgated thereunder, or (ii) submitted to the boards of directors of the NYSE, NYSE Market (DE), NYSE Regulation, NYSE Arca, NYSE Arca Equities, and NYSE Alternext US LLC or the boards of directors of their successors, in each case only to the extent that such entity continues to be controlled directly or indirectly by ICE. Section 7.9(A)(b) would be amended to delete obsolete references to NYSE Market (DE) and NYSE Regulation, replace the outdated reference to “NYSE Alternext US LLC” with “NYSE MKT LLC,” and add NYSE National.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Exchange Act
The proposed change would continue the requirement in the Bylaws that an independent board committee oversee the adequacy and effectiveness of the performance of the Exchange's self-regulatory responsibilities. As proposed, the ROC would be similar in composition and functions to the approved ROCs of other SROs, would be similarly designed to ensure the adequacy and effectiveness of the Exchange's regulatory and self-regulatory organization responsibilities; to assess the Exchange's regulatory performance; and to assist the Board and any other committees of the Board in reviewing the regulatory plan and the overall effectiveness of the Exchange's regulatory functions. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the proposed amendment would contribute to the orderly operation of the Exchange and would enable the Exchange to be so organized as to have the capacity to carry out the purposes of the Exchange Act and comply and enforce compliance with the provisions of the Exchange Act by its members and persons associated with its members. The Exchange therefore believes that approval of the amendment to the Bylaws is consistent with Section 6(b)(1) and not inconsistent with the 2005 Order.
The Exchange also believes that this filing furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Exchange Act
As discussed above, the Exchange believes that its proposal that the ROC be comprised of independent directors would align the Exchange's corporate governance practices with other SROs that have adopted a ROC to monitor the adequacy and effectiveness of the
The Exchange further believes that making non-substantive technical and conforming changes throughout its Certificate of Incorporation and Bylaws to reflect the Exchange's proposed new ownership, including updating corporate names, as well as the replacement of outdated or obsolete references in the corporate documents of the NYSE Group and its intermediary and ultimate parent entities, including the ICE bylaws and director independence policy, ICE Holdings bylaws and certificate of incorporation, NYSE Holdings operating agreement, and the NYSE Group bylaws and certificate of incorporation, removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market by removing confusion that may result from having these references in the governing documents following the Acquisition. The Exchange further believes that the proposal removes impediments to and perfects the mechanism of a free and open market by ensuring that persons subject to the Exchange's jurisdiction, regulators, and the investing public can more easily navigate and understand the governing documents. The Exchange further believes that eliminating obsolete references would not be inconsistent with the public interest and the protection of investors because investors will not be harmed and in fact would benefit from increased transparency, thereby reducing potential confusion. Removing such obsolete references will also further the goal of transparency and add clarity to the Exchange's rules.
Finally, the proposal to retain, as modified, an Appeals Committee which, among other things, would be charged with hearing appeals of disciplinary determinations, complies with Section 6(b)(7) of the Exchange Act,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues but rather is concerned solely with the Acquisition. Indeed, the Exchange believes that providing a new corporate and governance structure, the Exchange will be in a better position to improve its technology and engage in value-enhancing transactions that will enable the Exchange to more effectively participate and compete in the marketplace.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Based upon a review of the administrative record assembled in this matter pursuant to Section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189 (“INA”), and in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of the Treasury, I have concluded that there is a sufficient factual basis to find that Lashkar-e-Tayyiba uses the additional aliases Al-Muhammadia Students, AMS, and Al-Muhammadia Students Pakistan. Therefore, pursuant to Section 219(b) of the INA, as amended (8 U.S.C. 1189(b)), I hereby amend the designation of Lashkar-e-Tayyiba as a Foreign Terrorist Organization to include Al-Muhammadia Students, AMS, and Al-Muhammadia Students Pakistan as aliases.
This determination shall be published in the
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for its review and approval and invites public comment. The FMCSA requests approval to extend an ICR titled, “Financial Responsibility—Motor Carriers, Freight Forwarders, and Brokers,” which is used to provide registered motor carriers, property brokers, and freight forwarders a means of meeting financial responsibility filing requirements. This ICR sets forth the financial responsibility documentation requirements for motor carriers, freight forwarders, and brokers that arise as a result of the Agency's jurisdictional statutes at 49 U.S.C. 13501 and 13531. The Agency is revising this ICR due to the implementation of a Final Rule entitled “Unified Registration System” (78 FR 52608, August 23, 2013) that extended the financial responsibility filing requirement to exempt for-hire motor carriers and private interstate motor carriers of hazardous materials.
We must receive your comments on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2016-0293 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Ms. Tura Gatling, Office of Registration and Safety Information, Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001. Telephone Number: (202) 385-2412; Email Address:
The Secretary of Transportation (Secretary) is authorized to register for-hire motor carriers of property and passengers under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 13902, surface freight forwarders under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 13903, and property brokers under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 13904. These persons may conduct transportation services only if they are registered pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 13901. The Secretary has delegated authority pertaining to these registration requirements to the FMCSA. The registration remains valid only as long as these transportation entities maintain, on file with the FMCSA, evidence of the required levels of financial responsibility pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 13906. FMCSA regulations governing the financial responsibility requirements for these entities are found at 49 CFR part 387. The information collected from these forms are summarized and displayed in the Licensing and Information system.
Forms BMC-91 and BMC-91X, entitled “Motor Carrier Automobile Bodily Injury and Property Damage Liability Certificate of Insurance,” and Form BMC-82, entitled “Motor Carrier Bodily Injury Liability and Property Damage Liability Surety Bond Under 49 U.S.C. 13906,” provide evidence of the required coverage for bodily injury and property damage (BI & PD) liability. A Form BMC-91X filing is required when a carrier's insurance is provided by multiple companies instead of just one. Form BMC-34, entitled “Household Goods Motor Carrier Cargo Liability Certificate of Insurance,” and Form BMC-83, entitled “Household Goods Motor Carrier Cargo Liability Surety Bond Under 49 U.S.C. 13906,” establish a carrier's compliance with the Agency's cargo liability requirements. Only household goods (HHG) motor carriers are required to file evidence of cargo insurance with FMCSA. 49 CFR 387.303(c). Form BMC-90, entitled “Endorsement for Motor Carrier Policies of Insurance for Automobile Bodily Injury and Property Damage Liability Under Section 13906, Title 49 of the United States Code,” and Form BMC-32, entitled “Endorsement for Motor Common Carrier Policies of Insurance for Cargo Liability Under 49 U.S.C. 13906,” are executed by the insurance company, attached to BI & PD or cargo liability insurance policy, respectively, and forwarded to the motor carrier or freight forwarder.
Form BMC-84, entitled “Broker's or Freight Forwarder's Surety Bond Under 49 U.S.C. 13906,” and Form BMC-85, entitled “Broker's or Freight Forwarder's Trust Fund Agreement Under 49 U.S.C. 13906 or Notice of Cancellation of the Agreement,” are filed by brokers or freight forwarders to comply with the requirement that they must have a $75,000 surety bond or trust fund agreement in effect before FMCSA will issue property broker or freight forwarder operating authority registration.
Form BMC-35, entitled “Notice of Cancellation Motor Carrier Insurance under 49 U.S.C. 13906,” Form BMC-36, entitled “Motor Carrier and Broker's Surety Bonds under 49 U.S.C. 13906 Notice of Cancellation,” and Form BMC-85, entitled “Broker's or Freight Forwarder's Trust Fund Agreement Under 49 U.S.C. 13906 or Notice of Cancellation of the Agreement,” can be used to cancel prior filings.
Motor carriers can also apply to FMCSA to self-insure BI & PD and/or cargo liability in lieu of filing certificates of insurance with the FMCSA, as long as the carrier maintains a satisfactory safety rating (see 49 CFR 387.309.) Form BMC-40 is the application used by carriers to apply for self-insurance authority.
Departmental Offices, Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on revisions for 2017 of a currently approved information collection that is proposed for approval by the Office of Management and Budget. The Office of International Affairs within the Department of the Treasury is soliciting comments concerning the revision of the Treasury International Capital (TIC) Form SHL/SHLA.
Written comments should be received on or before February 28, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Dwight Wolkow, International Portfolio Investment Data Systems, Department of the Treasury, Room 5422 MT, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20220. In view of possible delays in mail delivery, you may also wish to send a copy to Mr. Wolkow by email (
Copies of the proposed form and instructions are available at Part II of the Treasury International Capital (TIC) Forms Web page “Forms SHL/SHLA & SHC/SHCA”, at:
(1) In “Consolidation Rules” (section II.B in the instructions) the first sentence is expanded to list out separately “Intermediate Holding Companies” (IHCs), which are defined by Regulation YY, 12 CFR 252, to clarify that IHCs should follow the same consolidation rules that are applicable to Bank Holding Companies (BHCs), Financial Holding Companies (FHCs), and Savings and Loan Holding Companies.
(2) In “Funds and Related Equity Ownership” (section III.E in the instructions) the illustrative list of fund types in the second paragraph is expanded to list out separately “private funds”, where “private funds” refers to the same class of financial entities that must report to the Securities and Exchange Commission as private funds on Form PF.
(3) In “Funds and Related Equity Ownership” (section III.E in the instructions) the last section, “Direct Investment exception for private funds”, is new, to explain that in TIC reports as of 01 January 2017 and afterwards, investments in private funds, or between the entities of a private fund, are included in TIC surveys regardless of ownership share if they meet BOTH of the following two criteria: (i) The private fund does not own, directly or indirectly through another business enterprise, an “operating company”—
(4) In “Stripped Securities” (section III.G in the instructions) the next to last sentence in the second paragraph is revised and reads “In addition, all `teddy bears' (TBRs), `tigers' (TIGRs), `cats' (CATS) and `cougars' (COUGRs) should also be classified as U.S. Treasury securities.”
(5) In “DIRECT INVESTMENT” (section III.I in the instructions) the next to last sentence is new, refers to proposed change (3) above, and reads “Also, certain cross-border investments by or into private funds where these investments do not involve operating companies (companies that are not other private funds or holding companies) should be reported as portfolio investment on TIC reports rather than on BEA reports as direct Investment (see section III.F).”
(6) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 1” (section IV in the instructions), the reporter type 5 in line 8 is expanded, refers to proposed change (1) above, and reads “5 = Other Financial Organizations (including BHC, FHC & IHC)”.
(7) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 1” (section IV in the instructions), the phrase in parentheses in line 20 is clarified and reads “(records with Schedule 2, Item 18 = security types 1, 2, 3, or 4)”.
(8) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 1” (section IV in the instructions), the phrase in parentheses in line 21 is clarified and reads “(records with Schedule 2, Item 19 = security types 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, or 11)”.
(9) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 1” (section IV in the instructions), the phrase in parentheses in line 22 is clarified and reads “(records with Schedule 2, Item 19 = security type 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, or 11)”.
(10) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 1” (section IV in the instructions), the phrase in parentheses in line 23 is clarified and reads “(records with Schedule 2, Item 20 = security type 12)”.
(11) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 2” (section V in the instructions), the fifth type of issuer in line 11 is expanded, refers to proposed change (1) above, and reads “Enter “5” if the security was issued by all other financial organizations (including BHC, FHC and IHC).”.
(12) In the “Line-by-Line Instructions for Schedule 2” (section V in the instructions), the note for “Type 11” in line 12 is expanded, refers to proposed change (4) above, and reads “Type 11 should include all debt other than asset-backed securities that is not covered in types 5-10, including U.S. Treasury bills, TBRs, TIGRs, CATS and COUGRs.”
(13) In “Appendix E: List of Currency Codes”, some names and/or symbols have been changed/updated, for example Romania, Serbia, Sudan, Turkey, Turkmenistan, Venezuela, and Zambia.
(14) In “Funds and Related Equity Ownership” (section III.E in the instructions), under the subsection “Reporting guidelines for Hedge Funds and other alternative investments”, the list of legal entities is expanded to include fund “administrators”.
(15) The exemption level (the threshold for reporting) for filing schedules 2 and 3 for a benchmark survey is increased from $100 million to $200 million.
(16) Some clarifications may be made in other parts of the instructions.
The changes will improve overall survey reporting.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before January 30, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
(a) Solicitor of Labor;
(b) Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management;
(c) Assistant Secretary for Policy;
(d) Assistant Secretary for Congressional and Intergovernmental Affairs;
(e) Assistant Secretary for Employment and Training;
(f) Assistant Secretary for Employee Benefits Security;
(g) Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health;
(h) Assistant Secretary for Mine Safety and Health;
(i) Assistant Secretary for Public Affairs;
(j) Chief Financial Officer;
(k) Administrator, Wage and Hour Division;
(l) Assistant Secretary for Veterans' Employment and Training;
(m) Assistant Secretary for Disability Employment Policy;
(n) First assistants, pursuant to the Act, to the officials in the order listed in (a) and (c)-(h);
(o) Regional Solicitor—Dallas; and
(p) Regional Administrator for the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Administration and Management—Region VI/Dallas.
(b) No individual listed in section 1(a)-(p) of this order shall act as Secretary unless that individual is otherwise eligible to so serve under the Act.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this order, the President retains discretion, to the extent permitted by law, to depart from this order in designating an acting Secretary.
(a) Chief Operating Officer;
(b) Chief of Management and Administration;
(c) Executive for Agency Services;
(d) Director, National Personnel Records Center; and
(e) Director, George Bush Presidential Library and Museum.
(b) No individual listed in section 1(a)-(e) of this memorandum shall act as Archivist unless that individual is otherwise eligible to so serve under the Federal Vacancies Reform Act of 1998, as amended.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this memorandum, the President retains discretion, to the extent permitted by law, to depart from this memorandum in designating an acting Archivist.
(a) Deputy Director, Mediation Services and Field Operations;
(b) Deputy Director; and
(c) Most senior Regional Director (“most senior” being defined as holding the longest tenure in the position of Regional Director).
(b) No individual listed in section 1 of this memorandum shall act as Director unless that individual is otherwise eligible to so serve under the Act.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this memorandum, the President retains discretion, to the extent permitted by law, to depart from this memorandum in designating an acting Director.
(b) You are authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the
(a) Senior Deputy Chairman;
(b) Deputy Chairman for Management and Budget;
(c) Chief of Staff; and
(d) Director of Strategic Communications and Public Affairs.
(b) No individual who is serving in an office listed in section 1(a)-(d) of this memorandum shall act as Chairperson unless that individual is otherwise eligible to so serve under the Act.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this memorandum, the President retains discretion, to the extent permitted by law, to depart from this memorandum in designating an acting Chairperson.
(b) You are authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the
(a) Deputy Commissioner for Operations;
(b) Deputy Commissioner for Budget, Finance, Quality, and Management;
(c) Deputy Commissioner for Systems;
(d) Regional Commissioner, Atlanta;
(e) Regional Commissioner, Dallas;
(f) Regional Commissioner, San Francisco; and
(g) Regional Commissioner, Chicago.
(b) No individual listed in section 1 of this memorandum shall act as Commissioner unless that individual is otherwise eligible to so serve under the Act.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of this memorandum, the President retains discretion, to the extent permitted by law, to depart from this memorandum in designating an acting Commissioner.
(b) You are authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
The FAA amends its airworthiness standards for normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes by replacing current prescriptive design requirements with performance-based airworthiness standards. These standards also replace the current weight and propulsion divisions in small airplane regulations with performance- and risk-based divisions for airplanes with a maximum seating capacity of 19 passengers or less and a maximum takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less. These airworthiness standards are based on, and will maintain, the level of safety of the current small airplane regulations, except for areas addressing loss of control and icing, for which the safety level has been increased. The FAA adopts additional airworthiness standards to address certification for flight in icing conditions, enhanced stall characteristics, and minimum control speed to prevent departure from controlled flight for multiengine airplanes. This rulemaking is in response to the Congressional mandate set forth in the Small Airplane Revitalization Act of 2013.
Effective August 30, 2017.
For information on where to obtain copies of rulemaking documents and other information related to this final rule, see “How To Obtain Additional Information” in the
For technical questions concerning this action, contact Lowell Foster, Regulations and Policy, ACE-111, Federal Aviation Administration, 901 Locust St., Kansas City, MO 64106; telephone (816) 329-4125; email
All sections of part 23 contain revisions, except the FAA did not make any changes to the following sections: 23.1457, Cockpit Voice Recorders, 23.1459, Flight Data Recorders, and 23.1529, Instructions for Continued Airworthiness. Sections 23.1459 and 23.1529 were changed to align the cross references with the rest of part 23. The three sections otherwise remain unchanged relative to the former regulations.
The FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority.
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701. Under that section, the FAA is charged with promoting safe flight of civil airplanes in air commerce by prescribing minimum standards required in the interest of safety for the design and performance of airplanes. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it prescribes new performance-based safety standards for the design of normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes.
Additionally, this rulemaking addresses the Congressional mandate set forth in the Small Airplane Revitalization Act of 2013 (Pub. L. 113-53; 49 U.S.C. 44704 note) (SARA). Section 3 of SARA requires the Administrator to issue a final rule to advance the safety and continued development of small airplanes by reorganizing the certification requirements for such airplanes under part 23 to streamline the approval of safety advancements. SARA directs that the rule address specific recommendations of the 2013 Part 23 Reorganization Aviation Rulemaking Committee (Part 23 ARC).
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 23 by replacing current prescriptive design requirements with performance-based airworthiness standards. It maintains the level of safety associated with current part 23 except for areas addressing loss of control and icing where a higher level of safety is established, provides greater flexibility to applicants seeking certification of their airplane designs, and facilitates
This final rule allows the use of consensus standards accepted by the Administrator as a means of compliance to part 23's performance-based regulations. The use of these FAA-accepted consensus standards as a means of compliance will streamline the certification process. However, consensus standards are one means, but not the only means, of showing compliance to the performance-based standards of part 23. Applicants, individuals, or organizations also have the option to propose their own means of compliance as they do today.
In this final rule, the FAA adopts additional airworthiness standards to address certification for flight in icing conditions and enhanced stall characteristics to prevent inadvertent departure from controlled flight. Manufacturers that choose to certify an airplane for flight in Supercooled Large Drops (SLD)
This final rule adopts additional airworthiness standards to address enhanced stall characteristics to prevent loss of control (LOC). This final rule requires applicants to use new design approaches and technologies to improve airplane stall characteristics and pilot situational awareness to prevent LOC accidents.
Additionally, this final rule also streamlines the process for design approval holders applying for a type design change, or for a third party modifier applying for a supplemental type certificate (STC), to incorporate new and improved equipment in part 23 airplanes. The revised part 23 standards are much less prescriptive; therefore, the certification process for modifications is simplified. Certification of an amended type certificate (TC) or STC under this final rule requires fewer special conditions or exemptions, lowering costs and causing fewer project delays.
This final rule also revises 14 CFR part 21, “Certification Procedures for Products and Articles,” to simplify the approval process for low-risk articles. Specifically, it amends § 21.9 to allow FAA-approved production of replacement and modification articles for airplanes certificated under part 23, using methods not listed in § 21.9(a). This will reduce constraints on the use of non-required, low-risk articles, such as carbon monoxide detectors and weather display systems.
Lastly, this final rule removes Special Federal Regulation No. 23 (SFAR No. 23) and contains conforming amendments to 14 CFR parts 21, 35, 43, 91, and 135. These conforming amendments align part 23 references to the part 23 rules contained in this final rule.
The FAA has analyzed the benefits and costs associated with this rule. This rule responds to the Small Airplane Revitalization Act of 2013 (SARA) and to industry recommendations for performance-based standards. This rule reduces new certification processing by streamlining new certification processing. In addition, this rule improves safety by adding stall characteristic, stall warnings, and icing requirements. The following table summarizes the benefit and cost analysis, showing the estimated cost is substantially less than the benefits resulting from the combined value of the safety benefits and the cost savings. The following table shows these results.
Accordingly, the FAA has determined that the rule will be cost beneficial.
The range of airplanes certificated under part 23 is diverse in terms of performance capability, number of passengers, design complexity, technology, and intended use. Currently, certification requirements of part 23 airplanes are determined by reference to a combination of factors, including weight, number of passengers, and propulsion type. The resulting divisions (
Technological developments have altered the dynamics of that relationship. For example, high-performance and complex airplanes now exist within the weight range that historically was occupied only by light and simple airplanes. The introduction of high-performance, lightweight airplanes required subsequent amendments of part 23 to include more stringent and demanding standards—often based on the part 25 requirements for larger transport category airplanes—to ensure an adequate level of safety for airplanes under part 23. The unintended result is that some of the more stringent and demanding standards for high-performance airplanes now apply to the certification of simple and low-performance airplanes. Because of this increased complexity, it takes excessive time and resources to certify new part 23 airplanes.
In 2008, the FAA initiated the Part 23 Certification Process Study (CPS)
In 2010, following the publication of the CPS, the FAA held a series of public meetings to seek feedback concerning the findings and recommendations. Overall, the feedback was supportive of, and in some cases augmented, the CPS recommendations.
One notable difference between the CPS findings and the public feedback was the public's request that the FAA revise part 23 certification requirements for simple, entry-level airplanes. Over the past two decades, part 23 standards have become more complex as industry has generally shifted towards correspondingly complex, high-performance airplanes. This transition has placed an increased burden on applicants seeking to certificate smaller, simpler airplanes. Public comments requested that the FAA focus on reducing the costs and time burden associated with certificating small airplanes by restructuring the requirements based on risk. The risk exposure for most simple airplane designs is typically low, because of the small number of occupants.
On August 15, 2011, the Administrator chartered the Part 23 ARC to consider the following CPS recommendations:
• Recommendation 1.1.1—Reorganize part 23 based on airplane performance and complexity, rather than the existing weight and propulsion divisions.
• Recommendation 1.1.2—Certification requirements for part 23 airplanes should be written on a broad, general, and progressive level, segmented into tiers based on complexity and performance.
The ARC's recommendations took into account the Federal Aviation Modernization and Reform Act of 2012 (Pub. L. 112-95) (FAMRA), which requires the Administrator, in consultation with the aviation industry, to assess the airplane certification and approval process. The purpose of the ARC's assessment was to develop recommendations for streamlining and reengineering the certification process to improve efficiency, reduce costs, and ensure the Administrator can conduct certifications and approvals in a manner that supports and enables the development of new products and technologies and the global competitiveness of the United States aviation industry.
ARC membership represented a broad range of stakeholder perspectives, including U.S. and international manufacturers, trade associations, and foreign civil aviation authorities (FCAAs).
The ARC noted the prevailing view within industry was that the only way to reduce the program risk, or business risk, associated with the certification of new airplane designs was to avoid novel design approaches and testing methodologies. Under existing part 23, the certification of new and innovative products frequently requires the FAA's use of equivalent level of safety (ELOS) findings, special conditions, and exemptions. These take time, resulting in uncertainty and high project costs. The ARC emphasized that although industry needs to develop new airplanes designed to use new technology, current certification costs inhibit the introduction of new technology. The ARC identified prescriptive certification requirements as a major barrier to installing safety‐enhancing modifications in the existing fleet and to producing newer, safer airplanes.
The ARC also examined the harmonization of certification requirements between the FAA and FCAAs, and the potential for such harmonization to improve safety while reducing costs. Adopting performance-based safety regulations that facilitate international harmonization, coupled with internationally accepted means of compliance, could result in both significant cost savings and the enabling of safety-enhancing equipment installations. The ARC recommended that internationally accepted means of compliance should be reviewed and voluntarily accepted by the appropriate aviation authorities, in accordance with a process established by those authorities. Although each FCAA would be capable of rejecting all or part of any particular means of compliance, the intent would be to have FCAA participation in the creation of the means of compliance to ease acceptance of the means of compliance.
Based on the ARC recommendations and in response to FAMRA, the FAA initiated rulemaking on September 24, 2013. Subsequently, on November 27, 2013, Congress passed the SARA, which requires the FAA to issue a final rule revising the certification requirements for small airplanes by—
• Creating a regulatory regime that will improve safety and decrease certification costs;
• Setting safety objectives that will spur innovation and technology adoption;
• Replacing prescriptive rules with performance-based regulations; and
• Using consensus standards to clarify how safety objectives may be met by specific designs and technologies.
The FAA has determined that the performance-based-standards component of this final rule complies with the FAMRA and the SARA because it will improve safety, reduce regulatory compliance costs, and spur innovation and the adoption of new technology. This final rule will replace the weight-and propulsion-based prescriptive airworthiness standards in part 23 with performance- and risk-based airworthiness standards for airplanes with a maximum seating capacity of 19 passengers or less and a maximum takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less. The standards will maintain or increase the level of safety associated with the current part 23, while also facilitating the adoption of new and innovative technology in general aviation (GA) airplanes.
On March 7, 2016, the FAA issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) proposing to revise part 23 in response to the SARA.
• Establish a performance-based regulatory regime; and
• Add new certification standards for LOC and icing.
On May 3-4, 2016, the FAA held a public meeting to discuss the NPRM, hear the public's questions, address any confusion, and obtain information relevant to the final rule under consideration.
The comment period closed on May 13, 2016.
The FAA has decided it is necessary to delay the effective date of this final
This final rule establishes a new performance-based system that will require additional training for both FAA and industry engineers, as noted in the NPRM regulatory evaluation summary. Several commenters expressed concern with the need for additional training and guidance in order to implement the new performance-based standards. The FAA finds that a delayed effective date will alleviate these concerns.
Delaying the effective date will provide the FAA time to conduct the training necessary to implement this rule in a consistent manner. Additionally, the delayed effective date provides the FAA with sufficient time to develop guidance materials to ensure the FAA and industry have sufficient information to implement the new performance-based standards consistently and correctly. Furthermore, while compliance with part 23, amendment 23-62 will remain a means of compliance with this final rule, a delayed effective date will allow industry time to develop new means of compliance and will facilitate the development of harmonized means of compliance among the FAA, industry, FCAAs.
The FAA received 692 comments. Of the 692 comments, individuals submitted approximately 30 comments and industry and other foreign authorities submitted the remaining comments. The General Aviation Manufacturers Association (GAMA); Aircraft Electronics Association (AEA); Experimental Aircraft Association (EAA); and Aircraft Owners & Pilots Association (AOPA) (hereafter “the Associations”) collected comments from their membership and presented these jointly. The vast majority of commenters overwhelmingly supported the proposed changes and provided constructive feedback so the FAA could clarify the safety intent in various sections of this rule.
The FAA did not receive comments on the proposed changes to the following sections. These sections are adopted as proposed, and the explanations for the changes from the former regulations are contained in the NPRM.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed a new organization and numbering scheme for part 23. Appendix 1 to the NPRM preamble contains a cross-reference table detailing how the current regulations are addressed in the proposed part 23 regulations.
The FAA received several comments suggesting the FAA change the regulation numbering scheme for proposed part 23. Commenters expressed concern that confusion or undue complexity would result because the proposed part 23 regulations do not correlate by section number to the former part 23 regulations. Commenters also noted that certain sections of the proposed rule would have shared the same section numbers as former part 23 regulations but would have contained completely different content.
To avoid confusion, EASA proposed a new numbering system for Certification Specification 23 (CS 23)
The FAA agrees that the proposed numbering scheme would have caused confusion and undue complexity. The FAA has considered EASA's recommended new numbering scheme for part 23 and adopts it in the final rule. This recommendation harmonizes the numbering of part 23 and CS 23 and provides new part 23 with a unique numbering scheme to avoid any confusion with former part 23. The FAA has determined the new numbering scheme also alleviates concerns about situations in which a certification basis would contain a former part 23 rule and a new part 23 rule sharing the same section number, but different subject-matter.
The FAA did not propose to change or renumber §§ 23.1457, 23.1459, and 23.1529; therefore, these sections remain as legacy rules in the new part 23.
Air Tractor, Inc. (Air Tractor) suggested that the FAA retain former part 23, amendment 23-62, and create a new part (
The FAA notes Air Tractor's recommendation to retain former part 23 and to create a new 14 CFR part for the proposed regulations. However, this regulation is a rewrite of part 23 by replacing the prescriptive design requirements with performance-based airworthiness requirements, and the creation of an additional part would result in unnecessary confusion and overlap. However, the FAA will accept the use of the prescriptive means of compliance contained in former part 23 as one way to show compliance with new part 23. This will not apply to the sections containing new requirements, such as §§ 23.2135, 23.2150, and 23.2165 (proposed in the NPRM as §§ 23.200, 23.215, and 23.230). In addition, the FAA is issuing a policy statement identifying the means by which the FAA has addressed errors, findings of ELOS to various provisions of former part 23, and special conditions. This policy should be considered in defining means of compliance based on former part 23.
The FAA also considered Air Tractor's recommendation to not rename appendix G. As proposed in the NPRM, the FAA removed appendixes A through F. However, the FAA is renaming former appendix G to part 23, as appendix A to part 23—Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, because this final rule is a complete rewrite and beginning the appendices at G instead of A may cause confusion.
The following table identifies each requirement, its previously-proposed section in the NPRM, and its corresponding section in this final rule.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed amendments to part 23 to create an adaptive regulatory environment that could quickly embrace new safety-enhancing technologies and potentially increase the level of safety.
Wipaire, Inc. (Wipaire) viewed the proposal as allowing new and emerging technologies an effective means of certification, but one which offered little economic and certification relief to currently-established methods and technologies.
An individual commenter noted that the proposal would allow industry to push new techniques, materials, procedures, and targets without being hindered by the prescriptive requirements of former part 23. However, the commenter stated that the proposal could allow subpar designs to exist before the data suggests a failure in compliance.
The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), while recognizing consensus standards provide “a collaborative framework for standards development,” commented on a situation where, in its view, consensus standards did not provide adequate protection from catastrophic aerodynamic flutter. The NTSB expressed concern that design standards important for safety consideration may be overlooked, and it encouraged the FAA to refine its methodology.
The FAA understands the concerns over the level of safety required by the performance standards. However, by leveraging the expertise of consensus standards organizations and FAA specialists in determining whether those standards are acceptable, those means of compliance should provide at least the same level of safety as under the former process.
The FAA will continue to be responsible for determining that proposed airplane designs meet the applicable standards and ensuring that the proposed standards provide at least the same level of safety as did the former standards. Under new part 23, the first time an applicant presents a new proposal for a means of compliance, the FAA will require sufficient time and resources to determine whether it does, in fact, meet the objectives of those standards. This is the same process as under the former prescriptive standards. However, once the proposed means of compliance is determined to meet these standards, the approval process becomes more efficient. The FAA will no longer be required to issue special conditions (or other formal processes) to approve the means of compliance each time it is proposed, but can accept those means of compliance immediately as it is proposed.
In the NPRM, the FAA recognized that historical general design and performance assumptions may not be valid today. The FAA noted that former part 23 did not account for airplanes equipped with new technologies, such as electric propulsion systems, which may have features entirely different from piston and turbine engines. The FAA therefore proposed new regulations based on airplane performance and potential risk.
With respect to allowing new technologies, the Associations and Zee.Aero Inc. (Zee) were particularly concerned with the accommodation of alternative engines. The Associations stated that hybrid and electric propulsion is one of the near-term significant technological developments which absolutely must be accommodated into the new part 23 regulations structure.
Zee also commented on the advancements in hybrid and electric propulsion. Zee noted that new hybrid propulsion, control, and airframe configurations are already beginning to blur the lines between the traditional airplane categories. Zee questioned whether the FAA intends to continue to maintain strict airplane categories and create a new “category” every time a new unique category configuration emerges. Lastly, Zee noted that § 21.17(b) currently captures such airplane and wondered whether that section would become the norm for those cases.
The regulations adopted in this final rule do allow for alternative types of propulsion. The FAA does not intend to continue to use § 21.17(b) for unique category airplanes. The FAA plans to shift these unique airplanes from § 21.17(b) to part 23. Unique airplane that more closely resemble rotorcraft may be treated differently.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed changes to part 23 that would eliminate the workload of exemptions, special conditions, and ELOS findings necessary to certificate new part 23 airplanes. The NPRM did not specifically address the role of Designated Engineering Representatives (DERs) in the proposed process.
Several commenters addressed the impacts of the proposed rule changes on FAA engineers and DERs.
NetJets Association of Shared Aircraft Pilots (NJASAP) and Kestrel Aircraft Company (Kestrel) expressed concern that the process intended to streamline technological adoption may significantly increase the FAA's workload. Kestrel contended the increased workload for FAA engineers will create certification bottlenecks at the Aircraft Certification Offices (ACOs) as their staff work to understand and implement the changes.
The FAA recognizes workload during the transition to the new system may increase temporarily for industry and the FAA. Under the former part 23, the FAA had a workload of exemptions, special conditions, and ELOS findings necessary to certificate new part 23 airplanes. However, the FAA has determined in the long term, the workload for industry and the FAA will be less than the workload under former part 23. As estimated in the NPRM's regulatory evaluation summary, there will be savings resulting from streamlining the certification process by reducing the issuance special conditions, exemptions, and ELOS findings. The NPRM and final rule regulatory evaluation provides details for these cost savings and the methodology the FAA employed to estimate the cost savings.
Other commenters expressed concerns about how the DER process will fit in with the new regulations. Air Tractor questioned whether DERs will find compliance with accepted means of compliance. The National Air Traffic Controls Association (NATCA) asked whether DERs will issue acceptance statements or approvals. NATCA asked how the FAA will change the designee policy and asked whether the FAA intends to accept or approve the standards. Textron Aviation (Textron) requested clarification of the FAA's transition plan regarding Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) and DER delegations, in particular regarding continuity of authority from the old amendments to the new.
In response to concerns regarding the role of the DERs and ODA engineers, the FAA is developing transition training for the FAA engineers, ODA engineers, and the DERs. The FAA is also reviewing the relevant orders and policies for needed changes, but does not expect changes to the basic certification process as the FAA engineers and industry designees will still be responsible for finding compliance to the requirements in part 23. Furthermore, the FAA is developing a change management plan that will include formal training for both FAA engineers and staff and industry designees. Under existing policies and processes, designees must demonstrate the capability to make correct determinations of compliance with particular regulations before they are authorized to do so. This is unchanged by this rule. To the extent an applicant uses previously-accepted methods of compliance for which the designee has demonstrated such capability, the FAA may delegate compliance findings. If an applicant is proposing a new method of compliance, the designee's authority may be limited to only recommending a finding of compliance.
Kestrel contended standardization among ACOs would likely decrease due to lack of clearly-defined criteria and that divergent certification expectations would exacerbate existing issues of inconsistent application and interpretation of requirements.
While this final rule adopts high-level performance standards, the FAA intends to ensure consistent application through the process for determining the acceptability of their means of compliance. The FAA's certification standards staff will determine whether proposed consensus standards are acceptable and, if so, will publish a notice of availability of those standards in the
In response to NTSB's concerns about new technology, the FAA finds that shifting compliance emphasis to industry consensus standards is critical to ensuring the safety of new
In the NPRM's regulatory evaluation, the FAA assumed that FAA and industry part 23 certification engineers would require additional training as a result of this rule.
Some commenters expressed concern with training needs required by a new system. Kestrel noted the proposed rule would increase the workload of DERs, primarily because they will require additional training and FAA coordination to ensure proper understanding and implementation of the new certification process. NATCA noted the significant changes to part 23 will necessitate training of all FAA engineers, DERs, and ODA engineers. In particular, NATCA said designees and ODAs cannot be authorized to find compliance to part 23 until trained or demonstrated competence. NATCA recommended the FAA amend its delegation and ODA policy documents to reflect the changes to part 23 and implement training as soon as possible.
The NTSB expressed concern about increased demand on FAA engineers to evaluate new technologies as a result of the proposed changes to part 23. It suggested the FAA may face challenges similar to those encountered with the certification of the lithium-ion batteries in the Boeing 787, including insufficient guidance and education to ensure compliance with applicable requirements. The NTSB pointed to several safety recommendations it issued to the FAA in the wake of a lithium-ion battery incident in a Boeing 787 in 2013, which centered around developing and providing adequate written guidance and training to certification engineers.
The FAA agrees guidance and training are necessary and has delayed the effective date of this rule in order to complete the training development and implementation for ACOs, DERs, and industry. The FAA will continue to review orders and policies for needed changes.
The FAA proposed Advisory Circular (AC) 23.10,
NATCA requested the FAA publish new or revised Orders and policy documents for public review and comment prior to the issuance of the final rule. For example, how would a certification engineer recognize what is a “good compliance showing” to a new part 23 requirement and how would that engineer explain the compliance showing to an authorized representative of the Administrator. Also, how would a certification engineer minimize or avoid allegations from an applicant that the engineer is being inequitable in the application of the new part 23 requirement compared to how the requirements have been applied to other applicants.
NATCA noted applicants often use legal processes for approval of type design changes to obtain less expensive or extensive certification requirements for a design proposal, and that the “number of seats” has been used previously to finesse operating requirements applicability. NATCA questioned whether the FAA will permit this under new part 23 as established by the airplane certification levels and whether there will be any check or limitation or safety judgment made on this potential use of new part 23. NATCA requested the FAA publish an Order or policy addressing this issue.
One commenter was concerned the FAA will eventually leave the task of developing ACs for means of compliance to consensus bodies and individual applicants and opposed a system where public domain guidance must be purchased from a private entity. The commenter suggested that even if the FAA decides to discontinue updating its guidance, it should retain control and continue to permit the use of its existing guidance as well as provide a list of guidance with its status.
The FAA agrees with NATCA that updated guidance is needed and is in the process of reviewing current orders and policies and will use existing processes to implement those changes. The FAA also recognizes the potential that some applicants will attempt to “finesse” the applicability of requirements for higher airplane certification levels by limiting the maximum passenger capacity of their proposed designs. This potential is inherent in any attempt to establish different levels of safety based on the concept of the “safety continuum.” The disincentive for such finessing is the reduction of functionality, and therefore profitability, of the resulting design.
The FAA will continue to use all applicable ACs associated with part 23. Applicants will need to use the cross-reference table in this final rule preamble because the ACs will continue to reference the former section numbers. The FAA will expand the guidance in these ACs to better address the range of part 23 airplanes identified in industry consensus standard documents. The FAA has no plans to cancel the current ACs because they are still needed for older airplane modifications; therefore, the applicable ACs will still be available to applicants. Consensus standards bodies will develop means of compliance with the new regulations. The FAA will continue to develop ACs, as needed, to provide guidance to the public on what means of compliance would be acceptable. These functions are distinct, but complementary.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to remove prescriptive design requirements and replace them with performance-based airworthiness standards.
Some commenters expressed concern with the lack of concreteness in the proposed regulations. Transport Canada stated the standards required the definition of a safety objective to clarify the meaning of some terms. The National Agricultural Aircraft Association (NAAA) was concerned the proposed regulations could result in inconsistent interpretations. NATCA viewed the rules as too “stripped down” for non-experienced people and commented that the use of “vague” terms would make it difficult to apply the new rules. Air Tractor contended the proposed rules consolidated existing requirements into fewer “general” or “vaguely” worded rules.
Other commenters addressed perceived inconsistencies in the language of the proposed revisions to part 23. The Associations noted some of the proposed rules focused on the applicant while others focused on the airplane.
The FAA recognizes the final rule uses high-level performance standards, and in some cases, the requirements are not tightly specified. However, the FAA finds that tight specification is not needed as this final rule is consistent with the safety objectives of the former prescriptive standards. The cross-reference table in this final rule identifies what sections of this final rule are intended to meet the safety objectives of the former regulations. Because this final rule is intended to achieve at least the same level of safety as the former regulations, this comparison may be used as a guide to the various levels of acceptable risk associated with each section.
In response to the comment raised by GAMA and others, part 21 imposes obligations on applicants for design approvals; therefore, the references to the applicant in this final rule are consistent.
NATCA recommended the FAA add several provisions to part 23, including a requirement about loss of propeller or propeller control, provisions defining the levels of software certification needed, requirements that address impact protection from unmanned aircraft systems (UAS), and provisions about the introduction of new technologies.
The FAA considered NATCA's comments; however, the FAA declines to adopt NATCA's recommendations at this time. The FAA is not adding requirements about loss of propeller or propeller control and provisions defining the levels of software needed because these are more appropriately addressed in means of compliance. The FAA also finds it unnecessary to include specific provisions about the introduction of new technologies because all the regulations in new part 23 are intended to allow the introduction of new technologies. Furthermore, it would be outside the scope of this rulemaking to add requirements addressing impact protection from UAS.
In the NPRM, the FAA described how industry groups associated with the Part 23 ARC discussed the development of consensus standards and how the ARC selected ASTM as the appropriate organization to initiate this effort.
NATCA expressed concerns the FAA was relinquishing standardization and stated the FAA needed to articulate an expected minimum technology maturity level.
The FAA's process for reviewing applicant's submissions to verify compliance with the safety standards will address NATCA's concern regarding technology. This review process will not change from the way the FAA currently reviews an applicant's regulatory compliance. One of the purposes of this rule is to provide greater flexibility to applicants in showing they meet the objectives of the safety standards, and thus “standardization” in the strictest sense goes against this purpose. Similarly, with respect to minimum technology level, another purpose of this rule is to spur innovation and technology adoption. Therefore, requiring a certain technology maturity level would contradict that purpose.
In the NPRM, the FAA did not specifically address single-engine agricultural airplanes.
The NAAA commented that AC 21.25-1, Issuance of Type Certificate: Restricted Category Agricultural Airplanes, is currently used by the FAA to determine which part 23 certification requirements should not be part of an airplane's TC under § 21.25. NAAA questioned how the requirements found inappropriate for single-engine agricultural airplanes in AC 21.25-1 will influence the certification process.
The FAA notes the cross reference table located in this final rule correlates the sections referenced in AC 21.25-1 with the new regulations and associated means of compliance. Long term, the FAA recommends NAAA work with the FAA to develop means of compliance specific to restricted category agricultural airplanes.
In the NPRM, the FAA indicated the part 23 rulemaking was a harmonization project between the FAA and EASA. EASA published an Advance Notice of Proposed Amendment (A-NPA) 2015-06 on March 27, 2015, which set forth EASA's concept for its proposed reorganization of CS 23. The FAA received several comments on harmonization.
Garmin International (Garmin) and Agencia Nacional De Aviacao Civil Brazil (ANAC) commented on the significant differences between the NPRM and EASA's A-NPA. Garmin encouraged the FAA and EASA to resolve all differences before publishing their final regulations. Textron stressed the importance of harmonizing rule language with other major global certification authorities because a lack of harmonization would call into question whether one set of consensus standards would be adequate to achieve certifications worldwide. Textron expressed disappointment that the FAA's NPRM and EASA's A-NPA were not better aligned prior to publication. Textron explained the goal should be 100 percent harmonization with no exceptions. Garmin and Textron both commented on the significant costs that non-harmonized regulations would have on the industry.
EASA commented on the importance of using, as much as possible, the same text in CS 23 and part 23. EASA explained, however, that CS 23 was more of a technical standard, while proposed part 23 addressed the applicant's responsibility. To better align with CS 23, EASA suggested that the FAA require “the applicant's design” to meet certain requirements rather than “the applicant.”
Optimal Aerodynamics Ltd (Optimal) recognized the harmonization efforts that have taken place, but sought reassurance from the FAA that revisions to part 23 would not lead to greater differences with other CAA's certification standards. Assuming CS 23 aligns with part 23, Optimal asked if it would be possible to base compliance on EASA's revised CS 23 when applying to the FAA for certification under new part 23.
The FAA agrees that harmonization with EASA's standards is important. While identical language is not the goal, the FAA has worked closely with EASA to ensure the same basic requirements for part 23 and CS 23 in order that both authorities can accept the same set of industry means of compliance. For example, as discussed previously, references to the applicant's obligations (“the applicant must”) are consistent with part 21 and with EASA's counterpart requirement that applicants “show” compliance. To further this effort, the FAA has met with EASA,
As previously discussed in more detail, the FAA chartered the Part 23 ARC in 2011 to consider the reorganization of part 23 based on airplane performance and complexity and to investigate the use of consensus standards. The Part 23 ARC's recommendations were published in 2013 and are available in the docket.
Textron, Garmin, and several individuals commented on those ARC recommendations that were not proposed in the NPRM. In particular, these commenters requested the FAA adopt changes to 14 CFR part 21, “Certification Procedures for Products and Articles”; part 43, “Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration”; and part 91, “General Operating and Flight Rules”; as recommended by the ARC. These comments related to type certification procedures and airplane maintenance and operations. Similarly, several commenters requested the FAA adopt the ARC's recommendation to establish a “Primary Non-Commercial Category” (PNC), which also would have required revisions to part 21.
Several individual commenters noted that regulations applicable to existing airplanes make it difficult and expensive to implement safety improvements on those airplanes. These commenters questioned whether this rulemaking will address those issues.
While the FAA recognizes the commenters' concerns regarding the need to minimize the certification process burden, the FAA is not making additional changes to parts 21 or 43 because they are outside the scope of this rulemaking. The intent of this rulemaking is to remove the prescriptive design requirements from part 23 and replace them with performance-based airworthiness requirements. The FAA is, however, contemplating a future rulemaking that would make additional changes to part 21.
The FAA also considers the commenters' recommendations to create a PNC category for aging General Aviation (GA) airplanes to be outside the scope of the NPRM. The FAA did not propose to create a PNC category for aging GA airplanes, as the ARC recommended, because it is also out of scope of this rulemaking. However, the FAA is working to address the ARC recommendations that focused on the existing fleet and part 21 processes.
With respect to the existing fleet, the FAA does not expect the revisions to part 23 to provide immediate benefits to older airplanes. However, when an owner of an older airplane applies for a change to the airplane's TC in accordance with § 21.101, the applicant may choose to use the more flexible performance-based standards. In addition, as discussed later, the revision to § 21.9 will enable expedited approval of certain parts that will benefit the existing fleet.
The FAA received several comments on impacts to the existing fleet and on open/active projects.
Kestrel and Garmin asked how, under the proposed rule, the FAA will address active projects, derivative airplanes and changes to existing models. Kestrel noted § 21.101 requires regulatory compliance with the latest amendment while permitting certification on a case-by-case basis to an earlier amendment for changes to existing models and derivative airplanes. Kestrel noted it is common for applicants to receive significant compliance credit on the basis of “similarity/identicality.” Kestrel asked how the FAA would grant permission for an applicant for a derivative airplane to certify entirely to a previous amendment.
As discussed in the NPRM, the applicant has the option of using former part 23, amendment 23-62, as a means of compliance with new part 23 (except in the areas where this final rule raises the level of safety, as discussed previously). Since the new rule, combined with this accepted means of compliance, is identical to the former part 23 requirements (with exceptions noted in this preamble), methods of showing compliance—including “similarity/identicality”—are not affected for changes to existing airplane models. Furthermore, § 21.101 only requires regulatory compliance with the latest amendment for airplanes weighing more than 6,000 pounds. Section 21.101 also provides relief for airplanes weighing more than 6,000 pounds when the change is not significant or when compliance with a later amendment would not contribute materially to the level of safety or would be impractical
Garmin requested more details on the changes the FAA believes would streamline the process for design approval and lower costs and project delays. Garmin also asked the FAA to clarify how existing special conditions, ELOS findings, and exemptions would be handled if an applicant wants to “step up” to the new amendment.
The FAA has determined the cost and time savings will result from the greater flexibility afforded by this final rule to both applicants and the FAA to find compliance for innovative new technologies. For traditional designs, the FAA expects applicants will be able to use the new part 23 in the same way older Civil Air Regulation, part 3 (CAR 3) airplanes are modified using former part 23 regulations. The FAA will still find compliance with the regulations, and since the new regulations allow greater flexibility by relying on accepted means of compliance, there should be little need for special conditions, ELOS findings, or exemptions, all of which require additional cost and time.
An individual and Air Tractor expressed concern over third-party modifiers of airplanes who were not part of the original certification process. The commenters suggested a third-party modifier could propose its own means of compliance and regard it as proprietary, which may conflict with the means of compliance used in the original basis of certification. The commenters were concerned an STC or field approval could become more difficult and create more work for the FAA.
The FAA notes the situation raised by the commenters currently exists with proprietary means of compliance, and this will not change with the new performance-based regulations. As under the former regulations, STC applicants will continue to be required to demonstrate that their changes, and areas affected by the changes, comply with the applicable regulations. The FAA anticipates no increased potential for conflict with the original design.
NATCA recommended the FAA make changes to the general definitions of 14 CFR 1.1 concurrently with the part 23 rewrite, including revising the definition of “consensus standard” because it applies to more than Light-Sport Aircraft (LSA), adding the definition of “proprietary standard,” and reconciling the differences between the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) airplane categories and the new definitions in part 23.
The FAA has determined there is no need to define the terms, “consensus
While NJASAP supported the LOC In-Flight and SLD safety enhancements, it stated runway excursions are another significant risk. NJASAP supported requiring secondary or emergency braking systems and recommended a requirement for powerplant reversing systems to be installed on all level 3 and 4 high-speed airplanes to help reduce the top three accident types. For the goal of reducing loss-of-control accidents, NJASAP supported—along with other aerodynamic improvements—the FAA requiring a device that gives a trained pilot immediate feedback on the status of the airplane's wing. NJASAP recommended level 3 high-speed airplanes be included in the safety enhancements required for level 4 airplanes because they will be flying similar missions, and Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) will target the level 3 certification category and stop certifying as many level 4 airplanes.
The FAA finds that requiring emergency braking systems and powerplant reversing systems is beyond the scope of this rulemaking and would add additional costs. Requiring a device that gives a trained pilot immediate feedback on the status of the wing is also beyond the scope of this rulemaking, but a device like this could be used (and the FAA encourages its use) as part of the low-speed stall protection. Furthermore, the design specific nature of these recommendations is inconsistent with the FAA's goal of performance-based requirements in this rule revision. The new rule structure will allow for these alternative devices.
The FAA considered NJASAP's recommendation that level 3 airplanes be included in the level 4 safety enhancements because of levels 3 and 4 airplanes' similar missions. In this final rulemaking, the FAA retains the traditional approach of drawing safety distinctions based on airplane capacity and operational risk.
The NTSB commented on the proposed rule's focus on qualitative design methodologies, but recommends the use of both quantitative and qualitative design methodologies as the FAA has done historically. The NTSB pointed to proposed §§ 23.305 and 23.1315 and the continued reliance on the requirements of former § 23.1309, which only addresses the effects of single failures. The NTSB contended that the consideration of multiple failures should be required in the revised part 23 when active systems may potentially be used in commercial operations and the airplane may be more complex.
The FAA's intent in this rule is to maintain the current level of safety. The FAA is currently engaged in rulemaking for transport airplanes to address the NTSB's concerns. Depending on the outcome of that rulemaking, the FAA may consider similar rulemaking for part 23 in the future.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to accept consensus standards as a means of compliance with the new part 23 performance-based regulations. Abbott Aerospace SEZC, Ltd. (Abbott) and Kestrel questioned the legality of using ASTM as a means of compliance.
Abbott stated the proposed change is illegal as the new ASTM standards constitute de facto law despite being labelled “advisory” and are the only realistic path to certify an airplane. Abbott claimed this mislabeling will lead to confusion and cause industry to incur the cost of purchasing the ASTM standards under the belief that they constitute law and that compliance is mandatory.
Kestrel also questioned the legality of relinquishing FAA guidance to a private entity and of using ASTM as the single standards body. Kestrel opposed handing over public domain guidance to a private entity for creation of its own standards, which will be provided back to the industry for a fee. Kestrel suggested the FAA retain control and continue to permit the use of its existing guidance.
In light of the comments, the FAA reviewed its approach to use consensus standards as means of compliance with this rule. On November 27, 2013, the President of the United States signed SARA whereby Congress mandated the FAA use consensus standards to clarify how safety objectives may be met by specific designs and technologies. SARA also requires the FAA to comply with the “National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995” (NTTAA), which directs Federal agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in lieu of government-mandated standards when practicable. This rulemaking also complies with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-119, “Voluntary Consensus Standards,” which provides guidance on how to comply with NTTAA. OMB Circular A-119 specifically addresses the issues raised by the commenters and establishes the policy that agencies should consider cost to regulated entities of using consensus standards as one factor in determining whether those standards are “reasonably available.” The FAA has considered the cost of ASTM standards and determined, for purposes of this rulemaking, ASTM standards are reasonably available because the interested parties have access to them through their normal course of business and the price is low enough that interested parties can easily purchase them.
In addition, ASTM will not create de facto law nor be the single standard-setting body, or custodian of public domain documents. The FAA expects to accept means of compliance from individuals, companies, and other standards bodies, including ASTM. While the use of a previously accepted means of compliance will likely expedite the certification process, no applicant will be required to use ASTM or any other means of compliance. Instead, an applicant may propose its own means of compliance for acceptance, or demonstrate compliance to the new rule by using the prescriptive provisions in former part 23 and supporting guidance—all of which will remain publically available. As discussed in the NPRM, the long-term benefit and cost reduction provided by this rule is that it will allow the introduction of new technologies without the formal processes that currently increase certification costs and inhibit innovation.
The American Association of Justice (AAJ) commented that the new part 23 performance standards should not preempt state tort law because state tort law functions as a necessary adjunct to federal regulations that impose only minimum standards of care. AAJ urged the FAA to avoid any language that could allow the new standards to be construed as preempting state law for defectively designed or produced airplane, or characterizing the standards beyond what is authorized by the Federal Aviation Act.
AAJ's comment regarding preemption of state tort law in aviation cases was
The FAA received comments from five commenters (four companies and one individual) on the summary of the regulatory evaluation published as part of the NPRM. In the NPRM regulatory evaluation, the FAA requested that commenters include data supporting their comments, but no commenter submitted any cost or benefit data with its comments.
Kestrel stated that all applicants will benefit from decreased certification costs and hopes the cost savings are tangible and can be realized in a short time frame; however, Kestrel anticipates an increased workload after the rule is adopted to train its personnel on the new standards. Abbott, Air Tractor, and one individual commenter characterized the cost benefit analysis as incomplete.
In the NPRM, the FAA stated that if the proposed rule saves only one human life—for example, by improving stall characteristics and stall warning—that alone would result in the benefits outweighing the costs of the rule change. Air Tractor characterized this statement as “vacuous.” Air Tractor went on to comment that its industry places a high value on protecting human life and expends enormous energy, talent, and resources to protect it.
The FAA intended this statement as a simplified break-even analysis of the likely benefits of the proposed rule. It was not intended to replace the costs and benefits detailed in the regulatory evaluation. The complete regulatory evaluation, located in the docket, is more comprehensive than the summary that appears in the NPRM preamble and contains the estimates provided to the agency by industry.
Abbott stated there was no clear indication of how the proposed change would reduce net cost or expedite the certification process. Abbott concluded there were “potential significant additional” costs created by the proposed rule, but no obvious or defined cost reduction. Abbott characterized the proposed regulations as having an unknown cost impact and stated these unknown costs represent a yet-unassessed and unavoidable cost for airplane developers. Abbott also stated that any additional cost the proposed rule places on industry that is not offset by cost reduction elsewhere does harm to the industry.
The FAA notes that under the proposed rule, applicants may choose to use an industry consensus standard, the former part 23 standards (available at no cost), or its own means of compliance accepted by the Administrator. The FAA presumes an applicant will use these options to make the best economic choices given the circumstances of design and development for its product. Such choices are an inherent strength of a performance-based standard, but cannot effectively be analyzed for costs or benefits, especially if a design encompasses new technology that was never subject to the former regulation. Similarly, the FAA cannot predict the viability of the products or the financial health of an unknown start-up company under a regulation that allows for, but does not require, its products be used in any airplane design.
Air Tractor commented the FAA's analysis of the proposed rule impact on small entities did not include Air Tractor and Thrush Aircraft (Thrush).
Air Tractor was concerned that data from only 5 entities was used in the regulatory flexibility analysis. It noted the FAA should have included every company that has active manufacturing activities and the data used were non-representative of the overall industry. Air Tractor also indicated the inclusion of Thrush and itself would have doubled the number of employees and annual revenues represented in the analysis. Additionally, Air Tractor believed the FAA should have also included the TC holders of small airplanes that are no longer being manufactured but require TC support and STC holders that certificate products to the part 23 standards.
Finally, Air Tractor concluded that the omission of non U.S.-owned entities that “operate” in the United States presented a “distorted view of the true impact” of the proposed rule on the general aviation industry in the United States.
The FAA conducted its analysis in accordance with the “Small Business Regulatory Flexibility Act.” For each regulatory flexibility analysis, an agency is required to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities to which its proposed rule would apply. Many, if not most, small entities do not provide publically available information such as employment data that would allow an agency to determine if a business qualifies as a small entity under the guidelines of the Small Business Administration (SBA). Nor is there publicly available revenue data for these entities that make it possible to determine the burden of a proposed or final rule on these entities. The FAA does not have the authority or the means to require any entity to report its employment or revenue data. Accordingly, the FAA does not have the requisite knowledge of every company that still has active manufacturing activities that might be subject to the proposed rule.
The small business entities the FAA used in its analysis had provided data on their employment and revenue either through the regulations of U.S. DOT Form 41, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or through news releases that the entities made public. Neither Air Tractor nor Thrush have such data on record, and Air Tractor did not provide employment or revenue data for itself as part of its comment.
The five entities examined as part of the FAA's analysis qualified as small entities under the SBA criteria and were either actively manufacturing airplane or were under new ownership and had publically announced they were working toward setting up an airplane manufacturing line that would be subject to part 23. Airplanes previously certificated under part 23 will not be affected by the regulations affecting new certifications, so TC holders of operating airplanes who are not actively seeking some certification are not appropriately excluded from the analysis. The same holds true for STC holders that used the part 23 standards in effect at the time of these airplane original certifications.
The regulatory flexibility analysis conducted for the proposed rule did not include any non-U.S. entities because, similar to the domestic firms referenced above, the employment and revenue information required for the analysis was not publicly available.
Textron stated that although the FAA identified a need for improved certification standards for operation in severe icing conditions, it did not provide a cost benefit analysis to show that part 23 airplanes would benefit from them.
The FAA did conduct a cost benefit analysis of the icing requirement. Flying into icing is risky and the ARC identified part 23 airplane icing
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed that for a part 23 airplane to be certificated to fly in known icing conditions, an applicant would have to demonstrate operation in the icing conditions defined in part 25 appendix C. This requirement did not change from the former part 23 requirements. As a safety matter, for many years airplanes currently certificated under part 23 have demonstrated the ability to detect and safely exit from freezing rain and freezing drizzle conditions.
The standards and requirements for the various icing certification levels were discussed extensively with the Part 23 Icing ARC (Icing ARC) and the Part 23 ARC. The new rule and standards for detecting and exiting freezing drizzle and freezing rain are consistent with and include significant parts of the Icing ARC's recommendations.
Textron recommended the FAA change the limitation on part 23 airplanes from its proposed gross takeoff weight limit of 19,000 pounds (maintaining the current part 23 limit) to a maximum payload limitation of 6,000 pounds. Textron stated the change would have a dramatic positive impact on the potential costs and benefits of the proposed change.
This change is beyond the scope of this rulemaking for the FAA to consider. This change was not proposed by the FAA and would be a fundamental change to part 23 that could potentially affect certification of airplanes under part 25.
The FAA stated it expected minimal new reporting and recordkeeping requirements would result from the proposed rule and requested comments on this finding. The FAA received no comments on reporting or recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, the FAA adopts the regulations as proposed, and will make no change to the regulatory evaluation regarding the reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Several commenters requested changes to regulations or to existing FAA processes and guidance materials that are not directly related to this rulemaking. The FAA is not addressing these comments specifically because they are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to use the same cockpit voice recorder (CVR) and flight data recorder (FDR) standards that exist in former §§ 23.1457 and 23.1459. The proposed rule included revised references to other sections of proposed part 23, but no substantive changes to those standards.
The NTSB stated it is pleased the NPRM retained the needed prescriptive design standards in proposed §§ 23.1457 and 23.1459. The NTSB added it would be appropriate for the FAA to include a requirement for image recorders, which it described in its Safety Recommendation A-13-12, dated May 6, 2013.
The FAA considered the NTSB's request to add requirements for image recorders. No functional or operational requirements to record images has ever been proposed or evaluated for costs and benefits. Any such requirements would constitute significant rulemaking and require public participation, and therefore exceeds the scope of this rule.
EASA and the Associations stated the CVR and FDR requirements stem from ICAO annex 6 requirements, which are already based upon EUROCAE industry standards ED-155; ED-112A, “MOPS for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder System;” and ED-155, “MOPS Lightweight Flight Recording Systems.” They suggested the FAA redraft the regulations to be more performance-based and number the regulations in accordance with any new numbering scheme, and change the references from the operating regulations as soon as practical.
The interplay between operation and certification regulations remains the reason for carrying the current standards unchanged into the new part 23. Redrafting them to objective standards, as suggested by EASA and the Associations could result in varying data sets between operators without any discernible benefit for such variation. Changing the standards only for part 23 airplanes certificated after a particular date would also require significant changes to the regulations under which the airplanes operate, adding complication without any noted benefit.
NJASAP supported the FAA's decision to maintain the current standards for cockpit voice recorders (§ 23.1457), noting that removing the current prescriptive requirements could hinder the conduct of future accident investigations. NJASAP did not comment on § 23.1459, “Flight data recorders”.
Commenters opposed to retaining the standards generally characterized them as too prescriptive. While accepting the need to maintain the numbering system to align with other regulations, EASA found the unchanged content to be detailed, design specific, and not providing the safety intent. The EASA-suggested language referenced recorder systems with more generalized statements regarding installation and technical specifications. BendixKing stated that it “seems binary” that the “specifics are invoked” only “if recording is required.” It also noted that the standards use approximately 1,000 words when 100 would be adequate in stating the safety intent. It concluded the requirement as written will hurt safety in the future by either retarding the technology or creating an environment where manufacturers will avoid recording. BendixKing included the identical comment for both recorder sections.
The primary use of both CVRs and FDRs is for accident investigation. Over the past 30 years, the FAA has worked with the NTSB to adopt and refine the specific requirements that document both flightcrew communication and the functions of airplane that form the basis for airplane accident and incident investigation. The FAA adopted the first significant flight data recorder upgrades in 1997 and made a concerted effort to standardize the operational and certification requirements across the operating and certification parts. The primary requirements for recording voice and data are not contained in the certification regulations, but in the operating regulations. When an airplane is required by an operating rule to record voice or flight data, the operating rule references back to the standards for the equipment in the certification part that applies to the airplane. This is true for large and small airplanes and for helicopters.
Airplane certification requirements do not align perfectly with operating regulations. A part 23 airplane may be operated under part 91 or 135; therefore,
Therefore, the FAA finds it appropriate to retain these well-known requirements. The current integration of the operating and certification regulations is well established and functioning as intended. The need for investigative data following accidents and incidents is not forecasted to change. The commenters did not specify which of the current requirements were inappropriate or unnecessary, but merely expressed general concerns that the standards might inhibit safety in future designs. The FAA has long acknowledged the safety intent of flight recorders in providing investigators with the tools to recognize trends and malfunctions following accident and incidents. Consistency in the equipment and data that come from the equipment remains the goal.
BendixKing's observation that the certification rules are invoked only when “recording is required” is accurate. As explained, the certification requirements for installation and use of this equipment are only effective when required by an operating rule. Once required, all the equipment must function to the same standards. The fact that recording is required under different operating regulations, and the certification regulations referenced in those operating regulations, is the reason for not changing them for one certification part. If an airplane is not required by operational rule to record voice or data, then the specificity of the certification regulations is not an issue. The commenters did not include proposed design or functional changes for new airplane that might affect the requirements as stated. If a novel design is proposed in the future that affects recorder function, before approval, the FAA would coordinate with the applicant to ensure such design features meet the needs of accident and incident investigation.
Textron commented on proposed § 23.1457(c), which retains the current language requiring each CVR to be installed so that specified communications are recorded on a separate channel. The regulation currently and as proposed specifies four separate channels—the first channel for the first pilot, the second channel for the second pilot, the third channel at the cockpit-mounted area microphone, and the fourth channel for the third and fourth crewmembers. Textron commented that these CVR channel assignments are a “legacy” from magnetic tape recorders and there is no physical effect of such assignment on current solid-state recorders. Textron stated the current channel assignments are different and, therefore, paragraph (c) language should be revised to allow for flexibility in channel assignment or be aligned with the assignments manufacturers currently use. In addition, Textron noted that a proposed rule of EASA does not specify channels, but instead references the more detailed requirement of an ASTM standard.
Textron's comment—that the requirement for separate channels does not reflect the reality of currently-manufactured equipment—is limited in its view. While the regulation does require separated recording of different voice communication channels, the rule is flexible enough to avoid the issue raised by Textron. Regardless of an applicant's CVR channel numbering scheme, the regulation is satisfied if the CVR is designed to record audio sources on dedicated channels. This remains the FAA's policy on this regulation, which includes Textron's products already installed in airplanes that meet the former regulation.
An individual commenter noted the proposed rule seemed to anticipate an onboard storage system that must withstand a crash.
The FAA is aware that, at some point in the future, recordings may no longer need to be stored on board airplane. The FAA participates in international working groups that monitor these technology trends. There are many technical and legal issues attached to wireless transmission of voice and data communications. A change to allow such transmission and storage would affect several parts of the CFR and the functions of the NTSB, which were not proposed or discussed as part of this rulemaking.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to relocate the requirements for Instructions for Continued Airworthiness from § 23.1529 to proposed § 23.1515. The FAA also proposed to remove appendixes A through F, and rename Appendix G to Part 23—Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, as Appendix A to Part 23—Instructions for Continued Airworthiness.
Upon further consideration, the FAA has decided to retain the requirements for Instructions for Continued Airworthiness in § 23.1529. A change to § 23.1529 would affect many other parts and guidance documents, which reference the section. Because of the new numbering scheme in part 23, § 23.1529 is located in the “Legacy Regulations” section of the final rule. The appendix for Instructions for Continued Airworthiness is now located in Appendix A to Part 23, as proposed.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1 (now § 23.2000) would have prescribed airworthiness standards for issuance of type certificates, and changes to those certificates, for airplanes in the normal category. It also would have deleted references to utility, acrobatic, commuter category airplanes. Proposed § 23.1 also would have included definitions for the following terms specific to part 23: Continued safe flight and landing, designated fire zone, and empty weight.
Air Tractor asked why it was necessary to use the term “category” if there is only one “normal” category.
The FAA notes that there is a need to retain the concept of different categories because other parts of the FAA's regulations, including the certification and operating rules, set certain requirements based on an airplane's category.
An individual commenter opposed the elimination of the utility category as related to spin training for existing airplanes. The commenter would support elimination of the utility category if there would be a reevaluation of the airplanes allowed to be used for spin training. This
This rule does not affect the category of existing airplanes, nor does it require the TCDS be revised or reformatted. Airplanes currently certified in the utility category for spin training retain that capability under this new rule. Furthermore, the airworthiness of the existing fleet will not be affected by this rule.
An individual commenter recommended the FAA clarify whether the term “continued safe flight and landing” would not consider weather, environmental, or surface conditions in the event of a forced landing.
The FAA agrees that it should clarify that in the event of a forced landing, the definition of “continued safe flight and landing” does not include consideration of weather, environmental, or surface conditions beyond those already taken into account by the FAA's operating rules. The FAA expects that a pilot will conduct his or her flight within the FAA's operating rules and the airplane's normal operating envelope, and finds doing so will help ensure the pilot has safe landing options. The FAA's intent was to maintain the existing level of safety for small airplanes. Historically, single-engine and light twin-engine airplanes have been required to have characteristics that minimized the resulting hazards when a loss of engine forced an off-airport landing. The requirements for larger, multiengine part 23 airplanes are based on the requirement to continue flight back to an airport after the loss of an engine. This rule retains this requirement as it applies to part 23 airplanes that cannot maintain altitude after a critical loss of thrust. The FAA will provide additional clarification in guidance. It is not appropriate for the FAA to establish airworthiness standards for “continued safe flight and landing” that would require all airplane designs to account for extreme conditions—such as mountainous terrain—and extreme weather, because pilots who decide to fly over dangerous terrain or in weather have chosen to greatly reduce their options for safe landing.
The FAA proposed including a definition of “designated fire zone” that was flexible enough to capture both the historical understanding of fire zones and those areas in airplanes that incorporate novel design concepts that merit the increased safety measures. However, the FAA finds including a definition of “designated fire zone” will cause confusion and result in less flexibility. Rather than include a definition, the FAA will maintain the same understanding as the historical use of the term “fire zone,” a well-understood term that has been in use for decades and generally includes the areas of an airplane in which a powerplant, or some portion thereof, resides. Accordingly, the FAA will remove the definition from the rule and will determine which areas are designated fire zones in the specific means of compliance. Furthermore, specific sections of the new rule have added the term “fire zone” back into the rule so there is a clear link to means of compliance.
EASA commented the proposed definition of “empty weight” is too design specific and should be eliminated. EASA noted future technological developments would necessitate changes and future rulemakings, which is at odds with the objective to make objective rules change resistant for the next 20 years.
The FAA agrees the definition of “empty weight” is too design specific because the list of traditional features included may not apply to all airplanes in the future. Accordingly, the FAA deletes the definition from the final rule and will rely on means of compliance to address the requirements for each airplane. This will allow the FAA to capture the appropriate features for new propulsion systems and configurations without losing the means of compliance for traditional airplanes.
Air Tractor recommended the FAA provide a definition for “minimum flying weight” that would include the weight of the necessary crew and the minimum fuel required for legal operation for the lightest equipped airplane that complies with type design requirements. It asserted there is no point in the FAA certifying an airplane as safe for operation below the minimum weight at which the airplane can be operated.
The FAA finds Air Tractor's recommended definition of “minimum flying weight” is not an appropriate substitute for empty weight. Empty weight is used to provide a baseline for an airplane; establishing a “minimum flying weight” would not work for that purpose.
Embraer suggested the FAA include definitions for “Aircraft Power Unit,” “Fuel,” “Critical lightning strike,” and “Fuel system” in proposed § 23.1(b).
The FAA notes Embraer's suggestion to add definitions to proposed § 23.1(b); however, these definitions are addressed in their respective subparts. The terms “Aircraft Power Unit,” “Fuel,” and “Fuel System” are addressed in subpart E, and the term “Critical lightning strike” is addressed in subpart D. Furthermore, adding these definitions could lead to more confusion than clarification.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.5 (now § 23.2005) would have applied certification in the normal category to airplanes with a passenger-seating configuration of 19 or less and a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less. Proposed § 23.5 would have also established certification levels based on the passenger seating configuration and airplane performance levels based on speed. Proposed § 23.5 also would have established a “simple” airplane classification.
Air Tractor and Textron questioned the imposition of a weight-based limitation for certification in the “normal” category in proposed § 23.5(a). Both commenters indicated that tying the applicability of part 23 to a maximum takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds would not meet the FAA's objective of replacing the current weight and propulsion divisions in small airplane regulations with performance- and risk-based divisions. Air Tractor also commented there was no basis for weight differentiation between normal and transport category airplanes on the FAA's safety continuum and suggested it would be more consistent to only use certification levels and speed categories. Air Tractor further suggested that applicants should be free to decide between certification under part 23 and certification under “the greater rigor” of part 25. Textron recommended the FAA replace the 19,000-pound maximum takeoff weight limit with a 6,000-pound maximum payload limit.
The FAA notes Air Tractor's and Textron's comments to extend the scope of the normal category. However, these comments are beyond the scope of this rulemaking. The NPRM proposed to replace the prescriptive airworthiness standards of part 23 with performance-based standards, not to change the scope of applicability of part 23.
Textron recommended the FAA include considerations for airplane functional or system complexity as a determining factor in certification requirements.
The FAA notes this rule already considers system complexity during certification. The requirements applicable to an airplane depend on reliable indicators of complexity—the airplane's designed cruising speed or maximum operating limit speed, and the maximum number of passengers. The airworthiness standards accommodate all degrees of complexity, which will specifically be addressed in accepted means of compliance.
NATCA opposed the FAA's proposal to create certification and performance levels based on passenger capacity and airspeed in proposed § 23.5(b) and (c). NATCA noted that this approach was not consistent with how some foreign authorities with whom the United States has bilateral agreements “bucket” airplane classifications, including EASA, which classifies certification levels based on weight.
The FAA is not required to use the same metrics to classify airplanes as its bilateral partners. For example, Article 15 of the Agreement between the United States of America and the European Union on Cooperation in the Regulation of Civil Aviation Safety expressly reserves the authority for the United States to determine the level of protection it considers appropriate for civil aviation safety and to make changes to its regulations, procedures, and standards. Additionally, foreign authorities, including EASA, have been involved in the FAA's part 23 rulemaking effort since its inception with the Part 23 ARC. All foreign authorities involved in the part 23 reorganization effort agreed on the need to eliminate the divisions in part 23 based on weight and propulsion. Furthermore, the FAA's actions are consistent with EASA's actions.
NATCA also contended the FAA should retain a weight criterion because it relates to crash energy.
The FAA notes the risk associated with operating a 19,000-pound, level 1, low-speed airplane is accounted for in this rule by directly addressing the technologies installed on the airplane. For example, an airplane approved for instrument flight rules (IFR) has to meet the reliability requirements for IFR, regardless of level. Also, the FAA's operating rules mitigate the airplane's operational risk.
NATCA also asked the FAA to clarify that an applicant would not qualify for a lower certification level simply by removing seats and to publish guidance on determining certification levels.
The FAA notes, as set forth in § 23.5 (now § 23.2005), an airplane's certification level depends only on its maximum passenger seating configuration. This number does not include flightcrew. The maximum passenger seating capacity is known during the certification process; therefore, the airplane must comply with the standards applicable to that certification level. An airplane operator's decision to remove a passenger seat after certification does not affect the standards applicable to that airplane.
NATCA also recommended the FAA review the proposed part 23 certification levels to incorporate LSA and primary category airplane and create equivalent regulations as necessary.
The FAA notes that NATCA's suggestion is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. This rulemaking's purpose is to replace prescriptive design requirements of part 23 with performance-based standards, not expand the scope of part 23's applicability. The LSA and primary category certification processes exist as separate certification paths for airplane that qualify as either a LSA or primary airplane.
NATCA further commented by asking—
• Whether the intent is for airplane models with multiple configurations to have each configuration listed on the TCDS;
• Whether there can be dual or more categories on one TC; and
• Whether an airplane can be moved between levels and speed definitions during operational usage and, if so, whether this needs to be captured as different options on the TCDS.
In response to NATCA's question regarding multiple configurations, the FAA notes that if an airplane model has multiple configurations, the applicant will have to accept as the certification basis the requirements of the most stringent certification and performance levels available in the configuration list. If the applicant chooses not to comply with the most stringent requirements applicable to the configurations, the applicant will have to address each model individually on the TCDS. With respect to the number of categories on a TC, the FAA is eliminating the commuter, utility, and acrobatic airplane categories in part 23 for the reasons explained in the NPRM. Therefore, airplanes certified under new part 23 have only one category: normal.
Lastly, with respect to NATCA's question regarding airplanes moving between certification levels and speed definitions, an applicant either accepts the most stringent certification basis or addresses each model individually on the TCDS or by an STC. In order to move to a higher level, it will be necessary to recertify the airplane to the higher-level standard.
NJASAP supported the proposal to use passenger capacity and airspeed to establish airplane certification and performance levels, but expressed concerns the methodology may go too far in generalizing a very diverse group of airplanes.
The FAA understands NJASAP's concern, but notes the certification and performance levels are used to replace the weight and propulsion divisions in the former requirements. The levels are general to allow the accepted means of compliance to more accurately address the various technical differences.
Kestrel supported the FAA's proposed airplane certification levels, but expressed concern with the impact of migrating the Airplane Classes in former § 23.1309 (I, II, III, IV)
The FAA notes that there is no direct connection between the systems-based airplane classes from AC 23.1309-1E
Air Tractor commented generally that it does not see a big difference in the certification effort required by the different certification and performance levels. Air Tractor suggested there could be a difference in required levels of safety for equipment, but indicated it was impossible to tell because the FAA had not yet defined the levels of
The FAA acknowledges that Air Tractor is correct in that there could be a difference in the required levels of safety between two airplanes based on the FAA's safety continuum philosophy. Differences in products and their associated risks justifies using different levels of safety. While the high-level performance requirements are the same for all products, the required level of safety is best addressed using means of compliance so that each project is assigned the appropriate level of safety. Although language in the preamble does not supersede the language of the regulation itself, the preamble is evidence of the FAA's contemporaneous understanding of its proposed rules, and may serve as a source of evidence concerning contemporaneous agency intent.
Several commenters questioned the meaning of “passengers” as used in the descriptions of certification levels in proposed § 23.5(b), particularly for airplanes that may require 1 or 2 crew depending on operating regulations.
The FAA elects to use the term “passenger” to align with the operating rules, and because passenger count has historically correlated to risk tolerance. The term “passenger” excludes “flightcrew” members. The FAA recognizes the concerns over confusion because the ARC discussed this issue at length and it was again discussed within the FAA. Based on these discussions, the FAA finds “passenger” is the most appropriate term. As one of the commenters noted, the “crew” could include one or more “occupants.” Part 23 airplanes can include special use airplanes that may require multiple flightcrew members, but have no provisions for passengers. Part 23 is also used for airplanes that carry no “flightcrew” or “passengers” today (
Several organizations commented specifically on the proposed airspeed limits for the low-speed and high-speed performance levels established in proposed § 23.5(c). NATCA suggested the use of design cruising speed (V
The FAA notes both V
Transport Canada commented specifically on the parameters for the low-speed performance level in proposed § 23.5(c)(1). In particular, Transport Canada said V
The FAA agrees with Transport Canada concerning the use of “and” versus “or” and revises the rule accordingly.
Air Tractor contended that the parenthetical references to M
Garmin commented that some airplanes do not have a M
The FAA agrees that the proposed rule was unclear and revises the final rule to clarify that M
ANAC commented that the FAA should use stall speed instead of V
The FAA does not agree that stall speed is the best parameter to use for determining performance levels. Although an airplane's top speed generally has been aerodynamically limited to a multiple of stall speed that varied depending on propulsion, this is not true for all airplanes and does not provide the necessary flexibility to address airplanes that incorporate new technology. For example, there are airplanes in development that have very low-stall speeds—the airplane can land and takeoff in very little space, or even vertically—but may have V
The FAA proposed to define “simple” airplanes to recognize the entry-level airplane. Simple airplanes would have been limited to airplane designs that allow no more than one passenger, are limited to VFR operations, and have a low top speed and a low stall speed.
ICON, Transport Canada, BendixKing, NATCA, and two individual commenters supported the inclusion of a separate “simple” airplane classification. However, Zee and the Associations commented that the FAA should not create a “simple” airplane classification, and that each of the proposed certification and performance levels should stand on its own based solely on performance and complexity of operations. The commenters against inclusion of a “simple” category contended that it was more appropriate to address this sort of classification in the means of compliance.
The FAA has decided not to adopt a “simple” airplane classification. The FAA finds the addition of a simple category does not produce benefits over those already provided by the new rule. The FAA finds it is more appropriate to address the requirements for a level 1, low-speed airplanes. Additionally, in the NPRM, the FAA proposed allowing simple airplanes to use non-type-certificated engines and propellers to allow those airplanes to use electric propulsion. The FAA can achieve the same flexibility by approving electronic propulsion as part of an airframe for a level 1, low-speed airplane; therefore, the FAA revises the propulsion requirements in this rule to provide that flexibility.
The FAA proposed to eliminate the acrobatic airplane category in part 23, but still allow a normal category airplane to be approved for aerobatics provided the airplane was certified to address the factors affecting safety for the defined limits for that kind of operation.
Velica S.A.S. (Velica) recommended the FAA define “aerobatic category” in proposed § 23.5 to include airplanes without any maneuver restrictions, other than those shown to be necessary as a result of required flight tests.
For the reasons explained in the NPRM, the FAA removed the acrobatic category from part 23. The FAA agrees with Velica that the limitations for an airplane certified for aerobatics should be based on flight tests, but believes more specificity is warranted. Therefore, the FAA will require airplanes certified for aerobatics to comply with the limitations established under subpart G of part 23 in this rule.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.10 (now § 23.2010) would have required an applicant to show the FAA how it would demonstrate compliance with this part using a means of compliance, which may include consensus standards accepted by the Administrator. Proposed § 23.10 would have also required a person requesting acceptance of a means of compliance to provide the means of compliance to the FAA in a form and manner specified by the Administrator. Proposed § 23.10 would have created flexibility for applicants in developing means of compliance and also specifically identify consensus standards as a means of compliance the Administrator may find acceptable.
The Associations recommended the FAA revise paragraph (a) to require an applicant to “comply” with part 23, rather than “show the FAA how it will demonstrate compliance” with part 23, using a means of compliance. The Associations also recommended revising paragraph (b) to require an acceptable means of compliance to be in a form and manner specified by the Administrator.
The Associations also argued that, without these changes, the proposed rule could have been interpreted as requiring each applicant to come to agreement with the FAA on acceptable means of compliance for each certification project, when it appears the FAA intends to issue acceptance of methods of compliance in, for example, standards that are already deemed acceptable. The commenters also noted that part 21 does not currently require a showing of compliance in all cases. The commenters stated that today, and potentially more so in the future, the FAA may accept compliance through demonstration or even a statement of compliance. The commenters contended the above-referenced revisions to proposed § 23.10 are necessary to ensure the designs meeting part 23 can continue to fully utilize part 21.
The FAA agrees with the commenters that proposed § 23.10(a) (now § 23.2010(a)) may have had the unintended result of requiring applicants to get approval from the FAA for each means of compliance even when the FAA had already accepted a means of compliance. This would have been counter to the FAA's intention that a means of compliance, once accepted by the FAA, may be used for future applications for certification unless formally rescinded. The FAA adopts the commenters' recommendation for paragraph (a).
The FAA does not adopt recommendation for paragraph (b) however, because it would not meet the intent of the requirement. Paragraph (b) addresses the situation in which an applicant proposes its own means of compliance, either as an alternative to an accepted means of compliance or as a new means of compliance for new technology. The FAA intended paragraph (b) to require applicants requesting acceptance of a means of compliance to do so in a form and manner specified by the FAA, not to require already-accepted means of compliance to be documented in a form and manner specified by the FAA. In light of the comment, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to clarify that paragraph (b) applies to applicants who are requesting FAA review and acceptance of a proposed means of compliance.
Air Tractor questioned the need for a new rule specifying that all means of compliance must be accepted by the FAA and asked whether an applicant would need to obtain FAA approval for each means of compliance at the beginning of the process or any time prior to showing compliance.
This final rule is necessary because Congress directed the FAA to issue a rule that replaces the prescriptive requirements of part 23 with performance-based regulations.
NATCA commented the FAA should require the accepted means of
The FAA partially agrees with NATCA's concerns. Because many of the detailed requirements are no longer in part 23 and will move to means of compliance, it may be hard to know how an applicant showed compliance. That said, many means of compliance today are proprietary, and modifiers and maintenance personnel have no way of knowing what the original manufacturer did to show compliance. The FAA is working with its project support personnel to determine how much of the means of compliance information needs to be listed on the FAA TCDS to address concerns relating to post-TC modifiers and maintenance personnel. This information will be included in the training currently being developed for the ACO engineers and industry designees.
NATCA also recommended the FAA permit design change applicants to use their own alternate means of compliance to gain approval rather than relying on the original means of compliance used for the underlying TC. NATCA suggested this would be in line with the FAA's statements that it is open to a means of compliance without preferring one over the other.
This option is currently permitted and will continue to be permitted under the new part 23. Applicants requesting a change to type design may propose their own means of compliance rather than using the original means of compliance. However, the FAA will review the request depending on the complexity of the design change or the alternative means of compliance. While this is the current process, AC 23.2010 provides guidance on how to submit a proposed means of compliance to part 23 for FAA acceptance.
NATCA asked the FAA to clarify how the certification basis would be handled for industry consensus standards. NATCA also asked whether an applicant must at least partially use industry consensus standards, or whether an applicant may choose not to use consensus standards at all. Finally, NATCA asked if an applicant could get a part 23 TC by only using the standards in ACs. Air Tractor suggested the FAA revise proposed § 23.10 to mention that the standards included in ACs are an accepted means of compliance.
The FAA notes that the certification basis will be the same as it is today: Applicants must show compliance with part 23. An applicant may choose not to use any consensus standards, or a combination of consensus standards and other means of compliance, as long as the applicant's proposed means of compliance complies with part 23 and is accepted by the Administrator. The FAA finds it unnecessary to revise the proposed rule language as Air Tractor suggested. An applicant may already use ACs as means of compliance to part 23, where applicable, under § 23.2010.
Air Tractor contended the use of applicant-proposed means of compliance standards would lead to a significant loss in transparency of the certification process, as individual applicants may choose to make both the results and the process of showing compliance a matter of proprietary intellectual property. ANAC commented that the FAA should establish a method to publicize information about approved means of compliance that are not part of a consensus standard. To preserve proprietary information, ANAC recommended the FAA only publish summaries as it currently does for exemptions, special conditions, and ELOS findings. NATCA questioned how the FAA will handle proprietary specifications within a certification basis, arguing it is not in the public interest to have “secret” certification requirements. NATCA recommended the certification basis be published in the
The FAA has a responsibility to protect an applicant's proprietary information, including a proprietary means of compliance. As such, the FAA will not make the proprietary portions of applicant-proposed means of compliance publicly available. The FAA plans to address applicant-proposed means of compliance as it does today, by summarizing the information. The FAA will identify the certification basis (
Garmin asked whether the FAA will accept portions of a previously accepted means of compliance, or whether an applicant must use that entire means of compliance. Garmin recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.10 (now § 23.2010) to permit whole or partial implementation of a previously-accepted means of compliance or, alternatively, ensure AC 23.10 permits this.
The FAA agrees with Garmin and points out that this is acceptable today. The FAA can be flexible in accepting mixed, partial, or entire means of compliance from industry consensus standards as applicable to the specific product. The FAA recognizes that new product innovations will make this flexibility more important in the future. An industry consensus standard can state that, for credit in meeting that standard, the applicant has to meet the entire set of requirements. But the FAA may tailor acceptable consensus standards based on what is appropriate for the intended function.
Embraer recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.10(a) (now § 23.2010(a)) to acknowledge that an applicant may use the prescriptive requirements in former part 23 as an alternate means of compliance. Kestrel asked whether the FAA will require issue papers to permit the use of these former prescriptive requirements.
In the NPRM, the FAA noted it will accept the use of the prescriptive means of compliance contained in former part 23 as alternate means of compliance, except for those sections where the level of safety has increased specifically for stall characteristics and icing protection. The FAA does not need to codify this decision to retain this flexibility and is therefore not revising the proposed language for § 23.10. For applicants relying on satisfaction of the prescriptive requirements in former part 23, amendment 23-62, as a means of compliance, the FAA will only require the G-1 certification basis issue paper to list the means of compliance as “amendment 23-62”.
NATCA asked whether the FAA will permit an applicant to use older prescriptive regulations, such as Aeronautics Bulletin, amendment 7a, “Airworthiness Requirements for Aircraft”; CAR 3; and previous versions of part 23, as a means of compliance. If not, NATCA asked the FAA to clarify why those regulations are not appropriate and acceptable for the proposed design.
The FAA will consider the use of the older, prescriptive regulations in cases where it is appropriate for the airplane in question. There have been instances where applicants have approached the FAA with projects to “remake” new versions of vintage airplanes. The FAA has allowed and will continue to allow the use of appropriately-selected design standards on vintage airplanes. However, applicants wanting to use this approach should expect to use newer industry practices where the old standards and practices have, over time, not proven to meet the minimum acceptable safety standard for that class of airplane in part 23.
Textron asked how the FAA will document the acceptance of a non-industry standard means of compliance and whether acceptance of a Project-Specific Certification Plan (PSCP) is adequate proof of the FAA's acceptance of the means of compliance.
The FAA plans to include information on the acceptance of non-consensus standards on its Small Airplane Directorate Web site. The G-1 issue paper and agreement on the certification basis and compliance checklist will suffice. PSCP acceptance is adequate proof of FAA acceptance of a means of compliance if a G-1 issue paper is not used.
Textron also asked whether there would be a system set-up similar to repair specifications where an applicant could have pre-defined methods for making certain changes to its products, and whether there would be a method for the FAA to accept deviations to the accepted standards.
The Part 23 ARC did not consider and the NPRM did not propose repair specification; therefore, it is beyond the scope of this rulemaking effort.
Air Tractor and Kestrel contended the process proposed by draft AC 23.10—which states that an applicant should list the means of compliance and consensus standards they intend to use to show compliance with part 23 in a certification plan or compliance checklist—is premature and would slow the certification process. The details of an airplane's design are often incomplete when an application is submitted and it can take years to obtain FAA acceptance of a PSCP. Air Tractor suggested that establishing a means of compliance during the process of negotiating the PSCP should be limited to picking one or more of the following: Analysis, tests, design review, physical inspection, etc. Air Tractor also commented that a requirement for the FAA to review and approve of particular methods before the analysis can be presented would be new for most regulations. It would also require a new level of required response from the FAA that would drastically slow the process of either establishing the certification plan or showing compliance. Air Tractor also questioned how this requirement compares with the FAA and Industry Guide to Product Certification.
The FAA finds that including the means of compliance in the PSCP or the compliance checklist will not alter the current practice for new technology because some of the compliance requirements may not be known at the time of application. This initial uncertainty means the agreed compliance may remain as a draft during the development and certification process until the specific means of compliance are determined and agreed upon. This may be a common issue with new technology during the first few years after the new part 23 is implemented. It will take some time to get accepted means of compliance into consensus standards, resulting in these means of compliance being developed during the project. In the long term, the new approach should shorten the time needed for an applicant to get FAA agreement on its means of compliance.
Finally, the FAA clarified the intent of the form and manner of the means of compliance. The FAA does not intend to “specify” the form and manner of means of compliance; the form and manner only need to be “acceptable.”
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.100 (now § 23.2100) would have required an applicant to determine weights and centers of gravity that provide limits for the safe operation of the airplane. Additionally, it would have required an applicant to show compliance with each requirement of this subpart at each combination of weight and center of gravity within the airplane's range of loading conditions using tolerances acceptable to the Administrator. Proposed § 23.100 would have also required the condition of the airplane at the time of determining its empty weight and center of gravity be well defined and easily repeatable.
The Associations recommended a clarifying change to proposed § 23.100(a) that would require the applicant to determine limits for weights and centers of gravity that provide for the safe operation of the airplane, rather than determine weights and centers of gravity that provide limits.
The FAA adopts the Associations clarifying change. Accordingly, § 23.2100(a) now requires the applicant to determine limits for weights and centers of gravity that provide for the safe operation of the airplane.
Additionally, the Associations recommended changing proposed § 23.100(b) to require the applicant to comply with each requirement of subpart B at critical combinations of weight and center of gravity. The commenters explained that it is appropriate to demonstrate compliance at critical combinations of weight and center of gravity, but showing compliance at each combination “would present an infinite matrix of test points.”
The FAA also adopts the Associations recommended change to proposed § 23.100(b) (now § 23.2100(b)). While proposed § 23.100(b) could have been interpreted to require an infinite matrix of test points, this was not the FAA's intent. Accordingly, § 23.2100(b) now requires the applicant to comply with each requirement of subpart B at critical combinations of weight and center of gravity within the airplane's range of loading conditions using tolerances acceptable to the Administrator.
The Associations also stated that the determination of empty weight and center of gravity in proposed § 23.100(c) is “somewhat confusing and potentially unnecessary.” The commenters suggested clarifying changes that would replace “empty weight” with “weight” and delete “well” and “easily repeatable,” thereby requiring the condition of the airplane at the time of determining its weight and center of gravity to be defined. Similarly, Textron recommended deleting the terms “well” and “easily” from proposed § 23.100(c) because they are vague and subject to interpretation.
The FAA is retaining the terms “well defined” and “easily repeatable” in § 23.2100(c). In the NPRM, the FAA explained proposed § 23.100 would capture the safety intent of § 23.29. Section 23.29 has contained the terms
The FAA also retains the term “empty weight” in § 23.2100(c). Determining empty weight is fundamental to baselining an airplane. Removing this term would leave the weight value for baseline open to any weight between empty to gross weight. The ambiguity of not defining the baseline weight would create confusion and problems.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.105 (now § 23.2105) would have required—
• An airplane to meet the performance requirements of this subpart in various conditions based on the airplane's certification and performance levels for which certification is requested;
• An applicant to develop the performance data required by this subpart at various altitudes and at high temperatures, while also accounting for losses due to atmospheric conditions, cooling needs, and other demands on power sources; and
• The procedures used for determining takeoff and landing distances to be executed consistently by pilots of average skill in atmospheric conditions expected to be encountered in service.
EASA and the Associations stated that some designs may have performance limitations at low temperatures rather than high temperatures, such as batteries in electric propulsion systems. The commenters recommended revising the proposed language to require performance data for low temperatures that can be expected during operation, if those low temperatures could have a negative effect on performance.
The FAA agrees proposed § 23.105(b) (now § 23.2105(b)) should account for possible performance degradation due to the effect of cold temperatures on electric propulsion systems. Proposed § 23.105 was intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.45, which required the determination of performance data in various conditions that could negatively affect performance. Historically, propulsion systems were gas powered and negatively affected by high temperatures, which resulted in a corresponding negative effect on performance. This explains why former § 23.45 required the determination of performance data at a temperature from standard to 30 degrees Celsius above standard, as performance degradations historically resulted from operation at high temperatures.
As stated in the NPRM, the FAA intended the proposal to account for airplanes equipped with new technologies, such as electric propulsion systems. Additionally, the FAA intended proposed § 23.105(b) to account for various conditions that could affect airplane performance. However, proposed § 23.105(b) would only have accounted for performance degradations that could result from the operation of systems at high temperatures, as the proposed language reflected former § 23.45. Because cold temperatures, rather than high temperatures, may have a negative performance effect on an electric propulsion system or a hybrid system, the FAA revises the proposed language to account for performance degradations at low temperatures. The FAA also removes the prescriptive language that would have required the determination of performance data at a temperature from standard to 30 degrees Celsius.
Section 23.2105(b)(2) now requires the applicant to develop performance data at temperatures above and below standard day temperature that are within the range of operating limitations, if those temperatures could have a negative effect on performance. This requirement is consistent with the NPRM as it replaces the prescriptive design requirements from the regulation with performance-based airworthiness standards that accommodate new technologies, such as electric and hybrid propulsion systems. Additionally, § 23.2105(b)(2) more accurately reflects the safety intent of former § 23.45 because it requires the development of performance data in conditions that could negatively affect performance, including conditions that account for new technologies.
As a general matter, under § 23.2105(b)(2), an applicant seeking certification of a gas-powered propulsion system must develop performance data at temperatures above standard that are within the airplane's operating limitations, because high temperatures could have a negative effect on the airplane's performance. Alternatively, an applicant seeking certification of an electric or hybrid propulsion system must develop performance data at temperatures both above and below standard that are within the airplane's operating limitations, if these temperatures could have a negative effect on performance.
Garmin pointed out that limited airflow in a climb configuration may cause non-propulsion systems to overheat during long hot climbs, requiring a different climb speed or configuration for system cooling than addressed in proposed § 23.105(b). Garmin recommended the FAA include the phrase “other essential equipment” in addition to propulsion cooling in paragraph (b)(2).
The Associations similarly suggested that there may be some cases where the performance of equipment other than the propulsion system may drive cooling requirements for hot conditions. The commenters recommended revising the proposed language to include cooling requirements for these equipment, in situations other than climb.
The FAA understands the concerns of Garmin and the Associations, for paragraph (b)(2) to address cooling requirements for more than the propulsion system. However, subpart B—including § 23.2105—is intended to address airplane performance. Therefore, § 23.2105 should only address systems that affect airplane performance. For example, § 23.2105 may apply to avionics that also control propulsion, or flight controls and lift systems needed to develop repeatable airplane performance. Traditional avionics that do not affect performance are addressed in subpart F, which contains requirements for equipment. Therefore, the FAA is not adopting the phrase “other essential equipment” because it may be interpreted to include systems that do not affect performance, such as oxygen or navigation systems. This would be a new requirement that has not been identified as a safety need, increasing the scope and possibly the cost of this rule. For the same reasons, the FAA is not expanding the scope of the rule to include cooling requirements for equipment other than propulsion systems, in situations other than climb.
Nevertheless, in light of the comments, the FAA acknowledges there may be systems associated with propulsion that are necessary for consistent performance, such as batteries or engine controllers, that could be affected by temperature. Section 23.2105 should address these types of systems. Therefore, § 23.2105(b)(2) will apply to systems associated with electric or other propulsion systems if those systems could negatively affect performance at temperatures above or below standard.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.110 (now § 23.2110) would have required an applicant to determine the airplane stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed for each flight configuration used in normal operations, accounting for the most adverse conditions for each flight configuration, with power set at idle or zero thrust.
The Associations recommended removing the proposed requirement for power to be set at idle or zero thrust for each determination to enable the introduction of new technologies such as distributed propulsion with reliable electric power. The commenters explained that proposed § 23.110 must account for distributed lift systems because the concept of distributed lift along a wing may be used to facilitate low-speed handling, and reliable systems of this type may dictate operational stall speeds. The commenters asserted their recommended change would ensure that distributed propulsion, with an appropriate reliability level, could be used in a landing condition accounting for a lower stall speed based upon the effects of this equipment.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.110 (now § 23.2110) should account for distributed propulsion systems used for thrust, flight controls, and high lift systems. However, the rule must define a thrust level for standardization because stall speeds are important to the development of the performance-based speeds. The FAA finds it appropriate to require traditional designs to determine stall speeds and minimum steady flight speeds with power set at idle or zero thrust. Accordingly, § 23.2110(a) now requires the power to be set at idle or zero thrust for propulsion systems used primarily for thrust. To accommodate distributed propulsion systems, the FAA is adding new § 23.2110(b), which requires a nominal thrust for propulsion systems used for thrust, flight control, and/or high-lift systems. These changes will allow § 23.2110 to accommodate the new technologies identified by the commenters.
Additionally, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to clarify the “stall speed or minimum steady flight speed determination” must account for the most adverse conditions for each flight configuration. This change is consistent with the proposed rule, which would have required “each determination” to account for the most adverse conditions for each flight configuration, because “each determination” referred to the “stall speed or minimum steady flight speed determination.”
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.115 (now § 23.2115) would have required an applicant to determine airplane takeoff performance, which would have included the determination of ground roll and initial climb distance to 50 feet, accounting for stall speed safety margins, minimum control speeds, and climb gradients. Proposed § 23.115 would have also required the takeoff performance determination to include accelerate-stop, ground roll and initial climb to 50 feet, and net takeoff flight path, after a sudden critical loss of thrust for levels 1, 2, and 3 high-speed multiengine airplanes, multiengine airplanes with a maximum takeoff weight greater than 12,500 pounds, and level 4 multiengine airplanes.
The Associations suggested the FAA revise proposed § 23.115 to capture the performance-based standards at a “higher objective based level” because the proposed section was too detailed and prescriptive. Textron recommended the FAA adopt language similar to EASA's A-NPA 2015-06, which leaves determination of detailed standards appropriate to airplanes with different certification and performance levels to the means of compliance standards.
The FAA disagrees with the comment, because it is important to ensure the consistency of takeoff performance data across part 23 airplanes. This consistency aids private pilots, who often operate a variety of part 23 airplanes, in determining the airports from which they may operate.
Several commenters recommended the FAA remove the 12,500-pound cutoff in proposed § 23.115(c).
The FAA agrees and removes the weight discriminator from the rule language. Although the FAA proposed to remove the commuter category, along with weight- and propulsion-based certification divisions, and to replace them with divisions based on risk and performance, the FAA also proposed to require multiengine airplanes with a maximum takeoff weight of more than 12,500 pounds to comply with the increased takeoff performance requirements in paragraph (c). Proposed paragraph (c) was intended to ensure that larger business jets carrying fewer than 10 passengers, which would have been considered commuter category under the former rule, were captured under the takeoff performance requirements because these airplanes would not necessarily fall under level 4. The FAA recognizes that applying paragraph (c) to multiengine airplanes with a maximum takeoff weight of more than 12,500 pounds is redundant. Those airplanes, which are equivalent to airplanes under the former commuter category, are captured by applying paragraph (c) to levels 1, 2, and 3 high-speed multiengine airplanes and to all level 4, multiengine airplanes. Furthermore, while paragraph (c) does not apply to levels 1, 2 and 3 low-speed multiengine airplanes, the FAA may issue special conditions if there is a configuration that presents a higher-than-anticipated risk.
Several commenters objected to requiring the determination of takeoff performance for all airplanes to include the determination of initial climb distance to 50 feet above the takeoff surface. The commenters noted that under the former rule, takeoff distance for commuter category airplanes and multiengine jets weighing more than 6,000 pounds required the initial climb distance be calculated using 35 feet above the takeoff surface. Textron recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.115(b) to apply the 50-feet-above-takeoff-surface requirement only to single-engine airplanes and levels 1, 2, and 3 low-speed multiengine airplanes rather than to all airplanes. Textron also recommended revising proposed § 23.115(c)(2) from “50 feet” to “35 feet” above the takeoff surface, noting the 35-foot standard has been demonstrated as safe for the classes of airplane to which it has been applied.
The FAA agrees with the commenters and revises proposed § 23.115(b) (now § 23.2115(b)) to require only single-engine airplanes and levels 1, 2, and 3 low-speed, multiengine airplanes to include the distance required to climb to a height above 50 feet when calculating takeoff performance. The FAA is also changing the altitude for the initial climb in § 23.2115(c)(2) to 35 feet. The service history of airplanes that would be classified as levels 1, 2, and 3 high-speed multiengine airplanes and level 4 multiengine airplanes under this rule, which were certified using a 35-feet-initial-climb requirement, has been sufficiently safe to support the proposition that the 35-feet requirement provides an adequate level of safety for high-speed multiengine airplanes and level 4 airplanes.
The Associations suggested revising proposed § 23.115(b) and (c) to require takeoff performance to include the determination of “ground roll distance required to takeoff,” rather than “ground roll.”
The FAA notes using “ground roll distance required to takeoff” is not necessary for clarity. The term “ground
Several commenters recommended revising proposed § 23.115(b) to include two subparagraphs in what the FAA interprets as an effort to clarify that the applicant must provide two distances, one for ground roll and another for the distance required for the initial climb to 50 feet.
The FAA finds it unnecessary to reorganize paragraph (b) as the commenters proposed. The format, as proposed and adopted, is sufficiently clear.
The Associations suggested the FAA revise the proposed rule language in proposed § 23.115(c)(1) to require the takeoff performance determination to include the distance determination of “an aborted take-off at critical speed,” rather than “accelerate-stop.”
The FAA agrees that “accelerate-stop” is not as clear a description of the objective of the maneuver as “aborted take-off at critical speed”. Therefore, the FAA revises paragraph § 23.2115(c)(1) to reflect the commenters' recommendation.
Embraer recommended the FAA provide special consideration—including freezing the certification bases—for previously-approved light jets with certification bases that include special conditions measuring the takeoff distance as the distance required to takeoff and climb to a height of 35 feet above the takeoff surface. Embraer feared the potential cost associated with an upgrade or modification.
The FAA finds a special consideration unnecessary. There is already a process, prescribed by § 21.101(b), that allows applicants for a change to a TC to show that the change complies with an earlier amendment of a regulation if the newer requirement would not contribute materially to the level of safety of the product or would be impractical.
ANAC recommended the FAA make it clear that takeoff airspeed and procedures must be determined. The FAA disagrees with ANAC's comment as such a change would be redundant with what we proposed for § 23.105 (now § 23.2105).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.120 (now § 23.2120) would have required an applicant to demonstrate various minimum climb performances out of ground effect, depending on the airplane's certification level and performance capability.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.120 (now § 23.2120) by withdrawing paragraphs (b)(4), (b)(5), and (c)(1), and renumbering paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) as (c)(1) and (c)(2) respectively. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
Textron commented that regulations have historically applied to the airplane, not to the applicant, with demonstration of compliance through flight testing. Textron recommended the FAA offer alternative rule language that reflected its comment. The Associations similarly recommended the FAA change the opening of proposed § 23.120 to focus on the design rather than the applicant. These commenters also recommended re-designating the opening as paragraph (a).
The FAA notes that, historically, the airplane-specific requirements focused on the airplane, and the part 21 certification requirements were targeted more to the applicant. Many sections in this rulemaking effort tried to include applicant accountability, which was why the proposed rule focused on the “applicant.” However, based on the comments received, the FAA revises the proposed language throughout this rule by removing “applicant” where the requirement is more logically based on the airplane.
Textron commented on the proposal to apply discriminators based on weight divisions and detailed quantitative climb criteria conflicted with the stated intent of the rulemaking to remove weight-based divisions and develop standards reflecting the diversity of future airplane designs. Textron recommended the FAA adopt language similar to proposed CS 23.120, which leaves determination of detailed standards appropriate to airplanes with different certification and performance levels to means of compliance. The Associations recommended the FAA make the calculation of performances more general, to facilitate the use of standard means of compliance, which may exist in consensus-based standards. An individual commenter similarly stated the prescriptiveness of proposed § 23.120 was contrary to the stated objective of the proposal. The commenter stated the text of proposed § 23.120 would be more appropriate as a standard rather than a rule. The commenter recommended that the FAA use the language of proposed § 23.125, which would have required the determination of climb performance in certain conditions and configuration, in proposed § 23.120. The commenter also noted the current version of the ASTM standard for climb requirements already fully covers the language of proposed § 23.120.
In response to Textron's comment, the FAA revises proposed § 23.120 so it no longer contains weight divisions. Instead, the requirements of this section are based on certification levels, performance levels, and number of engines. Section 23.2120 does, however, contain quantitative climb criteria. On this topic, the FAA did not adopt the EASA proposed CS 23.120 language as recommended by Textron. While the idea of removing all climb gradient requirements was discussed in the Part 23 ARC, the FAA finds it is not in the best interest of safety to eliminate all required climb gradients. Therefore, the FAA is including the minimum climb gradients in this performance-based rule. But, the FAA consolidated the climb gradient requirements of former part 23 to simplify the requirement. The FAA finds doing so will maintain the former level of safety while reducing the certification burden. The FAA acknowledges the ASTM means of compliance contain the climb gradients in more detail than required from the requirements of this section. However, the ASTM means of compliance has not been accepted by the FAA as of the publication of this rule.
The FAA finds that, while removing as many prescriptive requirements as possible is important for creating a performance-based rule, some requirements should remain because they have been proven over decades of service and are already based on performance. The FAA finds the climb requirements are one such case.
In response to the comment that the FAA should use the language of proposed § 23.125 (now § 23.2125) in proposed § 23.120 (now § 23.2120), the FAA notes that § 23.2125 only requires the performance information be determined for the airplane flight manual (AFM). There is no minimum climb gradient in § 23.2125 as with § 23.2120. The Part 23 ARC discussed this issue at length with the objective of defining a clear, minimum performance-based metric that would allow the prescriptive climb gradients to move to means of compliance. The climb gradients in former §§ 23.65 through 23.77 came from early CAR 3 and have been in place for more than half a century, with the exception of some commuter category requirements, which came from early part 25. Since the FAA has established measureable gradients, any alternative approach would need to maintain the same gradients to provide an equivalent level of safety as the former climb requirements. The ARC considered numerous options, but in every case the proposed metric was subjective such that the FAA may be
Furthermore, it may not have been clear in the NPRM that the FAA intended proposed § 23.120 to address the required minimum climb gradients in former §§ 23.63, 23.65, 23.67, and 23.77, and proposed § 23.125 (now § 23.2125) to address the required publication of the measured performance in former §§ 23.66, 23.69, and 23.71. Therefore, the FAA is not including language similar to proposed § 23.125 (now § 23.2125) in § 23.2120, because § 23.2120 includes required climb gradients, not information requirements.
Textron stated that proposed § 23.120(a) would have applied to the all engines operating (AEO) takeoff climb and that a common terminology should be used. Textron recommended the FAA replace the undefined phrase “initial climb configuration” in proposed paragraph (a) with the unambiguous phrase “takeoff configuration”, and remove the phrase “at takeoff” from proposed paragraph (a)(2). Textron also recommended the FAA remove the phrase “at sea level” from proposed paragraph (a)(1) because the FAA already proposed § 23.105 to require an airplane, unless otherwise prescribed, to meet the performance requirements of this subpart in still air and standard atmospheric conditions at sea level for all airplanes.
The FAA notes that replacing “initial climb configuration” with “takeoff configuration” would require the design to comply with the required minimum climb performance out of ground effect, with all engines operating and in the “takeoff configuration”. The FAA finds that this change would be more stringent than the former regulations. Former § 23.65(a) allowed for the climb to be demonstrated with the landing gear retracted, and former § 23.65(b) allowed for the climb to be demonstrated with the landing gear retracted if it could be retracted in 7 seconds. While normalizing both former regulations might appear relieving for airplanes certified as complying with former § 23.65(b),
The FAA agrees with Textron's recommendation to delete “at sea level” from proposed § 23.120(a)(1). The FAA proposed the term because it was part of former § 23.65(a). As Textron noted, however, proposed § 23.105(a) (now § 23.2105(a)) would have already required an airplane to meet the performance data of subpart B, including § 23.2120, in still air and atmospheric conditions at sea level for all airplanes. It is therefore unnecessary for paragraph (a)(1) to require a climb gradient “at sea level” of 8.3 percent for landplanes and 6.7 percent for seaplanes and amphibians. However, the FAA is not deleting “at takeoff” as recommended by Textron. The agency is aligning the new rule with former § 23.65 by using “after takeoff” instead of “at takeoff.” This requirement is indirectly addressed in § 23.2105(b); however, as proposed, the language was not clear as to intent. By including the term “after takeoff”, this requirement reinforces the meaning of “ambient atmospheric conditions” in § 23.2105(b).
The Associations and Transport Canada noted that proposed § 23.120(a) did not address climb performance for level 4 airplanes. Transport Canada stated the FAA should specify all engine operating climb gradient requirements for level 4 airplanes. The Associations stated the climb gradient requirements for level 4 airplanes should be the same as the requirement for high-speed level 1 and 2 airplanes and level 3 airplanes.
The FAA considered the comments and in response, revises proposed § 23.120(a) to include an all engines operating climb requirement for level 4 single-engine airplanes. The former climb requirements required all airplanes with 10 or more passengers to have multiple engines and meet the commuter category climb requirements, which were focused on the ability to climb after an engine failure. These one-engine-inoperative climb requirements were extensive. The philosophy was that if the airplane could meet the climb requirements after one engine failed, it would have more-than-adequate performance with all engines operating. This is why there were no all engine operating climb requirements for commuter category airplanes. The FAA agrees with and continues this philosophy in the new rule for multiengine airplanes designed for 10 or more passengers, which are level 4 airplanes under this rule. However, because the new rule eliminates the commuter category and allows for single-engine airplanes to carry 10 or more passengers, there is now a need for single-engine level 4 airplanes to have an all engines operating climb requirement.
The FAA agrees with the Associations that the climb gradient requirements for level 4 single-engines airplanes should be the same as the requirement for levels 1 and 2 high-speed airplanes and level 3 airplanes. This was an oversight in the NPRM and the FAA is correcting it in this final rule. Accordingly, § 23.2120(a)(2) now requires levels 1 and 2 high-speed airplanes, all level 3 airplanes, and level 4 single-engine airplanes to demonstrate, with all engines operating and in the initial climb configuration, a climb gradient at takeoff of 4 percent. This revision is a logical outgrowth of the notice because, as noted by the commenters, there is no basis for distinguishing between level 3 and level 4 airplanes for this requirement.
Transport Canada commented that the FAA should consider and validate whether a 4 percent climb gradient for high-performance airplanes with all engines operating is sufficient. For example, an airplane climbing at 100 knots (approximately 400 feet per minute) may be acceptable for a level 1 airplane, but not for anything larger. Transport Canada noted that proposed paragraph (a)(2) may govern more frequently, because the all-engine climb capability driven by the one-engine-inoperative requirements has been reduced in proposed paragraph (b)(3). Transport Canada also noted that, given the increasing probability of airplanes with more than 4 engines, it may be more effective to increase the all-engine climb gradient in proposed paragraph (a)(2).
The FAA considered Transport Canada's comments, but notes the intent with this section was to maintain the level of safety in former part 23. Section 23.2120(b) requires the same climb gradient—4 percent—as was required for similar airplanes by former part 23. The FAA notes that requiring more stringent climb requirements is beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
Textron made several comments to proposed § 23.120(b). Textron stated the word “the” should replace the word “a” when referring to critical loss of thrust. For proposed § 23.120(b)(1), Textron suggested referring to climb gradient the same way as in proposed § 23.120(a)(2). Textron also recommended changing “configuration” to “configurations” in proposed paragraph (b)(1) because one airplane may have multiple takeoff and approach configurations. Textron and Kestrel requested clarification regarding the single-engine crashworthiness requirements referred to in proposed § 23.120(b)(1). Kestrel asked whether those requirements will be established in the rule or based on an associated standard.
Regarding Textron's comment on the use of the word “the” in the phrase “the critical loss of thrust,” the term “the” would assume that everyone knows what that critical loss of thrust is. While that may be true for traditional configurations, it may not be true for future configurations. Therefore, the FAA is keeping the proposed phrase “a critical loss of thrust.” However, the FAA agrees with Textron concerning multiple configurations and revises the rule to align the reference to the climb gradient in §§ 23.2120(a)(2) and 23.2120(b)(1) for clarity.
In response to Kestrel and Textron, § 23.2120(b)(1) contains a requirement addressing airplanes that do not meet the single-engine crashworthiness requirements of proposed § 23.600, “Emergency conditions” (now § 23.2270). Section 23.2120(b)(1) is intended to capture the intent of former § 23.67(a)(1), which required airplanes with V
Textron asserted that to obtain the best takeoff performance in high and hot conditions, it can be advantageous to use lesser flap settings to improve climb capability after takeoff. However, the proposed climb requirements—defined only in terms of the approach configuration—would have eliminated this capability, and would not have reflected the former part 23 standards. Textron suggested the FAA revise the proposed rule language in paragraph (b)(3) to require multiengine level 3 high-speed airplanes and level 4 airplanes to determine the climb gradients for weight, altitude, and temperature combinations appropriate for takeoff in the takeoff configuration.
The FAA notes that the reason for using the “approach configuration” was not that it reflected an actual configuration, but that it was more conservative than using the “takeoff configuration.” The FAA elected to consolidate the climb requirements from four configurations into one configuration. To do so, the FAA had to make some assumptions. The major assumption used in consolidating the climb requirements was that if the airplane could meet the second segment climb gradient at 400 feet, then it should meet the other traditional requirements and would provide an acceptable level of safety. However, to provide a margin of safety in case one of the other conditions was slightly more critical, the FAA elected to apply the discontinued approach flap configuration, which is “approach” flaps, for this requirement.
Transport Canada commented it would be more conservative to require the four-engine climb gradient of 2.6 percent in proposed § 23.120(b)(3), rather than the two-engine climb gradient of 2 percent.
The FAA explained in the NPRM that the climb gradient associated with the loss of one engine for a two-engine airplane has provided an acceptable safety history for this class of airplane. The historical three- and four-engine climb gradients were based on part 25 regulations regarding gas engine technology, and may not be appropriate for distributed electric propulsion configurations or designs. For this reason, using those historical values may end up with a more conservative approach than intended. This would increase the requirements from the former part 23 regulations, which is outside the scope of this rulemaking.
Several commenters recommended the FAA either delete, clarify, or re-write proposed § 23.120(b)(4) and (5) because the intent of those paragraphs is unclear.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.120(b)(4) and (b)(5) are confusing. The FAA intended the conditions in paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) to apply to the determinations required by paragraph (b). However, because § 23.2105(a) requires an airplane to meet the performance data of subpart B for these 2 conditions, paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) are redundant and confusing. For this reason, the FAA withdraws paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5).
An individual commented that all multiengine airplanes should be able to climb after an engine failure. The commenter stated this performance is affordable and the FAA should not permit poor performance because a manufacturer wants to refurbish a decades-old design and produce it.
The FAA notes that adding the requirement for all-multiengine airplanes to be able to climb after an engine failure is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. The FAA finds that the current level of safety in former part 23 regarding climb performance for multiengine airplanes following an engine failure is adequate.
The Associations recommended the FAA revise the proposed rule language to require the applicant to demonstrate a climb gradient of 3 percent during balked landing “without creating undue pilot workload.” The commenters also recommended the FAA rewrite proposed § 23.120(c) to include a general requirement for the applicant to determine, as applicable, climb and descent performance for all engines operating; following a critical loss of thrust on take-off; and after a critical loss of thrust during the enroute phase of flight.
The FAA originally determined that adding the phrase “without creating undue pilot workload” in this requirement was redundant with proposed § 23.105(c); however, proposed § 23.105(c) only addressed takeoff and landing distances. The FAA also recognizes that many of the part 23 fatal accidents happen on go-arounds or balked landings and are attributable, at least in part, to high-pilot workload. For this reason, the FAA is adding “without creating undue pilot workload” to § 23.2120(c).
The FAA also addresses the commenters' recommendation to include a general requirement for the applicant to determine, as applicable, climb and descent performance for all engines operating; following a critical loss of thrust on take-off; and after a critical loss of thrust during the enroute
Textron and Transport Canada also commented on proposed § 23.120(c). Textron stated that it is unclear why takeoff power is specified for the balked landing, but not for any other minimum climb performance requirements. Textron recommended changing the word “configuration” to “configurations” in proposed § 23.120(c)(3) because an airplane might have multiple landing configurations.
The FAA agrees with Textron that the reference to takeoff power was not needed. Therefore, the FAA deletes the reference from proposed § 23.120(c) (now § 23.2120(c)). The FAA also agrees with Textron's recommendation to change “configuration” to “configurations” and makes this change in § 23.2120(c).
Transport Canada asked that the FAA justify the reduction in the required landing climb gradients from 3.3 percent to 3 percent.
The FAA notes that former § 23.77, which governed balked landings, required a 3.3 percent gradient for piston airplanes weighing less than 6,000 pounds; a 2.5 percent gradient for piston engine and single-engine turbine-powered airplanes over 6,000 pounds and for multiengine turbine-powered airplanes weighing 6,000 pounds or less; and a 3.2 percent gradient for multiengine turbine-powered airplanes weighing over 6,000 pounds and commuter category airplanes. The FAA is simplifying the former requirement by taking the average of the three climb gradients. The FAA did not receive any negative comments concerning the decrease or increase in climb gradient requirements, so the FAA adopts the language as proposed.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.125 (now § 23.2125) would have required an applicant to determine the climb performance for—
• All single-engine airplanes;
• Level 3 multiengine airplanes, after a critical loss of thrust on takeoff in the initial climb configuration; and
• All multiengine airplanes, during the enroute phase of flight with all engines operating and after a critical loss of thrust in the cruise configuration.
Proposed § 23.125 would have also required an applicant to determine the glide performance of the airplane after a complete loss of thrust for single-engine airplanes.
Transport Canada commented that proposed § 23.125(a) appears to lack the concept of determining climb performance at each approved weight, altitude, and temperature. Additionally, Transport Canada stated it is unclear why proposed § 23.125(a)(2) applies only to level 3 multiengine airplane. Transport Canada recommended the FAA require the determination of climb performance following a critical loss of thrust on take-off in the initial climb configuration for all multiengine airplanes at each weight, altitude, and temperature.
The FAA agrees with Transport Canada that proposed § 23.125(a) would not have expressly required the determination of climb performance at each approved weight, altitude, and temperature. The FAA intended proposed § 23.105(a)—which would have required levels 1 and 2 high-speed airplanes and level 3 airplanes to provide performance data in ambient atmospheric conditions within the operating envelope—to capture this requirement. To comply with the requirement in proposed § 23.105(a) to “meet the performance requirements” of subpart B, an applicant would have had to make these determinations anyway. However, after considering Transport Canada's comment, the FAA revises the proposed language to make clear that § 23.125(a)(2) (now § 23.2125(a)(2)) requires the determination of climb performance at each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the operating limitations. This change is consistent with the NPRM, which explained that proposed § 23.125 was intended to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.66 and 23.69. Both of these sections required the determination to be made at each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the airplane operating limitations.
The FAA agrees that § 23.2125(a)(2) should apply to more than level 3 multiengine airplanes; however, it should not apply to all multiengine airplanes. Section 23.2125(a)(2) captures the safety intent of former § 23.66, which applied only to reciprocating engine-powered airplanes of more than 6,000 pounds maximum weight and turbine engine-powered airplanes. Under the new performance-based regulations, the equivalent airplanes—considering the intent of former § 23.66—are levels 1 and 2 high-speed multiengine airplanes and all level 3 airplanes. Therefore, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to include levels 1 and 2 high-speed multiengine airplanes in addition to level 3 multiengine airplanes, to maintain the same level of safety as former § 23.66. However, because former § 23.66 did not apply to commuter-category airplanes—which were considered the equivalent of level 4 multiengine airplanes—§ 23.2125(a)(2) should not apply to all multiengine airplanes as doing so would make the rule more stringent than former § 23.66.
Textron noted the continuous reference to “a critical loss of thrust” in proposed § 23.125 and recommended the FAA refer to it as “the critical loss of thrust.” The FAA understands Textron's comment; however, the term “the critical loss of thrust” assumes there is a critical loss of thrust and that it is a known, finite condition for all multiengine airplanes. This may not be the case. The phrase “a critical loss of thrust” allows for the possibility that there is no critical loss of thrust or that different airplane configurations would have different critical loss of thrust conditions based on a specific configuration.
Textron recommended deleting the undefined phrase “initial climb configuration” from proposed § 23.125. Textron also recommended the FAA not require multiengine airplanes to be in the cruise configuration during the determination of climb performance in the enroute phase of flight. Textron explained that while the enroute phase of flight is typically associated with a “clean” airplane configuration, the applicant should be free to define this configuration.
The FAA agrees with Textron's intent, but does not accept Textron's recommendations. The FAA is requiring the airplane to be in the “initial climb configuration” in § 23.2125(a)(2) and the “cruise configuration” in § 23.2125(a)(3). However, the FAA is not defining “initial climb configuration” because a definition would be prescriptive and inflexible for new configurations, which would be contrary to this performance-based regulation. Paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.66 and 23.69, respectively. Former §§ 23.66 and 23.69 contained prescriptive requirements pertaining to the takeoff and enroute configurations, which were based on airplane designs over the past half-century. The FAA finds the new rules should include traditional configurations, but be flexible enough for new configurations in the future. These new configurations may be different from what was traditionally required in part 23 due to a unique propulsion, high lift, and/or flight control configuration. Therefore, § 23.2125(a)(2) and (a)(3) specify the configuration conditions in a performance-based manner that allows flexibility for the applicant to define what the configuration is in means of compliance.
Furthermore, based on another comment from Textron, the FAA deletes unnecessary text in paragraph (b) and moves the phrase “single engine airplanes” in the same paragraph to make the rule language of § 23.2125(b) read consistently with § 23.2125(a).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.130 (now § 23.2130) would have required an applicant to determine the landing distance for standard temperatures at each weight and altitude within the operational limits for landing. The landing distance determination would start from a height of 50 feet (15 meters) above the landing surface, require the airplane to land and come to a stop (or for water operations, reach a speed of 3 knots) using approach and landing speeds, configurations, and procedures which allow a pilot of average skill to meet the landing distance consistently and without causing damage or injury. Proposed § 23.130 would have required these determinations for standard temperatures at each weight and altitude within the operational limits for landing.
Transport Canada stated proposed § 23.130 should require the landing performance to account for stall speed safety margins and minimum control speeds to maintain consistency with the take-off requirements in proposed § 23.115 (now § 23.2115) and to ensure the same level of safety as former part 23.
The FAA agrees the landing requirements of proposed § 23.130 (now § 23.2130) should expressly account for stall speed safety margins and minimum control speeds consistent with the takeoff performance requirements of proposed § 23.115 (now § 23.2115). Proposed § 23.130(b) would have generally required the determination of approach and landing speeds. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.130 to capture the safety intent of former § 23.73, which required the reference landing approach speed to account for minimum control speed (V
Several commenters recommended clarifying changes to proposed § 23.130. The Associations recommended deleting the phrases “the following” and “for landing” in the introductory paragraph. Textron recommended various changes to proposed § 23.130(b), such as replacing “meet” with “achieve,” specifying that the landing distance is determined in proposed paragraph (a), and replacing “causing damage or injury” with “endangering the airplane and its occupants.”
The FAA deletes the phrase “for landing” from the introductory paragraph of § 23.2130. This phrase is unnecessary because the section is about landing distance. However, the FAA retains the phrase “the following” for clarity. For § 23.2130(b), the FAA agrees that requiring a pilot of average skill “to meet the landing distance” is unclear, but will not replace the term “meet” because changing one word would not make the regulation any clearer. Instead, the FAA revises the language in § 23.2130(b) to require a pilot of average skill “to land within the published landing distance” and finds it unnecessary to specify in § 23.2130(b) that the landing distance is determined in § 23.2130(a). Lastly, the FAA retains the proposed language “causing damage or injury” because the commenter's recommended change is vague and could cause the regulations to be interpreted more stringently.
BendixKing suggested adding language to proposed § 23.130(a) that would require the speed of 3 knots for water operations to be relative to the surface in calm atmospheric conditions. Alternatively, the Associations recommended removing entirely the requirement for water operations to reach a speed of 3 knots. The commenters agreed that the term “stop” would differ for water and land operations, but asserted that the difference is not as simple as stating 3 knots. The commenters stated the appropriate method of compliance for determining a stop for seaplanes or amphibians should be contained in accepted standards.
The FAA agrees with the commenters and removes from the proposed rule language the requirement for water operations to reach a speed of 3 knots. The speed of 3 knots originated from AC 23-8C, which addresses water operations. Former § 23.75, the predecessor to § 23.130, required the airplane to come to a complete stop, and left the surface type undefined. The FAA intended to clarify rule language by specifying the speed of 3 knots to differentiate between land and water operations. However, in light of the comments, the proposed language added confusion and failed to allow the flexibility necessary for water operations. The FAA agrees with the commenters that the 3-knot reference is more appropriate as guidance. Accordingly, § 23.2130(a) now requires the applicant to determine the distance required to land and come to a stop, starting at a height of 50 feet above the landing surface. This change removes the need to address whether the speed of 3 knots must be relative to the surface in calm atmospheric conditions. The information necessary to comply with § 23.2130(a) will be addressed in means of compliance.
NJASAP said that wet runway data, as well as contaminated runway data, should be available for airplane certified to land under the conditions set forth in proposed § 23.130(a). NJASAP also suggested the FAA adopt concepts from the Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA) ARC. NJASAP pointed out that airplanes certified under part 135 fly in all weather conditions. Finally, NJASAP stated that runway excursions are a documented risk for these airplanes and this opportunity offers an additional enhancement.
While the FAA supports the NJASAP recommendation to make wet runway data available, doing so should not be a requirement. The TALPA ARC was primarily a part 25 effort targeting transport operations, not small airplane operations. The FAA is not adopting the TALPA ARC recommendations because they exceed former part 23 requirements and are therefore outside the scope of this rulemaking. The FAA recommends that NJASAP work with industry to add wet runway conditions to the industry consensus standards as possible means of compliance for airplanes used in part 135 operations.
ANAC recommended the FAA require the landing procedures to allow for a safe landing, or a transition to a balked landing configuration, as this would cover the intent of former § 23.75.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.130 (now § 23.2130) should address the safe transition to the balked landing conditions. The FAA intended proposed § 23.130 to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.73 and 23.75. Former § 23.75 required a safe transition to the balked landing conditions of former § 23.77 from the conditions that existed at the 50-foot height. The balked landing conditions are now contained in § 23.2120(c), which captures the safety intent of former § 23.77. To ensure § 23.2130 contains the same level of safety as former § 23.75, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to require an
The Associations also recommended the FAA clarify the introductory sentence of proposed § 23.130 by deleting “each.” The FAA agrees with this comment. Requiring determinations to be made at “each” combination of weight and altitude within the operational limits could be interpreted as requiring an infinite matrix of test points, which was not the FAA's intent. Rather than requiring the applicant to determine landing performance at “each” combination of weight and altitude within the operational limits, the FAA is requiring the determinations to be made at “critical combinations” of weight and altitude. This change is consistent with the change the FAA made to § 23.2100(b).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.200 (now § 23.2135) would have required—
• The airplane to be controllable and maneuverable, without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength, within the operating envelope, at all loading conditions for which certification is requested. This would have included during low-speed operations, including stalls, with any probable flight control or propulsion system failure, and during configuration changes;
• The airplane to be able to complete a landing without causing damage or serious injury, in the landing configuration at a speed of V
• V
• An applicant to demonstrate those aerobatic maneuvers for which certification is requested and determine entry speeds.
Kestrel questioned whether proposed § 23.200, which is intended to capture the requirements of former § 23.145, would be interpreted to include the former requirement to show the airplane can pitch nose downward when approaching stall, thus avoiding or recovering from stall, or, alternatively, whether the FAA found that requirement to be too prescriptive, representing only one possible means of compliance with the proposed controllability requirements.
The FAA intended proposed § 23.200 (now § 23.2135) to capture the safety intent of the former controllability §§ 23.141 through 23.157 and allow for other possible means of compliance appropriate to new or innovative designs. Therefore, proposed § 23.200 was not related only to former § 23.145 and was not intended to capture the specific requirements of former § 23.145, but did intend to capture its broader safety intent. The former requirement referenced by the commenter is prescriptive and provides a means of compliance for traditional configuration airplanes. Because it is possible for novel configurations and control schemes in the future to need different means of compliance, the FAA finds that the prescriptive language from former § 23.145 is more appropriate as means of compliance.
Textron commented on proposed § 23.200(a)(2). Textron pointed out that former § 23.143(a) and the proposal from the Part 23 ARC referenced “all flight phases,” which better captures the general intent of former § 23.143(a). Additionally, Textron stated that proposed § 23.215 addresses stall characteristics, making the stall aspect of proposed § 23.200(a)(2) redundant. Textron recommended the FAA maintain language similar to former part 23 by replacing the phrase “low-speed operations, including stalls,” with “all flight phases.”
The FAA agrees with Textron. The FAA's intent in proposed § 23.200(a) (now § 23.2135(a)) was to capture the safety intent of former § 23.143, which required the airplane to be safely controllable and maneuverable during all phases of flight. The FAA agrees that the phrase “all flight phases” better captures the safety intent of former § 23.143(a). Additionally, upon further review, the language of proposed § 23.200(a)(2) is confusing because, while the FAA proposed to add requirements to essentially avoid the stall maneuver in proposed § 23.215, proposed § 23.200(a)(2) would have required controllability in the stall. While this is a desirable and recommended condition, the FAA does not want to add confusion. The stall requirements belong in proposed § 23.215 (now § 23.2150). For these reasons, the FAA adopts Textron's recommendation.
Textron also commented on proposed § 23.200(a)(3). Textron noted that former § 23.143 and the proposal from the Part 23 ARC did not address failures other than a response to a sudden engine failure. Textron also noted that proposed § 23.1315 already covers general airplane system or equipment failures. Textron claimed the requirements of proposed § 23.200(a)(3) could be interpreted as requiring demonstration of all probable flight control and propulsion failures in a flight-test environment, which the commenter said would not be practical or safe. Textron recommended maintaining the traditional scope of former subpart B controllability requirements, which included normal operations and, for multiengine airplanes, the response to critical loss of thrust, and using the methods employed for proposed § 23.1315 to evaluate responses to other failures.
In light of Textron's comment, the FAA finds it necessary to clarify that § 23.2135(a)(3) applies to “reversible,” which were traditionally mechanical flight controls, not “irreversible” flight controls. The FAA's intent in proposed § 23.200(a) was to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.145(e) and 23.147(c), which required applicants to address mechanical control system failures. Historically, these requirements targeted control cable failures or push-pull tube disconnects. Former subpart F, which contained requirements on equipment, addressed powered- and computer-controlled flight control systems. Under this final rule, subpart F continues to address equipment, such as powered- and computer-controlled flight control systems, and § 23.2135 addresses mechanical control system failures, which is consistent with former §§ 23.145(e) and 23.147(c).
The Associations and EASA also addressed proposed § 23.200(a)(3).
The FAA agrees the term “any” does not add value compared to the potential for confusion coming from an absolute qualifier. The FAA therefore deletes the word “any” in § 23.2135(a)(3).
The FAA also agrees the term “probable” has specific meaning relative to systems. Furthermore, the FAA expects a transition from mechanical flight controls to computer-controlled flight control systems, which are covered under the requirements in subpart F. Because the term “probable”
The Associations commented on proposed § 23.200(b), stating that it does not account for preferred technologies, such as angle of attack indicators, for executing safe approach and landing procedures. The commenters recommended proposed paragraph (b) require the airplane to complete a safe landing when following the landing procedures; providing a safe margin below V
The FAA agrees with these comments. The FAA intended proposed § 23.200(b) (now § 23.2135(b)) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.153 for control during landings. The FAA agrees that specifying a prescriptive speed of V
Textron recommended proposed § 23.200(b) be modified to require the airplane to land without “endangering the airplane and its occupants,” rather than to land without “causing damage or serious injury.”
The FAA finds that Textron's recommendation does not capture the safety intent of former § 23.153, which required safe completion of a landing. However, in light of Textron's comment, the FAA is clarifying the term “damage.” As proposed in the NPRM, the rule would not have allowed any damage, no matter how trivial. This was not the intent of former § 23.153. The FAA intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.153 in proposed § 23.200(b) (now § 23.2135(b)); therefore, the FAA revises the proposed rule language by defining the damage that could be accepted during demonstration. Section 23.2135(b) now requires the airplane to be able to complete a landing without causing “substantial” damage or serious injury. Substantial damage is defined in 49 CFR part 830 as requiring major repairs and effectively preclude the use of the airplane for its intended purpose.
Textron also noted that proposed § 23.200 would not have required V
The FAA agrees the rule should require V
ANAC recommended proposed § 23.200(c) be written in a less prescriptive manner to allow for different technology solutions. ANAC stated that proposed § 23.200(c) should contain only the safety objective stated in the NPRM. For example, proposed § 23.200 should have stated that an airplane should not depart controlled flight at low speeds above stall as a result of asymmetric thrust.
The Associations stated that while proposed § 23.200(c) represented a potential solution to the typical accident scenario involving loss of control in multiengine airplanes, which are unable to climb on a single engine, there are other solutions that may be better depending on the design of the airplane. The commenters noted that instead of assuring V
As explained in the NPRM, the critical safety issue that the FAA intended proposed § 23.200(c) to address was the loss of control caused by asymmetric thrust. The FAA recognized in the NPRM concerns regarding the effectiveness of the proposed requirement in addressing loss of control caused by asymmetric thrust and requested comments on the proposal. In light of the comments received, the FAA is not adopting proposed § 23.200(c). The FAA agrees with ANAC and the Associations that the rule should allow for different technologies as design solutions to the identified safety issue. The FAA also agrees that § 23.2150 should include the requirement to address this loss of control issue. Therefore, the FAA adopts less prescriptive language similar to that recommended by the commenters, which is consistent with the intent of proposed § 23.200(c). This will allow for alternative design solutions. Section 23.2150(c) now requires levels 1 and 2 multiengine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, to not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight from thrust asymmetry after a critical loss of thrust.
The Associations and EASA recommended the FAA apply this requirement to all multiengine airplanes, rather than only levels 1 and 2. The FAA is not adopting this recommendation. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA does not have the accident history data to support it. The FAA encourages manufacturers of levels
ICON commented an airplane designed in accordance with proposed § 23.200(c) would require less skill and presence of mind during an emergency, resulting in better safety.
While the FAA is not adopting proposed § 23.200(c), new § 23.2150(c) achieves the safety objective of proposed § 23.200(c).
Transport Canada noted the reason for requiring V
As explained in the NPRM, while the Part 23 ARC discussed the option that all multiengine airplanes have guaranteed climb performance after a critical loss of thrust, the FAA ultimately rejected this option because it could impose a significant cost on the production of training airplanes.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.205 (now § 23.2140) would have required the airplane to maintain longitudinal, lateral, and directional trim under various conditions, depending on the airplane's certification level, without allowing residual forces to fatigue or distract the pilot during likely emergency operations, including a critical loss of thrust on multiengine airplanes.
EASA commented the text of proposed § 23.205 failed to take into account residual forces for lateral and directional control for those level 1, 2, and 3 airplanes with ground-adjustable trim tabs.
The FAA agrees with EASA that while the FAA addressed ground-adjustable trim tabs for level 1, 2, and 3 airplanes, the proposed rule failed to account for residual forces in lateral and directional axes. The FAA intended for proposed § 23.205 to maintain the level of safety found in former § 23.161. Former § 23.161(a), which applied generally to all airplanes and to lateral, directional, and longitudinal trim, stated that it must be possible to ensure the pilot will not be unduly fatigued or distracted by the need to apply residual control forces exceeding those for prolonged application of former § 23.143(c) in normal operations of the airplane. In light of EASA's comment, the FAA recognizes that proposed § 23.205 (now § 23.2140) would only have prohibited residual control forces from fatiguing or distracting the pilot during likely emergency conditions. The FAA agrees with EASA that the rule should account for residual control forces in lateral and directional axes for levels 1, 2, and 3 airplanes. However, to maintain the same level of safety as former § 23.161, the rule should also account for residual control forces in longitudinal axes and should apply generally to levels 1, 2, 3, and 4 airplanes. Accordingly, the FAA is adding the requirement for residual control forces not to fatigue or distract the pilot during normal operations of the airplane to § 23.2140(c). This requirement is consistent with former § 23.161(a).
Textron noted that the reference “normal operations” would require all level 4 airplanes to be able to trim in all three axes from obstacle height to obstacle height. Textron contended that would seem to increase the burden from the former requirements in § 23.161, at least regarding lateral and directional trim.
The FAA considered Textron's comment, but is retaining the reference to “normal operations” in proposed § 23.205(a)(2) (now § 23.2140(a)(2)). While § 23.2140(a)(2) could be interpreted more stringently than former § 23.161(b)(2), the FAA never intended the proposed language to increase the burden from the previous requirements. Former § 23.161 required lateral and directional trim for commuter category airplanes, which are the equivalent of level 4 airplanes, at all speeds from 1.4V
In reference not only to this section, but also to its use throughout the proposed rule, ANAC commented that the term “likely” is not precise and should be clarified or replaced with more precise terms such as “probable”, “remote”, or “not extremely improbable.”
The FAA infers that ANAC recommended using a quantitative term, such as “probable,” because it is defined in guidance material. While the FAA agrees with ANAC's comment that the term “likely” is not precise, the FAA intends to allow some imprecision for the objective of providing performance-based standards that are sufficiently flexible to accommodate new technologies. The term “likely” was chosen to mean a reasonable expectation based on the existing conditions. This is consistent with the former usage of the term throughout part 23. Clarification of what should or should not be considered likely for a particular rule will be provided in the means of compliance.
Textron recommended deleting the qualifying term “likely” from proposed § 23.205(c) because it would be subject to interpretation. Textron also recommended adding abnormal operations to those operations during which residual control forces must not fatigue or distract the pilot. Lastly, Textron recommended a few editorial changes, including adding the term “control” to residual forces.
While Textron took exception to the word “likely” to describe emergency operations, the FAA finds the term to be appropriate in this case. Deleting the qualifier “likely” could actually lead to more stringent interpretations of the requirement. The term “likely” bounds the requirement within rational and probable emergencies. Simply using the term “emergency” could be construed as requiring an applicant to address any possible emergency regardless of how improbable it is.
The FAA agrees with Textron concerning the addition of abnormal operations. Former § 23.161 referenced the specific condition of an engine failure, which would have been based on traditional engine configuration on the wing. Looking ahead, that failure condition could be considered an abnormal and/or an emergency operation depending on the number of engines, location, and control of the engines. Furthermore, there may be other types of failures where trim would be important. For these reasons, the FAA finds that addressing the situation using the performance-based terms of “abnormal” and “emergency” is appropriate and consistent with the objective of providing performance-based standards that are sufficiently flexible to accommodate new technologies.
The FAA also agrees with Textron's recommendation to add “control” to
The Associations and Textron recommended streamlining the proposed rule language by moving a phrase that appeared twice in proposed § 23.205(a)(1) and (2) to a single, earlier reference in proposed § 23.205(a).
The FAA agrees with the commenters and has adopted their recommendation. Section 23.2140(a) now requires the airplane to maintain lateral and directional trim without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the conditions specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2). This marks a change from what was proposed in the NPRM in that paragraph (a) no longer addresses longitudinal trim. The FAA removed the reference to longitudinal trim in paragraph (a) because longitudinal trim is addressed by paragraph (b).
Furthermore, the FAA is adding language to paragraph (b) that requires the longitudinal trim to be maintained without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the conditions specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4). This requirement, which is consistent with the intent of the NPRM, ensures § 23.2140(b) maintains the same level of safety as former § 23.161. Former § 23.161(a) required each airplane to meet the trim requirements of former § 23.161 after being trimmed and without further pressure upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or their corresponding trim controls by the pilot or the automatic pilot. This requirement applied generally to lateral, directional, and longitudinal trim.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.210 (now § 23.2145) would have required airplanes not certified for aerobatics to have the following in normal operations: (1) Static longitudinal, lateral, and directional stability, and (2) dynamic short period and combined lateral directional stability. Proposed § 23.210 would have also required airplanes not certified for aerobatics to provide stable control force feedback throughout the operating envelope. Additionally, proposed § 23.210 would have precluded any airplane from exhibiting any divergent stability characteristic so unstable as to increase the pilot's workload or otherwise endanger the airplane and its occupants.
Kestrel suggested removing the phrase “in normal operations” from proposed § 23.210(a)(1) because it could be interpreted to mean that static stability is not required in abnormal operations.
The FAA understands Kestrel's concern with the phrase “in normal operations” in the proposed language. However, the FAA intended proposed § 23.210(a) (now § 23.2145(a)) to capture the safety intent of the stability sections in former part 23, which did not require demonstrations in abnormal or emergency conditions. Former § 23.171 required an airplane to show static stability in “any condition normally encountered in service,” which the FAA considers to be normal operations. The former requirements have provided an acceptable level of safety. The FAA adopts the proposed language in § 23.2145(a)(1) as proposed.
Optimal stated that proposed § 23.210(a)(2) appears to require that all lateral modes be stable, implying that airplane need to be spirally stable. This commenter indicated that most airplane have divergent spiral modes and therefore could not meet this requirement as proposed.
The FAA agrees with Optimal that the proposed requirement could be interpreted as including spiral mode. The FAA intended proposed § 23.210(a)(2) to capture the short period and Dutch-roll stability that former part 23 required. “Combined lateral-directional oscillations” means “Dutch roll.” The FAA revises the language in § 23.2145(a)(2) to replace “combined lateral-directional stability” with “Dutch roll” stability.
ANAC suggested including the terms “adequate” or “appropriate” to qualify dynamic stability in proposed § 23.210(a)(2).
The FAA agrees with ANAC that requiring only stability without a qualifier could allow for interpretations outside of the prescriptive standards of former part 23. However, the FAA does not agree with qualifying stability in § 23.2145(a)(2). Under the new part 23, applicants will have to propose a means of compliance. While this is a significant change from the former part 23, the language in § 23.2145(a)(2) will enable the FAA to accept the current prescriptive limits as a means of compliance. Alternatively, if a new technology requires something different, the FAA can accept what is appropriate.
NJASAP suggested the “Dutch roll” characteristic on the EMB505 airplane is close to the language used in proposed § 23.210(b). NJASAP sought to ensure any stability system used to comply with this section is not so dependent on Global Positioning System (GPS) technology that its loss or interruption could cause the electronic augmentation system to fail.
NJASAP's comment is outside the scope of this section as the FAA proposed § 23.210 (now § 23.2145) to include requirements for flight controls, not for their underlying systems. The FAA notes, however, that flight control systems used to comply with this section must also meet the system requirements of subpart F, which adequately address the commenter's concern.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.215 (now § 23.2150) would have required an airplane to have controllable stall characteristics in straight flight, turning flight, and accelerated turning flight with a clear and distinctive stall warning that provides sufficient margin to prevent inadvertent stalling. Proposed § 23.215 would have allowed for alternative approaches to meeting this requirement for levels 1 and 2 airplanes and level 3 single-engine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, in order to avoid a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight. Proposed § 23.215 would have also required airplanes certified for aerobatics to have controllable stall characteristics and the ability to recover within one and one-half additional turns after initiation of the first control action from any point in a spin, not exceeding six turns or any greater number of turns for which certification is requested while remaining within the operating limitations of the airplane. Proposed § 23.215 would have also precluded airplanes certified for aerobatics from having spin characteristics that would result in unrecoverable spins due to pilot disorientation or incapacitation or any use of the flight or engine power controls.
Garmin commented that while the proposal contained a lengthy discussion about requirements to improve the
The FAA acknowledges the NPRM preamble discussion may have been unclear. The FAA only intended proposed § 23.215(b) (now § 23.2150(b) to improve an airplane's resistance to departing controlled flight. This increase in level of safety applied only to the smaller part 23 airplanes, not all part 23 airplanes. Furthermore, the FAA intended for proposed § 23.215(a) to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.201 and 23.203. Garmin's example will continue to be true for airplanes not required to meet § 23.2150(b). The FAA notes that § 23.2150(a) will not include requirements related to conditions and control usage at the stall. While former §§ 23.201 and 23.203 included these requirements, the FAA finds they are better addressed in means of compliance.
The FAA notes the details from these former rules will be addressed in the means of compliance and will remain essentially unchanged, especially for larger, higher-performance airplanes. The reason is that the accident history of the larger airplanes does not warrant the change. The means of compliance for the level 1 and 2 airplanes and level 3 single-engine airplanes is expected to allow for more alternative approaches from what is acceptable today to meet the higher level of safety in this rule.
Textron and the Associations commented that § 23.215(b) should not require multiengine airplanes to not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight. The commenters explained that loss of control accidents involving multiengine airplanes result mostly from pilots failing to maintain directional control following a critical loss of thrust. Textron noted that this concern is being addressed by proposed § 23.200(c), which proposes new requirements for airplanes that cannot climb after a critical loss of thrust. Textron also noted former § 23.221 was not a requirement for multiengine airplanes and that proposed § 23.215(b) would have represented a significant new burden with no safety justification.
The Associations stated it believed loss of control accidents predominately involve single-engine airplanes, or multiengine airplanes during a critical loss of thrust event. The Associations recommended that the FAA revise proposed § 23.215 to ensure the loss of control requirements are applied in a manner that will maximize safety while being applied in an efficient manner. The Associations specifically recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.215 to require multiengine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, to not have a tendency to suffer a loss of control after a likely critical loss of thrust. This would be an alternative to adopting proposed § 23.200(c). The Associations also recommended the FAA revise the proposed § 23.215(b) to require single-engine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, to not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.215(b) (now § 23.2150(b)) should apply only to single-engine airplanes. The FAA proposed to apply paragraph (b) to level 1 and 2 multiengine airplanes in an attempt to address the loss of control accidents in light multiengine airplanes that can occur after an engine failure if the pilot does not maintain a safe single-engine speed. However, as noted by Textron, the FAA proposed § 23.200(c) to address this safety issue by requiring that V
As discussed in the preamble discussion of § 23.2135, the FAA is withdrawing proposed § 23.200(c) and adding a new § 23.2150(c). Paragraph (c) requires levels 1 and 2 multiengine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, to not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight from thrust asymmetry after a critical loss of thrust. The FAA finds that paragraphs (b) and (c), as revised, more accurately reflect the FAA's intent regarding the prevention of loss of control accidents in both single and multi-engine airplanes.
EASA commented that proposed § 23.215(b) would not have provided the flexibility needed for future designs. EASA recommended the FAA allow levels 1 and 2 airplanes and level 3 single-engine airplanes not certified for aerobatics to meet one of three alternatives: (1) Not to have the tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight; (2) have a benign behavior when departing controlled flight; or (3) have a system preventing departure from controlled flight.
While the FAA understands EASA's recommended approach, § 23.2150(b) and (c) contain the most significant safety improvements in this rulemaking effort. Any departure from controlled flight is likely to result in a fatal accident unless an experienced pilot demonstrating spins in an aerobatic airplane intentionally does it. Allowing levels 1 or 2 airplanes or level 3 single-engine airplanes to have a benign behavior when departing controlled flight would not meet the FAA's safety objective for airplanes that are not certified for aerobatics. The FAA notes that an airplane that can depart controlled flight with benign behavior can inadvertently depart controlled flight. Furthermore, having a system that prevents departure from controlled flight may be a means of compliance for § 23.2150(b). Therefore, the FAA finds it inappropriate to offer it as an alternative in the regulation.
The FAA did not intend § 23.2150(b) to be absolute in that “spin resistance” is the only way to meet the rule. An airplane using enhanced stall warnings and envelope protection could be very difficult to depart from controlled flight and comply with § 23.2150(b). That same airplane, with some effort, could be made to spin (depart controlled flight) and have good recovery capability and still—because of the stall characteristics and the enhanced warning and systems protection—comply with the new requirement. The
Several commenters took issue with the proposed requirement in § 23.215(b) that certain airplanes must not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight. Air Tractor, Optimal, and an individual commenter noted the proposal does not define this phrase. The individual commenter asked whether this phrase includes proper use of flight controls, improper use of flight controls, conditions beyond and per former § 23.221(a)(2) for spin resistance. Air Tractor stated it would be difficult to prove an airplane meets this requirement.
The FAA purposely used language that would allow flexibility in showing compliance. The FAA recognizes the lack of clear, detailed requirements may increase the difficulty of proving that the airplane meets this requirement. However, the FAA finds providing clear, detailed requirements would prevent the acceptance of alternative approaches to this safety problem. It could also prevent the use of new technology, which would discourage the development of even newer technology. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA envisions numerous alternative approaches to meeting this requirement, ranging from a stick pusher to full spin resistance. The FAA is relying on industry to develop acceptable means of compliance beyond these two acceptable approaches for this requirement, should industry fully leverage the flexibility the FAA built into the rule. The FAA is also relying on industry to incorporate new technologies into the airplane to address stall-based accidents. Currently, the ASTM committee is maturing an innovative approach that incorporates many of the variables associated with stall characteristics to prevent inadvertent departures from controlled flights.
Air Tractor expressed concern that it may not be able to comply with the intent of the proposed requirement because its airplanes are designed to operate close to the ground and sometimes close to a stall. According to Air Tractor, if it were to add some kind of substantial departure resistance to prevent inadvertent stalls resulting in a departure from controlled flight, as described in the NPRM, this modification could potentially increase pilot fatigue significantly.
The FAA notes that Air Tractor's airplanes are certified in restricted category and have the latitude to modify the part 23 requirements where necessary. For example, as Air Tractor pointed out, its airplanes are designed to operate close to the ground and sometimes close to a stall. For this reason, Air Tractor did not have to meet the one-turn spin requirement from former part 23 as specified on TCDS Number A19SW. However, because Air Tractor's airplanes are operated close to the ground and sometimes close to a stall, characteristics or features that prevent inadvertent departure would be desirable, unless these characteristics or features add control forces that fatigue the pilot or reduce maneuverability. The FAA finds these issues apply only to a small subset of airplanes and can be addressed most efficiently and effectively in the certification context, rather than by revising the regulatory text. Optimal expressed concern with unintended consequences that may result from imposing departure from controlled flight resistance requirements. Specifically, it questioned whether proposed § 23.215(b) can be satisfied without compromising other aspects of the airplane's performance and handling.
The FAA notes that, historically, when only using traditional mechanical controls, there are performance and handling tradeoffs that can come from imposing departure resistance requirements. This is one reason the FAA has been reluctant to push for departure resistant characteristics in the past. However, the development, availability, and cost of new technology to address departure resistance have matured such that the FAA believes it is time to introduce this requirement to reduce loss of control accidents. Aerodynamics and systems combined can address departure resistance without compromising performance and handling. The FAA will not accept a means of compliance that has a detrimental effect on safety.
Transport Canada questioned whether proposed § 23.215(b) would result in designs that have a significant effect on the loss of control accident rate and asked what the flight test requirements would be for demonstrating compliance with paragraph (b). American Champion Aircraft Corporation (American Champion) stated the regulation should provide a means to determine acceptable departure resistance, or a description of an acceptable means of compliance.
The FAA recognizes that the means of compliance will be very important in the success of this requirement to improve safety. The FAA adopts a general performance-based requirement in § 23.2150(b) to enable numerous alternative approaches to meet the requirement. For this reason, it is impossible to specify a single set of flight test requirements. The flight test requirements will depend on the applicant's approach to complying with this rule and the means of compliance it uses. It would have been impossible to adopt requirements for all combinations of safety features and characteristics that reduce the tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight in the requirements themselves. However, applicants can still use the spin resistance requirements from former § 23.221 for spins, and a stick pusher compliant with former § 23.691 for artificial stall barrier systems. Additionally, ASTM is developing an expandable matrix concept that will allow credit for combinations of stall warning, stall/envelope protection, and flight characteristics. This matrix should result in not only encouraging manufacturers to install more safety enhancing equipment, but more importantly, it will also encourage the development of innovative approaches to preventing inadvertent departure because of the speed at which new technology can be incorporated into the certification process. To address the wide range of airplane characteristics and solutions, the FAA is adopting a standard that the airplane may not have tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight.
American Champion noted inconsistencies with the required degree of departure resistance throughout the NPRM. For example, the commenter noted proposed § 23.215(b) stated “must not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight.” Section V of the NPRM referred to departure resistant as “stall characteristics that make it very difficult for the airplane to depart controlled flight,” and section VI states certification levels would have required “substantial departure resistance.” American Champion recommended the FAA clarify the degree of departure resistance intended by proposed § 23.215(b).
The FAA notes § 23.2150(b) states that single-engine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, “must not have a tendency” to inadvertently depart controlled flight. Therefore, “must not have a tendency” is the standard. The FAA acknowledges, however, that the NPRM discussions should have been more consistent when discussing the proposed rule language.
Optimal expressed concern about removing the requirement for single-engine airplanes not certified for aerobatics to recover from a one-turn/three-second spin at this time because pilots have been adept at finding unanticipated ways to get spin resistant airplanes to depart from controlled flight and because airplanes that are the most reluctant to spin tend to be the most reluctant to recover. Optimal recommended the FAA retain the requirement to recover from an incipient spin until sufficient certification and operational experience has been acquired with departure resistant airplanes.
The FAA removes the requirement for the one-turn/three-second spin for normal category single-engine airplanes. Historically, airplanes that were reluctant to spin tended to be reluctant to recover. This history is based on airplanes with inherent stability and reversible controls, which to date are all small airplanes. The FAA intentionally focused on the prevention of the conditions that lead to an inadvertent spin (departing controlled flight) versus the historical focus on spin recovery. For decades, the FAA has focused on spin recovery in certification programs only to have those same certified airplanes depart controlled flight at altitudes so low that even experienced pilots could not recover. For decades, this scenario has accounted for a large percentage of fatal accidents. The FAA has to change the approach to certification in order to reduce the number of departure from controlled flight fatal accidents.
Kestrel expressed concern that demonstrating compliance to proposed § 23.215(d) would be prohibitively expensive and potentially impossible. Kestrel suggested the FAA modify the proposed rule language to read “with any typical use of the flight or engine power controls.”
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.215(d)(1) (now § 23.2150(e)(1)) could have been interpreted as imposing an unbounded requirement, which was not the FAA's intent. The FAA revises the proposed rule language as Kestrel suggested.
EASA commented that proposed § 23.215(d)(2) (now § 23.2150(e)(2)) would have contained a flightcrew interface requirement that does not belong in the airworthiness (design) requirements. EASA recommended the FAA move this requirement to subpart G, which addresses flightcrew interface requirements.
The FAA is retaining the requirement in subpart B because it originated from former subpart B, § 23.221(c). The FAA finds that keeping it in the same subpart, in this instance, will avoid confusion.
American Champion commented that it is unnecessary to restrict certification of dual-purpose airplanes by requiring a mechanical or electronic change, as described in the NPRM, because airplanes can both meet the enhanced stall characteristics and also be suitable for some aerobatic maneuvers. The commenter noted that departure resistance, proposed § 23.215(b), does not preclude an airplane from aerobatic maneuvering, although it may affect the ability of the airplane to enter a spin.
The FAA proposed to restrict certification of new airplanes for dual use to prevent inadvertent stalls, which was one of the proposal's objectives. If an airplane can spin for spin training, then the airplane can inadvertently stall and depart into a spin during normal operations. In light of American Champion's comment, however, the FAA acknowledges there may be airplanes in the future that are approved for limited aerobatics that do not include spins. This would be similar to military fighter airplane. The military approach has historically been to explore thoroughly the post stall regime including spins and departures from controlled flight that do not result in traditional spins. This is done in the military and for civilian aerobatic airplanes to address the situation where a mistake during a planned maneuver results in departing controlled flight. The FAA can envision a flight control system that could prevent departures from all approved maneuvers. To the FAA's knowledge, the F-16 flight control system has been very successful in preventing inadvertent departures from controlled flight even though these airplane are frequently flown “acrobatically.” For these reasons, the FAA may allow certification of a new airplane for dual use even if the airplane is not approved for spins. However, an applicant proposing a system, such as a flight control system that could prevent departure from controlled flight during normal operations, should expect to work with the FAA to thoroughly address FAA concerns for safe margins from inadvertent departure from controlled flight.
Proposed § 23.215(d) would have precluded airplanes certified for aerobatics from having spin characteristics that would result in unrecoverable spins due to pilot disorientation or incapacitation or any use of the flight or engine power controls. Upon further reflection, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to require spin characteristics in airplanes certified for aerobatics to recover “without exceeding limitations.” The FAA inadvertently omitted this clause from proposed § 23.215(d) (now§ 23.2150(e)), which was intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.221(c). Former § 23.221(c) required the applicable airspeed limits and limit maneuvering load factors not to be exceeded. Additionally, including this clause in the requirement will better align the FAA language with EASA's NPA language.
The NTSB commented that while it supports reducing the rate of loss of control accidents in general aviation, it is unclear how proposed §§ 23.200 and 23.215 would have accomplished this. The NTSB explained that the only link it sees to reducing loss of control accidents is the change to V
The FAA notes that the NPRM included a substantial discussion explaining how the FAA envisions the rule reducing loss of control accidents. The new rules allow alternative approaches that an applicant may use, ranging from a stick pusher to full spin resistance. Adding flexibility to the rule will allow alternate approaches to address inadvertent departure by using combinations of new technology not addressed in the former requirements. These alternatives will be addressed in means of compliance. There is no “exact” approach to meet the new rule because the objective is to encourage new approaches to loss of control that are more effective than the ones that are failing us today.
Additionally, the NTSB submitted detailed comments on the stall departure characteristic exception in the ASTM standard. The FAA will address these comments in the AC because these comments are on the acceptability of an ASTM standard as a means of compliance rather than on the proposed rule.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.220 (now § 23.2155) would have required airplanes intended for operation on land or water to have controllable longitudinal, and directional handling characteristics during taxi, takeoff, and landing operations. Proposed § 23.220 would have also required an applicant to establish a maximum wave height shown to provide for controllable longitudinal, and directional handling characteristics and any necessary water
Textron and the Associations noted that the FAA proposed to remove the prescriptive requirements related to establishing demonstrated crosswind capability from former § 23.233, but proposed to retain similar requirements for water operations to establish wave height criteria. These commenters stated that operational specificity related to water landings should be addressed in means of compliance standards and recommended that the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.220(b).
The FAA agrees with the commenters that proposed § 23.220(b) would have been overly prescriptive for water operations and that it would be more appropriate as a means of compliance. While proposed § 23.220(a) would have included the top-level safety requirements for both land and water operations, proposed § 23.220(b) would have been inconsistent with the approach taken for land airplanes as it would have contained prescriptive requirements only for airplanes intended for operation on water. Accordingly, the FAA is not adopting proposed § 23.220(b). The information necessary to comply with proposed § 23.220(a) (now § 23.2155 in its entirety) and the method to communicate that information to the pilot will be addressed in means of compliance with this section.
EASA also recommended that the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.220(b). EASA explained that the AFM requirements in subpart G should cover “how-to” information and how that information is provided to the pilot, as proposed in the NPRM. Therefore, proposed § 23.220(b) should not require what must be included in the AFM.
The FAA agrees with EASA that the information is more appropriately addressed in the AFM means of compliance. The AFM requirements are located in subpart G.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.225 (now § 23.2160) would have—
• Precluded vibration and buffeting from interfering with the control of the airplane or causing fatigue to the flightcrew, for operations up to V
• Allowed stall warning buffet within these limits;
• Precluded perceptible buffeting in cruise configuration at 1g and at any speed up to V
• Required an applicant seeking certification of a high-speed airplane to determine the positive maneuvering load factors at which the onset of perceptible buffet occurs in the cruise configuration within the operational envelope and preclude likely inadvertent excursions beyond this boundary from resulting in structural damage; and
• Required high-speed airplanes to have recovery characteristics that do not result in structural damage or loss of control, beginning at any likely speed up to V
Textron and the Associations noted that the language from which proposed § 23.220(a) originated (former § 23.251) included the term “excessive fatigue,” rather than “fatigue.” These commenters recommended that the FAA use the term “excessive fatigue” in proposed § 23.220(a). Textron explained that by omitting the term “excessive,” any perceptible level of fatigue could be considered unacceptable and the proposal would result in an unwarranted change in standards for vibration.
The FAA agrees with the commenters and is adding the term “excessive” to § 23.2160(a).
ICON contended that proposed § 23.225(b) would have been fine for landplanes, but not for seaplanes because seaplanes, with their hull step, will always have some buffet in cruise. Additionally, ICON noted that airplane with windows removed will have perceptible buffeting at all speeds.
The FAA agrees with ICON that seaplanes and floatplanes routinely operate with a limited amount of buffet during normal operation. The FAA did not intend for proposed § 23.225(b) to increase the level of safety over former § 23.251, which allowed for the limited buffeting normal to seaplanes and floatplanes. Historically, this level of buffeting has not interfered with the control of the airplane or caused excessive fatigue to the pilot. Because the proposed rule language originated from former § 23.251, the FAA finds that it does not create a new certification burden on applicants with seaplanes or floatplanes. Accordingly, the FAA adopts the language as proposed. Furthermore, airplanes approved for operations without doors or windows, or those that allow the windows to open in flight, were not intended to be addressed under this rule.
Textron and the Associations noted that the former requirement for a high-speed trim upset (former § 23.255) applied to designs with adjustable horizontal stabilizers. However, the FAA did not specify whether proposed § 23.220(d)(2) would have been limited to airplanes with adjustable horizontal stabilizers. Textron explained that, as proposed, § 23.220(d)(2) would have contained an additional requirement for high-speed airplanes that did not have trimmable horizontal stabilizers. The commenters recommended the FAA limit the application of proposed § 23.220(d)(2) to airplanes that incorporate a flight adjustable horizontal stabilizer.
The FAA intended to keep this requirement as general as possible, not to propose a new requirement on high-speed airplanes that lacked trimmable horizontal stabilizer. As stated in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.220(d)(2) (now § 23.2160(d)(2)) to address the current safety intent of former § 23.255, which applied only to airplanes that included trimmable horizontal stabilizers. The FAA adopts language in § 23.2160(d)(2) to clarify that the requirement applies only to airplanes that incorporate trimmable horizontal stabilizers.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.230 (now § 23.2165) would have required—
• An applicant requesting certification for flight in icing conditions to demonstrate compliance with each requirement of this subpart. Exceptions to this rule would have been requirements applicable to spins and any requirement that would have to be demonstrated at speeds in excess of 250 KCAS, V
• The stall warning for flight in icing conditions and non-icing conditions to be the same.
• An applicant requesting certification for flight in icing conditions to provide a means to detect any icing conditions for which certification is not requested and demonstrate the airplane's ability to avoid or exit those conditions; and
• An applicant to develop an operating limitation to prohibit intentional flight, including takeoff and landing, into icing conditions for which the airplane is not certified to operate.
Proposed § 23.230 would have also added optional icing conditions where a manufacturer may demonstrate its airplane can either safely operate in, detect and safely exit, or avoid. Finally,
NJASAP stated it viewed proposed § 23.230 as a safety enhancement and noted that several accidents have demonstrated a benefit to having one stall standard—meaning the airplane should be able to remain largely free of ice in conditions within which it is certified to operate. The NTSB stated that adopting proposed §§ 23.230 and 23.1405 will likely result in Safety Recommendation A-96-54 being classified as “Closed—Acceptable Action.”
Textron and the Associations asked the FAA to clarify that proposed § 23.230(a) applies to the airplane's ice protection system when it is operating normally, not when it is in a failed or degraded mode. Therefore, rather than requiring the applicant to demonstrate the requirements of proposed paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2), the Associations recommended that the FAA require the normally-operating airplane ice protection systems to include the requirements of proposed paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2).
The FAA agrees with the comments made by the Associations and Textron, and the FAA adopts language to clarify that § 23.2165(a) applies to the normal operation of an ice protection system. Accordingly, § 23.2165(a) now requires the applicant to demonstrate the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) under the normal operation of the ice protection system.
The FAA is also changing the language in § 23.2165(a) to clarify that § 23.2165 applies to an applicant who requests certification for flight in icing conditions defined in part 1 of appendix C to part 25, or to an applicant who requests certification for flight in these icing conditions and any additional atmospheric icing conditions. This change better reflects the FAA's intent.
Additionally, the FAA is using the phrase “must show” rather than “must demonstrate” in § 23.2165(a), because “must demonstrate” may be interpreted as requiring a flight test, as Textron suggested in its comment on proposed § 23.230(b) (discussed later). This change is consistent with the NPRM, which explained that demonstration, as a means of compliance, may include design review and/or analysis and does not mean flight tests are required.
The FAA is also adding the never-exceed speed (V
BendixKing, Daher,
Textron similarly stated that proposed § 23.230(a)(2) could be interpreted as indicating that the stall warning must be the same in all of its aspects, which should not be the intent. Textron explained that the stall warning system in icing conditions cannot be the same as in non-icing conditions because some designs require a different angle of attack schedule in icing to obtain the same airspeed margin between stall warning and stall. Textron recommended requiring “the means by which stall warning is provided to the pilot” to be the same in icing and non-icing conditions.
In response to the comments on proposed § 23.230(a)(2), the FAA did not intend to require the stall warning to be the same in all material aspects for flight in icing conditions and non-icing conditions. Rather, the FAA intended proposed § 23.230(a)(2) to require the same type of stall warning, such as an artificial stall warning system or an aerodynamic buffet. Therefore, the FAA adopts Textron's recommendation. Accordingly, § 23.2165(a)(2) now requires the means by which the stall warning is provided to the pilot to be the same in both icing and non-icing conditions. This change from the proposal addresses the other commenters' concerns by clarifying that the type of stall warning provided to the pilot, rather than the design of the stall warning system, must be the same.
Textron recommended replacing the words “must demonstrate” with the words “must show” in proposed § 23.230(b), because the former typically implies compliance by flight testing, whereas the latter allows more than one means of compliance. Similarly, the Associations commented that proposed § 23.230(b) should ensure the design includes a means to safely avoid and exit icing conditions. However, the FAA should not require the applicant to “demonstrate the airplane's ability” to avoid or exit icing conditions because the means by which the airplane safely avoids or exits icing conditions may not have to be demonstrated under part 21. The commenters noted that amended designs, for example, may use similarity to a previously approved design to show compliance.
The FAA agrees that “must demonstrate” in proposed § 23.230(b) may be interpreted as requiring a flight test. Because the FAA did not intend to preclude other means of compliance, the FAA adopts the phrase “must show,” as recommended by Textron. Accordingly, § 23.2165(b) now requires an applicant requesting certification for flight in icing conditions to show the airplane's capability to avoid or exit icing conditions for which certification is not requested.
Kestrel supports categorizing SLD as an icing condition, but noted that guidance in AC 23.1419-2D is currently used on part 23 icing certification programs to establish SLD detection cues and exit procedures. Kestrel asked the FAA to clarify whether this guidance will continue to be an acceptable means of compliance for the ice detection requirement.
The NPRM stated “many manufacturers already have equipped recent airplanes with technology to meet the standards for detecting and exiting SLD conditions in accordance with current FAA guidance.” Although systems to detect SLD are being developed, none have been certified. Inclusion of the pilot cues as listed in AC 23.1419-2D into the AFM have been an acceptable means to detect SLD, and will continue to be an acceptable means of compliance to § 23.2165(b).
ANAC questioned whether proposed § 23.230(c) was intended to prohibit flight into known icing conditions or forecast icing conditions. ANAC recommended including the term “known” before “icing conditions.”
The FAA agrees with ANAC's position that only “known” icing conditions should be prohibited. However, § 23.2165(c) prohibits intentional flight into icing conditions. Because the term “intentional” implies that the icing conditions are known, the FAA finds it unnecessary to include the term “known” before “icing conditions.” Accordingly, the FAA
An individual commenter appeared to criticize the FAA for not requiring de-icing to work and suggested that “[a] wind tunnel at the far North or South may be enough for a conclusive test.” In response to the individual commenter, an icing tunnel is a standard means of compliance to test ice protection systems on new airplane designs. Any resulting intercycle, residual, or runback ice has to be accounted for when showing compliance with the subpart B regulations in icing. No changes are made as a result of this comment.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.300 (now § 23.2200) would have required the applicant to determine the structural design envelope, which describes the range and limits of airplane design and operational parameters for which the applicant would show compliance with the requirements of subpart C. Proposed § 23.300 would have required the applicant to account for all airplane design and operational parameters that affect structural loads, strength, durability, and aeroelasticity, including structural design airspeeds and Mach numbers.
Several commenters identified concerns with the detailed definitions of airspeeds for which applicants would be required to account. They pointed out that, for some types of airplanes, these airspeeds may not be appropriate in particular circumstances. EASA recommended removal of the speed definitions for a more generic proposal in its proposed CS 23.320.
The FAA recognizes the commenters' concerns on the various issues in proposed § 23.300(a). The FAA believes the best way to address these comments is to adopt regulatory text similar to the text in EASA's section CS 23.320, which removes the need to define individual design airspeeds in the regulation. Some comments on proposed § 23.300(a) recommended retaining certain methods of compliance language, such as defining V
Air Tractor commented on proposed § 23.300(b), which addressed design maneuvering load factors for the structural design envelope. Air Tractor raised concerns that obtaining consensus compliance from the FAA without the prescriptive formula established by former § 23.337(a) would be a protracted battle—worse than the existing issue paper process for non-standard design.
Regarding Air Tractor's concerns, the FAA has decided to move the prescriptive formula for determining the design maneuvering load factors to means of compliance. The FAA also reiterates that the phrase “service history” is intended to mean the design maneuvering load factors should be based on those load factors used for airplanes with successful service histories that have similar design, operational capabilities, and intended use. If there are no existing similar designs, the FAA will work with the applicant to identify the most appropriate means of compliance. In general, the FAA does not expect applicants to measure and record maneuvering load factors on new designs.
EASA asserted that the language in proposed § 23.300(c) was too design specific and could be replaced with the text from its proposed CS 23.305.
The FAA finds that proposed § 23.300(c) is not overly design specific, because each of the enumerated items must be taken into account, regardless of the applicant's design. The FAA therefore adopts paragraph (c) as proposed.
Air Tractor recommended the FAA change “empty weight to the maximum weight” to “minimum flying weight to maximum weight,” in proposed § 23.300(c)(1). Air Tractor stated this language applies to all airplanes and is appropriate for certification; while “empty weight” applies only to certain airplanes' operational requirements.
The FAA notes Air Tractor's recommendation that “empty weight” in § 23.2200(c)(1) should be replaced with “minimum flying weight.” However, the FAA believes that establishing a design empty weight is necessary so that variations in the mass of properties such as fuel, payloads, and occupants, when added to the airplane, can be accounted for.
The Associations recommended deleting the term “All” from the beginning of proposed § 23.300(c)(1) and (e) for simplification. Textron recommended changing “All” in proposed § 23.300(c)(1) to “Each.” Textron stated the change would be consistent with former part 23, which uses “each weight” throughout the subparts, whereas “all” implies an applicant would have to evaluate an infinite number of weights rather than those that are relevant. Textron also recommended replacing “All” in proposed § 23.300(e) with “Each critical altitude,” because “all” is too encompassing.
The FAA agrees with the recommendation to replace “All” with “Each” in proposed § 23.300(c) and (e) and revises the language in both paragraphs accordingly. The FAA also adds the word “critical” so the subsection text reads “Each critical. . .”. In this context, “critical” refers to a weight or altitude that results in a maximum or minimum structural loading condition. A “critical weight” will, for example, be the weight of the airplane at its highest possible value with no fuel in the wing. This condition will reduce the effects of inertia in the wing and result in maximum structural loads. A “critical altitude” will be the altitude where the maximum pressure differential occurs in a pressurized cabin, or an altitude where the effects of atmospheric compressibility cause changes to the airplane aerodynamic coefficients, resulting in maximum structural loads.
EASA commented that proposed § 23.300(d) was too design specific and should cover loads resulting from controls.
The FAA interprets EASA's comment to mean the FAA should consider non-traditional methods of control, such as vectored thrust. The FAA agrees and revises paragraph (d) to include non-traditional control systems.
EASA also commented on proposed § 23.300(e), stating it would create a requirement that is not applicable to very-light aircraft (VLA) today. EASA asserted that the intent can be covered by the new proposal for flight loads in proposed § 23.310 (now § 23.2210).
While the FAA notes EASA's concern with proposed § 23.300(e), the FAA finds that paragraph (e), as proposed, would place only an insignificant burden on an applicant using the VLA standard. The FAA finds a simple method of compliance, such as for a maximum altitude of 14,000 feet, could be incorporated into an industry consensus standard to meet this requirement.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.305 (now § 23.2205) would have provided a regulatory framework for the evaluation of systems intended to modify an airplane's structural design envelope or structural performance, and other systems whose normal operating state or failed states may affect structural performance. Compliance with proposed § 23.305 would have provided acceptable mitigation of structural
Textron recommended removing proposed § 23.305 because the NPRM makes clear that, with or without proposed § 23.305, the safety intent of proposed § 23.1315 covers the interaction of systems and structures. Textron also objected to the use of, or reference to, non-part 23 data. As an example, Textron cited the reference in the preamble to FAA special condition number 25-390-SC,
In response to Textron's comment regarding the necessity of proposed § 23.305, the FAA notes the intent stated in the NPRM was erroneous in its description of the relationship between proposed § 23.305 and proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510). The correct intent of proposed § 23.305 is to provide a requirement for those systems intended to directly affect structural performance. An example of this type of system is a structural load alleviation system. Former § 23.1309 and § 23.2510 do not envision these types of systems and the FAA has previously issued special conditions to address these unique and novel systems. Therefore, the FAA retains proposed § 23.305 as § 23.2205 in this final rule because it provides a way for applicants to address failures in systems intended to directly affect structural performance by accounting for the probability of such failures and the likely pilot reactions to them.
Also, regarding Textron's comment that the NPRM preamble referenced a part 25 special condition that did not contain part 23 data, the FAA notes the reference was used as an example because the wording of the special condition was typical of others relating to Interaction of Systems and Structure, which establish an acceptable method of compliance with this section. The FAA has issued a part 23 special condition (23-258A-SC).
Textron also stated the phrase “affect structural performance” was too vague and should be better defined for clarity. Textron noted every trim system, flight control system, and high lift system affects structural performance at some level. Textron recommended either eliminating this phrase or using the preamble to define “structural performance.” Textron recommended proposed § 23.305 be revised to provide that, for airplanes equipped with systems intended to alleviate the impact of the requirements of this subpart and affect the structural design envelope, either directly or as a result of failure or malfunction, the applicant must account for the influence and failure conditions of these systems when showing compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
The Associations commented that proposed § 23.305 was intended to address systems, which may use aerodynamic or other means to alleviate loads in certain conditions and to ensure structural integrity remains in the event these systems were to fail. The commenters requested the FAA change the language to ensure the intent of this section is clear and there are no unintended consequences, such as creating a requirement to perform systems safety assessments on all systems and structure interactions. The commenters asserted that this would create a tremendous burden with no measurable benefit. The commenters proposed § 23.305 be revised to provide that, for airplanes equipped with systems that are intended to alleviate structural loads, the applicant must account for the influence and failure conditions of these systems when showing compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
The FAA agrees with Textron and the Associations that § 23.2205 should address only those systems intended to affect structural performance. In the NPRM, the FAA referred to these types of systems as “structural systems”. The FAA referred to other types of systems as “non-structural systems”. The FAA agrees that these non-structural systems are adequately addressed by § 23.2510. The FAA is using the NPRM description of structural systems in rewording § 23.2205 to ensure that any airplane equipped with a system intended to affect structural performance would be provided the same level of safety as an airplane not equipped with such a system.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.310 (now § 23.2210) would have required—
• An applicant to determine structural design loads resulting from an externally or internally applied pressure, force, or moment that may occur in flight, ground and water operations, ground and water handling, and while the airplane is parked or moored.
• An applicant to determine structural design loads at all combinations of parameters on and within the boundaries of the structural design envelope that would result in the most severe loading conditions; and
• The magnitude and distribution of these loads be based on physical principles and be no less than service history has shown can occur within the structural design envelope.
The Associations recommended adding the phrase “as applicable” to proposed § 23.310(a) to address the varying bases to determine load calculations. These commenters also recommended replacing the term “any” with the word “likely,” because the calculation of any externally or internally applied pressure, force, or moment would result in boundless design and calculation. Textron recommended the same revisions. Textron noted that the rule implies that all airplanes will be required to determine both ground and water loads, but not all airplanes are amphibious.
The FAA agrees with Textron and the Associations concerning the comments on adding the phrase “as applicable” and removing the word “any” in proposed § 23.310(a). The FAA also agrees with limiting the scope of proposed § 23.310(a) by adding the word “likely” to the description of the loading conditions the applicant must consider. As explained in the discussion of proposed § 23.205, “likely” means reasonably expected based on the conditions that may exist. Accordingly, the FAA revises § 23.2210(a) to capture these changes.
Air Tractor recommended the FAA delete the “service history” clause from proposed § 23.310(c) because there is no “service history” for most new airplanes and there is danger that the FAA will require that service history be collected before certification is granted for a new design. EASA also noted that a “service history” will not always be available for innovative designs.
The FAA partially agrees with Air Tractor regarding the meaning of “service history” in proposed § 23.310(c). Service history, in this sense, refers to the service history and experience gained throughout aviation history. In Air Tractor's case, service history would be the service history of other restricted category agricultural airplanes of similar design. The FAA finds § 23.2200(b) adequately covers the intent of the “service history”
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.315 (now § 23.2215) would have required an applicant to determine the loads resulting from vertical and horizontal atmospheric gusts, symmetric and asymmetric maneuvers, and, for multiengine airplanes, failure of the powerplant unit which results in the most severe structural loads.
EASA noted the proposed rule did not cover the objective that loads should be considered for the operational envelope, but instead based the requirement on measured gust statistics. EASA proposed using its CS 23.315 language because it is more objective and does not include design details.
The FAA finds the requirement to consider loads throughout the operational envelope is addressed by proposed § 23.310(b) (now § 23.2210(a)(2)). However, the FAA agrees with EASA's comment that the proposed rule language is too design specific. Therefore, FAA revises the rule language to remove design specifics. In particular, the FAA removes proposed § 23.215(c), which addressed canted lifting surfaces. The FAA finds § 23.2210(c) adequately addresses this requirement. The FAA also changes the wording of proposed § 23.215(d) (now 23.2215(c)) to account for the possibility that a single powerplant, operating two separate propellers, could develop asymmetric thrust if one propeller system experienced a failure. This would result in a condition similar to an engine failure in a multiengine airplane, described in the former regulations. Although no applicant has submitted such a design for approval to date, given the increased flexibility this rule provides, future applicants may propose such a design. In that case, this design will be subject to the same safety concern and the same need to address it, as applicants for approval of multiengine airplanes.
Air Tractor commented on proposed § 23.315(a) and questioned whether the gust velocities in former part 23 or CAR 3 were based on “measured gust statistics.” Air Tractor noted it has never seen a technical report to that effect. Air Tractor also questioned whether the FAA would deem the CAR 3 and current part 23 values sufficient, and raised concerns that making up its own requirements to meet FAA approval would be difficult.
The FAA changed the gust load formula in former § 23.341, amendment 23-7
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.320 (now § 23.2220) would have required an applicant to determine the loads resulting from taxi, take-off, landing, and ground handling conditions occurring in normal and adverse attitudes and configurations.
EASA proposed using its A-NPA CS 23.325 language because it is more objective and covers more situations, such as landing on snow or other surfaces not covered in proposed § 23.320. BendixKing asked that the FAA delete “sea,” stating the word is neither required nor accurate.
The FAA agrees with EASA's comments and revises the text in § 23.2220 to include all operating surfaces, which includes, at a minimum, snow or ice covered land and water. EASA referred to snow and other surfaces not covered in the proposed text, presumably meaning EASA does not consider operations on “snow or other surfaces” to be operations on the ground. While the FAA is using EASA's CS A-NPA 23.325 language, the FAA finds EASA's language citing weight and velocity to be unnecessary. These parameters are addressed in § 23.2200.
Air Tractor asked whether the “ground handling conditions” in proposed § 23.320(a) would be different from the “jacking and towing conditions” in proposed § 23.320(c). If so, the commenter asked what “ground handling conditions” meant. Air Tractor also asked whether this dealt with protection from “hangar rash.” Finally, Air Tractor sought clarification on whether it would now need to define the structural loads associated with docking an airplane, or from wave motion causing scuffing when a seaplane is moored against a dock.
The FAA notes the “ground handling conditions” referenced in proposed § 23.320(a) (now § 23.2220) are different than the “jacking and towing conditions” referenced in § 23.320(c) (now § 23.2220). The reference to “handling conditions” is intended to cover both ground handling conditions and jacking and towing conditions. The FAA revises § 23.2220 to cover “taxi, takeoff, landing, and handling conditions.”
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.325 (now § 23.2225) would have required an applicant to determine the loads acting on each engine mount, flight control, high lift surface, and the loads acting on pressurized cabins.
EASA commented that proposed § 23.325(b) covered the loads on components subject to earlier defined loads in proposed §§ 23.305 through 23.320. EASA recommended the FAA simplify the requirement to avoid different interpretations by reflecting the relation to the previous requirements as follows:
The FAA finds that a separate rule for component loading conditions is necessary to address structural loading conditions that do not fall under the requirements for flight and ground loads. Examples of these loading conditions include control surface jamming and pressurized cabin loads. The FAA revises § 23.2225 to clarify the types of loads applicants must account for.
Textron and the Associations asked the FAA to revise the “relief valve” language in proposed § 23.325(c), which was a design-specific solution, in favor of more performance-based language. Textron suggested language such as “from zero to the maximum relief pressure combined with gust and maneuver loads.” The Associations recommended replacing “valve” with “pressure.”
The FAA agrees with Textron and the Associations on the use of the term “relief valve.” The FAA revises § 23.2225(c)(1), (2), and (3) by replacing the term “relief valve” with “relief pressure.”
The FAA agrees with a comment made at the public meeting by the Associations that proposed § 23.325 should cover sudden engine stoppage loads for turbine engines, as did former part 23. A requirement for the design of
Finally, the FAA revises § 23.2225(b) to clarify the gust loads that must be accounted for and the meaning of “ground operations,” making this section consistent with the changes discussed previously for § 23.2220.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.330 (now § 23.2230) would have described how the applicant must determine the limit and ultimate loads associated with the structural design loads. Proposed § 23.330 retained the current 1.5 safety factor for ultimate loads.
The Associations recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.330 by deleting the phrase “special or other factors of safety are necessary to meet the requirements of” and replacing it with “ultimate loads are specified in.” These commenters noted the section, as written, would not require the establishment of limit loads if a special factor of safety is used to meet the requirement. Textron recommended the same revision, explaining that proposed § 23.330 need not address “special or other factors of safety,” other than in some cases when an ultimate load is specified, because proposed § 23.515(c) specified that limit and ultimate loads are multiplied by special factors of safety.
The FAA agrees with the comments regarding cases where loads are expressed only as ultimate loads. The FAA deletes the introductory phrase “unless special or other factors of safety are necessary to meet the requirements of this subpart,” in proposed § 23.330. The FAA notes § 23.2265(c) specifies that limit and ultimate loads are multiplied by special factors of safety. Furthermore, the FAA revises § 23.2230 by inserting the phrase “unless otherwise specified elsewhere in this part,” which captures the intent of former § 23.303.
EASA recommended the FAA should also address the former requirement for redistribution of loads due to deflections under loads. EASA also recommended the regulation cover the specific case where strength specifications are expressed only in ultimate loads and permanent deformation is accepted.
The FAA notes § 23.2210(b) addresses the issue of redistribution of loads. Specifically, 23.2210(b) requires the distribution of loads be based on physical principles. The FAA finds redistribution of load due to deflection is an expression of physical principles and is retaining this requirement in § 23.2210(b) of this rule.
An individual commenter asked the FAA to remove the “arbitrarily prescriptive” 1.5 factor of safety and substitute a more performance-based approach. The commenter explained that advances in probabilistic analysis have increased understanding of actual variables like load predictions, material properties, and airplane operations. The commenter proposed defining the value for structural failure more explicitly and allowing the applicant to account for the variations to achieve the value, allowing for more efficient designs. The commenter suggested retaining the 1.5 factor of safety as a possible approval approach to establish the means of compliance.
The FAA notes the 1.5 factor of safety has been used for many years and has provided an acceptable level of safety. Probabilistic analysis methods and the data necessary to support them are not sufficiently mature to provide the same level of assurance of safety. As probabilistic methods mature, the FAA will consider their use if applicants can show they provide an equivalent level of safety.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.400 (now § 23.2235) would have required an applicant to demonstrate the structure will support limit and ultimate loads. The NPRM explained that in this context, “demonstrate” means the applicant must conduct structural tests to show compliance with the structural performance requirements unless the applicant shows that a structural analysis is reliable and applicable to the structure.
The Associations recommended adding “unsafe” at the beginning of proposed § 23.400(a)(1) to clarify the intent of the requirement and ensure it is not viewed as including expected or non-critical types of interference, such as thrust reverser buckets making normal contact with each other. Similarly, Textron recommended inserting the word “safe” before “operation” in proposed paragraph (a)(1) to ensure that “interference” in the regulation will always be interpreted to mean interference that would cause an unsafe condition.
The FAA agrees that inserting the word “safe” in the text of proposed § 23.400(a)(1) will clarify that the structure must support limit loads without interference with the “safe” operation of the airplane. This suggested change is consistent with the corresponding requirements in former part 23, and will resolve the Associations' concern as well. Accordingly, the FAA revises § 23.2235(a)(1) to capture this change.
NJASAP asked why the FAA proposed removing time requirements (the capability of the airplane structure to support ultimate loads without failure for at least three seconds) in proposed § 23.400.
As discussed in the NPRM preamble, the FAA considers the “3-second” rule a statement of physical principles and sound testing practices that does not need to be stated in the requirements for structural strength. It is more appropriate for inclusion in a means of compliance. The FAA makes no change to the regulatory text based on NJASAP's comment.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.405 (now § 23.2240) would have required an applicant to develop and implement procedures to prevent structural failures due to foreseeable causes of strength degradation, and to prevent rapid decompression in airplanes with a maximum operating altitude greater than 41,000 feet. Proposed § 23.405 would have also required an airplane to be capable of continued safe flight and landing with foreseeable structural damage caused by high-energy
The Associations said proposed § 23.405 remains “far too prescriptive and design oriented.” The commenters recommended language that they believed addresses the objectives of the rule without being so design focused. Specifically the Associations suggested the phrase “serious or fatal injuries, loss of the airplane, or extended periods of operation with reduced safety margins” in § 23.2240(a) be replaced with “unsafe conditions.”
Textron suggested that the proposed rule is too prescriptive regarding the number of compartments for compartment floor depressurization, as well as in prescribing the “design” structure rather than specifying the required capability of the structure. Textron suggested revising proposed § 23.405 similar to that suggested by the Associations.
An individual commenter recommended the FAA delete the phrase “loss of the airplane” from proposed § 23.405(a). The commenter stated this would address the long-understood interpretation that part 23 does not include certain structures for required evaluation on the effects of fatigue failure, such as landing gear and engine support (or hull loss, as discussed in the NPRM preamble). Without this revision, the commenter noted the intent of the rule not to increase the burden on certification would be nullified. In effect, the commenter found the proposed rule would require the same structure as is currently evaluated in part 25, which is inconsistent with former part 23. The commenter favored incorporating a comprehensive fatigue evaluation of structure as is currently in part 25.
The FAA agrees with the suggestion to delete the phrase “loss of the airplane” in paragraph (a). The FAA finds the prevention of serious or fatal injuries and the prevention of extended periods of operation with reduced safety margins is the objective of § 23.2240. The FAA will not adopt the Associations' recommended change to replace the phrase “serious or fatal injuries, loss of the airplane, or extended periods of operation with reduced safety margins” with “unsafe conditions.” The term “unsafe condition” is the threshold for the FAA issuing airworthiness directives under 14 CFR part 39, and is not an accurate term to be used in this section.
The FAA also revises paragraph (a) to reflect more completely the requirements of the former part 23 regulations this section is replacing.
EASA suggested replacing the design-specific requirements in proposed § 23.405(b) with more objective requirements from EASA's CS 23.340(b) to allow proportionality for different airplane levels. In particular, EASA said more objective requirements should replace the proposed requirements related to pressurized airplanes and uncontained engine failure.
The FAA notes the language in EASA's proposed CS 23.340 could be interpreted as expanding the scope of the former regulations by requiring evaluation of discrete source damage for all airplanes certificated under part 23. As stated in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.405(b) and (c) to capture the intent of former §§ 23.365(e) and 23.571(d), which only addressed airplanes with pressurized compartments. Sudden release of pressure and operating above 41,000 feet altitude present the same hazards to the airplane occupants regardless of airplane category or size.
The FAA moves the content of proposed § 23.405(b) and (c) to § 23.2240(c)(1) and (c)(2) in the final rule. The final rule also adds new § 23.2240(b), which addresses the requirement for level 4 airplanes. This requirement is similar to the former § 23.574 requirement for damage tolerance evaluations of commuter category airplanes. The FAA inadvertently left this requirement out of the NPRM.
The FAA agrees with the comments that proposed § 23.405(b) was overly prescriptive. The FAA deletes the detailed description of the pressurized compartment and emphasizes the sudden release of pressure in § 23.2240(c)(1) and (c)(2). The FAA retains reference to door and window failures as examples of the types of failures that could result in sudden release of pressure.
EASA stated that proposed § 23.405(d) is too specific to engine rotorburst; however, other risks could be expected from new technologies that should also be considered.
The FAA agrees with EASA's comment that paragraph (d) should address all high-energy fragments, not just fragments from an engine rotorburst. The FAA revises § 23.2240(d) to include all high-energy fragments. The FAA also includes turbine engines and rotating machinery as sources of high-energy fragments.
Several other commenters also commented on proposed § 23.405(d), noting that former part 23 required “minimizing” hazards associated with damage from uncontained engine or rotating machinery failures, but the NPRM would require the airplane be able to “continue safe flight and landing” following such damage. The commenters asserted that there is no way to eliminate all the risks that will prevent the “continued safe flight and landing,” and asked the FAA maintain the requirement to “minimize” these hazards as in former § 23.903(b)(1).
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.405(d) is inconsistent with the description in the NPRM preamble. Therefore, the FAA agrees with the commenters' recommendation to adopt the term “minimize” in § 23.2240(d). The FAA does not intend for applicants to incorporate all possible design precautions against rotorburst hazards, especially those that are resource prohibitive or have a negligible impact on safety. The FAA expects an applicant's compliance with § 23.2240(d) to incorporate all practical design precautions to minimize the hazards due to high-energy fragments.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.410 (now § 23.2245) would have required an airplane to be free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence at all speeds within and sufficiently beyond the structural design envelope, for any configuration and condition of operation, accounting for critical
Air Tractor and Transport Canada raised concerns about the phrase “sufficiently beyond the structural design envelope” in proposed § 23.410(a)(1). Transport Canada said the wording is subjective and does not convey a performance requirement and suggested complementing the phrase “sufficiently beyond” with safety objective requirements. Air Tractor noted the existing regulations do not extend beyond the design envelope. Air Tractor asked for clarification on what is considered “sufficiently beyond.”
Regarding Air Tractor's assertion that the former regulations did not extend beyond the design envelope, the FAA intended proposed § 23.410 to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.629, 23.677, and 23.687 without introducing the inflexibility created by the former regulations. Former § 23.629(c) required that flutter analysis show freedom from flutter, control reversal, and divergence up to 20 percent above dive speed. Existing part 25 rule language requires flutter analysis to show this up to 15 percent above dive speed. This is to account for uncertainties inherent in analytical techniques. Part 25 requires a smaller margin above dive speed due to its more rigorous analytical requirements. Additionally, former § 23.629(b)(4) precluded any large or rapid reduction in damping as dive speed is approached in flight tests.
As for Air Tractor's comment requesting clarification on what is considered “sufficiently beyond” in proposed § 23.410(a)(1), the former part 23 requirements for margins on analyses and flight tests worked together to ensure a momentary inadvertent excursion above dive speed in operation, or combined variations in quantities that may affect flutter, did not result in a catastrophic flutter event. Thus, the FAA required a sufficient margin above dive speed in former part 23 for many years. The phrase “sufficiently beyond the structural design envelope” is intended to require a sufficient margin consistent with the requirements of former part 23. However, as technology and analytical techniques evolve and improve, the new language will allow room for the methods of compliance to adapt and possibly change the appropriate margin needed for safe operations. This language is also harmonized with EASA's proposed rule language.
Several commenters raised concerns about the use of the term “any” in proposed § 23.410(a). The Associations asked the FAA to revise proposed § 23.410(a)(2) to require the airplane to be free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence for “approved” configurations and conditions of operation, rather than for “any” configuration and condition of operation. Textron recommended the FAA require the airplane to be free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence for “any likely” configuration and condition of operation. Similarly, the Associations suggested removing the term “any” from proposed § 23.410(a)(4).
The FAA notes the commenters concerns about the term “any” in § 23.2245(a)(2) and (a)(4). In the NPRM, the FAA explained that § 23.2245 would capture the safety intent of former § 23.629. Former § 23.629(a) has required the airplane to be free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence for “any condition of operation” since 1978. This terminology originated from CAR 3.311, the predecessor to former § 23.629, was adopted in 1947 and required the wings, tail, and control surfaces to be free from flutter, divergence, and control reversal for “all conditions of operation.” The FAA recognizes it is impossible to evaluate an infinite number of data points, but that is not the intent of § 23.2245 nor was it the intent of its predecessor regulations. Rather, the FAA interprets the term “any” in § 23.2245(a)(2) as requiring the applicant to exercise due diligence by accounting for a sufficient number of data points that would enable the applicant to state the entire envelope has been evaluated and is safe. This interpretation is consistent with the way the FAA has interpreted CAR 3.311 and former § 23.629. Because the FAA has used the terms “any” and “all” in its flutter requirements for decades, the FAA is retaining the term “any” in § 23.2245(a)(2) and (a)(4). This maintains harmonization with EASA's proposed rule language.
Several commenters raised concerns with terminology in proposed § 23.410(b). Textron and the Associations suggested the FAA require the applicant to establish and account for “sensitivities” rather than “tolerances” because the term “tolerances” has a very specific meaning and a proper flutter analysis is a collection of flutter sensitivity analyses.
Regarding Textron, the Associations and Astronautics' comments on the use of “tolerances” and “quantities” in proposed § 23.410(b), the FAA is retaining the terms “tolerances” and “quantities” in § 23.2245(b). The FAA intends § 23.2245 to capture the safety intent of former § 23.629, which has contained the terms “tolerances” and “quantities” since 1978.
Textron recommended removing the word “establish” from the proposed language. The commenter noted that you cannot account for something without establishing it first.
The FAA agrees with Textron that it would be redundant to require an applicant to establish and account for tolerances. For that reason, the FAA retains the word “establish” and deletes the words “and account for” from § 23.2245(b) in the final rule. This change emphasizes the necessity of fully analyzing these tolerances and harmonizes with EASA's proposed rule language.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.500 (now § 23.2250) would have required—
• An applicant to design each part, article, and assembly for the expected operating conditions of the airplane;
• The design data to adequately define the part, article, or assembly configuration, its design features, and any materials and processes used;
• An applicant to determine the suitability of each design detail and part having an important bearing on safety in operations; and
• The control system to be free from jamming, excessive friction, and excessive deflection when the control system and its supporting structure are subjected to loads corresponding to the limit airloads when the primary controls are subjected to the lesser of the limit airloads or limit pilot forces, and when the secondary controls are subjected to loads not less than those corresponding to maximum pilot effort.
The Associations recommended the FAA change the title of proposed § 23.500 from “Structural design” to “Design and construction principles.”
The FAA concurs with the recommendation by the Associations to change the title of § 23.2250 to “Design and construction principles.” The FAA agrees the suggested title is a better descriptor and will harmonize with EASA's proposed title for this section, and adopts it for this rule.
Several comments addressed proposed § 23.500(d). Air Tractor recommended that the FAA revise the wording of proposed § 23.500(d) to specify that it applies to flight controls. Air Tractor further noted that it appears that the definition of “maximum pilot effort” has been untethered from former §§ 23.397(b) and 23.143(c), making it necessary for every applicant “to re-invent the wheel.”
Regarding Air Tractor's comment proposing to add the term “flight” to further define “control system”, the term “control system” has been used consistently for many years in this context in the former regulations, and is understood to refer to “flight” controls. This text also harmonizes with EASA's proposed rule language. Therefore, the FAA adopts the language as proposed in the NPRM.
As for Air Tractor's concern that maximum pilot effort has been untethered from former §§ 23.397(b) and 23.143(c), the FAA notes that under the new performance-based regulations, applicants will be free to use former part 23 or other accepted means, such as industry consensus standards, as a means of compliance. These accepted means of compliance will detail how the airplane will meet the performance-based requirements.
The Associations stated that it is appropriate for means of compliance to specify how airframe and control system interactions will be tested up to limit loads and that, depending on the nature of the control system, it may be more or less appropriate to perform such a test. These tests ensure the appropriate level of testing is always applied to traditional flight controls and also to future systems, which may include fans or thrusters. The commenters suggested the level of detail be contained in accepted standards. Additionally, the commenters recommended the FAA consider revising proposed § 23.500(d) by deleting paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) and adding the phrase “the airplane is subjected to expected limit airloads” to the end of paragraph (d). EASA also recommended the FAA remove details in proposed § 23.500(d) that describe what parts of the system should be subject to which loads because this is design specific and should be covered in the means of compliance.
The FAA agrees with EASA and the Associations to revise proposed § 23.500(d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(3) and adds the phrase “the airplane is subjected to expected limit airloads” to the end of § 23.2250(d). This change aligns with EASA's recommendation and assists in harmonization with EASA's proposed rule. The FAA considers these suggestions to be more in line with the original intent of the performance standards. Therefore, the FAA adopts the changes proposed by the commenters.
Textron suggested the FAA remove the § 23.500(d)(1) requirement that the supporting structure is loaded with limit airloads while the control system is loaded, which the commenter noted has historically never been a part 23 requirement. Textron further suggested the FAA change the phrase “controls are” in both subparagraphs (2) and (3) to “control system is” to further specify that this is a control system test. Textron commented that the word “controls” could imply something other than the entire system is the intent.
As noted above in this section, the FAA removes paragraphs paragraph (d)(1), (d)(2) and (d)(3). The FAA adopts the terminology “control system” in the revised proposed § 23.500(d).
EASA also suggested the FAA consider moving the general principle for doors, canopies, hatches, and access panels from proposed § 23.750(f) to a new § 23.2250(e).
The FAA concurs with EASA's recommendation to move the general principle for doors, canopies, hatches, and access panels from proposed § 23.750(f) to a new § 23.2250(e). The requirement is more appropriate in this section because it states a general design principle rather than a requirement relating to emergency evacuation. The FAA also notes that making this change further helps to harmonize FAA and EASA regulations.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.505 (now § 23.2255) would have required an applicant to protect each part of the airplane, including small parts such as fasteners, against deterioration or loss of strength due to any cause likely to occur in the expected operational environment. Proposed § 23.505 would have also required each part of the airplane to have adequate provisions for ventilation and drainage and would require an applicant to incorporate a means into the airplane design to allow for required maintenance, preventive maintenance, and servicing.
Textron recommended clarifying the intent of proposed § 23.505(a) by including a reference to specific sources of damage because it is unclear whether the proposed rule would be an increase from what was previously required.
The FAA considered Textron's comment. However, as far back as 1949 (§ 3.295, “Protection”), the regulations required all members of the structure to be “suitably protected against deterioration or loss of strength in service due to weathering, corrosion, abrasion, or other causes. . . .” The CAR 3 requirement was included in the 1965 recodification as former § 23.609, which included a non-exhaustive list of possible causes of deterioration. In the NPRM, the FAA removed the listed examples, but maintained the requirement to account for deterioration or loss of strength due to “any cause likely to occur.”
Textron further stated that it is unclear whether the phrase “expected operational environment” is intended to include any environment that might occur during failure conditions, or just the environment during normal operating conditions. Textron recommended replacing the phrase “expected operational environment” with “intended operational environment” or “normal operational environment.”
The FAA considered Textron's recommendation to change “expected operational environment” to “intended operational environment” or “normal operational environment.” The FAA did not intend to limit this requirement only to the normal operational environment because, if the failure conditions are an expected environment, then an applicant should consider those conditions and protect the structure. Deterioration or loss of strength due to corrosion, weathering, and abrasion are all examples of failure conditions because capability has been degraded. For many years, the rule has expressly required consideration of these causes. It was an expected environment for items to be corroded, weathered, and abraded, but applicants had to consider any other causes too.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.510 (now § 23.2260) would have required—
• An applicant to determine the suitability and durability of materials used for parts, articles, and assemblies, the failure of which could prevent continued safe flight and landing, while accounting for the effects of likely
• The methods and processes of fabrication and assembly used to produce consistently sound structures and, if a fabrication process requires close control to reach this objective, an applicant would have to perform the process under an approved process specification.
Additionally, proposed § 23.510 would have required an applicant to justify the selected design values to ensure material strength with probabilities, accounting for—
• The criticality of the structural element; and
• The structural failure due to material variability, unless each individual item is tested before use to determine that the actual strength properties of that particular item would equal or exceed those used in the design, or the design values are accepted by the Administrator.
Proposed § 23.510 would have required a determination of required material strength properties to be based on sufficient tests of material meeting specifications to establish design values on a statistical basis. Proposed § 23.510 would have also required an applicant to determine the effects on allowable stresses used for design if thermal effects were significant on an essential component or structure under normal operating conditions.
Textron commented that, as proposed, the regulatory text in paragraph (a) was unclear as to whether an applicant must account for the effects of likely environmental conditions expected in service on parts, articles, and assemblies. Textron proposed combining the two sentences in paragraph (a) to clarify the FAA's intent for the effect of specific environmental conditions on parts, articles, and assemblies to be considered in determining the suitability and durability of materials.
The FAA concurs with Textron's comment regarding the lack of clarity in paragraph (a), and revises the regulation accordingly. Although the revision creates a slight disharmony with EASA's proposed rule language, the intent of the two regulations remains the same, and the change helps to clarify the FAA's intent.
Textron also requested the FAA to replace the word “essential” with the word “critical”. The commenter stated the word “essential” has not been used or defined historically in part 23 structural compliance, whereas the word “critical” is used more frequently and is better defined.
Based on Textron's comment for clarity, the FAA revises § 23.2260(e) to replace the word “essential” with the word “critical”, since “critical” is a more common and widely used term of art amongst structural engineers than “essential.” Specifically, the failure of a critical component or structure is potentially catastrophic.
In the public meeting, Aspen Avionics asked the FAA to clarify whether the requirement in proposed paragraph (b) to perform the process under an “approved process specification” refers to an FAA-approved process specification or an accepted industry standard or some other approved process specification. Aspen Avionics also commented on proposed paragraph (d), which stipulates that if material strength properties are required, a determination of those properties must be based on sufficient tests of material meeting the specifications. Aspen Avionics questioned whether this requirement applies to the applicant or whether the applicant can rely on statements from a manufacturer—
Regarding Aspen Avionics' request for clarification of what constitutes an approved process specification for paragraph (b), the FAA does not intend any change from current practices under former regulation § 23.605(a), where nearly identical language was used. The process specification is “approved” by the FAA, and the FAA expects to have access to the specification in order to review and determine whether it contains sufficient control to substantiate compliance with the regulation. The specification may be proprietary to the OEM or sub-contractor, but should have formal document approval and control procedures like other engineering reports, documents and drawings necessary for the type design.
As for Aspen Avionics' question regarding the test requirements and whether the requirement is for primary, secondary, or tertiary structure, the FAA does not intend any change from current practices under former regulation § 23.613(a), where nearly identical language was used. The TC holder is responsible for data used to substantiate its type design. Whether the required testing is performed by the OEM or a sub-contractor does not matter as the FAA holds the OEM responsible, and expects the data to be available for FAA review to ensure compliance with the regulation. This requirement for statistically based material properties applies to any airplane primary structure. Existing published FAA guidance and widely used industry practices should be consulted for the finer divisions of structure, such as secondary and tertiary, and the material properties typically used.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.515 (now § 23.2265) would have required an applicant—
• To determine a special factor of safety for any critical design value that was uncertain, used for a part, article, or assembly likely to deteriorate in service before normal replacement, or subject to appreciable variability because of uncertainties in manufacturing processes or inspection methods;
• To determine a special factor of safety using quality controls and specifications that accounted for each structural application, inspection method, structural test requirement, sampling percentage, and process and material control; and
• To apply any special factor of safety in the design for each part of the structure by multiplying each limit load and ultimate load by the special factor of safety.
The Associations recommended changing § 23.515(a) by requiring special factors of safety be “established and applied”, rather than determined, by the applicant. Additionally, they suggested the language of the regulation focus on critical design values “affecting strength.”
The FAA has used “determine” in numerous other places in the NPRM. The commenters' suggested change would not imply a different meaning. As for the commenters' suggestion that the term “critical design value” should be limited to those values “affecting strength,” there may be other critical design values aside from strength that warrant the use of special factors of safety. For example, former part 23 specified bearing factors for certain applications. These were intended to account for not only strength, but also for durability and consideration of possible dynamic loading. In a performance-based standard where these factors are not specified, it is necessary to make sure that future designs, materials, and applications, not yet envisioned, account for any critical “design values,” in the same way the former regulations account for known critical values in those applications today. The FAA adopts § 23.2265(a) with minor modifications.
Air Tractor commented that proposed § 23.515(b) added unwarranted specificity and is worded such that the special factor must account for each inspection method, whether or not it is critical. Air Tractor further commented that certain conditions, such as structural test requirements, sampling percentages, and process and material controls, would be defined in a quality system approved under a production certificate (PC), not as part of a type design. Air Tractor contended that a type design should be approved independently of any quality system or production system requirements.
The FAA agrees with Air Tractor that conditions, such as structural test requirements, sampling percentages, and process and material controls, would be defined in a quality system that is approved under a PC. However, there are instances where those items are defined by type design or inspection methods in an approved type design. As with the former § 23.621, “Casting factors,” special casting factors of safety are to be applied to any structural casting, not just critical ones. The specific casting factor used in all those cases is inseparably tied to the applicable tests and inspections, both of which include sampling percentages specified for the part being produced. Former § 23.621(a) required these factors to be defined in the type design, and they are in addition to whatever tests and inspections are required for foundry quality control. Therefore, proposed § 23.515(b) is not substantively different from the former regulations.
The FAA generally agrees with Air Tractor's comment that approval of a type design is independent of any quality system or production system requirements. However, as explained previously in this section, the special factor of safety used to substantiate the type design is approved for use based completely on the part criticality, inspections, tests, and sampling percentages specified for a particular part.
Additionally, the Associations recommended changing proposed § 23.515(b)(1) by replacing “structural” application with “kind of” application. The commenters contended it would ensure that special factors of safety continue to be applied in the same manner as they are applied in the former rule, while also providing for more flexibility for new materials and construction techniques.
The FAA agrees with the Associations that the term “structural” in proposed § 23.515(b)(1) should be revised. However, the FAA believes the words “type of” is more accurate than “kind of” in this application, and revises the text of § 23.2265(b) accordingly.
The Associations recommended changing proposed § 23.515(c) to require a factor of safety established under proposed § 23.330(b) to be multiplied by the highest pertinent factor of safety established under proposed § 23.515(b). The commenters explained that this change would ensure special factors of safety are applied in the same manner as they are applied in the former rule, while also providing for more flexibility for new materials and construction techniques.
The FAA disagrees with the Associations as such a change has led to convoluted regulations in the past. Further, the limit and ultimate loads are clearly defined in this subpart, so this cross-reference is unnecessary.
Additionally, EASA noted that although the strict wording in former part 23 and CS 23 did not require special factors to be applied to ultimate loads that do not have corresponding limit loads (
The FAA does not agree with EASA's assertion that a narrow interpretation of former part 23 would not require special factors of safety to be applied to ultimate loads that do not have corresponding limit loads. Former § 23.625(d) required the attachments of seats, berths, and safety belts and harnesses to multiply the inertia loads in the emergency landing conditions in former § 23.561 by a special factor of safety (
Additionally, upon further review, the FAA finds that the proposed wording in § 23.515(c) appears to require an applicant to multiply not only each ultimate load by the special factor of safety, but also each limit load by the same factor even though sometimes there is no corresponding limit load. Therefore, the FAA also revises § 23.2265(c) to state that the special factor of safety is applied regardless of whether there is a limit load condition corresponding to the ultimate load condition. Although the FAA's language may not be harmonized with EASA's NPA, the intent is the same.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.600 (now § 23.2270) would have required—
• The airplane, even if damaged in emergency landing conditions, to provide protection to each occupant against injury that would preclude egress;
• The airplane to have seating and restraints for all occupants, consisting of a seat, a method to restrain the occupant's pelvis and torso, and a single action restraint release, which meets its intended function and does not create a hazard that could cause a secondary injury to an occupant;
• The airplane seating, restraints, and cabin interior to accommodate likely flight and emergency landing conditions and should not prevent occupant egress or interfere with the operation of the airplane when not in use;
• Each baggage and cargo compartment be designed for its maximum weight of contents and for the critical load distributions at the maximum load factors corresponding to the determined flight and ground load conditions; and
• Each baggage and cargo compartment to have a means to prevent the contents of the compartment from becoming a hazard by impacting occupants or shifting, and to protect any controls, wiring, lines, equipment, or accessories whose damage or failure would affect operations.
Air Tractor, commenting on proposed § 23.600(a), said the NPRM preamble suggested that future certification endeavors will require more effort (
The FAA disagrees that future certification endeavors will require more effort and possibly full-scale crash testing of the fuselage to meet the requirements. Existing conditions of current static and dynamic testing would remain as a means of compliance. Proposed § 23.600(a) would
The NTSB noted the NPRM stated that proposed § 23.600 would capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.561 and 23.562, which the FAA described as containing prescriptive design standards. The NTSB disagreed that former §§ 23.561 and 23.562 are prescriptive design standards, and stated former §§ 23.561 and 23.562 were performance-based standards that do not specify any elements of the design, but instead prescribed a test and measureable levels of performance needed to ensure safety.
The NTSB shared the FAA's concern regarding consideration of occupiable space in a post-crash situation, and agreed former standards do not address these issues. However, the NTSB disagreed with the FAA's suggestion that analysis techniques available in the automotive industry are transferable to new airplane designs. The NTSB said it is likely that differences between airframe and automotive structures will require a significant number of full-scale aircraft crash tests before analytical techniques have been validated to the point they can be used as means of compliance. Pointing to NTSB Safety Recommendation A-11-3, which it issued in 2011 after conducting a study of the performance of airbags in general aviation airplane, the NTSB recommended the FAA consider the variation in the sizes and anthropometry of airplane occupants when evaluating a proposed means of compliance.
The FAA understands the NTSB's comments, but does not agree. Former §§ 23.561 and 23.562 assessed only the seat, attachment, restraints, and head strike. The generic floor impulse used did not take into account the variables inherent to the airplane, such as the ability to protect the survivable volume, crushable airplane structure, or features that absorb impact energy or offer the ability to evaluate how all of these variables can work together to enhance crashworthiness. This rule will allow a more holistic approach to crashworthiness. Not prescribing a specific seat test opens the door for future technology and advances in analytical techniques to demonstrate equivalent and even enhanced safety, utilizing all advances available to the engineer. At the same time, until these enhanced techniques become available and proven, the existing seat test methods are still acceptable for showing compliance with this rule and will be contained in a means of compliance.
Additionally, the FAA will accept the former regulations as an acceptable method of compliance, despite their limitations. Testing in accordance with the former regulations has provided a certain level of safety for many years; therefore, continuing to accept them for future designs will maintain that level of safety. However, the FAA contends that having a prescriptive set of tests in the rule has prevented the industry from moving beyond this one standard of protecting occupants. This is because the former regulations required a very specific seat sled test; detailing seat mounting misalignment, impulse force peak and rise times, and maximum forces allowed to be experienced by the restraint system, and the occupant's lumbar spine among other things. Due to the rule specifying all these details, it is nearly impossible for the FAA to find equivalency in applicants proposed alternatives. By changing the requirement from a prescriptive test to the safety intent behind the test, the FAA will only need to evaluate whether new methods meet the safety intent, and not have to evaluate their relative safety against the former requirements. The determination that likely crash scenarios do not generate loads on the occupants that exceed the limits of human injury was the basis of the former rule language, and how the test and crash impulse was derived. It was a combination of various scenarios, represented by one specific set of tests. The new rule will allow a holistic approach to enable designs to achieve occupant protection more effectively.
While the automotive industry generally has a more-developed crashworthiness analysis capability than that used in the aviation industry, the FAA wants to allow for incorporation of holistic crashworthiness in addition to conventional compliance. The FAA notes the NTSB's concern that automotive technology will not directly transfer to aerospace applications because it requires significant numbers of full-scale aircraft crash tests for validation to yield the confidence in the analytical techniques. However, the FAA disagrees. The FAA has not yet determined how much and what type of validation will be required for a given crash scenario. This determination will depend on the particular design and what the validation is attempting to demonstrate. The automotive and other industries have gained a lot of knowledge on what is needed to demonstrate valid models using dynamic transient analysis. The FAA believes that the knowledge from these industries can be leveraged to reduce or eliminate the need for full-scale aircraft crashes for validation. For example, there may be scenarios where only a small part needs validation for demonstration of its energy absorption. This rule will provide an applicant with the option to examine the performance of more than just the seat and restraints, and avoids defining methods of restraint. This will allow consideration of a myriad of ways to protect an occupant in an emergency landing, such as using airbags.
Also, the FAA notes the NTSB's recommendation that the FAA consider the variation in the sizes and anthropometry of airplane occupants when evaluating a proposed means of compliance. This would be an increase in the burden to the manufacturers, and this burden has not been justified.
Several organizations commented on proposed § 23.600(b). Kestrel noted that proposed § 23.600(b)(1) referred to impact at stall speed, but did not specify the configuration and atmospheric conditions associated with this stall speed. Kestrel also requested clarification on whether applicants must design for stall speed in icing conditions.
The FAA revises the proposed rule language. The configuration and atmospheric conditions will be located in the means of compliance based on a determination of the conditions that are likely to occur.
In discussing proposed § 23.600(b)(1), ICON questioned whether industry can deliver on this “new requirement.” Textron noted that proposed § 23.600(b) referred to the emergency landing conditions specified in paragraph (a), which would mean the items of mass
The FAA agrees with Textron and others that an unintentional new requirement would have been imposed by the proposed wording of paragraph (b)(1). The FAA did not intend to apply dynamic loading requirements to items of mass that previously required accounting only for static loads. The FAA modifies the text of paragraph (b) to refer only to subparagraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) instead of all of paragraph (a), thereby eliminating reference to items of mass.
EASA said the “dynamic” condition specified in paragraph (b)(1) should be in the means of compliance, not in the rule. ICON noted that proposed § 23.600(b)(1) would require a very long list of variables be considered in an impact, which seems prohibitively difficult to achieve with any degree of confidence.
The FAA agrees with ICON and EASA. The long list of variables is reduced to simply “emergency landing” conditions, which can then be further detailed as part of the means of compliance.
Transport Canada said the requirement in proposed § 23.600(b)(2) appeared inaccurate. It noted that what must not exceed established injury criteria for human tolerance are the loads experienced by the occupant, not the emergency landing conditions. Transport Canada recommended a rewrite of paragraph (b)(2) that would state that the occupants would not experience loads which exceed established injury criteria for human tolerance due to restraint or contact with objects in the airplane.
The FAA agrees with Transport Canada. The FAA adopts the recommended language and revises the rule to clarify it is the loads experienced by the occupant, not the emergency landing conditions that should not exceed the established injury criteria for human tolerance.
BendixKing suggested replacing the word “restraints” with “protection” in the two instances the word occurs in proposed § 23.600(c). BendixKing suggested this change is appropriate because the intent of the rule is to ensure crash protection for the occupant, which may or may not be what is understood to be restraint. BendixKing also stated it is important not to assume a particular solution, but to focus on the safety intent or occupant protection from harmful motion during an impact. Therefore, it suggested words used in proposed § 23.600(d) like “restraint,” “pelvis,” “torso,” be replaced with language like “protection” or “securing the occupant from harm.” EASA commented that proposed §§ 23.600(c) and (d) should be an accepted means of compliance, not regulatory requirements. The Associations commented that the language in proposed § 23.600(d) should be aligned with current DOT practices related to automobile safety. The commenters noted the proposed language may preclude some better methods of safety in crashworthiness and might unnecessarily restrict design capabilities.
The FAA agrees with BendixKing that using design-specific solution terminology such as “restraints” is not appropriate for a performance-based regulation. While the occupant needs to be restrained, restraints should be considered on a broader basis. The FAA also agrees with EASA that the portions of §§ 23.600(c) and (d) that use design-specific terminology should be in the means of compliance. As such, the FAA will use more generic terms like “protection” or “occupant protection system” in lieu of the design-specific terms proposed in paragraphs (c) and (d), to allow for other methods of compliance to meet the safety intent of the rule. Finally, due to these word changes, the FAA moved the consideration of “ground loads” from paragraph (d) to paragraph (c).
Transport Canada noted the reference to water loads is missing in paragraphs (d) and (e)(1). Transport Canada recommended those paragraphs be modified by adding the word “water” in the phrase “For all flights and ground loads.”
The FAA considered Transport Canada's comment, but one of the goals of adopting performance-based regulations is to remove some of the specificity, to enable the flexibility to adapt to changing technologies and environments. Specifying every possible landing surface would not align with this goal. Therefore, the FAA is not incorporating Transport Canada's changes into the final rule.
Transport Canada also commented that proposed § 23.600(e) should provide a performance-based standard for the requirements in former § 23.787(b) for baggage or cargo sharing the same compartment as passengers.
The FAA agrees baggage and cargo sharing the same compartment with passengers should be restrained. However, a change to the proposed rule is not necessary to address this. Section 23.2270(a) of this rule requires restraint of items of mass within the cabin utilizing static inertial loads, including baggage or cargo that is in the cabin.
The Associations and Textron addressed the requirement in proposed § 23.600(e)(3) that baggage and cargo compartments must protect controls, wiring, lines, equipment, or accessories whose damage or failure would “affect operations.” Textron noted that any kind of damage or failure would arguably “affect operations,” making it difficult to comply with the rule. Textron recommended the FAA qualify the requirement by adding the word “safe” in front of “operations.” The Associations recommended the FAA delete the word “any” in front of “controls,” delete the word “affect,” and add the words “limit safe” in front of “operations.”
The FAA agrees with the comments from Textron and the Associations and is adding “safe” to modify “operations.” Adopting this change will harmonize the text with EASA's proposed rule language. The FAA will not adopt the other recommended changes as they would not have a substantive effect on the rule.
Daher commented generally on § 23.600, indicating the phrase “rolling and pitching” would be more appropriate than “pitching and yawing.” Daher did not indicate where these phrases were, but the FAA believes it is referring to a statement made in the NPRM preamble discussion of proposed § 23.600 that stated dynamic seat testing requirements address the ability of seat assemblies to remain attached to the floor, even when the floor shifts during impact. Pitching and yawing of the seat tracks during dynamic seat tests demonstrates the gimbaling and flexibility of the seat.
Furthermore, the FAA believes Daher was specifically inferring that “rolling and pitching” would be more appropriate in § 23.2270(b)(1) because the rule language in former § 23.562 required the seat rails to be misaligned by 10 degrees in the “pitch” and “roll” axis, not the “pitch” and “yaw” axis. The FAA's intent was not simply to mimic the original § 23.562 misalignment requirements, but to identify static airplane orientation at impact in order to assess the level of airframe crushing and energy absorption. However, based on other comments on proposed § 23.600, the FAA has removed specific references to
An individual commenter in the seatbelt manufacturing industry suggested putting a life limit of 10 years on seatbelts, because the webbing loses its strength due to exposure to UV lights and heat. The FAA notes that a seat belt life limit is not within the scope of this rulemaking. The details of seat belts and seat belt webbing materials are controlled by industry standards and Technical Standard Orders (TSOs). Additionally, specifying those types of design-specific solutions is counter to performance-based regulations.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.700 (now § 23.2300) would have required an applicant to design airplane flight control systems to prevent major, hazardous, and catastrophic hazards. Proposed § 23.700 would have required an applicant to design trim systems to prevent inadvertent, incorrect, or abrupt trim operation. In addition, proposed § 23.700 would have required an applicant to design trim systems to provide a means to indicate—
• The direction of trim control movement relative to airplane motion;
• The trim position with respect to the trim range;
• The neutral position for lateral and directional trim; and
• For all airplanes except simple airplanes, the range for takeoff for all applicant requested center of gravity ranges and configurations.
Proposed § 23.700 would have also required an applicant to design trim systems to provide control for continued safe flight and landing when any one connecting or transmitting element in the primary flight control system failed, except for simple airplanes. Additionally, proposed § 23.700 would have required an applicant to design trim systems to limit the range of travel to allow safe flight and landing, if an adjustable stabilizer is used.
Furthermore, proposed § 23.700 would have required the system for an airplane equipped with an artificial stall barrier system to prevent uncommanded control or thrust action and provide for a preflight check. The FAA also proposed requiring an applicant seeking certification of a level 3 high-speed or level 4 airplane to install a takeoff warning system on the airplane, unless the applicant demonstrates that the airplane, for each configuration, could takeoff at the limits of its trim and flap ranges.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.700 to withdraw paragraphs (a)(1) and all its subparagraphs, rename proposed paragraph (a)(2) as (a)(1), add new paragraph (a)(2), withdraw proposed paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4), and paragraphs (c) and (d) and all their subparagraphs. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
Textron and Kestrel questioned how the term “prevent” was intended to be used with the system safety analysis terms “major,” “hazardous,” and “catastrophic.”
The FAA acknowledges the term “prevent” caused confusion in proposed § 23.700(a)(1), and replaces “prevent” with “protect against” in § 23.2300(a)(2). The FAA did not intend to require additional safety analysis in this section, as suggested by these comments.
The Associations, Kestrel, Air Tractor, and Textron expressed concern that proposed § 23.700 appears to require that applicants perform System Safety Assessments (SSAs) for traditional mechanical flight control systems that have never been subject to this requirement in the past. They note this would impose substantial new costs on applicants. The commenters acknowledge that SSAs would be appropriate for unconventional designs, such as fly-by-wire systems.
The FAA did not intend to imply that a safety analysis would be required for all flight control systems, including simple mechanical flight control systems in proposed § 23.700(a). The FAA deletes the terms that could have been associated with safety analysis and revises § 23.2300(a)(2) to require the applicant to design airplane flight control systems to protect against likely hazards. The FAA intends “protect against likely hazards” to be a high-level requirement to consider potential hazards to the flight control system, and incorporate features in the design to protect against these hazards. One way for a traditional flight control system to satisfy this would be to use the former part 23 regulations, which addressed hazards such as jamming, chafing, interference, incorrect assembly, asymmetric flaps, control system lock inadvertent engagement in flight, etc.
The FAA agrees with the comments stating that safety analysis is necessary, as required by § 23.2510 (proposed as § 23.1315), for fly-by-wire flight control systems, powered flight control systems, and automatic flight control systems. The FAA withdraws the safety analysis requirement in § 23.2300 because § 23.2510 adequately addresses the requirement for safety analysis. The FAA notes the applicability of the § 23.2510 safety analysis requirements will be addressed as a means of compliance, similar to the current practice in AC 23.1309-1E.
The Associations and Textron recommended the FAA eliminate proposed paragraph § 23.700(a)(1)(iii), which lists “flutter” as one of the possible major, hazardous or catastrophic hazards, because it is redundant and unnecessary as the safety intent of flutter is covered in the aeroelastic section, proposed § 23.410 (now § 23.2245). The FAA agrees because § 23.2245 “Aeroelasticity” adequately addresses flutter for normal operation, exceedances and failure conditions. The FAA also withdrew the other examples of hazards in proposed § 23.700(a)(1) so that they can be addressed more completely in means of compliance.
The Associations and Textron also questioned the use of the term “misconfiguration” in proposed § 23.700(a)(1)(v). Textron asked the FAA to clarify whether the term refers to items like rigging and installation or items like wing configurations (
With the withdrawal of the list in proposed § 23.700(a)(1), the FAA renumbers proposed § 23.700(a)(2) as § 23.2300(a)(1) and adds a new paragraph (a)(2).
Textron commented that proposed § 23.700(a)(2) could seem reasonable for all systems and recommended moving the paragraph to proposed § 23.1305 (now § 23.2505).
The FAA disagrees with applying proposed § 23.700(a)(2) to all systems and equipment because the requirement to “operate easily, smoothly and positively enough to allow normal operation” does not apply to all
The Associations proposed revising § 23.700(b) to state “the trim systems must . . .” instead of “[t]he applicant must design trim systems to.” They made a similar comment on proposed § 23.700(a).
The FAA used “the applicant must design . . .” throughout the NPRM. The FAA retains this wording because it's consistent with part 21 to impose the obligation on the applicant.
Textron noted that proposed § 23.700(b)(1) was a general concept that should actually apply to all systems, and therefore recommended changing the word “trim” to “system,” and moving proposed § 23.700(b)(1) to proposed § 23.1305. Textron also questioned whether the term “prevent” in proposed § 23.700(b)(1) meant “meet the associated requirements of a system safety assessment.” Textron recommended rewriting proposed paragraph (b)(1) to provide that the applicant must design trim systems to meet system safety requirements, according to the assessment mandated by proposed § 23.1310, and that the evaluation of the system shall include hazards caused by inadvertent (uncommanded) trim operation and incorrect (motion in the opposite direction than commanded) trim operations.
The FAA notes the requirement to “prevent inadvertent, incorrect, or abrupt system operation” would not be appropriate for some systems. For example, evaluating a flight data recorder for “abrupt system operation” would not make sense. Therefore, the FAA did not incorporate Textron's recommendation in this rule. The FAA also declines to move the regulation to proposed § 23.1305 (now § 23.2505) because that section applies to all systems, while this requirement is only intended for flight control trim systems. In light of Textron's comment, the FAA has changed “prevent” to “protect against” for consistency with § 23.2300(a)(2). However, the FAA did not incorporate Textron's recommendation to change proposed § 23.700(b)(1) because this section does not require safety analysis. This section applies to all trim systems while § 23.2510 does not apply to trim systems that are considered “flight control surfaces and their simple systems” as discussed in AC 23.1309-1E.
Several organizations commented on proposed § 23.700(b)(3). The Associations recommended deleting proposed paragraph (b)(3). They stated that addressing the loss of any single flight control link with traditional mechanical flight controls has provided a substantial level of safety and as new stability and fly-by-wire systems are discussed, it will be increasingly important to develop adequate means of compliance in acceptable documents.
EASA asserted the proposed requirement to have a trim system as a means of control in case of failure of a connecting or transmitting element was too prescriptive and should be captured by the intent that a flight control system must prevent major, hazardous, and catastrophic hazards for likely failure conditions.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.700(b)(3) was too prescriptive because means other than trim could be used to safely control the airplane when any one connecting or transmitting element in the primary flight control system fails. The requirement to protect the airplane from loss of control when any one connecting or transmitting element in the primary flight control system fails is captured in § 23.2300(a)(2) at a high level. Therefore, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.700(b)(3). In addition, the FAA adds “if installed” to § 23.2300(b) in light of the comments that future designs may not use trim systems.
Transport Canada observed that VLA rules permit trim systems that do not provide safe flight and landing following failure of the primary control system. Transport Canada said it did not believe this alleviation should be carried into the part 23 revisions, even for small airplanes. Transport Canada recommended the level of safety for trim system failures be raised for simple airplanes.
As discussed elsewhere, the FAA has decided to withdraw the simple category, proposed in § 23.5(d), and also to withdraw proposed § 23.700(b)(3) because § 23.2300(a)(2) captures the requirement. The FAA has determined that the level of safety for trim system failures should not be raised for entry-level airplanes. One of the goals of the NPRM was to provide appropriate standards for “entry-level airplanes”, and the FAA finds § 23.2300(a)(2) meets that goal. As discussed in this section, § 23.2300(a)(2) requires the applicant to design airplane flight control systems to protect against likely hazards. While the FAA's intent is that flight control systems that meet the former part 23 requirements adequately protect against the likely hazard of failures in any one connecting or transmitting element in the primary flight control system, those airplanes certified under EASA's Certification Specification—Very Light Aeroplanes (CS-VLA), were not certified under part 23. Rather, they were imported to the U.S. and certificated as special class airplanes in accordance with § 21.17(b). Under § 23.2300(a)(2), these airplanes could be certified under part 23, using the CS-VLA to meet the requirements.
Upon further consideration of proposed § 23.700(b)(4), the FAA decided the safety intent of the requirement to limit the range of travel to allow safe flight and landing, if an adjustable stabilizer is used, is already incorporated in the regulations through the requirement for the applicant to design airplane flight control systems to protect against likely hazards. The proposed requirement was prescriptive and may not be appropriate for non-traditional airplane designs. Therefore, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.700(b)(4).
The Associations asserted including specific information for the verification of stall barrier systems in proposed § 23.700(c) is not beneficial because the issue being addressed is already covered by “flight control reliability aspects.” The commenters also noted the simple checks being specified may not be appropriate for all stall barrier systems and that addressing stall barrier flight controls would be better detailed in means of compliance. The commenters recommended deleting proposed § 23.700(c).
The FAA agrees that there is no benefit to including § 23.700(c) because § 23.2510 adequately addresses stall barrier system failure conditions and checks for latent failures. Therefore, the FAA withdraws § 23.700(c).
Textron, ANAC, and Air Tractor commented that proposed § 23.700(d) would require a takeoff warning system without explanation of what it would be, and this could increase complexity.
The FAA withdraws proposed § 23.700(d) because the safety requirement of warning a pilot who is attempting to takeoff with the trim or flaps in an unsafe configuration is adequately addressed in § 23.2605(c).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.705 (now § 23.2305) would have required—
• The landing gear and retracting mechanism be able to withstand operational and flight loads;
• An airplane with retractable landing gear to have a positive means to keep the landing gear extended and a secondary means for extending the
• A means to inform the pilot that each landing gear is secured in the extended and retracted positions; and
• Airplanes, with retractable landing gear, except for airplanes intended for operation on water, to also have a warning to the pilot if the thrust and configuration is selected for landing and yet the landing gear is not fully extended and locked.
Furthermore, if the landing gear bay is used as the location for equipment other than the landing gear, proposed § 23.705 would have required that equipment be designed and installed to avoid damage from tire burst and from items that may enter the landing gear bay. Proposed § 23.705 would have also required the design of each landing gear wheel, tire, and ski account for critical loads and would require a reliable means of stopping the airplane with kinetic energy absorption within the airplane's design specifications for landing. For level 3 high-speed multiengine and level 4 multiengine airplanes, proposed § 23.705 would have required the braking system to provide kinetic energy absorption within the design of the airplane specifications for rejected takeoff as the current rules do for multiengine jets over 6,000 pounds and commuter category airplanes.
Several commenters argued that proposed § 23.705 was too design specific and recommended the FAA replace specific design elements such as brakes, wheels, and tires with objectives that would work for a wide array of technologies.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.705 to withdraw proposed paragraphs (a)(1) through (d), to be replaced with new paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), (b), (c)(1) and (c)(2). This section discusses these changes in more detail.
The FAA reassessed the need for the language of proposed § 23.705(a)(1) and (b) and decided not to adopt the proposed paragraphs. The FAA has determined these requirements are adequately addressed by proposed §§ 23.310 (now § 23.2210), 23.320 (now § 23.2220), and 23.400 (now § 23.2235). Section 23.2210 requires structural design loads to be determined that result from likely externally or internally applied pressures, forces or moments, that may occur in flight, ground and water operations, ground and water handling, and while the airplane is parked or moored. This includes operational and flight loads on the landing gear and retracting mechanism, including the wheel well doors specified in the FAA's proposed § 23.705(a)(1). Section 23.2235 requires the structure to support these loads. Section 23.2220 requires the applicant to determine the structural design loads resulting from taxi, takeoff, landing, and ground handling conditions occurring in normal and adverse attitudes and configurations. This includes the critical loads on wheels, tires, and skis specified in proposed § 23.705(b). Section 23.2235 requires the structure to support these loads.
Commenters noted proposed § 23.705 diverged from EASA's proposed CS 23.425, and recommended the FAA work with EASA to achieve harmonization. Several commenters recommended the FAA reject the language originally proposed for § 23.705 and replace it with the language from EASA's proposed CS 23.2325.
The FAA agrees that it should harmonize § 23.2305 as much as possible with CS 23.2325, and has done so where appropriate.
The Associations recommended the FAA revise proposed paragraph (a), which would define landing gear. Textron recommended the FAA add a requirement to provide stable support and control to the airplane during ground operation. The commenters noted the change to paragraph (a) would harmonize with EASA.
The FAA finds the recommended language for paragraph (a) unnecessary. The FAA also finds the accepted means of compliance will describe what is considered landing gear for a particular airplane design. The FAA notes the recommended language is overly broad and can be read to encompass rudder systems and other systems that do not directly interact with the ground, but are necessary to control the airplane during surface operation. The FAA notes rudder systems and other systems are adequately addressed elsewhere.
The FAA revises § 23.2305(a)(1) to adopt CS 23.2325(b)(1) by requiring the landing gear to be designed to provide stable support and control during surface operation. Although the NPRM did not specifically address this requirement, the FAA intended for the revised regulations to capture the safety intent of the former part 23 regulations. This also harmonizes with EASA.
The FAA will not adopt the landing gear loads and energy absorption requirements in CS 23.2325(b)(2) and (b)(3) because these requirements are adequately addressed in §§ 23.2210, 23.2220, and 23.2235. The FAA notes the airplane has to be designed for the anticipated loads, and energy absorbed by the landing gear affects the airframe loads, which are addressed in these sections. Additionally, proper function of any systems related to absorption of energy in the landing gear is addressed in § 23.2505.
The FAA adopts CS 23.2325(b)(4) as § 23.2305(a)(2), requiring the landing gear to be designed to account for likely system failures and likely operation environment, including anticipated limitation exceedances and emergency procedures. As a result of this revision, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.705(a)(3).
Although the NTSB supported proposed § 23.705(a)(3), the FAA notes proposed § 23.705(a)(3) only addressed tire failures on airplanes with retractable landing gear based on the assumption that tire burst and foreign object risk is greater on airplanes with retractable landing gear. This is generally true for traditional airplane designs. The risk is generally more severe on airplanes with large numbers of passengers, flight critical systems near the landing gear, complex systems, and high-speed operation on the ground. These factors generally exist on airplanes with retractable landing gear, but they could exist on airplanes with fixed landing gear. Conversely, the risk is generally less severe on airplanes with no passengers, no flight critical systems near the landing gear, simple systems and low-speed operation on the ground. These factors generally exist on airplanes with fixed landing gear, but they could exist on airplanes with retractable landing gear (
Section 23.2305(a)(2) applies to all landing gear and requires landing gear failures to be considered more generally. The FAA finds § 23.2305(a)(2) will allow traditional designs to comply using current practices as means of compliance, with the flexibility to develop new means of compliance more appropriate for potential future designs. This furthers the goal of moving to performance-based requirements.
The FAA notes § 23.2305(a)(2) captures the intent of former §§ 23.721, 23.729, 23.735, and 23.1309, which required that applicants account for likely landing gear failures. It also captures the intent of former §§ 23.603, 23.721, 23.729, 23.735, 23.1301, and 23.1309, which required that applicants account for likely operation environments, and/or anticipated
The commenters recommended that the FAA move the substance of proposed § 23.705(a) for airplanes with retractable landing gear to proposed § 23.705(c) and replace the proposed language with CS 23.2325(d), which deals with airplanes that have a system that actuates the landing gear.
The FAA has considered the comments and has decided to adopt CS 23.2325(d)(1) and (4) as § 23.2305(c)(1) and (2). CS 23.2325(d)(1) and (4) require a positive means to keep the landing gear in the landing position and an alternative means available to bring the landing gear in the landing position when a non‐deployed system position would be hazardous. The FAA adopts § 23.2305(c)(1) because it is less prescriptive than proposed § 23.705(a)(2)(i). The FAA notes the recommended phrase “in the landing position” is less prescriptive than “extended” and better expresses the intent of the requirement. Moreover, § 23.2305(c)(1) does not increase the burden on traditional designs; provides flexibility to allow new designs to be certified because it applies to all landing gear actuated by a system, not just retractable landing gear; and assists in harmonization.
The FAA adopts the language of CS 23.2325(d)(4) as § 23.2305(c)(2), with one minor change. The FAA is using the phrase “a hazard” instead of “hazardous” to avoid confusion with former § 23.1309's use of the phrase “hazardous failure condition.” The language of CS 23.2325(d)(4) better captures the safety intent of former § 23.729(c), which did not require a secondary means for landing gear that could be extended manually, and is less prescriptive because it only requires an alternative means to bring the landing gear to the landing position if a non-deployed position would be a hazard. Additionally, moving the location of this requirement has no technical impact and harmonizes with CS 23.2325.
The FAA does not adopt proposed § 23.705(a)(2)(iii) or the language from CS 23.2325(d)(2) and (d)(3) because the FAA considers both proposals to be adequately addressed by proposed § 23.1500(b) (now § 23.2600(b)). Section 23.2600(b) requires the applicant to install flight, navigation, surveillance, and powerplant controls and displays so qualified flightcrew can monitor and perform defined tasks associated with the intended functions of systems and equipment. The systems and equipment design must minimize flightcrew errors which could create additional hazards. Section 23.2600(b) incorporates the safety intent of previous requirements for landing gear indications and effectively requires the pilot to be informed of the landing gear position (secured in extended or retracted position) should the pilot need that information.
Textron recommended the FAA remove the requirement for a secondary means of extending the landing gear in proposed § 23.705 and rely instead on the requirements of proposed § 23.1315.
The FAA disagrees as Textron's recommendation does not capture the intent of the former regulation, which was a specific requirement for a secondary means of deploying landing gear. Furthermore, this requirement in proposed § 23.705 was not covered by the general systems failure requirements of proposed § 23.1315.
Several commenters recommended deleting proposed § 23.705(a)(2)(iv), in part, because it was too prescriptive. One commenter recommended rewriting the rule as a performance‐based regulation to encourage alternate—and perhaps better—means of detecting wrong configurations for landing.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.705(a)(2)(iv) is too prescriptive, and finds it is adequately addressed by the requirements of new § 23.2605(c), which requires information concerning an unsafe system operating condition must be provided in a timely manner to the crewmember responsible for taking corrective action. Accordingly, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.705(a)(2)(iv).
Textron recommended the FAA add the word “essential” before “equipment” in proposed § 23.705(a)(3),
The FAA disagrees with Textron's recommendation as it is possible that failures of non-essential equipment like a fuel line for a combustion heater may result in hazards more severe than the loss of the non-essential function. Therefore, the FAA is not adopting this change in the final rule.
Textron recommended rewording proposed §§ 23.705(c) and (d) to limit their applicability to airplanes with wheels, asserting these paragraphs required airplanes without wheels to have brakes. Alternatively, Textron suggested moving the requirement to proposed § 23.1300(a) (now § 23.2500(a)) because an airplane with wheels will need a braking system to meet proposed § 23.1300(a), making § 23.705(c) redundant. Other commenters recommended the FAA replace proposed § 23.705(c) and (d) with the CS 23.2325(c), which addresses kinetic energy absorption.
The FAA concurs with the recommendation to replace proposed § 23.705(c) and (d) with CS 23.2325(c). The FAA notes CS 23.2325(c) has the same meaning as proposed § 23.705(c) and (d), but harmonizes with EASA's NPA 2016-05. The FAA has determined the removal of the phrase “within the airplane's design specifications for landing” and replacement with “sufficient . . . to account for landing” has no technical impact. The FAA adopts the change as § 23.2305(b).
The FAA disagrees with Textron's recommendation to reword § 23.705(c) and (d) to limit their applicability to airplanes with wheels. The FAA notes proposed paragraphs (c) and (d) would not require brakes. While the FAA has considered Textron's alternative recommendation, the specific energy absorption requirement of proposed § 23.705(c) is not adequately addressed by the general system performance requirements of proposed § 23.1300(a). Therefore, the FAA is not adopting this change in the final rule.
Textron suggested the FAA should harmonize its proposed regulations on this topic with CS 23.600 by removing language related to brakes as a subset of meeting the requirements of proposed § 23.1300(a).
The FAA agrees with harmonizing with EASA wherever possible. However, specifically requiring a reliable means of stopping the airplane is not excessively prescriptive and provides clarity to the regulation. Furthermore, Textron's suggested text would not harmonize with CS 23.2325.
EASA recommended eliminating the reference to level 3 and 4 airplanes in proposed § 23.705(d), and replacing it with a reference to airplanes “required to demonstrate aborted take-off capacity,” which links the requirement to takeoff performance. Similarly, all of the comments on this section recommended making proposed § 23.705(d) applicable to the same airplanes covered by proposed § 23.115(c)(1) (now § 23.2115(c)(1)).
The FAA agrees with the recommendation to make § 23.2305(b) applicable to the same airplanes as § 23.2115(c)(1) for several reasons. First, in order to comply with § 23.2115(c)(1), applicants must design airplanes with a means to decelerate the airplane after a rejected takeoff, regardless of the requirements in § 23.2305(b), so adopting the recommended change would not increase the burden on applicants. Second, making the applicability of § 23.2305(b) different from § 23.2115(c)(1) could cause confusion, especially because the proposed applicability would have included airplanes excluded from § 23.2115(c)(1). In former §§ 23.55 and 23.735(e), the FAA applied the requirement to determine the distance for an aborted takeoff at critical speed to the same airplanes required to provide kinetic energy absorption in the brakes for a rejected takeoff, and there is no reason to discontinue this practice. Additionally, adopting this recommendation harmonizes the FAA requirement with CS 23.2325(c).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.710 (now § 23.2310) would have required airplanes intended for operations on water to provide buoyancy of 80 percent in excess of the buoyancy required to support the maximum weight of the airplane in fresh water. Proposed § 23.710 would have also required airplanes intended for operations on water to have sufficient watertight compartments so the airplane will stay afloat at rest in calm water without capsizing if any two compartments of any main float or hull are flooded.
The FAA noted in the NPRM that it was proposing to remove the requirement that each main float must contain at least four watertight compartments of approximately equal volume because it was a specific design requirement that would be addressed by the proposed performance-based standard.
All of the comments on this section noted a problem with the prescriptive design specificity of proposed § 23.710(b); in particular, the requirement to have watertight compartments. The commenters noted an erroneous assumption that all airplanes intended for operations on water would have watertight compartments. The commenters noted that manufacturers could employ a different solution—such as foam-filled floats—eliminating the need for compartments, and still meet the buoyancy intent. BendixKing commented that the buoyancy requirement needs to be “more generic to address the core safety intent, which is adequate floatation in the event of a failure.” The Associations and Textron offered alternative regulatory language that would remove the requirement to have watertight compartments and provide a general performance-based standard for demonstrating buoyancy.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.710(b) is excessively prescriptive. The FAA recognizes there are other ways to meet the safety goal of protecting the airplane from capsizing. Therefore, the FAA revises proposed § 23.710(b) to establish a more performance-based standard for demonstrating buoyancy.
ICON noted that hull type and float seaplanes were treated differently in former part 23, and recommended that they be treated differently in the new part 23 as well, because they deal with a loss of buoyancy in different ways. In particular, ICON noted differences in the rate of capsizing, the ability to detect an intrusion of water, and the pilot's ability to remove the water while operating the airplane. ICON asked the FAA to eliminate the separate compartment requirements for hull‐type seaplanes.
The FAA agrees that, as proposed, the combination of hulls and floats into one regulation would have imposed a requirement on hulls that is more stringent than the requirements in former part 23. The FAA revises the proposed language to remove the prescriptive requirement for watertight compartments. As such, § 23.2310 contains a more general standard for buoyancy that is appropriate for both floats and hulls.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.750 (now § 23.2315) would have required—
• The airplane cabin exit be designed to provide for evacuation of the airplane within 90 seconds in conditions likely to occur, excluding ditching, following an emergency landing. For ditching, proposed § 23.750 would have required the cabin exit for all certification levels 3 and 4 multiengine airplanes be designed to allow evacuation in 90 seconds;
• Each exit to have a simple and obvious means, marked inside and outside the airplane, to be opened from both inside and outside the airplane, when the internal locking mechanism is in the locked position; and
• Airplane evacuation paths to protect occupants from serious injury from the propulsion system, and require that doors, canopies, and exits be protected from opening inadvertently in flight.
Proposed § 23.750 would have precluded each exit from being obstructed by a seat or seat back, unless the seat or seat back could be easily moved in one action to clear the exit. Proposed § 23.750 would have also required airplanes certified for aerobatics to have a means to exit the airplane in flight.
The Associations, BendixKing, Textron, and EASA recommended the FAA remove the 90-second evacuation requirement in proposed § 23.750(a) and replace it with less prescriptive language. EASA stated that the 90-second evacuation time was not contained in the former part 23 regulations and would not be reasonable for all airplanes. EASA stated that leaving the acceptable design solutions to an acceptable means of compliance would be better. As alternatives to the proposed language, BendixKing suggested a requirement for “adequate and timely” evacuation, Textron suggested a requirement for “rapid” evacuation, and the Associations suggested a requirement for “rapid and safe” evacuation.
The FAA agrees and removes the airplane 90-second evacuation requirement because specifying the time limit in the regulation is unnecessarily prescriptive. The FAA replaces the evacuation requirement with the requirement to “facilitate rapid and safe evacuation of the airplane in conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing, excluding ditching for level 1, level 2, and single-engine level 3 airplanes.” This harmonizes more closely with EASA's proposed CS 23.2335.
The Associations specifically proposed revisions to the regulatory text, which appeared to align with EASA's proposed regulation. In accordance with their recommendation, the FAA revises the beginning of proposed § 23.750(a) to move a portion of its content into § 23.2315(a)(1). Section 23.2315(a) is revised to read: “With the cabin configured for take-off or landing, the airplane is designed to,” followed by more detailed requirements in the subparagraphs. The FAA believes this change more clearly preserves the intent of former regulations. It also harmonizes with EASA's proposed regulation.
Textron also commented that the FAA should either replace the word “likely” in proposed § 23.750(a) or ensure the
Textron also noted that proposed § 23.750(a) specifies “likely conditions,” but excludes ditching for all but levels 3 and 4 multiengine airplanes. However, Textron stated that ditching as a likely condition associated with emergency evacuation had not been required previously. It recommended the FAA add a requirement to proposed § 23.750, to require a means on levels 3 and 4 multiengine airplanes to evacuate the airplane safely following a ditching event.
The FAA notes the requirement to safely evacuate the airplane during ditching is already addressed generally in § 23.2315(a)(1). The methods for meeting this requirement will be in a means of compliance.
Textron further commented on using former § 23.807(e) as a means of compliance to show that occupants have a means available to safely evacuate the airplane. Textron stated that former § 23.807(e) only prescribes one exit on each side of the airplane to be above the waterline or alternative methods must be employed.
The FAA agrees that providing one exit on each side of the airplane above the waterline is an acceptable means of compliance. While this may be one means of compliance that is acceptable for traditional designs, the FAA's goal in this rule is to use means of compliance, developed by industry or individuals, to allow for non-traditional designs.
Transport Canada commented on proposed § 23.750(a), noting that cabin exit design is just one of several elements that affect evacuation performance. Transport Canada also noted that the expectation to meet the evacuation performance with the airplane's maximum certified occupancy should be made explicit. Transport Canada suggested a revision to proposed paragraph (a) stating that the airplane design, including the cabin exit design, must provide for evacuation of the airplane of the maximum number of occupants within 90 seconds in conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing.
The FAA agrees that cabin exit design is just one of several elements that affect evacuation performance and that rapid evacuation with the airplane's maximum certified occupancy is required, but the regulation does not have to explicitly include this requirement. Section 23.2315 addresses generally all the likely conditions that affect emergency evacuation, which would include an airplane with maximum certificated occupancy. Therefore, the FAA is not adopting the language proposed by Transport Canada.
The Associations recommended the following revisions to proposed § 23.750(a), which deleted or combined portions of proposed paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d) and (f) into a new paragraph (a), and renumbered paragraph (e) as paragraph (b). Their proposed paragraph (a)(1) appears to correlate with proposed § 23.750(a). They proposed a revision to proposed paragraph (a)(1) stating that, with the cabin configured for take-off or landing, the airplane is designed to facilitate rapid and safe evacuation of the “aeroplane” in conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing, excluding ditching for level 1, level 2, and single-engine level 3 airplanes.
The FAA adopts this language as § 23.2315(a)(1), except for spelling “aeroplane” as “airplane.” This is better organized and more understandable than the proposed language, while still retaining the intent of former regulations and harmonizes the regulations between FAA and EASA.
Textron commented that the phrase “when the internal locking mechanism is in the locked and unlocked position” in proposed § 23.750(b) is not necessary and should be deleted. The FAA agrees and removes the phrase because this is a detailed design consideration, which is more appropriately addressed in means of compliance.
Textron also recommended the FAA add a requirement similar to the requirement for auxiliary locking devices in former § 23.783(c)(6), which would provide, in pertinent part, that auxiliary locking devices that are actuated externally to the airplane may be used but such devices must be overridden by the normal internal opening means. Textron's view was that auxiliary locking devices used to secure the airplane would likely be needed to prevent unauthorized entry into the airplane when it is left unattended.
The FAA disagrees with Textron's recommendation as the suggested text because it is more appropriate for a means of compliance.
The Associations proposed revisions to proposed § 23.750(a)(2) that coincidently address Textron's comment on internal locking mechanisms. They suggested adding language stating that, with the cabin configured for take-off or landing, the airplane is designed to have means of egress (openings, exits or emergency exits), that can be readily located and opened from the inside and outside. The means of opening must be simple and obvious.
The FAA adopts this language as § 23.2315(a)(2), except the proposed marking requirement is retained. This revision captures the safety intent of the former regulations more clearly and harmonizes regulations between the FAA and EASA.
The Associations recommended deleting proposed § 23.750(c). The FAA agrees because paragraph (a)(1), as revised, already addresses similar requirements, rendering paragraph (c) redundant.
Textron commented on proposed § 23.750(d) by recommending the FAA address obstructions more generally (
Transport Canada similarly suggested the requirement should more generally address that any component of the interior should be considered as a potential obstruction, and also address temporary obstructions during flight. Transport Canada proposed a revision to proposed paragraph (d) stating that each exit must not be obstructed by any interior component during taxi, take-off or landing. In addition, a seat or seat back may obstruct an exit if the seat or seat back can [be] easily moved in one action to clear the exit.
The FAA considered Transport Canada's proposed wording, but moving a seat back easily in one motion to reach an emergency exit is more appropriate as a means of compliance. The FAA agrees with Textron's and Transport Canada's comments on proposed § 23.750(d) that obstructions that could potentially block exits should be addressed more generally and not limited to seat backs, because other items could block exits and impair evacuation. The FAA revises the regulation accordingly as § 23.2315(a)(3).
The Associations proposed a revision to proposed § 23.750(a)(3) stating that, with the cabin configured for take-off or landing, the airplane is designed to have easy access to emergency exits when present.
The FAA is incorporating this suggestion in § 23.2315(a)(3). The new language captures the safety intent of the former regulations more generally
The Associations recommended to renumber proposed § 23.750(e) as proposed § 23.750(b) (now § 23.2315(b)). The FAA agrees and adopts the proposed renumbering. This relocation will not change the substantive content of the paragraph, but matches with EASA's numbering and will lessen confusion.
The Associations recommended deleting proposed § 23.750(f). EASA commented that the requirement in proposed § 23.750(f) for doors, etc. is too design-specific and can be covered by generic principles covered in § 23.2250 (proposed as § 23.500).
The FAA understands EASA's comment, but requiring doors, canopies, and exits to be protected from opening inadvertently in flight is a general requirement that does not limit possible design solutions. However, the FAA moves this requirement to § 23.2250(e) to harmonize the location of the requirement with EASA's rule.
Upon further review, the FAA is replacing the word “approved” in proposed § 23.750(e) (now § 23.2315(b)) with the word “certified”. This change does not affect the original intent of paragraph (e), but harmonizes the language with EASA.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.755 (now § 23.2320) would have required an applicant to design the airplane to allow clear communication between the flightcrew and passengers and provide a clear, sufficiently undistorted external view to enable the flightcrew to perform any maneuvers within the operating limitations of the airplane. Proposed § 23.755 would have also required an applicant to design the airplane to protect the pilot from serious injury due to high-energy rotating failures in systems and equipment, and protect the occupants from serious injury due to damage to windshields, windows, and canopies.
Additionally, proposed § 23.755 would have required, for level 4 airplanes, each windshield and its supporting structure directly in front of the pilot to withstand the impact equivalent of a two-pound bird at maximum approach flap airspeed and allow for continued safe flight and landing after the loss of vision through any one panel.
Furthermore, proposed § 23.755 would have required any installed oxygen system to include a means to determine whether oxygen is being delivered and a means for the flightcrew to turn on and shut off the oxygen supply, and the ability for the flightcrew to determine the quantity of oxygen available. Proposed § 23.755 would have also required any installed pressurization system to include a pressurization system test and a warning if an unsafe condition exists.
EASA commented the requirement in proposed § 23.755(a)(2) for the airplane design to provide a clear, sufficiently undistorted external view should be covered in the “crew interface” paragraph.
The FAA agrees with EASA that the § 23.755(a)(2) flightcrew visibility requirement is more directly related to flightcrew interface than occupant environment. The FAA is including the words “including pilot view” in § 23.2600(a). This change harmonizes § 23.2600(a) more closely with proposed CS 23.2600(a).
Similarly, the FAA relocates the proposed § 23.755(b)(2) requirement to § 23.2600(c), because this change harmonizes § 23.2600(c) more closely with EASA's proposed CS 23.2600(d). Additionally, the FAA adopts the language in EASA's proposed CS 23.2600(d), except for the spelling of “aeroplanes” versus “airplanes” for improved clarity and harmonization.
The Associations suggested the FAA delete the word “any” from the phrase “any maneuvers within the operating limitations of the airplane,” in proposed § 23.755(a)(2). The commenters did not provide a rationale for this suggestion.
The FAA disagrees as removing the word “any” could unduly restrict the scope of the rule. The FAA's intent is that adequate visibility must be provided to perform any maneuvers within the operating limitations of the airplane. Therefore, the FAA adopts § 23.2600(a) as proposed in the NPRM.
The Associations, Transport Canada, EASA, and ANAC questioned proposed § 23.755(a)(3), which would require the airplane design to protect the pilot from serious injury due to high-energy rotating failures. The Associations stated there may be new systems which may include high amounts of energy that is not the result of rotating equipment. The commenters suggested proposed § 23.755(a)(3) be broadened to include the new systems, such as high voltage systems. EASA similarly suggested amending the protection of pilots against serious injury due to high-energy rotating failures to include any high-energy risks.
The FAA has considered the commenters' suggestion to change proposed § 23.755(a)(3) as recommended. However, the FAA has concluded that the safety requirements contained in § 23.2510, “Equipment, systems and installations,” (proposed as § 23.1315) of this rule adequately address hazards from high-energy sources. Therefore, no change is being made to the final rule based on the commenters' suggestion.
ANAC referenced former § 23.1461(d) and asked the FAA to explain why proposed § 23.755(a)(3) excluded protection for airplane occupants other than the pilot from certain hazards. Additionally, Transport Canada commented the proposed language requires protecting the pilot from high-energy rotating failures, which suggests a lower level of safety for the other airplane occupants. It recommended replacing the word “pilot” with “occupants”.
The FAA agrees with ANAC and Transport Canada that proposed § 23.755(a)(3) would effectively lower the level of safety because it did not protect all occupants from high-energy rotor failures. It also did not protect the airplane from high-energy rotor failures, and allowed the pilot and pilot controls to be in the inboard propellers' plane of rotation. The FAA intended to incorporate the safety intent of former §§ 23.771(c) and 23.1461.
Therefore, the FAA adopts § 23.2550 to better capture the safety intent of former § 23.1461. Section 23.2550 requires equipment containing high-energy rotors to be designed or installed to protect the occupants and airplane from uncontained fragments. The FAA also revises § 23.2320(a)(2) (proposed as § 23.755(a)(3)) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.771(c). Section 23.2320(a)(2) will require the pilot and flight controls be protected from propellers.
Textron and NJASAP commented on the requirement in proposed § 23.755(b)(1) for level 4 airplanes to ensure that the windshield and its supporting structure directly in front of the pilot can withstand the impact equivalent of a two-pound bird. Textron noted the 14 CFR part 33 engine requirement for medium bird ingestion is based on a 2.5-pound bird and questioned why the FAA did not use 2.5-pounds in proposed § 23.755(b)(1). Textron also recommended the FAA consider language from CS 23.440(a) with weight/type specifics being defined in the industry standards.
The FAA notes NJASAP's and Textron's comment on the weight of the bird in proposed § 23.755(b)(1). Former § 23.775(h)(1) required windshield panes directly in front of pilots in the normal conduct of their duties, and the supporting structure for these panes, to withstand, without penetration, the
NJASAP commented the methodology used to discriminate between level 3 and 4 airplanes will motivate OEMs to certify more airplanes within level 3. The commenter also noted that airplanes in this category have experienced fatal accidents due to bird strikes. NJASAP recommended the FAA apply the requirements of proposed § 23.755(b)(1) to level 3 high-speed airplanes.
The FAA acknowledges the requirement in former § 23.775(h)(1) applied to commuter category airplanes, while the proposed requirement would have applied only to level 4 airplanes. Under the former regulations, a commuter category airplane was limited to multiengine airplanes with a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 19 or less and a maximum certificated weight of 19,000 pounds or less.
Under NJASAP's proposal, this requirement would apply to airplanes with 7 to 9 passengers and a maximum certified takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds or less, which would increase the certification requirements of former § 23.775(h)(1). This regulation has proven to be an acceptable level of safety. Additionally, adding level 3 airplanes would increase the cost for a number of these airplanes that weigh less than 12,500 pounds.
Transport Canada and ANAC noted that former § 23.831 addresses smoke, which was not included in proposed § 23.755(c). Transport Canada recommended the FAA add the phrase “and solid or liquid particulates” after the word “vapors” in proposed paragraph § 23.755(c) because smoke is a collection of airborne solid and liquid particulates and gases.
The FAA agrees with Transport Canada and ANAC and revises § 23.2320(c) to require the air provided to each occupant be free of hazardous concentrations of smoke during normal operations and likely failures. The FAA intended proposed § 23.755(c) to incorporate the safety intent of former § 23.831(b), which requires the ventilating air in the flightcrew and passenger compartments to be free of harmful or hazardous concentrations of gases and vapors in normal operations and in the event of reasonably probable failures or malfunctioning of the ventilating, heating, pressurization, or other systems and equipment. It also requires smoke evacuation be accomplished quickly if accumulation of hazardous quantities of smoke in the cockpit area is reasonably probable.
The FAA chose the term “smoke” instead of “solid or liquid particulates” because it is a more common term. Section 23.2320(c) requires air at a breathable pressure, free of hazardous concentrations of gases, vapors, and smoke, to be provided to each occupant during normal operations and likely failures.
ANAC questioned whether general rules (like proposed § 23.1315) would address the concern of smoke evacuation capability and requested the FAA clarify how airplane manufacturers would be driven to develop a smoke evacuation system in case there is no explicit requirement, just general ones.
The FAA considers § 23.2320(c) to be an explicit requirement for cockpit smoke evacuation but general regulations may also require smoke evacuation to be considered. A pressurized airplane design that cannot evacuate smoke from the cockpit sufficiently to allow the flightcrew to safely perform their duties, does not provide each occupant with air at a breathable pressure, free of hazardous concentrations of gases, vapors and smoke, during normal operations and probable failures. Therefore, an effective smoke evacuation system is necessary to comply with § 23.2320(c) of this rule.
The Associations recommended reordering proposed § 23.755(d) and (e) to place the oxygen requirements after the pressurization requirements. The FAA agrees with the recommendation and notes this change harmonizes with EASA's regulation. In EASA's regulation, pressurization system requirements precede the oxygen systems requirements.
Textron commented that the FAA should remove proposed § 23.755(e)(1), as it covers the same subject area as proposed § 23.1305(c). Proposed § 23.1305(c) would have required information concerning an unsafe system operating condition to be provided in a timely manner to the crewmember responsible for taking corrective action. Presentation of this information must be clear enough to avoid likely crewmember errors.
The FAA agrees with Textron's comment, as both sections would require the crewmembers to be made aware of unsafe conditions. Therefore, the FAA adopts § 23.2605(c) as proposed and withdraws proposed § 23.755(e)(1).
Proposed § 23.755(e)(2) would have required pressurization systems, if installed, to include a pressurization system test. The FAA intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.843, “Pressurization system tests,” which required specific tests for demonstrating compliance with safety requirements. Upon further review, the FAA finds that proposed § 23.755(e)(2) contains prescriptive requirements, which is inconsistent with the FAA's goal of establishing performance-based requirements as was set forth in the NPRM. Therefore, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.755(e)(2).
The FAA reviewed the former regulations related to proposed § 23.755 to determine if it inadvertently omitted any safety requirements for pressurization systems. As a result of this review, the FAA has identified the following omissions, which are addressed in this rule.
This final rule now requires pressurization systems, if installed, to be designed to protect against decompression to an unsafe level, which captures the safety intent of former §§ 23.841(c), (d)(2) and (d)(3). This final rule also requires pressurization systems, if installed, to be designed to protect against excessive differential pressure, which captures the safety intent of §§ 23.841(b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3) and (b)(8).
Section 23.2320(e)(1) specifically requires that if an oxygen system is installed in the airplane, it must effectively provide oxygen to each user to prevent the effects of hypoxia and be free from hazards in itself, in its method of operation, and its effect upon other components. This requirement captures the safety intent of former §§ 23.1441(a) and (d); 23.1443, and 23.1447(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (g). These provisions require pressure/demand oxygen equipment for the crew on high altitude airplanes; minimum oxygen flowrates and pressures at specified conditions; standards for oxygen mask and cannula effectiveness; ease of donning, retention, and accessibility; and standards for crew communication while using oxygen equipment.
The FAA has also decided to add the specific language from former § 23.1441(b) into § 23.2320. Requiring an oxygen system, if installed, to be free from hazards in itself, in its method of operation, and its effect upon other components restates former § 23.1441(b) verbatim and captures the safety intent of former §§ 23.1441(b) and (e), 23.1445, 23.1447(f), 23.1449, 23.1450(b), 23.1451, and 23.1453. These provisions required—
• A means for the crew to turn on and shut off oxygen supply at the high-pressure source in flight;
• Materials that could be used for oxygen tubing to be considered;
• A means to reserve oxygen for the flightcrew if a source is shared with passengers;
• A manual means to deploy passenger oxygen masks (or other units) for high-altitude airplanes;
• A means to allow the crew to determine whether oxygen is being delivered;
• Hazards from chemical oxygen generator temperature and pressure to be addressed;
• Protection of oxygen equipment and lines from fire hazards; and
• Protection against overload, unsafe temperatures, and hazards in a crash landing.
The FAA withdraws proposed § 23.755(d)(1) as it is rendered redundant by adopted § 23.2600(b).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.800 (now § 23.2325) would have required the—
• Insulation on electrical wire and electrical cable outside designated fire zones be self-extinguishing;
• Airplane cockpit and cabin materials in certification levels 1, 2, and 3 be flame-resistant;
• Airplane cockpit and cabin materials in level 4 airplanes be self-extinguishing;
• Airplane materials in the baggage and cargo compartments, which are inaccessible in flight and outside designated fire zones, be self-extinguishing; and
• Electrical cable installation that would overheat in the event of circuit overload or fault be flame resistant.
Additionally, proposed § 23.800 would have precluded thermal acoustic materials outside designated fire zones from being a flame propagation hazard. Proposed § 23.800 would have also required sources of heat that are capable of igniting adjacent objects outside designated fire zones to be shielded and insulated to prevent such ignition.
Proposed § 23.800 would have required airplane baggage and cargo compartments, outside designated fire zones, to be located where a fire would be visible to the pilots, or equipped with a fire detection system and warning system, and—
• Be accessible for the manual extinguishing of a fire;
• Have a built-in fire extinguishing system, or
• Be constructed and sealed to contain any fire within the compartment.
Proposed § 23.800 would have required a means to extinguish any fire in the cabin, outside designated fire zones, such that the pilot, while seated, could easily access the fire extinguishing means, and for levels 3 and 4 airplanes, passengers would have a fire extinguishing means available within the passenger compartment. Where flammable fluids or vapors might escape by leakage of a fluid system, proposed § 23.800 would have required each area, outside designated fire zones, be defined and have a means to make fluid and vapor ignition, and the resultant hazard, if ignition occurs, improbable. Additionally, proposed § 23.800 would have also required combustion heater installations outside designated fire zones be protected from uncontained fire.
EASA commented that the fire protection outside designated fire zones requirements proposed in § 23.800 were design solutions instead of objectives. EASA contended these proposed provisions would hamper the development of different, but acceptable future designs. EASA recommended the FAA follow the A-NPA text from CS 23.445.
The FAA does not share EASA's view that the proposed § 23.800 requirements were design specific solutions. For the foreseeable future, there will be wiring, cabling, insulating, and covering materials used in airplane cabins, cockpits, and baggage and cargo compartments. The performance standard requires certain materials be self-extinguishing, flame resistant, etc., in order to prevent the initiation or propagation of a fire. The way to demonstrate compliance with the performance standard is now moved to accepted methods of compliance instead of being specified in rule language or appendices. Additionally, the former part 23 regulations for commuter category airplanes, and the proposed regulations for level 4 airplanes, intended for personnel to be alerted to the presence of a fire and a way to extinguish it. Based on the FAA's understanding of the current technology available, for the foreseeable future, fire detection systems and extinguishers are the methods to achieve this. The FAA is not prescribing the technology and design of those systems.
Additionally, the FAA finds that following the A-NPA text from CS 23.445 would be a new approach to achieving the safety intent of preventing the initiation or propagation of a fire, which was not set forth for notice and comment. Further, the FAA has concerns whether EASA's proposed rule language would meet the same level of safety as provided for in the former part 23 regulations, as EASA's proposed text would require minimization of the risk of “fire initiation” and “fire propagation”. The word “minimize” has not historically been used in this safety standard where specific tests were used with specific pass/fail criteria. The FAA also finds using the word “minimize” may introduce ambiguity in the rule. While the FAA is not adopting EASA's recommendation, the FAA contends the requirement in § 23.2325 harmonizes with EASA's requirements because the effect is the same.
Embraer recommended modifying the title of proposed § 23.800 to remove the word “designated,” as well as removing the phrase “Outside designated fire zones” from the lead sentence of the proposed rule.
The FAA agrees with Embraer's comment that it is unnecessary to state “designated” in the title. The FAA eliminates the phrase “fire zones” as well because the term may lead to confusion. This revision aligns the final rule with the safety intent of former regulations and has the benefit of aligning the title with EASA's proposed title. Furthermore, the FAA changes the title of § 23.2325 to “Fire protection” and deletes the lead-in sentence “Outside designated fire zones:”. Finally, the FAA adds “. . . in the fuselage . . .” to subparagraph (c) so as not to expand the applicable area of the rule.
Transport Canada recommended the FAA define several terms used in this section, specifically, “self-extinguishing,” “flame resistant,” and “flame propagation hazard”, because this section would otherwise be subject to a wide range of interpretation. Transport Canada stated the performance statement, as expressed, may not ensure the level of safety of former § 23.853.
The FAA finds that defining these terms is not necessary, nor that this rule will be subject to a wide range of interpretation. Putting the parameters necessary to precisely define these terms would mean specifying test standards, which is contrary to the rule's intent to move away from prescriptive standards. The specifications for meeting these requirements will be contained in an accepted means of compliance. One means of compliance accepted by the FAA is to use the former prescriptive means of compliance contained in former part 23, together with a policy statement issued by the FAA identifying means by which the FAA has addressed errors, ELOS findings to various provisions of former part 23, and special conditions (
Transport Canada questioned whether proposed § 23.800(a) would cover components located in between the fuselage skin and the compartment liners that were explicitly covered under former § 23.853. The commenter recommended the FAA consider these components.
The FAA finds it unnecessary to list these specific parts in the rule since all materials in those compartments must meet the standards specified for that compartment. The FAA notes, just as under former § 23.853(d)(3)(ii), items behind compartment liners are considered materials that exist in those compartments.
In level 4 airplanes, proposed § 23.800(a)(3) would have required materials in the cockpit, cabin, and baggage and cargo compartments be self-extinguishing. NJASAP stated level 3 high-speed airplanes should also be required to have self-extinguishing cockpit and cabin materials. NJASAP noted many business jets that fly at high altitude will fall into the level 3 high-speed category in the future. NJASAP indicated if a fire were to break out in this airplane type, it could take several minutes to detect it and to make an emergency landing.
The FAA notes under the former § 23.853(d), only commuter category airplanes needed to meet the self-extinguishing requirement for these specified items. In the NPRM, the FAA correlated level 4 airplanes to the commuter category. Therefore, adding the requirement to make cockpit and cabin materials self-extinguishing for level 3 airplanes would impose requirements beyond those imposed under former § 23.853 and would be beyond the scope of the notice. Furthermore, the FAA is unaware of service experience with level 3 airplanes that would justify the increased cost associated with the NJASAP's comment.
Textron and the Associations requested clarification regarding the use of “or” in proposed § 23.800(b)(2) with respect to circuit overload or fault. The Associations asked whether the FAA intends to allow some electrical systems, such as high-reliability primary power wires in electrically-powered airplanes, to use reliable design practices in place of circuit protection for some wires. Textron thought the use of “or” meant both overload and failure of the protective device do not need to be considered and asked whether the intent is to allow some circuits without overload protection, such as main start cables.
The FAA notes the focus of this rule is fire protection rather than circuit design. The FAA's intent is to make certain electrical cable installations that could overheat are flame resistant, regardless of whether this is due to a circuit overload or fault. Proposed § 23.800 nearly mirrors former § 23.1365(b), which used the same phrase “. . . circuit overload or fault . . . .”
Also, the FAA noted a typographical error in proposed paragraph (c). A slash (“/”) between “thermal” and “acoustic” was missing. The absence of the “/” indicate only insulation that was both thermal and acoustic must comply. The FAA's intention was either thermal or acoustic, as required under the former § 23.856. The FAA has corrected this inadvertent omission in this rule.
Textron and the Associations submitted comments on proposed § 23.800(d), which would have required sources of heat that are capable of igniting adjacent objects, to be shielded and insulated to prevent such ignition. Textron noted the proposed rule broadened the scope of the former requirement from “cargo and baggage compartments” to anything that is not a designated fire zone. Textron recommended the FAA modify proposed § 23.800(d) to include the phrase “located in the cargo and baggage compartments” after “Sources of heat.” Textron also commented that preventing hot equipment from starting fires in normal operation is needed, but in the case where materials and proximities are controlled by type design (
The FAA agrees the proposed rule would have unintentionally broadened the prior requirements. The FAA revises the rule language to add “within each cargo and baggage compartment”. The FAA also agrees with Textron that other regulations in subpart F sufficiently address the issue of preventing hot equipment from starting fires in normal operation where materials are located in places other than the cargo and baggage compartments.
The Associations proposed removing the word “any” in front of “fire” from proposed § 23.800(e)(2) and (f). The commenters did not provide a reason for the proposal. Although “any” is implied, the FAA prefers to leave the word in the rule language to be explicit.
Regarding proposed § 23.800(g)(2),
The FAA agrees the wording of proposed § 23.800(g)(2) was problematic because the term “improbable” was associated with quantitative failure rates in former § 23.1309. The FAA did not intend to require an assessment of the probability of a flammable fluid leak or ignition of a flammable fluid leak. The FAA's intent is that reasonable design precautions are used to reduce (i) the likelihood of flammable fluid leaks, (ii) the likelihood of flammable fluid ignition, and (iii) the severity of flammable fluid ignition. The FAA agrees that since the proposed rule would have required ignition to be assumed, it does not make sense to make the hazard improbable “if” ignition occurs.
The FAA intended to capture the safety intent of the requirement in former § 23.863. The FAA considered the suggestions for revising proposed § 23.800(g), and is using the text of former § 23.863(a). Former § 23.863(a) was a performance-based requirement and former § 23.863(b) and (c) provided details on how former § 23.863(a) must be addressed. New § 23.2325(g)(2) requires a means to minimize the probability of ignition of the fluids and vapors and the resultant hazard if ignition does occur in each area where flammable fluids or vapors might escape by leakage of a fluid system. “Minimize” means to reduce the probability and consequences of occurrence to the extent practical. It does not establish a probabilistic requirement, but rather requires application of sound engineering judgment to use effective means to achieve the safety objective.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.805 (now § 23.2330) would have required—
• Flight controls, engine mounts, and other flight structures within or adjacent to designated fire zones be capable of withstanding the effects of a fire;
• Engines inside designated fire zones to remain attached to the airplane in the event of a fire or electrical arcing; and
• Terminals, equipment, and electrical cables, inside designated fire zones, used during emergency procedures, be fire-resistant.
Embraer recommended modifying proposed § 23.805 to change the title from “Fire protection in designated fire zones” to “Fire protection in fire zones and adjacent areas.”
The FAA agrees with the recommendation to add “and adjacent areas” to the title for clarification. The FAA notes that § 23.805(a) references flight controls, engine mounts, and other flight structures adjacent to a designated fire zone.
However, “designated fire zone” has a particular meaning. Embraer viewed this proposed definition as prescriptive and recommended the FAA use the definition of “fire zone” contained in the draft of AC 25.863-1. That definition stated a fire zone means a “zone that contains a nominal ignition source and may be exposed to a flammable fluid/material as a result of a failure.” The FAA reviewed the definition of “fire zone” in AC 25.863-1 and determined this definition would impose requirements beyond those in the former part 23 regulations.
Embraer also recommended removing the modifying phrase “inside designated fire zones” contained in the proposed regulation. Embraer stated that “former § 23.1181 defined the `hot' parts of an engine installation is an ignition source and considering that there are fuel, oil, and hydraulic fluids being carried around such areas, they shall be considered a fire zone, and then the term `designated' would apply, which means that it is not necessary [for] further analysis to define if it is a flammable fluids zone or a fire zone.”
The FAA agrees with Embraer's recommendation and removes the modifying phrase from the first line of the proposed text for § 23.805(b). The FAA will clarify within each requirement if it applies in designated fire zones, or designated fire zones and adjacent areas.
EASA stated that proposed § 23.805(b) reflects current design-specific requirements that should be amended to cover other “new” designated fire zones, such as for batteries. Proposed § 23.805(b) would have required engines inside designated fire zones to remain attached to the airplane in the event of a fire or electrical arcing. EASA recommended revising proposed § 23.805(b) to read: “A fire in a designated fire zone must not preclude continued safe flight and landing”.
The FAA finds EASA's proposal is beyond the scope of the NPRM. The FAA intended proposed § 23.805 to capture the safety intent of former §§ 23.865 and 23.1359(b). Former § 23.865, in part, required engine vibration isolators to incorporate suitable features to ensure the engine is retained if the non-fireproof portions of the vibration isolators deteriorate from the effects of a fire. The FAA finds this requirement is still applicable to engines that use flammable fuels and should be retained. However, the FAA agrees proposed § 23.805(b) reflected current design-specific requirements that would not be applicable to other potential designs that do not use flammable fuels for propulsion. Therefore, the FAA is making this requirement only applicable to engines in designated fire zones. The FAA also withdraws the proposed requirement for engines to remain attached to the airplane in the event of electrical arcing, because the FAA finds that the threat of electrical arcing causing structural failure is addressed adequately in the electrical systems requirements in subpart F.
Embraer commented that the word “engine” should be replaced with the phrase “power unit” in proposed § 23.805(b). The FAA understands Embraer's rationale, but the FAA's authority to issue TCs refers to “aircraft engines,” not power units (49 U.S.C. 44704(a)(1)) so the term “aircraft engines” needs to be retained. Therefore, the FAA is not adopting EASA's recommendation in the final rule.
Textron recommended the FAA replaces “terminals, equipment, and electrical cables” with the word “equipment” in proposed § 23.805(c). Paragraph (c) would have required terminals, equipment, and electrical cables inside designated fire zones, that are used during emergency procedures, be fire resistant. Textron stated that if this provision is supposed to apply to anything in a fire zone that gets used in an emergency, it is potentially misleading.
The FAA disagrees with Textron's comment. The FAA intended proposed § 23.805(c) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1359(b), which stated “Electrical cables, terminals, and equipment in designated fire zones that are used during emergency procedures must be fire-resistant.” Accordingly, the FAA is not making any change to the language proposed in § 23.805(c) (now § 23.2330(c)).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.810 (now § 23.2335) would have precluded primary structure failure caused by exposure to the direct effects of lightning, that could prevent continued safe flight and landing for airplanes approved for IFR. Proposed § 23.810 would have required airplanes approved only for VFR to achieve lightning protection by following FAA-accepted design practices found in FAA-issued ACs and in FAA-accepted consensus standards.
Air Tractor and Transport Canada commented that “FAA-accepted design practices” does not establish a performance standard in proposed § 23.810(b). Air Tractor also noted this proposed regulation would make the ACs required and regulatory. Transport Canada further stated that specifying “FAA” in the rule is not conducive to harmonization between authorities and recommended replacing “FAA-accepted design practices” with a performance-based requirement in the form of a safety objective.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.810(b) is not consistent with the goal to develop performance-based standards and to spur innovation. The FAA recognizes new methods of protecting the airplane from catastrophic effects from lightning may be developed that are not currently FAA-accepted design practices and these methods should be permitted if found acceptable to the FAA.
In light of the comments received for this section, the FAA revisited the goal of proposed § 23.810. The FAA intended to capture the safety intent of the former lightning regulations in former § 23.867. Former § 23.867(a) was a high-level performance-based requirement requiring the airplane to be protected against catastrophic effects from lightning. Former § 23.867(b) and (c) were means of compliance with § 23.867(a). Former § 23.867(b) specified how metallic components must be designed to protect the airplane against catastrophic effects from lightning, while former § 23.867(c) specified how non-metallic components must be designed to protect the airplane from catastrophic effects from lightning. The FAA also intended to establish safety requirements for direct and indirect effects of lightning on all systems and structure in proposed §§ 23.810, 23.930, and 23.1320. Proposed § 23.810 would have addressed protection of structure, proposed § 23.930 would have addressed protection of fuel systems, and proposed § 23.1320 would have addressed protection of electrical and electronic systems. However, upon review, proposed § 23.810 did not address all structure and proposed § 23.1320 did not address all systems and equipment.
The FAA has determined that retaining the language of former § 23.867(a) would more appropriately capture the FAA's intent for § 23.2335 because it applies to the entire airplane including all systems, equipment and structure. Therefore, the FAA revises § 23.2335 to require the airplane to be protected against catastrophic effects from lightning, which is a performance standard. The FAA finds this revision addresses Air Tractor's and Transport Canada's remaining concerns.
The FAA also identified an error in the proposed correlation table in the NPRM. Former § 23.867(b) was correlated with proposed § 23.1320, “Electrical and electronic system lightning protection”, and not proposed § 23.810, “Lightning protection of structure”. This reference was incorrect because proposed § 23.1320 did not address all aspects of protecting the airplane against catastrophic effects from lightning for metallic components. The FAA corrected the correlation in the table provided in this final rule.
EASA commented that the requirement of lightning protection of the structure should relate to the type of environment that causes the risk, instead of the type of operation. EASA recommended replacing IFR with instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), and replacing VFR with visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
The FAA agrees with EASA's comment that the requirements for lightning protection should be related to the risk of lightning. Rather than drawing a distinction between IFR and VFR, or IMC and VMC, the language provided in this final rule now reflects a performance-based standard. The standard will be met by an accepted means of compliance. The FAA finds this approach provides greater flexibility to allow development of means of compliance that are appropriate for different types of airplanes and different types of operation depending on the risk of lightning.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed substantial changes to former subpart E based on two considerations. First, the FAA stated many of the former regulations could be combined to provide fewer regulations that accomplish the same safety intent. Second, the FAA also stated part 23 overlaps with the requirements in parts 33 and 35.
Textron noted that subpart E appeared to be missing performance requirements for key propulsion aspects. Textron recommended the FAA include rules that address engine controls, powerplant accessories and components, and powerplant instruments and indicators as set forth in former §§ 23.1141, 23.1163, and 23.1225 of appendix E of the Part 23 ARC Report.
The FAA reviewed each requirement mentioned by the commenter and finds those requirements have been addressed in the final rule using less prescriptive language. In most cases several regulations, rather than any single rule, capture the intent of the former regulations referenced by the commenter. Requirements contained in regulations for powerplant installation, airplane level systems, and flightcrew interface combined with more specific requirements found in regulations for powerplant fire protection, instrument markings, control markings, and placards, address the specific requirements noted by the commenter.
An individual commenter stated the FAA's removal of all references to part 33 and part 35 from proposed part 23 was inappropriate. The commenter contended the FAA's conclusion that those references are redundant because the requirements are already addressed during the certification of the engine or propeller is incorrect. The commenter noted that compliance with specific performance standards for engines and propellers is only ensured by requiring a product to be approved to a specific
The individual commenter also stated engine and propeller limitations are established during the type certification of the engine or propeller, and that these limitations are required to be included in the TCDS and associated installation manuals. The installer must comply with these limitations. The commenter further implied that, if the installed engine or propeller limitations cannot be complied with, safe operation of the product cannot be ensured. For example, the commenter stated that former §§ 23.1041 through 23.1047 required the engine installation to be designed such that the temperature limitations—established under part 33 for the engine—are maintained in the installed configuration.
The individual commenter also noted that some components of an engine or propeller are approved at both the engine or propeller level and at the airplane level, but that all components require approval at the airplane level. According to the commenter, the approval of the engine or propeller TC can include items such as a propeller reversing system or a turbocharger, and this data can be used for approval of these systems at the airplane level. If an applicant prefers approval at the airplane level only, this commenter noted, the former rule provided a reference to the requirements contained in part 33 or 35, as appropriate. Without the inclusion of these references in proposed part 23, certification may require special conditions.
The commenter recommended the FAA include—
• References to parts 33 and 35 for type certificated engines and propellers being installed and consider the inclusion of similar standards when the installation of non-type certificated engines or propellers are permitted;
• A specific rule stating the powerplant installation design must be such that all installed type certificated engines and propellers remain within their respective approved limitations and installation manual requirements and that a similar provision be included when the installation of non-type certificated engines and propellers is permitted; and
• Reference in the proposal to the applicable provisions of parts 33 and 35 for engines, propellers, and any related components of those products being installed only at the airplane level.
The FAA agrees with the general intent of the commenter. The FAA notes that while some requirements in the former part 23 indeed overlap with those of parts 33 and 35, the FAA did not intend to imply that compliance with those requirements necessary for type certification of an engine or propeller were no longer applicable to the certification of the installed configuration of a type certificated engine or propeller. Historically, TCs have been required for engines and propellers installed in airplanes certificated under part 23 and this rule retains this requirement for all airplanes certificated under part 23, with the exception of level 1 low-speed airplanes.
The FAA does not intend to accept a means of compliance for an engine or propeller installation that would result in a level of safety lower than that set forth in a part 33 or 35 amendment level specifically referenced in former part 23.
Limitations set forth in the approval of an engine or propeller must be maintained in the installation on the part 23 airplane. These operating limitations are established in accordance with §§ 33.7 and 35.5. Installation instructions are provided to the installer in accordance with §§ 33.5 and 35.3. This regulation does not change this approach.
Additionally, the FAA is adding a requirement from existing § 23.901(e) to § 23.2400, requiring installed powerplant components—which include engines and propellers—to meet the FAA-approved component limitations and installation instructions, or be shown not to create a hazard. This requirement will ensure that any operating limitations and installation instructions applicable to the engine or propeller remain applicable to the certification of the airplane.
In the NPRM, an exception permitting the installation of non-type certificated engines and propellers as part of the airplane was proposed for simple airplanes. The proposal mirrors the precedent established for the certification of airplanes under EASA CS-VLA. The rule slightly expands the relief provided by the proposal, and permits the certification of engines as part of the airplane for level 1 low-speed airplanes. This change encompasses the same class of airplanes as originally proposed while removing the restriction that these airplanes be limited to VFR-only operations.
In response to the individual commenter's concerns that the proposal does not require certain engines to meet a specific amendment level of part 33, as set forth in former regulations, and the commenter's specific concern that engine ingestion performance was not specifically addressed, the FAA notes those sections of former subpart E that required compliance with a specific amendment level for an engine installation are addressed in this performance-based rule. The engine ingestion requirements of former § 23.903(a)(2), for example, are addressed by the performance-based requirements of § 23.2400(c). The former rule specified that an applicant must construct and arrange each powerplant installation to account for likely operating conditions including foreign object threats and likely hazards in operation. Although § 23.2400(c) does not refer to a specific requirement or amendment level of part 33, the FAA expects the means of compliance with this regulation will include provisions for certificating engines with acceptable foreign object ingestion performance as required by former § 23.903(a)(2), which may include references to different amendment levels of part 33 where appropriate. Additionally, the FAA
In the NPRM, proposed §§ 23.900 and 23.905 (now § 23.2400) would have clarified, for the purpose of this subpart, that the airplane powerplant installation must include each component necessary for propulsion, affects propulsion safety, or provides auxiliary power to the airplane. Proposed § 23.900 would have required the applicant to construct and arrange each powerplant installation to account for likely hazards in operation and maintenance, and, except for simple airplanes, each aircraft engine would have to be type certificated. Proposed § 23.905 would have retained the requirement that each propeller be type certificated, except for propellers installed on simple airplanes. Proposed § 23.905 would have retained the requirement that each pusher propeller be marked so it is conspicuous under daylight conditions.
EASA commented that design-specific requirements for propeller installations should be covered by proposed § 23.900, not proposed § 23.905.
The FAA adopts the regulatory approach taken by EASA for propeller installation. Under this approach, the FAA includes the requirements for propeller installation within § 23.2400. Specifically, the requirements of proposed § 23.905(a) are addressed by § 23.2400(b), proposed § 23.905(b) are addressed by § 23.2400(c)(3), and proposed § 23.905(c) are addressed by § 23.2400(c)(4). These revisions also clarify that a propeller installation must not deviate from any limitations or installation instructions as required by § 23.2400(e). Addressing propeller installation requirements in the section of the rule that establishes powerplant installation requirements also results in closer harmonization of the rule with EASA's proposed requirements in NPA 2016-05.
The FAA received numerous comments regarding the issue of whether “power units” should be certified under part 23 as part of the airplane type certification. The Associations noted the proposed language would allow engine and propellers that meet required standards to be certified as part of the airframe, provided the airplane is certificated as a simple airplane. The commenters contended the ability to certificate these components as part of an airframe should be based on the complexity of the components rather than on the certification or performance levels of the airplane in which they are installed. The commenters supported permitting the certification of engine and propellers that comply with traditional engine and propeller type certification requirements either through the issuance of a standalone TC or through the certification process for the airframe. The commenters also noted since electric propulsion is “on the threshold of becoming mainstream”, the ability to certify engines and propellers as part of the airframe is critical to the successful and safe integration of that technology.
EASA asserted the need to type certify an engine should be addressed by part 21; therefore, the powerplant either could be type certificated or certified as part of the airplane. EASA noted the type certificate-related design and production controls that are part of the current type certification process are also expected to be applicable for other components such as batteries and converters. EASA stated certification of the engine should not be related to the size or speed of the airplane; therefore, EASA did not support limiting the installation of propulsion systems that are not individually type certificated to airplanes classified as simple airplanes.
Textron noted the purpose of the proposed rule is to enhance the ability to introduce new technology efficiently, and contended that treating each powerplant installation (
An individual commenter expressed support for the proposal to not require certified engines for “simple” airplanes, but suggested expanding the definition of “simple” to at least four-seat airplanes with V
Air Tractor questioned whether alternative types of powerplant units would receive a TC specific to that unit “from within part 23” and distinct from the airplane in which it is installed. If so, Air Tractor expressed concern this approach would create a series of rules for the purpose of issuing a TC for an unconventional powerplant design and stated part 23 rules should not be applied to the certification of unconventional powerplants. Air Tractor also recommended all engines and propellers be either “type certified” or “possess a type certificate.”
NATCA noted if neither the engine nor the propeller would be required to be type certified when installed on a simple airplane, it is unclear how those products would be approved. Furthermore, NATCA noted by allowing non-certificated engines on simple level 1 airplanes, it was unclear how an airworthiness directive would be issued if an unsafe condition were found to exist on the engine. NATCA also recommended the FAA specify the minimum level of engineering safety certification testing necessary to demonstrate how the engine and propeller for simple airplanes could be approved, if they were not type certificated.
The FAA notes the recommendation to expand the scope of proposed § 23.900 to permit all engines and propellers installed in airplanes certificated under part 23 to be certificated under the TC of the airplane in which the engine or propeller is installed. The FAA evaluated the commenters' recommendations to base the need for an engine or propeller TC on the complexity of the powerplant
The FAA notes the Engine and Propeller Directorate (EPD) has been responsible for establishing standards for engines and propellers and continues to remain the best source for developing policy and guidance for determining compliance with those standards, to include standards for the certification of electric engines. While many commenters believe the introduction of electric engines is imminent, and shifting the responsibility for the certification of all engines and propellers installed in airplanes that meet the airworthiness standards of part 23 from the EPD to the Small Airplane Directorate (SAD) would facilitate certification of those engines, the FAA finds such action could delay both the certification of electric engines and other more conventional engine designs. Such a realignment of certification responsibilities would increase the burden on both applicants and the FAA as the involvement of two directorates would be required during the certification process for aircraft engines and propellers. Additionally, certification of an engine or propeller with the airplane increases the burden of showing compliance when the product is installed in multiple airplane models, as compliance with the basic engine and propeller requirements must be shown for each specific airplane model installation.
Accordingly, the FAA retains the basic approach discussed in the NPRM requiring that all engines and propellers require a separate TC except for those engines and propellers installed in airplanes that can be certificated as level 1 low speed. Those standards permit the certification of the engine and propeller with the airplane and do not require those products possess a separate TC. However, the FAA has slightly revised the proposal to expand the approval of aircraft engines and propellers under the airplane TC from simple airplanes, as originally proposed to all level 1, low-speed airplanes. Section 23.2400 will allow level 1 airplanes with engines not separately type certificated to be used for both VFR and IFR operations. Additionally, the FAA has added language that indicates an acceptable standard for the certification of an engine or propeller, contains airworthiness criteria the Administrator has found appropriate and applicable to the specific design and intended use of the engine or propeller, and provides a level of safety acceptable to the FAA. This language mirrors the language contained in former § 21.17(f)(1) for primary category aircraft whose engines and propellers are certificated under the airplane TC. This approach allows some streamlining for the engine approval based on a specific installation verses the generic engine TC which might be more thorough to account for the possible installation variables. The FAA's concept of the safety continuum in this context bases certification requirements on potential risk and considers the number of potential passengers and the performance of the airplane, rather than the complexity of the engine or propeller installed.
As future aircraft engines and energy sources become available, both SAD and EPD may utilize ELOS findings, special conditions, and exemptions to establish appropriate certification standards. These processes will assist the agency in developing standards to address new and novel technology, and can be applied regardless of whether the design approval for an engine or propeller occurs as the part of the airplane or as a separate engine or propeller approval. Additionally, in response to those commenters concerned with the approval of electric aircraft engines, part 33 airworthiness standards will be developed to address those products as they are presented to the FAA for type certification. Currently those standards do not exist in part 33, therefore, special conditions will likely be used to establish standards for the issuance of a TC before those standards have been promulgated.
In response to commenters' concerns related to uncertainty as to what minimum level of testing would be required for approval of engines not separately type certificated and how potential airworthiness concerns would be addressed for those products, the FAA expects any engine or propeller will meet standards that provide a level of safety at least equivalent to that achieved with the certification of those products today. The FAA may accept or reject any means of compliance proposed for acceptance and will only accept a means of compliance that ensures the design meets the performance standards set forth in part 23. An applicant intending to use this approach would have to re-establish compliance for the specific non-type certificated product in accordance with an applicable FAA accepted standard under the TC of each airplane model in which the product is installed rather than only once as would occur with an engine or propeller TC. As stated earlier, this provision permitting the type certification of both the engine and propeller under the airplane TC is limited to level 1 low-speed airplanes. Any unsafe condition related to “non-TC'd” engines or propellers will be addressed by issuance of an airworthiness directive requiring corrective action against the airplane TC under which those engines or propellers have been approved.
Textron questioned whether proposed § 23.900(c) includes auxiliary power units, as those units are not type certificated, but instead meet a TSO. Textron requested proposed § 23.900(c) be clarified to indicate it would apply to each aircraft power unit “used for propulsive power.” Embraer, however, suggested including an alternate means of compliance in proposed § 23.900(c) for electric engines, auxiliary power units, and other alternate sources of propulsion.
The FAA revises the rule to ensure APUs may be approved under the airplane TC in accordance with a standard accepted by the FAA, such as a TSO. The FAA does not intend to require a TC for these units.
The Associations stated the proposal should include provisions to address propulsion-specific hazards. The provisions include environmental issues
The FAA agrees with the commenters and revises the rule to specifically require all likely operating conditions (which include environmental conditions), including foreign object threats; sufficient clearance of moving parts to other airplane parts and their surroundings; and likely hazards in operation, including hazards to ground personnel are accounted for in each powerplant installation. Proposed § 23.900(b) referred to these conditions as “likely hazards in operation and maintenance,” but the FAA finds that specifically enumerating them will facilitate development of acceptable means of compliance. The FAA also notes that former subpart E required that applicants address these conditions.
To ensure compatibility between the airplanes and the power unit design, as well as the safe operation of the power unit, ANAC recommended including language, which would require the powerplant installation comply with the limitations and installation instructions provided by the power unit manufacturer. The Associations requested the proposed section include additional requirements specifying the installation of powerplant components that deviate from the component limitations or installation instructions be safe and applicable powerplant installations account for vibration and fatigue.
The FAA agrees with the commenters' intent to ensure the safe operation of the powerplant and has added paragraph (e) to § 23.2400 to specifically require powerplant components comply with their component limitations and installation instructions or be shown not to create a hazard. This requirement applies to the engine, propeller, and any other components of the powerplant installation. The rule is also revised to require powerplant installations account for vibration and fatigue. The FAA notes component limitations and an installation manual should be included as part of any powerplant installation. The evaluation of the powerplant installation should also include an evaluation of propeller vibration and compliance with proposed installation manual limits, as the installed propeller is a component of the powerplant installation.
Textron stated proposed § 23.900 does not address automatic power reserve (APR) systems. Textron recommended revising proposed § 23.900 based upon proposed CS 23.500. Textron also suggested including specific language from appendix E from the final Part 23 ARC Report, which states that an APR system that automatically advances the power or thrust on the operating engine(s), when any engine fails during takeoff, must comply with the applicable requirements of the subpart. The FAA notes proposed § 23.915 addressed the requirements for APR systems referenced by the commenter and the FAA adopted these requirements in § 23.2415 of this rule.
Textron contended the proposed rule language does not include critical items from current part 23 or redefines current requirements. For instance, Textron noted proposed § 23.900(b) appears to change the current requirement that the powerplant installation be accessible for preflight inspection and maintenance and adds a hazard assessment requirement. Textron recommended revising proposed § 23.900(b) to state each powerplant installation must ensure safe operation and be accessible for preflight inspection and maintenance.
The FAA has determined the performance-based regulations set forth in the proposal, as revised by the changes made in this rule, address all critical items in current part 23. With regard to Textron's specific comments, the FAA did not intend to remove the requirement for the powerplant installation to be accessible for preflight inspection or require a new hazard assessment. The FAA intends that § 23.2400(c) capture the current requirement that the powerplant installation be accessible for preflight inspection. Likely hazards include those that could result from lack of adequate preflight or maintenance, which includes inspection. Additionally, the regulation has not introduced a requirement to complete any hazard assessments not required under current regulations.
An individual commenter noted the proposed rules in subpart E only appear to address a design review that considers failures and hazards. The commenter elaborated by stating that unlike the current rules, the proposed rules do not require a design review for proper operation in the normal non-failed condition. The commenter stated this change is not discussed in the NPRM and appears to leave gaps in the traditional certification effort where the airplane is certified to operate properly within the approved operating envelope. The commenter recommended including an additional requirement to ensure all powerplant components and systems remain within all limitations and function properly when operated within the approved airplane operating envelope.
The FAA agrees the proposed regulatory language was not sufficiently clear and revises proposed § 23.900 (now § 23.2400) to clarify the powerplant installation must be constructed and arranged to account for likely operating conditions, likely hazards, and all component limitations are maintained or otherwise shown to not create a hazard throughout the approved operating envelope.
Textron noted proposed § 23.900(b) should require not just powerplants, but rather all systems, and particularly those installed in future airplanes, to account for likely hazards in operation and maintenance. Accordingly, Textron recommended removing the specific provisions of the proposal referring to powerplants from proposed § 23.900 and revising proposed § 23.1305 to address all systems.
While the FAA agrees all systems should be designed to account for likely hazards, the FAA notes powerplant installations have unique requirements that may not directly apply or would be burdensome when applied to the design of other systems. Accordingly, the FAA is not expanding the applicability of this specific regulation to address all systems.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed replacing the term “engine” with “power unit,” which would have included “auxiliary power unit” (APU). This change was intended to ensure new requirements would be clearly applicable to various power sources, such as those using liquid fuel or electrical power, and to other power sources not yet envisioned. After further review, the FAA has determined it would be more appropriate to retain the term “engine” in the final rule because “engine” is used throughout 14 CFR, TCs are specifically issued for aircraft engines, and the term “aircraft engine” is specifically defined in 49 U.S.C. 40102 and 14 CFR 1.1. The operating regulations also refer to required engine indicators and engine maintenance, and Airworthiness Directives issued for aircraft engines, as opposed to “power units.” Introducing the term “power unit” could lead to unnecessary confusion and potential disagreements regarding the applicability of specific
The FAA has also added paragraph (d) to address the hazardous accumulation of fluids, vapors or gases. This paragraph is virtually identical to proposed CS 23.2430(b), “Energy storage and distribution system hazard mitigation,” and corresponds to the safety intent of former § 23.1193(b) that addressed cowling drainage. It is designed to ensure the hazards resulting from the accumulation of these materials can be isolated from the airplane and personnel compartments and these materials can be either safely contained or discharged.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.910 (now § 23.2410) would have required an applicant to assess each powerplant separately and in relation to other airplane systems and installations to show that a failure of any powerplant system component or accessory will not—
• Prevent continued safe flight and landing;
• Cause serious injury that may be avoided; and
• Require immediate action by crewmembers for continued operation of any remaining powerplant system.
Several commenters expressed concern that proposed § 23.910 would have been impossible to meet for certain existing airplane designs. The FAA response to these comments is below.
The Associations stated that proposed § 23.910 should apply to the “likely” failure of powerplant systems. The commenters asserted that applying the proposed requirements to any failure would require complete redundancy, which cannot be achieved in traditional single-engine airplanes and smaller twin-engine airplanes. The commenters contended the slower stall speeds and higher levels of crashworthiness in the designs of these airplanes mitigate all but “unlikely” powerplant failures. These commenters recommended the FAA require the applicant to assess each powerplant separately and in relation to other airplane systems and installations to show that “hazards resulting from a likely failure of any powerplant system component or accessory are minimized.”
Textron stated proposed § 23.910 was “too high level” and would not have established adequate performance-based requirements for an applicant to demonstrate compliance. As an example, Textron contended that proposed § 23.910(a) would have been an impossible requirement to meet, especially for a single-engine airplane. Textron recommended replacing the language of proposed § 23.910 with language from EASA CS 23.510, “Powerplant Hazard Mitigation”
EASA, Garmin, and Air Tractor stated the requirements of proposed § 23.910(a) would have been applicable to single-engine airplane certification. Garmin stated, however, that a single-engine airplane cannot meet proposed § 23.910(a) unless the FAA clarifies the loss of the thrust from the propulsion unit will not necessarily prevent continued safe flight and landing. Garmin recommended the FAA either revise proposed § 23.910 or revise the definition of “continued safe flight and landing” to allow for failure of the engine or propeller in a single-engine airplane.
Air Tractor stated proposed § 23.910(a) would have ruled out the certification of single-engine airplanes. Air Tractor observed, for example, that under the proposed rule, if a fuel line or hose were considered a “system component,” then the failure of one fuel line that feeds the engine would certainly result in an engine failure. Air Tractor noted that there may be similarly insurmountable scenarios involving the controls for an engine. Air Tractor stressed the need for clearly-written rules to prevent unforeseen interpretations of provisions that have the potential to make the design and certification of light airplanes much more difficult than previously, or even impossible.
An individual commenter stated that proposed § 23.910(a) appears to be a derivation of former § 23.903(c)(1), which only applied to multiengine installations and only required continued safe operation of the remaining engines. The commenter asserted the proposed rule would have increased the requirement from “ensuring continued safe operation of the remaining engines” to “ensuring continued safe flight and landing of the airplane.” The commenter further noted proposed § 23.910 would have applied to single-engine airplanes with no justification and could have resulted in elimination of some airplanes from certification, such as large single-engine or multiengine airplanes where rotor non-containment effects on the remaining engine cannot be eliminated. The commenter also stated the proposed rule would have made “continued safe flight and landing” a part of the regulation, where previously it only existed in guidance material. The commenter indicated this may make it difficult to provide a conditional definition of the term. To ensure safe design of multiengine airplanes, the commenter recommended using the wording of former § 23.903(c)(1) rather than requiring a system safety approach to powerplant installation that does not permit single failures. The commenter also recommended using the term “minimize” when specifying the evaluation criteria for powerplant installations. The commenter noted that term has been used for many years, is well understood, and best describes the regulatory intent for those powerplant unique systems where a single failure cannot be reasonably eliminated from the design.
Another individual commenter said compliance with proposed § 23.290 would neither be practical nor possible in all situations that may result in a forced landing; therefore, the proposed rule should not include a requirement for completely eliminating hazards, which the commenter asserted is not achievable. The commenter asserted that replacing a standard based on minimization with an absolute standard is not an acceptable alternative. Ultimately, the commenter recommended revising the definition of “continued safe flight and landing” to allow for catastrophic outcomes of forced landings, and to either maintain the minimization standard, or withdraw the requirement. The commenter further noted that compliance with the proposed requirement of absolute prevention of hazards would be impractical or impossible for many conventional multiengine airplane configurations regarding rotor non-containment. This is also true for all single-engine and many multiengine airplanes regarding a propeller blade loss—especially since the proposed rule applies to uncontained engine failure and engine case burn-through failures for which former § 23.903(b)(1) only required the design to minimize the hazard.
Embraer observed that for turbine or reciprocating engine rotor failure and/or
The FAA concurs with the commenters' recommendations to revise proposed § 23.910 to make its requirements only applicable to likely failures and to permit minimization of certain hazards, which could prevent continued safe flight and landing. The FAA notes the inclusion of the term “likely” in the requirement for the applicant to address hazards resulting from failures is intended to place reasonable and prudent bounds on the scope of analysis necessary to meet the requirement and not to require consideration of all possible failures, however remote. The scope of this analysis will be set forth in accepted means of compliance for this regulation.
In response to commenters' concerns that the term “minimize”, or the philosophy encompassed by the use of the term, will be included in the rule, the FAA notes that the term “minimize” has been included in § 23.2410(a) to permit the applicant to address those hazards, which may prevent continued safe flight and landing of an airplane, that cannot reasonably be eliminated. The FAA will consider incorporation by an applicant of all practical design precautions, which minimize hazards to the airplane, associated with a particular failure acceptable in complying with this regulation. The FAA has historically accepted this compliance approach when a minimization of hazards has been required. This approach provides a simple means to continuously improve airplane safety as new technologies and design approaches evolve. It also permits acceptance of existing designs that cannot reasonably eliminate hazards resulting from certain failures, even if accepted design precautions have been incorporated into the airplane's design. Such failures could include rotor non-containment, engine case burn-through, and engine failures on single-engine airplane. This change specifically addresses a concern expressed by all commenters that the proposed regulation would make it impossible for an applicant to show compliance with the regulation for many existing airplane designs. Additionally, the rule will continue to permit the use of simple parts, such as fuel lines and control cables, in airplane designs. The FAA has traditionally considered their use acceptable without requiring redundancy where it is neither practical nor likely that a failure of the component would occur. The FAA's revisions to the proposed regulation account for the normal use of these types of simple components.
In response to the commenter who noted the term “continued safe flight and landing” in proposed § 23.910(a) appears to be based on former § 23.903(c), which only applied to multi-engine airplanes, the FAA agrees that proposed § 23.910(a) does not properly address certain failures on single-engine airplanes. The FAA believes the revisions discussed above addresses the individual's concerns.
Textron also recommended the FAA withdraw proposed § 23.910, as its subject area overlaps with proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510).
The FAA revises proposed § 23.910 to clarify that any failure resulting in the loss of a single powerplant on an airplane with multiple powerplants cannot result in the failure of other powerplants unless those failures cannot be reasonably eliminated, in which case the hazards must be minimized. So, while § 23.2510 does apply to all powerplant systems, the FAA notes § 23.2410 includes an exception to the general requirement of § 23.2510 to account for certain powerplant failures that may prevent continued safe flight and landing or for which use of a traditional system safety compliance approach may not be appropriate. Examples of such failures include engine rotor non-containment and fire. Therefore, the FAA does not adopt Textron's recommendation to withdraw proposed § 23.910.
Garmin commented that proposed § 23.910(b) seemed highly subjective and recommended eliminating paragraph (b).
The FAA notes § 23.2410(b) requires consideration of failures affecting passenger safety such as a fan disconnect on fuselage embedded engines or exhaust heat exchanger failures that may allow hazardous fumes to enter the occupant compartment. The FAA finds withdrawing paragraph (b) would eliminate the requirement for an applicant to assess potential causes of serious injury to airplane occupants. Additionally, it serves as the underlying requirement for the development of a more-detailed means of compliance. Therefore, the FAA adopts the language in § 23.2410(b) as proposed.
ANAC observed that there is no requirement in proposed § 23.910 to ensure powerplant-driven components, necessary for airplane operation, are suitable for installation in airplanes certificated under part 23, and the powerplant installation requirement in proposed § 23.900 (now § 23.2400) is related only to components that affect propulsion safety. ANAC noted the rule does not capture the design precautions established in the former §§ 23.933 and 23.1155. The commenter also asserted that while proposed § 23.910 addresses hazard mitigation in the event of powerplant systems failure, compliance with proposed § 23.910 for turbine engines would be directly related to protection against inadvertent thrust reverser deployment.
The FAA notes ANAC's concerns; however, as discussed in the preamble for § 23.2400, the FAA has added paragraph (e) to § 23.2400 to address powerplant component installation. Additionally, the FAA addresses the design precautions of former §§ 23.933 and 23.1155, which provided reversing system requirements for turbojets, turbofans, and propellers, in the performance-based requirements contained in § 23.2420, “Reversing systems” (proposed as § 23.920).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.915 (now § 23.2405) would have required a power or thrust augmentation system that automatically controls the power or thrust on the operating powerplant to provide an indication to the flightcrew when the system is operating, provide a means for the pilot to deactivate the automatic functions, and prevent inadvertent deactivation.
Textron commented the requirements of proposed § 23.915 could easily be addressed by revising proposed § 23.900 to state that state an automatic power reserve (APR) system that automatically advances the power or thrust on the operating engine(s), when any engine fails during takeoff, must comply with the applicable requirements of the subpart. Textron noted that this language is included in Appendix E of the Part 23 ARC Report. Also, Textron recommended deleting the prescriptive requirement in proposed § 23.915(a) for the system to provide an indication that it is operating, stating that such a requirement and other high level requirements are redundant.
The FAA finds the adoption of the proposed Part 23 ARC language, as recommended by Textron, would limit the scope of this rule to existing APR type systems. The FAA also finds the intent of the ARC language is better captured in this rule, which can apply to a wider range of potential future automatic power or thrust control systems. The FAA partially agrees with the commenter's request to remove the requirement for annunciation from proposed § 23.915(a). Although the proposal did not specifically state there must be an annunciation of the system's status, it did require the system to provide an indication of the status. The proposal has been revised to require a means to indicate the system is in an operating condition. The FAA finds this revision will provide applicants with more flexibility in designing a system to provide the flightcrew with information regarding the operational status of this critical safety system.
ANAC stated the proposed requirements of this section are too prescriptive and the requirements of proposed §§ 23.1310, 23.1500, and 23.910, which address system reliability, status monitoring, flightcrew interface, and warning indications, provide equivalent requirements that eliminate the need for a specific regulation to address APR systems.
The FAA does not find the provisions of proposed § 23.915 are adequately addressed by the requirements in proposed § 23.900. The requirements in § 23.2405 (proposed § 23.915) provide additional specific requirements the FAA considers necessary for the certification of APR systems in airplanes. The FAA does not find the requirements of § 23.2400 (proposed § 23.900) alone would adequately address the requirements necessary for approval of an automatic power control system. The specific requirements in the rule for the system to provide indication to the flightcrew that it is operating are necessary given the critical nature of both existing and future APR systems that may vary thrust or power to provide airplane control during the failure of an engine. In response to ANAC's comment that § 23.915 could be replaced with a more general rule covering system reliability, crew interface, monitoring, and warning, the FAA finds attempting to address too many systems under a general system safety requirement may result in the excessive application of non-standard performance requirements across the industry. Accordingly, for systems where basic performance requirements can be established, without requiring specific knowledge of the system's design, those requirements will be contained in a specific rule. This concept is further discussed under § 23.2420.
EASA suggested the FAA address auto power control systems and reverser systems (proposed §§ 23.915 and 23.920) in a single requirement that would address other systems such as those that use asymmetric thrust to provide directional control. EASA recommended changing the title of the proposed section to “Propulsion Augmentation Systems” to ensure systems that augment propulsion in any direction (drag, thrust, direction, lift) are addressed.
The FAA notes the basic performance requirements for automatic power control systems are different from those required for reverser systems. Additionally, the FAA also notes adopting the term “augmentation” implies that only a system's use of additional thrust or power would be addressed, whereas systems are envisioned that may also reduce power on an operating propulsion system or use aerodynamic means to respond to power or thrust abnormalities. The FAA considers an automatic power or thrust control system to be a system that automatically intervenes and provides direct or modified control to each engine, leaving the pilot indirectly in control or possibly not in control for an automatic recovery type function. Reversing systems simply change the direction of thrust or power at the direct control of the pilot. As these systems are significantly different, the FAA has determined it is necessary to retain a specific section for both automatic power or thrust control systems and reversing systems.
The FAA reviewed the draft language of CS 23.2405, Propulsion augmentation systems, and found it directly applicable to automatic power or thrust control systems. Its provisions also address many of the commenters' concerns, especially with respect to the certification of airplanes with advanced automatic control systems. This language is consistent with, but less prescriptive than, the requirements of former appendix H to part 23. Accordingly, the FAA revises proposed § 23.915 by adopting the language from CS 23.2405(b) through (e) in § 23.2405(a) through (d).
Textron noted it was unclear if the proposed rule was attempting to address “auto throttle” applications exclusively.
The FAA did not intend proposed § 23.915 to address autothrottle or autothrust systems unless the system has the capability to command a change to power or thrust that is not directly commanded by movement of the primary power setting control. Such a system might vary power on multiple powerplants to maintain level flight or add thrust beyond that commanded by the throttle when an engine failure is detected.
Garmin and the Associations suggested eliminating proposed § 23.915(b). Garmin stated that emerging technology may include systems that have sufficient design integrity and provide enough safety benefit that permitting deactivation as required by proposed § 23.915(b) could have the unintended effect of reducing safety. The Associations noted in the event the automatic power control systems of less reliability are used, compliance with proposed § 23.910 should result in designs that achieve the risk mitigations intended by the requirements of proposed § 23.915(b).
The FAA agrees that requiring a means for a pilot to deactivate the automatic function may have an adverse effect on safety. The FAA also agrees emerging technology may result in the development of a system with sufficient integrity the flightcrew does not directly control the thrust of each engine, but rather the power control system takes commands from the flightcrew and automatically controls each engine to execute that command, in both normal conditions and in the event of a failure of an engine. Accordingly, the FAA revises the rule to account for the possibility of a broader range of automatic power or thrust control systems and has removed the requirement for pilot deactivation of the automatic function of these systems where a system failure is shown to be extremely remote. The type of system that would have this level of authority is envisioned to be similar to an automated flight control or fly-by-wire system, and an applicant would be expected to show the system has sufficient design integrity to meet this standard. To provide applicants with greater design flexibility, the FAA also revises the proposal to require the flightcrew to be able to override, rather than deactivate systems with lower design integrity. It is intended this requirement will apply to those systems whose failure can be reasonably detected by the flightcrew and for which overriding the automatic function would not have an adverse effect on safety. Such a situation typically exists with traditional automatic power reserve systems.
ANAC suggested the requirement to maintain the maximum thrust/power increment limit be specifically retained in the regulation and not serve as a possible means of compliance. ANAC
The FAA notes any automatic power or thrust control system will be required to meet all applicable regulations including § 23.2415, which requires that failures that would prevent continued safe flight not result from a single failure or from a likely combination of failures. In addition, the FAA notes that takeoff performance is determined considering a critical loss of thrust. Although the 10 percent value referred to by ANAC may be considered an arbitrary limit on the additional thrust that can be provided by an APR system, the FAA considers it unlikely an APR design would be proposed that reserves a significant amount of thrust for use only in the event of an engine failure during takeoff. Yet given the broader scope of this rule, limiting automatic power control thrust to 10 percent may not realistically permit system designs intended to augment lift, control, or stability through the propulsion system. Therefore, the FAA has decided not to include the 10 percent limit in the rule.
Kestrel questioned whether the proposed section would permit alternate automatic power control systems (such as those without thrust lever drivers) that could meet the intent of proposed § 23.1500 (now § 23.2600) without an ELOS finding or an issue paper. Kestrel noted former § 23.779 requires commanded engine thrust and actual engine thrust agree, which the commenter said has historically been accomplished by the thrust levers being mechanically driven to the actual engine thrust position.
The FAA notes that § 23.2600 does not specifically require a throttle lever, only powerplant controls. Therefore, if a design were proposed that allowed a qualified flightcrew member to perform all tasks associated with the intended powerplant control functions, an ELOS finding would not likely be required to obtain approval of that automatic power control system.
NJASAP supported the language of proposed § 23.915 and noted automatic power control system technology will be available to more airplanes in lower certification categories in the not-too-distant future.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.920 (now § 23.2420) would have required an airplane to be capable of continued safe flight and landing under any available reversing system setting.
Textron stated the proposed language is too “high-level” and does not provide adequate performance-based requirements for an applicant to show compliance with the rule. Textron also stated the rule was “a bit severe” and noted the rule could be interpreted to mean that a single- or multiengine turboprop may now need a reverser lock out system for flight. Textron also claimed the flight testing required to demonstrate compliance with the proposed requirement may be complicated and dangerous. To address its concerns, Textron recommended using the language from CS 23.505.
Air Tractor commented that it seems impossible to expect an airplane to be capable of safe flight and landing with application of full reverse thrust. Air Tractor suggested the proposed language expected the airplane to “know” the difference between a pilot command for reverse thrust when the airplane is on the ground versus when it is in air, and to overrule the pilot command if the airplane is still flying. Air Tractor observed that while this might be an easy control issue when combined with a squat switch, many airplanes with spring steel fixed landing gear do not have squat switches. Air Tractor also noted that it has not been a safety issue to have reverse thrust capability on certain types of single-engine turboprop airplanes, all of which employ multiple means to prevent inadvertent selection of the reverse range and warn when that range is selected.
The Associations noted the proposed rule could be misconstrued to indicate the FAA will no longer permit throttle gates, which are traditionally used on turboprop designs. The commenters contended this would necessitate the development of weight on wheels lockouts and other complex designs that were not required by the former rule, and for which there is no measurable safety data to indicate this was an area of safety concern. The commenters recommended revising the rule to state the airplane must be capable of safe flight and landing under any “easily selectable” reversing system setting, rather than “any available” reversing system setting.
ICON asked for clarification as to whether proposed § 23.920 was intended to mean that if a reversible pitch setting exists on a propeller, an airplane must be able to continue flight even with selection of full reverse pitch. ICON also believed the proposed rule could be interpreted to require a demonstration of safe flight and landing at full reverse power.
The FAA notes that numerous commenters expressed concern with the proposed requirement that the airplane must be capable of continued safe flight and landing under any available reversing system setting. The FAA recognizes this language did not account for many airplane designs that do not incorporate a system that detects when the airplane is on the ground, which can be used to lockout or prevent manual inflight reversal. Additionally, the FAA recognizes the proposed rule did not provide a basic performance requirement to ensure safe operation of the reverser system under normal operating conditions, and the airplane is capable of continued safe flight and landing after failures of the reversing system.
As explained in the NPRM, proposed § 23.920 (now § 23.2420) was intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.933(a) and (b). Therefore, given the variety of the commenters' concerns, the FAA revises proposed § 23.920 based on former § 23.933 to address the comments. The FAA intends § 23.2420 to address the requirements for propeller, turbojet, and turbofan reversing systems specified in former § 23.933. Section 23.2420 now requires each reversing system to be designed so that the airplane is capable of continued safe flight and landing after any single failure, likely combination of failures, or malfunction of the reversing system. This rule accounts for existing reversing system designs that use a mechanical throttle gate to prevent inadvertent in-flight reversing system operation that could result in an unsafe condition. For turbofan or turbojet engine reversing systems intended for ground use only, the FAA notes that a reverser lock out system for flight is not specifically required by the rule. However, the FAA expects that in the event of an inflight reverser deployment, the engine will revert to idle thrust, and the reverser can be restowed as required by former § 23.933(a)(1). The FAA also notes that § 23.2420 should result in the inclusion of these features in airplane designs, as the FAA finds they are currently the only likely means to prevent the occurrence of an unsafe condition and permit continued safe flight and landing after a failure resulting in a reverser deployment in flight. In addition to basing the revisions to the proposed rule on former § 23.933(a)(1) and (b) for ground use only reversing systems, the
Regarding Textron's recommendation that the FAA adopt requirements for reversing systems proposed by EASA in CS 23.505, proposed CS 23.505 combines requirements for reverser systems, thrust augmentation systems, and automatic power controls in a single regulation. For the reasons discussed in responding to this comment in the context of § 23.2405, the FAA determines the requirements for a reversing system should remain separate from those for thrust augmentation or automatic power or thrust control systems (referred to as automatic power reserve systems in former regulations), and that the basic performance requirements for these systems are significantly different.
Additionally, § 23.2405, “Automatic power or thrust control systems,” applies to future systems that may automatically adjust thrust to manage airplane control and stability. Such a system might operate upon a single command from the flightcrew and automatically manage multiple powerplants to perform a requested action. For this type of system, in-flight reversing of a particular propulsion unit may occur (as commanded by a flight management system) even though the flightcrew may not have specifically requested application of reverse thrust. For certification of this type of system as part of an airplane's design, the FAA envisions the requirements of both §§ 23.2420 and 23.2405 will apply.
Both Embraer and Garmin expressed concern the proposed requirement would not permit the use of a system safety approach for a reverser system under certain conditions that may prevent continued safe flight and landing, as long as those conditions are shown to be extremely improbable. Embraer recommended replacing the phrase “under any available reversing system setting” in proposed § 23.920 with the phrase “at normal operating conditions and the failures not shown to be extremely improbable.” Garmin recommended revising the proposed rule to permit the use of a safety analysis to demonstrate that certain conditions, which would potentially prevent safe flight and landing, are extremely improbable.
In response to Garmin's and Embraer's concern, the FAA notes that § 23.2420, as revised, permits the use of a system safety approach for certification of an airplane with a reverser system.
NJASAP believed a thrust reverser must have an override or the ability to emergency stow in the unlikely event of inflight deployment.
The FAA notes NJASAP's recommendation to reintroduce the requirement to stow reversers after inadvertent deployment; however, specifically requiring a system to have the capability to restow a reverser in-flight may limit or prevent the certification of certain acceptable reversing system designs. As noted in Garmin's comment, for a reverser system that cannot be shown to result in safe flight and landing of the airplane after an in-flight deployment, an applicant may include a robust control and monitoring system in its design that could be shown to make an in-flight deployment extremely improbable and not resulting from any single failures. Including this capability could prevent the system from complying with the requirement that no single failure prevent continued safe flight and landing.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.925 (now § 23.2425) would have required the powerplant to operate at any negative acceleration that may occur during normal and emergency operation within the airplane operating limitations. Proposed § 23.925 would have required the pilot to have the capability to stop and restart the powerplant in flight. Proposed § 23.925 would have also required the airplane to have an independent power source for restarting each powerplant following an in-flight shutdown.
Embraer commented that although the preamble indicated that proposed § 23.925 intended to address the requirements of former § 23.939(a) and (b), proposed § 23.925 did not appear to require evaluation of traditional operational characteristics and did not address the adverse effects evaluation of air inlet distortion, powerplant handling, operating characteristics, and other adverse effects of an installed engine or power unit. Textron and ANAC had similar concerns. Embraer recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.925(a) to require the powerplant handling and operating characteristics to be investigated in flight to determine that no adverse characteristics are present, to a hazardous degree, during normal and emergency operation within the range of operating limitations of the airplane and of the aircraft power unit. Textron also noted the intent of former § 23.939 was to require demonstration of proper operation of the powerplant, as installed. Textron stated it was inappropriate to claim that the tests necessary to meet part 33 requirements will demonstrate proper operation of the powerplant as installed, which the NPRM preamble seemed to imply. Textron also suggested engine vibration requirements be incorporated into § 23.2425.
Additionally, ANAC stated that proposed § 23.910 addressed hazard mitigation in powerplant failure conditions and proposed § 23.900 addressed “likely hazards in operation.” ANAC noted the term “hazards in operation” might be construed to mean external threats to the engine from foreign object ingestion or a crosswind, causing confusion for applicants seeking to meet the proposed requirements and making it difficult to accurately interpret proposed § 23.925. To remedy this concern, ANAC recommended that proposed § 23.925 include a requirement for an applicant to demonstrate the proper functioning of the powerplant in normal operation within the range of operating limits of the power unit.
In light of these comments, the FAA revises proposed § 23.925(a) (now § 23.2425(a)) to require the installed powerplant to operate without any hazardous characteristics during normal and emergency operation within the range of operating limitations for the airplane and the engine. The FAA finds this change from what was proposed indicates that evaluation of all traditional operational characteristics required by former regulations is also required by § 23.2425(a). The FAA has added the term “installed” before “powerplant,” in response to Textron, to clarify that § 23.2425(a) applies to the operation of the powerplant, as installed. The FAA notes if the installation of powerplant components do not remain within established limits, § 23.2400 requires any deviation from the component limitations or installation instructions must be shown to not create a hazard. Additionally, the requirement to evaluate the powerplant installation for vibration and fatigue characteristics is contained in § 23.2400.
Textron also recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.925(a) to require the powerplant to operate at any condition, including negative acceleration. The Associations suggested the FAA remove the term
In response to Textron and the Associations, the FAA has removed the term “negative acceleration” from the regulation because the more general reference to “normal and emergency operation” in the revised language includes “negative acceleration.” Additionally, the FAA notes that § 23.2400(c) requires an applicant to construct and arrange each powerplant installation to account for likely operating conditions and likely hazards in operation. This requirement addresses all components and systems that comprise the powerplant installation, such as the oil and fuel systems, and establishes a requirement for the applicant to address all likely conditions and hazards, which may not be specifically encountered in the approved operating envelope. The original intent of former § 23.943 was to ensure no hazardous condition resulted when a powerplant or APU is exposed to negative accelerations expected in flight. The FAA finds that § 23.2425(a), together with § 23.2400(c), adequately address this need.
The Associations also submitted comments regarding proposed § 23.925(c), which would have required an airplane have an independent power source for restarting the engine after an in-flight shutdown. These commenters contended the FAA's intent in drafting § 23.925(c) was to ensure that engines can be reliably restarted in flight following an in-flight shutdown. However, these commenters noted while an independent power source may be an adequate solution for some designs, there are many designs for which an independent power source would be inappropriate. For example, the Associations stated that electric propulsion systems may include a single power source that manages many cells, which start and stop in flight, but will not have independent sources of power to restart them. As written, the commenters suggested proposed § 23.925(c) could be interpreted to require that a two‐engine airplane needs three batteries for restarting (one main and an independent source for each powerplant). To address these concerns, the commenters recommended the FAA require the airplane to have a “reliable” power source, rather than an “independent” power source.
Textron, Garmin, and an individual commenter had similar concerns regarding proposed § 23.925(c). Garmin recommended either withdrawing proposed § 23.925(c) or clarifying its intent. Textron commented that proposed§ 23.925(c) was “too high level” and did not provide adequate performance-based requirements for an applicant to demonstrate compliance. Textron recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.925(c) based upon language contained in appendix E of the ARC's final report.” The individual commenter noted that proposed § 23.925(c) would appear to require multiengine airplanes to have multiple and possibly duplicate electronic distribution systems for in-flight restarts by battery power. The commenter suspected this was an unintended expansion of the requirements of former §§ 23.903(g) and (or alternatively) § 23.1165. The commenter stated this unintended consequence would impose cost and weight penalties beyond former part 23 requirements, which the commenter maintained were not addressed in the regulatory analysis or the preamble to proposed § 23.925(c), or otherwise justified by service experience. The individual commenter recommended the FAA either withdraw proposed § 23.925(c) or clarify its intent.
In response to the significant number of comments the FAA received regarding the proposed requirement that each airplane have an independent power source for restarting the engine after an in-flight shutdown, the FAA withdraws § 23.925(c). The FAA's intent in drafting proposed § 23.925(c) was to ensure a power source, independent from any power generated by a particular engine shutdown in flight, be available for restarting the powerplant. This requirement was originally adopted as former § 23.903 to address ignition systems on turbine engines and to ensure a source of ignition energy for in-flight engine restarting exists in the event of a loss of combustion in all engines during flight. The requirement in § 23.2425(b), which requires the pilot have the capability to stop the powerplant in flight and restart the powerplant within an established operational envelope, establishes the performance-based requirement the prescriptive requirements of proposed § 23.925(c) were intended to address. The FAA's intent was not to require redundant electrical power; rather, the intent was to require power independent from that of the engine-driven electrical power generating system to be available if insufficient power was available at the minimum windmilling restart speed. If an engine power generating system is capable of providing sufficient power to operate all required systems at the minimum windmilling restart speed, or in a normal shutdown state, an independent power source would not be required.
In recognition that an aircraft engine may not be able to be restarted within an airplane's entire flight envelope, the FAA revises proposed § 23.925(b) (now § 23.2425(b)) to require restart capability within an established operational envelope, which in accordance with § 23.2620 (proposed as § 23.1510), must be documented in the AFM.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.930 (now § 23.2430) would have required that each fuel system provide an independent fuel supply to each powerplant in at least one configuration and avoid ignition from unplanned sources. It would have required that each fuel system provide the fuel required to achieve maximum power or thrust plus a margin for likely variables in all temperature conditions within the operating envelope of the airplane and provide a means to remove the fuel from the airplane. Finally, proposed § 23.930 would have required each fuel system to be capable of retaining fuel when subject to inertia loads under expected operating conditions and prevent hazardous contamination of the fuel supply.
The Associations asserted that proposed § 23.930 does not permit the certification of electric propulsion systems. These commenters recommended the FAA delete the word “fuel” from the title of proposed § 23.930 and adopt the provisions of proposed CS 23.530. Additionally, the commenters suggested replacing “fuel” with “energy” to clarify the requirements of this regulation are applicable to all energy sources and not just traditional petroleum-based fuels.
EASA, while recognizing that the term “fuel” covered other energy sources, stated it believed a more independent set of design requirements would be needed to address all energy systems, rather than those that are more appropriate for propulsion systems and APUs. Additionally, EASA specifically recommended adoption of its set of requirements for energy supply systems, set forth in A-NPA 2015-06, which provided useful requirements for a variety of systems, including fuel, electric, and hybrid systems. EASA also noted that its A-NPA 2015-06 created several new subparagraphs to address particular functions of an energy system.
The FAA did not intend to preclude the certification of electric propulsion systems or other non-fossil-fuel-based propulsion systems in part 23. The FAA
The FAA notes EASA's recommendation to adopt EASA's proposed language to address powerplant support systems to replace its current regulatory requirements for induction and exhaust section systems. The FAA has decided to retain a specific section to address powerplant induction and exhaust systems. The FAA will address future energy systems that incorporate systems such as converters or battery cooling as part of the powerplant installation. The FAA notes the requirements for those future systems will be adequately addressed in §§ 23.2400, 23.2410, and 23.2430.
ANAC stated that proposed § 23.930 does not address the requirements of former § 23.951(d), which required fuel systems for turbine engine airplanes to meet the fuel venting requirements of part 34. ANAC stated the former requirement applied to airplanes and not engines, and should therefore be specifically included in the rule. ANAC also recommended the reference in the former rule to part 34, which prevents intentional fuel venting, be included in the new rule.
The FAA notes part 23 historically provided only a reference to part 34, and those requirements continue to remain applicable to the certification of any airplane. Sections 21.17 and 21.101 require part 34 to be always included in the certification basis of airplanes. Requirements such as fuel venting will therefore continue to apply to the certification of these airplanes.
Textron suggested deleting the term “avoid” and inserting the phrase “prevent hazardous” in proposed § 23.930(a)(2), which addressed the avoidance of ignition from unplanned sources. Textron noted that using the term “prevent” would be consistent with the use of the term in other sections of part 23.
An individual commenter also raised concerns about the undefined term “avoid”, and questioned whether the term was an absolute, probability, or minimize requirement, or whether it covers single or multiple failures. Presuming the proposed requirement covered fuel ignition by lightning strikes addressed in former § 23.954, the commenter requested the proposed rule not be more stringent than the former rule, which imposes an absolute requirement to prevent ignition hazards but only for certain types of strikes and strike locations. The commenter noted the FAA did not discuss the rationale, interpretation, or intent of this requirement in the NPRM preamble. The commenter also noted that the draft ASTM standard was identical to former § 23.954, and remarked that it was unclear why proposed § 23.910 did not address this requirement. The commenter agreed with Textron and recommended inserting the term “hazardous” before “ignition” in paragraph (a)(2) to better clarify the proposed requirement.
Embraer and other commenters raised concerns about use of the term “unplanned sources” in proposed § 23.930(a)(2). Embraer noted there are no “planned” ignition sources, making compliance with the rule impossible. Embraer proposed revising the requirement to account for ignition sources not shown to be extremely improbable, and proposed the rule require that each fuel system be demonstrated that it is designed and arranged to prevent catastrophic ignition from sources not shown to be extremely improbable; taking into account flammability, critical lightning strikes, and failures within the fuel system. Textron noted the NPRM preamble discussion for “unplanned sources” or “unknown sources” was impossible to design for because it was too vague.
The FAA agrees the proposed requirement for unplanned sources was vague and could result in numerous interpretations. Section 23.2430(a)(2) is intended to prevent catastrophic effects resulting from ignition of an airplane's fuel source due to lightning, or from corona or streamering at fuel vent outlets, as former § 23.954 required. It is not intended to impose additional requirements to protect the fuel system from other ignition sources. The FAA revises § 23.2430(a)(2) based upon former § 23.954 to more accurately convey this requirement and to ensure its application to any fuel used to power an airplane. This revision also addresses the commenters' concerns regarding the meaning of “avoid” and “unplanned sources” by using the phrase “prevent ignition” and by enumerating the specific ignition sources that must be addressed.
Embraer also stated the phrase “margin for likely variables” in proposed § 23.930(a)(3) could generate confusion as to what margins must be observed when providing the fuel required to provide maximum power or thrust. The commenter explained that “margin” is usually used to define a rate higher than what is required for an engine's proper operation in the expected envelope and for the expected life of operation, but stated the meaning of the term “likely variables” is not clear. The commenter noted that the former rule considered a determination of the worst fuel rate for proper operation. Embraer suggested using text similar to that found in former § 23.951(a).
The FAA agrees with Embraer's comment that proposed § 23.930(a)(3) could generate confusion as to what margins must be observed when providing the fuel required to provide maximum power or thrust. Therefore, the FAA revises paragraph (a)(3) to require the fuel system provide fuel necessary to ensure proper operation of each powerplant and APU, in all likely operating conditions. This requirement ensures adequate fuel can be provided for proper operation of any powerplant or APU. The FAA notes an applicant's means of compliance with this requirement should consider the worst case conditions for fuel flow, including any additional demand due to expected efficiency losses, consumption by other systems, or secondary requirements such as engine cooling.
Embraer stated that it understood proposed § 23.930(a)(4) required a means to remove fuel and referred to fuel storage. Therefore, Embraer suggested the FAA move the requirement in proposed paragraph (a)(4) to § 23.930(b), which addressed fuel storage systems. Embraer suggested that the cross-reference table be updated
An individual commenter requested the proposed regulations include a requirement for determining or indicating usable or unusable fuel or energy quantities, as was formerly required. This commenter noted that because fuel starvation is “always” cited as one of the top reasons for off-field landings in general aviation accidents, it should be adequately addressed by a specific performance requirement in part 23.
The FAA agrees with the recommendation to add a requirement to the final rule to ensure the flightcrew is provided with information on the total useable fuel available. The FAA adds this requirement as § 23.2430(a)(4), corresponding to the requirement in former § 23.1337(b), which required a means to indicate to the flightcrew members the quantity of usable fuel in each tank. The intent of this revision is to require applicants to both determine the usable quantity of fuel that can be stored and provide information to the flightcrew regarding the remaining useable fuel in the airplane.
The FAA has decided not to move proposed paragraph (a)(4) as Embraer suggested. Since different types of fuel systems could be certificated under the rule, the FAA has added the term “isolate” in § 23.2430(a)(5). The FAA recognizes that certain fuel sources may not be removable from the system, and that isolating the fuel from the system will provide the appropriate minimum level of safety.
Additionally, the FAA clarifies § 23.2430(a)(5) to require the fuel system be designed to retain fuel under all likely operating conditions and minimize hazards to the occupants during any survivable emergency landing. The FAA also includes a requirement in § 23.2430(a)(6) that these failures be taken into account, consistent with former § 23.967. For the certification of level 4 airplanes, the paragraph also provides that any failure due to an overload of the landing system is taken into account in airplanes equivalent to those currently certificated in the commuter category, consistent with former § 23.721.
An individual commenter asked the FAA to revise proposed § 23.930(a)(6), which would require the fuel system prevent hazardous contamination of the fuel supply, to specify that the requirement was intended to prevent hazardous contamination of fuel delivered to engines. The commenter noted this revision was necessary if, as the preamble indicated, this requirement replaces former § 23.997. The proposed requirement could be interpreted to require prevention of contamination of fuel within the fuel tank, which would be more stringent than the former rule and of questionable practicality. The former rules only required removal of contamination from the fuel being provided to the engine, and not necessarily from the fuel in the tank.
The FAA agrees with the commenter and revises § 23.2430 to require removal of hazardous contamination from the fuel supplied to each powerplant and APU. This requirement is now in new § 23.2430(a)(7).
Embraer recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.930(b)(1) to require fuel storage systems to also withstand without failure, the vibration, inertial loads, and pressures under expected operating conditions.
The FAA agrees with Embraer that fuel storage systems must be able to withstand loads and pressures under expected operating conditions without failure and has added the term “without failure” to paragraph (b)(1). However, the FAA does not add specific references to vibration, inertia, fluid, and structural loads as the FAA believes the use of “loads under likely operating conditions” addresses all applicable loads, including those resulting from vibration and other sources.
The FAA revises § 23.2430(b)(2) to require the fuel storage system be isolated from personnel compartments and protected from hazards due to unintended temperature influences. The FAA recognizes that it did not adequately address these requirements in the NPRM. This revision addresses the requirements of former § 23.967(c) and (d), which restricted installation of fuel tanks around engine compartments and firewalls, and required fuel systems to be isolated from personnel compartments. It is also consistent with the provisions of CS 23.2465(b)(2), which requires each energy storage and supply system to be installed in such a way to be protected against hazards due to unintended temperature influence.
Air Tractor requested adding the term “significant” after “prevent” in proposed § 23.930(b)(2). Embraer concurred with this revision because it would allow for small amounts of fuel loss through vent lines, such as when the tanks are full and there is normal “sloshing” during taxi or takeoff, or when fuel expands as it warms. An individual commenter also requested revising proposed § 23.930(b)(2) to specify the fuel storage system must prevent hazardous fuel loss during maneuvers. The commenter believed the proposal would require the prevention of even minor fuel loss from vents, which is more stringent than the former standard. The commenter believed the more stringent standard was of questionable utility and practicality, and noted it was not justified in the preamble.
An individual commenter requested the FAA delete proposed § 23.930(b)(3), which would require each fuel storage system to prevent discharge when transferring fuel, because other proposed regulations would address any potential hazards associated with fuel transfer. The commenter further stated it was unclear if the proposed requirement would apply to fuel returned from the engine to other than the specified tank. This commenter explained that some multiengine airplanes feature fuel-transfer cross feeding, which can result in a fuel discharge if the receiving tank is full. This approach has both advantages and disadvantages, but should not be prohibited by regulation. The commenter also noted this proposal was not justified in the preamble or addressed in the Regulatory Analysis, was more stringent than the former rule, and would require additional hardware or revised architecture for some designs.
The FAA agrees with the recommendation to delete the requirement in proposed paragraph (b)(3) that each fuel storage system prevent discharge when transferring fuel. The FAA recognizes it has approved the design of certain fuel systems under former regulations that may result in a non-hazardous discharge of small amounts fuel when fuel is transferred between fuel tanks or fed from a specific fuel tank and returned to another tank under certain conditions. To ensure the continued acceptability of these systems under the new rule, the FAA has combined proposed paragraph (b)(2) and (b)(3) into paragraph (b)(3) in this final rule. Paragraph (b)(3) now requires the fuel system to be designed to prevent significant loss of stored fuel from any vent system due to fuel transfer between storage or supply systems under likely operating conditions.
One commenter stated the proposed rule did not specifically address the potential of water in the airplane's fuel system, and the commenter proposed it should contain a requirement to include fuel tank water sensors. The commenter noted that water accumulates in fuel tanks in a number of ways, such as when temperature changes or when air enters a tank from which fuel has been consumed.
The FAA notes the specific hazard associated with water in petroleum-based fuels is addressed generally in
Finally, the FAA revises § 23.2430(c) to remove the restrictive language applicable only to pressure refueling systems. The rule now applies to fuel storage refilling and recharging systems. This revision will establish more appropriate requirements to accommodate the introduction of new propulsion systems such as electric motors. Accordingly, the FAA adopts performance-based requirements that will require prevention of improper refilling or recharging, prevention of stored fuel contamination during likely operating conditions, and the prevention of the occurrence of any hazard to the airplane or to persons during refilling or recharging.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.935 (now § 23.2435) would have required the air induction system to supply air needed for each power unit and its accessories under expected operating conditions, and provide a means to discharge potential harmful material.
EASA recommended removal of the design-specific requirements in proposed § 23.935 because those requirements should be addressed as a means of compliance. Textron requested a complete rewrite of proposed § 23.935, stating the section was “too high level” and did not provide adequate performance-based requirements for an applicant to be able to demonstrate compliance. Textron asked the FAA to derive the language for proposed § 23.935 from appendix E of the final Part 23 ARC Report.
The FAA notes EASA's recommendation to remove § 23.935 based on its contention the section appears to be a means of compliance instead of a performance-based requirement. However, the FAA finds the provisions of the rule set forth performance-based requirements for induction and exhaust systems that are appropriate for inclusion in this rule. Rather than stipulating a specific means of compliance, these requirements serve as high-level performance-based requirements for which a number of alternative means of compliance could be developed by applicants.
The FAA partially agrees with Textron's comment that the rule is “too high level.” Accordingly, the FAA revises § 23.2435 based on the requirements for powerplant induction and exhaust systems contained in former §§ 23.1091, 23.1121, 23.1123, 23.1125, and the final Part 23 ARC Report. Section 23.2435 now sets forth performance-based requirements that encompass these prescriptive regulations and the Part 23 ARC's proposed requirements. The FAA notes while it is adding all of the ARC's proposed requirements for exhaust and induction systems in this rule, not all of its recommendations for revisions to this section were appropriate. Some of the ARC's recommendations are more appropriately addressed by other sections of this rule. For example, the ARC's proposed requirement for the system that supplies air to the cabin to prevent hazardous quantities of toxic gas from entering the cabin is addressed by § 23.2400(d) while the engine accessory component cooling requirements are addressed by § 23.2400(e), which requires powerplant components to comply with their limitations and installation instructions, or be shown not to create a hazard.
Embraer requested the FAA revise proposed § 23.935 to clarify the design and induction system must prevent distortion as described in former § 23.939(c). Embraer also recommended the FAA revise the proposal to include a requirement that the air induction system for each power unit and its accessories must not, as a result of airflow distortion during normal operation, cause vibration harmful to the power unit.
The FAA notes that former § 23.939(c) addressed distortion as a cause of vibration and required the air inlet not, as a result of distortion during normal operation, cause vibration harmful to the engine. Embraer's general concerns are addressed by § 23.2435(a)(1), which requires the air induction system for each powerplant or auxiliary power unit and its accessories to supply the air required under likely operating conditions. Embraer's specific concern that the air induction system not cause “vibration harmful to the power unit” is addressed by the powerplant installation requirements contained in § 23.2400(c)(4), which requires the applicant to “construct and arrange each powerplant installation to account for . . . vibration and fatigue,” which occur as a result of distortion.
Air Tractor and ANAC raised concerns about whether proposed § 23.935(b) was intended to address exhaust systems or air induction systems. Air Tractor stated it did not believe the FAA intended proposed § 23.935(b) to mandate the use of an inertial bypass particle separator (as proposed § 23.935(b) could have been interpreted to require), and recommended the FAA clarify proposed § 23.935(b) to indicate the requirement applies only to exhaust systems. ANAC commented that proposed § 23.935(b) should require the exhaust system to ensure safe disposal of exhaust gases, as the former rule required.
The FAA agrees with Air Tractor and ANAC's concern that proposed § 23.935(b) is unclear because it only appears to discuss induction systems (whereas the title of proposed § 23.935 includes exhaust systems). Accordingly, the FAA has modified § 23.2435 to clearly indicate the requirements of paragraph (a) apply to induction systems and the requirements of paragraph (b) apply to exhaust systems. This makes it clear the rule does not require use of an inertial bypass particle separator as a means for the induction system to discharge potential harmful material.
If a complete rewrite of proposed § 23.935 is not adopted, Textron requested clarification as to whether the proposed requirements were intended to address the cooling air requirements for powerplant accessories in former §§ 23.1041 through 23.1047, and the intent of former § 23.1091. If proposed § 23.935 was intended to match the provisions of former § 23.1091, Textron commented that the proposed section was adequate. However, if proposed § 23.2435 was intended to address §§ 23.1091 and 23.1041 through 23.1047, Textron asked for clarification of the proposed section's requirements. Textron also specifically recommended revising the regulatory text to clarify the intent of the proposed requirements were “to ensure proper operation within established limitations” of the air induction system for each power unit and its accessories.
The FAA notes the engine cooling requirements are not specifically addressed in § 23.2435, other than in a requirement that the induction system be designed to supply the air required by each powerplant or auxiliary power unit and its accessories under likely operating conditions. However, the powerplant cooling requirements are addressed more directly by § 23.2400(e), which requires powerplant components to comply with their limitations and installation instructions, or be shown not to create a hazard. This requirement
Additionally, the FAA revises proposed § 23.2435(b) to specifically indicate exhaust systems include exhaust heat exchangers for each powerplant or APU. Specifically referencing these systems as part of the airplane exhaust system continues the FAA's practice of applying exhaust system requirements to exhaust heat exchangers. The FAA also revises requirements for exhaust systems by adding paragraph (b)(2) to ensure these systems are designed to prevent likely hazards from heat, corrosion, or blockage. These requirements address the specific requirements of former § 23.1121(a) and (h) and § 23.1123(a).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.940 (now § 23.2415) would have required the airplane design to prevent foreseeable accumulation of ice or snow that would adversely affect powerplant operation. Proposed § 23.940 would have also required the powerplant design to prevent any accumulation of ice or snow that would adversely affect powerplant operation, in those icing conditions for which certification is requested.
Textron recommended withdrawing proposed § 23. 940, as it believed the requirement to protect engines could be adequately addressed in proposed § 23.910 by including language that would ensure safe powerplant operation under all likely operating conditions or enable satisfactory powerplant functioning in icing conditions. Alternatively, Textron proposed consolidating the requirements of proposed § 23.940 by removing paragraph (b) and revising paragraph (a) to require the airplane design prevent “any accumulation”—rather than “foreseeable accumulation”—of ice or snow that adversely affects powerplant operation in those icing conditions for which certification is requested.
The FAA does not agrees that eliminating proposed § 23.940 (now § 23.2415) and adding a requirement to proposed § 23.910 (now § 23.2410) would result in designs that would prevent the accumulation of ice or snow that could adversely affect powerplant operations. Including Textron's proposed regulatory language in § 23.2410 as part of the powerplant installation hazard assessment could permit designs that only address ice accretion as part of a powerplant installation assessment, and not airframe ice accretion that may pose an ice shed hazard. Additionally, Textron's proposal could be interpreted to only require the powerplant's performance be evaluated for the environmental icing conditions for which certification is requested, and not for other conditions that may be conducive to ice accretion in reciprocating engine induction systems. In contrast, the FAA finds § 23.2415 establishes specific requirements that will apply to all airplane designs, to include those for which certification in icing conditions was not requested, and adds requirements that will apply to powerplant designs for airplanes intended for certification for flight in icing conditions.
The FAA also finds Textron's recommendation to revise proposed § 23.940(a) and withdraw paragraph (b) would specifically eliminate the applicability of the requirement to the powerplant design. By only setting forth a requirement for the airplane design and not the powerplant design, Textron's proposed revision would neither ensure an independent assessment of the adequacy of the engine design for icing conditions, nor require an evaluation of the engine's tolerance for ice ingestion. Additionally, it would not apply to propellers, which are considered powerplant components. The FAA's intent in paragraph (b) is to require an applicant to assess the adequacy of the engine's certification basis for installation in an airplane, the engine's service history of ice ingestion, and propeller design.
The FAA expects that an acceptable means of compliance would specify an evaluation of the engine's tolerance for ice ingestion that would not be limited to the conditions specified in part 25, appendix C, and that such an evaluation would show that it meets, or exceeds, those standards prescribed in former § 23.903(a)(2).
Textron also commented that proposed § 23.940 does not address ice accretion that could affect the performance of cooling air inlets for the engine and its accessories.
In light of Textron's comment, the FAA is adding the term “installation” to proposed § 23.940(b) to clarify the regulation, like former § 23.929, applies to “other components of complete engine installations,” which include cooling air inlets. Accordingly, § 23.2415(b) now requires the “powerplant installation design” to prevent any accumulation of ice or snow that adversely affects powerplant operation, in those icing conditions for which certification is requested. This change from what was proposed is consistent with the NPRM, which explained that powerplant design in proposed § 23.940(b) refers to the engine, propeller, and other powerplant components such as cooling inlets.
Additionally, the FAA is inserting the phrase “including the induction and inlet system” after “airplane design” to clarify that § 23.2415(a) is intended to address the engine induction ice protection requirements found in former part 23. This change from what was proposed is consistent with the NPRM, which explained that the airplane design in proposed § 23.940(a) refers to the engine induction system and airframe components on which accumulated ice may shed into the powerplant. The FAA also reiterates that paragraph (a) applies to all airplanes regardless of whether certification for flight in icing conditions is sought, and requires applicants to address ice accretion anywhere on the airplane that may pose a threat to the powerplant if that ice is shed. “Foreseeable” accumulation of ice and snow, rather than “any” accumulation as recommended by Textron, is used in paragraph (a). The icing and snow conditions to be evaluated are not simply the icing conditions for which the airplane is to be certified, as in paragraph (b). For example, on non-icing certified airplanes, conditions to be evaluated range from carburetor icing on reciprocating powered airplanes to part 25, Appendix C icing on turbine powered airplanes.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1000 (now § 23.2440) would have required a powerplant be installed in a designated fire zone and would have required an applicant to install a fire detection system in each designated fire zone for levels 3 and 4 airplanes. Proposed § 23.1000 would have also required an applicant to install a fire extinguishing system for levels 2, 3, and 4 airplanes with a powerplant located outside the pilot's view that uses combustible fuel.
Additionally, proposed § 23.1000 would have required each component, line, and fitting carrying flammable fluids, gases, or air subject to fire conditions to be fire resistant, except components storing concentrated flammable material would have to be fireproof or enclosed by a fireproof shield. Proposed § 23.1000 would have also required an applicant to provide a means to shut off fuel or flammable material for each powerplant, while not restricting fuel to remaining units, and prevent inadvertent operation.
EASA noted the proposed regulation contained too many design details,
Although the FAA concedes that some of the proposed requirements are prescriptive in nature, the FAA has determined that inclusion of these requirements for fire protection are critical to safety and should be retained to prevent any potential degradation of safety. Fire, while not a common occurrence, greatly reduces the likelihood of survival when occurring in flight. Detection, isolation, and extinguishing have historically provided an acceptable means for mitigating hazards from powerplant-related fires. Accordingly, the final rule retains what the FAA considers to be sufficient prescriptive requirements to ensure the existing level of fire protection. In response to EASA's comment, as discussed in more detail later, the FAA has added a requirement in § 23.2440(b), requiring each designated fire zone provide a means to isolate and mitigate hazards to the airplane in the event of a powerplant system fire or overheat.
Zee questioned whether the requirement in proposed § 23.1000(a) for all powerplants to be installed in a designated fire zone is appropriate. The commenter noted electric propulsion systems can be designed and installed with no flammable liquids or materials, thus eliminating the need for fire protection. Zee requested the FAA revise proposed paragraph (a) to indicate installation in a fire zone is not required if not applicable. The Associations also recognized the same issue and proposed revising the requirement to only apply to flammable powerplant components. Embraer recommended the FAA delete proposed § 23.1000(a).
ANAC observed that the intent to define “designated fire zones” in the proposal is to identify areas of the airplane in which a high degree of safety precautions must be taken, recognizing that fire will occur in these regions because of the presence of both ignition sources and flammable fluid. ANAC contended proposed § 23.1000 could be interpreted as the region where a powerplant is to be installed must first be evaluated for ignition sources and flammable fluids. ANAC noted the proposed requirement could also be interpreted as the powerplant can only be installed in regions that already contain ignition sources and flammable fluids. Embraer contended that former § 23.1181 defined the “hot” parts of an engine installation as ignition sources, and considering that there are fuel, oil, and hydraulic fluids being carried around such areas, they should be considered fire zones. Thus the term “designated” would apply, obviating further analysis.
The FAA has considered the comments regarding the requirement to install all powerplants in proposed § 23.1000(a) (now § 23.2440(a)) in a designated fire zone. The FAA notes that while virtually every kind of powerplant (to include electric motors) may present a potential fire hazard, some types of powerplants may not present a likely fire hazard or require installation in a designated fire zone. Accordingly, the FAA revises § 23.2440(a) to require a powerplant be installed in a designated fire zone only if it includes a flammable fluid and an ignition source for that fluid. The term “flammable fluid” includes any flammable substance such as liquids, gases, or gels that are capable of flowing. This change is intended to alleviate the need to install powerplants that do not present a likely fire hazard in a designated fire zone. The FAA also adds the term “combustion heater” to § 23.2440(a), which are required to be located in designated fire zones under former § 23.1181. The devices were inadvertently omitted from consideration under the fire and high-energy protection requirements of proposed subpart D.
ANAC noted the NPRM preamble discussion indicated that fire must be evaluated in the powerplant installation hazard assessment required under proposed § 23.910. ANAC expressed concern the dedicated requirement for powerplant fire protection in proposed § 23.1000 could be interpreted to require evaluation of fire hazards beyond the scope of proposed § 23.910. ANAC recommended the FAA include a requirement for a firewall that ensures a fire originating in any fire zone will not be a hazard to the airplane.
The FAA did not intend to require the use of a hazard assessment process in proposed § 23.1000 (now § 23.2440). The FAA notes the purpose of the firewall discussion in proposed § 23.1000 is to determine if a particular component or system would need to be placed in a designated fire zone. If a component is required to be located in a fire zone by a rule other than § 23.2410, such as § 23.2440(a), that requirement must be complied with regardless of the results of any hazard assessment. The FAA revises § 23.2440(a) to require that a powerplant, APU or combustion heater, that includes a flammable fluid and an ignition source for that fluid, be installed in a designated fire zone. In response to ANAC's recommendation to add a requirement for a firewall that ensures a fire originating in any fire zone will not be a hazard to the airplane, the FAA notes § 23.2440(b) requires each designated fire zone provide a means to isolate and mitigate hazards to the airplane in the event of a powerplant system fire or overheat. Isolation of a designated fire zone is typically accomplished by use of a firewall or other equivalent means.
An individual commenter raised concerns that proposed § 23.1000(b) fails to address critical fire protection requirements and only requires components carrying flammable liquid to be fire resistant. Specifically, the commenter noted that former § 23.1141(f) required powerplant controls required to operate in the event of a fire to be fire resistant, former § 23.1189 required shutoff valves to be outside the fire zone, former § 23.1203 required certain fire detector components to be fire resistant, and former § 23.1201 required fire extinguisher components in the fire zone to be fireproof. To resolve this, the commenter recommended implementation of basic system performance requirements for fire protection, preserving the former fire protection standards, but not compromising future designs. Another commenter noted the proposed rule did not capture some of the specific fire protection requirements for items such as powerplant controls, shutoff valves, fire detectors and extinguishers.
The FAA agrees the proposed language was not sufficiently comprehensive to establish clear requirements necessary for the prevention of hazards resulting from fire. The FAA revises proposed § 23.1000(b) and renumbers it as § 23.2440(c) to ensure adequate fire protection is maintained for those noted components, along with any other components determined critical to safety. The FAA adds paragraph (c)(1) to ensure the design of components and the placement within the airplane not only prevent fire hazards but also account for the effects of fire in adjacent fire zones. This requirement addresses the requirements in former § 23.1183(a) to ensure flammable fluid-carrying components be shielded, or located to safeguard against the ignition of flammable fluid. These requirements are also consistent with the provisions of former § 23.1182.
Embraer recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.1000(c) to allow for the flow of quantities of fuel that are
The FAA agrees with Embraer's comment that small amounts of fuel may still enter a powerplant after a shutoff means has been activated. The FAA revises paragraph (c) and paragraph (d) to require that the applicant provide a means to prevent hazardous quantities of flammable fluid from flowing into the designated fire zone. Accordingly, this revision will permit the flow of small amounts of residual flammable fluid if it is shown not to present a hazard, after activation of any shutoff means.
With respect to Textron's comment, the FAA finds the requirements for a means to shut off fuel or flammable material for each powerplant necessary. The FAA has determined § 23.2410 does not adequately address this requirement because § 23.2410 sets forth the requirements for a powerplant hazard assessment in which an applicant could feasibly conclude that a means to shut off fuel flow for each powerplant would not be necessary to comply with the stated requirement. At this time, the FAA does not intend to permit the certification of airplanes without a means to shut off fuel to their powerplants.
The FAA also considered Textron's recommendation to revise proposed § 23.1000 to conform to CS 23.510(e) or the Part 23 ARC's proposed § 23.906(i). The FAA finds the hazard minimization requirements contained in these provisions do not specifically preclude the certification of an airplane without a means to shut off fuel flow to each powerplant, a requirement the FAA considers essential for hazard mitigation. Accordingly the FAA does not adopt that recommendation, and considers such action to be outside the scope of this rulemaking effort.
Textron recommended the FAA revise the introductory text of proposed paragraph (c) to require the applicant to provide a means to shut off both fuel and flammable material for each powerplant. Textron recommended changing “or” to “and”; otherwise, the language would suggest there is no requirement to shut off other flammable fluid flow. Textron also requested the FAA to clarify that the applicant must only demonstrate that the means of shut off, and not each powerplant, meets the requirements of proposed paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2).
The FAA agrees with Textron's concern that proposed § 23.1000 could be interpreted to require shutoff of either fuel or flammable material, which could permit a design that does not shutoff all flammable materials to the fire zone. Therefore, the FAA removes the term “fuel” from the requirement. Section 23.2440(d) now requires prevention of all hazardous quantities of flammable fluid from entering a fire zone. This is consistent with former § 23.1189(a)(1). During review of the existing shutoff requirements, the FAA also determined a critical flammable fluid shutoff valve fire performance requirement was not included in the proposed rule. Therefore, the requirement of former § 23.1189(a)(4) is included in the final rule as § 23.2440(d)(3).
The FAA notes that proposed § 23.1000(d) included a qualifier that required only powerplants that use a combustible fuel to have a fire extinguishing system. Based on the commenter's concerns, the FAA removes this specific requirement and revises § 23.2440(a) to require any powerplant or APU that includes a flammable fluid source and an ignition source for that fluid be located in a fire zone. This regulatory approach is consistent with former requirements for designated fire zones that contain a flammable fuel and an ignition source where any leakage of flammable fluid would likely result in a fire. Concerns relating to possible electrical engine fires are noted, but not considered likely such that they would require installation in a designated fire zone. Electric motors are commonly used on airplanes, although not for propulsion, and have not required the protection of a designated fire zone.
Additionally, the FAA adds paragraph (d)(3) to the final rule. The revision requires the applicant to provide a means to prevent hazardous quantities of flammable fluids from flowing into, within, or through each designated fire zone located outside the fire zone unless an equal degree of safety is provided with a means inside the fire zone. This revision is based on the provisions of former § 23.1189(a)(4) and intends to ensure the specific requirements of that section are met by an applicant.
Textron also reiterated the concept that fire protection actually applied to all systems and recommended removing proposed § 23.1000(c)(2) and broadening its applicability to all systems by placing the requirement in proposed § 23.1305.
While the FAA understands Textron's comment that fire protection applies to all systems, the FAA notes the fire protection for areas outside of fire zones are addressed by § 23.2325 of the final rule. The requirements for fire protection in fire zones are more extensive than those for other areas of the airplane. The FAA requires designated fire zones, and their corresponding extensive fire protection requirements, for those areas where both nominal ignition sources and flammable fluids must be co-located such that a single failure is likely to result in a fire. Zones of the airplane that are outside a fire zone should not contain both nominal ignition sources and flammable fluids. Because there is a lower likelihood of fire in these areas, they have correspondingly less extensive requirements.
Textron also recommended revising proposed § 23.1000(d) because it believed the proposal would limit the applicability of the requirement for a fire extinguishing system to those powerplants “outside the pilot's view” and those powerplants that use “combustible fuels.” The commenter believed the intent of the proposal was not clear, and recommended the FAA consider the need for extinguishing systems in hybrid electric configurations where fire extinguishing systems may be needed to address an electrical fire. Textron also did not believe the rule's requirement should be limited to level 3 and 4 airplanes. Textron recommended the FAA retain the provisions of former § 23.1195, which required extinguishing systems for “all airplanes with engine(s) embedded in the fuselage or in pylons on the aft fuselage.” Textron also recommended the FAA incorporate additional provisions from the Part 23 ARC Report, which recommended requiring that fire extinguishing systems be installed in all airplanes with engines embedded in the aft fuselage or in pylons on the aft fuselage, and for an APU, if installed. The systems must not cause a hazard to the rest of the airplane.
Textron asserted that fire detection systems should not be mandatory for all level 3 and 4 airplanes as proposed in § 23.1000(e), but rather should be required based upon the type and location of engines used in the airplane. The commenter recommended using the
An individual commenter also noted that proposed § 23.1000(d) and (e) were inconsistent with the requirements of the former rule and, in some cases, would impose more stringent requirements without providing justification. Specifically, the commenter stated that, as proposed, a level 1 or 2 airplane with the engine located outside the view of the pilot could be required to have a fire extinguisher, but not a fire detector. The commenter also noted a single-engine level 3 or level 4 airplane, such as a Cessna 208 or Pilatus PC-12, was not required to have a fire detection system under the former rule, but would be required to have such a system under the proposed rule. The commenter further noted that the requirements of former § 23.1203 were based on designs determined to be at greater risk for fire (
The FAA agrees with the commenters that proposed § 23.1000(d) and (e) were confusing and inconsistent with former fire extinguishing and detection requirements. The FAA revises those paragraphs, now located in § 23.2440(e) and (f), to be consistent with former requirements by removing the language limiting the applicability of the requirements to only level 3 and level 4 airplanes, and basing the need for a fire extinguishing system on the location of a fire zone instead of on the location of the powerplant. However, the FAA retains the specific requirement for a means to extinguish fires within fire zones on level 4 airplanes, because these airplanes are functionally equivalent to airplanes currently certificated in the commuter category. These changes make § 23.2440(e) and (d) consistent with the requirements of former §§ 23.1195, “Fire extinguishing systems,” and 23.1203, “Fire detector system.”
Finally, Air Tractor also recommended adding “if installed” after “fire detection system” in proposed § 23.1000(f) and (g) to avoid the perception a fire detection system is a requirement.
The FAA notes that, if a particular system is not required and not installed on the airplane, any specific requirements related to that system will not be applicable. Therefore, the FAA does not add the text proposed by Air Tractor to the final rule.
The FAA proposed substantial changes to former subpart F. The thirty-seven former system sections were consolidated into eight sections. An effort was made to maintain the safety intent of the rules while removing the prescriptive nature of these rules which were based on technology available at the time the rule was introduced. This was intended to increase future flexibility to facilitate the installation of systems that enhance safety as new technology becomes available.
EASA recommended the FAA add an additional requirement to proposed subpart F that describes what system and equipment information should be determined. EASA further suggested subpart G cover how this information is displayed.
The FAA finds EASA's recommendation to add a new requirement for system and equipment information unnecessary because this information is already addressed in several requirements, including proposed § 23.1305 (now § 23.2505), Function and installation; proposed § 23.1400 (now § 23.2540), Safety Equipment; proposed § 23.1505 (now § 23.2605), Installation and operation; proposed § 23.1310 (now § 23.2615), Flight, navigation and powerplant instruments; and proposed § 23.1515 (now § 23.1529), Instructions for continued airworthiness. The FAA agrees, however, that subpart G should address how the information is presented.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1300 (now § 23.2500) would have required equipment and systems required for an airplane to operate—
• Safely in the kinds of operations for which certification is requested;
• Be designed and installed to meet the level of safety applicable to the certification and performance levels of the airplane; and
• Perform their intended function throughout the operating and environmental limits specified by an applicant.
Proposed § 23.1300 would have also mandated that non‐required airplane equipment and systems, considered separately and in relation to other systems, be designed and installed so their operation or failure would not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants.
NATCA observed the requirements of proposed § 23.1300 and § 23.1305 (now § 23.2505) appeared similar and requested the FAA combine the two sections.
While the FAA agrees there is some similarity between § 23.2500 and § 23.2505, the requirements of § 23.2500 are at the airplane level and create a distinction between “required” and “non-required” equipment and systems. In contrast, the requirements of § 23.2505 are at the system level and apply to all installed equipment, regardless of whether it is required.
Garmin asked the FAA to clarify whether proposed §§ 23.1300 and 23.1305 are of general applicability and do not supersede other specific part 23 requirements. Garmin noted that CS 23.600(a) includes such clarifying language concerning CS 23.600 and CS 23.605, and that the FAA's decision to omit similar wording from proposed § 23.1300 makes it unclear whether the FAA agrees with EASA in this respect or not.
In light of Garmin's comment, the FAA revises proposed §§ 23.1300 and 23.1305 to clarify the requirements of these sections apply generally to installed equipment and systems. However, the requirements do not apply if another section of part 23 imposes specific requirements on a particular piece of installed equipment or systems. The FAA finds this revision is consistent with the NPRM. The FAA intended proposed §§ 23.1300 and 23.1305 to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1309. Former § 23.1309 was a regulation of general requirements that did not supersede any requirements contained in other part 23 sections. Sections 23.2500 and 23.2505 are harmonized with CS 23.600 and CS 23.605.
Air Tractor stated proposed § 23.1300(a)(l) failed to define a standard for the required level of safety for systems.
The FAA is construing Air Tractor's comment as referring to the qualitative levels of safety for systems, which were previously contained in former § 23.1309(c). These qualitative levels of safety are now contained in § 23.2510 (proposed as § 23.1315), which provides system-level requirements. The FAA notes § 23.2500(a)(1) provides airplane-level requirements, and does not specify the level of safety because the acceptable level of safety varies depending on the certification level of the airplane. Former part 23 is one acceptable means of compliance for the new part 23. Therefore, applicants may use as a means of compliance the levels of safety defined in figure 2 of AC 23.1309-1E,
ANAC commented the phrase “operating and environmental conditions specified by the applicant” in proposed § 23.1300(a)(2) could lead to misinterpretation. ANAC asserted these conditions may not be adequate or achieve the minimum requirements for certification. ANAC suggested using the phrase “conditions for which the airplane is certified.”
The FAA agrees with ANAC and revises the proposed rule language for clarity. Accordingly, § 23.2500(a)(2) now requires the equipment and systems required for an airplane to operate safely, in the kinds of operations for which certification is requested, to be designed and installed to perform their intended function throughout the operating and environmental limits “for which the airplane is certificated.”
Several commenters commented on the use of the phrase “non-required” in proposed § 23.1300(b). EASA stated that the proposed provisions of § 23.1300(a) and (b) raised ambiguity regarding what systems and equipment are “required.” EASA recommended clarifying the distinction between “required” and “non-required” in paragraphs (a) and (b), respectively, by revising the proposed rule language in paragraph (b) to make clear “non-required” systems and equipment are those not covered by paragraph (a). The Associations recommended the FAA clarify what non-required systems and equipment include and offered rule language similar to that proposed by EASA. Lastly, ANAC recommended replacing “non-required” with “each” in proposed § 23.1300(b) because the requirements should apply to all systems and equipment.
The FAA agrees the distinction between proposed § 23.1300(a) and proposed § 23.1300(b), which would have applied to “non-required” equipment, was unclear. The FAA adopting EASA's recommended rule language, which clarifies the distinction between the two requirements by linking them together. Accordingly, § 23.2500(b) (proposed as § 23.1300(b)), now requires the systems and equipment not covered by § 23.2500 (a) to be designed and installed so their operation does not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants.
While the FAA agrees with ANAC that both “required” and “non-required” equipment and systems must be designed and installed so their operation does not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants, the FAA finds it unnecessary to apply new § 23.2500(b) to “required” equipment, because § 23.2500(a) (proposed as § 23.1300(a)) already covers this requirement. Required equipment and systems that are designed and installed to meet the level of safety applicable to the certification and performance level of the airplane, in accordance with § 23.2500(a)(1), and that perform their intended function, in accordance with § 23.2500(a)(2), will not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants. Furthermore, the FAA is intentionally making a distinction between “required” and “non-required” equipment in § 23.2500(a) and (b) because “non-required” equipment and systems should not always be required to perform their intended function throughout the entire operating and environmental limits of the airplane.
Air Tractor suggested the FAA compare former § 23.1309 and proposed § 23.1300(b). They noted the proposed rule may make it easier to certify non-required equipment; however, the proposed rule still seemed to require a Functional Hazard Assessment (FHA) and System Safety Assessment (SSA). Air Tractor suggested the FAA relieve the undue burden associated with the required system safety analysis for non-required equipment and systems.
The FAA has determined some method of assessment is necessary to ensure that equipment and systems installed on an airplane meet an acceptable safety level. The safety assessment must show that a logical and acceptable inverse relationship exists between the average probability per flight hour and the severity of failure conditions effects. The depth and scope of the safety assessment will depend on the types of functions performed by the systems, the severity of failure conditions, and whether the system is complex. For simple and conventional systems with well-established designs, the safety assessment may be satisfied by a qualitative assessment such as the single-failure concept and experience based on service-proven designs and engineering judgment. Former guidance for complex systems relied on industry standards such as ARP 4761, “Guidelines and Methods for conducting the Safety Assessment Process on Civil Airborne Systems and Equipment,” and ARP 4754A, “Guidelines for Development of Civil Aircraft and Systems,” as well as AC 23.1309-1E, to define an acceptable means of compliance. As explained in the NPRM, former part 23 and associated guidance may be used as one means of compliance with the new part 23. Alternatively, applicants may rely on industry consensus standards, or develop their own methods of compliance appropriate to the various airworthiness certification levels.
Garmin stated it was unclear what the phrase “or failure does not have an adverse affect” in proposed § 23.1300(b) means and that failures would be covered under proposed § 23.1315. Garmin implied that proposed § 23.1300(b) was redundant with proposed § 23.1315, which already addressed the failure of a non-required system as it would have provided the basis for assessing the implications of any failure for installed equipment. The commenter requested that the FAA delete “or failure” from the proposed rule.
The FAA agrees with Garmin and deletes the words “or failure” from the proposed rule language. Section 23.2510 (proposed as § 23.1315) addresses failure conditions of all equipment. Therefore, proposed §§ 23.1300 and 23.1315 would have been redundant by requiring the same showing of compliance. Additionally, the phrase “failure does not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants” could have been misinterpreted as requiring the failure to have no effect on the airplane. For example, if the equipment was installed to provide a benefit, although not required, it could have been wrongly interpreted that the failure of that benefit would have an “adverse effect” on the airplane.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1305 (now § 23.2505) would have required each item of installed equipment to
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.1305 to withdraw paragraph (a)(2), merge paragraph (a) and (a)(1) into new paragraph (a), and relocate paragraphs (a)(3) through (c) to new § 23.2605 in subpart G. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
The Associations, Textron, and ANAC commented on proposed § 23.1305(a)(1). Textron commented that proposed § 23.1305(a) appears to be redundant with proposed § 23.1300(a) and asked the FAA to clarify whether proposed § 23.1305(a)(1) would apply to the non-required equipment addressed in proposed § 23.1300(b).
ANAC recommended that the FAA remove proposed § 23.1305(a)(1) because the requirement is adequately addressed in § 23.1300(a)(2) for required equipment. ANAC explained that proposed § 23.1305(a)(1) would contradict the requirement for non-required equipment in proposed § 23.1300(b). The Associations, noted that one of the reasons for distinguishing “required” and “non-required” equipment in proposed § 23.1300 was to alleviate the issues with requiring non-required equipment to prove their intended function. The commenters contended the rule should only require non-required equipment and systems (which are not required for safe flight) to verify their operation or failure does not interfere with required equipment. The commenters recommended confining the proposed requirement of § 23.1305(a) to “required” systems and equipment.
The FAA considered the comments to proposed § 23.1305(a)(1) and recognizes the confusion between §§ 23.1300 (now § 25.2500) and 23.1305. The FAA notes § 23.2505 applies to both required and non-required equipment. All equipment, when installed, should function as intended to maintain a minimum level of safety. The requirement of § 23.2505 is not addressed by § 23.2500(a)(2) as § 23.2505 applies to both required and non-required equipment when the equipment is installed on the airplane. Section 23.2500(a)(2) applies only to required equipment in operation. The FAA finds § 23.2505(a) does not contradict the requirement of § 23.2500(b), which applies to non-required equipment during airplane operations once in service. As explained in the NPRM, § 23.2500(b) would not require non-required equipment and systems to function properly during all airplane operations once in service, provided all potential failure conditions do not affect safe operation of the airplane. However, the non-required equipment or system would have to function in the manner expected by the manufacturer's operating manual for the equipment or system when installed. To clarify the FAA's intent and better harmonize with EASA, the FAA is merging proposed paragraph (a) with (a)(1) to revise § 23.2505 to require each item of equipment, when installed, to function as intended.
The Associations also maintained that proposed § 23.1305(a)(2) and (3) were unnecessary because installed equipment needs to operate safely despite any markings.
The FAA withdraws proposed § 23.1305(a)(2) as it is redundant of paragraph (a)(1). In order to function as intended, the equipment would have to meet its limitations. As previously noted, the FAA has revised proposed § 23.1305 by merging paragraph (a) with (a)(1). The FAA agrees with EASA's recommendation to move certain flightcrew interface requirements to subpart G and is relocating the requirement of proposed § 23.1305(a)(3) to subpart G, § 23.2605(a) in this rule. The commenters are correct that while a system needs to operate safely despite any markings, markings related to identification, function, and limitations are necessary to aid the aircrew and other personnel to safely operate the systems. The requirement for equipment to be labeled, if applicable, dates back to CAR 3.652 effective December 7, 1949. If further criteria to determine the applicability of the labeling requirement are found to be necessary, additional guidance will be developed either by the FAA or in an industry consensus standard.
After further analysis, the FAA finds the proposed requirements to provide system operating parameters, including warnings and cautions, were not adequately covered in proposed subpart G. Based on this and EASA's comments, the FAA relocates the pilot interface requirements of proposed § 23.1305(b) and (c) to new § 23.2605 in subpart G to adequately address these issues.
Garmin, Textron, and ANAC commented on the second sentence of proposed § 23.1305(c). Garmin recommended the FAA delete the phrase “presentation of”, as it could be interpreted as requiring a light or other visual alert. Textron recommended the FAA replace the phrase “clear enough to avoid likely crewmember errors” with the phrase “designed to minimize crewmember errors.” ANAC contended the term “likely” is ambiguous and recommended the FAA replace the phrase “to avoid likely crewmember errors” with the phrase “to minimize crewmember errors, which could create additional hazards.”
The FAA agrees with the commenters as the FAA did not intend to limit the presentation to visual displays only. Warning information can include visual, aural, tactile, or any combination. The FAA deletes “presentation of” in the proposed § 23.1305(c). Although both “minimize” and “likely” may be ambiguous, as was the concern from ANAC, the term “minimize”—associated with the mitigation of hazards in the rule language—can be traced back to CAR 3, effective December 7, 1949. Although using a new term such as “likely” may be interpreted as a new requirement or standard for the minimization of errors, this was not the FAA's intent. Therefore, the FAA replaces the term “minimize flightcrew errors” in place of “avoid likely crewmember errors” in § 23.2600(b).
Embraer noted that the cross-reference table in the proposal stated that the intent of former § 23.1023 is addressed in proposed § 23.935(b)(1); however, there is no § 23.935(b)(1) in the proposed rule. To address this mistake, Embraer suggested including a similar
Embraer stated that it understood that part 33 would not address all the concerns if the radiator is installed by the airframer, and noted that its same comment applies to former §§ 23.1013 and 23.1015.
The FAA has corrected and updated the table to accurately reference the relationship between the former rule and the final rule. Also, the FAA does not adopt Embraer's recommendation to add a requirement to § 23.2505 to address specific environmental conditions equipment must be able to withstand. The FAA notes Embraer was describing a specific failure mode, which is covered by §§ 23.2500(a)(2) and 23.2510.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1310 (now § 23.2615) would have required installed systems to provide the flightcrew member who sets or monitors flight parameters for the flight, navigation, and powerplant information necessary to do so during each phase of flight. Proposed § 23.1310 would have required this information include parameters and trends, as needed for normal, abnormal, and emergency operation, and limitations, unless an applicant showed the limitation would not be exceeded in all intended operations. Proposed § 23.1310 would have prohibited indication systems that integrate the display of flight or powerplant parameters to operate the airplane or are required by the operating rules of this chapter, from inhibiting the primary display of flight or powerplant parameters needed by any flightcrew member in any normal mode of operation. Proposed § 23.1310 would have required these indication systems be designed and installed so information essential for continued safe flight and landing would be available to the flightcrew in a timely manner after any single failure or probable combination of failures.
In light of comments received, the FAA renumbers § 23.1310 to § 23.2615, and moves this section to Subpart G. The section for § 23.2615 in Subpart G discusses these changes in more detail.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) would have required an applicant—
• To examine the design and installation of airplane systems and equipment, separately and in relation to other airplane systems and equipment, for any airplane system or equipment whose failure or abnormal operation was not specifically addressed by another requirement in this part;
• To determine if a failure of these systems and equipment would prevent continued safe flight and landing, and if any other failure would significantly reduce the capability of the airplane or the ability of the flightcrew to cope with adverse operating conditions; and
• To design and install these systems and equipment, examined separately and in relation to other airplane systems and equipment, such that each catastrophic failure condition is extremely improbable, each hazardous failure condition is extremely remote, and each major failure condition was remote.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) by withdrawing paragraph (a), merging paragraph (b) into the introductory sentence, and renaming paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2) and (b)(3) as § 23.2510(a), (b) and (c), respectively. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
Garmin commented that proposed § 23.1315 should be located with the other general rules applicable to all systems and equipment.
The FAA agrees with Garmin's comment and is placing the regulation with the other general rules at the beginning of subpart F.
Textron commented the intent of proposed § 23.1315 is not as clearly written as CS 23.600 and 23.605 and an AC will be needed to determine the meaning of the proposed rule. The commenter recommended using the wording of CS 23.600 and 23.605. In contrast, The Associations preferred the FAA's proposed § 23.1315 to the EASA's A-NPA language, which they stated may unduly tie means of compliance to an objective-based rule. EASA suggested that proposed § 23.1315 show the inverse relationship between probability and severity in an illustration.
To clarify the intent of the rule, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to require each system and equipment to be designed and installed such that “there is a logical and acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure condition.” This change is consistent with the NPRM, which explained that proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) would require an engineering safety analysis to identify possible failures, interactions, and consequences, and require an inverse relationship between the probability of failures and the severity of consequences. The logical inverse relationship should be proportionate and flexible with respect to risk levels. The FAA notes that if the FAA provided more detail and graphics in the rule, future interpretation of the rule may be more restrictive than intended. The FAA finds the additional information provided in EASA's A-NPA is more suitable for guidance similar to AC 23.1309-1E and is not adding this to the rule.
The Associations recommended the FAA add a new paragraph to proposed § 23.1315 that would allow the FAA to accept a higher failure probability for functionality that enhances the safety of the airplane beyond the required minimum functionality. The commenters noted such a provision would allow for safety-enhanced equipment to be treated in a less stringent manner that accounts for the significant benefits it could have. The commenters explained this would ensure the lowest cost of this equipment without sacrificing the safety-enhancing benefits. Garmin similarly noted that system safety analysis and design assurance are focused on system and equipment failures rather than the safety benefit such systems and equipment can provide. For example, TSO-C151, “Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS),” equipment specifies a major failure classification, but no credit is given for the offsetting safety benefit provided for installation of TAWS with its corresponding reduction in Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT) accidents. Garmin asked the FAA to consider adopting a requirement that allows for design assurance certitude for systems that provide an increased safety benefit.
The FAA has determined adding a new requirement to proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) would create a special class of equipment in the rule, which is contrary to the FAA's intent. The objective of this rulemaking is to provide clear safety objectives without prescribing design solutions. The objective of proposed § 23.1315 is to require each system and equipment to be designed and installed such that there is a logical and acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure conditions. This applies to all
Garmin and the Associations recommended the FAA use the term “failure condition” rather than “failure” to ensure the rule addresses the broader impacts of failures, rather than just those that occur within the equipment that may have failed. Garmin explained that by using “failure condition,” the rule would address combinations of failures in the system and equipment and other systems and equipment. ANAC stated the use of “failure” in paragraph (a) and use of “failure condition” in paragraph (b) may add confusion.
The FAA agrees with the commenters and revises proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) to use “failure condition” throughout the section.
Textron noted some simple systems were exempt from former § 23.1309. Textron asked if there was a list of systems exempt from proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510), or if the FAA intended to apply the regulation to all systems. Textron specifically asked for confirmation that propulsion, fuel systems, fire protection systems, exits, landing gear, flight navigation, powerplant instruments, system power generation, storage, and distribution and flight controls were exempt from proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510), since they each have their own rules dealing with failures.
This final rule does not contain a list of systems exempt from proposed § 23.2510 (proposed as § 23.1315). Consistent with former § 23.1309, proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) applies generally to installed equipment and systems, except that § 23.2510 does not apply if another section of part 23 imposes requirements for specific equipment or systems. The FAA is not providing a list of systems exempt from the rule, as Textron requested, because such a list would be based on today's technology and would be overly prescriptive and inflexible over time. This would conflict with the goal of allowing coverage for future unforeseen technological advancements.
Textron asked the FAA to clarify the intent of the safety requirements in proposed § 23.1315. In particular, Textron noted that paragraph (a) simply stated “determine”, while paragraph (b) stated “design and install” to achieve safety goals that have no connection with those stated in paragraph (a). Textron asked for clarification of the relationship between the two paragraphs, as well as the overall intent of the rule. Textron recommended using the language in CS 23.605(a), which would have required each equipment and system to be designed and installed so there is a logical and acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure condition effects. ANAC similarly noted that no clear safety objective was stated in proposed § 23.1315(a); rather, an applicant needed only determine if conditions (1) and (2) were examined. Embraer suggested the FAA remove proposed § 23.1315(a), asserting that the intent of proposed § 23.1315(b) would be sufficient to meet compliance.
EASA asserted the terminology in proposed § 23.1315(a) may be confusing. Phrases such as “continued safe flight and landing” and “significantly reduce the capacity of the airplane” or “the ability of the flightcrew to cope with adverse operating conditions,” are not as clear as terms “catastrophic,” “hazardous,” and “major” in describing the failure condition.
In light of these comments, the FAA withdraws proposed paragraph (a). Proposed § 23.1315(a) could have been interpreted as an element of the means of compliance to paragraph (b) in that the determinations of the potential consequences of failures is necessary to establish whether the probability of their occurrence is acceptable. Additionally, the FAA adopts Textron's recommendation and revises the proposed rule language to require each system and equipment to be designed and installed so there is a logical and acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure condition effects. To comply with § 23.2510(a), applicants must account for airplane systems and equipment, separately and in relation to other airplane systems and equipment.
Textron indicated that the terms used in proposed § 23.1315(b) were not defined in the regulations.
The FAA did not define the terms “catastrophic failure condition,” “hazardous failure condition,” and “major failure condition” in the regulations because the terms are better addressed in guidance. These terms are currently defined in AC 23.1309-1E. Furthermore, the rule language is consistent with the historical rule language of former § 23.1309.
ANAC commented that proposed § 23.1315(b) implied specific classification and probability terms that may be considered prescriptive. The commenter noted that, as written, this may prevent an applicant from using a means of compliance that employs different hazard categories or terminology.
The FAA notes the terms used in proposed § 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) are already defined in guidance (
Rockwell Collins noted that former § 23.1309(c)(1) required each catastrophic failure condition to be extremely improbable and not result from a single failure. However, proposed § 23.1315(b)(1), which was intended to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1309, would have required only that each catastrophic failure condition be extremely improbable. It would not have prohibited single-point catastrophic failures. Rockwell Collins asked the FAA to retain the phrase “and not result from a single failure” in the regulation, because the commenter believed the FAA's intent was not to propose changes with regard to single-point catastrophic failures.
The FAA notes the ARC recommended the FAA require systems and equipment to be designed and installed so there is a logical acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure condition effects whether the result of a single failure or multiple failures. With the advancement of technology and increased integration of systems, it is virtually impossible to eliminate all theoretical potential single-points of failure. The rule will allow in some cases, as is true today with some portions of the airplane, to have the potential of single-point failures if the risk and probability of such failure is acceptable. The FAA adopts the rule language as proposed in § 23.1315(b)(1).
Noting that key pieces of FAA guidance are critical to design and certification, Kestrel asked whether AC
Guidance for proposed § 23.1315 may consist of existing FAA guidance, such as AC 23.1309, future FAA-generated guidance, and FAA-accepted industry standards.
Textron noted the NPRM stated applicants who use the means of compliance described in the existing special conditions would be able to use data developed for compliance with proposed § 23.1315. Textron recommended the FAA revise the statement to clarify the FAA was referring to special conditions for part 25 airplanes.
The statement in the NPRM is correct. Applicants who use the means of compliance described in the existing special conditions for parts 23, 25, 27, or 29 may use data developed for compliance with § 23.2510.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1320(a) would have required, for an airplane approved for IFR operations, that each electrical or electronic system that performs a function, the failure of which would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, be designed and installed such that—
• The airplane system level function continues to perform during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lightning; and
• The system automatically recovers normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to lightning, unless the system's recovery conflicts with other operational or functional requirements of the system.
Proposed § 23.1320(b) would have required each electrical and electronic system that performed a function, the failure of which would reduce the capability of the airplane or the ability of the flightcrew to respond to an adverse operation condition, to be designed and installed such that the function recovers normal operation in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to lightning.
Several commenters raised concerns with the term “system” in proposed § 23.1320(a)(1). BendixKing explained that the proposed phrase “airplane system level function” may lead to multiple interpretations of the regulation. BendixKing asked the FAA to delete “system” from the proposed rule language because the rule addresses failure at the airplane level. The Associations recommended the FAA require the function, rather than the airplane system level function, to comply with the requirement in paragraph (a)(1).
Garmin stated that there has been much discussion in the GAMA HIRF (High-Intensity Radiated Fields) ad-hoc meetings regarding the interpretation of the term “system.” Garmin explained the rule language could be interpreted as requiring all redundant systems, which perform the same function, to meet the lightning requirements. Garmin explained that not all redundant systems should be required to meet the catastrophic requirements to prevent potentially catastrophic failure; proposed § 23.1320(a) should apply to the function level only. Garmin recommended alternative regulatory language would prevent catastrophic, major, or hazardous failure conditions at the airplane level.
The FAA agrees proposed § 23.1320(a)(1) (now § 23.2515(a)(1)) could have been misinterpreted due to the confusion surrounding the phrase “airplane system level function.” The FAA intended to require the function at the airplane level to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1), consistent with proposed § 23.1325(a)(1) (now § 23.2520). Thus, the FAA intended proposed § 23.1320(a)(1) to require the function at the airplane level not to be adversely affected during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lightning. This means if multiple systems perform the same function, only one of those systems is required to provide the function under § 23.2515(a)(1). Therefore, not all redundant systems are required to meet the requirements of § 23.2515(a)(1). The FAA deletes the term “system” from the phrase “airplane system level function,” as several commenters recommended to ensure the FAA's intent is clear. The FAA revises the rule language to make clear that the requirements of proposed § 23.1320(a)(1) (now § 23.2515(a)(1)) apply to the function at the airplane level.
Garmin noted that the proposed § 23.1320 rule language was essentially the same as former § 23.1306, which was overly burdensome for low-end part 23 airplanes. Garmin stated that proposed § 23.1320 is contrary to the goal of the part 23 reorganization and explained the objective should be to prevent catastrophic, hazardous, and major failure conditions for the airplane. Garmin suggested revising proposed § 23.1320 to be more general and to allow the ASTM standards to provide the necessary means of compliance, which should consist of a tiered compliance approach for different airplane certification levels.
The FAA does not agree to make § 23.2515 more general. Section 23.2515 is intended to address catastrophic, hazardous, and major failure condition at the airplane level due to the effects of lightning on systems. Critical functions that would prevent continued safe flight and landing (catastrophic) should remain available to the crew throughout a lightning exposure. How to maintain the function, whether with redundant systems or non-susceptible systems, is a means of compliance and is not specified. Likewise, systems that perform a function, the failure of which would significantly reduce the capability of the airplane (hazardous), must recover normal operation of that function. A means of compliance is not specified and could include redundancy. The FAA has revised the rule to state more clearly that the concern for catastrophic failure conditions is at the airplane level. Furthermore, the rule already allows a tiered compliance approach based on the environment the airplane is likely to see.
Several commenters raised concerns with applying proposed § 23.1320 to airplanes approved for IFR operations. The Associations noted the FAA has recently approved required equipment for use in IFR airplanes, without the need for lightning testing based on the history of lightning strikes in the general aviation fleet. However, these commenters indicated the proposed rule would have prohibited airplanes with a low probability of lightning strikes from benefiting from such an approach. These commenters asked the FAA to revise the proposed rule language to ensure the rule does not apply to airplanes with a low probability of lightning strike.
Garmin noted that former § 23.1306 required both VFR and IFR airplanes to meet lightning requirements for systems with catastrophic failure conditions. However, while proposed § 23.1320 would have removed the requirement for VFR airplanes, the burden for industry is primarily IFR airplanes as there are very few VFR airplanes, if any, that have systems with catastrophic failure conditions. Garmin recommended revising the proposed rule language by removing the language that would have made proposed § 23.1320 applicable to airplanes approved for IFR operations.
EASA also asked the FAA to remove the language that would have made proposed § 23.1320 applicable to airplanes approved for IFR operations. EASA explained that this revision
In light of these comments, the FAA recognizes the proposed rule language would not have adequately relieved the burden of former § 23.1306, which required all airplanes regardless of their design or operational limitations meet the same requirements for lightning regardless of the potential threat. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended to relieve this burden by applying the lightning requirements to airplanes with the greatest threat of lightning. The FAA proposed to meet this objective by making the rule applicable to airplanes approved for IFR operations. Because airplanes approved for IFR operations may also have a low probability of lightning exposure, the proposed rule language did not meet the FAA's objective. Accordingly, the FAA adds an exception to the rule language for applicants who can show that exposure to lightning is unlikely. This change from what was proposed is more consistent with the FAA's intent as it relieves an airplane approved for IFR operations from complying with § 23.2515 if it is shown the airplane has a low probability of lighting exposure. The method of compliance is not specified in the rule and could be system, operational, or environment based.
Garmin and the Associations recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.1320(b) to make the requirement only applicable to levels 3 and 4 airplanes approved for IFR operations.
The FAA disagrees. Section 23.2520(b) is a general safety objective with compliance tailored to the specific design intent. Exposure to lightning is an environmental threat not directly associated with airplane certification levels and therefore could apply to all airplanes. The intent is to set requirements appropriately to the design. Therefore, the FAA adds an exception to the rule language for applicants who can show that exposure to lightning is unlikely.
Daher, Textron, and the Associations suggested the FAA, in proposed § 23.1320(a)(1) (now § 23.2515(a)(1)), require the function to not be “adversely affected” during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lightning, but require the function to “continue to perform.” Daher and Textron explained that requiring the function to not be “adversely affected” would be more consistent with the language of proposed § 23.1325 (now § 23.2520). The Associations asserted that this revision would permit equipment installations that may be affected by lightning, provided the loss of equipment does not result in catastrophic events. Textron further noted this revision would ensure harmony with EASA's proposed CS 23.620.
In response to these comments, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to require the function at the airplane level to not be “adversely affected” during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lighting. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.1320(a)(1) (now § 23.2515(a)(1)) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1306. Former § 23.1306(a)(1) required the function to not be “adversely affected” during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lightning. Because the proposed language could be interpreted as an increase in burden, which would not meet the intent of former § 23.1306, the FAA is reverting back to the former rule language. It should be noted that “adversely affected” was not previously limited to catastrophic events as suggested by the commenters, but included hazardous and major failure conditions as well.
Textron questioned if crew action could be involved in the recovery of the function or must recovery be automatic. Textron asked the FAA to clarify whether proposed § 23.1320(a)(2) would permit crew action in recovery of the function. Garmin recommended the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.1320(a)(2).
Based on Textron's comment, the FAA clarifies paragraph (a)(2) by removing the term “automatic” from the proposed rule to allow either flightcrew action or automatic recovery. One of the goals of the proposal was to remove prescriptive design solution for the airworthiness standards and replace them with performance-based rules. Automatic reset of a system is a design solution, while the safety objective is the function be usable to the flightcrew in a timely manner such that the intermittent loss or malfunction does not have an adverse effect on the safety of the flight. Therefore, the recovery of the function may be automatic or manual. While Garmin recommended that the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.1320(b) (now § 23.2515(b)), the FAA believes the safety intent of former § 23.1306, which addressed catastrophic and hazardous failure condition due to the effects of lightning on systems, must be retained.
Transport Canada noted that proposed § 23.1320(a)(2) would benefit from inclusion of a specific safety objective. The commenter suggested revising the proposed rule language to require the system to automatically recover normal operation of the function in such time as to allow a safety objective to be achieved.
The FAA notes the safety objective of paragraph (a)(2) is “the timely recovery of the system's function.” Additionally, the rule language existed in former § 23.1306(a)(2). Based on this, the FAA does not adopt the change proposed by Transport Canada in the final rule.
Textron requested the FAA insert “significantly” before “reduce” in proposed § 23.1320(b), because any reduction in capacity would trigger this rule.
The FAA agrees with Textron and revises the language in proposed § 23.1320(b) (now § 23.2515(b)) accordingly. This change is consistent with former § 23.1306, which used the phrase “significantly reduce.” Also, this change is necessary because without the term “significantly”, the language could be interpreted as imposing requirements on each electrical and electronic system that performs a function, the failure of which would reduce—no matter how minimal—the capability of the airplane or the ability of the flightcrew to respond to an adverse operating condition. This would increase the burden from former part 23, which was not the FAA's intent.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1325 (now § 23.2520) would have required electrical and electronic systems that perform a function whose failure would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, to be designed and installed such that—the airplane system level function is not adversely affected during and after the time the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment. Proposed § 23.1325 would have also required these systems automatically recover normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment, unless the system's recovery conflicts with other operational or functional requirements of the system.
For airplanes approved for IFR operations, proposed § 23.1325(b) would have required the applicant to design and install each electrical and electronic system that performs a function—the failure of which would reduce the capability of the airplane or the ability to the flightcrew to respond to an adverse operating condition—so the function recovers normal operation in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment.
Several commenters raised concerns about the term “system” in proposed § 23.1325(a)(1). Textron stated the phrase “airplane system level”
Garmin noted there has been much discussion in the GAMA HIRF ad-hoc meetings regarding the definition of a “system.” Garmin asked the FAA whether “system” means each individual redundant system or all redundant systems. Garmin explained that proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) could be interpreted to impose additional requirements to the extent that all redundant systems must meet the catastrophic failure requirements of paragraph (a). Garmin suggested that not all redundant systems should be required to meet the catastrophic requirements and proposed § 23.1325(a) should apply only to the function level. Garmin recommended alternative regulatory language that reflected its comments.
The FAA agrees that proposed § 23.1325(a)(1) (now § 23.2520(a)(1)) could be misinterpreted due to the confusion surrounding the phrase “airplane system level function.” As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended the proposed rule language to clarify the failure consequence of interest is at the airplane level. Thus, the FAA intended paragraph (a)(1) to require the function at the airplane level not to be adversely affected during and after the time the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment. This means if multiple systems perform the same function, only one of those systems is required to provide the function under paragraph (a)(1). Therefore, in response to Garmin's comment, the FAA notes not all redundant systems are required to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1). To clearly reflect the intent of proposed § 23.1325(a)(1) (now § 23.2520(a)(1)), the FAA deletes the term “system” from the phrase “airplane system level function,” as recommended by Textron and BendixKing, and revises the proposed rule language to clarify that the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) apply to the function at the airplane level.
Furthermore, in light of Garmin's comment, the FAA revises the proposed rule language in § 23.1325(a) (now § 23.2520(a)) to clarify that “each” electric and electronic system that performs a function—the failure of which would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane—must be designed and installed such that the requirements of § 23.2520(a)(1) and § 23.2520(a)(2) of this section are met.
Garmin recommended the FAA delete proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) and explained that proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) is unnecessary because proposed § 23.1325(a)(1) already prohibits systems from preventing safe flight and landing after a HIRF event. The commenter maintained paragraph (a)(1) would be sufficient to ensure a tiered means of compliance could be developed based on the criticality of the HIRF event. Garmin stated that proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) contains design information, which is contrary to the goal of the part 23 reorganization, and explained the objective should be to prevent catastrophic, hazardous, and major failure conditions for the airplane. Garmin suggested revising proposed § 23.1325 to be more general and allow the ASTM standards to provide the necessary means of compliance.
The FAA disagrees with the commenter's recommendation to delete proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) and to make paragraph (a) more general. The FAA agrees with a tiered means of compliance approach for hazardous and major failure conditions, which are addressed in § 23.2520(b). However, for catastrophic failure conditions addressed in § 23.2520(a), the FAA finds it necessary to require each system that performs a function, the failure of which would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, to be able to recover normal operation of the function. Paragraph § 23.2520(a)(2) is not design specific; it captures the safety intent of former § 23.1308(a) at a high level, allowing for means of compliance other than appendix J to part 23—“HIRF Environments and Equipment HIRF Test Levels”.
Textron asked the FAA to clarify whether proposed § 23.1325(a)(2) would permit flightcrew action in recovery of the function.
The FAA is removing the term “automatically” from the proposed rule language to clarify that flightcrew action is permitted in recovering the normal operation of the system's function. The FAA intended proposed § 23.1325 to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1308, which required the system to “automatically” recover normal operation of the function in a timely manner. Automatic reset of a system is a design solution. The safety objective of former § 23.1308(a) is that the function be usable to the flightcrew in a timely manner such that the intermittent loss or malfunction does not have an adverse effect on the safety of the flight. The FAA finds that permitting the flightcrew to manually recover normal operation of the system's function in a timely manner would maintain the level of safety found in former § 23.1308(a). Therefore, the recovery of the function may be automatic or manual under § 23.2520(a)(2).
The Associations commented that current policy and guidance may apply HIRF requirements differently to part 23 products than in other areas and suggested that the IFR discriminator in paragraph (b) may not be as valid as using airworthiness level. The commenters recommended the FAA restrict paragraph (b) to level 3 and 4 airplanes that are approved for IFR operations.
Mooney International (Mooney) questioned the intent of including IFR-related HIRF requirements in paragraph (b). Mooney contended that HIRF is related to environments from ground-based transmission of RF energy from radars, radios, etc., which is unrelated to IFR environmental operations.
The FAA has considered the comments on inconsistent application of HIRF requirements, but notes the hazardous and major failure conditions of paragraph (b) should apply to airplanes certificated for IFR operations regardless of airworthiness level. The different types of operations an airplane may be certificated for are Day VFR, Night VFR, and IFR. Airplanes certified for only VFR operations are restricted from operating under IFR, which includes flight into IMC. IFR-certified airplanes, however, are not prohibited from flight into IMC. The severity of a HIRF event is greater in IMC. Therefore, the FAA finds it necessary to apply the hazardous and major failure conditions to all airplanes certified for IFR operations. Furthermore, while the FAA is not restricting the application of paragraph (b) to only level 3 and 4 airplanes, paragraph (b) allows for a
Garmin suggested revising the proposed rule language of paragraph (b) to require each electrical and electronic system to be designed and installed, rather than requiring the applicant to design and install each system.
The FAA adopts Garmin's recommendation, which makes the language of paragraph (b) parallel the language of paragraph (a).
Embraer suggested the FAA adopt the same HIRF environments and test levels that are described in former appendix J to part 23, which were associated with former § 23.1308.
The FAA finds the prescriptive environments and test levels found in former appendix J to part 23 are more appropriately addressed as a means of compliance to proposed § 23.1325 (now § 23.2520). This allows the test levels to change as the environment changes without new regulatory action. Additionally, one prescriptive level for all airplanes does not allow for a tiered compliance approach, which was an objective of this rule.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1330 (now § 23.2525) would have required the power generation, storage, and distribution for any system be designed and installed to supply the power required for operation of connected loads during all likely operating conditions. Proposed § 23.1330 would have required the design installation ensure no single failure or malfunction would prevent the system from supplying the essential loads required for continued safe flight and landing. Finally, proposed § 23.1330 would have required the design and installation have enough capacity to supply essential loads, should the primary power source fail, (for at least 30 minutes for airplanes certificated with a maximum altitude of 25,000 feet or less and at least 60 minutes for airplanes certificated with a maximum altitude over 25,000 feet.
Textron requested the FAA make slight revisions to proposed § 23.1330(a) to harmonize the wording with CS 23.630. Specifically, Textron recommended requiring the power generation, storage, and distribution for any system be designed and installed to supply the power required for operation of connected loads during all intended operating conditions rather than “all likely operating conditions” because it would provide a clear boundary for demonstration of compliance. In the alternative, Textron suggested removing proposed paragraph (a) because the requirement is already covered more broadly in proposed § 23.1300(a)(2).
The FAA agrees with Textron's recommendation to replace “likely” with “intended” to harmonize with EASA and make clear the boundary for demonstration of compliance. Therefore, the FAA did not consider Textron's alternative recommendation to remove paragraph (a). The FAA notes that proposed § 23.1330(a) (now § 23.2525) is not redundant with proposed § 23.1300(a)(2) (now § 23.2500). Section 23.2500 is a rule of general applicability and does not supersede more specific rules. It is appropriate for system power generation, storage, and distribution to be addressed by a specific rule.
Air Tractor noted that proposed § 23.1330(b) appears more restrictive than former § 23.1310 in regards to single-point failures. The commenter further noted this may require there be no single failure points between the power supply and the essential load bus.
The FAA did not intend for proposed § 23.1330(b) (now § 23.2525(b)) to be more restrictive than the requirements under former part 23. The FAA revises proposed § 23.1330(b) for clarity by adding “of any one power supply, distribution system, or other utilization system.” This sets limits as to what needs to be considered when examining single-point failures.
Several commenters, including EASA, Kestrel, Daher, and the Associations raised concerns about the minimum flight times (
In response to numerous comments opposing the specific flights times outlined in proposed § 23.1330(c)(1) and (c)(2) (now § 23.2525(c)), the FAA agrees the language would have been overly prescriptive and incompatible with new technologies. The FAA revises proposed § 23.1330(c) to remove the specific time requirements and add the safety intent requiring enough capacity for the time needed to complete the functions required for continued safe flight and landing.
Kestrel questioned whether the language “design and installation have enough capacity to supply essential loads” permitted use of both the engine start battery and the emergency battery in combination to supply essential loads in the event of loss of the primary electrical power generating systems, without the need for an alternate means of compliance. The commenter noted this is typically addressed using an ELOS finding to former § 23.1353(h).
Kestrel also raised concerns about the possible misinterpretation of the phrase “if the primary source fails” in proposed § 23.1330(c). Kestrel said it was aware of at least one such instance, resulting in the issuance of an STC based on the understanding this meant failure of the primary generator and proper operation of the backup alternator. Kestrel asked FAA to revise the wording to prevent this possible misinterpretation.
Both of Kestrel's comments relate to a specific design solution and method of compliance that should be addressed with the use of industry developed consensus standards or other accepted means of compliance. In the past, the engine start battery could be used to meet the required load capacity based on an ELOS finding (as pointed out be Kestrel). The requirements found in this ELOS finding to former § 23.1353(h) could be documented in a consensus standard as an acceptable means of compliance to the regulation. The same applies to the definition of the “primary source.” The intent is not to increase
Textron requested the FAA limit the applicability of proposed § 23.1330(c) to electrical systems by changing the title proposed § 23.1330 to “Electrical system power generation, storage, and distribution.”
The FAA disagrees with Textron's proposal as the Part 23 ARC discussed this issue, with a consensus agreeing the rule should apply to current technologies such as batteries and new technologies that may apply in the future. The language proposed by the FAA would implement the ARC's recommendation, and the FAA makes no changes to that language in the final rule based on Textron's proposal.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1335 (now § 23.2530) would have required an applicant to design and install all lights to prevent adverse effects on the performance of flightcrew duties. Proposed § 23.1335 would have required position and anti-collision lights, if installed, to have the intensities, flash rate, colors, fields of coverage, and other characteristics to provide sufficient time for another airplane to avoid a collision. Proposed § 23.1335 would have required position lights, if installed, to include a red light on the left side of the airplane, a green light on the right side of the airplane, spaced laterally as far apart as practicable, and a white light facing aft, located on an aft portion of the airplane or on the wing tips. Proposed § 23.1335 would have required that an applicant to design and install any taxi and landing lights, if required by operational rules, so they provide sufficient light for night operations. Finally, for seaplanes or amphibian airplanes, proposed § 23.1335 would have required riding lights to provide a white light visible in clear atmospheric conditions.
Textron commented on proposed § 23.1335(a), explaining it would have been difficult to design and install lights to “prevent adverse effects” on the performance of flightcrew duties in all cases. Therefore, Textron recommended the FAA require lights to be installed to “minimize,” rather than “prevent,” the possibility they will adversely affect the satisfactory performance of the flightcrew's duties.
The FAA agrees the term “prevent” would be difficult to comply with in all cases. The FAA also interprets the term “prevent” to be more restrictive than the former requirements, which used descriptive terms such as “no dangerous glare” in former § 23.1383(a) and “not seriously affected” in former § 23.1383(b). The term “minimize” more accurately reflects the former requirements of part 23. For these reasons, the FAA revises the proposed rule language to require the applicant to design and install all lights to minimize any adverse effects on the performance of flightcrew duties.
Kestrel commented that the proposed wording, “as far as space allows,” in proposed § 23.1335(c) could be interpreted to mean that integrated wingtip navigation lights are no longer permitted, and the only way to meet the requirement is to install external navigation lights outboard of the wingtips. Kestrel recommended reverting to the language used in former § 23.1385, which stated that navigation lights should be “spaced laterally as far apart as practicable.”
The FAA agrees with the commenter. The FAA intended proposed § 23.1335(c) (now § 23.2530(c)) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1385(c) without an increase in burden for certification. Former § 23.1385(c) required the left and right position lights to consist of a red and a green light “spaced laterally as far apart as practicable.” The FAA is reverting back to this language for the reasons identified by the commenter. Accordingly, § 23.2530(c) now requires any position lights, if required by part 91, to include a red light on the left side of the airplane and a green light on the right side of the airplane, spaced laterally as far apart as practicable.
Kestrel and Air Tractor commented on proposed § 23.1335(d), which would have required the installation of taxi and landing lights. Kestrel asked the FAA to align proposed paragraph (d) with former § 23.1383, which did not require the installation of both taxi and landing lights, but instead required “sufficient light for each phase of night operations.” Air Tractor suggested the FAA add rule language to paragraph (d) to make it applicable to taxi and landing lights, “if installed,” because the regulations do not require night operations.
The FAA did not intend to require the design and installation of taxi and landing lights in proposed § 23.1335(d) (now § 23.2530(d)). As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.1335(d) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1383, which required each taxi and landing light to be designed and installed so that it provided enough light for night operations. The FAA revises the proposed rule language to more clearly reflect its intent. Accordingly, § 23.2530(d) now requires any taxi and landing lights to be designed and installed so they provide sufficient light for night operations.
The Associations and ICON recommended the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.1335(e). The Associations noted that the requirement is already addressed in regulations concerning maritime vessels, and could create a conflict should those maritime regulations be changed. The Associations also noted that there is no safety benefit in duplicate coverage. ICON commented that the FAA proposed to add a requirement for a riding light on seaplanes. ICON stated that the operational requirement for a vehicle to display a white light on the water is not an FAA requirement and should not be mandated as a vehicle design requirement by the FAA. ICON recommended the FAA let the agency controlling the body of water impose this operating rule on seaplanes. ICON further noted it should not be a design requirement because a pilot may choose to comply with the requirement by using a portable light rather than an installed device on an airplane.
The FAA considered the commenters recommendations but notes proposed § 23.1335(e) (now § 23.2530(e)) is not a new requirement. As explained in the NPRM, proposed § 23.1335(e) captures the safety intent of former § 23.1399. Former § 23.1399 required each riding (anchor) light required for a seaplane or amphibian, to be installed so it can show a white light for at least two miles at night under clear atmospheric conditions; and show the maximum unbroken light practicable when the airplane is moored or drifting on the water. Former § 23.1399 was adopted on February 1, 1965, as a recodification of CAR 3.704.
While the commenters did not cite a specific regulation concerning vessels, the FAA has determined the commenters are referring to Title 33 of the CFR (33 CFR), Navigation and Navigable Waters. 33 CFR part 83 contains rules applicable to all vessels upon the inland waters of the United States,
Also, former § 23.1399(b) stated that externally-hung lights may be used. While the FAA removed this prescriptive requirement from the regulations, it may still be used as an acceptable means of compliance to § 23.2530(e).
Finally, Embraer suggested the FAA adopt guidance material and standards, such as ACs and Agency Process Recommendations, as reference to the certification project, provided these documents are compatible with the former part 23 requirements.
The FAA notes that current published guidance, previously accepted industry standards, and the prescriptive requirements found in former part 23 will remain acceptable means of compliance for this final rule. The FAA will continue to develop guidance as deemed necessary, but intends to use industry-developed standards if they are found acceptable. The FAA is actively engaged with industry consensus groups developing suitable standards for this final rule.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1400 (now § 23.2535) would have required safety and survival equipment, required by the operating rules of this chapter, to be reliable, readily accessible, easily identifiable, and clearly marked to identify its method of operation.
Air Tractor noted that the requirement for safety and survival equipment to be reliable may require some kind of testing or certification of fire extinguishers. The commenter questioned whether the current Underwriter's Laboratory (UL) rating of fire extinguishers would be sufficient.
The FAA finds the UL rating for fire extinguishers will be an acceptable means of compliance under § 23.2535, as it was an acceptable method of compliance under former § 23.1411. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed § 23.1400 (now § 23.2535) to capture the safety intent of former § 23.1411. While the FAA removed the prescriptive language from former § 23.1411, it did not intend to change the current method of compliance for the required safety and survival equipment.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1405 (now § 23.2540) would have required an applicant to demonstrate its ice protection system would provide for safe operation, if certification for flight in icing conditions is requested.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises § 23.2540 to move proposed paragraphs (a) and (b) to the introductory paragraph, and renumber proposed paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) as new paragraphs (a) and (b). This section discusses these changes in more detail.
The NTSB stated that adopting proposed §§ 23.230 (now § 23.2165) and 23.1405 will likely result in Safety Recommendation A-96-54 being classified “Closed—Acceptable Action.” The NTSB agreed with the FAA's statement in the NPRM that proposed § 23.1405 would address Safety Recommendations A-07-14 and-15.
The Associations suggested a better correlation between proposed §§ 23.230 and 23.1405 and added it may be appropriate to combine these sections.
In light of this comment, the FAA is restructuring proposed § 23.1405 to be consistent with § 23.2165. Proposed § 23.1405(a) and § 23.1405(b) were combined into the introductory sentence of § 23.2540 and modified to read similarly to § 23.2165. Accordingly, § 23.2540 now requires an applicant who requests certification for flight in icing conditions defined in part 1 of appendix C to part 25, or an applicant who requests certification for flight in these icing conditions and any additional atmospheric icing conditions, to show compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) in the icing conditions for which certification is requested.
The FAA is not, however, combining proposed §§ 23.230 and 23.1405. The FAA agrees with the Part 23 Icing ARC's and the Part 23 ARC's recommendations to separate the performance and flight characteristics requirements for flight in icing conditions from the system requirements for flight in icing conditions.
Textron and Kestrel commented on ice crystal conditions. Textron noted that the proposed rule would not have defined ice crystal conditions and asked the FAA where the term would be defined. Kestrel asked if the requirements of TSO C16a, “Electrically Heated Pitot and Pitot-Static Tubes”, would be an acceptable means of compliance to the ice crystal requirements of proposed § 23.1405.
The FAA notes the phrase “any additional atmospheric icing conditions” in proposed § 23.1405 includes “ice crystal conditions”. However, the FAA is not defining “ice crystal conditions” in the final rule because it is more appropriately addressed in means of compliance.
The FAA finds TSO C16a will be an acceptable means of compliance when it is revised to include SAE airworthiness standard AS 5562, “Ice and Rain Minimum Qualification Standards for Pitot and Pitot-static Probes”. The FAA notes SAE AS 5562 is an acceptable means of compliance to the ice crystal requirements for pitot and static systems. The FAA points out, however, that SAE AS 5562 does not include ice crystal requirements for certain angle-of-
Kestrel questioned if the FAA would permit ice protection systems to be operational on an airplane not certified for Flight Into Known Ice (FIKI), as it does today via the guidelines established in Appendix 4 of AC 23.1419-2D for “non-hazard” systems. Kestrel noted that it was unclear whether the FAA intends to continue the use of the “non-hazard” classification because the NPRM does not explicitly mention “non-hazard” systems. Kestrel believed that operational ice protection systems on non-FIKI-certified airplane do not need a special “non-hazard” classification. Kestrel suggested ice protections systems could be considered supplemental systems, which are addressed by the installation and inadvertent operation requirements of proposed §§ 23.1300 and 23.1315.
Prior to this final rule, the FAA certified “non-hazard” systems in accordance with former §§ 23.1301 and 23.1309(a)(2), (b), (c), and (d). As explained in the NPRM, the FAA intended proposed §§ 23.1300(b) (now § 23.2500(b)), 23.1305 (now § 23.2505), and 23.1315 (now § 23.2510) to capture the safety intent of the applicable portions of former § 23.1301 and § 23.1309. Therefore, the FAA intends to certify these “non-hazard” systems in accordance with §§ 23.2500(b), 23.2505, and 23.2510.
The FAA received several comments on proposed § 23.1405(a)(2). Garmin stated that proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) should apply regardless of whether an airplane is certified for flight in icing conditions. Garmin recommended the FAA either move the proposed requirement to proposed § 23.215 (now § 23.2150) or delete it.
The FAA agrees that an airplane must be protected from stalling when the autopilot is operating, regardless of whether the airplane is certified for flight in icing conditions. However, proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) (now § 23.2540(b)) should not apply to airplanes where the applicant is not requesting certification for flight in icing conditions. The stall warning requirements of § 23.2150 will provide low-airspeed awareness, with or without the autopilot engaged, for new airplanes not certified for icing. The FAA finds § 23.2165(a) will provide stall warning for new airplanes where the applicant is requesting certification for flight in icing conditions. For new airplanes, the FAA acknowledges that a stall warning system that complies with §§ 23.2150 and 23.2165(a) will comply with § 23.2540(b). Section 23.2540(b) will also be added to the certification basis of certain STCs and amended TCs on icing certified airplanes, as discussed below in this section.
Textron and Rockwell Collins commented on the prescriptiveness of proposed § 23.1405(a)(2). Textron added that proposed § 23.1405(a)(2), which was in place only for changed product rule considerations, appeared to be a band-aid solution and not in line with higher-level goals for the new rules. Textron suggested the FAA delete proposed paragraph (a)(2).
The FAA finds that proposed § 23.1405(a)(2), with the exception of specifying “vertical mode,” is performance-based and consistent with the higher-level goals of the proposal, because the standard does not specify how to achieve protection from a stall. The FAA expects means of compliance to include the Icing ARC's recommendations. The FAA deletes the reference to “vertical mode” from § 23.2540(b) to make it less prescriptive, since it is expected the icing means of compliance will recognize that only vertical modes may result in airspeed loss. The FAA renumbers this section as part of the final rule. Proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) is now § 23.2540(b).
Additionally, in response to Textron's comment, proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) (now § 23.2540(b)) is intended to increase the safety of the existing fleet. While § 23.2540(a) and (b) apply to new airplanes, the FAA intends § 23.2540(b) to specifically target older airplanes adding an autopilot for the first time, modifying certain autopilots on airplanes with a negative service history in icing, or making significant changes that affect performance or flight characteristics and affect the autopilot. As stated in the NPRM, under the changed product rule, § 23.2540(b) will be added to the certification basis of these types of STCs and amended TCs for icing certified airplanes. This will result in a targeted increase in safety without requiring compliance to an entire later amendment, including § 23.2540(a). Compliance with § 23.2540(a) would require the applicant to address areas unaffected by an autopilot STC. The Part 23 Icing ARC Report (Icing ARC Report) provides examples of modifications in which new § 23.2540(b) will be applicable. Numerous icing accidents have shown that unrecognized airspeed loss can occur with autopilots in altitude hold or vertical speed modes. Means of compliance other than modifications to the airplanes' stall warning system may be acceptable under § 23.2540(b) for these STCs and amended TCs. The Task 9, “Determine if implementation of NTSB Safety Recommendation A-10-12 is feasible for part 23 airplanes for operations in icing conditions,” discussion in the Icing ARC Report provides additional background.
Rockwell Collins stated that proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) could be interpreted as requiring the autopilot to protect the airplane from stalling.
To address the commenter's concern, the FAA revises the proposed rule language (now § 23.2540(b)) to clarify that the airplane design must provide protection from stalling when the autopilot is operating.
The NTSB disagreed that proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) would address Safety Recommendation A-10-12, which concerns low-airspeed alerting systems. The NTSB stated that this safety recommendation would be more appropriately addressed in proposed § 23.1500, “Flightcrew Interface.”
The FAA notes, as explained in the NPRM, proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) was based on NTSB safety recommendation A-10-12. This implied proposed § 23.1405(a)(2) responded to recommendation A-10-12. The FAA acknowledges § 23.2540(b) is not the type of stall protection the NTSB recommended because it does not require the installation of low-airspeed alert systems. Instead, § 23.2540(b) addresses a different and more urgent safety problem by requiring airplanes with autopilots to provide an adequate stall warning in icing conditions. Furthermore, § 23.2540(b) is an airworthiness standard that establishes a minimum level of safety for all airplanes under part 23. If the FAA were to adopt a requirement in part 23 that required applicants to install a low-speed alert system in their airplanes, that requirement would apply to all airplanes. The FAA did not propose such a requirement because safety recommendation A-10-12 applies only to commercial airplanes under part 91 subpart K, and parts 121, and 135. To properly respond to NTSB safety recommendation A-10-12, the FAA would have to change the operating rules, which is outside the scope of this rulemaking.
Embraer and Garmin both commented on the term “demonstration.” Embraer recommended the FAA change “in atmospheric icing conditions” in proposed paragraph (b) to “considering atmospheric icing conditions”. Embraer stated that its proposal aimed to make a broad statement, implying that there may be several means of addressing the icing conditions as shown in figures 1 through 6 of Appendix C to Part 25. The commenter asserted the original text in the NPRM might be understood as
In light of these comments, the FAA is using the phrase “must show” rather than “must demonstrate” in the introductory sentence of § 23.2540, which is consistent with the changes made to § 23.2165. This change is also consistent with the NPRM, which explained that demonstration, as a means of compliance, may include design and/or analysis and does not mean flight tests are required. However, for the foreseeable future, the FAA does expect means of compliance to include icing flight tests for applicants seeking icing certification for new TCs.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1410(a), (c) and (d) (now § 23.2545) would have required the minimum burst pressure of—
• Hydraulic systems be at least 2.5 times the design operating pressure with the proof pressure at least 1.5 times the maximum operating pressure;
• Pressurization system elements be at least 2.0 times, and proof pressure be at least 1.5 times, the maximum normal operating pressure; and
• Pneumatic system elements be at least 3.0 times, and proof pressure be at least 1.5 times, the maximum normal operating pressure.
In light of comments received, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.1410(a) through (e) and adopts new language for § 23.2545. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
Garmin commented that proposed § 23.1410 was still extremely prescriptive and suggested the FAA revise the rule to a higher safety objective, and burst and proof pressures should be in a consensus standard. Garmin proposed alternative, less prescriptive language. ANAC similarly stated that parts of proposed § 23.1410 were too prescriptive and suggested that it might be more appropriate to set the “minimum burst” and “proof pressure” values for the hydraulic, pressurization, and pneumatic systems using consensus standards. ANAC also proposed alternative language.
The FAA agrees with ANAC's recommendation to set the proof and burst factors for hydraulic, pneumatic and pressurization systems in consensus standards or means of compliance. This is consistent with the FAA's goal of moving from prescriptive regulations to performance-based regulations. The FAA did not use Garmin's suggested language because it did not clearly state that the requirement was for “proof” and “burst” pressure, and would have applied to “pressurized system elements”. This may be more limited than using the phrase “pressurized system”. ANAC's suggested language was also not used because it was not inclusive of all pressurized systems. Consensus standards or means of compliance can be used to document the appropriate proof and burst factors, the operating pressure to be factored, pass/fail criteria for tests, and other information included in former § 23.1435(a)(4), (b), § 23.1438, and AC 23-17C.
Textron noted it is unclear what the difference is between the terminology used to describe the system pressures upon which the factors in proposed § 23.1410(a), (c), (d), and (e) are applied (
The FAA agrees with merging proposed § 23.1410 (a), (c) and (d) because they are similar and related. In addition, the FAA has decided to merge proposed § 23.1410(e) with these requirements to address all systems containing fluids under pressure. Therefore, the FAA withdraws proposed paragraphs (a), (c), (d), and (e) and adopts new language in § 23.2545 that requires pressurized systems to withstand appropriate proof and burst pressures.
ANAC, Textron, and an individual commenter addressed proposed § 23.1410(b). ANAC recommended the provision be deleted. In addition to being prescriptive, ANAC noted the provision is already addressed in proposed § 23.1315, which evaluates in a more systematic way the design and installation of a system or component according to their failure condition that is directly related to the airplane safe operation. Additionally, Textron said the provision is misplaced and should be moved to proposed subpart E, § 23.900 or § 23.910 (now § 23.2410). An individual commenter also recommended moving the provision to § 23.900.
Based on the comments, the FAA has decided that the safety intent of this requirement is adequately addressed in § 23.2510 and § 23.2410. Section 23.2510 requires equipment separation and redundancy based on the severity of equipment failures. Section 23.2410 requires powerplant failures, including engine driven accessory failures, to be considered and mitigated—effectively requiring safety critical engine driven accessories to be distributed on multiengine airplanes. Therefore, the FAA withdraws proposed § 23.1410(b) from the final rule; hence, there is no reason to place it elsewhere.
The requirements of former § 23.1461 were not fully incorporated into proposed § 23.755(a)(3), so the FAA creates a new § 23.2550 to correct this omission. The preamble section for § 23.2320 discusses this change in more detail.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed substantial changes to former subpart G based on its assessment that many of the regulations contained in this subpart contain prescriptive requirements that are more appropriate for inclusion as means of compliance to the new part 23 performance-based regulations. The FAA noted this approach would provide at least the same level of safety as current prescriptive requirements while providing greater flexibility for future designs. The FAA also expanded the scope of the subpart to address flightcrew interface requirements.
Zee agreed with the FAA's proposal to expand subpart G to address not only current operating limitations and information, but also flightcrew interface. Zee noted that, based on current technology, the FAA anticipates new airplanes will heavily rely on
EASA commented that information from various other subparts in proposed part 23 should be included in subpart G to provide requirements on how the information should be provided. EASA noted that proposed subpart G could include requirements for subjects such as flightcrew interface; function and installation, flight, navigation, powerplant instruments, cockpit controls, instrument markings, control markings and placards, airplane flight manual, and instructions for continued airworthiness. EASA also noted these subjects were under consideration by EASA for inclusion as separate sections in a future proposal to revise CS 23.
The FAA finds its proposed actions respond to the concerns of Zee, EASA, and others within the industry to better address the issue of flightcrew interface. The FAA recognizes that flightcrew interface issues have become increasingly more important as a result of recent technological developments in flight, navigation, surveillance, and powerplant control systems. The FAA partially agrees with EASA's comment that information from various other subparts in proposed part 23 should be included in subpart G. However, the FAA finds the full extent of the material EASA proposes for inclusion would establish requirements that would be too prescriptive in nature and therefore not in accord with the overall objective of this rulemaking to replace the detailed prescriptive requirements with more general performance-based standards. The FAA does, however, acknowledge that certain sections of EASA A-NPA 2015-06 and NPA 2016-05 may better address those requirements where the FAA's proposed language may have been too general in nature and not sufficiently detailed to permit adequate means of compliance to be developed. In a number of instances, the FAA has adopted either the specific regulatory language used by EASA or similar equivalent language to better address those safety concerns and achieve greater harmonization. The specific instances where the FAA has adopted these revisions are discussed in the preamble to the sections in which those changes have been made.
The FAA notes that EASA proposed the inclusion of three sections in its revision of CS 23, subpart G, which added substantial detail to that subpart. The FAA did not include corresponding sections within its proposed subpart G. Proposed CS 23.2605, “Installation and operation information”, and proposed CS 23.2610, “Flight, navigation, and powerplant instruments”, however, did correspond to proposed § 23.1305 and proposed § 23.1310, respectively, in subpart F of the NPRM. Proposed CS 23.2615, “Cockpit controls,” was also in EASA's proposed subpart G, but did not have a corresponding section in the NPRM.
The FAA agrees that placing the requirements contained in these sections into subpart G is more appropriate than addressing those requirements in subpart F, as these requirements more directly relate to flightcrew interface issues. Accordingly, the FAA is relocating proposed § 23.1305 to subpart G, § 23.2605, “Installation and operation,” and proposed § 23.1310 to § 23.2615, “Flight, navigation, and powerplant instruments.” While adopting the general safety intent embodied in EASA's proposed regulations, the FAA is not including the complete level of detail specified in those regulations because the FAA considers the additional information more appropriate as a means of compliance. While the FAA believes that cockpit controls should be addressed under subpart G, the FAA did not include a separate section in the final rule equivalent to proposed CS 23.2615 because the FAA has determined these requirements are more appropriate as a means of compliance to § 23.2600.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1500 (now § 23.2600) would have required the pilot compartment and its equipment to allow each pilot to perform their duties, including taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent approach and landing. The pilot compartment and its equipment would also have to allow a pilot to perform any maneuvers within the operating envelope of the airplane, without excessive concentration, skill, alertness, or fatigue. Proposed § 23.1500 would have required an applicant to install flight, navigation, surveillance, and powerplant controls and displays so qualified flightcrew could monitor and perform all tasks associated with the intended functions of systems and equipment so as to make the possibility that a flightcrew error could result in a catastrophic event highly unlikely.
Textron noted that proposed § 23.1500 has “minimal wording” as compared to CS 23.460 and recommended the FAA harmonize proposed § 23.1500 with EASA's proposed provisions.
Textron also specifically recommended the FAA add the requirement in former § 23.671(b) for controls to be arranged and identified to provide convenience in operation and to prevent the possibility of confusion and subsequent inadvertent operation, to proposed § 23.1500.
The FAA has reviewed EASA A-NPA 2014-12 and NPA 2016-05 and finds the level of detail included in the crew interface requirements in both documents may be overly restrictive. The FAA finds § 23.2600 adequately address pilot compartment requirements and the requirements for the provision of necessary information and indications to the flightcrew. The FAA is not revising § 23.2600 as EASA recommended, because the FAA is concerned that adding the extensive level of detail that EASA is considering for inclusion in subpart G would neither enhance the FAA's ability to respond to the introduction of new technology nor foster future innovation. The FAA notes the adoption of the EASA's recommended requirements would only serve to create issues similar to those that the FAA is attempting to address with this significant revision of part 23 airworthiness standards. However, the FAA recognizes Textron's concerns and agrees that cockpit controls should not only be convenient to operate, but also prevent the possibility of confusion and subsequent inadvertent operation. Nevertheless, the FAA finds the regulatory intent of former § 23.671 will be achieved because Textron's concerns will be addressed in any means of compliance developed and submitted for acceptance to demonstrate compliance with § 23.2600.
Air Tractor raised concerns that proposed § 23.1500(b) added a requirement that the flightcrew be able to monitor and perform “all” tasks associated with the intended functions of systems and equipment. Air Tractor recommended the FAA insert the term “required” after “all” to ensure the proposal would not require the performance and monitoring of non-required tasks. An individual commenter at the FAA's public meeting also shared concerns regarding use of the term “all” and asked if its use would preclude systems from monitoring tasks the flightcrew does not have to continuously monitor.
The FAA agrees that use of the term “all” is too encompassing in this section
An individual commenter asserted that proposed § 23.1500(b) is “convoluted and subject to varying interpretations.” The commenter noted that one such interpretation could be the flightcrew would not be required to monitor and perform tasks and prevent errors that go beyond the intended functions of the installed systems and equipment. Accordingly, the commenter asserted that if there is no equipment installed to prevent CFIT, such as TAWS, there would be no requirement for monitoring and performing tasks and preventing errors associated with terrain clearance. The commenter also stated the rule could be interpreted to mean the tasks, monitoring, and error prevention requirements are those associated with a particular flight phase and flight conditions. For example, the commenter noted that there must be equipment to prevent CFIT (
In the NPRM, the FAA stated that it proposed to expand subpart G to address not only current operating limitations and information, but also the concept of flightcrew interface. The FAA further noted that it was proposing to address the pilot interface issues found in subparts D and F in proposed § 23.1500. Otherwise, subpart G retained the safety intent of the requirements in the former rules. This section does not impose additional equipment requirements, as suggested by the commenter's example, but it does require consideration of the flightcrew interface and human factors in the design and installation of equipment. The FAA notes the commenter's concern that the flightcrew would not be required to monitor and perform tasks, such as terrain avoidance, that are not directly addressed by installed systems and equipment.
Several commenters raised concerns regarding the use of the term “highly unlikely” in proposed § 23.1500(b) that addresses the ability of the system and equipment design to avoid the possibility that a flightcrew error could result in a catastrophic event. One individual commenter specifically noted that “highly unlikely” is a new and undefined term. The commenter recognized that prevention of errors undoubtedly would increase safety, but noted there is a limit to how much system and equipment design error prevention is justified and practicable in any airplane, not just those certificated under the provisions of part 23. This commenter also contended it would be difficult to comply with a stringent reading of “highly unlikely” and asserted a review of accident history would reveal this. Garmin, Air Tractor, and BendixKing submitted similar comments regarding the potential for this proposed requirement to increase the burden on applicants. Each of these commenters proposed alternative regulatory language addressing their concerns.
The Associations commented that the intent of this proposed requirement is to prevent likely flightcrew errors with flight, navigation, surveillance, and powerplant controls and displays and proposed language to meet this intent. Textron also noted the proposed requirement failed to exclude skill related errors, errors as a result of malicious intent, recklessness, and actions taken under duress. Textron contended that system designs should not be responsible for all possible flightcrew errors, but only for reasonable errors. Textron recommended proposed alternative regulatory language addressing its concern.
Astronautics said the term “highly unlikely,” as it relates to “catastrophic,” would cause confusion in the context of failure condition categorization and likelihood of occurrence. The commenter suggested replacing the term “highly unlikely” with recognized terms that categorize failure hazards and probabilities. Astronautics also suggested recognizing a flightcrew error may have differing degrees of severity by revising the proposed rule to include consideration of the three different degrees of failure in proposed § 23.1315(b).
The FAA agrees with many of the commenters concerns regarding the use of the term “highly unlikely” in addressing the probability of preventing flightcrew errors resulting from system and equipment designs that could lead to catastrophic events. The FAA also recognizes the difficulty in assessing complex flightcrew interface issues associated with the approval of control and display designs. Prior to the adoption of this rule, the FAA utilized very prescriptive requirements with associated guidance material based on its need to address traditional controls, displays, and flight operations in the certification process. Although the FAA expects that this prescriptive language for the evaluation of traditional controls and displays will serve as a means of compliance with the new performance-based requirements, the FAA determines the new performance-based requirements will also allow for alternative approaches to meeting flightcrew interface requirements for non-traditional airplanes, operations, and non-traditional controls and displays.
As the FAA noted in the NPRM preamble, the smart use of automation and phase-of-flight-based displays could reduce pilot workload and increase pilot awareness. Accordingly, the FAA finds new technology can help the pilot in numerous ways, all with the effect of reducing pilot workload, which should help reduce accidents based on pilot error. The FAA intended to remove many of the barriers to the introduction of new technology while still retaining a clear performance-based requirement to which an applicant could demonstrate compliance. The FAA recognizes the potential for misinterpretation of the requirements with this new approach; however, the FAA's intent is not to increase the requirements set forth in former regulations, unless specifically stated in the preamble. The FAA expects the use of performance-based requirements to address flightcrew interface issues will result in the accelerated development of industry standards that will be used to improve the manner in which pilots
As several commenters noted, the terms “highly unlikely” and “catastrophic” have specific meanings with respect to the certification of systems that typically are not used when addressing human interactions. Based on the commenters' recommendations, the FAA finds the best approach to adequately address flightcrew interface issues is to revise § 23.2600 using language similar to that contained in former § 23.1309(d), which states that systems and controls must be designed to minimize crew errors which could create additional hazards. This avoids the problems associated with the use of language more appropriate for evaluation of system and equipment failures.
Shortly after the close of the comment period, EASA published NPA 2016-05, which proposed requirements to address an oversight in the NPRM regarding the pilot visibility requirements originally contained in subpart D. The FAA has adopted EASA's proposed language both in paragraphs (a) and (c) to correct this oversight in the FAA's proposal, to ensure that pilot compartment visibility requirements are addressed. Adopting these requirements serves to ensure that pilot view requirements, and particularly those requirements that could result from the loss of vision through a windshield panel in a level 4 airplane, are addressed. The FAA finds that these revisions impose no requirements in excess of those specified in the former § 23.775 and will maintain the level of safety set forth in part 23, through amendment 23-62, as originally intended in the proposal. As discussed in the context of proposed § 23.755, the requirement for level 4 airplanes that the flightcrew interface design must allow for continued safe flight and landing after the loss of vision through any one of the windshield panels has been moved to § 23.2600(c).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1305 (now § 23.2605) would have required each item of installed equipment—
• To perform its intended function;
• Be installed according to limitations specified for that equipment; and
• The equipment be labeled, if applicable, due to the size, location, or lack of clarity as to its intended function, as to its identification, function, or operation limitations, or any combination of these factors.
In light of comments received, the FAA revises proposed § 23.1305 by moving paragraphs (a)(2) through (c) to new § 23.2605. This section discusses these changes in more detail.
The function and installation rule language in proposed § 23.1305 was originally located in subpart F, Equipment. The logic behind the location of these requirements was that requirements for the display and control of a specific function would be in subpart G, while requirements for the hardware or software for the display or control are would be in subpart F. For this reason, proposed § 23.1305, “Function and installation,” included specific paragraphs from the requirements of former §§ 23.1301, 23.1303, 23.1305, 23.1309, 23.1322, 23.1323, 23.1326, 23.1327, 23.1329, 23.1331, 23.1335, 23.1337, 23.1351, 23.1353, 23.1357, 23.1361, 23.1365, 23.1367, and 23.1416.
The Associations recommended the FAA delete proposed § 23.1305(a)(2) and (a)(3). The commenters also suggested the FAA delete proposed § 23.1305(b), as the flightcrew interface portion of the proposed rules already addressed the same subject area. Furthermore, EASA recommended moving the flightcrew interface requirements from proposed § 23.1305(a)(2) through (c) to subpart G.
The FAA agrees with the commenters that the paragraphs in proposed § 23.1305 that address display and control for the flightcrew is better located in subpart G. Upon closer review, the FAA agrees with EASA's recommendation as it is consistent with the FAA's intent behind moving requirements from subpart F to subpart G. As proposed, subpart G did not have any sections that directly address these specific paragraphs. For that reason, the FAA adds new § 23.2605, “Installation and operation”, which contains the language from proposed § 23.1305(a)(2) through (c).
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1505 (new § 23.2610) would have required each airplane to display in a conspicuous manner any placard and instrument marking necessary for operation. Proposed § 23.2610 would also have required an applicant to clearly mark each cockpit control, other than primary flight controls, as to its function and method of operation and include instrument marking and placard information in the AFM.
Astronautics agreed that an applicant should ensure markings are adequate and meet the marking requirements specified in 14 CFR 45.11, “Marking of products.” However, they asserted that the requirement for applicants to mark the controls and instruments themselves, as required by proposed § 23.1505(b), is “overly broad.” The proposed requirement fails to account for existing markings such as those required by § 45.15, “Marking requirements for PMA articles, TSO articles, and critical parts.” Astronautics noted that some controls, such as knobs and push buttons, are typically integrated parts of TSO articles. The commenter believed that proposed § 23.1505 could be interpreted to require an applicant to add or replace markings on instruments already marked pursuant to a TSO authorization or PMA. Astronautics recommended the FAA revise proposed § 23.1505 to specify that an applicant is not required to alter markings already required under § 45.15.
The FAA agrees with Astronautics that the proposal is overly prescriptive as to how information regarding function and method of operation is to be provided. Accordingly, the FAA removes the requirement from proposed paragraph (b) specifically requiring an applicant to mark cockpit controls and instruments and revises the proposal to require the airplane design clearly indicate the function of each cockpit control (other than primary flight controls). This revision will permit an applicant to utilize markings made pursuant to a TSO authorization or PMA without imposing a repetitive and potentially conflicting requirement.
BendixKing requested the FAA delete the phrase “. . . and method of operation” from proposed § 23.1505(b). The commenter believed that the marking of cockpit controls should be limited to labeling the function of the control and that including its method of operation as a marking requirement is neither bounded nor appropriate.
The FAA agrees in part with BendixKing's comment. The FAA concurs that application of the proposed requirement to all cockpit controls (other than primary flight controls) is overbroad and could lead to an applicant including information on cockpit control markings that is excessive, unnecessary, and contrary to the agency's original intent. Accordingly, the FAA revises proposed paragraph (b) to eliminate the proposed requirement that an applicant mark cockpit controls with their method of operation. However, cockpit controls (other than primary flight controls) would continue to be required to clearly indicate their function. As under the former regulations, information on the method of operation of equipment is provided in the airplane flight manual and equipment manuals, which is sufficient to satisfy the objective of the proposal.
Textron requested the FAA be more specific as to what placards (
The FAA recognizes that information may be provided to pilots and passengers using a variety of methods and considers it unnecessary to specifically prescribe those placards that must be included in the AFM. Additionally, a requirement to include specific placards would be counter to this rule's intent to remove prescriptive requirements from current regulatory text and replace those provisions with performance-based regulations. The FAA finds that variations in airplane designs and the methods of providing information to pilots and passengers may necessitate the need for various types of placard information that would be more appropriate for inclusion as a means of compliance to the regulatory requirements, thereby providing applicants with more flexibility in meeting the underlying safety intent of the rule.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1310 (now § 23.2615) would have required installed systems to provide the flightcrew member who sets or monitors flight parameters for the flight, navigation, and powerplant information necessary to do so during each phase of flight. Proposed § 23.1310 would have required this information include parameters and trends, as needed for normal, abnormal, and emergency operation, and limitations, unless an applicant showed the limitation would not be exceeded in all intended operations. Proposed § 23.1310 would have prohibited indication systems that integrate the display of flight or powerplant parameters to operate the airplane or are required by the operating rules of this chapter, from inhibiting the primary display of flight or powerplant parameters needed by any flightcrew member in any normal mode of operation. Proposed § 23.1310 would have required these indication systems be designed and installed so information essential for continued safe flight and landing would be available to the flightcrew in a timely manner after any single failure or probable combination of failures.
Several commenters raised concerns with proposed § 23.1310(a)(1), which would have required installed systems to provide the flightcrew member with parameters and trends, as needed. Air Tractor questioned whether round gauge instruments produce a trend and whether the FAA would use paragraph (a)(1) to mandate electric gauges. Similarly, Garmin contended that proposed § 23.1310(a)(1) could be interpreted as requiring more information than was formerly required. Garmin noted the pilot often determines the trend by monitoring a gauge, but the trend itself may not be displayed. Garmin asked the FAA to clarify whether it intended paragraph (a)(1) to require trend information to be displayed, or information to be presented in a manner that enables the pilot to monitor the parameter and determine trends. Genesys Aerosystems commented that requiring “trends” rather than addressing “trends” in guidance materials would lead to more trends being required than needed.
The FAA did not intend proposed § 23.1310(a)(1) to require electric gauges. Traditional analog indicators, such as airspeed indicators or altimeters, have been shown to provide adequate trend indications and will still be acceptable. It may also be possible to have a system that automatically monitors the parameter of interest and warns the pilot of any trend that could lead to a failure. Paragraph (a)(1), however, does not allow a light that comes on at the same time that the failure occurs to replace analog indicators because such a light does not provide trend information prior to a failure. A warning light system that would comply must be sophisticated enough to read transients and trends, and give a useful warning to the pilot of a potential condition.
The FAA agrees the proposed rule language could have been misinterpreted as requiring more information than former part 23. The FAA intended proposed § 23.1310 to capture the safety intent of the former requirements, which was to provide flightcrew members the ability to obtain the information necessary to operate the airplane safely in flight, but not to exceed the safety intent of former part 23. Therefore, proposed § 23.1310(a)(1) was intended to require installed systems to provide adequate information to the flightcrew member to determine trends by monitoring a gauge or display. The FAA did not intend to expressly require an installed system to display the trend itself, because not all systems display trends. The FAA revises the proposed rule language to clarify its intent. Accordingly, § 23.2615(a)(1) now requires the information to be presented in a manner that enables the flightcrew member to monitor parameters and determine trends, as needed, to operate the airplane.
Former § 23.1311(a)(6) required electronic display indicators to incorporate, as appropriate, trend information to the parameter being displayed to the pilot. Section 23.2615(a)(1) is not meant to be an increase in burden from the former requirement and associated guidance regarding when trends are needed.
Kestrel raised concerns that although proposed § 23.1310 is less prescriptive, it did not minimally require the pilot to have available airspeed, altitude, direction, and attitude indicators as former § 23.1303 prescribed. The commenter asked if the FAA envisions a scenario where this information would not be required. Kestrel was also concerned that the phrase “as needed” would lead to diverging FAA interpretations of proposed § 23.1310(a)(1). The commenter asked the FAA to clarify its intent regarding the requirement to provide parameters and trends “as needed.” If this was not a fixed set of parameters, Kestrel asked for details on how this list would be determined.
As explained in the NPRM, the former regulations that required airspeed, altimeter, and magnetic direction were redundant with the operating rules, specifically §§ 91.205 and 135.149. Furthermore, they required prescriptive design solutions that were assumed to achieve an acceptable level of safety. These prescriptive solutions precluded finding more effective or more economical paths to providing acceptable safety. One of the stated goals of the proposal was to facilitate the introduction of new technologies into small airplanes. Concepts already envisioned with fly-by-wire system may
Astronautics asked the FAA to insert a comma after “as needed” in paragraph (a)(1) to clarify that “as needed” is a parenthetical phrase. The FAA agrees and corrects the grammar in the revised rule language.
ANAC suggested the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.1310(a) because it is covered by proposed § 23.1305(b) and (c), which are broader in scope. In light of the performance-based context of the proposed rule, ANAC reasoned that defining specific requirements only for flight, navigation, and powerplant instruments was unnecessary. ANAC also recommended the FAA not adopt proposed § 23.1310(b), which appeared to apply to specific technologies (integrated systems). ANAC noted the intent of paragraph (b) was already addressed in proposed § 23.1305(b) and (c) (requiring timely information), and proposed § 23.1315 (now § 25.2510, requiring the capacity to maintain continued safety flight and landing after single or probable failures).
The FAA notes ANAC's comment on proposed § 23.1310(a) and (b), but paragraphs (a) and (b) are not redundant. Sections 23.2505 and 23.2510 apply generally to installed equipment and systems. However, §§ 23.2505 and 23.2510 do not apply if another section of part 23 imposes requirements for specific installed equipment or systems. The FAA finds that flight, navigation, and powerplant instrumentation are significant enough to warrant their own requirements. Therefore, the FAA adopts § 23.1310 (now§ 23.2615(a) and (b)) as proposed.
ANAC also raised concerns that the phrase “normal, abnormal, and emergency operation” in paragraph (a) may be interpreted as a required classification of types of operations, meaning a system safety type analysis may be required for each indicator, classification of each condition, and three separate indications for each condition, which it deemed overly prescriptive. As an alternative to deleting proposed § 23.1310(a)(1), ANAC recommended the FAA revise paragraph (a)(1) to require parameters and trends, as needed, “to operate the airplane.”
The FAA agrees with ANAC and revises paragraph (a)(1) accordingly.
Genesys Aerosystems commented on proposed § 23.1310(b), which was formerly covered only in guidance material. Genesys Aerosystems contended that paragraph (b) is a bit prescriptive and including it in the regulation could stifle future innovation.
The FAA notes Genesys Aerosystems concern, but this requirement was previously covered under former § 23.1311. Section 23.2615(b) captures the safety intent of former § 23.1311, but removes the prescriptive requirements of former § 23.1311(a)(5), which mandated secondary instruments as the means to providing information to the flightcrew essential for continued safe flight and landing. This would allow future innovations in system architecture and design to provide the flight parameters necessary to maintain safe flight.
EASA recommended moving the pilot interface issues of proposed § 23.1310 to subpart G.
The FAA agrees with this recommendation because flightcrew interface issues are more appropriately addressed in subpart G, which contains requirements on flightcrew interface and other information. Therefore, the FAA moves the entire proposed § 23.1310 to subpart G as new § 23.2615.
In the NPRM, proposed § 23.1510 (now § 23.2620) would have required an applicant to furnish an AFM with each airplane that contained the operating limitations and procedures, performance information, loading information, and any other information necessary for the operation of the airplane.
Garmin noted that the purpose of the AFM is to provide the pilot with basic information required to safely fly the airplane and stated it appreciates and supports the FAA's proposal to remove the prescriptive detail about the AFM content from § 23.1510. However, Garmin did express concern about use of the phrases “[o]perating limits and procedures” in proposed § 23.1510(a) and “[a]ny other information necessary for the operation of the airplane” in proposed § 23.1510(d). Garmin noted the possibility for confusion arising from the ambiguity of the terms “operating” and “operation” in former §§ 23.1581(a)(2), 23.1581(a)(3), 23.1583(k), and 23.1585(j). For example, Garmin pointed out that many current FAA 20-series ACs specify that equipment operation limitations should be included in an AFM.
Garmin also suggested using the terms “operating” and “operation” in proposed § 23.1510(a) and (d) could be easily confused with operating rule limitations (
Therefore, Garmin recommended proposed § 23.1510(a) state: “Airplane operating limitations and procedures.” The Associations recommended the same revision. Garmin also suggested revising the NPRM preamble to state that the AFM is not intended to be used as a catch-all for equipment operating limitations, or to be used for operating rule limitations or system-wide operating limitations, all of which are more appropriately included in guides and manuals.
The FAA agrees with Garmin in that the AFM was never intended as a catch-all for equipment or airspace operating limitations. The requirement for “operating limitations and procedures” in the proposed § 23.1510(a) was intended to capture information required to be included in the AFM by former §§ 23.1583 and 23.1585.
The FAA did not intend to expand § 23.2620(a) to encompass information that is not required to be included in the AFM by former §§ 23.1583 and 23.1585. To further clarify its intent, the FAA
Proposed § 23.1510(a)(4) would have required that “any other information necessary for the operation of the airplane” must be included in the AFM. The FAA agrees with the commenters' concern that the proposed language was too broad and could be interpreted as requiring information that has not traditionally been included in the AFM. The intent of this proposed provision was to retain the requirement of former § 23.1581(a)(2), which require the AFM to include other information that is necessary for safe operation because of design, operating, or handling characteristics.” Because the proposed language was unclear, the final rule will simply codify, without change, the language of former § 23.1581(a)(2) into § 23.2620(a)(4).
Garmin noted that while it was not specifically covered in the NPRM preamble, it appreciated that proposed § 23.2620 no longer appears to require FAA approval of certain information contained in the AFM as required by former § 23.1581(b). Garmin said this would eliminate delays associated with seeking an Aircraft Certification Office engineer's approval of AFM content for the TC or STC process, typically a one-time occurrence; or Flight Standards District Office inspector's approval of AFM content for post-certification installations, which occur frequently. Garmin explained that these approval delays translate into loss of revenue for the applicants. Garmin recommended the preamble specifically indicate there is no intent to require FAA approval of AFM content during certification or for post-certification installation.
NATCA asked the FAA to clarify the Airworthiness Limitations Sections (ALS), as well as portions of the AFM, requiring FAA approval. NATCA indicated this clarification was need as approval of ALS and AFM content are “inherently governmental functions.” NATCA noted that all other sections of the continuing operating instructions, maintenance, and some flight manual sections are accepted.
The FAA notes the requirement for the AFM in former § 23.1581 required each portion of the AFM containing information required by the FAA must be approved by the FAA, segregated, identified, and clearly distinguished from each unapproved portion of the AFM. The former requirements also provided an exception for reciprocating-powered airplanes that do not weigh more than 6,000 pounds if certain requirements were met.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed revising § 21.9 by adding a new paragraph (a)(7) to provide applicants with an alternative method to obtain FAA approval to produce replacement and modification articles that are reasonably likely to be installed on type certificated aircraft. The FAA also proposed revising paragraphs (b) and (c) to specify that these articles would be suitable for use in a type certificated product. Lastly, the FAA also proposed allowing an applicant to submit production information for a specific article, but would not require the producer of the article to apply for approval of the article's design or obtain approval of its quality system. Under the proposed changes, approval to produce a modification or replacement article under proposed § 21.9(a)(7) would not constitute a production approval as defined in § 21.1(b)(6). In the NPRM, the FAA indicated it would limit use of this procedure to articles whose improper operation or failure would not cause a hazard. Additionally, the approval would be granted on a case-by-case basis, specific to the installation proposed, accounting for potential risk and considering the safety continuum.
The FAA specifically solicited comments regarding whether the proposed change would safely facilitate retrofit of low risk articles and whether there are alternative methods to address the perceived retrofit barrier.
All commenters expressed some level of support for the proposed changes to § 21.9. Several commenters asked the FAA to provide guidance to clarify how the proposed changes will work.
The FAA agrees with the commenters that additional details and clarification are needed to further define the process for obtaining approval under § 21.9(a)(7) and will provide the necessary policy and guidance material. Generally, the process for obtaining FAA approval under § 21.9(a)(7) is intended to be scalable in nature in that different degrees of substantiation may be required, depending on the complexity of the article for which approval is sought. For example, a non-required, low-risk article could be simple enough that a design approval and quality system might not be required; however, a more complex article might also require a § 21.8(d) design approval and some form of quality system. Examples of the requirements for more complex projects include FAA policy memorandum AIR100-14-110-PM01, “Approval of Non-Required Angle-of-Attack (AOA) Indicator Systems, and FAA policy statement PS-AIR-21.8-1602, Approval of Non-Required Safety Enhancing Equipment (NORSEE).” For simple articles, a reduction in scale could be negotiated with the FAA to provide an appropriate level of safety. Audits of the manufacturer's facility would be at the discretion of the appropriate MIDO. Typically, a MIDO audit would not be required unless there is evidence that indicates improper quality control issues that require a MIDO's involvement, as described in the FAA Policy Statement PS-AIR-21.8-1602.
Astronautics Corporation commented that whether an article is “required” or “non-required” depends on the kind of operation the applicant requests for certification. Garmin also questioned why the qualifying articles have to be non-required and asked the FAA to consider expanding use of the proposed § 21.9(a)(7) process to include low-risk required articles when the applicant has an approved quality system. Garmin contended that low risk to the aircraft or its occupants should be sufficient criteria to allow application to both required and non-required equipment.
Astronautics Corporation is correct in its observation that the approval means for an article could potentially affect the “kinds of operation” authorized for an aircraft. The FAA's intent is not to bypass existing certification process for required equipment, but to provide an alternative process for non-required, low-risk articles. For example, a weather
Garmin also asked what would be needed for approval of the installation of articles produced under § 21.9(a)(7) and whether new FAA policy would be needed each time there is a new equipment standard proposed to allow its installation.
Section 21.9(a)(7) concerns only the production of articles, not their installation. The required process for obtaining installation approval remains unchanged by this rule.
Garmin asserted that the term “low risk” is subjective and asked the FAA to clarify the intent of this term. Specifically, Garmin asked if a system with a minor failure condition would fall into the low-risk category.
The FAA intends the term “low risk,” for the purposes of § 21.9(a)(7), to apply to non-required articles with a hazard classification no greater than minor. In this context, a “minor” failure condition would result in only a slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
Air Tractor asked whether the changes to § 21.9 will apply equally to TC and STC holders and applicants for those certificates, which the commenter said it believed the changes should.
It is the FAA's intent that an article approved under § 21.9(a)(7) can be subsequently approved for installation by a TC or STC holder based on the installation data provided by the TC or STC holder.
Additionally, the FAA has decided not to except articles approved under § 21.9(a)(7) from the prohibition on representing an article as suitable for installation on a type-certificated product found in § 21.9(b) and § 21.9(c); therefore, the FAA is not adopting the NPRM's proposed changes to § 21.9(b) and § 21.9(c). The current § 21.9 creates an exception from this prohibition for articles produced under a TC or an FAA production approval because these articles have approved installation data that justify a representation of suitability. The proposed changes in the NPRM would have allowed articles that are not produced under a TC or production approval to be sold or represented as suitable for installation on type-certificated products without approved installation data. A representation that an article is “suitable for installation” could be misinterpreted as “approved for installation.” The FAA notes that approval under § 21.9(a)(7) does not constitute approval for installation of the article; however, a person may state that an article approved under § 21.9(a)(7) may be installed in a type-certificated aircraft provided it has been determined suitable for installation by an appropriately-rated mechanic using appropriate means.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed amending § 21.17(a) by removing the reference to § 23.2 because § 23.2 would be deleted by this rule.
NATCA commented that elimination of the reference to retroactive rules, former § 23.2, leaves holes in certification basis for the existing fleet of airplanes. This commenter noted that while § 23.2 is not listed as a basis for certification for many existing airplanes, the provision nevertheless applies due to the date of manufacture of some airplanes. NATCA also raised concerns it would be burdensome to revise Type Certificate Data Sheets (TCDS) to reflect the change; therefore, NATCA requested that this regulation address the addition of seatbelts as a retroactive, date of manufacture, requirement.
The FAA notes NATCA's concern; however, the provisions of current § 23.2 are duplicated in § 91.205 and therefore remain applicable based on date of manufacture. The revision of TCDS will be unnecessary because any reference to current § 23.2 in an existing TCDS will include reference to the applicable amendment and continue to be enforceable.
The NTSB commented that the FAA should retain § 23.2 because it is a regulatory mechanism to apply special retroactive requirements to newly-manufactured items after the item has been issued a TC.
The FAA notes the NTSB's comment, but this rule does not affect the FAA's ability to promulgate other special retroactive requirements using the normal rulemaking process.
The FAA removes § 23.2 and revises § 21.17(a) by removing the reference to § 23.2, as proposed.
Although the NPRM did not propose changes to § 21.17(b), which addresses the designation of applicable regulations to special classes of airplane, NATCA asked whether the FAA would continue to accept EASA's CS-VLA and CS 22 sailplanes and powered sailplanes, as special, stand-alone classes of airplanes, or whether the intent was to include these airplanes in part 23 as EASA proposed.
The FAA intends to continue to allow CS-VLA and CS 22 airplanes to be approved as special, stand-alone classes of airplanes while also allowing eligibility for certification in accordance with part 23 using accepted means of compliance.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed amending § 21.24 by revising paragraph (a)(1)(i) to modify the phrase “as defined by § 23.49” to include reference to amendment 23-62 (76 FR 75736, December 2, 2011), effective on January 31, 2012. The FAA explained that revision would be necessary to maintain a complete definition of stall speed in § 21.24, as the former § 23.49 is removed by this rule.
The Associations said it is unnecessary to amend § 21.24(a)(1)(i) as proposed. These commenters noted there are many references to items such as stall speed that do not need to reference a previous amendment regulation for the steps to determine stall speed. The commenters contended it would be sufficient to include the intent in the preamble discussion.
The FAA agrees the reference to § 23.49, amendment 23-62, in § 21.24 is unnecessary. V
The Associations also asked the FAA to include electric propulsion in the primary category aircraft once the FAA determines acceptable standards by inserting the phrase “or with electric propulsion systems” after the phrase “naturally aspired engine.”
The commenters' request to include electric propulsion systems in the primary category is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. Therefore, the FAA defers the request for consideration in future part 21 rulemaking activity.
NATCA argued the establishment of Primary Category Aircraft in current § 21.24 has been an almost useless addition to part 21, resulting in problems without providing any benefit. As an example, NATCA referenced without elaboration the Seabird Seeker.
NATCA maintained that these types of airplanes are meant to be included in the part 23 rewrite and therefore recommended the FAA remove new type certification under § 21.24 once the part 23 revisions becomes final. Specifically, NATCA recommended the FAA rewrite §§ 21.24 and 21.184 to eliminate Primary Category certifications, or keep with an effective date to account for existing fleet, and create procedural requirements in part 21 and maybe part 23 to recognize something equivalent to EASA's CS-LSA.
The FAA considered NATCA's proposal to remove § 21.24, in effect, eliminating primary category certification. Although Very Light Aircraft and Light Sport Aircraft could be certified under the new part 23, eliminating § 21.24 is beyond the scope of this rulemaking because it would also remove a means of certification for certain rotorcraft that qualify for the primary category. These rotorcraft will not be able to take advantage of the new part 23 because it applies only to the certification of airplanes. Additionally, § 21.24 and the new part 23 do not conflict; they are alternative paths for certification.
Additionally, proposed § 21.24(i) abbreviated “January” as “Jan”. This rule replaces “Jan” with “January”.
The NPRM proposed amending § 21.35(b)(2) to delete reference to reciprocating engines and expanding the exempted airplanes to include all low-speed part 23 airplanes 6,000 pounds or less. This proposed change would align the requirements for function and reliability testing with the proposed changes in part 23 that do not distinguish between propulsion types. This change would allow the FAA flexibility to address new propulsion types.
All commenters objected to the use of a 6,000-pound weight limit as a threshold for exemption from testing in proposed § 21.35(b)(2). Each commenter noted that the stated intent of the part 23 revision is, in part, to move away from weight and propulsion type classifications. Each commenter also requested the FAA remove the 6,000-pound weight limit.
Air Tractor proposed eliminating the need for function and reliability testing entirely and suggested the market will sort out function and reliability issues by means of natural economic controls.
The Associations suggested the FAA use a parameter other than maximum weight as a discriminator. Recognizing that the 6,000-pound weight limit appears to be based on the airplane's complexity and considering the acceptable level of risk, these commenters suggested using a low‐speed airplane, which is a measure of complexity, and airworthiness level 2 or less, which are newly accepted measures of risk, to provide the same level of safety. The commenters noted this discriminator would also better align with the part 23 design rules. Therefore, the Associations recommended replacing the phrase “of 6,000 pound or less maximum weight” with “meeting part 23 airworthiness level 1 or 2.”
The FAA disagrees with Air Tractor's proposal to eliminate all Function and Reliability (F&R) testing, because elimination of F&R testing for high-speed, complex airplanes, carrying larger numbers of passengers is not in keeping with the FAA's statutory mandate to prescribe minimum standards in the interest of safety for the design and performance of airplanes.
The FAA agrees with Textron and the Associations to remove the 6,000-pound discriminator in favor of values based on complexity and risk. Accordingly, the FAA has decided to replace the exception from F&R testing for airplanes weighing 6,000 pounds and below with an exception for airplanes with performance level of low-speed and certification level of 2 or less. The 6,000-pound discriminator was based on the FAA's assumptions regarding the complexity and risk associated with airplanes of that weight. However, as the commenters point out, their recommended parameters reflect the same assumptions regarding complexity and risk. Although this change may provide an exception for airplanes of up to 19,000 pounds, these airplanes would still be within the allowable risk and complexity parameters.
In the NPRM, proposed § 21.50(b) would have replaced the reference § 23.1529 with § 23.1515 to align with the proposed part 23 numbering convention.
The FAA has decided not to renumber § 23.1529, which requires applicants for a TC or a change to a TC under part 23 to prepare Instructions for Continued Airworthiness; therefore, this section retains the reference to § 23.1529 in this rule. However, the FAA will keep the proposed addition of the phrase “for Continued Airworthiness” in the second sentence of § 21.50 to clarify that the second sentence in paragraph (b) refers to Instructions for Continued Airworthiness.
The NPRM proposed amending § 21.101(b) to remove reference to § 23.2 because § 23.2 was proposed to be removed from part 23 and the requirements of former § 23.2 are addressed in the operating rules. The NPRM, in order to align § 21.101 with the proposed part 23 certification levels, proposed amending § 21.101(c) to include simple airplanes, level 1, low-speed airplanes, and level 2, low-speed airplanes. The NPRM did not propose to revise § 21.101 to address airplanes certified under former part 23, amendment 23-62, or prior amendments. Section 21.101 will continue to allow for compliance with the certification requirements at amendment 23-62 or earlier when compliance to the latest amendment of part 23 is determined by the FAA to be impractical.
The Associations said the FAA should remove the phrase “to a simple” from the first sentence of § 21.101(c), regardless of the later utilization of the term as these aircraft are completely encompassed by low‐speed, level 1 airplanes. The FAA agrees and revises the rule language to remove “to a simple” from § 21.101(c).
Textron commented that the purpose of the part 23 rewrite is to move away from prescriptive classifications like weight and propulsion type, and therefore asked FAA to remove the 6,000-pound weight-based division in proposed § 21.101(c). Textron also noted the FAA provided no justifications for retaining the 6,000-pound weight-based division. Textron also suggested adding
The FAA considered Textron's comment. However, the 6,000-pound weight division cannot be removed because it continues to apply to legacy airplanes and modifications to those airplanes. A legacy airplane would only be identified by a certification level if it was re-certified to be fully compliant with the new rule. Therefore, the proposed wording is intended to capture both legacy airplanes and newly type certified airplanes. The FAA agrees that adding the word “airplane” after “level 1 low speed” in paragraph (c) will improve the sentence's clarity.
NATCA observed that there do not appear to be FAA directives or guidance on how to apply the part 23 rewrite to existing airplanes. As an example, NATCA asked how this rewrite would apply to a Piper Seneca V, an amendment 23-6 airplane. The commenter contended the FAA already struggles with the existing regulations and guidance. NATCA also asked how the proposed changes will be implemented on existing TC and STC products and how the certification basis will be captured. NATCA asked FAA to issue new directives, orders, and ACs specifically addressing application of part 23, relative to the Changed Product Rule, to prevent a situation in which each ACO (and applicant) comes up with their own creative interpretation of the regulation.
The FAA has developed internal training and guidance material to assist FAA employees. Specific to the application of the Changed Product Rule (§ 21.101), there should be minimal variation from existing procedures and guidance material. The certification basis for changed products will be captured by section and amendment in accordance with existing procedures, and section-specific certification levels identified for those amendments issued concurrent with, or subsequent to, this rulemaking.
This final rule removes SFAR No. 23 as unnecessary because an applicant may no longer certify an airplane to SFAR No. 23. SFAR No. 23 was first superseded by SFAR 41 and then by commuter category in part 23, amendment 23-34. The FAA's intent to remove SFAR No. 23 was reflected in the amendatory language in the NPRM.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to revise paragraph (a)(2) of appendix E to part 43 by removing the reference to § 23.1325,
Kestrel noted that existing appendix E to part 43 references § 23.1325 for leakage tolerances; however, the proposed rule would not have included § 23.1325 and the specified tolerances. Kestrel asked if the FAA plans to address the specified tolerances in guidance, or if it will permit the varying tolerances between similar airplane.
The FAA agrees and will address the leakage tolerances in guidance. As explained in the NPRM, the FAA is revising AC 43-6,
The NPRM proposed amendments to §§ 91.205, 91.313, 91.323, and 91.531. The only section that received comments was § 91.323. increased maximum certification weights for certain airplanes operated in Alaska.
The FAA proposed to amend § 91.323 by removing the reference to § 23.337 because the FAA proposed revising and consolidating § 23.337 with other structural requirements. The FAA proposed adding the relevant prescriptive requirement of § 23.337 to § 91.323(b)(3).
Air Tractor noted that the weight in § 91.323(b)(3) has been changed to reflect a maneuvering load factor that is now independent of the load factor in part 23, but matches the previous § 23.337 definition. The commenter contended that there is now an increased likelihood that the load factor considered under this new rule will not match the load factors that were used in the original certification of the design, because it is possible that some consensus standard will impose some other creative interpretation. The commenter suggested that safety would be better preserved if § 91.323 were required to reference the load factors that were used in the original certification.
Air Tractor's concern is based on an incorrect interpretation of the FAA's proposed amendment to § 91.323. Section 91.323 applies only to aircraft that have been type certificated under Airworthiness Bulletin 7A or under normal category of part 4a of the former Civil Air Regulations (CAR). The FAA's proposed amendment to § 91.323 would not permit any additional aircraft to be operated in accordance with § 91.323. It would only preserve the approval of increased maximum certification weights for airplanes that were designed and built to a higher design requirement than CAR 3 and 14 CFR part 23. Approving an increase in the maximum certificated weight of an airplane pursuant to § 91.323, based on the equation from former § 23.337(a)(1), allows operation at the same weights had the airplane been certificated in accordance with CAR 3.
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to amend § 121.310(b)(2)(iii) by updating the reference to § 23.811(b). Current § 121.130(b)(2)(iii) references § 23.811(b) of part 23, amendment 23-62. Because the FAA is replacing part 23, amendment 23-62 with new part 23, the FAA proposed to update the reference to § 23.811(b) by specifying that each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the requirements of § 23.811(b) of this chapter in effect on June 16, 1994. However, upon further reflection, the FAA has decided not to reference a section that will no longer exist in the CFR on August 30, 2017. Instead, the FAA is incorporating the requirements of § 23.811(b) in § 121.310(b)(2)(iii). Accordingly, § 121.310(b)(2)(iii) now requires, for a nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, that each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign be manufactured to have white letters 1 inch high on a red background 2 inches high, be self-illuminated or independently, internally electrically illuminated, and have a
In the NPRM, the FAA proposed to allow a small airplane in the normal category, in § 135.169(b)(8), to operate within the rules governing commuter and on demand operations. Proposed § 135.169(b)(8) would have required the new normal category airplane to use a means of compliance accepted by the Administrator equivalent to the airworthiness standards applicable to the certification of airplanes in the commuter category found in part 23, amendment 23-62.
Upon further reflection, the FAA has decided not to reference part 23, amendment 23-62 in § 135.169(b)(8) because part 23, amendment 23-62 will not exist in the CFR when new normal category airplanes are being type certificated under new part 23. The FAA intended proposed § 135.169(b)(8) to ensure a continued higher level of safety for commercial operations by requiring a new normal category airplane under part 23 to use a means of compliance equivalent to the airworthiness standards that applied to airplanes certified in the commuter category. As explained in the NPRM, this final rule sunsets the commuter category for newly type certificated airplanes and creates a new normal category, certification level 4 airplane as equivalent to the commenter category by applying it to 10-19 passengers. In order to retain the FAA's intent while omitting the reference to part 23 at amendment 23-62, the FAA is revising the proposed rule language to clarify that § 135.169(b)(8) applies to a normal category airplane equivalent to the commuter category. Accordingly, § 135.169(b)(8) now allows consideration of a small airplane that is type certificated in the normal category, as a multi-engine certification level 4 airplane, to operate within the rules governing commuter and on demand operations.
Because new part 23 maintains the level of safety associated with current part 23, except for areas addressing loss of control and icing where a higher level of safety is established, the FAA expects that any multi-engine, level 4 airplane approved for commercial operations with 10 or more passengers will meet, at a minimum, the performance required for airplanes type certificated in the commuter category.
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Order 12866 and Executive Order 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354) requires agencies to analyze the economic impact of regulatory changes on small entities. Third, the Trade Agreements Act (Pub. L. 96-39) prohibits agencies from setting standards that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. In developing U.S. standards, this Trade Act requires agencies to consider international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis of U.S. standards. Fourth, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more annually (adjusted for inflation with base year of 1995). This portion of the preamble summarizes the FAA's analysis of the economic impacts of this final rule. We suggest readers seeking greater detail read the full regulatory evaluation, a copy of which we have placed in the docket for this rulemaking.
In conducting these analyses, FAA has determined that this final rule: (1) Has benefits that justify its costs, (2) is not an economically “significant regulatory action” as defined in section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, (3) is not “significant” as defined in DOT's Regulatory Policies and Procedures; (4) has a significant positive economic impact on small entities; (5) will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States; and (6) will not impose an unfunded mandate on state, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector by exceeding the threshold identified above. These analyses are summarized below.
The following table shows the estimated benefits and costs of the final rule. Another way to consider the expected net benefit to the society is if the rule saves only one human life by improving stall characteristics and stall warnings, this alone would result in benefits which substantially outweigh the costs.
The proposal will affect U.S. manufacturers and operators of new part 23 type certificated airplanes.
The benefit and cost analysis for the regulatory evaluation is based on the following factors/assumptions:
• The analysis is conducted in constant dollars with 2015 as the base year.
• The final rule will be effective in 2017.
• The primary analysis period for costs and benefits extends for 20 years, from 2017 through 2036. This period was selected because annual costs and benefits will have reached a steady state by 2036.
• Future part 23 type certifications and deliveries are estimated from historical part 23 type certifications and deliveries.
• Costs for the new part 23 type certifications forecasted in the “Fleet Discussion” section will all occur in year 1 of the analysis interval.
• Airplane deliveries from the forecasted part 23 type certificates will start in year 5 of the analysis interval. Therefore, accident reduction benefits will begin five years after the rule is in effect.
• The FAA uses a three and seven percent discount rate for the benefits and costs as prescribed by OMB in Circular A-4.
• The baseline for estimating the costs and benefits of the rule will be part 23, through the current amendment level.
• Based on FAA Small Airplane Directorate expert judgment, the FAA estimates 335 FAA part 23 certification engineers will require additional training as a result of this final rule. The FAA assumes that the same number of industry part 23 certification engineers will also require additional training as a result of this final rule.
• The FAA estimates this rulemaking will add 16 hours of training to FAA and industry part 23 certification engineers.
• Since this training program will be on-line, we estimate no travel costs for the engineers.
• FAA pay-band tables and the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) determines the hourly wages used to estimate the costs to the FAA and applicants.
• Using the U.S. Department of Transportation guidance, the wage multiplier for employee benefits is 1.17.
The major safety benefit of this rule is to add stall characteristics and stall warnings that will result in airplane designs that are more resistant to inadvertently departing controlled flight. The largest number of accidents for small airplanes is a stall or departure based loss of control (LOC) in flight. This rule will have cost savings by streamlining the certification process and encouraging new and innovative technology. Streamlining the certification process will reduce the issuance of special conditions, exemptions, and equivalent level of safety findings.
The final rules major costs are the engineer training costs and the certification database creation costs. Additional costs will also accrue from the controllability and stall sections that will increase scope over current requirements and manual upgrade costs.
In the following table, we summarize the total estimated compliance costs by category. The FAA notes that since we assumed that all costs occurred in Year 1 of the analysis interval, the 2015-dollar costs equal the present value costs.
The
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described.
The FAA believes that this final rule could have a significant positive economic impact on a substantial number of entities because we believe this rule could enable the creation of new part 23 type certificates and new manufacturers. The FAA has been working with U.S. and foreign small aircraft manufacturers since 2007 to review the life cycle of part 23 airplanes and determine what needed improvement.
The purpose of this analysis is to provide the reasoning underlying the FAA determination.
Section 604(a) of the Act specifies the content of a FRFA.
Each FRFA must contain:
• A statement of the need for, and objectives of, the rule;
• a statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, a statement of the assessment of the agency of such issues, and a statement of any changes made in the proposed rule as a result of such comments;
• the response of the agency to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule, and a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule in the final rule as a result of the comments;
• a description of and an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule will apply or an explanation of why no such estimate is available;
• a description of the projected reporting, recordkeeping and other compliance requirements of the rule, including an estimate of the classes of small entities which will be subject to the requirement and the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record; and
• a description of the steps the agency has taken to minimize the significant economic impact on small entities consistent with the stated objectives of applicable statutes, including a statement of the factual, policy, and legal reasons for selecting the alternative adopted in the final rule and why each one of the other significant alternatives to the rule considered by the agency which affect the impact on small entities was rejected.
The FAA promulgates this action to amend the airworthiness standards for new part 23 type certificated airplanes to reflect the current needs of the small airplane industry, accommodate future trends, address emerging technologies, and enable the creation of new part 23 manufacturers and new type certificated airplanes. The rule's changes to part 23 are necessary to eliminate the current workload of exemptions, special conditions, and equivalent levels of safety findings necessary to certificate new part 23 airplanes. These part 23 changes will also promote safety by enacting new regulations for controllability and stall standards and promote the introduction of new technologies in part 23 airplanes.
With regard to assessing the impact on small, numerous firms were left out
FAA Response: Under the Small Business Regulatory Flexibility Act, for each initial regulatory flexibility analysis, agencies are required to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities to which the proposed rule would apply. Many, if not most, small entities do not provide public data such as publically available employment data in order to determine if a business is small under the SBA guidelines, or publically available revenue data, in order to determine if a business is disproportionately burdened by the proposed or final rulemaking. The FAA does not have the means or authority to require small entities to report their employment or revenue data and therefore we do not have knowledge of every company that still has active manufacturing activities. The small business entities that the FAA analyzed provided data on their employment and revenue either through the U.S. DOT Form 41 rules, SEC rules, or through news releases the companies made public.
The FAA conducted research and found that all five businesses' we examined at the time of our analysis were small and either actively manufacturing aircraft or they were under new ownership and had publically announced they were in the process of working towards setting up an aircraft manufacturing line. The FAA notes the rule also reduces the certification time for small part 23 parts manufacturers. The FAA conclusion that the proposed rule may have a significant positive impact on small entities extends well beyond our sample.
Further, FAA regulations apply to US-owned business and to any foreign owned business that manufactures a product in the U.S. or markets their products/services in the U.S. Foreign owned business' voluntarily complies with the rules and regulations promulgated by the FAA. Thus the FAA expects that the final rule would impact a substantial number of small entities.
The comment regarding numerous firms being left out of the FAA's small business analysis was from a company who certificates most of their aircraft with a restricted category special air worthiness certificate. A restricted category special airworthiness certificate is issued to operate aircraft that have been type certificated in the restricted category. Operation of restricted category aircraft is limited to special purposes identified in the applicable type design. Restricted category aircraft manufacturers do not follow part 23 in its entirety, rather they follow parts of part 21, part 21 subpart H, part 45, section 91.313, part 91 subpart D, section 91.715, and part 375 and can choose whatever other certification bases requirements, based on FAA approval, to certificate their aircraft for the aircraft's special operations. Therefore, since restricted category aircraft manufacturers do not comply part 23 in its entirety for their type certifications, these manufacturers are not included in our analysis.
In addition, many part suppliers may benefit from this performance-based rule through an expected quicker approval process. The objective of this rule is to allow industry more flexibility and lower cost methods to certify future part 23 airplanes at a sufficiently lower certification cost which can be driven by industry innovation and more small entities will have additional opportunities that do not exist today.
The Chief Counsel for Advocacy did not file comments for the proposed rule.
For the initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA), the FAA conducted a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The IRFA concluded that the proposed rule could have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of entities because we believe this rule could enable the creation of new part 23 type certificates and new manufacturers.
The FAA is unable to estimate the total number of small entities to which the rule will apply because many, if not most, small part 23 aircraft manufacturing entities do not provide public data such as publically available employment data in order to determine if a business is small under the SBA guidelines, and publically available revenue data, in order to determine if a business is disproportionately burdened by the final rulemaking. The FAA also believes that the final rule will enable new part 23 aircraft manufacturing industries, while maintaining a safe operating environment. In addition, many part suppliers may benefit from this performance-based rule through an expected quicker approval process.
The final rule will reduce the number of special conditions, equivalent level of safety (ELOS), and exemptions and therefore will reduce paperwork and processing time for both the FAA and industry. The rule would also maintain the fundamental safety requirements from the current part 23 regulations but allow more flexibility in airplane designs, faster adoption of safety enhancing technology, and reduce the regulatory cost burden. To estimate savings driven by this change, the FAA counted the special conditions, ELOS, and exemption applications submitted to the FAA for part 23 aircraft between 2012 and 2014 and divided the number by two years for an average of 37 applications per year. The Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC) report offered a similar average of 37 applications per year. Additionally, the FAA counted the number of pages per application to obtain an average number of pages per application. For special conditions, there were approximately 21 pages, 16 pages for an exemption, and 15 pages per ELOS application. The FAA assumes that the applicant and each FAA office that reviews the application spend 8 hours on research, coordination, and review per page. The ARC also noted “an ELOS finding or exemption can take the FAA between 4 to 12 months to develop and approve. The applicant spends roughly the same amount of time as the FAA in proposing what they need and responding to FAA questions for SC, exemption, or ELOS. As explained in number four above, the FAA is unable to estimate the total number of small entities to which the rule will apply. The completion of these reports will not require professional skills beyond basic literacy and aviation
The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is revising the airworthiness standards for normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category part 23 airplanes and believes this action will provide a set of requirements that will allow more flexibility in part 23 airplane designs and faster adoption of safety enhancing technology while maintaining a higher level of safety. The current issue with part 23 is the prescriptive regulatory framework does not readily allow the adoption of new and innovative technology. This rulemaking will solve this issue by putting in place a performance-based regulatory structure that will result in the FAA accepting new means of compliance based upon industry consensus standards.
This rulemaking project will comply with the Congressional mandated Small Airplane Revitalization Act of 2013, which requires the FAA to issue a final rule that revises the certification requirements for small airplanes by creating a regulatory regime that will improve safety and decrease certification costs. This action will increase the FAA's ability to address future technology and be relieving for all part 23 manufacturers regardless of their size and number of employees.
For the initial regulatory flexibility analysis, the FAA analyzed two alternatives and solicited and received no comments on the alternative analysis. The two alternatives the FAA analyzed follows.
The FAA will continue to issue special conditions, exemptions, and equivalent level of safety findings to certificate part 23 airplanes. As this approach will not follow congressional direction, we choose not to continue with the status quo.
The FAA will continue to enforce the current regulations that affect stall and controllability. The FAA rejected this alternative because the accident rate for part 23 airplanes identified a safety issue that had to be addressed.
Thus, this rule's benefits small entities by allowing new designs and parts with lower certifications costs.
The Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (Pub. L. 96-39), as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act (Pub. L. 103-465), prohibits Federal agencies from establishing standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. Pursuant to these Acts, the establishment of standards is not considered an unnecessary obstacle to the foreign commerce of the United States, so long as the standard has a legitimate domestic objective, such as the protection of safety, and does not operate in a manner that excludes imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards. The FAA has assessed the potential effect of this final rule and determined that the standards are necessary for aviation safety and will not create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States.
Title II of the
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) requires that the FAA consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. The information requirements for aircraft certification are covered by existing OMB No. 2120-0018. Burdens associated with special conditions, ELOS, and exemptions are not quantified in this collection because the need to seek relief under one of these options is dependent on each applicant and is difficult to quantify. It is expected that this rulemaking will reduce the number of special conditions, ELOS, and exemptions filed, thus reducing paperwork and processing time for both the FAA and industry. It would also maintain the fundamental safety requirements from the current part 23 regulations but allow more flexibility in airplane designs, faster adoption of safety enhancing technology, and reduce the regulatory cost burden.
To estimate savings driven by this change, the FAA counted the special conditions, ELOS, and exemption applications submitted to the FAA for part 23 aircraft between 2012 and 2014 and divided the number by three years for an average of 37 applications per year.
The number of applications is multiplied by the number of pages and by the hourly wage for the applicant and different FAA offices to account for the cost to the FAA and the applicant. The following table shows annual hours and cost by special condition, exemption, and ELOS.
Using these yearly cost estimates in the table above, over 20 years $6.6 million in man-hours will be spent on applying for and processing special conditions, exemptions, and ELOS. However under the rule, the need to demonstrate compliance through special conditions, exemptions, or ELOS will largely be eliminated. Instead new products will simply need to demonstrate compliance by following consensus standards acceptable to the Administrator, or by submitting their own proposed means of compliance using the process outlined in AC 23.10.
In addition to this savings, there would also be additional paperwork burden associated with § 23.2150(c). This rulemaking will not require a new control number, but does need an update to the control number that currently covers part 23. A PRA questionnaire has been updated with new requirements from this rule, and submitted to our PRA officer. This provision could result in a change to a limitation or a performance number in the flight manual, which will require an update to the training courseware or flight manual. Industry ARC members believe that this change could cost from $100,119 to $150,179 in 2015 dollars. Therefore, the FAA uses $125,149 (($100,119 + $150,179)/2) as an average cost for this change. This will be a one-time cost per new type certification.
There will also be additional paperwork associated with this requirement that is not part of the costs discussed above. The FAA estimates the paperwork costs for these provisions by multiplying the number of hours the FAA estimates for each page of paperwork, by the number of pages for the training courseware, or flight manual, by the hourly rate of the person responsible for the update. The FAA estimates that this section will add a total of four pages to the training courseware and flight manual. The FAA also estimates that it will take a part 23 certification engineer eight hours to complete the one page required for each new type certification. The eight hours to complete a page includes the research, coordination, and review each document requires. Therefore, the FAA estimates the total paperwork costs for § 23.2150(c) will be about $1,990 in 2015 dollars. The FAA assumes that this section will add costs to only one of the new part 23 turbojet airplane type certificates estimated in the Fleet Discussion section of the regulatory evaluation. The following table shows the total paperwork costs for the changes to § 23.2150(c).
Conversations with the industry ARC members indicate that there may need to be some changes to the engineering manuals to describe how the accepted means of compliance must be related to the regulations. Depending on the complexity of each company's manual, industry estimates that these changes could run from about $50,060 up to $200,238 in 2015 dollars. This will be a one-time cost per new type certification.
As we received no comments to the paperwork analysis in the NPRM, we use the same assumptions in the final rule regarding manual complexity. The manufacturers of the two new part 23 reciprocating engine airplane type certifications, discussed in the Fleet Discussion section of the regulatory evaluation, will spend $50,060 to make the changes to the engineering manual. We also assume that the one new part 23 turboprop airplane certification and the two new part 23 turbojet airplane certifications, discussed in the Fleet Discussion section of the regulatory evaluation, will use the more complex and costly approach of $200,238.
The FAA notes that either the simple approach or the more complex approach to updating the manuals could also either take place in-house or could be contracted out to a consultant. The following table shows the total paperwork costs for the changes to the engineering manuals in 2015 dollars.
In keeping with U.S. obligations under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is FAA policy to conform to International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and Recommended Practices to the maximum extent practicable. The FAA has reviewed the corresponding ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices and has identified the following differences with these proposed regulations. The ICAO Standards for small airplanes use weight and propulsion to differentiate between some requirements. The proposed regulations use certification levels and performance to differentiate between some requirements. Furthermore, part 23 will still allow the certification of airplanes up to 19,000 pounds. If this proposal is adopted, the FAA intends to file these differences with ICAO. Executive Order (EO) 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation, (77 FR 26413, May 4, 2012) promotes international regulatory cooperation to meet shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues and reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements. The FAA has analyzed this action under the policy and agency responsibilities of Executive Order 13609, Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation. The agency has determined that this action would eliminate differences between U.S. aviation standards and those of other CAAs by aligning the revised part 23 standards with the new CS 23 standards that are being developed concurrently by EASA. Several other CAAs are participating in this effort and intend to either adopt the new part 23 or CS 23 regulations or revise their airworthiness standards to align with these new regulations.
The Part 23 ARC included participants from several foreign CAAs and international members from almost every GA manufacturer of both airplanes and avionics. It also included several Light-Sport Aircraft manufacturers who are interested in certificating their products using the airworthiness standards contained in part 23. The rulemaking and means of compliance are international efforts. Authorities from Europe, Canada, Brazil, China, and New Zealand all are working to produce similar rules. These rules, while not identical, are intended to allow the use of the same set of industry developed means of compliance. Industry has told that FAA that it is very costly to address the differences that some contrived means of compliance imposes. If there is substantial agreement between the major CAAs to use the same industry means of compliance, then U.S. manufactures expect a significant saving for exporting their products.
Furthermore, this project is a harmonization project between the FAA and EASA.
EASA has worked a parallel rulemaking program for CS 23. The FAA provided comments to the EASA A-NPA. EASA and other authorities will have an opportunity to comment on this NPRM when it is published. These efforts will allow the FAA, EASA and other authorities to work toward a harmonized set of regulations when the final rules are published.
FAA Order 1050.1F identifies FAA actions that are categorically excluded from preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act in the absence of extraordinary circumstances. The FAA has determined this rulemaking action qualifies for the categorical exclusion identified in paragraph 5-6.6 and involves no extraordinary circumstances.
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 (110 Stat. 3213) requires the Administrator, when modifying 14 CFR regulations in a manner affecting intrastate aviation in Alaska, to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation, and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions. Because this rule would apply to GA airworthiness standards, it could, if adopted, affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. The FAA, therefore, specifically requests comments on whether there is justification for applying the proposed rule differently in intrastate operations in Alaska.
The FAA has analyzed this rule under the principles and criteria of Executive Order 13132, Federalism. The agency has determined that this action would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, or the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and, therefore, would not have Federalism implications.
The FAA analyzed this rule under Executive Order 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations that Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use (May 18, 2001). The agency has determined that it would not be a “significant energy” action under the executive order and would not be likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
An electronic copy of rulemaking documents may be obtained from the Internet by—
1. Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
2. Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at
3. Accessing the Government Printing Office's Web page at
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9680.
Comments received may be viewed by going to
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document, may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the
The below cross-reference table is intended to permit easy access from former to new regulations. The preamble is organized topical, section-by-section, former to new regulations. This table should assist the reader in following the section discussions contained in the preamble. If the intent of a former regulation was incorporated into multiple new regulations, only the most pertinent new regulations were listed.
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Recording and recordkeeping requirements.
Aircraft, Aviation Safety, Signs and symbols.
Aircraft, Aviation safety.
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Air traffic control, Aircraft, Airmen, Airports, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Aircraft, Airmen, Aviation safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends chapter I of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.
(a) * * *
(5) Produced by an owner or operator for maintaining or altering that owner or operator's product;
(6) Fabricated by an appropriately rated certificate holder with a quality system, and consumed in the repair or alteration of a product or article in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; or
(7) Produced in any other manner approved by the FAA.
(a) Except as provided in §§ 25.2, 27.2, 29.2, and in parts 26, 34, and 36 of this subchapter, an applicant for a type certificate must show that the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller concerned meets—
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Is unpowered; is an airplane powered by a single, naturally aspirated engine with a 61-knot or less V
(b) * * *
(2) For aircraft to be certificated under this subchapter, except gliders and low-speed, certification level 1 or 2 airplanes, as defined in part 23 of this chapter, to determine whether there is reasonable assurance that the aircraft, its components, and its equipment are reliable and function properly.
(b) The holder of a design approval, including either a type certificate or supplemental type certificate for an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller for which application was made after January 28, 1981, must furnish at least one set of complete Instructions for Continued Airworthiness to the owner of each type aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller upon its delivery, or upon issuance of the first standard airworthiness certificate for the affected aircraft, whichever occurs later. The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must be prepared in accordance with §§ 23.1529, 25.1529, 25.1729, 27.1529, 29.1529, 31.82, 33.4, 35.4, or part 26 of this subchapter, or as specified in the applicable airworthiness criteria for special classes of aircraft defined in § 21.17(b), as applicable. If the holder of a design approval chooses to designate parts as commercial, it must include in the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness a list of commercial parts submitted in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section. Thereafter, the holder of a design approval must make those instructions available to any other person required by this chapter to comply with any of the terms of those instructions. In addition, changes to the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness shall be made available to any person required by this chapter to comply with any of those instructions.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, if paragraphs (b)(1), (2), or (3) of this section apply, an applicant may show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with an earlier amendment of a regulation required by paragraph (a) of this section, and of any other regulation the FAA finds is directly related. However, the earlier amended regulation may not precede either the corresponding regulation included by reference in the type certificate, or any regulation in §§ 25.2, 27.2, or 29.2 of this chapter that is related to the change. The applicant may show compliance with an earlier amendment of a regulation for any of the following:
(c) An applicant for a change to an aircraft (other than a rotorcraft) of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight, to a non-turbine rotorcraft of 3,000 pounds or less maximum weight, to a level 1 low-speed airplane, or to a level 2 low-speed airplane may show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with the regulations included in the type certificate. However, if the FAA finds that the change is significant in an area, the FAA may designate compliance with an amendment to the regulation incorporated by reference in the type certificate that applies to the change and any regulation that the FAA finds is directly related, unless the FAA also finds that compliance with that amendment or regulation would not contribute materially to the level of safety of the product or would be impractical.
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, Pub. L. 113-53, 127 Stat. 584 (49 U.S.C. 44704) note.
(a) Each cockpit voice recorder required by the operating rules of this chapter must be approved and must be installed so that it will record the following:
(1) Voice communications transmitted from or received in the airplane by radio.
(2) Voice communications of flightcrew members on the flight deck.
(3) Voice communications of flightcrew members on the flight deck, using the airplane's interphone system.
(4) Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.
(5) Voice communications of flightcrew members using the passenger loudspeaker system, if there is such a system and if the fourth channel is available in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
(6) If datalink communication equipment is installed, all datalink communications, using an approved data message set. Datalink messages must be recorded as the output signal from the communications unit that translates the signal into usable data.
(b) The recording requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section must be met by installing a cockpit-mounted area microphone, located in the best position for recording voice communications originating at the first and second pilot stations and voice communications of other crewmembers on the flight deck when directed to those stations. The microphone must be so located and, if necessary, the preamplifiers and filters of the recorder must be so adjusted or supplemented, so that the intelligibility of the recorded communications is as high as practicable when recorded under flight cockpit noise conditions and played back. Repeated aural or visual playback of the record may be used in evaluating intelligibility.
(c) Each cockpit voice recorder must be installed so that the part of the communication or audio signals specified in paragraph (a) of this section obtained from each of the following sources is recorded on a separate channel:
(1) For the first channel, from each boom, mask, or handheld microphone, headset, or speaker used at the first pilot station.
(2) For the second channel from each boom, mask, or handheld microphone, headset, or speaker used at the second pilot station.
(3) For the third channel—from the cockpit-mounted area microphone.
(4) For the fourth channel from:
(i) Each boom, mask, or handheld microphone, headset, or speaker used at the station for the third and fourth crewmembers.
(ii) If the stations specified in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section are not required or if the signal at such a station is picked up by another channel, each microphone on the flight deck that is used with the passenger loudspeaker system, if its signals are not picked up by another channel.
(5) And that as far as is practicable all sounds received by the microphone listed in paragraphs (c)(1), (2), and (4) of this section must be recorded without interruption irrespective of the position of the interphone-transmitter key switch. The design shall ensure that sidetone for the flightcrew is produced only when the interphone, public address system, or radio transmitters are in use.
(d) Each cockpit voice recorder must be installed so that:
(1)(i) It receives its electrical power from the bus that provides the maximum reliability for operation of the cockpit voice recorder without jeopardizing service to essential or emergency loads.
(ii) It remains powered for as long as possible without jeopardizing emergency operation of the airplane.
(2) There is an automatic means to simultaneously stop the recorder and prevent each erasure feature from functioning, within 10 minutes after crash impact.
(3) There is an aural or visual means for preflight checking of the recorder for proper operation.
(4) Any single electrical failure external to the recorder does not disable both the cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder.
(5) It has an independent power source—
(i) That provides 10 ±1 minutes of electrical power to operate both the cockpit voice recorder and cockpit-mounted area microphone;
(ii) That is located as close as practicable to the cockpit voice recorder; and
(iii) To which the cockpit voice recorder and cockpit-mounted area microphone are switched automatically in the event that all other power to the cockpit voice recorder is interrupted either by normal shutdown or by any other loss of power to the electrical power bus.
(6) It is in a separate container from the flight data recorder when both are required. If used to comply with only the cockpit voice recorder requirements, a combination unit may be installed.
(e) The recorder container must be located and mounted to minimize the probability of rupture of the container as a result of crash impact and consequent heat damage to the recorder from fire.
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the recorder container must be located as far aft as practicable, but need not be outside of the pressurized compartment, and may not be located where aft-mounted engines may crush the container during impact.
(2) If two separate combination digital flight data recorder and cockpit voice
(f) If the cockpit voice recorder has a bulk erasure device, the installation must be designed to minimize the probability of inadvertent operation and actuation of the device during crash impact.
(g) Each recorder container must—
(1) Be either bright orange or bright yellow;
(2) Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface to facilitate its location under water; and
(3) Have an underwater locating device, when required by the operating rules of this chapter, on or adjacent to the container, which is secured in such manner that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact.
(a) Each flight recorder required by the operating rules of this chapter must be installed so that—
(1) It is supplied with airspeed, altitude, and directional data obtained from sources that meet the aircraft level system requirements and the functionality specified in § 23.2500;
(2) The vertical acceleration sensor is rigidly attached, and located longitudinally either within the approved center of gravity limits of the airplane, or at a distance forward or aft of these limits that does not exceed 25 percent of the airplane's mean aerodynamic chord;
(3)(i) It receives its electrical power from the bus that provides the maximum reliability for operation of the flight data recorder without jeopardizing service to essential or emergency loads;
(ii) It remains powered for as long as possible without jeopardizing emergency operation of the airplane;
(4) There is an aural or visual means for preflight checking of the recorder for proper recording of data in the storage medium;
(5) Except for recorders powered solely by the engine-driven electrical generator system, there is an automatic means to simultaneously stop a recorder that has a data erasure feature and prevent each erasure feature from functioning, within 10 minutes after crash impact;
(6) Any single electrical failure external to the recorder does not disable both the cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder; and
(7) It is in a separate container from the cockpit voice recorder when both are required. If used to comply with only the flight data recorder requirements, a combination unit may be installed. If a combination unit is installed as a cockpit voice recorder to comply with § 23.1457(e)(2), a combination unit must be used to comply with this flight data recorder requirement.
(b) Each non-ejectable record container must be located and mounted so as to minimize the probability of container rupture resulting from crash impact and subsequent damage to the record from fire. In meeting this requirement, the record container must be located as far aft as practicable, but need not be aft of the pressurized compartment, and may not be where aft-mounted engines may crush the container upon impact.
(c) A correlation must be established between the flight recorder readings of airspeed, altitude, and heading and the corresponding readings (taking into account correction factors) of the first pilot's instruments. The correlation must cover the airspeed range over which the airplane is to be operated, the range of altitude to which the airplane is limited, and 360 degrees of heading. Correlation may be established on the ground as appropriate.
(d) Each recorder container must—
(1) Be either bright orange or bright yellow;
(2) Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface to facilitate its location under water; and
(3) Have an underwater locating device, when required by the operating rules of this chapter, on or adjacent to the container, which is secured in such a manner that they are not likely to be separated during crash impact.
(e) Any novel or unique design or operational characteristics of the aircraft shall be evaluated to determine if any dedicated parameters must be recorded on flight recorders in addition to or in place of existing requirements.
The applicant must prepare Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, in accordance with appendix A of this part, that are acceptable to the Administrator. The instructions may be incomplete at type certification if a program exists to ensure their completion prior to delivery of the first airplane or issuance of a standard certificate of airworthiness, whichever occurs later.
(a) This part prescribes airworthiness standards for the issuance of type certificates, and changes to those certificates, for airplanes in the normal category.
(b) For the purposes of this part, the following definition applies:
(a) Certification in the normal category applies to airplanes with a passenger-seating configuration of 19 or less and a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 19,000 pounds or less.
(b) Airplane certification levels are:
(1) Level 1—for airplanes with a maximum seating configuration of 0 to 1 passengers.
(2) Level 2—for airplanes with a maximum seating configuration of 2 to 6 passengers.
(3) Level 3—for airplanes with a maximum seating configuration of 7 to 9 passengers.
(4) Level 4—for airplanes with a maximum seating configuration of 10 to 19 passengers.
(c) Airplane performance levels are:
(1) Low speed—for airplanes with a V
(2) High speed—for airplanes with a V
(d) Airplanes not certified for aerobatics may be used to perform any maneuver incident to normal flying, including—
(1) Stalls (except whip stalls); and
(2) Lazy eights, chandelles, and steep turns, in which the angle of bank is not more than 60 degrees.
(e) Airplanes certified for aerobatics may be used to perform maneuvers without limitations, other than those limitations established under subpart G of this part.
(a) An applicant must comply with this part using a means of compliance, which may include consensus standards, accepted by the Administrator.
(b) An applicant requesting acceptance of a means of compliance must provide the means of compliance to the FAA in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator.
(a) The applicant must determine limits for weights and centers of gravity that provide for the safe operation of the airplane.
(b) The applicant must comply with each requirement of this subpart at critical combinations of weight and center of gravity within the airplane's range of loading conditions using tolerances acceptable to the Administrator.
(c) The condition of the airplane at the time of determining its empty weight and center of gravity must be well defined and easily repeatable.
(a) Unless otherwise prescribed, an airplane must meet the performance requirements of this subpart in—
(1) Still air and standard atmospheric conditions at sea level for all airplanes; and
(2) Ambient atmospheric conditions within the operating envelope for levels 1 and 2 high-speed and levels 3 and 4 airplanes.
(b) Unless otherwise prescribed, the applicant must develop the performance data required by this subpart for the following conditions:
(1) Airport altitudes from sea level to 10,000 feet (3,048 meters); and
(2) Temperatures above and below standard day temperature that are within the range of operating limitations, if those temperatures could have a negative effect on performance.
(c) The procedures used for determining takeoff and landing distances must be executable consistently by pilots of average skill in atmospheric conditions expected to be encountered in service.
(d) Performance data determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section must account for losses due to atmospheric conditions, cooling needs, and other demands on power sources.
The applicant must determine the airplane stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed for each flight configuration used in normal operations, including takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and landing. The stall speed or minimum steady flight speed determination must account for the most adverse conditions for each flight configuration with power set at—
(a) Idle or zero thrust for propulsion systems that are used primarily for thrust; and
(b) A nominal thrust for propulsion systems that are used for thrust, flight control, and/or high-lift systems.
(a) The applicant must determine airplane takeoff performance accounting for—
(1) Stall speed safety margins;
(2) Minimum control speeds; and
(3) Climb gradients.
(b) For single engine airplanes and levels 1, 2, and 3 low-speed multiengine airplanes, takeoff performance includes the determination of ground roll and initial climb distance to 50 feet (15 meters) above the takeoff surface.
(c) For levels 1, 2, and 3 high-speed multiengine airplanes, and level 4 multiengine airplanes, takeoff performance includes a determination the following distances after a sudden critical loss of thrust—
(1) An aborted takeoff at critical speed;
(2) Ground roll and initial climb to 35 feet (11 meters) above the takeoff surface; and
(3) Net takeoff flight path.
The design must comply with the following minimum climb performance out of ground effect:
(a) With all engines operating and in the initial climb configuration—
(1) For levels 1 and 2 low-speed airplanes, a climb gradient of 8.3 percent for landplanes and 6.7 percent for seaplanes and amphibians; and
(2) For levels 1 and 2 high-speed airplanes, all level 3 airplanes, and level 4 single-engines a climb gradient after takeoff of 4 percent.
(b) After a critical loss of thrust on multiengine airplanes—
(1) For levels 1 and 2 low-speed airplanes that do not meet single-engine crashworthiness requirements, a climb gradient of 1.5 percent at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet (1,524 meters) in the cruise configuration(s);
(2) For levels 1 and 2 high-speed airplanes, and level 3 low-speed airplanes, a 1 percent climb gradient at 400 feet (122 meters) above the takeoff surface with the landing gear retracted and flaps in the takeoff configuration(s); and
(3) For level 3 high-speed airplanes and all level 4 airplanes, a 2 percent climb gradient at 400 feet (122 meters) above the takeoff surface with the landing gear retracted and flaps in the approach configuration(s).
(c) For a balked landing, a climb gradient of 3 percent without creating undue pilot workload with the landing gear extended and flaps in the landing configuration(s).
(a) The applicant must determine climb performance at each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the operating limitations—
(1) For all single-engine airplanes;
(2) For levels 1 and 2 high-speed multiengine airplanes and level 3 multiengine airplanes, following a critical loss of thrust on takeoff in the initial climb configuration; and
(3) For all multiengine airplanes, during the enroute phase of flight with all engines operating and after a critical loss of thrust in the cruise configuration.
(b) The applicant must determine the glide performance for single-engine airplanes after a complete loss of thrust.
The applicant must determine the following, for standard temperatures at critical combinations of weight and altitude within the operational limits:
(a) The distance, starting from a height of 50 feet (15 meters) above the landing surface, required to land and come to a stop.
(b) The approach and landing speeds, configurations, and procedures, which allow a pilot of average skill to land within the published landing distance consistently and without causing damage or injury, and which allow for a safe transition to the balked landing conditions of this part accounting for:
(1) Stall speed safety margin; and
(2) Minimum control speeds.
(a) The airplane must be controllable and maneuverable, without requiring exceptional piloting skill, alertness, or strength, within the operating envelope—
(1) At all loading conditions for which certification is requested;
(2) During all phases of flight;
(3) With likely reversible flight control or propulsion system failure; and
(4) During configuration changes.
(b) The airplane must be able to complete a landing without causing substantial damage or serious injury using the steepest approved approach gradient procedures and providing a reasonable margin below V
(c) V
(d) If the applicant requests certification of an airplane for aerobatics, the applicant must demonstrate those aerobatic maneuvers for which certification is requested and determine entry speeds.
(a) The airplane must maintain lateral and directional trim without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the following conditions:
(1) For levels 1, 2, and 3 airplanes in cruise.
(2) For level 4 airplanes in normal operations.
(b) The airplane must maintain longitudinal trim without further force upon, or movement of, the primary flight controls or corresponding trim controls by the pilot, or the flight control system, under the following conditions:
(1) Climb.
(2) Level flight.
(3) Descent.
(4) Approach.
(c) Residual control forces must not fatigue or distract the pilot during normal operations of the airplane and likely abnormal or emergency operations, including a critical loss of thrust on multiengine airplanes.
(a) Airplanes not certified for aerobatics must—
(1) Have static longitudinal, lateral, and directional stability in normal operations;
(2) Have dynamic short period and Dutch roll stability in normal operations; and
(3) Provide stable control force feedback throughout the operating envelope.
(b) No airplane may exhibit any divergent longitudinal stability characteristic so unstable as to increase the pilot's workload or otherwise endanger the airplane and its occupants.
(a) The airplane must have controllable stall characteristics in straight flight, turning flight, and accelerated turning flight with a clear and distinctive stall warning that provides sufficient margin to prevent inadvertent stalling.
(b) Single-engine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, must not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight.
(c) Levels 1 and 2 multiengine airplanes, not certified for aerobatics, must not have a tendency to inadvertently depart controlled flight from thrust asymmetry after a critical loss of thrust.
(d) Airplanes certified for aerobatics that include spins must have controllable stall characteristics and the ability to recover within one and one-half additional turns after initiation of the first control action from any point in a spin, not exceeding six turns or any greater number of turns for which certification is requested, while remaining within the operating limitations of the airplane.
(e) Spin characteristics in airplanes certified for aerobatics that includes spins must recover without exceeding limitations and may not result in unrecoverable spins—
(1) With any typical use of the flight or engine power controls; or
(2) Due to pilot disorientation or incapacitation.
For airplanes intended for operation on land or water, the airplane must have controllable longitudinal and directional handling characteristics during taxi, takeoff, and landing operations.
(a) Vibration and buffeting, for operations up to V
(b) For high-speed airplanes and all airplanes with a maximum operating altitude greater than 25,000 feet (7,620 meters) pressure altitude, there must be no perceptible buffeting in cruise configuration at 1g and at any speed up to V
(c) For high-speed airplanes, the applicant must determine the positive maneuvering load factors at which the onset of perceptible buffet occurs in the cruise configuration within the operational envelope. Likely inadvertent excursions beyond this boundary must not result in structural damage.
(d) High-speed airplanes must have recovery characteristics that do not result in structural damage or loss of control, beginning at any likely speed up to V
(1) An inadvertent speed increase; and
(2) A high-speed trim upset for airplanes where dynamic pressure can impair the longitudinal trim system operation.
(a) An applicant who requests certification for flight in icing conditions defined in part 1 of appendix C to part 25 of this chapter, or an applicant who requests certification for flight in these icing conditions and any additional atmospheric icing conditions, must show the following in the icing conditions for which certification is requested under normal operation of the ice protection system(s):
(1) Compliance with each requirement of this subpart, except those applicable to spins and any that must be demonstrated at speeds in excess of—
(i) 250 knots CAS;
(ii) V
(iii) A speed at which the applicant demonstrates the airframe will be free of ice accretion.
(2) The means by which stall warning is provided to the pilot for flight in icing conditions and non-icing conditions is the same.
(b) If an applicant requests certification for flight in icing conditions, the applicant must provide a means to detect any icing conditions for which certification is not requested and show the airplane's ability to avoid or exit those conditions.
(c) The applicant must develop an operating limitation to prohibit intentional flight, including takeoff and landing, into icing conditions for which the airplane is not certified to operate.
The applicant must determine the structural design envelope, which describes the range and limits of airplane design and operational parameters for which the applicant will show compliance with the requirements of this subpart. The applicant must account for all airplane design and operational parameters that affect structural loads, strength, durability, and aeroelasticity, including:
(a) Structural design airspeeds, landing descent speeds, and any other airspeed limitation at which the applicant must show compliance to the requirements of this subpart. The structural design airspeeds must—
(1) Be sufficiently greater than the stalling speed of the airplane to safeguard against loss of control in turbulent air; and
(2) Provide sufficient margin for the establishment of practical operational limiting airspeeds.
(b) Design maneuvering load factors not less than those, which service
(c) Inertial properties including weight, center of gravity, and mass moments of inertia, accounting for—
(1) Each critical weight from the airplane empty weight to the maximum weight; and
(2) The weight and distribution of occupants, payload, and fuel.
(d) Characteristics of airplane control systems, including range of motion and tolerances for control surfaces, high lift devices, or other moveable surfaces.
(e) Each critical altitude up to the maximum altitude.
For airplanes equipped with systems that modify structural performance, alleviate the impact of this subpart's requirements, or provide a means of compliance with this subpart, the applicant must account for the influence and failure of these systems when showing compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
(a) The applicant must:
(1) Determine the applicable structural design loads resulting from likely externally or internally applied pressures, forces, or moments that may occur in flight, ground and water operations, ground and water handling, and while the airplane is parked or moored.
(2) Determine the loads required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section at all critical combinations of parameters, on and within the boundaries of the structural design envelope.
(b) The magnitude and distribution of the applicable structural design loads required by this section must be based on physical principles.
The applicant must determine the structural design loads resulting from the following flight conditions:
(a) Atmospheric gusts where the magnitude and gradient of these gusts are based on measured gust statistics.
(b) Symmetric and asymmetric maneuvers.
(c) Asymmetric thrust resulting from the failure of a powerplant unit.
The applicant must determine the structural design loads resulting from taxi, takeoff, landing, and handling conditions on the applicable surface in normal and adverse attitudes and configurations.
The applicant must determine the structural design loads acting on:
(a) Each engine mount and its supporting structure such that both are designed to withstand loads resulting from—
(1) Powerplant operation combined with flight gust and maneuver loads; and
(2) For non-reciprocating powerplants, sudden powerplant stoppage.
(b) Each flight control and high-lift surface, their associated system and supporting structure resulting from—
(1) The inertia of each surface and mass balance attachment;
(2) Flight gusts and maneuvers;
(3) Pilot or automated system inputs;
(4) System induced conditions, including jamming and friction; and
(5) Taxi, takeoff, and landing operations on the applicable surface, including downwind taxi and gusts occurring on the applicable surface.
(c) A pressurized cabin resulting from the pressurization differential—
(1) From zero up to the maximum relief pressure combined with gust and maneuver loads;
(2) From zero up to the maximum relief pressure combined with ground and water loads if the airplane may land with the cabin pressurized; and
(3) At the maximum relief pressure multiplied by 1.33, omitting all other loads.
The applicant must determine—
(a) The limit loads, which are equal to the structural design loads unless otherwise specified elsewhere in this part; and
(b) The ultimate loads, which are equal to the limit loads multiplied by a 1.5 factor of safety unless otherwise specified elsewhere in this part.
The structure must support:
(a) Limit loads without—
(1) Interference with the safe operation of the airplane; and
(2) Detrimental permanent deformation.
(b) Ultimate loads.
(a) The applicant must develop and implement inspections or other procedures to prevent structural failures due to foreseeable causes of strength degradation, which could result in serious or fatal injuries, or extended periods of operation with reduced safety margins. Each of the inspections or other procedures developed under this section must be included in the Airworthiness Limitations Section of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness required by § 23.1529.
(b) For Level 4 airplanes, the procedures developed for compliance with paragraph (a) of this section must be capable of detecting structural damage before the damage could result in structural failure.
(c) For pressurized airplanes:
(1) The airplane must be capable of continued safe flight and landing following a sudden release of cabin pressure, including sudden releases caused by door and window failures.
(2) For airplanes with maximum operating altitude greater than 41,000 feet, the procedures developed for compliance with paragraph (a) of this section must be capable of detecting damage to the pressurized cabin structure before the damage could result in rapid decompression that would result in serious or fatal injuries.
(d) The airplane must be designed to minimize hazards to the airplane due to structural damage caused by high-energy fragments from an uncontained engine or rotating machinery failure.
(a) The airplane must be free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence—
(1) At all speeds within and sufficiently beyond the structural design envelope;
(2) For any configuration and condition of operation;
(3) Accounting for critical degrees of freedom; and
(4) Accounting for any critical failures or malfunctions.
(b) The applicant must establish tolerances for all quantities that affect flutter.
(a) The applicant must design each part, article, and assembly for the expected operating conditions of the airplane.
(b) Design data must adequately define the part, article, or assembly configuration, its design features, and any materials and processes used.
(c) The applicant must determine the suitability of each design detail and part having an important bearing on safety in operations.
(d) The control system must be free from jamming, excessive friction, and excessive deflection when the airplane is subjected to expected limit airloads.
(e) Doors, canopies, and exits must be protected against inadvertent opening in
(a) The applicant must protect each part of the airplane, including small parts such as fasteners, against deterioration or loss of strength due to any cause likely to occur in the expected operational environment.
(b) Each part of the airplane must have adequate provisions for ventilation and drainage.
(c) For each part that requires maintenance, preventive maintenance, or servicing, the applicant must incorporate a means into the aircraft design to allow such actions to be accomplished.
(a) The applicant must determine the suitability and durability of materials used for parts, articles, and assemblies, accounting for the effects of likely environmental conditions expected in service, the failure of which could prevent continued safe flight and landing.
(b) The methods and processes of fabrication and assembly used must produce consistently sound structures. If a fabrication process requires close control to reach this objective, the applicant must perform the process under an approved process specification.
(c) Except as provided in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, the applicant must select design values that ensure material strength with probabilities that account for the criticality of the structural element. Design values must account for the probability of structural failure due to material variability.
(d) If material strength properties are required, a determination of those properties must be based on sufficient tests of material meeting specifications to establish design values on a statistical basis.
(e) If thermal effects are significant on a critical component or structure under normal operating conditions, the applicant must determine those effects on allowable stresses used for design.
(f) Design values, greater than the minimums specified by this section, may be used, where only guaranteed minimum values are normally allowed, if a specimen of each individual item is tested before use to determine that the actual strength properties of that particular item will equal or exceed those used in the design.
(g) An applicant may use other material design values if approved by the Administrator.
(a) The applicant must determine a special factor of safety for each critical design value for each part, article, or assembly for which that critical design value is uncertain, and for each part, article, or assembly that is—
(1) Likely to deteriorate in service before normal replacement; or
(2) Subject to appreciable variability because of uncertainties in manufacturing processes or inspection methods.
(b) The applicant must determine a special factor of safety using quality controls and specifications that account for each—
(1) Type of application;
(2) Inspection method;
(3) Structural test requirement;
(4) Sampling percentage; and
(5) Process and material control.
(c) The applicant must multiply the highest pertinent special factor of safety in the design for each part of the structure by each limit and ultimate load, or ultimate load only, if there is no corresponding limit load, such as occurs with emergency condition loading.
(a) The airplane, even when damaged in an emergency landing, must protect each occupant against injury that would preclude egress when—
(1) Properly using safety equipment and features provided for in the design;
(2) The occupant experiences ultimate static inertia loads likely to occur in an emergency landing; and
(3) Items of mass, including engines or auxiliary power units (APUs), within or aft of the cabin, that could injure an occupant, experience ultimate static inertia loads likely to occur in an emergency landing.
(b) The emergency landing conditions specified in paragraph (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, must—
(1) Include dynamic conditions that are likely to occur in an emergency landing; and
(2) Not generate loads experienced by the occupants, which exceed established human injury criteria for human tolerance due to restraint or contact with objects in the airplane.
(c) The airplane must provide protection for all occupants, accounting for likely flight, ground, and emergency landing conditions.
(d) Each occupant protection system must perform its intended function and not create a hazard that could cause a secondary injury to an occupant. The occupant protection system must not prevent occupant egress or interfere with the operation of the airplane when not in use.
(e) Each baggage and cargo compartment must—
(1) Be designed for its maximum weight of contents and for the critical load distributions at the maximum load factors corresponding to the flight and ground load conditions determined under this part;
(2) Have a means to prevent the contents of the compartment from becoming a hazard by impacting occupants or shifting; and
(3) Protect any controls, wiring, lines, equipment, or accessories whose damage or failure would affect safe operations.
(a) The applicant must design airplane flight control systems to:
(1) Operate easily, smoothly, and positively enough to allow proper performance of their functions.
(2) Protect against likely hazards.
(b) The applicant must design trim systems, if installed, to:
(1) Protect against inadvertent, incorrect, or abrupt trim operation.
(2) Provide a means to indicate—
(i) The direction of trim control movement relative to airplane motion;
(ii) The trim position with respect to the trim range;
(iii) The neutral position for lateral and directional trim; and
(iv) The range for takeoff for all applicant requested center of gravity ranges and configurations.
(a) The landing gear must be designed to—
(1) Provide stable support and control to the airplane during surface operation; and
(2) Account for likely system failures and likely operation environments (including anticipated limitation exceedances and emergency procedures).
(b) All airplanes must have a reliable means of stopping the airplane with sufficient kinetic energy absorption to account for landing. Airplanes that are required to demonstrate aborted takeoff capability must account for this additional kinetic energy.
(c) For airplanes that have a system that actuates the landing gear, there is—
(1) A positive means to keep the landing gear in the landing position; and
(2) An alternative means available to bring the landing gear in the landing position when a non-deployed system position would be a hazard.
Airplanes intended for operations on water, must—
(a) Provide buoyancy of 80 percent in excess of the buoyancy required to support the maximum weight of the airplane in fresh water; and
(b) Have sufficient margin so the airplane will stay afloat at rest in calm water without capsizing in case of a likely float or hull flooding.
(a) With the cabin configured for takeoff or landing, the airplane is designed to:
(1) Facilitate rapid and safe evacuation of the airplane in conditions likely to occur following an emergency landing, excluding ditching for level 1, level 2 and single engine level 3 airplanes.
(2) Have means of egress (openings, exits or emergency exits), that can be readily located and opened from the inside and outside. The means of opening must be simple and obvious and marked inside and outside the airplane.
(3) Have easy access to emergency exits when present.
(b) Airplanes approved for aerobatics must have a means to egress the airplane in flight.
(a) The applicant must design the airplane to—
(1) Allow clear communication between the flightcrew and passengers;
(2) Protect the pilot and flight controls from propellers; and
(3) Protect the occupants from serious injury due to damage to windshields, windows, and canopies.
(b) For level 4 airplanes, each windshield and its supporting structure directly in front of the pilot must withstand, without penetration, the impact equivalent to a two-pound bird when the velocity of the airplane is equal to the airplane's maximum approach flap speed.
(c) The airplane must provide each occupant with air at a breathable pressure, free of hazardous concentrations of gases, vapors, and smoke during normal operations and likely failures.
(d) If a pressurization system is installed in the airplane, it must be designed to protect against—
(1) Decompression to an unsafe level; and
(2) Excessive differential pressure.
(e) If an oxygen system is installed in the airplane, it must—
(1) Effectively provide oxygen to each user to prevent the effects of hypoxia; and
(2) Be free from hazards in itself, in its method of operation, and its effect upon other components.
(a) The following materials must be self-extinguishing—
(1) Insulation on electrical wire and electrical cable;
(2) For levels 1, 2, and 3 airplanes, materials in the baggage and cargo compartments inaccessible in flight; and
(3) For level 4 airplanes, materials in the cockpit, cabin, baggage, and cargo compartments.
(b) The following materials must be flame resistant—
(1) For levels 1, 2 and 3 airplanes, materials in each compartment accessible in flight; and
(2) Any equipment associated with any electrical cable installation and that would overheat in the event of circuit overload or fault.
(c) Thermal/acoustic materials in the fuselage, if installed, must not be a flame propagation hazard.
(d) Sources of heat within each baggage and cargo compartment that are capable of igniting adjacent objects must be shielded and insulated to prevent such ignition.
(e) For level 4 airplanes, each baggage and cargo compartment must—
(1) Be located where a fire would be visible to the pilots, or equipped with a fire detection system and warning system; and
(2) Be accessible for the manual extinguishing of a fire, have a built-in fire extinguishing system, or be constructed and sealed to contain any fire within the compartment.
(f) There must be a means to extinguish any fire in the cabin such that—
(1) The pilot, while seated, can easily access the fire extinguishing means; and
(2) For levels 3 and 4 airplanes, passengers have a fire extinguishing means available within the passenger compartment.
(g) Each area where flammable fluids or vapors might escape by leakage of a fluid system must—
(1) Be defined; and
(2) Have a means to minimize the probability of fluid and vapor ignition, and the resultant hazard, if ignition occurs.
(h) Combustion heater installations must be protected from uncontained fire.
(a) Flight controls, engine mounts, and other flight structures within or adjacent to designated fire zones must be capable of withstanding the effects of a fire.
(b) Engines in a designated fire zone must remain attached to the airplane in the event of a fire.
(c) In designated fire zones, terminals, equipment, and electrical cables used during emergency procedures must be fire-resistant.
The airplane must be protected against catastrophic effects from lightning.
(a) For the purpose of this subpart, the airplane powerplant installation must include each component necessary for propulsion, which affects propulsion safety, or provides auxiliary power to the airplane.
(b) Each airplane engine and propeller must be type certificated, except for engines and propellers installed on level 1 low-speed airplanes, which may be approved under the airplane type certificate in accordance with a standard accepted by the FAA that contains airworthiness criteria the Administrator has found appropriate and applicable to the specific design and intended use of the engine or propeller and provides a level of safety acceptable to the FAA.
(c) The applicant must construct and arrange each powerplant installation to account for—
(1) Likely operating conditions, including foreign object threats;
(2) Sufficient clearance of moving parts to other airplane parts and their surroundings;
(3) Likely hazards in operation including hazards to ground personnel; and
(4) Vibration and fatigue.
(d) Hazardous accumulations of fluids, vapors, or gases must be isolated from the airplane and personnel compartments, and be safely contained or discharged.
(e) Powerplant components must comply with their component limitations and installation instructions or be shown not to create a hazard.
(a) An automatic power or thrust control system intended for in-flight use must be designed so no unsafe condition will result during normal operation of the system.
(b) Any single failure or likely combination of failures of an automatic power or thrust control system must not prevent continued safe flight and landing of the airplane.
(c) Inadvertent operation of an automatic power or thrust control system by the flightcrew must be prevented, or if not prevented, must not result in an unsafe condition.
(d) Unless the failure of an automatic power or thrust control system is extremely remote, the system must—
(1) Provide a means for the flightcrew to verify the system is in an operating condition;
(2) Provide a means for the flightcrew to override the automatic function; and
(3) Prevent inadvertent deactivation of the system.
The applicant must assess each powerplant separately and in relation to other airplane systems and installations to show that any hazard resulting from the likely failure of any powerplant system, component, or accessory will not—
(a) Prevent continued safe flight and landing or, if continued safe flight and landing cannot be ensured, the hazard has been minimized;
(b) Cause serious injury that may be avoided; and
(c) Require immediate action by any crewmember for continued operation of any remaining powerplant system.
(a) The airplane design, including the induction and inlet system, must prevent foreseeable accumulation of ice or snow that adversely affects powerplant operation.
(b) The powerplant installation design must prevent any accumulation of ice or snow that adversely affects powerplant operation, in those icing conditions for which certification is requested.
Each reversing system must be designed so that—
(a) No unsafe condition will result during normal operation of the system; and
(b) The airplane is capable of continued safe flight and landing after any single failure, likely combination of failures, or malfunction of the reversing system.
(a) The installed powerplant must operate without any hazardous characteristics during normal and emergency operation within the range of operating limitations for the airplane and the engine.
(b) The pilot must have the capability to stop the powerplant in flight and restart the powerplant within an established operational envelope.
(a) Each fuel system must—
(1) Be designed and arranged to provide independence between multiple fuel storage and supply systems so that failure of any one component in one system will not result in loss of fuel storage or supply of another system;
(2) Be designed and arranged to prevent ignition of the fuel within the system by direct lightning strikes or swept lightning strokes to areas where such occurrences are highly probable, or by corona or streamering at fuel vent outlets;
(3) Provide the fuel necessary to ensure each powerplant and auxiliary power unit functions properly in all likely operating conditions;
(4) Provide the flightcrew with a means to determine the total useable fuel available and provide uninterrupted supply of that fuel when the system is correctly operated, accounting for likely fuel fluctuations;
(5) Provide a means to safely remove or isolate the fuel stored in the system from the airplane;
(6) Be designed to retain fuel under all likely operating conditions and minimize hazards to the occupants during any survivable emergency landing. For level 4 airplanes, failure due to overload of the landing system must be taken into account; and
(7) Prevent hazardous contamination of the fuel supplied to each powerplant and auxiliary power unit.
(b) Each fuel storage system must—
(1) Withstand the loads under likely operating conditions without failure;
(2) Be isolated from personnel compartments and protected from hazards due to unintended temperature influences;
(3) Be designed to prevent significant loss of stored fuel from any vent system due to fuel transfer between fuel storage or supply systems, or under likely operating conditions;
(4) Provide fuel for at least one-half hour of operation at maximum continuous power or thrust; and
(5) Be capable of jettisoning fuel safely if required for landing.
(c) Each fuel storage refilling or recharging system must be designed to—
(1) Prevent improper refilling or recharging;
(2) Prevent contamination of the fuel stored during likely operating conditions; and
(3) Prevent the occurrence of any hazard to the airplane or to persons during refilling or recharging.
(a) The air induction system for each powerplant or auxiliary power unit and their accessories must—
(1) Supply the air required by that powerplant or auxiliary power unit and its accessories under likely operating conditions;
(2) Be designed to prevent likely hazards in the event of fire or backfire;
(3) Minimize the ingestion of foreign matter; and
(4) Provide an alternate intake if blockage of the primary intake is likely.
(b) The exhaust system, including exhaust heat exchangers for each powerplant or auxiliary power unit, must—
(1) Provide a means to safely discharge potential harmful material; and
(2) Be designed to prevent likely hazards from heat, corrosion, or blockage.
(a) A powerplant, auxiliary power unit, or combustion heater that includes a flammable fluid and an ignition source for that fluid must be installed in a designated fire zone.
(b) Each designated fire zone must provide a means to isolate and mitigate hazards to the airplane in the event of fire or overheat within the zone.
(c) Each component, line, fitting, and control subject to fire conditions must—
(1) Be designed and located to prevent hazards resulting from a fire, including any located adjacent to a designated fire zone that may be affected by fire within that zone;
(2) Be fire resistant if carrying flammable fluids, gas, or air or required to operate in event of a fire; and
(3) Be fireproof or enclosed by a fire proof shield if storing concentrated flammable fluids.
(d) The applicant must provide a means to prevent hazardous quantities of flammable fluids from flowing into, within or through each designated fire zone. This means must—
(1) Not restrict flow or limit operation of any remaining powerplant or auxiliary power unit, or equipment necessary for safety;
(2) Prevent inadvertent operation; and
(3) Be located outside the fire zone unless an equal degree of safety is provided with a means inside the fire zone.
(e) A means to ensure the prompt detection of fire must be provided for each designated fire zone—
(1) On a multiengine airplane where detection will mitigate likely hazards to the airplane; or
(2) That contains a fire extinguisher.
(f) A means to extinguish fire within a fire zone, except a combustion heater fire zone, must be provided for—
(1) Any fire zone located outside the pilot's view;
(2) Any fire zone embedded within the fuselage, which must also include a redundant means to extinguish fire; and
(3) Any fire zone on a level 4 airplane.
This section applies generally to installed equipment and systems unless a section of this part imposes requirements for a specific piece of equipment, system, or systems.
(a) The equipment and systems required for an airplane to operate safely in the kinds of operations for which certification is requested (Day VFR, Night VFR, IFR) must be designed and installed to—
(1) Meet the level of safety applicable to the certification and performance level of the airplane; and
(2) Perform their intended function throughout the operating and environmental limits for which the airplane is certificated.
(b) The systems and equipment not covered by paragraph (a), considered separately and in relation to other systems, must be designed and installed so their operation does not have an adverse effect on the airplane or its occupants.
When installed, each item of equipment must function as intended.
For any airplane system or equipment whose failure or abnormal operation has not been specifically addressed by another requirement in this part, the applicant must design and install each system and equipment, such that there is a logical and acceptable inverse relationship between the average probability and the severity of failure conditions to the extent that:
(a) Each catastrophic failure condition is extremely improbable;
(b) Each hazardous failure condition is extremely remote; and
(c) Each major failure condition is remote.
An airplane approved for IFR operations must meet the following requirements, unless an applicant shows that exposure to lightning is unlikely:
(a) Each electrical or electronic system that performs a function, the failure of which would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, must be designed and installed such that—
(1) The function at the airplane level is not adversely affected during and after the time the airplane is exposed to lightning; and
(2) The system recovers normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to lightning unless the system's recovery conflicts with other operational or functional requirements of the system.
(b) Each electrical and electronic system that performs a function, the failure of which would significantly reduce the capability of the airplane or the ability of the flightcrew to respond to an adverse operating condition, must be designed and installed such that the system recovers normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to lightning.
(a) Each electrical and electronic systems that perform a function, the failure of which would prevent the continued safe flight and landing of the airplane, must be designed and installed such that—
(1) The function at the airplane level is not adversely affected during and after the time the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment; and
(2) The system recovers normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment, unless the system's recovery conflicts with other operational or functional requirements of the system.
(b) For airplanes approved for IFR operations, each electrical and electronic system that performs a function, the failure of which would significantly reduce the capability of the airplane or the ability of the flightcrew to respond to an adverse operating condition, must be designed and installed such that the system recovers normal operation of that function in a timely manner after the airplane is exposed to the HIRF environment.
The power generation, storage, and distribution for any system must be designed and installed to—
(a) Supply the power required for operation of connected loads during all intended operating conditions;
(b) Ensure no single failure or malfunction of any one power supply, distribution system, or other utilization system will prevent the system from supplying the essential loads required for continued safe flight and landing; and
(c) Have enough capacity, if the primary source fails, to supply essential loads, including non-continuous essential loads for the time needed to complete the function required for continued safe flight and landing.
(a) The applicant must design and install all lights to minimize any adverse effects on the performance of flightcrew duties.
(b) Any position and anti-collision lights, if required by part 91 of this chapter, must have the intensities, flash rate, colors, fields of coverage, and other characteristics to provide sufficient time for another aircraft to avoid a collision.
(c) Any position lights, if required by part 91 of this chapter, must include a red light on the left side of the airplane, a green light on the right side of the airplane, spaced laterally as far apart as practicable, and a white light facing aft, located on an aft portion of the airplane or on the wing tips.
(d) Any taxi and landing lights must be designed and installed so they provide sufficient light for night operations.
(e) For seaplanes or amphibian airplanes, riding lights must provide a white light visible in clear atmospheric conditions.
Safety and survival equipment, required by the operating rules of this chapter, must be reliable, readily accessible, easily identifiable, and clearly marked to identify its method of operation.
An applicant who requests certification for flight in icing conditions defined in part 1 of appendix C to part 25 of this chapter, or an applicant who requests certification for flight in these icing conditions and any additional atmospheric icing conditions, must show the following in the icing conditions for which certification is requested:
(a) The ice protection system provides for safe operation.
(b) The airplane design must provide protection from stalling when the autopilot is operating.
Pressurized systems must withstand appropriate proof and burst pressures.
Equipment containing high-energy rotors must be designed or installed to protect the occupants and airplane from uncontained fragments.
(a) The pilot compartment, its equipment, and its arrangement to include pilot view, must allow each pilot to perform his or her duties, including taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, landing, and perform any maneuvers within the operating envelope of the airplane, without excessive concentration, skill, alertness, or fatigue.
(b) The applicant must install flight, navigation, surveillance, and powerplant controls and displays so qualified flightcrew can monitor and perform defined tasks associated with the intended functions of systems and equipment. The system and equipment design must minimize flightcrew errors, which could result in additional hazards.
(c) For level 4 airplanes, the flightcrew interface design must allow for continued safe flight and landing after the loss of vision through any one of the windshield panels.
(a) Each item of installed equipment related to the flightcrew interface must be labelled, if applicable, as to it identification, function, or operating limitations, or any combination of these factors.
(b) There must be a discernible means of providing system operating parameters required to operate the airplane, including warnings, cautions, and normal indications to the responsible crewmember.
(c) Information concerning an unsafe system operating condition must be provided in a timely manner to the crewmember responsible for taking corrective action. The information must be clear enough to avoid likely crewmember errors.
(a) Each airplane must display in a conspicuous manner any placard and instrument marking necessary for operation.
(b) The design must clearly indicate the function of each cockpit control, other than primary flight controls.
(c) The applicant must include instrument marking and placard information in the Airplane Flight Manual.
(a) Installed systems must provide the flightcrew member who sets or monitors parameters for the flight, navigation, and powerplant, the information necessary to do so during each phase of flight. This information must—
(1) Be presented in a manner that the crewmember can monitor the parameter and determine trends, as needed, to operate the airplane; and
(2) Include limitations, unless the limitation cannot be exceeded in all intended operations.
(b) Indication systems that integrate the display of flight or powerplant parameters to operate the airplane or are required by the operating rules of this chapter must—
(1) Not inhibit the primary display of flight or powerplant parameters needed by any flightcrew member in any normal mode of operation; and
(2) In combination with other systems, be designed and installed so information essential for continued safe flight and landing will be available to the flightcrew in a timely manner after any single failure or probable combination of failures.
The applicant must provide an Airplane Flight Manual that must be delivered with each airplane.
(a) The Airplane Flight Manual must contain the following information—
(1) Airplane operating limitations;
(2) Airplane operating procedures;
(3) Performance information;
(4) Loading information; and
(5) Other information that is necessary for safe operation because of design, operating, or handling characteristics.
(b) The following sections of the Airplane Flight Manual must be approved by the FAA in a manner specified by the administrator—
(1) For low-speed, level 1 and 2 airplanes, those portions of the Airplane Flight Manual containing the information specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
(2) For high-speed level 1 and 2 airplanes and all level 3 and 4 airplanes, those portions of the Airplane Flight Manual containing the information specified in paragraphs (a)(1) thru (a)(4) of this section.
(a) This appendix specifies requirements for the preparation of Instructions for Continued Airworthiness as required by this part.
(b) The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness for each airplane must include the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness for each engine and propeller (hereinafter designated “products”), for each appliance required by this chapter, and any required information relating to the interface of those appliances and products with the airplane. If Instructions for Continued Airworthiness are not supplied by the manufacturer of an appliance or product installed in the airplane, the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness for the airplane must include the information essential to the continued airworthiness of the airplane.
(c) The applicant must submit to the FAA a program to show how changes to the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness made by the applicant or by the manufacturers of products and appliances installed in the airplane will be distributed.
(a) The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must be in the form of a manual or manuals as appropriate for the quantity of data to be provided.
(b) The format of the manual or manuals must provide for a practical arrangement.
The contents of the manual or manuals must be prepared in the English language. The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must contain the following manuals or sections and information:
(a) Airplane maintenance manual or section.
(1) Introduction information that includes an explanation of the airplane's features and data to the extent necessary for maintenance or preventive maintenance.
(2) A description of the airplane and its systems and installations including its engines, propellers, and appliances.
(3) Basic control and operation information describing how the airplane components and systems are controlled and how they operate, including any special procedures and limitations that apply.
(4) Servicing information that covers details regarding servicing points, capacities of tanks, reservoirs, types of fluids to be used, pressures applicable to the various systems, location of access panels for inspection and servicing, locations of lubrication points, lubricants to be used, equipment required for servicing, tow instructions and limitations, mooring, jacking, and leveling information.
(b) Maintenance Instructions.
(1) Scheduling information for each part of the airplane and its engines, auxiliary power units, propellers, accessories, instruments, and equipment that provides the recommended periods at which they should be cleaned, inspected, adjusted, tested, and lubricated, and the degree of inspection, the applicable wear tolerances, and work recommended at these periods. However, the applicant may refer to an accessory, instrument, or equipment manufacturer as the source of this information if the applicant shows that the item has an exceptionally high degree of complexity requiring specialized maintenance techniques, test
(2) Troubleshooting information describing probable malfunctions, how to recognize those malfunctions, and the remedial action for those malfunctions.
(3) Information describing the order and method of removing and replacing products and parts with any necessary precautions to be taken.
(4) Other general procedural instructions including procedures for system testing during ground running, symmetry checks, weighing and determining the center of gravity, lifting and shoring, and storage limitations.
(c) Diagrams of structural access plates and information needed to gain access for inspections when access plates are not provided.
(d) Details for the application of special inspection techniques including radiographic and ultrasonic testing where such processes are specified by the applicant.
(e) Information needed to apply protective treatments to the structure after inspection.
(f) All data relative to structural fasteners such as identification, discard recommendations, and torque values.
(g) A list of special tools needed.
(h) In addition, for level 4 airplanes, the following information must be furnished—
(1) Electrical loads applicable to the various systems;
(2) Methods of balancing control surfaces;
(3) Identification of primary and secondary structures; and
(4) Special repair methods applicable to the airplane.
The Instructions for Continued Airworthiness must contain a section titled Airworthiness Limitations that is segregated and clearly distinguishable from the rest of the document. This section must set forth each mandatory replacement time, structural inspection interval, and related structural inspection procedure required for type certification. If the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness consist of multiple documents, the section required by this paragraph must be included in the principal manual. This section must contain a legible statement in a prominent location that reads “The Airworthiness Limitations section is FAA approved and specifies maintenance required under §§ 43.16 and 91.403 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations unless an alternative program has been FAA approved.”
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113, 44701-44702, 44704.
(c) An applicant is eligible for a propeller type certificate and changes to those certificates after demonstrating compliance with subparts A, B, and C of this part. However, the propeller may not be installed on an airplane unless the applicant has shown compliance with either § 23.2400(c) or § 25.907 of this chapter, as applicable, or compliance is not required for installation on that airplane.
(c) * * *
(1) The intended airplane by complying with § 23.2400(c) or § 25.907 of this chapter, as applicable; or
42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40105, 40113, 44701-44702, 44704, 44707, 44709, 44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.
Each person performing the altimeter system tests and inspections required by § 91.411 of this chapter must comply with the following:
(a) * * *
(2) Perform a proof test to demonstrate the integrity of the static pressure system in a manner acceptable to the Administrator. For airplanes certificated under part 25 of this chapter, determine that leakage is within the tolerances established by § 25.1325.
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 1155, 40101, 40103, 40105, 40113, 40120, 44101, 44111, 44701, 44704, 44709, 44711, 44712, 44715, 44716, 44717, 44722, 46306, 46315, 46316, 46504, 46506-46507, 47122, 47508, 47528-47531, 47534, articles 12 and 29 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation (61 Stat. 1180), (126 Stat. 11).
(b) * * *
(13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal latching device, or other approved restraint system for each occupant 2 years of age or older.
(14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for each front seat. For small civil airplanes manufactured after December 12, 1986, an approved shoulder harness or restraint system for all seats. Shoulder harnesses installed at flightcrew stations must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this paragraph—
(i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and
(ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flightcrew member station or any seat located alongside such a seat.
(16) [Reserved]
(g) No person may operate a small restricted-category civil airplane manufactured after July 18, 1978, unless an approved shoulder harness or restraint system is installed for each front seat. The shoulder harness or restraint system installation at each flightcrew station must permit the flightcrew member, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened or the restraint system engaged, to perform all functions necessary for flight operation. For purposes of this paragraph—
(b) * * *
(3) The weight at which the airplane meets the positive maneuvering load factor
(a) * * *
(1) A large airplane or normal category level 4 airplane, except that a person may operate an airplane certificated under SFAR 41 without a pilot who is designated as second in command if that airplane is certificated for operation with one pilot.
(3) A commuter category airplane or normal category level 3 airplane, except that a person may operate those airplanes notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, that have a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of nine or less without a pilot who is designated as second in command if that airplane is type certificated for operations with one pilot.
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40119, 41706, 42301 preceding note added by Pub. L. 112-95, Sec. 412, 126 Stat. 89, 44101, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709-44711, 44713, 44716-44717, 44722, 44729, 44732; 46105; Pub. L. 111-216, 124 Stat. 2348 (49 U.S.C. 44701 note); Pub. L. 112-95, 126 Stat. 62 (49 U.S.C. 44732 note).
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(iii) For a nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to have white letters 1 inch high on a red background 2 inches high, be self-illuminated or independently, internally electrically illuminated, and have a minimum brightness of at least 160 microlamberts. The color may be reversed if the passenger compartment illumination is essentially the same. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts.
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 41706, 40113, 44701-44702, 44705, 44709, 44711-44713, 44715-44717, 44722, 44730, 45101-45105; Pub. L. 112-95, 126 Stat. 58 (49 U.S.C. 44730).
(b) No person may operate a small airplane that has a passenger-seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 10 seats or more unless it is type certificated—
(6) In the normal category and complies with section 1.(b) of Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 41;
(7) In the commuter category; or
(8) In the normal category, as a multi-engine certification level 4 airplane as defined in part 23 of this chapter.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Reproposal.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission” or “CFTC”) is reproposing rules to amend part 150 of the Commission's regulations concerning speculative position limits to conform to the Wall Street Transparency and Accountability Act of 2010 (“Dodd-Frank Act”) amendments to the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA” or “Act”). The reproposal would establish speculative position limits for 25 exempt and agricultural commodity futures and option contracts, and physical commodity swaps that are “economically equivalent” to such contracts (as such term is used in section 4a(a)(5) of the CEA). In connection with establishing these limits, the Commission is reproposing to update some relevant definitions; revise the exemptions from speculative position limits, including for bona fide hedging; and extend and update reporting requirements for persons claiming exemption from these limits. The Commission is also reproposing appendices to part 150 that would provide guidance on risk management exemptions for commodity derivative contracts in excluded commodities permitted under the revised definition of bona fide hedging position; list core referenced futures contracts and commodities that would be substantially the same as a commodity underlying a core referenced futures contract for purposes of the definition of location basis contract; describe and analyze fourteen fact patterns that would satisfy the reproposed definition of bona fide hedging position; and present the reproposed speculative position limit levels in tabular form. In addition, the Commission proposes to update certain of its rules, guidance and acceptable practices for compliance with Designated Contract Market (“DCM”) core principle 5 and Swap Execution Facility (“SEF”) core principle 6 in respect of exchange-set speculative position limits and position accountability levels. Furthermore, the Commission is reproposing processes for DCMs and SEFs to recognize certain positions in commodity derivative contracts as non-enumerated bona fide hedges or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges, as well as to exempt from position limits certain spread positions, in each case subject to Commission review. Separately, the Commission is reproposing to delay for DCMs and SEFs that lack access to sufficient swap position information the requirement to establish and monitor position limits on swaps.
Comments must be received on or before February 28, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by RIN number 3038-AD99, by any of the following methods:
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All comments must be submitted in English, or if not, accompanied by an English translation. Comments will be posted as received to
The Commission reserves the right, but shall have no obligation, to review, pre-screen, filter, redact, refuse or remove any or all of your submission from
Stephen Sherrod, Senior Economist, (202) 418-5452,
The Commission has long established and enforced speculative position limits for futures and options contracts on various agricultural commodities as authorized by the Commodity Exchange
In late 2013, the CFTC proposed to amend its part 150 regulations governing speculative position limits.
On June 13, 2016, the Commission published a supplemental proposal to its December 2013 Position Limits rulemaking.
After review of the comments responding to both the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal and the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission, in consideration of those comments, is now issuing a reproposal (“Reproposal”). The Commission invites comments on all aspects of this Reproposal.
As part of the Dodd-Frank Act, Congress amended the CEA's position limits provision, which since 1936 has authorized the Commission (and its predecessor) to impose limits on speculative positions to prevent the harms caused by excessive speculation. Prior to the Dodd-Frank Act, CEA section 4a(a) stated that for the purpose of diminishing, eliminating or preventing specified burdens on interstate commerce, the Commission shall, from time to time, after due notice and an opportunity for hearing, by rule, regulation, or order, proclaim and fix such limits on the amounts of trading which may be done or positions which may be held by any person under contracts of sale of such commodity for future delivery on or subject to the rules of any contract market as the Commission finds are necessary to
In the Dodd-Frank Act, Congress renumbered a modified version of CEA section 4a(a) as section 4a(a)(1) and added, among other provisions, CEA section 4a(a)(2), captioned “Establishment of Limitations,” which provides that in accordance with the standards set forth in CEA section 4a(a)(1), the Commission shall establish limits on the amount of positions, as appropriate, other than bona fide hedge positions, that may be held by any person. CEA section 4a(a)(2) further provides that for exempt commodities (energy and metals), the limits required under CEA section 4a(a)(2) shall be established within 180 days after the date of the enactment of CEA section 4a(a)(2); for agricultural commodities, the limits required under CEA section 4a(a)(2) shall be established within 270 days after the date of the enactment of CEA section 4a(a)(2).
These and other changes to CEA section 4a(a) are described in more detail below.
Pursuant to these amendments, the Commission adopted a position limits rule in 2011 (“2011 Position Limits Rule”) in a new part 151.
ISDA and SIFMA sued the Commission to vacate part 151 on the basis (among others) that, in their view, CEA section 4a(a) clearly required the Commission to make an antecedent necessity finding.
As set forth in the Commission's December 2013 Position Limits Proposal,
The court's determination in
Before the Dodd-Frank Act, what was then CEA section 4a(a) authorized the
The 2010 Dodd-Frank Act amendments to CEA section 4a(a) significantly expanded and altered it. The entirety of pre-Dodd-Frank CEA section 4a(a) became CEA section 4a(a)(1). Congress added six new subsections to CEA section 4a(a)—sections 4a(a)(2) through (7). And, outside of section 4a(a), Congress imposed a requirement that the Commission study the new limits it imposed and provide Congress with a report on their effects within one year of their imposition.
The primary change at issue here was the addition of new CEA section 4a(a)(2), which addresses position limits on a specific class of commodity contracts, “physical commodities other than excluded commodities”:
CEA section 4a(a)(2)(A) provides that in accordance with the standards set forth in CEA section 4a(a)(1), with respect to physical commodities other than excluded commodities, the Commission shall establish limits on the amount of positions, as appropriate, other than bona fide hedge positions, that may be held by any person with respect to contracts of sale for future delivery or with respect to options on the contracts.
CEA section 4a(a)(2)(B), in turn, provides that the limits “required” under CEA section 4a(a)(2)(A) “shall be established within 180 days after the date of enactment of this paragraph” for “agricultural commodities” (such as wheat or corn) and “within 270 days after the date of the enactment of this paragraph” for “exempt commodities” (which include energy-related commodities like oil, as well as metals).
The other new subsections of CEA section 4a(a) delineate the types of physical commodity derivatives to which the new limits apply, set forth criteria for the Commission to consider in determining the levels of the required limits, require the Commission to aggregate the limits across exchanges for equivalent derivatives, require the Commission to impose limits on swaps that are economically equivalent to the physical commodity futures and options subject to CEA section 4a(a)(2), and permit the Commission to grant exemptions from the position limits it must impose under the provision:
• Section 4a(a)(3) guides the Commission in setting appropriate limit levels by providing that the Commission shall consider whether the limit levels: (i) Diminish, eliminate, or prevent excessive speculation; (ii) deter and prevent market manipulation, squeezes, and corners; (iii) ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers; and (iv) ensure that the price discovery function of the underlying market is not disrupted;
• Section 4a(a)(4) sets forth criteria for determining which swaps perform a significant price discovery function for purposes of the position limits provisions;
• Section 4a(a)(5) requires the Commission to concurrently impose appropriate limit levels on physical commodity swaps that are economically equivalent to the futures and options for which limits are required;
• Section 4a(a)(6) requires the Commission to apply the required position limits on an aggregate basis to contracts based on the same underlying commodity across all exchanges; and
• Section a(a)(7) authorizes the Commission to grant exemptions from the position limits it imposes.
As explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, position limits have a long history as a tool to prevent unwarranted price movement and volatility, including but not limited to price swings caused by market manipulation.
Congress began regulating commodity derivatives in 1917, when Congress enacted emergency legislation to stabilize the U.S. grain markets during the First World War by suspending wheat futures and securing “a voluntary limitation” of 500,000 bushels on trading in corn futures.
As addressed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, two aspects of the Commission's experience are particularly important to the Commission's interpretation of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments to CEA section 4a. The first is the Commission's experience with the time required to make necessity findings before setting limits, which relates to the time limits contained in CEA section 4a(a)(2)(B). The second is the Commission's experience in rulemaking requiring exchanges to set limits in accordance with certain “standards,” the term the district court found ambiguous.
Based on its experience administering position limits, the Commission preliminarily concludes (as stated preliminarily in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal) that Congress could not have contemplated that, as a prerequisite to imposing limits, the Commission would first make antecedent commodity-by-commodity necessity determinations in the 180-270 day time frame within which CEA section 4a(a)(2)(B) states that limits “required under subparagraph [4a(a)(2(A)] shall be established.”
In the Commission's experience (including the experience of its predecessor agency), it generally took many months to make a necessity finding with respect to one commodity. The process of making the sort of necessity findings that plaintiffs in
The CFTC's preliminary interpretation of the statute is also based in part on its promulgation of a rule in 1981 requiring exchanges to impose limits on all contracts that did not already have limits. In that rulemaking, the Commission, acting expressly pursuant to,
Like the Dodd-Frank Act, the 1981 final rule established (and the rule release described) that such limits “shall” be established according to what the Commission termed “standards.”
The Commission thus directed the exchanges to set limits for all futures contracts “pursuant to the . . . standards of rule 1.61,” without requiring that the exchanges first make a finding of necessity.
Indeed, legislative history shows reason to believe that Congress' choice of the word “standards” to refer to aggregation and flexibility alone was purposeful and intended it to mean the same thing it did in the Commission's 1981 rule.
There is further evidence based on the 1981 rulemaking that Congress would have found the across-the-board prophylactic approach attractive. In 1983, when enacting the Futures Trading Act of 19982, Public Law 97-444, 96 Stat. 2294 (1983), Congress was aware that the Commission had “promulgated a final rule requiring exchanges to submit speculative position limit proposals for Commission approval for all futures contracts traded as of that date.”
i.
ii.
Several commenters asserted that the Commission's reliance on the timelines to support its view ignores other qualifying language in the statute, such as the terms “necessary” and “appropriate.”
CME also contended that the 180- and 270-day time limits were a difficulty manufactured by the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal itself. According to CME, the Commission could instead expedite the process for setting limits by utilizing its exchanges and others to determine whether position limits are necessary and appropriate for a particular commodity and, if so, the appropriate types and levels of limits and related exemptions.
iii.
Several commenters contended that the Commission's reliance on the 1981 rulemaking ignores that the CFTC then imposed limits only after a fact-intensive inquiry into the characteristics of individual contracts markets to determine the limits most appropriate for individual contract markets.
ISDA and SIFMA asserted that the Commission's reliance on the 1981 rulemaking is unavailing because (1) it cannot alter the Commission's statutory burdens with respect to imposing position limits; and (2) it was never adopted by Congress.
Finally, several commenters asserted that the Commission cannot consider the 1981 rulemaking because the Commission later allowed exchanges to set position accountability levels in lieu of limits for some commodities and contracts.
As discussed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission has also considered the legislative history of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments.
The Commission's preliminary interpretation of CEA section 4a(a)(2) is based in part on congressional concerns that arose, and congressional actions taken, before the passage of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments.
Following this experiment with position accountability, Congress became concerned about fluctuations in commodity prices. In the late 1990s and 2000s, Congress conducted several investigations that concluded that excessive speculation accounted for significant volatility and price increases in physical commodity markets. For example, a congressional investigation determined that prices of crude oil had risen precipitously and that “[t]he traditional forces of supply and demand cannot fully account for these increases.”
These investigations appear to have informed the drafting of the Dodd-Frank Act. During hearings prior to the passage of the Dodd-Frank Act, Senator Carl Levin, then-Chair of the Senate Permanent Subcommittee on Investigations that had conducted them, urged passage to ensure “a cop on the beat in all commodity markets where U.S. commodities are traded . . . that can enforce the law to prevent excessive speculation and market manipulation.”
The evolution of the position limits provision in the bills before Congress from permissive to mandatory supports a preliminary determination that Congress intended to do something more than continue the long-standing statutory regime giving the Commission discretionary authority to impose limits.
A number of commenters generally supported or opposed the Commission's consideration of Congressional investigations and the textual strengthening of the Dodd-Frank bill. The Commission addresses specific comments below.
i.
Other commenters disagreed with the Commission's preliminary determination that the Congressional investigations indicate that Congress intended to mandate limits. CME asserted that the investigations do not in themselves demonstrate that Congress required the CFTC to impose position limits as recommended even if those investigations suggest that excessive speculation poses a burden on interstate commerce in certain physical commodity markets.
But the Commission is not relying solely on these reports. The question, rather, is whether these Congressional
ii.
CME and MFA disagreed; while they do not directly address this point, they believed that the strengthening of the language in the Dodd-Frank bills does not indicate that Congress intended to de-couple the enacted directive to impose position limits from the necessity finding of CEA section 4a(a)(1).
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission discussed how its interpretation of the text of CEA section 4a(a), considered as an integrated whole, is consistent with and supports its conclusions based on experience and expertise. As discussed, the ambiguity is the meaning of CEA section 4a(a)(2)'s statement that the Commission “shall” establish limits on physical commodities other than excluded commodities “[i]n accordance with the standards” set forth in CEA section 4a(a)(1). If “standards” includes a necessity finding, then a necessity finding is required before limits can be imposed on agricultural and exempt commodities. If not, the Commission must impose limits for that subset of commodity derivatives. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission resolved the ambiguity by preliminarily determining that the reference in CEA section 4a(a)(2) to the “standards” in pre-Dodd-Frank section 4a(a)(1) refers to the criteria in CEA section 4a(a)(1) for
The Commission reasoned that this construction of “standards” seemed most consistent with the Commission's experience and history administering position limits. It also seemed most consistent with the text of CEA section 4a(a)(2), the rest of CEA section 4a(a), and the Act as a whole. The Dodd-Frank Act amendments to CEA section 4a(a) largely re-shape CEA section 4a(a) by adding a new, detailed, and comprehensive section 4a(a)(2) that applies only to a subset of the derivatives regulated by the Commission—physical commodities like wheat, oil, and gold—and not intangible commodities like interest rates. Amended CEA section 4a(a) repeatedly uses the word “shall” and refers to the new limits as “required,” differentiating it from the text that existed before the Dodd-Frank Act.
By the same token, the Commission preliminarily determined that interpreting CEA section 4a(a)(2) as it proposed to do would not render superfluous the necessity finding requirement in CEA section 4a(a) because that section still applies to the non-physical (excluded) commodity derivatives that are not subject to CEA section 4a(a)(2). Nor would it nullify other parts of CEA section 4a(a), as those are unaffected by this reading.
The Commission received a number of comments on its discussion of the interplay between the statute's text and the Commission's experience and expertise. The Commission has considered them carefully, but is not thus far persuaded. The Commission preliminarily believes that it is a reasonable interpretation of the text of the statute considered as an integrated whole and viewed through the lens of the Commission's experience and expertise, that Congress mandated that the Commission establish position limits for physical commodities. It is also reasonable to construe the reference to “standards” as an instruction to the Commission to apply the flexibility and aggregation standards set forth in CEA section 4a(a)(1), just as the Commission instructed the exchanges to impose
Several commenters disputed the Commission's interpretation, based on its experience and expertise, that CEA section 4a(a)(2) is a mandate for prophylactic limits based on their view that the statute unambiguously requires the Commission to promulgate position limits only after making a necessity finding, and only “as appropriate.”
The commenters that disagreed with the Commission's preliminary conclusion argued that the Commission: (i) Erred in determining that the reference to “standards” in CEA section 4a(a)(2) does not include the necessity finding in CEA section 4a(a)(1); (ii) failed to consider other provisions that show Congress intended to require the Commission to make antecedent findings; and (iii) incorrectly determined that its interpretation is the only way to give effect to CEA section 4a(a)(2).
i.
The Commission disagrees that this constitutes an implied repeal. First, CEA section 4a(a)(2) applies only to physical commodities, not other commodities. Accordingly, the requirement of a necessity finding in section 4a(a)(1) still applies to a broad swath of commodity derivatives. Second, there is no implied repeal even in part, because the Commission is interpreting express language—the term “standards.” The Commission must bring its experience to bear when interpreting the ambiguity in the new provision, and the Commission preliminarily believes that the statute, read in light of the Commission's experience administering position limits and making necessity findings, is more reasonably read as an express limited exception, for physical commodities futures and economically equivalent swaps, to the preexisting authorization in CEA section 4a(a)(1) for the Commission to impose limits when it finds them necessary.
ii.
First, some commenters asserted that the term “as appropriate” in CEA sections 4a(a)(3) (factors that the “Commission, “as appropriate” must consider when it “shall set limits”) and 4a(a)(5)(A) (providing that Commission “shall” “as appropriate” establish limits on swaps that are economically equivalent to physical commodity futures and options) require the Commission to make antecedent findings that the limits required under CEA section 4a(a)(2) are appropriate before it may impose them.
The Commission preliminarily believes that when these words are considered in the context of CEA section 4a(a)(2)-(7) as a whole, including the multiple uses of the new terms “shall” and “required” and the historically unique stringent time limits for imposing the covered limits and post-imposition study requirement, it is more reasonable to interpret these words as referring to the level of limits,
Some commenters claimed that other parts of CEA section 4a(a)(2) undermine the Commission's determination. First, CEA section 4a(2)(C) states that the “[g]oal . . . [i]n establishing the limits required” is to “strive to ensure” that trading on foreign boards of trade (“FBOTs”) for commodities that have limits will be subject to “comparable limits.” It goes on to state that for “any limits to be imposed” the Commission will strive to ensure that they not shift trading overseas. Commenters argue that “any limits to be imposed” under CEA section 4a(a)(2)(A) implies that limits might not be imposed under that section. However, in the context discussed and in view of the reference in that section to position limits
Second, CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) states certain factors that the Commission must consider in setting limits under CEA section 4a(a)(2).
Some commenters stated that two pre-Dodd Frank Act provisions in CEA section 4a undermine the Commission's interpretation. The first is CEA section 4a(e),which states, “if the Commission shall have fixed limits . . . for any contract . . . , then the limits” imposed by DCMs, SEFs or other trading facilities “shall not be higher than the limits fixed by Commission.”
The second pre-Dodd Frank Act provision the commenters mentioned is CEA section 5(d)(5);
Some commenters cited other language in CEA section 5(d)(5) to support their assertion that, notwithstanding the Dodd-Frank Act amendments discussed above requiring the Commission to impose limits, the Commission retains and should exercise its discretion to impose position accountability levels in lieu of limits or delegate that authority exchanges to do so. CEA section 5(d)(5) authorizes exchanges to adopt “position limitations or position accountability” levels in order to reduce the threat of manipulation and congestion. These commenters also pointed out that the Commission has previously endorsed accountability levels for exchanges in lieu of limits.
The Commission agrees with the latter group of commenters and finds the former reading strained. CEA section 4a(a)(2) makes no mention of position accountability levels. Regardless whether pre-Dodd Frank section 5(d)(5) allows exchanges to set accountability levels in lieu of limits where the Commission has not set limits, and regardless whether the Commission has in the past endorsed exchange-set position accountability levels in lieu of limits, CEA section 4a(a)(2) does not mention that tool. If anything, reference to accountability levels elsewhere in the CEA shows that Congress understands that exchanges have used position accountability, but made no reference to it in amended CEA section 4a(a).
iii.
Furthermore, if Congress had still wanted to leave it to the Commission to ultimately decide whether a limit was necessary, there is no reason for it to have also set tight deadlines, repeat multiple times that the limits are “required,” and direct the agency to conduct a study after the limits were imposed. In other words, requiring the Commission to make an antecedent necessity finding would render many of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments superfluous. For example, if the Commission determined limits were not necessary then, contrary to CEA section 4a(a)(2), no limits were in fact “required,” no limits needed to be imposed by the deadlines, and no study
CME contended that the Commission's position—that requiring a necessity finding would essentially give the Commission the same permissive authority it had before the Dodd-Frank Act amendments—is “short-sighted” because other provisions of CEA section 4a(a) “would still have practical significance.” In support of this view, CME stated that new CEA sections 4a(a)(2)(C) and 4(a)(3)(B) have significance even if the Commission is required to make a necessity finding because they “set forth safeguards that the CFTC must balance when it establishes limits” after “the CFTC finds that such limits are necessary.” The Commission preliminarily believes it unlikely that Congress would have intended that. On CME's reading, the statute would place additional requirements to constrain the Commission's
Having carefully considered the text, purpose and legislative history of CEA section 4a(a) as a whole, along with its own experience and expertise and the comments on its proposed interpretation, the Commission preliminarily believes for the reasons above that Congress—while not expressing itself with ideal clarity—decided that position limits were necessary for a subset of commodities, physical commodities, mandated the Commission to impose them on those commodities in accordance with certain criteria, and required that the Commission do so expeditiously, without first making antecedent findings that they are necessary to prevent excessive speculation. Consistent with this interpretation, Congress also directed the agency to report back to Congress on their effectiveness within one year. In the Commission's preliminary view, this interpretation, even if not the only possible interpretation, best gives effect to the text and purpose of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments in the context of the pre-existing position limits provision, while ensuring that neither the amendments nor the pre-existing language is rendered superfluous.
The Commission reiterates its preliminary alternative necessity finding as articulated in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal:
As described in the Proposal, the policy basis and reasoning for the Commission's necessity finding is illustrated by two major incidents in which market participants amassed massive futures positions in silver and natural gas, respectively, which enabled them to cause sudden and unreasonable fluctuations and unwarranted changes in the prices of those commodities. CEA section 4a(a)(1) calls for position limits for the purpose of diminishing, eliminating, or preventing the burden of excessive speculation.
The Commission received many comments on its preliminary alternative necessity finding; the Commission summarizes and responds to significant comments below.
As discussed above, the presence of manipulative intent or activity does not preclude the existence of excessive speculation, and traders do not need manipulative intent for the accumulation of very large positions to cause the negative consequences observed in the Hunt and Amaranth incidents. These are some reasons position limits are valuable as a prophylactic measure for, in the language of CEA section 4a(a)(1), “preventing” burdens on interstate commerce. The Hunt brothers, who distorted the price of silver, and Amaranth, who distorted the price of natural gas, are examples that illustrate the burdens on interstate commerce of excessive speculation that occurred in the absence of position limits, and position limits would have restricted those traders' ability to cause unwarranted price movement and market volatility, and this would be so even had their motivations been innocent. Both episodes involved extraordinarily large speculative positions, which the Commission has historically associated with excessive speculation.
CME makes a textual argument in support of the position that CEA section 4a(a)(2) requires a commodity-by-commodity determination that position limits are necessary. It cites several places in CEA section 4a(a)(1) that refer to limits as necessary to eliminate “such burden” on “such commodity” or “any commodity.”
The Commission's analysis applies to all physical commodities, and it would account for differences among markets by setting the limits at levels based on updated data regarding estimated deliverable supply in each of the given underlying commodities in the case of spot-month limits or based on exchange recommendation, if an exchange recommended a spot-month limit level of less than 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply, and open interest in the case of single-month and all-months-combined limits, for each separate commodity. The Commission's Reproposal regarding whether to adopt conditional spot-month limits is also based on updated data.
The Commission disagrees that it has failed to conduct proper economic analysis to determine the likely benefits of position limits. CEA section 15(a) requires that before promulgating a regulation under the Act, the Commission consider the costs and benefits of the action according to five statutory factors. The Commission does so below in robust fashion with respect to the Reproposal in its entirety, including the alternative necessity finding. Neither section 15(a) of the CEA nor the Administrative Procedure Act requires the Commission to conduct a study in any particular form so long as it considers the costs and benefits and the entire administrative record. Section 719(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act, on the other hand, provides that the Commission “shall conduct a study of the effects (if any) of the position limits imposed pursuant to the . . . [CEA] on excessive speculation” and report to Congress on such matters after the imposition of position limits.
One commenter opined that, “in discussing only the Hunt Brothers and Amaranth case studies the Commission has not given adequate weight to the benefits that speculators provide to the market.”
One commenter asserted that the Commission must provide a definition of excessive speculation before making any necessity finding.
Commenters assert, variously, that “the volatility of commodity markets has decreased steadily over the past decade,”
As stated above, the Commission recognizes that speculation is part of a
One commenter states, “The necessity finding . . . proffered by the Commission—which consists of a discussion of two historical events and a cursory review of existing studies and reports on position limits related issues—falls short of a comprehensive analysis and justification for the proposed position limits.
Another commenter states that the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal “does not provide any quantitative analysis of how the outcome of these [two historical] events might have differed if the proposed position limits had been in place.”
With respect to Amaranth, the Commission stated, “Based on certain assumptions . . . , the Commission believes that if Federal speculative position limits had been in effect that correspond to the limits that the Commission . . . [proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal], across markets now subject to Commission jurisdiction, such limits would have prevented Amaranth from accumulating such large futures positions and thereby restrict its ability to cause unwarranted price effects.”
Several commenters opined that the Commission, in reaching its preliminary alternative necessity finding, ignores current market developments and does not employ the “new tools” other than position limits available to it to prevent excessive speculation or manipulative or potentially manipulative behavior.
Position accountability, for example, is an older tool, from the era of the CFMA. As the Commission explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the CFMA “provided a statutory basis for exchanges to use pre-existing position accountability levels as an alternative means to limit the burdens of excessive speculative positions. Nevertheless, the CFMA did not weaken the Commission's authority in CEA section 4a to establish position limits as an alternative means to prevent such undue burdens on interstate commerce. More recently, in the CFTC Reauthorization Act of 2008, Congress gave the Commission expanded authority to set position limits for significant price discovery contracts on exempt commercial markets,”
One commenter opines that, “The Proposal's `necessary' finding offers no reasoned basis for adopting its framework and the shift in regulatory policy it embodies.”
Some commenters opine that “the Commission's proposed non-spot-month position limits do not increase the likelihood of preventing the excessive speculation or manipulative trading exemplified by Amaranth or the Hunt brothers relative to the status quo.”
One commenter suggests that position limits could only be necessary if they were the only means of preventing the Hunt brothers and Amaranth crises.
The Commission requests comment on all aspects of this section.
The Commission has reviewed and evaluated studies and reports received as comments on the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, in addition to the studies and reports reviewed in connection with the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal
The Commission observed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, “There is a demonstrable lack of consensus in the studies.”
The Commission's deliberations are informed by its consideration of the studies. The Commission recognizes that speculation and volatility are not
In general, many studies focused on subsidiary questions and did not directly address the desirability or utility of position limits. Their proffered interpretations may not be the only plausible explanation for statistical results. There is no broad academic consensus on the formal, testable economic definition of “excessive speculation” in commodity futures markets or other relevant terms such as “price bubble.” There is also no broad academic consensus on the best statistical model to test for the existence of excessive speculation. There are not many papers that quantify the impact and effectiveness of position limits in commodity futures markets. The Commission has identified some reasons why there are not many compelling, peer-reviewed economic studies engaging in quantitative, empirical analysis of the impact of position limits on prices or price volatility: Limitations on publicly available data, including detailed information on specific trades and traders; pre-existing position limits in some commodity markets, making it difficult to determine how those markets would operate in the absence of position limits; and the difficulties inherent in modelling complex economic phenomena.
The studies that the Commission considered can be grouped into seven categories.
Some economic studies considered by the Commission employ the Granger method of statistical analysis. The Granger method seeks to assess whether there is a strong linear correlation between two sets of data that are arranged chronologically forming a “time series.” While the Granger test is referred to as the “Granger causality test,” it is important to understand that, notwithstanding this shorthand, “Granger causality” does not necessarily establish an actual cause and effect relationship. The result of the Granger method is evidence, or the lack of evidence, of the existence of a linear correlation between the two time series. The absence of Granger causality does not necessarily imply the absence of actual causation.
The comovement method looks for whether there is correlation that is contemporaneous and not lagged. A subset of these comovement studies use a technique called cointegration for testing correlation between two sets of data.
Some economists have developed economic models for the supply and demand of a commodity. These models often include theories of how storage capacity and use affect supply and demand, which may influence the price of a physical commodity over time. An economist looks at where the model is in equilibrium with respect to quantities of a commodity supplied and demanded to arrive at a “fundamental” price or price return. The economist then looks for deviations between the fundamental price (based on the model) and the actual price of a commodity. When there is a statistically significant deviation between the fundamental price and the actual price, the economist generally infers that the price is not driven by market fundamentals of supply and demand.
In the context of studies relating to position limits, economists employing switching regression analysis generally posit a model with two states: A normal state, where prices reflect market fundamentals, and a second state, often interpreted as a “bubble.”
Some economists have run regression analyses
Some studies perform little or no empirical analysis and instead present a general theoretical model that may bear, directly or indirectly, on the effect of excessive speculation in the commodities markets. Because these papers do not include empirical analysis, they contain many untested assumptions and conclusory statements, limiting their usefulness to the Commission.
The Commission considered more than seventy studies that are survey or opinion pieces. Some of these studies provide useful background material but, on the whole, they offer mere opinion unsupported by rigorous empirical analysis. While they may be useful for developing hypotheses or informing policymakers, these secondary sources often exhibit policy bias and are not neutral, reliable bases for scientific inquiry the way that primary economic studies are.
While the economic literature is inconclusive, the Commission can
The Commission in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal identified two studies of actual market events to be helpful and persuasive in making its alternative necessity finding:
The Commission requests comment on its discussion of studies and reports. It also invites commenters to advise the Commission of any additional studies that the Commission should consider, and why.
Commenters requested that the Commission delay the compliance date, generally for at least nine months, to provide adequate time for market participants to come into compliance with a final rule.
In response to commenters, in this reproposal, the Commission proposes to delay the compliance date of any final rule until, at earliest, January 3, 2018, as provided under reproposed § 150.2(e). The Commission is of the opinion that a delay would provide market participants with sufficient time to come into compliance with a final rule, particularly in light of grandfathering provisions, discussed below.
The Commission believes that a delay until January 3, 2018, would provide time for market participants to gain
The Commission notes that market participants who expect to be over the limits would need to assess whether exemptions are available (including requesting non-enumerated bona fide hedging positon exemptions or spread exemptions from exchanges, as discussed below under reproposed §§ 150.9 and 150.10). In the absence of exemptions, such market participants would need to develop plans for coming into compliance.
The Commission notes the request for a further delay in a compliance date may be mitigated by the grandfathering provisions in the Reproposal. First, the reproposed rules would exclude from position limits “pre-enactment swaps” and “transition period swaps,” as discussed below. Second, the rules would exempt certain pre-existing positions from position limits under reproposed § 150.2(f). Essentially, this means only futures contracts initially would be subject to non-spot-month position limits, as well as swaps entered after the compliance date. The Commission notes that a pre-existing position in a futures contract also would not be a violation of a non-spot-month limit, but, rather, would be grandfathered, as discussed under reproposed § 150.2(f)(2), below. Nevertheless, the Commission intends to provide a substantial implementation period to ease the compliance burden.
The Commission requests comment on its discussion of the proposed compliance date.
The Commission is not addressing comments that are beyond the scope of this reproposed rulemaking.
Among other elements, the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal included amendments to the definitions of “futures-equivalent,” “long position,” “short position,” and “spot-month” found in § 150.1 of the Commission's regulations, to conform them to the concepts and terminology of the CEA, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act. The Commission also proposed to add to § 150.1, definitions for “basis contract,” “calendar spread contract,” “commodity derivative contract,” “commodity index contract,” “core referenced futures contract,” “eligible affiliate,” “entity,” “excluded commodity,” “intercommodity spread contract,” “intermarket spread positions,” “intramarket spread positions,” “physical commodity,” “pre-enactment swap,” “pre-existing position,” “referenced contract,” “spread contract,” “speculative position limit,” “swap,” “swap dealer” and “transition period swap.” In addition, the Commission proposed to move the definition of bona fide hedging from § 1.3(z) into part 150, and to amend and update it. Moreover, the Commission proposed to delete the definition for “the first delivery month of the `crop year.' ”
Finally, in connection with the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, which provided new alternative processes for DCMs and SEFs to recognize certain positions in commodity derivative contracts as non-enumerated bona fide hedges or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges, and to exempt from federal position limits certain spread positions, the Commission proposed to further amend certain relevant definitions, including changes to the definitions of “futures-equivalent,” “intermarket spread position,” and “intramarket spread position.”
Separately, as noted in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, amendments to two definitions were proposed in the November 2013 Aggregation Proposal,
The Commission is reproposing the amendments to the definitions in § 150.1, as set forth in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal and as amended in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, with modifications made in response to public comments. The Reproposal also includes non-substantive changes to certain definitions to enhance readability and clarity for market participants and the public, including the extraction of definitions that were contained in the definition of “referenced contract” to stand on their own. The amendments and the public
The Commission also proposed Appendix B to part 150, Commodities Listed as Substantially the Same for Purposes of the Definition of Basis Contract. As proposed, the definition of basis contract would include contracts cash-settled on the difference in prices of two different, but economically closely related commodities, for example, certain quality differentials (
Two commenters specifically requested that the list in Appendix B include Jet fuel (54 grade) as substantially the same as heating oil (67 grade). They also requested that WTI Midland (Argus) vs. WTI Financial Futures should be listed as basis contracts for Light Louisiana Sweet (LLS) Crude Oil.
Noting that basis contracts are excluded from the definition of referenced contract and thus not subject to speculative position limits, two commenters requested CFTC expand the list in Appendix B to part 150 of commodities considered substantially the same as a core referenced futures contract, and the corresponding list of basis contracts, to reflect the commercial practices of market participants.
The Commission is reproposing Appendix B as originally proposed. The Commission is not persuaded by commenters' suggestions for expanding the current list of commodities considered “substantially the same” in Appendix B. While a commenter requested the Commission expand the list to address all “commercial practices” used by market participants, the Commission believes this request is too vague and too broad to be workable. In addition, although a commenter recommended that the Commission adopt a flexible process for identifying any additional commodities that are substantially the same as a commodity underlying a core referenced futures contract for inclusion in Appendix B,
Finally, the Commission notes that comments regarding other types of differentials were addressed in the Commission's 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, which would allow exchanges to grant spread exemptions, including calendar spreads, quality differential spreads, processing spreads, and product or by-product differential spreads.
Further, the Commission proposed to add a definition of basis contract, as discussed above, and spread contract to clarify which types of contracts would not be considered a commodity index contract and thus would be subject to position limits. Under the proposal, a spread contract was defined as “a calendar spread contract or an intercommodity spread contract.”
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal further noted that part 20 of the Commission's regulations requires reporting entities to report commodity reference price data sufficient to distinguish between commodity index contract and non-commodity index contract positions in covered contracts.
The definition of “eligible affiliate” proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal qualified persons as eligible affiliates based on requirements similar to those adopted by the Commission in a separate rulemaking.
The conditions in paragraph (b) of § 50.52 address factors such as the decision of the parties not to clear, the associated documentation, audit, and recordkeeping requirements, the policies and procedures that must be established, maintained, and followed by a dealer and major swap participant, and the requirement to have an appropriate centralized risk management program, rather than the nature of the affiliation. As such, those conditions are less pertinent to the definition of eligible affiliate.
As such, the Commission does not believe a there is a need to conform the “eligible affiliate” definition in reproposed § 150.1 to the definition of “eligible affiliate counterparty” in § 50.52 in order to accommodate sister affiliates. The Commission notes that a third person that holds an ownership or equity interest in each of the sister affiliates—
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal included in § 150.1, a definition of excluded commodity that simply incorporates the statutory meaning, as a useful term for purposes of a number of the proposed changes to part 150. For example, the phrase was used in the proposed amendments to § 150.5, in its provision of requirements and acceptable practices for DCMs and SEFs in their adoption of rules and procedures for monitoring and enforcing position limits and accountability provisions; the phrase was also used in the definition of bona fide hedging position.
The Commission notes that in its 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to retain a spread exemption in § 150.3 and not, as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, to eliminate it altogether.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed two further clarifications to the definition of the term “futures-equivalent.” First, the Commission proposed to address circumstances in which a referenced contract for which futures equivalents must be calculated is itself a futures contract. The Commission noted that this may occur, for example, when the referenced contract is a futures contract that is a mini-sized version of the core referenced futures contract (
Second, the Commission proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal to clarify the definition of the term “futures-equivalent” to provide that, for purposes of calculating futures equivalents, an option contract must also be converted to an economically equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract. This clarification would address situations, for example, where the unit of trading underlying an option contract (that is, the notional quantity underlying an option contract) may differ from the unit of trading underlying a core referenced futures contract.
The Commission expressed the view in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that these clarifications would be consistent with the methodology the Commission used to provide its analysis of unique persons over percentages of the proposed position limit levels in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
Both MFA and FIA supported the optional use of the prior day's delta to calculate a futures-equivalent position for purposes of speculative position limit compliance.
Regarding risk (delta) models, the Reproposal does not provide a “safe harbor” as requested since risk models, generally, should produce similar results. The Commission believes a difference of 10 percent above or below the delta resulting from an exchange's model generally would be too great to be economically reasonable. However, the Commission notes that, under the Reproposal, should a market participant believe its model produces an economically reasonable and analytically supported risk factor for a particular trading session that differs significantly from a result published by an exchange for that same time,
Regarding the time period for a participant to come into compliance because of option assignment, the Commission agrees that a participant in compliance only because of a previous day's delta, and no longer, after option assignment, in compliance on a subsequent day, should have one business day to liquidate the excess position resulting from option assignment without being considered in violation of the limits.
In particular, in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal,
The Commission expressed the view that the expanded definitions proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal would take into account that a market participant may take positions in multiple commodity derivative contracts to establish an intermarket spread position or an intramarket spread position. The expanded definitions would also take into account that such spread positions may be established by taking positions in derivative contracts in the same commodity, in similar commodities, or in the products or by-products of the same or similar commodities. By way of example, the Commission noted that the expanded definitions would include a short position in a crude oil derivative contract and long positions in a gasoline derivative contract and a diesel fuel derivative contract (collectively, a reverse crack spread).
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the term “referenced contract” was proposed to be defined in § 150.1 to mean, on a futures-equivalent basis with respect to a particular core referenced futures contract, a core referenced futures contract listed in § 150.2(d) of this part, or a futures contract, options contract, or swap, other than a guarantee of a swap, a basis contract, or a commodity index contract: (1) That is: (a) Directly or indirectly linked, including being partially or fully settled on, or priced at a fixed differential to, the price of that particular core referenced futures contract; or (b) directly or indirectly linked, including being partially or fully settled on, or priced at a fixed differential to, the price of the same commodity underlying that particular core referenced futures contract for delivery at the same location or locations as specified in that particular core referenced futures contract; and (2) where: (a) Calendar spread contract means a cash-settled agreement, contract, or transaction that represents the difference between the settlement price in one or a series of contract months of an agreement, contract or transaction and the settlement price of another contract month or another series of contract months' settlement prices for the same agreement, contract or transaction; (b) commodity index contract means an agreement, contract, or transaction that is not a basis or any type of spread contract, based on an index comprised of prices of commodities that are not the same or substantially the same; (c) spread contract means either a calendar spread contract or an intercommodity spread contract; and (d) intercommodity spread contract means a cash-settled agreement, contract or transaction that represents the difference between the settlement price of a referenced contract and the settlement price of another contract, agreement, or transaction that is based on a different commodity.
On the other hand, an outright derivative contract whose settlement price is based on an index published by a price reporting agency (“PRA”) that surveys cash market transaction prices (even if the cash market practice is to price at a differential to a futures contract) would not be directly or indirectly linked to the core referenced futures contract.
Regarding comments that the definition is overbroad and captures products that commenters state do not affect price discovery or are not truly economically-equivalent, the Commission notes that commenters seem to be confusing the statutory definitions of “significant price discovery function” (in CEA section 4a(a)(4)) and “economically equivalent” (in CEA section 4a(a)(5)). As a matter of course, contracts can be economically equivalent without serving a significant price discovery function. The Commission notes that there is no unpublished methodology used to determine which contracts are referenced contracts. Instead, the Commission proposed, and, following notice and comment, is now reproposing a definition for referenced contracts, and contracts that fit under that definition will be subject to federal speculative position limits.
Moreover, if speculators were incentivized to abandon physical delivery contracts for cash-settled contracts so as to avoid position limits, it could result in degradation of the physical delivery contract markets that position limits are intended and designed to protect.
The Commission notes that in the particular exemptive order cited by the commenter,
One commenter asked that the Commission reconsider excluding commodity index contracts from the definition of referenced contract.
Regarding commenters who requested that the Commission alter the proposed definition to include commodity index derivative contracts, the Commission notes that if it were to include such contracts, the Commission's rules would allow netting of such positions in commodity index contracts with other offsetting referenced contracts. The ability to net such commodity index derivative contracts positions with other offsetting referenced contracts would eliminate the need for a bona fide hedging exemption for such contracts. Thus, the Commission believes such netting would contravene Congressional intent, as expressed in CEA section 4a(c)(B)(i) in its requirement to permit a pass-thru swap offset only if the counterparty's position would qualify as a bona fide hedge.
Another commenter suggested including commodity index contracts under the definition of referenced contract in conjunction with a class limit (
Finally, in response to the commenter who suggested that, in addition to excluding commodity index contracts as proposed, the Commission should recognize as bona fide hedge positions those positions that offset a position in a commodity index derivative contract by using the component futures contracts, the Commission observes that it still believes, as discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, that financial products do not meet the temporary substitute test. As such, the offset of financial risks arising from financial products is inconsistent with the statutory definition of a bona fide hedging position. The Commission also declines in this Reproposal to accept the commenter's request to exempt these offsetting positions using its authority under CEA section 4a(a)(7) because it does not believe that permitting the offset of financial risks furthers the purposes of the Commission's position limits regime as described in CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B). Finally, the commenter suggested as an alternative that the Commission modify the definition of referenced contract to broadly exclude any derivative contracts that are used to offset commodity index exposure. However, the Commission believes such a broad exclusion would, at best, be too difficult to administer and, at worst, provide an easy vehicle for entities to evade position limits regulations.
In response to the commenter's concern regarding “customary commercial agreements,” the Commission reiterates its belief that contracts that are exempted or excluded from the definition of “swap” are not considered referenced contracts and so are not subject to position limits.
The term “speculative position limit” is currently not defined in § 150.1. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to define the term “speculative position limit” to mean “the maximum position, either net long or net short, in a commodity derivatives contract that may be held or controlled by one person, absent an exemption, such as an exemption for a bona fide hedging position. This limit may apply to a person's combined position in all commodity derivative contracts in a particular commodity (all-months-combined), a person's position in a single month of commodity derivative contracts in a particular commodity, or a person's position in the spot-month of commodity derivative contacts in a particular commodity. Such a limit may be established under federal regulations or rules of a designated contract market or swap execution facility. An exchange may also apply other limits, such as a limit on gross long or gross short positions, or a limit on holding or controlling delivery instruments.”
As explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the proposed definition is similar to definitions for position limits used by the Commission for many years,
The Commission received no comments on the proposed definition, and is reproposing the definition without amendment.
Two commenters urged the Commission to reconsider its proposed definition of spot month for cash-settled contracts that encompasses the entire period for calculation of the settlement price, preferring the current exchange practice which is to apply the spot month limit during the last three days before final settlement.
Another commenter recommended that the Commission define “spot month” in relation to each core referenced futures contract and all related physically-settled and cash-settled referenced contracts, to assure that the definition works appropriately in terms of how each underlying nonfinancial commodity market operates, and to ensure that commercial end-users of such nonfinancial commodities can effectively use such referenced contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risks.
The Commission also received the recommendation from one commenter that the Commission should publish a calendar listing the spot month for each Core Referenced Futures Contract to provide clarity to market participants and reduce the cost of identifying and tracking the spot month.
As noted above, in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, spot month was proposed to be defined to begin at the earlier of: (1) “the close of trading on the trading day preceding the first day on which delivery notices can be issued to the clearing organization”; or (2) “the close of trading on the trading day preceding the third-to-last trading day”—based on the comment letters received, the proposed definition resulted in some confusion.
The Commission understands current DCM practice for physical-delivery contracts permitting delivery before the close of trading generally is that the spot month begins at the start of the first business day on which the clearing house can issue “stop” notices to a clearing member carrying a long position, or, at the close of business on the day preceding the first business day on which the clearing house can issue “stop” notices to a clearing member carrying a long position, but current DCM rules vary somewhat. For some ICE contracts,
Furthermore, based on Commission staff discussions with staff from several DCMs regarding exchange current practices, the Commission believes that the spot month should begin at the same time as futures large trader reports are submitted—that is, under the definition of reportable position, the spot month should begin “at the close of the market.”
In consideration of the practicality of this approach, and in light of the definition of “reportable position,” the Commission believes that it would be more practical, clear, and consistent with existing exchange practices, for the spot month to begin “at the close of business.” In addition, as noted by one commenter,
The Commission points out an additional correction made to the reproposed definition, changing it from “preceding the first day on which delivery notices can be issued
The revisions included in the reproposed definition addresses the concerns of the commenter who suggested the Commission define the spot month according to each core referenced futures contract and for cash-settled and physical delivery referenced contracts that are not core referenced futures contracts, although for clarity and brevity the Commission has chosen to highlight contracts that are the exception to the general definition rather than list each of the 25 core referenced futures contracts and multitude of referenced contracts separately.
In response to the commenters' concern regarding cash-settled referenced contracts, the Reproposal changes the definition of spot month to agree with the limits proposed in § 150.2. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission defined the spot month for certain cash-settled referenced contracts, including calendar month averaging contracts, to be a longer period than the spot month period for the related core referenced futures contract. However, the Commission did not propose a limit for such contracts in proposed § 150.2, rendering superfluous that aspect of the proposed definition of spot month, at this time. The Commission is reproposing the definition of spot month without this provision, thereby addressing the concerns of the commenters regarding the impact of the definition on calendar month averaging contracts outside of the spot month for the relevant core referenced futures contract. In order to make clearer the relevant spot month periods for referenced contracts other than core referenced futures contracts, the Commission has included subsection (3) of the definition that states that the spot month for such referenced contracts is the same period as that of the relevant core referenced futures contract.
The Commission believes that the revised definition reproposed here sufficiently clarifies the applicable spot month periods, which can also be determined via exchange rulebooks and defined contract specifications, such that a defined calendar of spot months is not necessary. Further, a published calendar would need to be revised every year to update spot month periods for each contract and each expiration. The Commission believes this constant revision may lead to more confusion than it is meant to correct.
As noted in the December 2013 Position Limits proposal, vacated part 151 retained only the definition for spot month, and, instead, adopted a definition for “spot-month, single-month, and all-months-combined position limits.” The definition specified that, for Referenced Contracts based on a commodity identified in § 151.2, the maximum number of contracts a trader could hold was as provided in § 151.4.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, as noted above, the Commission proposed to amend § 150.1 by deleting the definitions for “single month,” and for “all-months,” but, unlike the vacated part 151, the proposal did not include a definition for “spot-month, single-month, and all-months-combined position limits.” Instead, it proposed to adopt a definition for “speculative position limits” that should obviate the need for these definitions.
Prior to the 1974 amendments to the CEA, the definition of a bona fide hedging position was found in the statute. The 1974 amendments authorized the newly formed Commission to define a bona fide hedging position.
During the 1980's, exchanges were required to incorporate the Commission's general definition of bona fide hedging position into their exchange-set position limit regulations.
In 1987, the Commission provided interpretive guidance regarding the bona fide hedging definition and risk management exemptions for futures in financial instruments (now termed excluded commodities).
In the 1990's, the Commission allowed exchanges to experiment with substituting position accountability levels for position limits.
With the passing of the CFMA in 2000, the Commission's requirements for exchanges to adopt position limits and associated bona fide hedging exemptions, in § 150.5, were rendered mere guidance. That is, exchanges were no longer required to establish limits and no longer required to use the Commission's general definition of a bona fide hedging position. Nonetheless, the Commission continued to guide exchanges to adopt position limits, particularly for the spot month in physical-delivery physical commodity derivatives, and to provide for exemptions.
The Farm Bill of 2008 authorized the Commission to regulate swaps traded on exempt commercial markets (ECM) that the Commission determined to be a significant price discovery contract (SPDC).
In 2010, the Dodd-Frank Act added a directive, for purposes of implementation of CEA section 4a(a)(2), for the Commission to define a bona fide hedging position for physical commodity derivatives consistent with, in the Commission's opinion, the reasonably certain statutory standards in CEA section 4a(c)(2). Those statutory standards build on, but differ slightly from, the Commission's general definition in rule 1.3(z)(1).
Under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed a new definition of bona fide hedging position, to replace the current definition in § 1.3(z), that would be applicable to positions in excluded commodities and in physical commodities.
In response to comments on the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, in the 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission amended the proposed definition of bona fide hedging position.
In response to comments on both the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal and the 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission is now reproposing the definition of bona fide hedging position, generally as proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Proposal, but with a few further amendments. First, for excluded commodities, the Commission clarifies further the discretion of exchanges in recognizing risk management exemptions. Second, for physical commodities, the Commission: (a) Clarifies the scope of the general definition of a bona fide hedging position; (b) conforms that general definition more closely to CEA section 4a(c) by including recognition of positions that reduce risks attendant to a swap that was used as a hedge; and, (c) re-organizes additional requirements for enumerated hedges and requirements for other recognition as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, apart from the general definition.
Incidental Test: Commenters objected to the incidental test, because that test is not included in the standards in CEA section 4a(c) for the Commission to define a bona fide hedging position for physical commodities.
However, other commenters noted their belief that eliminating the incidental test would permit swap dealers or purely financial entities to avail themselves of bona fide hedging exemptions, to the detriment of commercial hedgers.
Orderly trading requirement: One commenter urged the Commission to eliminate the orderly trading requirement, because this requirement does not apply to over-the-counter markets, the Commission does not define orderly trading in a bi-lateral market, and this requirement imposes a duty on end users to monitor market activities to ensure they do not cause a significant market impact; additionally, the commenter noted the anti-disruptive trading prohibitions and polices apply regardless of whether the orderly trading requirement is imposed.
Other commenters to the 2013 Proposal requested the Commission interpret the orderly trading requirement consistently with the Commission's disruptive trading practices interpretation (
However, one commenter is concerned that eliminating the orderly trading requirement for bona fide hedging for swaps positions would discriminate against market participants in the futures and options markets. The commenter noted that, if the Commission eliminates this requirement, the Commission could not use its authority effectively to review exchange-granted exemptions for swaps from position limits to prevent or diminish excessive speculation.
Incidental Test: Under the Reproposal, the incidental test has been eliminated, because the Commission views the economically appropriate test (discussed below) as including the concept of the offset of price risks
The Commission is not persuaded by the commenters who believe eliminating the incidental test would permit financial entities to avail themselves of a bona fide hedging exemption, because the incidental test is essentially embedded in the economically appropriate test. In addition, for a physical-commodity derivative, the reproposed definition, in mirroring the statutory standards of CEA section 4a(c), requires a bona fide hedging position to be a substitute for a transaction taken or to be taken in the cash market (either for the market participant itself or for the market participant's pass-through swap counterparty), which generally would preclude financial entities from availing themselves of a bona fide hedging exemption (in the absence of qualifying for a pass-through swap offset exemption, discussed below).
Orderly Trading Requirement: The Reproposal also eliminates the orderly trading requirement. That provision has been a part of the regulatory definition of bona fide hedging since March 12, 1975
In regard to the anti-disruptive trading prohibitions of CEA section 4c(a)(5), those prohibitions apply to trading on registered entities, but not to OTC transactions. It should be noted that the anti-disruptive trading prohibitions in CEA section 4c(a)(5) make it unlawful to engage in trading on a registered entity that “demonstrates intentional or reckless disregard for orderly execution of trading during the closing period” (emphasis added); however, the Commission has not, under the authority of CEA section 4c(a)(6), prohibited the intentional or reckless disregard for the orderly execution of transactions on a registered entity outside of the closing period.
The Commission notes that an exchange may impose a general orderly trading on all market participants. Market participants may request clarification from exchanges on their trading rules. The Commission does not believe that the absence of an orderly trading requirement in the definition of bona fide hedging position would discriminate against any particular trading venue for commodity derivative contracts.
Regarding an exchange's obligation to comply with core principles pertaining to position limits on excluded commodities, as discussed further in § 150.5, the Commission clarifies that under the Reproposal, exchanges have reasonable discretion as to whether to adopt the Commission's definition of a bona fide hedging position, including whether to grant risk management exemptions, such as those that would be consistent with, but not limited to, the examples in Appendix A to part 150. That is, the set of examples in Appendix A to part 150 is non-restrictive, as it is guidance. The Reproposal also makes minor wording changes in Appendix A to part 150, including to clarify an exchange's reasonable discretion in granting risk management exemptions and to eliminate a reference to the orderly trading requirement which has been deleted, as discussed above, but otherwise is adopting Appendix A as proposed.
As noted in its proposal, the core of the Commission's approach to defining bona fide hedging over the years has focused on transactions that offset a
Because a firm that has hedged its price exposure is price neutral in its overall physical commodity position, the hedged entity should have little incentive to manipulate or engage in other abusive market practices to affect prices. By contrast, a party that maintains a derivative position that leaves it with exposure to price changes is not neutral as to price and, therefore, may have an incentive to affect prices. Further, the intention of a hedge exemption is to enable a commercial entity to offset its price risk; it was never intended to facilitate taking on additional price risk.
The Commission recognizes there are complexities to analyzing the various commercial price risks applicable to particular commercial circumstances in order to determine whether a hedge exemption is warranted. These complexities have led the Commission, from time to time, to issue rule changes, interpretations, and exemptions. Congress, too, has periodically revised the Federal statutes applicable to bona fide hedging, most recently in the Dodd-Frank Act.
CEA section 4a(c)(1),
(a)
(b)
(c)
In addition to the above, the Commission's proposed general definition, mirroring CEA section 4a(c)(2)(B)(i), also recognizes a bona fide hedging position that:
(d)
The Commission proposed another provision, based on the statutory standards, to recognize as a bona fide a position that:
(e)
The Commission received a number of comments on the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal and the 2016 Supplemental Proposal. Those concerning the incidental test and the orderly trading requirement are discussed above. Others are discussed below.
However, other commenters noted the “proposed rules properly refrain from providing a general exemption to financial firms seeking to hedge their financial risks from the sale of commodity-related instruments such as index swaps, Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), and Exchange Traded Notes (ETNs),” because such instruments are inherently speculative and may overwhelm the price discovery function of the derivative market.
Some commenters urged the Commission not to deny risk-management exemptions for financial intermediaries who utilize referenced contracts to offset the risks arising from the provision of diversified commodity-based returns to the intermediaries' clients.
In contrast, other commenters noted that the proposed rules “properly refrain” from providing a general exemption to financial firms seeking to hedge their financial risks from the sale of commodity-related instruments such as index swaps, ETFs, and ETNs because such instruments are “inherently speculative” and may overwhelm the price discovery function of the derivative market.
The Reproposal clarifies that the Commission will continue to recognize the offset of the risk of a pre-existing financial instrument as bona fide using a derivative position, including a deferred derivative contract month entered after the effective date of a final rule, provided a nearby derivative contract month is liquidated. However, under the Reproposal, such relief will not be extended to an increase in positions after the effective date of a limit, because that appears contrary to Congressional intent to narrow the definition of a bona fide hedging position, as discussed above.
Commenters suggested that if the Commission objected to expanding its interpretation of “economically appropriate” risks, then the Commission should allow the exchanges to utilize discretion in their interpretations of the economically appropriate test.
The Commission notes that an exchange is permitted to recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions under the process of § 150.9, discussed below, subject to assessment of the particular facts and circumstances, where price risk arises from other types of risk. The Reproposal does not, however, allow the exchanges to utilize unbounded discretion in interpreting “economically appropriate” in such recognitions. The Commission believes that such a broad delegation is not authorized by the CEA and, in the Commission's view, would be contrary to the reasonably certain statutory standard of the economically appropriate test. Further, as explained in the discussion of § 150.9, exchange determinations will be subject to the Commission's
Note, however, under a partial reading of a preamble to a 1977 proposal, the Commission has appeared to recognize gross hedging, without regard to net risk, as bona fide; the Commission noted in 1977 that: “The previous statutory definition of bona fide hedging transactions or positions contained in section 4a of the Act before amendment by the CFTC Act and the present definition permit persons to classify as hedging any purchase or sale for future delivery which is offset by their gross cash position irrespective of their net cash position.”
The Commission views a derivative position that increases an enterprise's risk as contrary to the plain language of CEA section 4a(c) and the Commission's bona fide hedging definition, which requires that a bona fide hedging position “is economically appropriate to the reduction of risks in the conduct and management of a commercial enterprise.”
If a transaction that increases a commercial enterprise's overall risk should be considered a bona fide hedging position, this would result in position limits not applying to certain positions that should be considered speculative. For example, assume an enterprise has entered into only two cash forward transactions and has no inventory. The first cash forward transaction is a purchase contract (for a particular commodity for delivery at a particular later date). The second cash forward transaction is a sales contract (for the same commodity for delivery on the same date as the purchase contract). Under the terms of the cash forward contracts, the enterprise may take delivery on the purchase contract and re-deliver the commodity on the sales contract. Such an enterprise does not have a net cash market position that exposes it to price risk, because it has both purchased and sold the same commodity for delivery on the same date (such as cash forward contracts for the same cargo of Brent crude oil). The enterprise could establish a short derivative position that would offset the risk of the purchase contract; however, that would increase the enterprise's price risk. Alternatively, the enterprise
The Commission notes that a commercial enterprise that wishes to separately manage its operations, in separate legal entities, may, under the aggregation requirements of § 150.4, establish appropriate firewalls and file a notice for an aggregation exemption, because separate legal entities with appropriate firewalls are treated as separate persons for purposes of position limits. The Commission explained that an aggregation exemption was appropriate in circumstances where the risk of coordinated activity is mitigated by firewalls.
The Commission did not propose an enumerated exemption for binding, irrevocable bids or offers as the Commission believes that an analysis of the facts and circumstances would be necessary prior to recognizing such an exemption. Consequently, the Reproposal does not provide for such an enumerated exemption. However, the Commission withdraws the view that a binding, irrevocable bid or offer fails to meet the economically appropriate test.
Commenters recommended the Commission recognize unfilled storage capacity as the basis of a bona fide hedge of, either (1) anticipated rents (
The Commission does not express a view as this time on one commenter's assertion that the anticipated rent on a storage asset is like an option; the commenter did not provide data regarding the relationship between calendar spreads and the “profitability of filling storage.” The Commission notes that, under the Reproposal, an exchange could evaluate the particulars of such a situation in an application for a non-enumerated hedging position.
Similarly, as reproposed, an exchange could evaluate the particulars of other situations, such as a commenter's example of storage or transportation hedges. The Commission notes that it is not clear from the comments how the value fluctuations of calendar month or location differentials are related to the fluctuations in value of storage or transportation. Regarding a commenter's examples of assets owned or anticipated to be owned, it is not clear how the value fluctuations of whatever would be the relevant hedging position (
The Commission has consistently required a bona fide hedging position to be a position that is shown to reduce price risk in the conduct and management of a commercial enterprise.
While the Commission has enumerated a calendar month spread as a bona fide hedge of offsetting unfixed-price cash commodity sales and purchases, the Reproposal will permit an exchange, under reproposed § 150.9, to conduct a facts-and-circumstances, case-by-case review to determine whether a calendar month spread is appropriately recognized as a bona fide hedging position for only a cash commodity purchase
Regarding the risk of an unfixed price forward sales contract falling below the cost of production, the Reproposal enumerates a bona fide hedging exemption for unsold anticipated production; the Commission clarifies, as discussed below, that such an enumerated hedge is available regardless of whether production has been sold forward at an unfixed (that is, index) price.
The Reproposal retains and clarifies in subparagraph (ii)(A) that the bona fides of a pass-through swap may be
In addition, the Reproposal retains, as proposed, application of the five-day rule to pass-through swap offsets in a physical-delivery contract. However, the Commission notes that under the Reproposal, an exchange listing a physical-delivery contract may recognize, on a case-by-case basis, a pass-through swap offset (in addition to the offset of a swap used as a bona fide hedge), during the last five days of trading in a spot month, as a non-enumerated bona fide hedge pursuant to the process in reproposed § 150.9.
Further, the Reproposal retains the recognition of a pass-through swap itself that is offset, not just the offsetting position (and, thus, permitting the intermediary to exclude such pass-through swap from position limits, in addition to excluding the offsetting position).
Regarding the request to broaden the pass-through swap offset provisions to accommodate secondary pass-through transactions among affiliates, the Commission declines in this Reproposal to broaden the pass-through swap offset exemption beyond the provisions in CEA section 4a(c)(2)(B)(i). However, the Commission notes that a group of affiliates under common ownership is required to aggregate positions under the Commission's requirements in § 150.4, absent an applicable aggregation exemption. In the circumstance of aggregation of positions, recognition of a secondary pass-through swap transaction would not be necessary among such an aggregated group, because the group is treated as one person for purposes of position limits.
The Commission notes that it is not possible to list all positions that would meet the general definition of a bona fide hedging position. However, the Commission observes that the commenters' many general examples, which they recommended be included in the list of enumerated bona fide hedging positions, generally did not provide sufficient context or facts and circumstances to permit the Commission to evaluate whether recognition as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position would be warranted. Context would be supplied, for instance, by the provision of the particular market participant's historical activities in the physical marketing channel and such participant's estimate, in good faith, of its reasonably expected activities to be taken in the physical marketing channel.
In a clarifying change, the Commission notes that the Reproposal has re-designated the provisions proposed in subparagraph (2)(i)(D), in new subparagraph 2(iii), regarding the additional requirements for recognition of a position in a physical commodity contract as a bona fide hedging position. Concurrent with this re-designation, the Commission notes the Reproposal re-organizes, also for clarity, the application of the five-day rule to pass-through swaps and hedging swaps in subparagraph (2)(iii)(B), as discussed above.
In paragraph (3) of the proposed definition of a bona fide hedging position, the Commission proposed four enumerated hedging positions: (i) Hedges of inventory and cash commodity purchase contracts; (ii) hedges of cash commodity sales contracts; (iii) hedges of unfilled anticipated requirements; and (iv) hedges by agents.
Other commenters recommended the Commission (1) remove the restriction that unfilled anticipated requirement hedges by a utility be “required or encouraged to hedge by its public utility commission” because most public utility commissions do not require or encourage such hedging, (2) expand the reach beyond utilities, by including
Consistent with CFTC Staff Letter No. 12-07, the Commission affirms its belief that unfilled anticipated requirements are those anticipated inputs that are estimated in good faith and that have not been filled. Under the Reproposal, an anticipated requirement may be filled, for example, by fixed-price purchase commitments, holdings of commodity inventory by the market participant, or unsold anticipated production of the market participant. However, an unfixed-price purchase commitment does not fill an anticipated requirement, in that the market participant's price risk to the input has not been fixed.
In paragraph (4) of the proposed definition of a bona fide hedging position, the Commission proposed four other enumerated hedging positions: (i) Hedges of unsold anticipated production; (ii) hedges of offsetting unfixed-price cash commodity sales and purchases; (iii) hedges of anticipated royalties; and (iv) hedges of services.
In paragraph (5) of the proposed definition of a bona fide hedging position, the Commission proposed to recognize as bona fide cross-commodity hedges.
One commenter urged the Commission to clarify that market participants need not treat as enumerated cross-commodity hedges strategies where the cash position being hedged is the same cash commodity as the commodity underlying the futures contract even if the cash commodity is not deliverable against the contract. The commenter believes that this clarification would verify that non-deliverable grades of certain commodities could be deemed as the same cash commodity and thus not be deemed a cross-commodity hedge subject to the five-day rule.
Commenters requested the Commission not apply a five-day rule to cross-commodity hedges or, alternatively, permit exchanges to determine the appropriate facts and circumstances where a market participant may be permitted to hold such positions into the spot month,
The Reproposal retains the five-day rule, because a market participant who is hedging the price risk of a non-deliverable cash commodity has no need to make or take delivery on a physical-delivery contract. However, the Commission notes that an exchange may consider, on a case-by-case basis in physical-delivery contracts, whether to recognize such cross-commodity positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedges during the shorter of the last five days of trading or the time period for the spot month, by applying the exchange's experience and expertise in protecting its own physical-delivery market, under the process of § 150.9.
Because the price risk of an option, including a trade option with a fixed strike price, should be measured on a futures-equivalent basis,
The Reproposal also includes a number of conforming amendments and corrections of typographical errors. Specifically, it conforms example number 4 regarding a utility to the
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to establish speculative position limits on 28 core referenced futures contracts in physical commodities.
As stated in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to set the initial spot month position limit levels for referenced contracts at the existing DCM-set levels for the core referenced futures contracts because the Commission believed this approach to be consistent with the regulatory objectives of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments to the CEA and many market participants are already used to those levels.
The Commission received comment letters from CME, Intercontinental Exchange (“ICE”) and Minneapolis Grain Exchange, Inc. (“MGEX”) containing estimates of deliverable supply. CME submitted updated estimates of deliverable supply for CBOT Corn (C), Oats (O), Rough Rice (RR), Soybeans (S), Soybean Meal (SM), Soybean Oil (SO), Wheat (W), and KC HRW Wheat (KW); COMEX Gold (GC), Silver (SI), Platinum (PL), Palladium (PA), and Copper (HG); NYMEX Natural Gas (NG), Light Sweet Crude Oil (CL), NY Harbor ULSD (HO), and RBOB Gasoline (RB).
The Commission is verifying that the estimates for C, O, RR, S, SM, SO, W, and KW submitted by CME are reasonable. The Commission is verifying that the estimate for MWE submitted by MGEX is reasonable. The Commission is verifying that the estimates for CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, and SF submitted by ICE are reasonable. The Commission is verifying that the estimates for GC, SI, PL, PA, and HG submitted by CME are reasonable. Finally, the Commission is verifying that the estimates for NG, CL, HO, and RB submitted by CME are reasonable. In verifying that all of these estimates of deliverable supply are reasonable, Commission staff reviewed the exchange submissions and conducted its own research. Commission staff reviewed the data submitted, confirmed that the data submitted accurately reflected the source data, and considered whether the data sources were authoritative. Commission staff considered whether the assumptions made by the exchanges in the submissions were acceptable, or whether alternative assumptions would lead to similar results. In response to Commission staff questions about the exchange submissions, the Commission received revised estimates from exchanges. In some cases, Commission staff conducted trade source interviews. Commission staff replicated the calculations included in the submissions.
In verifying the exchange estimates of deliverable supply, the Commission is not endorsing any particular methodology for estimating deliverable supply beyond what is already set forth in Appendix C to part 38 of the Commission's regulations.
In the June 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission noted that, since the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission worked with industry to improve the quality of swap position data reported to the Commission under part 20.
Commission staff analyzed and evaluated the quality of part 20 data for the period from July 1, 2014 through June 30, 2015 (“Year 1”), and the period from July 1, 2015 through June 30, 2016 (“Year 2”).
First, for each of Year 1 and Year 2, Commission staff identified all reported positions in swaps that do not satisfy the definition of referenced contract as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal
Second, Commission staff checked and edited the remaining data to mitigate certain types of errors. Commission staff identified three general types of reporting errors and made edits to adjust the data for:
(i) Positions that were clearly reported in units of a commodity when they should have been reported in the number of gross futures-equivalent contracts. For example, a position in gold (GC) with a futures contract unit of trading of 100 ounces might be reported as 480,000 contracts, when other available information, reasonable assumptions, consultation with reporting entities and/or Commission expertise indicate that the position should have been reported as 4,800 contracts (that is, 480,000 ounces divided by 100 ounces per contract). Commission staff corrected such reported swaps position data and included the corrected data in the data set.
(ii) Positions that are not obviously reported in units of a commodity but appear to be off by one or more decimal places (
(iii) Positions reported multiple times per day or otherwise extremely different from surrounding days' reported open interest. In some cases, reporting entities submitted the same report using different reporting identifiers, for the same day. In other cases, a position would inexplicably spike for one day, to a multiple of other days' reported open interest. When Commission staff checked with the reporting entity, the reporting entity confirmed that the reports were, indeed, erroneous. Commission staff did not include such incorrectly reported duplicative swaps position data in its analysis. In other cases, positions that were clearly reported incorrectly, but for which Commission staff could discern neither a reason nor a reasonable adjustment, were not included. For example, Commission staff deleted all swap position data reports submitted by one swap dealer from its analysis because the reports were inexplicably anomalous in light of other available information, reasonable assumptions and Commission expertise. As another example, one reporting entity reported extremely large values for only certain types of positions. After speaking with the reporting entity, Commission staff determined that there was no systematic adjustment to be made, but that the actual positions were, in fact, small. Hence, Commission staff did not include such reported swaps position data in its analysis.
The number of principal records edited, resulting from the edits relating to the three types of edits to erroneous position reports noted above, is set forth in Table 2 below. A principal record is a report of a swaps open position where the reporting entity is a principal to the swap, as opposed to a counterparty record.
Some records also appeared to contain errors attributable to other factors that Commission staff could detect and for which Commission staff can correct. For example, there were instances where the reporting entity misreported the ownership of the position,
Third, in the part 20 large trader swap data, staff checked and adjusted the average daily open interest for positions resulting from inter-affiliate transactions and duplicative reporting of positions due to transactions between reporting entities. For an example of duplicative reporting by reporting entities (which is reporting in terms of futures-equivalent contracts), assume Swap Dealer A and Swap Dealer B have an open swap equivalent to 50 futures contracts, Swap Dealer A also has a swap equivalent to 25 futures contracts with End User X, and Swap Dealer B has a swap equivalent to 200 futures contracts with End User Y. The total open swaps in this scenario is equivalent to 275 futures contracts. However, Swap Dealer A will report a gross position of 75 contracts and Swap Dealer B will report a gross position of 250 contracts. Simply summing these two gross positions would overestimate the open swaps as 325 contracts—50 contracts more than there actually should be. For this reason, Commission staff used the counterparty accounts of each reporting entity to flag counterparty accounts of other reporting entities. Commission staff then used the daily average of the gross positions for these accounts to reduce the amount of average daily open swaps. Similarly, Commission staff flagged the counterparty accounts for entities that are affiliates of each reporting entity in order to adjust the amount of average daily open swaps. These adjustments to the Year 1 data are reflected in Table 3 below, and the corresponding adjustments to the Year 2 data are reflected in Table 4 below.
Staff made numerous significant adjustments to the part 20 data for natural gas, due to numerous reports in units rather than the number of gross futures-equivalent contracts and the large number of reports of swaps that did not meet the definition of referenced contract.
The Commission continues to be concerned about the quality of data submitted in large trader reports pursuant to part 20 of the Commission's regulations. Commissioners and staff have expressed concerns about data reporting publicly on a variety of occasions.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to set the initial spot month speculative position limit levels for referenced contracts at the existing DCM-set levels for the core referenced futures contracts.
One commenter was unconvinced that estimated deliverable supply is “the appropriate metric for determining spot month position limits” and opined that the “real test” should be whether limits “allow convergence of cash and futures so that futures markets can still perform their price discovery and risk management functions.” CL-NGFA-60941 at 2. Another commenter stated, “While 25% may be a reasonable threshold, it is based on historical practice rather than contemporary analysis, and it should only be used as a guideline, rather than formally adopted as a hard rule. Deliverable supply is subject to numerous environmental and economic factors, and is inherently not susceptible to formulaic calculation on a yearly basis.” CL-MGEX-60301 at 1. Another commenter expressed the view that the 25 percent formula is not “appropriately calibrated to achieve the statutory objective” set forth in section 4a(a)(3)(B)(i) of the CEA, 7 U.S.C. 6a(a)(3)(B)(i). CL-CME-60926 at 3. Another commenter opined that because the Commission “has not established a relationship between `estimated deliverable supply' and spot-month potential for manipulation or excessive speculation,” the 25 percent formula is arbitrary. CL-ISDA/SIFMA-59611 at 31.
Several commenters opined that 25 percent of deliverable supply is too high.
Several commenters supported setting limits based on updated estimates of deliverable supply which reflect current market conditions.
In determining the levels at which to repropose the initial speculative position limits, the Commission considered, without limitation, the recommendations of the exchanges as well as data to which the exchanges do not have access. In considering these and other factors, the Commission became very concerned about the effect of alternative limit levels on traders in the cash-settled referenced contracts. A DCM has reasonable discretion in establishing the manner in which it complies with core principle 5 regarding position limits.
As explained above, the Commission has verified that the estimates of deliverable supply for each of the CBOT Corn (C), Oats (O), Rough Rice (RR), Soybeans (S), Soybean Meal (SM), Soybean Oil (SO), Wheat (W) core referenced futures contract, the Hard Red Winter Wheat (KW) core referenced futures contract submitted by CME, and the Hard Red Spring Wheat (MWE) core referenced futures contract submitted by MGEX are reasonable.
Nevertheless, the Commission has determined to repropose the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for C, O, RR, S, SM, SO, W and KW at the recommended levels submitted by CME,
The Commission
The Commission's impact analysis reveals no traders in cash settled contracts in any of C, O, S, SM, SO, W, MWE, KW, or RR, and no traders in physical delivery contracts for O and RR, above the initial speculative limit levels for those contracts. The Commission found varying numbers of traders in the C, S, SM, SO, W, MWE, KW physical delivery contracts over the initial levels, but the numbers were very small for MWE and KW.
As explained above, the Commission has verified that the estimates of deliverable supply for each of the IFUS Cocoa (CC), Coffee “C” (KC), Cotton No. 2 (CT), FCOJ-A (OJ), Sugar No. 11 (SB), and Sugar No. 16 (SF) core referenced futures contracts submitted by ICE are reasonable.
The Commission has determined to repropose the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for the CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, and SF
The Commission did not receive any estimate of deliverable supply for the CME Live Cattle (LC) core referenced futures contract from CME, nor did CME recommend any change in the limit level for LC. In the absence of any such update, the Commission is reproposing the initial speculative position limit level of 450 contracts. Of 616 reportable persons, the Commission's impact analysis did not reveal any unique person trading cash settled or physical delivery spot month contracts who would have held positions above this level for LC.
With respect to the IFUS CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, and SF core referenced futures contracts, the Commission's impact analysis did not reveal any unique person trading cash settled spot month contracts who would have held positions above the initial levels that the Commission adopts today; as illustrated below, lower levels would mostly have affected small numbers of traders in physical delivery contracts.
As explained above, the Commission has verified that the estimates of deliverable supply for each of the COMEX Gold (GC), COMEX Silver (SI), NYMEX Platinum (PL), NYMEX Palladium (PA), and COMEX Copper (HG) core referenced futures contracts submitted by CME are reasonable.
Nevertheless, the Commission has determined to repropose the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for GC, SI, and HG at the recommended levels submitted by CME,
The Commission has also determined
The Commission found varying numbers of traders in the GC, SI, PL, PA, and HG physical delivery contracts over the initial levels, but the numbers were very small except for PA.
The Commission's impact analysis reveals no unique persons in the SI and HG cash settled referenced contracts, and very few unique persons in the cash settled GC referenced contract, whose positions would have exceeded the initial limit levels for those contracts. Based on the Commission's impact analysis, setting the initial federal spot month limit levels for PL and PA at the lower levels recommended by CME would impact a few traders in PL and PA cash settled contracts.
The Commission has carefully considered the numbers of unique persons that would be impacted by each of the cash-settled and physical-delivery spot month limits in the PL and PA referenced contracts. The Commission notes those limits would appear to impact more traders in the physical-delivery PA contract than in the cash-settled PA contract, while fewer traders would be impacted in the physical-delivery PL contract than in the cash-settled PL contract (in any event, few traders would appear to be affected).
As explained above, the Commission has verified that the estimates of deliverable supply for each of the NYMEX Natural Gas (NG), Light Sweet Crude (CL), NY Harbor ULSD (HO), and RBOB Gasoline (RB) core referenced futures contracts submitted by CME are reasonable.
The Commission has determined to repropose the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for the NG, CL, HO, and RB core referenced futures contracts at 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply which, in the case of CL, HO, and RB is higher than the levels recommended by CME.
The levels that CME recommended for NG, CL, HO, and RB are twice the existing exchange-set spot month limit levels. Nevertheless, the Commission is reproposing speculative spot month limit levels at 25 percent of deliverable supply for CL, HO, and RB because the Commission believes that higher levels will lessen the impact on a number of traders in both cash settled and physical delivery contracts. For NG, the Commission is reproposing the physical delivery limit at 25% of deliverable supply, as recommended by CME;
The Commission has determined to use the futures position limits formula, 10 percent of the open interest for the first 25,000 contracts and 2.5 percent of the open interest thereafter, to repropose the non-spot month speculative position limits for referenced contracts, subject to the details and qualifications set forth in this Notice.
Several commenters did not support establishing non-spot month limits.
A commenter who did not support adopting non-spot month limits suggested a fall-back position of adopting “any months limits” but not “all months limits,” and suggested an alternative 10, 5 percent formula in specified circumstances. CL-Working Group-59693 at 62.
The Commission is reproposing the non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the Corn (C), Oats (O), Rough Rice (RR), Soybeans (S), Soybean Meal (SM), Soybean Oil (SO), and Wheat (W) core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
Maintaining the status quo for the non-spot month limit levels for the KW and MWE core referenced futures contracts means there will be partial wheat parity.
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, SF and LC
Set forth below is a summary of the impact analysis for softs and live cattle.
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the GC, SI, PL, PA, and HG core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
Set forth below is a summary of the impact analysis for metals.
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the NG, CL, HO, and RB core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
Set forth below is a summary of the impact analysis for energy contracts.
The Commission notes that many of the comments referenced above, regarding setting initial position limits, are also discussed below, regarding re-setting levels of limits.
Commenters were divided regarding the proposed methodology for computing spot month position limit levels (which is calculated by determining a figure that is no more than 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply).
In estimating deliverable supply, some commenters recommended that the Commission include supply that is subject to long-term supply contracts, arguing that such supply can be readily made available for futures delivery.
Thus, the Commission accepts the commenter's recommendation that the Commission have discretion to retain current spot-month position limit levels. In this regard, the Commission provides, in reproposed § 150.2(e)(3)(ii)(B), that an exchange need not submit an estimate of deliverable supply, if the exchange provides notice to the Commission, not less than two calendar months before the due date for its submission of an estimate, that it is recommending the Commission not change the spot-month limit, and the Commission accepts such recommendation.
The Commission notes that it has long used deliverable supply as the basis for spot month position limits due to concerns regarding corners, squeezes, and other settlement-period manipulative activity. By restricting derivative positions to a proportion of the deliverable supply of the commodity, spot month position limits reduce the possibility that a market participant can use derivatives, including referenced contracts, to affect the price of the cash commodity (and vice versa). Limiting a speculative position based on a percentage of deliverable supply also restricts a speculative trader's ability to establish a leveraged position in cash-settled derivative contracts, diminishing that trader's incentive to manipulate the cash settlement price. Commenters did not provide evidence that would suggest that the open interest formula would respond more effectively to these concerns, and the Commission does not believe that using open interest would be preferable for calculating spot-month position limit levels.
In addition, setting the limit levels at no greater than 25 percent of deliverable supply has historically been effective on both the federal and exchange level to combat corners and squeezes. In the preamble to the final rules for vacated Part 151, the Commission noted that the 25 percent of deliverable supply formula appears to “work effectively as a prophylactic tool to reduce the threat of corners and squeezes and promote convergence without compromising market liquidity.” Commenters did not provide evidence to support claims that this historical formula is no longer effective.
In response to concerns that 25 percent of deliverable supply may result in a limit level that is too high, the Commission notes that exchanges can and often do—and are permitted under reproposed § 150.5(a) to—set limits at a level lower than 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply, which allows the exchanges to alter exchange-set limits easily based on changing market conditions.
In response to commenters' suggestion to restore a hedger majority, the Commission notes such an alternative may fail the requirements of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B)(iv) to ensure sufficient liquidity for bona fide hedgers. Hedgers may not be transacting on opposite sides of the market simultaneously and, thus, need speculators to provide liquidity. Simply changing the proportion of hedgers in the market does not mean that the markets would operate more efficiently for bona fide hedgers. In addition, in order to adopt the commenter's suggestion, the Commission would need to reintroduce the withdrawn '03 series forms which required traders to identify which positions were speculative and which were hedging, since any entity,
In response to commenters' suggestions regarding methods for estimating deliverable supply, the Commission notes that deliverable supply estimates are calculated and submitted by DCMs. Guidance for calculating deliverable supply can be found in Appendix C to part 38. Amendments to part 38 are beyond the scope of this rulemaking. However, such guidance already provides that deliverable supply calculations are estimates based on what “reasonably can be expected to be readily available” (including estimates of long-term supply that can be shown to be regularly made available for futures delivery).
Several commenters recommended that the Commission review the levels of position limits more frequently than once every two years to address changes that may occur within the commodities markets.
One commenter recommended that the Commission “adopt final rules that give the Commission the flexibility to increase position limits immediately or with little delay so that the market can accurately respond to external forces without violating position limits” or, in the alternative, “include peak open interest levels beyond the most recent two years when it determines the level of open interest on which to base position limits.
Several commenters expressed the view that the proposed limits based on the open interest formula would result in limit levels that are too high and would not accomplish the goal of reducing excessive speculation.
Several commenters expressed the view that the proposed limits based on the open interest formula would result in limit levels for dairy contracts that are too low and would restrict hedging use by limiting liquidity.
Several commenters recommended that the Commission consider an alternative means of limiting speculative traders, by setting position limits at a level low enough to restore a hedger majority in open interest in each core referenced futures contract.
One commenter noted that the open interest formula permits a speculator to hold a larger percentage of open interest in a smaller commodity market and thus the formula's entire rationale seems “arbitrary . . . and . . . capricious.”
Another commenter suggested that the Commission use a 10, 5 percent open interest formula rather than a 10, 2.5 percent formula as proposed, arguing that the 10, 5 percent formula has worked well for certain agricultural futures markets and should be applied more broadly. Alternatively, this commenter said that Commission should use the 10, 5 percent formula for at least spread positions.
One commenter recommended that the Commission consider commodity-related ratios in establishing limits, such as the ratio between crude oil and its products, diesel (30 percent) and gasoline (50 percent), rather than on separate open interest formulas applied to each.
One commenter suggested the Commission consider setting position limits on “customary position size” which had been used for setting non-spot month limits by the Commission in the past and which the commenter argues is a more effective means of curtailing large speculative positions.
Regarding data sources for average open interest, several commenters noted that the open interest data used by the Commission in determining the non-spot month limits was not complete since it did not include all OTC swaps data and that the Commission should correct this deficiency before it sets the limits using the open interest formula.
The Commission received no comments regarding publication of average open interest.
Regarding minimum levels for non-spot month limits, some commenters urged the Commission to afford itself the flexibility to set non-spot month limits at least as high as the spot-month position limit, rather than base the non-spot month limit strictly on the open interest formula in cases where the latter would result in a relatively small limit that would hinder liquidity.
The Commission proposed, but is not reproposing, positon limits on three cash-settled core referenced futures contracts: CME Class III Milk; CME Feeder Cattle; and CME Lean Hogs.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed a number of organizational and substantive amendments to § 150.3, generally resulting in an increase in the number of exemptions to speculative position limits. First, the Commission proposed to amend the three exemptions from federal speculative limits contained in current § 150.3. These previously proposed amendments would update cross references, relocate the IAC exemption and consolidate it with the Commission's separate proposal to amend the aggregation requirements of § 150.4,
The Commission also proposed to move the existing IAC exemption to § 150.4, thereby deleting the current exemption in § 150.3(a)(4). The Commission also proposed to delete the spread exemption in current § 150.3, because it noted that the proposed non-spot month limits rendered such an exemption unnecessary.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to conform § 150.3(a) to accommodate processes proposed in other sections of part 150. Specifically, the Commission proposed under § 150.3(a)(1)(i) exemptions for those bona fide hedging positions that have been recognized by a DCM or SEF in accordance with proposed §§ 150.9 and 150.11. The Commission also proposed under § 150.3(a)(1)(iv) exemptions for those spread positions that have been recognized by a DCM or SEF in accordance with proposed § 150.10. Recognition of other positions exempted under proposed § 150.3(e) was re-numbered as subsection (v) from subsection (iv) of § 150.3(a)(1) of the 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to revise § 150.3(a) to include, in addition to bona fide hedging positions as defined in § 150.1, positions that are recognized by a DCM or SEF in accordance with § 150.9 or § 150.11 as well as spread positions recognized by a DCM or SEF in accordance with § 150.10.
In contrast, other commenters noted that the proposed rules “properly refrain” from providing a general exemption to financial firms seeking to hedge their financial risks from the sale of commodity-related instruments such as index swaps, ETFs, and ETNs because such instruments are “inherently speculative” and may overwhelm the price discovery function of the derivative market.
Proposed § 150.3 provided that a person that engages in risk-reducing practices commonly used in the market, that the person believes may not be included in the list of enumerated bona fide hedging positions, may apply to the Commission for an exemption from position limits. As previously proposed, market participants would be guided in § 150.3(e) first to consult proposed Appendix C to part 150 to see whether their practices fell within a non-exhaustive list of examples of bona fide hedging positions as defined under proposed § 150.1.
A person engaged in risk-reducing practices that are not enumerated in the revised definition of bona fide hedging position in previously proposed § 150.1 may use two different avenues to apply to the Commission for relief from federal position limits: The person may request an interpretative letter from Commission staff pursuant to § 140.99
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and 150.11 which provided alternative processes that would permit eligible DCMs and SEFs to provide relief for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, certain spread positions, and anticipatory bona fide hedging positions, respectively.
Conditional spot month limit exemptions to exchange-set spot-month position limits for natural gas contracts were adopted in 2009, after the ICE submitted such an exemption as part of its certification of compliance with core principles required of exempt commercial markets (“ECMs”) on which significant price discovery contracts (“SPDCs”) were traded.
As ICE developed its rules in order to comply with the ECM SPDC requirements,
As required after the designation of the NG LD1 contract as a SPDC, ICE submitted a demonstration of their compliance with the required core principles. One of the core principles with which ICE was required to comply under the Farm Bill ECM SPDC rules concerned position limits and position accountability rules for the contract(s) designated as SPDC(s).
After discussion with both the Commission's Division of Market Oversight and NYMEX, ICE submitted and certified rule amendments implementing position limits and position accountability rules for the ICE NG LD1 contract. Specifically, ICE imposed a spot-month position limit and non-spot-month position accountability levels equal to those of the economically equivalent NYMEX NG contract. ICE also adopted a rule for a larger conditional position limit for traders who: (1) Agreed not to maintain a position in the NYMEX NG futures contract during the last three trading days, and (2) agreed to show ICE their complete book of Henry Hub related positions.
In June 2009, the Commission also received self-certified rule amendments from CME Group, Inc. (“CME”) regarding position limits and position accountability levels for the cash-settled NYMEX Henry Hub Financial Last Day Futures (HH) contract and related cash-settled contracts.
Several commenters supported the higher spot-month limit (or no limit at all) for cash-settled contracts, but opposed the restriction on holding a position in the physical-delivery referenced contract to obtain the higher limit for various reasons, including: The view that there is no discernible reason for the restriction in the first place; the belief that it provides a negative impact on liquidity in the physical delivery contract; and the view that it prevents commercials from taking advantage of the higher limit given their need to have some exposure in a physical delivery referenced contract during the spot month.
One commenter said that the conditional spot month position limit exemption for gold is not supported by sufficient research, could decouple the cash-settled contract from the physical-delivery contract, and could lead to lower liquidity in the physical-delivery contract and higher price volatility.
Several commenters expressed the view that a market participant holding a trade option position, which presumably would be considered a physical delivery referenced contract, should not be precluded from using the conditional spot-month limit exemption because trade options are functionally equivalent to a forward contract and the conditional exemption does not restrict holding forwards.
One commenter supported the conditional spot month limit exemption provided that the Commission modifies its proposal to allow independently-operated subsidiaries to hold positions in physical-delivery contracts if the subsidiary engages in separate and independent trading activities, shares no employees, and is not jointly directed in its trading activity with other subsidiaries by the parent company.
Some commenters supported the continuation of the practice of DCMs separately establishing and maintaining their own conditional spot month limits and not aggregating cash-settled limits across exchanges and the OTC market, arguing that the resultant aggregated limit will be unnecessarily restrictive and result in lower liquidity and increased volatility.
Some commenters expressed the view that the filing of daily Form 504 reports to satisfy the conditional spot month limit exemption was burdensome, and recommended less frequent reporting such as monthly reports
Two exchanges which currently permit a conditional spot month limit exemption, CME and ICE, have each submitted several comments regarding the exemption, some in direct response to the other exchange's comments. This back-and-forth nature of the disagreement surrounding the conditional spot month limit exemption has been significant and, on many aspects of the previously proposed exemption, the comments have been in direct opposition to each other. CME submitted a comment letter in response to the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that reiterated its belief that the conditional limit would drain liquidity from the physical-delivery contract;
ICE also submitted a series of charts, using CFTC Commitment of Traders
CME stated its opposition to the conditional limits “as a matter of statutory law,” opining that CEA section 4(b) does not allow the imposition of the conditional limit.
ICE replied that the Commission “has no basis to modify the current conditional limit level” because the markets “have functioned efficiently and effectively” and the Commission should not “change the status quo.”
With respect to natural gas cash-settled referenced contracts, the reproposed rules allow market participants to exceed the position limit provided that such positions do not exceed 10,000 contracts and the person holding or controlling such positions does not hold or control positions in the spot-month natural gas physical-delivery referenced contract (NYMEX NG). Persons relying upon this exemption must file Form 504 during the spot month.
The Commission observes that the conditional exemption level of 10,000 contracts is equal to five times the federal natural gas spot-month position limit level of 2,000 contracts. The conditional exemption level is also equal to the sum of the current conditional exemption levels for each of the NYMEX HH contract and the ICE NG LD1 contract. The Commission believes the level of 10,000 contracts provides relief for market participants who currently may hold or control 5,000 contracts in each of these two cash-settled natural gas futures contracts and an unlimited number of cash-settled swaps, while still furthering the purposes of the Dodd-Frank Act's amendments to CEA section 4a.
The Commission is proposing the fixed figure of 10,000 contracts, rather than the variable figure of five times the spot-month position limit level, in order to avoid confusion in the event NYMEX were to set its spot-month limit in the physical-delivery NYMEX NG contract at a level below 2,000 contracts.
The Commission provides, for informational purposes, summary statistical information that it considered in declining to extend the conditional spot-month limit exemption beyond the natural gas referenced contract. The four tables below present the number of unique persons that held positions in commodity derivative contracts greater than or equal to the specified levels, as reported to the Commission under the large trader reporting systems for futures and swaps, for the period July 1, 2014 to June 30, 2016. The table also presents counts of unique reportable persons, whether reportable under part 17 (futures and future option contracts) or under part 20 (swap contracts). The method the Commission used to analyze this large trader data is discussed above, under § 150.2.
The four tables group commodities only for convenience of presentation. In each table, the term “25% DS” means 25 percent of the deliverable supply as estimated by the exchange listing the core referenced futures contract and verified as reasonable by the Commission. Similarly, “15% DS” means 15 percent of estimated deliverable supply. An asterisk (“*”) means that fewer than four unique persons were reported. “CME proposal” means the level recommended by the CME Group for the spot-month limit. MGEX submitted a recommended spot-month limit level that is slightly less than 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply but did not affect the reported number of unique persons; no other exchange recommended a spot-month level of less than 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply.
For the first group of commodities, there was no unique person in the cash-settled referenced contracts whose position would have exceeded 25 percent of the exchange's estimated deliverable supply. Moreover, no unique person held a position in the cash-settled referenced contracts that would have exceeded the reproposed spot-month limits discussed under § 150.2, above, that are lower than 25 percent of the exchange's estimated deliverable supply.
For the second group of commodities, there was no unique person in the cash-settled referenced contracts whose position would have exceeded 25 percent of the exchange's estimated deliverable supply or, in the case of Live Cattle, the current exchange limit level of 450 contracts. Moreover, other than in the Sugar No. 11 contract, no unique person held a position in the cash-settled referenced contracts that would have exceeded 15 percent of the exchange's estimated deliverable supply. For informational purposes, the table also shows for Live Cattle that no unique person held a position in the cash-settled referenced contracts that would have exceeded 60 percent of the exchange's current spot-month limit of 450 contracts.
For the third group of energy commodities, there were a number of unique persons in the cash-settled referenced contracts whose position would have exceeded 25 percent of the exchange's estimated deliverable supply. For energy commodities other than natural gas, there were fewer than 20 unique persons that had cash-settled positions in excess of the reproposed spot-month limit levels, each based on 25 percent of deliverable supply, as discussed above under § 150.2. However, for natural gas referenced contracts, 131 unique persons had cash-settled positions in excess of the reproposed spot-month limit level of 2,000 contracts. As can be observed in the table below, only 20 unique persons had cash-settled referenced contract positions that would have exceeded the
For the fourth group of metal commodities, there were a few unique persons in the cash-settled referenced contracts whose position would have exceeded the reproposed levels of the spot-month limits, based on the CME Group's recommended levels, as discussed above under § 150.2. However, there were fewer than 20 unique persons that had cash-settled positions in excess of the reproposed spot-month limit levels for metal commodities; this is in marked contrast to the 131 unique persons who had cash-settled positions in excess of the reproposed spot-month limit for natural gas contracts. The Commission, in consideration of the distribution of unique persons holding positions in cash-settled metal commodity contracts across the 24 calendar months of its analysis, particularly in platinum,
The Commission noted that the previously proposed rules concerning detailed recordkeeping and special calls are designed to help ensure that any person who claims any exemption set forth in § 150.3 can demonstrate a legitimate purpose for doing so.
As discussed above, the Commission currently sets and enforces position limits pursuant to its broad authority under CEA section 4a,
The Dodd-Frank Act also amended DCM core principle 5. As amended, DCM core principle 5 requires that, for any contract that is subject to a position limitation established by the Commission pursuant to CEA section 4a(a), the DCM “shall set the position limitation of the board of trade at a level not higher than the position limitation established by the Commission.”
As explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal,
First, the Commission proposed amendments to the provisions of § 150.5 to include SEFs and swaps. Second, the Commission proposed to codify rules and revise acceptable practices for
In addition to the changes to the provisions of § 150.5 proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission also noted that it had, in response to the Dodd-Frank Act, previously published several earlier rulemakings that pertained to position limits, including in a notice of proposed rulemaking to amend part 38 to establish regulatory obligations that each DCM must meet in order to comply with section 5 of the CEA, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act.
Similarly, as the Commission noted in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal,
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission noted that in light of the District Court vacatur of part 151, the Commission proposed to amend § 37.601 to delete the reference to vacated part 151. The amendment would have instead required that SEFs that are trading facilities meet the requirements of part 150, which would be comparable to the DCM requirement, since, as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, § 150.5 would apply to commodity derivative contracts, whether listed on a DCM or on a SEF that is a trading facility. At the same time, the Commission would have amended Appendix B to part 37, which provides guidance on complying with core principles, both initially and on an ongoing basis, to maintain SEF registration.
More recently, the Commission issued the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal to revise and amend certain parts of the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal based on comments received on the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal,
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to delay for exchanges that lack access to sufficient swap position information the requirement to establish and monitor position limits on swaps at this time by: (i) Adding Appendix E to part 150 to provide guidance regarding § 150.5; and (ii) revising guidance on DCM Core Principle 5 and SEF Core Principle 6 that corresponds to that proposed guidance regarding § 150.5.
As discussed in greater detail below, the Commission has determined to repropose § 150.5 largely as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limit Proposal and as revised in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal. In addition, the Commission has determined to repropose the previously proposed amendments to § 37.601 and § 38.301.
Some changes were made to § 150.5 in response to concerns raised by commenters; other changes to the reproposed regulation are to conform to changes made in other sections. For example, in reproposing § 150.5(b)(1) and (2), the Commission has determined to make certain changes to the acceptable practices for establishing the levels of individual non-spot or all-months combined position limits for futures and future option contracts that are not subject to federal limits. The changes to reproposed § 150.5(b)(1) and (2) correspond to changes to reproposed § 150.2(e)(4)(iv) discussed above, for establishing the levels of individual non-spot or all-months combined positions limits for futures and future option contracts that are subject to federal limits. Moreover, several non-substantive changes were made in response to commenter requests to provide greater clarity.
The essential features of the changes to reproposed § 150.5 are discussed below.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal specified that federal position limits would apply to referenced contracts,
Several comment letters on previously proposed § 150.5 recommended that the Commission not require SEFs to establish position limits.
As explained above, in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to temporarily delay for DCMs and SEFs that are trading facilities, which lack access to sufficient swap position information, the requirement to establish and monitor position limits on swaps by: (i) Adding Appendix E to part 150 to provide guidance regarding § 150.5; and (ii) revising guidance on DCM Core Principle 5 and SEF Core Principle 6 that corresponds to that guidance regarding § 150.5.
In this regard, the Commission expressed its belief that an exchange would have or could have access to sufficient swap position information to effectively monitor swap position limits if, for example: (1) It had access to daily information about its market participants' open swap positions; or (2) it knows that its market participants regularly engage in large volumes of speculative trading activity, including through knowledge gained in surveillance of heavy trading activity, that would cause reasonable surveillance personnel at an exchange to inquire further about a market participant's intentions
The Commission noted that it is possible that an exchange could obtain an indication of whether a swap position established on or through a particular exchange is increasing a market participant's swap position beyond a federal or exchange-set limit, if that exchange has data about some or all of a market participant's open swap position from the prior day and combines it with the transaction data from the current day, to obtain an indication of the market participant's current open swap position.
The Commission expressed its belief that although this indication would not include the market participant's activity transacted away from that particular exchange, such monitoring would comply with CEA section 5h(f)(6)(B)(ii). However, the Commission observed that exchanges generally do not currently have access to a data source that identifies a market participant's reported open swap positions from the prior trading day. With only the transaction data from a particular exchange, it would be impracticable, if not impossible, for that exchange to monitor and enforce position limits for swaps.
Further, as noted above, exchanges do not have authority to demand swap position data from derivative clearing organizations or swap data repositories; nor do exchanges have general authority to demand market participants' swap position data from clearing members of DCOs or swap dealers (as the Commission does under part 20). 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, 81 FR at 38461, n. 36.
The Commission also acknowledged in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that it has neither
The Commission stated in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal that it preliminarily had decided not to use the swaps data then reported under part 20 for purposes of setting the initial levels of the proposed single and all-months-combined positions limits due to concerns about the reliability of such data. December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, 78 FR at 75533. The Commission also stated that it might use part 20 swaps data should it determine such data to be reliable, in order to establish higher initial levels in a final rule.
However, as the Commission noted in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the quality of part 20 swaps data does appear to have improved somewhat since the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, although some reports continue to have significant errors. The Commission stated that it is possible that it will be able to rely on swap open positions data, given adjustments for obvious errors (
Moreover, the quality of the data regarding reportable positions in swaps may have improved enough for the Commission to be able to rely on it when monitoring market participants' compliance with the proposed federal position limits.
The Commission stated that in light of the foregoing, it was proposing a delay in implementation of exchange-set limits for swaps only, and only for exchanges without sufficient swap position information.
Although the Commission proposed to temporarily relieve exchanges that do not now have access to sufficient swap position information from having to set position limits on swaps, it also noted that nothing in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal would prevent an exchange from nevertheless establishing position limits on swaps, while stating that it does seem unlikely that an exchange would implement position limits before acquiring sufficient swap position information because of the ensuing difficulty of enforcing such a limit. The Commission expressed its belief that providing delay for those exchanges that need it both preserved flexibility for subsequent Commission rulemaking and allowed for phased implementation of limitations on swaps by exchanges, as practicable.
Additionally, the Commission observed that courts have authorized relieving regulated entities of their statutory obligations where compliance is impossible or impracticable,
Several commenters addressed the Commission's proposed guidance on exchange-set limits on swaps.
Regarding insufficient swap data, four commenters agreed that SEFs and DCMs lack access to sufficient swap position data to set exchange limits on swaps, and as such, the commenters support the Commission's decision to delay the position limit monitoring requirements for SEFs that are trading facilities and DCMs.
On the other hand, one commenter asserted that there should be no delay in implementing position limits for swaps because, according to the commenter, the Commission has access to sufficient swap data it needs to implement position limits.
The Commission has determined to repropose the treatment of swaps and SEFs as previously proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal for the reasons given above.
Regarding the comments recommending that the Commission identify a plan to address the insufficient data issues that goes beyond “simply exempting affected exchanges,” the Commission may consider granting DCMs and SEFs, as self-regulatory organizations, access to part 20 data or SDR data at a later time.
In addition, regarding the comment that the Commission already has access to sufficient swap data in order to implement position limits, the Commission points out that it proposes to adopt a phased approach to updating its position limits regime.
Several requirements were added to § 150.5(a) in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal to which a DCM or SEF that is a trading facility must adhere when setting position limits for contracts that are subject to the federal position limits listed in § 150.2.
Previously proposed § 150.5(a)(3) would have required a DCM or SEF that is a trading facility to exempt from speculative position limits established under § 150.2 a swap position acquired in good faith in any pre-enactment and transition period swaps, in either case as defined in § 150.1.
Under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission had proposed to require DCMs and SEFs that are trading facilities to have aggregation polices that mirror the federal aggregation provisions.
A DCM or SEF that is a trading facility would have continued to be free to enforce position limits that are more stringent that the federal limits. The Commission clarified in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal that federal spot month position limits do not to apply to physical-delivery contracts after delivery obligations are established.
One commenter recommended that exchanges be required to withdraw their position accountability and position limit regimes in deference to any federal limits and to conform their position limits to the federal limits so that a single regime will apply across exchanges.
Two commenters recommended that the Commission clarify that basis contracts would be excluded from exchange-set limits in order to provide consistency since such contracts are excluded from the Commission's definition of referenced contract and thus are not subject to Federal limits.
One commenter recommended that DCMs and SEFs that are trading facilities be given more discretion, particularly with respect to non-referenced contracts, over aggregation requirements.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to amend § 150.5(a)(2) as it was proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
For example, § 150.5(a)(2)(i), as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, required that any exchange rules providing for hedge exemptions for commodity derivatives contracts subject to federal position limits conform to the definition of bona fide hedging position as defined in the amendments to § 150.1 contained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal. But because the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal incorporated the bona fide hedging position definition and provided for spread exemptions in 150.3(a)(1)(i), the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal proposed instead to cite to § 150.3 in § 150.5(a)(2).
Similarly, the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal amended previously proposed § 150.5(b) to require that exchange rules provide for recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedge “in a manner consistent with the process described in § 150.9(a).” Addressing the granting of spread exemptions for contracts not subject to federal position limits, the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal integrates in the standards of CEA section 4a(a)(3), providing that exchanges should take into account those standards when considering whether to grant spread exemptions. Finally, the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal clarified that for excluded commodities, the exchange can grant certain exemptions provided under paragraphs § 150.5(b)(5)(i) and (b)(5)(ii) in addition to the risk management exemption previously proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
While comments were submitted on the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that addressed the proposed changes to the definitions under § 150.1, as well as to the proposed exchange processes for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedges and anticipatory hedges, and for granting spreads exemptions under proposed §§ 150.9, 150.11, and 150.10, respectively, all of which indirectly affect § 150.5(a), very few comments specifically addressed § 150.5(a). Comments received on the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal regarding the other sections are addressed in the discussions of those sections.
One commenter urged the Commission to allow exchanges to maintain their current authority to set speculative limits for both spot month and all-months combined limits below federal limits to ensure that convergence continues to occur.
While the Commission's retention of what is often referred to as the five-day rule
One issue raised by several commenters
The Commission has determined to repropose § 150.5(a) as proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal for the reasons provided above with some changes, as detailed below.
Although the Commission is reproposing § 150.5(a)(1), in response to the comment that the exchanges should conform their position limits to the federal limits so that a single position limit and accountability regime apply across exchanges,
For purposes of clarification in response to comments on the treatment of basis contracts, the reproposed rules provide a singular definition of “referenced contract” which, as stated by the commenters, excludes “basis contracts.” For commodities subject to federal limits under reproposed § 150.2, the definition of referenced contract remains the same for federal and exchange-set limits and may not be amended by exchanges. An exchange could, but is not required to, impose limits on any basis contract independently of the federal limit for the commodity in question, but a position in a basis contract with an independent, exchange-set limit would not count for the purposes of the federal limit.
After consideration of comments regarding § 150.5(a)(2)(i) (Grant of exemption),
The Commission notes that under the 2013 Position Limits Proposal, exchanges could adopt position accountability at a level lower than the federal limit (along with a position limit at the same level as the federal limit); in such cases, the exchange would not need to grant exemptions for positions no greater than the level of the federal limit. Under the Reproposal, exchanges could choose, instead, to adopt a limit lower than the federal limit; in such a case, the Commission would permit the exchange to grant an exemption to the exchange's lower limit, where such exemption does not conform to § 150.3, provided that such exemption to an exchange-set limit is capped at the level of the federal limit. Such a capped exemption would basically have the same effect as if the exchange set its speculative position limit at the level of the federal limit, as required under DCM core principle 5(B) and SEF core principle 6(B)(1).
In regards to the five-day rule, the Commission notes that the reproposed rule does not apply the prudential condition of the five-day rule to non-enumerated hedging positions. The Commission considered the recommendations that the Commission: Allow exchanges to recognize a bona fide hedge exemption for up to a five-day retroactive period in circumstances where market participants need to exceed limits to address a sudden and unforeseen hedging need; specifically authorize exchanges to grant bona fide hedge and spread exemptions during the last five days of trading or less, and/or delegate to the exchanges for their consideration the decision of whether to apply the five-day rule to a particular contract after their evaluation of the particular facts and circumstances. As reproposed, and as discussed in connection with the definition of bona fide hedging position,
In addition, the Commission proposes to amend § 150.5(a)(2)(ii) (Application for exemption). The reproposed rule would permit exchanges to adopt rules that allow a trader to file an application for an enumerated bona fide hedging exemption within five business days after the trader assumed the position that exceeded a position limit.
Concerning the comment recommending greater discretion be given DCMs and SEFs that are trading facilities with respect to aggregation requirements, the Commission reiterates its belief in the benefits of requiring exchanges to conform to the federal standards on aggregation, including lower burden and less confusion for traders active on multiple exchanges,
The Commission set forth in § 150.5(b), as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, requirements and acceptable practices that would generally update and reorganize the set of acceptable practices listed in current § 150.5 as they relate to contracts that are not subject to the federal position limits, including physical and excluded commodities.
The previously proposed revisions to DCM and SEF acceptable practices generally concerned how to: (1) Set spot-month position limits; (2) set individual non-spot month and all-months-combined position limits; (3) set position limits for cash-settled contracts that use a referenced contract as a price source; (4) adjust position limit levels after a contract has been listed for trading; and (5) adopt position accountability in lieu of speculative position limits.
For spot months under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, for a derivative contract that was based on a commodity with a measurable deliverable supply, previously proposed § 150.5(b)(1)(i)(A) updated the acceptable practice in current § 150.5(b)(1) whereby spot month position limits should be set at a level no greater than one-quarter of the estimated deliverable supply of the underlying commodity.
For a derivative contract that was based on a commodity without a measurable deliverable supply, the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal proposed for spot months, in § 150.5(b)(1)(i)(B), to codify as guidance that the spot month limit level should be no greater than necessary and appropriate to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or price distortion of the contract's or the underlying commodity's price.
Under previously proposed § 150.5(b)(1)(ii)(A), the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal preserved the existing acceptable practice in current § 150.5(b)(2) whereby individual non-spot or all-months-combined levels for agricultural commodity derivative contracts that are not subject to the federal limits should be no greater than 1,000 contracts at initial listing. As then proposed, the rule would also codify as guidance that the 1,000 contract limit should be taken into account when the notional quantity per contract is no larger than a typical cash market transaction in the underlying commodity, or reduced if the notional quantity per contract is larger than a typical cash market transaction. Additionally, the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal proposed in § 150.5(b)(1)(ii)(A), to codify for individual non-spot or all-months-combined, that if the commodity derivative contract was substantially the same as a pre-existing DCM or SEF commodity derivative contract, then it would be an acceptable practice for the DCM or SEF that is a trading facility to adopt the same limit as applies to that pre-existing commodity derivative contract.
In § 150.5(b)(1)(ii)(B), the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal preserved the existing acceptable practice for individual non-spot or all-months-combined in exempt and excluded commodity derivative contracts, set forth in current § 150.5(b)(3), for DCMs to set individual non-spot or all-months-combined limits at levels no greater than 5,000 contracts at initial listing.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal provided in § 150.5(b)(1)(iii)
In previously proposed § 150.5(b)(2)(i)(A), the Commission was updating the acceptable practices in current § 150.5(c) for adjusting limit levels for the spot month.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal explained that then proposed § 150.5(b)(2)(ii) maintained as an acceptable practice the basic formula set forth in current § 150.5(c)(2) for adjusting non-spot-month limits at levels of no more than 10% of the average combined futures and delta-adjusted option month-end open interest for the most recent calendar year up to 25,000 contracts, with a marginal increase of 2.5% of the remaining open interest thereafter.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal would maintain under § 150.5(b)(3)(i) the acceptable practice for a DCM or SEF to adopt position accountability rules outside the spot month, in lieu of position limits, for an agricultural or exempt commodity derivative contract that: (1) Had an average month-end open interest of 50,000 or more contracts and an average daily volume of 5,000 or more contracts during the most recent calendar year; (2) had a liquid cash market; and (3) was not subject to federal limits in § 150.2—provided, however, that such DCM or SEF that is a trading facility should adopt a spot month speculative position limit with a level no greater than one-quarter of the estimated spot month deliverable supply.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal would maintain in § 150.5(b)(3)(ii)(A) the acceptable practice for a DCM or SEF to adopt position accountability rules in the spot month in lieu of position limits for an excluded commodity derivative contract that had a highly liquid cash market and no legal impediment to delivery.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal added in § 150.5(b)(3)(iii) a new acceptable practice for an exchange to list a new contract with position accountability levels in lieu of position limits if that new contract was substantially the same as an existing contract that was currently listed for trading on an exchange that had already
As previously proposed, § 150.5(b)(4) would maintain the acceptable practice that for contracts not subject to federal position limits, DCMs and SEFs should calculate trading volume and open interest in the manner established in current § 150.5(e)(4).
As noted above, under the December 2013 Position Limits proposal, the Commission proposed to require DCMs and SEFs to have uniform hedging exemptions and aggregation polices that mirror the federal aggregation provisions for all types of commodity derivative contracts, including for contracts that are not subject to federal position limits. The Commission explained that hedging exemptions and aggregation policies that vary from exchange to exchange would increase the administrative burden on a trader active on multiple exchanges, as well as increase the administrative burden on the Commission in monitoring and enforcing exchange-set position limits.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal also set forth in § 150.5(b)(5)(ii) acceptable practices for DCMs and SEFs to grant exemptions from position limits for positions, other than bona fide hedging positions, in contracts not subject to federal limits. The exemptions in § 150.5(b)(5)(ii) under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal generally tracked the exemptions then proposed in § 150.3; acceptable practices were suggested based on the same logic that underpinned those exemptions.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal provided in § 150.5(b)(6)-(7) acceptable practices relating to pre-enactment and transition period swap positions (as those terms were defined in previously proposed § 150.1),
Additionally, for any contract that is not subject to federal position limits, previously proposed § 150.5(b)(8) required the DCM or SEF that is a trading facility to conform to the uniform federal aggregation provisions.
Three commenters on previously proposed regulation § 150.5 recommended that the Commission not require SEFs to establish position limits.
One commenter expressed the view that deliverable supply calculations used to establish spot month limits should be based on commodity specific actual physical transport/transmission, generation and production.
One commenter urged the Commission to allow the listing exchange to set non-spot month limits at least as high as the spot-month position limit, rather than base the non-spot month limit strictly on the open interest formula.
One commenter recommended that DCMs be permitted to establish position accountability levels in lieu of position limits outside of the spot month.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to revise § 150.5(b)(5) from what was proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal; proposed § 150.5(b) establishes requirements and acceptable practices that pertain to commodity derivative contracts not subject to federal position limits.
Several commenters requested clarification as to the application of exchange-administered exemption requests to non-referenced contracts generally under § 150.5(b).
Another commenter stated that the Commission should remove the requirements of § 150.5(b) that apply the exemption procedures of § 150.9 to exemptions granted for contracts in excluded commodities and physical commodities that are not subject to federal position limits. In support of this request, the commenter maintained that exchange exemption programs have been operating successfully without the need for such rules, and exchanges do not require additional guidance from the Commission on how to assess recognitions under the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal and that rule enforcement reviews are adequate.
Several commenters requested that the Commission clarify that spread and anticipatory hedge exemptions are unnecessary for excluded commodities and other products not subject to federal limits. For example, one commenter seeks clarity regarding the application of § 150.5(b) to spread exemption and anticipatory hedge exemption requests, stating that “[p]roposed section 150.5(b) is silent with respect to anticipatory hedges contemplated under the process in proposed section 150.11, and makes no reference in proposed section 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C) to the process in proposed section 150.10 when describing spread exemptions an exchange may recognize. The Commission must clarify whether it intends that market participants and exchanges may avail themselves of such processes in applying for and recognizing exemptions from exchange limits for non-referenced contracts.”
Another commenter urges the Commission to clarify that spread and anticipatory hedge exemptions are unnecessary for excluded commodities and other products not subject to federal limits. In this regard, the commenter seeks the removal of requirements found in § 150.5(b).
According to one commenter, the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal does not provide any explanation regarding the Commission's need to receive from the exchanges the same exemption reports for non-referenced contracts that it would receive for referenced contracts. The commenter states that the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal characterizes exchange submissions of exemption recipient reports to the CFTC as “support[ing] the Commission's surveillance program, by facilitating the tracking of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions recognized by the exchange, and helping the Commission to ensure that an applicant's activities conform to the terms of recognition that the exchange has established.”
As noted above, several commenters
One commenter noted that when the CEA addresses “linked contracts” in CEA section 4(b)(1)(B)(ii)(I), in relation to FBOTS, it provides that the Commission may not permit an FBOT to provide direct access to participants located in the United States unless the Commission determines that the FBOT (or the foreign authority overseeing the FBOT) adopts position limits that are comparable to the position limits adopted by the registered entity for the contract(s) against which the FBOT contract settles.
In addition, according to the commenter, when the Commission, in response to the Dodd-Frank Act provisions regarding FBOTs in amended CEA section 4(b), adopted final § 48.8(c)(1)(ii)(A), “it acknowledged that a linked contract and its physically-delivered benchmark contract `create a single market' capable of being affected through trading in either of the linked or physically-delivered markets,” and further noted that the Commission “observed that the price discovery process would be protected by `ensuring that [ ] linked contracts have position limits and accountability provisions that are comparable to the corresponding [DCM] contracts [to which they are linked].' ”
The Commission has determined to repropose
Additionally, the Commission proposes to make some substantive revisions specific to excluded commodities in what was previously § 150.5 (b), addressed in the discussion of § 150.5(c).
In response to the comment regarding the method for calculating deliverable supply, the Commission notes that guidance for calculating deliverable supply can be found in Appendix C to part 38. Amendments to part 38 are beyond the scope of this rulemaking. However, that guidance already provides that deliverable supply calculations are estimates based on what “reasonably can be expected to be readily available” on a monthly basis based on a number of types of data from the physical marketing channels, as suggested by the commenter, and these calculations are done for each month and each commodity separately. Furthermore, much of § 150.5(b) reiterates longstanding guidance and acceptable practices for DCMs, rather than proposing new concepts for administering limits on contracts that are not subject to federal limits under § 150.2.
The Commission agrees with the commenter urging the Commission to allow exchanges to set non-spot month limits at least as high as the spot-month position limit, in the event the open interest formula would result in a limit level lower than the spot month. Accordingly, consistent with the recommended revisions to the initial limit level listings for contracts subject to federal limits found in § 150.2(e)(4)(iv), the Commission proposes to revise § 150.5(b)(2)(ii) to allow exchanges to set non-spot month limit levels at the maximum of the spot month limit level, the level derived from the 10/2.5% formula, or 5,000 contracts. To conform with those revisions, the Commission also proposes to revise § 150.5(b)(1)(ii)(A)-(B) to remove the distinction between agricultural and exempt commodities.
Regarding the commenter who expressed concern regarding requirements for accountability levels for exempt commodities, the Commission notes that the provisions set forth guidance and acceptable practices for exchanges in setting position limit levels and accountability levels and, as guidance and acceptable practices, are not binding regulations. Under the Commission's guidance, an initial non-spot month limit level of no more than 5,000 is viewed as suitable.
Similarly, in response to the commenter who recommended that DCMs be permitted to establish position accountability levels in lieu of position limits outside the spot month and coordinate the administration of such levels with the Commission and other DCMs, the Commission agrees that position accountability may be permitted for certain physical commodity derivative contracts. Reproposed § 150.5(b)(3), therefore, provides guidance and acceptable practices concerning exchange adoption of position accountability outside the spot month for contracts having an average month-end open interest of 50,000 contracts and an average daily volume of 5,000 or more contracts during the most recent calendar year and a liquid cash market. The Commission again notes that guidance and acceptable practices do not establish mandatory means of compliance. As such, in regards to meeting the specified volume and open interest thresholds in § 150.5(b)(3), the Commission notes that the guidance in § 150.5(b)(3)(i) may not be the only circumstances under which sufficiently high liquidity may be shown to exist for the establishment of position accountability levels in lieu of position limits.
The December 2013 Position Limits Proposal provided in § 150.5(b)(1)(iii) that if a commodity derivative contract was cash-settled by referencing a daily settlement price of an existing contract listed on a DCM or SEF, then it would be an acceptable practice for a DCM or SEF to adopt the same position limits as the original referenced contract, assuming the contract sizes are the same.
As pointed out by one commenter,
The Commission proposes to revise § 150.5(b)(4)(B) regarding the calculation of open interest for use in setting exchange-set speculative position limits to provide that a DCM or SEF that is a trading facility would include swaps in their open interest calculation only if such entities are required to administer position limits on swap contracts of their facilities. This revision clarifies and harmonizes § 150.5(b)(4)(B) with the relief in Appendix E to part 150, as well as in appendices to parts 37 and 38, which delays for DCMs and SEFs that are trading facilities and lack access to sufficient swap position information the requirement to establish and monitor position limits on swaps at this time. This approach conforms § 150.5(b) with other proposed changes regarding the treatment of swaps.
The Commission is reproposing § 150.5(b)(5)(i) with modifications to clarify that it is guidance rather than a regulatory requirement. In addition, as modified, it provides that under exchange rules allowing a trader to file an application for an enumerated bona fide hedging exemption, the application should be filed no later than five business days after the trader assumed the position that exceeded a position limit.
Additionally, the Commission is reproposing § 150.5(b)(5)(i) with modifications to clarify, as requested by commenters,
In addition, the Commission is proposing that, for enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exchange rules may allow traders to file an application for an enumerated bona fide hedging exemption within five business days after the trader assumed the position that exceeded a position limit.
Finally, as to § 150.5(b)(5)(ii) (Other exemptions), the Commission did not receive any comments regarding § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(A) (Financial distress), and is reproposing this exemption without change.
While the conditional spot month limit exemption is addressed in more detail under § 150.3, after consideration of comments, the Commission is reproposing § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(B) with a modification.
After review of comments and an impact analysis regarding the federal limits, the Commission believes that a five-times conditional exemption is too large, other than in natural gas because, in the markets that the Commission proposes to subject to federal limits, the Commission observed few or no market participants with positions in cash-settled contracts in the aggregate that exceed 25 percent of deliverable supply in the spot month. This is so even though cash-settled contracts that are swaps are not currently subject to position limits. A five-times conditional exemption would not ensure liquidity for bona fide hedgers in the spot month for cash-settled contracts because there appear to be few or no positions that large (other than in natural gas). Consequently, and in light of the other three policy objectives of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B), the Commission reproposes a more cautious approach.
Since transactions of large speculative traders may tend to cause unwarranted price changes, exchanges should exercise caution in determining whether such conditional exemptions are warranted; for example, an exchange may determine that a conditional exemption is warranted because such a speculative trader is demonstrably providing liquidity for bona fide hedgers. Where an exchange may not have access to data regarding a market participant's cash-settled positions away from a particular exchange, such exchange should require, for any conditional spot-month limit exemption it grants, that a trader report promptly to such exchange the trader's aggregate positions in cash-settled contracts, physical-delivery contracts, and cash market positions.
As noted above, under reproposed § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(B), an exchange has the choice of whether or not to adopt a conditional spot month position limit exemption for cash-settled contracts that are not subject to federal limits. As also discussed above regarding reproposed § 150.3(c), the Commission is not proposing a conditional spot-month limit for agricultural contracts subject to federal limits under reproposed § 150.2. Further, the Commission notes that the current cash-settled natural gas spot month limit rules of two commenters, CME Group (which operates NYMEX) and ICE, both include the same spot-month limit level and the same conditional spot-month limit exemption. In each case the current cash-settled conditional exemption is five times the limit for the physical-delivery contract. Such natural gas contracts would be subject to federal limits under reproposed § 150.2, so the guidance in reproposed § 150.5(b) would not be applicable to those contracts.
In regards to the exemption for intramarket and intermarket spread positions under § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C), the comments received concerned the exchange process for providing spread exemptions under § 150.10. The Commission addresses those comments below in its discussion of § 150.10, and is reproposing § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C) as proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal.
The Commission points out, however, that reproposed § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C) would apply only to physical commodity derivative contracts, and would not apply to any derivative contract in an excluded commodity. Furthermore, as noted above, reproposed § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C) provides guidance rather than rigid requirements. Instead, under § 150.5(b)(5)(ii)(C), exchanges should take into account whether granting a spread exemption in a physical commodity derivative would, to the maximum extent practicable, ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers, and not unduly reduce the effectiveness of position limits to diminish, eliminate, or prevent excessive speculation; deter and prevent market manipulation, squeezes, and corners; and ensure that the price discovery function of the underlying market is not disrupted.
While the Commission's determination regarding the five-day rule is addressed elsewhere,
As the Commission cautioned above, exchanges should carefully consider whether to recognize a position as a bona fide hedge or to exempt a spread position held during the last few days of trading in physical-delivery contracts. The Commission points to the tools that exchanges currently use to address concerns during the spot month; as two commenters observed, current tools include requiring gradual reduction of the position (“step down” requirements) or revoking exemptions to protect the price discovery process in core referenced futures contracts approaching expiration. Consequently, under the reproposed rule, exchanges may recognize positions, on a case-by-case basis in physical-delivery contracts that would otherwise be subject to the five-day rule, as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, by applying the exchanges experience and expertise in protecting its own physical-delivery market.
In response to the comment questioning the proposed reporting requirements by a claim that, “while the Commission has a surveillance obligation with respect to federal limits, the same obligation has never before existed with respect to exchange-set limits for non-referenced contracts, and does not exist today,”
The Commission retains the power to approve or disapprove the rules of exchanges, under standards set out pursuant to the CEA, and to review an exchange's compliance with the exchange's rules, by way of additional examples of the Commission's continuing responsibility in this matter under the Act.
As noted above, in an overall non-substantive change made in reproposing § 150.5, the Commission moved all provisions applying to excluded commodities from § 150.5(b) into reproposed § 150.5(c) to provide greater clarity regarding which provisions concern excluded commodities. The Commission has determined to repropose the rule largely as proposed for excluded commodities (previously under § 150.5(b)), for the reasons noted above, with certain changes discussed below.
The Commission is reproposing the provisions under § 150.5(c)(1) regarding levels of limits for excluded commodities as modified and reproposed under § 150.5(b)(1),
Similarly, as to adjustment of limit levels for excluded commodity derivative contracts under § 150.5(c)(2), the reproposed provisions are modified to reference only excluded commodities and to remove provisions that were solely addressed to agricultural commodities. As reproposed, § 150.5(c)(2)(i) provides guidance that the spot month position limits for excluded commodity derivative contracts “should be maintained at a level that is necessary and appropriate to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or price distortion of the contract's or the underlying commodity's price or index.”
The Commission did not receive comments regarding § 150.5(c)(3). The guidance in § 150.5(c)(3), on exchange adoption of position accountability levels in lieu of speculative position limits, has been reproposed as was previously proposed in § 150.5(b)(3), modified to remove provisions under § 150.5(b)(3)(i), which were solely addressed to physical commodity derivative contracts, and to reference excluded commodities.
As to the calculation of open interest for use in setting exchange-set speculative position limits for excluded commodities, the Commission is reproposing, in § 150.5(c)(4), the same guidance for excluded commodities that is being reproposed under § 150.5(b)(4) as for all other commodity derivative contracts that are not subject to the limits set forth in § 150.2, including the modification to provide that a DCM or SEF that is a trading facility would include swaps in its open interest calculation only if such entity is required to administer position limits on swap contracts of its facility.
In regards to hedge exemptions, the Commission is reproposing in new § 150.5(c)(5)(i) for contracts in excluded commodities a modification of what was previously proposed in § 150.5(b)(5)(i) that eliminates the guidance that exchanges “may provide for recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedge in a manner consistent with the process described in § 150.9(a).” That provision was intended to apply only to physical commodity contracts and not to exemptions granted by exchanges for contracts in excluded commodities.
As noted above, in reproposing the definition of bona fide hedging position, the Commission is clarifying that an exchange may otherwise recognize as bona fide any position in a commodity derivative contract in an excluded commodity, so long as such recognition is pursuant to such exchange's rules. Although the Commission's standards in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal applied the incidental test and the orderly trading requirements to all commodities, the Commission, as previously described, proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal to remove both those standards from the definition of bona fide hedging position.
In addition, in conjunction with the amendments to the definition of bona fide hedging positions in regards to excluded commodities,
In regards to the provisions addressing applications for exemptions for positions in excluded commodities, the Commission is modifying what was copied from § 150.5(b)(5)(iii) to provide, under § 150.5(c)(5)(iii), simply that an exchange may allow a person to file an exemption application for excluded commodities after the person assumes the position that exceeded a position limit.
Finally, in reproposing the aggregation provision for excluded commodities under § 150.5(c)(8), the Commission is not merely mirroring the aggregation provision as previously proposed in § 150.5(b)(8). As noted above, the reproposed aggregation provisions for physical commodity derivatives contracts, whether under § 150.5(a)(8) or § 150.5(b)(8), provide that exchanges must have aggregation provisions that conform to § 150.4. Reproposed § 150.5(c)(8), consistent with the rest of reproposed § 150.5(c), would instead provide guidance, that exchanges “should” have aggregation rules for excluded commodity derivative contracts that conform to § 150.4.
The market and large trader reporting rules are contained in parts 15 through 21 of the Commission's regulations.
Current part 19 of the Commission's regulations sets forth reporting requirements for persons holding or controlling reportable futures and option positions “which constitute bona fide hedging positions as defined in [§ ] 1.3(z)” and for merchants and dealers in cotton holding or controlling reportable positions for future delivery in cotton.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to amend part 19 so that it would conform to the Commission's proposed changes to part 150.
Another commenter stated that the various forms required by the regime, while not lengthy, represent significant data collection and categorization that will require a non-trivial amount of work to accurately prepare and file. The commenter claimed that a comprehensive position limits regime could be implemented with a “far less burdensome” set of filings and requested that the Commission review the proposed forms and ensure they are “as clear, limited, and workable” as possible to reduce burden. The commenter stated that it is not aware of any software vendors that currently provide solutions that can support a commercial firm's ability to file the proposed forms.
One commenter recommended that the Commission eliminate the series '04 reports in light of the application and reporting requirements laid out in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal. The commenter asserted that the application requirements are in addition to the series '04 forms, which the commenter claims “only provide the Commission with a limited surveillance benefit.”
Several commenters requested that the Commission create user-friendly guidebooks for the forms so that all entities can clearly understand any required forms and build the systems to file such forms, including providing workshops and/or hot lines to improve the forms.
One commenter expressed concern for reporting requirements in conflict with other regulatory requirements (such as FASB ASC 815).
Finally, two commenters recommended modifying or removing the requirement to certify series '04 reports as “true and correct”. One commenter suggested that the requirement be removed due to the difficulty of making such a certification
The Commission notes that the information required on the series '04 reports represents a trader's most basic position data, including the number of units of the cash commodity that the firm has purchased or sold, or the size of a swap position that is being offset in the futures market. The Commission believes this information is readily available to traders, who routinely make trading decisions based on the same data that is required on the series '04 reports. The Commission is proposing to move to an entirely electronic filing system, allowing for efficiencies in populating and submitting forms that require the same information every month. Most traders who are required to file the series '04 reports must do so for only one day out of the month, further lowering the burden for filers. In short, the Commission believes potential burdens under the Reproposal have been reduced wherever possible while still providing adequate information for the Commission's Surveillance program. For market participants who may require assistance in monitoring for speculative position limits and gathering the information required for the series '04 reports, the Commission is aware of several software companies who, prior to the vacation of the Part 151 Rulemaking, produced tools that could be useful to market participants in fulfilling their compliance obligations under the new position limits regime.
The Commission notes that the reporting obligations proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal are intended to be complimentary to, not duplicative of, the series '04 reporting forms. In particular, the Commission notes the distinction between Form 204 enumerated hedging reporting and exchange-based non-enumerated hedging reporting. The 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal provides exchanges with the authority to require reporting from market participants. That is, regarding an exchange's process for non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognition, the exchange has discretion to implement any additional reporting that it may require. The Commission declines to eliminate series '04 reporting in response to the commenters because, as noted throughout this section, the data provided on the forms is critical to the mission of the Commission's Surveillance program to detect and deter manipulation and abusive trading practices in physical commodity markets.
In response to the commenters that requested guidebooks for the series '04 reporting forms, the Commission believes that it is less confusing to ensure that form instructions are clear and detailed than it is to provide generalized guidebooks that may not respond to specific issues. The Commission has clarified the sample series `04 forms found in Appendix A to part 19, including instructions to such forms, and invites comments in order to avoid future confusion. Specifically, the Commission has added instructions regarding how to fill out the trader identification section of each form; reorganized instructions relating to individual fields on each form; edited the examples of each form to reduce confusion and match changes to information required as described in this section; and clarified the authority for the certifications made on the signature/authorization page of each form.
The Commission's longstanding experience with collecting and reviewing Form 204 and Form 304 has shown that many questions about the series '04 reports are specific to the circumstances and trading strategies of an individual market participant, and do not lend themselves to generalization that would be helpful to many market participants.
The Commission also notes, in response to the commenter expressing concerns about other regulatory requirements, the policy objectives and standards for hedging under financial accounting standards differ from the statutory policy objectives and standards for hedging under the Act. Because of this, reporting requirements, and the associated burdens, would also differ between the series '04 reports and accounting statements.
Finally, the Commission is proposing to amend the certification language found at the end of each form to clarify that the certification requires nothing more than is already required of market participants in section 6(c)(2) of the Act. In response to the commenters' request for a “best effort” standard, the Commission added the phrase “to the best of my knowledge” preceding the certification from the authorized representative of the reporting trader that the information on the form is true and correct. The Commission has also added instructions to each form clarifying what is required on the signature/authorization page of each form. The Commission notes that, in the recent past, the Division of Market Oversight has issued advisories and guidance on proper filing of series '04 reports, and the Division of Enforcement has settled several cases regarding lack of accuracy and/or timeliness in filing series '04 forms.
The Commission also proposed expanding Part 19 to include reporting requirements for positions in swaps, in addition to futures and options positions, for any part of which a person relies on an exemption. To accomplish this, “positions in commodity derivative contracts,” as defined in proposed § 150.1, would replace “futures and option positions” throughout amended
Proposed § 19.00(a) would eliminate the cross-reference to the definition of reportable position in § 15.00(p)(2). The Commission noted that the current reportable position definition essentially identifies futures and option positions in excess of speculative position limits. Proposed § 19.00(a) would simply make clear that the reporting requirement applies to commodity derivative contract positions (including swaps) that exceed speculative position limits, as discussed below.
Series '04 reports currently refers to Form 204 and Form 304, which are listed in current § 15.02.
The Commission explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal that the original part 19 reporting exclusion was intended to cover only cash positions that were not capable of being delivered under the terms of any derivative contract, an intention that ultimately evolved to allow cross-commodity hedging of products and byproducts of a commodity that were not necessarily deliverable under the terms of any derivative contract. The Commission also noted that the instructions on current Form 204 go further than current § 19.00(b)(1) by allowing the exclusion of certain source commodities in addition to products and byproducts, when it is the firm's normal business practice to do so.
Because of these and other concerns, market participants have historically been required to report cash market information in aggregate form for the commodity as a whole, not the “line item” style of hedge reporting requested by the commenter (where firms report cash trades by category, tranche, or corresponding futures position). Further, since it is important for Surveillance purposes to receive a snapshot of a market participant's cash market position, the series '04 forms currently require a market participant to provide relevant inventories and fixed price contracts in the hedged (or cross-hedged) commodity. The Commission believes it is necessary to maintain this aggregate reporting in order for the Commission's Surveillance program to properly monitor for position limit violations and to prevent market manipulation.
Further, the Commission believes that firms may find reporting an aggregate cash market position less burdensome than attempting to identify portions of that position that most closely align with individual hedge positions as, according to some commenters, many firms hedge on a portfolio basis, making identifying the particular hedge being used difficult.
One commenter requested that the Commission provide for a single hedge exemption application and reporting process, and should not require applicants to file duplicative forms at the exchange and at the Commission. The commenter noted its support for rules that would delegate, to the exchanges, (1) the hedge exemption application and approval process, and (2) hedge exemption reporting (if any is required). The commenter argued that the exchanges, rather than the Commission, have a long history with enforcing position limits on all of their contracts and are in a much better position than the Commission to judge the applicant's hedging needs and set an appropriate hedge level for the hedge being sought. Thus, the commenter suggested, the exchanges should be the point of contact for market participants seeking hedge exemptions.
One commenter requested that the Commission address all pending requests for CEA 4a(a)(7) exemptions and respond to all requests for bona fide hedging exemptions from the energy industry.
The second commenter was responding to questions raised at the Energy and Environmental Markets Advisory Council Meeting in June 2014; the Commission notes in response to that commenter that there is no federal exemption application process for most enumerated hedges. For non-enumerated hedges and certain enumerated anticipatory hedges, in response to the EEMAC meeting and other comments from market participants, the Commission proposed a single exchange based process for recognizing bona fide hedges for both federal and exchange limits. Under this process, proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, market participants would not be required to file with both the exchange and the Commission.
Finally, in response to the commenter's request that the Commission respond to pending requests for exemptions under CEA section 4a(a)(7), the Commission notes that it responded to the outstanding section 4a(a)(7) requests in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal. In particular, the Commission proposed to include some of the energy industry's requests in the definition of bona fide hedging position and declined to include other requests.
One commenter also recommended that the Commission either delete or make optional the identification of a particular enumerated position in column two of Section A or provide a good-faith standard. The commenter claimed that many energy firms hedge on a portfolio basis, and would not be able to identify a particular enumerated position that applies to the referenced contract position needing bona fide hedging treatment.
One commenter asked for clarification regarding whether Section C of Form 204, which requires information regarding cotton stocks, is required of market participants in all commodities or just those in cotton markets.
One commenter recommended that the Commission remove the requirement in Form 204 to submit futures-equivalent derivative positions, stating that the Commission did not explain why it needs to obtain data on a market participant's futures-equivalent position as part of proposed Form 204 in light of the presumption that the Commission already has a market participant's future-equivalent position from large-trader reporting rules and access to SDR data.
With respect to column two of Form 204, the Commission is proposing to adopt the commenter's recommendation to delete the requirement to identify which paragraphs of the bona fide hedging definition are represented by the hedged position. The requirement seemed to be confusing to commenters who found it unclear whether the column required the identification of all bona fide hedge definition paragraphs used for the total cash market position or the identification of separate cash positions for each paragraph used. While the requirement was intended to provide insight into which enumerated provision of the bona fide hedging definition was being relied upon in order to provide context to the cash position, the column was never intended to prevent multiple paragraphs being cited at once. Given the confusion, the Commission is concerned that the information in column two may not provide the intended information while being burdensome to implement for both market participants and Commission staff. For these reasons, the Commission is proposing to delete column two of Form 204, and has updated the sample forms in Appendix A to part 19 accordingly.
In response to the commenter requesting clarification regarding Section C of Form 204, the Commission confirms that Section C is only required of entities which hold positions in cotton markets that must be reported on Form 204. Further, the Commission proposes that, in order for the Commission to effectively evaluate the legitimacy of a claimed bona fide hedging position, filers of Section C of Form 204 will be required to differentiate between equity stock held in their capacities as merchants, producers, and/or agents in cotton. The Commission has updated Section C of Form 204 and § 19.01(a)(3)(vi)(A) to reflect this change. The Commission does not believe this distinction will create any significant extra burden on cotton merchants, as the Commission understands that many entities in cotton markets will hold equity stocks in just one of the three capacities required on the form.
The Commission notes in response to the last commenter that Form 204 does not require the futures equivalent value of derivative positions but rather the futures equivalent of the cash position underlying a hedged position (
Another commenter suggested that the information required on Form 204 is “ambiguous” and asked the Commission to clarify what scope of, for example, stocks or fixed price purchase and sales agreements must be reported as well as what level of data precision is required.
A commenter requested that the Commission allow hedges to be reported on a “macro” basis (
In contrast, another commenter suggested that the Commission tailor the series '04 reports to require “only the information that is required to justify the claimed hedge exemption.” The commenter stated that Form 204 appears to require a market participant to list all cash market exposures, even if the exposures are not relevant to the bona fide hedge exemption being claimed, which it believes would provide no value to the Commission in determining whether a hedge was bona fide.
Another commenter stated that because the prompt (spot) month for certain referenced contracts will no longer trade as of the last Friday of the month, a market participant that exceeds a spot-month position limit who no longer has that spot-month position should not be required to report futures-equivalent positions for referenced contract on Form 204.
One commenter recommended that reporting rules require traders to identify the specific risk being hedged at the time a trade is initiated, to maintain records of termination or unwinding of a hedge when the underlying risk has been sold or otherwise resolved, and to create a practical audit trail for individual trades, to discourage traders from attempting to mask speculative trades under the guise of hedges.
The Commission reproposes that the Form 204 requires a market participant to report all cash market positions in any commodity in which the participant has exceeded a spot-month or non-spot-month position limit. Form 204 is not intended to match a firm's hedged positions to underlying cash positions on a one-to-one basis; rather, it is intended to provide a “snapshot” into the firm's cash market position in a particular commodity as of one day during a month. The information on this form is used for several purposes in addition to reviewing hedged positions, including helping Surveillance analysts understand changes in the market fundamentals in underlying commodity markets.
The Commission notes that this “snapshot” requirement has historically been—and is currently—required on Form 204 for the nine legacy agricultural contracts. Further, the Commission understands that exchange hedge application forms require similar cash position information; firms that have applied to an exchange for hedge exemptions in non-legacy contracts should already be familiar with providing cash market information when they exceed a position limit or a position accountability level.
The commenters that focus on the Form 204 as it relates to exceeding either spot-month position limits or non-spot-month position limits contrast each other: one believed Form 204 was to be filed in response to exceeding only spot-month position limits and the other that Form 204 was to be filed in response to exceeding only non-spot-month position limits. However, the Commission has never distinguished between spot-month limits and non-spot-month limits with respect to the filing of Form 204. The Commission notes that, as discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, Form 204 is used to review positions that exceed speculative limits in general, not just in the spot-month.
In response to the commenter who suggested the Commission require a “practical audit trail” for bona fide hedgers, the Commission notes that other sections of the Commission's regulations provide rules regarding detailed individual transaction recordkeeping as suggested by the commenter.
The Commission proposed to require reporting on new Form 504 for conditional spot-month limit exemptions in the natural gas commodity derivative contracts only.
Another commenter stated that Form 504 creates a burden for hedgers to track their cash business and affected contracts and to create systems to file multiple forms. The commenter noted its belief that end-users/hedgers should never be subjected to the daily filing of reports.
A third commenter suggested that the Commission should modify the data requirements for Form 504 in a manner similar to the approach used by ICE Futures U.S. for natural gas contracts, that is, requiring a description of a market participant's cash-market positions as of a specified date filed in advance of the spot-month.
In response to the first three commenters, the Commission reiterates a key distinction between the Form 504 and the Form 204. Form 504 is required of speculators that are relying upon the conditional spot-month limit exemption. Form 204 is required for hedgers that exceed position limits. To the extent a firm is hedging, there is no requirement to file the Form 504.
In the unlikely event that a firm is both hedging and relying upon the conditional spot-month limit exemption, the firm would be required to file both forms at most one day a month, given the timing of the spot-month in natural gas markets (the only market for which Form 504 will be required at first). In that event, however, the Commission believes that requiring similar information on both forms should encourage filing efficiencies rather than duplicating the burden. For example, both forms require the filer to identify fixed price purchase commitments; the Commission believes it is not overly burdensome for the same firm to report such similar information on the Form 204 and the Form 504, should a market participant ever be required to file both forms.
The Commission is not adopting the commenters' recommendations to delete the Form 504 or to require only an affirmative representation that the condition of the conditional spot-month limit exemption has been met (
In response to the third commenter, the Commission does not believe that a description of a cash market position is sufficient to allow Commission staff to administer its Surveillance program. Descriptions are not as exact as reported information, and the Commission believes the information gathered in daily Form 504 reports would be more complete—and thus more beneficial—in determining compliance and detecting and deterring manipulation.
The Commission notes that since the Commission is proposing to limit the conditional spot month limit exemption to natural gas markets, the Form 504 will only be required from participants in natural gas markets who seek to avail themselves of the conditional spot-month limit exemption and any corresponding burden will apply to only those participants.
These reports on Form 604 would explain hedgers' needs for large referenced contract positions and would give the Commission the ability to verify the positions were a bona fide hedge, with heightened daily surveillance of spot-month offsets. Persons holding any type of pass-through swap position other than the two described above would report on Form 204.
This commenter makes the same remarks regarding Form 204, but the Form 204 requires cash-market activity in a particular commodity whereas the Form 604 requires information on a particular swap market position.
The Commission is reproposing Form 604, as originally proposed.
Similarly, another commenter suggested that if the Commission does not eliminate the forms in favor of the requirements in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal the Commission should require only an annual notice that details its maximum cash market exposure that justifies an exemption, to be filed with the exchange.
One commenter suggested that the reporting date for Form 204 should be the close of business on the day prior to the beginning of the spot period and that it should be required to filed no later than the 15th day of the month following a month in which a filer exceeded a federal limit to allow the market participant sufficient time to collect and report its information.
With regards to proposed § 19.01(b)(2), one commenter recommended CFTC change the proposed next-day reporting of Form 504 for the conditional spot-month limit exemption and Form 604 for the pass-through swap offsets during the spot-month, to a monthly basis, noting
Another asserted that the daily filing requirement (Form 504) for participants who rely on the conditional spot-month limit exemption “imposes significant burdens and substantial costs on market participants.” The commenter urged a monthly rather than a daily filing of all cash market positions, which the commenter claimed is consistent with current exchange practices.
In response to the commenters' suggestions that Form 204 be filed annually, the Commission notes that throughout the course of a year, most commodities subject to federal position limits under proposed § 150.2 are subject to seasonality of prices as well as less predictable imbalances in supply and demand such that an annual filing would not provide Surveillance insight into cash market trends underlying changes in the derivative markets. This insight is necessary for Surveillance to determine whether price changes in derivative markets are caused by fundamental factors or manipulative behavior. Further, the Commission believes that an annual filing could actually be more burdensome for firms, as an annual filing could lead to special calls or requests between filings for additional information in order for the Commission's Surveillance program to fulfill its responsibility to detect and deter market manipulation. In addition, the Commission notes that while one participant's positions may remain constant throughout a year, the same is not true for many other market participants. The Commission believes that varying the filing arrangement depending on a particular market or market participant is impractical and would lead to increased burdens for market participants due to uncertainty regarding when each firm, or each firm by each commodity, is supposed to file.
The Commission is reproposing, as originally proposed, the provision in proposed § 19.01(b)(2) to require next-day, daily filing of Forms 504 and 604 in the spot-month. In response to the commenter, the Commission notes that it described its rationale for requiring Forms 504 and 604 daily during the spot-month in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
The Commission notes that, as reproposed, the Form 504 is required only for the Natural Gas commodity, which has a 3-day spot period.
As a practical matter, the Commission notes that the Form 604 is collected during the spot-month only under particular circumstances,
The Commission is reproposing §§ 19.01(b)(1)-(2), as originally proposed, with some minor clarifications to the language to make the text easier to follow. The Commission inadvertently left out of proposed § 19.01(b)(2) a reference to the requirement to file Section B of Form 604 (pass-through swap offsets held into the spot-month). No commenter appeared to be confused about this requirement, as the correct timeframe was described in multiple places on the forms published in the
Finally, the Commission is reproposing the electronic filing requirement, as originally proposed.
The Commission proposed to add a new series '04 reporting form, Form 704, to effectuate these additional and updated reporting requirements for anticipatory hedges. Persons wishing to avail themselves of an exemption for any of the anticipatory hedging transactions enumerated in the updated definition of bona fide hedging in § 150.1 are required to file an initial statement on Form 704 with the Commission at least ten days in advance of the date that such positions would be in excess of limits established in proposed § 150.2. Advance notice of a trader's intended maximum position in commodity derivative contracts to offset anticipatory risks allows the Commission to review a proposed position before a trader exceeds the position limits and, thereby, allows the Commission to prevent excessive speculation in the event that a trader were to misconstrue the purpose of these limited exemptions.
As proposed, § 150.7(f) would add a requirement for any person who files an initial statement on Form 704 to provide annual updates that detail the person's actual cash market activities related to the anticipated exemption. With an eye towards distinguishing bona fide hedging of anticipatory risks from speculation, annual reporting of actual cash market activities and estimates of remaining unused anticipated exemptions beyond the past year would enable the Commission to verify whether the person's anticipated cash market transactions closely track that person's real cash market activities. In addition, § 150.7(g) would enable the Commission to review and compare the actual cash activities and the remaining unused anticipated hedge transactions by requiring monthly reporting on Form 204. Absent monthly filing, the Commission would need to issue a special call to determine why a person's commodity derivative contract position is, for example, larger than the pro rata balance of her annually reported anticipated production.
As is the case under current § 1.48, § 150.7(h) requires that a trader's maximum sales and purchases must not exceed the lesser of the approved exemption amount or the trader's current actual anticipated transaction.
For purposes of simplicity, the special reporting requirements for anticipatory hedges are located within the Commission's position limits regime in part 150, and alongside the Commission's updated definition of bona fide hedging positions in § 150.1. Thus, the Commission is proposing to delete the reporting requirements for anticipatory hedges in current § 1.48 because that section would be duplicative.
Another commenter suggested deleting the Form 704 because it believes that no matter how extensive the Commission makes reporting requirements, the Commission will still need to request additional information on a case-by-case basis to ensure hedge transactions are legitimate.
Several commenters remarked on the cost associated with the proposed Form 704. One commenter stated that the additional reporting requirements, including new Form 704 to replace the reporting requirements under current rule 1.48, and annual and monthly reporting requirements under proposed rules 150.7(f) and 150.7(g) “will impose significant additional regulatory and compliance burdens on commercials and believes that the Commission should consider alternatives, including targeted special calls when appropriate.”
One commenter highlighted discrepancies between the instructions for Form 704 and the data on the sample Form 704. The commenter noted that instructions for column five request the “Cash commodity same as (S) or cross-hedged (C-H) with Core Reference Futures Contract (CFRC)” while the sample Form 704 lists “CL-NYMEX” as the information reported in that column. The commenter also noted that Form 704 has eleven columns, while the sample Form 704 contains only ten columns, omitting a column for “Core Referenced Futures contract (CRFC).”
The commenter also requested that the Commission clarify instructions for column six of proposed Form 704 to permit a reasonable estimate of anticipated production (or other anticipatory hedge) based on commercial experience, in the event the market participant does not have three years of data related to the anticipated hedge, for example, of anticipated production of a newly developed well.
The Commission is proposing several changes to § 150.7 in order to make the requirements for Form 704 clearer and more concise. For example, the Commission is adopting the commenter's suggestion to require the initial statement and annual update but eliminate the supplemental filing as proposed in § 150.7(e). Current § 1.48 contains a requirement for supplemental filings similar to proposed § 150.7(e), but unlike current § 1.48, the proposed rules also require monthly reporting on Form 204 and annual updates to the initial statement. After considering the commenter's concerns, the Commission believe the monthly reporting on Form 204 and annual updates on Form 704 will provide sufficient updates to the initial statement and is deleting the supplemental filing provision in proposed § 150.7(e) to reduce the burden on filers as suggested by the commenter.
In addition, the Commission is combining the list of required information on Form 704 into one section, since such information is almost identical for the initial statement and the required annual updates. In this Reproposal, two nearly identical lists of information have been combined into one list in § 150.7(d). This reorganization is intended to make compliance with § 150.7, including the filing of Form 704, simpler and easier to understand for market participants. Changes have been made throughout part 19 and part 150 to conform to the deletion of the required supplemental filing and the reorganization of § 150.7. In particular, the Commission altered § 19.01(a)(4) to reflect the deletion of the supplemental update and to clarify that persons required to file series '04 reports under § 19.00(a)(1)(iv) must file only Form 204 as required in § 150.7(e).
Finally, the sample Form 704 found in Appendix A to part 19 has also been updated to reflect the combination of the initial statement and annual update into one section. Specifically, on proposed Form 704 had two sections: Section A required information regarding the initial statement and supplemental updates and Section B was required for annual updates. Due to the above-mentioned changes, Section B has been deleted and Section A has been re-labeled as requiring information regarding both the initial statement and the annual update. In order to differentiate between a firm's initial statement and its annual updates regarding the same, the Commission has added a check-box field that requires traders to identify whether they are filing Form 704 to submit an initial statement or to file the required annual update. The Commission believes the addition of this field poses no significant additional burden; rather, the Commission believes the changes to the form, as discussed above, reduce burden to a far greater extent than a minor addition of a check box adds burden.
In response to the commenter who suggested the Commission consider target special calls and other alternatives to the annual and monthly filings, the Commission believes these filings are critical to the Commission's Surveillance program. Anticipatory hedges, because they are by definition forward-looking, require additional detail regarding the firm's commercial practices in order to ensure that a firm is not using the provisions in proposed § 150.7 to evade position limits. In contrast, special calls are backward-looking and would not provide the Commission's Surveillance program with the information needed to prevent markets from being susceptible to excessive speculation. However, the Commission expects the new filing requirements to be an improvement over current practice under § 1.48 because as facts and circumstances change, Surveillance will have a more timely understanding of the market participant's hedging needs.
The Commission notes in response to the commenter that Form 704 is filed in anticipation of risk to be assumed at a future date; market participants will need to provide a detailed description of anticipated activity but there is no requirement to analyze individual transactions or submit a memorandum.
The Commission also notes that concerns regarding a firm having to decline business, because an exemption has not been approved, are unwarranted. Series '04 reports (other than the initial statement of Form 704) are self-effectuating and do not require Commission notification to become effective. With respect to Form 704, the Commission explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal that if the Commission does not notify a market participant within the timeframe indicated in § 150.7(b), the filing becomes effective automatically.
The commenter is correct in noting that there is an error on the Sample Form 704 such that column five (“Core Referenced Futures Contract (CRFC)”) was inadvertently omitted from the Sample Form provided in the proposed rules. The Commission is amending the Sample Form 704 in the reproposed rules to ensure it accurately reflects the requirements of the Form 704 as described in § 150.7(d). Further, the Commission is deleting the condition that requires the specified operating
The Commission notes, in response to the commenter's concern regarding column 6 of Form 704, that the requirement to file the past three years of annual production is also in current § 1.48. Understanding the recent history of a firm's production is necessary to ensure the requested anticipated hedging amount is reasonable. However, the Commission notes that it may permit a reasonable, supported estimate of anticipated production for less than three years of annual production data, in the Commission's discretion, if a market participant does not have three years of data. The Commission is amending the form instructions to clarify that Commission staff could determine that such an estimate is reasonable and so would be accepted.
Finally, the Commission notes that several references to other provisions within part 150 contained in §§ 150.7(b), 150.7(d), and 150.7(h) were incorrectly cited in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal; the Commission is revising these paragraphs to ensure all references are up-to-date and correct.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission noted that it was proposing three sets of Commission rules under which an exchange could take action to recognize certain bona fide hedging positions and to grant certain spread exemptions, with regard to both exchange-set and federal position limits.
As the Commission observed at that time, its authority to permit certain exchanges to recognize positions as bona fide hedging positions is found, in part, in CEA section 4a(c)(1), and under CEA section 8a(5), which provides that the Commission may make such rules as, in the judgment of the Commission, are reasonably necessary to effectuate any of the provisions or to accomplish any of the purposes of the CEA. CEA section 4a(c)(1) provides that no CFTC rule applies to “transaction or positions which are shown to be bona fide hedging transactions or positions,” as those terms are defined by Commission rule consistent with the purposes of the CEA.
The Commission observed that for decades, exchanges have operated as self-regulatory organizations, and pointed out further that these self-regulatory organizations have been charged with carrying out regulatory functions, including, since 2001, complying with core principles, and operate subject to the regulatory oversight of the Commission pursuant to the CEA as a whole, and more specifically, CEA sections 5 and 5h.
(i) In 1952, the Second Circuit reviewed an SEC order that failed to set aside a penalty fixed by NASD suspending the defendant broker-dealer from membership.
(ii) In 1977, the Third Circuit, in
(iii) In 1982, the Ninth Circuit considered the constitutionality of Congress' delegation to NASD in
The Commission also noted that under its proposal, it would retain the power to approve or disapprove the rules of exchanges, under standards set out pursuant to the CEA, and to review an exchange's compliance with those rules.
For the avoidance of doubt, the Commission is still reviewing comments received on these provisions. The Commission is proposing to finalize the general definition of bona fide hedging position based on the standards of CEA section 4a(c), and may further define the bona fide hedging position definition consistent with those standards.
The Commission noted its belief that permitting exchanges to so recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions is consistent with its statutory
The Commission received some comments on its 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that addressed concerns only marginally responsive to that proposal; the Commission will address those comments in connection with the relevant provisions.
Several commenters supported the Commission's proposal to allow exchanges to recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedge positions with respect to federal speculative position limits;
Similarly, some commenters expressed the view that there could be circumstances where multiple
Others did not support providing exchanges with such authority. Instead, those commenters asserted that only the Commission can appropriately and comprehensively administer exemptions to federal limits,
Regarding implementation of final regulations, one commenter requested that the CFTC provide a sufficient phase-in period for exchanges to review non-enumerated hedges ahead of implementation because it is hard to discern the number of current positions that will not be considered bona fide hedging positions in the proposed rule unless granted a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position e exemption from an exchange.
As explained further below, in this Reproposal, the Commission is adopting certain amendments to the proposed § 150.9 and providing certain clarifications. In response to various general comments and recommendations for the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position process, the Commission provides the following responses.
In response to comments that the Commission should give exchanges greater leeway or discretion for purposes of federal position limits in the exemption process and expand DCM's current authority to grant bona fide hedge exemptions, the Commission believes, as noted above, that it would be an illegal delegation to give full discretion to exchanges to recognize positions or transactions as bona fide hedging positions, for purposes of federal position limits, without reasonably fixed statutory standards (such as the requirement that exchanges use the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition, which incorporates the standards of CEA section 4a(c)), and with no ability for the Commission to make a de novo review.
Similarly, regarding requests to provide exchanges with a method for a generic recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position that allows an exchange to announce generic recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions for hedgers that satisfy certain facts and circumstances, the Commission notes that, as discussed above, it would be an illegal delegation of Commission authority to give full discretion to exchanges to recognize positions or transactions as enumerated bona fide hedging positions without reasonably fixed statutory standards, and without review by the Commission, for purposes of federal position limits. Instead, the Commission points out that any exchange can petition the Commission under § 13.2 for recognition of a typical position as an enumerated bona fide hedging position if the exchange believes there is a fact pattern that is so certain as to not require a facts and circumstances review.
In this light, the Commission is reproposing a consistent approach, subject to amendments described below, for processing recognitions of bona fide hedging positions for purposes of federal position limits (
The Commission, however, clarifies that exchanges can recognize strategies as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions for purposes of federal position limits (including those that the Commission has not enumerated) so long as a facts-and-circumstances review leads the exchange to believe that such strategies meet the definition of bona fide hedging position. Further, regarding comments that exchanges should not have authority to grant exemptions, the Commission disagrees and believes the exchange's experience administering position limits to its actively traded contract, and the Commission's de novo review of exchange determinations that positions are bona fide hedging positions (afterwards) are adequate to guard against or remedy any conflicts of interest. The Commission points out that it has had a long history of cooperative enforcement of position limits with DCMs and, in addition notes that when recognizing non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions for purposes of federal limits, exchanges are required to use the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition.
As to the concerns that allowing bona fide hedging position determinations for swap positions that are traded by high frequency trading strategies will exacerbate price volatility to the detriment of commercial hedgers and impact the Commission's ability to review and oversee exchange determinations (especially if the Commission does not have access to open interest swap data and the intra-day high frequency trading data to determine whether such exchange-granted determination is economically appropriate), the Commission notes that it does have access to open interest swap data, trade data and order data. The Commission views its access to open interest swap data, trade data and order data as well as its ability under § 150.9 to review all exchange recognitions as sufficient to allow it to carry out its responsibilities under the Act.
Regarding implementation timing, the Commission is proposing to implement a delayed compliance date after publication of a final rule, as discussed above.
The Commission contemplated in proposed § 150.9(a)(1) that exchanges may voluntarily elect to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications by filing new rules or rule amendments with the Commission pursuant to part 40 of the Commission's regulations. The Commission anticipated that, consistent with current practice, most exchanges will self-certify such new rules or rule amendments pursuant to § 40.6. The Commission expected that the self-certification process should be a low burden for exchanges, especially for those that already recognize non-enumerated positions meeting the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 1.3(z)(1).
As noted above and as explained in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, while current § 150.5 regarding exchange-set position limits pre-dates the CFMA “the CFMA core principles regime concerning position limitations or accountability for exchanges had the effect of undercutting the mandatory rules promulgated by the Commission in § 150.5. Since the CFMA amended the CEA in 2000, the Commission has retained § 150.5, but only as guidance on, and acceptable practice for, compliance with DCM core principle 5.” December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, 78 FR at 75754.
The DCM application processes for bona fide hedging position exemptions from exchange-set position limits generally reference or incorporate the general definition of bona fide hedging position contained in current § 1.3(z)(1), and the Commission believes the exchange processes for approving non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications are at least to some degree informed by the Commission process outlined in current § 1.47.
Proposed § 150.9(a)(1) provided that exchange rules must incorporate the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1. It also provided that, with respect to a commodity derivative position for which an exchange elects to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications, (i) the position must be in a commodity derivative contract that is a referenced contract; (ii) the exchange must list such commodity derivative contract for trading; (iii) such commodity derivative contract must be actively traded on such exchange; (iv) such exchange must have established position limits for such commodity derivative contract; and (v) such exchange must have at least one year of experience administering exchange-set position limits for such commodity derivative contract. The requirement for one year of experience was intended as a proxy for a minimum level of expertise gained in monitoring futures or swaps trading in a particular physical commodity.
The Commission believed that the exchange non-enumerated bona fide hedging position process should be limited only to those exchanges that have at least one year of experience overseeing exchange-set position limits in an actively traded referenced contract in a particular commodity because an individual exchange may not be familiar enough with the specific needs and differing practices of the commercial participants in those markets for which the exchange does not list any actively traded referenced contract in a particular commodity. Thus, if a referenced contract is not actively traded on an exchange that elects to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications for positions in such referenced contract, that exchange might not be incentivized to protect or manage the relevant commodity market, and its interests might not be aligned with the policy objectives of the Commission as expressed in CEA section 4a. The Commission expected that an individual exchange will describe how it will determine whether a particular listed referenced contract is actively traded in its rule submission, based on its familiarity with the specific needs and
The Commission was also mindful that some market participants, such as commercial end users in some circumstances, may not be required to trade on an exchange, but may nevertheless desire to have a particular derivative position recognized as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position. The Commission noted its belief that commercial end users should be able to avail themselves of an exchange's non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application process in lieu of requesting a staff interpretive letter under § 140.99 or seeking CEA section 4a(a)(7) exemptive relief. This is because the Commission believed that exchanges that list particular referenced contracts would have enough information about the markets in which such contracts trade and would be sufficiently familiar with the specific needs and differing practices of the commercial participants in such markets in order to knowledgeably recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions for derivatives positions in commodity derivative contracts included within a particular referenced contract. The Commission also viewed this to be consistent with the efficient allocation of Commission resources.
Consistent with the restrictions regarding the offset of risks arising from a swap position in CEA section 4a(c)(2)(B), proposed § 150.9(a)(1) would not permit an exchange to recognize a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position involving a commodity index contract and one or more referenced contracts. That is, an exchange may not recognize a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position where a bona fide hedging position could not be recognized for a pass through swap offset of a commodity index contract.
In connection with the requirement under § 150.9 to apply the bona fide hedging definition to recognitions, two commenters requested that the Commission specifically allow exchanges to recognize anticipatory merchandising as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions should the facts and circumstances warrant including those rejected strategies [transactions or positions that fail to meet the `change in value' requirement or the `economically appropriate test'].
Another commenter expressed the view that the Commission should extend the process proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal to include risk management exemptions.
A commenter recommended that the rules clarify that the Exchanges may recognize and grant exemptions on the basis of a strategy, or hedging need, or a combination of strategies or hedging requirements associated with managing an ongoing business.
Separately, one commenter recommended that “the Commission should confirm that exchanges may continue to adopt their own rules for exemptions from speculative position limits for futures contracts that are subject to DCM limits, but not to federal limits,”
A commenter expressed the view that the Commission should not “categorically prohibit exchanges from granting non-enumerated and anticipatory hedge exemptions, as appropriate, during the spot month” and reminded the Commission that orderly trading requirements remain applicable to all positions, as provided under the bona fide hedging position definition. The commenter further expressed the view that the statutory definition of
Several commenters were generally against the application of the five-day rule to non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions, and recommended that the Commission authorize the exchanges to grant non-enumerated hedge and spread exemptions during the last five days of trading or the spot period, and other alternatives and proposed regulation text.
Several commenters recommended that the Commission not adopt the proposed “active trading” and “one year experience” requirements regarding a DCM's qualification to administer exemptions from federal position limits.
In the alternative, one commenter argues that one year of experience in administering position limits in similar contracts within a particular “asset class” would be a more reasonable requirement.
One commenter expressed the view that since the exchanges have been working with commercial end user for several decades and currently have a process under § 1.3(z) that may contain specific scenarios that work well and are not listed in the 2016 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission should deem every currently recognized hedge strategy by any exchange as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position which would eliminate disruption and encourage the autonomy of the exchanges.
The commenter also expressed the view that, with respect to the status of previously exchange-recognized non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions for which such exchange no longer provides an annual review, the non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions should remain a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position and the participants utilizing that strategy should have ample notice that the exchange will no longer provide the annual review in order to allow time for the individual entity to apply to the CFTC directly for a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemption.
Another commenter requested Commission clarification regarding an exchange's obligation with respect to recognizing and monitoring non-enumerated bona fide hedging position determinations for OTC positions. The commenter cited to preamble language to support the possibility of an obligation, but argued that the text of proposed § 150.9 does not mention or contemplate such requests for OTC positions. The commenter also questioned whether such recognition is feasible given the exchanges' lack of visibility into OTC markets.
The Commission is reproposing the rule, as originally proposed, subject to the amendments described below.
Regarding comments that the Commission should permit the recognition of anticipatory merchandising as non-enumerated bona fide hedging strategies, as noted above, while exchanges' recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions must be consistent with the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition, the Commission agrees that exchanges should, in each case, make a facts-and-circumstances determination as to whether to recognize an anticipatory hedge as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, consistent with the Commission's recognition “that there can be a gradation of probabilities that an anticipated transaction will occur.”
In response to the request that the Commission expand the proposed bona fide hedging position recognition process to include risk management exemptions, the Commission notes that this suggestion is contrary to the intent of Congress (to narrow the bona fide hedging position definition to preclude commodity index hedging, a.k.a. risk management exemptions).
Regarding comments requesting clarification on exchange authority to recognize as bona fide hedging positions multiple hedging strategies, the Commission clarifies that a single application to an exchange can specify and apply to multiple hedging strategies or needs.
As to comments requesting clarification regarding whether the proposed application process applies to exchange-set limits, the Commission notes that the requirements of reproposed § 150.9(a) addresses processes for recognition of bona fide hedge positions for purposes of federal limits and not exemption processes such as those exchanges currently implement and oversee for any exchange-set limits. In addition, such processes for exchange-set limits that are lower than the federal limit could differ as long as the exemption provided by the exchange is capped at the level of the applicable federal limit in § 150.2.
The Commission considered the recommendations that the Commission: Allow exchanges to recognize a position as a bona fide hedging position for up to a five-day retroactive period in circumstances where market participants need to exceed limits to address a sudden and unforeseen hedging need; specifically authorize exchanges to recognize positions as bona fide hedging positions and grant spread exemptions during the last five days of trading or less, and/or delegate to the exchanges for their consideration the decision whether to apply the five-day rule to a particular contract after their evaluation of the particular facts and circumstances. As the Commission clarified above, the reproposed rules do not apply the prudential condition of the five-day rule to non-enumerated hedging positions other than to pass through swap offsets.
Regarding comments on the “active trading” and “one year of experience” requirements under proposed § 150.9(a)(1)(v), as noted in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal preamble
The Commission is, therefore, amending § 150.9(a)(1)(v) to clarify that the active one-year of experience requirement can be met by any contract listed in the particular referenced contract.
In addition, regarding the Commission's authority to adopt this standard, the Commission notes that CEA section 4a(c) provides that the Commission “shall” define what constitutes a bona fide hedging transaction or position. In light of this responsibility, the Commission believes it is important that exchanges authorized to recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions have experience (as indicated by their one year of experience regulating a particular contract) and interests (as indicated by their actively traded contract) that are aligned with the Commission's interests. The commenter provides no alternatives to the one-year experience in the actively traded contract as proxies for an exchange's interests being aligned with that of the Commission.
The Commission clarifies, however, that an exchange can petition the Commission, pursuant to § 140.99, for a waiver of the one-year experience requirement if such exchange believes that their experience and interests are aligned with the Commission's interests with respect to recognizing non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions.
With respect to comments regarding currently recognized exchange-granted non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions, as noted above, the Commission believes the statutory directive to define bona fide hedging position narrows the current § 1.3(z)(1) definition. As a result, currently recognized bona fide hedging strategies may not meet the new narrower bona fide hedging position standards. While certain strategies may not meet the definition of bona fide hedging position reproposed in this rulemaking, to reduce the potential for market disruption by forced liquidations, the Commission proposes, as discussed above, to clarify and expand the relief in § 150.3(f) (previously granted exemptions) to grandfather previously granted risk-management strategies applicable to previously established derivative positions in commodity index contract.
Regarding comments that exchanges should be required to provide additional notice or phase-out time for any bona fide hedging position recognitions that may expire, the Commission notes that, under reproposed § 150.5, exchanges may issue recognition determinations for one year only. As such a market participant is provided a one-year notice for the potential expiration of the recognition of their position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, and may seek recognition of the position from another (or the same) DCM, or from the CFTC directly prior to the expiration of the one-year period. The Commission is not proposing to authorize exchanges to provide an unlimited recognition of positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, and is not proposing to require exchanges to provide further notice to market participants prior to the expiration of previous determinations.
Regarding comments requesting a clarification with respect to OTC positions, the Commission clarifies that exchanges do not have an obligation to monitor for compliance with OTC-only positions.
The Commission believed that there is a core set of information and materials necessary to enable an exchange to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the facts and circumstances attendant to a position satisfy the requirements of CEA section 4a(c). Accordingly, the Commission proposed to require in § 150.9(a)(3)(i), (iii) and (iv) that all applicants submit certain factual statements and representations. Proposed § 150.9(a)(3)(i) required a description of the position in the commodity derivative contract for which the application is submitted and the offsetting cash positions.
The Commission also proposed to require in § 150.9(a)(3)(ii) and (v) that all applicants submit detailed information to demonstrate why the position satisfies the requirements of CEA section 4a(c)
Under the proposal, the Commission would permit an exchange to recognize a smaller than requested position for purposes of exchange-set limits. For instance, an exchange might recognize a smaller than requested position that otherwise satisfies the requirements of CEA section 4a(c) if the exchange determines that recognizing a larger position would be disruptive to the exchange's markets. This is consistent with current exchange practice. This is also consistent with DCM and SEF core principles. DCM core principle 5(A) provides that, “[t]o reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or congestion (especially during trading during the delivery month), the board of trade shall adopt for each contract of the board of trade, as is necessary and appropriate, position limitations or position accountability for speculators.”
By requiring in proposed § 150.9(a)(3) that all applicants submit a core set of information and materials, the Commission anticipated that all exchanges would develop similar non-
Proposed § 150.9(a)(4) set forth certain timing requirements that an exchange must include in its rules for the non-enumerated bona fide hedge application process. A person intending to rely on an exchange's recognition of a position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position would be required to submit an application in advance and to reapply at least on an annual basis. This is consistent with commenters' views and DCMs' current annual exemption review process.
The Commission did not propose to prescribe time-limited periods (
One commenter expressed the view that it does not support different application processes for novel and non-novel hedges.
Two commenters expressed the view that the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal should be revised to eliminate, to the maximum extent possible, the “overly prescriptive rules” governing what exchanges must collect from non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applicants and instead give the exchanges more discretion and flexibility to fashion non-enumerated bona fide hedging position rules that are more closely aligned with current hedge approval processes.
One commenter recommended that the Commission, to the greatest extent possible, allow the exchanges to administer exemptions for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, enumerated bona fide hedging positions, and spread positions in the same manner as they have been to date.
Several commenters recommended that the Commission not require exchanges to demand and collect three years of cash market information in order to process an entity's application for a non-enumerated bona fide hedging exemption. According to the commenters, it would be burdensome on both the applicant and the exchange, as well as unnecessary and not authorized by the CEA.
One commenter expressed the view that exchanges do not need the “detailed information” that the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal requires of market participants seeking an exchange-administered hedge exemption. The commenter believes that requiring an exemption applicant to perform its own legal and economic analysis would be cost prohibitive and impractical. Further, the commenter asserted that it is unclear whether an exchange could still grant an exemption even if it disagrees with an applicant's analysis.
Some commenters requested clarification regarding the proposed § 150.9(a)(3) requirement with respect to
One commenter expressed the view that it is concerned regarding how exchanges should coordinate the granting of exemptions with respect to contracts on the same underlying commodities that trade on different exchanges, and requests guidance from the Commission on that matter.
In connection with proposed § 150.9(a)(4), several commenters expressed the view that the Commission should allow exchanges to recognize an enumerated or non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemption retroactively in circumstances where market participants need to exceed limits to address a sudden and unforeseen hedging need.
The Commission has determined to repropose the rule, largely as originally proposed, except that the Commission has revised the regulatory text to: (i) Clarify what the statement must address under § 150.9(a)(3)(iii) and 150.9(a)(3)(iv); and (ii) require only one year of history rather than three years in § 150.9(a)(3)(iv), each as described further below.
Regarding comments that the Commission should not have different application processes for novel vs. non-novel products, (pursuant to proposed § 150.9(a)(2)) the Commission is clarifying that exchanges are authorized but not required to have a different application process for novel and non-novel hedge applications. Further, § 150.9 does not prevent industry from working together to adopt a universal application for novel and non-novel hedges.
Regarding comments on current exchange processes for administering exemptions, and comments regarding the information required in the application process, reproposed § 150.9 would require that exchanges collect a minimum amount of information, and exchanges would have discretion to require additional information. That is, § 150.9 provides parameters for a basic application and processing process for the recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions; the parameters allow exchanges flexibility, while also facilitating Commission review. Also, the Commission reiterates that reproposed § 150.9 addresses federal limits and not exchange exemption processes, such as those exchanges currently implement and oversee for any exchange-set limits. Such processes for exchange-set limits that are lower than the federal limit could differ as long as the exemption provided by the exchange is capped at the level of the applicable federal limit in § 150.2.
Regarding concerns that § 150.9(a)(3)(ii), as proposed, required an application to include a legal opinion or analysis for exchange recognition of a position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, the Commission clarifies that the regulation does not require applicants to obtain a legal opinion or analysis. Rather, under § 150.9(a)(3), it is the exchange's duty to make a determination regarding whether a contract meets the application requirements; it may ask for additional information than the minimum required if it determines that further information is necessary to make its determination. To further clarify this point, the Commission is proposing the following change to § 150.9(a)(3)(ii) to provide that the exchange require at a minimum “information to demonstrate why the position satisfies the requirements of section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1,” rather than “detailed information.” The same change is also being proposed for § 150.9(a)(3(iv) for the same reasons.
Regarding interpreting § 150.9(a)(3)(iii) as requiring the inclusion in a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application of a statement regarding the maximum gross positions to be acquired by the applicant during the year after the application is submitted, the Commission clarifies that the provision requires only information related to the contract for which the application is submitted; consequently, the Commission is reproposing § 150.9(a)(3)(iii) to require a “statement concerning the maximum size of all gross positions in derivative contracts for which the application is submitted.” The Commission further clarifies that the statement should be based on a good faith estimate.
In addition, the Commission notes that the minimum information to be required by the exchange under § 150.9(a)(3)(iii), would be for the gross position for the following year, since the applicant will need to reapply each year for exchange recognition of its position as a bona fide hedging position.
With respect to the condition that exchanges require applicants to provide three years of data supporting their application, the Commission is reproposing § 150.9(a)(3)(iv) to require only one year of data.
Regarding commenter concerns about whether or how exchanges should coordinate in granting exemptions consistently across exchanges, the reproposed rules would allow each exchange to use their own expertise to decide which positions should be recognized as bona fide hedging positions and what limit levels to impose for their venue. The Commission notes that it serves in an oversight role to monitor exchange determinations and position limits across exchanges. The Reproposal does not require exchanges to coordinate with respect to making such determinations; however, neither does reproposed § 150.9 prohibit coordination.
Regarding application of the five-day rule to non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, as the Commission discussed above, the Reproposal does not apply the prudential condition of the five-day rule to non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions. As discussed in connection with the definition of bona fide hedging position and in the context of § 150.5(a),
Regarding exchanges' authority to retroactively recognize positions as bona
Proposed § 150.9(a)(5) made it clear that the position will be deemed to be recognized as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position when an exchange recognizes it; proposed § 150.9(d) provided the process through which the exchange's recognition would be subject to review by the Commission.
Several commenters proposed that the Commission clarify or confirm that exchanges are not required to divulge confidential information (such as trade secrets, intellectual property, the market participant's identity or position) when providing the summary description of non-enumerated bona fide hedge positions.
Under proposed § 150.9(a)(8), an exchange could elect to request the Commission review a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application that raises novel or complex issues using the process set forth in proposed § 150.9(d).
The Commission is reproposing § 150.9(a)(8), as originally proposed.
Exchanges would be required to store and produce records pursuant to current § 1.31 of the Commission's regulations, and would be subject to requests for information pursuant to other applicable Commission regulations including, for example, § 38.5. Consistent with current § 1.31, the Commission clarified its expectation that the records would be readily accessible until the termination, maturity, or expiration date of the recognition and during the first two years of the subsequent five year period. In addition, the Commission did not intend in proposed § 150.9(b)(1) to create any new obligation for an exchange to record conversations with applicants, which includes their representatives; however, the Commission expected that an exchange would preserve any written or electronic notes of verbal interactions with such parties.
Finally, the Commission emphasized that parties who avail themselves of exemptions under § 150.3(a), as proposed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, would be subject to the recordkeeping requirements of § 150.3(g), as well as
The Commission envisioned that the proposed report would specify the maximum size and/or size limitations by contract month and/or type of limit (
The Commission noted that the proposed weekly report would support its surveillance program by facilitating the tracking of non-enumerated bona fide hedges recognized by exchanges,
The Commission noted that in certain instances, information included in the proposed weekly report could prompt the Commission to request records required to be maintained by an exchange pursuant to proposed § 150.9(b).
In addition, proposed 150.9(c)(2) required an exchange to submit to the Commission any report made to the exchange by an applicant, pursuant to proposed § 150.9(a)(6), that notified the exchange that the applicant owned or controlled a commodity derivative position that the exchange had recognized as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, at least monthly,
Proposed § 150.9(c)(3)(i) and (ii) would require an exchange, unless instructed otherwise by the Commission, to submit weekly reports under proposed § 150.9(c)(1), and applicant reports under proposed § 150.9(c)(2). Proposed § 150.9(c)(3)(i) and (ii) contemplated that, in order to facilitate the processing of such reports, and the analysis of the information contained therein, the Commission would establish reporting and transmission standards, and that it may require reports to be submitted to the Commission using an electronic data format, coding structure and electronic data transmission procedures approved in writing by the Commission, as specified on the Forms and Submissions page at
The Commission noted that, under the proposal, the SRO's recognition was tentative, because the Commission would reserve the power to review the recognition, subject to the reasonably fixed statutory standards in CEA section 4a(c)(2) (directing the CFTC to define the term bona fide hedging position) that are incorporated into the Commission's proposed general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1. The SRO's recognition would also be constrained by the SRO's rules, which would be subject to CFTC review under the proposal. The Commission pointed out that SROs are parties subject to Commission authority, their rules are subject to Commission review and their actions are subject to Commission de novo review under the proposal—SRO rules and actions may be changed by the Commission at any time. In addition, the Commission noted that under the proposal, the exchange was required to make its determination consistent with both CEA section 4a(c) and the Commission's general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1. Further, the Commission noted that CEA section 4a(c)(1) requires a position to be shown to be bona fide as defined by the Commission.
Under the proposal, the Commission could decide to review a pending application prior to disposition by an exchange, but anticipated that it would most likely wait to review applications until after some action has already been taken by an exchange. As proposed, § 150.9(d)(2) and (3) would require the Commission to notify the exchange and applicable applicant that they had 10 business days from the date of the request to provide any supplemental information. The Commission noted that this approach provided the exchanges and the particular market participant with an opportunity to respond to any issues raised by the Commission.
During the period of any Commission review of an application, an applicant could continue to rely upon any recognition previously granted by the exchange. If the Commission determined that remediation was necessary, the Commission would provide for a commercially reasonable amount of time for the market participant to comply with limits after announcement of the Commission's decision under proposed § 150.9(d)(4).
One commenter requested that the Commission define in more detail, in the final rule, how this review process will work.
Some commenters opined that the Commission should instead explicitly require Commission review and approval of all hedge exemption requests received by an exchange.
Regarding the recommendation that the Commission limit its available time to review exchange granted exemptions, this limitation may appear inconsistent with case law regarding authorizations for self-regulatory organizations to make determinations, subject to de novo agency review.
In response to comments that the Commission should create a new enumerated hedge for any non-enumerated bona fide hedging position determination the Commission reviews and affirms, the Commission clarifies that under the de novo review standard, no deference is provided to a prior determination; rather, the Commission will review as if no decision has been previously made. This is the same as a “hearing de novo.”
The reproposed rule is confined to federal limits and does not interfere with existing exemption processes that exchanges currently implement and oversee with regard to exchange-set limits. Exchanges remain bound by the bona fide hedging position definition in this part for any recognition for purposes of federal limits. But, as noted above, in regards to reproposed § 150.9(a), exchange processes for exchange-set limits that are lower than the federal limit could differ as long as
Regarding requests to revise the Commission's review process (
The Commission did not receive comments on § 150.9(e) (nor on § 150.10(e)), and is reproposing § 150.9(e), as originally proposed, for the reasons explained in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal.
The Commission proposed to delegate certain of its authorities under proposed § 150.9 (and § 150.10 and § 150.11), to the Director of the Commission's Division of Market Oversight, or such other employee or employees as the Director designated from time to time. In § 150.9(f), the Commission proposed to delegate, until it ordered otherwise, to the Director of the Division of Market Oversight or such other employee or employees as the Director designated from time to time, the authorities under certain parts of §§ 150.9(a); 150.9(c); 150.9(d); and 150.9(e). As noted, similar delegations were contained in proposed § 150.10(f) and § 150.11(e) for spread exemptions and enumerated anticipatory hedge exemptions, respectively.
Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(i), § 150.10(f)(1)(i) and § 150.11(e)(1)(i) delegated the Commission's authority to the Division of Market Oversight to provide instructions regarding the submission of information required to be reported to the Commission by an exchange, and to specify the manner and determine the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures for submitting such information. Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(v) and § 150.10(f)(1)(v) delegated the Commission's review authority under proposed § 150.9(e) and § 150.10(e), respectively, to DMO with respect to summaries of types of recognized non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, and types of spread exemptions, that were required to be posted on an exchange's Web site pursuant to proposed § 150.9(a)(7) and § 150.10(a)(7), respectively.
Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(i), § 150.10(f)(1)(i) and § 150.11(e)(1)(i) delegated the Commission's authority to the Division of Market Oversight to agree to or reject a request by an exchange to consider an application for recognition of an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position, or an application for a spread exemption. Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(iii), § 150.10(f)(1)(iii) and § 150.11(e)(1)(iii) delegated the Commission's authority to review any application for recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position, or application for a spread exemption, and all records required to be maintained by an exchange in connection with such application. Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(iii), § 150.10(f)(1)(iii) and § 150.11(e)(1)(iii) also delegated the Commission's authority to request such records, and to request additional information in connection with such application from the exchange or from the applicant.
Proposed § 150.9(f)(1)(iv) and § 150.10(f)(1)(iv) delegated the Commission's authority, under proposed § 150.9(d)(2) and § 150.10(d)(2), respectively, to determine that an application for recognition of an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, or an application for a spread exemption, required additional analysis or review, and to provide notice to the exchange and the particular applicant that they had 10 days to supplement such application.
The Commission did not propose to delegate its authority under proposed § 150.9(d)(3) or § 150.10(d)(3) to make a final determination as to the exchange's disposition. The Commission stated that if an exchange's disposition raised concerns regarding consistency with the Act or presents novel or complex issues, then the Commission should make the final determination, after taking into consideration any supplemental information provided by the exchange or the applicant.
One commenter recommended that the Commission clarify the delegation provisions referenced in RFC 31 by expressly stating that “the Commission, not DMO, now and always will retain the ultimate authority to grant or deny Exemption applications.”
The Commission is reproposing the delegation provisions, as originally proposed. With regard to the comment received, the Commission notes that, as provided in both proposed and reproposed § 150.9(f)(3), it retains the authority to make the final determination to grant or deny hedge exemption applications submitted pursuant to this rulemaking. However, the Commission also points out that any decisions of an existing Commission under this rulemaking cannot effectively bind a future commission, since such future Commission could amend or revoke such a rule.
In the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to permit exchanges, by rule, to exempt from federal position limits certain spread transactions, as authorized by CEA section 4a(a)(1),
The Commission pointed out that, in current § 150.3(a)(3), the Commission exempts spread positions “between single months of a futures contract and/or, on a futures-equivalent basis, options thereon, outside of the spread month, in the same crop year,” subject to certain limitations. 17 CFR 150.3(a)(3).
As noted in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, prior to the passage of the Dodd-Frank Act, the Commission exercised its exemptive authority pertaining to spread transactions in promulgating current § 150.3. Current § 150.3 provides that the position limits set in § 150.2 may be exceeded to the extent such positions are spread or arbitrage positions between single months of a futures contract and/or, on a futures-equivalent basis, options thereon, outside of the spot month, in the same crop year; provided, however, that such spread or arbitrage positions, when combined with any other net positions in the single month, do not exceed the all-months limit set forth in § 150.2. In addition, the Commission has permitted DCMs, in setting their own position limits under the terms of current § 150.5(a), to exempt spread, straddle or arbitrage positions or to fix limits that apply to such positions that are different from limits fixed for other positions.
Under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the exemption in current § 150.3(a)(3) for spread or arbitrage positions between single months of a futures contract or options thereon, outside the spot month would be deleted. As the Commission noted, the proposal would instead maintain the current practice in § 150.2 of setting single-month limits at the same levels as all-months limits, which would render the “spread” exemption unnecessary.
The Commission also noted that the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal would codify guidance in proposed § 150.5(a)(2)(ii) to allow an exchange to grant exemptions from exchange-set position limits for intramarket and intermarket spread positions (as those terms were defined in proposed § 150.1) involving commodity derivative contracts subject to the federal limits. To be eligible for the exemption in proposed § 150.5(a)(2)(ii), intermarket and intramarket spread positions, under the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, would have to be outside of the spot month for physical delivery contracts, and intramarket spread positions could not exceed the federal all-months limit when combined with any other net positions in the single month. As proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, § 150.5(a)(2)(iii) would require traders to apply to the exchange for any exemption, including spread exemptions, from its speculative position limit rules.
Several commenters responding to the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal requested that the Commission provide a spread exemption to federal position limits.
In response to these comments, the Commission proposed in its 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal
Proposed § 150.10 and the public comments relevant to each proposed subsection are discussed below.
As discussed in greater detail below, the Commission is reproposing § 150.10, largely as originally proposed. Some changes were made in response to concerns raised by commenters; other changes conform to changes made in § 150.9 or § 150.11. Finally, several non-substantive changes were made in response to commenter questions to provide greater clarity.
The Commission contemplated in proposed § 150.10(a)(1) that exchanges could voluntarily elect to process spread exemption applications, by filing new rules or rule amendments with the Commission pursuant to part 40 of the Commission's regulations.
Consistent with the restrictions regarding the offset of risks arising from a swap position in CEA section 4a(c)(2)(B), proposed § 150.10(a)(1) would not permit an exchange to recognize a spread between a commodity index contract and one or more referenced contracts. That is, an exchange could not grant a spread exemption where a bona fide hedging position could not be recognized for a pass through swap offset of a commodity index contract.
The Commission noted that for inter-commodity spreads in which different components of the spread were traded on different exchanges, the exemption granted by one exchange would be recognized by the Commission as an exemption from federal limits for the applicable referenced contract(s), but would not bind the exchange(s) that listed the other components of the spread to recognize the exemption for purposes of that other exchange(s)' position limits. In such cases, a trader seeking such inter-commodity spread exemptions would need to apply separately for a spread exemption from each exchange-set position limit.
Two commenters recommended that the Commission should, to the greatest extent possible, allow the exchanges to administer exemptions for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, enumerated bona fide hedges, and spread positions in the same manner as they have been to date and allow exchanges to continue to independently evaluate exemption applications by relying on the exchange's extensive knowledge of the markets.
Five commenters recommended that the Commission not adopt the “active trading” and “one year experience” requirements as proposed in the supplement regarding a DCM's qualification to administer exemptions from federal position limits.
Alternatively, several commenters expressed views against the
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(1), as originally proposed with one clarification explained below. In reproposing § 150.10(a)(1), the Commission provides a basic application process for exchanges that elect to process spread exemption applications to federal limits. This process allows exchanges flexibility while also facilitating the Commission's review of exchange granted exemptions. The Commission notes that exchanges have authority to determine whether or not to apply the § 150.10(a)(1) process to spread exemptions from exchange-set limits that are lower than federal limits.
Regarding the comment that the one-year experience and active trading qualification requirements could harm the ability for market participants to effectively manage their risks because the qualification requirements would limit the number of exchanges that could grant exemptions,
Finally, the Commission clarifies that an exchange can petition the Commission for a waiver of the one-year experience requirement pursuant to § 140.99 of the Commission's regulations if such exchange believes that their experience and interests are aligned with the Commission's interests with respect to recognizing spread positions.
Regarding comments that the Commission should be the sole authority to make a final hedge or spread exemption determination, or that the Exchange's one-year of experience administering position limits to its actively traded contract and the Commission's de novo review are inadequate, the Commission disagrees. The Commission believes the exchange's one year of experience administering position limits to its actively traded contract,
Proposed § 150.10(a)(2) specifies a non-exclusive list of the type of spreads that an exchange might exempt from position limits, including calendar spreads; quality differential spreads; processing spreads (such as energy “crack” or soybean “crush” spreads); and product or by-product differential spreads. The Commission pointed out that this list was not exhaustive, but reflected common types of spread activity that might enhance liquidity in commodity derivative markets, thereby facilitating the ability of bona-fide hedgers to put on and offset positions in those markets. For example, trading activity in many commodity derivative markets is concentrated in the nearby contract month, but a hedger might need to offset risk in deferred months where derivative trading activity may be less active. A calendar spread trader could provide such liquidity without exposing himself or herself to the price risk inherent in an outright position in a deferred month. Processing spreads can serve a similar function. For example, a soybean processor might seek to hedge his or her processing costs by entering into a “crush” spread,
The Commission anticipated that a spread exemption request might include spreads that were “legged in,” that is, carried out in two steps, or alternatively were “combination trades,” that is, all components of the spread were executed simultaneously.
This proposal, the Commission observed, would not limit the granting of spread exemptions to positions outside the spot month, unlike the existing spread exemption provisions in current § 150.3(a)(3), or in § 150.5(a)(2)(ii) as proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal. The proposal responded to specific requests of commenters to permit spread exemptions in the spot month. The Commission pointed out
The Commission proposed to revise the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal in the manner described above because, as it noted in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal as well as in the examples above, permitting spread exemptions in the spot month may further one of the four policy objectives set forth in section 4a(a)(3)(b) of the Act: To ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers.
The Commission also discussed that it was concerned, among other things, about protecting the price discovery process in the core referenced futures contracts, particularly as those contracts approach expiration. Accordingly, as an alternative, the Commission considered whether to prohibit an exchange from granting spread exemptions that would be applicable during the lesser of the last five days of trading or the time period for the spot month.
Several commenters expressed the view that exchanges must be allowed to use their experience to determine whether to grant spread exemptions in the spot month—including within the last five days of trading. Commenters expressed the view that allowing exchanges to grant spread exemptions in the spot months/last five days would provide liquidity to the market and help convergence between cash and futures markets.
Eight commenters expressed the view that the Commission should not impose the five-day rule for spread positions in the expiring spot month contract.
One commenter expressed the view that the Commission should not apply the five-day rule to certain enumerated bona fide hedging positions under proposed § 150.1(3)-(4), cross-commodity hedges under proposed § 150.1(5), or to non-enumerated bona fide hedge, or spread exemptions. Instead, the Commission should permit the Exchanges to determine the facts and circumstances where a market participant may be permitted to hold a physical-delivery referenced contract in the spot month as part of a position that is exempt from federal speculative position limits.
Another commenter expressed that it “would support the applicability of the spread exemption through the end of the month, without limiting the exemption during the current month.” In that regard, the commenter (an exchange) noted that its “futures contracts on electricity settle to the independent, spot market overseen by the ISO/RTO markets.” The commenter argued that “since the settlement prices are determined in the ISO/RTO markets, trading during the last five days of the spot month has no impact on final settlement prices” on either the exchange or the ISO/RTO spot markets. The commenter noted that “bona fide hedgers rely on the ability to hold positions through the end of the current month, which has very low volume traded for monthly power contracts. Restrictions on spread exemptions during the last five days of trading may force market participants to exit their position during a period of lower liquidity—more than 99% of trading volume occurs outside the current (spot) month” on its exchange.
One commenter expressed that it is concerned that the new Form 504 would impose a series of reporting requirements to track and distinguish between types of hedge exemptions and requires reporting of all cash market holdings for each day of the spot month that would be difficult given the portfolio nature of commenter's business and the fungibility of futures contracts and the underlying cash commodity. The commenter expressed the view that once a hedge exemption is granted under the supplemental, the reporting requirements should be similar to the reporting requirements for existing enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions.
Another commenter expressed the view that it is not necessary to condition spread exemptions on additional filings to the exchange or the Commission.
Two commenters requested that the Commission clarify that the term “spread position” includes all types of spreads and the list of spreads referenced in proposed § 150.10 is simply illustrative and not exhaustive.
Three commenters requested that the Commission continue to permit cash and carry exemptions, stating, among other reasons, such exemptions serve an economic purpose by helping to maintain an appropriate economic relationship between the nearby and the next successive delivery month.
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(2), as originally proposed, and clarifying that the five-day rule does not apply to spreads. Because the Commission did not propose in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal to apply the five-day rule to “spread positions”, exchanges would have discretion to recognize such spread positions without regard to the five-day rule. The Commission cautions exchanges to carefully consider whether
The Commission reiterates, as proposed and discussed in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limit Proposal, that an exchange would not be permitted to recognize a spread between a commodity index contract and one or more referenced contracts. That is, an exchange may not grant a spread exemption where a bona fide hedging position could not be recognized for a pass-through swap offset of a commodity index contract. For a more detailed discussion please see § 150.9(a)(1) above.
In response to the comment regarding spread exemptions for electricity contracts, the Commission notes that electricity contracts are not referenced contracts that will be subject to federal limits at this time. Thus, exchanges may elect to process spread exemptions for exchange-set position limits for non-referenced contracts.
In response to the comments regarding the proposed spread exemption process imposing additional filing requirements on market participants relying on an exchange-granted spread exemption, the Commission clarifies that it is in the exchange's discretion to determine whether there are additional reporting requirements for a spread exemption. For a more detailed discussion please see § 150.9(a)(1) above.
In response to the comments received requesting clarification that the list of spreads in § 150.10(a)(2)
In response to the comments received that requested the Commission continue to permit “cash and carry” spread exemptions, the Commission has determined to allow exchanges to grant “cash and carry” spread exemptions to exchange and federal limits so long as an exchange has suitable safeguards in place to require a market participant relying on such an exemption to reduce their position below the speculative limit in a timely manner once current market prices no longer permit entry into a full carry transaction. The Commission notes that the condition noted above is more stringent than how ICE Futures U.S. has conditioned market participants relying on a cash-and-carry spread exemption. In that regard, ICE Futures U.S. has required a market participant to reduce their positions “before the price of the nearby contract month rises to a premium to the second (2nd) contract month.”
Proposed § 150.10(a)(3) set forth a core set of information and materials that all applicants would be required to submit to enable an exchange to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the facts and circumstances attendant to a spread position furthered the policy objectives of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B). In particular, the applicant would be required to demonstrate, and the exchange to determine, that exempting the spread position from position limits would, to the maximum extent practicable, ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers, but not unduly reduce the effectiveness of position limits to: Diminish, eliminate or prevent excessive speculation; deter and prevent market manipulation, squeezes, and corners; and ensure that the price discovery function of the underlying market is not disrupted.
The proposal pointed out that one DCM, ICE Futures U.S., currently grants certain types of spread exemptions that the Commission was concerned may not be consistent with these policy objectives.
ICE Futures U.S.'s rules condition the cash-and-carry spread exemption upon the applicant's agreement that “before the price of the nearby contract month rises to a premium to the second (2nd) contract month, it will liquidate all long positions in the nearby contract month.”
The 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal considered whether to impose on the exchange a requirement to ensure that exit points in cash-and-carry spread exemptions would facilitate an orderly liquidation in the expiring futures contract. The Commission stated that it was concerned that a large demand for delivery on cash and carry positions might distort the price of the expiring futures upwards. This would particularly be a concern in those commodity markets where the cash spot price was discovered in the expiring futures contract.
As the Commission noted, ICE Futures U.S. opined in a recent rule enforcement review that such exemptions are “beneficial for the market, particularly when there are plentiful warehouse stocks, which
As an alternative to providing exchanges with discretion to consider granting cash-and-carry spread exemptions, the Commission considered, in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, prohibiting cash-and-carry spread exemptions to position limits. In this regard, the Commission pointed out that it does not grant such exemptions to current federal position limits. As another alternative, the Commission considered permitting exchanges to grant cash-and-carry spread exemptions, but would require suitable safeguards be placed on such exemptions. For example, the Commission considered requiring that cash-and-carry spread exemptions be conditioned on a market participant reducing positions below speculative limit levels in a timely manner once current market prices no longer permit entry into a full carry transaction, rather than the less stringent condition of ICE Futures U.S. that a trader reduce positions “before the price of the nearby contract month rises to a premium to the second (2nd) contract month.”
One commenter expressed the view that an “exchange should not be required to determine whether liquidity will be increased if a particular Spread Exemption is granted before it is permitted to grant such Spread Exemption.” According to the commenter, “this requirement effectively would create an entirely new legal standard for spread exemptions and flip on its head the requirement under CEA section 4a(a)(3)(b)(iii), which states that, to the maximum extent practicable, in establishing speculative position limits the Commission in its discretion should ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers. CEA section 4a(a)(3)(b)(iii) does not require (and should not require) that, in granting an exemption from speculative position limits, the exemption must add to liquidity.”
Two commenters requested that the proposed application requirements for market participants be revised to only require “such information as the relevant exchange deems necessary to determine if the requested exemption is consistent with the purposes of hedging.” Furthermore one commenter requested that the Commission confirm that the detailed procedures for exchange-granted exemptions for spread and anticipatory hedges are not applicable to exemptions granted by exchanges for positions below the federal level.
One commenter expressed the view that “if proposed Regulations 150.9(a)(3)(iii) and 150.10(a)(3)(iii) indeed are intended to apply to an applicant's maximum size of all gross positions for each and every commodity derivative contract the applicant holds (as opposed to the maximum gross positions in the commodity derivative contract(s) for which the exemption is sought), such requirements are unnecessary and unduly burdensome.”
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(3), largely as originally proposed with one clarifying amendment to § 150.10(a)(3)(iii), as discussed further below. The Commission believes that exchanges should consider the policy objectives of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B), which is the standard that the Commission would use to review a petition to exempt a spread position from position limits. Regarding the comment arguing that CEA section 4a(a)(3)(b)(iii) does not require that the granting of a spread exemption must increase liquidity, the Commission interprets the CEA as providing it with the statutory authority to exempt spreads that are consistent with the other policy objectives for position limits, such as those in CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B). CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) provides that the Commission shall set limits to the maximum extent practicable, in its discretion—to diminish, eliminate, or prevent excessive speculation as described under this section; to deter and prevent market manipulation, squeezes, and corners; to ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers; and to ensure that the price discovery function of the underlying market is not disrupted. The Commission believes that exchanges who elect to grant spread exemptions to federal position limits should use the guidance in CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) as the Commission would when reviewing de novo a spread exemption application.
Regarding the comment requesting change to the requirements of § 150.10(a)(3) to only require “such information as the relevant exchange deems necessary to determine if the requested exemption is consistent with the purposes of hedging,” the Commission believes that the proposal requires a minimum amount of information, and exchanges have discretion to require additional information. If (as one commenter represented) an exchange has market information that would supplement its analysis of a spread exemption application, nothing in the proposal would preclude an exchange from using that information in its analysis. However, the Commission notes that such information must be included in the records of that spread exemption application as required under § 150.10(b).
In response to the request for clarification regarding whether § 150.10 applies to both federal and exchange-set limits, the Commission clarifies that, as
Regarding the comment about whether the phrase “maximum size of all gross positions” applies to an applicant's entire book of derivative positions or just those positions pertaining to the exemption application, the Commission intended that the applicant only report its maximum size of all gross positions in the commodity related to the exemption application that it is submitting. In that regard, Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(3)(iii) to clarify as such. For a more detailed discussion, please see § 150.9(a)(2) above.
Proposed § 150.10(a)(4) set forth certain timing requirements that an exchange would be required to include in its rules for the spread application process. Those timing requirements would substantially mirror those provisions proposed in § 150.9(a)(4)
The Commission notes that it did not receive comments regarding § 150.10(a)(4).
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(4), as originally proposed.
Proposed § 150.10(a)(5) clarified that an applicant's spread position would be deemed to be recognized as a spread position exempt from federal position limits at the time an exchange recognized it. The Commission noted that this was substantially similar to proposed § 150.9(a)(5) for non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions.
One commenter expressed the view that it is concerned regarding how an exchange should coordinate the granting of exemptions with respect to contracts on the same underlying commodities that trade on different exchanges, and requests guidance from the Commission on that matter.
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(5), as originally proposed. The Commission notes that the proposal allows each exchange to use its own expertise to decide what exemptions and limit levels to employ for their venue with the Commission serving in an oversight role to monitor exemptions and position limits across exchanges. The Commission also notes that although the proposal does not address coordination of granting of exemptions among exchanges, there is nothing in the proposal that would prohibit exchanges from coordinating.
Proposed § 150.10(a)(6) required exchanges that elect to process spread applications to promulgate reporting rules for applicants who owned, held or controlled positions recognized as spreads; the Commission noted that this is substantially similar to proposed § 150.9(a)(6) for non-enumerated bona fide hedge exemptions.
Several commenters
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(6) with one modification to clarify in the regulation text that exchanges are authorized, but not required, to determine whether to require reporting by the spread exemption applicant. For a more detailed discussion, please see the discussion of § 150.9(a)(3) above.
Proposed § 150.10(a)(7) required an exchange to publish on its Web site, no less frequently than quarterly, a description of each new type of derivative position that it recognized as a spread; the Commission noted that this was substantially similar to proposed § 150.9(a)(7) for non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions.
One commenter expressed the view that proposed § 150.10 would have an anti-competitive effect on markets that rely on intramarket spread trading to enhance liquidity on less actively traded contracts. The commenter was concerned that the information that would be published in a fact pattern summary would provide details that could be used to identify market participants, especially in thinly traded specialized markets.
Another commenter expressed the view that exchanges should “not be required to disclose any conditions of an exemption granted due to the potential for such information to compromise the exemption recipient's position.”
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(6), as originally proposed. The Commission reiterates that the purpose of each summary is to provide transparency to market participants by providing fair and open access for market participants to information regarding which positions might be recognized as spreads. The summary would be an executive summary that does not provide details of a market participant who received such an exemption, but rather, a general description of what the position is and why it qualifies for a spread exemption. The commenters did not provide any proposed alternatives to provide such transparency to market participants.
Proposed § 150.10(a)(8) provided options for an exchange to elect to request the Commission review a spread application that raised novel or complex issues, using the process set forth in proposed § 150.10(d), discussed below.
The Commission did not receive comments regarding § 150.10(a)(8).
The Commission is reproposing § 150.10(a)(8), as originally proposed.
Proposed § 150.10(b) outlined the recordkeeping requirements for exchanges that elected to process spread exemption applications submitted pursuant to § 150.10(a). As noted above, the proposed processes under this rule were substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(b). Hence, the Commission does not repeat the discussion here.
The Commission did not receive comments on § 150.10(b), and is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed, for the same reasons as discussed in connection with § 150.9(b).
Proposed § 150.10(c)(1) required designated contract markets and swap execution facilities that elected to process spread exemption applications to submit to the Commission a report for each week as of the close of business on Friday showing various information concerning the derivative positions that had been recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as an exempt spread position, and for any revocation, modification or rejection of such recognition. Moreover, proposed § 150.10(c)(2) required a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elected to process applications for exempt spread positions to submit to the Commission (i) a summary of any exempt spread position newly published on the designated contract market or swap execution facility's Web site; and (ii) no less frequently than monthly, any report submitted by an applicant to such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to rules required under proposed § 150.10(a)(6).
As noted above, the proposed processes under this rule were substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(c). The Commission did not receive comments on this section that differed from those received on § 150.9(c).
The Commission is reproposing this rule, largely as originally proposed, for the reasons previously provided in the discussion regarding § 150.9(c), with the same revision to the regulatory text included in reproposed § 150.9(c), to clarify that exchanges have the discretion to determine whether to incorporate additional reporting requirements for spread exemption applicants. In particular, the Commission is proposing to amend language in § 150.10(c)(2) to clarify that, unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, an exchange that elects to process applications to exempt spread positions from position limits shall submit to the Commission, no less frequently than monthly, “any reports such [DCM or SEF] requires to be submitted by an applicant to such [DCM or SEF] pursuant to the rules required under paragraph (a)(6) of this section.”
Proposed § 150.10(d) provided for Commission review of applications to ensure that the processes administered by the exchange, as well as the results of such processes, were consistent with the purposes of section 4a(a)(3)(B) of the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder. As noted previously, under the proposal, the Commission was not diluting its ability to grant or not grant spread exemptions. The Commission reserved to itself the ability to review any exchange action, and to review any application by a market participant to an exchange, whether prior to or after disposition of such application by an exchange. An exchange could ask the Commission to consider a spread exemption application (proposed § 150.10(a)(8)). The Commission could also on its own initiative at any time—before or after action by an exchange—review any application submitted to an exchange for recognition of a spread exemption (proposed § 150.10(d)(1)). And, as noted above, market
As previously indicated, the processes under the proposed rule was substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in proposed § 150.9(d). Hence, the Commission does not repeat the discussion here.
The Commission did not receive comments on this section that differed from those received on § 150.9(d), and is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed, for the reasons discussed above in connection with § 150.9(d).
The Commission proposed to rely on the expertise of the exchanges to summarize and post executive summaries of spread exemptions to their respective Web sites under proposed § 150.10(a)(7). The Commission also proposed, in § 150.10(e), to review such executive summaries to ensure they provided adequate disclosure to market participants of the potential availability of relief from speculative position limits.
As noted above, the proposed processes under this rule are substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(e). The Commission did not receive comments on this section that differed from those received on § 150.9(e), and so does not repeat the discussion here. For all the reasons previously provided, the Commission is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed.
The Commission proposed to delegate certain of its authorities under proposed § 150.10 to the Director of the Commission's Division of Market Oversight, or such other employee or employees as the Director designated from time to time. Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(i) delegated the Commission's authority to the Division of Market Oversight to provide instructions regarding the submission of information required to be reported to the Commission by an exchange, and to specify the manner and determine the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures for submitting such information. Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(v) delegated the Commission's review authority under proposed § 150.10(e) to DMO with respect to summaries of the types of spread exemptions that were required to be posted on an exchange's Web site pursuant to proposed § 150.10(a)(7).
Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(i) delegated the Commission's authority to the Division of Market Oversight to agree to or reject a request by an exchange to consider an application for recognition of an application for a spread exemption. Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(iii) delegated the Commission's authority to review any application for a spread exemption, and all records required to be maintained by an exchange in connection with such application. Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(iii) also delegated the Commission's authority to request such records, and to request additional information in connection with such application from the exchange or from the applicant.
Proposed § 150.10(f)(1)(iv) delegated the Commission's authority, under proposed § 150.10(d)(2) to determine when an application for a spread exemption required additional analysis or review, and to provide notice to the exchange and the particular applicant that they had 10 days to supplement such application.
The Commission did not propose to delegate its authority under proposed § 150.10(d)(3) to make a final determination as to the exchange's disposition. The Commission stated that if an exchange's disposition raised concerns regarding consistency with the Act or presents novel or complex issues, then the Commission should make the final determination, after taking into consideration any supplemental information provided by the exchange or the applicant.
As noted above, the proposed processes under this rule are substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(f); the Commission did not receive comments on this section that differed from those received on § 150.9(f), and so does not repeat the discussion here. For all the reasons previously provided, the Commission is reproposing § 150.9(f), as originally proposed.
After reviewing comments in response to the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed another method by which market participants may have enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge positions recognized. As proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, § 150.7 would require market participants to file statements with the Commission regarding certain anticipatory hedges which would become effective absent Commission action or inquiry ten days after submission. As the Commission explained in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the method in proposed § 150.11 was an exchange-administered process to determine whether certain enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge positions, such as unfilled anticipated requirements, unsold anticipated production, anticipated royalties, anticipated service contract payments or receipts, or anticipatory cross-commodity hedges should be recognized as bona fide hedge positions.
The Commission noted that proposed § 150.11 worked in concert with the following three proposed rules:
• Proposed § 150.3(a)(1)(i), with the effect that recognized anticipatory enumerated bona fide hedging positions may exceed federal position limits;
• proposed § 150.5(a)(2), with the effect that recognized anticipatory enumerated bona fide hedging positions may exceed exchange-set position limits for contracts subject to federal position limits; and
• proposed § 150.5(b)(5), with the effect that recognized anticipatory enumerated bona fide hedging positions may exceed exchange-set position limits for contracts not subject to federal position limits.
The proposed § 150.11 process was somewhat analogous to the application process for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions under proposed § 150.9. The process for recognition of enumerated anticipatory
The Commission noted that there would be significant benefits related to the adoption of proposed § 150.11. Similar to the benefits for recognizing positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions under § 150.9, recognizing anticipatory positions as bona fide hedging posiitons under § 150.11 would provide market participants with potentially a more expeditious recognition process than the Commission proposal for a 10-day Commission recognition process under proposed § 150.7. This could potentially enable commercial market participants to pursue trading strategies in a more timely fashion to advance their commercial and hedging needs to reduce risk. In addition, the Commission pointed out that exchanges would be able to use existing resources and knowledge in the administration and assessment of enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions. The Commission and exchanges have evaluated these types of positions for years (as discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal).
The Commission also pointed out that proposed § 150.11, similar to proposed § 150.9 and § 150.10, also would provide the benefit of enhanced record-retention and reporting of positions recognized as enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions. As previously discussed, records retained for specified periods would enable exchanges to develop consistent practices and afford the Commission accessible information for review, surveillance, and enforcement efforts. Likewise, weekly reporting under § 150.11 would facilitate the Commission's tracking of such exemptions.
As noted, proposed § 150.11(a) permitted exchanges to recognize certain enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions, such as unfilled anticipated requirements, unsold anticipated production, anticipated royalties, anticipated service contract payments or receipts, or anticipatory cross-commodity hedges. The proposed rule allowed market participants to work with exchanges to seek the exemption.
The process under proposed § 150.11(a) was similar to the process under proposed § 150.9(a), described above. For example, an exchange with at least one year of experience and expertise administering position limits could elect to adopt rules to recognize commodity derivative positions as enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges. However, the § 150.11(a) process was different from the process under proposed § 150.9(a) in that the Commission did not propose to permit separate processes for applications based on novel versus non-novel facts and circumstances.
As the Commission noted in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, it determined to define certain anticipatory positions as enumerated bona fide hedging positions when it adopted current § 1.3(z)(2); the Commission did not change this determination in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
Several commenters recommended that the Commission specifically recognize the full scope of anticipatory hedging activities such as anticipatory merchandising and anticipatory processing hedges, utility sales and cross-commodity hedges as enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions.
In addition, several commenters recommended that the Commission not adopt the “active trading” and “one year experience” requirements as proposed regarding a DCM's qualification to administer exemptions from federal position limits.
Certain commenters opposed the Commission delegating hedge exemption authority to exchanges entirely.
According to other commenters, the Commission should eliminate the five-day rule.
Lastly, several commenters advocated for removal of the proposed requirement that exchanges adopt enhanced reporting requirements for market participants that rely on exchange-administered hedge exemptions.
After carefully considering the comments received, the Commission is reproposing the rule, as originally proposed. At this time the Commission has already proposed several enumerated bona fide hedging position exemption categories. At this time, the Commission believes that additional fact patterns for bona fide hedging position exemptions will require consideration of the facts and circumstances on a case-by-case basis. The Commission is willing to explore further additions to the enumerated list at a later date. However, the Commission reiterates that, as previously discussed, an exchange can petition under § 13.2 for Commission recognition of a generic fact pattern as an enumerated bona fide hedging position, and that market participants have the flexibility of two processes for recognition of a position as an enumerated bona fide hedging position: (i) request an exemptive, no-action or interpretative letter under § 140.99; and/or (ii) petition under § 13.2 for changes to Appendix B to part 150.
Separately, as noted in the June 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal and above, the Commission is not persuaded that an exchange with no active trading and no previous experience with a new product class would have their interests aligned with the Commission's policy objectives in CEA section 4a. In addition, as noted above, the Commission points out that the experience is manifested by the people carrying out surveillance rather than tied to a particular exchange.
The Commission clarifies, however, that an exchange can petition the Commission, pursuant to § 140.99, for a waiver of the one-year experience requirement if such exchange believes that their experience and interested are aligned with the Commission's interests with respect to recognizing enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions.
The Commission appreciates commenter concerns regarding those opposed to delegating any hedge exemption authority to exchanges. However, the Commission reiterates that it retains full oversight authority over exchanges issuing hedge exemptions. Further, the Commission believes an exchange's required experience administering position limits for its actively traded contracts, and the Commission's de novo review of granted hedge exemptions are adequate to guard against or remedy any conflicts of interest that may arise. The Commission also notes that exchanges remain bound by the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition for all hedge exemption determinations conducted pursuant to part 150 of Commission Regulations.
The Commission believes the five-day rule should be applied to anticipatory bona fide hedging positions. If a market participant wishes to secure an exemption from the five-day rule, the participant should submit an exemption request, pursuant to § 150.9, for recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position.
Further, the Commission believes that reporting requirements applicable to market participants seeking an exemption pursuant to § 150.11 may remain as proposed. The Commission notes that § 150.11(a)(5) clarifies that applicants are bound by the reporting requirements found in § 150.7(e). As noted in § 150.7, understanding the recent history of a firm's production data is necessary to ensure the requested anticipated hedge exemption is reasonable. However, as discussed above, the Commission notes that it may permit a reasonable, supported estimate of, for example, anticipated production for less than three years of annual production data, in the Commission's discretion, if a market participant does not have three years of data. Further, the Commission is amending the applicable form instructions to clarify that Commission staff could determine that such an estimate is reasonable and would be accepted. The Commission is also proposing that exchange staff, on behalf of the Commission, also could permit a reasonable, supported estimate of, for example, anticipated production for less than three years of annual production data.
Proposed § 150.11(b) required electing designated contract markets and swap execution facilities to keep full, complete, and systematic records of all activities relating to the processing and disposition of enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging exemption requests submitted pursuant to § 150.11(a). As previously stated, the Commission believes such recordkeeping requirements are essential to ensure adequate compliance and oversight.
As noted, the proposed processes under this rule are substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(b) and § 150.10(b). Hence, the Commission does not repeat the discussion here. The Commission did not receive comments on § 150.11(b), and is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed, for the same reasons as § 150.9(b) and § 150.10(b).
Proposed § 150.11(c) required designated contract markets and swap execution facilities that elected to process enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position applications to submit to the Commission a report for each week as of the close of business on Friday showing various information concerning the derivative positions that had been recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position, and for any revocation, modification or rejection of such recognition. Similar to non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions
In consideration of these reduced reporting requirements and the previous discussion of this subject regarding proposed §§ 150.9(c) and 150.10(c), the Commission is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed, for the reasons discussed therein.
As set forth in proposed § 150.11(d), an exchange could ask the Commission to consider an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position application directly. Further, the Commission could also, on its own initiative, at any time—before or after action by an exchange—review any application submitted to an exchange for recognition of an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position. As noted, alternatives also remain available. Market participants would retain the ability to apply directly to the Commission under § 150.7, to separately request staff interpretive letters pursuant to § 140.99 or seek exemptive relief under CEA section 4a(a)(7).
The review process set forth in § 150.11(d) was simpler than other hedge exemption requests because such applications are not anticipated to be based on novel facts and circumstances. Rather, Commission review would focus on whether the hedge exemption application satisfied the filing requirements contained in § 150.11(a). If the filing was not complete, then proposed § 150.11(d) would provide an opportunity to supplement to the applicant and the exchange.
Aside from this minor difference, the proposed processes under this rule were substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(d) and § 150.10(d). Hence, the Commission does not repeat the discussion here. The Commission believes the proposed
As noted previously, the Commission proposed to delegate certain of its authorities under § 150.11 to the Director of DMO, or such other employee or employees as the Director may designate from time to time. In particular, proposed § 150.11(e)(1)(ii) delegated the Commission's authority to DMO to provide instructions regarding the submission of information required by an exchange, and to specify the manner and determine the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures for submitting such information. Proposed § 150.11(e)(1)(i) delegated the Commission's authority to DMO to agree to or reject a request by an exchange to consider an application for recognition of an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge. Proposed § 150.11(e)(1)(iii) delegated the Commission's authority to review any application for recognition of an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position and delegate the authority to request related records or supporting information from the exchange or from the applicant.
Lastly, the Commission proposed in § 150.11(e)(iv), to delegate its authority to determine, under proposed § 150.11(d)(2), that it was not appropriate to recognize a commodity derivative position as an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position, or that the disposition by an exchange of an application for such recognition is inconsistent with the filing requirements of proposed § 150.11(a)(2). The delegation also provided DMO with the authority, after any such determination was made, to grant the applicant a reasonable amount of time to liquidate its commodity derivative position or otherwise come into compliance.
This proposed delegation took into account that applications processed by an exchange under proposed § 150.11 would be for positions that should satisfy the requirements for enumerated bona fide hedging positions set forth in the Commission's rules, and should therefore be less likely to raise novel issues of interpretation, or novel issues with respect to consistency with the filing requirements of proposed § 150.11(a)(2), than applications processed under proposed § 150.9 or § 150.10. Such delegation is consistent with the Commission's longstanding delegation to DMO of its authority to review applications for recognition of enumerated bona fide hedging positions under current § 1.48, as well as consistent with the more streamlined approach to Commission review of enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position applications in proposed § 150.7.
As noted above, the proposed processes under this rule are substantially similar to the corresponding provisions in § 150.9(f) and § 150.10(f). Hence, the Commission does not repeat the discussion of related comments here. The Commission is reproposing this rule, as originally proposed, for the reasons discussed above in connection with § 150.9(f), with the clarification that the Commission retains the authority to make the final determination to grant or deny hedge exemption applications.
The Commission proposed to amend existing § 150.6 to conform the provision with the general applicability of part 150 to SEFs that are trading facilities, and concurrently making non-substantive changes to clarify the provision. The provision, as amended and clarified, provides this part shall only be construed as having an effect on position limits and that nothing in part 150 shall affect any provision promulgated under the Act or Commission regulations including but not limited to those relating to manipulation, attempted manipulation, corners, squeezes, fraudulent or deceptive conduct, or prohibited transactions.
The Commission received no comments on the proposed amendments to § 150.6.
The Commission is reproposing § 150.6, with an amendment to clarify the application of part 150 to other provisions of the Act or Commission regulations. Specifically, in order to avoid any confusion regarding whether § 150.6 applies to position limits regulations found outside of part 150 of the Commission's regulations (
The Commission also notes that § 150.6 applies despite the Commission's amendments to the appendices to parts 37 and 38 of the Commission's regulations regarding delayed implementation of exchange-set limits for swaps on exchanges without sufficient swaps position information.
The Commission proposed to add § 150.8 to address the severability of individual provisions of part 150. Should any provision(s) of part 150 be declared invalid, including the application thereof to any person or circumstance, § 150.8 provides that all remaining provisions of part 150 shall not be affected to the extent that such remaining provisions, or the application thereof, can be given effect without the invalid provisions.
The Commission did not receive any comments regarding proposed § 150.8.
The Commission is reproposing the severability clause in § 150.8. The Commission believes it is prudent to include a severability clause to avoid any further delay, as practicable, in carrying out Congress' mandate (underscored by the Commission's own preliminary finding of necessity) to impose position limits in a timely manner.
The Commission proposed to amend the definition of the term “reportable position” in current § 15.00(p)(2) by clarifying that: (1) Such positions include swaps; (2) issued and stopped positions are not included in open interest against a position limit; and (3) special calls may be made for any day a person exceeds a limit. Additionally, the proposed amendments to § 15.01(d) added language to reference swaps positions and updated the list of reporting forms in current § 15.02 to account for new and updated series '04 reporting forms, as discussed above.
The Commission did not receive any comments regarding the proposed amendments to part 15.
The Commission is reproposing amendments to part 15, as originally proposed, to update and clarify the definition of “reportable position,” add references to swaps positions, and add to the list of reporting forms.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to amend current § 17.00(b) to delete provisions related to aggregation, since those provisions are duplicative of aggregation provisions in § 150.4.
The Commission did not receive any comments regarding the proposed changes to part 17.
The Commission is reproposing amendments to part 17, as originally proposed, to delete duplicative aggregation provisions and delegate to the Division of Market Oversight the authority to instruct persons pursuant to proposed § 17.03.
As discussed above, the Commission intended, in a 2011 final rule, to amend several other sections as part of its then adoption on part 151. Among the sections the Commission was then affecting was the removal and reservation of §§ 1.47 and 1.48. Both sections permitted market participants to seek recognition of positions as bona fide hedges.
However, prior to the compliance date for that 2011 rulemaking, as noted above, a federal court vacated most provisions of that rulemaking, including the amendments to the definition of a bona fide hedging position in § 1.3(z), as well as to the removal and reservation of §§ 1.47 and 1.48.
The Commission is reproposing to remove and reserve § 1.47 in light of the Commission's proposal of new provisions in § 150.9 addressing exchange recognitions of positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, subject to Commission review. Similarly, in connection with the reproposal of §§ 150.7 and 150.11, the Commission is proposing to remove and reserve, as originally proposed, § 1.48. Finally, the Commission is reproposing that part 151 be removed and reserved in response to the reproposed revisions to part 150 that conform it to the amendments made to the CEA section 4a by the Dodd-Frank Act.
Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its actions before promulgating a regulation under the CEA or issuing certain orders. Section 15(a) further specifies that the costs and benefits shall be evaluated in light of five broad areas of market and public concern: (1) Protection of market participants and the public; (2) efficiency, competitiveness, and financial integrity of futures markets; (3) price discovery; (4) sound risk management practices; and (5) other public interest considerations. The Commission considers the costs and benefits resulting from its discretionary determinations with respect to the Section 15(a) factors.
The baseline against which the Commission considers the benefits and costs of these reproposed rules is the statutory requirements of the CEA and the Commission regulations now in effect—in particular the Commission's Part 150 regulations and rules 1.47 and 1.48.
Out of an abundance of caution in light of the district court decision in
The Commission expects that the speculative position limits in the reproposed Rule will promote market integrity. Willingness to participate in the futures and swaps markets may be reduced by perceptions that a participant with an unusually large speculative position could exert unreasonable market power. A lack of participation in these markets may harm liquidity, and consequently, may negatively impact price discovery and market efficiency as well.
Position limits may serve as a prophylactic measure that reduces market volatility due to large trades that impact prices. For example, a party who is holding large open interest may become unwilling or unable to meet a call for additional margin or take other steps that are necessary to maintain the position. In such an instance, the party may substantially reduce its open interest in a short time interval. In general, price impacts could arise from large positions as they are established or liquidated.
Exchanges and the Commission may gain insight into the markets as market participants seek exemptions from position limits. This may improve the exchanges' and the Commission's ability to supervise markets and to deter and prevent market manipulation. Further, the discipline of seeking exemptions that are tied to particular situations may improve a market participant's risk management practices, as it goes through the exercise of justifying the need for an exemption.
There are additional benefits to imposing position limits in the spot month. Spot month position limits are designed to deter and prevent corners and squeezes. Spot month position limits may also make it more difficult to mark the close of a futures contract to possibly benefit other contracts that settle on the closing futures price. Marking the close harms markets by spoiling convergence between futures prices and spot prices at expiration. Convergence is desirable, because it facilitates hedging of the spot price of a commodity at expiration. In addition, since many other contracts settle based on the futures price at expiration, mispricing could affect a larger scope of contracts.
The Commission recognizes that position limits impose compliance costs on market participants. Under position limits, market participants must monitor their positions and have safeguards in place to remain under a federal position limit or an exemption level. Some market participants will have to incur the costs of seeking exemptions from federal positons limits. In this Reproposal, the Commission has sought to reduce these costs by setting the federal position limits at an appropriately high level and by relying on the experience and expertise of exchanges to administer exemptions.
Market participants who find position limits binding may have to transact in less effective instruments such as futures contracts that are similar but not the same as the core referenced futures contract. These instruments could include forward contracts, trade options, or futures on a foreign board of trade. Transacting in substitute instruments may raise transaction costs. Finally, if transactions shift to other instruments, futures prices might not reflect fully all the speculative demand to hold the futures contract, because substitute instruments may not influence prices in the same way that trading directly in the futures contract does. In these circumstances, futures market price discovery and efficiency might be harmed.
One commenter asserted that the proposed rules have the potential to increase systemic risk, impair market function, and increase the costs and volatility of wholesale energy commodities. Moreover, the commenter asserted that these adverse impacts are unrelated to any mandates placed upon the Commission by Congress.
Another commenter said that position limits that are not necessary or appropriate increase commercial parties' compliance costs and reduce market liquidity, which in turn increases the cost of hedging. The commenter believes the Commission did not adequately consider these costs and the lack of corresponding benefits.
One commenter requested that as the Commission enacts its final rule it should avoid imposing materially costly and complex rules and reporting requirements on hedgers unless they are manifestly necessary to prevent a meaningful threat to market integrity.
In response to 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal RFC 37, a commenter stated that maintaining the status quo in which exchanges administer an established process for position limits and exemptions will provide legal certainty and maintain current costs instead of increasing them.
Sen. Levin commented that the benefits of the proposed rules, while difficult to quantify, create a net benefit to the public and the markets by helping to ensure the markets' continued stability, fairness, and profitability.
The Commission has interpreted the Dodd-Frank Act to mandate that the Commission impose federal position limits on physical-delivery futures contracts. In addition, the Commission is making a preliminary alternative finding that position limits are necessary to accomplish statutory objectives. The Commission believes that it has calibrated the levels of those limits so as to avoid harmful effects on the markets and, accordingly, does not believe the imposition of federal position limits at the reproposed levels will have the effects that concerned commenters. These commenter concerns are counterpoised by the desirable effects on markets that Sen. Levin ascribed to position limits.
A commenter expressed concern that the CFTC has underestimated the costs of compliance with the position limits rules, and the number of affected parties, so that the potential unintended consequences of the rules will outweigh their benefits. The commenter believes this would result because the compliance costs associated with position limits are high and particularly burdensome for market participants who are unlikely ever to come close to reaching the limits.
Another commenter believes that the cost-benefit analysis in the 2016 supplemental proposal features unrealistically low estimates of the time and costs that will be required to implement and maintain compliance programs.
Another commenter asserted that the Commission did not adequately quantify the harm from position limits on liquidity for bona fide hedgers and the price discovery function, or the implementation and on-going reporting and monitoring costs for market participants. The commenter believes that costs will arise from altering speculative trading strategies in response to a limited definition of bona fide hedging; reassessing and modifying existing trading strategies to comply with limits; amending DCMs' current aggregation and bona fide hedging policies; and creating compliant application regimes for SEFs.
In response to 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal RFC 56, another commenter asserted that unduly low position limits would reduce liquidity and discourage market participation, thereby not advancing regulatory goals that are already appropriately protected under the status quo. In response to 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal RFC 66, this commenter said the Commission should consider public interest considerations relating to the particular interests of commercial end-users, which rely on mitigating price risk in order to remain in business. This commenter believes that commercial end-users are at risk of being squeezed out of the market, and potentially squeezed out of business, as a result of the difficulty of hedging commercial risks. The commenter urged the Commission to apply graduated regulatory requirements for bona fide hedging determinations that would account for differences between market participants.
As shown in the impact analysis, the Commission seeks to reduce market participants' compliance costs by setting the federal position limits at a level sufficiently high to only affect market participants with very large open interest. Thus, the Commission expects minimal compliance costs for those with positions below these high levels. Small traders would be required only to monitor their open interest and have safeguards in place to remain below position limits. The Commission finds the exemption process valuable because it requires participants with very large open interest to provide the information required by the exemption application to the relevant exchange(s) and to the Commission. Having this information helps exchanges and the Commission to better understand the markets they regulate.
As for the high costs that some commenters claimed to be required to implement and maintain compliance programs, the Commission presented and requested comment on its estimates of the costs associated with compliance programs. Commenters did not provide any specific cost estimates to support their assertions of the potential for high costs.
In response to 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal RFC 67, a commenter noted that swaps and futures markets have become more global and suggested that restrictive position limit regulations and added reporting requirements would drive global companies to jurisdictions that have more friendly regulatory treatment.
The Commission considers that market participants might use other means to engage in derivative activity besides domestic futures and swaps if federal position limits are set too low. For instance, price discovery for a futures contract might move to a foreign board of trade that lists a substitute contract. Further, foreign parties might elect to engage in foreign swaps instead of transacting in U.S. futures and swaps. To mitigate these risks, the Commission endeavors not to set the position limits at levels that are unduly low.
A commenter criticized the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits of the proposed rules for
The commenter cited papers by Craig Pirrong and Philip Verleger as proper evaluations of the costs and benefits of position limits for derivatives,
Another commenter also thought that the Commission should perform a cost-benefit analysis to determine whether non-spot month position limits are justified. The commenter said that the Commission's statements that “few” participants would exceed the limits is not a sufficient analysis and that the Commission is obligated to do a more rigorous analysis before declaring 5, 7, or 11 persons as “few.” Further, the commenter pointed out that the Commission has not specifically stated how often those market participants would have exceeded those levels, how much over the limit they were, how the position exceedances were distributed along the price curve, or whether the positions were calendar spreads, and claimed that the lack of this information means there is no way to know whether the removal of those positions would have led to a significant reduction in liquidity and therefore market participants must assume that such a reduction in liquidity would have been significant.
Sen. Levin commented that the Commission correctly identified the prevention and reduction of artificial price disruptions to commodity markets as a positive benefit that would protect both market participants and the public, and that would outweigh the cost imposed on certain speculative traders. Sen. Levin commented that the Commission correctly observed that the sound risk management practices required by the proposed rules would benefit speculators, end users, and consumers.
The Commission does not believe that the consideration of costs and benefits under CEA section 15(a) requires a quantification of all costs and benefits. Nor does the statute require the Commission to hazard a guess when the available information is imprecise. The statute requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its rulemaking, which contemplates a qualitative discussion when quantification is difficult.
The Commission addresses most of the commenter's cost and benefit concerns later in this consideration of costs and benefits. As for the identification and quantification of costs and benefits suggested by Mr. Pirrong, the Commission believes it would be of limited usefulness. For instance, the quantification would be highly uncertain and require many subjective interpretations and judgements on the part of investigators. Further, due to statutory restrictions on its release of confidential data, the Commission would be unable to provide data and other information necessary for the public to conduct an independent replication of the Commission's analysis.
The Commission considered proceeding in stages by first imposing
Another commenter asserted that the CEA directs the Commission to balance the four factors listed in CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) and, thus, the Commission should present rigorous analysis to meet this requirement.
In response to this commenter, the Commission interprets CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) as a direction to the Commission to set limits “to the maximum extent practicable” to further the four policy objectives in that section. The Commission believes this is a Congressional recognition of the impossibility of achieving an actual “maximum” for each of the four policy objectives. In any case, as part of this consideration of costs and benefits, the Commission considers the promotion of sound risk management practices and whether price discovery in a commodity will shift to a foreign board of trade.
Commenters addressed the effects of position limits on liquidity. One expressed concern that the proposed position limits may constrain effective risk transfer by unduly restricting hedging or limiting the risk-bearing capacity of large speculators, thereby causing reduced liquidity, wider bid-offer spreads and higher transaction costs.
Liquidity is not a factor that the Commission is required to consider under section 15(a) of the CEA; nevertheless, the Commission did consider how liquidity concerns implicate the 15(a) factors. For instance, the Commission's regulatory goals generally include protecting market liquidity, and enhancing market efficiency and improving price discovery through increased liquidity. The Commission has sought to reduce market participant burdens with the understanding that regulatory compliance costs increase transaction costs, which might reduce liquidity, all else being equal. The Commission has considered that liquidity, including the risk-bearing capacity of markets, and price discovery may be harmed if position limits are set too low and so has sought to avoid these adverse effects.
The Commission preliminarily declines to treat general goals such as fostering innovation and growth for the betterment of markets as a specific public interest consideration under CEA section 15(a). While these are of course laudable objectives, the Commission believes they are difficult to accomplish through position limits. The Commission has not cited these general benefits as a reason for position limits. Last, the Commission notes that exchanges have proper incentives and a variety of tools with which to increase liquidity on their exchanges and, as a general matter, make their exchanges useful to the market.
A commenter requested that the Commission compare the costs and benefits of the proposed position limits regime with those of a position accountability regime, because the commenter believed that position accountability levels would serve as a less costly and disruptive alternative to position limits.
A third commenter also suggested that while administering position accountability levels, the Commission could conduct a comprehensive cost-benefit analysis of the impact of spot month position limits on market liquidity for commercial hedgers and price discovery before determining whether to extend position limits outside of the spot months, and use the information collected to understand the trading activity of market participants with large speculative positions and determine if non-spot month
The Commission considered administering position accountability levels in the non-spot month, but has preliminarily determined that the adoption of position limits with an exemption process is the better approach, because it benefits the supervisory functions of the exchanges and the Commission by providing better insight into the markets. In addition, the Commission notes it has a lack of statutory authority for the Commission itself to administer position accountability levels. Rather, the CEA authorizes exchanges to administer position accountability levels. In contrast, the Commission's emergency authority under the CEA is limited. Further, the Commission notes it interprets CEA section 4a(a)(3) as a direction to impose, at an appropriate level, position limits on the spot month, each other month (
The baselines for these changes are the Commission's current guidance on DCM Core Principle 5, SEF Core Principle 6, and the current Part 150.
Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its discretionary actions with respect to rules and orders. The Commission believes it is also appropriate to consider the costs and benefits of changes to the appendices to parts 37, 38, and 150 of the Commission's regulations, even though these appendices constitute guidance. The Commission appreciates that the changes to this guidance will delay the point in time when exchanges will become obligated to monitor and enforce federal position limits for swaps (although exchanges could take voluntary steps in this regard at any appropriate time). As a result, this change in guidance will likely confer benefits and reduce costs, although it is difficult to identify the benefits and costs that result directly from the change in guidance because the exact time at which exchanges will become obligated to monitor and enforce federal position limits for swaps is not currently specified but will instead depend on the future availability of information. Also, given the interrelationship between the exchanges' enforcement of federal position limits for swaps with the exchanges' other actions with respect to position limits and the Commission's enforcement of federal position limits, it is difficult to identify the incremental effect that will occur when exchanges become obligated to enforce federal position limits for swaps.
However, the Commission believes that because of the change in the Commission's guidance, exchanges and market participants will benefit because the delay will result in a lower requirement to invest in technology and personnel to assess federal position limits. In terms of costs, the Commission believes that there might be a cost to the market associated with this change in guidance because the delay may result in exchanges' reducing their monitoring of excessive positions in real-time.
The Commission requested comment on its consideration of the benefits and costs associated with the proposed amendments to guidance, and asked if there are additional alternatives that the Commission has not identified. Two commenters requested that the Commission formulate a plan to address the lack of data access by DCMs and SEFs.
The Commission is reproposing new definitions of, or amendments to the definitions of, several terms: Basis contract, bona fide hedge, calendar spread contract, commodity derivative contract, commodity index contract, core referenced futures contract, eligible affiliate, entity, excluded commodity, futures-equivalent, intercommodity spread, long position, short position, spot month, intermarket spread, physical commodity, pre-enactment swap, pre-existing position, referenced contract, spread contract, speculative position limit, swap, swap dealer, and transition period. These new definitions and amendments are discussed above.
A general benefit of including definitions in the regulation is greater clarity. In particular, having specific definitions of terms set out as a separate part of the regulations helps users of the regulation to understand how the position limit rulemaking relates, in general, to the concepts and terminology of CEA as amended by the Dodd-Frank Act. Although market participants and other users of the regulations must take time and effort to understand and adapt to new definitions in the context of the rulemaking, the Commission believes these costs are reduced by setting out the definitions as a separate part of the regulations rather than incorporating the definitions in the substantive provisions of the rules.
Specific benefits and costs of definitions are discussed within the context of specific rules where the definitions are directly applicable. In addition, the Commission believes that several definitions merit a specific consideration of costs and benefits, because the adoption of these definitions would represent the exercise of substantive discretion on the part of the Commission.
The Commission is reproposing a definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1. The Commission believes this definition of bona fide hedging position is consistent with CEA section 4a(c) regarding physical commodities and otherwise closely conforms to the status quo. Commercial cash market activities are covered by the part of the definition that sets out an economically appropriate test. The Commission also notes that since CEA 4c(a)(5) separately states that intentional or reckless
The baseline for this amendment to the rule is the definition for “bona fide hedging transactions and positions,” set forth in current § 1.3(z).
Futures contracts function to hedge price risk because they allow a party to fix a price for a specified quantity of a particular commodity at a designated point in time. Futures contracts, thereby, can be used by market participants to create price certainty for physically-settled transactions. Thus, the Commission believes that to qualify as a bona fide hedging position for a physical commodity, the position must ultimately result in hedging against some form of price risk in the physical marketing channel.
The Commission is amending the five day/spot month rule so that it will allow exchanges to grant spread exemptions that are valid in the five day/spot month period. The Commission anticipates that allowing spread exemptions to be recognized in the spot month might improve liquidity and, thereby, lower costs for market participants.
Also, the rule amendments will allow bona fide hedge exemptions to cover a period of more than one year of cash market exposure. The current definition limits to one year the hedging of anticipated production of, or requirements for, an agricultural commodity. Removing this current restriction is desirable because many commercial enterprises may prefer to hedge cash market exposure for more than one year.
The Commission understands that some activity that may have been recognized by exchanges as bona fide hedging in the past may not satisfy the definition in the reproposed rule. The Commission has sought to mitigate costs arising from this transition by setting position limits at levels that are appropriately high (so as to limit the extent of positions that may require an exemption) and by not including any requirement that exchanges use the reproposed rule's definition of bona fide hedging position other than with respect to the federal position limits in the referenced contracts listed in 150.2(d).
The Commission notes that an exchange is permitted to recognize exemptions for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, certain spread positions, and anticipatory bona fide hedging positions, under the processes of § 150.9, 150.10 and 150.11, respectively, subject to assessment of the particular facts and circumstances, where price risk arises as a result of other fact patterns than those of the enumerated positions. The Commission expects to review with an open mind any hedging activity that exchanges choose to exempt as bona fide hedging positions with respect to federal position limits. The Commission believes, however, that it would be inappropriate to allow the exchanges to act with unbounded discretion in interpreting the meaning of the term “economically appropriate” when the exchanges determine whether to recognize an exemption for bona fide hedging. Such a broad delegation is not authorized by the CEA and, in the Commission's view, would be contrary to the reasonably certain statutory standards in CEA section 4a(c), such as the “economically appropriate” test. That is, if the statutory standards are reasonable certain, then the Commission may delegate authority to exchanges. If the statutory standards were not reasonably certain, then the Commission would be precluded from delegating authority to the exchanges. Further, as explained in the discussion of § 150.9, 150.10 and 150.11, exchange determinations in this regard will be subject to the Commission's
Several commenters said that the rule's definition of bona fide hedging position should be expanded in various ways that would extend the scope of the definition to include the hedging of a wider variety of risks, in addition to price risk. For example, one commenter claimed that hedging some of the risks and costs associated with building energy infrastructure may not satisfy the bona fide hedging position definition, and that as a result some of these costs would likely be passed onto consumers.
Another commenter asserted that the correlation standards in the proposed rule would make the bona fide hedging position exemption unavailable for hedges related to illiquid delivery locations and result in higher risks for market participants and higher costs for consumers.
The Commission believes that the definition of bona fide hedging position and the related exemption process in the reproposed rule will accommodate many existing hedging strategies that market participants use. As it would be impossible to enumerate every acceptable bona fide hedging activity, the Commission has preliminarily determined that it is appropriate to rely on the experience and expertise of exchanges to process these exemptions. The Commission believes that the exchanges will be better placed to
Regarding commenters' suggestions that the definition of bona fide hedging position be expanded to encompass hedges of risks other than risks related to prices in physical marketing channels, the Commission notes that many risks come into play outside the physical marketing channel to which referenced contracts relate. The Commission has preliminarily determined that hedging of these other risks should not be covered by the bona fide hedging position definition, because the Commission views the statutory standards in CEA section 4a(c)(2), largely mirroring those of the general definition of a bona fide hedging position in § 1.3(z)(1), to be reasonably certain as limited to hedges of price risks. Further, as explained above, the statutory standard of CEA section 4a(c) requires bona fide hedging positions to be a substitute for a transaction taken or to be taken in the cash market. Generally, this precludes application of the bona fide hedging exemption to hedging of purely financial risks that are not price risks related to the physical marketing channel. For example, commodity index contracts are not eligible for recognition as the basis of a bona fide hedging position exemption because these contracts are not used to hedge price risks in physical marketing channels, as required in CEA section 4a(c)(2)(A)(i), and, as well, would not meet the requirements for a bona fide hedging position as a pass-through swap offset under CEA section 4a(c)(2)(B).
Commenters also addressed the element of the bona fide hedging position definition that generally requires that hedges be considered on a net basis in determining whether the definition is satisfied. One commenter argued that hedging on a net basis would be unworkable and require costly new technology systems to be built around more rigid, commercially impractical hedging protocols that prevent dynamic risk management in response to rapidly changing market conditions.
The Commission believes that it is fundamental to the definition of bona fide hedging position to require that such hedging reduce the overall risk of the commercial enterprise. Consistent with that focus on overall risk, it should be noted that the Commission does recognize certain gross hedges,
Four commenters expressed opposition to an aspect of the proposal in the supplemental notice that would not allow hedge exemptions for spread transactions to be applied during the last five days of trading of a futures contract, saying that spread exemptions should be allowed into the spot month to avoid negative effects on liquidity and potential disruptions of convergence, potentially resulting in additional risk for market participants which ultimately gets passed to consumers.
The Commission agrees with commenters that allowing spread exemptions to be applied in the spot month might improve liquidity and lower risks for market participants. Thus, the Reproposal would permit exchanges to grant § 150.10 spread exemptions into the five day/spot period. The costs and benefits of the forms are considered in the discussion of Part 19 and rule 150.7.
The Commission proposes to define the term “core referenced futures contract” and amend the list of contracts in § 150.2. The effect of this is that the federal positon limits in § 150.2(d) will apply to the following additional contracts: Rough Rice, Live Cattle, Cocoa, Coffee, Frozen Orange Juice, U.S. Sugar No. 11, U.S. Sugar No. 16, Light Sweet Crude Oil, NY Harbor ULSD, RBOB Gasoline, Henry Hub Natural Gas, Gold, Silver, Copper, Palladium, and Platinum.
ii. Baseline
The baseline for the definition of the term “core referenced futures contract” is that the term encompasses the legacy agricultural futures contracts that are subject to existing federal position limits, namely: Corn (and Mini-Corn), Oats, Soybeans (and Mini-Soybeans), Wheat (Mini-Wheat), Soybean Oil, Hard Winter Wheat, Hard Red Spring Wheat, and Cotton No. 2. The baseline for the definition of the term “referenced contract” is the same as that of the term “core referenced futures contract.”
The definitions of the terms “core referenced futures contract” and “referenced contract” set the scope of contracts to which federal position limits apply. As noted above, the Commission has preliminarily decided to proceed in stages when imposing federal position limits. Among other things, this will allow the Commission to observe how futures markets respond to an initial set of position limits before applying position limits more widely, including to contracts with less liquidity. All other things being equal, markets for contracts that are more illiquid tend to be more concentrated, so that a position limit on such contracts might significantly reduce trading interest on one side of the market, because a large trader would face the potential of being capped out by a position limit. For this reason, among others, the contracts to which the position limits in § 150.2(d) apply include some of the most liquid physical-delivery futures contracts. Following the application of position limits to these contracts, the Commission would be able to study the effects of position limits more readily and, it is anticipated, consider how to apply position limits more broadly in a
The Commission has also preliminarily determined not to apply position limits to cash-settled core referenced futures contracts (that are not linked to physical-delivery futures contracts) at this time. For these contracts, the possibility of corners and squeezes is reduced, because there is no link to a physical-delivery futures contract that may be distorted, and therefore there is less of a need for position limits. Of course, there may be other concerns about manipulation of cash-settled futures contracts that are not linked to physical-delivery futures contracts, however. For instance, there may be an incentive to manipulate a commodity price index in a manner that would benefit particular cash-settled futures or swap positions. Such manipulative conduct includes cornering or squeezing the underlying cash market on which a cash-settlement index is based. The Commission notes that these manipulation concerns may be addressed, in part, through the Commission's authority to regulate futures and swaps (including the terms of these contracts set by exchanges) and take enforcement actions, until such time as the Commission adopts position limits on cash-settled core referenced futures contracts. Further, exchanges in their SRO function may also constrain and discipline traders who are trading in a disruptive fashion. Indeed, it is reasonable to expect that, given the exchanges' deep familiarity with their own markets and their ability to tailor a response to a particular market disruption, such exchange action is likely to be more effective than a position limit in such circumstances. However, the Commission notes the exchanges do not have authority over those persons who only transact in OTC swaps.
The Commission has preliminarily determined to exclude trade options from the rule's definition of “referenced contract,” for several reasons. The Commission believes that many trade options would qualify for bona fide hedging position exemptions, since trade options are generally used to hedge risks. The Commission also believes that not including trade options in the scope of position limits will relieve many market participants of significant compliance costs that would be required to apply position limits to trade options. Last, this approach will allow the market to continue to innovate in the use of trade options to hedge a variety of risks.
The rule's definition of the term “referenced contract” includes a swap or futures contract that is “indirectly linked” to a physical-delivery futures contract. The “indirectly linked” contract could be a cash-settled swap or cash-settled futures contract that settles to the price of another cash-settled derivative that, in turn settles to the price of a physical-delivery futures contract. A contract that settles based on the level of a commodity price index, comprised of commodities that are not the same or substantially the same, would not be an “indirectly linked” contract, even if the index uses futures prices as components. A contract based on such a commodity price index is excluded because the index represents a blend of the prices of various commodities.
The Reproposal's definition of the term “referenced contract” does not include a swap or futures contract that fixes its closing price on the prices of the same commodity at different delivery locations than specified in the core referenced futures contract, or on the prices of commodities with different commodity specifications than those of the core referenced futures contract. This approach is also in accord with market practice, in that a core referenced futures contract specifies location(s) and grade(s) of a commodity in the relevant contract specification. Thus, a contract on one grade of commodity is treated by the market as different from a contract on a different grade of the same commodity.
A location basis contract—a contract which reflects the difference between two delivery locations of the same commodity—is also excluded from the definition of referenced contract.
Commenters said that trade options should not be included in the definition of “referenced contract.” One commenter said there is significant uncertainty about the distinction between forward contracts and trade options, so costs associated with imposing position limits on trade options would greatly exceed any benefits.
The Commission took the difficulties explained by commenters in complying with position limits on trade options into account when preliminarily determining not to include trade options in the definition of referenced contract. To provide flexibility, the reproposed rule permits trade options to be taken into consideration as a cash position, on a futures-equivalent basis, as the basis of a bona fide hedging position.
Another commenter discussed the exclusion of commodity index swaps from the definition of swaps that are economically equivalent to core referenced futures contracts. This commenter said this disparate treatment will shift trading activity to index swaps, drain liquidity from exchange-listed products, harm pre-trade transparency and the price discovery process, and further depress open interest (as volumes shift to index swap positions that do not count toward open interest calculations).
The Commission acknowledges uncertainty about whether there will be a loss in liquidity due to the imposition of federal position limits. The Commission will monitor this issue going forward.
Another commenter suggested that the definition of bona fide hedging position should include the hedging of a binding and irrevocable bid, because a failure to do so could increase the costs incurred by utilities and special entities to provide power or gas by forcing bidders to incorporate into their bids or offers the cost associated with the risk that no exemption for such a hedge would be permitted.
The Commission is reproposing two further revisions to the definition of “futures-equivalent” in the rule. The first revision clarifies that the term “futures-equivalent” includes a futures contract which has been converted to an economically equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract. Second, the Commission clarifies that, for purposes of calculating futures equivalents, the size of an open position represented by an option contract must be determined as the economically-equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract.
The baseline for this change to the rule's definition of “futures equivalent” is the current § 150.1(f) definition of “futures-equivalent”.
The Commission has preliminarily determined that the definition of “futures-equivalent” in current § 150.1(f) is too narrow in light of the Dodd-Frank Act amendments to CEA section 4a. To conform to the statutory changes and to make the definition more amenable to application within the broader position limits regime, the Commission is reproposing a more descriptive definition of the term “futures-equivalent” by adding more explanatory text. The Commission continues to believe that, as it stated in the proposal, there are no cost or benefit implications to these further clarifications.
The Commission requested comment on the revisions to the definition of the term “futures equivalent,” but did not receive any substantive comments. Consequently, the Commission is reproposing the definition in the Supplemental 2016 position limit proposal.
Current part 150 does not contain definitions for the terms “intermarket spread position” or “intramarket spread position.” In the Supplemental 2016 Position Limits Proposal the Commission proposed to expand the scope of definitions of these terms that had been included in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal. The expanded definitions of “intermarket spread position” or “intramarket spread position” include positions in multiple commodity derivative contracts. This expansion would allow market participants to establish an intermarket spread position or an intramarket spread position that would be taken into account under the position limits regime and exemption processes. The expanded definitions also cover spread positions established by taking positions in derivative contracts in the same commodity, in similar commodities, or in the products or by-products of the same or similar commodities.
Current § 150.1 does not include definitions for the terms “intermarket spread position” and “intramarket spread position.” Therefore, the baseline is a market where “intermarket” and “intramarket” spread positions are not explicitly included in the definition of contracts that are exempt from federal position limits.
The changes to the definitions of the terms “intermarket spread position” and “intermarket spread positions” broaden the scope of the two terms in comparison to the definitions proposed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal. In the Commission's view, the changes are only operative in the application of §§ 150.3, 150.5 and 150.10, which address exemptions from position limits for certain spread positions. The two definitions operate in conjunction with § 150.10, which sets forth a process for exchanges to administer spread exemptions. The definitions and § 150.10, together, will enable market participants to obtain relief from position limits for these types of spreads, among others.
Citadel recommended that cross-commodity netting should be permitted.
As previously discussed, the Commission interprets CEA section 4a(a)(2) to mandate that it establish speculative position limits for all agricultural and exempt physical commodity derivative contracts and, as a separate and independent basis for this rulemaking, has made a preliminary finding that position limits are necessary as a prophylactic measure to carry out the purposes of section 4a(a).
The Commission is reproposing amendments to § 150.2 to impose speculative position limits as mandated by Congress in accordance with the statutory bounds that define the Commission's discretion in doing so and, as a separate and independent basis for the Reproposal, because the speculative position limits are necessary to achieve their statutory purposes.
Generally, § 150.2 will limit the size of speculative positions,
In order to implement CEA section 4a(a)(3)(A), reproposed rule § 150.2(a) prohibits any person from holding or controlling positions in referenced contracts in the spot month in excess of the level specified by the Commission for referenced contracts.
To the extent the Commission has correctly interpreted that CEA section 4a(a)(2) mandates position limits, the costs and benefits of whether to require position limits have been balanced by Congress and the Commission is not tasked with revisiting those costs and benefits on that specific question.
As discussed above, CEA section 4a(a)(3)(A) directs the Commission, each time it establishes limits, to set limits on speculative positions during the spot-month.
For example, as discussed above, the absence of manipulative intent behind excessive speculation does not preclude the risk that accumulation of very large positions will cause the negative
Exchanges and market participants also benefit from spot-month position limits because market participants who seek exemptions to the spot-month limit will have to justify why their positions qualify for the exemption, which fosters visibility into the market for the exchanges and fosters better risk management practices for the market participant seeking the exemption.
In its determination of the appropriate spot month levels for the core referenced futures contracts, the Commission took into account exchange estimates of deliverable supply, which were verified by the Commission staff, and exchange spot-month limit level recommendations. A more detailed discussion of the costs and benefits for the actual limits can be found below in the discussion of 150.2(d). However, more generally, the Commission recognizes federal spot month position limits do impose costs to exchanges and market participants. Federal spot month limits will require hedgers to apply for exemptions if they hold positions in excess of the federal limits. These costs are considered in the discussion of 150.3. In addition, speculators who want exposure beyond the federal limit for a referenced contract will incur costs to trade in instruments that are not subject to federal limits, such as trade options and bespoke swaps, which typically incur more expensive transactions costs than exchange traded futures and swaps.
Furthermore, as discussed above, exchanges may choose to adopt spot-month limits below the federal limit. Market participants who are hedging their cash market positions would incur costs of having to apply for an exemption from the exchange if their hedging positons are above the lower limit set by the exchange. Otherwise, a market participant who wants speculative exposure above the lower limit, but who does not qualify for an exemption, would have to take speculative positions in other instruments not subject to exchange or Federal position limits, which as noted above may involve higher transaction costs.
The Commission also recognizes that there are costs to setting federal spot-month limits too high or too low. If the Federal spot-month limit is too high, the exchanges and the Commission lose visibility into market activity because the number of exemption applications from market participants will be reduced because of the higher limit. In addition, if limits are too high, market participants could obtain positions that would impact the price of the commodity, possibly manipulating or distorting the futures price, thus impairing the price discovery process of the core referenced futures contract. Furthermore, if a market participant establishes a very large position and then has to unwind its position, there could be an adverse impact on the price of the core referenced futures contract (
Conversely, if the Federal spot-month limit is too low, market participants and exchanges would incur larger costs to apply for and process, respectively, more exemption applications. In addition, as noted above, transactions costs for market participants who are near or above the limit would rise as they transact in other instruments with higher transaction costs to obtain their desired level of speculative positions. Additionally, limits that are too low could incentivize speculators to leave the market and not be available to provide liquidity for hedgers, resulting in “choppy” prices and reduced market efficiency.
The Commission proposes to use its discretion in the manner in which it implements the statutorily-required spot-month position limits so as to achieve Congress's objectives in CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B)(ii); that is, to prevent or deter market manipulation, including corners and squeezes. For example, the Commission proposes to use its discretion under CEA section 4a(a)(1) to set limits that are equal in the spot-month for physical-delivery and linked cash-settled referenced contracts respectively. By setting separate limits for physical-delivery and cash-settled referenced contracts, the Reproposal restricts the size of the position a trader may hold or control in cash-settled referenced contracts, thus reducing the incentive of a trader to manipulate the settlement of the physical-delivery contract in order to benefit positions in the cash-settled referenced contract. Thus, the separate limits further enhance the prevention of market manipulation provided by spot-month position limits by reducing the potential for incentives to engage in manipulative action.
One commenter urged the Commission to ensure that a final rule does not compromise predictable convergence in the market, or risk threatening the utility of contracts for risk management purposes, noting the importance of risk management to the general health of the economy.
The Commission agrees that the federal position limit regime should not unnecessarily impede convergence between the futures and cash markets, which would impede the price discovery process of the core referenced contract. As discussed below, the Commission endeavors to take into account how the position limit levels would impact the number of market participants in all of the referenced contracts to reduce undesirable impact on those markets.
The Commission has preliminarily exercised its discretion in determining how to adopt position limits and has chosen to start with the 25 core referenced futures contracts which were selected on the basis that such contracts:
A commenter was concerned that the proposed position limits will cause market participants to transact in less-transparent and non-cleared markets due to a lack of liquidity on futures markets, and undermine efforts to encourage market transparency and reduce systemic risks through centralized clearing.
The Commission has preliminarily considered how the limits would impact traders. In that regard the Commission sought not to impede the liquidity of the markets for both hedgers and speculators by setting the spot month position limit at a level that would not deter hedgers or speculators from participating in the market. The Commission is mindful of the beneficial effects that speculators have on the commodity markets. As a consequence, the Commission takes into consideration the risk of deterring appropriate speculation when setting the federal limits. The Commission also preliminarily considered the exchange-suggested spot-month limits when setting the federal spot-month limit. As discussed below, in most cases the exchange-suggested limit levels reproposed by the Commission are the federal spot-month limit. Therefore, the Commission preliminarily believes that the federal limits are in line with the exchanges' expectations and therefore the exchanges would be unlikely, at least initially, to adopt a smaller exchange-set spot-month limit for the core referenced futures contracts. The Commission will also review the federal limits in the future to determine if they are effective and not unduly restrictive.
Reproposed § 150.2(b) provides that no person may hold or control positions, net long or net short, in referenced contracts in a single-month or in all-months-combined in excess of the levels specified by the Commission. In that regard, § 150.2(b) would require netting all positions in referenced contracts (regardless of whether such referenced contracts are physical-delivery or cash-settled) when calculating a person's positions for purposes of the proposed single-month or all-months-combined position limits (collectively “non-spot-month” position limits).
The baseline is the current § 150.2 of the Commission's regulations.
CEA section 4a(a)(3)(A) directs the Commission, each time it establishes limits, to set limits on speculative positions for months other than the spot-month.
However, more generally, the Commission recognizes that federal non-spot month position limits do impose costs to exchanges and market participants. These costs are generally the same as discussed above with respect to § 150.2(a). The consideration of the costs to exchanges and market participants of § 150.2(a) is also applicable to § 150.2(b).
Comments on this section are addressed in the discussion of 150.2(e) below.
Reproposed § 150.2(c)(1) and (2) specify that for purposes of part 150, the spot month and any single month shall be those of the core referenced futures contract and that an eligible affiliate is not required to comply separately with speculative position limits.
The baseline is the current § 150.2 of the Commission's regulations.
The Commission believes these are conforming amendments to effectuate the rule and do not have cost or benefit implications.
No commenter addressed any cost or benefit considerations relating to proposed rules § 150.2(c)(1) or (2).
As defined in proposed § 150.1, referenced contracts are futures, options, or swaps contracts that are directly or indirectly linked to a core referenced futures contract or the commodity underlying a core referenced futures contract.
New rule § 150.2(d) lists the 25 core referenced futures contracts on which the Commission has preliminarily determined to establish federal speculative position limits. The list reflects a significant expansion of federal speculative position limits from the list of nine agricultural contracts under current part 150.
As discussed in the 2013 Position Limit Proposal,
The baseline is the current § 150.2 of the Commission's regulations.
The benefits and costs are considered in the discussion of the definition of core referenced futures contract and referenced contract in § 150.1.
Comments on this section are considered in the discussion of the definition of core referenced futures contract and referenced contract in § 150.1.
The list of initial spot month, single month and all-months combined position limit levels adopted by the Commission for referenced contracts can be found in Appendix D to this part. Under reproposed § 150.2(e)(3), the Commission will recalibrate spot month position limit levels no less frequently than every two calendar years, with any such recalibration to result in limits no greater than one-quarter (25 percent) of the estimated spot-month deliverable supply
Accordingly, each DCM is required to supply the Commission with an estimated spot-month deliverable supply figure that the Commission will use to recalibrate spot-month position limits unless the Commission decides to rely on its own estimate of deliverable supply instead.
In contrast to spot-month limits, which will be set as a function of deliverable supply, the formula for the non-spot-month position limits is based on total open interest for all referenced contracts that are aggregated with a particular core referenced futures contract. In that regard, § 150.2(e)(4) explains that the Commission will calculate non-spot-month position limit levels based on the following formula: 10 percent of the largest annual average open interest for the first 25,000 contracts and 2.5 percent of the open interest thereafter.
The Commission's average open interest calculation will be computed for each of the past two calendar years, using either month-end open contracts or open contracts for each business day in the time period, as practical and in the Commission's discretion. Initially, the Commission is reproposing initial non-spot-month limits using the larger open interest level from two 12-month periods (July 1, 2104 to June 30, 2015; and July 1, 2015 to June 30, 2016), for futures contracts and options thereon reported under part 16, and for swaps reported under part 20.
In the future, the Commission expects to use the data reported pursuant to parts 16, 20, and/or 45 of the Commission's regulations to estimate average open interest in referenced contracts.
The baseline is the current § 150.2 of the Commission's regulations.
The method for determining the levels at which the limits are set is consistent with the Commission's longstanding acceptable practices for DCM-set speculative position limits. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to set the initial spot month speculative position limit levels for referenced contracts at the existing DCM-set levels for the core referenced futures contracts.
One commenter was unconvinced that estimated deliverable supply is “the appropriate metric for determining spot month position limits” and opined that the “real test” should be whether limits “allow convergence of cash and futures so that futures markets can still perform their price discovery and risk management functions.” CL-NGFA-60941 at 2. Another commenter stated, “While 25% may be a reasonable threshold, it is based on historical practice rather than contemporary analysis, and it should only be used as a guideline, rather than formally adopted as a hard rule. Deliverable supply is subject to numerous environmental and economic factors, and is inherently not susceptible to formulaic calculation on a yearly basis.” CL-MGEX-60301 at 1. Another commenter expressed the view that the 25 percent formula is not “appropriately calibrated to achieve the statutory objective” set forth in section 4a(a)(3)(B)(i) of the CEA, 7 U.S.C. 6a(a)(3)(B)(i). CL-CME-60926 at 3. Another commenter opined that because the Commission “has not established a relationship between `estimated deliverable supply' and spot-month potential for manipulation or excessive speculation,” the 25 percent formula is arbitrary. CL-ISDA and SIFMA-59611 at 31.
Several commenters opined that a limit at 25 percent of deliverable supply is too high.
Several commenters supported setting limits based on updated estimates of deliverable supply which reflect current market conditions.
In preliminarily determining the levels at which to set the initial speculative position limits, the Commission considered, among other things, the recommendations of the exchanges as well as data to which the exchanges do not have access. In considering these and other factors, a significant concern of the Commission became the effect of alternative limit levels on traders in the cash-settled referenced contracts. A DCM has reasonable discretion in establishing the manner in which it complies with core principle 5 regarding position limits.
As discussed in more detail above, the process of determining appropriate spot-month limit levels included the Commission receiving updated estimates of deliverable supply from the DCMs listing the 25 core referenced contracts, which Commission staff verified as reasonable after conducting its own independent review of estimated deliverable supply for the subject core referenced contracts. Furthermore, the DCMs provided recommended spot-month limit levels for some of the 25 core referenced contracts which the Commission considered while determining the appropriate level of spot-month limits for the 25 core referenced futures contracts.
As part of reproposing § 150.2(e)(3)(i), the Commission has considered scenarios where exchanges may or may not update deliverable supply. This may result in the Commission reviewing and re-establishing position limits in the spot month. Exchanges may elect not to undertake this expense of re-estimating the deliverable supply of the underlying
One commenter cautioned the Commission not to rely on inaccurate or unreliable data or apply a one-size-fits-all approach in setting the levels of position limits, in order to avoid potential harms to market liquidity and increased costs.
The Commission has preliminarily determined to ease the transition to the initial speculative position limits by setting a compliance date of January 3, 2018 in § 150.3(e)(1). As for the process of determining appropriate spot-month position limit levels, the Commission endeavored to use accurate and reliable data. For example, the Commission looked to updated estimates of deliverable supply from the DCMs listing the 25 core referenced contracts, which Commission staff verified as reasonable after conducting its own independent review of estimated deliverable supply for the subject core referenced futures contracts.
For the CME and MGEX Agricultural (Legacy) contracts, which were previously subject to federal position limits, the Commission has preliminarily determined to set the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for C, O, RR, S, SM, SO, W and KW at the recommended levels submitted by CME,
The Commission has also preliminarily determined to set the initial speculative spot month position limit level for MWE at 1,000 contracts, which is the level requested by MGEX
The Commission's impact analysis reveals no traders in cash settled contracts in any of C, O, S, SM, SO, W, MWE, KW, or RR, and no traders in physical delivery contracts for O and RR, above the initial speculative limit levels for those contracts. The Commission found varying numbers of traders in the C, S, SM, SO, W, MWE, KW physical delivery contracts over the initial levels, but the numbers were very small for MWE and KW. Because the levels that the Commission is adopting for C, O, S, SM, SO, W, KW, and RR maintain the status quo for those contracts, the Commission assumes that some or possibly all of such traders over the initial levels are hedgers. Hedgers may have to file for an applicable exemption, but hedgers with bona fide hedging positions should not have to reduce their positions as a result of speculative position limits per se. Thus, the number of traders in the C, S, SM, SO, W and KW physical delivery contracts who would need to reduce speculative positions below the initial limit levels should be lower than the numbers indicated by the impact
MGEX contended that the proposed wheat position limit disparity (particularly in non-spot months) may inject significant instability into the market, as market participants will be unable to utilize time-tested risk management practices equally across the three contracts and have unintended negative market consequences resulting from hedgers and speculators limiting their activity (particularly spread trading) in markets with the lowest limits—or ceasing to trade in the lower-limit markets altogether.
MGEX was concerned that the proposed method inhibits growth in rapidly changing and expanding derivatives markets and will limit growth in the HRSW contract at a time when participation is increasing.
The Commission took concerns about wheat contract parity into account when preliminarily setting the spot month and non-spot month levels for the CBOT Wheat, KCBT Hard Winter Wheat and MGEX Hard Red Spring Wheat contracts. In that regard, as discussed below, the Commission is reproposing to maintaining the status quo for the non-spot month position limit levels for the KW and MWE core referenced futures contracts so that there will be partial wheat parity.
For the “Softs”—agricultural contracts on cocoa, coffee, cotton, orange juice, sugar and live cattle—the Commission has preliminarily determined to set the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for the CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, and SF
The Commission did not receive any estimate of deliverable supply for the CME (LC) core referenced futures contract from CME, nor did CME recommend any change in the limit level for LC. In the absence of any such update, the Commission is reproposing the initial speculative position limit level of 450 contracts as proposed. Of 616 reportable persons, the Commission's impact analysis did not reveal any unique person trading cash settled or physical delivery spot month contracts who would have held positions above this level for LC.
With respect to the IFUS CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, and SF core referenced futures contracts, the Commission's impact analysis did not reveal any unique person trading cash settled spot month contracts who would have held positions above the initial levels that the Commission is adopting; as illustrated above. Rather, adopting lower levels would mostly have affected small numbers of traders in physical delivery contracts. Therefore, the Commission has preliminarily determined to accept ICE's recommendations.
For the metals contracts, the Commission has preliminarily determined to set the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for GC, SI, and HG at the recommended levels submitted by CME,
The Commission found varying numbers of traders in the GC, SI, PL, PA, and HG physical delivery contracts over the initial levels, but the numbers were very small except for PA. Because the levels that the Commission is adopting for PL, PA, and HG maintain the status quo for those contracts, the Commission assumes that some or possibly all of such traders over the initial levels are hedgers. The Commission reiterates the discussion above regarding agricultural contracts: hedgers may have to file for an applicable exemption, but hedgers with bona fide hedging positions should not have to reduce their positions as a result of speculative position limits per se. Thus, the number of traders in the metals physical delivery contracts who would need to reduce speculative positions below the initial limit levels should be lower than the numbers indicated by the impact analysis. And, while setting initial speculative levels at 25 percent of deliverable supply would, based upon logic and the Commission's impact analysis, affect fewer traders in the metals physical delivery contracts, consistent with its statement in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission believes that setting these lower levels of initial spot month limits will serve the objectives of preventing excessive speculation, manipulation, squeezes and corners,
The Commission's impact analysis reveals no unique persons in the SI and HG cash settled referenced contracts, and very few unique persons in the cash settled GC referenced contract, whose positions would have exceeded the initial limit levels for those contracts. Based on the Commission's impact analysis, preliminarily setting the initial federal spot month limit levels for PL and PA at the lower levels recommended by CME impact a few traders in PL and PA cash settled contracts.
The Commission has considered the numbers of unique persons that would have been impacted by each of the cash-settled and physical-delivery spot month limits in the PL and PA referenced contracts. The Commission notes those limits would have impacted more traders in the physical-delivery PA contract than in the cash-settled PA contract, while fewer traders would have been impacted in the physical-delivery PL contract than in the cash-settled PL contract, albeit in any event few traders would have been impacted.
For the energy contracts, the Commission has preliminarily determined to set the initial speculative spot month position limit levels for the NG, CL, HO, and RB core referenced futures contracts at 25 percent of estimated deliverable supply which, in the case of CL, HO, and RB is higher than the levels recommended by CME.
The levels that CME recommended for NG, CL, HO, and RB are twice the existing exchange-set spot month limit levels. Nevertheless, the Commission is proposing to set the initial speculative spot month limit levels at 25 percent of deliverable supply for CL, HO, and RB because the higher levels will lessen the impact on a number of traders in both cash settled and physical delivery contracts. For NG, the Commission is proposing to set the physical delivery limit at 25 percent of deliverable supply, as recommended by CME; the Commission is also proposing to set a conditional spot month limit exemption of 10,000 for NG only.
One economist estimated, using various stated assumptions but not an empirical model, that position limits at the proposed level would cost American consumers roughly $100 billion, based on an increase of $15 per barrel of oil in 2013.
The Commission believes that positon limits are unlikely to deter passive investors because they have the opportunity to invest in commodities through collective investment vehicles such as exchange traded funds (ETFs) or commodity pools. For example, if a position limit would become binding on a particular ETF, market demand would be expected to encourage another party to create a new ETF that could replicate a similar strategy to the previous one, which would allow the passive investment to continue.
Regarding the forms and application process to obtain a § 150.11 exemption, the Commission believes that the requirements are not as onerous as the commenter fears. In this regard, an oil exploration firm would likely be able to qualify for an anticipatory hedge exemption. The Commission believes the costs of this process will have a negligible impact on the oil exploration firm's costs of hedging.
Another commenter was concerned that position limits set so low as to diminish speculative capacity in U.S. energy markets will distort prices, increase volatility, increase option premiums and increase the cost of hedging.
The Commission agrees with the commenter that setting position limits too low could distort prices, increase volatility, increase option premiums and increase the cost of hedging. The Commission believes it has preliminarily set the limit levels sufficiently high so that they will not have a significant adverse impact on the efficiency and price discovery functions of the core referenced futures contracts.
In response to 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal RFC 55, a commenter pointed out that the Commission's Division of Enforcement has numerous tools at its disposal, and the exchanges have position step-down and exemption revocation authorization at their disposal, to enforce market manipulation prohibitions.
The Commission agrees with the commenter, but notes that the Division of Enforcement's tools can be used only after market manipulation or other adverse consequences have already occurred. As for the tools at the disposal of the exchanges to reduce a market participant's position or deter it from attempting to manipulate the market, the Commission considered these points when preliminarily setting the federal position limits at levels that may be higher than the Commission would otherwise consider, and in some cases higher than the levels suggested by the exchanges.
As discussed in more detail above, the Commission has preliminarily determined to use the futures position limits formula, 10 percent of the open interest for the first 25,000 contracts and 2.5 percent of the open interest thereafter (
In addition, the Commission believes that it is beneficial to update the non-spot month position limits based on recent position data, such as Part 20 data. The Commission also proposes to retain the option to maintain the existing position limit levels if it believes there is good reason to deviate from the formulas. This could be the case if, for example, the Commission has experience at a level higher the amount given in the formula and believes that the higher level is appropriate, because the Commission has not observed any problems at the higher level. Furthermore, the
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the Corn (C), Oats (O), Rough Rice (RR), Soybeans (S), Soybean Meal (SM), Soybean Oil (SO), and Wheat (W) core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
Maintaining the status quo for the non-spot month limit levels for the KW and MWE core referenced futures contracts means there will be partial wheat parity.
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the CC, KC, CT, OJ, SB, SF and LC
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the GC, SI, PL, PA, and HG core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
The Commission is reproposing non-spot month speculative position limit levels for the NG, CL, HO, and RB core referenced futures contracts based on the 10, 2.5 percent open interest formula.
A commenter claimed that the proposed rule did not address the price impact of speculative money flows into commodities, and that if the Commission is concerned with the types of manipulative activities shown by the Hunt Brothers and Amaranth cases, there are “targeted and less burdensome and complex ways to prevent such a manipulative harm” and the inclusion of position limits on swaps is invalid because swaps cannot be used to cause this detrimental impact.
The Commission disagrees, and notes that swaps can be used to cause detrimental impact, as occurred in the Amaranth case. Amaranth entered into swaps on an exempt commercial market that were directly linked to a core reference futures contract. So to ignore swaps would not adequately address the issue that position limits are intended to address.
The Commission is reproposing new § 150.2(f)(2) to exempt from federal non-spot-month speculative position limits any referenced contract position acquired by a person in good faith prior to the effective date of such limit, provided that the pre-existing position is attributed to the person if such person's position is increased after the effective date of such limit.
Finally, reproposed § 150.2(g) will apply position limits to positions on FBOTs provided that positions are held in referenced contracts that settle to a referenced contract and the FBOT allows direct access to its trading system for participants located in the United States.
The baseline is the current § 150.2 of the Commission's regulations.
The Commission exempted certain pre-existing positions from position limits under new § 150.2(f) as part of its grandfathering provisions.
New § 150.2(g), extends the federal position limits to a person who holds positions in referenced contracts on an FBOT that settle against any price of one or more contracts listed for trading on a DCM or SEF that is a trading facility, if the FBOT makes available such referenced contracts to its members or other participants located in the United States through direct access to its electronic trading and ordering matching system. In that regard, § 150.2(g) is consistent with CEA section 4a(a)(6)(B), which directs the Commission to apply aggregate position limits to FBOT linked, direct-access contracts.
Regulations 150.2(f) and (g) implement statutory directives in CEA section 4a(b)(2) and CEA section 4a(a)(6)(B), respectively, and are not acts of the Commission's discretion. Thus, a consideration of costs and benefits of these provisions is not required under CEA section 15(a).
No commenter addressed the costs or benefits of § 150.2(f) and (g).
As discussed above, the Commission has provided a general discussion of reproposed § 150.3 and highlighted the rule-text changes that it has made after several rounds of proposed rulemakings and responsive comments. In this release, the Commission has reproposed paragraphs (a), (b), (d), (e), (g) and (h) as proposed in December 2013.
In the June 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the Commission changed proposed paragraph (a). The Commission also explained in the 2016 cost-benefit section that the changes it was making to proposed § 150.3(a)(1) should be read in conjunction with proposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and 150.11.
In this section, the Commission summarizes reproposed § 150.3, and, thereafter, discusses the related benefits and costs of the final rules.
Among other things, reproposed § 150.3(a)(1)(i) codifies the statutory requirement that bona fide hedging positions be exempt from federal position limits. Reproposed § 150.3(a)(2) authorizes other exemptions from position limits for financial-distress positions, conditional spot-month limit positions, spread positions, and other risk-reduction practices.
Reproposed § 150.3(b) provides the means for market participants to request relief from applicable position limits during certain financial distress circumstances, including the default of a customer, affiliate, or acquisition target of the requesting entity, that may require an entity to assume in short order the positions of another entity.
Reproposed § 150.3(c) provides a conditional spot-month limit exemption that permits traders to acquire positions for natural gas up to 10,000 contracts if such positions are exclusively in cash-settled contracts. The natural-gas conditional exemption would not be available to traders who hold or control positions in the spot-month physical-delivery referenced contract in order to reduce the risk that traders with large positions in cash-settled contracts would attempt to distort the physical-delivery price to benefit such positions.
Reproposed § 150.3(d) provides an exemption from federal position limits for swaps entered into before July 21, 2010 (the date of the enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act), the terms of which have not expired as of that date, and for swaps entered into during the period commencing July 22, 2010, the terms of which have not expired as of that date, and ending 60 days after the publication of final rule § 150.3—that is, its effective date.
Reproposed § 150.3(e) explains that a market participant engaged in risk-reducing practices that are not enumerated in the revised definition of bona fide hedging in reproposed § 150.1 may use two different methods to apply to the Commission for relief from federal position limits. The market participant may request an interpretative letter from Commission staff pursuant to § 140.9 concerning the applicability of the bona fide hedging position exemption, or may seek exemptive relief from the Commission under CEA section 4a(a)(7) of the Act.
After reviewing comments, the Commission has preliminarily determined it is best to change the § 150.3(f) text proposed in December 2013. The amended text broadens exemption relief to pre-existing financial instruments that are within current § 1.47's scope, and to exchange-granted non-enumerated exemptions in non-legacy commodity derivatives
Reproposed § 150.3(g)(1) specifies recordkeeping requirements for market participants who claim any exemption in final § 150.3. Market participants claiming exemptions under reproposed § 150.3 would need to maintain complete books and records concerning all details of their related cash, forward, futures, options and swap positions and transactions. Reproposed § 150.3(g)(2) requires market participants seeking to rely upon the pass-through swap offset exemption to obtain a representation from its counterparty and keep that representation on file. Similarly, reproposed § 150.3(g)(3) requires a market participant who makes such a representation to maintain records supporting the representation. Under reproposed § 150.3(h), all market participants would need to make such books and records available to the Commission upon request, which would preserve the “call for information” rule set forth in current § 150.3(b).
The baseline is the current § 150.3 of the Commission's regulations.
As explained in the December 2013 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, § 150.3 works with §§ 150.9, 150.10, and § 150.11. All of these rules operate together within the broader position-limits regulatory regime and provide significant benefits, such as regulatory certainty, consistency, and transparency. As such, the benefits of reproposed § 150.3 are discussed in the cost-benefit sections related to reproposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and 150.11.
The Commission continues to believe that by codifying historical practices of temporarily lifting position limit restrictions several benefits will ensue. Reproposed § 150.3 ensures the orderly transfers of positions from financially distressed firms to financially secure firms or facilitating other necessary remediation measures during times of market stress. Because of this Reproposal, the Commission believes it is less likely that positions will be prematurely or unnecessarily liquidated, and it is less likely that the price-discovery function of markets will be harmed.
In the December 2013 proposal, the Commission proposed § 150.3(c) that provided speculators with an opportunity to maintain relatively large positions in cash-settled contracts up to but no greater than 125 percent of the spot-month limit. The Commission explained that by prohibiting speculators using the exemption in the cash-settled contract from trading in the spot-month of the physical-delivery contract, the final rules should further protect the delivery and settlement process, and reduce the ability for a trader with a large cash settled contract position to attempt to manipulate the physical-delivery contract price in order to benefit his position. The Commission invited comment on this general exemption. Upon review of the comment letters, the Commission has preliminarily determined to restrict the conditional-spot-month-limit exemption to natural gas cash-settled referenced contracts. The reasons for this change are explained above.
The pre-existing swaps exemption in reproposed§ 150.3(d) is consistent with CEA section 4a(b)(2). The exemption promotes the smooth transition for previously unregulated swaps markets to swaps markets that will be subjected to position limits compliance. In addition, allowing netting with pre-enactment and transition swaps provides flexibility where possible in order to lessen the impact of the regime on entities with swap positions.
Reproposed § 150.3(e) is essentially clarifying and organizational in nature. For the most part, the Reproposal provides the benefit of regulatory certainty for those granted exemptions.
As explained above, the Commission has expanded the scope of reproposed § 150.3(f) exemptive relief. In December 2013, the Commission discussed the benefits of proposed § 150.3(f), and believed that the benefits centered on regulatory certainty. Now that the Commission has increased the types of financial instruments that may be exempted from position limits under this rule, the Commission believes that it has reduced the likelihood of market disruption because of forced and unexpected liquidations. In other words, the Commission believes that reproposed § 150.3(f) will support market stability.
The Commission believes that the reproposed § 150.3(g)'s recordkeeping requirements are critical to the Commission's ability to effectively monitor compliance with exemption eligibility standards. Because the Commission will have access to records under § 150.3(h), it will be able to assess whether exemptions are susceptible to abuse and to support the position-limits regime, which, among other things, aims to prevent excessive speculation and/or market manipulation.
As the Commission expressed in the December 2013 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, the exemptions under reproposed § 150.3 do not increase the costs of complying with position limits. The Commission continues to believe that many costs will likely decrease by the Commission providing for relief from position limits in certain situations. The reproposed § 150.3 exemptions are elective, so no entity is required to assert an exemption if it determines the costs of doing so do not justify the potential benefit resulting from the exemption. While the Commission appreciates that there will be compliance duties connected to the reproposed § 150.3, the Commission does not anticipate the costs of obtaining any of the exemptions to be overly burdensome.
Because of the proposed changes in the June 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, reproposed § 150.3(a) must be read with reproposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and § 150.11. Moreover, the costs of reproposed § 150.3 are linked to reproposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and § 150.11, and are discussed more fully below.
The Commission's view on the costs related to the financial distress exemption under reproposed § 150.3(b) remains unchanged. The costs are likely to be minimal. Market participants who voluntarily employ these exemptions will incur filing and recordkeeping
A natural gas market participant that elects to exercise this exemption will incur certain direct costs to do so. The natural gas market participant must file Form 504 in accordance with requirements listed in reproposed § 19.01. The Commission does not believe that there will be additional costs, or at least not significant costs, because exchanges already have the exemption. Given that there has been experience with this type of exemption for natural gas market participants,
The exemption offered in reproposed § 150.3(d) is self-executing and will not require a market participant to file for relief. Nevertheless, as explained in the December 2013 proposal, a market participant may incur costs to identify positions eligible for the exemption and to determine if that position is to be netted with post-enactment swaps for purposes of complying with a non-spot-month position limit. The Commission believes these costs will not be overly burdensome, and notes that market participants who assume such costs do so voluntarily.
Under the reproposed § 150.3(e), market participants electing to seek an exemption other than those specifically enumerated, will incur certain direct costs to do so. The Commission discussed the expected costs in the December 2013 proposal and continues to believe that the same costs will arise should market participants elect exemptive relief under reproposed § 150.3(e). As explained in the December 2013 proposal, market participants will incur costs related to petitioning the Commission under § 140.99 of the Commission's regulations or under CEA section 4a(a)(7). There also will be recordkeeping costs for those market participants who elect to pursue a § 150.3(e) exemption. The Commission believes that these costs will be minimal, as participants already maintain books and records under a variety of other Commission regulations and as the information required in these sections is likely already being maintained. The Commission has estimated the costs entities might incur and discussed those costs in the PRA section of this release.
Market participants who had previously relied upon the exemptions granted under current § 1.47 will be able to continue to rely on such exemptions for existing positions under reproposed § 150.3(f). Between the December 2013 proposal and now, the Commission has determined to expand the relief in reproposed § 150.3(f). As more fully discussed above, the Commission amended the regulatory text so that previously-granted exemptions may apply to pre-existing financial instruments, rather than only to pre-existing swaps, and to exchange-granted, non-enumerated exemptions in non-legacy commodity derivatives outside of the spot month, with other conditions. The Commission believes that there will be recordkeeping costs but there also will be cost-savings in the form of market stability because market participants will not be required to liquidate positions prematurely, and the relief covers financial instruments not just swaps.
Under reproposed § 150.3(g) and (h), the costs related to maintaining and producing records will be minimal because, under most circumstances, market participants already maintain books and records in compliance with Commission regulations and as part of prudent accounting and risk management policies and procedures. The Commission has estimated the costs entities might incur and discussed those costs in the PRA section of this release.
The Dodd-Frank Act scaled back the discretion afforded DCMs for establishing position limits under the earlier CFMA amendments. Specifically, among other things, the Dodd-Frank Act: (1) Amended DCM core principle 5 to require that, with respect to contracts subject to a position limit set by the Commission under CEA section 4a, a DCM must set limits no higher than those prescribed by the Commission;
In light of these Dodd-Frank Act statutory amendments, the Commission has adopted § 150.5 to specify certain requirements and guidance for DCMs and SEFs establishing exchange-set limits.
Specifically, § 150.5(a)(1) requires that DCMs and SEFs set position limits for commodity derivative contracts, subject to federal position limits, at a level not higher than the Commission's levels specified in § 150.2. In addition, exchanges with cash-settled contracts price-linked to contracts subject to federal limits must also adopt limit levels not higher than federal position limits.
Further, § 150.5(a)(5) requires for all contracts subject to federal speculative limits, and §§ 150.5(b)(8) and 150.5(c)(8) suggest for other contracts not subject to federal speculative limits, that designated contract markets and swap execution facilities adopt aggregation rules that conform to § 150.4. Regulation § 150.5(a)(2)(i) requires for all contracts subject to federal speculative limits, and
Regulation § 150.5(a)(2)(ii) requires, and §§ 150.5(b)(5)(iii) and (c)(5)(iii) suggest that exchanges condition any exemptive relief from federal or exchange-set position limits on an application from the trader. And, if granted an exemption, such trader must reapply for such exemption at least on an annual basis. As noted
Finally, under § 150.5(b) and § 150.5(c) for commodity derivative contracts not subject to federal position limits, the Commission provides guidance for exchanges to use their reasonable discretion to set exchange position limits and exempt market participants from exchange-set limits. This includes, under § 150.5(b), commodity derivative contracts in a physical commodity as defined in § 150.1, and, under § 150.5(c), excluded commodity derivative contracts as defined in section 1a(19) of the Act.
The baseline is the current reasonable discretion afforded to exchanges to exempt market participant from their exchange-set position limits.
Functioning as an integrated component within the broader position limits regulatory regime, the Commission expects the proposed changes to § 150.5 will further the four objectives outlined in CEA section 4a(a)(3).
The reproposed regulations require that exchange-set limits employ aggregation policies that conform to the Commission's aggregation policy for contracts that are subject to federal limits under § 150.2, thus harmonizing aggregation rules for all federal and exchange-set speculative position limits. For contracts subject to federal speculative position limits under § 150.2, the Commission anticipates that a harmonized approach to aggregation will prevent confusion that otherwise might result from allowing divergent standards between federal and exchange-set limits on the same contracts. Further, the harmonized approach to aggregation policies for limits on all levels eliminates the potential for exchanges to use permissiveness in aggregation policies as a competitive advantage, which would impair the effectiveness of the Commission's aggregation policy. In addition, DCMs and SEFs are required to set position limits at a level not higher than that set by the Commission. Differing aggregation standards may have the practical effect of increasing a DCM- or SEF-set limit to a level that is higher than that set by the Commission. Accordingly, harmonizing aggregation standards reinforces the efficacy and intended purpose of §§ 150.5(a)(2)(ii), (b)(5)(iii) and (c)(5)(iii) by foreclosing an avenue to circumvent applicable limits. Moreover, by extending this harmonized approach to contracts not included in § 150.2, the Commission encourages a common standard for all federal and exchange-set limits. The adopted rule provides uniformity, consistency, and certainty for traders who are active on multiple trading venues, and thus should reduce the administrative burden on traders as well as the burden on the Commission in monitoring the markets under its jurisdiction.
With respect to exchange-set limits, DCM and SEF core principles already address the costs associated with the requirement that exchanges set position limits no higher than federal limits. Further, for commodity derivatives contracts subject to federal position limits, exchanges are provided the discretion to decide whether or not to set position-limits that are lower than the federal position limit. Finally, when an exchange grants an exemption from a lower exchange-set limit, it is not required to use the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition so long as the exempted position does not exceed the federal position limit.
To the extent that a DCM or SEF grants exemptions, the Commission anticipates that exchanges and market participants will incur minimal costs to administer the application process for exemption relief in accordance with standards set forth in the proposed rule. The Commission understands that requiring traders to apply for exemptive relief comports with existing DCM practice. Accordingly, by incorporating an application requirement that the Commission has reason to understand most if not all active DCMs already follow, the impact of the potential costs has been reduced because the nature of the exemption process is similar to what DCMs already have in place. For SEFs, the rules necessitate a compliant application regime, which will require an initial investment similar to that which DCMs have likely already made and need not duplicate. As noted above, the Commission considers it highly likely that, in accordance with industry best practices, to comply with core principles and due to the utility of application information in demonstrating compliance with core principles, SEFs may incur such costs with or without the adopted rules. Again, due to the new existence of these entities, the Commission is unable to estimate what costs may be associated with the requirement to impose an application regime for exemptive relief on the exchange level.
Also, with respect to phasing, exchanges are not required to use the Commission's definition of bona fide hedging position when setting positon limits on commodity derivative contracts in a physical commodity that are not subject to federal position limits (and when exchanges grant an exemption from exchange-set limits if such exemption does not exceed the federal limit) or excluded commodity derivative contracts. Nevertheless, exchanges are free to use the Commission's bona fide hedging position definition if they so choose.
Relative to the status quo baseline, this rulemaking imposes a ceiling on exchange-set position limits for referenced contracts in 25 commodities. The core principals already require such ceiling, and such costs are addressed in the part 37 and 38 rulemakings. As mandated and necessary, this rule adopts limits for 16 additional commodities. In addition, market participants may be facing hard position limits on some contract that previously only had accountability levels. As such, this rulemaking will confer any benefits that hard position limits have over accountability levels. This may include information gleaned from exemption applications that will better inform the supervisory functions of DCMs or SEFs as well as to protect markets from any adverse effects from market participants that hold positions in excess of an exchange set position limit. In addition, exchanges retain the ability to set accountability levels lower than the levels of the position limits; if an exchanges chooses to adopt such accountability levels, they would
Exchanges and market participants will have to adapt to new federal position limits. Position limits will alter the way that swap and futures trading is conducted. For many contracts that did not have federal limits, participants will be facing new exchange set position limits in the spot, single month, and all months combined. Such limits may impose new compliance costs on exchanges and market participants. These compliance costs may consists of adapting the method of aggregating contracts and filing for exchange exemptions to position limits. The Commission anticipates that these costs will be higher for contracts that have only had accountability levels and not hard exchange-set position limits. Exchange-set position limits may also deter some speculators from fully participating and affecting the price of some futures contracts. The Commission expects that for the most part, exchange-set position limits will not have much effect except for rare circumstances when exemptions to exchange set limits do not apply or other derivative contracts such as swap contracts (below the federal limit), forwards, or trade options are not adequate to meet a market participant's needs.
A commenter asked whether the Supplemental Proposal's cost-benefit analysis assesses the appropriateness of such requirement on exchange-set speculative position limits or includes the costs of processing non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions and Spread Exemptions for contracts subject only to exchange-set speculative position limits and not federal speculative position limits.
The Commission notes that if an exchange elects to set a position limit lower than a federal limit, the costs resulting from such choices are not imposed by § 150.5, because the exchange has made the choice not the Commission. The costs on market participants to apply for exchange set limits below the federal level are also discussed in § 150.2. The Commission is unable to forecast these costs, because it does not know when an exchange will set its limits lower than the federal limit; nor does it know how low any such exchange-set position limit level may be.
This rulemaking maintains the status quo for exchange-set speculative limits for contracts not subject to federal limits. Therefore, there are no costs and benefits resulting from this rulemaking on the processing of such exemptions.
The revised definition of bona fide hedging position reproposed in § 150.1 of this rule incorporates hedges of five specific types of anticipated transactions: Unfilled anticipated requirements, unsold anticipated production, anticipated royalties, anticipated service contract payments or receipts, and anticipatory cross-hedges.
The Commission proposed to add a new series '04 reporting form, Form 704, to effectuate these additional and updated reporting requirements for anticipatory hedges. Persons wishing to avail themselves of an exemption for any of the anticipatory hedging transactions enumerated in the updated definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1 would be required to file an initial statement on Form 704 with the Commission at least ten days in advance of the date that such positions would be in excess of limits established in § 150.2.
Reproposed § 150.7(f) adds a requirement for any person who files an initial statement on Form 704 to provide annual updates that detail the person's actual cash market activities related to the anticipated exemption. Reproposed § 150.7(g) enables the Commission to review and compare the actual cash activities and the remaining unused anticipated hedge transactions by requiring monthly reporting on Form 204.
As is the case under current § 1.48, reproposed § 150.7(h) required that a trader's maximum sales and purchases must not exceed the lesser of the approved exemption amount or the trader's current actual anticipated transaction.
The baseline is current § 1.48.
The Commission remains concerned that distinguishing whether an over-the-limit position is entered into in order to reduce risk arising from anticipatory needs, or whether it is excess speculation, may be exceedingly difficult if anticipatory transactions are not well defined. The Commission is, therefore, reproposing the collection of Form 704 to collect information that is vital in performing this distinction. While there will be costs associated with fulfilling obligations related to anticipatory hedging, the Commission believes that advance notice of a trader's intended maximum position in commodity derivative contracts to offset anticipatory risks would identify—in advance—a position as a bona fide hedging position, avoiding unnecessary contact during the trading day with surveillance staff to verify whether a hedge exemption application is in process, the appropriate level for the exemption and whether the exemption is being used in a manner that is consistent with the requirements. Market participants can anticipate hedging needs well in advance of assuming positions in derivatives markets and in many cases need to supply the same information after the fact; in such cases, providing the information in advance allows the Commission to better direct its efforts towards deterring and detecting manipulation. The annual updates in § 150.7(d) similarly allow the Commission to verify on an ongoing basis that the person's anticipated cash market transactions, estimated in good faith, closely track that person's real cash market activities. Absent monthly filing pursuant to § 150.7(e), the Commission would need to issue a special call to determine why a person's commodity derivative contract position is, for example, larger than the pro rata balance of her annually reported anticipated production. The Commission believes it is reproposing a low cost method of obtaining the necessary information to ensure that anticipatory hedges are valid.
One commenter asserted that the reporting requirements for anticipatory hedges of an operational or commercial
Another commenter suggested deleting Form 704 because it believes that no matter how extensive the Commission makes reporting requirements, the Commission will still need to request additional information on a case-by-case basis to ensure hedge transactions are legitimate.
Several commenters remarked on the cost associated with Form 704. One commenter stated that the additional reporting requirements, including new Form 704 to replace the reporting requirements under current rule 1.48, and annual and monthly reporting requirements under rules 150.7(f) and 150.7(g) “will impose significant additional regulatory and compliance burdens on commercials;” the commenter believes that the Commission should consider alternatives, including targeted special calls when appropriate.
Finally, a commenter stated that the Commission significantly underestimated costs associated with reporting, and provided revised estimates of start-up and ongoing compliance costs for filing Form 704.
As discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission remains concerned about distinguishing between anticipatory reduction of risk and speculation.
The Commission is adopting the commenters' suggestions, however, to reduce the frequency of filings by maintaining the requirement for the initial statement and annual update but eliminating the supplemental filing as proposed in § 150.7(e). After considering the commenter's concerns, the Commission believes the monthly reporting on Form 204 and annual updates on Form 704 will provide sufficient updates to the initial statement and is deleting the supplemental filing provision in proposed § 150.7(e) to reduce the burden on filers. The Commission has made several burden-reducing changes to Form 704 and § 150.7(d), including merging the initial statement and annual update sections of Form 704, clarifying and amending the instructions to Form 704, and eliminating redundant information.
In response to the commenter who suggested the Commission consider targeted special calls and other alternatives to the annual and monthly filings, the Commission believes these filings are critical to the Commission's Surveillance program. Anticipatory hedges, because they are by definition forward-looking, require additional detail regarding the firm's commercial practices in order to ensure that a firm is not using the provisions in proposed § 150.7 to evade position limits. In contrast, special calls are backward-looking and would not provide the Commission's Surveillance program with the information needed to prevent markets from being susceptible to excessive speculation. However, the Commission expects the new filing requirements to be an improvement over current practice under § 1.48 because as facts and circumstances change, the Commission's Surveillance program will have a more timely understanding of the market participant's hedging needs.
The Commission notes in response to the commenter that there is no requirement to analyze individual transactions or submit a memorandum. Finally, while costs of filing Form 704 are discussed below in the context of part 19, the Commission notes that changes made to the frequency of the forms should help alleviate some of the cost burdens associated with filing Form 704.
CEA Section 4i authorizes the Commission to require the filing of reports, as described in CEA section 4g, when positions equal or exceed position limits. Current part 19 of the Commission's regulations sets forth these reporting requirements for persons holding or controlling reportable futures and option positions that constitute bona fide hedging positions as defined in § 1.3(z) and in markets with federal speculative position limits—namely those for grains, the soy complex, and cotton. Since having a bona fide hedging position exemption affords a commercial market participant the opportunity to hold positions that exceed a position limit level, it is important for the Commission to be able to verify that, when an exemption is invoked, that it is done so for legitimate purposes. As such, commercial entities that hold positions in excess of those limits must file information on a monthly basis pertaining to owned stocks and purchase and sales commitments for entities that claim a bona fide hedging position exemption.
In order to help ensure that the additional exemptions described in § 150.3 are used in accordance with the requirements of the exemption
Below, the Commission describes each of the proposed changes; responds to commenters; and considers the costs and benefits of such changes.
In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission proposed to amend part 19 so that it would conform to the Commission's proposed changes to part 150.
The baseline is current part 19.
The Commission received several comments regarding the general nature of series '04 reports and/or the manner in which such reports are required to be filed. One commenter stated that the various forms required by the regime, while not lengthy, represent significant data collection and categorization that will require a non-trivial amount of work to accurately prepare and file. The commenter claimed that a comprehensive position limits regime could be implemented with a “far less burdensome” set of filings and requested that the Commission review the proposed forms and ensure they are “as clear, limited, and workable” as possible to reduce burden. The commenter stated that it is not aware of any software vendors that currently provide solutions that can support a commercial firm's ability to file the proposed forms.
Several commenters requested that the Commission create user-friendly guidebooks for the forms so that all entities can clearly understand any required forms and build the appropriate systems to file such forms, including providing workshops and/or hot lines to improve the forms.
Finally, two commenters recommended modifying or removing the requirement to certify series '04 reports as “true and correct.” One commenter suggested that the requirement be removed due to the difficulty of making such a certification and the fact that CEA section 6(c)(2) already prohibits the submission of false or misleading information.
The Commission is reproposing the amendments to part 19. The Commission agrees with the commenters that the forms should be clear and workable, and offers several clarifications and amendments in other sections of this release in response to comments about particular aspects of the series '04 reports.
The Commission notes that the information required on the series '04 reports represents a trader's most basic position data, including the number of units of the cash commodity that the firm has purchased or sold, or the size of a swap position that is being offset in the futures market. The Commission believes this information is readily available to traders, who routinely make trading decisions based on the same data that is required on the series '04 reports. The Commission is moving to an entirely electronic filing system, allowing for efficiencies in populating and submitting forms that require the same information every month. Most traders who are required to file the series '04 reports must do so for only one day out of the month, further lowering the burden for filers. In short, the Commission believes potential burdens have been reduced while still providing adequate information for the Commission's Surveillance program. For market participants who may require assistance in monitoring for speculative position limits and gathering the information required for the series '04 reports, the Commission is aware of several software companies who, prior to the vacation of the Part 151 Rulemaking, produced tools that could be useful to market participants in fulfilling their compliance obligations under the new position limits regime.
In response to the commenters that requested guidebooks for the series '04 reporting forms, the Commission has revised the series '04 forms and the instructions to such forms as discussed
Finally, the Commission is amending the certification language found at the end of each form to clarify that the certification requires nothing more than is already required of market participants in CEA section 6(c)(2). The Commission believes the certification language is an important reminder to reporting traders of their responsibilities to file accurate information under several sections of the Act, including but not limited to CEA section 6(c)(2).
Current § 19.01(a) sets forth the data that must be provided by bona fide hedgers (on Form 204) and by merchants and dealers in cotton (on Form 304). The Commission proposed to continue using Forms 204 and 304, which will feature only minor changes to the types of data to be reported under § 19.01(a)(3).
One commenter suggested that the costs to industry participants in collecting and submitting Form 204 data and to the Commission in reviewing it “greatly outweigh” the regulatory benefit. The commenter recommended that the Commission undertake a cost-benefit analysis to reconsider what information is required to be provided under part 19 and on Form 204 and limit that information only to what will assist Commission staff in assessing the validity of claimed hedge exemptions.
One commenter stated that CFTC should reduce the complexity and compliance burden of bona fide hedging record keeping and reporting by using a model similar to the current exchange-based exemption process.
Another commenter recommended that the Commission should require a market participant with a position in excess of a spot-month position limit to report on Form 204 only the cash-market activity related to that particular spot-month derivative position, and not to require it to report cash-market activity related to non-spot-month positions where it did not exceed a non-spot-month position limit; the commenter stated that the burden associated with such a reporting obligation would increase significantly.
One commenter recommended that reporting rules require traders to identify the specific risk being hedged at the time a trade is initiated, to maintain records of termination or unwinding of a hedge when the underlying risk has been sold or otherwise resolved, and to create a practical audit trail for individual trades, to discourage traders from attempting to mask speculative trades under the guise of hedges.
The Commission recognizes that market participants will incur costs to file Form 204; these costs are described in detail below. However, the Commission believes that the costs of filing Form 204 are not overly burdensome for market participants, most of whom currently file similar information with either the Commission or the exchanges in order to obtain and maintain exemptions from speculative position limits. The Commission believes it is reproposing requirements for Form 204 that provide the Commission with the most basic information possible to ascertain the veracity of claimed bona fide hedging positions. The Commission has in some cases accepted commenter suggestions to reduce or amend the information required in order to reduce confusion and alleviate burden on filers.
The Commission notes that, while the exchange referred to by the commenter does not have a reporting process analogous to Form 204, it does require an application prior to the establishment of a position that exceeds a position limit. In contrast, advance notice is not required for most federal enumerated bona fide hedging positions.
The Commission has never distinguished between spot-month limits and non-spot-month limits with respect to the filing of Form 204. The Commission notes that, as discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, Form 204 is used to review positions that exceed speculative limits in general, not just in the spot-month.
In response to the commenter who suggested the Commission require a “practical audit trail” for bona fide hedgers, the Commission notes that other sections of the Commission's regulations provide rules regarding detailed individual transaction recordkeeping as suggested by the commenter.
As proposed, § 19.01(a)(1) would require persons availing themselves of the conditional spot-month limit exemption (pursuant to proposed § 150.3(c)) to report certain detailed information concerning their cash market activities for any commodity specially designated by the Commission for reporting under § 19.03 of this part. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission noted its concern about the cash market trading of those availing themselves of the conditional spot-month limit exemption and so proposed to require that persons claiming a conditional spot-month limit exemption must report on new Form 504 daily, by 9 a.m. Eastern Time on the next business day, for each day that a person is over the spot-month limit in certain special commodity contracts specified by the Commission.
The Commission proposed to require reporting on new Form 504 for conditional spot-month limit exemptions in the natural gas commodity derivative contracts only, until the Commission gains additional experience with the limits in proposed § 150.2 in other commodities as well.
The reporting requirements allow the Commission to obtain the information necessary to verify whether the relevant exemption requirements are fulfilled in a timely manner. This is needed for the Commission to help ensure that any person who claims any exemption from federal speculative position limits can demonstrate a legitimate purpose for doing so. In the absence of the reporting requirements detailed in part 19, the Commission would lack critical tools to identify abuses related to the exemptions afforded in § 150.3 in a timely manner. As such, the reporting requirements are necessary for the Commission to be able to perform its essential surveillance functions. These reporting requirements therefore promote the Commission's ability to achieve, to the maximum extent practicable, the statutory factors outlined by Congress in CEA section 4a(a)(3).
The Commission recognizes there will be costs associated with the changes and additions to the report filing requirements under part 19. Though the Commission anticipates that market participants should have ready access to much of the required information, the Commission expects that, at least initially, market participants will require additional time and effort to become familiar with new and amended series '04 forms, to gather the necessary information in the required format, and to file reports in the proposed timeframes. As described above, the Commission has attempted to mitigate the cost impacts of these reports.
Actual costs incurred by market participants will vary depending on the diversity of their cash market positions and the experience that the participants currently have regarding filing Form 204 and Form 304 as well as a variety of other organizational factors. However, the Commission has estimated average incremental burdens associated with the proposed rules in order to fulfill its obligations under the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”).
For Form 204, the Commission estimates that approximately 425 market participants will file an average of 12 reports annually at an estimated labor burden of 3 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 36 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 15,300 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour,
For Form 304, the Commission estimates that approximately 200 market participants will file an average of 52 reports annually at an estimated labor burden of 1 hour per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 52hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 10,400 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $6,344 and a total annual cost of $1,268,800 for all affected entities. These estimates are summarized below in Table IV-A-2.
For Form 504, the Commission estimates that approximately 40 market participants will file an average of 12 reports annually at an estimated labor burden of 15 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 180 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 7,200 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $21,960 and a total annual cost of $878,400 for all affected entities. These estimates are summarized below in Table IV-A-3.
For Form 604 filed outside of the spot month, the Commission estimates that approximately 250 market participants will file an average of 10 reports annually at an estimated labor burden of 30 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 300 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 75,000 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $36,600 and a total annual cost of $9,150,000 for all affected entities. For Form 604 filed during of the spot month, the Commission estimates that approximately 100 market participants will file an average of 10 reports annually at an estimated labor burden of 20 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 200 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 20,000 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $24,400 and a total annual cost of $2,440,000 for all affected entities. These estimates are summarized below in Table IV-A-4.
For initial statements filed on Form 704, the Commission estimates that approximately 250 market participants will file an average of 1 report annually at an estimated labor burden of 15 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 15 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 3,750 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $1,830 and a total annual cost of $457,500 for all affected entities. For annual updates filed on Form 704, the Commission estimates that approximately 250 market participants will file an average of 1 report annually at an estimated labor burden of 8 hours per response for a total per-entity hour burden of approximately 8 hours, which computes to a total annual burden of 2,000 hours for all affected entities. Using an estimated hourly wage of $122 per hour, the Commission estimates an annual per-entity cost of approximately $976 and a total annual cost of $244,000 for all affected entities. These estimates are summarized below in Table IV-A-5.
Several commenters seemed not to understand which market participants will be required to file Form 504, as many made comments regarding the burden on bona fide hedgers (who are not required to file Form 504). One commenter stated its belief that the information required on Form 504 is redundant of information required on Form 204 and would overly burden hedgers.
A commenter suggested that the Commission should modify the data requirements for Form 504 in a manner similar to the approach used by ICE Futures U.S. for natural gas contracts, that is, requiring a description of a market participant's cash-market positions as of a specified date filed in advance of the spot-month.
The Commission notes that there is a key distinction between Form 504 and Form 204. Form 504 is required of speculators that are relying upon the conditional spot-month limit exemption. Form 204 is required for hedgers that exceed position limits. To the extent a firm is hedging, there is no requirement to file Form 504.
In the unlikely event that a firm is both hedging and relying upon the conditional spot-month limit exemption, the firm would be required to file both forms at most one day a month, given the timing of the spot-month in natural gas markets (the only market for which Form 504 will be required). In that event, however, the Commission believes that requiring similar information on both forms should encourage filing efficiencies rather than duplicating the burden. For example, both forms require the filer to identify fixed price purchase commitments; the Commission believes it is not overly burdensome for the same firm to report such similar information on Form 204 and Form 504, should a market participant ever be required to file both forms.
The Commission does not believe that a description of a cash market position is sufficient to allow Commission staff to administer its Surveillance program. Descriptions are not as exact as reported information, and the Commission believes the information gathered in daily Form 504 reports would be more complete—and thus more beneficial—in determining compliance and detecting and deterring manipulation. The Commission reiterates that Form 504 will only be required from participants in natural gas markets who seek to avail themselves of the conditional spot-month limit exemption, limiting the burden to only those participants.
As proposed, § 19.01(b)(1) would require all reports, except those submitted in response to special calls or on Form 504, Form 604 during the spot-month, or Form 704, to be filed monthly as of the close of business on the last Friday of the month and not later than 9 a.m. Eastern Time on the third business day following the last Friday of the month.
One commenter recommended an annual Form 204 filing requirement, rather than a monthly filing requirement. The commenter noted that because the general size and nature of its business is relatively constant, the differences between each monthly report would be insignificant. The commenter recommended the CFTC “not impose additional costs of monthly reporting without a demonstration of significant additional regulatory benefits.” The commenter noted its futures position typically exceeds the proposed position limits, but such positions are bona fide hedging positions.
One commenter suggested that the reporting date for Form 204 should be the close of business on the day prior to the beginning of the spot period and that it should be required to filed no later than the 15th day of the month following a month in which a filer exceeded a federal limit to allow the market participant sufficient time to collect and report its information.
With regards to proposed § 19.01(b)(2), one commenter recommended that the Commission change the proposed next-day reporting of Form 504 for the conditional spot-month limit exemption and Form 604 for the pass-through swap offsets during the spot-month, to a monthly basis, noting market participants need time to generate and collect data and verify the accuracy of the reported data. The commenter further stated that the Commission did not explain why it needs the data on Form 504 or Form 604 on a next-day basis.
Another asserted that the daily filing requirement of Form 504 for participants who rely on the conditional spot-month limit exemption “imposes significant burdens and substantial costs on market participants.” The commenter urged a monthly rather than a daily filing of all cash market positions, which the commenter claimed is consistent with current
In response to the commenters' suggestions that Form 204 be filed annually, the Commission notes that throughout the course of a year, most commodities subject to federal position limits under proposed § 150.2 are subject to seasonality of prices as well as less predictable imbalances in supply and demand such that an annual filing would not provide the Commission's Surveillance program insight into cash market trends underlying changes in the derivative markets. This insight is necessary for the Surveillance program to determine whether price changes in derivative markets are caused by fundamental factors or manipulative behavior. Further, the Commission believes that an annual filing could actually be more burdensome for firms, as an annual filing could lead to special calls or requests between filings for additional information in order for the Commission's Surveillance program to fulfill its responsibility to detect and deter market manipulation. In addition, the Commission notes that while one participant's positions may remain constant throughout a year, the same is not true for many other market participants. The Commission believes that varying the filing arrangement depending on a particular market or market participant is impractical and would lead to increased burdens for market participants due to uncertainty regarding when each firm with a position in a particular commodity derivative would be required to file.
The Commission is retaining the last Friday of the month as the required reporting date in order to avoid confusion and uncertainty, particularly for those participants who already file Form 204 and thus are accustomed to that reporting date.
The Commission is reproposing § 19.01(b)(2) to require next-day, daily filing of Forms 504 and 604 in the spot-month. In response to the commenter, the Commission notes that it described its rationale for requiring Forms 504 and 604 daily during the spot-month in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
The Commission notes that Form 504 is required only for the Natural Gas commodity, which has a 3-day spot period. Daily reporting on Form 504 during the spot-month allows the Surveillance program to monitor a market participant's cash market activity that could impact or benefit their derivatives position. Given the short filing period for natural gas and the importance of accurate information during the spot-month, the Commission believes that requiring Form 504 to be filed daily provides an important benefit that outweighs the potential burdens for filers.
As a practical matter, the Commission notes that Form 604 is collected during the spot-month only under particular circumstances,
The Commission is reproposing the process for recognizing certain market-participant positions as bona fide hedges (§ 150.9), spreads (§ 150.10), and anticipatory bona fide hedges (§ 150.11), so that the positions may be deemed exempt from federal and exchange-set position limits. The Commission invited the public to comment on the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits of the processes in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal, identify and assess any costs and benefits not discussed therein, and provide possible alternative proposals. The Commission received comment letters in 2013 that helped the Commission re-design the exemption-recognition processes and then reproposrepropose them in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal. The Commission received more comment letters on the June 2016 proposed exemption-recognition processes and a number of commenters remarked on the costs and benefits.
The general theme of the costs-related comments is that the three, exemption-recognition processes have overly burdensome reporting requirements. And the majority of benefits-related comments expressed that the exchanges are the best positioned entities to assess whether market positions fall within one of the categories of positions exempt from position limits. There also were a few comments asserting that the Commission underestimated the quantified costs, such as staff hours needed to review exemption applications. The Commission is addressing the qualitative and quantitative comments in the discussion that follows. Furthermore, the Commission will explain why it believes, after careful consideration of the comments, that the reproposed exemption-recognition processes will, among other things, improve transparency via exchange- and Commission-reporting, and improve regulatory certainty by having applicants submit materials for review to exchanges, and by having exchanges assess whether positions should be deemed exempt from position limits.
The baseline against which the Commission considers the benefits and costs of the exemption-recognition rules is a combination of CEA requirements and Commission regulations that are now in effect. That is, the general baseline is the Commission's part 150 regulations and current §§ 1.47 and
Under Section III.G., above, the Commission summarizes the changes it reproposed in rule § 150.9, which outlines the process that exchanges may employ to recognize certain commodity derivative positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions. The reproposed version of § 150.9 closely follows the regulatory text proposed in the June 2016 Supplemental Proposal. Most of the changes are clarifications. There are, however, substantive changes between the regulatory text proposed in June 2016 and the reproposed regulatory text in this Release; they are to the following subsections:
• The exchange-application requirements under § 150.9(a)(1)(v) and § 150.9(a)(3)(ii), (iii), and (iv);
• the applicant-to-exchange, reporting requirement under § 150.9(a)(6); and
• the exchange-to-Commission, reporting requirement under § 150.9(c)(2).
In paragraph (a) of reproposed § 150.9, the Commission identifies the process and information required for an exchange to assess whether it should grant a market participant's request that its derivative position(s) be recognized as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position. In the reproposed version of § 150.9(a), the Commission clarified a condition in § 150.9(a)(1)(v).
The Commission made no changes to the rule text in § 150.9(b) between the 2016 supplemental proposal and this Reproposal. Under reproposed § 150.9(b), exchanges will be required to maintain complete books and records of all activities relating to the processing and disposition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications. As explained in reproposed § 150.9(b)(1) through (b)(2), the Commission instructs exchanges to retain applicant-submission materials, exchange notes, and determination documents. Moreover, consistent with current § 1.31, the Commission expects that these records will be readily accessible until the termination, maturity, or expiration date of the bona fide hedge recognition and during the first two years of the subsequent, five-year retention period.
The Commission made a change to reporting to the rule text in § 150.9(c) between the 2016 supplemental proposal and this Reproposal. While the Commission is reproposing rules requiring weekly reporting obligations by exchanges for positions recognized as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, the Commission changed § 150.9(c)(1)(i) and § 150.9(c)(2) for purposes of clarification. In regards to § 150.9(c)(1)(i), the Commission is clarifying that the reports required under (c)(1)(i) are those for each commodity derivatives position that had been recognized that week and for any revocation or modification of a previously granted recognition. The change to § 150.9(c)(2) explains that exchanges must file monthly Commission reports only if the exchange has determined, in its discretion, that applicants should file exchange reports. The Commission also reproposes § 150.9(c)(1)(ii), which provides that exchanges post non-enumerated bona fide hedging position summaries on their Web sites.
The Commission made no changes to the rule text in §§ 150.9 (d) or (e) between the 2016 supplemental proposal and this Reproposal. The Commission reproposes rules that states that market participants and exchanges must respond to Commission requests, as well as liquidated positions within a commercially reasonable amount of time if required under § 150.9(d).
The Commission made no changes to the rule text in § 150.9(f) between the 2016 supplemental proposal and this Reproposal. In the reproposed version of § 150.9(f), the Commission delegates certain review authority for the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognition-process to the Director of the Division of Market Oversight.
For the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position process, the baseline for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions subject to federal position limits is current § 1.47. For non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemptions to exchange-set position limits, the baseline is the current exchange regulations and practices as well as the Commission's guidance to
The Commission continues to believe that the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exemption-recognition process outlined in § 150.9 will produce significant benefits. As explained in the 2016 supplemental proposal, the Commission recognizes that there are positions that reduce price risks incidental to commercial operations. For that reason, among others, such positions that are shown to be bona fide hedging positions under CEA Section 4a(c) are not subject to position limits. And, therefore, it is beneficial for market participants to have several options regarding bona fide hedging positions. With this Reproposal, market participants will have three ways in which they may determine that positions are bona fide hedging positions. First, market participants could conclude that a commodity derivative position comports with the definition of bona fide hedging position under § 150.1. Second, market participants may request a staff interpretive letter under § 140.99 or seek exemptive relief under CEA section 4(a)(7). Third, they may file an application with an exchange for recognition of an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position under reproposed § 150.9.
While all of the aforementioned options are viable, the Commission continues to believe that reproposed § 150.9 outlines a framework similar to existing exchange practices that recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedge exemptions to exchange-set limits. These practices are familiar to many market participants. Moreover, a number of commenters agreed that exchanges should oversee the exemption-recognition process.
The Commission believes that under reproposed § 150.9, the Commission will be able to leverage exchanges' existing practices and expertise in administering exemptions. Thus, reproposed § 150.9 should reduce the need to invent new procedures to recognize non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions. As explained in the 2016 supplemental proposal, exchanges also may be familiar with the applicant-market participant's needs and practices so there will be an advanced understanding for why certain trading strategies are pursued. The Commission received comments that were consistent with this view.
For example, in response to proposed § 150.9(a)(3)(iv)—the rule requiring applicants to submit detailed information regarding the applicant's activity in the cash market during the past three years—there were a few comments. One commenter noted that exchanges should have the discretion to determine the requisite number of years of data that should be collected.
These comments support the Commission's determination to reduce filing burdens. In reproposed § 150.9(a)(3)(ii) and (iv), the Commission changed the requirement that the application process require an applicant submit “detailed information” in regards to certain information to “information.” The change provides the exchanges with the discretion to determine what level of detail is needed to make their determination. The Commission has also reduced the minimum cash market data requirement to one-year from three-years in proposed § 150.9(a)(3)(iv), which will reduce market participants burden in comparison to the proposed rule.
In general, the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognition process under reproposed § 150.9 should reduce duplicative efforts because applicants will be saved the expense of applying to both an exchange for relief from exchange-set position limits and to the Commission for relief from federal limits. The Commission also seeks to collect relevant information. Thus, because commenters reasonably complained about the application requirement for three years of cash-market position information, the Commission changed the requirement to one year.
Another section where commenters observed redundancy was in proposed § 150.9(a)(6) regarding requirements for exchanges to require applicants to file reports.
As expressed in the 2016 supplemental proposal, the creation and retention of records under § 150.9 may be used as reference material in the future for similar bona fide hedge recognition requests either by relevant exchanges or the Commission. This will be beneficial because retained records will help the Commission to ensure that an exchange's determinations are internally consistent and consistent with the Act and the Commission's regulations thereunder. There is also the additional benefit that records will be accessible if they are needed for a potential enforcement action.
The Commission continues to believe that the exchange-to-Commission reporting under § 150.9(c) will have surveillance benefits. The reports will provide the Commission with notice that an applicant may take a commodity derivative position that the exchange has recognized as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, and also will show the applicant's underlying cash commodity and expected maximum size in the cash markets. Reports will facilitate the tracking of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions recognized by the exchanges, and will assist the Commission in ensuring that a market participant's activities conform to the exchange's terms of recognition and to the Act. While there are great benefits, in reproposed § 150.9(c)(1)(i) and § 150.9(c)(2), the Commission made clarifications that, as noted above, eased the burden on exchanges and applicants. Asreproposed, § 150.9(c)(1)(i) clarifies that the reports required are only for those for each commodity derivatives position that had been recognized that week and for any revocation or modification of a previously granted recognition. In addition, reproposed § 150.9(c)(2) defers to the exchanges by clarifying that they have the discretion to determine whether a market participant must report under reproposed § 150.9(a)(6); however, if an exchange requires reports of a market participant, that exchange must forward any such report to the Commission under reproposed § 150.9(c)(2). This gives the exchanges flexibility and defers to their expertise. The web-posting of summaries also will benefit market participants in general by providing transparency and open access to the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognition process. In addition, reporting and posting gives market participants seeking recognition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position an understanding of the types of commodity derivative positions an exchange may recognize as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, thereby providing greater administrative and legal certainty.
In the June 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission explained that to a large extent, exchanges and market participants have incurred already many of the compliance costs associated with the proposed exemptions. The Commission, however, detailed a number of the readily-quantifiable costs for exchanges and market participants associated with processing non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognitions, as well as spreads and anticipatory bona fide hedges. The Commission invited public comment on the estimated financial numbers, which were detailed in tables. Several commenters remarked on the costs the Commission quantitatively estimated in the June 2016 Supplemental Proposal. One group commenter stated that the Commission underestimated costs to market participants.
One exchange commenter declared that the Commission “significantly underestimates the number of exemptions that the Exchange will be required to review,” and offered different numbers.
In response, the Commission is persuaded by commenters, and is adjusting its estimated staff-review hours and costs that it believes exchanges and market participants will incur to comply with exemption-recognition processes in this Reproposal. These estimates are reflected in the tables below.
Even though the Commission has outlined three different exemption-application processes in this release, the Commission believes that aspects of the processes will become standardized and the data collected for one exemption will be the same as data collected for another exemption. As a result, it is likely that over time some costs will
The Commission continues to believe that there are costs that are not easily quantified. These are qualitative costs that are related to the specific attributes and needs of individual market participants that are hedging. Given that qualitative costs are highly specific, the Commission continues to believe that market participants will choose to incur § 150.9-related costs only if doing so is less costly than complying with position limits and not executing the desired hedge position. Thus, by providing market participants with an option to apply for relief from speculative position limits under reproposed § 150.9, the Commission continues to believe it is offering market participants a way to ease overall compliance costs because it is reasonable to assume that entities will seek recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions only if the outcome of doing so justifies the costs. This is because the Commission appreciates that the costs of not trading might be substantially higher. The Commission also believes that market participants will consider how the costs of applying for recognition of an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position under reproposed § 150.9 will compare to the costs of requesting a staff interpretive letter under § 140.99, or seeking exemptive relief under CEA section 4a(a)(7). Likewise, exchanges must consider qualitative costs in their decision to create an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application process or revise an existing program.
The Commission acknowledges that there may also be other costs to market participants if the Commission disagrees with an exchange's decision to recognize an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position under reproposed § 150.9 or under an independent Commission request or review under reproposed § 150.9(d) or (e). These costs will include time and effort spent by market participants associated with a Commission review, which the Commission addresses in the tables below. There also is the possibility that market participants will lose amounts that the Commission can neither predict nor quantify if it became necessary to unwind trades or reduce positions were the Commission to conclude that an exchange's disposition of an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application is inconsistent with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1.
A few commenters remarked on this concern and pointed to the term that the Commission would provide applicants a “commercially reasonable amount of time” to unwind positions that the Commission determined did not fall within the categories of exempted positions under § 150.9(d)(4), 150.10(d)(4), and 150.11(d)(3).
The Commission recognizes that costs may result if the Commission disagrees with an exchange's disposition of a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application under reproposed § 150.9 (or other exempt position under §§ 150.10 or 150.11). The Commission, however, believes such situations will be limited based on the history of exchanges approving similar applications for exemptions to exchange-set limits. Moreover, as explained in the 2016 supplemental proposal, exchanges have incentives to protect market participants from the harms that position limits are intended to prevent, such as manipulation, corners, and squeezes. In addition, an exchange that recognizes a market participant's non-enumerated bona fide hedging position (or other exempt position) that enables the participant to exceed position limits must then deter the same market participant from trading in a manner that causes adverse price impacts on the market; such adverse price impacts may cause financial harm to market participants, or even reputational risk or economic disadvantage to the exchange.
The Commission believes that exchanges electing to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications under reproposed § 150.9(a) are likely to already administer similar processes and will need to file with the Commission amendments to existing exchange rules rather than create new rules. The exchanges will only have to file amendments once. As discussed in the Paperwork Reduction Act discussion below, the Commission forecasts an average annual filing cost of $1,220 per exchange that files new rules or modifications per final process that an exchange adopts. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act, these costs are reported as an average annual cost over a five-year period.
An exchange that elects to process applications also will incur costs related to the review and disposition of such applications pursuant to reproposed § 150.9(a). For example, exchanges will need to expend resources on reviewing and analyzing the facts and circumstances of each application to determine whether the application meets the standards established by the Commission. Exchanges also will need to expend effort in notifying applicants of the exchanges' disposition of recognition or exemption requests. The Commission believes that exchanges electing to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications under reproposed § 150.9(a) are likely to have processes for the review and disposition of such applications currently in place. The Commission has adjusted the costs in Table IV-A-7 based on information submitted by commenters. Thus, the Commission has forecast that the average annual cost for each exchange to process applications for non-enumerated bona fide hedging position recognitions is $277,500.
Exchanges that elect to process the applications under reproposed § 150.9 will incur costs to publish on their Web sites summaries of the unique types of non-enumerated bona fide hedging position positions. The Commission has estimated an average annual cost of $25,620 for the web-posting of non-enumerated bona fide hedging position summaries.
Under reproposed § 150.9(a)(3), market participants must submit applications that provide sufficient information to allow the exchanges to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether it is appropriate to recognize such position as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position. These applications will be updated annually. Reproposed § 150.9(a)(6) will require applicants to file a report with the exchanges when an applicant owns, holds, or controls a derivative position that has been recognized as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position. The Commission estimates that each market participant seeking relief from position limits under reproposed § 150.9 will likely incur approximately $976 annually in application costs.
The Commission believes that exchanges that currently process applications for spread exemptions and bona fide hedging positions maintain records of such applications as required pursuant to other Commission regulations, including § 1.31. The Commission, however, also believes that the reproposed rules may confer additional recordkeeping obligations on exchanges that elect to process applications for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions. The Commission estimates that each exchange electing to administer the reproposed non-enumerated bona fide hedging position process will likely incur approximately $3,660 annually to retain records for each process.
The Commission anticipates that exchanges that elect to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications will be required to file two types of reports. The Commission is aware that five exchanges currently submit reports each month, on a voluntary basis, which provide information regarding exchange-processed exemptions of all types. The Commission believes that the content of such reports is similar to the information required of the reports in proposed rule § 150.9(c), but the frequency of such required reports will increase under the reproposed rule. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $38,064 per exchange for weekly reports under reproposed § 150.9(c).
For the monthly report, the Commission anticipates a minor cost for exchanges because the reproposed rules will require exchanges essentially to forward to the Commission notices received from applicants who own, hold, or control the positions that have been recognized or exempted. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $8,784 per exchange for monthly reports under reproposed § 150.9(c).
Exchanges will have additional surveillance costs and duties with respect to non-enumerated bona fide hedging position that the Commission believes will be integrated with their existing self-regulatory organization surveillance activities as an exchange.
Since the Commission issued the June 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission made very few changes to the provisions authorizing exchanges to exempt spread positions from federal position limits under reproposed § 150.10. In addition to non-substantive changes for purposes of clarification, substantive changes were made in subsections s of paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 150.10: §§ 150.10(a)(1)(ii); 150.10(a)(3)(ii) and (iii); 150.10(a)(6); 150.10(c)(2); The Commission did not make changes to paragraphs (b), (d), (e), or (f) of reproposed § 150.10.
In paragraph (a) of reproposed § 150.10, the Commission identifies the process and information required for an exchange to grant a market participant's request that its derivative position(s) be recognized as an exempt spread position.
As an initial step under reproposed § 150.10(a)(1), exchanges that voluntarily elect to process spread exemption applications are required to notify the Commission of their intention to do so by filing new rules or rule amendments with the Commission under part 40 of the Commission's regulations. The Commission clarified reproposed § 150.10(a)(1)(ii) to explain that an exchange may offer spread exemptions if the contract, which is either a component of the spread or a referenced contract that is related to the spread, in a particular commodity is actively traded. The Commission reduced the burden of proposed § 150.10(a)(1)(ii) (that would require an
In reproposed § 150.10(a)(2), the Commission identifies four types of spreads that an exchange may approve. Reproposed § 150.10(a)(3) describes in general terms the type of information that exchanges should collect from applicants. In reproposed § 150.10(a)(3)(ii), similar to the change made in § 150.9(a)(3), the Commission changed the requirement that the application process require an applicant submit “detailed information” in regards to certain information to “information.” The change provides the exchanges with the discretion to determine what level of detail is needed to make their determination. The Commission clarified the reproposed requirements to explain that applicant must report its maximum size of all gross positions in the commodity related to the spread-exemption application. Reproposed § 150.10(a)(4) obliges applicants and exchanges to act timely in their submissions and notifications, respectively, and require exchanges to retain revocation authority. Reproposed § 150.10(a)(6) was modified and authorizes exchanges to determine whether enhanced reporting is necessary. Reproposed § 150.10(a)(7) requires exchanges to publish on its Web site a summary describing the type of spread position and explaining why it was exempted.
The Commission made no changes to the regulatory text in § 150.10(b) that was proposed in June 2016. Under the reproposed rule, exchanges must maintain complete books and records of all activities relating to the processing and disposition of spread exemption applications under reproposed § 150.10(b). This is similar to the record retention obligations of exchanges for positions recognized as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positionss.
The Commission amended § 150.10(c)(2) and kept the rest of regulatory text in § 150.10(c) the same as the text proposed in the 2016 supplemental proposal. Under the reproposed rule exchanges will have weekly reporting obligations for spread exemptions. The change in subsection (c)(2) clarifies that exchanges have the discretion to determine whether applicants should have monthly reports that must ultimately be sent to the Commission. These reporting obligations are similar to the reporting obligations of exchanges for positions recognized as non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions.
For the reproposed spread exemption process for positions subject to federal limits, the baseline is CEA section 4a(a)(1). In that statutory section, the Commission is authorized to recognize certain spread positions. That statutory provision is currently implemented in a limited calendar-month spread exemption in § 150.3(a)(3). For exchange-set position limits, the baseline for spreads is the guidance in current § 150.5(a), which provides generally that exchanges may recognize exemptions for positions that are normally known to the trade as spreads.
CEA section 4a(a)(1) authorizes the Commission to exempt certain spreads from speculative position limits. In exercising this authority, the Commission recognizes that spreads can have considerable benefits for market participants and markets. The Commission now proposes a spread exemption framework that utilizes existing exchanges—resources and exchanges—expertise so that fair access and liquidity are promoted at the same time market manipulations, squeezes, corners, and any other conduct that will disrupt markets are deterred and prevented. Building on existing exchange processes preserves the ability of the Commission and exchanges to monitor markets and trading strategies while reducing burdens on exchanges that will administer the process, and market participants, who will utilize the process.
In addition to these benefits, there are other benefits related to reproposed § 150.10 that will inure to markets and market participant. Yet, there is difficulty in quantifying these benefits because benefits are dependent on the characteristics, such as operational size and needs, of the market participants that will seek spread exemptions, and the markets in which the participants trade. Accordingly, the Commission considers the qualitative benefits of reproposed § 150.10.
For both exchanges and market participants, reproposed § 150.10 will likely alleviate compliance burdens to the status quo. Exchanges will be able to build on established procedures and infrastructure. As stated earlier, many exchanges already have rules in place to process and grant applications for spread exemptions from exchange-set position limits pursuant to part 38 of the Commission's regulations (in particular, current § 38.300 and § 38.301) and current § 150.5. In addition, exchanges may be able to use the same staff and electronic resources that will be used for reproposed § 150.9 and § 150.11. Market participants also may benefit from spread-exemption reviews by exchanges that are familiar with the commercial needs and practices of market participants seeking exemptions. Market participants also might gain legal and regulatory clarity and consistency that will help in developing trading strategies. Moreover, the Commission has reduced burdens by making changes to proposed §§ 150.10(a)(1) and (3). In the reproposed § 150.10(a)(1), the Commission changed the rule so that exchanges may employ experienced staff to satisfy the requirement that an exchange have at least one year of experience and expertise in administering position limits for referenced contracts related to spread exemptions. In reproposed § 150.10(a)(3)(ii), the Commission gave exchanges greater discretion in determining the level of detail needed from spread-exemption applicants.
Reproposed § 150.10 will authorize exchanges to approve spread exemptions that permit market participants to continue to enhance liquidity, rather than being restricted by a position limit. For example, by allowing speculators to execute intermarket and intramarket spreads in accordance with reproposed § 150.3(a)(1)(iv) and § 150.10, speculators will be able to hold a greater amount of open interest in underlying contract(s), and, therefore, bona fide hedgers may benefit from any increase in market liquidity. Spread exemptions might lead to better price continuity and price discovery if market participants who seek to provide liquidity (for example, through entry of resting orders for spread trades between different contracts) receive a spread exemption and, thus, will not otherwise be constrained by a position limit.
Here are two examples of positions that could benefit from the spread exemption in reproposed § 150.10:
• Reverse crush spread in soybeans on the CBOT subject to an intermarket spread exemption. In the case where soybeans are processed into two different products, soybean meal and
• Wheat spread subject to intermarket spread exemptions. There are two actors in this scenario: The speculator and the wheat farmer. In this example, a farmer growing hard wheat will like to reduce the price risk of her crop by shorting MGEX wheat futures. There, however, may be no hedger, such as a mill, that is immediately available to trade at a desirable price for the farmer. There may be a speculator willing to offer liquidity to the hedger; the speculator may wish to reduce the risk of an outright long position in MGEX wheat futures through establishing a short position in CBOT wheat futures (soft wheat). Such a speculator, who otherwise will have been constrained by a position limit at MGEX or CBOT, may seek exemptions from MGEX and CBOT for an intermarket spread, that is, for a long position in MGEX wheat futures and a short position in CBOT wheat futures of the same maturity. As a result of the exchanges granting an intermarket spread exemption to such a speculator, who otherwise may be constrained by limits, the farmer might be able to transact at a higher price for hard wheat than might have existed absent the intermarket spread exemptions. Under this example, the speculator is accepting basis risk between hard wheat and soft wheat, reducing the risk of a position on one exchange by establishing a position on another exchange, and potentially providing liquidity to a hedger. Further, spread transactions may aid in price discovery regarding the relative protein content for each of the hard and soft wheat contracts.
Finally, the Commission is allowing exchanges to recognize and exempt spreads during the five-day spot month. There may be considerable benefits that evolve from spreads exempted during the spot month, in particular. Besides enhancing the opportunity for market participants to use strategies involving spread trades into the spot month, this relief may improve price discovery in the spot month for market participants. And, as in the intermarket wheat example above, the spread relief in the spot month may better link prices between two markets,
As discussed in the 2016 supplemental proposal, the Commission has been able to quantify some costs, but other costs related to reproposed § 150.10 are not easily quantifiable. The Commission continues to believe that some costs are more dependent on individual markets and market participants seeking a spread exemption, and, thus, are more readily considered qualitatively. In general, the Commission believes that reproposed § 150.10 should provide exchanges and market participants greater regulatory and administrative certainty and that costs will be small relative to the benefits of having an additional trading tool under reproposed § 150.10.
The Commission comes to this conclusion even though the most common complaint about the spread-exemption process is that it requires excessive reporting. One exchange commenter focused specifically on the spread-exemption-recognition process, and stated that it is “overly prescriptive as to the information that must be provided by the applicant, especially when the exchange may have superior information regarding intramarket spreads.”
The Commission recognizes that spread-exemption application requirements and reporting requirements are detailed. Moreover, these costs will be borne by exchanges and market participants. But, the Commission continues to believe that the qualitative costs will be reasonable in view of the benefits to exchanges and market participants of being able to use spread exemptions. Furthermore, the benefits of having an application process and reporting regime will create cost-savings to the public in the form of enhanced regulatory oversight.
The Commission, however, did respond to comments about proposed § 150.10(a)(3)(iii), which requires an applicant to identify “the maximum size of all gross positions in derivative contracts to be acquired by the applicant during the year after the application is submitted.” The comment was that the requirement was too broad and almost impossible because of the inability to predict trading activity over the next year.
Finally, like the discussion about quantified costs related to reproposed § 150.9, exchanges and market participants may have already many of the financial outlays for administering the application process and applying for spread exemptions, respectively. Yet, as commenters have asserted, the Commission might have underestimated the costs. In deference to the comments, the Commission has adjusted its estimates of quantified costs that will arise from reproposed § 150.10 in Tables IV-A-13 through IV-A-19, below. The Commission's new estimates are based on commenters noting that the Commission estimated staff hours, as well as the number of exemption requests, were low.
Regarding the following Table D2, note that reports are also required to be sent to the Commission in the case of exempt spread positions under § 150.10(a)(5).
Other costs to exchanges will include those related to surveillance. For example, exchanges that elect to grant spread exemptions will have to adapt and develop procedures to determine whether a particular spread exemption furthers the goals of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B) as well as monitor whether applicant speculators are, in fact, providing liquidity to other market participants. There will likely also be costs related to disagreements between the Commission and exchanges over exchanges' disposition of a spread applications, or costs from a Commission request or review under reproposed § 150.11(d) or (e). As expressed in the 2016 supplemental proposal, these costs are not easily quantified because they depend on the specifics of the Commission's request or review.
Between the 2016 Supplemental Proposal and now, the Commission is making two changes in the following regulatory text: § 150.11(a)(1)(v) and § 150.11(a)(6).
Under reproposed § 150.11(a)(1), exchanges that voluntarily elect to process enumerated anticipatory bona-fide hedge applications are required to notify the Commission of their intention to do so by filing new rules or rule amendments with the Commission under part 40 of the Commission's regulations. In reproposed § 150.11(a)(1)(v), the Commission clarified that exchanges that elect to offer a § 150.11 exemption, must have at least one year of experience and expertise in the referenced contract, rather than the derivative contract. In reproposed § 150.11(a)(2), the Commission identifies certain types of information necessary for the application, including information required under reproposed § 150.7(d). In reproposed § 150.11(a)(3), the Commission states that applications must be updated annually and that the exchanges have ten days in which to recognize an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge. In addition, exchanges must retain authority to revoke recognitions. reproposed § 150.11(a)(4) states that once an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position has been recognized by an exchange, the position will be deemed to be recognized by the Commission. Reproposed § 150.11(a)(5) discusses reports that must be filed by an applicant holding an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position, as required under reproposed § 150.7(e). The Commission clarified those reporting requirements, which were also proposed in § 150.11(a)(3)(i), and eliminated language that was confusing to commenters regarding updating and maintaining the accuracy of such reports. Reproposed 150.11(a)(6) explains that exchanges may choose to seek Commission review of an application and the Commission has ten days in which to respond.
The Commission did not make any changes to § 150.11(b) as proposed in the 2016 supplemental proposal. Exchanges must maintain complete books and records of all activities relating to the processing and disposition of anticipatory hedging applications under reproposed § 150.11(b).
The Commission did not make any changes to § 150.11(c) as proposed in the 2016 supplemental proposal. Exchanges will have weekly reporting obligations under reproposed § 150.11(c).
The baseline is the same as it was in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal: The current filing process detailed in current § 1.48.
There are significant benefits that will likely accrue should § 150.11 be finalized. Recognizing anticipatory positions as bona fide hedging positions under § 150.11 will provide market participants with potentially a more expeditious recognition process than the Commission proposal for a 10-day Commission recognition process under reproposed § 150.7. The benefit of prompter recognitions, though, is not readily quantifiable, and, in most circumstances, is subject to the characteristics and needs of markets as well as market participants. So it is challenging to quantify the benefits that will likely be associated with reproposed § 150.11.
For example, exchanges will be able to use existing resources and knowledge in the administration and assessment of enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions. The Commission and exchanges have evaluated these types of positions for years (as discussed in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal). Utilizing this experience and familiarity will likely produce such benefits as prompt but reasoned decision making and streamlined procedures. In addition, reproposed § 150.11 permits exchanges to act in less than ten days—a timeframe that will be less than the Commission's process under current § 1.48, or under reproposed § 150.7.
Reproposed § 150.11, similar to reproposed § 150.9 and § 150.10, also will provide the benefit of enhanced record-retention and reporting of positions recognized as enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions. As previously discussed, records retained for specified periods will enable exchanges to develop consistent practices and afford the Commission accessible information for review, surveillance, and enforcement efforts. Likewise, weekly reporting under § 150.11 will facilitate the tracking of positions by the Commission.
The § 150.11-related comments in response to the 2016 supplement proposal's request for comments
The costs for reproposed § 150.11 are similar to the costs for reproposed §§ 150.9 and 150.10, and have been quantified are in Tables A3 through G3. As mentioned earlier, the Commission has increased the number of staff hours and exemption requests based on commenters stating that the Commission underestimated costs. Other costs associated with reproposed § 150.11, like those for reproposed §§ 150.9 and 150.10, are more qualitative in nature and hinge on specific market and participant attributes. Other costs could arise from reproposed § 150.11 if the Commission disagrees with an exchange's disposition of an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position application, or costs from a Commission request or review under reproposed § 150.11(d). These costs will include time and effort spent by market participants associated with a Commission review. In addition, market participants will lose amounts that the Commission can neither predict nor quantify if it became necessary to unwind trades or reduce positions were the Commission to conclude that an exchange's disposition of an enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging position application is not appropriate or is inconsistent with the Act. This concern was raised by commenters as discussed above. The Commission believes that such disagreements will be rare based on the Commission's past experience and review of exchanges' efforts. Nevertheless, the Commission notes that assessing whether a position is for the reduction of risk arising from anticipatory needs or excessive speculation is complicated.
For a general description of reproposed rules identified in the following Tables IV-A-20 to IV-A-24, see discussion above.
Exchanges will have additional surveillance costs and duties that the Commission believes will be integrated with their existing self-regulatory organization surveillance activities as an exchange.
CEA section 15(a) requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its actions in light of five factors.
The imposition of position limits is intended to protect the markets and market participants from manipulation and excessive speculation. Position limits may serve as a prophylactic measure that reduces market volatility due to a participant otherwise engaging in large trades that induce price impacts. Such price impacts may occur when a party who is holding large open interest is not willing or is unable to meet a call for additional margin. In such an instance, a substantial amount of open interest may have to be liquidated in a short time interval. In addition, price impacts could also occur from a large trader establishing or liquidating large positions.
There are additional benefits to imposing position limits in the spot month. Spot month position limits are designed to deter and prevent corners and squeezes as well as promote a more orderly liquidation process at expiration.
The CEA provides that position limits do not apply to positions shown to be bona fide hedging positions, as defined by the Commission, or spread positions, as recognized by the Commission. Exemptions from federal position limits for bona fide hedging positions of qualified market participants help ensure the hedging utility of the futures markets while protecting market participants from excess speculation. The Commission believes that the reproposed rules will preserve the important protections of the federal position limit regime while maintaining the hedging function of the futures or swaps markets.
The Commission believes the exemption provisions of these reproposed rules will have a negligible effect on the protection afforded market participants and the public, as compared to the level of protection that is provided by the exemptions policy reflected currently in § 150.3. Moreover, by expanding current § 150.3 to allow exchanges to review applications for exemptions from federal limits, the Commission will be able to rely on the exchanges' experience and expertise in monitoring their own contract markets, with Commission supervision, to help ensure that any exemptions do not detract from the protection of market participants and the public. Because exchanges have experience and expertise, including as part of their SRO functions, the Commission believes they will be able to carefully design exemptions under which position limits will continue to protect market participants while meeting needs for bona fide hedging. Moreover, exchanges have strong incentives—such as maintaining credibility of their markets through protecting against the harms of excessive speculation and manipulation—to appropriately administer exemptions.
There is a potential market integrity issue with excess speculation. People may not be willing to participate in a futures market if they perceive that there is a participant with an unusually large speculative position exerting what they believe is unreasonable market power. A lack of participation may harm liquidity, and consequently, may harm market efficiency.
On the other hand, traders who find position limits binding may have to trade in substitute instruments—such as futures contracts that are similar but not the same as the core referenced futures contract, forward contracts, trade options, or futures on a foreign board of trade—in order to meet their demand for speculative instruments. These traders may also decide to not trade beyond the federal speculative position limit. Trading in substitute instruments may be less effective that trading in referenced contracts and, thus, may raise the transaction costs for such traders. In these circumstances, futures prices might not fully reflect all the speculative demand to hold the futures contract, because substitute instruments may not fully influence prices the same way that trading directly in the futures contract does. Thus, market efficiency might be harmed.
Reduced liquidity may have a negative impact on price discovery. In the absence of position limits, market participants might elect to trade less as a result of a perception that the market pricing is unfair as a consequence of what they perceive is the exercise of too much market power by a larger speculator. On the other hand, liquidity may also be harmed by a speculator being restricted from additional trading by a position limit. The Commission has set the levels of position limits at high levels, to avoid harming liquidity that may be provided by speculators that would establish large positions, while restricting speculators from establishing extraordinarily large positions. The Commission believes that the recognition and exemption processes will foster liquidity and potentially improve price discovery by making it easier for market participants to have their bona fide hedging exemptions and spread exemptions recognized, however.
Position limits may serve as a prophylactic measure that reduces market volatility due to a participant otherwise engaging in large trades that induce price impacts which interrupt price discovery. Spot month position limits make it more difficult to mark the close of a futures contract to possibly benefit other contracts that settle on the closing futures price. Marking the close harms markets by spoiling convergence between futures prices and spot prices at expiration and damaging price discovery.
The Commission believes that traders knowing their positions and ensuring that they do not exceed a position limit or exempted level is a sound risk management practice. Under the exemption processes, market participants must explain and document the methods behind their hedging or spreading strategies to exchanges, and the Commission or exchanges would have to evaluate them. As a result, the Commission believes that the evaluation processes should help market participants, exchanges, the Commission, and the public to understand better the risk management techniques and objectives of various market participants.
The Commission has not identified any other public interest considerations.
Section 15(b) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws and to endeavor to take the least anticompetitive means of achieving the objectives, policies and purposes of the CEA, before promulgating a regulation under the CEA or issuing certain orders. The Commission believes that the rules and guidance in this notice are consistent with the public interest protected by the antitrust laws.
The Commission acknowledges that, with respect to exchange qualifications to recognize or grant non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, spread exemptions, and anticipatory bona fide hedging position exemptions for federal position limit purposes, the threshold experience requirements that it is reproposing will advantage certain more-established incumbent DCMs (“incumbent DCMs”) over smaller DCMs seeking to expand or future entrant DCMs (collectively “entrant DCMs”) or SEFs.
The Commission invited comment on any considerations related to the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws and potential anticompetitive effects of the proposal, as well as data or other information to support such considerations. One exchange commenter responded that it was concerned that the overly prescriptive intramarket spread exemption application process might diminish spread trading on all exchanges.
In response, the Commission notes that it has the responsibility to review the record of the exchange in granting spread exemptions. For example, a spread trader, who is a speculator, may amass a large position in a referenced contract and a corresponding large position in a non-referenced contract. Such a speculator has an incentive to mark the close of the core referenced futures contract to benefit their large position in a referenced contract. The Commission is concerned that it has an adequate record to review timely a grant of a spread exemption, which would allow a speculator to build a large position in a referenced contract, exempt from position limits. Regarding the publication requirement, the Commission reiterates that the publication requirement is only for a summary describing the type of spread position and why it was exempted and, thus, does not require details of all components of spread trading within low liquidity non-referenced contract markets to be revealed; the Commission notes it would not expect such a summary would reveal identifying information for any trader, but, rather, would reveal, at a minimum, the referenced contract and a generic description of the type of non-referenced contract that is a component of the spread. In addition, the Commission notes that spread trades may qualify as bona fide hedging positions, obviating the need for a spread exemption. Finally, the Commission notes an exchange may petition the Commission for an exemption under CEA section 4a(a)(7) or the Commission staff for a no-action letter under § 140.99.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”), 44 U.S.C. 3501
If the reproposed changes to regulations are adopted, responses to this collection of information would be mandatory. Several of the reporting requirements would be mandatory in order to obtain exemptive relief, and, therefore, would be mandatory under the PRA to the extent a market participant elects to seek such relief. The Commission will protect any proprietary information received in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act and 17 CFR part 145, titled “Commission Records and Information.” In addition, the Commission emphasizes that section 8(a)(1) of the Act strictly prohibits the Commission, unless specifically authorized by the Act, from making public “data and information that would separately disclose the business transactions or market positions of any person and trade secrets or names of customers.”
In December 2013, the Commission proposed a number of modifications to its speculative position limits regime. Under that proposal, market participants with positions in a “referenced contract,” as defined in § 150.1, would be subject to the position limit framework established in parts 19 and 150 of the Commission's regulations. Proposed changes to part 19 would prescribe new forms and reporting requirements for persons claiming exemptions to speculative position limits and update reporting obligations and required information on existing forms. In proposed part 150, the Commission changed reporting requirements for DCMs listing a core referenced futures contract as well as for traders who wish to apply for an exemption from exchange-set position limits. The Commission also proposed to update and change recordkeeping requirements for market participants and exchanges.
In June 2016, the Commission published in the
In this Reproposal, the Commission is reproposing its changes to parts 1, 15, 17, 19, 37, 38, 140, 150, and 151 of the Commission's regulations. Specifically, with regard to the PRA, the Commission is reproposing the following: New and amended series '04 forms under part 19 and § 150.7; submission of deliverable supply estimates under § 150.2(a)(3); recordkeeping obligations under § 150.3(g); revised special call authority under § 150.3(h); exchange set limit exemption application requirements under § 150.5(a)(2); and requirements for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, certain spread positions, and enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions under § 150.9, § 150.10, and § 150.11, respectively.
The Commission proposes reorganizing the information found in the OMB Collection Numbers associated with this rule. In particular, the Commission proposes that the burdens related to series '04 forms be moved from OMB Collection #3038-0009 to OMB Collection #3038-0013. This change is non-substantive but allows for all information collections related to exemptions from speculative position limits to be housed in one collection, making it simpler for market participants to know where to find the relevant PRA burdens. If adopted, OMB Collection #3038-0009 would hold collections of information related to parts 15, 17, and 21 while OMB Collection #3038-0013 would hold collections of information related to parts 19 and 150.
It is not possible at this time to accurately determine the number of respondents that will be affected by the these rules. Many of the regulations that impose PRA burdens are exemptions that a market participant may elect to take advantage of, meaning that without intimate knowledge of the day-to-day business decisions of all its market participants, the Commission could not know which participants, or how many, may elect to obtain such an exemption. Further, the Commission is unsure of how many participants not currently in the market may be required to or may elect to incur the estimated burdens in the future.
The provisions under § 150.9-11 permits designated contract markets and swap execution facilities to elect to process applications for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges; accordingly the Commission does not know which, or how many, designated contract markets and swap execution facilities may elect to offer such recognition processes, or which, or how many market participants may submit applications. The Commission is unsure of how many designated contract markets, swap execution facilities, and market participants not currently active in the market may elect to incur the estimated burdens in the future.
Finally, many of the regulations proposed herein are applying to participants in swaps markets for the first time, and the Commission's lack of experience enforcing speculative position limits for such markets and for many of the participants therein hinders its ability to determine with precision the number of affected entities. These limitations notwithstanding, the Commission has made best-effort estimations regarding the likely number of affected entities for the purposes of calculating burdens under the PRA.
To determine the number of entities who may file series '04 forms with the Commission and/or exemption applications with DCMs that elect to process such applications, the Commission used its proprietary data collected from market participants as well as information provided by DCMs regarding the number of exemptions processed by exchange surveillance programs each year.
To determine the number of exchanges who would be affected by the reproposal, the Commission analyzed how many exchanges currently list actively traded contracts in the commodities for which federal position limits will be set, as the proposed rules in § 150.5 as well as in §§ 150.9, 150.10, and 150.11 will all apply to exchanges that list commodity derivative contracts that may be subject federal limits under § 150.2(d).
The Commission's estimates concerning wage rates are based on 2013 salary information for the securities industry compiled by the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (“SIFMA”). The Commission is using a figure of $122 per hour, which is derived from a weighted average of salaries across different professions from the SIFMA Report on Management & Professional Earnings in the Securities Industry 2013, modified to account for an 1800-hour work-year, adjusted to account for the cumulative rate of inflation since 2013. This figure was then multiplied by 1.33 to account for benefits, and further by 1.5 to account for overhead and administrative expenses. The Commission anticipates that compliance with the provisions would require the work of an information technology professional; a compliance manager; an accounting professional; and an associate general counsel. Thus, the wage rate is a weighted national average of salary for professionals with the following titles (and their relative weight); “programmer (average of senior and non-senior)” (15% weight), “senior accountant” (15%) “compliance manager” (30%), and “assistant/associate general counsel” (40%). All monetary estimates below have been rounded to the dollar.
A commenter estimated that for an exchange to promulgate the regulations required of them under this part such an exchange would need a senior level regulation employee and three regulatory analysts.
Previously, the Commission estimated the combined annual labor hours for both Form 204 and Form 304 to be 1,350 hours, which amounted to a total labor cost to industry of $68,850 per annum.
As proposed, Form 204 would be required to be filed when a trader accumulates a net long or short commodity derivative position that exceeds a federal limit in a referenced contract. Form 204 would inform the Commission of the trader's cash positions underlying those commodity derivative contracts for purposes of claiming bona fide hedging exemptions.
The Commission estimates that approximately 425 traders would be required to file Form 204 once a month (12 times per year) each. At an estimated 3 labor hours to complete and file each Form 204 report for a total annual burden to industry of 15,300 labor hours, the Form 204 reporting requirement would cost industry $1,866,600 in labor costs.
As proposed, Form 304 would be required to be filed by merchants and dealers in cotton and contains information on the quantity of call cotton bought or sold on a weekly basis. Form 304 would be required in order for the Commission to produce its weekly cotton “on call” report.
The Commission estimates that approximately 200 traders would be required to make a Form 304 submission for call cotton 52 times per year each. At 1 hour to complete each submission for a total annual burden to industry of 10,400 labor hours, the Form 304 reporting requirement would impose upon industry $1,268,800 in labor costs.
As proposed, § 19.01(a)(1) would require persons claiming a conditional spot month limit exemption pursuant to § 150.3(c) to file Form 504. Unlike other series '04 forms, Form 504 would apply only to commodity derivative contracts in natural gas markets.
Persons claiming a pass-through swap exemption pursuant to § 150.3(a) would be required to file proposed Form 604 showing various data (depending on whether the offset is for non-referenced contract swaps or spot-month swaps) including, at a minimum, the underlying commodity or commodity reference price, the applicable clearing identifiers, the notional quantity, the gross long or short position in terms of futures-equivalents in the core referenced futures contracts, and the gross long or short positions in the referenced contract for the offsetting risk position. For proposed Form 604 reports filed for positions held outside of the spot month, the Commission estimates that approximately 250 traders would claim a pass-through swap exemption an average of 10 times per year each. At approximately 30 labor hours to complete each corresponding submission for a total burden to traders of 75,000 annual labor hours, compliance with the proposed Form 604 filing requirements industry-wide would impose an additional $9,150,000 in labor costs.
Traders claiming anticipatory bona fide hedging exemptions would be required to file proposed Form 704 for the initial statement/application pursuant to § 150.7(d), along with an annual update on the same form. Because annual update requires mostly the same information as the initial statement, allowing market participants to update only fields that have changed since the initial statement was filed rather than having to update the entire form, the Commission anticipates the annual update requiring about half the time to complete. The Commission estimates that approximately 250 traders would claim anticipatory exemptions by filing an initial statement approximately once per year. At an estimated 15 labor hours to complete and file an initial statement on Form 704 for a total annual burden to traders of 3,750 labor hours, the anticipatory exemption filing requirement would cost industry an additional $457,500 in labor costs. The annual update to proposed Form 704 is estimated to be required of the same 250 traders once a year, at an estimated 8 hours to complete and file, for an industry-wide burden of 2,000 hours and $244,000 in labor costs.
Any person claiming an exemption from federal position limits under part 150 would be required to keep and maintain books and records concerning all details of their related cash, forward, futures, options and swap positions and transactions to serve as a reasonable basis to demonstrate reduction of risk on each day that the exemption was claimed. These records would be required to be comprehensive, in that they must cover anticipated requirements, production and royalties, contracts for services, cash commodity products and by-products, pass-through swaps, cross-commodity hedges, and more.
The Commission estimates that approximately 425 traders would claim an average of 50 exemptions each per year that fall within the scope of the recordkeeping requirements of proposed § 150.3(g). At approximately one hour per exemption claimed to keep and maintain the required books and records, the Commission estimates that industry would incur a total of 20,000 annual labor hours amounting to $2,592,500 in additional labor costs.
In addition, proposed § 150.3(h) would provide that upon call from the Commission any person claiming an exemption from speculative position limits under proposed § 150.3 must provide to the Commission any information as specified in the call. It is difficult to determine in advance of any such call who may be required to submit information under proposed § 150.3(h), how that information may be submitted, or how many labor hours it may take to prepare and submit such information. However, for the purposes of the PRA, the Commission has made estimates regarding the potential burden.
The Commission estimates that approximately 425 traders would be eligible to be called upon for additional information under proposed § 150.3(h) each year. At approximately two hours per exemption claimed to keep and maintain the required books and records, the Commission estimates that industry would incur a total of 850 annual labor hours amounting to $103,700 in additional labor costs.
Traders who wish to avail themselves of any exemption from a DCM or SEF's speculative position limit rules would need to submit an application to the DCM or SEF explaining how the exemption would be in accord with sound commercial practices and would allow for a position that could be liquidated in an orderly fashion. As noted supra, the Commission understands that requiring traders to apply for exemptive relief comports with existing DCM practice; thus, the Commission anticipates that the proposed codification of this requirement would have the practical effect of incrementally increasing, rather than creating, the burden of applying for such exemptive relief. The Commission estimates that approximately 425 traders would claim exemptions from DCM or SEF-established speculative position limits each year, with each trader on average making 1 application to the DCM or SEF each year. Each submission is estimated to take 2 hours to complete and file, meaning that these traders collectively would incur a total burden of 850 labor hours per year for an industry-wide additional labor cost of $39,976.
Under proposed §§ 150.9(a)(3), 150.10(a)(3), and 150.11(a)(2), designated contract markets and swap execution facilities that elect to process applications to establish an application process that elicits sufficient information to allow the designated contract market or swap execution facility to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether it is appropriate to recognize a commodity derivative position as an non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, exempt spread position or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge, respectively. Pursuant to proposed §§ 150.9(a)(4)(i), 150.10(a)(4), and 150.11(a)(3), an applicant would be required to update an application at least on an annual basis. Further, DCMs and SEFs have authority under §§ 150.9(a)(6), 150.10(a)(6), and 150.11(a)(5) to require that any such applicant file a report with the designated contract market or swap execution facility pertaining to the use of any exemption that has been granted.
The Commission anticipates that market participants would be mostly familiar with the non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application provided by exchanges that currently process such applications, and thus believes that the burden for applying to an exchange would be minimal. Information included in the application would be required to be sufficient to allow the exchange to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the position meets the requirements of CEA section 4a(c), but specific data fields are left to the exchanges to determine. The Commission notes that there would be a slight additional burden for market participants to submit the notice
The Commission estimates that 325 entities would file an average of 2 applications each year to obtain recognition of certain positions as non-enumerated bona fide hedges and that each application, including any usage report that may be required by the DCM or SEF, would require approximately 4 burden hours to complete and file. Thus, the Commission estimates an average per entity burden of 8 labor hours and an industry-wide burden of 2,600 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $976 per entity or $317,200 for the industry as a whole for applications under § 150.9(a)(3).
The Commission anticipates that market participants would be mostly familiar with the spread exemption application provided by exchanges that currently process such applications, and thus believes that the burden for applying to an exchange would be minimal. Information included in the application is required to be sufficient to allow the exchange to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the position fulfills the objectives of CEA section 4a(a)(3)(B), but specific data fields are left to the exchanges to determine. The Commission notes that there would be a slight additional burden for market participants to submit the notice regarding the use of any exemption granted should the DCM or SEF require such a report.
The Commission estimates that 85 entities would file an average of 2 applications each year to obtain an exemption for certain spread positions and that each application, including any usage report required by the DCM or SEF, would require approximately 3 burden hours to complete and file. Thus, the Commission approximates an average per entity burden of 6 labor hours and an industry-wide burden of 510 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $732 per entity or $62,220 for the industry as a whole for applications under § 150.10(a)(2).
The Commission anticipates that market participants would be mostly familiar with the enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedge application provided by exchanges that currently process such applications, and thus believes that the burden for applying to an exchange would be minimal. The application is required to include, at a minimum, the information required under § 150.7(d). The Commission estimates that 90 entities would file an average of 2 applications each year to obtain recognition that certain positions are enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges and that each application would require approximately 3 burden hours to complete and file. Thus, the Commission estimates an average per entity burden of 6 labor hours and an industry-wide burden of 510 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $732 per entity or $65,880 for the industry as a whole for applications under proposed § 150.11(a)(2). The Commission invites comments on any these proposed estimates.
For purposes of assisting the Commission in resetting spot-month limits, proposed § 150.2(e)(3)(ii) would require DCMs to supply the Commission with an estimated spot-month deliverable supply for each core referenced futures contract listed. The estimate must include documentation as to the methodology used in deriving the estimate, including a description and any statistical data employed. The Commission estimates that the submission would require a labor burden of approximately 20 hours per estimate. Thus, a DCM that submits one estimate may incur a burden of 20 hours for a cost of approximately $2,440. DCMs that submit more than one estimate may multiply this per-estimate burden by the number of estimates submitted to obtain an approximate total burden for all submissions, subject to any efficiencies and economies of scale that may result from submitting multiple estimates.
The Commission notes that, in response to comments, the Commission proposes to allow a DCM that does not wish a spot-month limit level to be changed to petition the Commission to not change the limit level and, if the petition is approved, the DCM would not need to submit deliverable supply estimates for such a commodity. A DCM that submits one petition may incur a burden of one hour, resulting in an estimated per-petition cost of approximately $488. Again, DCMs that submit more than one petition may multiply this per-petition burden by the number of petitions submitted.
Designated contract markets and swap execution facilities that elect to process the recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, or enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedging positions would be required to file new rules or rule amendments pursuant to Part 40 of this chapter, establishing or amending its application process for recognition of the above-referenced positions, consistent with the requirements of proposed §§ 150.9, 150.10, and 150.11.
The Commission estimates that, at most, 6 entities would file new rules or rule amendments pursuant to Part 40 to elect to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging, spread, or enumerated anticipatory hedging applications. The Commission determined this estimate by analyzing how many exchanges currently list actively traded contracts for the 28 commodities for which federal position limits would be set, because proposed §§ 150.9(a), 150.10(a), and 150.11(a) would require a referenced contract to be listed by and actively traded on any exchange that elects to process applications for recognition of positions in such referenced contract. The Commission anticipates that the exchanges that would elect to process applications under these sections are likely to have processes for recognizing such exemptions currently, and so would need to file amendments to existing exchange rules rather than adopt new rules. Thus, the Commission approximates an average per entity burden of 10 labor hours.
An exchange that elects to process applications may incur a burden related to the review and disposition of such applications pursuant to proposed §§ 150.9(a), 150.10(a), and 150.11(a). The review of an application would be required to include analysis of the facts and circumstances of such application to determine whether the application meets the standards established by the Commission. Exchanges would be required to notify the applicant regarding the disposition of the application, including whether the application was approved, denied, referred to the Commission, or requires additional information.
In the 2016 Supplemental Proposal, the Commission noted that the exchanges that would elect to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, exempt spread position, and
One exchange submitted a comment requesting the Commission alter its estimates of the burdens to exchanges for reviewing such submissions, noting that the proposed rules “provide[d] for the collection of considerably more documents than are currently required for Exchange exemption requests.” The commenter continued that the “review and consideration of these documents will result in additional time spent on each exemption request” and suggested the Commission increase its estimate from five hours to seven hours per review.
The Commission notes that it is unclear whether the exchange's estimate of 500 applications includes applications in commodities outside of the commodities subject to the proposed rules. If so, the exchange may have overestimated the number of new applications the exchange may process per year. Further, the estimates of one exchange may not be representative of the number of applications received by the other five exchanges. However, in an abundance of caution, the Commission proposes to use the exchange's estimate for the number of applications. Since the commenter did not suggest the proportion of applications was improperly distributed amongst the sections regarding non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, and enumerated anticipatory hedging positions, the Commission has estimated the costs resulting from each type of application using roughly the same proportion as originally proposed.
Thus, the Commission estimates that each exchange would process approximately 325 non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications per year and that each application would require 7 hours to process, for an average per entity burden of 2,275 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $277,500 per entity under § 150.9(a).
The Commission estimates that each exchange would process about 85 spread exemption applications per year and that each application would require 7 hours to process, for an average per entity burden of 595 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $72,590 per entity under proposed § 150.10(a). The Commission invites comments on these estimates.
The Commission estimates that each entity would process about 90 anticipatory hedging applications per year and that each application would require 7 hours to process, for an average per entity burden of 630 labor hours annually. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $76,860 per entity under proposed § 150.11(a).
Exchanges that would elect to process the applications under proposed §§ 150.9 and 150.10 may incur burdens to publish on their Web sites summaries of the unique types of non-enumerated bona fide hedging position positions and spread positions, respectively. This requirement would be new even for exchanges that already have a similar process under exchange-set limits.
The Commission estimated in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal that a single summary would require 5 hours to write, approve, and post. An exchange also commented that these summaries would likely require seven hours per summary to prepare.
Designated contract markets and swap execution facilities that elect to process applications are required under proposed §§ 150.9(b), 150.10(b), and 150.11(b) to keep full, complete, and systematic records, which include all pertinent data and memoranda, of all activities relating to the processing and disposition of applications for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, and enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges. The Commission believes that exchanges currently process applications for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, and enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges maintain records of such applications as required pursuant to other Commission regulations, including § 1.31. However, the Commission also believes that the rules may confer additional recordkeeping obligations on exchanges that elect to process applications for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, exempt spread positions, and enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges.
The Commission estimates that 6 entities would have recordkeeping obligations pursuant to proposed §§ 150.9(b), 150.10(b), and 150.11(b). Thus, the Commission approximates an average per entity burden of 90 labor hours annually for all three sections. The Commission estimates an average cost of approximately $10,980 per entity for records and filings under §§ 150.9(b), 150.10(b), and 150.11(b).
The Commission anticipates that exchanges that elect to process applications for recognition of non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions, spread exemptions, and enumerated anticipatory bona fide hedges would be required to file two types of reports. In particular, proposed §§ 150.9(c) and 150.10(c) would require a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process applications for non-enumerated bona fide hedging positions and exempt spread positions to submit to the Commission (i) a summary of any non-enumerated bona fide hedging position and exempt spread position newly published on the designated contract market or swap execution facility's Web site; and (ii) no less frequently than monthly, any report submitted by an applicant to such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to rules authorized under
The Commission understands that 5 exchanges currently submit reports, on a voluntary basis each month, which provide information regarding exchange-recognized exemptions of all types. The Commission stated in the 2016 Supplemental Position Limits Proposal its preliminary belief that the content of such reports is similar to the information required of the reports in §§ 150.9(c), 150.10(c), and 150.11(c), but the frequency of such reports would increase under the proposed rules. The Commission estimated that the weekly report would require approximately 3 hours to complete and submit and that the monthly report would require 2 hours to complete and submit.
An exchange commented that the Commission “significantly understated” the time required to prepare, review, and submit the weekly and monthly reports based on the amount of time the exchange currently spends to prepare and submit the reports it already submits. The commenter suggested the Commission revise its estimates to reflect the exchange's estimates of six hours to prepare the weekly report and six hours to prepare the monthly report.
The Commission estimates that 6 entities would have weekly reporting obligations pursuant to reproposed §§ 150.9(c)(1), 150.10(c)(1), and 150.11(c).
The Commission also estimates that 6 entities would have monthly reporting obligations pursuant to reproposed §§ 150.9(c)(2) and 150.10(c)(2).
In documents submitted to OMB in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Commission estimated that the total annualized capital, operational, and maintenance costs associated with complying with the proposed rules amending part 150 would be approximately $11.6 million across approximately 400 firms. Of this $11.6 million, the Commission estimated that $5 million would be from annualized capital and start-up costs and $6.6 million would be from operating and maintenance costs. These cost estimates were based on Commission staff's estimated costs to develop the reports and recordkeeping required in the proposed part 150.
The Commission explained that the proposed expansion of the number of contract markets with Commission-set position limits, and the Congressional determination that such limits be applied on an aggregate basis across all trading venues and all economically-equivalent contracts, might increase operational costs for traders to monitor position size to remain in compliance with federal position limits. The Commission further explained that as such limits have been in place in the futures markets for over 70 years, the Commission believed that traders in those markets would have already developed means of compliance and thus would not require additional capital or start-up costs. The Commission stated its expectation that, while affected futures entities would be able to significantly leverage existing systems and faculties to comply with the extended regime, entities trading only or primarily in swaps contracts may not have developed such means.
One commenter provided specific estimates of the start-up costs to develop new systems to track and report positions, stating that per-entity costs will range from $750,000 to $1,500,000. The commenter also stated that ongoing annual costs would range from $100,000 to $550,000 per entity.
The Commission maintains its belief that market participants will be able to leverage existing systems and strategies for tracking and reporting positions. As noted above, the Commission recognizes that expanding the federal speculative position limits regime into additional commodities beyond the legacy agricultural commodities will increase monitoring costs for firms. However, the Commission continues to expect that firms trading in the commodities subject to federal limits under § 150.2 do currently monitor for exchange-set and/or federal limits, and submit reports to claim exemptions in contracts for future delivery in such commodities. The Commission therefore continues to believe that costs for futures market participants resulting from the rules adopted herein are marginal increases upon existing costs, rather than entirely new burdens. Further, the Commission notes that it is difficult to ascertain an estimate of the average cost to market participants, as, depending on its size and complexity, a market participant could comply with position limits using anything from an Excel spreadsheet to multiple transaction capture systems.
The Commission is increasing its estimates to respond to the commenter. For swaps market participants unused to speculative position limits on swaps contracts, the Commission continues to estimate a greater cost to start and continue monitoring for and complying with speculative position limits.
Specifically, the Commission estimates that 441 entities would incur annualized start-up costs across all affected entities of $47,800,000. The
The Commission invites the public and other Federal agencies to comment on any aspect of the reproposed information collection requirements discussed above. The Commission will consider public comments on this reproposed collection of information in:
(1) Evaluating whether the reproposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have a practical use;
(2) evaluating the accuracy of the estimated burden of the reproposed collection of information, including the degree to which the methodology and the assumptions that the Commission employed were valid;
(3) enhancing the quality, utility, and clarity of the information proposed to be collected; and
(4) minimizing the burden of the reproposed information collection requirements on registered entities, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological information collection techniques,
Copies of the submission from the Commission to OMB are available from the CFTC Clearance Officer, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581, (202) 418-5160 or from
• The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503, Attn: Desk Officer of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission;
• (202) 395-6566 (fax); or
•
Please provide the Commission with a copy of submitted comments so that all comments can be summarized and addressed in the final rulemaking, and please refer to the
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”) requires that agencies consider whether the rules they propose will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if so, provide a regulatory flexibility analysis respecting the impact.
One commenter, the NFP Electric Entities,
Further, while the requirements under this rulemaking may impact non-financial end users, the Commission notes that position limits levels apply only to large traders. Accordingly, the Chairman, on behalf of the Commission, hereby certifies, on behalf of the Commission, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), that the actions proposed to be taken herein would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The Chairman made the same certification in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal
There are various statistical techniques for testing various hypotheses about position limits and related matter. Many of these techniques are deployed to determine whether speculative positions influence price, price changes, or volatility. The Commission has engaged in a comprehensive review and analysis of the various economic studies and papers in the administrative record.
These economic studies bearing on the proposed rule arrived in the administrative record in various ways. They include studies cited in the Commission's notice of proposed rulemaking; studies substantially relied upon in comment letters; and studies mentioned in a list submitted by commenter Markus Henn (“Henn Letter”).
As a group, these studies do not show a consensus in favor of or against position limits. Many studies limited themselves to subsidiary questions and did not direct address the desirability or utility of position limits themselves. The quality of the studies varies. Some studies are written by esteemed economists and published in academic, peer-reviewed journals. For other studies, that is not the case. Those studies that did at least touch on position limits had disparate conclusions on the ability economists to use market fundamentals to explain commodity prices; the existence of “excessive speculation” in various futures markets; and the utility of position limits. Section 4a(a)(1) of the CEA provides for position limits as a means to address certain specified burdens on interstate commerce. Studies that dispute the utility of position limits for the purposes Congress identified are less helpful than studies addressing other questions.
It can be difficult to distinguish between ordinary speculation that is permitted and desirable, because it facilitates the transfer of risk and provides liquidity for hedgers, and harmful or “excessive” speculation. Ideally, speculation may better align prices with market fundamentals.
Congress has found “excessive speculation” in futures contracts to be “an undue and unnecessary burden on interstate commerce.”
Although volatility may be an indicator of excess speculation, as Congress has determined, price volatility, in itself, does not establish “excess speculation.”
One of the main functions of the swaps and futures markets is to permit parties with structural exposure to price risk (hedgers such as buyers or sellers of commodity-related products) to manage price changes or price volatility by transferring price risk to others. Speculators in these markets often, in effect, shield hedgers from some forms of price volatility by accepting this price risk. The nation's futures and swaps markets helps producers and suppliers of these commodities, and the customers they serve, hedge price risk to avoid price uncertainty when desired. In this way, volatility and speculation are not
Just as volatility is not a per se harmful or unexpected event in the commodity futures markets, speculation in those markets is welcome and will often actually reduce volatility. A well-reasoned 2009 economic study (by economists who were then CFTC employees) concluded that speculative trading in the futures market is not, in and of itself, destabilizing.
Some economic studies attempt to distinguish between normal and helpful speculative activity and excessive speculation: between normal volatility and, in the words of the Commodity Exchange Act, “unreasonable fluctuations” in price.
While there is no well-established economic definition of “excess speculation,” many economists studying commodity futures marketplace have used a proxy for speculation in commodity futures marketplace known in the economic literature as the Working's speculative T index. Economist Holbrook Working devised in 1960 a ratio to measure the adequacy or excessiveness of speculation. As applied to commodity futures positions, the speculative T index is used to assess the amount of speculative positions in the marketplace beyond the amount of speculative positions necessary to provide liquidity for hedgers in the marketplace.
A high Working T index is one way to quantify excess speculation in technical terms, but even then that may not translate into excessive speculation in “economic terms.”
There are several published studies on the effect of speculation on prices and price volatility, as well as studies on speculation generally. These studies employ various statistical methodologies. Some of these find the existence of “price bubbles,” meaning somehow artificially high prices that last longer than they should. These studies are analyzed below, but there is no academic consensus on what a “price bubble” is and how it can be detected. Thus many of the interpretations set forth in the “price bubble” studies are not the only plausible explanation for their statistical findings.
As further detailed below, there is no broad academic consensus on the economic definition of “excess speculation” or “price bubble” in commodity futures markets. There is also no broad academic consensus on the best statistical model to test for the existence of excess speculation. There is open skepticism in many economic quarters that there can even exist a significant “price bubble” in commodity futures markets.
A large measure of the difficulty stems from the difficulties of second-guessing the market's determination of the price of a commodity contract:
Experts may express opinions about what the fundamental price should be, given current supply and demand conditions, but
In order to test for the presence of “excessive” speculation, many of these economic studies look to whether the existence of substantial positions by speculative traders causes price volatility or a semi-permanent change in price. The idea underlying these studies is that if the presence of sufficiently large positions can induce such price behavior, it is “excessive.” Economists use various statistical tools, including correlation analysis, to determine whether there is price behavior caused by speculative positions that is “unwarranted.” “Unwarranted” price movements are those not associated with fundamentals of supply and demand, the inherent volatility of market prices, or other factors independent of position.
In these studies, economists discuss whether positions have caused movements in price. Technically, economists will study “price returns” for a class of commodity, rather than just “price” (the nominal price level). Price return gives one the change in price over time, divided by price.
The conclusions of these various economic analyses, discussed in detail in Section III below, have achieved a reasonable measure of academic consensus on some subsidiary matters bearing on the ultimate question of whether excessive speculation has had an impact on the commodity futures markets. However, there is no academic consensus on the ultimate question of the extent and breadth of the impact, and there is no singular economic study of compelling persuasiveness.
There are not many compelling, peer-reviewed economic studies engaging in quantitative, empirical analysis of the impact of position limits on prices or price volatility, and thus on whether position limits are useful in curbing excessive speculation.
As many economic researchers observe in their studies, there is no decisive accounting on whether a particular trade or set of trades is speculative or hedging. In practice, researchers often use a rough proxy based on the nature of the trader: Whether they are commercial or non-commercial. However, in both practice and theory, this proxy may fail: Commercial traders may speculate and non-commercial traders may well hedge. For example, a commercial trader might speculate and take an outsize position, in the sense that it exceeds a given hedging business need, in a commodity on the belief that the price will go up and down. Thus “traders sometimes may be misclassified between commercial and noncommercial positions, and some traders classified as commercial may have speculative motives.”
Further compounding these classification problems, the publicly available data also aggregates traders' positions across maturity dates for futures contracts, while the price for any given commodity futures contract is not aggregated by maturity.
Even when an economic researcher can find detailed information on specific trades and the nature of the traders, that might not be sufficient to characterize an individual trade as hedging or speculative. A market participant may have business needs it hedges with derivatives and also engage in speculative trading. Thus the identity of the market participant purchasing the commodity futures contracts alone does not accurately capture the motivation for or purpose of the trade. Thus, an economic researcher faces significant data constraints in reliably characterizing trades as speculative or hedging, making it difficult to determine whether position limits are useful in curbing certain speculative activity.
Designing an economic study of the effect of position limits is complicated by the fact that for many commodity markets, position limits are already in place. There is therefore not reliable empirical data for how certain modern commodity futures markets would operate in the absence of position limits. For all the agricultural commodities referenced in the rule, the futures markets have already had in place spot-month position limits at least as strict as those proposed in the rule. For energy commodities such as crude oil, there have been pre-existing “accountability levels,” meaning an exchange has the option (but not the requirement) to ask a trader to reduce its position if it exceeds a certain level. For crude oil, the current all-months-combined accountability level is 20,000 contracts. The position limit in the proposed rule for the all-months-combined limit is 109,200 contracts.
The existence of binding position limits in agricultural commodities and accountability levels in the energy markets does not mean that traders do not transgress these limits in current markets and take outsized market positions for speculative reasons. But the existence of current limits does make the economist's task of measuring position limit impact more difficult. When an economist studies an agricultural futures market and attempts to assess the economic advantages and disadvantages of imposing position limits, he or she does not have a dataset of market prices in a marketplace
There may be fewer instances of dramatic, large-scale “excessive speculation” because position limits have been in place in many of these commodity futures markets since 1938. There have thus been few opportunities to study the effect of the imposition of a position limits rule.
There is no singularly persuasive study, because these studies use economic models that are, by nature, simplifications of a complex reality. Each of the various models and statistical methods used in these diverse studies has advantages and disadvantages, but they deploy imperfect market data to answer ambitious and complex economic questions. Given the data and modeling limitations, it is unreasonable to expect an economic model that is fulsome (extending to position limits and market speculation), accurate (accommodating and reflecting economic history), and predictive. This is particularly true in the context of market data involving volatile and complex events.
Some studies are better-designed and better-executed than others, which means that they used defensible models with transparent source data. These are discussed throughout this review. Much of the analysis below highlights the flexibility of model design choices and the sensitivity of the results to these modelling choices.
There have been findings by policymakers that excessive speculation exists in various commodity futures markets, as the Commission observed in its notice of proposed rulemaking. For example, the Staff of the Permanent Subcommittee on Investigations of the Homeland Security and Government Affairs found
These studies, like all the studies analyzed here, were undertaken in an absence of definitive economic definitions and tests for excessive speculation; limitations on data quality and availability; and the inherent difficulty of modelling complex phenomena.
Economic studies presented in the context of this rulemaking may involve theoretical models; statistical analysis based upon market data; and, most commonly, a combination of both. The economic studies using statistical methods can be categorized into basic statistical methods, such as models of fundamental supply and demand (and related methods), Granger causality, or other methods. The economic studies presented or cited in the comment letters in this rulemaking are best grouped and analyzed by the statistical method they employ, for there are advantages and disadvantages particular to each statistical method.
This discussion evaluates 244 papers in connection with the position limits rule: 133 studies submitted as comments or mentioned in the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal; over 100 additional studies or articles listed in the Henn Letter; and ten additional studies submitted by commenters not included in the above sets.
This group of 244 papers can be categorized below by statistical methodology: 36 Granger causality analyses; 25 comovement or cointegration analyses; 46 studies creating models of fundamental supply and demand; 8 switching regressions or similar analyses; 3 studies using eigenvalue stability analysis; 26 papers presenting theoretical models; and 73 papers that were primarily surveys of the economic literature, perhaps with some aspect of empirical testing or analysis.
Below is a discussion of the 36 analyses employing the “Granger” or “Granger causality” method of statistical analysis. This discussion includes a description of the method and its advantages and disadvantages.
The Granger method seeks to find whether a linear correlation exists between two sets of data that are known as “time series.” An example of a time series would be a pair of numbers constituting future prices and time, with the time between the different future prices being a fixed amount of time. This fixed time is known as the “time step.” The Granger method takes two time series, such as Series A (futures price returns, each for a different time, for a fixed time step) and Series B
For example, for the time of 12:00 p.m. and the price of $20 for a May cotton futures contract, the researcher using Granger “causality” would associate a position in May cotton futures from a set time prior to 12:00 p.m. If the time step were one minute, that time would be 11:59 a.m. The researcher performs a regression analysis on these two time series (price and time on the one side of the equation, and position and lagged time on the other). They estimate the correlation (technically, they look at the coefficient of the regression) through this analysis to come to a conclusion of whether, over that minute-interval, it can be said that there is a linear correlation between futures prices and positions.
While the Granger test is referred to as the “Granger causality test,” it is important to note that, notwithstanding this shorthand, “Granger causality” does not establish an actual cause-and-effect relationship. What the Granger method gives as a result is evidence of the existence of a linear correlation between the two time series or a lack thereof.
Moreover, the Granger method only tests for linear correlations. It cannot exclude causation associated with other statistical relationships.
The persuasiveness of a Granger study often turns on the soundness of the modelling choices, as discussed further in subsection 3 below.
At the highest level, the Granger method is based on well-credentialed statistical methodology. It has been used for several decades by economists and its properties are well-established and well-debated in the economic literature. In that sense, unlike some of the other methods employed in this context, it has stood the test of time. It has been deployed in macroeconomics and financial economics.
The Granger test has several advantages. It is auditable in the sense that it can be fully replicated by a third party. The method is relatively simple to apply. It need not depend on complex mathematics. The method's straightforward approach permits a great deal of transparency in analyzing both inputs and results. Although the results can be highly sensitive to modelling choices, the modelling choices are made explicitly. That is, the equations that are used for the linear regression can easily be viewed together with the definitions for the variables.
Not all statistical methods apply well to all situations. In the particular context of speculation and positions limits, application of the Granger methodology has some disadvantages and causes for concern. While the statistical answers are, by their nature, fairly precise, the drafting of the question and the economic interpretation of the results can cause problems. This limitation of the Granger method of course is shared with some other statistical methods. However, we discuss below why this is particularly true of Granger in the context of these studies on speculation and prices. Many of the potential problems in these studies do not so inhere so much in the method itself as in the modelling choices, other operational choices such as the length of time step and time lag, and the interpretation of the results.
First, the typical application of the Granger method in the studies review assumes a linear relation between the variables of interest: For example, prices and positions. The technique is useful for describing statistical patterns in data among variables ordered in time. But Granger does not claim to discuss simultaneous events. It is a statistical test which, in rough terms, says that if event A typically precedes event B, then event A “Granger-causes” event B. Granger is a statistical method for analyzing data for correlations, and “Granger causation” is not “causation” per se. It does not illustrate the method and means of actual causation nor does it claim to establish actual causation in reality.
For example, the Granger method cannot explain what causal mechanism links two events, events A and B, and a Granger model cannot detect all real-world causation. For example, an individual Granger model cannot conclude whether there is a relation between event A and event B that is “hidden” because the time step chosen is so long that the events look to occur simultaneously over the observed interval (be it a day or a week).
A second disadvantage concerns the sensitivity of the test to the time period studied. Especially in the context of the Granger method, the selection of the particular time internal is important to obtain the most useful results: Selection of too large a time period may hide correlations. Some of the position studies use daily price data, while others use weekly price data. When commodity prices are quite volatile, and positions are more gradual in changes, daily time steps may have greater unexplained variation in the commodity prices than when the time series for price data is constructed based on weekly sampling. A study by International Monetary Fund economists, using weekly data, observed that this time interval “may hamper the identification of very short-run effects, given that the transmission from positions to prices may happen at higher frequency. Indeed, some market participants anecdotally suggest that there are short-run effects that may last only a matter of days.”
Another potential problem is picking a time lag that is too short to detect possible market phenomenon. “[K]nowing whether price changes lead or lag position changes over short horizons (a few days) is of limited value for assessing the price pressure effects of flows into commodity derivatives markets.”
In the statistical calculations underlying the Granger method, this greater volatility may lead to a larger denominator in what is called the “t-statistic,” and that will in turn lead to a lower t-statistic (in absolute value). The t-statistic is used in the Granger method to assess how well a variable, such as positions, explains another variable, such as commodity prices. In this way, the selection of the time interval can easily affect the strength of the Granger method result.
A third disadvantage of Granger inheres in the selection of the time lag. A Granger analysis will not capture an effect that is delayed beyond the length of the time lag. And a Granger analysis with too long a time lag may not detect
In such ways, and others, the authors of such study have wide license in modelling design. The results can be highly dependent upon and sensitive to model design choices. Key design decisions of seemingly little import, such as the selection of time steps, can in fact make a substantial difference in the study's result. While such flexibility can be useful, this flexibility also permits Granger results to be sensitive to modelling assumptions. Such sensitivity, especially in the particular context of the volatile commodity prices, is problematic. Volatility in commodity prices is a complex phenomenon, with possibly overlapping effects of short- and long-term volatility and many exogenous variables that can affect prices. In short, “care must be taken not to overstate the interpretive power” of Granger causality studies.
Finally, the method cannot discern the true cause of something when event A and B occur almost simultaneously. Granger cannot say whether A caused B or whether C causes A and then C causes B with a brief time lag. In this way, Granger correlation analysis is fundamentally incapable of establishing a cause and effect relationship.
There can also be limitations with regard to the data used in Granger studies on position limits, the majority of which used Commission data. There is a problem which inheres in this data in the particular context of position limit studies. The trade data used identifies the entity doing the trade as “commercial” or “non-commercial.” The data does not identify whether a particular trade is a hedge or a speculative gamble.
There is also the statistical concept of “robustness,” meaning roughly that the results of a study are not qualitatively different based on different applications (different data sets, different tweaks of assumptions). In several ways, application of the Granger method in this particular context offers grounds for caution for study authors seeking statistical robustness. First, for a given time step and commodity, the particular time interval chosen may affect the result. Second, a Granger method is, by its nature, very sensitive to which particular dataset is chosen. Once again, a study's author(s) have wide discretion in the selection of which datasets to study, and Granger methodology will be highly sensitive to this selection.
There is the related problem of economic robustness. For example, because of individual market characteristics, a study limited to a particular commodity or time period may fail to detect patters that would be detectable applying the same method in to other time periods of commodities. Applying Granger analysis to commodity prices presents special challenges in this context because many commodity prices can be quite volatile, especially in the short-term. That is, the Granger method may have low “statistical power” in this context. In mathematical terms, high volatility in one of the Granger variables can lead to large standard errors for regression coefficients for the t-statistic.
A modelling choice to include other variables can further reduce the statistical power of the statistical test used in the Granger method.
Authors of Granger method studies may add “control variables” in order to reflect other factors that may be affecting or relevant to the two main variables of primary interest (such as price and position). The introduction of control variables will help to discount spurious corrections between the variables of primary interest by studying whether another variable could be correlated to (and thus “Granger causing”) variables such as price and position. Adding extra variables can, on the one hand, affect for third factors which may be relevant. On the other hand, the introduction of the third factors may compromise the statistical power of the primary question of interest.
Finally, there are also economic studies casting doubt on the suitability of commodities data for meaningful Granger tests, given volatility in commodities price data.
Granger techniques provide great flexibility. This flexibility also provides great license to economists on selection of critical factors such as the length of the time lag and the time step. The ultimate conclusions of such studies may be influenced by model design. Unsurprisingly, different economists reach different results. In this sense, the conclusions of Granger-based papers are vulnerable to criticism.
Overall, when the Granger studies find a correlation (in the sense of a lead-lag relationship) between speculative positions and price returns, they do so not with respect to price returns as a whole, but the risk premium component of price returns. The risk premium is the portion of expected return of a futures contract associated with holding the contract. It is not an express term of the contract, but an amount that can be derived from economic analysis as the difference between the futures price return and a hypothesized price return
There are also Granger studies that analyze speculative positions with respect to price returns as a whole or price volatility; these do not find a statistically significant correlation. Moreover, those studies that do find a lead-lag correlation using the Granger methodology in the risk premium context are limited to studies in particular markets in particular time frames: Studies using weekly, not daily, price data and analyzing crude oil and ethanol-related commodities (including wheat, which is an economic substitute for corn) during the 2007-2010 timeframe.
There are 36 primarily Granger-based economic studies in the administrative record. For analysis purposes, these papers are grouped according to whether they discuss primarily crude oil or other energy derivatives (8 studies); the possible impact of commodity index funds across multiple commodities (13); and agricultural commodities (15).
There was a substantial increase in crude oil prices through July 2008, followed by a significant price collapse from July 2008 through March of 2009.
Professor Kenneth Singleton found evidence that speculative positions Granger-caused risk premium on weekly time intervals during the 2007 to 2009 period when studying the crude oil futures markets.
In the case of index funds, many funds take long positions. The presence of large index funds positions raises an issue of whether what economists would call this “heterogeneity of views” can affect marketplace health. Singleton presents, with his Granger-like analysis, a discussion of heterogeneity in this context. He conjectures—without supporting empirical analysis—that learning about economic fundamentals with heterogeneous views may induce excessive price volatility, drift in commodity prices, and a tendency towards booms and busts. He asserts that under these conditions the flow of financial index investments into commodity markets may harm price discovery and thus social welfare.
Another paper using Granger analysis concluded that speculators did have an impact on price volatility in the crude oil market.
Some commenters have suggested that using a weekly, not a daily, time interval for a Granger analysis in this context is a better choice because speculative positions change gradually and there is, on a daily basis, substantial price volatility, especially in the crude oil market.
Other Granger analyses of the crude oil market use shorter time intervals and do not find Granger-causality between speculative position changes and either price returns, price changes or price volatility.
Irwin and Sanders conclude that there is no Granger-causation between positions in a particular commodity index fund and price returns in four energy commodity markets.
There is an earlier paper by Sanders, Boris, and Manfredo that has a similar result.
This argument does not prove that there is no masking effect. There is at least the concern that the Irwin and Sanders model, as constructed, masks possible Granger-causality between position changes and price returns. Theoretically, one could learn more by examining the linear correlation between explanatory variables (lagged price returns and changes in position) by performing additional diagnostic regressions. These regressions would estimate correlations between explanatory variables and resolve the open question of whether the price equation is significantly “masking” Granger-causality between position changes and price returns.
Selecting between competing models with divergent results becomes more of a judgment call than a science. Irwin and Sanders' 2014 paper is well-done, as are papers with opposite conclusions, which find an empirical relationship between position changes and price returns (risk premia), such as the Singleton Granger analysis discussed above, and a paper by Hamilton and Wu based on a different statistical method discussed below.
It is impossible to easily discern who is correct or what accounts for the difference in result. It could be the “masking” issue in the Irwin and Sanders model. It could also be the focus in the Irwin and Sanders work on price returns, as opposed to the focus in both Singleton's as well as Hamilton and Wu's on just a component of price returns, risk premia. Irwin and Sanders, by focusing on price returns, are doing Granger-causality testing with a model less sensitive to changes in just risk premia. The differing results could also be due to the different time horizons (weekly versus daily time increments) used in the competing studies.
This clash of well-executed studies is on an important issue—the dramatic changes in crude oil prices in 2006-2009. The study by Kaufman is not directly on point.
Kaufmann also finds that far-out futures contracts and spot crude oil are not correlated and he concludes that the reason for this lack of correlation is speculation in the crude oil market. However, there are gaps in this inference. Kaufmann assumes there should be a long-run equilibrium between the spot and the futures price but cannot discern a supply and demand reason for the lack of correlation. There are many factors of supply and demand that would lead to differences between far-out futures prices and spot prices in the crude oil market during the time period studied—1986-2007. These factors include the depletion of oil fields; variability in economic growth; discovery of new oil sources and better modes of extraction; adaption of oil infrastructure.
Some economists have used the Granger methodology to study a group of commodity markets and to analyze, overall, the effect, or lack thereof, of commodity index fund investments on both energy and agricultural commodity prices.
Gilbert concluded that commodity index fund positons did Granger-cause price increases in certain commodity futures markets during the 2006-2008 time period.
Gilbert's study is based upon a composed proxy for commodity fund index investments. The index data they use is not explained in sufficient detail in the paper and the results derived from this index are therefore not replicable.
Gilbert's numerical results on price impact are dramatic, finding substantial average impact in various commodities due to speculation, with average impact in parts of 2008 of over 10 percent for aluminum, copper, nickel, wheat, and corn.
By contrast, the Granger analysis of Stoll and Whaley concludes that inflows and outflows from commodity index funds to the commodity markets do not have Granger-caused price changes in the commodity futures market.
Stoll and Whaley's analysis does not account for the possibility that there could be a delayed effect on futures price changes associated with a delay in laying off, in the futures markets, risks acquired in commodity index swap contracts. In practices, dealers may do this, acquiring risk in multiple markets within acceptable limits as they manage their portfolio risk.
While both the Stoll and Whaley and the Gilbert papers are often cited in the literature, they both have limitations in scope and approach. Other studies do not fully resolve this academic debate. In a paper by James W. Williams, the limitations of Granger causality analysis in the position limits context is discussed.
The general findings of Irwin and Sanders support Stoll and Whaley's conclusions.
Frenk criticizes Irwin and Sanders for (1) both their specific methodology, arguing that they used incorrect proxies for hedging volumes and (2) rehearsing the general disadvantages of using Granger analysis.
There is a significant problem with the Irwin and Sanders paper. The price formula used for Granger testing in their paper is complex, incorporating many lagged price returns and lagged positions, and risks masking correlation due to the possible interdependence of
Other studies doing Granger testing for the effects of commodity index funds on prices arrive at conflicting results.
The study by Brunetti and Büyükşahin is also an important contribution to the literature.
These CFTC-staff studies have the advantage of using non-public, daily data. However, such studies are subject to the same limitations that are inherent in Granger analysis in this context: The open question of whether the proper time lag was selected, the ad hoc assumption of the time step selected to compute the volatility, and the inclusion in both studies of variables such as lagged price returns that may inadvertently mask correlation. The inherent limitations of Granger analysis may well bear on the conflicting results of these Granger papers.
The final set of Granger papers concern the agricultural commodity markets. These include a series of papers by Irwin and Sanders and co-authors not finding Granger causation between positions and price returns.
There are studies (some are more properly categorized as articles) that do purport to find Granger causation between positions and price returns.
Gilbert, in a 2008 paper, reaches a different result with respect to agricultural commodities.
The work of Gilbert, as well as Irwin and Sanders, also suggest a cautious approach is warranted in concluding how sizeable or lasting any price impact associated with “excessive speculation” can be, at least when employing a Granger analysis. One paper authored by Irwin emphasized that the only evidence of Granger-causation between positions and price returns in the agricultural market was weak evidence of temporary changes in price.
The debate is hard to resolve, including for the fairly technical reasons provided in Grosche.
These studies employ a statistical method that can be viewed mathematically as a special case of Granger causality, a method frequently referred to as comovement. This method looks for whether there is correlation that is contemporaneous and not lagged. (This is effectively similar to a Granger analysis where the type period of lag is set to zero.) Like Granger causality, this method employs linear regression to establish correlation between market prices or price returns and speculative positions. When the time step is set to zero, the economist can no longer seek to establish an inference of cause and effect between prices or price returns and positions. Instead, the economist is using a Granger-type analysis to establish whether there is a correlation that is contemporaneous. A subset of these comovement studies uses a technique called cointegration for testing correlation between two sets of data, to see if there is a statistical relationship notwithstanding the “white noise” of price data.
This technique can be used to ferret out unexpected divergences in prices. For example, many economists perform cointegration tests comparing futures and spot prices, which generally should constrain each other by staying within reasonable bands of each other. If they find a discrepancy, they consider whether excess speculation or a price “bubble” could explain this price discrepancy.
Such approaches are useful to compare commodity markets with other markets in seeking a correlation over time between these sets of prices. For example, a study may look at a price index for commodities for one time series and a price index for equities for another time series. In rough terms, studying the linear regressions of these price data over time establishes whether there is a confluence of price trends in these two markets. It may capture correlations that a Granger causality approach may miss if the latter uses too large a time lag. In this way, comovement analyses may be stronger than Granger analyses at finding correlations, avoiding the problem of correlations being hidden by the improper selection of length of time lag.
But the complementary disadvantage is that a comovement result cannot establish even weak, Granger-style causation. In the particular context of position limits, this disadvantage is significant. As further explained below in the discussion of specific studies, correlations between prices or price returns and positions can be caused by external factors such as broad macroeconomic trends. In particular, using comovement to try to establish a “price bubble” over time ranges that are short-term (months) or medium-term (18 months to two years) is problematic because of the impact macroeconomic or other external factors (wars, recessions, etc.) can have on short-term prices. A comovement study showing a correlation between two sets of data—crude oil futures and spot prices—over just a year or two years is, all else being equal, a fairly weak basis to infer a price bubble. There can be other factors that cause decoupling of prices over such a time period.
Many of the papers in this category focus on a documented correlation between returns to commodity futures and the financial (including equity) markets that has increased strongly in
Figure 1B. Over-the-counter trading in commodity derivatives by swap dealers has also increased over time, with a pronounced spike during the 2007-2008 time period.
Figure 2B. The factors driving this growth include the desire of institutional portfolio managers to hedge against stock risk, based on the belief by some academic and industry economics that there were negative correlations between returns on equity and commodity futures.
One variation on this financialization theme is the Masters “hypothesis.” Michael W. Masters, a hedge fund manager, is a leading proponent of the view that commodity index investments have been a major driver of increases in the commodity futures prices. In brief, his views are expressed in the following statement:
Institutional Investors, with nearly $30 trillion in assets under management, have decided en masse to embrace commodities futures as an investable asset class. In the last five years, they have poured hundreds of billions of dollars into the commodities futures markets, a large fraction of which has gone into energy futures. While individually these Investors are trying to do the right thing for their portfolios (and stakeholders), they are unaware that collectively they are having a massive impact on the futures markets that makes the Hunt brothers pale in comparison. In the last 4
Statements are not, in themselves, rigorous economic studies, nor do they purport to be. Several economists have attempted to formalize and study rigorously the “Masters hypothesis” or related conjectures using comovement or cointegration methods. These studies are discussed below.
There are 25 papers that use some form of comovement or cointegration analysis, broadly defined. Former and current economists within the Office of Chief Economist have used this method repeatedly (7 papers);
One of the key challenges for application of the Masters hypothesis is reconciliation of a supposed speculative price with what is happening in the physical market. The debate within academia, practitioners and policymakers on this topic has been considerable, especially given the run-up in prices in certain commodities, such as the 2006-2008 rise in crude oil prices. “Dramatic swings in crude oil prices have led Congress to examine the functioning of the markets where prices are set.”
The economics of the crude oil market are a good example of the dangers of applying comovement or cointegration methods over short- and medium-term. Short-term crude oil prices are less elastic than longer-term prices. This means, in the short term, changes in price do not affect the supply of crude oil as much as long-term price changes do. There are many reasons why this is so, having to do with the cost of storing crude oil above ground and the cost of starting and stopping crude oil extraction. So it is unsurprising that there are short- and medium-term divergences in price between spot and longer-term futures contracts in the crude oil markets.
On the supply side of crude oil market economics, a short-term shock to supply (wars, embargoes, or other events) will not necessarily translate into a long-term change in prices, even though it may cause substantial short-term price changes and volatility. Similarly, on the demand side of crude oil market economics, short-term changes to demand can impact short-term crude oil prices without causing lasting long-term price impact.
For such reasons, comovement and cointegration studies of crude oil prices over medium time frames are unpersuasive.
Cointegration results suggest that financial traders' influence of crude oil futures prices is desirable. For example, then-CFTC economists, Büyükşahin, Harris, and Haigh show how the increased presence of swap dealers, hedge funds, and other financial traders have led to the cointegration of various crude oil futures contracts (the nearby contract, the one-year contract, and the two-year contract).
Both research papers
Some studies have examined “financialization” by using comovement analysis to ask whether increased investment flows into commodity indices (typically composed with substantial long futures positions) are correlated with increases in futures prices or the volatility of commodity futures prices across many different types of studies. Some of these financializaton comovement studies have looked to whether these investment flows decrease the risk premium for holding a long futures contract, thereby causing a non-transient increase in the long futures contract price (which, in turn, may increase the price of the underlying commodity).
There is consensus in the economic literature that equities and commodities no longer exhibit the strong negative correlations that index fund investment managers may have sought in hedging their portfolios. In recent years there has been an increased positive correlation between equity and commodity prices since 2008.
However, there is a divergence of views among economists on the impacts, if any, on the large positions taken by index funds on commodity futures prices or price volatility.
Commission-affiliated economists have confirmed a general decrease in volatility associated with financialization, a salutary effect associated with increased liquidity.
While competition and increased trading volume can generally help markets, inflows do not universally benefit market welfare. In a paper by Cheng, Kirilenko, and Xiong, the authors use comovement methodology to conclude that in times of distress, financial traders reduce their net long position, causing risk to flow from financial traders to commercial hedgers.
Cheng, Kirilenko, and Xiong argue that tests such as Granger, which look to whether financial traders' positions and futures prices are negatively correlated when they trade to accommodate hedgers, overlook an important lesson from the distressed financial literature.
Using cointegration techniques and non-public trading data, then-CFTC economists, Büyükşahin and Robe demonstrate that the correlations between equity indices and commodities increase with greater participation by financial speculators.
Another comovement study provided an empirical link between commodity index investment and futures price movements, including increased price volatility.
This Tang and Xiong finding of volatility “spillovers” is frequently cited by commenters in support of position limits. However, some academics are skeptical of their results. Irwin and Sanders concede that the Tang and Xiong paper “appears to offer concrete evidence” of some form of financialization, but offers several reasons to view these findings with caution.
Tang and Xiong's results do not necessarily point to lasting difficulties associated with the integration of financial and commodity markets. Instead, they argue that commodity markets were not integrated with financial markets prior to the development of commodity index funds. In their paper, Tang and Xiong view financialization as a “process” which helps explain “the synchronized price boom and bust of a broad set of seemingly unrelated commodities” during the 2006-2008 time period.
A problem with this line of reasoning that critics have identified is that there could be other factors which lead to increased correlation between equities and futures during this time period. After all, 2006-2009 was an eventful time where broad macroeconomic factors held sway and could have led to large positive correlations between these markets. According to many, one of the factors leading to the influx of investment funds in during the 2006-2008 time period was negative correlations between commodities returns and equities returns. Yet this factor is less prevalent today. “The positive correlation between the agriculture ETFs and S&P 500 suggests that the diversification benefits of using an agricultural index have decreased.”
Some commenters have pointed to studies such as Tang and Xiong's in support of the position limits rule.
A paper by Korniotis contains an important caveat in the financialization debate: The effects of financialization may vary widely depending on the type of commodity.
With the exceptions discussed in detail above, many of the studies in this vein do not warrant detailed discussion. Even well-executed economic studies using comovement methodology that do not focus on position limits may be of little or marginal relevance.
There are other possible ways in which additional trading volume may not be an unalloyed benefit to the wellbeing of a marketplace. A few comovement studies attempt to test for the existence of “herding.” This is a formalized version of price trending. The idea here is that traders may initiate a trade with the expectation that positive-feedback traders will purchase the traded instruments at a higher price later.
Though the evidence for herding is meager, the underlying idea is consistent with accepted and theoretically plausible results on risk premia. Risk premiums rise with the volatility of the futures markets, and risk premiums depend in part on speculators' hedging pressure and inventory levels.
Agricultural economists have reached similarly conclusions on the cointegration of financial speculators and food prices. While there are respectable empirical results suggesting that financial speculation have affected some recent agricultural commodity price dynamics, there is no unanimity in the academic community on conclusive empirical evidence of the causal dynamics, breadth, and magnitude of such effects.
Some economists have developed economic models for the supply and demand of a commodity. These models often include theories of how storage capacity and use affect supply and demand, often a critical factor in the case of physical commodities and their inter-temporal price (that is, their price over time). Using models of supply and demand, the economists then attempt to arrive at a “fundamental” price (or price return) for commodity based on the model. Specifically, the economists look at where the model is in equilibrium with respect to quantities supplied and quantities demanded to arrive at this price. The fundamental price given by such a model is then compared with actual prices. The economists look for deviations between the fundamental price, based on the model, and the actual price of the commodity. When pursuing this method, economists look for whether the price deviations are statistically significant. When there are statistically significant deviations of the actual price from market fundamentals, they infer that the price is not driven by market fundamentals.
Many of these studies present a model for one particular commodity or set of commodities. Some looked at volatile markets. Others used at very predictable markets.
We group together for analysis a diverse set of studies that fall within this broad category of economic models of fundamental supply and demand. Some asserted that their models generally could explain prices. Some papers were neutral. And some papers reached the conclusion that market fundamentals could not explain certain price data in the markets they studied.
This methodology is well-recognized and accepted means for detecting price deviations. This is a centuries-old technique, as old as the quantification of economics. The model forces the economist to explain supply and demand. This requirement thus provides welcome transparency.
Moreover, the models are auditable: When the fundamental price deviates from the actual price, the economists may well be able to look at the model and see which aspects of supply and/or demand created the deviation. If the economist cannot ascertain the source of the deviation, (1) the economist may seek to add additional variables to the models for supply or demand to better model supply and demand or (2) conclude that this unexplained deviation is empirical support for the existence of a non-fundamental price.
Another advantage of this model is that the loose language of “bubble” is replaced by the term “non-fundamental price.” The model supplies an economically motivated specification for the price of a commodity. This feature permits deeper economic analysis and debate on whether a non-fundamental price exists without a digression into debates about what the term “bubble” means.
As applied to position limits, this approach has several drawbacks as well.
First and foremost, the analyses and conclusions that flow from these studies are only as good as the models themselves. Specifically, the price benchmark is based on the model, and an analysis of deviation from the benchmark is only as strong as the model itself. These models incorporate many simplifying assumptions. Market behavior and the real world in general, are much more complicated.
Moreover, these models do not function well when there is a supply shock or when demand falls precipitously. Another disadvantage is model construction using variables that are highly correlated with the price. If the correlation between price and a variable is too high, then using the variable in the model may permit the variable to function as a proxy for price. This will hobble the model's ability to detect price deviations.
A substantial disadvantage of this model is the inherent difficulty of modelling fundamentals of supply and demand in a market of any complexity. Or even, in a model, in anticipating or measuring the impact of large macroeconomic trends. For example, economists have a notoriously bad track record of predicting economic recessions. Thus it is difficult to conclude that a model with a few variables, designed without this hindsight, would be successful in predicting how crude oil prices would behave during the advent of an economic recession. With hindsight, economists know now that September 2008 was at the outset of a substantial global recession, or at least a point of dramatic decrease in the output of the world economy. And with hindsight, it is apparent that the recession dramatically reduced the demand for crude oil. But at the outset of a recession, a model designed without knowledge of the recession (or of its severity) might confuse a statistically significant deviation of actual crude oil prices for the fundamental price derived from the model.
In addition, while this statistical method replaces the loose language of “bubbles” with a statistically derived fundamental price, studies offering economic analysis of the fundamentals of price and demand do not eliminate all subjectivity in determining whether a non-fundament price has occurred. An economist will often obtain from these models a “price band,” a band for which prices falling within that range remain reflective of fundamental supply and demand. Prices outside the price band are non-fundamental prices. Determining the height of the band depends on what is viewed as a statistically significant deviation, by definition. But determining what a statistically significant deviation is requires the economist to make an assumption that can be quite consequential. The economist must set a level of price changes that his or her model will ignore as attributable merely to chance. Nothing in underlying statistics of the price data will provide the economist with this level. If the level is fixed so that the price band is relatively tall, less prices are likely to be labelled statistically significant deviation by the test.
Even before 2007, there were suspicions about prices in the crude oil market. The Governor of the Federal Reserve Board said in 2004: “The sharp increases and extreme volatility of oil prices have led observers to suggest that some part of the rise in prices reflects a speculative component arising from the activities of traders in the oil markets.”
To understand these papers' strengths and weaknesses, it is important to appreciate a critical factor about crude oil market economics—storage.
Crude oil is storable, and so its price reflects, in particular, the demand for crude oil inventory. Speculators influence the spot price of crude oil by placing physical crude oil into storage when future prices are anticipated to be higher and out of storage when future prices are anticipated to be lower. Given this, some economists have studied crude oil storage to determine whether crude oil inventories could be contributing to the boom and bust in crude oil prices during the 2007-2008 time period. Specifically, using models of fundamental supply and demand, they study the elasticity of crude oil prices to determine whether the effect of speculators' trading on crude oil inventories could affect crude oil prices.
Several economists have examined above-ground oil inventories in the United States during this 2007-2008 timeframe and examined the interplay of crude oil inventories and prices. They concluded that the short-term elasticity of crude oil demand would have had to have been unusually low—quite inelastic—for inventory demand to fully explain the unusual crude oil prices in 2007-2008. (Price inelasticity of demand means that the price of crude oil is sensitive to changes in quantity demand: A small decrease in demand is likely to cause a large drop in price, for example, when the short-term elasticity of demand is inelastic, all else being equal.) From this, they conclude that speculative traders' effect on inventory demand was unlikely to be a complete explanation for the 2007-2008 crude oil price swings. That is, it would be unlikely for speculators to be able to (at least easily) cause substantial movements in crude oil prices by speculators' influence on the amount of crude oil stored in above-ground crude oil inventories.
Nonetheless, inventories may still explain part of the unusual price behavior of crude oil in 2007-2008. Even if the short-term elasticity of demand would have to have been very small in absolute value, speculation may have also affected below-ground inventories.
Many economists conclude that there was a substantial demand shock to crude oil during this time period, a
Several economists wrote papers suggesting that their results indicated that crude oil price changes during this time period reflected uneconomic or “bubble-like” behavior. Generally, these authors find that their models of supply and demand could not track well the run up in crude oil prices to around $145 in mid-2008 or the bust to close to $30 a barrel just a few weeks later, and they concluded that activity by speculators in these markets was or might be affecting the rapid crude oil price changes.
These studies do not, in total, lead to consensus. There are distinctive differences and disagreement in the papers on the existence of excessive speculation in the crude oil market during 2007-2009. Even within the Federal Reserve system, there is disagreement, for instance, Plante and Yücel, in
The methodology of fundamentals of supply and demand does not zero in precisely on causation and leaves room for interpretation of why a price does not follow modelled supply and demand behavior. Labelling prices “bubbles” caused by speculation simply because one does not understand or cannot otherwise account for price movements is problematic. One explanation for the failure of these models to track such fast-moving prices that is speculative activity is at work. But there are other explanations. On some level, there is a tautological error in labelling price changes as “bubble-like” simply because economists could not, as of a certain time and with certain model, otherwise explain or predict price movements. These models are trying to explain very complex phenomena and make difficult choices on how to use imperfect data.
Some models performed better at modelling the real-world crude oil prices, using models of fundamental supply and demand, by selecting one of the stronger proxies for crude oil, such as the Dry Baltic Index or macroeconomic variables such as global gross domestic product as explanatory variables.
One of the best studies in this area is Hamilton,
Given this mixed result, both proponents and opponents of position limits cite various aspects of this Hamilton study. His study follows the data closely; his model discusses key issues such as inventory. He does not leap to strained interpretations based on theoretical model assumptions. When his model does not provide a full explanation for price behavior based on supply and demand, he does not simply jump to the conclusion that speculation is at work. Instead, he offers measured
A discussion of crude oil prices during the 2007-2008 timeframe is illustrative of other commodities during this time period. For example, there is considerable comovement between the real price of crude oil and the real price of other industrial commodities during times of major fluctuation in global real activity (such as global recessions).
Outside of the crude oil context, there are some noteworthy studies of fundamental supply and demand that bear on the position limits rulemaking.
Allen, Litov, and Mei, in
Other papers on the fundamentals of supply and demand do not bear directly on position limits. Some discuss matters far afield from the impact of positions on price or other matters bearing on position limits.
In a switching regression analysis, an economist poses the existence of a model with more than one state. In the particular context of position limits, there are typically two states: (1) A normal state—where prices are viewed as what they theoretically should be following market fundamentals and (2) a second state—often described as a “bubble” state in these papers. Using price data, authors of these studies calculate the probability of a transition between these two states. The point of transition between the two states under this methodology is called a structural “breakpoint.” Examination of these breakpoints permits the researcher to date and time the existence of a second state, such as a bubble state.
These authors sometimes find empirical support in the data for the existence of a second state by calculating the probability of breakpoints. When the probability is high enough, the research will say that there is evidence for a second state.
A variant of this method was first published in 1973. It is fairly well-credentialed within academia. If there are two states of the world, it makes sense that distinct states would have different economic models. Because switching regressions uses at least a two-state regression, this method satisfies the economist's view that different states would be better described using different models. A one-size-fits-all model, applied to varying economic states, could potentially be compromised in order to accommodate disparate states.
This model is flexible, allowing for many different specifications (of model design) as explanatory variables of speculative positions and futures prices.
When using this method, the economic researcher permits the data itself to choose the structural breakpoints. This differs from some other statistical methods, where the economic researcher may choose exogenously, based on interpretation of the data or historical knowledge, where and when a transition to a supposed bubble state occurs. The model's selection of the breakpoint permits data to be tested against known historical events and thus lend a measure of credence to the model's choices for structural breaks.
The model also permits close study of particular time periods. An economist may well be aware of historical events that were market-transition events such as “bubbles,” and this method permits the economist to zero-in on that time period and to investigate potential causes and/or confounding events associated with a suspected market transition.
This method has a significant disadvantage that is highlighted in the position limit context. This statistical technique tests for a second state. There could, however, be reasons for a non-normal state other than a “bubble” state. This method leaves quite a bit to economic interpretation of the model, not raw data analysis, to reach their inference that the second state is a “bubble” state.
While the existence of a second state may indicate a “bubble” state and may indicate a problem with excessive speculation, this statistical method cannot definitively prove these inferences, even if position data were used in the analysis. The probability of the existence of second state in these studies in only circumstantial evidence of (1) a “bubble” state and (2) a “bubble” state caused by excessive speculation.
Consider an example of why data alone cannot explain why a deviation from a normal market state is a bubble state: The case of feeder cattle. If there is a drought and feed becomes scarce and expensive, the cattlemen may sell off part of their herd. Prices of feeder cattle may then drop in the short term as well, because cattleman may sell young calves, too. But subsequently, because so many cattle have been slaughtered, there is a shortage of feeder cattle the next season and the prices of feeder cattle rise. So in this case, there is theoretical and empirical support for two states, but they correspond to non-drought and drought states and not normal and “bubble” state. Switching regression analysis if applied to feeder cattle prices during a time period encompassing both drought and non-drought state would not establish the existence of what we could typically view as a “bubble” in the post-drought price rise.
The theoretical level of the analysis, and in particular the lack of firm empirical data linking non-normal states to speculative “bubble” markets, are weaknesses of this statistical method. The studies following this method do not provide categorical proof of the existence of speculative “bubble” markets and they do not provide statistical evidence of whether positions limits would be effective in ameliorating “bubble” markets.
Five studies used a standard form of switching regressions analysis.
Most of these studies are not helpful because they do not use position data or because they have technical issues.
However, there is one switching regression study worthy of further discussion in our view. It is well-executed and employs position data: Chevallier,
Using switching regressions, Chevallier attempts to reconcile two strands of economic literature: Papers that posit the predominance of supply and demand fundamentals and other papers that investigate speculative trading. Chevallier employs macroeconomic variables, proxies for supply and demand fundamentals, and speculative positions (net open position of speculators) in his model specifications. Using switching regression analysis, he concludes that one cannot eliminate the possibility of speculation (a reason why the physical commodity may move into and out of storage) as one of the main reasons behind the 2008 oil price swings.
This is an important result. Other economic studies using models of supply and demand purport to explain the 2008 price swings in crude oil without incorporating speculation into demand. Chevallier's paper suggests that speculation cannot be ruled out as a cause. Specifically, using net speculative positions as one of his variables in his test, he found that this variable was statistically significant on crude oil futures natural logarithm of price returns during the 2008 time period.
This result posits that speculation may have played some role during the 2008 crude oil futures price swings. It suggests that studies that look only to supply and demand without incorporating speculative demand to explain the crude oil market in 2008 may be overlooking an important factor. The switching regression methodology in this context functions as a cross-check to determine whether models of fundamental supply and demand can, in fact, account for all the price swings in crude oil during this time. In at least this particular commodity market and timeframe, Chevallier's finding that net speculative positions are correlated with crude oil future prices suggests a price effect from net speculative positions.
Some economists have run regressions on price and time-lagged values of price. They estimate the time-lagged regression over short time internals. They do this to detect, through examination of specific terms in their lagged price model, unusual price changes. In technical terms, they use a difference equation for lagged price with different estimated values (
This method can be applied after-the-fact to historical data to try to ascertain whether past price changes constituted a “bubble.” Or it can be applied to real-time data to predict whether a current state of affairs is a “bubble.” For these reasons, some economists perceive, as an advantage of this method, the ability through statistical means to date and time “bubbles” in prices.
On the other hand, this method is based on a model and the results of any analysis are only as strong as the model. The model is limited to price data and a constant. Models using this technique do not permit the study authors to include other explanatory variables. This is a disadvantage because it is likely that there are variables of interest other than lagged prices when considering whether price instability exists. For example, someone interested in position limits would want to include an explanatory variable such as speculative positions in the regressions, but this technique does not permit this.
Further, the model allows for wide discretion in the number of lagged prices used. The studies' authors often look at “goodness of fit” results to determine how many lags to select, seeking to set the model based upon the data. This step may make the model uniquely tailored to a particular dataset but not easily applicable to another. Put another way, selecting an important model feature based on testing of the data runs the risk of a selection that is not based on any theoretical or economic fact, but instead on ad hoc assumptions made by the modelers and any idiosyncrasies of the dataset.
Economists using this methodology attempt to find the existence of price “bubbles” using eigenvalue stability methods. Three such papers were
In modern markets, prices can change rapidly for many reasons. The “explosion” of a price over a short time interval does not necessarily reflect uneconomic behavior or a price “bubble.” It could simply represent a “shock.” That shock need not come from speculative activity. The price path may not be smooth. For this reason, these models are conceptually flawed when applied to commodity prices and commodity futures prices.
For example, in Gilbert,
There is a subtler disadvantage that inheres in the inference between the identification of price growth without bound and the existence of a bubble. To examine intervals where a price series is appearing to grow without bound and to infer that that implies a bubble is problematic. A time series for price of an asset is unlikely to tend to infinity because, eventually, this would likely lead to infeasible prices (generally, in the absence of hyperinflation). We do not expect the real price of an asset, which is the price is adjusted for inflation, to grow without bound.
Some economic papers cited in this rulemaking perform little or no empirical analysis and instead, present a general theoretical model that may bear, directly or indirectly, on the effect of excessive speculation in the commodity marketplace. Within the 26 theoretical model papers in the administrative record, there is a subset of papers which may be viewed as generally supportive or disapproving of position limits. Because these papers do not include empirical analysis, they contain many untested assumptions and conclusory statements. In the specific context of academic analysis of position limits (as opposed to policy formulation) theories are useful but must be tested empirically.
Two studies presented theoretical models establishing the risk of price manipulation in the derivatives markets, including cash-settled contracts, suggesting that position limits might be particularly helpful in cash-settled contracts.
On the other hand, there were theoretical papers that reached conclusions which could be helpful to position limit skeptics, such as the power of the marketplace to “self-discipline” would-be excessive speculators.
Even these papers are not firm in their opposition. In
A set of papers suggest that there can be excessive speculation in oil without
The remaining 73 papers are survey pieces. Some of these papers provide useful background material.
While they may be useful for developing hypotheses, they often exhibit policy bias and are not neutral, reliable bases for judgments in the academic context (again, as opposed to the judgments of policymakers).
We have reviewed all 73 papers in this category and discuss below only those few that add marginal value to the empirical analyses discussed above.
Frenk and Turbeville, in
This set of inferences is problematic for several reasons. First, it depends on the current existence of a price impact from rolling. Yet the roll price impact is a market phenomenon that may no longer be as substantial as it once was. The market now has general knowledge of the influx of commodity index traders and their established rolling behavior. Moreover, many ETFs announce in their prospectus how they will trade, and most large exchange-traded funds now “sunshine” their rolls: To announce to the market in advance when and how they will roll.
Moreover, the Frenk and Turbeville article ascribes the contango state of commodity futures prices to the price impact of roll without empirical analysis to support a causal link. There has historically been an alternation between contango and backwardation in the crude oil commodity market: This phenomenon has been attributed to changes in short-term supply or demand, increased market participation on the long side to earn the risk premium associated with going long, and other reasons, but not the technical aspects of commodity index rolls.
Several other survey papers posit the existence of a speculative bubble in price due to speculation along the lines of the Frenk and Tuberville article. But these studies also do not present an empirical analysis to support this conclusion.
The U.S. Senate staff report on oil prices concludes that increased participation by speculators in the energy commodity futures markets has had an effect on energy prices.
The Senate report points out that fundamental supply and demand were factors increasing energy prices.
But in the general economics of the futures market, demand for futures contracts does not necessarily increase the demand for, or price of, the physical commodity. In the particular context of the crude oil markets, as discussed above, demand for “paper oil” may not directly translate into spot price impact due to storage economics.
Regarding price effect, the Senate report relies on anecdotal evidence because of the difficulty in quantification. The Senate report cites reports from energy industry participants that financial speculators have caused the price of oil to rise.
The Senate Report does not analyze how position limits would ameliorate the problem it identifies. While not all the speculators referenced in this report would be affected by a position limit rule, the Senate Report does list Brian Hunter, then a trader in natural gas for Amaranth Advisors hedge fund, among the top 2005 energy traders.
The Senate staff report concerning wheat
These index traders, who buy wheat futures contracts and hold them without regard to the fundamentals of supply and demand in the cash market for wheat, have created a significant additional demand for wheat futures contracts that has as much as doubled the overall demand for wheat futures contracts. Because this significant increase in demand in the futures market is unrelated to any corresponding supply or demand in the cash market, the price of wheat futures contracts has risen relative to the price of wheat in the cash market. The very large number of index traders on the Chicago exchange has, thus, contributed to “unwarranted changes” in the prices of wheat futures relative to the price of wheat in the cash market. These “unwarranted changes” have, in turn, significantly impaired the ability of farmers and other grain businesses to price crops and manage price risks over time, thus creating an undue burden on interstate commerce. The activities of these index traders constitute the type of excessive speculation that the CFTC should diminish or prevent through the imposition and enforcement of position limits as intended by the Commodity Exchange Act.
That said, the more formal statistical studies discussed throughout establish rationales for concern with index traders that are grounded in more rigorous economic reasoning. There are circumstances when a large volume of financial index investment flows may causes market prices to deviate from fundamental values.
For reasons similar to the Senate Report on Oil and Gas Prices, the Senate Report on Wheat is less useful to an academic than it may be to policymakers.
A similar analysis applies to the Senate report on natural gas,
The report does argue that if Amaranth's large-scale speculative trading was causing “large jumps in the price differences” and prices that were “ridiculous,”
Several comment letters perform substantial summary analysis of other economic studies bearing on position limits, present original economic analysis or formal economic studies. These submissions thus warrant individual analysis. The following submissions are summarized and analyzed in this section:
(A) the February 10, 2014, comment letter by Markus Henn of World Economic, Ecology & Development, including, as an attachment, a November 26, 2013, list of studies entitled “Evidence on the Negative Impact of Commodity Speculation by Academics, Analysis and Public Institutions” (“Henn Letter”);
(B) the analysis of Philip K. Verleger of the economic consulting firm PKVerleger LLC, attached as Annex A to the February 10, 2014 comment letter by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) and the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (SIFMA) (“2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter”);
(C) the analysis of Craig Pirrong, Professor of Finance at the University of Houston Business School, attached as Annex B to the 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter;
(D) two studies by Sanders and Irwin,
(E) two studies by Hamilton and Wu,
(F) materials that CME Group submitted for inclusion in the administrative record, include 3 sets of materials submitted on March 28, 2011 (first set, second set, and third set); an undated CME study on conditional spot-month limits; and a CME Group's white paper,
Markus Henn's February 10, 2014, comment letter acknowledges that there is an ongoing debate about whether speculators can dominate a marketplace and exacerbate market volatility and market prices. He nonetheless asks the Commission to take into account a list of studies he submits with his letter. He then presents numerous economic studies as well as media articles.
As a group, this list of studies, opinion pieces, and news articles documents the existence of concern and suspicion about large speculative positions in commodity markets. Many of the studies cited by the Henn Letter look for evidence of financialization and in this sense suffer from interpretational bias.
Three of the most persuasive papers, persuasive insofar as they employ well-accepted, defensible, scientific methodology, document and present facts and results that can be replicated, and are on point regarding issues relevant to position limits, cited in the Henn Letter involve the crude oil market during the financial crisis: Singleton,
Philip K. Verleger provided an analysis as a retained expert for ISDA. Annex A to the 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter. He contends, without quantitative modelling or empirical evidence, that in the energy markets “unwarranted price fluctuations” have historically been due to “confluence of contributing factors” such as weather, geopolitical events, or changes in industry structure. 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter, Annex A at pp. 2-3. In passing, he opines, without analysis or citation, that the high energy prices in 2008 “are attributable to environmental regulation.”
By way of further example, Verleger contends that if the position limits rule had been in effect in 2013, oil prices would have been $15 per barrel higher and the cost to American consumers would have been roughly $100 billion. Annex A at p.3. He provides no quantitative reasoning in support of these numbers.
Verleger also asserts that exploration for sources of energy has resulted in a large increase in oil supply in recent years, and states that these companies use swaps and futures to hedge their position.
First, companies actively engaged in oil and gas exploration might either qualify for bona fide hedging treatment or fall within the position limit. As to non-spot month limits, Verleger concedes that “it may be argued that the initial non-spot month position limits are high enough (109,000 contracts for crude as an example)” to avoid liquidity impacts.
Second, he argues that these exploration companies have “benefited indirectly because passive investors such as retirement funds have taken long positions in commodities through the swap markets,” and suggests that with position limits there would be an absence of non-commercials to take positions opposite oil and gas development companies.
Third, the way energy derivatives markets work, if there is demand on the short side of the market, this may create liquidity on the long side of the market to transact with at some price. Verleger himself notes the diversity of market participants—commodity-based exchange-traded funds, hedge funds, retirement funds, and the like—and does not document that the exclusion of a particular long would reduce liquidity from the marketplace. For example, commodity-based exchange-traded funds trade intermediate long positions for their investors, and if the funds themselves could not take long positions in the market, there is no reason to assume that the investors might through other vehicles take long positions. Verleger has an expressed fear, not an analysis, that liquidity in markets will be harmed by position limits.
Professor Pirrong agrees that the nation's commodity markets have been subject to significant and disruptive corners and squeezes, such as the Hunt Silver episode of 1979-1980.
Pirrong states that the possibility of a corner or a squeeze “provides no justification of the necessity of imposing position limits outside the spot month.”
In the context of non-spot month position limits, Pirrong focusses just on corners and squeezes. If that were the only regulatory concern, his analysis on this,
One key reason why ETFs “sunshine-trade” their rolls—announcing in their prospectus when they will roll—is because rolling these large positions in non-spot months can have a price impact, apart from corners and squeezes.
A good example of the risk of price impact in non-spot months from outsized positions, apart from corners
An economist could argue that because the commodity futures price should reflect all demand, Amaranth's very large positions in the non-spot month was appropriately incorporated in market prices. After all, at a given point in time and price, demand is defined as the quantity desired by all those who are willing and able to hold a commodity futures position. Prof. Pirrong's approach does conceive of the possibility that outsized market power in the non-spot month or the price impact of Amaranth's positions could have deleterious effects on the marketplace. From a classical economical perspective, Amaranth's outsized market position in the non-spot months is just an input into price demand.
However, outsized market power may have economic outcomes that are undesirable. Outsized market power permits a player to do more than “bang the close,” and Amaranth's natural gas trading is an example of this. One could influence prices in the swaps market through such aggregation of market powers or one could manipulate related markets. Amaranth's exercise of market power may have been real and substantial. Even after it left the natural gas market, its activities may have left a lasting price effect. That is, prices of the underlying commodity, natural gas, may have been higher when Amaranth was in the market (including in the non-spot months), and prices were substantially less for a substantial time period after Amaranth left the market.
By focusing simply on Amaranth's activities in the spot month, Prof. Pirrong does not discuss the potential for harm arising from Amaranth's outsized positions in the non-spot month. If someone is exerting market power, they can cause a negative externality for other purchases of natural gas if they, for example, bid up the price of natural gas. A higher price for a natural gas purchaser due to another entity's trading may simply be an example of a healthy market at work. However, there is definite harm to purchasers of natural gas if the price they pay is higher for reasons that are associated with another market participant's price influence though the exertion of market power.
Pirrong does not provide a direct factual rebuttal to the Senate investigative report finding that Amaranth's speculative activity affected overall price levels in natural gas. He argues that the Commission's reliance upon a Senate investigatory report would not be “accepted as evidence of causation in any peer reviewed academic work.”
To establish evidence of causation, one would need a theoretical model and empirical evidence to support it. There have been peer-reviewed studies on Amaranth such as one cited in the Commission's December 2013 Position Limits Proposal.
This study documents that even though many of the Amaranth positions were not with NYMEX, and instead with ICE, these positions were extremely large relative to the average daily trading volume of the largest natural gas futures exchange. “In some cases, the positions are hundreds of times the 30-day average daily trading volume.”
Pirrong also argues as a normative matter that the costs exceed the benefits. While he concedes that it is “plausible” that a sudden liquidation of a large position by a trader facing distress” could “cause sudden and unwarranted price fluctuations,” he argues that there is “no evidence that this problem occurs with sufficient frequency, or has sufficiently damaging effects, to warrant continuously imposed constraints on risk transfer.”
Pirrong also questions the extent of harm associated with activities such as the Hunt brothers. 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter, Annex B, at pp. 2-3. He downplays the harms of corners and squeezes.
Prof. Pirrong is incorrect in asserting that the Commission's view was groundless. In the December 2013 Position Limits Proposal, the Commission did ground its concern about outsized speculative positions in particular examples. The Commission did present evidence of inefficient resource allocation with respect to the Hunt brothers. It is as much a public
Pirrong's assumption that persons act optimally at any given moment does not mean, across time, that resources have been allocated efficiently. While much of economic analysis is static, dynamic effects over time can have inefficient allocation of resources, intertemporally. It may have been optimal for a possessor of silverware to melt down their silver into silver bars during the Hunt silver market disruption, but just a few months later a possessor of silverware would likely prefer silverware to silver bars.
Pirrong thus errs in asserting that the Commission does not provide an “empirical basis” for “inefficient allocation of resources.” 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter, Annex B, at p.3.
Pirrong claims that spot month limits are set too low at 25 percent of deliverable supply.
Pirrong says that “[f]ive or more perfectly colluding traders each with positions at the 25 percent level might be able to manipulate the market.”
Many exchanges, including CME, set position limits lower than 25 percent. It is hard for Pirrong to argue that 25 percent is excessively low when it is higher than CME limits for all of the 19 CME-traded commodities covered by the proposed CFTC position limits.
Pirrong's final critique of spot month limits is his assertion that application of the same limits to short and long positions is arbitrary.
Pirrong criticizes the depth of the Commission's basis for treating short and long positions symmetrically, he also does not suggest an alternative or explain how a proper ratio should be calculated.
Pirrong contends that commodity ETFs, pension funds, and other “real money” investors would be harmed by position limits and that this is unfair because not all such market participants impose the same risks. 2/10/14 ISDA/SIFMA Comment Letter, Annex B, at pp.3-4, ¶¶ 16-18. The claim that it is “unfair” to impose limits on all market players uniformly is a policy argument, not an economic argument.
Professors James Hamilton and Jing Cynthia Wu of the University of California at San Diego and University of Chicago Business School, respectively, authored a well-executed set of papers (well-executed because they used reasonably defensible models with relatively transparent assumptions and data sources) that examine the effect of positions on prices.
Their paper, Hamilton and Wu,
Hamilton and Wu found that, for crude oil futures, risk premiums, post-2005, were smaller than they were in the pre-2005 sample. This study contains an important conclusion founded in the interplay of positions and prices in the crude oil markets:
While traders taking the long position in near contracts earned a positive return on average prior to 2005, that premium decreased substantially after 2005, becoming negative when the slope of the futures curve was high. This observation is consistent with the claim that historically commercial producers paid a premium to arbitrageurs for the privilege of hedging price risk, but in more recent periods financial investors have become natural counterparties for commercial hedgers.
Hamilton and Wu,
Their paper tests the idea that risk premia have been bid down by long, speculative investments in the crude oil market. That is, they test the idea that the futures price has become higher as
Hamilton and Wu use a two-factor model for price: The futures contract price less the rational expectation of the futures price equals the risk premium, the component of price associated with holding the price risk of the futures contract. A commodity that is more likely to be affected by long passives in this way is crude oil, because (1) crude oil as a commodity dominates these indices—substantial portion of the GSFI for example; (2) the economics of storage.
All else being equal, if outsized market positions affect price, we should expect risk premium to be the component of price that would be affected when market participants take outsized positions. That is because risk premium is a return for taking on undiversifiable risk. A risk premium does not include that portion of risk that can be easily diversified through other instruments. Through the workings of market, a participant who takes on a price exposure will expect to be compensated through a premium for bearing this risk. For a futures commodity contract, there are many components of the return, and the risk premium is only one of them. It can be a fairly small component, although the fraction depends on the commodity and other the market conditions.
Hamilton and Wu construct a theoretical price return: The return of holding a long futures contract based on a rational expectations model. Hamilton and Wu,
In a second paper,
Professors Dwight Sanders and Scott Irwin submitted two working papers: (1) One paper arguing that new limits on speculation in agricultural futures markets are unnecessary;
In Sanders and Irwin,
This result does not disprove, generally, the possibility that the fund's long, speculative positions impact price because it focuses only on one aspect of the fund's trading: Its rolling of positions. The firm data used is from a large commodity index fund that is registered investment company, and such a firm is likely put into their prospectus how they are going to roll their positions. This pre-announcement of when the commodity index fund will roll may dampen the price impact of these particular changes in position.
This fund did have days of heavy trading, apart from rolling, but Sanders and Irwin did not study the price impact arising from these changes in position. The fund traded cotton contracts representing 5.8% of average daily trading in cotton and wheat trades constituting 3.5% of average daily volume in the MGEX wheat contract. Sanders and Irwin did not attempt to study price impact on these un-announced trades. They stated that because the sizes of the roll transactions are “larger than changes in outright position,” “investigating the impact of rolling on market spreads” is “particularly interesting.”
This paper by Sanders and Irwin thus has a limitation of scope based on its focus on just the rolling of positions. This large commodity index fund presumptively pre-announced its rolling of positions in its prospectus. However, this leaves open the question of what would be the effect if this same fund did not pre-announce in the future. The analysis by Sanders and Irwin, if credited as true within a reasonable degree of certainty, would address whether regulators should employ position limits prophylactically to diminish the price impact of any future, non-announced rolls. At least prior to sunshine trading of rolls, there is evidence of a price impact associated with rolling. Frenk and Turbeville,
Moreover, not all large players pre-announce their rolls. The fact that Sanders and Irwin found no price impact with respect to rolls that were (assumedly) pre-announced does not mean that unannounced rolls might be mistaken for informed trading by the marketplace and cause a price impact.
Despite these limitations in scope, Sanders and Irwin's article is one of the more useful Granger analysis papers for several reasons.
First, it does present a working definition of “excessive speculation:” speculation that is “causing” price fluctuations that are “sudden” or “unreasonable” or “unwarranted.” Sanders and Irwin correctly state that their “definition of excessive speculation seemingly excludes speculation that cannot be shown to
Second, the data source is a novel and fairly comprehensive data set. It includes both swaps and futures, and encompasses many different commodities. The data does indicate the volume and nature of this large commodity fund's positions in the market place. All positions taken by the firm during the 2007-2012 time period were long positions, not short positions.
Third, with respect to the paper's conclusion on rolling of positions, the statistical result of Sanders and Irwin—concluding that there was no price impact from positions—is stronger than many other studies in some respects. Unlike Hamilton and Wu's work on just a component of the return from holding a futures contract (risk premium), Sanders and Irwin consider the entire return from holding the futures contract. They studied data over a long time period. If their model is correct, they have found evidence against (at least their formulation of) the Masters hypothesis. There is a potential concern, however, with their statistical result. The price equation used for their Granger analysis uses both lagged returns and changes in positions.
Using the same commodity index fund data, Sanders and Irwin examine energy contracts: Crude oil, heating oil, natural gas, and reformulated blend stock gas (with ethanol added). Sanders and Irwin,
This paper also has a potential problem with the price return equation. The equation,
Sanders and Irwin argue that their results from a richer data source indicate that Singleton and Hamilton and Wu's results may be “artifacts” of poor data. They contend that these authors' use of agricultural data as proxy for energy positions was problematic.
But there are other explanations for this difference in results. Singleton, Hamilton and Wu focus on risk premium, not, as Sanders and Irwin do, on price returns. This distinction can be quite important in this context. If positions impact price by impacting risk premium, that effect will not necessarily reveal itself in a study of just price returns. Perhaps more fundamentally, Sanders and Irwin and are asking a
The CME Group filed in the administrative record several studies and reports on March 28, 2011. It did so in three sets, all filed on March 28, 2011.
In the first set, CME filed:
In a second set, CME filed: Stoll and Whaley,
In a third set, CME filed: Celso Brunetti and Bahattin Büyükşahin,
Finally, CME submitted an undated CME study on conditional spot-month limits and CME Group's white paper,
As a group, these studies are not new to the Commission. All of these papers, except the CME undated submission on conditional spot limits and the European Commission publication, were cited by the Commission in its December 2013 Position Limits Proposal and so are covered in the above analysis of various studies.
Economists debate whether “excessive speculation” meaning, as an economic matter, a link between large speculation positions and unwarranted price changes or price volatility, exists in these regulated markets, and if so to what degree. The question presented is a surprisingly difficult one to answer. All the empirical studies on this question have drawbacks, and none is conclusive. This inconclusivity is not surprising. It is inevitable, given the economic uncertainties that inhere in the data and the complexity of the question. There are many theoretical and empirical assumptions and leaps, that are needed to transform and interpret raw market data into meaningful and persuasive results. There is no decisive statistical method for establishing evidence for or against position limits in the commodity.
Those studies that use Granger causality methodology tend to conclude that there is no evidence of excessive speculation or its consequences on price returns and price volatility, and many industry commenters opposed to position limits used this methodology. But that methodology is peculiarly sensitive to model design choices, and this review has highlighted the modelling decisions that may have affected the ultimate conclusions of these studies. Moreover, there are countervailing Granger studies showing a link between large speculative positions and price volatility. And studies such as Cheng, Kirilenko, and Xiong,
Those studies that use comovement and cointegration methods tend to conclude there is evidence of deleterious effects of “excessive speculation.” Yet comovement tests for correlation, not causation, and a correlation between large financial trading in the commodity markets and price changes and volatility could be driven by a common causal agent such as macroeconomic factors.
Those studies that use models of fundamental supply and demand reach a whole host of divergent opinions on the subject, each opinion only as strong as the many modelling choices.
In this way, the economic literature is inconclusive. Even clearly written, well-respected papers often contain nuances. It is telling that Hamilton,
What can be said with certainty is summarized in the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking: That large speculative positions and outsized market power pose risks to a well-functioning marketplace. These risks may very well differ depending on commodity market structure, but can in some markets cause real-world price impacts through a higher risk premium as a component of total price. There are also economic studies indicating some correlation between increased speculation and price volatility in times of financial stress, but this correlation does not imply causation.
Comment letters on either side declaring that the matter is settled in their favor among respectable economists are simply incorrect. The best economists on both sides of the debate concede that there is a legitimate debate. This analysis concludes that the academic debate amongst economists about the effects of outsized market positions has reputable and legitimate standard-bearers for opposing positions.
Agricultural commodity, Agriculture, Brokers, Committees, Commodity futures, Conflicts of interest, Consumer protection, Definitions, Designated contract markets, Directors, Major swap participants, Minimum financial requirements for intermediaries, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swap dealers, Swaps.
Brokers, Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swaps.
Brokers, Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swaps.
Commodity futures, Cottons, Grains, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swaps.
Registered entities, Registration application, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Swaps, Swap execution facilities.
Block transaction, Commodity futures, Designated contract markets, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transactions off the centralized market.
Authority delegations (Government agencies), Conflict of interests, Organizations and functions (Government agencies).
Bona fide hedging, Commodity futures, Cotton, Grains, Position limits, Referenced Contracts, Swaps.
Bona fide hedging, Commodity futures, Cotton, Grains, Position limits, Referenced Contracts, Swaps.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission proposes to amend 17 CFR chapter I as follows:
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 6e, 6f, 6g, 6h, 6i, 6k, 6l, 6m, 6n, 6o, 6p, 6r, 6s, 7, 7a-1, 7a-2, 7b, 7b-3, 8, 9, 10a, 12, 12a, 12c, 13a, 13a-1, 16, 16a, 19, 21, 23, and 24 (2012).
7 U.S.C. 2, 5, 6a, 6c, 6f, 6g, 6i, 6k, 6m, 6n, 7, 7a, 9, 12a, 19, and 21, as amended by Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
(p)
(1) For reports specified in parts 17 and 18 and in § 19.00(a)(2) and (a)(3) of this chapter any open contract position that at the close of the market on any business day equals or exceeds the quantity specified in § 15.03 of this part in either:
(i) Any one futures of any commodity on any one reporting market, excluding futures contracts against which notices of delivery have been stopped by a trader or issued by the clearing organization of a reporting market; or
(ii) Long or short put or call options that exercise into the same future of any commodity, or long or short put or call options for options on physicals that have identical expirations and exercise
(2) For the purposes of reports specified in § 19.00(a)(1) of this chapter, any position in commodity derivative contracts, as defined in § 150.1 of this chapter, that exceeds a position limit in § 150.2 of this chapter for the particular commodity.
(d) Persons, as specified in part 19 of this chapter, who either:
(1) Hold or control commodity derivative contracts (as defined in § 150.1 of this chapter) that exceed a position limit in § 150.2 of this chapter for the commodities enumerated in that section; or
(2) Are merchants or dealers of cotton holding or controlling positions for future delivery in cotton that equal or exceed the amount set forth in § 15.03.
Forms on which to report may be obtained from any office of the Commission or via the Internet (
7 U.S.C. 2, 6a, 6c, 6d, 6f, 6g, 6i, 6t, 7, 7a, and 12a, as amended by Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
(b)
(h) Pursuant to § 17.00(b), and as specifically provided in § 150.4 of this chapter, the authority shall be designated to the Director of the Office of Data and Technology to instruct a futures commission merchant, clearing member or foreign broker to consider otherwise than as a single account for the purpose of determining special account status and for reporting purposes all accounts one person holds or controls, or in which the person has a financial interest.
7 U.S.C. 6g, 6c(b), 6i, and 12a(5), as amended by Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
(a)
(1)
(i)
(ii)
(A)
(B)
(iii)
(iv)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(i) The hedge ratio used to convert the actual cash commodity to the equivalent amount of the commodity underlying the commodity derivative contract used for hedging; and
(ii) An explanation of the methodology used for determining the hedge ratio.
(a)
(i) The as of date;
(ii) The quantity of stocks owned of such commodity that either:
(A) Is in a position to be delivered on the physical-delivery core referenced futures contract; or
(B) Underlies the cash-settled core referenced futures contract;
(iii) The quantity of fixed-price purchase commitments open providing for receipt of such cash commodity in:
(A) The delivery period for the physical-delivery core referenced futures contract; or
(B) The time period for cash-settlement price determination for the cash-settled core referenced futures contract;
(iv) The quantity of unfixed-price sale commitments open providing for delivery of such cash commodity in:
(A) The delivery period for the physical-delivery core referenced futures contract; or
(B) The time period for cash-settlement price determination for the cash-settled core referenced futures contract;
(v) The quantity of unfixed-price purchase commitments open providing for receipt of such cash commodity in:
(A) The delivery period for the physical-delivery core referenced futures contract; or
(B) The time period for cash-settlement price determination for the cash-settled core referenced futures contract; and
(vi) The quantity of fixed-price sale commitments open providing for delivery of such cash commodity in:
(A) The delivery period for the physical-delivery core referenced futures contract; or
(B) The time period for cash-settlement price determination for the cash-settled core referenced futures contract.
(2)
(i)
(A) The underlying commodity or commodity reference price;
(B) Any applicable clearing identifiers;
(C) The notional quantity;
(D) The gross long or short position in terms of futures-equivalents in the core referenced futures contract; and
(E) The gross long or short positions in the referenced contract for the offsetting risk position; and
(ii)
(A) The gross long or short position for such cash-settled swap in terms of futures-equivalents in the core referenced futures contract; and
(B) The gross long or short positions in the physical-delivery referenced contract for the offsetting risk position.
(3)
(i) The as of date, the commodity derivative contract held or controlled, and the equivalent core referenced futures contract;
(ii) The quantity of stocks owned of such commodities and their products and byproducts;
(iii) The quantity of fixed-price purchase commitments open in such cash commodities and their products and byproducts;
(iv) The quantity of fixed-price sale commitments open in such cash commodities and their products and byproducts;
(v) The quantity of unfixed-price purchase and sale commitments open in such cash commodities and their products and byproducts, in the case of offsetting unfixed-price cash commodity sales and purchases; and
(vi) For cotton, additional information that includes:
(A) The quantity of equity in cotton held, by merchant, producer or agent, by the Commodity Credit Corporation under the provisions of the Upland Cotton Program of the Agricultural Stabilization and Conservation Service of the U.S. Department of Agriculture;
(B) The quantity of certificated cotton owned; and
(C) The quantity of non-certificated stocks owned.
(4)
(b)
(i) As of the close of business on the last Friday of the month, and
(ii) As specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and not later than 9 a.m. Eastern Time on the third business day following the date of the report.
(2)
(i) As of the close of business for each day the person exceeds the limit during a spot period up to and through the day the person's position first falls below the position limit; and
(ii) As specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and not later than 9 a.m. Eastern Time on the next business day following the date of the report.
(3)
(4)
(a)
(b)
From time to time to facilitate surveillance in certain commodity derivative contracts, the Commission may designate a commodity derivative contract for reporting under § 19.00(a)(1)(i) and will publish such determination in the
(1) The Commission hereby delegates, until it orders otherwise, to the Director of the Division of Market Oversight or such other employee or employees as the Director may designate from time to time, the authority in § 19.01 to provide instructions or to determine the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures for submitting data records and any other information required under this part.
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 6c, 7, 7a-2, 7b-3, and 12a, as amended by Titles VII and VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
A swap execution facility that is a trading facility must meet the requirements of part 150 of this chapter, as applicable.
(A)
(B)
(1) Set its position limitation at a level not higher than the Commission limitation; and
(2) Monitor positions established on or through the swap execution facility for compliance with the limit set by the Commission and the limit, if any, set by the swap execution facility.
(a)
(1) Until a swap execution facility has access to sufficient swap position information, a swap execution facility that is a trading facility need not demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 6(B). A swap execution facility has access to sufficient swap position information if, for example:
(i) It has access to daily information about its market participants' open swap positions; or
(ii) It knows, including through knowledge gained in surveillance of heavy trading activity occurring on or pursuant to the rules of the swap execution facility, that its market participants regularly engage in large volumes of speculative trading activity that would cause reasonable surveillance personnel at a swap execution facility to inquire further about a market participant's intentions or open swap positions.
(2) When a swap execution facility has access to sufficient swap position information, this guidance is no longer applicable. At such time, a swap execution facility is required to demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 6(B).
(b)
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 6, 6a, 6c, 6d, 6e, 6f, 6g, 6i, 6j, 6k, 6l, 6m, 6n, 7, 7a-2, 7b, 7b-1, 7b-3, 8, 9, 15, and 21, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
A designated contract market must meet the requirements of part 150 of this chapter, as applicable.
(A)
(B)
(a)
(1) Until a board of trade has access to sufficient swap position information, a board of trade need not demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 5(B) with respect to swaps. A board of trade has access to sufficient swap position information if, for example:
(i) It has access to daily information about its market participants' open swap positions; or
(ii) It knows, including through knowledge gained in surveillance of heavy trading activity occurring on or pursuant to the rules of the designated contract market, that its market participants regularly engage in large volumes of speculative trading activity that would cause reasonable surveillance personnel at a board of trade to inquire further about a market participant's intentions or open swap positions.
(2) When a board of trade has access to sufficient swap position information, this guidance is no longer applicable. At such time, a board of trade is required to demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 5(B) with respect to swaps.
(b)
7 U.S.C. 2(a)(12), 12a, 13(c), 13(d), 13(e), and 16(b).
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 6a, 6c, 6f, 6g, 6t, 12a, 19, as amended by Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
As used in this part—
(1)
(i) Such position is economically appropriate to the reduction of risks in the conduct and management of a commercial enterprise and is enumerated in paragraph (3), (4) or (5) of this definition; or
(ii) Is otherwise recognized as a bona fide hedging position by the designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility, pursuant to such market's rules submitted to the Commission, which rules may include risk management exemptions consistent with Appendix A of this part; and
(2)
(i) Such position:
(A) Represents a substitute for transactions made or to be made, or positions taken or to be taken, at a later time in a physical marketing channel;
(B) Is economically appropriate to the reduction of risks in the conduct and management of a commercial enterprise;
(C) Arises from the potential change in the value of—
(
(
(
(ii)(A)
(B)
(C)
(iii)
(A) The position satisfies the requirements of paragraph (2)(i) of this definition and is enumerated in paragraph (3), (4), or (5) of this definition;
(B) The position satisfies the requirements of paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition,
(C) The position has been otherwise recognized as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position by either a designated contract market or swap execution facility, each in accordance with § 150.9(a); or by the Commission.
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A) Long positions in commodity derivative contracts that do not exceed in quantity unfilled anticipated requirements of the same cash commodity, for processing, manufacturing, or use by the same person; and
(B) Long positions in commodity derivative contracts that do not exceed in quantity unfilled anticipated requirements of the same cash commodity for resale by a utility to its customers.
(iv)
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(A) Basis different delivery months in the same commodity derivative contract; or
(B) Basis different commodity derivative contracts in the same commodity, regardless of whether the commodity derivative contracts are in the same calendar month.
(iii)
(iv)
(5)
(6)
(1) Directly or indirectly holds either:
(i) A majority of the equity securities of such entity, or
(ii) The right to receive upon dissolution of, or the contribution of, a majority of the capital of such entity;
(2) Reports its financial statements on a consolidated basis under Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or International Financial Reporting Standards, and such consolidated financial statements include the financial results of such entity; and
(3) Is required to aggregate the positions of such entity under § 150.4 and does not claim an exemption from aggregation for such entity.
(1) Which authorizes an independent account controller independently to control all trading decisions for positions it holds directly or indirectly, or on its behalf, but without its day-to-day direction; and
(2) Which maintains:
(i) Only such minimum control over the independent account controller as is consistent with its fiduciary responsibilities and necessary to fulfill its duty to supervise diligently the trading done on its behalf; or
(ii) If a limited partner or shareholder of a commodity pool the operator of which is exempt from registration under § 4.13 of this chapter, only such limited control as is consistent with its status.
(1) An option contract, whether an option on a future or an option that is a swap, which has been adjusted by an economically reasonable and analytically supported risk factor, or delta coefficient, for that option computed as of the previous day's close or the current day's close or contemporaneously during the trading day, and converted to an economically equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract,
(2) A futures contract which has been converted to an economically equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract; and
(3) A swap which has been converted to an economically equivalent amount of an open position in a core referenced futures contract.
(1) Who specifically is authorized by an eligible entity, as defined in this section, independently to control trading decisions on behalf of, but without the day-to-day direction of, the eligible entity;
(2) Over whose trading the eligible entity maintains only such minimum control as is consistent with its fiduciary responsibilities to fulfill its duty to supervise diligently the trading done on its behalf or as is consistent with such other legal rights or obligations which may be incumbent upon the eligible entity to fulfill;
(3) Who trades independently of the eligible entity and of any other independent account controller trading for the eligible entity;
(4) Who has no knowledge of trading decisions by any other independent account controller; and
(5) Who is registered as a futures commission merchant, an introducing broker, a commodity trading advisor, an associated person or any such registrant, or is a general partner of a commodity pool the operator of which is exempt from registration under § 4.13 of this chapter.
(1) The price, directly or indirectly, of:
(i) A particular core referenced futures contract; or
(ii) A commodity deliverable on a particular core referenced futures contract, whether at par, a fixed discount to par, or a premium to par; and
(2) The price, at a different delivery location or pricing point than that of the same particular core referenced futures contract, directly or indirectly, of:
(i) A commodity deliverable on the same particular core referenced futures contract, whether at par, a fixed discount to par, or a premium to par; or
(ii) A commodity that is listed in Appendix B to this part as substantially the same as a commodity underlying the same core referenced futures contract.
(1) Directly or indirectly linked, including being partially or fully settled on, or priced at a fixed differential to, the price of that particular core referenced futures contract; or
(2) Directly or indirectly linked, including being partially or fully settled on, or priced at a fixed differential to, the price of the same commodity underlying that particular core referenced futures contract for delivery at the same location or locations as specified in that particular core referenced futures contract.
(3) The definition of referenced contract does not include any guarantee of a swap, a location basis contract, a commodity index contract, or a trade option that meets the requirements of § 32.3 of this chapter.
(1) For physical-delivery core referenced futures contracts, the period of time beginning at the earlier of the close of business on the trading day preceding the first day on which delivery notices can be issued by the clearing organization of a contract market, or the close of business on the trading day preceding the third-to-last trading day, until the contract expires, except as follows:
(i) For
(ii) For
(iii) For
(2) For cash-settled core referenced futures contracts:
(i) [Reserved]
(3) For referenced contracts other than core referenced futures contracts, the spot month means the same period as that of the relevant core referenced futures contract.
(a)
(1) Physical-delivery referenced contracts; and, separately,
(2) Cash-settled referenced contracts;
(b)
(c) For purposes of this part:
(1) The spot month and any single month shall be those of the core referenced futures contract; and
(2) An eligible affiliate is not required to comply separately with speculative position limits.
(d)
(e)
(2)
(ii) Such subsequent speculative position limit levels shall each apply beginning on the close of business of the last business day of the second complete calendar month after publication of such levels;
(iii) All subsequent levels of speculative position limits shall be rounded up to the nearest hundred contracts.
(3)
(ii)
(
(
(
(
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, each designated contract market may petition the Commission not less than two calendar months before the due date for submission of an estimate of deliverable supply under paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, recommending that the Commission not change the spot-month limit. Such recommendation should include a summary of the designated contract market's experience administering its spot-month limit. The Commission shall determine not less than one calendar month before such due date whether to accept the designated contract market's recommendation. If the Commission accepts such recommendation, then the designated contract market need not submit an estimated spot-month deliverable supply for such due date.
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(f)
(2)
(g)
(1) Such referenced contracts settle against any price (including the daily or final settlement price) of one or more contracts listed for trading on a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility; and
(2) The foreign board of trade makes available such referenced contracts to its members or other participants located in the United States through direct access to its electronic trading and order matching system.
(h)
(i)
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
(j) The Commission will periodically update these initial levels for speculative position limits and publish such subsequent levels on its Web site at:
(a)
(1) Such positions are:
(i) Bona fide hedging positions that comply with the definition in § 150.1,
(A) For non-enumerated bona fide hedges, the person has not otherwise been notified by the Commission under § 150.9(d)(4) or, under rules adopted pursuant to § 150.9(a)(4)(iv)(B), by the designated contract market or swap execution facility; and
(B) For anticipatory bona fide hedging positions under paragraphs (3)(iii), (4)(i), (4)(iii), (4)(iv) and (5) of the bona fide hedging position definition in § 150.1, the person complies with the filing requirements found in § 150.7 or the filing requirements adopted, in accordance with § 150.11(a)(3), by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, as applicable;
(ii) Financial distress positions exempted under paragraph (b) of this section;
(iii) Conditional spot-month limit positions exempted under paragraph (c) of this section;
(iv) Spread positions recognized by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, each in accordance with § 150.10(a), or the Commission,
(v) Other positions exempted under paragraph (e) of this section; and that
(2) The recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (g) of this section are met; and further that
(3) The reporting requirements of part 19 of this chapter are met.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(1) An interpretative letter from Commission staff, under § 140.99 of this chapter, concerning the applicability of the bona fide hedging position exemption; or
(2) Exemptive relief from the Commission under section 4a(a)(7) of the Act.
(3) Appendix C to this part provides a non-exhaustive list of examples of bona fide hedging positions as defined under § 150.1.
(f)
(2) Exemptions for risk management of positions in financial instruments granted by a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall not apply to positions in financial instruments entered into after the effective date of initial position limits implementing section 737 of the Dodd-Frank Act of 2010,
(i) Applies to positions outside of the spot month only; and
(ii) Was granted prior to the compliance date provided under § 150.2(e)(1).
(g)
(2) Further, a party seeking to rely upon the pass-through swap offset in paragraph (2)(B) of the definition of “bona fide hedging position” in § 150.1, in order to exceed the position limits of § 150.2 with respect to such a swap, may only do so if its counterparty provides a written representation (
(3) Any person that represents to another person that a swap qualifies as a pass-through swap under paragraph (2)(ii)(B) of the definition of “bona fide hedging position” in § 150.1 shall keep and make available to the Commission upon request all relevant books and records supporting such a representation for a period of at least two years following the expiration of the swap.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
(a)
(2)
(ii)
(A) Must require traders to file an application requesting such exemption in advance of the date that such position would be in excess of the limits then in effect,
(B) Must require, for any exemption granted, that the trader reapply for the exemption at least on an annual basis.
(C) May deny any such application, or limit, condition, or revoke any such exemption, at any time, including if it determines such positions would not be in accord with sound commercial practices, or would exceed an amount that may be established and liquidated in an orderly fashion.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(5)
(6)
(i) Impose additional restrictions on a person with a long position in the spot month of a physical-delivery contract who stands for delivery, takes that delivery, then re-establishes a long position;
(ii) Establish limits on the amount of delivery instruments that a person may hold in a physical-delivery contract; and
(iii) Impose such other restrictions as it deems necessary to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or congestion, to maintain orderly execution of transactions, or for such other purposes consistent with its responsibilities.
(b)
(i)
(B)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(A) No greater than one-quarter of the estimated spot month deliverable supply, calculated separately for each month to be listed; or
(B) In the case of a commodity derivative contract based on a commodity without a measurable deliverable supply, necessary and appropriate to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or price distortion of the contract's or the underlying commodity's price or index.
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(4)
(i)
(B) Averaging the month-end futures equivalent amount of open positions in swaps in a particular commodity (such as, for swaps that are not referenced contracts, by combining the notional month-end open positions in swaps in a particular commodity, including options in that same commodity that are swaps on a delta-adjusted basis, and dividing by a notional quantity per contract that is no larger than a typical cash market transaction in the underlying commodity), except that a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility shall include swaps in their open interest calculation only if such entities administer position limits on swap contracts of their facilities.
(ii)
(B) Counting the futures-equivalent number of swaps in a particular commodity transacted during the most recent calendar year, except that a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility shall include swaps in their trading volume count only if such entities administer position limits on swap contracts of their facilities.
(5)
(B) Any hedge exemption rules adopted under paragraph (b)(5)(i)(A) of this section may allow a person to file an application for enumerated hedging positions, which application should be filed not later than five business days after the person assumed the position that exceeded a position limit.
(ii)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(
(
(
(iii)
(6)
(7)
(ii)
(8)
(9)
(i) Impose additional restrictions on a person with a long position in the spot month of a physical-delivery contract who stands for delivery, takes that delivery, then re-establishes a long position;
(ii) Establish limits on the amount of delivery instruments that a person may hold in a physical-delivery contract; and
(iii) Impose such other restrictions as it deems necessary to reduce the potential threat of market manipulation or congestion, to maintain orderly execution of transactions, or for such other purposes consistent with its responsibilities.
(c)
(i)
(B)
(ii)
(iii)
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(4)
(i)
(B) Averaging the month-end futures equivalent amount of open positions in swaps in a particular commodity (such as, for swaps that are not referenced contracts, by combining the notional month-end open positions in swaps in a particular commodity, including options in that same commodity that are swaps on a delta-adjusted basis, and dividing by a notional quantity per contract that is no larger than a typical cash market transaction in the underlying commodity), except that a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility should include swaps in their open interest calculation only if such entities administer position limits on swap contracts of their facilities.
(ii)
(B) Counting the futures-equivalent number of swaps in a particular commodity transacted during the most recent calendar year, except that a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility should include swaps in their trading volume count only if such entities administer position limits on swap contracts of their facilities.
(5)
(ii)
(iii)
(6)
(7)
(ii)
(8)
(9)
(d)
This part shall only be construed as having an effect on position limits set by the Commission or a designated contract market or swap execution facility, including any associated recordkeeping and reporting regulations. Nothing in this part shall be construed to affect any other provisions of the Act or Commission regulations, including but not limited to those relating to manipulation, attempted manipulation, corners, squeezes, fraudulent or deceptive conduct or prohibited transactions, unless incorporated by reference.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(ii) The name of the actual cash commodity underlying the anticipated activity and the units in which the cash commodity is measured;
(iii) An indication of whether the cash commodity is the same commodity (grade and quality) that underlies a core referenced futures contract or whether a cross-hedge will be used and, if so, additional information for cross hedges specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
(iv)(A) Annual production, requirements, royalty receipts or service contract payments or receipts, in terms of futures equivalents, of such commodity for the three complete fiscal years preceding the current fiscal year, if filing an initial statement; or
(B) For the prior fiscal year if filing an annual update;
(v) The specified time period for which the anticipatory hedge exemption is claimed;
(vi) Anticipated production, requirements, royalty receipts or service contract payments or receipts, in terms of futures equivalents, of such commodity for such specified time period;
(vii) Fixed-price forward sales, inventory, and fixed-price forward purchases of such commodity, including any quantity in process of manufacture and finished goods and byproducts of manufacture or processing (in terms of such commodity);
(viii) Unsold anticipated production, unfilled anticipated requirements, unsold anticipated royalty receipts, and anticipated service contract payments or receipts the risks of which have not been offset with cash positions, of such commodity for the specified time period; and
(ix) The maximum number of long positions and short positions in referenced contracts expected to be used to offset the risks of such anticipated activity.
(2)
(i) The hedge ratio used to convert the actual cash commodity to the equivalent amount of the commodity underlying the commodity derivative contract used for hedging; and
(ii) An explanation of the methodology used for determining the hedge ratio.
(e)
(f)
(1) A person's anticipated activity (including production, requirements, royalties and services) as described by the information most recently filed pursuant to this section that has not been offset with cash positions; or
(2) Such lesser amount as determined by the Commission pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
(g)
(i) In paragraph (b) of this section to provide notice to a person that some or all of the amounts described in a Form 704 filing does not meet the requirements for bona fide hedging positions;
(ii) In paragraph (c) of this section to request a person who has filed an application or annual update on Form 704 under paragraph (a) of this section to file specific additional or updated information with the Commission to support a determination that the Form 704 filed accurately reflects unsold anticipated production, unfilled anticipated requirements, anticipated royalties, or anticipated services contract payments or receipts; and
(iii) In paragraph (d)(2) of this section to request detailed information concerning the basis for and derivation of conversion factors used in computing the cash position provided in any applications or annual updates filed on Form 704.
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
If any provision of this part, or the application thereof to any person or circumstances, is held invalid, such invalidity shall not affect other provisions or application of such provision to other persons or circumstances which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
(a)
(i) The commodity derivative contract is a referenced contract;
(ii) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility lists such commodity derivative contract for trading;
(iii) Such commodity derivative contract is actively traded on such designated contract market or swap execution facility;
(iv) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has established position limits for such commodity derivative contract; and
(v) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has at least one year of experience and expertise administering position limits for a referenced contract in a particular commodity. A designated contract market or swap execution facility shall not recognize a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position involving a commodity index contract and one or more referenced contracts.
(2) A designated contract market or swap execution facility may establish different application processes for persons to demonstrate why a derivative position constitutes a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position under novel facts and circumstances and under facts and circumstances substantially similar to a position for which a summary has been published on such designated contract market's or swap execution facility's Web site, pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section.
(3) Any application process that is established by a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall elicit sufficient information to allow the designated contract market or swap execution facility to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the facts and circumstances in respect of a derivative position satisfy the requirements of section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, and whether it is appropriate to recognize such position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, including at a minimum:
(i) A description of the position in the commodity derivative contract for which the application is submitted and the offsetting cash positions;
(ii) Information to demonstrate why the position satisfies the requirements of section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1;
(iii) A statement concerning the maximum size of all gross positions in derivative contracts for which the application is submitted;
(iv) Information regarding the applicant's activity in the cash markets for the commodity underlying the position for which the application is submitted during the past year; and
(v) Any other information necessary to enable the designated contract market or swap execution facility to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether it is appropriate to recognize such position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position.
(4) Under any application process established under this section, a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall:
(i) Require each person intending to exceed position limits to submit an application, to reapply at least on an annual basis by updating that application, and to receive notice of recognition from the designated contract market or swap execution facility of a position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position in advance of the date that such position would be in excess of the limits then in effect pursuant to section 4a of the Act;
(ii) Notify an applicant in a timely manner if a submitted application is not complete. If an applicant does not amend or resubmit such application within a reasonable amount of time after such notice, a designated contract market or swap execution facility may reject the application;
(iii) Determine in a timely manner whether a derivative position for which a complete application has been submitted satisfies the requirements of section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, and whether it is appropriate to recognize such position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position;
(iv) Have the authority to revoke, at any time, any recognition issued pursuant to this section if it determines the recognition is no longer in accord with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1; and
(v) Notify an applicant in a timely manner:
(A) That the derivative position for which a complete application has been submitted has been recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position under this section, and the details and all conditions of such recognition;
(B) That its application is rejected, including the reasons for such rejection; or
(C) That the designated contract market or swap execution facility has asked the Commission to consider the application under paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
(5) An applicant's derivatives position shall be deemed to be recognized as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position exempt from federal position limits at the time that a designated contract market or swap execution facility notifies an applicant that such designated contract market or swap execution facility will recognize such position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position.
(6) A designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications shall file new rules or rule amendments pursuant to part 40 of this chapter, establishing or amending requirements for an applicant to file reports pertaining to the use of any such exemption that has been granted in the manner, form, and frequency, as determined by the designated contract market or swap execution facility.
(7) After recognition of each unique type of derivative position as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, based on novel facts and circumstances, a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall publish on its Web site, on at least a quarterly basis, a summary describing the type of derivative position and explaining why it was recognized as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position.
(8) If a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application presents novel or complex issues or is potentially inconsistent with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, a designated contract market or swap execution facility may ask the Commission to consider the application under the process set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. The Commission may, in its discretion, agree to or reject any such request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility.
(b)
(i) All information and documents submitted by an applicant in connection with its application;
(ii) Records of oral and written communications between such designated contract market or swap execution facility and such applicant in connection with such application; and
(iii) All information and documents in connection with such designated contract market's or swap execution facility's analysis of and action on such application.
(2) All books and records required to be kept pursuant to this section shall be kept in accordance with the requirements of § 1.31 of this chapter.
(c)
(i) For each commodity derivative position that had been recognized that week by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, and for any revocation or modification of a previously granted recognition:
(A) The date of disposition,
(B) The effective date of the disposition,
(C) The expiration date of any recognition,
(D) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to track the application,
(E) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to a type of recognized non-enumerated bona fide hedging position,
(F) The identity of the applicant,
(G) The listed commodity derivative contract to which the application pertains,
(H) The underlying cash commodity,
(I) The maximum size of the commodity derivative position that is recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position,
(J) Any size limitation established for such commodity derivative position on the designated contract market or swap execution facility, and
(K) A concise summary of the applicant's activity in the cash markets for the commodity underlying the commodity derivative position; and
(ii) The summary of any non-enumerated bona fide hedging position published pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section, or revised, since the last summary submitted to the Commission.
(2) Unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications shall submit to the Commission, no less frequently than monthly, any report such designated contract market or swap execution facility requires to be submitted by an applicant to such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to rules required under paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
(3) Unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process non-enumerated bona fide hedging position applications shall submit to the Commission the information required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, as follows:
(i) As specified by the Commission on the Forms and Submissions page at
(ii) Using the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures approved in writing by the Commission; and
(iii) Not later than 9:00 a.m. Eastern time on the third business day following the date of the report.
(d)
(i) The Commission may request from such designated contract market or swap execution facility records required to be kept by such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section in connection with such application.
(ii) The Commission may request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility or from the applicant.
(2) If the Commission preliminarily determines that any non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application or the disposition thereof by a designated contract market or swap execution facility presents novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, or that an application or the disposition thereof by such designated contract market or swap execution facility is potentially inconsistent with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, the Commission shall:
(i) Notify such designated contract market or swap execution facility and the applicable applicant of the issues identified by the Commission; and
(ii) Provide them with 10 business days in which to provide the Commission with any supplemental information.
(3) The Commission shall determine whether it is appropriate to recognize the derivative position for which such application has been submitted as a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position, or whether the disposition of such application by such designated contract market or swap execution facility is consistent with section 4a(c) the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1.
(4) If the Commission determines that the disposition of such application is inconsistent with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, the Commission shall notify the applicant and grant the applicant a commercially reasonable amount of time to liquidate the derivative position or otherwise come into compliance. This notification will briefly specify the nature of the issues raised and the specific provisions of the Act or the Commission's regulations with which the application is, or appears to be, inconsistent.
(e)
(f)
(i) In paragraph (a)(8) of this section to agree to or reject a request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility to consider a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application;
(ii) In paragraph (c) of this section to provide instructions regarding the submission to the Commission of information required to be reported by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, to specify the manner for submitting such information on the Forms and Submissions page at
(iii) In paragraph (d)(1) of this section to review any non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application and all records required to be kept by a designated contract market or swap execution facility in connection with such application, to request such records from such designated contract market or swap execution facility, and to request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility or from the applicant;
(iv) In paragraph (d)(2) of this section to preliminarily determine that a non-enumerated bona fide hedging position application or the disposition thereof by a designated contract market or swap execution facility presents novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, or that such application or the disposition thereof is potentially inconsistent with section 4a(c) of the Act and the general definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1, to notify the designated contract market or swap execution facility and the applicable applicant of the issues identified, and to provide them with 10 business days in which to file supplemental information; and
(v) In paragraph (e) of this section to review any summary of a type of non-enumerated bona fide hedging position required to be published on a designated contract market's or swap execution facility's Web site, to determine that any such summary is deficient, to notify a designated contract market or swap execution facility of a deficient summary, and to grant such designated contract market or swap execution facility a reasonable amount of time to revise such summary.
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
(a)
(i) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility lists for trading at least one contract that is either a component of the spread or a referenced contract that is a component of the spread;
(ii) The contract, in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, in a particular commodity is actively traded on such designated contract market or swap execution facility;
(iii) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has established position limits for at least one contract that is either a component of the spread or a referenced contract that is a component of the spread; and
(iv) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has at least one year of experience and expertise administering position limits for at least one contract that is either a component of the spread or a referenced contract that is a component of the spread. A designated contract market or swap execution facility shall not approve a spread exemption involving a commodity index contract and one or more referenced contracts.
(2) Spreads that a designated contract market or swap execution facility may approve under this section include:
(i) Calendar spreads;
(ii) Quality differential spreads;
(iii) Processing spreads; and
(iv) Product or by-product differential spreads.
(3) Any application process that is established by a designated contract market or swap execution facility under this section shall elicit sufficient information to allow the designated contract market or swap execution facility to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether the facts and circumstances demonstrate that it is appropriate to exempt a spread position from position limits, including at a minimum:
(i) A description of the spread position for which the application is submitted;
(ii) Information to demonstrate why the spread position should be exempted from position limits, including how the exemption would further the purposes of section 4a(a)(3)(B) of the Act;
(iii) A statement concerning the maximum size of all gross positions in derivative contracts for which the application is submitted; and
(iv) Any other information necessary to enable the designated contract market or swap execution facility to determine, and the Commission to verify, whether it is appropriate to exempt such spread position from position limits.
(4) Under any application process established under this section, a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall:
(i) Require each person requesting an exemption from position limits for its spread position to submit an application, to reapply at least on an annual basis by updating that application, and to receive approval in advance of the date that such position would be in excess of the limits then in effect pursuant to section 4a of the Act;
(ii) Notify an applicant in a timely manner if a submitted application is not complete. If an applicant does not amend or resubmit such application within a reasonable amount of time after such notice, a designated contract market or swap execution facility may reject the application;
(iii) Determine in a timely manner whether a spread position for which a complete application has been submitted satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(4)(vi) of this section, and whether it is appropriate to exempt such spread position from position limits;
(iv) Have the authority to revoke, at any time, any spread exemption issued pursuant to this section if it determines
(v) Notify an applicant in a timely manner:
(A) That a spread position for which a complete application has been submitted has been exempted by the designated contract market or swap execution facility from position limits, and the details and all conditions of such exemption;
(B) That its application is rejected, including the reasons for such rejection; or
(C) That the designated contract market or swap execution facility has asked the Commission to consider the application under paragraph (a)(8) of this section; and
(vi) Determine whether exempting the spread position from position limits would, to the maximum extent practicable, ensure sufficient market liquidity for bona fide hedgers, and not unreasonably reduce the effectiveness of position limits to:
(A) Diminish, eliminate or prevent excessive speculation;
(B) Deter and prevent market manipulation, squeezes, and corners; and
(C) Ensure that the price discovery function of the underlying market is not disrupted.
(5) An applicant's derivatives position shall be deemed to be recognized as a spread position exempt from federal position limits at the time that a designated contract market or swap execution facility notifies an applicant that such designated contract market or swap execution facility will exempt such spread position.
(6) A designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process applications to exempt spread positions from position limits shall file new rules or rule amendments pursuant to part 40 of this chapter, establishing or amending requirements for an applicant to file reports pertaining to the use of any such exemption that has been granted in the manner, form, and frequency, as determined by the designated contract market or swap execution facility.
(7) After exemption of each unique type of spread position, a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall publish on its Web site, on at least a quarterly basis, a summary describing the type of spread position and explaining why it was exempted.
(8) If a spread exemption application presents complex issues or is potentially inconsistent with the purposes of section 4a(a)(3)(B) of the Act, a designated contract market or swap execution facility may ask the Commission to consider the application under the process set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. The Commission may, in its discretion, agree to or reject any such request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility.
(b)
(i) All information and documents submitted by an applicant in connection with its application;
(ii) Records of oral and written communications between such designated contract market or swap execution facility and such applicant in connection with such application; and
(iii) All information and documents in connection with such designated contract market's or swap execution facility's analysis of and action on such application.
(2) All books and records required to be kept pursuant to this section shall be kept in accordance with the requirements of § 1.31 of this chapter.
(c)
(i) The disposition of any spread exemption application, including the exemption of any spread position, the revocation or modification of any exemption, or the rejection of any application, as well as the following details:
(A) The date of disposition,
(B) The effective date of the disposition,
(C) The expiration date of any exemption,
(D) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to track the application,
(E) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to a type of exempt spread position,
(F) The identity of the applicant,
(G) The listed commodity derivative contract to which the application pertains,
(H) The underlying cash commodity,
(I) The size limitations on any exempt spread position, specified by contract month if applicable, and
(J) Any conditions on the exemption; and
(ii) The summary of any exempt spread position newly published pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section, or revised, since the last summary submitted to the Commission.
(2) Unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process applications to exempt spread positions from position limits shall submit to the Commission, no less frequently than monthly, any report such designated contract market or swap execution facility requires to be submitted by an applicant to such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to rules required by paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
(3) Unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process applications to exempt spread positions from position limits shall submit to the Commission the information required by paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, as follows:
(i) As specified by the Commission on the Forms and Submissions page at
(ii) Using the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures approved in writing by the Commission; and
(iii) Not later than 9:00 a.m. Eastern time on the third business day following the date of the report.
(d)
(i) The Commission may request from such designated contract market or swap execution facility records required
(ii) The Commission may request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility or from the applicant.
(2) If the Commission preliminarily determines that any application to exempt a spread position from position limits, or the disposition thereof by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, presents novel or complex issues that require additional time to analyze, or that an application or the disposition thereof by such designated contract market or swap execution facility is potentially inconsistent with the Act, the Commission shall:
(i) Notify such designated contract market or swap execution facility and the applicable applicant of the issues identified by the Commission; and
(ii) Provide them with 10 business days in which to provide the Commission with any supplemental information.
(3) The Commission shall determine whether it is appropriate to exempt the spread position for which such application has been submitted from position limits, or whether the disposition of such application by such designated contract market or swap execution facility is consistent with the purposes of section 4a(a)(3)(B) of the Act.
(4) If the Commission determines that it is not appropriate to exempt the spread position for which such application has been submitted from position limits, or that the disposition of such application is inconsistent with the Act, the Commission shall notify the applicant and grant the applicant a commercially reasonable amount of time to liquidate the spread position or otherwise come into compliance. This notification will briefly specify the nature of the issues raised and the specific provisions of the Act or the Commission's regulations with which the application is, or appears to be, inconsistent.
(e)
(f)
(i) In paragraph (a)(8) of this section to agree to or reject a request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility to consider a spread exemption application;
(ii) In paragraph (c) of this section to provide instructions regarding the submission to the Commission of information required to be reported by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, to specify the manner for submitting such information on the Forms and Submissions page at
(iii) In paragraph (d)(1) of this section to review any spread exemption application and all records required to be kept by a designated contract market or swap execution facility in connection with such application, to request such records from such designated contract market or swap execution facility, and to request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility, or from the applicant;
(iv) In paragraph (d)(2) of this section to preliminarily determine that a spread exemption application or the disposition thereof by a designated contract market or swap execution facility presents complex issues that require additional time to analyze, or that such application or the disposition thereof is potentially inconsistent with the Act, to notify the designated contract market or swap execution facility and the applicable applicant of the issues identified, and to provide them with 10 business days in which to file supplemental information; and
(v) In paragraph (e) of this section to review any summary of a type of spread exemption required to be published on a designated contract market's or swap execution facility's Web site, to determine that any such summary is deficient, to notify a designated contract market or swap execution facility of a deficient summary, and to grant such designated contract market or swap execution facility a reasonable amount of time to revise such summary.
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
(a)
(i) The commodity derivative contract is a referenced contract;
(ii) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility lists such commodity derivative contract for trading;
(iii) Such commodity derivative contract is actively traded on such derivative contract market;
(iv) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has established position limits for such commodity derivative contract; and
(v) Such designated contract market or swap execution facility has at least one year of experience and expertise administering position limits for a referenced contract in a particular commodity.
(2) Any application process that is established by a designated contract
(3) Under any application process established under this section, a designated contract market or swap execution facility shall:
(i) Require each person intending to exceed position limits to submit an application, and to reapply at least on an annual basis by updating that application, as required under § 150.7(d), and to receive notice of recognition from the designated contract market or swap execution facility of a position as a bona fide hedging position in advance of the date that such position would be in excess of the limits then in effect pursuant to section 4a of the Act;
(ii) Notify an applicant in a timely manner if a submitted application is not complete. If the applicant does not amend or resubmit such application within a reasonable amount of time after notification from the designated contract market or swap execution facility, the designated contract market or swap execution facility may reject the application;
(iii) Inform an applicant within ten days of receipt of such application by the designated contract market or swap execution facility that:
(A) The derivative position for which a complete application has been submitted has been recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as a bona fide hedging position, and the details and all conditions of such recognition;
(B) The application is rejected, including the reasons for such rejection; or
(C) The designated contract market or swap execution facility has asked the Commission to consider the application under paragraph (a)(6) of this section; and
(iv) Have the authority to revoke, at any time, any recognition issued pursuant to this section if it determines the position no longer complies with the filing requirements under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(4) An applicant's derivatives position shall be deemed to be recognized as a bona fide hedging position at the time that a designated contract market or swap execution facility notifies an applicant that such designated contract market or swap execution facility will recognize such position as a bona fide hedging position.
(5) A designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process bona fide hedging position applications shall file new rules or rule amendments pursuant to part 40 of this chapter, establishing or amending requirements for an applicant to file the supplemental reports, as required under § 150.7(e), pertaining to the use of any such exemption that has been granted.
(6) A designated contract market or swap execution facility may ask the Commission to consider any application made under this section. The Commission may, in its discretion, agree to or reject any such request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility,
(b)
(i) All information and documents submitted by an applicant in connection with its application;
(ii) Records of oral and written communications between such designated contract market or swap execution facility and such applicant in connection with such application; and
(iii) All information and documents in connection with such designated contract market's or swap execution facility's analysis of and action on such application.
(2) All books and records required to be kept pursuant to this section shall be kept in accordance with the requirements of § 1.31 of this chapter.
(c)
(i) The disposition of any application, including the recognition of any position as a bona fide hedging position, the revocation or modification of any recognition, as well as the following details:
(A) The date of disposition,
(B) The effective date of the disposition,
(C) The expiration date of any recognition,
(D) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to track the application,
(E) Any unique identifier assigned by the designated contract market or swap execution facility to a bona fide hedge recognized under this section;
(F) The identity of the applicant,
(G) The listed commodity derivative contract to which the application pertains,
(H) The underlying cash commodity,
(I) The maximum size of the commodity derivative position that is recognized by the designated contract market or swap execution facility as a bona fide hedging position,
(J) Any size limitation established for such commodity derivative position on the designated contract market or swap execution facility, and
(K) A concise summary of the applicant's activity in the cash market for the commodity underlying the position for which the application was submitted.
(2) Unless otherwise instructed by the Commission, a designated contract market or swap execution facility that elects to process bona fide hedging position applications shall submit to the Commission the information required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, as follows:
(i) As specified by the Commission on the Forms and Submissions page at
(ii) Using the format, coding structure, and electronic data transmission procedures approved in writing by the Commission; and
(iii) Not later than 9:00 a.m. Eastern time on the third business day following the date of the report.
(d)
(i) The Commission may request from such designated contract market or swap execution facility records required to be kept by such designated contract market or swap execution facility pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section in connection with such application.
(ii) The Commission may request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility or from the applicant.
(2) If the Commission preliminarily determines that any anticipatory hedge application is inconsistent with the filing requirements of § 150.11(a)(2), the Commission shall:
(i) Notify such designated contract market or swap execution facility and the applicable applicant of the deficiencies identified by the Commission; and
(ii) Provide them with 10 business days in which to provide the Commission with any supplemental information.
(3) If the Commission determines that the anticipatory hedge application is inconsistent with the filing requirements of § 150.11(a)(2), the Commission shall notify the applicant and grant the applicant a commercially reasonable amount of time to liquidate the derivative position or otherwise come into compliance. This notification will briefly specify the specific provisions of the filing requirements of § 150.11(a)(2), with which the application is, or appears to be, inconsistent.
(e)
(i) In paragraph (a)(6) of this section to agree to or reject a request by a designated contract market or swap execution facility to consider a bona fide hedge application;
(ii) In paragraph (c) of this section to provide instructions regarding the submission to the Commission of information required to be reported by a designated contract market or swap execution facility, to specify the manner for submitting such information on the Forms and Submissions page at
(iii) In paragraph (d)(1) of this section to review any bona fide hedging position application and all records required to be kept by a designated contract market or swap execution facility in connection with such application, to request such records from such designated contract market or swap execution facility, and to request additional information in connection with such application from such designated contract market or swap execution facility or from the applicant; and
(iv) In paragraph (d)(2) of this section to determine that it is not appropriate to recognize a derivative position for which an application for recognition has been submitted as a bona fide hedging position, or that the disposition of such application by a designated contract market or swap execution facility is inconsistent with the Act, and, in connection with such a determination, to grant the applicant a reasonable amount of time to liquidate the derivative position or otherwise come into compliance.
(2) The Director of the Division of Market Oversight may submit to the Commission for its consideration any matter which has been delegated in this section.
(3) Nothing in this section prohibits the Commission, at its election, from exercising the authority delegated in this section.
(1) This appendix provides non-exclusive interpretative guidance on risk management exemptions for commodity derivative contracts in excluded commodities permitted under the definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1. The rules of a designated contract market or swap execution facility that is a trading facility may recognize positions consistent with this guidance as bona fide hedging positions. The Commission recognizes that risk management positions in commodity derivative contracts in excluded commodities may not conform to the general definition of bona fide hedging positions applicable to commodity derivative contracts in physical commodities, as provided under section 4a(c)(2) of the Act, and may not conform to enumerated bona fide hedging positions applicable to commodity derivative contracts in physical commodities under the definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1.
This interpretative guidance for core principle 5 for designated contract markets, section 5(d)(5) of the Act, and core principle 6 for swap execution facilities that are trading facilities, section 5h(f)(6) of the Act, is illustrative only of the types of positions for which a trading facility may elect to provide a risk management exemption and is not intended to be used as a mandatory checklist. Other positions might also be included appropriately within a risk management exemption.
(2)(a)
(b)
(3)
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(A) A pension fund may invest in short term securities and have longer term liabilities. Such a pension fund has a duration mismatch. Such a pension fund may hedge by establishing a long position in Treasury security futures contracts to lengthen the duration of its assets to match the duration of its liabilities. This is economically equivalent to using a long position in Treasury security futures contracts to shorten the duration of its liabilities to match the duration of its assets.
(B) A bank may make a certain amount of fixed-rate loans of one maturity and fund such assets through taking fixed-rate deposits of a shorter maturity. Such a bank is exposed to interest rate risk, in that an increase in interest rates may result in a greater decline in value of the assets than the decline in value of the deposit liabilities. A bank may hedge by establishing a short position in short-term interest rate futures contracts to lengthen the duration of its liabilities to match the duration of its assets. This is economically equivalent to using a short position in short-term interest rate futures contracts, for example, to shorten the duration of its assets to match the duration of its liabilities.
(b)
(i) A collective investment fund that invests funds in stocks pursuant to an asset allocation strategy may obtain immediate stock market exposure upon receipt of new monies by establishing a long position in stock index futures contracts (“equitizing cash”). Such a long position may qualify as a risk management exemption under trading facility rules provided such long position does not exceed the cash set aside. The long position in stock index futures contracts need not be converted to a position in stock.
(ii) Upon receipt of new funds from investors, an insurance company that invests in bond holdings for a separate account wishes to lengthen synthetically the duration of the portfolio by establishing a long position in Treasury futures contracts. Such a long position may qualify as a risk management exemption under trading facility rules provided such long position does not exceed the cash set aside. The long position in Treasury futures contracts need not be converted to a position in bonds.
(c)
(i) A collective investment fund that invests funds in bonds and stocks pursuant to an asset allocation strategy may believe that market considerations favor a temporary increase in the fund's equity exposure relative to its bond holdings. The fund manager may choose to accomplish the reallocation using commodity derivative contracts, such as a short position in Treasury security futures contracts and a long position in stock index futures contracts. The short position in Treasury security futures contracts may qualify as a hedge of interest rate risk arising from the bond holdings. A trading facility may adopt rules to recognize as a risk management exemption such a long position in stock index futures.
(ii) Reserved.
(4)
(a)
(b)
The Commission also recognizes as bona fide hedging positions strategies that provide protection against a price decline equivalent to an owned position in a put option for an existing portfolio of securities owned. A dynamically managed short position in a futures contract may replicate the characteristics of a long position in a put option.
(c)
The following table lists core referenced futures contracts and commodities that are treated as substantially the same as a commodity underlying a core referenced futures contract for purposes of the definition of location basis contract in § 150.1.
A non-exhaustive list of examples meeting the definition of bona fide hedging position under § 150.1 is presented below. With respect to a position that does not fall within an example in this appendix, a person seeking to rely on a bona fide hedging position exemption under § 150.3 may seek guidance from the Division of Market Oversight. References to paragraphs in the examples below are to the definition of bona fide hedging position in § 150.1.
The combination of the long and short positions in soybean, soybean meal, and soybean oil futures contracts are economically appropriate to the reduction of risk. However, unlike in this example, an unpaired position (
The Sovereign is the counterparty to the farmer, who under these circumstances the Commission deems to be a bona fide hedger for purposes of the Sovereign's pass-through swap offset. That is, the Commission considers the Sovereign's long call position to be a pass-through swap meeting the
a.
b.
a.
b.
Airline A may hold its long position in the cash-settled AT call option contract as a cross hedge against jet fuel price risk without having to exit the contract during the spot month.
(1) Until such time that a boards of trade has access to sufficient swap position information, a board of trade need not demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 5 with respect to swaps. A board of trade should have access to sufficient swap position information if, for example: (1) It had access to daily information about its market participants' open swap positions; or (2) it knows that its market participants regularly engage in large volumes of speculative trading activity, including through knowledge gained in surveillance of heavy trading activity, that would cause reasonable surveillance personnel at an exchange to inquire further about a market participant's intentions or total open swap positions.
(2) When a board of trade has access to sufficient swap position information, this guidance would no longer be applicable. At such time, a board of trade is required to file rules with the Commission to implement the relevant position limits and demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 5(A) and (B).
(1) Until such time that a swap execution facility that is a trading facility has access to sufficient swap position information, the swap execution facility need not demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 6(A) or (B). A swap execution facility should have access to sufficient swap position information if, for example: (1) It had access to daily information about its market participants' open swap positions; or (2) if it knows that its market participants regularly engage in large volumes of speculative trading activity, including through knowledge gained in surveillance of heavy trading activity, that would cause reasonable surveillance personnel at an exchange to inquire further about a market participant's intentions or total open swap positions.
(2) When a swap execution facility has access to sufficient swap position information, this guidance would no longer be applicable. At such time, a swap execution facility is required to file rules with the Commission to implement the relevant position limits and demonstrate compliance with Core Principle 6(A) and (B).
The following appendices will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
On this matter, Chairman Massad and Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo voted in the affirmative. No Commissioner voted in the negative.
Today, the Commission is issuing a revised position limits proposal. We are also finalizing a separate but related rule on the aggregation of positions. I am pleased that today's actions are unanimous.
Congress directed us to implement a position limits rule to limit excessive speculation. While speculators play a necessary and important role in our markets, position limits can prevent the type of excessive speculation by a few large participants that leads to corners, squeezes and other activity that can distort markets and be unfair to other participants. Position limits can also promote convergence without compromising market liquidity. There are many issues to consider in this rule, but position limits are not a new or untested concept. They have been in place in our markets for decades, either through federal limits or exchange-set limits, and they have worked well.
There are two reasons why I am supporting issuing a reproposal. First, we have made many changes to the 2013 proposal we inherited that are reflected in today's reproposal. Certain aspects have been previously proposed in separate pieces, and I believe the public would benefit from seeing the proposal in its entirety, to better understand how the various changes work together.
Second, the Commission is now in a time of transition. I do not want to adopt a final rule today that the Commission would choose not to implement or defend next year. Our markets and the many end-users and consumers who rely on them are served best by having reasonable and predictable regulation. Uncertainty and inconsistency from one year to the next are not helpful.
Our staff has done a tremendous amount of work to devise a position limits rule that meets the requirements of the law and balances the various concerns at stake. This work has spanned several years, involved review of literally thousands of pages of comments from participants, and included many meetings and public roundtables.
Commissioners Bowen, Giancarlo, and I have also spent substantial time on this issue. We took office together in June 2014 and inherited a proposal that the Commission had issued six months before. As I promised then, we have been working hard to get the rule right. In addition to discussing the issues extensively with staff, we have each had many meetings with market participants and other members of the public. We have each traveled around the country and heard from users of these markets. In particular, I have heard from many smaller, traditional users about the importance of position limits. I have also had the benefit of sponsoring the Agricultural Advisory Committee, whose members have provided important input on these issues.
We have revised the proposed limits themselves in light of substantial work our staff has done to make sure they are based on the latest and best information as to estimated deliverable supply. We have considered a wide range of information, including the recommendations of the exchanges and other data to which the exchanges do not have access. For some contracts, the proposed limits for the spot month are higher than the exchange-set limits today. There have been, for example, substantial increases in estimates of deliverable supply in the energy sector. In other cases, we have accepted recommendations of the exchanges to set federal limits that are actually lower than 25 percent of deliverable supply, because we determined that the requested lower limit was consistent with the overall policy goals and would not compromise market liquidity.
We have proposed further adjustments to the bona fide hedging position definition, to eliminate certain requirements that we have decided are unnecessary, and to address other concerns raised by market participants.
Another substantial difference from the 2013 text is our proposal first made this summer to allow the exchanges to grant non-enumerated hedge exemptions. This process must be subject to our oversight as a matter of law and as a matter of policy, given the inherent tension in the roles of the exchanges as market overseers and beneficiaries of higher trading volumes.
The proposal we are issuing today provides extensive analysis of the impact of the proposed spot and all months limits, which I believe supports the view that the limits should not compromise liquidity while addressing excessive speculation. The analysis shows few existing positions would exceed the limits, and that is without considering possible exemptions.
I recognize there will still be those that are critical of the proposal. Some will complain simply because of the length of the proposal—even though most of that is not rule text, but rather the summaries of the extensive comments and analysis required by law. Others may suggest broadening the bona fide hedge exemption so that it encompasses practically any activity with a business purpose, which is not what Congress said in the law. Still others will argue position limits are not necessary. But while the Commission should consider all comments, it is important to remember that the Commission has a responsibility to implement a balanced rule that achieves the objectives Congress has established.
Finally, while the Commission works to finalize this rule, we still have federal limits for nine agricultural commodities and exchange-set spot month limits for all the physical delivery contracts covered by this rule, which the Commission will continue to enforce.
I want to thank the staff again for their extensive work on this rule, particularly our staff in the Division of Market Oversight, the Office of the Chief Economist and the Office of the General Counsel. Their expertise and dedication on this matter is truly exemplary. I also want to thank Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo for their very constructive engagement on this issue.
With today's repreposal, the Commission moves one step closer to the implementation of position limits as directed by Congress in 2010. CFTC staff has worked laboriously with market users and the exchanges we regulate to craft a rule that will protect investors from disruptive practices and manipulation, while simultaneously allowing our markets to serve their critical price-discovery function. I commend staff on their hard work and thank the hundreds of commenters for their insightful feedback. I would also like to thank Chairman Massad and Commissioner Giancarlo on their commitment to this important rule and look forward to its finalization in the near future.
Since taking my seat on the Commission, I have traveled to well over a dozen states where I met with many family farmers and toured numerous energy utilities and manufacturing facilities. I have heard the concerns of agriculture and energy producers and consumers about market speculation and the role of position limits.
I have always been open to supporting a well-conceived and practical position limits rule that restricts excessive speculation. That is so long as it protects the ability of America's farmers, ranchers and processors to hedge risks of agricultural commodities and the ability of America's energy producers and distributors to control risks of energy production, storage and distribution.
That is why I believe it is so important to carefully consider the impact of this very complex rule on America's almost nine thousand grain elevators,
My concern regarding previous earlier proposals has been that they would restrict bona fide hedging activity or harm America's agriculture and energy industries that have been sorely impacted by plummeting commodity prices and service provider consolidation. I am simply not willing to support a poorly designed and unworkable rule that ever after needs to be adjusted through a series of no-action letters and ad hoc staff interpretations and advisories that had become too common at the CFTC in prior years.
While some may view position limits as the “eternal rule,” I disagree. The current proposal is very detailed and highly complex. It is over 700 pages in length and has over one thousand footnotes. In some areas, concerns expressed by market participants regarding the 2011 rule that was struck down by the court and the 2013 proposal have been well addressed. In other
Notably, the proposal introduces a series of new estimates of deliverable supply that have not been previously presented to the public. It also incorporates concepts introduced in the 2016 supplemental proposal. Given these new additions and the complexity of the proposal, one more round of public comment is appropriate.
I feel comfortable that the proposal before us provides the basis for the implementation of a final position limits rule that I could support. I commend the staff responsible for this proposal for all their hard work in making the significant improvements that are before us. I also extend my gratitude to Chairman Massad and Commissioner Bowen for agreeing to put this proposal before the public for comment.
I welcome commenters' views on the proposal. I expect that with their added insight we can finalize a position limits rule in 2017 that is workable and does not undo years of standard practice in these markets.
Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Justice.
Final rule.
The Drug Enforcement Administration is updating its regulations for the import and export of tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals, and its regulations relating to reports required for domestic transactions in listed chemicals, gamma-hydroxybutyric acid, and tableting and encapsulating machines. In accordance with Executive Order 13563, the Drug Enforcement Administration has reviewed its import and export regulations and reporting requirements for domestic transactions in listed chemicals (and gamma-hydroxybutyric acid) and tableting and encapsulating machines, and evaluated them for clarity, consistency, continued accuracy, and effectiveness. The amendments clarify certain policies and reflect current procedures and technological advancements. The amendments also allow for the implementation, as applicable to tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals, of the President's Executive Order 13659 on streamlining the export/import process and requiring the government-wide utilization of the International Trade Data System (ITDS). This rule additionally contains amendments that implement recent changes to the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (CSIEA) for reexportation of controlled substances among members of the European Economic Area made by the Improving Regulatory Transparency for New Medical Therapies Act. The rule also includes additional substantive and technical and stylistic amendments.
This rule is effective January 30, 2017. However, compliance with the revisions to DEA regulations made by this rule is not required until June 28, 2017.
Michael J. Lewis, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration; Mailing Address: 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152; Telephone: (202) 598-6812.
The DEA implements and enforces titles II and III of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, as amended. 21 U.S.C. 801-971. Titles II and III are known as the “Controlled Substances Act” and the “Controlled Substances Import and Export Act,” respectively, and are collectively referred to as the “Controlled Substances Act” or “CSA” for the purpose of this action. The DEA publishes implementing regulations for these statutes in title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (21 CFR), chapter II. The CSA and its implementing regulations are designed to prevent, detect, and eliminate the diversion of controlled substances and listed chemicals into the illicit market while ensuring an adequate supply is available for the legitimate medical, scientific, research, and industrial needs of the United States. Controlled substances have the potential for abuse and dependence and are controlled to protect the public health and safety.
Under the CSA, each controlled substance is classified into one of five schedules based upon its potential for abuse, its currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, and the degree of dependence the substance may cause. 21 U.S.C. 812. The initial schedules of controlled substances established by Congress are found at 21 U.S.C. 812(c), and pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 812(a) and (b), the current list of all scheduled substances is published at 21 CFR part 1308. Controlled substances generally include narcotics, stimulants, depressants, and hallucinogens that have a potential for abuse and physical and psychological dependence, as well as anabolic steroids. Listed chemicals are separately classified based on their use and importance to the illicit manufacture of controlled substances (list I or list II chemicals). 21 U.S.C. 802(33)-(35).
Through the enactment of the CSA and its amendments, Congress has established a closed system of distribution making it unlawful to handle any controlled substance (manufacture, distribute, reverse distribute, dispense, conduct research, engage in narcotic treatment or maintenance, import, export, collect, conduct chemical analysis, dispose, or possess) or manufacture, distribute, import, or export any listed chemical except in a manner authorized by the CSA. See
In order to maintain this closed system of distribution, the CSA requires handlers of controlled substances, unless exempt from registration, to be registered with the DEA at each principal place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are manufactured, distributed, or dispensed. 21 U.S.C. 822. The CSA also requires persons who manufacture or distribute, or who propose to manufacture or distribute, list I chemicals to be registered at each principal place of business or professional practice, unless exempt. 21 U.S.C. 822; 21 CFR 1309.22. A separate registration is also required for each principal place of business where controlled substances or list I chemicals are imported or exported, unless exempt from registration. 21 U.S.C. 958. A “registrant” is any person who is registered pursuant to either section 303 or section 1008 of the CSA (codified at 21 U.S.C. 823 or 958).
In contrast, a “regulated person” means “a person who manufactures, distributes, imports, or exports a listed chemical, a tableting machine, or an encapsulating machine or who acts as a broker or trader
The CSA grants the Attorney General authority to promulgate rules and regulations relating to: The registration of controlled substance and list I chemical handlers; control of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances; control of the manufacture and distribution of listed chemicals; maintenance and submission of records and reports; and for the efficient execution of her statutory functions. 21 U.S.C. 821-822, 825, 827-831, 871, 952, 954, 956, 958, 971. The Attorney General is further authorized by the CSA to promulgate rules and regulations relating to the registration and control of importers and exporters of controlled substances or listed chemicals. 21 U.S.C. 958(f). The Attorney General has delegated these authorities to the Administrator of the DEA, who in turn redelegated many of these authorities to the Deputy Administrator of the DEA and the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control.
Within the DEA, the Diversion Control Division is the strategic focus area that carries out the mandates of the CSA to ensure that adequate supplies of controlled substances and listed chemicals are available to meet legitimate domestic medical, scientific, industrial, and export needs. The Diversion Control Division carries out the mission of the DEA to prevent, detect, and eliminate the diversion of these substances into the illicit drug market. Activities in support of the Diversion Control Division and its mission include: Determination of program priorities; field management oversight; coordination of major investigations; drafting and promulgating regulations; the design and proposal of national legislation; advice and leadership on State legislation/regulatory initiatives; oversight of the importation and exportation of tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals; establishment of national drug production quotas; activities related to drug scheduling and compliance with international treaty obligations; the design and execution of diplomatic missions; computerized monitoring and tracking of the distribution of certain controlled substances; planning and allocation of program resources; and liaison efforts with industry and their representative associations as well as to the DEA's regulatory and law enforcement counterparts at the federal, State, tribal, and local levels.
Section 3 of the President's Executive Order 13659 of February 19, 2014, “Streamlining the Export/Import Process for America's Businesses,” directs participating agencies to have capabilities, agreements, and other requirements in place to allow electronic filing through the International Trade Data System (ITDS) and supporting systems of data and other relevant documents (exclusive of applications for permits, licenses, or certifications) required for imported and exported goods. Participating agencies are “[a]ll federal agencies that require
In light of Executive Order 13659, the DEA is updating its regulations regarding the import and export of tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals. The amendments codify existing practices, incorporate existing procedures and technological advancements, and implement the President's Executive Order on streamlining the export/import process.
Previous DEA regulations specifically required applications for permits, declarations, and other required notices and reports to be filed in paper form, or by electronic means in some circumstances. To comply with Executive Order 13659, the DEA is amending its regulations to integrate DEA procedures related to the importation and exportation of tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals with the ITDS.
The ITDS excludes applications for permits, licenses, or certifications. In light of this, DEA registrants and regulated persons will continue to use the DEA application and filing process for permit applications that must be completed in advance of importation or exportation; however, the processes will be electronic rather than paper. As a result, DEA registrants or regulated persons applying for permits (DEA Forms 161, 161R, 161R-EEA, and 357) or filing notifications or reports with the DEA will apply or file directly with DEA electronically through the Diversion Control Division secure network application.
The DEA import/export declarations (DEA Forms 236, 486 and 486A), will also be replaced with an electronic process. Upon receipt of a complete declaration through the Diversion Control Division secure network application, DEA will provide the importer or exporter with the notice of receipt that must then be filed with CBP as part of the CBP import or export filing through ACE, or any successor system. DEA will also transmit the declaration information electronically to CBP so that customs officers can validate importations and exportations subject to DEA regulations.
Because of the requirement that regulated persons submit reports of regulated transactions in tableting machines and encapsulating machines to the DEA, the DEA is requiring such domestic regulated transaction reports to be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, in addition to import and export regulated transactions. Mandatory reporting requirements for domestic regulated transactions are included as part of this rule because it allows for the DEA to create, at one time, an efficient, streamlined reporting structure of regulated activities applicable to tableting and encapsulating machines.
Additionally, this final rule contains amendments that implement section 4, Re-exportation Among Members of the European Economic Area, of the Improving Regulatory Transparency for New Medical Therapies Act, Public Law 114-89, which was signed into law on November 25, 2015. Section 4 amended section 1003 of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 953) by making changes to paragraph (f) and adding paragraph (g) that allows for reexportation of controlled substances among members of the European Economic Area.
This rule also includes technical and stylistic changes to several regulations to clarify and simplify the language and to further the goals of the President's memorandum on Transparency and Open Government. 74 FR 4685, Jan. 26, 2009.
The DEA published a general notice in the
The test commenced on August 1, 2016, and will continue until publication of a notice in the
The DEA anticipated that this pilot program would help prepare for a successful transition from the paper-based process to the electronic entry and transmission of data to ACE. As of October 25, 2016 there were 35 companies, representing 95 registration numbers, participating in the pilot program.
DEA and CBP have determined that the pilot program has successfully tested the functionality for electronic submission of data related to the importation and exportation of controlled substances and listed chemicals. As a result, the pilot program will be concluded as of the effective date of this final rule. At that time, all importers, exporters, and brokers will be able to use ACE to electronically file required data and documentation associated with the importation and exportation of controlled substances and listed chemicals.
The DEA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
The DEA is finalizing the rule as proposed except where otherwise stated in the paragraphs below.
Below are summaries of provisions contained in the final rule.
The DEA is amending its regulations to authorize electronic submission of data, and make the procedure mandatory over paper in most circumstances. 21 U.S.C. 958(f). The use of electronic applications and filings is consistent not only with the requirements of Executive Order 13659, but also with the general principles outlined in the Government's Open Data Policy which requires agencies to collect or create information in a way that supports downstream information processing and dissemination. The Open Data Policy states that information should be collected electronically by default.
Executive Order 13659 directs participating agencies to have capabilities, agreements, and other requirements in place to allow electronic filing through ITDS and supporting systems of data and other relevant documents (exclusive of applications for permits, licenses, or certifications) required for imported and exported goods. Businesses are able to transmit their import and export data through using an EDI, an electronic communication framework providing standards for exchanging data via any electronic means. Data is transmitted through the EDI links to ACE, which serves as the single window for CBP.
Mandatory electronic applications and filings allow for the DEA to create an efficient, streamlined reporting structure of regulated activities.
The DEA is amending its regulations regarding expiration dates associated with imports and exports of controlled substances. The DEA is changing the current expiration period of import and export permits found in §§ 1312.16 and 1312.25 from not more than six months to not more than 180 calendar days after the date of issuance. This change standardizes expiration procedures as not all months have the same number of days.
The DEA is revising §§ 1312.16 and 1312.25 to clearly specify how and under what conditions controlled substance import and export permits may be amended or cancelled after issuance and when a new permit is required instead of an amendment. Registrants will submit a request to amend or cancel an application for an import or export permit, amend an issued import or export permit, or request cancelation of an issued import or export permit to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Consistent with current practice, importers and exporters will continue to be able to request an amendment to a permit for the following data fields: The National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance(s) as in the original permit; the proposed port of entry or export; the proposed date of import or export; the method of transport; any registrant notes; and the justification entered by the importer or exporter for why an import or export is needed to meet the medical, scientific, or other legitimate needs of the United States or foreign jurisdiction. The DEA allows amendments to these fields as these are areas that may be easily mis-keyed or subject to change as part of the normal import and export business practice.
Consistent with current practice, importers and exporters will continue to generally be allowed to amend the base weight of controlled substance(s) listed on their permit prior to the start of an import or export transaction (
Consistent with current practice, importers and exporters would continue to be able to request that an import or export permit be amended to remove a controlled substance.
However, importers and exporters may not amend permits to add or replace a controlled substance/Administration controlled substance code number to the item(s) to be imported or exported. Importers and exporters who desire to import or export a different controlled substance than that contained on their issued permit or permit application must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit.
The DEA understands that sometimes the incorrect controlled substance is identified on the permit application due to clerical error, for example because a similar item was selected from the drop-down selection in the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application that was located near the correct item. However, the DEA has closely considered this issue and ultimately determined that because the listed controlled substance proposed to be imported or exported is such a critical element of determining whether or not a permit should be issued and, if issued, the amount allowed to be imported or exported, this element should not be amendable. As stated elsewhere in this preamble, the DEA reminds importers and exporters that the duty to file reports and other documents with the DEA includes the duty that these filings be complete and accurate.
Similarly, in a change from current practice, the DEA is not allowing exporters to amend foreign permit information on permit applications and issued permits.
The DEA understands that sometimes, especially in the case of less experienced exporters, the incorrect foreign permit number is entered onto the permit application. This is often the result of numbers being transposed or a different number on the foreign permit being entered instead of the actual permit identification number. However, similar to the controlled substance identified on the permit, the DEA has closely considered this matter and ultimately determined that, because the authorization from the foreign competent national authority is such a critical element in determining whether a permit can be issued and the amount of the controlled substance to be exported, this element should not be amendable. As stated above and
Consistent with current practice, importers and exporters will not be able to request an amendment to a permit for changes to the importer or exporter's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration) or the name of the foreign importer or exporter. The DEA considers the name of the foreign importer or exporter to be a key factor in determining associated risks of the diversion of controlled substances and subsequently whether or not to issue an import or export permit. Therefore, these fields are not amendable.
However, also consistent with current practice, as stated above, the DEA will continue to allow importers and exporters to amend any additional associated company names they are DBA (doing business as) that they wish to have included in the notes section of the permit. The only change from current practice is that such amendments would be required to be made through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Importers and exporters will be required to make an official request through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application for an amendment. Supplementary information submitted by an importer or exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. An amendment will have no effect on the date of expiration of the permit; an amended import or export permit will have the same expiration date as the originally issued permit. Importers and exporters will be able to request that an issued import or export permit be canceled provided that no shipment has yet been made.
Under revised § 1312.16(a)(5), registrants and regulated persons will be required to submit all requests for an amendment that would affect the total base weight of each controlled substance, other than those submitted in accordance with § 1312.15(a), at least three business days in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Three business days are the minimum amount of time that the DEA needs to review this type of requested amendment, approve or deny the request, and transmit the applicable data to the ITDS. All other requests for amendment will be required to be submitted to the DEA at least one business day before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. One business day is the minimum amount of time that the DEA needs to review the requested amendment, approve or deny the request, and transmit the applicable data to the ITDS.
DEA registrants have been able to submit DEA forms electronically for several years, and are familiar with the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application system. If a DEA registrant needs to change information on an application for a permit that is not amendable, they must submit a new application for a permit. The registrant will follow the same process used with the original submission and submit the forms electronically. The DEA will review the submission, process the document and issue a Transaction Identification Number (TIN). The estimated time to complete the online document is minimal. Requiring the new submission will ensure the integrity of the information in the DEA system as well as what is transmitted to CBP.
To make an allowable amendment, a DEA registrant will access the DEA secure network application and provide the Transaction Identification Number which was assigned with the original submission. The system will provide access to the registrant's application for a permit, and the registrant can then make the appropriate changes. The DEA will review the changes and process the document. To ensure that there is no delay in CBP releasing a product from being imported or exported, the DEA provides the amended documents or new submissions to CBP in its daily feed.
As a result of the ITDS/ACE system relying on the Harmonized Tariff System (HTS) used by CBP to properly release products for import or export, the DEA had to identify the proper HTS codes for the substances under its control. The HTS codes are utilized in ACE and directly correlate to Administration Controlled Substance Code Number. As a result, the DEA will not allow a registrant to amend an application by adding a controlled substance that has a different Administration Controlled Substance Code Number. This will ensure a more streamlined process and will allow CBP to efficiently release product in a timely manner.
Countries that are parties to international drug control treaties have an established competent national authority (CNA) (identified in the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime publication “Competent National Authorities Under the International Drug Control Treaties”) that oversees the handling of controlled substances and listed chemicals to include the approval of imports and exports. All CNAs make certain reports to the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) on the distribution of the substances being imported and exported. The DEA communicates directly with CNAs or through the INCB if issues arise regarding official authorization documents submitted to the DEA by DEA registrants.
For the reasons discussed above, the DEA is also requiring electronic reporting of return information for controlled substances imported or exported under permit procedures.
The DEA is also amending §§ 1312.18 and 1312.27 to specify an expiration date for import and export declarations for controlled substances.
Such declarations did not have an expiration date assigned to them; however, permits to import and export controlled substances expire not more than six months after approved under the previous regulation. 21 CFR 1312.16 and 1312.25. Similar to permits, declarations filed with the DEA are sometimes never actually utilized. The DEA is concerned that absence of an expiration date for these declarations may lead to incomplete or inaccurate records in the ITDS. Therefore, declarations expire 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
The DEA is incorporating the mandatory electronic filing of DEA import declarations and DEA export declarations for controlled substances with the DEA into §§ 1312.18 and 1312.27. This requirement is also incorportated into a new § 1312.03 which references a list of applicable forms for part 1312, and will state the declaration forms are electronic. This information is listed multiple in the applicable regulations.
Consistent with current requirements, controlled substance declarations will be required to be filed at least 15 calendar days in advance of the anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export. 21 CFR 1312.18(b), 1312.27(a). The DEA is retaining this 15-day-advance filing time period to ensure enough time for the DEA to review the submission for completeness and conduct any necessary follow-up prior to the import/export transaction. Under revised §§ 1312.18(b) and 1312.27(a), controlled substance declarations are not deemed filed until the
The DEA is amending its import/export regulations to describe the procedures relating to amendments following the filing of a controlled substance import or export declaration with implementation of the ITDS. The DEA is changing §§ 1312.18(f) and 1312.27(e) to clearly specify how and under what conditions controlled substance import and export declarations may be amended or cancelled after having been filed and when a new declaration is required instead of an amendment. Registrants and regulated persons will submit a request to amend or cancel a filed declaration to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Consistent with current practice, importers and exporters will continue to be able to amend a declaration for the following data fields: The National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance(s) as in the original declaration; the proposed port of entry or export; the anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export; the method of transport; any registrant notes; and the justification entered by the importer or exporter for why an import or export is needed to meet the legitimate scientific or medical needs of the United States or foreign jurisdiction. The DEA allows amendments to these fields as these are areas that may be easily mis-keyed or subject to change as part of the normal import and export business practice.
Importers and exporters will continue to generally be allowed to amend the base weight of controlled substance(s) listed on their filed declaration prior to the start of an import or export transaction (
Importers and exporters will continue to be able to amend a filed import or export declaration to remove a controlled substance. However, importers and exporters will no longer be able to amend declarations to add a new controlled substance or replace a controlled substance with another controlled substance. Instead, importers and exporters who need to make changes to any of these fields will need to cancel the existing declaration and file a new declaration.
The DEA understands that sometimes the incorrect controlled substance is identified on the declaration due to clerical error, for example because a similar item was selected from the drop-down selection in the DEA Office of Diversion Control secure network application that was located near the correct item. However, the DEA has closely considered this issue and ultimately determined that because the identification of the controlled substance proposed to be imported or exported is such a critical element of the closed system of distribution, that this element should not be amendable. As stated elsewhere in this preamble, the DEA reminds importers and exporters that the duty to file reports and other documents with the DEA includes the duty that these filings be complete and accurate.
The DEA is not allowing importers and exporters to amend information related to the authorization to import or export from the foreign competent national authority. The DEA understands that sometimes, especially in the case of less experienced importers and exporters, the incorrect foreign authorization identifier is entered onto the declaration. This is often the result of numbers being transposed or a different number on the foreign permit being entered instead of the actual authorization identifier. However, similar to the identification of the controlled substance to be imported or exported, the DEA has closely considered this matter and ultimately determined that because the authorization from the foreign competent national authority to import or export a controlled substance is such a critical element to the Administration's ability to monitor and ensure the closed system of distribution, this element should not be amendable. As stated above and elsewhere in this document, the DEA reminds importers and exporters that the duty to file reports and other documents with the DEA includes the duty that these filings be complete and accurate.
Importers and exporters will not be able to request an amendment to a filed import or export declaration for changes to the importer or exporter's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration) or the name of the foreign importer or exporter. The DEA considers the name of the foreign importer or exporter to be a key factor in determining associated risks of the diversion of controlled substances. Therefore, these fields would not be amendable.
The DEA will continue to allow importers and exporters to amend any additional associated company names they are DBA (doing business as) that they wish to have included in the notes section of the declaration; such amendments would be required to be made through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Importers and exporters will be required to make an official request through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application for an amendment. Supplementary information submitted by an importer or exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. An amendment will have no effect on the date of expiration of the declaration; an amended import or export declaration will have the same expiration date as the originally filed declaration.
Importers and exporters will be able to request that filed import or export declarations be canceled provided that no shipment has yet been made.
Registrants will be required to submit all requests for an amendment that will affect the total base weight of each controlled substance, other than those allowed to be released into the United States pursuant to §§ 1312.18(f) and 1312.16(a)(5), at least three business days in advance of the date of release by CBP. Three business days are the minimum amount of time that the DEA needs to review this type of requested amendment and transmit the applicable
DEA registrants have been able to submit DEA forms electronically for several years, and are familiar with the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application system. If a DEA registrant needs to change information on a declaration that is not amendable, they must submit a new declaration. 21 CFR 1312.12, 1312.18, 1312.22, and 1312.27. The registrant will follow the same process used with the original submission and submit the forms electronically. The DEA will review the submission, process the document and issue a Transaction Identification Number (TIN). The estimated time to complete the online document is minimal. Requiring the new submission will ensure the integrity of the information in the DEA system as well as what is transmitted to CBP.
To make an allowable amendment, a DEA registrant will access the DEA Secure Network Application and provide the Transaction Identification Number which was assigned with the original submission. The system will provide access to the registrant's declaration, and the registrant can then make the appropriate changes. The DEA will review the changes and process the document. To ensure that there is no delay in CBP releasing a product from being imported or exported, the DEA provides the amended documents or new submissions to CBP in its daily feed.
As a result of the ITDS/ACE system relying on the Harmonized Tariff System (HTS) used by CBP to properly release products for import or export, the DEA had to identify the proper HTS codes for the substances under its control. The HTS codes are utilized in ACE and directly correlate to Administration Controlled Substance Code Number. As a result, the DEA will not allow a registrant to amend a declaration by adding a controlled substance that has a different Administration Controlled Substance Code Number. This will ensure a more streamlined process and will allow CBP to efficiently release product in a timely manner.
As stated previously all countries that are parties to international drug control treaties have an established CNA that oversees the handling of controlled substances and listed chemicals to include the approval of imports and exports. All CNAs make certain reports to the INCB on the distribution of the substances being imported and exported. The DEA communicates directly with CNAs or through the INCB if issues arise regarding official authorization documents submitted to the DEA by DEA registrants.
For the reasons stated above, the DEA is also requiring mandatory electronic filing of return information for controlled substances imported or exported under declaration procedures.
The DEA is amending part 1313 to provide that each regulated person who seeks to import or export a listed chemical that meets or exceeds a threshold quantity, must notify/provide a declaration to the DEA (by filing a DEA Form 486/486A through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application) of the intended import or export not later than 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. Regarding imports and exports for those entities with regular customer and regular importer status, the notification must be filed at least three business days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. All declarations must be signed and dated by the importer or exporter and must contain the address of the final destination for the shipment.
The DEA is specifying that all listed chemical declarations expire in 180 calendar days, consistent with the controlled substance import/export permits. If release by a customs officer will occur more than 180 calendar days after the declaration is deemed filed, the declarant must submit a new declaration for the transaction.
In § 1313.32 the DEA is incorporating the mandatory electronic filing of notifications of international transactions involving listed chemicals which meet or exceed the threshold amount identified in § 1310.04. The broker or trader must notify the DEA (by filing a DEA Form 486 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application) of the intended international transaction not later than 15 calendar days before the transaction is to take place. The DEA is amending § 1313.32 to require that notifications of international transactions would not be deemed filed until a transaction identification number has been issued by the DEA. This change is designed to ensure that electronically submitted notifications are received by the DEA, are completed, and can be appropriately tracked and monitored; to streamline the notification filing process; and eliminate duplicate filings.
This final rule implements section 4, Re-exportation Among Members of the European Economic Area, of the Improving Regulatory Transparency for New Medical Therapies Act, Public Law 114-89 (hereinafter “the 2015 Act”), which was signed into law on November 25, 2015. Section 4 of the 2015 Act amended section 1003 of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (CSIEA) (21 U.S.C. 953) by making changes to paragraph (f) and adding paragraph (g), changes that allow for expanded reexportation of certain controlled substances among members of the European Economic Area (EEA). Prior to passage of the 2015 Act, the CSIEA (21 U.S.C. 953(f)) provided, with respect to controlled substances in schedule I or II and narcotic drugs in schedule III or IV, that such substances could be exported from the United States for subsequent reexport from the recipient country (the “first country”) to another country (the “second country”)—but with no further reexports from the second country. The 2015 Act removed this latter limitation, provided that every country involved is an EEA country, and provided that the conditions specified in the 2015 Act are met.
In order to effectuate the changes contained in the 2015 Act, the final rule implements the following changes:
• Allowing unlimited reexports among EEA countries.
• Eliminating the 180 day time period to complete reexport (reexport from first country to the second country (ies)).
• No longer requiring bulk substances to undergo further manufacturing processes within the first EEA country if the substance is to be reexported within the EEA.
• No longer requiring that the exporter must provide product and consignee information beyond the first country in advance of (prior to) export from the United States.
• Establishing a new Form 161R-EEA for the reporting of reexports among members of the EEA. (The form is accessed, completed, and submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.)
All other requirements that existed prior to the enactment of the 2015 Act (and which were not modified by Congress in 2015 Act) remain. Additionally, persons who export
The DEA is mandating electronic reporting requirements in § 1310.05 for all regulated transactions involving tableting machines and encapsulating machines, including domestic, import, and export transactions. To standardize and streamline the electronic filing of these reports, the DEA is implementing usage of a new form, DEA Form 452, Reports for Regulated Machines, which covers imports, exports, and domestic regulated transactions of tableting and encapsulating machines. The new form will be accessed, completed, and submitted by regulated persons entirely though the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed report a transaction identification number. The DEA Form 452 will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. This change is designed to ensure that electronically submitted reports are indeed received by the DEA, are completed, and can be appropriately tracked and monitored; to streamline the report filing process; and to eliminate duplicate filings.
The DEA Form 452 is used for both domestic transactions and import/export transactions of tableting and encapsulating machines, and the reporting requirements implemented by this final rule differ.
The DEA also added paragraph (c)(2) to § 1310.05 to require import shipments of tableting machines or encapsulating machines that have been denied release by customs to be reported to the Administration, through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, within 5 business days of denial. If an importer subsequently receives notice from a customs officer that their shipment will be released into the United States, the importer is required to file an amended DEA Form 452 with the DEA before the shipment may be released. In such circumstances, the regulated person may seek to have the tableting machines or encapsulating machines released by customs upon receipt of a transaction identification number for the refiled and amended DEA Form 452 without regard to the 15-day advance filing requirement.
The DEA is requiring electronic filing of return information, specifying the particulars of the transaction, for tableting and encapsulating machines imported or exported within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a tableting or encapsulating machine, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer, whichever is sooner. Return information requirements are incorporated into a new paragraph (h) in § 1310.06 and requires the filing of the report with the Administration (on DEA Form 452) utilizing the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
The DEA is incorporating mandatory electronic reporting requirements into part 1310 for monthly reports of mail-order transactions involving ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) required to be filed in accordance with § 1310.03(c) pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(3). To standardize and streamline the electronic filing requirements of these monthly mail-order reports, the DEA is implementing usage of a new form, DEA Form 453. The new form will be accessed, completed, and submitted by regulated persons entirely through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. 21 CFR 1310.03(c) is further revised to reflect that reports would not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number unless they are complete upon submission. This change is designed to ensure that electronically submitted reports are indeed received by the DEA, are complete, and can be appropriately tracked and monitored; to streamline the report filing process; and to eliminate potential duplicate filings. The previous § 1310.06(i), redesignated in this final rule as § 1310.06(k), is revised to reflect that the monthly mail-order information is required to be submitted to the DEA on Form 453. 21 CFR 1310.03(c) is further revised by separately listing the requirement for monthly reports to be submitted by regulated persons who engage in the specified domestic mail-order transactions and export transactions. This revision also more plainly lays out the requirement that the regulated person must be engaged in a transaction with one of the specified chemicals or controlled substance and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier for both activities in order to be required to file the monthly report. This revision is not intended to impose any different requirements than the current regulation, but only to ease understanding of the reporting
The DEA is also technically amending § 1310.05(d) to revise the mailing information in the second sentence and to replace the term “shall” in three locations without changing the requirements.
Applications for transshipment permits are still allowed to be submitted to the DEA via paper in accordance with the existing procedures under § 1312.31 for schedule I controlled substances. Information will be posted to the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site informing persons seeking to transship schedule I controlled substances on how to submit an application for a transshipment permit. Advance notification of transshipments for schedule II, III, and IV controlled substances would also still be allowed to be submitted to the DEA via paper in accordance with the current § 1312.32. The electronic application and filing process is not feasible in such circumstances because foreign IP addresses are blocked by the Department of Justice's firewall and are prevented from accessing the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Although the transshippers themselves would not have direct access to the instructions on the DEA Web site due to the firewall protection, it is the DEA's understanding that most transshippers have someone in the United States as a domestic presence facilitating the transaction who will be able to access the instructions. There is no change from the current operational system. The DEA is explicitly stating in §§ 1312.31 and 1312.32 that a separate filing is required for each shipment, conforming the requirements of this section with the requirements for imports and exports of controlled substances in part 1312.
Advance notification is still allowed to be submitted to the DEA via paper in accordance with the existing procedures under § 1313.31 for persons seeking to import a listed chemical that meets or exceeds the threshold reporting requirements into the United States for transshipment. Advance notification is also still allowed to be submitted to the DEA via paper in accordance with the existing procedures under § 1313.31 for persons seeking to transfer, or transship listed chemicals within the United States for immediate exportation. The electronic application and filing process is not feasible in such circumstances because foreign IP addresses are blocked by the Department of Justice's firewall and are prevented from accessing the secure network application on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site. While a broker or trader for an international transaction might be able to electronically submit the required information from a domestic IP address, for consistency and fairness across all transshipment activities, the DEA is allowing paper applications and notices to continue for all transshipment transactions. Although the transshippers themselves would not have direct access to the instructions on the DEA Web site due to the firewall protection, it is the DEA's understanding that most transshippers have someone in the United States as a domestic presence facilitating the transaction who will be able to access the instructions. There is no change from the current operational system.
This section discusses the minor changes implemented by this final rule that were not discussed in the NPRM. The minor changes include, among others, correcting minor typographical errors and updating citation listings and internal organizational changes within the DEA.
The effective date of this final rule remains 30 days from the date of publication. However, the compliance date was extended to 180 days after the publication of the final rule for all transactions, not only for tableting and encapsulating machines.
The DEA has eliminated the definitions of shipment and split shipment that were proposed in the NPRM. Because of the elimination of these definitions, the DEA has amended §§ 1312.13(e) and 1312.23(e) in a manner that is different than proposed. The language added to this section emphasizes that a shipment of controlled substances is limited to a single transaction between a single importer or exporter and a single consignee on a single loading document, but also that the shipment must occur on a single conveyance as opposed to multiple conveyances. In addition, the language will coincide with current policy by prohibiting a load of goods from being divided into multiple parts to be placed onto more than one conveyance, even if the goods are on the same loading document. A single permit could not be used for this situation above.
In §§ 1310.05, 1312.12, 1312.18, 1312.22, 1312.27, 1313.17, and 1313.27, the 24-hour reporting requirement to the DEA for the denial of imported/exported controlled substances, listed chemicals, tableting or encapsulating machines, has been changed to five business days.
In revised §§ 1312.22(d)(1), 1312.31(d)(4), and 1312.32(b), the phrase “and the attestation has been notarized” has been deleted.
The DEA received 12 comments on the NPRM. Eleven commenters generally supported this rule while also raising issues of concern and one commenter expressed opposition to the NPRM. Three comments were not posted due to the entire comment containing confidential business information; one comment was not posted because it was unrelated to the NPRM; thus, only eight comments were posted. All of the relevant comments are summarized below, along with the DEA's responses.
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In response to the request that CBP provide additional guidance on how the electronic certifications should be submitted and by whom, the DEA recommends reviewing the ITDS implementation guidelines on CBP's Web site,
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As stated in the NPRM accompanying this final rule, 21 U.S.C. 971(b) provides the DEA with authority to waive the 15 day requirement, by regulation, for imports of listed chemicals by regular importers and exports of listed chemicals between regulated persons and regular customers. The DEA is exercising this authority in the final rule. The DEA does acknowledge that 21 U.S.C. 971(b)(1) requires regulated persons subject to waivers to notify the DEA of the transaction “at the time of any importation or exportation.” To maintain the effect of this provision the DEA is allowing registrants to proceed with the import and export transaction as soon as the transaction identification number is issued, regardless of whether the three-calendar day period has concluded. In addition, the DEA considers the notification provided to the DEA by the customs officers at the time of release to meet the requirements of 21 U.S.C. 971(b)(1). With these two allowances the DEA believes that it is meeting the statutory requirements and is setting forth reasonable requirements.
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In the alternative to removing the factors from the regulatory text, this same commenter submitted two suggestions. The commenter suggested that listed chemical handlers should consider these factors only if the factors help the handler determine whether a loss is unusual or excessive. In addition, the commenter suggested that the factors should only be applied as to the specific facts surrounding the loss or disappearance.
Lastly, this commenter requested that the DEA discuss its reasoning for using slightly different factors than the agency uses in 21 CFR 1301.74(c) and to discuss the impact to regulated persons based on this change, including the interpretation.
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As the United States Supreme Court has repeatedly held, “If the intent of Congress is clear, that is the end of the matter; for the court, as well as the agency, must give effect to the unambiguously expressed intent of Congress.”
With regard to the letter from four members of Congress attached by one of the commenters, because this letter was written after the law was enacted, it cannot be considered legislative history. But even if it were part of the legislative history,
The provision of 21 U.S.C. 953(g) prohibiting DEA from promulgating any regulation that “impedes” reexportation within the EEA does not alter this conclusion. Congress could not have meant by this provision that DEA cannot enforce a requirement that Congress itself explicitly enacted. Rather, the logical interpretation of this clause is that DEA cannot impose any
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Two comments were received that were not within the scope of this rulemaking, and will not be addressed. Both addressed drug scheduling actions that were outside the subject area of this final rule.
For purposes of clarity and transparency, the DEA is updating its regulations for consistency of terminology (within DEA regulations, between DEA regulations and the CSA, and between DEA regulations and the regulations of other agencies that regulate imports and exports), to reflect name changes to referenced entities, and to add new definitions. These changes involve both technical and substantive amendments. Additionally, the DEA is making a technical change to more concisely incorporate U.S. obligations under international treaties of drug control, as statutorily codified in the CSA.
The DEA is amending §§ 1301.24, 1301.26, to denote the responsibility of customs services of Insular Areas, and not just CBP, to enforce the import and export requirements of the CSA. When controlled substances, listed chemicals, and tableting or encapsulating machines are imported into, or exported from, a U.S. territory (or possession) or an Insular Area of the United States that is not part of the customs territory of the United States, these items are cleared by the customs service of an Insular Area and not CBP.
The DEA is also adding the following citations to be directed to the DEA
This topic has been added so that comments corresponding to
Corresponding to the removal of “jurisdiction of the United States” and the revised definitions of “export” and “import,” the DEA is making a corresponding technical change to § 1302.07 to reflect those definitional changes. The sealing requirement would be separately stated for imports and exports. This change allows the import statement to clearly reflect that the sealing requirement for imported controlled substances applies regardless of whether the import occurred inside or outside of the customs territory of the United States. Separating the import and export requirements also makes clear that the distinction between the customs territory and the non-customs territory is only applicable to imports and not exports.
Corresponding to recent internal DEA reorganization, the mailing addresses for §§ 1303.12(b) and (d), 1303.22, 1304.31(a), 1304.32(a), 1315.22, 1315.32(e) and (g), 1315.34(d), and 1315.36(b), regarding quota applications and reporting, will be moved from the DEA Drug & Chemical Evaluation Section to the UN Reporting & Quota Section under a new corresponding header.
The DEA is making a technical amendment to § 1304.02 to reflect that definitions found in § 1300.02, “Definitions relating to listed chemicals,” are not applicable to part 1304, that addresses the records and reports that are required of controlled substance handlers. (21 CFR part 1310 addresses records and reports of listed chemicals and certain machines.)
The DEA is also making a technical amendment to amend § 1304.21(d) to separately state reporting requirements concerning imports and exports of controlled substances. The record date for receipt, distribution, other transfer, or destruction will not change. The regulation will be amended to state that the record date for imports or exports of controlled substances is the anticipated date of release by a customs officer for permits and declarations and the date on which the controlled substance was released by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export.
The DEA is making two technical updates to part 1308. First, the DEA is amending § 1308.01 to denote that part 1308 also includes nonnarcotic substances, chemical preparations, veterinary anabolic steroid implant products, prescription products, and anabolic steroid products excluded pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811. Second, the DEA is amending § 1308.49 to reflect the current requirements of the CSA regarding issuance of temporary scheduling orders. 21 U.S.C. 811(h) was amended by section 1153 of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act of 2012, Public Law 112-144, July 9, 2012, to make temporary scheduling orders effective for two years, with an option to extend for up to one year during the pendency of proceeding under 21 U.S.C. 811(a). The CFR was not updated when the law changed. The DEA is also realigning the paragraphs of § 1308.49 to properly separate the discussion of the circumstances in which a temporary scheduling order will be vacated.
The DEA is amending § 1309.32(d) to add “manufactured” to the list of business activities each application can include for each list I chemical. Adding “manufactured” would accurately reflect an “activity” that an applicant could conduct with list I chemicals if appropriately registered. No change is required to DEA Form 510 because “manufacturer” is already listed as an option.
The DEA is correcting and updating the cross-reference in § 1309.46(d) by removing the reference “§ 1309.54” and replacing it with the reference “§ 1309.53.” Section 1309.46(d) currently instructs an applicant to file a request for a hearing pursuant to § 1309.54. However, § 1309.54 is entitled “Burden of Proof,” and therefore is an inaccurate cross-reference.
The DEA is correcting and updating the cross-reference in § 1309.51(a) by removing the cross-reference to § 1309.57 and replacing it with the cross-reference “§ 1309.55.” Currently, § 1309.57 is a misleading cross-reference since it does not exist in title 21, chapter II of the CFR. The “Hearings” section in part 1309 concludes at § 1309.55. The DEA is therefore changing the cross-reference in § 1309.51(a) from “1309.57” to “§ 1309.55.” Finally, the DEA is correcting two minor typographic issues in § 1309.71: capitalizing the first word of paragraph (b)(5) and adding an “and” at the end of paragraph (b)(7).
The DEA is incorporating mandatory electronic reporting requirements into part 1310 for monthly reports of mail-order transactions involving ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, and gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) required to be filed in accordance with § 1310.03(c) pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(3). To standardize and streamline the electronic filing requirement of these monthly mail-order reports, the DEA is implementing usage of a new form, DEA Form 453. The new form is accessed, completed, and submitted by regulated persons entirely through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. 21 CFR 1310.03(c) is further revised to reflect that reports would not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number unless they are complete upon submission. This change is designed to ensure that electronically submitted reports are indeed received by the DEA, are complete, and can be appropriately tracked and monitored; to streamline the report filing process; and to eliminate potential duplicate filings. The current § 1310.06(i) is revised to reflect that the monthly mail-order information required to be submitted would now be submitted on the DEA Form 453 and is designated as § 1310.06(k). 21 CFR 1310.03(c) is further revised by separately listing the requirement for monthly reports to be submitted by regulated persons who engage in the specified domestic mail-order transactions and export transactions. This revision also more plainly lays out the requirement that the regulated person must be engaged in a transaction with one of the specified chemicals or controlled substance and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier for both activities in order to be required to file the monthly report. This revision is not intended to impose any different requirements than the current regulation, but only to ease understanding of the reporting requirements. 21 CFR 1310.05(e) would correspondingly be amended to reflect the implementation of the mandatory electronic filing requirement.
The DEA is making a technical amendment to § 1310.05(d) to revise the mailing information in the second sentence and to replace the term “shall” in three locations without changing the substantive requirements.
The DEA is amending § 1310.05 to require reports of unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical to be filed through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. When determining whether a loss is unusual or excessive, the guidelines that the regulated person should consider are: (1) The actual quantity of a listed chemical; (2) the specific listed chemical involved; (3) whether the loss or disappearance of the listed chemical can be associated with access to those listed chemical by specific individuals, or whether the loss or disappearance can be attributed to unique activities that may take place involving the listed chemical; and (4) a pattern of losses or disappearances over a specific time period, whether the losses or disappearances appear to be random, and the result of efforts taken to resolve the losses. If known, the regulated person would also need to report whether (1) the specific listed chemical was a likely candidate for diversion and (2) local trends and other indicators of the diversion potential of the listed chemical. This language is similar to the current regulatory language relating to theft and loss of controlled substances in § 1301.74(c).
In addition, the DEA is clarifying in the revised § 1310.05(b)(1) that regulated persons must submit a report of unusual or excessive loss or
The DEA is also removing the phrase “whenever possible” from the oral reporting requirements of the current § 1310.05(b). The DEA believes that the phrase is redundant given the stated requirement that such reports be made “at the earliest practicable opportunity.” Removing this phrase would better align the reporting requirements with the statutory language of 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(1).
In response to the above discussed changes, the DEA is restructuring § 1310.05(a) and (b) to reflect the revised reporting structure. Paragraph (a) is addressing those reports made solely to the local DEA office in accordance with the current and revised § 1310.05(a)(1) and (2). Paragraph (b) is addressing those reports made orally to the local DEA office with written reports being submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The reporting requirements now located in § 1310.05(b) will be transferred to paragraphs (a)(1) and (2), and (b)(1) and (2), as applicable. This change consolidates the reporting requirements for each of the applicable reports into their applicable paragraphs; readers would no longer be required to look at both paragraphs to determine when and how they must initially report these transactions. In addition, the DEA is clarifying § 1310.05(a)(2) that regulated persons must report orally, not in writing, any proposed regulated transaction with a person whose description or other identifying characteristic the Administration has provided to the regulated person. Regulated persons are required to orally report the other types of actions at the earliest practicable opportunity to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located.
21 CFR 1310.06 is revised to reflect the various changes in §§ 1310.03-1310.05. Cross-citations have been amended to reflect where regulations have been moved and new forms instituted. In § 1310.06(a)(3) regulated persons are required to include the NDC number of the product containing the listed chemical, if applicable, in all records required by § 1310.03(a). If the record contains the NDC number, information about the “form of packaging” would not be necessary. The restructuring of § 1310.05(a) also corrects a long-standing typographical error in the previous § 1310.06(c), which incorrectly referenced § 1310.05(a)(4) instead of § 1310.05(a)(3). 21 CFR 1310.06(c) previously stated that a report submitted pursuant to § 1310.05(a)(4), domestic regulated transactions, must include a description of the circumstances leading the regulated person to make the report. However, the corresponding example relates to an unusual loss, which is addressed in the previous § 1310.05(a)(3) (now § 1310.05(b)(1)). The DEA also is making technical amendments in § 1310.06, including replacing the term “shall” in paragraphs (a) and (b).
The DEA is standardizing submissions of domestic and import and export regulated transaction reports involving tableting and encapsulating machines through the introduction of a new form, the DEA Form 452. In the revised § 1310.05(b)(2), the DEA is making the oral reporting mandatory and mandating the electronic filing of the written report. The DEA also is providing specific guidelines on when those reports must be given. The revised § 1310.05(b)(2) requires regulated persons to orally report domestic regulated transactions in a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine when an order is placed rather than at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. The written report (DEA Form 452) is required to be filed within 15 calendar days after the order has been shipped by the seller.
The previous standard was originally adopted for reporting of domestic regulated transactions for uniformity with the reporting timeframe standard imposed by 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(1)(A) for transactions involving an extraordinary quantity of a listed chemical, an uncommon method of payment or delivery, or other suspicious circumstances. However, the DEA is exercising its authority under 21 U.S.C. 830(b)(1) to impose a different reporting timeframe standard for machines. The revised standards are not only less ambiguous for regulated persons to follow; they also ensure the DEA receives the information in time to take appropriate action as may be necessary. The new DEA Form 452, covers not only import and export regulated transactions of tableting and encapsulating machines required under the current § 1310.05(c) but also the domestic regulated transactions of tableting machines or encapsulating machines required by the previous § 1310.05(a)(4). The requirements for the content of domestic reports were moved from § 1310.06(d) to a new § 1310.06(f), while the requirements for reports of importations and exportations are all contained within § 1310.06(e). The DEA also is amending the recordkeeping requirements in § 1310.06(a) and reporting requirements in § 1310.06(e) and (f) to require the inclusion of information about whether the machine is manual or electric. In § 1310.06(e)(1)(vi) and (f)(3), the DEA is requiring reports of importations and domestic transactions to include any proposed changes to the identifying information of imported machines that will occur after the importation or other transaction.
The DEA also is amending § 1310.06 to require regulated persons who import or export a tableting or encapsulating machine to report return information to the Administration within 30 calendar days of the release of the shipment by customs at the port of entry or port of export, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration. The DEA has included the provision for the requirement to submit return information earlier than the 30 days for two reasons. First, it conforms to the changes for controlled substances and listed chemicals in parts 1312 and 1313. Uniformity of requirements should simplify procedures and ease understanding of the requirements by regulated industry. Second, the option to request advance return information allows the DEA to receive information that may be needed for time-sensitive requirements, such as investigations that may need to result in immediate action to protect the public health and safety. Return information is required to be submitted electronically through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application on the DEA Form 452. Reports would not be deemed filed until a transaction identification number has been issued by the DEA. Pursuant to § 1310.06(h), importers are required to report specifics on their return, including dates of the transaction, quantities of machines involved, and descriptions of the machines. Consistent with the current requirements, importers also are required to report subsequent transfers of the machines under § 1310.05(b)(2). Reports of transfers after import may be submitted with the return information or separately.
The revisions relating to tableting and encapsulating machines that would standardize the submission of reports of
Regulatory changes in the final rule require importers and exporters to report to the DEA when a shipment has been denied release by a customs officer for any reason, whether or not the denial was based on a violation of DEA regulations. In response to commenters who stated that the 24 hour notification requirement related to import or export denials was unreasonable, the DEA has modified this requirement from 24 hours to 5 business days. The DEA believes that 5 business days strikes a balance between investigative needs without unduly burdening the regulated community. Likewise, by unifying the reporting format for regulated transactions in tableting machines, whether domestic, import, or export, the DEA will be able to monitor the flow of these machines through the distribution chain. This will allow the DEA to better understand and monitor the trade in these machines and to adopt more efficient means of stopping the diversion of tableting and encapsulating machines, and prevent their use in the illicit manufacture of controlled substances.
The DEA is making a technical amendment to §§ 1312.11 and 1312.22 to insert a cross-reference to part 1301 of chapter II of title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations when referencing the registration requirements for the importation of controlled substances.
The DEA is amending § 1312.14 to account for revised distribution procedures for import permits. The DEA is retaining the requirement that an official record of the permit (a “copy” under current DEA regulatory terms) accompany the shipment of controlled substances. This is an important tool utilized by the DEA for ensuring compliance with the closed system of distribution by allowing quick initial visual indication of compliance with requirements with the CSA. However, because customs officers will be able to electronically validate the legitimacy of the import permit through ITDS, customs officers will not need to physically detach the official record of the permit for validation. An official record of the permit must instead accompany the shipment until it reaches its final destination. The DEA is also amending § 1312.14 to omit the discussion of the circumstances in which customs officers will refuse entry of a shipment.
The final destination for an import must be the registered location of the importer. (The import must be received at the registered address of the importer before being moved to another location of the importer or delivered to a customer.) The receipt of imported goods is a principal activity of registered importers. Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 958(h), a separate registration is required at each principal place of business where applicants import or export controlled substances. Accordingly, the final destination of a shipment of imported controlled substances is the registered location of the registrant or regulated person. Drop shipments,
A technical amendment to paragraph (a) of § 1312.15 is made to cross-reference § 1312.16, concerning shipments that may be in greater or lesser amount than what is authorized by the import permit.
Associated with the foregoing changes, as discussed earlier in this document, the DEA is amending its regulations regarding expiration dates associated with imports and exports of controlled substances. The DEA is changing the current expiration period of import and export permits found in §§ 1312.16 and 1312.25 from not more than six months to not more than 180 calendar days after the date of issuance. This change will standardize expiration procedures as not all months have the same number of days. The DEA is also amending §§ 1312.18 and 1312.27 to specify an expiration date for import and export declarations for controlled substances. Such declarations do not currently have an expiration date assigned to them; however, permits to import and export controlled substances expire not more than six months after approved under the current regulation. 21 CFR 1312.16 and 1312.25. Similar to permits, at times declarations filed with the DEA are never actually utilized. The DEA is concerned that absence of an expiration date for these declarations may lead to incomplete or inaccurate records in the ITDS. Therefore, the DEA is requiring that declarations expire 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
The DEA is modifying the condition previously found in § 1312.22(a) that requires an application for a permit to export controlled substances to contain an affidavit that the packages of controlled substances for export are labeled in conformance with obligations of the United States under international treaties, conventions, or protocols “in effect on May 1, 1971.” The regulation is amended to instead require that such affidavit state that packages of controlled substances for export are labeled in conformance with obligations of the United States under international treaties, conventions, or protocols which are in effect at the time of export or reexport. The DEA does not believe that this change will have any current effect on the regulated community because it is not a new requirement. However, the DEA is taking this opportunity in revising its other import and export regulations to account for any changes in international treaties, conventions, or protocols which might be made in the future.
This final rule includes changes to harmonize, to the extent possible, return information requirements for import and export regulations throughout parts 1310, 1312, and 1313 for tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals. Although these provisions are similarly structured, the actual content of the return information varies across the regulations to account for international reporting requirements for machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals. Variations in return reporting requirements also vary among controlled substances, listed chemicals, and tableting and encapsulating machines to maximize the detection, investigation, and prevention of diversion. The DEA has reviewed the return information currently collected for imported and exported controlled substances and is proposing changes.
The DEA is amending §§ 1312.12, 1312.18, 1312.22, and 1312.27 to require
For imported and exported controlled substances there are four principal pieces of information that the DEA is requiring importers and exporters supply to the DEA in the returns: The date on which the controlled substances arrived/departed the registered location, the date on which a customs officer released the shipment, the actual quantity of controlled substances that arrived/left the registered location, and the actual quantity of controlled substances that a customs officer actually released. The current text in 21 CFR 1312.22 relating to controlled substances exported for subsequent reexportation requires the reporting of the “date shipped.” This requirement has been interpreted differently, sometimes as the date it left the facility and sometimes as the date of release by customs. Both dates are needed to adequately monitor the closed system of distribution for import and export transactions.
The DEA is revising §§ 1312.12, 1312.18, 1312.22, and 1312.27 to prohibit the importation/exportation of any shipment of controlled substances denied release by customs at the port of entry or port of export for any reason without resubmission of the permit application or declaration and issuance of a new permit or transaction identification number by the DEA. This change is needed to strengthen the DEA's ability to monitor and detect practices that may render an importer's or exporter's registration inconsistent with the public safety, especially in relation to the DEA's statutory obligation to take into consideration an applicant's compliance with applicable State and local laws and other relevant factors. 21 U.S.C. 823(a), 958(a).
The DEA is amending § 1312.22 to reflect that the Administration has discretion whether to issue a permit for reexport pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 953(f). The revision to § 1312.22(g)(8), like the current regulation, specifies that the exporter must provide “a brief summary of the facts that warrant the return” of an export that has been refused or is otherwise unacceptable or undeliverable. The DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application contains a field appropriate for this information within the DEA Form 357. Likewise, the “written request for reexport” of a controlled substance subject to declaration requirements, currently required in § 1312.27(b)(5)(iv), can be submitted in a field of the DEA Form 236 in the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. As in the current regulations, a refused or otherwise unacceptable or undeliverable controlled substance subject to the declaration requirements could be imported only after the DEA issues “affirmative authorization in writing.” A transaction identification number does not serve as such “affirmative authorization in writing.”
The DEA is amending §§ 1312.22, 1312.31, and 1312.32 to require a certified translation of authorizations issued by foreign competent national authorities that are not issued either entirely in English or bilingual with English. If the foreign authorization, or the certified copy of such, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the registrant must submit with their application or notice a certified translation of the permit or license. For the purposes of this requirement, certified translation will mean that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting to the accuracy of the translation. This change is meant to ensure that these foreign authorizations are complete and accurate, and that the information that they contain are accurately understood and applied to DEA import/export policies and procedures.
In response to commenters who stated that the 24 hour notification requirement related to import or export denials was unreasonable, the DEA has modified this requirement from 24 hours to 5 business days. The DEA believes that 5 business days strikes a balance between investigative needs without unduly burdening the regulated community.
As mentioned above, in response to comments the DEA amended §§ 1312.13(e) and 1312.23(e) in a manner that is different than proposed. The language added to this section will emphasize that a shipment of controlled substances is limited to a single transaction between a single importer or exporter and a single consignee on a single loading document, but also that the shipment must occur on a single conveyance as opposed to multiple conveyances. In addition, the language will coincide with current policy by prohibiting a load of goods from being divided into multiple parts to be placed onto more than one conveyance, even if the goods are on the same loading document. A single permit could not be used for this situation above.
The DEA is adding a new § 1313.03 that will consolidate the DEA Form information applicable to part 1313 in a corresponding change for the new § 1312.03. The new § 1313.03 will consist of a table referencing the DEA Form number, form name, information about where the form may be accessed, and where the completed form should be submitted.
The DEA is amending § 1313.12(b) to require that all declarations (DEA Form 486/486A) must be complete and accurate when submitted. Under § 1304.21, registrants must maintain complete and accurate records for controlled substances. That requirement applies to import and export declarations for controlled substances. This revision will impose the same requirement for import/export declarations as for listed chemicals.
Declarations (DEA Forms 486/486A) will not be deemed filed until the transaction identification number has been issued by the DEA. Upon receipt and review, the DEA will assign each declaration a transaction identification number (a unique identifier). Once the declaration is accepted and assigned a
The DEA wishes to clarify that import or export transactions may not proceed as soon as the transaction identification number has been issued, because the 15-calendar-day requirement since the filing of DEA Form 486/486A has not changed. Import or export transactions for which the 15-calendar-day notification has been waived, may proceed as soon as the transaction identification number has been issued, regardless of whether the 3 business days have elapsed since filing of DEA Form 486/486A.
The DEA is making changes in the regulatory text to reflect that 21 U.S.C. 830 has been changed to require official records of import declarations involving listed chemicals to be retained for two years.
As discussed above, return information requirements have been harmonized across parts 1310, 1312, and 1313, to the extent possible. The DEA is requiring that return information must be reported within 30 calendar days after release by a customs officer at the port of entry, export, or reexport. All return information for applications or other initial filings that are required to be made electronically through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application would likewise be required to be filed electronically through the same system. As with controlled substance return information, the DEA is requiring listed chemical importers and exporters to include both the date a customs officer releases an imported item or releases an item for export, and the date that the shipment arrived at the location of the importer or exporter, the actual quantities of product both when released by a customs officer and at the time of shipment from the exporter's location or arrival at the importer's location, and the actual port of entry or export. These revised reporting requirements will better allow the DEA to track the flow of listed chemicals, and detect and prevent diversion. For example, by tracking and comparing diversion of listed chemicals against the actual port of entry or exit, the DEA will be better able to detect potential weak spots in the import/export system and direct more resources to that region. The DEA also is revising the regulatory text to clarify that the references to “chemical” and “container” apply to the reporting of subsequent transfers.
The final destination for an import of a list I chemical must be the registered location of the registered importer. The import must be received at the registered address of the importer before being moved to another location of the importer or delivered to a customer. The receipt of imported goods is a principal activity of registered list I chemical importers. Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 958(h), a separate registration is required at each principal place of business where applicants import or export list I chemicals. Accordingly, the final destination of a shipment of an imported list I chemical is the registered location of the registrant. Drop shipments,
The DEA is amending § 1313.22(a) to add a cross-reference to § 1310.04(g) relating to listed chemicals that may be exported. This change will harmonize § 1313.22(a) with § 1313.21(a).
In response to commenters who stated that the 24 hour notification requirement related to import or export denials was unreasonable, the DEA has modified this requirement from 24 hours to 5 business days. The DEA believes that 5 business days strikes a balance between meeting investigative needs and not unduly burdening the regulated community.
Corresponding to recent internal DEA reorganization, in § 1314.110, in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2), the phrase “Import/Export Unit,” will be removed and in its place “Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division,” will be added.
Corresponding to recent internal DEA reorganization, the mailing addresses for §§ 1303.12(b) and (d), 1303.22, 1304.31(a), 1304.32(a), 1315.22, 1315.32(e) and (g), 1315.34(d), and 1315.36(b), regarding quota applications and reporting, will be moved from the DEA Drug & Chemical Evaluation Section to the UN Reporting & Quota Section under a new corresponding header.
The DEA is amending § 1316.47(a) to align with the DEA's current practice referenced in all recent
The DEA is amending § 1316.48 so that the filing of notices of appearance corresponds with the DEA's practice that requests for hearing shall be sent to the Hearing Clerk. Specifically, the DEA would remove “Attention: Federal Register Representative” from the template letter. Since the paragraph before the template letter states that persons requesting a hearing should see § 1321.01 for current mailing addresses, the DEA is not adding an “Attention” field in the template letter.
The DEA is amending § 1316.48 to provide that notices of appearance should be sent to the DEA Hearing Clerk instead of the DEA Administrator so that notices of appearance will be filed in a more efficient manner. The DEA is also amending § 1316.47 to provide that requests for hearing should be sent to the DEA Hearing Clerk instead of the DEA Federal Register Representative so that such requests will be filed in a more efficient manner. In the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01, DEA is making the corresponding change, and to add §§ 1301.43, 1303.34, 1308.44, and 1316.47(a), regarding requests for hearing or appearance and/or waivers, under the DEA Hearing Clerk heading. These items are being directed to the DEA Hearing Clerk to expedite the hearing process and will lead to fewer delays. The DEA is additionally revising this portion of the table to correct the attention line of the mailing address for the DEA Hearing
The DEA is adding the following citations to be directed to the DEA Federal Register Representative: § 1301.34(a)—Filing of written comments regarding application for importation of Schedule I and II substances; § 1303.11(c)—Filing of written comments regarding notice of an aggregate production quota; and § 1303.13(c)—Filing of written comments regarding adjustments of aggregate production quotas. These topics have been added so that comments corresponding to
The DEA is amending the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses found in § 1321.01 to account for changes in this rule as part of the implementation of ITDS. The DEA is also taking this opportunity to implement various technical amendments to the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses.
Pursuant to this final action all import and export applications and filings would be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The DEA will amend the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses to retain a reference to the notifications that, prior to this rule, could be made by mail, but will note with an asterisk that those filings must now be made electronically. The CFR sections listed under the DEA Import/Export Unit will be merged with those under the DEA Regulatory Section and placed under the header of “DEA Regulatory Section.”
The mailing addresses for §§ 1308.21(a), 1308.23(b), 1308.25(a), 1308.31(a), 1308.33(b), and 1310.13(b) will be transferred from the DEA Diversion Control Division to the DEA Drug & Chemical Evaluation Section (DRE), the subject matter experts on excluded and exempted products. This change will allow these matters to be processed in a more efficient manner. The reference to § 1307.22, “Disposal of Controlled substances by the Administration delivery application,” will be revised to “Delivery of surrendered and forfeited controlled substances” in conformity with the final rule, Disposal of Controlled Substances, 79 FR 53520, Sept. 9, 2014. Corresponding to recent internal DEA reorganization, the mailing addresses for §§ 1303.12(b) and (d), 1303.22, 1304.31(a), 1304.32(a), 1315.22, 1315.32(e) and (g), 1315.34(d), and 1315.36(b), regarding quota applications and reporting, will be moved from the DEA Drug & Chemical Evaluation Section to the UN Reporting & Quota Section under a new corresponding header.
This final rule was developed in accordance with the principles of Executive Orders 12866 and 13563. The DEA has determined that this final rule is a significant regulatory action, and accordingly this rule has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review.
By business activity, the DEA estimates this rule will result in a combined annual savings of $424,640 for controlled substances importers, exporters, researchers, and analytical labs; a combined annual cost of $5,011 for listed chemical importers and exporters and tableting and encapsulating machine importers and exporters; and no economic impact for brokers, domestic transactions in tableting and encapsulating machines, and mail order transactions of ephedrine (EPH), pseudoephedrine (PSE), phenylpropanolamine (PPA), or gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB). Therefore, the estimated net annual impact of this rule is a cost savings of $419,629 and the estimated combined annual economic effect is $429,650. The DEA does not anticipate that this rulemaking will have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect, in a material way, the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities. An economic analysis of the final rule can be found in the rulemaking docket at
The regulation meets the applicable standards set forth in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
This rulemaking does not have federalism implications warranting the application of Executive Order 13132. The rule does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This final rule is in accordance with the February 19, 2014, Executive Order 13659, “Streamlining the Export/Import Process for America's Businesses,” 79 FR 10657, Feb. 25, 2014. It does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Administrator, in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612) (RFA), has reviewed this rule and by approving it certifies that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Below is a summary of the threshold analyses conducted by the DEA to support the certification statement
In accordance with the RFA, the DEA evaluated the impact of this rule on small entities. This final rule affects all entities who import or export, or seek to import or export, controlled substances, listed chemicals, tableting and encapsulating machines, or who broker international transactions (from foreign country to another foreign country while in the United States). Additionally, this final rule affects all persons who would be required to report unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical under the control of the regulated person in accordance with proposed revised § 1310.05(b)(1), all persons who are required to report domestic regulated transactions in tableting or encapsulating machines in accordance with proposed revised 21 CFR 1310.05(b)(2), and all persons who are required to report mail order transactions of EPH, PSE, PPA, or GHB in accordance with 21 CFR 1310.03(c). The affected entities include DEA registrants and non-registrants. A DEA registration is required to import or export any controlled substance and most list I chemicals. A DEA registration is not required to import or export some list I chemicals or any list II chemical, to import or export tableting and encapsulating machines, or to broker international transactions. Also, a DEA registration is not required to conduct domestic transactions in tableting and encapsulating machines or mail order transactions of EPH, PSE, or PPA. (Registration is required for mail order transactions of GHB as GHB is a schedule I controlled substance.) The affected entities (DEA registrants and non-registrants) are grouped into “business activities,” based on types of activities performed by the entities. The business activities described in this analysis that are required to have DEA registrations are importers/exporters, researchers, analytical labs, and chemical importers/exporters that deal in the list I chemicals requiring registration (referred to as “DEA-registered listed chemical importers/exporters”). The business activities described in this analysis that are not required to have DEA registrations are chemical importers/exporters that deal in list I chemicals not requiring registration and list II chemicals (referred to as “non-registered listed chemical importers/exporters”), tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters, brokers of international transactions, tableting/encapsulating machine domestic suppliers, and entities selling EPH, PSE, and/or PPA by mail order.
The DEA estimates that 7,840 entities are affected by this rule, which consist of 331 controlled substances importers/exporters; 5,884 researchers; 1,200 analytical labs; 231 DEA-registered listed chemical importers/exporters; 76 non-registered listed chemical importers/exporter; 56 tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters; 12 brokers of international transactions; 46 tableting/encapsulating machine domestic suppliers; and 4 entities selling EPH, PSE, PPA, and/or GHB by mail order. Regulated persons potentially reporting unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical would be included in one of the business activities above.
The DEA estimates 7,321 (93.4%) of total 7,840 affected entities are small entities. Specifically, the DEA examined the impact of the proposed changes regarding (1) mandatory electronic permit applications and filings, and (2) 180-calendar-day expiration for all declarations for the 7,321 small entities affected by the final rule, which consist of 310 controlled substances importers/exporters; 5,474 researchers; 1,134 analytical labs; 218 DEA-registered listed chemical importers/exporters; 72 non-registered listed chemical importers/exporters; 54 tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters; 11 brokers of international transactions; 44 tableting/encapsulating machine domestic suppliers; and 4 entities selling EPH, PSE, PPA, and/or GHB by mail order.
The DEA is mandating the electronic submission of all permit applications and other required filings and reports associated with the importation or exportation of tableting and encapsulating machines, controlled substances, and listed chemicals. Additionally, the DEA is mandating the electronic submission of all reports associated with the unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical, domestic regulated transactions in tableting or encapsulating machines, and mail order transactions of EPH, PSE, PPA, and GHB. The DEA would cease to accept paper filing of controlled substances import/export permit applications (other than transshipments), controlled substances import/export declarations, listed chemicals import/export declarations, and certain filings and reports specified as discussed previously in this document. Currently, some electronic forms associated with these activities are available online and are in use. Usage rates vary for each form and also vary by business activities. However, as virtually all paper submissions of permit applications and declarations are currently delivered via express common carrier with pre-paid return envelope or account information, savings are anticipated because of this change.
The DEA estimates that each conversion to electronic filing from paper controlled substances import/export permit application and controlled substances import/export declaration will result in an estimated cost savings of $58.75 and $9.75, respectively. Based on DEA's registration data, the DEA assumes all affected entities have information systems capable of completing and submitting online forms and downloading, printing, and transmitting electronic documents at nominal additional cost. Among the affected establishments that hold DEA registrations, 92% of previous applications for registration or renewal of registration were made online. Furthermore, even though the email address is an optional data field, 99% of the registrations have an email address on record. Based on these facts and the high rate of internet penetration in the general U.S. population,
There are no anticipated cost savings for the conversion to electronic filing from paper for the listed chemicals import/export declarations and tableting
The DEA estimates there will be no economic impact associated with the electronic submission of all reports associated with the unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical, domestic regulated transactions in tableting or encapsulating machines, and mail order transactions of EPH, PSE, PPA, and GHB. While the written reports would be required to be made online, the labor cost of making the report is expected to be the same, whether on paper or online.
Based on the varying number of annual occurrences estimated for each of the business activities, the DEA estimates importers/exporters as a group would save $383,857, researchers as a group would save $4,316, and analytical labs as a group would save $37,567. The DEA estimates tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters as a group would have an additional cost of $3,978, for a total net savings of $421,761 for the electronic submissions requirement. (Figures are rounded). Based on the number of affected entities and the cost savings to the business activities as a group, the DEA estimated the average annual cost savings for each affected entity. The DEA estimates importers/exporters, researchers, and analytical labs will save on average $1,160, $1, and $31 per year, respectively, and tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters would have a cost of $71 per year.
In addition, the DEA is specifying that all controlled substance and listed chemical declarations expire in 180 calendar days, consistent with the controlled substance import/export permits. If release by a customs officer will occur more than 180 calendar days after the declaration is deemed filed, the declarant must submit a new declaration for the transaction. The 180-calendar-day expiration provision for all controlled substance and listed chemical declarations is estimated to cause a small increase in the number of re-submissions of the declarations. The DEA estimates approximately 1% of all declarations would require re-submissions to replace the expiring declaration, requiring a total of an additional 85 controlled substance declarations and 132 listed chemical declarations per year. The estimated cost of each re-submission of controlled substance declarations and listed chemical declarations, based on estimated labor rates and time to complete the forms, is $13.02 and $7.81, respectively. There is no cost to tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters and brokers of international transactions, as this provision does not apply to these business activities. Based on the varying number of annual re-submissions estimated for each of the business activities, the DEA estimates this provision, if promulgated, would cost importers/exporters as a group $1,023, researchers as a group $24, analytical labs as a group $54, chemical importers/exporters as a group $689, and non-registered chemical importers/exporters as a group $344, for a total of $2,132. Based on the number of affected entities and the cost to the business activities as a group, the DEA estimated the average annual cost for each affected entity. The DEA estimates importers/exporters, researchers, analytical labs, chemical importers/exporters, and non-registered chemical importers/exporters will have an average cost impact of $3; $0; $0; $3; and $5 per year, respectively. (Figures are rounded).
In summary, the DEA combined the impact of the two provisions to estimate the net impact to the affected small entities. The DEA estimates an average annual net savings of $1,157 for the 310 controlled substance importers/exporters, an average annual net savings of $1 for the 5,474 researchers, an average annual net savings of $31 for the 1,134 analytical labs, an average annual net cost of $3 for the 218 DEA-registered listed chemical importers/exporters, an average annual net cost of $5 for the 72 non-registered listed chemicals importers/exporters, an annual net cost of $71 for the 54 tableting/encapsulating machine importers/exporters, no economic impact for the 11 brokers of international transactions, no economic impact for the 44 tableting/encapsulating machine domestic suppliers, and no economic impact for 4 entities selling EPH, PSE, PPA, and GHB by mail order.
The DEA evaluated the net economic impact by size category for each of the business activities. The DEA estimates that the average annual cost savings of $1,157 for controlled substance importers/exporters is economically significant, cost savings greater than 1% of annual revenue, for 32 of 310 small importer/exporter entities. None of the remaining 7,011 small entities of the remaining business activities are estimated to be significantly impacted by this final rule. This rule will have a significant economic impact, in form of cost savings, on 32 (0.4%) of the 7,321 affected small entities. It is the DEA's assessment that 0.4% of small entities does not constitute a substantial number. The DEA's evaluation of economic impact by size category indicates that the final rule will not have a significant effect on a substantial number of these small entities.
The estimated annual impact of this rule is $429,650; thus, the DEA has determined in accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), 2 U.S.C. 1501
Pursuant to section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
The DEA is revising existing information collections 1117-0004, 1117-0009 and 1117-0013 by
Additionally, the DEA is also revising existing information collection 1117-0024 by establishing two new forms for the reporting of transactions with listed chemicals, tableting machines, and encapsulating machines. Specifically, the DEA is creating new DEA Form 452, “Reports for Regulated Machines.” The DEA Form 452 will be used by regulated persons to report both domestic regulated transactions as well as import and export regulated transactions of tableting and encapsulating machines. The DEA is also establishing mandatory filing of return information for the importing and exporting of tableting and encapsulating machines that would be incorporated into the DEA Form 452. Additionally, the DEA is revising existing information collection 1117-0024 by establishing a new form for the reporting of unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical. Regulated persons would report this information on new DEA Form 107, “Reports of Loss or Disappearance of Listed Chemicals.”
The DEA is revising existing information collection 1117-0033 by establishing a new form for reporting mail-order transactions involving specified listed chemicals. Specifically, the DEA is creating new DEA Form 453, “Report of Mail Order Transactions.” The DEA Form 453 will be used by regulated persons required to file monthly reports of transactions with nonregulated persons with EPH, PSE, PPA, or GHB (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier as well as regulated persons required to file monthly reports of export transactions with EPH, PSE, PPA, or GHB (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is mandating electronic filing of return information for any person who desires to export or reexport controlled substances listed in schedule I or II, any narcotic substance listed in schedules III or IV, or any non-narcotic substance in schedule II which the Administrator has specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30, or any non-narcotic substance in schedule IV or V which is also listed in schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971.
The DEA is amending § 1312.22 to provide clear instructions on the process of return information for controlled substances subject to export permit requirements, which will be submitted electronically as part of the DEA Form 161. Specifically, in § 1312.22 the DEA is requiring that within 30 calendar days after a controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export from the United States in accordance with the permitting process, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) that such export has occurred and the specifics of the transaction.
As part of the implementation of ITDS, the DEA is establishing a new DEA Form 161R-EEA, discussed in greater detail below, to be used by registrants or regulated persons who export controlled substances for reexport among members of the European Economic Area. The existing DEA Form 161R would remain in use for exports of controlled substances that will be reexported to countries that are not members of the European Economic Area. The DEA is amending § 1312.22 to provide clear instructions on the process of return information for controlled substances subject to reexport permit requirements that will be reexported outside of the European Economic Area, which will be submitted electronically as part of the DEA Form 161R. Consistent with current requirements, the amended § 1312.22 requires that within 30 calendar days after a controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) that such export has occurred and the specifics of the transaction. Also consistent with current requirements, the amended text requires that the exporter must additionally electronically file a similar report of return information within 30 calendar days of the controlled substances being exported from the first country to the second country. As noted, the DEA Form 161R, and associated return information, are required to be accessed, completed, and submitted to the DEA through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
This final rule contains amendments that implement section 4, Re-exportation Among Members of the European Economic Area, of the Improving Regulatory Transparency for New Medical Therapies Act, Public Law 114-89, which was signed into law on November 25, 2015. Section 4 amended section 1003 of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 953) by making changes to paragraph (f) and adding paragraph (g) that allows for reexportation of controlled substances among members of the European Economic Area. While other reexports must be completed no later than 180 days after initial export from the United States, controlled substances may continue to be reexported among members of the European Economic Area indefinitely, so long as the statutory conditions are met. As part of the implementation, the DEA is establishing a new DEA Form 161R-EEA, “Application for Permit to Export Controlled Substances for Subsequent Reexport Among Members of the European Economic Area,” to be used by registrants or regulated persons who export controlled substances for reexport among members of the European Economic Area. Specifically, in § 1312.22, the DEA is requiring that within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export the exporter must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application of the particulars of the transaction. The exporter must additionally file similar return information within 30 days of the controlled substances being exported from the first country to the second country and for each subsequent reexport among members of the European Economic Area. The DEA considered but ultimately did not choose to propose that such applications would be made electronically on the DEA Form 161R based on the fact that there are different application requirements for the two types of transactions required by the CSA. Most important of these
The DEA estimates that there will be 125 respondents to this information collection. The DEA estimates that the frequency of response will vary as DEA Form 161 is required to be completed by each respondent per each occurrence. The DEA estimates there will be a total of 5,386 responses. The DEA estimates, based on data from an already approved collection containing return information, that it will take 5 minutes (online) to provide return information electronically and that the total annual burden will be 449 hours. The DEA estimates that the frequency of response will vary as DEA Form 161R and DEA Form 161R-EEA are required to be completed by each respondent per each occurrence. The DEA estimates there will be a combined total of 789 responses for DEA Form 161R and DEA Form 161R-EEA. Since the distinction between DEA Form 161R and DEA Form 161R-EEA does not currently exist, the DEA does not have an estimated number of responses for the two forms separately. Actual responses will be used for future information collection requests. Since return information is currently required for reexportations, the final rule does not create a new information collection burden for reexportations.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is mandating electronic filing of return information for any person who desires to import non-narcotic substances in schedules III, IV, and V or to export non-narcotic substances in schedules III and IV and any other substance in schedule V.
The DEA is amending to § 1312.18(e) to provide clear instructions on the process of return information for controlled substances imported under declaration procedures, which will be submitted electronically as part of the DEA Form 236 (Import declaration). The amended regulation would state that within 30 calendar days after actual receipt of a controlled substance at the importer's registered location, or within 10 calendar days after the receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer, whichever is sooner, the importer must report to the Administration utilizing the secure network application available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site certifying that such import occurred and the details of the transaction.
The DEA is amending to § 1312.27(d) in the final rule to provide clear instructions on the process of return information for controlled substances exported and reexported under declaration procedures, which will be submitted electronically as part of the DEA Form 236 (Export declaration). The amended regulation would state that within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is released by a customs officer at the port of export or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must report to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) certifying that such export has occurred and the details of the transaction. For reexports under declaration procedures, the amended regulation states that within 30 calendar days after the controlled substance is exported from the first country to the second country, or within 10 calendar days after the receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must report to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) certifying that such export from the first country has occurred and the details of the transaction.
The DEA estimates that there will be 341 respondents to this information collection. The DEA estimates that the frequency of response will vary as DEA Form 236 is required to be completed by each respondent per each occurrence. The DEA estimates there will be a total of 6,026 responses. The DEA estimates, based on data from an already approved collection containing return information, that it will take 5 minutes (online) to provide return information electronically and that the total annual burden will be 502 hours.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is mandating electronic filing of return information for any person who desires to import any controlled substance listed in schedule I or II or any narcotic controlled substance listed in schedule III, IV, or V or any non-narcotic controlled substance in schedule III which the Administrator has specifically designed by regulation in 21 CFR 1312.30 or any non-narcotic controlled substance in schedule IV or V which is also listed in schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances.
The DEA is adding § 1312.12(d) to provide clear instructions on the process of return information for controlled substances imported under permit procedures, which will be submitted electronically as part of the DEA Form 357. Specifically, in § 1312.12(d), the DEA is requiring that within 30 calendar days of actual receipt of a controlled substance at the importer's registered location, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration, whichever is sooner, the importer must report to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) that such import occurred and the details of the transaction.
The DEA estimates that there will be 148 respondents to this information collection. The DEA estimates that the frequency of response will vary as DEA Form 357 is required to be completed by each respondent per each occurrence. The DEA estimates there will be a total of 1,024 responses. The DEA estimates, based on data from an already approved collection containing return information, that it will take 5 minutes (online) to provide return information electronically and that the total annual burden will be 85 hours.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is establishing a new DEA Form 452 to be used by regulated persons involved in regulated transactions in tableting or encapsulating machines. The DEA would standardize the current report required in the previous § 1310.05(a)(4) for domestic regulated transactions in a tableting or encapsulating machine as well as the report required in the previous § 1310.05(c) for import and export of tableting and encapsulating machines. DEA Form 452 would be required to be accessed, completed, and submitted to the DEA through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Moreover, under both the previous and revised regulation, each regulated person must orally report any domestic regulated transaction in a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located. The DEA now clarifies that the report must be made when the order is placed with the seller. The regulated person must subsequently file a written report of the domestic regulated transaction (on DEA Form 452) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after the order has been shipped by the seller. A report (on DEA Form 452) may contain multiple line entries for more than one transaction.
Additionally, the DEA is mandating filing of return information for the import and export of tableting and encapsulating machines which will be electronically submitted as part of the DEA Form 452. The amended regulation states that within 30 calendar days of the shipment being released by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export, or within 10 calendar days after the receipt of a written request by the Administration to the importer/exporter, whichever is sooner, the importer/exporter must report to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (available on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site) certifying that such import/export occurred and the details of the transaction. Previously, § 1310.05(c) instructed that regulated persons needed to provide notification of the import or export of a tableting machine or encapsulating machine on or before the date of exportation. However, the DEA has amended § 1310.05(c) in order for DEA Form 452 to be submitted to the DEA at least 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry or port of export in order to allow time for the DEA to review the information and transmit it into the ITDS prior to the actual import or export.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is establishing a new DEA Form 107 to be used by regulated persons involved in reporting unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical. The DEA would standardize the current report required to be filed in the previous § 1310.05(a)(3). Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical under the control of the regulated person. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. The regulated person must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 107 with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after becoming aware of the circumstances requiring the report. Unusual or excessive losses or disappearances must be reported whether or not the listed chemical is subsequently recovered or the responsible parties are identified and action taken against them. DEA Form 107 would be required to be accessed, completed, and submitted to the DEA through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. While the report would be electronic, the filing requirements are essentially unchanged. The DEA estimates that the reporting burden would continue to be 20 minutes for each report.
Specifically, based on publicly available information and historical data, the DEA estimates that there will be 130 respondents to this information collection, 60 for domestic transactions and 70 for imports or exports. The DEA estimates that the frequency of response will vary as DEA Form 452 is required to be completed by each respondent per each occurrence. As the DEA does not have a strong basis to estimate the number of responses for domestic transactions, the DEA makes an initial estimate (to be refined later) of 52 responses per week for each of 60 respondents, or a total of 3,120 domestic transaction related responses. Based on historical data, the DEA estimates there will be 917 import or export related responses for a grand total of 4,037 responses for domestic transactions, imports, and exports. Because of the information required on the DEA Form 452, the DEA estimates that this form will take 20 minutes to complete, including the oral report for domestic transactions and return information for imports and exports, and that the total annual burden will be 1,346 hours.
As part of the implementation of the ITDS, the DEA is establishing a new DEA Form 453, “Report of Mail Order Transactions,” to be used by regulated persons required to file monthly reports of transactions with nonregulated persons with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier as well as regulated persons required to file monthly reports of export transactions with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance) and use or attempt to use the U.S. Postal Service or a private or commercial carrier. The DEA would require reports under the previous §§ 1310.03(c) and 1310.06(i) to be submitted on a new DEA Form 453 which would be required to be accessed and submitted to the DEA through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
Additionally, the form would require the following information: The mail order transaction supplier name and registration number; the purchaser's name and address; the name and address shipped to (if different from purchaser's name and address); the name of the chemical contained in the scheduled listed chemical product and total quantity shipped (
Specifically, based on historical data, the DEA estimates that there will be 7 respondents to this information collection. The respondents will provide 12 responses per year. The DEA estimates there will be a total of 84 responses per year. The DEA estimates that this form will take 15 minutes to complete and that the total annual burden will be 21 hours.
Chemicals, Drug traffic control.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Security measures.
Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Labeling, Packaging and containers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control.
Drug traffic control, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports.
Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug traffic control, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Drug traffic control, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Chemicals, Drug traffic control, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Authority delegations (Government agencies), Drug traffic control, Research, Seizures and forfeitures.
Administrative practice and procedure.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the DEA amends 21 CFR parts 1300, 1301, 1302, 1303, 1304, 1308, 1309, 1310, 1312, 1313, 1314, 1315, 1316, and 1321 as follows:
21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 822, 829, 871(b), 951, 958(f).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
The additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
21 U.S.C. 821, 822, 823, 824, 831, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a, 951, 952, 953, 956, 957, 958, 965.
(b) * * *
(3) An office used by a practitioner (who is registered at another location in the same State in which he or she practices) where controlled substances are prescribed but neither administered nor otherwise dispensed as a regular part of the professional practice of the practitioner at such office, and where no supplies of controlled substances are maintained.
(a) * * *
(1) Any officer or employee of the Administration, any customs officer, any officer or employee of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and any other Federal or Insular officer who is lawfully engaged in the enforcement of any Federal law relating to controlled substances, drugs, or customs, and is duly authorized to possess or to import or export controlled substances in the course of his/her official duties; and
(b) The individual makes a declaration to an appropriate customs officer stating:
(c) * * *
(2) Employment of security procedures to guard against in-transit losses.
(c) The registrant must notify the Field Division Office of the Administration in his or her area, in writing, of any theft or significant loss of any controlled substances within one business day of discovery of the theft or loss. Unless the theft or loss occurs during an import or export transaction, the supplier is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss. In an import transaction, once a shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of entry, the importer is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss. In an export transaction, the exporter is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of controlled substances by their agent or the common or contract carrier selected pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section within one business day of discovery of such theft or loss, until the shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of export. The registrant must also complete, and submit to the Field Division Office in his or her area, DEA Form 106 regarding the theft or loss. Thefts and significant losses must be reported whether or not the controlled substances are subsequently recovered or the responsible parties are identified and action taken against them. When determining whether a loss is significant, a registrant should consider, among others, the following factors:
21 U.S.C. 821, 825, 871(b), 958(e).
(a) The symbol requirements of §§ 1302.03 through 1302.05 apply to every commercial container containing, and to all labeling of, controlled substances imported into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or imported into the United States from any place outside thereof.
(b) The symbol requirements of §§ 1302.03 through 1302.05 do not apply to any commercial containers containing, or any labeling of, a controlled substance intended for export.
(c) The sealing requirements of § 1302.06 apply to every bottle, multiple dose vial, or other commercial container of any controlled substance listed in schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in schedule III or IV imported into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or imported into the United States from any place outside thereof. The sealing requirements of § 1302.06 apply to every bottle, multiple dose vial, or other commercial container of any controlled substance listed in schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in schedule III or IV, exported or intended for export from the United States. These sealing and labeling requirements are in addition to any sealing requirements required under applicable customs laws.
21 U.S.C. 821, 826, 871(b).
21 U.S.C. 821, 827, 831, 871(b), 958 (e)-(g), and 965, unless otherwise noted.
Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or § 1300.01, § 1300.03, § 1300.04, or § 1300.05 of this chapter.
(d) In recording dates of receipt, distribution, other transfers, or destruction, the date on which the controlled substances are actually received, distributed, otherwise transferred, or destroyed will be used as the date of receipt, distribution, transfer, or destruction (
(a)
(f)
21 U.S.C. 811, 812, 871(b), 956(b), unless otherwise noted.
Schedules of controlled substances established by section 202 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 812) and nonnarcotic substances, chemical preparations, veterinary anabolic steroid implant products, prescription products, anabolic steroid products, and cannabis plant material and products made therefrom that contain tetrahydrocannabinols excluded pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), as they are changed, updated, and republished from time to time, are set forth in this part.
(a) Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811(h) and without regard to the requirements of 21 U.S.C. 811(b) relating to the scientific and medical evaluation of the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Drug Enforcement Administration may place a substance into Schedule I on a temporary basis, if it determines that such action is necessary to avoid an imminent hazard to the public safety. An order issued under this section may not be effective before the expiration of 30 calendar days from:
(1) The date of publication by the Administration of a notice in the
(2) The date the Administration has transmitted notification to the Secretary of Health and Human Services of the Administration's intention to issue such order.
(b) An order issued under this section will be vacated upon the conclusion of a subsequent rulemaking proceeding initiated under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to such substance or at the end of two years from the effective date of the order scheduling the substance, except that during the pendency of proceedings under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to the substance, the Administration may extend the temporary scheduling for up to one year.
21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 822, 823, 824, 830, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a, 952, 953, 957, 958.
(a) * * *
(1) Any officer or employee of the Administration, any customs officer, any officer or employee of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and any Federal or Insular officer who is lawfully engaged in the enforcement of any federal law relating to listed chemicals, controlled substances, drugs, or customs, and is duly authorized to possess and distribute List I chemicals in the course of his/her official duties; and
(d) Each application for registration must include the Administration Chemical Code Number, as set forth in § 1310.02 of this chapter, for each List I chemical to be manufactured, distributed, imported, or exported.
(b) * * *
(5) The extent of unsupervised public access to the facility;
(7) The procedures for handling business guests, visitors, maintenance personnel, and nonemployee service personnel in areas where List I chemicals are processed or stored; and
21 U.S.C. 802, 827(h), 830, 871(b), 890.
The revision reads as follows:
(c)(1) Each regulated person who engages in a transaction with a nonregulated person which:
(i) Involves ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance); and
(ii) Uses or attempts to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier must, on a monthly basis, report to the Administration each such transaction conducted during the previous month as specified in §§ 1310.05(e) and 1310.06(k) on DEA Form 453 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
(2) Each regulated person who engages in an export transaction which:
(i) Involves ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or gamma hydroxybutyric acid (including drug products containing these chemicals or controlled substance); and
(ii) Uses or attempts to use the U.S. Postal Service or any private or commercial carrier must, on a monthly basis, report each such transaction conducted during the previous month as specified in §§ 1310.05(e) and 1310.06(k) on DEA Form 453 through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
(a)(1) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any regulated transaction involving an extraordinary quantity of a listed chemical, an uncommon method of payment or delivery, or any other circumstance that the regulated person believes may indicate that the listed chemical will be used in violation of this part. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved and as much in advance of the conclusion of the transaction as possible. The regulated person must file a written report of the transaction(s) with the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office as set forth in § 1310.06 within 15 calendar days after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances of the event.
(2) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any proposed regulated transaction with a person whose description or other identifying characteristic the Administration has previously furnished to the regulated person. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. A transaction may not be completed with a person whose description or identifying characteristic has previously been furnished to the regulated person by the Administration unless the transaction is approved by the Administration.
(b)(1) Each regulated person must report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located any unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical under the control of the regulated person. The regulated person will orally report to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. Unless the loss or disappearance occurs during an import or export transaction, the supplier is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier. In an import transaction, once a shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of entry, the importer is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier. In an export transaction, the exporter is responsible for reporting all in-transit losses of any listed chemical by their agent or the common or contract carrier until the shipment has been released by the customs officer at the port of export. The regulated person must also file a complete and accurate DEA Form 107, in accordance with § 1310.06(d), with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after becoming aware of the circumstances requiring the report. Unusual or excessive losses or disappearances must be reported whether or not the listed chemical is subsequently recovered or the responsible parties are identified and action taken against them. When determining whether a loss or disappearance of a listed chemical was unusual or excessive, the regulated persons should consider, among others, the following factors:
(i) The actual quantity of a listed chemical;
(ii) The specific listed chemical involved;
(iii) Whether the loss or disappearance of the listed chemical can be associated with access to those listed chemicals by specific individuals, or whether the loss or disappearance can be attributed to unique activities that may take place involving the listed chemical; and
(iv) A pattern of losses or disappearances over a specific time period, whether the losses or disappearances appear to be random, and the result of efforts taken to resolve the losses.
(v) If known, the regulated person should also consider whether the specific listed chemical was a likely candidate for diversion as well as local trends and other indicators of the diversion potential of the listed chemical.
(2) Each regulated person must orally report any domestic regulated transaction in a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine to the Special Agent in Charge of the DEA Divisional Office for the area in which the regulated person making the report is located when the order is placed with the seller. The regulated person also must file a report of the transaction (on DEA Form 452) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application within 15 calendar days after the order has been shipped by the seller. A report (DEA Form 452) may list more than one machine for a single transaction. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until a
(c)
(2)
(d) Each regulated bulk manufacturer of a listed chemical must submit manufacturing, inventory and use data on an annual basis as set forth in § 1310.06(j). This data must be submitted annually to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, on or before the 15th day of March of the year immediately following the calendar year for which submitted. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A business entity which manufactures a listed chemical may elect to report separately by individual location or report as an aggregate amount for the entire business entity provided that they inform the DEA of which method they will use. This reporting requirement does not apply to drugs or other products that are exempted under paragraph (1)(iv) or (v) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter except as set forth in § 1310.06(i)(5). Bulk manufacturers that produce a listed chemical solely for internal consumption are not required to report for that listed chemical. For purposes of these reporting requirements, internal consumption consists of any quantity of a listed chemical otherwise not available for further resale or distribution. Internal consumption includes (but is not limited to) quantities used for quality control testing, quantities consumed in-house, or production losses. Internal consumption does not include the quantities of a listed chemical consumed in the production of exempted products. If an existing standard industry report contains the information required in § 1310.06(j) and such information is separate or readily retrievable from the report, that report may be submitted in satisfaction of this requirement. Each report must be submitted to the DEA under company letterhead and signed by an appropriate, responsible official. For purposes of this paragraph (d) only, the term regulated bulk manufacturer of a listed chemical means a person who manufactures a listed chemical by means of chemical synthesis or by extraction from other substances. The term bulk manufacturer does not include persons whose sole activity consists of the repackaging or relabeling of listed chemical products or the manufacture of drug dosage forms of products which contain a listed chemical.
(e) Each regulated person required to report pursuant to § 1310.03(c) must file a report containing the transaction identification number for each such transaction (if the regulated person is required to obtain a transaction identification number under part 1313 of this chapter) and information set forth in § 1310.06(k), on or before the 15th day of each month following the month in which the distributions took place.
(a) Each record required by § 1310.03(a) must include the following:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The date of the regulated transaction.
(3) The quantity, chemical name, and, if applicable, National Drug Code (NDC) number. If NDC number is not applicable, the form of packaging of the listed chemical or a description of the tableting machine or encapsulating machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric).
(4) The method of transfer (company truck, picked up by customer, etc.).
(5) The type of identification used by the purchaser and any unique number on that identification.
(b) For purposes of this section, normal business records will be considered adequate if they contain the information listed in paragraph (a) of this section and are readily retrievable from other business records of the regulated person. For prescription drug products, prescription and hospital records kept in the normal course of medical treatment will be considered adequate for satisfying the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to dispensing to patients, and records required to be maintained pursuant to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration regulations relating to the distribution of prescription drugs, as set forth in 21 CFR part 205, will be considered adequate for satisfying the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to distributions.
(c)(1) Each report required by § 1310.05(a) must include the information as specified by paragraph (a) of this section, the basis for making the report, and, where obtainable, the registration number of the other party, if such party is registered. A report of an uncommon method of payment or delivery submitted in accordance with § 1310.05(a)(1) must also include a reason why the method of payment or delivery was uncommon.
(2) A suggested format for the reports in § 1310.05(a)(1) is provided below:
Supplier:
Purchaser:
Shipping Address (if different than purchaser Address):
Description of Listed Chemical:
Other:
(d) Each report of an unusual or excessive loss or disappearance of a listed chemical required by § 1310.05(b)(1) (on DEA Form 107), must include the following information:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The date (or estimated date) on which unusual or excessive loss or disappearance occurred, and the actual date on which the unusual or excessive loss or disappearance was discovered by the regulated person.
(3) The quantity, chemical name, and National Drug Code (NDC) number, if applicable or if not the form of packaging of the listed chemical.
(4) The type of business conducted by the regulated person, (
(e)(1) Each report of an importation of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(1) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
(i) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(ii) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received;
(iii) The anticipated date of arrival at the port of entry, and the anticipated port of entry;
(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(v) The intended medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate use of the machine; and
(vi) Any proposed changes in identifying information of the imported machines (
(2) Each report of an exportation of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(1) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
(i) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(ii) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received;
(iii) The anticipated date of arrival at the port of export, the foreign port and country of entry; and
(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(f) Each report of a domestic regulated transaction in a tableting machine or encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(b)(2) (on DEA Form 452) must include the following information:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) A description of each machine (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric) and the number of machines being received; and
(3) Any changes made by the regulated person in identifying information of the machines (
(g) Each report of a denied release by a customs officer at the port of entry of a tableting machine or an encapsulating machine required by § 1310.05(c)(2) must include the following information: the quantity of machines denied release; a concise description of the machines denied release; the date on which release was denied; the port where the denial of release was issued from; and the basis for the denial.
(h)
(2) Within 30 calendar days after the tableting or encapsulating machine is released by a customs officer at the port of export, or within 10 calendar days after receipt of a written request by the Administration to the exporter, whichever is sooner, the exporter must file a report with the Administration (on DEA Form 452) through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application specifying the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date on which the machine(s) was (were) released by a customs officer at the port of export; the actual quantity of machines released; a description of each tableting or encapsulating machine released (including make, model, serial number, if any, and whether the machine is manual or electric); and any other information as the Administration may from time to time specify.
(i) Declared exports of machines which are refused, rejected, or otherwise deemed undeliverable may be returned to the U.S. exporter of record. A brief written report outlining the circumstances must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, following the return at the earliest practicable opportunity after the regulated person becomes aware of the circumstances involved. This provision does not apply to shipments that have cleared foreign customs, been delivered, and accepted by the foreign consignee. Returns to third parties in the United States will be regarded as imports.
(j) Each annual report required by § 1310.05(d) must provide the following information for each listed chemical manufactured:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical that the company manufactured during the preceding calendar year.
(3) The year-end inventory of each listed chemical as of the close of business on the 31st day of December of each year. (For each listed chemical, if the prior period's ending inventory has not previously been reported to DEA, this report should also detail the beginning inventory for the period.) For purposes of this requirement, inventory shall reflect the quantity of listed chemicals, whether in bulk or non-exempt product form, held in storage for later distribution. Inventory does not include waste material for destruction, material stored as an in-process intermediate or other in-process material.
(4) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical used for internal consumption during the preceding calendar year, unless the chemical is produced solely for internal consumption.
(5) The aggregate quantity of each listed chemical manufactured which becomes a component of a product exempted from paragraph (1)(iv) or (v) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter during the preceding calendar year.
(6) Data shall identify the specific isomer, salt or ester when applicable but quantitative data shall be reported as anhydrous base or acid in kilogram units of measure.
(k) Each monthly report required by §§ 1310.03(c) and 1310.05(e) (on DEA Form 453) must provide the following information for each transaction:
(1) Supplier name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) Purchaser's name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(3) Name/business name, address/business address shipped to (if different from purchaser's name/address).
(4) Chemical name, National Drug Code (NDC) number, if applicable, and total amount shipped.
(5) Date of shipment.
(6) Product name (if drug product).
(7) Dosage form (if drug product) (
(8) Dosage strength (if drug product) (
(9) Number of dosage units (if drug product) (
(10) Package type (if drug product) (
(11) Number of packages (if drug product) (
(12) Lot number (if drug product).
(l) Information provided in reports required by § 1310.05(e) which is exempt from disclosure under section 552(a) of title 5, by reason of section 552(b)(6) of title 5, will be provided the same protections from disclosure as are provided in section 310(c) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 830(c)) for confidential business information.
21 U.S.C. 952, 953, 954, 957, 958.
(a) No person shall import, or cause to be imported, into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof, any controlled substances listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, or any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III which the Administrator has specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30 or any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule IV or V which is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and the Administration has issued him or her a permit to do so in accordance with § 1312.13.
(b) No person shall import, or cause to be imported, into the customs territory of the United States from any place outside thereof (but within the United States), or into the United States from any place outside thereof, any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, excluding those described in paragraph (a) of this section, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and has filed an import declaration to do so in accordance with § 1312.18.
(c) A separate permit or declaration is required for each shipment of a controlled substance to be imported.
(a) Registered importers, other registrants authorized to import as a coincident activity of their registrations, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to import a controlled substance in schedule I or II; any narcotic drug in schedule III, IV, or V; any non-narcotic drug in schedule III that has been specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30; or any non-narcotic substance listed in schedule IV or V that is also listed in schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, must submit an application for a permit to import controlled substances on DEA Form 357. All applications and supporting materials must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The application must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the importer's registered address to which the controlled substances will be imported.
(b) The applicant must include on the DEA Form 357 the registration number of the importer and a detailed description of each controlled substance to be imported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, the Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof. The application must also include the following:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (
(2) The foreign port and country of initial exportation (
(3) The port of entry into the United States;
(4) The latest date said shipment will leave said foreign port or country;
(5) The stock on hand of the controlled substance desired to be imported;
(6) The name of the importing carrier or vessel (if known), or if unknown it should be stated whether the shipment will be made by express, freight, or otherwise, imports of controlled substances in Schedules I or II and narcotic drugs in Schedules III, IV, or V by mail being prohibited);
(7) The total tentative allotment to the importer of such controlled substance for the current calendar year; and
(8) The total number of kilograms of said allotment for which permits have previously been issued and the total quantity of controlled substance actually imported during the current year to date.
(c) If desired, alternative foreign ports of exportation within the same country may be indicated upon the application (
(d)
(e)
(e) If an importation is approved, the Administrator will issue an import permit bearing his or her signature or that of his or her delegate. Each permit will be assigned a unique permit number. A permit must not be altered or changed by any person after being signed. Any change or alteration upon the face of any permit after it has been signed renders it void and of no effect. Permits are not transferable. The Administrator or his/her delegate will date and certify on each permit that the importer named therein is thereby permitted as a registrant under the Act, to import, through the port of entry named, one shipment of not to exceed the specified quantity of the named controlled substances, shipment to be made before a specified date. Only one shipment may be made on a single import permit. A single import permit shall authorize a quantity of goods to be imported/exported at one place, at one time, for delivery to one consignee, on a single conveyance, at one place, on one bill of lading, air waybill, or commercial loading document; a single permit shall not authorize a quantity of goods to be imported/exported if the goods are divided onto two or more conveyances. The permit must state that the Administration is satisfied that the consignment proposed to be imported is required for legitimate purposes.
The Administration shall transmit the import permit to the competent national authority of the exporting country and shall make an official record of the import permit available to the importer through secure electronic means. The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the import permit and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The importer must maintain an official record of the import permit (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after issuance) in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter as the record of authority for the importation and shall transmit an official record of the permit to the foreign exporter. If required by the foreign competent national authority, the importer shall ensure that an official record of the import permit is provided (
(a) Importers may only request that an import permit or application for an import permit be amended in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section. Requests for an amendment must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section and § 1312.15(a), importers must submit all requests for an amendment at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Importers must specifically request that an amendment be made; supplementary information submitted by an importer through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. While the request for an amendment is being reviewed by the Administration, the original permit will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize entry of a shipment of controlled substances. If the importer's request for an amendment to an issued permit is granted by the Administration, the Administration will immediately cancel the original permit and re-issue the permit, as amended, with a revised permit number. The DEA and importer will distribute the amended permit in accordance with § 1312.14. If a request for an amendment is denied by the Administration, the temporary stay will be lifted; once lifted, the originally issued permit may immediately be used to authorize entry of a shipment in accordance with the terms of the permit, subject to the shipment being compliant with all other applicable laws.
(1) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance as in the original permit.
(2) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the proposed port of entry, the date of release by a customs officer, or the method of transport.
(3) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change the justification provided as to why an import shipment is needed to meet the legitimate scientific or medical needs of the United States.
(4) An importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to change any registrant notes.
(5) Prior to departure of the shipment from its original foreign location, an importer may request that an import permit or application for a permit be amended to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance. At the U.S. port of entry, an importer may request that an import permit be amended in accordance with § 1312.15(a). Importers are not required to amend an import permit for the sole purpose of decreasing the total base weight of a controlled substance
(6) An importer may request that an import permit be amended to remove a controlled substance from the permit. However, an importer may not amend an import permit to add or replace a controlled substance/Administration controlled substance code number to the item(s) to be imported. Importers who desire to import a different controlled substance than that contained on their issued import permit or permit application must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.12.
(7) An importer may not amend the importer's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration) or the name of the foreign exporter as provided in the DEA Form 357. Importers who need to make any changes to any of these fields must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.12.
(b) An import permit will be void and of no effect after the expiration date specified therein, and in no event will the date be more than 180 calendar days after the date the permit is issued. Amended import permits will retain the original expiration date.
(c) An import permit may be canceled after being issued, at the request of the importer submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder.
Nothing in this part will affect the right, hereby reserved by the Administration, to cancel a permit at any time for proper cause.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(b) Any person registered or authorized to import and seeking to import any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedules III, IV, or V which is not subject to the requirement of an import permit as described in paragraph (a) of this section, must file a controlled substances import declaration (DEA Form 236) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of release by a customs officer and distribute an official record of the declaration as hereinafter directed in § 1312.19. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must specify the address of the final destination for the shipment, which must be the importer's registered location. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The import declaration is not deemed filed, and therefore is not valid, until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. The importer may only proceed with the import transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
(c) DEA Form 236 must include the following information:
(3) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry, the foreign port and country of exportation to the United States, the port of entry, and the name, address, and registration number of the recipient in the United States; and
(e)
(f) An importer may amend an import declaration in the same circumstances in which an importer may request amendment to an import permit, as set forth in § 1312.16(a)(1) through (7). Amendments to declarations must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in §§ 1312.16(a)(5) and 1312.15(a), importers must submit all amendments at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Importers must specifically note that an amendment is being made; supplementary information submitted by an importer through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically be considered an amendment. While the amendment is being processed by the Administration, the original declaration will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize release of a shipment of controlled substances. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. The DEA and importer will distribute the amended declaration in accordance with § 1312.19. A filed amendment will not change the date that the declaration becomes void and of no effect pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
(g) An import declaration may be canceled after being filed with the Administration, at the request of the importer by the importer submitting to the Administration the request through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder. Import declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
(h)
The importer must furnish an official record of the declaration (available through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) to the foreign shipper. The foreign shipper must submit an official record of the declaration to the competent national authority of the exporting country, if required as a prerequisite to export authorization. The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the declaration and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The importer must ensure that an official record of the declaration accompanies the shipment to its final destination, which must only be the registered location of the importer (
(a) No person shall in any manner export, or cause to be exported, from the United States any controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV, or any non-narcotic controlled substance in Schedule III which the Administrator has specifically designated by regulation in § 1312.30 or any non-narcotic controlled substance in Schedule IV or V which is also listed in Schedule I or II of the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and the Administrator has issued him or her a permit to do so in accordance with § 1312.23.
(b) No person shall in any manner export, or cause to be exported, from the United States any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, excluding those described in paragraph (a) of this section, or any narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule V, unless and until such person is properly registered under the Act (or, in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter, exempt from registration) and has furnished an export declaration as provided by section 1003 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(e)) to the Administration in accordance with § 1312.28.
(c) A separate permit or declaration is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be exported.
(a) Registered exporters, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to export controlled substances must submit an application for a permit to export controlled substances on DEA Form 161. Registered exporters, and persons who in accordance with part 1301 of this chapter are exempt from registration, seeking to reexport controlled substances must submit an application for a permit to reexport controlled substances on DEA Form 161R or DEA Form 161R-EEA, whichever applies. All applications and supporting materials must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The application must be signed and dated by the exporter and contain the exporter's registered address from which the controlled substances will be exported. Controlled substances may not be exported until a permit number has been issued.
(b) Exports of controlled substances by mail are prohibited.
(c)
(i) The exporter's name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(ii) The exporter's registration number, address, and contact information (
(iii) A detailed description of each controlled substance to be exported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base, or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof;
(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (
(v) An affidavit that the packages or containers are labeled in conformance with obligations of the United States under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect at the time of the export or reexport. The affidavit shall further state that to the best of the affiant's knowledge and belief, the controlled substances therein are to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific uses within the country to which exported, will not be reexported therefrom and that there is an actual need for the controlled substance for medical or scientific uses within such country, unless the application is submitted for reexport in accordance with paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section. In the case of exportation of crude cocaine, the affidavit may state that to the best of affiant's knowledge and belief, the controlled substances will be processed within the country to which exported, either for medical or scientific use within that country or for reexportation in accordance with the laws of that country to another for medical or scientific use within that country.
(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the applicant must also submit with the application any import license or permit or a certified copy of any such license or permit issued by the competent national authority in the country of destination, or other documentary evidence deemed adequate by the Administration, showing: That the merchandise is consigned to an authorized permittee; that it is to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific use within the country of destination; that it will not be reexported from such country (unless the application is submitted for reexport in accordance with paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section); and that there is an actual need for the controlled substance for medical or scientific use within such country or countries. If the import license or permit, or the certified copy of such, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the registrant must also submit with their application a certified translation of the permit or license. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation. (In the case of exportation of bulk coca leaf alkaloid, the applicant need only include with the application the material outlined in paragraph (c) of this section.)
(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
(e)
(f)
(1) Both the country to which the controlled substance is exported from the United States (referred to in this section as the “first country”) and the country to which the controlled substance is exported from the first country (referred to in this section as the “second country”) are parties to the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, and the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971;
(2) The first country and the second country have each instituted and maintain, in conformity with such Conventions, a system of controls of imports of controlled substances which the Administration deems adequate;
(3) With respect to the first country, the controlled substance is consigned to a holder of such permits or licenses as may be required under the laws of such country, and a permit or license to import the controlled substance has been issued by the country;
(4) With respect to the second country, substantial evidence is furnished to the Administration by the applicant for the export permit that—
(i) The controlled substance is to be consigned to a holder of such permits or licenses as may be required under the laws of such country, and a permit or license to import the controlled substance is to be issued by the country; and
(ii) The controlled substance is to be applied exclusively to medical, scientific, or other legitimate uses within the country;
(5) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country;
(6) The exporter has complied with paragraph (h) of this section and a permit to export the controlled substance from the United States has been issued by the Administration; and
(7)
(ii)
(g)
(1)(i) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country, except that the controlled substance may be exported from a second country that is a member of the European Economic Area to another country that is a member of the European Economic Area, provided that the first country is also a member of the European Economic Area; and
(ii) Subsequent to any reexportation described in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, a controlled substance may continue to be exported from any country that is a member of the European Economic Area to any other such country, if—
(A) The conditions applicable with respect to the first country under paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) and (6) of this section and paragraph (g)(2) are met with respect to each subsequent country from which the controlled substance is exported pursuant to this paragraph (g); and
(B) The conditions applicable with respect to the second country under paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) and (6) of this section and paragraph (g)(2) of this section are met with respect to each subsequent country to which the controlled substance is exported pursuant to this paragraph (g).
(2)
(ii)
(h) Where a person is seeking to export a controlled substance for reexport outside of the European Economic Area in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, the requirements of paragraphs (h)(1) through (7) of this section shall apply in addition to (and not in lieu of) the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section. Where a person is seeking to export a controlled substance for reexport among members of the European Economic Area in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, the requirements of paragraph (h)(4) of this section shall apply in addition to (and not in lieu of) the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
(1) Bulk substances will not be reexported in the same form as exported from the United States,
(2) Finished dosage units, if reexported, must be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the second country.
(3) Any proposed reexportation must be made known to the Administration at the time the initial DEA Form 161R is submitted. In addition, the following information must also be provided where indicated on the form:
(i) Whether the drug or preparation will be reexported in bulk or finished dosage units;
(ii) The product name, dosage strength, commercial package size, and quantity; and
(iii) The name of consignee, complete address, and expected shipment date, as well as the name and address of the ultimate consignee in the second country.
(4) The application must contain an affidavit that the consignee in the second country, and any country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area, is authorized under the laws and regulations of the second and/or subsequent country to receive the controlled substances. The affidavit must also contain the following statements, in addition to the statements required under paragraph (c) of this section:
(i) That the packages are labeled in conformance with the obligations of the United States under the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs, 1961, the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, and any amendments to such treaties in effect;
(ii) That the controlled substances are to be applied exclusively to medical or scientific uses within the second country, or country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area;
(iii) That the controlled substances will not be further reexported from the second country except as provided by paragraph (f) of section 1003 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)); and
(iv) That there is an actual need for the controlled substances for medical or scientific uses within the second country, or country of subsequent reexport within the European Economic Area.
(5) If the applicant proposes that the shipment of controlled substances will be separated into parts after it arrives in the first country and then reexported to more than one second country, the applicant must so indicate on the DEA Form 161R and provide all the information required in this section for each second country.
(6) Except in the case of reexports among countries of the European Economic Area in accordance with section 1003(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 953(f)), the controlled substance will be reexported from the first country to the second country (or second countries) no later than 180 calendar days after the controlled substance was released by a customs officer from the United States.
(7) Shipments that have been exported from the United States and are refused by the consignee in either the
(i) In considering whether to grant an application for a permit under paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section, the Administration shall consider whether the applicant has previously obtained such a permit and, if so, whether the applicant complied fully with the requirements of this section with respect to that previous permit.
(j)
(e) If an exportation is approved, the Administrator shall issue an export permit bearing his or her signature or that of his or her delegate. Each permit will be assigned a permit number that is a unique, randomly generated identifier. A permit shall not be altered or changed by any person after being signed. Any change or alteration upon the face of any permit after it has been signed renders it void and of no effect. Permits are not transferable. The Administrator or his/her delegate shall date and certify on each permit that the exporter named therein is thereby permitted as a registrant under the Act, to export, through the port of export named, one shipment of not to exceed the specified quantity of the named controlled substances, shipment to be made before a specified date. Only one shipment may be made on a single export permit. A single export permit shall authorize a quantity of goods to be exported at one place, at one time, for delivery to one consignee, on a single conveyance, at one place, on one bill of lading, air waybill, or commercial loading document; a single permit shall not authorize a quantity of goods to be exported if the goods are divided onto two or more conveyances. Each export permit shall be predicated upon,
The Administration shall transmit the export permit to the competent national authority of the importing country and shall make available to the exporter an official record of the export permit through secure electronic means. The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export permit and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. The exporter must maintain an official record of the export permit (available from the secure network application on the DEA Diversion Control Division Web site after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter as the record of authority for the exportation and shall transmit an official record of the export permit to the foreign importer. The exporter must ensure that an official record of the permit accompanies the shipment to its final destination. No shipment of controlled substances denied release for any reason shall be allowed to be released from the United States without subsequent authorization from the Administration.
(a) Exporters may only request that an export permit or application for an export permit be amended in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section. Requests for an amendment must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(5) of this section exporters must submit all requests for an amendment at least one full business day in advance of the date of release from the port of export. Exporters must specifically request that an amendment be made; supplementary information submitted by an exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically trigger the amendment process. While the request for an amendment is being reviewed by the Administration, the original permit will be temporarily stayed and may not be used to authorize release of a shipment of controlled substances. If the exporter's request for an amendment to an issued permit is granted by the Administration, the Administration will immediately cancel the original permit and re-issue the permit, as amended, with a revised permit number. The DEA and exporter will distribute the amended permit in accordance with § 1312.24. If a request for an amendment is denied by the Administration, the temporary stay will be lifted; once lifted, the originally issued permit may immediately be used to authorize release of a shipment in accordance with the terms of the permit.
(1) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the National Drug Control number, description of the packaging, or trade name of the product, so long as the description is for the same basic class of controlled substance as in the original permit.
(2) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the proposed port of export, the anticipated date of release by a customs officer, or the method of transport.
(3) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change the justification provided as to why an export shipment is needed to meet the legitimate scientific or medical needs of the country of import.
(4) An exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to change any registrant notes.
(5) Prior to departure of the shipment from the exporter's registered location, an exporter may request that an export permit or application for a permit be amended to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance. However, the total base weight or the strength of the product (if listed) of a controlled substance may not exceed that permitted for import as indicated on the import permit from the foreign competent national authority. Exporters are not required to amend an export permit for the sole purpose of decreasing the total base weight of a controlled substance authorized to be exported. However, the balance of any unexported authorized quantity of controlled substances on an export permit is void upon release of a shipment on the issued permit or upon expiration of the unused permit in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, whichever is sooner. Exporters must submit a request for an amendment to increase the total base weight of a controlled substance at least three business days in advance of the date of release from the port of export.
(6) An exporter may request that an export permit be amended to remove a controlled substance from the permit. However, an exporter may not amend an export permit to add or replace a controlled substance to the item(s) to be exported. Exporters who desire to export a different controlled substance than that contained on their issued export permit or permit application must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.22.
(7) An exporter may not amend the exporter's name (as it appears on their DEA certificate of registration), the name of the foreign importer(s), or the foreign permit information as provided in the DEA Form 161, 161R, or 161R-EEA. Exporters who need to make any changes to any of these fields must submit a request for the permit or permit application to be canceled and request a new permit in accordance with § 1312.22.
(b) An export permit will be void and of no effect after the date specified therein, which date must conform to the expiration date specified in the supporting import certificate or other documentary evidence upon which the export permit is founded, but in no event will the date be more than 180 calendar days after the date the permit is issued.
(c) An export permit may be canceled after being issued, at the request of the exporter submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, provided that no shipment has been made thereunder. Nothing in this part will affect the right, hereby reserved by the Administration, to cancel an export permit at any time for proper cause.
In addition to any other records required by this chapter, the exporter must keep a record of any serial numbers that might appear on packages of narcotic drugs in quantities of one ounce or more in such a manner as will identify the foreign consignee, along with an official record of the export permit, in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Any person registered or authorized to export and seeking to export any non-narcotic controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V, which is not subject to the requirement of an export permit pursuant to § 1312.23(b) or (c), or any person registered or authorized to export and seeking to export any controlled substance in Schedule V, must file a controlled substances export declaration (DEA Form 236) with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not less than 15 calendar days prior to the anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, and distribute an official record of the declaration as hereinafter directed in § 1312.28. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address of the registered location from which the substances will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will issue a completed declaration a transaction identification number. The export declaration is not deemed filed, and therefore not valid, until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number. The exporter may only proceed with the export transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
(b)(1) DEA Form 236 must include the following information:
(i) The name/business name, address/business address, contact information (
(ii) A detailed description of each controlled substance to be exported including the drug name, dosage form, National Drug Code (NDC) number, Administration Controlled Substance Code Number as set forth in part 1308 of this chapter, the number and size of the packages or containers, the name and quantity of the controlled substance contained in any finished dosage units, and the quantity of any controlled substance (expressed in anhydrous acid, base, or alkaloid) given in kilograms or parts thereof.
(iii) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, the port of export, the foreign port and country of entry, the carriers and shippers involved, method of shipment, the name of the vessel if applicable, and the name, address, and registration number, if any, of any forwarding agent utilized.
(iv) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(A) The consignee is authorized under the laws and regulations of the country of destination to receive the controlled substances; and
(B) The substance is being imported for consumption within the importing country to satisfy medical, scientific or other legitimate purposes.
(v) The reexport of non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedules III and IV, and controlled substances in
(A) Bulk substances will not be reexported in the same form as exported from the United States,
(B) Finished dosage units, if reexported, will be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the country of destination.
(C) Any reexportation be made known to DEA at the time the initial DEA Form 236, Controlled Substances Import/Export Declaration is completed, by checking the box marked “other” on the certification. The following information will be furnished in the remarks section:
(
(
(
(
(
(D) Shipments that have been exported from the United States and are refused by the consignee in either the first or second country, or subsequent member of the European Economic Area, or are otherwise unacceptable or undeliverable, may be returned to the registered exporter in the United States upon authorization of the Administration. In this circumstance, the exporter in the United States must file a written request for reexport, along with a completed DEA Form 236, with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. A brief summary of the facts that warrant the return of the substance to the United States along with an authorization from the country of export must be included with the request. DEA will evaluate the request after considering all the facts as well as the exporter's registration status with DEA. The substance may be returned to the United States only after affirmative authorization is issued in writing by DEA.
(vi) The reexport of non-narcotic controlled substances in Schedules III and IV, and controlled substances in Schedule V is permitted among members of the European Economic Area only as provided below:
(A) The controlled substance will not be exported from the second country or a subsequent country, except that the controlled substance may be exported from a second country or a subsequent country that is a member of the European Economic Area to another country that is a member of the European Economic Area, provided that the first country is also a member of the European Economic Area; each country is a party to the Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, as amended; and each country has instituted and maintains, in conformity with such Convention, a system of controls of imports of controlled substances which the Attorney General deems adequate.
(B) Each shipment of finished dosage units, if reexported, must be in a commercial package, properly sealed and labeled for legitimate medical use in the country of destination.
(C) Any reexportation must be made known to DEA at the time the initial DEA Form 236, Controlled Substances Import/Export Declaration is completed, by checking the box marked “other” on the certification. In addition to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, the following information will be furnished in the remarks section:
(
(
(
(
(
(2) With respect to reexports among members of the European Economic Area, the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall apply only with respect to the export from the United States to the first country and not to any subsequent export from that country to another country of the European Economic Area.
(d)
(2)
(ii)
(3)
(ii)
(e) An exporter may amend an export declaration in the same circumstances in which an exporter may request amendment to an export permit, as set forth in § 1312.25(a)(1) through (7). Amendments to declarations must be submitted through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. Except as provided in § 1312.25(a)(5) exporters must submit all amendments at least one full business day in advance of the date of release by a customs officer. Exporters must specifically note that an amendment is being made; supplementary information submitted by an exporter through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application will not automatically be considered an amendment. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. The DEA and the exporter will distribute the amended declaration in accordance with § 1312.28. A filed amendment will not change the date that the declaration becomes void and of no effect in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
(f) An export declaration may be canceled after being filed with the Administration, at the request of the exporter, provided no shipment has been made thereunder. Export declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
(g)
(a) The exporter must ensure that an official record of the export declaration (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) accompanies the shipment of controlled substances to its destination.
(b) The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export declaration and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act.
(c) The exporter must maintain an official record of the export declaration and return information (both available from the Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) required pursuant to § 1312.27(d) as his or her record of authority for the exportation, in accordance with part 1304 of this chapter.
The revision and addition read as follows:
(b) An application for a transshipment permit must be submitted to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, at least 30 calendar days, or in the case of an emergency as soon as is practicable, prior to the expected date of arrival at the first port in the United States. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate permit is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be imported, transferred, or transshipped. Each application must contain the following:
(d) * * *
(4) If the import license or permit, or the certified copy of such, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the application must include a certified translation of the permit or license. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation.
(a) A controlled substance listed in Schedules II, III, or IV may be imported into the United States for transshipment, or may be transferred or transshipped within the United States for immediate exportation, provided that written notice is submitted to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, at least 15 calendar days prior to the expected date of date of arrival at the first port in the United States. See the Table of DEA mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing addresses.
(b) A separate advance notice is required for each shipment of controlled substance to be imported, transferred, or transshipped. Each advance notice must contain those items required by § 1312.31(b) and (c). If the export license, permit, or other authorization, issued by a competent national authority of the country of origin, is not written in English or bilingual with another language and English, the notice must be accompanied by a certified translation of the export license, permit, or other authorization. For purposes of this requirement, certified translation means that the translator has signed the translation legally attesting the accuracy of the translation.
21 U.S.C. 802, 830, 871(b), 971.
(a) Each regulated person who seeks to import a listed chemical that meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, must notify the Administration of the intended import by filing an import declaration (on DEA Form 486/486A) not later than 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. Regulated persons who seek to import a listed chemical below the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) are not required to file an import declaration in advance of the release by a customs officer.
(b) A complete and accurate declaration (DEA Form 486/486A) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the address of the final destination for the shipment, which for List I chemicals must be a registered location of the importer. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The 15 calendar days shall begin on the date that the regulated person submits a completed declaration, without regard to the date that the Administration assigns a transaction identification number. Listed chemicals meeting or exceeding the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or for which no threshold has been established may not be imported until a transaction identification number has been issued.
(c) The 15-calendar-day advance notification requirement for listed chemical imports may be waived, in whole or in part, for the following:
(d) For imports meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the declaration (DEA Form 486/486A) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application at least three business days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry. The declaration must be signed and dated by the importer and must contain the address of the final destination for the shipment, which must be a registered location of the importer (for List I chemicals). Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The importer may proceed with the import transaction only once the transaction identification number has been issued.
(e) For importations where advance notification is waived pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section no DEA Form 486 is required; however, the regulated person must submit quarterly reports to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than the 15th day of the month following the end of each quarter. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The report shall contain the following information regarding each individual importation:
(a) Any List I or List II chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter may be imported if that chemical is necessary for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses within the United States. Chemical importations into the United States for immediate transfer/transshipment outside the United States must comply with the procedures set forth in § 1313.31 and all other applicable laws.
(b) The DEA Form 486/486A must include the following information:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container,
(3) The date of release by a customs officer at the port of entry, the foreign port and country of export, and the port of entry; and
(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(5) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(c) Any regulated person importing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine must submit, on the import declaration (DEA Form 486A), all information known to the importer on the chain of distribution of the chemical from the manufacturer to the importer. Ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine include each of the salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers of the chemical.
(d) Import declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
The importer, or their agent, must submit an official record of the import declaration and/or required data concerning the import transaction to a customs officer at the port of entry in compliance with all import control requirements of agencies with import control authorities under the Act or statutory authority other than the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act. For List I chemicals, the final destination of the import transaction must only be the registered location of the importer (
(b) Each regulated person making application under paragraph (a) of this section shall be considered a “regular importer” 30 calendar days after receipt of the application by the Administration, as indicated on the return receipt, unless the regulated person is otherwise notified in writing by the Administration.
(b) After a notice under § 1313.12(a) or (d) is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the importer will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the importer must update the notice to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as the case may be) and may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is filed with the Administration, or, if the import is being made by a regular importer or intended for transfer to a regular customer, three business days. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an update to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under § 1313.12(a) or (d). Amended declarations must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The amendment must be signed and dated by the importer. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. Such shipment of listed chemicals may not be imported into the United States until the transaction identification number has been issued.
(a)
(b) If an importation for which a DEA Form 486/486A has been filed fails to take place, the importer must report to the Administration that the importation did not occur through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
(c)
(a) Each regulated person who seeks to export a listed chemical that meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter, or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, must notify the Administration of the intended export by filing an export declaration (DEA Form 486) not later than 15 calendar days before the date of release by a customs officer at the port of export. Regulated persons who seek to export a listed chemical below the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) are not required to file an export declaration in advance of the export.
(b) A complete and accurate declaration (DEA Form 486) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application not later than 15 calendar days prior to the date of release by a customs officer at the port of export. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address from which the listed chemicals will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The 15 calendar days shall begin on the date that the regulated person files a completed declaration without regard to the date that the Administration assigns a transaction identification number. Exporters may not request release of a listed chemical until a transaction identification number has been issued.
(c) The 15 calendar day advance notification requirement for listed chemical exports may be waived, in whole or in part, for:
(d) For exports meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the declaration (DEA Form 486) must be filed with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application at least three business days before the date of release by a customs officer. The declaration must be signed and dated by the exporter and must contain the address from which the listed chemicals will be shipped for exportation. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed declaration. The exporter may only proceed with the export transaction once the transaction identification number has been issued.
(e) For exportations where advance notification is waived pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section no DEA Form 486 is required; however, the regulated person must submit quarterly reports with the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than the 15th day of the month following the end of each quarter. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Such report shall contain the following information regarding each individual exportation:
(h) Export declarations shall become void and of no effect 180 calendar days after the date the declaration is deemed filed with the Administration.
(a) Any List I or List II chemical listed in § 1310.02 of this chapter which meets or exceeds the quantitative threshold criteria established in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, may be exported if that chemical is needed for medical, commercial, scientific, or other legitimate uses.
(b) The export declaration (DEA Form 486) must include all the following information:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each listed chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container, the number of containers, the net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof, and the gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof;
(3) The anticipated date of release by a customs officer at the port of export, the port of export, and the foreign port and country of entry; and
(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(c) Declared exports of listed chemicals which are refused, rejected, or otherwise deemed undeliverable by the foreign competent national authority may be returned to the U.S. chemical exporter of record. The regulated person must provide notification through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application (this does not require a DEA Form 486) outlining the circumstances within a reasonable time following the return. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign the completed notice a transaction identification number. The notice will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number. Listed chemicals so returned may not be reexported until the exporter has filed a new DEA Form 486 and the Administration has issued a new transaction identification number. This provision does not apply to shipments that have cleared foreign customs, been delivered, and accepted by the foreign consignee. Returns to third parties in the United States will be regarded as imports.
The exporter, or their agent, must submit an official record of the export declaration and/or required data concerning the export transaction to a customs officer at the port of export in compliance with all export control requirements of agencies with export control authorities under the Act or
(b) After a notice under § 1313.21(a) is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the exporter will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the exporter must update the notice to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as the case may be). The exporter may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is filed with the Administration. Except, if the listed chemical is intended for transfer to a regular customer, the exporter may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of three business days. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an update to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under paragraph (a) of this section. Amended declarations must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application. The amendment must be signed and dated by the exporter. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign each completed amendment a transaction identification number. The amendment will not be deemed filed until the Administration issues a transaction identification number.
(a)
(b) If an exportation for which a DEA Form 486 has been filed fails to take place, the exporter must report to the Administration that the exportation did not occur through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application.
(c)
(b) Advance notification must be provided to the Regulatory Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration, not later than 15 calendar days prior to the proposed date the listed chemical will transship or transfer through the United States. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. A separate notification is required for each shipment of listed chemicals to be transferred or transshipped. The written notification (not a DEA Form 486) must contain the following information:
(7) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(8) The foreign port and country of export;
(14) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(15) The shipping route from the U.S. port of export to the foreign port or country of entry at final destination;
(a) A broker or trader must notify the Administration prior to an international transaction involving a listed chemical which meets or exceeds the threshold quantities identified in § 1310.04(f) of this chapter or is a listed chemical for which no threshold has been established as identified in § 1310.04(g) of this chapter, in which the broker or trader participates. Notification must be made not later than 15 calendar days before the transaction is to take place. In order to facilitate an international transaction involving listed chemicals and implement the purpose of the Act,
(b) A completed DEA Form 486 must be submitted to the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application, not later than 15 calendar days prior to the international transaction. The DEA Form 486 must be signed and dated by the broker or trader. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a transaction identification number to each completed notification. A notification is not deemed filed, and therefore is not valid, until the Administration assigns the notification a transaction identification number. An international transaction may not take place until after a transaction identification number has been assigned and the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the broker or trader submits a complete notification to the Administration.
(c) No person shall serve as a broker or trader for an international transaction involving a listed chemical knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the transaction is in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported or the chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported. The Administration will publish a notice of foreign import restrictions for listed chemicals of which DEA has knowledge as provided in § 1313.25.
(d) After a notice under paragraph (a) of this section is submitted to the Administration, if circumstances change and the broker or trader will not be transferring the listed chemical to the transferee identified in the notice, or will be transferring a greater quantity of the chemical than specified in the notice, the broker or trader must amend the notice through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application to identify the most recent prospective transferee or the most recent quantity or both (as applicable) and may not transfer the listed chemical until after the expiration of the 15 calendar day period beginning on the date on which the update is submitted to the Administration. The preceding sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in an amendment to the same extent and in the same manner as the sentence applies with respect to changing circumstances regarding a transferee or quantity identified in the original notice under paragraph (a) of this section.
(e) For purposes of this section:
(1) The term
(2) The term
(b) Any broker or trader who desires to arrange an international transaction, defined in 21 U.S.C. 802(42), involving a listed chemical which meets the threshold criteria set forth in § 1310.04 of this chapter must notify the Administration through the procedures outlined in § 1313.32(b).
(c) The DEA Form 486 must include:
(1) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
(2) The name and description of each listed chemical as it appears on the label or container, the name of each listed chemical as it is designated in § 1310.02 of this chapter, the size or weight of container, the number of containers, the net weight of each listed chemical given in kilograms or parts thereof, and the gross weight of the shipment given in kilograms or parts thereof;
(3) The anticipated date of release at the foreign port of export, the anticipated foreign port and country of export, and the foreign port and country of entry; and
(4) The name/business name, address/business address, and contact information (
The broker or trader must retain an official record of the declaration (DEA Form 486) (available from the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application after the Administration issues a transaction identification number) as the official record of the international transaction. In accordance with part 1310 of this chapter, declarations involving listed chemicals must be retained for two years.
(a) Within 30 calendar days after an international transaction is completed, the broker or trader must file a report with the Administration through the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application about the particulars of the transaction. This report must include the following information: The date(s) on which the listed chemical was released by the foreign customs officer(s) at the port(s); the actual quantity of listed chemical that left the country of export; the actual quantity of the listed chemical released by a customs officer at the port of entry; chemical; container; name of transferees; and the transaction identification and any other information as the Administration may specify. Upon receipt and review, the Administration will assign a completed report a transaction identification number. The report will not be deemed filed until the Administration has issued a transaction identification number.
(b) If an international transaction for which a DEA Form 486 has been filed fails to take place, the broker or trader must report to the Administration that the international transaction did not occur utilizing the DEA Diversion Control Division secure network application as soon as the broker or trader becomes aware of the circumstances.
21 U.S.C. 802, 830, 842, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a.
21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 826, 871(b), 952.
21 U.S.C. 811, 812, 871(b), 875, 958(d), 965.
(a) Any person entitled to a hearing and desiring a hearing shall, within the period permitted for filing, file a request for a hearing and/or an answer that complies with the following format (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address):
The undersigned ______ (Name of the Person) hereby requests a hearing in the matter of: ______ (Identification of the proceeding).
(A) (State with particularity the interest of the person in the proceeding.)
(B) (State with particularity the objections or issues, if any, concerning which the person desires to be heard.)
(C) (State briefly the position of the person with regard to the particular objections or issues.)
All notices to be sent pursuant to the proceeding should be addressed to:
Any person entitled to a hearing and desiring to appear in any hearing, shall, if he or she has not filed a request for hearing, file within the time specified in the notice of proposed rulemaking, a written notice of appearance in the following format (see the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address):
Please take notice that ______ (Name of person) will appear in the matter of: ______ (Identification of the proceeding).
(A) (State with particularity the interest of the person in the proceeding.).
(B) (State with particularity the objections or issues, if any, concerning which the person desires to be heard.).
(C) (State briefly the position of the person with regard to the particular objections or issues.).
All notices to be sent pursuant to this appearance should be addressed to:
21 U.S.C. 871(b).
The following table provides information regarding mailing addresses to be used when sending specified correspondence to the Drug Enforcement Administration.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing amendments to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft, Soda, Sulfite, and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills to address the results of the residual risk and technology review (RTR) that the EPA is required to conduct under the Clean Air Act (CAA). These proposed amendments include revisions to the opacity monitoring provisions; addition of electrostatic precipitator (ESP) parameter monitoring provisions; a requirement for 5-year periodic emissions testing; revisions to provisions addressing periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction (SSM); and technical and editorial changes. The EPA is proposing these amendments to improve the effectiveness of the rule.
Additionally, requests to speak will be taken the day of the hearing at the hearing registration desk, although preferences on speaking times may not be able to be fulfilled. Please note that registration requests received before the hearing will be confirmed by the EPA via email. The EPA will make every effort to accommodate all speakers who arrive and register. Because the hearing will be held at a United States governmental facility, individuals planning to attend the hearing should be prepared to show valid picture identification to the security staff in order to gain access to the meeting room. Please note that the REAL ID Act, passed by Congress in 2005, established new requirements for entering federal facilities. If your driver's license is issued by Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, Kentucky, Louisiana, Maine, Massachusetts, Minnesota, Montana, New York, Oklahoma or the state of Washington, you must present an additional form of identification to enter the federal building. Acceptable alternative forms of identification include: Federal employee badges, passports, enhanced driver's licenses and military identification cards. In addition, you will need to obtain a property pass for any personal belongings you bring with you. Upon leaving the building, you will be required to return this property pass to
Please note that any updates made to any aspect of the hearing, including whether or not a hearing will be held, will be posted online at
For questions about this proposed action, contact Dr. Kelley Spence, Sector Policies and Programs Division (Mail Code: E143-03), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-3158; fax number: (919) 541-3470; and email address:
Section 112(f)(2) of the CAA requires the EPA to analyze and address the residual risk associated with hazardous air pollutant emissions from source categories subject to maximum achievable control technology (MACT) standards. This review, known as the residual risk review, is a one-time review that the statute provides will be done within 8 years of issuance of the MACT standard. Section 112(d)(6) of the CAA requires the EPA to review and revise CAA section 112 emissions standards, as necessary, taking into account developments in practices, processes, and control technologies. Emission standards promulgated under CAA section 112 are to be reviewed no less often than every 8 years. The EPA issued the NESHAP for Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft, Soda, Sulfite, and Stand-Alone Semichemical Mills (40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 63, subpart MM) in 2001. The 2001 emission standards are due for review under CAA sections 112(d)(6) and 112(f)(2). In addition to conducting the RTR for subpart MM, we are evaluating the SSM provisions in the rule in light of the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit decision in
The EPA is not proposing to make any changes pursuant to 112(f)(2) as a result of its residual risk review. The EPA is proposing to reduce opacity limits as a result of the technology review under CAA section 112(d)(6). In addition, we are proposing the following as part of the technology review: Revising the opacity monitoring provisions, requiring ESP parameter monitoring for processes equipped with ESPs, clarifying the monitoring for combined ESP/wet scrubber controls, and providing alternative monitoring for smelt dissolving tank (SDT) wet scrubbers.
As an additional action, we are proposing to improve the compliance provisions of the subpart by proposing to require periodic air emissions performance testing once every 5 years for facilities subject to the standards for Chemical Recovery Combustion Sources at Kraft, Soda, Sulfite, and Stand-Alone Semichemical Pulp Mills. To address the SSM exemptions, we are proposing amendments to subpart MM that will (1) require facilities to meet the standard at all times, including during periods of SSM, and (2) provide alternative monitoring parameters for wet scrubbers and ESPs during these periods. We are also proposing changes to the subpart MM NESHAP and the General Provisions applicability table to eliminate the SSM exemption. To increase the ease and efficiency of data submittal and improve data accessibility, we are proposing to require mills to submit electronic copies of compliance reports, which includes performance test reports.
We are also proposing a number of technical and editorial changes. These changes include the following: Clarifying the location in 40 CFR part 60 of applicable EPA test methods; updating the facility name for Cosmo Specialty Fibers; revising the definitions section in 40 CFR 63.861; corrected misspelling in 40 CFR 63.862(c), revising multiple sections to remove reference to former smelters and former black liquor gasification system at Georgia-Pacific's facility in Big Island, Virginia; revising the monitoring requirements section; revising the performance test requirements section to specify the conditions for conducting performance tests and to revise the ambient O2 concentration in Equations 7 and 8; revising the recordkeeping requirements section in 40 CFR 63.866 to include the requirement to record information on failures to meet the applicable standard; revising the terminology in the delegation of authority section in 40 CFR 63.868 to match the definitions in 40 CFR 63.90; and revising the General Provisions applicability table (Table 1 to subpart MM of part 63) to align with those sections of the General Provisions that have been amended or reserved over time.
Table 1 summarizes the costs of this action. See section V of this preamble for further discussion.
The EPA estimates that the proposed changes to the opacity limits and monitoring allowances will reduce PM emissions by approximately 235 (tons per year) tpy and fine particle (PM
Table 2 of this preamble lists the NESHAP and associated regulated industrial source categories that are the subject of this proposal. Table 2 is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide for readers regarding the entities that this proposed action is likely to affect. The proposed standards, once promulgated, will be directly applicable to the affected sources. Federal, state, local, and tribal government entities would not be affected by this proposed action. As defined in the
In addition to being available in the docket, an electronic copy of this action is available on the Internet through the EPA's Stationary Sources of Air Pollution Web site, a forum for information and technology exchange in various areas of air pollution control. A redline version of the regulatory language that incorporates the proposed changes in this action is available in the docket for this action (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2014-0741). Following signature by the EPA Administrator, the EPA will post a copy of this proposed action at:
Section 112 of the CAA establishes a two-stage regulatory process to address emissions of hazardous air pollutants (HAPs) from stationary sources. In the first stage, after the EPA has identified categories of sources emitting one or more of the HAPs listed in CAA section 112(b), CAA section 112(d) requires the Agency to promulgate technology-based NESHAPs for those sources. “Major sources” are those that emit or have the potential to emit 10 tpy or more of a single HAP or 25 tpy or more of any combination of HAPs. For major sources, the technology-based NESHAP must reflect the maximum degree of
MACT standards must reflect the maximum degree of emissions reduction achievable through the application of measures, processes, methods, systems, or techniques, including, but not limited to, measures that: (1) Reduce the volume of or eliminate pollutants through process changes, substitution of materials, or other modifications; (2) enclose systems or processes to eliminate emissions; (3) capture or treat pollutants when released from a process, stack, storage, or fugitive emissions point; (4) are design, equipment, work practice, or operational standards (including requirements for operator training or certification); or (5) are a combination of the above. CAA section 112(d)(2)(A)-(E). The MACT standards may take the form of design, equipment, work practice, or operational standards where the EPA first determines either that: (1) A pollutant cannot be emitted through a conveyance designed and constructed to emit or capture the pollutant, or that any requirement for, or use of, such a conveyance would be inconsistent with law; or (2) the application of measurement methodology to a particular class of sources is not practicable due to technological and economic limitations. CAA section 112(h)(1)-(2).
The MACT “floor” is the minimum control level allowed for MACT standards promulgated under CAA section 112(d)(3) and may not be based on cost considerations. For new sources, the MACT floor cannot be less stringent than the emissions control that is achieved in practice by the best-controlled similar source. The MACT floor for existing sources can be less stringent than floors for new sources, but not less stringent than the average emissions limitation achieved by the best-performing 12 percent of existing sources in the category or subcategory (or the best-performing five sources for categories or subcategories with fewer than 30 sources). In developing MACT standards, the EPA must also consider control options that are more stringent than the floor. We may establish standards more stringent than the floor based on considerations of the cost of achieving the emission reductions, any non-air quality health and environmental impacts, and energy requirements.
The EPA is then required to review these technology-based standards and revise them “as necessary (taking into account developments in practices, processes, and control technologies)” no less frequently than every 8 years. CAA section 112(d)(6). In conducting this review, the EPA is not required to recalculate the MACT floor.
The second stage in standard-setting focuses on reducing any remaining (
Section 112(f)(2) of the CAA requires the EPA to determine for source categories subject to MACT standards whether promulgation of additional standards is needed to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. Section 112(f)(2)(B) of the CAA expressly preserves the EPA's use of the two-step process for developing standards to address any residual risk and the Agency's interpretation of “ample margin of safety” developed in the
The first step in the process of evaluating residual risk is the determination of acceptable risk. If risks are unacceptable, the EPA cannot consider cost in identifying the emissions standards necessary to bring risks to an acceptable level. The second step is the determination of whether standards must be further revised in order to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. The ample margin of safety is the level at which the standards must be set, unless an even more stringent standard is necessary to prevent, taking into consideration costs, energy, safety, and other relevant factors, an adverse environmental effect.
The Agency in the Benzene NESHAP concluded that “the acceptability of risk under section 112 is best judged on the basis of a broad set of health risk measures and information” and that the “judgment on acceptability cannot be reduced to any single factor.” Benzene NESHAP at 38046. The determination of what represents an “acceptable” risk is based on a judgment of “what risks are acceptable in the world in which we live” (
In the Benzene NESHAP, we stated that “EPA will generally presume that if the risk to [the maximum exposed] individual is no higher than approximately one in 10 thousand, that risk level is considered acceptable.” 54 FR at 38045, September 14, 1989. We discussed the maximum individual lifetime cancer risk (or maximum individual risk (MIR)) as being “the estimated risk that a person living near a plant would have if he or she were exposed to the maximum pollutant concentrations for 70 years.”
Understanding that there are both benefits and limitations to using the MIR as a metric for determining acceptability, we acknowledged in the Benzene NESHAP that “consideration of maximum individual risk . . . must take into account the strengths and weaknesses of this measure of risk.”
“[p]articular attention will also be accorded to the weight of evidence presented in the risk assessment of potential carcinogenicity or other health effects of a pollutant. While the same numerical risk may be estimated for an exposure to a pollutant judged to be a known human carcinogen, and to a pollutant considered a possible human carcinogen based on limited animal test data, the same weight cannot be accorded to both estimates. In considering the potential public health effects of the two pollutants, the Agency's judgment on acceptability, including the MIR, will be influenced by the greater weight of evidence for the known human carcinogen.”
“[i]n establishing a presumption for MIR, rather than a rigid line for acceptability, the Agency intends to weigh it with a series of other health measures and factors. These include the overall incidence of cancer or other serious health effects within the exposed population, the numbers of persons exposed within each individual lifetime risk range and associated incidence within, typically, a 50 km exposure radius around facilities, the science policy assumptions and estimation uncertainties associated with the risk measures, weight of the scientific evidence for human health effects, other quantified or unquantified health effects, effects due to co-location of facilities, and co-emission of pollutants.”
As noted earlier, in
Section 112(f)(2) of the CAA requires the EPA to determine, for source categories subject to MACT standards, whether those standards provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. As explained in the Benzene NESHAP, “the second step of the inquiry, determining an `ample margin of safety,' again includes consideration of all of the health factors, and whether to reduce the risks even further . . . . Beyond that information, additional factors relating to the appropriate level of control will also be considered, including costs and economic impacts of controls, technological feasibility, uncertainties, and any other relevant factors. Considering all of these factors, the Agency will establish the standard at a level that provides an ample margin of safety to protect the public health, as required by section 112.” 54 FR at 38046, September 14, 1989.
According to CAA section 112(f)(2)(A), if the MACT standards for HAP “classified as a known, probable, or possible human carcinogen do not reduce lifetime excess cancer risks to the individual most exposed to emissions from a source in the category or subcategory to less than one in one million,” the EPA must promulgate residual risk standards for the source category (or subcategory), as necessary to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. In doing so, the EPA may adopt standards equal to existing MACT standards if the EPA determines that the existing standards (
The CAA does not specifically define the terms “individual most exposed,” “acceptable level,” and “ample margin of safety.” In the Benzene NESHAP, 54 FR at 38044-38045, September 14, 1989, the Agency stated as an overall objective:
In protecting public health with an ample margin of safety under section 112, EPA strives to provide maximum feasible protection against risks to health from hazardous air pollutants by (1) protecting the greatest number of persons possible to an individual lifetime risk level no higher than approximately 1-in-1 million and (2) limiting to no higher than approximately 1-in-10 thousand [
The Agency further stated that “[t]he EPA also considers incidence (the number of persons estimated to suffer cancer or other serious health effects as a result of exposure to a pollutant) to be an important measure of the health risk to the exposed population. Incidence measures the extent of health risks to the exposed population as a whole, by providing an estimate of the occurrence of cancer or other serious health effects in the exposed population.”
In the ample margin of safety decision process, the Agency again considers all of the health risks and other health information considered in the first step, including the incremental risk reduction associated with standards more stringent than the MACT standard or a more stringent standard that the EPA has determined is necessary to ensure risk is acceptable. In the ample margin of safety analysis, the Agency considers additional factors, including costs and economic impacts of controls, technological feasibility, uncertainties, and any other relevant factors. Considering all of these factors, the Agency will establish the standard at a level that provides an ample margin of safety to protect the public health, as required by CAA section 112(f). 54 FR 38046, September 14, 1989.
The “Pulp and Paper Production” source category includes any facility engaged in the production of pulp and/or paper. The EPA developed the NESHAPs for the source category in two phases. The first phase, 40 CFR part 63, subpart S, regulates pulping and paper production processes, and was
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 was promulgated on January 12, 2001 (66 FR 3180). As promulgated in 2001, the subpart MM MACT standard applies to major sources of HAP emissions from chemical recovery combustion sources at kraft, soda, sulfite, and stand-alone semichemical pulp mills. The chemical recovery combustion sources include kraft and soda recovery furnaces, SDTs, and lime kilns; kraft black liquor oxidation (BLO) units; sulfite combustion units; and semichemical combustion units. Subpart S was promulgated on April 15, 1998 (63 FR 18504), and underwent a RTR, with final amendments to subpart S promulgated on September 11, 2012 (77 FR 55698).
This proposal includes both a risk assessment and a technology review of the emission sources in 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, as well as a risk assessment of the whole facility. The whole facility risk assessment includes emissions from all sources of HAP at the facility, including sources covered by other NESHAP (
According to results of the EPA's 2011 pulp and paper information collection request (ICR), and updates based on more recent information, there are a total of 108 major sources in the United States that conduct chemical recovery combustion operations, including 97 kraft pulp mills, 1 soda pulp mill, 3 sulfite pulp mills, and 7 stand-alone semichemical pulp mills.
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 includes numerical emission limits for recovery furnaces, SDTs, lime kilns, and sulfite and semichemical combustion units. The control systems used by most mills to meet the subpart MM emission limits are as follows:
• Recovery furnaces: ESPs, wet scrubbers, and nondirect contact evaporator (NDCE) furnace design with dry-bottom ESP, and dry particulate matter (PM) return system.
• Smelt dissolving tanks: Wet scrubbers, mist eliminators, and venting to recovery furnace.
• Lime kilns: ESPs and wet scrubbers.
• Sulfite combustion units: Wet scrubbers and mist eliminators.
• Semichemical combustion units: Wet scrubbers, ESPs, and regenerative thermal oxidizers (RTOs).
In February 2011, the EPA issued an ICR, pursuant to CAA section 114, to United States pulp and paper manufacturers to gather information needed to conduct the regulatory reviews required under CAA sections 112(d)(6) and (f)(2). The EPA divided the ICR into three parts. Part I requested available information regarding 40 CFR part 63, subpart S process equipment, control devices, pulp and paper production, bleaching, and other aspects of facility operations to support the subpart S technology review and the review of the Kraft Pulp Mills New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) under 40 CFR part 60, subpart BB. Part II requested updated inventory data for all pulp and paper emission sources to support the residual risk assessment for the pulp and paper sector (including 40 CFR part 63, subparts S and MM) and to supplement the National Emissions Inventory (NEI) for the source category for purposes of detailed residual risk modeling. Part III requested available information on subpart MM chemical recovery combustion equipment, control devices, and other pertinent information, to support the subpart MM technology review and the subpart BB NSPS review. The response rate for the ICR was 100 percent.
In addition to ICR responses, the EPA reviewed a number of other information sources to determine if there have been developments in practices, processes, or control technologies by chemical recovery combustion sources. These include:
• Permit limits from permits submitted with ICR responses and collected from state agencies.
• Information on air pollution control options in the pulp and paper industry from the RACT/BACT/LAER Clearinghouse (RBLC).
• Information on best available techniques in the pulp and paper industry from a 2015 European Commission document, titled
• Information on the most effective ways to control emissions of PM
• Stack test data submitted with ICR responses.
• Emissions factors from technical bulletins prepared by the National Council for Air and Stream Improvement, Inc. (NCASI), a major source of environmental data affecting the pulp and paper industry.
In this section, we describe the analyses performed to support the proposed decisions for the RTR and other issues addressed in this proposal.
The EPA conducted a risk assessment that provides estimates of the MIR posed by the HAP emissions from each source in the source category, the hazard index (HI) for chronic exposures to HAPs with the potential to cause non-cancer health effects, and the hazard quotient (HQ) for acute exposures to HAPs with the potential to cause non-cancer health effects. The assessment also provides estimates of the distribution of cancer risks within the exposed populations, cancer incidence, and an evaluation of the potential for adverse environmental effects. The seven sections that follow this paragraph describe how we estimated emissions and conducted the risk assessment. The docket for this rulemaking contains the following document which provides more information on the risk assessment inputs and models:
As discussed in section II.C of this preamble, we used data from Part II of the Pulp and Paper Sector ICR as the basis for the risk assessments for the pulp and paper sector (including 40 CFR part 63, subparts S and MM). Part II of the ICR, which concluded in June 2011, targeted facilities that are major sources of HAP emissions and involved an update of pre-populated NEI data spreadsheets (or creation of new datasets). The NEI is a database that contains information about sources that emit criteria air pollutants, their precursors and HAPs. The NEI database includes estimates of actual annual air pollutant emissions from point and volume sources; emission release characteristic data such as emission release height, temperature, diameter, velocity, and flow rate; and locational latitude/longitude coordinates. We asked pulp and paper mills to refine (or create new) inventories based on their NEI datasets for purposes of detailed residual risk modeling. Refinements included providing additional details for HAP emission sources, providing more specific information on the location and characteristics of emission points (
The actual annual emissions data in the pulp and paper emissions database include limited data from actual emissions tests and, in most cases, estimates of actual emissions (based on emissions factors) provided by sources surveyed in Part II of the ICR. We received a comprehensive set of emissions test data and emissions estimates that enabled us to conduct risk modeling of detectable HAP emissions for all major source facilities in the MACT source category.
We conducted two substantial quality assurance (QA) efforts on the Part II data in order to create the modeling files needed for the 40 CFR part 63, subpart S residual risk assessment, which included: (1) QA of the updated inventory spreadsheets submitted by each mill prior to import into the compiled database; and (2) QA and standardization of the compiled database.
We reviewed the Part II datasets to ensure that the major pulp and paper processes and pollutants were included and properly identified, to ensure that emissions from the various processes were allocated to the correct source category, and to identify emissions and other data anomalies. We also standardized the various codes (
We requested comments on the inventory in the preamble to the December 27, 2011, 40 CFR part 63, subpart S proposal. We requested further updates to the mill-specific HAP emissions data used in the risk modeling, if needed. In 2012, we received revisions to inventories for 81 facilities following proposal of the subpart S residual risk review.
While most of the inventory revisions that we received after the proposal made additional refinements to emissions levels and release point details for 40 CFR part 63, subpart S sources, some inventory revisions also made refinements to data for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources. We incorporated revisions to all process types into the inventory to remodel facility-wide risk and perform the complete scope of residual risk modeling for subpart MM emissions sources. We checked the 81 individual revision files to ensure they were incorporated into the main database correctly, and then further reviewed the entire database.
We began compiling an initial draft residual risk modeling input file for use in the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM residual risk review in September 2014.
In addition to retaining the emission process groups used in the previous 40 CFR part 63, subpart S modeling effort, we added new emission process groups for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources where necessary. We compared the subpart MM emission process groups with the Part III ICR database to ensure that we included all known recovery furnaces and lime kilns in the inventory for the residual risk modeling. In addition, we reviewed the presence or absence of BLO systems (
We reviewed the pollutant codes in the inventory to ensure the codes and descriptions matched the latest NEI lookup table used by the EPA for risk model input files. We performed extensive QA of the pollutant codes prior to the 40 CFR part 63, subpart S risk modeling, so few updates were required.
We speciated data for a number of HAPs, including chromium, mercury, radionuclides, polycyclic organic matter (POM), and dioxins/furans to facilitate risk modeling. We speciated chromium emissions as hexavalent chromium (chromium VI) and trivalent chromium (chromium III).
We reviewed all records for consistency with respect to the emission release point to ensure each record was characterized by one set of coordinates (latitude and longitude) and one set of stack or fugitive parameters. We checked fugitive parameters to ensure there were no blanks and that the values provided were reasonable and consistent with the required national defaults or other criteria. We reviewed emission points labeled as stacks to ensure no fugitive parameters were identified. We checked exit gas flow rate values against the stack velocity provided to ensure there were no inconsistencies. We mapped the emission point coordinates for each facility to determine if they were properly placed on the mill site. We also added control information from the Part III ICR database or mills' title V permits to the input file for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources.
The emissions inventory for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources identifies emissions of the following HAP known to be persistent and bio-accumulative in the environment (PB-HAPs): Cadmium compounds, lead compounds, mercury compounds, POM, dioxins/furans, and hexachlorobenzene. Risk-based screening levels are available for Tier 1 screening for all of the above PB-HAPs, with the exception of hexachlorobenzene.
Consistent with the EPA's standard practice in conducting risk assessments for source categories, we conducted a two-step process to determine: (1) Whether PB-HAPs are being emitted; and (2) whether they are being released above screening levels. If these releases are significantly above the screening levels and the EPA has detailed information on the releases and the site, a complete multipathway analysis of the site is conducted to estimate pathway risks for the source category.
We considered actual emissions of the ecological HAPs emitted from the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category in the ecological HAP analysis. In addition to the PB-HAPs emitted from the subpart MM source category (except hexachlorobenzene), we considered hydrochloric acid (HCl) and hydrogen fluoride (HF) for ecological HAP modeling. Further information about the multipathway analysis performed for this category follows in section III.B.4 of this preamble.
In 2015, we posted the initial draft risk model input file on our Technology Transfer Network for additional review by interested parties. This review resulted in the submittal of additional mill-specific inventory and receptor revisions. As part of the review, we identified potential outliers and suspect data for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources in the emission inventory and notified facilities to provide an opportunity to review and revise their emissions data, if needed. A total of 40 mills reviewed their emissions data, with 38 of those mills submitting inventory revisions to the EPA.
Inventory revisions primarily included mill name changes; revisions to HAP metal, POM, and dioxin/furan inventory data; and requests for removal of hexachlorocyclopentadiene (HCCPD) data from inventories, particularly for SDTs, since HCCPD is not expected from pulp mill sources. Where necessary, we speciated the revised chromium, mercury, and POM data that the mills provided, using the approaches described above. As part of the review, we identified risk modeling receptors improperly located on mill property for correction in the Human Exposure Model (Community and Sector HEM-3 version 1.1.0) input files before we performed risk modeling for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM.
After we incorporated the revisions into the input file, we conducted an additional review of the file, which included the following:
• Identified non-40 CFR part 63, subpart MM mills in the inventory and removed them.
• Identified additional mill name changes and incorporated them in the inventory.
• Reviewed fugitive parameters for missing data.
• Identified missing speciated mercury and chromium data and restored the data to the inventory.
• Reviewed location data for mills that submitted inventory revisions and corrected coordinates, as needed.
• Identified records for emissions points with zero emissions for a given pollutant and removed those records from the inventory.
• Conducted emission process group checks, resulting in a revision to an emission process group that reflects a change in SCC, and removal of records with an emission process group no longer applicable (specifically a BLO unit for a mill that no longer operates any DCE recovery furnaces that require a BLO unit).
• Checked mills to ensure they had the expected 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM equipment, comparing the number of recovery furnaces, lime kilns, and SDTs to Part III ICR data to ensure each emission unit was represented in the inventory.
• Reviewed each emission unit for the presence of an emissions value for key expected pollutants (
• Replaced obviously errant emissions data (particularly dioxins/furans) with revised estimates calculated based on ICR-reported throughput and emissions factors.
• Rechecked IDs, SCCs, regulatory codes, pollutant codes, duplicate pollutants, and HCCPD deletions.
The available emissions data in the RTR emissions dataset include estimates of the mass of HAPs emitted during the specified annual time period. In some cases, these “actual” emission levels are lower than the emission levels required to comply with the current MACT standards. The emissions level allowed to be emitted by the MACT standards is referred to as the “MACT-allowable” emissions level. We discussed the use of both MACT-allowable and actual emissions in the final Coke Oven Batteries RTR (70 FR 19998-19999, April 15, 2005) and in the proposed and final Hazardous Organic NESHAP RTRs (71 FR 34428, June 14, 2006, and 71 FR 76609, December 21, 2006, respectively). In those actions, we noted that assessing the risks at the MACT-allowable level is inherently reasonable
We estimated actual emissions based on the Part II emissions inventory and subsequent site-specific inventory revisions provided by mills. To estimate emissions at the MACT-allowable level, we developed a ratio of MACT-allowable emissions to actual emissions for each source type for the facilities in the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category. We developed this ratio based on the level of control required by the subpart MM MACT standards compared to the level of reported actual emissions from stack test reports provided with Part III survey responses. For example, stack test data indicated that SDTs achieve PM levels of 0.108 pounds per ton (lb/ton) black liquor solids (BLS), on average, while the PM emission limit for existing SDTs is 0.20 lb/ton BLS, so we estimated that MACT-allowable emissions of HAP metals from SDTs (where PM is used as a surrogate) could be as much as 1.8 times higher, and the ratio of MACT-allowable to actual emissions used was 1.8:1 for SDTs.
After developing these ratios for each emission point type in this source category, we next applied these ratios on an emission unit basis to the Part II actual emissions data to obtain risk estimates based on MACT-allowable emissions.
Both long-term and short-term inhalation exposure concentrations and health risks from the source category addressed in this proposal were estimated using HEM-3. The HEM-3 performs three primary risk assessment activities: (1) Conducting dispersion modeling to estimate the concentrations of HAPs in ambient air, (2) estimating long-term and short-term inhalation exposures to individuals residing within 50 kilometers (km) of the modeled sources,
The air dispersion model used by the HEM-3 model (AERMOD) is one of the EPA's preferred models for assessing pollutant concentrations from industrial facilities.
In developing the risk assessment for chronic exposures, we used the estimated annual average ambient air concentrations of each HAP emitted by each source for which we have emissions data in the source category. The air concentrations at each nearby census block centroid were used as a surrogate for the chronic inhalation exposure concentration for all the people who reside in that census block. We calculated the MIR for each facility as the cancer risk associated with a continuous lifetime (24 hours per day, 7 days per week, and 52 weeks per year for a 70-year period) exposure to the maximum concentration at the centroid of inhabited census blocks. Individual cancer risks were calculated by multiplying the estimated lifetime exposure to the ambient concentration of each of the HAP (in micrograms per cubic meter (μg/m
The EPA estimated incremental individual lifetime cancer risks associated with emissions from the facilities in the source category as the sum of the risks for each of the carcinogenic HAP (including those classified as carcinogenic to humans, likely to be carcinogenic to humans, and suggestive evidence of carcinogenic potential
To assess the risk of non-cancer health effects from chronic exposures, we summed the HQ for each of the HAP that affects a common target organ system to obtain the HI for that target organ system (or target organ-specific HI, TOSHI). The HQ is the estimated exposure divided by the chronic reference value, which is a value selected from one of several sources. First, the chronic reference level can be the EPA reference concentration (RfC) (
As mentioned above, in order to characterize non-cancer chronic effects, and in response to key recommendations from the SAB, the EPA selects dose-response values that reflect the best available science for all HAPs included in RTR risk assessments.
The EPA also evaluated screening estimates of acute exposures and risks for each of the HAP (for which appropriate acute dose-response values are available) at the point of highest potential off-site exposure for each facility. To do this, the EPA estimated the risks when both the peak (hourly) emissions rate and worst-case dispersion conditions occur. We also assume that a person is located at the point of highest impact during that same time. In accordance with our mandate in section 112 of the CAA, we use the point of highest off-site exposure to assess the potential risk to the maximally exposed individual. The acute HQ is the estimated acute exposure divided by the acute dose-response value. In each case, the EPA calculated acute HQ values using best available, short-term dose-response values. These acute dose-response values, which are described below, include the acute REL, acute exposure guideline levels (AEGL) and emergency response planning guidelines (ERPG) for 1-hour exposure durations. As discussed below, we used conservative assumptions for emissions rates, meteorology, and exposure location.
As described in the CalEPA's
Acute exposure guideline level values were derived in response to recommendations from the National Research Council (NRC). The National Advisory Committee (NAC) for the Development of Acute Exposure Guideline Levels for Hazardous Substances—usually referred to as the AEGL Committee or the NAC/AEGL committee developed AEGL values for at least 273 of the 329 chemicals on the AEGL priority chemical list. The last meeting of the NAC/AEGL Committee was in April 2010, and its charter expired in October 2011. The NAC/AEGL Committee ended in October 2011, but the AEGL program continues to operate at the EPA and works with the National Academies to publish final AEGLs (
As described in
The AEGL-1 value is then specifically defined as “the airborne concentration (expressed as ppm (parts per million) or mg/m3 (milligrams per cubic meter)) of a substance above which it is predicted that the general population, including susceptible individuals, could experience notable discomfort, irritation, or certain asymptomatic nonsensory effects. However, the effects are not disabling and are transient and reversible upon cessation of exposure.”
Emergency response planning guideline values are derived for use in emergency response, as described in the American Industrial Hygiene Association's Emergency Response Planning (ERP) Committee document titled,
As can be seen from the definitions above, the AEGL and ERPG values include the similarly-defined severity levels 1 and 2. For many chemicals, a severity level 1 value AEGL or ERPG has not been developed because the types of effects for these chemicals are not consistent with the AEGL-1/ERPG-1 definitions; in these instances, we compare higher severity level AEGL-2 or ERPG-2 values to our modeled exposure levels to screen for potential acute concerns. When AEGL-1/ERPG-1 values are available, they are used in our acute risk assessments.
Acute REL values for 1-hour exposure durations are typically lower than their corresponding AEGL-1 and ERPG-1 values. Even though their definitions are slightly different, AEGL-1 values are often the same as the corresponding ERPG-1 values, and AEGL-2 values are often equal to ERPG-2 values. Maximum HQ values from our acute screening risk assessments typically result when basing them on the acute REL value for a particular pollutant. In cases where our maximum acute HQ value exceeds 1, we also report the HQ value based on the next highest acute dose-response value (usually the AEGL-1 and/or the ERPG-1 value).
To develop screening estimates of acute exposures in the absence of hourly emissions data, generally we first develop estimates of maximum hourly emissions rates by multiplying the average actual annual hourly emissions rates by a default factor to cover routinely variable emissions. We choose the factor to use partially based on process knowledge and engineering judgment. The factor chosen also reflects a Texas study of short-term volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions variability, which showed that most peak emission events in a heavily-industrialized four-county area (Harris, Galveston, Chambers, and Brazoria Counties, Texas) were less than twice the annual average hourly emissions rate. The highest peak emissions event was 74 times the annual average hourly emissions rate, and the 99th percentile ratio of peak hourly emissions rate to the annual average hourly emissions rate was 9.
As part of our acute risk assessment process, for cases where acute HQ values from the screening step were less than or equal to 1 (even under the conservative assumptions of the screening analysis), acute impacts were deemed negligible and no further analysis was performed for these HAPs. See the
To better characterize the potential health risks associated with estimated acute exposures to HAPs, and in response to a key recommendation from the SAB's peer review of the EPA's RTR risk assessment methodologies,
The EPA conducted a screening analysis examining the potential for significant human health risks due to exposures via routes other than inhalation (
For the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category, we identified emissions of cadmium compounds, lead compounds, mercury compounds, POM, dioxins/furans, and hexachlorobenzene. Because one or more of these PB-HAPs are emitted by at least one facility in the subpart MM source category, we proceeded to the next step of the evaluation. In this step, we determined whether the facility-specific emissions rates of the emitted PB-HAP were large enough to create the potential for significant non-inhalation human health risks under reasonable worst-case conditions. To facilitate this step, we have developed emissions rate screening levels for several PB-HAPs using a hypothetical upper-end screening exposure scenario developed for use in conjunction with the EPA's Total Risk Integrated Methodology Fate, Transport, and Ecological Exposure (TRIM.FaTE) model. The PB-HAPs with emissions rate screening levels are: Lead, cadmium, dioxins/furans, mercury compounds, and POM. We conducted a sensitivity analysis on the screening scenario to ensure that its key design parameters would represent the upper end of the range of possible values, such that it would represent a conservative, but not impossible, scenario. The facility-specific emissions for each PB-HAP were compared to the emission rate screening levels for these PB-HAPs to assess the potential for significant human health risks via non-inhalation pathways. We call this application of the TRIM.FaTE model the Tier 1 TRIM-screen or Tier 1 screen.
For the purpose of developing emission rate screening values for our Tier 1 TRIM-screen, we derived emission levels for these PB-HAPs (other than lead compounds) at which the maximum excess lifetime cancer risk would be 1-in-1 million (
In the Tier 2 screen, the location of each facility that exceeded the Tier 1 emission level is used to refine the assumptions associated with the environmental scenario while maintaining the exposure scenario assumptions. A key assumption that is part of the Tier 1 screen is that a lake is located near the facility; we confirm the existence of lakes near the facility as part of the Tier 2 screen. We then adjust the risk-based Tier 1 screening value for each PB-HAP for each facility based on an understanding of how exposure concentrations estimated for the screening scenario change with meteorology and environmental assumptions. PB-HAP emissions that do not exceed these new Tier 2 screening levels are considered to pose no unacceptable risks. If the PB-HAP emissions for a facility exceed the Tier 2 screening levels and data are available, we may decide to conduct a more refined Tier 3 multipathway assessment. There are several analyses that can be included in a Tier 3 screen depending upon the extent of refinement warranted, including validating that the lake is fishable and considering plume-rise to estimate emissions lost above the mixing layer. If the Tier 3 screen is exceeded, the EPA may further refine the assessment.
In evaluating the potential multipathway risk from emissions of lead compounds, rather than developing a screening emissions rate for them, we compared maximum estimated chronic inhalation exposures with the level of the current National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) for lead.
For further information on the multipathway analysis approach, see the document titled
The EPA conducts a screening assessment to examine the potential for adverse environmental effects as required under section 112(f)(2)(A) of the CAA. Section 112(a)(7) of the CAA defines “adverse environmental effect” as “any significant and widespread adverse effect, which may reasonably be anticipated, to wildlife, aquatic life, or other natural resources, including adverse impacts on populations of endangered or threatened species or significant degradation of environmental quality over broad areas.”
The EPA focuses on seven HAPs, which we refer to as “environmental HAPs,” in its screening analysis: Five PB-HAPs and two acid gases. The five PB-HAPs are cadmium, dioxins/furans, POM, mercury (both inorganic mercury and methyl mercury) and lead compounds. The two acid gases are HCl and HF. The rationale for including these seven HAPs in the environmental risk screening analysis is presented below.
The HAPs that persist and bioaccumulate are of particular environmental concern because they accumulate in the soil, sediment, and water. The PB-HAPs are taken up, through sediment, soil, water, and/or
In addition to accounting for almost all of the mass of PB-HAPs emitted, we note that the TRIM.FaTE model that we use to evaluate multipathway risk allows us to estimate concentrations of cadmium compounds, dioxins/furans, POM, and mercury in soil, sediment and water. For lead compounds, we currently do not have the ability to calculate these concentrations using the TRIM.FaTE model. Therefore, to evaluate the potential for adverse environmental effects from lead compounds, we compare the estimated exposures from the source category emissions of lead with the level of the secondary NAAQS for lead.
Due to their well-documented potential to cause direct damage to terrestrial plants, we include two acid gases, HCl and HF, in the environmental screening analysis. According to the 2005 NEI, HCl and HF account for about 99 percent (on a mass basis) of the total acid gas HAPs emitted by stationary sources in the United States. In addition to the potential to cause direct damage to plants, high concentrations of HF in the air have been linked to fluorosis in livestock. Air concentrations of these HAPs are already calculated as part of the human multipathway exposure and risk screening analysis using the HEM3-AERMOD air dispersion model, and we are able to use the air dispersion modeling results to estimate the potential for an adverse environmental effect.
The EPA acknowledges that other HAPs beyond the seven HAPs discussed above may have the potential to cause adverse environmental effects. Therefore, the EPA may include other relevant HAPs in its environmental risk screening in the future, as modeling science and resources allow. The EPA invites comment on the extent to which other HAPs emitted by the source category may cause adverse environmental effects. Such information should include references to peer-reviewed ecological effects benchmarks that are of sufficient quality for making regulatory decisions, as well as information on the presence of organisms located near facilities within the source category that such benchmarks indicate could be adversely affected.
An important consideration in the development of the EPA's screening methodology is the selection of ecological assessment endpoints and benchmarks. Ecological assessment endpoints are defined by the ecological entity (
For PB-HAPs (other than lead compounds), we evaluated the following community-level ecological assessment endpoints to screen for organisms directly exposed to HAPs in soils, sediment, and water:
• Local terrestrial communities (i.e., soil invertebrates, plants) and populations of small birds and mammals that consume soil invertebrates exposed to PB-HAPs in the surface soil;
• Local benthic (i.e., bottom sediment dwelling insects, amphipods, isopods, and crayfish) communities exposed to PB-HAPs in sediment in nearby water bodies; and
• Local aquatic (water-column) communities (including fish and plankton) exposed to PB-HAP in nearby surface waters.
For PB-HAPs (other than lead compounds), we also evaluated the following population-level ecological assessment endpoint to screen for indirect HAP exposures of top consumers via the bioaccumulation of HAPs in food chains:
• Piscivorous (
For cadmium compounds, dioxins/furans, POM, and mercury, we identified the available ecological benchmarks for each assessment endpoint. An ecological benchmark represents a concentration of HAPs (
• Probable effect levels (PEL): Level above which adverse effects are expected to occur frequently;
• Lowest-observed-adverse-effect level (LOAEL): The lowest exposure level tested at which there are biologically significant increases in frequency or severity of adverse effects; and
• No-observed-adverse-effect levels (NOAEL): The highest exposure level tested at which there are no biologically significant increases in the frequency or severity of adverse effect.
We established a hierarchy of preferred benchmark sources to allow selection of benchmarks for each environmental HAP at each ecological assessment endpoint. In general, the EPA sources that are used at a programmatic level (
Benchmarks for all effect levels are not available for all PB-HAPs and assessment endpoints. In cases where multiple effect levels were available for a particular PB-HAP and assessment endpoint, we use all of the available effect levels to help us to determine whether ecological risks exist and, if so, whether the risks could be considered significant and widespread.
The environmental screening analysis also evaluated potential damage and reduced productivity of plants due to direct exposure to acid gases in the air. For acid gases, we evaluated the following ecological assessment endpoint:
• Local terrestrial plant communities with foliage exposed to acidic gaseous HAPs in the air.
The selection of ecological benchmarks for the effects of acid gases on plants followed the same approach as for PB-HAPs (
For HF, the EPA identified chronic benchmark concentrations for plants and evaluated chronic exposures to plants in the screening analysis. High concentrations of HF in the air have also been linked to fluorosis in livestock. However, the HF concentrations at which fluorosis in livestock occur are higher than those at which plant damage begins. Therefore, the benchmarks for plants are protective of both plants and livestock.
For the environmental risk screening analysis, the EPA first looked at whether any facilities in the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category emitted any of the seven environmental HAPs. Because we found that one or more of the seven environmental HAPs evaluated are emitted by at least one facility in the source category, we proceeded to the second step of the evaluation.
For cadmium, mercury, POM, and dioxins/furans, the environmental screening analysis consists of two tiers, while lead compounds are analyzed differently as discussed earlier. In the first tier, we determined whether the maximum facility-specific emission rates of each of the emitted environmental HAPs were large enough to create the potential for adverse environmental effects under reasonable worst-case environmental conditions. These are the same environmental conditions used in the human multipathway exposure and risk screening analysis.
To facilitate this step, TRIM.FaTE was run for each PB-HAP under hypothetical environmental conditions designed to provide conservatively high HAP concentrations. The model was set to maximize runoff from terrestrial parcels into the modeled lake, which in turn, maximized the chemical concentrations in the water, the sediments, and the fish. The resulting media concentrations were then used to back-calculate a screening level emission rate that corresponded to the relevant exposure benchmark concentration value for each assessment endpoint. To assess emissions from a facility, the reported emission rate for each PB-HAP was compared to the screening level emission rate for that PB-HAP for each assessment endpoint. If emissions from a facility do not exceed the Tier 1 screening level, the facility “passes” the screen, and, therefore, is not evaluated further under the screening approach. If emissions from a facility exceed the Tier 1 screening level, we evaluate the facility further in Tier 2.
In Tier 2 of the environmental screening analysis, the emission rate screening levels are adjusted to account for local meteorology and the actual location of lakes in the vicinity of facilities that did not pass the Tier 1 screen. The modeling domain for each facility in the Tier 2 analysis consists of 8 octants. Each octant contains 5 modeled soil concentrations at various distances from the facility (5 soil concentrations × 8 octants = total of 40 soil concentrations per facility) and 1 lake with modeled concentrations for water, sediment and fish tissue. In the Tier 2 environmental risk screening analysis, the 40 soil concentration points are averaged to obtain an average soil concentration for each facility for each PB-HAP. For the water, sediment, and fish tissue concentrations, the highest value for each facility for each pollutant is used. If emission concentrations from a facility do not exceed the Tier 2 screening level, the facility passes the screen, and typically is not evaluated further. If emissions from a facility exceed the Tier 2 screening level, the facility does not pass the screen and, therefore, may have the potential to cause adverse environmental effects. Such facilities are evaluated further to investigate factors such as the magnitude and characteristics of the area of exceedance.
The environmental screening analysis evaluates the potential phytotoxicity and reduced productivity of plants due to chronic exposure to acid gases. The environmental risk screening methodology for acid gases is a single-tier screen that compares the average off-site ambient air concentration over the modeling domain to ecological benchmarks for each of the acid gases. Because air concentrations are compared directly to the ecological benchmarks, emission-based screening levels are not calculated for acid gases as they are in the ecological risk screening methodology for PB-HAPs.
For purposes of ecological risk screening, the EPA identifies a potential for adverse environmental effects to plant communities from exposure to acid gases when the average concentration of the HAP around a facility exceeds the LOAEL ecological benchmark. In such cases, we further investigate factors such as the magnitude and characteristics of the area of exceedance (
To put the source category risks in context, we typically examine the risks from the entire “facility,” where the facility includes all HAP-emitting operations within a contiguous area and under common control. In other words, we examine the HAP emissions not only from the source category emission points of interest, but also emissions of HAPs from all other emission sources at the facility for which we have data. There are currently 108 major sources subject to the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category which includes chemical recovery combustion sources (
We analyzed risks due to the inhalation of HAPs that are emitted “facility-wide” for the populations residing within 50 km of each facility, consistent with the methods used for the source category analysis described above. For these facility-wide risk analyses, the modeled source category risks were compared to the facility-wide risks to determine the portion of facility-wide risks that could be attributed to the source category addressed in this proposal. We specifically examined the facility that was associated with the highest estimate of risk and determined the percentage of that risk attributable to the source category of interest. The document titled
In the Benzene NESHAP, the Agency concluded that risk estimation uncertainty should be considered in our decision-making under the ample margin of safety framework. Uncertainty and the potential for bias are inherent in all risk assessments, including those performed for this proposal. Although uncertainty exists, we believe that our approach, which used conservative tools and assumptions, ensures that our decisions are health-protective and environmentally protective. A brief discussion of the uncertainties in the RTR emissions dataset, dispersion modeling, inhalation exposure estimates, and dose-response relationships follows below. Where relevant to the estimated exposures, the lack of short-term dose-response values at different levels of severity should be factored into the risk characterization as potential uncertainties. A more thorough discussion of these uncertainties is included in the document titled
Although the development of the RTR emissions dataset involved quality assurance/quality control processes, various uncertainties exist. Thus, the accuracy of emissions values will vary depending on the source of the data, the degree to which data are incomplete or missing, the degree to which assumptions made to complete the datasets are accurate, errors in emission estimates, and other factors. The emission estimates considered in this analysis generally are annual totals for certain years, and they do not reflect short-term fluctuations during the course of a year or variations from year to year. The estimates of peak hourly emission rates for the acute effects screening assessment were based on an emission adjustment factor applied to the average annual hourly emission rates, which are intended to account for emission fluctuations due to normal facility operations.
We recognize there is uncertainty in ambient concentration estimates associated with any model, including the EPA's recommended regulatory dispersion model, AERMOD. In using a model to estimate ambient pollutant concentrations, the user chooses certain options to apply. For RTR assessments, we select some model options that have the potential to overestimate ambient air concentrations (
The EPA did not include the effects of human mobility on exposures in the assessment. Specifically, short-term mobility and long-term mobility between census blocks in the modeling domain were not considered.
In addition, the assessment predicted the chronic exposures at the centroid of each populated census block as surrogates for the exposure concentrations for all people living in that block. Using the census block centroid to predict chronic exposures tends to over-predict exposures for people in the census block who live farther from the facility and under-predict exposures for people in the census block who live closer to the facility. Thus, using the census block centroid to predict chronic exposures may lead to a potential understatement or overstatement of the true maximum impact, but is an unbiased estimate of average risk and incidence. We reduce this uncertainty by analyzing large census blocks near facilities using aerial imagery and adjusting the location of the block centroid to better represent the population in the block, as well as adding additional receptor locations where the block population is not well represented by a single location.
The assessment evaluates the cancer inhalation risks associated with pollutant exposures over a 70-year period, which is the assumed lifetime of an individual. In reality, both the length of time that modeled emission sources at facilities actually operate (
The exposure estimates used in these analyses assume chronic exposures to ambient (outdoor) levels of pollutants. Because most people spend the majority of their time indoors, actual exposures may not be as high, depending on the characteristics of the pollutants modeled. For many of the HAPs, indoor levels are roughly equivalent to ambient levels, but for very reactive pollutants or larger particles, indoor levels are typically lower. This factor has the potential to result in an overestimate of 25 to 30 percent of exposures.
In addition to the uncertainties highlighted above, there are several factors specific to the acute exposure
There are uncertainties inherent in the development of the dose-response values used in our risk assessments for cancer effects from chronic exposures and non-cancer effects from both chronic and acute exposures. Some uncertainties may be considered quantitatively, and others generally are expressed in qualitative terms. We note as a preface to this discussion a point on dose-response uncertainty that is brought out in the EPA's
Cancer URE values used in our risk assessments are those that have been developed to generally provide an upper bound estimate of risk. That is, they represent a “plausible upper limit to the true value of a quantity” (although this is usually not a true statistical confidence limit).
Chronic non-cancer RfC and reference dose (RfD) values represent chronic exposure levels that are intended to be health-protective levels. Specifically, these values provide an estimate (with uncertainty spanning perhaps an order of magnitude) of a continuous inhalation exposure (
While collectively termed “UF,” these factors account for a number of different quantitative considerations when using observed animal (usually rodent) or human toxicity data in the development of the RfC. The UFs are intended to account for: (1) variation in susceptibility among the members of the human population (
Many of the UFs used to account for variability and uncertainty in the development of acute reference values are quite similar to those developed for chronic durations, but they more often use individual UF values that may be less than 10. The UFs are applied based on chemical-specific or health effect-specific information (
Not all acute reference values are developed for the same purpose, and care must be taken when interpreting the results of an acute assessment of human health effects relative to the reference value or values being exceeded. Where relevant to the estimated exposures, the lack of short-term dose-response values at different levels of severity should be factored into the risk characterization as potential uncertainties.
For a group of compounds that are unspeciated (
For each source category, we generally rely on site-specific levels of PB-HAP emissions to determine whether a refined assessment of the impacts from multipathway exposures is necessary. This determination is based on the results of a three-tiered screening analysis that relies on the outputs from models that estimate environmental pollutant concentrations and human exposures for four PB-HAPs. Two important types of uncertainty associated with the use of these models in RTR risk assessments and inherent to any assessment that relies on environmental modeling are model uncertainty and input uncertainty.
Model uncertainty concerns whether the selected models are appropriate for the assessment being conducted and whether they adequately represent the actual processes that might occur for that situation. An example of model uncertainty is the question of whether the model adequately describes the movement of a pollutant through the soil. This type of uncertainty is difficult to quantify. However, based on feedback received from previous EPA SAB reviews and other reviews, we are confident that the models used in the screen are appropriate and state-of-the-art for the multipathway risk assessments conducted in support of RTR.
Input uncertainty is concerned with how accurately the models have been configured and parameterized for the assessment at hand. For Tier 1 of the multipathway screen, we configured the models to avoid underestimating exposure and risk. This was accomplished by selecting upper-end values from nationally-representative datasets for the more influential parameters in the environmental model, including selection and spatial configuration of the area of interest, lake location and size, meteorology, surface water and soil characteristics, and structure of the aquatic food web. We also assume an ingestion exposure scenario and values for human exposure factors that represent reasonable maximum exposures.
In Tier 2 of the multipathway assessment, we refine the model inputs to account for meteorological patterns in the vicinity of the facility versus using upper-end national values, and we identify the actual location of lakes near the facility rather than the default lake location that we apply in Tier 1. By refining the screening approach in Tier 2 to account for local geographical and meteorological data, we decrease the likelihood that concentrations in environmental media are overestimated, thereby increasing the usefulness of the screen. The assumptions and the associated uncertainties regarding the selected ingestion exposure scenario are the same for Tier 1 and Tier 2.
For both Tiers 1 and 2 of the multipathway assessment, our approach to addressing model input uncertainty is generally cautious. We choose model inputs from the upper end of the range of possible values for the influential parameters used in the models, and we assume that the exposed individual exhibits ingestion behavior that would lead to a high total exposure. This approach reduces the likelihood of not identifying high risks for adverse impacts.
Despite the uncertainties, when individual pollutants or facilities do screen out, we are confident that the potential for adverse multipathway impacts on human health is very low. On the other hand, when individual pollutants or facilities do not screen out, it does not mean that multipathway impacts are significant, only that we cannot rule out that possibility and that a refined multipathway analysis for the site might be necessary to obtain a more accurate risk characterization for the source category.
For further information on uncertainties and the Tier 1 and 2 screening methods, refer to the risk document, Appendix 6,
For each source category, we generally rely on site-specific levels of environmental HAP emissions to perform an environmental screening assessment. The environmental screening assessment is based on the outputs from models that estimate environmental HAP concentrations. The same models, specifically the TRIM.FaTE multipathway model and the AERMOD air dispersion model, are used to estimate environmental HAP concentrations for both the human multipathway screening analysis and for the environmental screening analysis. Therefore, both screening assessments have similar modeling uncertainties.
Two important types of uncertainty associated with the use of these models in RTR environmental screening assessments (and inherent to any assessment that relies on environmental modeling) are model uncertainty and input uncertainty.
Model uncertainty concerns whether the selected models are appropriate for the assessment being conducted and whether they adequately represent the movement and accumulation of environmental HAP emissions in the environment. For example, does the model adequately describe the movement of a pollutant through the soil? This type of uncertainty is difficult to quantify. However, based on feedback received from previous EPA SAB reviews and other reviews, we are confident that the models used in the screen are appropriate and state-of-the-art for the environmental risk assessments conducted in support of our RTR analyses.
Input uncertainty is concerned with how accurately the models have been configured and parameterized for the assessment at hand. For Tier 1 of the environmental screen for PB-HAPs, we configured the models to avoid underestimating exposure and risk to reduce the likelihood that the results
For the environmental screening assessment for acid gases, we employ a single-tiered approach. We use the modeled air concentrations and compare those with ecological benchmarks.
For both Tiers 1 and 2 of the environmental screening assessment, our approach to addressing model input uncertainty is generally cautious. We choose model inputs from the upper end of the range of possible values for the influential parameters used in the models, and we assume that the exposed individual exhibits ingestion behavior that would lead to a high total exposure. This approach reduces the likelihood of not identifying potential risks for adverse environmental impacts.
Uncertainty also exists in the ecological benchmarks for the environmental risk screening analysis. We established a hierarchy of preferred benchmark sources to allow selection of benchmarks for each environmental HAP at each ecological assessment endpoint. In general, EPA benchmarks used at a programmatic level (
In all cases (except for lead compounds, which were evaluated through a comparison to the NAAQS), we searched for benchmarks at the following three effect levels, as described in section III.A.5 of this preamble:
1. A no-effect level (
2. Threshold-effect level (
3. Probable effect level (
For some ecological assessment endpoint/environmental HAP combinations, we could identify benchmarks for all three effect levels, but for most, we could not. In one case, where different agencies derived significantly different numbers to represent a threshold for effect, we included both. In several cases, only a single benchmark was available. In cases where multiple effect levels were available for a particular PB-HAP and assessment endpoint, we used all of the available effect levels to help us to determine whether risk exists and if the risks could be considered significant and widespread.
The EPA evaluates the following seven HAPs in the environmental risk screening assessment: cadmium, dioxins/furans, POM, mercury (both inorganic mercury and methyl mercury), lead compounds, HCl, and HF, where applicable. These seven HAPs represent pollutants that can cause adverse impacts for plants and animals either through direct exposure to HAPs in the air or through exposure to HAPs that is deposited from the air onto soils and surface waters. These seven HAPs also represent those HAPs for which we can conduct a meaningful environmental risk screening assessment. For other HAPs not included in our screening assessment, the model has not been parameterized such that it can be used for that purpose. In some cases, depending on the HAP, we may not have appropriate multipathway models that allow us to predict the concentration of that pollutant. The EPA acknowledges that other HAPs beyond the seven HAPs that we are evaluating may have the potential to cause adverse environmental effects and, therefore, the EPA may evaluate other relevant HAPs in the future, as modeling science and resources allow.
Further information on uncertainties and the Tier 1 and 2 environmental screening methods is provided in Appendix 6 of the document,
As discussed in section II.A of this preamble, in evaluating and developing standards under CAA section 112(f)(2), we apply a two-step process to address residual risk. In the first step, the EPA determines whether risks are acceptable. This determination “considers all health information, including risk estimation uncertainty, and includes a presumptive limit on maximum individual lifetime [cancer] risk (MIR)
In past residual risk actions, the EPA considered a number of human health risk metrics associated with emissions from the categories under review, including the MIR, the number of persons in various risk ranges, cancer incidence, the maximum non-cancer HI and the maximum acute non-cancer hazard. See,
The Agency is considering these various measures of health information to inform our determinations of risk acceptability and ample margin of safety under CAA section 112(f). As explained in the Benzene NESHAP, “the first step judgment on acceptability cannot be reduced to any single factor” and, thus, “[t]he Administrator believes that the acceptability of risk under [previous] section 112 is best judged on the basis of a broad set of health risk measures and information.” 54 FR 38046, September 14, 1989. Similarly, with regard to the ample margin of safety determination, “the Agency again considers all of the health risk and other health information considered in the first step. Beyond that information, additional factors relating to the appropriate level of control will also be considered, including cost and economic impacts of controls, technological feasibility, uncertainties, and any other relevant factors.” Id.
The Benzene NESHAP approach provides flexibility regarding factors the EPA may consider in making determinations and how the EPA may weigh those factors for each source category. In responding to comment on our policy under the Benzene NESHAP, the EPA explained that:
“[t]he policy chosen by the Administrator permits consideration of multiple measures of health risk. Not only can the MIR figure be considered, but also incidence, the presence of non-cancer health effects, and the uncertainties of the risk estimates. In this way, the effect on the most exposed individuals can be reviewed as well as the impact on the general public. These factors can then be weighed in each individual case. This approach complies with the
The EPA notes that it has not considered certain health information to date in making residual risk determinations. At this time, we do not attempt to quantify those HAP risks that may be associated with emissions from other facilities that do not include the source categories in question, mobile source emissions, natural source emissions, persistent environmental pollution, or atmospheric transformation in the vicinity of the sources in these categories.
The Agency understands the potential importance of considering an individual's total exposure to HAPs in addition to considering exposure to HAP emissions from the source category and facility. We recognize that such consideration may be particularly important when assessing non-cancer risks, where pollutant-specific exposure health reference levels (e.g., RfCs) are based on the assumption that thresholds exist for adverse health effects. For example, the Agency recognizes that, although exposures attributable to emissions from a source category or facility alone may not indicate the potential for increased risk of adverse non-cancer health effects in a population, the exposures resulting from emissions from the facility in combination with emissions from all of the other sources (e.g., other facilities) to which an individual is exposed may be sufficient to result in increased risk of adverse non-cancer health effects. In May 2010, the SAB advised the EPA “that RTR assessments will be most useful to decision makers and communities if results are presented in the broader context of aggregate and cumulative risks, including background concentrations and contributions from other sources in the area.”
In response to the SAB recommendations, the EPA is incorporating cumulative risk analyses into its RTR risk assessments, including those reflected in this proposal. The Agency is: (1) Conducting facility-wide assessments, which include source category emission points as well as other emission points within the facilities; (2) considering sources in the same category whose emissions result in exposures to the same individuals; and (3) for some persistent and bioaccumlative pollutants, analyzing the ingestion route of exposure. In addition, the RTR risk assessments have always considered aggregate cancer risk from all carcinogens and aggregate non-cancer HI from all non-carcinogens affecting the same target organ system.
Although we are interested in placing source category and facility-wide HAP risks in the context of
Our technology review focused on the identification and evaluation of developments in practices, processes, and control technologies that have occurred since the MACT standards were promulgated. Where we identified such developments, in order to inform
Based on our analyses of the available data and information, we identified potential developments in practices, processes, and control technologies. For this exercise, a “development” was considered to be any of the following that was not considered during the development of the promulgated subpart MM standards that could result in significant additional reductions of regulated HAP emissions:
• Add-on control technology or other equipment not previously identified;
• Improvements in add-on control technology or other equipment;
• Work practices or operational procedures that were not previously identified;
• Process change or pollution prevention alternative that could be broadly applied to further reduce HAP emissions; and
• Improvements in work practices, operational procedures, process changes, or pollution prevention alternatives.
In addition to reviewing the practices, processes, and control technologies that were considered at the time we originally developed the NESHAP, we reviewed a variety of data sources in our investigation of potential practices, processes, or controls to consider. Among the sources we reviewed were the practices, processes and control technologies considered in the NESHAP for various industries that were promulgated since the MACT standards being reviewed in this action. We requested information from facilities regarding developments in practices, processes or control technology through Part III of the Pulp and Paper Sector ICR. The ICR data provided information on the process and emission controls currently in use on chemical recovery combustion sources, and provided emissions data to assess the performance of current emissions controls. We reviewed continuous opacity monitoring data for ESP-controlled recovery furnaces and lime kilns. We also consulted the EPA's RBLC to determine whether it contained any practices, processes or control technologies for the types of processes covered by the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category.
Each of the evaluations listed above considered and reviewed the technologies suitable to demonstrate compliance with the requirements listed in 40 CFR 63.860 through 63.868 (subpart MM).
The inhalation risk modeling performed to estimate risks based on actual and allowable emissions relied primarily on emissions data from the ICR. The results of the chronic baseline inhalation cancer risk assessment indicate that, based on estimates of current actual and allowable emissions under 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, the MIR posed by the MACT source category was 4-in-1 million. The total estimated cancer incidence from the MACT source category based on actual emission levels is 0.01 excess cancer cases per year, or 1 case every 100 years, while the cancer incidence for allowable emissions is 0.02 excess cancer cases per year, or 1 case every 50 years. Air emissions of chromium VI, formaldehyde, and naphthalene contributed 31 percent, 18 percent, and 13 percent, respectively, to this cancer incidence. We estimated approximately 7,600 people to have cancer risks greater than or equal to 1-in-1 million considering actual and allowable emissions from subpart MM sources, refer to Table 3.
We estimated the maximum modeled chronic non-cancer HI (TOSHI) value for the source category based on actual and allowable emissions to be 0.3, with acrolein emissions from lime kilns accounting for 92 percent of the HI.
Our screening analysis for worst-case acute impacts based on actual emissions did not identify impacts associated with any pollutants that exceeded an HQ value of 1 based upon the REL. For the acute risk screening analysis, we calculated acute hourly multipliers based on the median of peak-to-mean ratio for 14 emission process groups ranging from 1.3 to 4.7, with emissions from the semichemical recovery process having the highest hourly peak emissions with a multiplier of 4.7. For more information on how we calculated the acute hourly multipliers, refer to the
Results of the worst-case Tier 1 screening analysis identified emissions (based on estimates of actual emissions) exceeding the PB-HAP emission cancer screening rates for dioxin/furans and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) and the non-cancer screening threshold for mercury. For the compounds and facilities that did not screen out at Tier 1, we conducted a Tier 2 screen. The Tier 2 screen replaces some of the assumptions used in Tier 1 with site-specific data, including the location of fishable lakes and local precipitation, wind direction and speed. The Tier 2 screen continues to rely on high-end assumptions about consumption of local fish and locally grown or raised foods (adult female angler at 99th percentile consumption for fish for the subsistence fisherman scenario and 90th percentile consumption for locally grown or raised foods for the farmer scenario). For facilities for which the Tier 2 screening value(s) indicate a potential health risk to the public, we can conduct a Tier 3 multipathway screen. Tier 3 has three individual stages: (1) Lake assessment to assess fishability and accessibility; (2) plume-rise calculations to estimate the emissions exiting the mixing layer and resulting in no ground-level exposures; (3) TRIMFaTE hourly screening runs using the layout for the farm and/or fish location that best characterizes the facility being modeled. We progress through Tier 3 stages until the facility's screening values indicate that emissions are unlikely to pose health risks to the public, or until all three stages are complete. A Tier 3 screen was required for one facility that exceeded the Tier 2 screen for mercury. It is important to note that, even with the inclusion of some site-specific information in the Tier 2 and 3 analysis, the multipathway screening analysis is still a very conservative, health-protective assessment (i.e., upper-bound consumption of local fish and locally grown and/or raised foods) and in all likelihood yields results that serve as an upper-bound multipathway risk associated with a facility.
While the screening analysis is not designed to produce a quantitative risk result, the factor by which the emissions exceed the threshold serves as a rough gauge of the “upper-limit” risks we would expect from a facility. Thus, for example, if a facility emitted a PB-HAP carcinogen at a level 2 times the screening threshold, we can say with a high degree of confidence that the actual maximum cancer risks will be less than 2-in-1 million. Likewise, if a facility emitted a noncancer PB-HAP at a level 2 times the screening threshold, the maximum noncancer hazard would represent an HQ less than 2. The high degree of confidence comes from the fact that the screens are developed using the very conservative (health-protective) assumptions that we describe above.
Results of the worst-case Tier 1 screening analysis indicate that 85 of the 108 facilities with pulp mill combustion sources exceeded the PB-HAP emission cancer screening rates (based on estimates of actual emissions) for dioxin/furans and PAH. The EPA conducted a Tier 2 cancer screening analysis of the 85 facilities that were found to exceed the Tier 1 screening value. Nineteen of these facilities with subpart MM MACT source category sources emitted dioxin/furans and PAH above a cancer screening value of 1 for the subsistence fisher and farmer scenarios. In the Tier 2 analysis, the individual dioxin/furan congener emissions are all scaled based on their toxicity relative to 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin and are reported as toxic equivalents (TEQs), and all PAH congener emissions are scaled based on their toxicity relative to benzo(a)pyrene and are reported as TEQs. The maximum Tier 2 cancer screening value for the subsistence fisher scenario and the farmer scenario for this source category was equal to 10, which represents a maximum cancer risks that would be less than 10-in-1 million. The EPA did not conduct further cancer screening for this source category and considered this result along with all the risk results as part of determining whether the risks are acceptable (as discussed in section B).
Results of the worst-case Tier 1 screening analysis indicate that 59 of the 108 plants sources exceeded the Tier 1 non-cancer screen value for mercury. The EPA conducted a Tier 2 chronic non-cancer screening analysis of the 59 facilities, resulting in 9 facilities emitting divalent mercury above the non-cancer screening value of 1 for the subsistence fisher scenario. The highest exceedance of the Tier 2 non-cancer mercury screen value for pulp mill combustion sources under 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM was equal to 5. The risk associated with divalent mercury is based on its ability to transform into the most toxic form of mercury as methyl mercury.
The Tier 2 non-cancer screening analysis for the 9 facilities indicated potential risks greater than or equal to 2 but less than 5 times the non-cancer screening level for the subsistence fisher scenario. More refined screening using Tier 3 was conducted for the 9 facilities flagged in Tier 2. The Tier 3 screen examined the set of lakes from which the fisher might ingest fish (Stage 1). Any lakes that appeared to not be fishable or not publicly accessible were removed from the assessment, and the screening assessment was repeated. After we made the determination that the critical lakes were fishable, we analyzed plume rise data for each of the sites (Stage 2). The results of the Tier 3 screen (Stage 2) showed one facility with a non-cancer screen value of 2.
We conducted the final screening stage of Tier 3 for this single facility utilizing a time-series assessment (Stage 3). In this stage, we conducted a new mercury run using TRIM.FaTE for each relevant lake that represents a risk concern based upon the Tier 3 plume-rise assessment. For these model runs, we started with the screening configuration corresponding to the lake location, but instead of the static meteorology and stack parameters used in previous screening tiers and stages, we used site-specific hourly meteorology and the hourly plume-rise values calculated in the Tier 3 plume-rise assessment. Allowing TRIM.FaTE to model chemical fate and transport with hour-by-hour changes in meteorology and plume rise produces a more accurate estimate of chemical concentrations in media of interest, as compared to the static values used in Tier 2 and the post-processing adjustments made in the Tier 3 plume-rise assessment. If the potential risk (estimated using this Tier 3 time-series approach) associated with a facility's PB-HAP emissions are lower than the screening value, we consider the emissions to pose no significant risk. This Tier 3 screen resulted in lowering the maximum exceedance of the screen value for the highest site from 2 to 1. Further details on the refined multipathway screening analysis are in Appendix 10, Attachment 1 of the risk report, “Residual Risk Assessment for Pulp Mill Combustion Sources in Support of the December 2016 Risk and Technology Review Proposed Rule”.
As described in section III.A of this document, we conducted an environmental risk screening assessment for the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category for the following seven HAPs: PAH, mercury
In the Tier 1 screening analysis for PB-HAPs (other than lead, which we evaluated differently), one modeled soil parcel for one facility in the source category exceeded a surface soil—threshold level benchmark (invertebrates) for mercuric chloride by 2. There were no Tier 1 exceedances of any benchmarks for the other pollutants; PAH, cadmium and dioxins/furans. Therefore, we conducted a Tier 2 screen for mercuric chloride only. In the Tier 2 screen for mercuric chloride, none of the individual modeled concentrations for any facility in the source category exceeded any of the ecological benchmarks.
For lead, we did not estimate any exceedances of the secondary lead NAAQS. For HCl and HF, the average modeled concentration around each facility (i.e., the average concentration of all off-site data points in the modeling domain) did not exceed any ecological benchmark. In addition, each individual modeled concentration of HCl and HF (
Considering facility-wide emissions at the 108 plants, we estimated the MIR to be 20-in-1 million driven by arsenic and chromium VI emissions, and calculated the chronic non-cancer TOSHI value to be 1 driven by emissions of acrolein (refer to Table 3). The above cancer and non-cancer risks are driven by emissions from the industrial boilers.
We estimated approximately 440,000 people to have cancer risks greater than or equal to 1-in-1 million considering whole facility emissions from 81 of the 108 facilities modeled from the pulp and paper production industry (refer to Table 3). From these 81, 2 facilities have cancer risks greater than or equal to 10-in-1 million (but less than 20-in-1 million) with approximately 300 being exposed at these levels.
To determine whether or not to conduct a demographics analysis, which is an assessment of risks to individual demographic groups, we look at a combination of factors, including the MIR, non-cancer TOSHI, population around the facilities in the source category, and other relevant factors. For the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category, we examined the potential for any environmental justice (EJ) issues that might be associated with the source category, by performing a demographic analysis of the population close to the facilities. In this analysis, we evaluated the distribution of HAP-related cancer and non-cancer risks from the subpart MM source category across different social, demographic, and economic groups within the populations living near facilities identified as having the highest risks. The methodology and the results of the demographic analyses are included in a technical report,
The results of the demographic analysis are summarized in Table 4 below. These results, for various demographic groups, are based on the estimated risks from actual emissions levels for the population living within 50 km of the facilities.
The results of the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category demographic analysis indicate that emissions from the source category expose approximately 7,600 people to a cancer risk at or above 1-in-1 million
The risks due to HAP emissions from this source category are low for all populations (
As noted in section II.A of this preamble, the EPA sets standards under CAA section 112(f)(2) using “a two-step standard-setting approach, with an analytical first step to determine an 'acceptable risk' that considers all health information, including risk estimation uncertainty, and includes a presumptive limit on MIR of approximately 1-in-10 thousand.” (54 FR 38045, September 14, 1989).
In this proposal, the EPA estimated risks based on both actual and allowable emissions from pulp mill combustion sources. As discussed above, in determining acceptability, we considered risks based on both actual and allowable emissions. Based on the risk assessment results described above, the EPA is proposing that the risks are acceptable.
The baseline inhalation cancer risk from the source category was 4-in-1-million for the most exposed individual based on actual and allowable emissions. The total estimated incidence of cancer for this source category due to inhalation exposures is 0.02 excess cancer cases per year, or 1 case in 50 years. The Agency estimates that the maximum chronic non-cancer TOSHI from inhalation exposure for this source category has an HI equal to 0.3 based upon both actual and allowable emissions. Lime kilns account for a large portion (92 percent) of the HI.
The multipathway screening analysis, based upon actual emissions, indicates the excess cancer risk from this source category is less than 10-in-1 million based on dioxins/furans and PAH emissions, with PAH emissions accounting for 99 percent of these potential risks from the fisher and the farmer scenarios. There were no facilities within this source category with a multipathway non-cancer screen value greater than 1 for cadmium or mercury. In evaluating the potential for multipathway effects from emissions of lead, we compared modeled maximum annual lead concentrations to the secondary NAAQS for lead (0.15 μg/m3). Results of this analysis estimate that the NAAQS for lead would not be exceeded at any off-site locations.
To put the risks from the source category in context, we also evaluated facility-wide risk. Our facility-wide assessment, based on actual emissions, estimated the MIR to be 20-in-1 million driven by arsenic and chromium VI emissions, and estimated the chronic non-cancer TOSHI value to be 1 driven by emissions of acrolein. We estimated approximately 440,000 people to have cancer risks greater than or equal to 1-in-1 million considering facility-wide emissions from the pulp and paper production industry (see Table 3). The above cancer and non-cancer risks are driven by emissions from industrial boilers, representing 62 percent of the cancer risks and 95 percent of the non-cancer risks. Emissions from the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM sources represent only 6 percent of the total facility-wide cancer risk of 20-in-1 million.
The screening assessment of worst-case acute inhalation impacts indicates no pollutants exceeding an HQ value of 1 based on the REL, with an estimated worst-case maximum acute HQ of 0.3 for acrolein based on the 1-hour REL.
A review of the uncertainties in the risk assessment identified one additional key consideration, and that is the quality of data associated with the whole-facility emissions. The data provided from the power boilers were collected in 2009 and represent pre-MACT emissions before any controls. The uncertainty introduced by using pre-MACT boiler emissions data may result in an overestimated risk estimate for the whole-facility analysis for both cancer and non-cancer impacts.
Considering all of the available health risk information, we propose that risks from the source category are acceptable.
As directed by section 112(f)(2), we conducted an additional analysis to determine whether additional standards are needed to provide an ample margin of safety to protect public health. Under this ample margin of safety analysis, we evaluated the cost and feasibility of available control technologies and other measures that could be applied in this source category to further reduce the risks (or potential risks) due to emissions of HAPs identified in our risk assessment, along with all of the health risks and other health information considered in our determination of risk acceptability.
Although we are proposing that the risks from the subpart MM source category are acceptable, inhalation risk estimates are above 1-in-1 million at the actual and MACT-allowable emission levels for approximately 7,600 individuals in the exposed population. The HAP risk drivers contributing to the inhalation risks in excess of 1-in-1 million include primarily the gaseous organic HAPs acetaldehyde and naphthalene. Additional gaseous organic HAPs contributing to the risk includes benzene, chloroprene, formaldehyde, 2-methylnaphthalene, 7,12-dimethylbenz[a]anthracene, acenaphthene, acenaphthylene, and fluoranthene. More than 80-percent of the mass emissions of these compounds originate from NDCE recovery furnaces, and DCE recovery furnaces (including BLO systems). We considered options for further reducing gaseous organic HAP emissions from NDCE and DCE
Based on the results of our environmental risk screening assessment, we propose to conclude that there is not an adverse environmental effect as a result of HAP emissions from the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category.
The ability to recover pulping chemicals is imperative to the kraft and soda process, and is achieved by burning spent pulping liquor (
We reviewed ICR data on recovery furnace design and emissions controls for purposes of the technology review. There are currently 148 kraft and soda recovery furnaces in the United States, including 36 existing DCE furnaces, 108 existing NDCE furnaces, and 4 recovery furnaces subject to the new source limits under 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM. The vast majority (96 percent) of recovery furnaces have ESP control, including the 4 NDCE recovery furnaces subject to the new source limits under subpart MM. Three of the DCE furnaces and one of the NDCE furnaces have an ESP followed by a wet scrubber. Two NDCE furnaces have a wet scrubber alone. The one remaining soda recovery furnace is a subpart MM new source with ESP control. As we noted in 2001, when subpart MM was promulgated, we project no new DCE recovery furnaces to be installed in the future, because more energy-efficient NDCE technology is now prevalent.
Recovery furnace ESPs can be further characterized as wet- or dry-bottom ESPs having either a wet or dry PM return system. A wet-bottom ESP uses either oxidized or unoxidized black liquor to collect the PM and carry it to the salt cake mix tank via a wet PM return system. A dry-bottom ESP routes the captured PM to the mix tank via a screw conveyor or drag chain without the use of liquid, typically with a dry PM return system. However, there are some dry-bottom ESPs with a wet PM return system that use black liquor or other process liquids to transport the dry collected PM to the mix tank. Approximately 60 percent of recovery furnaces in the United States (or 90 recovery furnaces) have a dry-bottom ESP with a dry PM return system (including two furnaces with a dry-bottom ESP followed by a scrubber).
Analysis of ICR data for our technology review revealed that the number of DCE recovery furnaces in the United States continues to decrease as facilities with older DCE furnaces either close or, where feasible, replace aging DCE furnaces or convert them to NDCE systems. When subpart MM was proposed in 1998, 39 percent of recovery furnaces (82 units) were DCE systems. Today, only 36 DCE recovery furnaces remain, which is 24 percent of
We analyzed the costs and environmental impacts of replacement or conversion of the remaining DCE recovery furnaces as part of our technology review. High capital costs of an estimated $1.3 to $3.7 billion and annualized costs of an estimated $120 to $440 million are associated with recovery furnace installation (or conversion) projects due to the integral nature of the recovery furnace within the pulp mill and the number of upstream and downstream equipment components that must be removed, replaced, or reengineered along with the recovery furnace itself. These costs would be borne by 21 facilities that continue to operate DCE recovery furnaces and are not already projected to replace these systems in the absence of any regulatory action. The cost effectiveness of recovery furnace conversions or replacements is also high, at an estimated $44,000 to $159,000 per ton of gaseous organic HAPs reduced. We estimated a range of costs based on multiple information sources.
We also considered the costs and impacts associated with converting the remaining NDCE recovery furnace wet-bottom ESPs in the industry to dry-bottom ESPs. Capital costs are an estimated $56.1 million for wet-to-dry bottom ESP conversions at 11 mills with NDCE recovery furnaces, with cost effectiveness of $54,000 per ton of gaseous organic HAPs removed.
The total costs of the gaseous organic HAP options we considered are an estimated $1.4 to $3.7 billion in capital cost borne by 32 facilities, to achieve an estimated emission reduction of 2,920 tpy of gaseous organic HAP at a cost effectiveness of $45,000 to $153,000 per ton of gaseous organic HAPs removed. Collateral TRS emission reductions are an estimated 1,250 tpy at a cost effectiveness of $104,000 to $357,000 per ton of TRS reduced. Given the high capital costs and high cost per ton of emissions reduced, we are not proposing additional regulation of recovery furnace gaseous organic HAP emissions as a result of the technology review.
In kraft and soda pulp mills, the lime kiln is part of the causticizing process in which green liquor from the SDT is converted to white liquor. The function of the lime kiln is to oxidize lime mud (calcium carbonate, CaCO
Subpart MM, 40 CFR part 63, includes a PM limit of 0.064 gr/dscf at 10-percent O
The EPA recently reviewed PM stack test data from more than 250 filterable PM stack tests (including several repeat tests) on 110 lime kilns in the United States for purposes of the Kraft Pulp Mill NSPS review. The EPA interpreted this same dataset in the context of conducting the technology review of the subpart MM PM limits for lime kilns. The tests included lime kilns with scrubbers, ESPs and ESP-wet scrubber combination controls. Most of the scrubber-controlled kilns achieved the subpart MM existing source limit (0.064 gr/dscf at 10-percent O
This subsection discusses our review of the opacity and ESP monitoring provisions for recovery furnaces and lime kilns with ESPs or combined ESP and wet scrubber systems.
The EPA reviewed recovery furnace and lime kiln continuous opacity monitoring system (COMS) data for purposes of the technology review to evaluate the current 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM opacity limits and 6-percent monitoring allowance. The EPA performed a similar review of the COMS data for the subpart BBa NSPS review promulgated April 4, 2014 (79 FR 18952). The EPA's analysis of the recovery furnace COMS data for subpart MM is included in a memorandum in the docket.
The COMS data for 135 recovery furnaces show that the majority of existing recovery furnaces, regardless of design (DCE or NDCE), and with most controls, are meeting a 20-percent opacity limit based on a 6-minute average, with fewer than 2 percent of averaging periods exceeding 20-percent opacity, including periods of startup and shutdown. The EPA also reviewed state permits and found many recovery furnaces with permit limits of 20-percent opacity. Therefore, the EPA concludes that this information is evidence that there has been a development in existing recovery furnace operating practices that supports reducing the existing source opacity limit from 35-percent to 20-percent and revising the monitoring allowance for the 20-percent opacity limit from 6 percent to a 2-percent monitoring allowance as part of the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM technology review process.
The COMS data for 28 ESP-controlled lime kilns show that all of the existing lime kilns are meeting the 20-percent opacity limit based on a 6-minute average, with nearly all performing at a 1-percent monitoring allowance, including periods of startup and shutdown. The EPA considers this information as evidence that there has been a development in existing lime kiln operating practices and that this development supports revising the monitoring allowance from 6 percent to a 1-percent monitoring allowance for opacity as part of the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM technology review process.
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 currently requires that the opacity allowance be calculated based on the percent of the operating time in a quarter in which excess emissions are recorded. The Agency is proposing to change the reporting requirement frequency, as discussed in section IV.D.4, and, therefore, analyzed both quarterly and semiannual averaging periods when reviewing the proposed monitoring allowance discussed above.
The EPA considered the impacts of various opacity monitoring options as part of the technology review. The opacity regulatory options considered for kraft and soda recovery furnaces were:
For purposes of estimating costs and impacts of the regulatory options, we assumed that recovery furnaces and ESP-controlled lime kilns that did not meet the regulatory options in our COMS analysis would require ESP maintenance and testing to improve opacity performance, or an ESP upgrade. The EPA also reviewed PM performance levels (based on PM stack test data) for emission units not meeting the opacity limits under consideration in at least one reporting period. If the PM performance level achieved met the PM performance expected from an upgraded ESP (0.015 gr/dscf at 8-percent O
Although we are not proposing any changes to the PM metal HAP limits as part of the technology review, ESP upgrades to meet a tighter opacity monitoring limit would have the effect of reducing PM emissions. We estimated recovery furnace upgrade costs for adding two parallel fields to an existing ESP resulting in a PM performance level of 0.015 gr/dscf at 8-percent O
The EPA's full analysis of the cost and impacts associated with the regulatory options for opacity (including energy and secondary air impacts) is presented
After considering the costs and impacts of the regulatory options for opacity, we are proposing recovery furnace option 4 and lime kiln option 2 for opacity monitoring. These options are representative of the actual performance of 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM emission units based on our analysis of the COMS data, and also align closely with the opacity limits, monitoring allowances, and semiannual reporting requirements established for new sources through the 2014 NSPS review. The EPA is proposing to reduce the opacity limit for existing recovery furnaces from 35-percent to 20-percent opacity. Lowering the recovery furnace opacity limit to 20 percent eliminates the need for the 20-percent corrective action level. Specifying a 20-percent corrective action level is redundant where the opacity limit is already set at 20-percent; therefore, we are proposing to eliminate the subpart MM corrective action level in 40 CFR 63.864(k)(1)(i) by reserving this section. We are proposing a monitoring allowance of 2-percent for existing and new recovery furnaces. We are proposing to retain the 20-percent opacity limit and are proposing a monitoring allowance of 1 percent for opacity monitoring for lime kilns. We are also proposing to reduce the reporting frequency from quarterly to semiannually, as discussed in section IV.D.4 of this preamble. The proposed semiannual averaging period would be used for calculating the opacity monitoring allowance, providing flexibility for startup and shutdown periods. The cost effectiveness of recovery furnace option 4, $36,800 per ton PM, is within the range of other recent EPA regulations. There is no cost effectiveness value for lime kiln option 2 because no incremental HAP reductions were estimated. In addition to proposing the revisions described above, the EPA is requesting comment on all of the options presented in Table 5.
The EPA estimates that the nationwide costs associated with adding the proposed ESP parameter monitoring requirements would be $5.7 million capital and $1.4 million annualized costs for ESP parameter monitors. All mills with ESP-controlled recovery furnaces and lime kilns are estimated to be impacted.
Smelt dissolving tanks are covered vessels located below the recovery furnace to collect molten smelt, one of the main products from the combustion of black liquor. Smelt is comprised predominantly of Na
The EPA analyzed SDT PM stack test data collected with the 2011 Pulp and Paper Sector ICR for the NSPS review promulgated on April 4, 2014 (79 FR 18952). We reviewed this same dataset in the context of subpart MM for purposes of the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM technology review. The stack test data show that nearly all SDTs have achieved the subpart MM existing source limit of 0.20 lb/ton BLS (with the exception of a few SDTs with mist eliminators and SDTs included in the PM bubble compliance option under subpart MM). There were many existing scrubber-controlled SDTs with emissions between the new source limit of 0.12 lb/ton BLS and the existing source limit of 0.20 lb/ton BLS. The practice of routing SDT emissions through the recovery furnace has an unquantified effect on PM emissions because no emission test data are available to differentiate SDT emissions from the recovery furnace emissions in these systems. The EPA has identified no practices, processes, or controls for SDTs beyond those identified at the time of subpart MM development, nor any incremental improvements in the ability of wet scrubbers to reduce PM. Therefore, the EPA is not proposing any changes to the current existing and new source PM limits in subpart MM for kraft and soda mill SDTs. The EPA has identified no regulatory options for SDTs for further consideration under the subpart MM technology review.
Based on previous alternative monitoring requests for SDTs, the EPA is also proposing to allow operators to use SDT scrubber fan amperage as an alternative to pressure drop measurement for SDT dynamic scrubbers operating at ambient pressure or for low-energy entrainment scrubbers on SDTs where the fan speed does not vary.
When subpart MM was proposed in 1998, there were 15 sulfite pulp mills. Today there are only three sulfite mills, including one using the magnesium-based sulfite process and two mills using the ammonia (NH3)-based sulfite process. The EPA projects no new sulfite mills to come online in the United States in the next 5 years. Based on a review of permits and ICR data that the EPA has collected for these three sulfite mills, we determined that there are a total of eight sulfite combustion units currently operating in the United States.
For the 40 CFR part 63 subpart MM technology review, the EPA reviewed ICR data on sulfite processes and controls, title V permit limits, and PM stack test data for the three sulfite pulp mills currently operating in the United States. Each sulfite mill has a unique configuration of sulfite combustion units and corresponding site-specific limits. Two facilities with sulfite combustion units subject to a PM permit limit of 0.04 gr/dscf achieved this limit based on actual measurement data submitted (with the exception of one test above the limit that was superseded by a more recent test). Another facility (Cosmo Specialty Fibers in Cosmopolis, Washington) has a site-specific PM permit limit of 0.10 gr/dscf for its chemical recovery combustion units, and instead reduces PM emissions from the hog fuel dryer at the plant site. The chemical recovery combustion units (which have a combined stack) have achieved average PM emissions of 0.054 gr/dscf. The hog fuel dryer is permitted at 10 pounds per hour (lb/hr) of PM and has achieved PM emissions of 1.2 and 1.5 lb/hr in two tests. The EPA's technology review found no developments in practices, processes, or controls since the promulgation of subpart MM for PM emissions from sulfite combustion units. The EPA is proposing to retain the 0.040 and 0.020 gr/dscf at 8-percent O
When 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, was originally proposed in 1998, there were 14 semichemical combustion units at 14 stand-alone semichemical pulp mills. Today, there are seven semichemical combustion units at seven mills in the United States, at six of which combustion units and mills are operating.
For the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM RTR, the EPA reviewed ICR data on processes and control configurations, title V permit limits, and THC stack test data for the stand-alone semichemical pulp mills currently operating in the United States. The review of permit limits indicated that all semichemical combustion units are subject to the 2.97 lb/ton BLS THC limit specified in subpart MM for existing and new units. Performance of the different semichemical combustion units varies considerably for THC. While most units achieve the 2.97 lb/ton BLS THC limit, at least one unit relied on the 90-percent reduction compliance option included in subpart MM to address variability. The EPA has identified no regulatory options for semichemical combustion units for purposes of the subpart MM RTR, given that no practices, processes, or controls beyond those considered during the original rule development have emerged.
In addition to the proposed actions described above, we are proposing additional revisions. We are proposing revisions to the SSM provisions of the MACT rule in order to ensure that they are consistent with the court decision in
In its 2008 decision in
We are proposing the elimination of the SSM exemption in this rule. Consistent with
The EPA has attempted to ensure that the provisions we are proposing to eliminate are inappropriate, unnecessary, or redundant in the absence of the SSM exemption. We are specifically seeking comment on whether we have successfully done so.
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 requires continuous opacity monitoring to indicate ongoing compliance with the PM emission limits. In developing proposed standards for subpart MM, the EPA reviewed numerous continuous opacity monitoring datasets that included periods of startup and shutdown, and concluded that the affected units will be able to comply with the proposed standards at all times. The proposed subpart MM also requires RTO operating temperature and ESP and wet scrubber parameter monitoring. Parameter limits apply at all times, including during startup and shutdown. The proposed subpart MM requires RTO operating temperature and wet scrubber and ESP operating parameters to be recorded at least once every 15 minutes. Subpart MM specifies corrective action levels in 40 CFR 63.864(k)(1) and violation levels in 40 CFR 63.864(k)(2) which would be reported as excess emissions under 40 CFR 63.867(c). For RTO temperature, subpart MM requires corrective action when any 1-hour temperature falls below the average temperature established during the performance test. Subpart MM considers any 3-hour RTO temperature that falls below the average established during the performance test to be a violation. Subpart MM requires the ESP and scrubber parameters to be averaged over a 3-hour block, except for ESPs with COMS, which would have
To address the need for ESPs to warm to a specified temperature (typically above 200 °F) before full power is applied to the transformer-rectifier set, the EPA is proposing to define excess emissions (
Further, accounting for malfunctions in setting emission standards would be difficult, if not impossible, given the myriad of different types of malfunctions that can occur across all sources in the category and given the difficulties associated with predicting or accounting for the frequency, degree, and duration of various malfunctions that might occur. As such, the performance of units that are malfunctioning is not “reasonably” foreseeable. See,
In the event that a source fails to comply with the applicable CAA section 112(d) standards as a result of a malfunction event, the EPA would determine an appropriate response based on, among other things, the good faith efforts of the source to minimize emissions during malfunction periods, including preventative and corrective actions, as well as root cause analyses to ascertain and rectify excess emissions. The EPA would also consider whether the source's failure to comply with the CAA section 112(d) standard was, in fact, sudden, infrequent, not reasonably preventable, and was not instead caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation. 40 CFR 63.2 (definition of malfunction).
If the EPA determines in a particular case that an enforcement action against a source for violation of an emission standard is warranted, the source can raise any and all defenses in that enforcement action and the Federal District Court will determine what, if any, relief is appropriate. The same is true for citizen enforcement actions. Similarly, the presiding officer in an administrative proceeding can consider any defense raised and determine
In summary, the EPA interpretation of the CAA and, in particular, CAA section 112 is reasonable and encourages practices that will avoid malfunctions. Administrative and judicial procedures for addressing exceedances of the standards fully recognize that violations may occur despite good faith efforts to comply and can accommodate those situations.
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) entry for 40 CFR 63.6(e) by re-designating it as 40 CFR 63.6(e)(1)(i) and changing the “yes” in column 3 to a “no.” Section 63.6(e)(1)(i) describes the general duty to minimize emissions. Some of the language in that section is no longer necessary or appropriate in light of the elimination of the SSM exemption. We are proposing instead to add general duty regulatory text at 40 CFR 63.860(d) that reflects the general duty to minimize emissions while eliminating the reference to periods covered by an SSM exemption. The current language in 40 CFR 63.6(e)(1)(i) characterizes what the general duty entails during periods of SSM. With the elimination of the SSM exemption, there is no need to differentiate between normal operations and SSM events in describing the general duty. Therefore, the language the EPA is proposing for 40 CFR 63.860(d) does not include that language from 40 CFR 63.6(e)(1).
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) to add an entry for 40 CFR 63.6(e)(1)(ii) and include a “no” in column 3. Section 63.6(e)(1)(ii) imposes requirements that are not necessary with the elimination of the SSM exemption or are redundant with the general duty requirement being added at 40 CFR 63.860(d).
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) to add an entry for 40 CFR 63.6(e)(3) and include a “no” in column 3. Generally, the paragraphs under 40 CFR 63.6(e)(3) require development of an SSM plan and specify SSM recordkeeping and reporting requirements related to the SSM plan. As noted, the EPA is proposing to remove the SSM exemptions. Therefore, affected units will be subject to an emission standard during such events. The applicability of a standard during such events will ensure that sources have ample incentive to plan for and achieve compliance and, thus, the SSM plan requirements are no longer necessary.
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) entries for 40 CFR 63.6(f) and (h) by re-designating these sections as 40 CFR 63.6(f)(1) and (h)(1) and including a “no” in column 3. The current language of 40 CFR 63.6(f)(1) and (h)(1) exempts sources from non-opacity and opacity standards during periods of SSM. As discussed above, the court in
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) entry for 40 CFR 63.7(e) by re-designating it as 40 CFR 63.7(e)(1) and including a “no” in column 3. Section 63.7(e)(1) describes performance testing requirements. The EPA is instead proposing to add a performance testing requirement at 40 CFR 63.865. The proposed performance testing provisions require testing under representative operating conditions, excluding periods of startup and shutdown. As in 40 CFR 63.7(e)(1), performance tests conducted under this subpart should not be conducted during malfunctions because conditions during malfunctions are often not representative of normal operating conditions. The EPA is proposing to add language that requires the owner or operator to record the process information that is necessary to document operating conditions during the test and include in such record an explanation to support that such conditions represent normal operation. Section 63.7(e) requires that the owner or operator make available to the Administrator such records “as may be necessary to determine the condition of the performance test” available to the Administrator upon request, but does not specifically require the information to be recorded. The regulatory text the EPA is proposing to add to this provision builds on that requirement and makes explicit the requirement to record the information.
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by re-designating 40 CFR 63.8(c) as 40 CFR 63.8(c)(1), adding entries for 40 CFR 63.8(c)(1)(i) through (iii) and including “no” in column 3 for paragraphs (i) and (iii). The cross-references to the general duty and SSM plan requirements in those subparagraphs are not necessary in light of other requirements of 40 CFR 63.8 that require good air pollution control practices (40 CFR 63.8(c)(1)) and that set out the requirements of a quality control program for monitoring equipment (40 CFR 63.8(d)).
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by adding an entry for 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3) and including a “no” in column 3. The final sentence in 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3) refers to the General Provisions' SSM plan requirement which is no longer applicable. The EPA is proposing to add to the rule at 40 CFR 63.864(f) text that is identical to 40 CFR 63.8(d)(3) except that the final sentence is replaced with the following sentence: “The program of corrective action should be included in the plan required under 40 CFR 63.8(d)(2).”
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by adding an entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(i) and including a “no” in column 3. Section 63.10(b)(2)(i) describes the recordkeeping requirements during startup and shutdown. These recording provisions are no longer necessary because the EPA is proposing that recordkeeping and reporting applicable to normal operations will apply to startup and shutdown. Special provisions applicable to startup and shutdown, such as a startup and shutdown plan, have been removed from the rule (with exceptions discussed below) thereby reducing the need for additional recordkeeping for startup and shutdown periods.
Records of startup and shutdown periods are proposed to be required under 40 CFR 63.866(c)(8) to help characterize minor exceptions to reporting. The EPA is proposing no reporting of wet scrubber pressure drop or ESP secondary current (or total secondary power) during periods of startup and shutdown because it is not feasible to meet operating limits established under normal operation for these parameters during startup and shutdown. Instead, the EPA is proposing that wet scrubber liquid flow rate (or fan amperage) and ESP secondary voltage be monitored during startup and shutdown.
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by adding an entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(ii) and including a “no” in column 3. Section 63.10(b)(2)(ii) describes the recordkeeping requirements during a malfunction. The EPA is proposing to add such
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by adding an entry for 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(iv) and (v) and including a ”no” in column 3. When applicable, the provision requires sources to record actions taken during SSM events when actions were inconsistent with their SSM plan. The requirement is no longer appropriate because SSM plans will no longer be required. The requirement previously applicable under 40 CFR 63.10(b)(2)(iv)(B) to record actions to minimize emissions and record corrective actions is now applicable by reference to 40 CFR 63.866(d).
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) by adding an entry for 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) and including a “no” in column 3. The EPA is proposing that 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) no longer apply. When applicable, the provision allows an owner or operator to use the affected source's SSM plan or records kept to satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of the SSM plan, specified in 40 CFR 63.6(e), to also satisfy the requirements of 40 CFR 63.10(c)(10) through (12). The EPA is proposing to eliminate this requirement because SSM plans would no longer be required, and, therefore, 40 CFR 63.10(c)(15) no longer serves any useful purpose for affected units.
We are proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) entry for 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5) by re-designating it as 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5)(i) and changing the “yes” in column 3 to a “no.” Section 63.10(d)(5)(i) describes the periodic reporting requirements for startups, shutdowns, and malfunctions. To replace the General Provisions reporting requirement, the EPA is proposing to add reporting requirements to 40 CFR 63.867(c). The replacement language differs from the General Provisions requirement in that it eliminates periodic SSM reports as a stand-alone report. We are proposing language that requires sources that fail to meet an applicable standard at any time to report the information concerning such events in the semiannual report to be required under the proposed rule. We are proposing that the report must contain the number, date, time, duration, and the cause of such events (including unknown cause, if applicable), a list of the affected source or equipment, an estimate of the quantity of each regulated pollutant emitted over any emission limit, and a description of the method used to estimate the emissions.
Examples of such methods would include product-loss calculations, mass balance calculations, measurements when available, or engineering judgment based on known process parameters. The EPA is proposing this requirement to ensure that there is adequate information to determine compliance, to allow the EPA to determine the severity of the failure to meet an applicable standard, and to provide data that may document how the source met the general duty to minimize emissions during a failure to meet an applicable standard.
We will no longer require owners or operators to determine whether actions taken to correct a malfunction are consistent with an SSM plan, because plans would no longer be required. The proposed amendments, therefore, eliminate the cross reference to 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5)(i) that contains the description of the previously required SSM report format and submittal schedule from this section. These specifications are no longer necessary because the events will be reported in otherwise required reports with similar format and submittal requirements.
We are also proposing to revise the General Provisions table (Table 1) to add an entry for 40 CFR 63.10(d)(5)(ii) and include a “no” in column 3. Section 63.10(d)(5)(ii) describes an immediate report for startups, shutdown, and malfunctions when a source failed to meet an applicable standard, but did not follow the SSM plan. We will no longer require owners and operators to report when actions taken during a startup, shutdown, or malfunction were not consistent with an SSM plan, because plans would no longer be required.
As part of an ongoing effort to improve compliance with various federal air emission regulations, the EPA reviewed the testing and monitoring requirements of 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM and is proposing the following change. The EPA is proposing to require facilities complying with the standards for chemical recovery combustion sources at kraft, soda, sulfite, and stand-alone semichemical pulp mills to conduct periodic air emissions performance testing, with the first of the periodic performance tests to be conducted within 3 years of the effective date of the revised standards and thereafter before the facilities renew their 40 CFR part 70 operating permits, but no longer than 5 years following the previous performance test. Periodic performance tests are already required by permitting authorities for some facilities. Further, the EPA believes that requiring periodic performance tests will help to ensure that control systems are properly maintained over time, thereby reducing the potential for acute emissions episodes. This proposal would require periodic air emissions testing for filterable PM once every 5 years for existing and new kraft and soda recovery furnaces, SDTs, and lime kilns and sulfite combustion units. In addition, this proposal would require air emissions testing for methanol once every 5 years for new kraft and soda recovery furnaces. This proposal would also require periodic air emissions testing for THC for existing and new semichemical combustion units.
We are proposing to specify procedures for establishing operating limits based on data recorded by CPMS. The 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM emission standards are comprised of numerical emission limits, with compliance demonstrated through periodic performance tests, and operating limits such as opacity limits or continuously monitored parameter limits used to demonstrate ongoing compliance in between performance
As noted previously, we are proposing ESP parameter monitoring requirements for recovery furnaces and lime kilns with ESPs or combined ESP and wet scrubber controls. This proposal would require ESP parameters be recorded at least once every successive 15-minute period, and the recorded readings be reduced to semiannual averages for ESPs (i.e., where opacity monitoring requirements also apply) or 3-hour averages for ESPs followed by a wet scrubber. Similarly, this proposal would require wet scrubber parameters, including pressure drop across the scrubber (or fan amperage for certain SDT scrubbers) and scrubbing liquid flow rate, be recorded at least every 15-minutes and reduced to 3-hour averages. This proposal would require RTO temperature be recorded every 15 minutes and reduced to a 1-hour average for purposes of assessing when corrective action is required under 40 CFR 63.864(k)(1), and reduced to a 3-hour average under 40 CFR 63.864(k)(2) for purposes of assessing violations.
We are proposing that the ESP and wet scrubber operating limits be established as the average of the parameter values associated with each performance test run. For example, the proposal would require the recorded readings during each test run be averaged to arrive at the parameter value associated with three test runs, and the three values be averaged to arrive at the operating limit. The proposal would require these revised procedures be used beginning with the first periodic performance test proposed to be required under 40 CFR 63.865. Wet scrubbers and ESPs have minimum operating limits, such that the EPA would consider 3-hour average values below the minimum operating limit to be a monitoring exceedance to be reported under 40 CFR 63.867(c). Also, in the spirit of ensuring continuous compliance, we are proposing to eliminate the language in 40 CFR 63.864(k)(3) that allowed no more than one non-opacity monitoring exceedance to be attributed to any 24-hour period.
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 currently requires owners and operators of subpart MM facilities to submit quarterly excess emissions reports for monitoring exceedances and periods of noncompliance and semiannual reports when no excess emissions have occurred during the reporting period. These excess emission reports are typically submitted as a hard copy to the delegated authority, and reports in this form usually are not readily available for the EPA and public to analyze. The Agency is proposing that semiannual electronic reporting would provide ample data to assess a facility's performance with regard to the emission standards in subpart MM. The EPA is proposing that all excess emissions reports be submitted on a semiannual basis, to conform to the semiannual reporting frequency employed by the electronic reporting system discussed in the following section. The EPA requests comment on maintaining quarterly reporting for reports of monitoring exceedances and periods of noncompliance.
The EPA is proposing that owners and operators of 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM facilities submit electronic copies of compliance reports, which include performance test reports, semiannual reports, and notifications, through the EPA's Central Data Exchange (CDX) using the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI). Specifically, we are proposing that owners and operators submit performance test reports through the Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) and submit notifications and semiannual reports through CEDRI. The EPA believes that the electronic submittal of the reports addressed in this proposed rulemaking will increase the usefulness of the data contained in those reports, is in keeping with current trends in data availability, will further assist in the protection of public health and the environment, and will ultimately result in less burden on the regulated community. Under current requirements, paper reports are often stored in filing cabinets or boxes, which make the reports more difficult to obtain and use for data analysis and sharing. Electronic storage of such reports would make data more accessible for review, analyses, and sharing. Electronic reporting can also eliminate paper-based, manual processes, thereby saving time and resources, simplifying data entry, eliminating redundancies, minimizing data reporting errors and providing data quickly and accurately to the affected facilities, air agencies, the EPA, and the public.
In 2011, in response to Executive Order 13563, the EPA developed a plan
The EPA Web site that stores the submitted electronic data, WebFIRE, will be easily accessible to everyone and will provide a user-friendly interface that any stakeholder could access. By making data readily available, electronic reporting increases the amount of data that can be used for many purposes. One example is the development of emissions factors. An emissions factor is a representative value that attempts to relate the quantity of a pollutant released to the atmosphere with an activity associated with the release of that pollutant (e.g., kilograms of particulate emitted per megagram of coal burned). Such factors facilitate the estimation of emissions from various sources of air pollution and are an important tool in developing emissions inventories, which in turn are the basis for numerous efforts, including trends analysis, regional, and local scale air quality modeling, regulatory impact assessments, and human exposure modeling. Emissions factors are also widely used in regulatory applicability determinations and in permitting decisions.
The EPA has received feedback from stakeholders asserting that many of the EPA's emissions factors are outdated or not representative of a particular industry emission source. While the EPA believes that the emissions factors are suitable for their intended purpose, we recognize that the quality of emissions factors varies based on the extent and quality of underlying data. We also recognize that emissions profiles on different pieces of equipment can change over time due to
Additionally, by making the records, data and reports addressed in this proposed rulemaking readily available, the EPA, the regulated community and the public will benefit when the EPA conducts periodic reviews of its rules. As a result of having performance test reports and air emission reports readily accessible, our ability to carry out comprehensive reviews will be increased and achieved within a shorter period of time. These data will provide useful information on control efficiencies being achieved and maintained in practice within a source category and across source categories for regulated sources and pollutants. These reports can also be used to inform the technology-review process by providing information on improvements to add-on control technology and new control technology.
Under an electronic reporting system, the EPA's Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (OAQPS) would have air emissions and performance test data in hand; OAQPS would not have to collect these data from the EPA Regional offices or from delegated authorities or industry sources in cases where these reports are not submitted to the EPA Regional offices. Thus, we anticipate fewer or less substantial ICRs in conjunction with prospective CAA-required technology and risk-based reviews may be needed. We expect this to result in a decrease in time spent by industry to respond to data collection requests. We also expect the ICRs to contain less extensive stack testing provisions, as we will already have stack test data electronically. Reduced testing requirements would be a cost savings to industry. The EPA should also be able to conduct these required reviews more quickly, as OAQPS will not have to include the ICR collection time in the process or spend time collecting reports from the EPA Regional Offices. While the regulated community may benefit from a reduced burden of ICRs, the general public benefits from the Agency's ability to provide these required reviews more quickly, resulting in increased public health and environmental protection.
Electronic reporting could minimize submission of unnecessary or duplicative reports in cases where facilities report to multiple government agencies and the agencies opt to rely on the EPA's electronic reporting system to view report submissions. Where delegated authorities continue to require a paper copy of these reports and will accept a hard copy of the electronic report, facilities will have the option to print paper copies of the electronic reporting forms to submit to the delegated authorities, and, thus, minimize the time spent reporting to multiple agencies. Additionally, maintenance and storage costs associated with retaining paper records could likewise be minimized by replacing those records with electronic records of electronically submitted data and reports.
Delegated authorities could benefit from more streamlined and automated review of the electronically submitted data. For example, because the performance test data would be readily-available in a standard electronic format, delegated authorities would be able to review reports and data electronically rather than having to conduct a review of the reports and data manually. Having reports and associated data in electronic format will facilitate review through the use of software “search” options, as well as the downloading and analyzing of data in spreadsheet format. Additionally, delegated authorities would benefit from the reported data being accessible to them through the EPA's electronic reporting system wherever and whenever they want or need access (as long as they have access to the Internet). The ability to access and review air emission report information electronically will assist delegated authorities to more quickly and accurately determine compliance with the applicable regulations, potentially allowing a faster response to violations which could minimize harmful air emissions. This benefits both delegated authorities and the general public.
The proposed electronic reporting of data is consistent with electronic data trends (
As noted above, we are proposing that 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM performance test reports be submitted through the EPA's ERT. All of the test methods listed under subpart MM are currently supported by the ERT, with the exception of Method 308 in 40 CFR part 63, appendix A. The proposal would require that performance test results collected using test methods that are not supported by the ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site at the time of the test be submitted in portable document format (PDF) using the attachment module of the ERT.
In addition to electronically reporting the results of performance tests, we are proposing the requirement to electronically submit notifications and the semiannual excess emissions report and/or summary report required in 40 CFR 63.867. The proposal would require the owner or operator use the appropriate electronic form or spreadsheet template in CEDRI for the subpart or an alternate electronic file format consistent with the form's extensible markup language (XML) schema. If neither the reporting form nor the spreadsheet template specific to the subpart are available at the time that the report is due, the owner or operator would upload an electronic copy of the report in CEDRI. The owner or operator would begin submitting reports electronically using the reporting form or spreadsheet template with the next report that is due, once the electronic form or template has been available for at least 90 days. The EPA is currently working to develop the forms and a spreadsheet template for subpart MM. We are specifically taking comment on the content, layout, and overall design of the forms and spreadsheet template, which are discussed in a memorandum in the docket titled
As part of this review, we have specified in 40 CFR 63.867 the reporting requirements from the 40 CFR part 63 General Provisions for the excess emissions and summary reports. We believe that specifying the General Provision reporting requirements for the proposed semiannual reports in 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, will help eliminate confusion as to which report is submitted (
As stated in 40 CFR 63.867(a), the proposal also requires that notifications be reported electronically though CEDRI. Currently, there are no templates for notifications in CEDRI for this subpart. Therefore, the owner or operator must submit their notifications in PDF. Examples of such notifications include (but are not limited to) the following: Initial notifications, notifications of compliance status, notifications of a performance test, notifications of CMS performance evaluation, and notifications of opacity and visible emissions observations.
The EPA is proposing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference (IBR). In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the following document described in the amendments to 40 CFR 63.14:
• EPA-454/R-98-015, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, September 1997, IBR approved for 40 CFR 63.864(e).
This document provides guidance on the use of triboelectric monitors as fabric filter bag leak detectors. The document includes fabric filter and monitoring system descriptions; guidance on monitor selection, installation, setup, adjustment, and operation; and quality assurance procedures. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, this document generally available electronically through
The following lists additional changes that address technical and editorial corrections:
• Made revisions throughout 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, to clarify the location in 40 CFR part 60 of applicable EPA test methods;
• Made revisions throughout 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, to update the facility name for Cosmo Specialty Fibers;
• Revised the definitions section in 40 CFR 63.861 to:
○ Remove the definition for “black liquor gasification” and remove reference to black liquor gasification in the definitions for “kraft recovery furnace,” “recovery furnace,” “semichemical combustion unit,” and “soda recovery furnace”;
○ Remove the SSM exemption from the definition for “modification”;
○ Clarify that the definition for “particulate matter” refers to filterable PM;
○ Removed reference to use of one-half of the method detection limit for non-detect Method 29 measurements within the definition of “hazardous air pollutant (HAP) metals” because the full detection limit in emission measurements is now typically used for compliance determination in NESHAPs, with the limited exception of TEQ determination for dioxins and furans; and
○ Remove the definition for “startup” that pertains to the former black liquor gasification system at Georgia-Pacific's facility in Big Island, Virginia.
• Corrected misspelling in 40 CFR 63.862(c).
• Revised multiple sections (40 CFR 63.863, 63.866, and 63.867) to remove reference to the former smelters and former black liquor gasification system at Georgia-Pacific's facility in Big Island, Virginia.
• Revised the monitoring requirements section in 40 CFR 63.864 to:
○ Add reference to Performance Specification 1 (PS-1) in COMS monitoring provisions;
○ Add IBR for bag leak detection systems;
○ Specify written procedures for CMS recording frequency and reducing data into averages; and
○ Clarify ongoing compliance provisions to address startup and shutdown periods when certain parameters cannot be met.
• Revised the performance test requirements section in 40 CFR 63.865 to specify the conditions for conducting performance tests and to revise the ambient O
• Revised the recordkeeping requirements section in 40 CFR 63.866 to include the requirement to record information on failures to meet the applicable standard.
• Revised the terminology in the delegation of authority section in 40 CFR 63.868 to match the definitions in 40 CFR 63.90.
• Revised the General Provisions applicability table (Table 1 to subpart MM of part 63) to align with those sections of the General Provisions that have been amended or reserved over time.
The compliance date for the revisions we are proposing here is 1 year after the date of publication of the final rule in the
There are currently 108 major source pulp and paper mills operating in the United States that conduct chemical recovery combustion operations, including 97 kraft pulp mills, 1 soda pulp mill, 3 sulfite pulp mills, and 7 stand-alone semichemical pulp mills. The 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, affected source regulated at kraft or soda pulp mills is each existing chemical recovery system, defined as all existing DCE and NDCE recovery furnaces, SDTs, and lime kilns. The DCE recovery furnace system is defined as the DCE recovery furnace and any BLO system, if present, at the pulp mill. New affected sources at kraft or soda pulp mills include each new NDCE or DCE recovery furnace and associated SDT, and each new lime kiln. Subpart MM affected sources also include each new or existing chemical recovery combustion unit located at a sulfite pulp
At the current level of control, emissions of HAPs (HAP metals, acid gases, and gaseous organic HAP) are approximately 11,600 tpy. Current emissions of PM (a surrogate pollutant for HAP metals) and TRS (emitted by the same mechanism as gaseous organic HAP) are approximately 23,200 tpy and 3,600 tpy, respectively.
The proposed amendments will require an estimated 108 mills to conduct periodic testing for their chemical recovery combustion operations, 96 mills equipped with ESP controls to meet more stringent opacity limits and monitoring allowances and conduct ESP parameter monitoring, and all 108 major sources with equipment subject to the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM standards to operate without the SSM exemption. The EPA estimates that the proposed changes to the opacity limits and monitoring allowances will reduce PM emissions by approximately 235 tpy and PM
Indirect or secondary air emissions impacts are impacts that would result from the increased electricity usage associated with the operation of control devices (i.e., increased secondary emissions of criteria pollutants from power plants). Energy impacts consist of the electricity and steam needed to operate control devices and other equipment that would be required under this proposed rule. The EPA estimates that the proposed changes to the opacity limits and monitoring allowances will result in energy impacts of 106,000 million British thermal units per year and criteria pollutant emissions of 29 tpy (which includes PM, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide). The EPA expects no secondary air emissions impacts or energy impacts from the other proposed requirements.
Section IV.C of this preamble presents estimates of the air quality impacts associated with the regulatory options that were not selected for inclusion in this proposed rule. For further information, see the memorandum titled, Costs/Impacts of the
Subpart MM of 40 CFR part 63 mills will incur costs to meet more stringent opacity limits and monitoring allowances, conduct periodic testing, and perform new ESP parameter monitoring. Costs associated with elimination of the startup and shutdown exemption were estimated as part of the reporting and recordkeeping costs and include time for re-evaluating previously developed SSM record systems. The EPA estimates the nationwide capital costs associated with the new testing and monitoring requirements to be $48 million. The EPA estimates the total nationwide annualized costs associated with these new requirements to be $13 million per year. Section IV.C of this preamble presents cost estimates associated with the regulatory options that were not selected for inclusion in this rule. For further information, see the memorandum titled
The economic impact analysis is designed to inform decision makers about the potential economic consequences of a regulatory action. For the current proposal, the EPA performed a partial-equilibrium analysis of national pulp and paper product markets to estimate potential paper product market and consumer and producer welfare impacts of the proposed regulatory options.
Across proposed regulatory options, the EPA estimates market-level changes in the paper and paperboard markets to be insignificant. For the proposed option, the EPA predicts national-level weighted average paper and paperboard prices to increase about 0.01 percent, but predicts total quantities to decrease less than 0.01 percent.
In addition, the EPA performed a screening analysis for impacts on small businesses by comparing estimated annualized engineering compliance costs at the firm-level to firm sales. The screening analysis found that the ratio of compliance cost to firm revenue falls below 1-percent for the three small companies likely to be affected by the proposal. For small firms, the minimum and maximum cost-to-sales ratios are less than 1 percent.
More information and details of this analysis is provided in the technical document titled
The EPA estimates the proposed changes to the opacity limits and monitoring allowances at the 16 impacted mills will reduce PM emissions by approximately 235 tpy and PM
Directly emitted particles are precursors to secondary formation of PM
We solicit comments on all aspects of this proposed action. In addition to general comments on this proposed action, we are also interested in additional data that may improve the risk assessments and other analyses. We are specifically interested in receiving any improvements to the data used in the site-specific emissions profiles used for risk modeling. Such data should include supporting documentation in sufficient detail to allow characterization of the quality and representativeness of the data or information. Section VII of this preamble provides more information on submitting data.
The site-specific emissions profiles used in the source category risk and demographic analyses and instructions are available for download on the RTR Web site at:
If you believe that the data are not representative or are inaccurate, please identify the data in question, provide your reason for concern, and provide any “improved” data that you have, if available. When you submit data, we request that you provide documentation of the basis for the revised values to support your suggested changes. To submit comments on the data downloaded from the RTR Web site, complete the following steps:
1. Within this downloaded file, enter suggested revisions to the data fields appropriate for that information.
2. Fill in the commenter information fields for each suggested revision (
3. Gather documentation for any suggested emissions revisions (
4. Send the entire downloaded file with suggested revisions in Microsoft® Access format and all accompanying documentation to Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2014-0741 (through one of the methods described in the
5. If you are providing comments on a single facility or multiple facilities, you need only submit one file for all facilities. The file should contain all suggested changes for all sources at that facility. We request that all data revision comments be submitted in the form of updated Microsoft® Excel files that are generated by the Microsoft® Access file. These files are provided on the RTR Web site at:
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to OMB for review.
The information collection activities in this proposed rule have been submitted for approval to OMB under the PRA. The ICR document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 1805.08. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here.
The information collection requirements are not enforceable until OMB approves them. The information requirements are based on notification, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements in the NESHAP General Provisions (40 CFR part 63, subpart A), which are essential in determining compliance and mandatory for all operators subject to national emissions standards. These recordkeeping and reporting requirements are specifically authorized by CAA section 114 (42 U.S.C. 7414). All information submitted to the EPA pursuant to the recordkeeping and reporting requirements for which a claim of confidentiality is made is safeguarded according to Agency policies set forth in 40 CFR part 2, subpart B.
We are proposing changes to the paperwork requirements for 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM, in the form of eliminating the SSM reporting and SSM plan requirements, adding periodic emissions testing for selected process equipment, revising opacity monitoring provisions, adding parameter monitoring for ESPs, changing the frequency of all excess emissions reports to semiannual, and requiring electronic submittal of all compliance reports (including performance test reports).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9.
Submit your comments on the Agency's need for this information, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, to the EPA using the docket identified at the beginning of this rule. You may also send your ICR-related comments to OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs via email to
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. The EPA estimates that all affected small entities will have annualized costs of less than 1 percent of their sales. We have, therefore, concluded that this action will have no net regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities. For more information on the small entity impacts associated with this proposed rule, please refer to the Economic Impact and Small Business Analyses in the public docket.
This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local, or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the federal government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the federal government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175. This rule imposes requirements on owners and operators of kraft, soda, sulfite, and stand-alone semichemical pulp mills and not tribal governments. The EPA does not know of any pulp mills owned or operated by Indian tribal governments, or located within tribal lands. However, if there are any, the effect of this rule on communities of tribal governments would not be unique or disproportionate to the effect on other communities. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not economically significant as defined in Executive Order 12866, and because the EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. This action's health and risk assessments are contained in sections III and IV of this preamble and further documented in the risk report, titled
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This action involves technical standards. While the EPA identified ASTM D6784-02 (Reapproved 2008), “Standard Test Method for Elemental, Oxidized, Particle-Bound and Total Mercury Gas Generated from Coal-Fired Stationary Sources (Ontario Hydro Method)” as being potentially applicable, the Agency does not propose to use it. The use of this voluntary consensus standard would be impractical because this standard is only acceptable as an alternative to the portion of Method 29 for mercury, and mercury is not regulated under 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM.
The EPA believes that this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations, and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). The documentation for this decision is contained in section IV.B of this preamble and the technical report titled
We examined the potential for any EJ issues that might be associated with the source category, by performing a demographic analysis of the population close to the facilities. In this analysis, we evaluated the distribution of HAP-related cancer and non-cancer risks from the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category across different social, demographic, and economic groups within the populations living near facilities identified as having the highest risks. The methodology and the results of the demographic analyses are included in a technical report,
The results of the 40 CFR part 63, subpart MM source category demographic analysis indicate that emissions from the source category expose approximately 7,600 people to a cancer risk at or above 1-in-1 million and no one exposed to a chronic non-cancer TOSHI greater than 1. The specific demographic results indicate that the percentage of the population potentially impacted by emissions is greater than its corresponding national percentage for the minority population (33 percent for the source category compared to 28 percent nationwide), the African American population (28 percent for the source category compared to 13 percent nationwide) and for the population over age 25 without a high school diploma (18 percent for the source category compared to 15 percent nationwide). The proximity results (irrespective of risk) indicate that the population percentages for certain demographic categories within 5 km of source category emissions are greater than the corresponding national percentage for those same demographics. The following demographic percentages for populations residing within close proximity to facilities with pulp mill combustion sources are higher than the corresponding nationwide percentage: African American, ages 65 and up, over age 25 without a high school diploma, and below the poverty level.
The risks due to HAP emissions from this source category are low for all populations (
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Hazardous substances, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Pulp and paper mills, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, title 40, chapter I, part 63 of the Code of Federal Regulations is proposed to be amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401 et seq.
(m) * * *
(3) EPA-454/R-98-015, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards (OAQPS), Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance, September 1997, IBR approved for §§ 63.548(e), 63.864(e), 63.7525(j), 63.8450(e), 63.8600(e), and 63.11224(f).
(b) * * *
(5) Each new or existing sulfite combustion unit located at a sulfite pulp mill, except such existing units at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. AP-10).
(7) The requirements of the alternative standard in § 63.862(d) apply to the hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14).
(d) At all times, the owner or operator must operate and maintain any affected source, including associated air pollution control equipment and monitoring equipment, in a manner consistent with safety and good air pollution control practices for minimizing emissions. The general duty to minimize emissions does not require the owner or operator to make any further efforts to reduce emissions if levels required by the applicable standard have been achieved. Determination of whether a source is operating in compliance with operation and maintenance requirements will be based on information available to the Administrator which may include, but is not limited to, monitoring results, review of operation and maintenance procedures, review of operation and maintenance records, and inspection of the source.
The revisions read as follows:
(c)
(d)
(c) The owner or operator of an existing or new affected source or process unit must comply with the revised requirements published on [insert date of publication of final rule in the
(1) The first of the 5-year periodic performance tests must be conducted within 3 years of the effective date of the revised standards, by [insert date 3 years after date of publication of final rule in the
(2) The date to submit performance test data through the ERT is within 60 days after the date of completing each performance test.
(a)-(c) [Reserved]
(d)
(1)-(2) [Reserved]
(3) As specified in § 63.8(c)(4)(i), each COMS must complete a minimum of one cycle of sampling and analyzing for each successive 10-second period and one cycle of data recording for each successive 6-minute period.
(4) As specified in § 63.8(g)(2), each 6-minute COMS data average must be calculated as the average of 36 or more data points, equally spaced over each 6-minute period.
(5) As specified in § 63.8(g)(4), each 6-minute COMS data average should be rounded to the nearest 1-percent opacity.
(e)
(1) For any kraft or soda recovery furnace or lime kiln using an ESP emission control device, the owner or operator must use the continuous parameter monitoring devices specified in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section to determine and record parameters at least once every successive 15-minute period.
(i) A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the secondary voltage of each ESP collection field.
(ii) A monitoring device for the continuous measurement of the secondary current of each ESP collection field.
(iii) Total secondary power may be calculated as the product of the secondary voltage and secondary current measurements for each ESP collection field and used to demonstrate compliance as an alternative to the secondary voltage and secondary current measurements.
(2) For any kraft or soda recovery furnace or lime kiln using an ESP followed by a wet scrubber, the owner or operator must use the continuous parameter monitoring devices specified in paragraphs (e)(1) and (10) of this section. The opacity monitoring system specified in paragraph (d) of this section is not required for combination ESP/wet scrubber control device systems.
(3)-(9) [Reserved]
(10) The owner or operator of each affected kraft or soda recovery furnace, kraft or soda lime kiln, sulfite combustion unit, or kraft or soda smelt dissolving tank equipped with a wet scrubber must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CPMS that can be used to determine and record the pressure drop across the scrubber and the scrubbing liquid flow rate at least once every successive 15-minute period using the procedures in § 63.8(c), as well as the procedures in paragraphs (e)(10)(i) and (ii) of this section:
(i) A monitoring device used for the continuous measurement of the pressure drop of the gas stream across the scrubber must be certified by the manufacturer to be accurate to within a gage pressure of ±500 pascals (±2 inches of water gage pressure); and
(ii) A monitoring device used for continuous measurement of the scrubbing liquid flow rate must be certified by the manufacturer to be accurate within ±5 percent of the design scrubbing liquid flow rate.
(iii) As an alternative to pressure drop measurement under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, a monitoring device for measurement of fan amperage may be used for smelt dissolving tank dynamic scrubbers that operate at ambient pressure or for low-energy entrainment scrubbers where the fan speed does not vary.
(11) The owner or operator of each affected semichemical combustion unit equipped with an RTO must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate a CPMS that can be used to determine and record the operating temperature of the RTO at least once every successive 15-minute period using the procedures in § 63.8(c). The monitor must compute and record the operating temperature at the point of incineration of effluent gases that are emitted using a temperature monitor accurate to within ±1 percent of the temperature being measured.
(12) The owner or operator of the affected hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14) must meet the requirements in paragraphs (e)(12)(i) through (xi) of this section for each bag leak detection system.
(i) The owner or operator must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate each triboelectric bag leak detection system according to EPA-454/R-98-015, “Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance” (incorporated by reference—see § 63.14). This document is available from the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (U.S. EPA); Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards; Emissions, Monitoring and Analysis Division; Emission Measurement Center, MD-D205-02, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711. This document is also available on the EPA Technical Air Pollution Resources Emission Measurement Center Web page under Continuous Emission Monitoring. The owner or operator must install, calibrate, maintain, and operate other types of bag leak detection systems in a manner consistent with the manufacturer's written specifications and recommendations.
(ii) The bag leak detection system must be certified by the manufacturer to be capable of detecting PM emissions at concentrations of 10 milligrams per actual cubic meter (0.0044 grains per actual cubic foot) or less.
(iii) The bag leak detection system sensor must provide an output of relative PM loadings.
(iv) The bag leak detection system must be equipped with a device to
(v) The bag leak detection system must be equipped with an audible alarm system that will sound automatically when an increase in relative PM emissions over a preset level is detected. The alarm must be located where it is easily heard by plant operating personnel.
(vi) For positive pressure fabric filter systems, a bag leak detector must be installed in each baghouse compartment or cell.
(vii) For negative pressure or induced air fabric filters, the bag leak detector must be installed downstream of the fabric filter.
(viii) Where multiple detectors are required, the system's instrumentation and alarm may be shared among detectors.
(ix) The baseline output must be established by adjusting the range and the averaging period of the device and establishing the alarm set points and the alarm delay time according to section 5.0 of the “Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance” (incorporated by reference—see § 63.14).
(x) Following initial adjustment of the system, the sensitivity or range, averaging period, alarm set points, or alarm delay time may not be adjusted except as detailed in the site-specific monitoring plan. In no case may the sensitivity be increased by more than 100 percent or decreased more than 50 percent over a 365-day period unless such adjustment follows a complete fabric filter inspection which demonstrates that the fabric filter is in good operating condition, as defined in section 5.2 of the “Fabric Filter Bag Leak Detection Guidance,” (incorporated by reference—see § 63.14). Record each adjustment.
(xi) The owner or operator must record the results of each inspection, calibration, and validation check.
(13) The owner or operator of each affected source or process unit that uses an ESP, wet scrubber, RTO, or fabric filter may monitor alternative control device operating parameters subject to prior written approval by the Administrator. The request for approval must also include the manner in which the parameter operating limit is to be set.
(14) The owner or operator of each affected source or process unit that uses an air pollution control system other than an ESP, wet scrubber, RTO, or fabric filter must provide to the Administrator an alternative monitoring request that includes the site-specific monitoring plan described in paragraph (a) of this section, a description of the control device, test results verifying the performance of the control device, the appropriate operating parameters that will be monitored, how the operating limit is to be set, and the frequency of measuring and recording to establish continuous compliance with the standards. The alternative monitoring request is subject to the Administrator's approval. The owner or operator of the affected source or process unit must install, calibrate, operate, and maintain the monitor(s) in accordance with the alternative monitoring request approved by the Administrator. The owner or operator must include in the information submitted to the Administrator proposed performance specifications and quality assurance procedures for the monitors. The Administrator may request further information and will approve acceptable test methods and procedures. The owner or operator must monitor the parameters as approved by the Administrator using the methods and procedures in the alternative monitoring request.
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i) [Reserved]
(j)
(2) The owner or operator may base operating limits on values recorded during previous performance tests or conduct additional performance tests for the specific purpose of establishing operating limits, provided that test data used to establish the operating limits are or have been obtained using the test methods required in this subpart. The owner or operator of the affected source or process unit must certify that all control techniques and processes have not been modified subsequent to the testing upon which the data used to establish the operating parameter limits were obtained.
(3) The owner or operator of an affected source or process unit may establish expanded or replacement operating limits for the monitoring parameters listed in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) and (e)(10) through (14) of this section and established in paragraph (j)(1) or (2) of this section during subsequent performance tests using the test methods in § 63.865.
(4) The owner or operator of the affected source or process unit must continuously monitor each parameter and determine the arithmetic average value of each parameter during each performance test. Multiple performance tests may be conducted to establish a range of parameter values.
(5) New, expanded, or replacement operating limits for the monitoring parameter values listed in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) and (e)(10) through (14) of this section should be determined as described in paragraphs (j)(5)(i) through (iii) below.
(i) The owner or operator of an affected source or process unit that uses a wet scrubber must set a minimum scrubber pressure drop operating limit as the average of the pressure drop values associated with each test run.
(A) For a smelt dissolving tank dynamic wet scrubber operating at ambient pressure or for low-energy entrainment scrubbers where fan speed does not vary, the minimum fan amperage operating limit must be set as the average of the fan amperage values associated with each test run.
(B) [Reserved]
(ii) The owner operator of an affected source equipped with an ESP must set the minimum operating secondary current and secondary voltage as the
(iii) The owner operator of an affected source equipped with an RTO must set the minimum operating temperature of the RTO as the average of the values associated with each test run.
(6) [Reserved]
(k)
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace, kraft or soda smelt dissolving tank, kraft or soda lime kiln, or sulfite combustion unit equipped with a wet scrubber, when any 3-hour average parameter value is below the minimum operating limit established in paragraph (j) of this section, with the exception of pressure drop during periods of startup and shutdown.
(iii) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace or lime kiln equipped with an ESP followed by a wet scrubber, when:
(A) Any 3-hour average scrubber parameter value is below the minimum operating limit established in paragraph (j) of this section, with the exception of pressure drop during periods of startup and shutdown; and
(B) Any 3-hour average ESP secondary voltage and secondary current (or total secondary power) values are below the minimum operating limits established during performance testing, with the exception of secondary current (or total secondary power) during periods of startup and shutdown.
(iv) For a new or existing semichemical combustion unit equipped with an RTO, when any 1-hour average temperature falls below the minimum temperature operating limit established in paragraph (j) of this section.
(v) For the hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14), when the bag leak detection system alarm sounds.
(vi) For an affected source or process unit equipped with an ESP, wet scrubber, RTO, or fabric filter and monitoring alternative operating parameters established in paragraph (e)(13) of this section, when any 3-hour average value does not meet the operating limit established in paragraph (j) of this section.
(vii) For an affected source or process unit equipped with an alternative air pollution control system and monitoring operating parameters approved by the Administrator as established in paragraph (e)(14) of this section, when any 3-hour average value does not meet the operating limit established in paragraph (j) of this section.
(2) Following the compliance date, owners or operators of all affected sources or process units are in violation of the standards of § 63.862 if the monitoring exceedances in paragraphs (k)(2)(i) through (ix) of this section occur during times when spent pulping liquor or lime mud is fired (as applicable):
(i) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace equipped with an ESP, when opacity is greater than 20 percent for 2 percent or more of the operating time within any semiannual period;
(ii) For a new or existing kraft or soda lime kiln equipped with an ESP, when opacity is greater than 20 percent for 1 percent or more of the operating time within any semiannual period;
(iii) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace or lime kiln equipped with an ESP, when the ESP secondary voltage and secondary current (or total secondary power) averaged over the semiannual period are below the minimum operating limits established during the performance test, with the exception of secondary current (or total secondary power) during periods of startup and shutdown;
(iv) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace, kraft or soda smelt dissolving tank, kraft or soda lime kiln, or sulfite combustion unit equipped with a wet scrubber, when six or more 3-hour average parameter values within any 6-month reporting period are below the minimum operating limits established in paragraph (j) of this section, with the exception of pressure drop during periods of startup and shutdown;
(v) For a new or existing kraft or soda recovery furnace or lime kiln equipped with an ESP followed by a wet scrubber, when:
(A) Six or more 3-hour average scrubber parameter values within any 6-month reporting period are outside the range of values established in paragraph (j) of this section, with the exception of pressure drop during periods of startup and shutdown; and
(B) Six or more 3-hour average ESP secondary voltage and secondary current (or total secondary power) values within any 6-month reporting period are below the minimum operating limits established during performance testing, with the exception of secondary current (or total secondary power) during periods of startup and shutdown;
(vi) For a new or existing semichemical combustion unit equipped with an RTO, when any 3-hour average temperature falls below the temperature established in paragraph (j) of this section;
(vii) For the hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14), when corrective action is not initiated within 1 hour of a bag leak detection system alarm and the alarm is engaged for more than 5 percent of the total operating time in a 6-month block reporting period. In calculating the operating time fraction, if inspection of the fabric filter demonstrates that no corrective action is required, no alarm time is counted; if corrective action is required, each alarm is counted as a minimum of 1 hour; if corrective action is not initiated within 1 hour, the alarm time is counted as the actual amount of time taken to initiate corrective action;
(viii) For an affected source or process unit equipped with an ESP, wet scrubber, RTO, or fabric filter and monitoring alternative operating parameters established in paragraph (e)(13) of this section, when six or more 3-hour average values within any 6-month reporting period do not meet the operating limits established in paragraph (j) of this section; and
(ix) For an affected source or process unit equipped with an alternative air pollution control system and monitoring operating parameters approved by the Administrator as established in paragraph (e)(14) of this section, when six or more 3-hour average values within any 6-month reporting period do not meet the operating limits established in paragraph (j) of this section.
(3) [Reserved]
The owner or operator of each affected source or process unit subject to the requirements of this subpart is required to conduct an initial performance test and periodic performance tests using the test methods and procedures listed in § 63.7 and paragraph (b) of this section. The owner or operator must conduct the first of the periodic performance tests within 3 years of the effective date of the
(b) * * *
(1) For purposes of determining the concentration or mass of PM emitted from each kraft or soda recovery furnace, sulfite combustion unit, smelt dissolving tank, lime kiln, or the hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14), Method 5 in appendix A-3 of 40 CFR part 60 or Method 29 in appendix A-8 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used, except that Method 17 in appendix A-6 of 40 CFR part 60 may be used in lieu of Method 5 or Method 29 if a constant value of 0.009 g/dscm (0.004 gr/dscf) is added to the results of Method 17, and the stack temperature is no greater than 205 °C (400 °F). For Methods 5, 29, and 17, the sampling time and sample volume for each run must be at least 60 minutes and 0.90 dscm (31.8 dscf), and water must be used as the cleanup solvent instead of acetone in the sample recovery procedure.
(2) For sources complying with § 63.862(a) or (b), the PM concentration must be corrected to the appropriate oxygen concentration using Equation 7 of this section as follows:
(3) Method 3A or 3B in appendix A-2 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used to determine the oxygen concentration. The voluntary consensus standard ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981—Part 10 (incorporated by reference—see § 63.14) may be used as an alternative to using Method 3B. The gas sample must be taken at the same time and at the same traverse points as the particulate sample.
(4) For purposes of complying with of § 63.862(a)(1)(ii)(A), the volumetric gas flow rate must be corrected to the appropriate oxygen concentration using Equation 8 of this section as follows:
(5)(i) For purposes of selecting sampling port location and number of traverse points, Method 1 or 1A in appendix A-1 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used;
(ii) For purposes of determining stack gas velocity and volumetric flow rate, Method 2, 2A, 2C, 2D, or 2F in appendix A-1 of 40 CFR part 60 or Method 2G in appendix A-2 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used;
(iii) For purposes of conducting gas analysis, Method 3, 3A, or 3B in appendix A-2 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used. The voluntary consensus standard ANSI/ASME PTC 19.10-1981—Part 10 (incorporated by reference—see § 63.14) may be used as an alternative to using Method 3B; and
(iv) For purposes of determining moisture content of stack gas, Method 4 in appendix A-3 of 40 CFR part 60 must be used.
(c) * * *
(1) The owner or operator complying through the use of an NDCE recovery furnace equipped with a dry ESP system is required to conduct periodic performance testing using Method 308 in appendix A of this part, as well as the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (iv) of this section to demonstrate compliance with the gaseous organic HAP standard. The requirements and equations in paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be met and utilized, respectively.
(d) The owner or operator seeking to determine compliance with the gaseous organic HAP standards in § 63.862(c)(2) for semichemical combustion units must use Method 25A in appendix A-7 of 40 CFR part 60, as well as the methods listed in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) through (iv) of this section. The sampling time for each Method 25A run must be at least 60 minutes. The calibration gas for each Method 25A run must be propane.
(a) [Reserved]
(b) The owner or operator of an affected source or process unit must maintain records of any occurrence when corrective action is required under § 63.864(k)(1), and when a violation is noted under § 63.864(k)(2). Record the time corrective action was initiated and completed, and the corrective action taken.
(c) In addition to the general records required by § 63.10(b)(2)(iii) and (vi) through (xiv), the owner or operator must maintain records of the information in paragraphs (c)(1) through (8) of this section:
(1) Records of black liquor solids firing rates in units of Mg/d or ton/d for
(2) Records of CaO production rates in units of Mg/d or ton/d for all lime kilns;
(3) Records of parameter monitoring data required under § 63.864, including any period when the operating parameter levels were inconsistent with the levels established during the performance test;
(4) Records and documentation of supporting calculations for compliance determinations made under § 63.865(a) through (d);
(5) Records of parameter operating limits established for each affected source or process unit;
(6) Records certifying that an NDCE recovery furnace equipped with a dry ESP system is used to comply with the gaseous organic HAP standard in § 63.862(c)(1);
(7) For the bag leak detection system on the hog fuel dryer fabric filter at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14), records of each alarm, the time of the alarm, the time corrective action was initiated and completed, and a brief description of the cause of the alarm and the corrective action taken; and
(8) Records of the date, time, and duration of each startup and/or shutdown period, recording the periods when the affected source was subject to the standard applicable to startup and shutdown.
(d)(1) In the event that an affected unit fails to meet an applicable standard, including any emission limit or operating limit, record the number of failures. For each failure record the date, start time, and duration of each failure along with a brief explanation of the cause.
(2) For each failure to meet an applicable standard, record and retain a list of the affected sources or equipment, an estimate of the quantity of each regulated pollutant emitted over any emission limit and a description of the method used to estimate the emissions.
(3) Record actions taken to minimize emissions in accordance with § 63.860(d) and any corrective actions taken to return the affected unit to its normal or usual manner of operation.
(a)
(2) [Reserved]
(3) In addition to the requirements in subpart A of this part, the owner or operator of the hog fuel dryer at Cosmo Specialty Fibers' Cosmopolis, Washington, facility (Emission Unit no. HD-14) must include analysis and supporting documentation demonstrating conformance with EPA guidance and specifications for bag leak detection systems in § 63.864(e)(12) in the Notification of Compliance Status.
(b)
(2) Any owner or operator of a group of process units in a chemical recovery system at a mill complying with the PM emissions limits in § 63.862(a)(1)(ii) must submit the calculations and supporting documentation used in § 63.865(a)(1) and (2) to the Administrator as part of the notification of compliance status required under subpart A of this part.
(3) After the Administrator has approved the emissions limits for any process unit, the owner or operator of a process unit must notify the Administrator before any of the actions in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (iv) of this section are taken:
(i) The air pollution control system for any process unit is modified or replaced;
(ii) Any kraft or soda recovery furnace, smelt dissolving tank, or lime kiln in a chemical recovery system at a kraft or soda pulp mill complying with the PM emissions limits in § 63.862(a)(1)(ii) is shut down for more than 60 consecutive days;
(iii) A continuous monitoring parameter or the value or range of values of a continuous monitoring parameter for any process unit is changed; or
(iv) The black liquor solids firing rate for any kraft or soda recovery furnace during any 24-hour averaging period is increased by more than 10 percent above the level measured during the most recent performance test.
(4) An owner or operator of a group of process units in a chemical recovery system at a mill complying with the PM emissions limits in § 63.862(a)(1)(ii) and seeking to perform the actions in paragraph (b)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section must recalculate the overall PM emissions limit for the group of process units and resubmit the documentation required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the Administrator. All modified PM emissions limits are subject to approval by the Administrator.
(c)
(1) If the total duration of excess emissions or process control system parameter exceedances for the reporting period is less than 1-percent of the total reporting period operating time, and CMS downtime is less than 5-percent of the total reporting period operating time, only the summary report is required to be submitted in accordance with § 63.10(e)(3)(vii). This report will be titled “Summary Report—Gaseous and Opacity Excess Emissions and Continuous Monitoring System Performance” in accordance with § 63.10(e)(3)(vi) and must contain the information required in § 63.10(e)(3), as specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (x) of this section. When no exceedances of parameters have occurred, the owner or operator must submit the summary report stating that no excess emissions occurred during the reporting period. In addition to a statement verifying that no excess emissions occurred during the reporting period, this report must contain the information required in § 63.10(e)(3) only as specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (x) of this section. The summary report must be submitted following the procedure specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(i) The company name and address and name of the affected facility.
(ii) Beginning and ending dates of the reporting period.
(iii) An identification of each process unit with the corresponding air pollution control device, being included in the semiannual report, including the pollutants monitored at each process unit, and the total operating time for each process unit.
(iv) An identification of the applicable emission limits, operating parameter limits, and averaging times.
(v) An identification of the monitoring equipment used for each process unit and the corresponding model number.
(vi) Date of the last CMS certification or audit.
(vii) An emission data summary, including the total duration of excess
(viii) A CMS performance summary, including the total duration of CMS downtime, the duration of downtime expressed as a percent of operating time, and reason for the downtime (e.g., monitoring equipment malfunction, non-monitoring equipment malfunction, quality assurance, quality control calibrations, other known causes, or other unknown causes).
(ix) A description of changes to CMS, processes, or controls since last reporting period.
(x) A certification by a certifying official of truth, accuracy and completeness. This will state that, based on information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the statements and information in the document are true, accurate, and complete.
(2) [Reserved]
(3) If measured parameters meet any of the conditions specified in § 63.864(k)(1) or (2), the owner or operator of the affected source must submit a semiannual report describing the excess emissions that occurred. If the total duration of monitoring exceedances for the reporting period is 1-percent or greater of the total reporting period operating time, or the total CMS downtime for the reporting period is 5-percent or greater of the total reporting period operating time, or any violations according to § 63.864(k)(2) occurred, information from both the summary report and the excess emissions and continuous monitoring system performance report must be submitted. This report will be titled “Excess Emissions and Continuous Monitoring System Performance Report” and must contain the information specified in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, in addition to the information required in § 63.10(c)(5) through (14), as specified in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (vi) of this section. Reporting monitoring exceedances does not constitute a violation of the applicable standard unless the criteria in § 63.864(k)(2) are reached.
(i) An identification of the date and time identifying each period during which the CMS was inoperative except for zero (low-level) and high-level checks.
(ii) An identification of the date and time identifying each period during which the CMS was out of control, as defined in § 63.8(c)(7).
(iii) The specific identification of each period of excess emissions and parameter monitoring exceedances as described in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section.
(A) For opacity:
(
(
(
(
(
(B) For ESP operating parameters:
(
(
(
(
(
(C) For wet scrubber operating parameters:
(
(
(
(D) For RTO operating temperature:
(
(
(
(iv) The nature and cause of any malfunction (if known).
(v) The corrective action taken or preventative measures adopted.
(vi) The nature of repairs and adjustments to the CMS that was inoperative or out of control.
(4) If a source fails to meet an applicable standard, report such events in the semiannual excess emissions report. Report the number of failures to meet an applicable standard. For each instance, report the date, time and duration of each failure. For each failure the report must include a list of the affected sources or equipment, an estimate of the quantity of each regulated pollutant emitted over any emission limit, and a description of the method used to estimate the emissions.
(5) The owner or operator of an affected source or process unit subject to the requirements of this subpart and subpart S of this part may combine excess emissions and/or summary reports for the mill.
(d)
(i) For data collected using test methods supported by the EPA's Electronic Reporting Tool (ERT) as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site (
(ii) For data collected using test methods that are not supported by the EPA's ERT as listed on the EPA's ERT Web site at the time of the test, the owner or operator must attach an electronic copy of the complete performance test report containing the methods not included in the ERT in the attachment module of the ERT in portable document format (PDF) and submit the results of the performance test to the EPA via CEDRI.
(2) The owner or operator must submit notification and semiannual reports to the EPA via the CEDRI. (CEDRI can be accessed through the EPA's CDX (
(b) * * *
(2) Approval of a major change to test method under § 63.7(e)(2)(ii) and (f) and as defined in § 63.90.
(3) Approval of a major change to monitoring under § 63.8(f) and as defined in § 63.90.
(4) Approval of a major change to recordkeeping/reporting under § 63.10(f) and as defined in § 63.90.
(a) The General Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5332(a)) at Schedule 1;
(b) The Foreign Service Schedule (22 U.S.C. 3963) at Schedule 2; and
(c) The schedules for the Veterans Health Administration of the Department of Veterans Affairs (38 U.S.C. 7306, 7404; section 301(a) of Public Law 102-40) at Schedule 3.
(a) The Executive Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5312-5318) at Schedule 5;
(b) The Vice President (3 U.S.C. 104) and the Congress (2 U.S.C. 4501) at Schedule 6; and
(c) Justices and judges (28 U.S.C. 5, 44(d), 135, 252, and 461(a)) at Schedule 7.
(b) The Director of the Office of Personnel Management shall take such actions as may be necessary to implement these payments and to publish appropriate notice of such payments in the
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |