Page Range | 4413-4574 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 4420 - Revisions to Operational Requirements for the Use of Enhanced Flight Vision Systems (EFVS) and to Pilot Compartment View Requirements for Vision Systems; Correcting Amendment | |
83 FR 4431 - Medicare Program: Hospital Outpatient Prospective Payment and Ambulatory Surgical Center Payment Systems and Quality Reporting Programs | |
83 FR 4481 - Deletion of Items From Sunshine Act Meeting | |
83 FR 4430 - Addition of a Subsurface Intrusion Component to the Hazard Ranking System | |
83 FR 4564 - Common Crop Insurance Regulations; Nursery Crop Insurance Provisions | |
83 FR 4543 - Parts and Accessories Necessary for Safe Operation; Daimler Trucks North America LLC Application for Exemption | |
83 FR 4540 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Approval of a New Information Collection Request: National Consumer Complaint Database | |
83 FR 4548 - Hours of Service of Drivers: Electronic Logging Devices; Application for Exemption; Old Dominion and Other Motor Carriers Experiencing Problems Integrating PeopleNet ELD System Updates Into Their Fleet Management Systems | |
83 FR 4537 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
83 FR 4545 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators | |
83 FR 4548 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 4546 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 4539 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 4550 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
83 FR 4499 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 4497 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 4498 - Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing | |
83 FR 4500 - Center for Scientific Review; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4513 - Public Meeting of the Glen Canyon Dam Adaptive Management Work Group | |
83 FR 4519 - Amendment of Statement of Organization and Functions; Restructuring of National Labor Relations Board's Field Organization | |
83 FR 4489 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; LENVIMA | |
83 FR 4505 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection: Application for Provisional Unlawful Presence Waiver of Inadmissibility | |
83 FR 4455 - Auction of FM Translator Construction Permits Scheduled for June 21, 2018; Comment Sought on Competitive Bidding Procedures for Auction 83 | |
83 FR 4502 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: Nonimmigrant Petition Based on Blanket L Petition | |
83 FR 4431 - National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan National Priorities List: Deletion of the Hatheway & Patterson Superfund Site | |
83 FR 4479 - Availability of the Integrated Risk Information System (IRIS) Assessment Plan for Uranium | |
83 FR 4480 - Availability of the Systematic Review Protocol for the Chloroform Integrated Risk Information System (IRIS) Assessment. | |
83 FR 4428 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation Canaveral Barge Canal, Canaveral, FL | |
83 FR 4423 - Listing of Color Additives Exempt From Certification; Calcium Carbonate; Confirmation of Effective Date | |
83 FR 4517 - Notice To Ensure State Workforce Agencies Are Aware of the Revised Schedule of Remuneration for the Unemployment Compensation for Ex-Servicemembers Program That Reflects the Military Pay Increase Effective January 1, 2018 | |
83 FR 4503 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
83 FR 4504 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: Application for Replacement Naturalization/Citizenship Document | |
83 FR 4482 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
83 FR 4484 - Final National Occupational Research Agenda for Manufacturing | |
83 FR 4523 - BNP Paribas USA, Inc., et al.; Notice of Application and Temporary Order | |
83 FR 4531 - Notice of Applications for Deregistration Under Section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 | |
83 FR 4533 - EquBot LLC and ETF Series Solutions | |
83 FR 4520 - An Approach for Using Probabilistic Risk Assessment in Risk-Informed Decisions on Plant-Specific Changes to the Licensing Basis | |
83 FR 4478 - Information Collection Request Submitted to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Laboratory Quality Assurance Evaluation Program for Analysis of Cryptosporidium Under the Safe Drinking Water Act (Renewal) | |
83 FR 4463 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 4512 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Oil Shale Management | |
83 FR 4475 - Freeport LNG Expansion, L.P., et al.; Application for Blanket Authorization To Export Liquefied Natural Gas to Non-Free Trade Agreement Countries on a Short-Term Basis | |
83 FR 4473 - Galveston Bay LNG, LLC; Application for Long-Term, Multi-Contract Authorization To Export Liquefied Natural Gas to Non-Free Trade Agreement Nations | |
83 FR 4487 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; DUAVEE | |
83 FR 4494 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; CRESEMBA-New Drug Application 207501 | |
83 FR 4486 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; SAPIEN XT TRANSCATHETER HEART VALVE | |
83 FR 4492 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; KEYTRUDA | |
83 FR 4490 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; MOBI-C CERVICAL DISC PROSTHESIS | |
83 FR 4477 - Agency Information Collection Extension | |
83 FR 4558 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Multiple IRS Information Collection Requests | |
83 FR 4514 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Reclamation Awards-Call for Nominations | |
83 FR 4450 - Involuntary Liquidation of Federal Credit Unions and Claims Procedures | |
83 FR 4515 - Notice of a Public Meeting on the Western Energy Company's Rosebud Mine Area F Draft Environmental Impact Statement | |
83 FR 4467 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 127-West Columbia, South Carolina; Authorization of Limited Production Activity; BGM America, Inc. Subzone 127A (Sailboats, Cabin Cruiser Powerboats, Outboard Motor Boats) Marion, South Carolina | |
83 FR 4466 - Foreign-Trade Zone 179-Madawaska, Maine; Application for Reorganization Under Alternative Site Framework | |
83 FR 4466 - Foreign-Trade Zone 105-Providence, Rhode Island; Application for Reorganization Under Alternative Site Framework | |
83 FR 4518 - Modernizing Data Collection for Supervision of Credit Unions | |
83 FR 4496 - Notice of Interest Rate on Overdue Debts | |
83 FR 4483 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
83 FR 4483 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
83 FR 4522 - Information Collection: Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities | |
83 FR 4476 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Supercritical CO2 | |
83 FR 4515 - Certain Batteries and Electrochemical Devices Containing Composite Separators, Components Thereof, and Products Containing Same Commission Determination Not To Review an Initial Determination (Order No. 7) Granting a Motion To Amend the Complaint and Notice of Investigation | |
83 FR 4560 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Grants to States for Construction & Acquisition of State Home Facilities | |
83 FR 4470 - Certain Polyester Staple Fiber From the People's Republic of China: Rescission of 2016-2017 Antidumping Duty Administrative Review | |
83 FR 4468 - Call for Applications for the International Buyer Program Select for Quarter 1 Calendar Year 2019 | |
83 FR 4471 - Call for Applications for the International Buyer Program Quarter 1 Calendar Year 2019 | |
83 FR 4467 - Large Residential Washers From the Republic of Korea: Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 4502 - Intent To Request Revision From OMB of One Current Public Collection of Information: TSA End of Course Level 1 Evaluation-Instructor-Led Classroom Training | |
83 FR 4473 - Manual of Patent Examining Procedure, Ninth Edition, Revision of January 2018 | |
83 FR 4452 - Medical Care in Foreign Countries and Filing for Reimbursement for Community Care Not Previously Authorized by VA | |
83 FR 4556 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel WINSOME RIDE; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4551 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel S/V LOBO; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4554 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel SNOCKERED; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4556 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel PUNAWELEWELE KAI; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4551 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel MOMENT; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4555 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel LIBERTINE; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4552 - Requested Administrative Waiver of the Coastwise Trade Laws: Vessel DOWN UNDER; Invitation for Public Comments | |
83 FR 4501 - National Institute of Nursing Research; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
83 FR 4509 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; International Organization for Standardization (ISO) Geospatial Metadata Editors Registry | |
83 FR 4511 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; The National Map Corps (TNMCorps)-Volunteered Geographic Information Project | |
83 FR 4536 - Bureau of International Security and Nonproliferation; Imposition of Missile Proliferation Sanctions on Two North Korean Entities | |
83 FR 4552 - Voluntary Intermodal Sealift Agreement; Changes to the Open Season Enrollment Period | |
83 FR 4423 - Schedule of Fees for Consular Services, Department of State and Overseas Embassies and Consulates | |
83 FR 4496 - Agency Information Collection Request. 60-Day Public Comment Request | |
83 FR 4561 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Evaluation of Patient and Provider Satisfaction With Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists in Outpatient Mental Health Clinics at the Madison VA | |
83 FR 4464 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; School District Review Program | |
83 FR 4536 - Notice of Determinations: Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Cézanne Portraits” Exhibition | |
83 FR 4535 - Notice of Determinations: Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Danh Vo: Take My Breath Away” Exhibition | |
83 FR 4510 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; The William T. Pecora Award; Application and Nomination Process | |
83 FR 4477 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 4557 - Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions | |
83 FR 4516 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under The Clean Water Act and Oil Pollution Act | |
83 FR 4523 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS); Meeting of the ACRS Subcommittee on Future Plant Designs; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4516 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Advanced Media Workflow Association, Inc. | |
83 FR 4516 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-National Fire Protection Association | |
83 FR 4517 - Notice of a Change in Status of the Extended Benefit (EB) Program for the Virgin Islands | |
83 FR 4534 - FS Series Trust and FS Fund Advisor, LLC; Release No. 32992/January 25, 2018 | |
83 FR 4562 - Proposed Information Collection: Claim for Credit of Annual Leave | |
83 FR 4559 - Agency Information Collection: VA Child Care Subsidy | |
83 FR 4559 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Application for United States Flag for Burial Purposes | |
83 FR 4558 - Agency Information Collection: Certification of United States Paralympics Training Status | |
83 FR 4497 - National Institute of Nursing Research; Notice to Close Meeting | |
83 FR 4500 - National Institute of Nursing Research; Notice to Close Meeting | |
83 FR 4501 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 4500 - National Institute of General Medical Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 4497 - National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4499 - National Institute on Aging; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4499 - Center for Scientific Review; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4498 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 4497 - Center for Scientific Review; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 4528 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Guggenheim Ultra Short Duration ETF and the Guggenheim Total Return Bond ETF | |
83 FR 4527 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Concerning Updates to and Formalization of OCC's Recovery and Orderly Wind-Down Plan | |
83 FR 4526 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Concerning Enhanced and New Tools for Recovery Scenarios | |
83 FR 4521 - Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards; Notice of Meeting-Revised | |
83 FR 4483 - Notice of Meetings | |
83 FR 4507 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Section 184 and 184-A Loan Guarantee Program | |
83 FR 4506 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Evaluation of Public Housing Program Activities | |
83 FR 4560 - Solicitation of Nominations for Appointment to the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses | |
83 FR 4425 - Schedule of Fees for Consular Services, Department of State and Overseas Embassies and Consulates-Passport Services Fee Changes | |
83 FR 4509 - 30-day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Application for Healthy Homes and Lead Hazard Control Grant Programs and Quality Assurance Plans | |
83 FR 4484 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
83 FR 4481 - Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
83 FR 4414 - Watermelon Research and Promotion Plan; Redistricting and Importer Representation | |
83 FR 4413 - Apricots Grown in Designated Counties in Washington; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
83 FR 4431 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: Procurement of Commercial Items (DFARS Case 2016-D006) | |
83 FR 4447 - Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement: State Sponsor of Terrorism-North Korea (DFARS Case 2018-D004) |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Federal Crop Insurance Corporation
Census Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Transportation Security Administration
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Geological Survey
Land Management Bureau
Reclamation Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Antitrust Division
Employment and Training Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Maritime Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Affirmation of interim rule as final rule.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is adopting, as a final rule an interim rule that implemented a recommendation from the Washington Apricot Marketing Committee (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the 2017-2018 and subsequent fiscal periods. The interim rule was necessary to allow the Committee to reduce its financial reserve while still providing adequate funding to meet program expenses. This final rule also makes administrative revisions to the subpart headings to bring the language into conformance with the Office of Federal Register requirements.
Effective February 1, 2018.
Dale Novotny, Marketing Specialist, or Gary D. Olson, Regional Director, Northwest Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (503) 326-2724, Fax: (503) 326-7440, or Email:
Small businesses may obtain information on complying with this and other Marketing Order regulations by viewing a guide at the following website:
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, amends regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This rule is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 922, both as amended (7 CFR part 922), regulating the handling of apricots grown in designated counties in Washington. Part 922 (referred to as the “Order”) is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The Committee locally administers the Order and is comprised of growers and handlers of apricots operating within the area of production.
USDA is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This rule falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action, it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771.
Under the Order, Washington apricot handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the Order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate, as issued herein, will be applicable to all assessable apricots beginning April 1, 2017, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated. The Committee's fiscal period begins on April 1 and ends on March 31.
In an interim rule published in the
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 17 Washington apricot handlers subject to regulation under the Order and approximately 100 apricot growers in the regulated production area. Small agricultural service firms (handlers) are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000, and small agricultural producers (growers) are defined as those having annual receipts less than $750,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
Committee reports indicate that the industry shipped 6,028 tons of Washington apricots over the 2016-2017 fiscal period. Based on information from the USDA's Market News Service, 2016 free on board (f.o.b.) prices for Washington No.1 apricots ranged from $18.00 to $23.00 per 24-pound container, for both loose-pack and 2-layer tray-pack containers. Using those prices and the shipment information provided by the Committee, the approximate total value of Washington apricot shipments likely ranged between $9.0 million and $11.6 million, with the average revenue per handler ranging from $529,000 to $682,000. It is therefore determined that most, if not all, of the Washington apricot handlers ship less than $7,500,000 worth of apricots on an annual basis.
In addition, using shipment data from the Committee and the 2016 National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS) average f.o.b. price of $1,210 per ton for fresh apricots, total revenue for Washington apricot growers for the
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment rate established for the Committee and collected from handlers for the 2017-2018 and subsequent fiscal periods from $1.40 to $1.00 per ton of apricots. The Committee unanimously recommended 2017-2018 expenditures of $8,225 and an assessment rate of $1.00 per ton of apricots. The assessment rate of $1.00 per ton is $0.40 lower than the assessment rate previously in effect.
The quantity of assessable apricots for the 2017-2018 fiscal period is estimated at 6,000 tons. Thus, the $1.00 per ton rate should provide $6,000 in assessment income. Income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, will be adequate to cover budgeted expenses. This action will allow the Committee to reduce its financial reserve while still providing adequate funding to meet program expenses.
This rule continues in effect the action that decreased the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to growers. However, decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers and may reduce the burden on growers.
In addition, the Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Washington apricot industry, and all interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the May 3, 2017, meeting was a public meeting, and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189, Marketing Orders for Fruit Crops. This final interim rule corrects information provided in the interim rule, which had incorrectly cited OMB No. 0581-0178, Vegetable and Specialty Crops, as the previously approved information collection. No changes are necessary in those requirements as a result of this action. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This action imposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Washington apricot handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
Comments on the interim rule were required to be received on or before November 14, 2017. Two comments were received in response to the interim rule. One comment was a general question about the administration of the Order, and the other comment was a statement of gratitude for a perceived lower cost to consumers resulting from the decreased assessment rate. Therefore, for the reasons given in the interim rule, USDA is adopting the interim rule as a final rule, without change.
To view the interim rule, go to:
This action also affirms information contained in the interim rule concerning Executive Orders 12866, 12988, 13175, 13563, and 13771; the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35); and the E-Gov Act (44 U.S.C. 101).
After consideration of all relevant material presented, it is found that finalizing the interim rule, without change, as published in the
Apricots, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, AMS adopts the interim rule published September 15, 2017, at 82 FR 43297, as final with the following non-substantive amendments:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
Agricultural Marketing Service.
Final rule.
This rule realigns the production districts for producer and handler membership on the National Watermelon Promotion Board (Board) under the Agricultural Marketing Service's (AMS) regulations regarding a national research and promotion program for watermelons. This rule also
Stacy Jones King, Agricultural Marketing Specialist, Promotion and Economics Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW, Room 1406-S, Stop 0244, Washington, DC 20250-0244; telephone: (202) 731-2117; facsimile: (202) 205-2800; or electronic mail:
This final rule affecting 7 CFR part 1210 is authorized under the Watermelon Research and Promotion Act (Act) (7 U.S.C. 4901-4916). The Watermelon Research and Promotion Plan is codified at 7 CFR part 1210.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules and promoting flexibility. This final rule falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771.
This final rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this rule will not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and will not have significant Tribal implications.
In addition, this final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. It is not intended to have retroactive effect. The Act provides that it shall not affect or preempt any other State or Federal law authorizing promotion or research relating to an agricultural commodity.
Under section 1650 of the Act (7 U.S.C. 4909), a person may file a written petition with USDA if they believe that part 1210, any provision of the part, or any obligation imposed in connection with the part, is not in accordance with the law. In any petition, the person may request a modification of the part or an exemption from the part. The petitioner will have the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. Afterwards, an Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) will issue a decision. If the petitioner disagrees with the ALJ's ruling, the petitioner has 30 days to appeal to the Judicial Officer, who will issue a ruling on behalf of USDA. If the petitioner disagrees with USDA's ruling, the petitioner may file, within 20 days, an appeal in the U.S. District Court for the district where the petitioner resides or conducts business.
Under the Watermelon Research and Promotion Plan, the Board administers a nationally coordinated program of research, development, advertising and promotion designed to strengthen the watermelon's position in the market place and to establish, maintain, and expand markets for watermelons. The program is financed by assessments on producers growing 10 acres or more of watermelons, handlers of watermelons, and importers of 150,000 pounds of watermelons or more per year. The regulations specify that handlers are responsible for collecting and submitting both the producer and handler assessments to the Board, reporting their handling of watermelons, and maintaining records necessary to verify their reporting(s). Importers are responsible for payment of assessments to the Board on watermelons imported into the United States through U.S. Customs and Border Protection (Customs).
This final rule realigns the production districts under part 1210 for producer and handler membership on the Board, and adds four importer seats to the Board. The Board administers the regulations with oversight by USDA. These changes were recommended by the Board after a review of the production volume in each district as well as the assessments paid by importers. The regulations require that such a review be conducted every 5 years. This action is necessary to provide for the equitable representation of producers, handlers and importers on the Board.
Section 1210.320(a) specifies that the Board shall be composed of producers, handlers, importers and one public representative appointed by the Secretary. Pursuant to § 1210.320(b), the United States is divided into seven districts of comparable production volumes of watermelons, and each district is allocated two producer members and two handler members. Section 1210.320(d) specifies that importer representation on the Board shall be proportionate to the percentage of assessments paid by importers to the Board, except that at least one representative of importers shall serve on the Board.
The current Board is composed of 37 members—14 producers (two from each district), 14 handlers (two from each district), 8 importers and one public member.
Section 1210.320(c) requires the Board, at least every 5 years, to review the districts to determine whether realignment is necessary. In conducting the review, the Board must consider: (1) The most recent 3 years of USDA production reports or Board assessment reports if USDA production reports are not available; (2) shifts and trends in quantities of watermelon produced, and (3) other relevant factors. As a result of the review, the Board may recommend to USDA that the districts be realigned.
Pursuant to § 1210.501, the seven current districts are as follows:
The districts listed above were recommended by the Board in 2010 and established through rulemaking by USDA in 2011 (76 FR 42009; July 18, 2011).
The Board appointed a subcommittee in 2016 to conduct a review of the seven U.S. watermelon production districts to determine whether realignment was necessary. The subcommittee held a teleconference on July 27, 2016, and reviewed production data for 2013, 2014 and 2015 from USDA's National Agricultural Statistics Service's (NASS) Vegetables Annual Summary for 2015.
The subcommittee considered three scenarios in realigning the districts. All three scenarios would consolidate the State of Florida into District 1 and would make no changes to Districts 3 (Georgia), 5 (California), and 6 (Texas). Two of the scenarios would have moved the States of North and South Carolina into one district—District 2. Ultimately the subcommittee proposed the following changes: (1) Consolidating the State of Florida into one district by moving the Florida counties of Alachua, Baker, Bay, Bradford, Calhoun, Citrus, Clay, Columbia, Dixie, Duval, Escambia, Flagler, Franklin, Gadsden, Gilchrist, Gulf, Hamilton, Hernando, Holmes, Jackson, Jefferson, Lafayette, Leon, Levy, Liberty, Madison, Marion, Nassau, Okaloosa, Putnam, Santa Rosa, St. Johns, Sumter, Suwannee, Taylor, Union, Wakulla, Walton, and Washington from District 2 to District 1; (2) moving the States of Kentucky, Tennessee, Virginia and West Virginia from District 4 to District 2; and (3) moving the State of Alabama from District 4 to District 7. As shown in Table 2, under the realignment, each district will represent, on average, 14 percent of the total U.S. production based on NASS data, with a range of 11 to 17 percent.
Upon review, the Board subsequently recommended through a mail ballot vote in late July 2016 that four of the seven production districts be realigned. The districts will be as follows:
Additionally, USDA has reviewed the NASS report that was issued in February 2017.
Section 1210.501 is revised accordingly.
Section 1210.320(e) requires USDA to evaluate the average annual percentage of assessments paid by importers during the 3-year period preceding the date of the evaluation and adjust, to the extent practicable, the number of importer representatives on the Board.
Table 4 below shows domestic and import assessment data for watermelons for the years 2013, 2014 and 2015. The data is from the Board's financial audits for 2013, 2014
Based on this data, the 3-year average annual import assessments for watermelons for 2013-2015 totaled $1,029,030, approximately 34 percent of the Board's assessment income. Thus, increasing the number of importers on the Board from 8 to 14 members would reflect that almost 34 percent of the assessments were paid by importers over the 3-year period. However, due to the difficulty the Board has had in finding individuals that are both eligible and willing to serve in the current eight importer seats, it would likely be very challenging to fill six additional importer seats. Furthermore, under the program's nomination rules, the Board would need to recommend to the Secretary at least two importers for each open seat, which would mean that 12 eligible and willing importers would have to be secured. For these reasons, the Board recommended only adding four importer seats (representing 30 percent of the Board's total industry members) to ensure that it would have a sufficient number of potential nominees. The Board subsequently recommended through the July 2016 mail vote increasing the number of importer seats from 8 to 12, thereby increasing the number of Board members from 37 to a total of 41: 14 producers, 14 handlers, 12 importers, and one public member. Importers would represent 30 percent of the Board's 40 industry members. (Importers (8) represent about 22 percent of the current Board's 36 industry members.)
Section 1210.502 is revised accordingly.
Nominations will be held as soon as possible to fill the four new importer seats.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), AMS is required to examine the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has considered the economic impact of this action on such entities.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions so that small businesses will not be disproportionately burdened. The Small Business Administration defines, in 13 CFR part 121, small agricultural producers as those having annual receipts of no more than $750,000 and small agricultural service firms (handlers and importers) as those having annual receipts of no more than $7.5 million.
According to the Board, there are 1,251 producers, 147 handlers, and 365 importers who are required to pay assessments under the program. NASS data for the 2016 crop year estimated about 354 hundredweight (cwt.) of watermelons were produced per acre in the United States, and the 2016 grower price was $14.40 per cwt.
Also based on the Board's data, using an average freight on board (f.o.b.) price of $0.186 per pound and the number of pounds handled annually, none of the watermelon handlers have receipts over the $7.5 million threshold.
Based on 2016 Customs data, over 90 percent of watermelon importers shipped under $7.5 million worth of watermelons. Based on the foregoing, the majority of the producers, handlers and importers that will be affected by this rule would be classified as small entities.
Regarding the value of the commodity, based on 2016 NASS data, the value of the U.S. watermelon crop was about $578 million.
This rule revises §§ 1210.501 and 1210.502, respectively, to change the boundaries of four of the seven U.S. production districts and add four importers to the Board, increasing the size of the Board from 37 to 41 members. The Board administers the program with oversight by USDA.
Under the program, the United States is divided into seven districts of comparable production volumes of watermelons, and each district is allocated two producer members and two handler members. Further, importer representation on the Board must be, to the extent practicable, proportionate to the percentage of assessments paid by importers, except there must be at least one importer on the Board.
Every 5 years, the Board is required to evaluate, based on the preceding 3-year period, the average production in each production district and the average annual percentage of assessments paid by importers. The Board conducted this review in 2016 and recommended changing the boundaries of four of the seven districts and increasing the importer membership by four members. Authority for these changes is provided in § 1210.320.
Regarding the economic impact of this rule on affected entities, neither the realignment of production districts nor the expansion of Board membership imposes additional costs on industry members. Eligible importers interested in serving on the Board would have to complete a background questionnaire. Those requirements are addressed in the section titled
Regarding alternatives, the Board considered three scenarios in realigning the districts. All three scenarios would consolidate the State of Florida in District 1 and would make no changes to Districts 3 (Georgia), 5 (California), and 6 (Texas). Two of the scenarios would have moved the States of North and South Carolina into one district—District 2. Ultimately the Board recommended consolidating the State of Florida into one district (District 1), moving the States of Kentucky, Tennessee, Virginia and West Virginia from District 4 to District 2, and moving the State of Alabama from District 4 to District 7. The Board recommended the alignment scenario described in this rule because it: (1) Provides for a proportional geographical representation on the Board for producers and handlers; (2) does not create any producer or handler vacancies on the Board; and (3) streamlines the nomination process for District 1 by condensing all the Florida counties into a single district. The Board's recommendation is consistent with the 2011 realignment that kept States (except Florida) together.
Regarding alternatives for importer representation, as stated previously, the 3-year average annual imports for watermelon totals $1,029,030. This represents almost 34 percent of the total assessments paid to the Board. One alternative would be to add five or six importer seats (representing 33 and 35 percent, respectively, of the Board's 40 industry members), so that importer representation would be proportionate to the percentage of importer assessments paid. However, due to the difficulty the Board has had in finding individuals who are both eligible and willing to serve in the current eight importer seats, it would likely be very challenging to fill six additional importer seats. Furthermore, under the program's nomination rules, the Board would need to recommend to the Secretary at least two importers for each open seat, which would mean that 12 eligible and willing importers would have to be secured. For these reasons, the Board recommended only adding four importer seats (representing 30 percent of the Board's total industry members) to ensure that it would have a sufficient number of potential nominees. This is consistent with § 1210.320(e) which prescribes that the
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the background form, which represents the information collection and recordkeeping requirements that are imposed under the program, have been approved previously under OMB number 0581-0093. The watermelon regulations require that two nominees be submitted for each vacant position. With regard to information collection requirements, adding four importers to the Board means that eight additional importers would be required to submit background forms (Form AD-755) to USDA in order to verify their eligibility for appointment to the Board. However, serving on the Board is optional, and the burden of submitting the background form will be offset by the benefits of serving on the Board. The estimated annual cost of the eight importers providing the required information would be $66 or $8.25 per importer. The additional minimal burden is included in the existing information collection package under OMB number 0581-0093.
As with all Federal promotion programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. Finally, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Regarding outreach efforts, the Board formed a subcommittee to review the production, assessment and import data to assess whether changes to the district boundaries and number of importers on the Board was warranted. The subcommittee held a teleconference on July 27, 2016. All Board and subcommittee meetings, including meetings held via teleconference, are open to the public and interested persons are invited to participate and express their views.
A proposed rule concerning this action was published in the
Eleven comments were received in response to the proposed rule. Of those eleven comments, seven supported the proposed district realignment and the addition of four importer seats, three expressed concerns with the proposal, and one was outside the scope of the rulemaking.
The comments that supported the proposed changes focused on increasing the positive impact that the research and promotion program has already had on the watermelon industry. Several commenters opined that gradual adjustments such as adding new members and realigning the production districts after completing an analysis of the available data are a necessary component of the program's continued success. Several commenters also acknowledged that the Board accomplished the very difficult task of equitably distributing representation despite the fact that there is a variance in production levels across the country. One commenter stated that the four largest-producing states “. . . will be fairly represented while other smaller production areas will be grouped with states that produce little or no watermelons on a commercial scale.”
Three comments expressed concerns with the proposed rule. One commenter opined that the district realignment could weaken the representative power of the larger producing states. The commenter was concerned that the realignment unfairly left large production states like Florida, which will now be in one district, with the same number of Board seats as districts that combined smaller producing states. The watermelon regulations provide for seven U.S. districts of comparable production and do not prohibit one district being composed of just one state. The States of Georgia, California and Texas are already in their own respective district. The Board's recommendation, as adopted herein by USDA, provides for a proportional geographical representation of producers and handlers (on average each district accounts for 14 percent of total production), creates no vacancies within a district, and streamlines the nomination process for District 1 by consolidating all of the Florida counties. Further, the Board is composed of members representing both large and small states, and all members voting supported the district realignment.
The commenter also suggested that the increase in the number of importer seats be implemented gradually. The watermelon regulations require importer representation on the Board to be proportionate to the percentage of assessments paid by importers. Based on the Board's assessment records, more than 34 percent of the assessments collected from 2013-2015 came from imports. This would correspond to increasing the number of importers from 8 to 14 members. However, because the Board had difficulty in finding eligible importers willing to serve, it recommended adding only four importer seats to ensure that it would have a sufficient number of nominees. This will bring the total number of importers on the Board to 12 (representing 30 percent of the Board's total industry members). This change will ensure an equitable representation of importers on the Board as required in part 1210. Thus, delaying implementation would not be appropriate.
Another commenter expressed concern that there is only one public member on the Board. The commenter suggested that the size of the Board be increased to 50 members, adding 10 consumer members on top of its current makeup. Section 1647(c)(1) of the Act and § 1210.320 of part 1210 limit the number of public members that can serve on the Board to one.
One commenter asked why the government was “. . . spending money on this.” The national watermelon promotion program is funded through assessments paid by watermelon producers, handlers and importers. It is not funded by the government or taxpayer funds.
No changes have been made to the proposed rule based on the comments received.
After consideration of all relevant matters presented, including the information and recommendation submitted by the Board, the comments received, and other relevant information, it is hereby found that this rule, as hereinafter set forth, is consistent with and would effectuate the purposes of the Act.
Administrative practice and procedure, Advertising, Consumer information, Marketing agreements,
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 1210 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 4901-4916 and 7 U.S.C. 7401.
(a)
(b)
(d)
(g)
Pursuant to § 1210.320(d) of the Plan, there are twelve importer representatives on the Board based on the proportionate percentage of assessments paid by importers to the Board.
In rule document 2018-00225 appearing on pages 1186-1188 in the issue of Wednesday, January 10, 2018, make the following correction:
On page 1187, beginning in the third column, Appendix F to Part 121 should read as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule; confirmation of effective date.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is confirming the effective date of December 8, 2017, for the final rule that appeared in the
Effective date of final rule published in the
For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to
Judith Kidwell, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition, Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740, 240-402-1071.
In the
We gave interested persons until December 7, 2017, to file objections or requests for a hearing. We explained that to file an objection, among other things, persons must specify with particularity the provision(s) to which they object. We also explained that if a person who properly submits an objection wants a hearing, he or she must specifically request a hearing and that failure to do so will constitute a waiver of the right to a hearing (82 FR 51554 at 51557).
We received two comments regarding our decision to amend the color additive regulations to provide for the safe use of calcium carbonate to color soft and hard candies and mints, and in inks used on the surface of chewing gum. Neither comment, however, specified with particularity the provision(s) of the regulation to which they objected nor specifically requested a hearing. Therefore, we find that the effective date of the final rule that published in the
Color additives, Cosmetics, Drugs, Foods, Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321, 341, 342, 343, 348, 351, 352, 355, 361, 362, 371, 379e) and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, we are giving notice that no objections or requests for a hearing were filed in response to the November 7, 2017, final rule. Accordingly, the amendments issued thereby became effective December 8, 2017.
Department of State.
Final rule.
This rule finalizes the interim final rule published in the
In accordance with the Congressional Review Act, this rule is effective on April 2, 2018.
Rob Schlicht, Office of the Comptroller, Bureau of Consular Affairs, Department of State; phone: 202-485-6685, telefax: 202-485-6826; email:
For the complete explanation of the background of this rule, including the rationale for the change, the authority of the Department of State (“Department”) to make the fee changes in question, and an explanation of the study that produced the fee amounts, consult the prior public notices cited in the “Background” section below.
The Department published an interim final rule in the
This rule establishes the following fees for the categories below:
The original publication of the interim final rule included an incorrect effective date of September 23, 2015, for the above changes in the Passport Book Application fees and Passport Security Surcharge. That date subsequently was corrected.
In the 60-day period since the publication of the interim final rule, 15 comments were received. Twelve of the comments were about the Administrative Processing of Request for CLN fee. The other three comments were about Executive Branch fees or U.S. citizenship.
Many of the comments suggested that the fee for Administrative Processing of Request for CLN creates a barrier to expatriation. Most asserted that the fee is excessive and that many individuals will be unable to pay it. However, one comment expressed support for
In collecting the CLN fee, the Department has not restricted or burdened the right of expatriation. Further, the fee is not punitive and is unrelated to the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) mentioned in some comments, except to the extent that the Act caused an increase in consular workload that must be paid for by user fees. Rather, the fee is a cost-based user fee for consular services. Conforming to guidance from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), federal agencies make every effort to ensure that each service provided to specific recipients is self-sustaining, charging fees that are sufficient to recover the full cost to the government. (See OMB Circular A-25, ¶ 6(a)(1), (a)(2)(a).) Because costs change from year to year, the Department conducts an annual update of the costs for providing consular services in the form of a Cost of Service Model (CoSM). In addition to enabling the government to recover costs, the study also helps the Department to avoid charging consumers more than the cost of the services they consume. The CoSM is an activity-based costing (ABC) model that the Department developed following guidance provided in Statement 4 of OMB's Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Standards, available at
The Department has not doubled the CLN fee. In the past, the Department collected a fee only from U.S. nationals (
The right of expatriation is addressed in the Immigration and Nationality Act and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The CLN fee does not impinge on the right of expatriation. Rather, the fee reflects the resources necessary for the U.S. government to verify that all constitutional and other requirements for expatriation are satisfied in every case. As described in the interim final rule and in an earlier rule that raised the fee for taking the oath of renunciation to $2,350 (80 FR 51464), expatriation for a U.S. national requires a thorough, serious, time-consuming process, in view of U.S. Supreme Court jurisprudence that declared unconstitutional an involuntary or forcible expatriation. In
Several commenters requested information on the relinquishment process,
The Department adjusted the fees in light of the CoSM's findings that the U.S. government was not covering fully its costs for providing these consular services. Pursuant to OMB guidance, the Department endeavors to recover the cost of providing services that benefit specific individuals, as opposed to the general public. See OMB Circular A-25, ¶ 6(a)(1), (a)(2)(a). For this reason, the Department has adjusted the Schedule of Fees.
The Department of State published this rule as an interim final rule on September 8, 2015, and provided 60 days for comment. 80 FR 53704. The rule will be effective 60 days after publication, in accordance with the APA.
The Department of State has reviewed this rulemaking and certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, Public Law 104-4, 109 Stat. 48, 2 U.S.C. 1532, generally requires agencies to prepare a statement before proposing any rule that may result in an annual expenditure of $100 million or more by State, local, or tribal governments, or by the private sector. This rule will not result in any such expenditure, nor will it significantly or uniquely affect small governments.
This rule is not a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804, for purposes of congressional review of agency rulemaking under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. This rule will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; a major increase in costs or prices; or adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of the United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies in domestic and import markets.
The Office of Management and Budget reviewed this rule, and determined it is not an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under E.O. 12866. As this rule is not a significant regularly action, it is except from the requirements of Executive Order 13771, “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs.” See OMB
The Department of State has considered this rule in light of Executive Order 13563 and affirms that this regulation is consistent with the guidance therein. G. Executive Orders 12372 and 13132: Federalism
The Department of State has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not pre-empt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of section 5 of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
This rule does not impose or revise information collections subject to the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C., Chapter 35.
For a summary of the regulatory findings and analyses regarding this rulemaking, please refer to the findings and analyses published with the interim final rule, which can be found at 80 FR 53704, which are adopted herein. Section 22.1, Items 2.(a), 2.(b), and 2.(g) of this rule became effective September 26, 2015. Section 22.1, Item 8 became effective November 9, 2015. As noted above, the Department considered the comments submitted in response to the interim final rule and does not adopt them. Thus, the rule remains in effect.
Consular services, Fees, Passports and visas.
Department of State.
Final rule.
The Department of State implements an adjustment to the Schedule of Fees for Consular Services of the Department of State's Bureau of Consular Affairs (“Schedule of Fees” or “Schedule”) to raise the execution fee for passport books and cards from $25 to $35. The Department is adjusting this fee in light of the findings of the most recently approved update to the Cost of Service Model to better align the fees for consular services with the costs of providing those services.
In accordance with the Congressional Review Act, this rule is effective on April 2, 2018.
Rob Schlicht, Management Analyst, Office of the Comptroller, Bureau of Consular Affairs, Department of State; phone: 202-485-6685, telefax: 202-485-6826; email:
This rule makes a change to the Schedule of Fees for passport services (passport books and cards). The Department published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) on September 19, 2016 (81 FR 64088), with 60 days provided for public comment. This final rule addresses the relevant comments. Justification for this rulemaking can be found in the NPRM.
The Department received 34 comments, of which 26 are addressed herein. The other eight were duplicates submitted to
The majority of the comments were in favor of raising the fee from $25 to $35. Four were opposed to raising the fee and one comment referred to visa fees which are not addressed in this rulemaking.
A majority of the comments that were in favor of the fee increase cited increased overhead, with most mentioning staffing and postage as major costs. Other comments expressed the view that the small increase in fee would not affect business or personal travel.
Two commenters who opposed the fee increase expressed concern that the fee would be a burden to some travelers. Although the Department is sympathetic to the impact the fee increase may have on the public, the fee increase reflects the result of an evaluation to determine the cost of the service provided so that the U.S. Government may recover the full cost of the service in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 9701 and guidance from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Federal agencies make every effort to ensure that fees for services are sufficient to recover the full cost to the government. (
Two commenters stated that the government should work more efficiently rather than raise fees. The Department of State's Bureau of Consular Affairs along with its partner acceptance facilities strive to optimize business functions to increase efficiency and effectively manage financial and capital resources funded by consular fees. There are approximately 7,400 acceptance facilities throughout the United States, including those at post offices and clerks of court. This fee is necessary to ensure that acceptance agents are compensated for the time and materials required to accept applications on behalf of the Department of State. The fee has remained the same for over nine years even though the cost of labor and material has increased during the same time period. In 2008, the Department lowered the execution fee for passport books from $30 to $25 based on costs at the time. The proposed $10 increase to $35, from the current fee of $25, is in line with cost increases for both the Department and United States Postal Service during the past nine years.
In an effort to improve business practices, the Department publishes a guide that standardizes processes for acceptance facilities and provides annual training to ensure the processes are followed. Additionally, the Department conducts regular audits and inspections of the acceptance facilities to protect the integrity of the application process, prevent mis/malfeasance, and promote standardization and efficiency.
The revenue from retained consular fees fund CA's domestic and overseas operations and consular-related programs. These operations protect the lives and serve the interests of United States citizens and strengthen U.S. border security.
One commenter stated that the amount of time and effort it takes to
To set fees in accordance with the general principles of cost recovery, the Department must determine the true cost of providing consular services. Following guidance provided in “Managerial Cost Accounting Concepts and Standards for the Federal Government,” OMB's Statement #4 of Federal Accounting Standards (SFFAS #4 (available at
The Government Accountability Office (GAO) defines activity-based costing as a “set of accounting methods used to identify and describe costs and required resources for activities within processes.” Because an organization can use the same staff and resources (computer equipment, production facilities, etc.) to produce multiple products or services, ABC models seek to identify and assign costs to processes and activities and then to individual products and services through the identification of key cost drivers referred to as “resource drivers” and “activity drivers.” ABC models also seek to identify the amount of time an organization's personnel spend on each service and how much overhead cost (rent, utilities, facilities maintenance, etc.) is associated with delivering each service.
ABC models require financial and accounting analysis and modeling skills combined with a detailed understanding of an organization's business processes. ABC models require an organization to identify all activities required to produce a particular product or service (“activities”) and all resources consumed (“costs”) in the course of producing that product or service. An organization must also measure the quantity of resources consumed (“resource driver”); and the frequency and intensity of demand placed on activities to produce services (“activity driver”). SFFAS Statement #4 provides a detailed discussion of the use of cost accounting by the U.S. Government.
The Department conducted periodic Cost of Service Studies using ABC methods to determine the costs of its consular services through 2009. In 2010, the Department moved to adopt an annually updated Cost of Service Model that measures all of its consular operations and costs, including all activities needed to provide consular services, whether fee-based or not. This provides a comprehensive and detailed look at all consular services as well as all services the Department performs for other agencies in connection with its consular operations. The Cost of Service Model now includes approximately 80 distinct activities, and enables the Department to model its consular-related costs with a high degree of precision.
The Department uses three methods outlined in SFFAS Statement #4 (paragraph 149(2)) to assign resource costs to activities: (a) Direct tracing; (b) estimation based on surveys, interviews, or statistical sampling; and (c) allocations. The Department uses direct tracing to assign the cost of, for example, a physical passport book or the visa foil placed in a visa applicant's passport. Assigning costs to activities such as adjudicating a passport or visa application requires estimation based on surveys, interviews, or statistical sampling to determine who performs an activity and how long it takes. Indirect costs (overhead) in the Cost of Service Model are allocated according to the level of effort needed for a particular activity. Where possible, the model uses overhead cost pools to assign indirect costs only to related activities. For instance, the cost of rent for domestic passport agencies is assigned only to passport costs, not to visas or other services the Department provides only overseas. The Department allocates indirect support costs to each consular service by the portion of each cost attributable to consular activities. For example, the model allocates a portion of the cost of the Department's Bureau of Human Resources to consular services. The total amount of this allocation is based on the number of Bureau of Human Resources staff members who support Bureau of Consular Affairs personnel. In turn, this amount is allocated between the different consular services by the level of effort to provide them.
To assign labor costs, the Department relies on a variety of industry-standard estimation methodologies. To document how consular staff divide their time overseas, the Department conducts the Consular Overseas Data Collection (CODaC) survey of a representative sample of posts each year. The Department uses CODaC survey data in conjunction with volume data from over 200 individual consular sections in consulates and embassies worldwide, to develop resource drivers to assign labor costs to activities. For consular activities that take place in the United States, the Department collects volume data from periodic workload reports including Passport Agency Task Reports pulled from management databases that include Passport's Management Information System. Financial information is gathered from reports by the Comptroller and Global Financial Services bureau financial systems. The Department converts the cost and workload data it collects into resource drivers and activity drivers for each resource and activity.
Roughly 70 percent of the workforce involved in providing consular services are full-time Federal employees. When demand for a service rises, it takes time for the Department to increase the number of employees because of the lengthy security clearance process and special training involved. Likewise, it is difficult to rapidly decrease the number of employees when demand for a service falls. Additionally, given government procurement rules and security requirements, the Department must commit to many of its facilities and infrastructure costs years before a facility becomes available. In spite of changes in demand, the Department is obligated to cover these costs. Given these and other constraints on altering the Department's cost structure in the short term, changes in service volumes can have dramatic effects on whether a fee is self-sustaining. Therefore, the Cost of Service Model includes predictive data as well as actual data. Predictive workloads are based on projections by the Office of Visa Services, the Office of Passport Services, and other parts of the Bureau of Consular Affairs that are consistent with Department budget documents prepared for Congress. As notified in the FY 2018 Congressional Budget Justification, the Department estimates a workload of 20.2 million passport applications, 14.4 million nonimmigrant visa applications, and 600,000 immigrant visa applications in FY 2018.
The costs the Department enters into the Cost of Service Model include every line item of costs, such as physical
The Cost of Service Model is a complex series of iterative computer processes incorporating more than a million calculations, housed in an industry standard commercial off-the-shelf product, SAP Enterprise Performance Management; therefore, it is not reducible to a tangible form such as a document. Inputs are formatted in spreadsheets for entry into the ABC software package. The software's output includes spreadsheets with raw unit costs, validation reports, and management reports. All data inputs and outputs are considered Sensitive but Unclassified and therefore cannot be made publically available.
The new cost reflected in the Schedule of Fees is based on projected workload for Fiscal Year 2018, and the fee has been rounded to make it easier to collect.
The Department is increasing the execution fee for passport books and cards from $25 to $35, excepting those persons who are statutorily exempted from paying the passport execution fee. The costs of providing passport services to exempt individuals are covered by fees paid by non-exempt individuals. The passport execution fee is applicable to all first-time passport applicants and certain other applicants who must apply in person, such as minors under the age of 16. Applicants apply in person at post offices and other acceptance facilities, such as local clerks of court, as well as at the Department's passport offices. The passport execution fee includes the costs associated with accepting passport applications and fees in-person, including salaries, benefits, and an allocated portion of overhead including, but not limited to, rent, utilities, supplies and equipment. The Department's Cost of Service Model showed that these costs were over $33. The United States Postal Service—the acceptance agent for the majority of passport applications—regularly conducts a similar study and found that these costs were more than $34.
The $10 increase in the passport execution fee will affect first-time passport applicants and certain applicants who must appear at post offices and other acceptance facilities such as local clerks of court. Individuals who apply for a passport renewal by mail will not see a fee increase.
The Department published this rule as a proposed rule on September 19, 2016, with a 60-day provision for public comments. See 81 FR 64088. In accordance with the Congressional Review Act, this rule will be effective 60 days after publication and receipt by Congress and the GAO.
The Department has reviewed this rule and, by approving it, certifies that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
This rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1501-1504.
This rule is a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2). The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
The Department has reviewed this rule to ensure its consistency with the regulatory philosophy and principles set forth in the Executive Orders. OMB has determined that this rule is economically significant under Executive Order 12866.
This rule is necessary in light of the Department of State's Cost of Service Model finding that the cost of executing first-time passports is higher than the current fee. The Department is setting this fee in accordance with 22 U.S.C. 214(a) (“There shall be collected and paid into the Treasury of the United States . . . a fee, prescribed by the Secretary of State by regulation, for executing each such [passport] application) and 31 U.S.C. 9701(“The head of each agency . . . may prescribe regulations establishing the charge for a service or thing of value provided by the agency . . . based on . . . the costs to the Government.”). This regulation generally sets the fee for passport executions at the amount required to recover the costs associated with providing this service.
Details of the fee change are as follows:
As noted in the NPRM, the Department of State does not anticipate that demand for passport services affected by this rule will change significantly due to the fee change.
The Department does not believe that passport application fees are a significant determining factor when Americans decide to travel internationally. The price of a passport book or card remains minor in comparison with other costs associated with foreign travel, given that taxes and surcharges alone on international airfare can easily surpass $100. As a result, the Department does not believe passport demand will be significantly affected by the new fee.
This rule is not an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because it is a transfer rule that changes only the fee for a service without imposing any new costs.
This regulation will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on federal programs and activities do not apply to this regulation.
The Department has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
Information collection 1405-0004, which relates to this rule, is approved by OMB pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35. Other than the comments summarized above, the Department received no public comments regarding this rulemaking. This information collection has been renewed until August 31, 2019.
Consular Services, Fees, Passports.
Accordingly, 22 CFR part 22 is amended as follows:
8 U.S.C. 1101 note, 1153 note, 1183a note, 1351, 1351 note, 1714, 1714 note; 10 U.S.C. 2602(c); 11 U.S.C. 1157 note; 22 U.S.C. 214, 214 note, 1475e, 2504(a), 2651a, 4201, 4206, 4215, 4219, 6551; 31 U.S.C. 9701; Exec. Order 10,718, 22 FR 4632 (1957); Exec. Order 11,295, 31 FR 10603 (1966).
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is modifying the operating schedule that governs the SR 401 Drawbridges across the Canaveral Barge Canal, mile 5.5, at Port Canaveral, Florida. This modification is necessary to reduce vehicular traffic congestion and to ensure the safety of roadways while passengers are transiting to and from the cruise ship terminals. Since the arrival of additional cruise ships to the Port of Canaveral, traffic back-ups have been caused by the
This rule is effective March 2, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email LT Allan Storm, Sector Jacksonville, Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 904-714-7616, email
On October 23, 2017, we published a notice of proposed rulemaking from drawbridge regulation with request for comments entitled Drawbridge Operation Regulations: Canaveral Barge Canal, Canaveral, FL in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 499.
The SR 401 Drawbridges across the Canaveral Barge Canal, mile 5.5, at Port Canaveral, FL are three parallel double leaf bascule bridges that have a vertical clearance of 25 feet at MHW in the closed to navigation position and a horizontal clearance of 90 feet between the fender system. Presently, in accordance with 33 CFR 117.273(b), the bridges shall open on signal, except that from 6:15 a.m. to 8 a.m. and 3:30 p.m. to 5:15 p.m. Monday through Friday except Federal holidays, the bridges need not open and from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m. the bridges must open on signal if at least three hours notice is given. The bridges must open as soon as possible for the passage of public vessels of the Unites States and tugs with tows. The Canaveral Port Authority, with concurrence from the bridge owner, Florida Department of Transportation requested the operating schedule be changed to allow the bridges to not open to navigation from 11 a.m. to 2 p.m. on Saturdays and Sundays. This will provide relief to the increase in vehicle traffic congestion on the weekends while meeting the reasonable needs of navigation.
The Coast Guard received three comments to this rule stating that this regulation is unnecessarily restrictive to recreational boaters. All comments also recommended that if the Coast Guard moves forward with changing the operating schedule, they should consider allowing the bridge to open on the hour during the 11 a.m. to 2 p.m. closure. The Coast Guard has considered this recommendation, however, after analyzing vessel traffic data versus vehicular traffic data, the Coast Guard has determined that the benefit of reducing vehicle traffic to enhance the safety on the roadways, without compromising the safety of mariners, outweighs an inconvenience to vessels transiting the waterway.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive Orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protesters.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the ability that vessels can still transit the bridge before and after the proposed periods. Vessels that can pass under the bridge in the closed position may continue to do so.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rule. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the bridge may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guides the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a determination that this action is one of a category of actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule simply promulgates the operating regulations or procedures for drawbridges. This action is categorically excluded from further review, under figure 2-1, paragraph (32)(e), of the Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration and a Memorandum for the Record are not required for this rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Bridges.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 117 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 499; 33 CFR 1.05-1; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(b) The drawspans of the SR401 Drawbridges, mile 5.5 at Port Canaveral, must open on signal; except that, from 6:30 a.m. to 8 a.m. and 3:30 p.m. to 5:15 p.m. Monday through Friday except Federal holidays and from 11 a.m. to 2 p.m. on Saturdays and Sundays, the drawspans need not be opened for the passage of vessels. From 10 p.m. to 6 a.m., the drawspans must open on signal if at least three hours notice is given. The drawspans must open as soon as possible for the passage of public vessels of the United States and tugs with tows.
In Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 300 to 399, revised as of July 1, 2017, on page 110, in the Table of Contents to Appendix A to Part 300, revise the following headings:
In Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 300 to 399, revised as of July 1, 2017, on page 117, in Appendix A to Part 300, the definition of “source” is reinstated to read as follows:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Withdrawal of direct final rule.
On December 1, 2017 EPA published a direct final Notice of Deletion for the Hatheway & Patterson Superfund Site from the National Priorities List. The EPA is withdrawing the direct final Notice of Deletion due to adverse comments that were received during the public comment period.
This direct final rule published at 82 FR 56890, on December 1, 2017 is withdrawn effective January 30, 2018.
Kimberly White, Remedial Project Manager, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, Mailcode OSRR07-1, Boston, MA, 02109-3912, telephone number: 617-918-1752, email address:
After consideration of the comments received, if appropriate, EPA will publish a notification of deletion in the
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Chemicals, Hazardous waste, Hazardous substances, Intergovernmental relations, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Superfund, Water pollution control, Water Supply.
33 U.S.C. 1321(d); 42 U.S.C. 9601-9657; E.O. 13626, 77 FR 56749, 3 CFR, 2013 Comp., p. 306; E.O. 12777, 56 FR 54757, 3 CFR, 1991 Comp., p. 351; E.O. 12580, 52 FR 2923, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 193.
In rule document 2017-27949 appearing on pages 61184-61190 in the issue of Wednesday, December 27, 2017 make the following correction:
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Final rule.
DoD is issuing a final rule amending the Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) to implement sections of the National Defense Authorization Acts for Fiscal Years 2013, 2016, and 2018 relating to commercial item acquisitions.
Effective January 31, 2018.
Mr. Mark Gomersall, telephone 571-372-6176.
DoD published a proposed rule in the
On August 3, 2015, DoD published proposed DFARS rule 2013-D034 to implement the requirements of section 831 of the NDAA for FY 2013 (80 FR 45918). Based on the comments received in response to that proposed rule, and in order to implement the requirements in sections 851 through 853 and 855 through 857 of the NDAA for FY 2016, DFARS rule 2013-D034 was closed into this DFARS rule.
In addition, this final rule implements section 848 of the NDAA of FY 2018
Twelve respondents submitted public comments in response to the proposed rule. DoD reviewed the public comments in the development of this final rule. A discussion of the comments and the changes made to the rule as a result of those comments are provided as follows:
1. For consistency in terminology, the word “data” has been changed to “information” where appropriate throughout the rule.
2. The language at DFARS 212.102(a)(ii) has been revised to state that a contracting officer may presume that a prior commercial item determination, or a determination that overturned a prior commercial item determination, made by a military department, a defense agency, or another component of DoD shall serve as a determination for subsequent procurements of such item.
3. The language at DFARS 212.102(a)(iii) on nontraditional defense contractors was reworded for clarity.
4. The language at DFARS 212.209(b) and 215.404-1(b)(ii) was amended to add the word “and” to allow contracting officers to consider recent purchase prices paid by both the Government “and” commercial customers for the same or similar commercial items.
5. DFARS 215.404-1(b)(iv) and 234.7002(d)(3), have been revised such that if the contracting officer determines that the pricing information submitted is not sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall request other relevant information to include cost data. The proposed rule directed that the contracting officer may request other relevant information to include cost data.
6. To expedite commercial item determinations, the provision at DFARS 252.215-7010, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) has been revised to require offerors to provide contract numbers and if available, a Government point of contact for items that have been previously determined to be commercial.
7. The provision at DFARS 252.215-7010, paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) has been reworded to remove the unintended offeror certification language from the proposed rule.
8. The provision at DFARS 252.215-7010, paragraph (d) has been reworded to require “the minimum information necessary” instead of “all data” to permit a determination that the proposed price is fair and reasonable.
9. The proposed rule language at DFARS 252.215-7010, paragraph (d)(3) has been removed as unnecessary, and paragraphs (d)(4) and (d)(5) have been renumbered accordingly.
10. The language at DFARS 252.215-7010, paragraph (d)(3), formerly paragraph (d)(4), has been reworded for clarity.
11. The DFARS provision 252.215-7013, Supplies and Services Provided by Nontraditional Defense Contractors, has been added to advise offerors that in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2380a, supplies and services provided by a nontraditional defense contractor, as defined in DFARS 212.001, may be treated as commercial items.
(a) Does “catalog pricing” refer to prices shown in the catalog in question or in the offeror's proposed pricing for the proposal?
(b) Does “catalog pricing” refer to prices shown in the catalog that must be used in the pricing of all sales in order for that pricing to be “consistent” with “all relevant sales data?”
(c) Does the determination of consistency take into account whether “catalog pricing” is higher or lower than the pricing reflected in “all relevant sales data”?
(d) How does the use of the term “all relevant sales data” in the provision relate to the definition of the term “relevant sales data” in the proposed DFARS provision 252.215-7010(a)?
The respondent is concerned that contracting officers will not know what offerors mean by these statements, which could lead to confusion and misunderstandings.
Another respondent recommends removing the requirement in DFARS 252.215-7010 that an offeror provide an explanation as to whether their proposed prices that are based on catalog pricing are consistent with relevant sales data. The offeror believes this requirement constitutes a new and unauthorized certification.
Another respondent recommended changing DFARS 252.215-7010(b)(1)(ii) by separating the initial commercial item determination procedure from concurrent submission of any cost or pricing data that may be needed for a subsequent and independent evaluation of price reasonableness. This new clause creates several negative impacts when requiring subcontractors and/or prime contractors initial upfront submission of all past sales because:
(a) It excludes any use of FAR 2.101 commercial item definition of “offered for sale” because there is no sales data yet for “offered for sale” commercial items.
(b) It forces them to concurrently meet both the commercial item determination and price reasonableness data submission criteria, which will invite contracting officers to use the submitted cost or pricing data to actually determine initial commerciality, rather than using one or more of the current FAR 2.101 definitions of commercial items.
(c) It is a direct conflict with current FAR 15.402(a)(2) and (a)(3) for obtaining cost or pricing data from subcontractors and/or prime contractors to determine price reasonableness. The proposed rule directly conflicts with both newly proposed DFARS 212.209 and FAR 15.402 provisions.
Another respondent recommended modifying proposed DFARS 252.215-7010(b)(1)(ii) to separate a commercial item determination from a price reasonableness determination of a commercial item. Although this language mirrors FAR 52.215-20(a)(1)(ii), both elements are equally important to the Government's procurement of commercial items, but only the commercial item determination
Another respondent indicated that Senator John McCain (R-AZ) wrote a letter to the Secretary of Defense (September 8, 2015) indicating he was deeply concerned by a new proposed DFARS CASE 2013-D034 and its ability to effectively preclude any significant participation by commercial firms in defense programs. The Senate and the House have included provisions in the NDAA for FY 2016 to entice new firms into the defense market and retain them once there. The Senator stated that the rule would deter privately-held start-up companies from offering their products and services to DoD, because it would impose cumbersome and excessive bureaucratic requirements on these firms and require firms to build entirely new accounting systems. The respondent indicated the current rule in question does not succeed in removing the accumulated detritus of law, process, and regulation sought by Senator McCain.
Another respondent recommended adding language to DFARS 215.402(a)(i)(B) to state that any provision that limits the Government's ability to obtain any information that may be necessary to support a determination of fair and reasonable pricing is void.
(a) Is of a type customarily used by the general public or by nongovernmental entities for purposes other than governmental purposes; and
(b) Has been sold, leased, or licensed, or offered for sale, lease, or license, to the general public.
(a) Include review of previous prices of the items.
(b) Considering offeror's net profit margins.
(c) Review and identify previous contract types.
(d) Other contract terms that may have affected differences in pricing (
Another respondent suggested that the rule clarify that for an “of a type” item to meet the definition of a commercial item (excluding modifications and services) there should be a two prong test: (1) The item has to be of a type that customarily used by the general public and (2) the item itself has to have been sold (leased or licensed) or offered to the general public.
A second respondent recommended including language in the DFARS to require contracting officers to conduct market research prior to soliciting information from offerors for purposes of price reasonableness determinations of commercial items, however, another respondent opposes the use of market research to determine price reasonableness, when obtaining offeror cost or pricing data would be more time efficient and germane.
One respondent recommends that the rule specify that market research be conducted before the solicitation in order to inform the contracting officer whether a solicitation can be accommodated under FAR part 12.
Market research is conducted at several points in the acquisition process, and that is adequately covered in FAR 10.001(a)(2) as well as in this rule. Market research is first conducted by the Requirements Community in developing requirements. The Acquisition Community builds upon initial market research in development of the acquisition strategy and drafting of the solicitation. However, additional focused market research is again conducted during the pricing and proposal analysis phase.
Another respondent suggested that the rule define a “similar” item as an item that is so sufficiently comparable in technical and physical characteristics that the differences in price due to those differences is not material to the assessment of price reasonableness. The respondent further stated that if significant price differences are allowed for similar items, there seems no meaningful way to distinguish similar items from modified items.
One respondent stated that in practice one of the biggest obstacles to determine price reasonableness on commercial items is the physical differences between the item being acquired and the item for which sales data is provided. It is difficult for the Government or contractor personnel to assess the price impact, with any level of fidelity, of the physical differences without associated price or cost data. Parametric models typically generate values with a gross level of precision, especially when using data from sources external to the manufacturer. The respondent suggested that the rule address data required for modifications of an item to include the technical or physical differences and the associated price or cost impact of each. The respondent further suggested that the rule address data required for “similar” items to include the technical or physical differences and the associated price or cost impact of each; including the data requirements for subcontractors in 252.215-7010, Requirements for Certified Cost or Pricing Data and Data Other Than Certified Cost or Pricing Data. This would be required to validate that the physical differences do not have a price impact.
Additionally, two respondents recommended clarifying that “subcontractors” be added to the definition of nontraditional defense contractors so that items provided by a subcontractor that meet the definition of a “nontraditional defense contractor” may be treated as commercial items.
The respondent further recommended an editorial revision to state “. . . does not require a commercial item determination . . .” in lieu of “. . . does not constitute a requirement for a commercial item determination. . . .”
Three respondents recommended further consistency and uniformity in the acquisition process by allowing the contracting officer to consider prior commercial items determinations made by “any” federal department or agency, including civilian agencies, departments and components not only DoD Agencies, or another component of DoD as stated under 212.102(a)(iii). The proposed provisions implement and are consistent with 10 U.S.C. 2306(a)(b)(4), however, this recommendation is not prohibited by section 851 of the NDAA for FY 2016.
Another respondent is concerned that the language at DFARS 252.215-7010(b)(2), which grants DoD the right to examine, at any time before award, books, records, documents, or other directly pertinent records to verify any request for a commercial item exception, and to determine the reasonableness of price, will negatively impact the entry of large and small commercial firms into the defense sector, impeding innovation and reducing competition.
(a) Subcontract pricing has no bearing on the commercial price offered to the Government.
(b) In a fixed-price type commercial transaction, the prime contractor bears all the risk of subcontract price increases.
(c) There is little incentive for the offeror's commercial subcontractors to provide information necessary to support price reasonableness.
(d) Due to the nature of commercial supply chains, the fluidity of subcontractors is a common occurrence. With the increased use of electronic auctions and reverse auctions on commodities and basic services, the flowdown requirement regarding proposal preparation and evaluation to first-tier subcontractors would be problematic from a compliance standpoint.
(e) It is exponentially more difficult to flow down to subcontractors at all tiers, as many lower-tier subcontracts may not be negotiated at the same time as the prime contract.
(f) There is no way to flow down a solicitation provision in a “subcontract” because there isn't a subcontract yet.
(g) The requirements for certified cost or pricing data are flowed down to all lower-tier subcontractors above the certified cost or pricing data threshold without exception, despite the fact that many subcontracts may qualify for an exemption from certified cost or pricing data due to competition or commercial item status.
(h) The rule requires subcontractors to submit detailed data to support subcontract pricing for all subcontracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold, without any rationale or determination that such detailed data is necessary or relevant to the prices proposed by the prime.
(i) The contractor purchasing processes will require substantial changes to deal with this issue and for those commercial companies not so conversant on Government regulations.
(j) This is a significant cost driver and runs counter to Better Buying Power.
(k) FAR 52.215-20, the regulation that the proposed rule would replace, does not contain special rules for subcontracts.
(l) If the commercial item meets the Government's requirement and is determined to have a fair and reasonable price, there is little incentive for offeror's commercial subcontractors to provide “information necessary to support price reasonableness.” In a commercial marketplace, the Government's buying power or position is not significant enough to garner unique pricing data not customarily provided to commercial buyers.
(m) There is little justification to propose a DoD-unique subcontract price evaluation requirement as part of a rule to address Congressional direction on standards and limitations of cost data to support commercial pricing at the prime contract level.
The respondent further suggested that if the requirement for the offeror to provide data from subcontractors is retained, the final rule should exempt firm-fixed price contracts from this requirement.
39.
The objective of this rule is to implement sections 851 through 853 and 855 through 857 of the NDAA for FY 2016 and section 831 of the NDAA for FY 2013. Sections 831, 851, and 853 address requirements related to commercial items. The statutes are silent on applicability to contracts for the acquisition of commercial items or commercially-available-off-the shelf (COTS) and do not provide for criminal or civil penalties. Therefore, sections 831, 851, and 853 do not apply to the acquisition of commercial items unless the Director, Defense Procurement and Acquisition Policy (DPAP) makes a written determination as provided in 41 U.S.C. 1906 to apply the statutes for commercial items and 41 U.S.C. 1907 for COTS items. Consistent with 41 U.S.C. 1906 and 1907, the Director, DPAP, has determined that it is in the best interest of DoD to apply sections 831, 851, and 853 to the acquisition of commercial items.
This final rule prescribes the use of a new DFARS provision 252.215-7010, to be used in lieu of FAR provision 52.215-20, Requirements for Certified Cost or Pricing Data and Data Other Than Certified Cost or Pricing Data. The new DFARS provision includes the existing requirement under FAR provision 52.215-20 for offerors to submit certified cost and pricing data and data other than certified cost or pricing data, as appropriate; however, the new DFARS provision adds levels of granularity to assist offerors in their proposal preparation with regards to “other than certified cost or pricing data” and implements a statutory exemption to the requirement for “certified cost or pricing data” for nontraditional defense contractors.
This rule will impact large businesses and small entities who currently compete on DoD solicitations issued using FAR part 15, Negotiation Procedures, and are valued at $750,000 or more. Offerors competing on contracts and orders subject to the new DFARS provision, will have the benefit of additional details on (and a hierarchy of) the types of “other than certified cost or pricing data” that they should consider including in their proposal. This information has the potential to improve the quality of proposals from businesses and reduce resubmissions of data during negotiations. In addition, this rule adds a statutory exemption from the requirement to submit “certified cost or pricing data” for nontraditional defense contractors, who may now “other than certified cost or pricing data,” which takes less time to prepare.
Finally, this rule also advises contracting officers that they may presume that a prior commercial item determination made another DoD component shall serve as a determination for subsequent procurements of such items, unless the contracting officer obtains a determination from the head of the contracting activity that the item is not commercial and the basis for that decision.
DoD has performed a regulatory cost analysis on this rule. The following is a summary of the estimated public cost savings in millions, which are calculated in 2016 dollars at a 3-percent and 7-percent discount rate:
To access the full Regulatory Cost Analysis for this rule, go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is not a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was not subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
This final rule is considered to be an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. Details on the estimated cost savings can be found in Section IV. of this rule.
A final regulatory flexibility analysis has been performed and is summarized as follows:
This rule amends the DFARS to provide additional guidance to contracting officers on making price reasonableness determinations, expand opportunities for nontraditional defense contractors to do business with DoD, and provide additional details on the types of “other than certified cost or pricing data” that offerors should include in their proposal in order to for the purposes of determining whether proposed prices for commercial items are fair and reasonable. The objective of this rule is to implement the requirements of sections 851 through 853 and 855 through 857 of the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year (FY) 2016 (Pub. L. 114-92, enacted November 25, 2015), as well as the requirements of section 831 of the NDAA for FY 2013 (Pub. L. 112-239, enacted January 2, 2013) and section 848 of the NDAA for FY 2018 (Pub. L. 115-91, enacted December 12, 1017).
There were no significant issues raised by the public in response to the initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
This rule will apply to contractors that compete for contracts being awarded using FAR part 15 Negotiation procedures that are valued at $750,000 or more. According to data available in the Federal Procurement Data System for FY 2016, DoD awarded approximately 6,865 contracts meeting this criteria to 5,105 unique contractors, of which 4,544 contracts (~66 percent) were to 3,536 (~70 percent) unique small businesses.
DoD does not expect this rule to have a significant impact on the small businesses that may be affected by this rule, because the rule does not add to or remove any of the existing requirements for the submission of other than certified cost or pricing data for the purpose of determining the reasonableness of prices proposed for commercial items. Rather the rule provides offerors additional details and a hierarchy of the “other than certified cost or pricing data” that should be included in their proposals. This additional detail could reduce the amount of time it takes a small business resubmit data during negotiations. In
There are no significant alternative approaches to the rule that would meet the requirements of the statute.
The rule does not contain any information collection requirements that require the approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35).
Government procurement.
Therefore, 48 CFR parts 202, 212, 215, 234, 239, and 252 are amended as follows:
41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.
As used in this part—
The revision and additions read as follows:
(a)(i)
(D) Follow the procedures and guidance at PGI 212.102(a)(i) regarding file documentation and commercial item determinations.
(ii)
(A) The contracting officer may presume that a prior commercial item determination made by a military department, a defense agency, or another component of DoD shall serve as a determination for subsequent procurements of such item. See PGI 212.102(a)(ii) for information about items that the Department has historically acquired as military unique, noncommercial items.
(B) If the contracting officer does not make the presumption that a prior commercial item determination is valid, and instead chooses to proceed with a procurement of an item previously determined to be a commercial item using procedures other than the procedures authorized for the procurement of a commercial item, the contracting officer shall request a review of the commercial item determination by the head of the contracting activity that will conduct the procurement. Not later than 30 days after receiving a request for review of a commercial item determination, the head of a contracting activity shall—
(
(
(iii)
(a) Market research shall be used, where appropriate, to inform price reasonableness determinations.
(b) If the contracting officer determines that the information obtained through market research pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, is insufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall consider information submitted by the offeror of recent purchase prices paid by the Government and commercial customers for the same or similar commercial items under comparable terms and conditions in establishing price reasonableness on a subsequent purchase if the contracting
(c) If the contracting officer determines that the offeror cannot provide sufficient information as described in paragraph (b) of this section to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer should request the offeror to submit information on—
(1) Prices paid for the same or similar items sold under different terms and conditions;
(2) Prices paid for similar levels of work or effort on related products or services;
(3) Prices paid for alternative solutions or approaches; and
(4) Other relevant information that can serve as the basis for determining the reasonableness of price.
(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to preclude the contracting officer from requiring the contractor to supply information that is sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, regardless of whether or not the contractor was required to provide such information in connection with any earlier procurement. If the contracting officer determines that the pricing information submitted is not sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer may request other relevant information regarding the basis for price or cost, including uncertified cost data such as labor costs, material costs, and other direct and indirect costs.
(f) * * *
(vi) * * *
(E) Use the provision 252.215-7010, Requirements for Certified Cost or Pricing Data and Data Other Than Certified Cost or Pricing Data, as prescribed at 215.408(6)(i) to comply with section 831 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013 (Pub. L. 112-239) and sections 851 and 853 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (Pub. L. 114-92).
(
(
This subpart implements section 856 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (Pub. L. 114-92).
(a)
(i) The earlier use of commercial acquisition procedures under FAR part 12 was in error or based on inadequate information; and
(ii) DoD will realize a cost savings compared to the cost of procuring a similar quantity or level of such item or service using commercial acquisition procedures.
(2) In the case of a procurement valued at $100 million or more, a contract may not be awarded pursuant to a conversion of the procurement described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section until a copy of the head of contracting activity determination is provided to the Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics.
(b) In making a determination under paragraph (a) of this section, the determining official shall, at a minimum, consider the following factors:
(1) The estimated cost of research and development to be performed by the existing contractor to improve future products or services.
(2) The costs for DoD and the contractor in assessing and responding to data requests to support a conversion to noncommercial acquisition procedures.
(3) Changes in purchase quantities.
(4) Costs associated with potential procurement delays resulting from the conversion.
(c) The requirements of this subpart terminate November 25, 2020.
As used in this subpart—
The addition reads as follows:
(a)(i) Pursuant to section 831 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013 (Pub. L. 112-239)—
(A) The contracting officer is responsible for determining if the information provided by the offeror is sufficient to determine price reasonableness. This responsibility includes determining whether information on the prices at which the same or similar items have previously been sold is adequate for evaluating the reasonableness of price, and determining the extent of uncertified cost data that should be required in cases in which price information is not adequate;
(B) The contracting officer shall not limit the Government's ability to obtain any data that may be necessary to support a determination of fair and reasonable pricing by agreeing to contract terms that preclude obtaining necessary supporting information; and
(C) When obtaining uncertified cost data, the contracting officer shall require
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(C) When applying the commercial item exception under FAR 15.403-1(b)(3), see 212.102(a)(ii) regarding prior commercial item determinations.
The additions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(ii) If the contracting officer determines that the information obtained through market research is insufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall consider information submitted by the offeror of recent purchase prices paid by the Government and commercial customers for the same or similar commercial items under comparable terms and conditions in establishing price reasonableness on a subsequent purchase if the contracting officer is satisfied that the prices previously paid remain a valid reference for comparison. The contracting officer shall consider the totality of other relevant factors such as the time elapsed since the prior purchase and any differences in the quantities purchased (section 853 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (Pub. L. 114-92)).
(iii) If the contracting officer determines that the offeror cannot provide sufficient information as described in paragraph (b)(ii) of this section to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer should request the offeror to submit information on—
(A) Prices paid for the same or similar items sold under different terms and conditions;
(B) Prices paid for similar levels of work or effort on related products or services;
(C) Prices paid for alternative solutions or approaches; and
(D) Other relevant information that can serve as the basis for determining the reasonableness of price.
(iv) If the contracting officer determines that the pricing information submitted is not sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall request other relevant information, to include cost data. However, no cost data may be required in any case in which there are sufficient non-Government sales of the same item to establish reasonableness of price (section 831 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2013 (Pub. L. 112-239)).
(v) When evaluating pricing data, the contracting officer shall consider materially differing terms and conditions, quantities, and market and economic factors. For similar items, the contracting officer shall also consider material differences between the similar item and the item being procured (see FAR 15.404-1(b)(2)(ii)(B) and PGI 215.404-1(b)(v)). Material differences are those that could reasonably be expected to influence the contracting officer's determination of price reasonableness. The contracting officer shall consider the following factors when evaluating the relevance of the information available:
(A)
(B)
(
(
(C)
(D)
(vi) The contracting officer shall consider catalog prices to be reliable when they are regularly maintained and supported by relevant sales data (including any related discounts, refunds, rebates, offsets, or other adjustments). The contracting officer may request that the offeror support differences between the proposed price(s), catalog price(s), and relevant sales data.
(vii) The contracting officer may consult with the DoD cadre of experts who are available to provide expert advice to the acquisition workforce in assisting with commercial item and price reasonableness determinations. The DoD cadre of experts is identified at PGI 215.404-1(b)(vii).
The revision and additions read as follows:
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) Do not use 252.225-7003 in lieu of DFARS 252.215-7010 in competitive acquisitions; and
(6) When reasonably certain that the submission of certified cost or pricing data or data other than certified cost or pricing data will be required—
(i) Use the basic or alternate of the provision at 252.215-7010, Requirements for Certified Cost or Pricing Data and Data Other Than Certified Cost or Pricing Data, in lieu of the provision at FAR 52.215-20, Requirements for Certified Cost or Pricing Data and Data Other Than Certified Cost or Pricing Data, in solicitations, including solicitations using FAR part 12 procedures for the acquisition of commercial items.
(A) Use the basic provision when submission of certified cost or pricing data is required to be in the FAR Table 15-2 format, or if it is anticipated, at the time of solicitation, that the submission of certified cost or pricing data may not be required.
(B) Use the alternate I provision to specify a format for certified cost or pricing data other than the format required by FAR Table 15-2;
(ii) Use the provision at 252.215-7011, Requirements for Submission of Proposals to the Administrative Contracting Officer and Contract Auditor, when using the basic or alternate of the provision at 252.215-7010 and copies of the proposal are to be sent to the ACO and contract auditor; and
(iii) Use the provision at 252.215-7012, Requirements for Submission of Proposals via Electronic Media, when using the basic or alternate of the provision at 252.215-7010 and submission via electronic media is required.
(7) Use the provision at 252.215-7013, Supplies and Services Provided by Nontraditional Defense Contractors, in all solicitations.
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(2) The contracting officer determines in writing that the subsystem is a commercial item.
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) The contracting officer determines in writing that the component or spare part is a commercial item.
(d)
(1) To the extent necessary to make a determination of price reasonableness, the contracting officer shall require the offeror to submit prices paid for the same or similar commercial items under comparable terms and conditions by both Government and commercial customers.
(2) If the contracting officer determines that the offeror cannot provide sufficient information described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall request the offeror to submit information on—
(i) Prices paid for the same or similar items under different terms and conditions;
(ii) Prices paid for similar levels of work or effort on related products or services;
(iii) Prices paid for alternative solutions or approaches; and
(iv) Other relevant information that can serve as the basis for a price reasonableness determination.
(3) If the contracting officer determines that the information submitted pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is not sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price, the contracting officer shall request the offeror to submit other relevant information, including uncertified cost data. However, no uncertified cost data may be required in any case in which there are sufficient non-Government sales of the same item to establish reasonableness of price.
(4) An offeror shall not be required to submit information described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section with regard to a commercially available off-the-shelf item. An offeror may be required to submit such information with regard to any other item that was developed exclusively at private expense only after the head of the contracting activity determines in writing that the information submitted pursuant to paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is not sufficient to determine the reasonableness of price.
(1) A contracting officer may not enter into a contract in excess of the simplified acquisition threshold for information technology products or services that are not commercial items unless the head of the contracting activity determines in writing that no commercial items are suitable to meet the agency's needs, as determined through the use of market research appropriate to the circumstances (see FAR 10.001(a)(3)) (section 855 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (Pub. L. 114-92)).
(2) See subpart 208.74 when acquiring commercial software or software maintenance.
(3) See 227.7202 for policy on the acquisition of commercial computer software and commercial computer software documentation.
(a)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(A) For items previously determined to be commercial, the contract number and military department, defense agency, or other DoD component that rendered such determination, and if available, a Government point of contact;
(B) For items priced based on a catalog—
(
(
(C) For items priced based on market pricing, a description of the nature of the commercial market, the methodology used to establish a market price, and all relevant sales data. The description shall be adequate to permit the DoD to verify the accuracy of the description;
(D) For items included on an active Federal Supply Service Multiple Award Schedule contract, proof that an exception has been granted for the schedule item; or
(E) For items provided by nontraditional defense contractors, a statement that the entity is not currently performing and has not performed, for at least the 1-year period preceding the solicitation of sources by DoD for the procurement or transaction, any contract or subcontract for DoD that is subject to full coverage under the cost accounting standards prescribed pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 1502 and the regulations implementing such section.
(2) The Offeror grants the Contracting Officer or an authorized representative the right to examine, at any time before award, books, records, documents, or other directly pertinent records to verify any request for an exception under this provision, and to determine the reasonableness of price.
(c)
(1) The Offeror shall prepare and submit certified cost or pricing data and supporting attachments in accordance with the instructions contained in Table 15-2 of FAR 15.408, which is incorporated by reference with the same force and effect as though it were inserted here in full text. The instructions in Table 15-2 are incorporated as a mandatory format to be used in any resultant contract, unless the Contracting Officer and the Offeror agree to a different format and change this provision to use Alternate I.
(2) As soon as practicable after agreement on price, but before contract award (except for unpriced actions such as letter contracts), the Offeror shall submit a Certificate of Current Cost or Pricing Data, as prescribed by FAR 15.406-2.
(d)
(2) In cases in which uncertified cost data is required, the information shall be provided in the form in which it is regularly maintained by the Offeror or prospective subcontractor in its business operations.
(3) Within 10 days of a written request from the Contracting Officer for additional information to permit an adequate evaluation of the proposed price in accordance with FAR 15.403-3, the Offeror shall provide either the requested information, or a written explanation for the inability to fully comply.
(4)
(ii) No cost data may be required from a prospective subcontractor in any case in which there are sufficient non-Government sales of the same item to establish reasonableness of price.
(iii) If the Offeror relies on relevant sales data for similar items to determine the price is reasonable, the Offeror shall obtain only that technical information necessary—
(A) To support the conclusion that items are technically similar; and
(B) To explain any technical differences that account for variances between the proposed prices and the sales data presented.
(e)
(1) Paragraphs (c) and (d) of this provision for subcontracts above the threshold for submission of certified cost or pricing data in FAR 15.403-4; and
(2) Paragraph (d) of this provision for subcontracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold defined in FAR part 2.
(a)
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(A) For items previously determined to be commercial, the contract number and
(B) For items priced based on a catalog—
(
(
(C) For items priced based on market pricing, a description of the nature of the commercial market, the methodology used to establish a market price, and all relevant sales data. The description shall be adequate to permit the DoD to verify the accuracy of the description;
(D) For items included on an active Federal Supply Service Multiple Award Schedule contract, proof that an exception has been granted for the schedule item; or
(E) For items provided by nontraditional defense contractors, a statement that the entity is not currently performing and has not performed, for at least the 1-year period preceding the solicitation of sources by the DoD for the procurement or transaction, any contract or subcontract for the DoD that is subject to full coverage under the cost accounting standards prescribed pursuant to 41 U.S.C. 1502 and the regulations implementing such section.
(2) The Offeror grants the Contracting Officer or an authorized representative the right to examine, at any time before award, books, records, documents, or other directly pertinent records to verify any request for an exception under this provision, and to determine the reasonableness of price.
(c)
(1) The Offeror shall submit certified cost or pricing data and supporting attachments in the following format:
(2) As soon as practicable after agreement on price, but before contract award (except for unpriced actions such as letter contracts), the Offeror shall submit a Certificate of Current Cost or Pricing Data, as prescribed by FAR 15.406-2.
(d)
(2) In cases in which uncertified cost data is required, the information shall be provided in the form in which it is regularly maintained by the Offeror or prospective subcontractor in its business operations.
(3) The Offeror shall provide information described as follows:
(4) Within 10 days of a written request from the Contracting Officer for additional information to support proposal analysis, the Offeror shall provide either the requested information, or a written explanation for the inability to fully comply.
(5)
(ii) No cost information may be required from a prospective subcontractor in any case in which there are sufficient non-Government sales of the same item to establish reasonableness of price.
(iii) If the Offeror relies on relevant sales data for similar items to determine the price is reasonable, the Offeror shall obtain only that technical information necessary—
(A) To support the conclusion that items are technically similar; and
(B) To explain any technical differences that account for variances between the proposed prices and the sales data presented.
(e)
(1) Paragraph (c) and (d) of this provision for subcontracts above the threshold for submission of certified cost or pricing data in FAR 15.403-4; and
(2) Paragraph (d) of this provision for subcontracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold defined in FAR part 2.
As prescribed in 215.408(6)(ii), use the following provision:
When the proposal is submitted, the Offeror shall also submit one copy each to—
(a) The Administrative Contracting Officer; and
(b) The Contract Auditor.
As prescribed in 215.408(6)(iii), use the following provision:
The Offeror shall submit the cost portion of the proposal via the following electronic media:
As prescribed in 215.408(7), use the following provision:
Offerors are advised that in accordance with 10 U.S.C. 2380a, supplies and services provided by a nontraditional defense contractor, as defined in DFARS 212.001, may be treated as commercial items. The decision to apply commercial item procedures to the procurement of supplies and services from a nontraditional defense contractor does not require a commercial item determination and does not mean the supplies or services are commercial.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Final rule.
DoD is issuing a final rule amending the Defense Federal
Effective January 31, 2018.
Ms. Amy Williams, telephone 571-372-6106.
This final rule implements the November 20, 2017, designation by the Department of State of North Korea as a state sponsor of terrorism, in accordance with section 6(j)(1)(A) of the Export Administration Act of 1979. A state sponsor of terrorism is a country, the government of which has repeatedly provided support for acts of international terrorism. The Department of State previously designated North Korea as a state sponsor of terrorism in January 1988, but rescinded the designation in October 2008. Consistent with the November 20, 2017, action, North Korea is added to the list of countries that are state sponsors of terrorism in the definition of “state sponsor of terrorism” in paragraph (a) of the provisions at DFARS 252.225-7049, Prohibition on Acquisition of Commercial Satellite Services from Certain Foreign Entities—Representation; and DFARS 252.225-7050, Disclosure of Ownership or Control by the Government of a Country that is a State Sponsor of Terrorism. The provision at DFARS 252.225-7050 implements 10 U.S.C. 2327, which prohibits DoD from entering into a contract with a firm that is owned or controlled by the government of a country that is a state sponsor of terrorism. The provision at 252.225-7049 implements 10 U.S.C. 2279, which restricts acquisitions of commercial satellite services from any entity—
• Owned by the government of a covered foreign country (China, North Korea, or any state sponsor of terrorism); or
• Planning or expected to provide or use launch or other satellite services under the contract from a covered foreign country.
This rule only updates the list of countries that are state sponsors of terrorism in the definition of “state sponsors of terrorism” in paragraph (a) of the DFARS provisions 252.225-7049, Prohibition on Acquisition of Commercial Satellite Services from Certain Foreign Entities—Representation; and DFARS 252.225-7050, Disclosure of Ownership or Control by the Government of a Country that is a State Sponsor of Terrorism. This revision does not impact use of clauses, their applicability to contracts or subcontracts valued at or below the simplified acquisition threshold, or their applicability to contracts or subcontracts for the acquisition of commercial items.
Executive Orders (E.O.) 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, and E.O. 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review, direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This is a significant regulatory action and, therefore, was subject to review under section 6(b) of E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, dated September 30, 1993. This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804.
This rule is not subject to the requirements of E.O. 13771, because the rule is issued with respect to a national security function of the United States.
The statute that applies to the publication of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) is codified at Title 41 of the United States Code (formerly known as the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act). Specifically, 41 U.S.C 1707(a)(1) requires that a procurement policy, regulation, procedure, or form (including an amendment or modification thereof) must be published for public comment if it relates to the expenditure of appropriated funds, and has either a significant effect beyond the internal operating procedures of the agency issuing the policy, regulation, procedure or form, or has a significant cost or administrative impact on contractors or offerors. This final rule is not required to be published for public comment, because it only adds North Korea to the list of countries that fall within the DFARS definition of “state sponsors of terrorism,” consistent with the November 20, 2017, designation of the country by the Secretary of State. These requirements affect only the internal operating procedures of the Government.
Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule under 41 U.S.C. 1707(a)(1) (see section V. of this preamble), the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) does apply. However, the changes to these DFARS provisions, do not impose additional information collection requirements or change the burden under two currently approved collections—OMB Control Number 0704-0525, entitled “Foreign Commercial Satellite Services,” and OMB Control Number 0704-0187, entitled “Information Collection in Support of the DoD Acquisition Process (Various Miscellaneous Requirements).”
Government procurement.
Therefore, 48 CFR part 252 is amended as follows:
41 U.S.C. 1303 and 48 CFR chapter 1.
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Proposed rule.
The NCUA Board (Board) proposes to amend part 709 of its rules to update and clarify the procedures that apply to claims administration for federally insured credit unions that enter involuntary liquidation. Specifically, the proposal would amend the current rule's payout priority provision by specifying the conditions that claims in the nature of severance must meet to be allowed as provable claims.
Comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (Please send comments by one method only):
•
•
•
•
•
•
Ian Marenna, Senior Trial Attorney, at 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314, or telephone: (703) 518-6540.
Section 1217 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA)
The Board is proposing changes to part 709 to clarify how severance claims will be treated in involuntary liquidations. Specifically, the proposed rule would create an exception to the generally applicable limitation on provability for severance claims as set out in the Board's regulation governing golden parachute payments.
This provision may be in tension with NCUA's separate regulatory authority to control the types and amounts of payments that may be made by federally insured credit unions to institution affiliated parties upon termination of their employment. Under the FCU Act, the Board is authorized to prohibit or limit “golden parachute payments,” defined to include payments that are contingent on the termination of the party's employment at the credit union and that are made when the credit union is in troubled financial condition.
Thus, part 750 expressly provides that any claim for “employee welfare benefits” or other benefits that are contingent at the time of liquidation are not provable claims against the liquidating agent or payable as damages if the conservator or liquidating agent repudiates the relevant contract under 12 U.S.C. 1787(c). This bar covers claims for severance or other employee welfare benefits that are contingent at the time of liquidation, even if otherwise vested, including any contingency for termination of employment.
Given the breadth of the language in § 750.7, the Board believes clarification concerning the interplay with part 709 is necessary and appropriate. Claims for
The documentary evidence requirement reflects the standard for agreement-based claims against the liquidation estate and is intended to provide the liquidating agent an appropriate basis to determine that the credit union agreed to provide the benefits.
The Board intends for the provisions in part 750 restricting the provability of certain severance claims to be applicable in cases that involve executive level employees with separately negotiated employment contracts or similar benefit plans that are not generally available to all employees on a non-discriminatory basis. In such cases, the Board anticipates that the liquidating agent will exercise its power of repudiation
Accordingly, the Board proposes to amend § 709.5(b)(2) to provide that claims seeking employee benefits other than earned but undisbursed salary or wages, including earned but unused paid time off and severance pay, will be allowed to the extent that the credit union has adopted a written policy, as reflected in the employee handbook or other similar record, that establishes a right to such payments and that the amount of such payment is determined in accordance with an objective, non-discriminatory formula made available to all employees. The proposed rule also recognizes that state law may require such payments and accommodates this possibility.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires NCUA to prepare an analysis to describe any significant economic impact a rule may have on a substantial number of small entities (primarily those under $100 million in assets). The severance provision imposes no new requirements on credit unions. Instead, it would provide a limited exception to an existing regulation that applies to liquidated credit unions. Accordingly, the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small credit unions, and therefore, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) applies to rulemakings in which an agency by rule creates a new paperwork burden on regulated entities or modifies an existing burden. 44 U.S.C. 3507(d). For purposes of the PRA, a paperwork burden may take the form of a either a reporting or a recordkeeping requirement, both referred to as information collections. Part 709 only concerns credit unions that have failed and imposes no information collection requirements on existing credit unions. Accordingly, there are no PRA implications.
Executive Order 13132 encourages independent regulatory agencies to consider the impact of their actions on state and local interests. In adherence to fundamental federalism principles, NCUA, an independent regulatory agency as defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(5), voluntarily complies with the executive order. This proposed rule would clarify certain procedures for NCUA's administration of liquidated federally insured credit unions. This proposed rule will not have a substantial direct effect on the states, on the connection between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The Board has determined that this proposed rule does not constitute a policy that has federalism implications for purposes of the executive order.
NCUA has determined that this rule will not affect family well-being within the meaning of section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999, Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681 (1998).
Credit unions, Involuntary liquidation.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, NCUA proposes to amend 12 CFR part 709 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 1757, 1766, 1767, 1786(h), 1786(t), and 1787(b)(4), 1788, 1789, 1789a.
(b) * * *
(2) Claims for wages and salaries, including vacation, severance, and sick leave pay;
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Proposed rule.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) proposes to amend its medical regulations related to hospital care and medical services in foreign countries. We would amend the regulations to simplify and clarify the scope of these rules. We would address medical services provided to eligible veterans in the Republic of the Philippines, and remove regulations related to grants to the Republic of the Philippines that are no longer supported by statutory authority. VA also proposes to amend its medical regulations related to filing claims for reimbursement of medical expenses incurred for VA care not previously authorized.
Written comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Written comments may be submitted through
Joseph Duran, Director, Policy and Planning, Office of Community Care (10D1A1), Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (303) 372-4629. (This is not a toll-free number) or
Section 1724 of title 38 United States Code (U.S.C.) prohibits VA from furnishing hospital care or medical services outside any State except under specific circumstances. VA is authorized under 38 U.S.C. 1724(b)(1) to furnish care and services to an eligible veteran outside any State if VA “determines that such care and services are needed for the treatment of a service-connected disability of the veteran or as part of a rehabilitation program under chapter 31 of this title.” VA furnishes health care to eligible veterans in the Republic of the Philippines under this authority. In addition, 38 U.S.C. 1724(c) provides that “within the limits” of the Veterans Memorial Medical Center at Manila, Republic of the Philippines, VA may enter into contracts to furnish necessary hospital care to a veteran for any non-service-connected disability if such veteran is unable to defray the expenses of necessary hospital care. VA may also operate an outpatient clinic in the Republic of the Philippines to furnish necessary medical services to a veteran who has a service-connected disability. 38 U.S.C. 1724(e).
Several sections of title 38 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part 17 address VA's authority to provide for hospital care and medical services for eligible veterans outside the United States, as well as submission of claims for reimbursement for services obtained from community care providers outside the United States. VA proposes to revise or amend these regulations to consolidate similar content, clarify provisions, and ensure that these regulations reflect current VA practice and statutory authority.
Current § 17.35 states that the Secretary may furnish hospital care and medical services to any veteran sojourning or residing outside the United States, without regard to the veteran's citizenship if necessary for treatment of a service-connected disability, or any disability associated with and held to be aggravating a service-connected disability; or, if the care is furnished to a veteran participating in a rehabilitation program under 38 U.S.C. chapter 31 who requires care for the reasons enumerated in 38 CFR 17.47(i)(2).
We would revise § 17.35 by simplifying the rule and adding a paragraph to address medical services provided to eligible veterans in the Republic of the Philippines. VA proposes to remove the phrase “sojourning or residing” as it creates an unnecessary distinction. VA may furnish medical care and services to any veteran outside the United States, regardless of whether the veteran is sojourning (temporarily staying), has established residence outside of the United States, or in some other status that does not fit the broad definitions of either “sojourning or residing.” In addition, the term “sojourning” is antiquated. While it remains a defined term in many dictionaries it is not commonly used by the public. We would also amend the introductory sentence to refer to VA rather than the Secretary of VA which is how VA is referred to in recently published rulemakings. We would designate the introductory sentence in this section as paragraph (a), and current paragraphs (a) and (b) as paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) respectively. Finally, we would change the references to “medical services” in the current regulation to “outpatient services.” The term “outpatient services” is similarly used in § 17.38 and other VA regulations instead of “medical services,” and we believe it is more understandable to the reader.
We would add a new paragraph (b) to address hospital care and outpatient services provided to eligible veterans in the Republic of the Philippines as authorized in 38 U.S.C. 1724. Paragraph (b) would state that under the VA Foreign Medical Program VA may furnish hospital care and outpatient services in the Republic of the Philippines to a veteran who meets the requirements of § 17.35(a). VA may also provide outpatient services to a veteran in the VA outpatient clinic in Manila for the treatment of such veteran's service-connected conditions within the limits of the clinic. A veteran's non-service connected conditions may also be treated within the limits of the VA outpatient clinic in Manila, if the veteran has a service-connected disability.
Paragraph (c) would provide guidance on which sections of part 17 apply to claims for payment or reimbursement of services not previously authorized by the Foreign Medical Program. We would state that such claims are governed by §§ 17.123-17.127 and 17.129-17.132. This is consistent with the requirements for claims for payment or reimbursement for medical services not previously authorized by VA provided within the United States.
Current § 17.125 addresses where veterans must file claims for payment or reimbursement of medical expenses incurred for care not previously authorized in the United States, including the Territories and possessions of the United States, Puerto Rico, the Republic of the Philippines, and other foreign countries. Paragraph (a) focuses on medical care rendered in the U.S. and U.S. Territories or possessions other than Puerto Rico. Puerto Rico is addressed in a separate paragraph in current § 17.125 since it is the only U.S. territory with a VA medical center. Paragraph (a) directs that claims should be filed with the Chief, Outpatient Service, or Clinic Director of the VA facility designated as a clinic or jurisdiction which serves the region in which the care or services were rendered.
We would amend § 17.125 by amending the prefatory statement to state that, generally, VA must preauthorize VA payment for health care services provided in the community when such care is provided in a State as that term is defined in 38 U.S.C. 101(20). This definition of “State” encompasses each of the several States, Territories, and possessions of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. Paragraph (a) would be amended to state that in those cases where VA payment for such services has not been authorized in advance, claims for payment for such health care services provided in a State should be submitted to the VA medical facility nearest to where those services were provided. We believe these changes would simplify the claims submission process. Under the current rule, a veteran must first determine which VA facility is designated as a clinic or jurisdiction which serves the region in which the care or services were rendered. This may not be the VA facility nearest to where community care was rendered, and that information is not always readily available. The proposed amendment would require only that the veteran determine which VA facility is geographically closest to where community care was rendered. In addition, the proposed change would simplify the rule, as there would be no separate paragraph addressing reimbursement for community care provided in Puerto Rico.
Current § 17.125 does not specifically address submission of claims for medical care provided in Canada. VA entered into a reciprocal agreement with Canada in 1956 which provides that Veterans Affairs Canada will furnish medical service and hospital care to U.S. veterans in Canada to the extent requested by VA. Medical services and hospital care furnished by Veterans Affairs Canada under this agreement is that authorized under VA's Foreign Medical Program. Consistent with that agreement, if a U.S. veteran obtains hospital or medical care in Canada which is authorized under 38 CFR 17.35, the veteran must submit the claim to Veterans Affairs Canada, a department of the government of Canada equivalent to VA. In turn, Canadian veterans who incur certain hospital or medical expenses in the United States must submit any claim for reimbursement to VA. Proposed paragraph (b) would state that claims for payment for health care services under proposed 38 CFR 17.35(a) that are provided in Canada must be submitted to the Foreign Countries Operations Unit of Veterans Affairs Canada. The Foreign Countries Operations Unit is the office designated by Veterans Affairs Canada to accept claims for reimbursement of medical expenses from U.S. veterans.
Current paragraph (c) provides that claims for the expenses of care or services rendered in other foreign countries must be mailed to the Health Administration Center (HAC). The program office currently responsible for administering health care provided to veterans outside of the U.S. is the Foreign Medical Program, Office of Community Care. In proposed paragraph (c) we would state that all other claims for payment for health care services under proposed 38 CFR 17.35(a) that are provided outside a State must be submitted to the Foreign Medical Program, P.O. Box 469061, Denver, CO 80246-9061.
Current § 17.140 states that the VA medical facility with responsibility for the fee basis program in the region or territory (including the Republic of the Philippines) served by such medical facility has authority to adjudicate all claims for the payment or reimbursement of the expenses of services not previously authorized rendered in the region or territory. Current § 17.141 states that HAC has authority to adjudicate claims for the payment or reimbursement of the expenses of services not previously authorized rendered in any foreign country except the Republic of the Philippines which will be referred to the VA Outpatient Clinic in Pasay City. We propose to remove §§ 17.140 and 17.141 and mark those sections as reserved for future use. VA believes that these sections are no longer required as the subject matter would be covered by proposed revisions to § 17.125.
Executive Order 11762 provides that the President has delegated authority to VA relating to grants-in-aid to the Republic of the Philippines for medical care and treatment of veterans under 38 U.S.C. 1731 through 1734. Under 38 U.S.C. 1732(b) VA is authorized to provide grants to the Veterans Memorial Medical Center for the purpose of assisting the Republic of the Philippines in the replacement and upgrading of equipment and in rehabilitating the physical plant and facilities of such center. Grants under this section are for the purpose of providing effective care and treatment of United States veterans in the Veterans Memorial Medical Center, and the amount of such grants is limited to funds specifically appropriated for that purpose. Authority to provide grants under 38 U.S.C. 1732(b) extended only through September 30, 1990. VA published regulations at 38 CFR 17.350 through 17.370 to administer these grants. As VA's authority to provide grants under 38 U.S.C. 1732(b) has expired, we propose to remove §§ 17.350 through 17.370. VA still retains authority under 38 U.S.C. 1731 to assist the Republic of the Philippines in fulfilling its responsibility in providing medical care and treatment for Commonwealth Army veterans and new Philippine Scouts in need of such care and treatment for service-connected disabilities and non-service-connected disabilities under certain conditions. Since 2002, under that separate authority, VA has provided several grants to the Republic of the Philippines to furnish, install and maintain medical equipment at the Veterans Memorial Medical Center.
The Code of Federal Regulations, as proposed to be revised by this proposed rulemaking, would represent the exclusive legal authority on this subject. No contrary rules or procedures would be authorized. All VA guidance would be read to conform with this rulemaking if possible or, if not possible, such guidance would be superseded by this rulemaking.
This proposed rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork
The Secretary hereby certifies that this proposed regulatory amendment would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612. This rulemaking would not directly affect any small entities. Only VA beneficiaries and certain community care providers would be directly affected. Therefore, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this amendment would be exempt from the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.
Executive Orders (E.O.s) 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). E.O. 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. E.O. 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, defines “significant regulatory action” to mean any regulatory action that is likely to result in a rule that may: “(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or tribal governments or communities; (2) Create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) Materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in this Executive order.”
VA has examined the economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action, and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866. This proposed rule is not expected to be an E.O. 13771 regulatory action because this proposed rule is not significant under E.O. 12866.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in expenditure by State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any given year. This proposed rule would have no such effect on State, local, or tribal governments, or on the private sector.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance program number and title for this proposed rule are as follows: 64.008, Veterans Domiciliary Care; 64.009, Veterans Medical Care Benefits; 64.010, Veterans Nursing Home Care; 64.018, Sharing Specialized Medical Resources.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Alcoholism, Claims, Day care, Dental health, Drug abuse, Foreign relations, Government contracts, Grant programs—health, Grant programs—veterans, Health care, Health facilities, Health professions, Health records, Homeless, Medical and dental schools, Medical devices, Medical research, Mental health programs, Nursing homes, Philippines, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Scholarships and fellowships, Travel and transportation expenses, Veterans.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on August 25, 2017, for publication.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department of Veterans Affairs proposes to amend 38 CFR part 17 as follows:
38 U.S.C. 501, and as noted in specific sections.
Section 17.35 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 1724.
Section 17.38 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 101, 501, 1701, 1705, 1710, 1710A, 1721, 1722, 1782, and 1786.
Section 17.125 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 7304.
Section 17.169 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 1712C.
Sections 17.380 and 17.412 are also issued under sec. 260, Public Law 114-223, 130 Stat. 857.
Section 17.410 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 1787.
Section 17.415 is also issued under 38 U.S.C. 7301, 7304, 7402, and 7403.
Sections 17.640 and 17.647 are also issued under sec. 4, Public Law 114-2, 129 Stat. 30.
Sections 17.641 through 17.646 are also issued under 38 U.S.C. 501(a) and sec. 4, Public Law 114-2, 129 Stat. 30.
(a) Under the VA Foreign Medical Program, VA may furnish hospital care and outpatient services to any veteran outside of the United States, without regard to the veteran's citizenship:
(1) If necessary for treatment of a service-connected disability, or any disability associated with and held to be aggravating a service-connected disability;
(2) If the care and services are furnished to a veteran participating in a rehabilitation program under 38 U.S.C. chapter 31 who requires care and services for the reasons enumerated in 38 CFR 17.47(i)(2).
(b) Under the Foreign Medical Program, the care and services authorized under paragraph (a) of this section are available in the Republic of the Philippines to a veteran who meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. VA may also provide outpatient services to a veteran referenced in paragraph (a)(1) in the VA outpatient clinic in Manila for the treatment of such veteran's service-connected conditions within the limits of the clinic. Non-service connected conditions of a veteran who has a service-connected disability may be treated within the limits of the VA outpatient clinic in Manila.
(c) Claims for payment or reimbursement for services not previously authorized by VA under this section are governed by §§ 17.123-17.127 and 17.129-17.132 of this title.
Generally, VA must preauthorize VA payment for health care services provided in the community when such
(a) Where VA payment for such services has not been authorized in advance, claims for payment for such health care services provided in a State should be submitted to the VA medical facility nearest to where those services were provided.
(b) Claims for payment for hospital care and outpatient services authorized under section 17.35(a) of this title and provided in Canada must be submitted to Veterans Affairs Canada, Foreign Countries Operations Unit, 2323 Riverside Dr., 2nd Floor, Ottawa, Ontario, Canada K1A OP5.
(c) All other claims for payment for hospital care and outpatient services authorized under section 17.35(a) of this title and provided outside a State must be submitted to the Foreign Medical Program, P.O. Box 469061, Denver, CO 80246-9061.
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule; proposed auction procedures.
In this document, the Wireless Telecommunications and Media Bureaus (the Bureaus) announce an auction of certain FM translator construction permits. This document also seeks comment on competitive bidding procedures and proposed minimum opening bids for Auction 83.
Comments are due on or before February 6, 2018, and reply comments are due on or before February 13, 2018. Bidding for FM translator construction permits in Auction 83 is scheduled to begin on June 21, 2018.
Interested parties may submit comments in response to the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice by any of the following methods:
•
•
For detailed instructions for submitting comments, see the
For auction legal questions, Lynne Milne in the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau's Auctions and Spectrum Access Division at (202) 418-0660. For general auction questions, the Auctions Hotline at (717) 338-2868. For FM translator service rule questions, James Bradshaw, Lisa Scanlan or Tom Nessinger in the Media Bureau's Audio Division at (202) 418-2700.
This is a summary of the Commission's document (Auction 83 Comment Public Notice) in AU Docket No. 17-351, DA 18-11, released on January 16, 2018. The complete text of this document, including any attachment, is available for public inspection and copying from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) Monday through Thursday or from 8:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. ET on Fridays in the FCC Reference Information Center, 445 12th Street SW, Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. The Auction 83 Comment Public Notice and related documents also are available on the internet at the Commission's website:
All filings in response to the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice must refer to AU Docket No. 17-351. The Bureaus strongly encourage interested parties to file comments electronically, and request that an additional copy of all comments and reply comments be submitted electronically to the following address:
1. On February 6, 2003, the Bureaus announced an auction filing window for non-reserved band (Channels 221 to 300) applications for new FM translator stations and major modifications to authorized FM translator facilities. By Public Notices released May 21, 2013 and April 30, 2014, the Bureaus provided a list of all applications received during the filing window that were mutually exclusive (MX) with other applications submitted in the filing window. Applicants were previously given the opportunity to eliminate their mutual exclusivity with other applicants' engineering proposals by settlement or technical modification to their proposals.
2. Auction 83 will resolve groups of pending mutually exclusive applications for commercial FM translator construction permits. Competitive bidding will be used to select winning bidders for up to 43 new FM translator permits. A list of those pending groups of mutually exclusive applications is identified in Attachment A of the Auction 83 Comment Public
3. An applicant listed in Attachment A may become qualified to bid only if it meets the additional filing, qualification and payment requirements, and otherwise complies with applicable requirements. Each applicant may become a qualified bidder only for those constructions permits specified for that applicant in Attachment A to the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice. Each of the engineering proposals within each MX group are directly mutually exclusive with one another; therefore, no more than one construction permit will be awarded for each MX group identified in Attachment A. Under the Commission's established precedent, because mutual exclusivity exists for auction purposes, once “mutually exclusive applications are accepted,” even if only one applicant for a particular construction permit becomes qualified to bid, that applicant must submit a bid in order to be eligible to obtain that construction permit. The Bureaus seek comment on whether, in the event the Commission determines to apply to Auction 83 applicants the changes made since 2003 to Section 1.2105 of the auction rules described in paragraphs 9-11 of the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice, the Bureaus can or should apply a different approach in this unique context.
4. Applicants listed in Attachment A previously filed short-form applications (FCC Forms 175). The Bureaus, in a future public notice, will specify procedures and announce a filing window for updating Auction 83 applicants' Forms 175. During this remedial filing window, each applicant seeking to become qualified to participate in bidding must make any updates to information submitted in its application that may be needed, whether to reflect new or revised information pursuant 47 CFR 1.65, to comply with requirements of the FCC auction application system or to address other requirements of the Commission's competitive bidding rules, including amendments to those rules that may have been adopted subsequent to Auction 83 applicants' initial submissions, such as those changes required to be reported pursuant to sections 1.65 and 1.2105 of the Commission's rules. If an applicant fails to update its FCC Form 175 during the upcoming remedial filing window, it will be disqualified from further participation in Auction 83.
5. Auction 83 applicants initially filed their short-form auction applications and Form 349 tech box proposals in 2003. Since those applications were filed, the Bureaus have undertaken significant engineering analysis to determine mutual exclusivity among over 13,000 tech boxes that were initially filed. In the intervening period, the Commission has also amended its Part 1 competitive bidding rules several times. In general, each Commission auction is subject to the current Commission's Part 1 competitive bidding rules, including any amendments that may be adopted after the initial filing of an application. In light of the many years during which the Auction 83 applicants' short-form applications have been pending, the Bureaus seek comment on whether certain aspects of the current rules governing auctions should be waived to account for regulatory and business changes that have occurred since these applications were filed in 2003.
6.
7. Two Auction 83 applicants whose ultimate parent corporation had consummated a transfer of control pursuant to authorization granted by the Commission in 2008 have sought waiver of section 1.2105(b)(2)'s bar on major modifications. Absent a waiver, the rule would require the dismissal of those applicants' short-form applications. The Bureaus seek comment on whether good cause exists to grant this request for waiver. Moreover, other Auction 83 applicants may have changed ownership or control since 2003 for operational or other business reasons entirely unrelated to the FM translator construction permits that they are seeking in Auction 83. Are there circumstances that would justify waiver of this rule for Auction 83 applicants? Should any such waiver be limited to certain transfers of control or assignments (
8.
9. At the time Auction 83 applications were initially filed, section 1.2105 did not prohibit joint bidding agreements or the filing of separate auction applications by entities with overlapping controlling interests. The rule required, as it does now, the disclosure of any such agreement and identification of all parties to it. In addition, the section 1.2105(c) prohibition on certain communications applied only to a communication of bids and bidding strategies between auction applicants for construction permits in any of the same geographic license, areas, with an exception for applicants that had identified each other on their Forms 175 as parties with whom they had entered into agreements pursuant to section 1.2105(a)(2)(viii). For purposes of this prohibition, both former section 1.2105(c)(7)(i) and current section 1.2105(c)(5)(i) define applicant as including all officers and directors of the entity submitting a short-form application to participate in the auction, all controlling interests of that entity, as well as all holders of partnership and other ownership interests and any stock interest amounting to 10 percent or more of the entity, or outstanding stock, or outstanding voting stock of the entity submitting a short-form application. Further, in applying the prohibited communications rule, the Bureaus have found that, where an individual served as an officer and director for two or more applicants subject to the rule, the bids and bidding strategies of one applicant are presumptively conveyed to the other applicant. Accordingly, the Bureaus determined under the former rule that, absent a disclosed bidding agreement between such applicants, an apparent violation of section 1.2105(c) would occur.
10. The Bureaus anticipate that some Auction 83 applicants and their pending applications may not be in compliance with the current provisions of section 1.2105. In light of the passage of time since the Auction 83 application filing deadline in 2003, the rule revisions that have become effective, and the business changes that applicants any applicants have undergone, the Bureaus seek comment on whether waiver of certain provisions of section 1.2105 to allow applicants to bring their applications into compliance with the current competitive bidding rules would serve the underlying purposes of these current prohibitions better than strict enforcement under these circumstances. If so, how might applicants bring themselves into compliance with current requirements during the upcoming remedial filing window? For example, if any Auction 83 applicants are under common control, should the Bureaus require such applicants to participate through a single bidding entity by filing a single application covering all of the MX engineering proposals applied for by the separate commonly controlled applicants? If so, should the Bureaus adopt specific procedures for the remedial filing window that would allow such Auction 83 applicants to come into compliance with current competitive bidding rules and requirements? Under this approach, the Bureaus propose that any commonly controlled applicants that combine their applications for purposes of bidding would be able to apply separately post-auction for construction permits. As an alternative, if any Auction 83 applicants have overlapping controlling interests, should the Bureaus allow separate auction applications from Auction 83 applicants that are under common control? If so, how would the Bureaus address the issue of a prohibited communication of bidding-related information by shared officers or directors of Auction 83 applicants? To the extent any Auction 83 applicant may have previously entered into an arrangement that is now prohibited under section 1.2105's prohibition on joint bidding agreements, what steps could such parties take to bring themselves into compliance with current rules without implicating the concerns that led the Commission to adopt the new rule? How should the Bureaus address the potentially continuing effects of any previously negotiated arrangement relating to joint bidding that was disclosed consistently with our prior rules? Irrespective of any waiver, should the Bureaus presume, absent affirmative evidence to the contrary, that any communications that may have occurred due to a shared director and officer during the more than ten years the initial applications have been pending prior to the remedial filing window did not involve bids or bidding strategies for purposes of applying the prohibition? Commenters are encouraged to identify any particular circumstances of this auction that should guide us in developing application procedures under the competitive bidding rules now in effect, including the lengthy pendency of the auction applications, specific aspects of the auction application process and processing procedures, limitations on eligibility to bid on specific permits in this closed auction, the nature of the permits to be awarded, or any other relevant considerations. Pursuant to 47 CFR 1.3 and 1.925, commenters favoring waiver of any rule should focus in particular on whether the underlying purpose of the rule would be served by its application in this case.
11. Section 1.65 of the Commission's rules requires an applicant to maintain the accuracy and completeness of information furnished in its pending application and to notify the Commission of any substantial change that may be of decisional significance to that application. Thus, section 1.65 requires an auction applicant to notify the Commission of any substantial change to the information or certifications included in its pending short-form application. See also 47 CFR 1.2105(b), (c).
12. If information needs to be submitted pursuant to sections 1.65 or 1.2105 outside of the initial, remedial, or resubmission windows in Auction 83, the applicant must submit a letter briefly summarizing the changes by email to
13. The Bureaus, under delegated authority, seek comment on a variety of auction-specific procedures prior to the start of bidding in Auction 83.
14.
15.
16. The Bureaus propose to retain the discretion to change the bidding schedule in order to foster an auction pace that reasonably balances speed with the bidders' need to study round results and adjust their bidding strategies. Under this proposal, the Bureaus may change the amount of time for the bidding rounds, the amount of time between rounds, or the number of rounds per day, depending upon bidding activity and other factors. The Bureaus seek comment on this proposal. Commenters on this issue should address the role of the bidding schedule in managing the pace of the auction, specifically discussing the tradeoffs in managing auction pace by bidding schedule changes, by changing the activity requirements or bid amount parameters, or by using other means.
17.
18. Further, the Bureaus propose to retain the discretion to exercise any of the following options during Auction 83. (1) Use a modified version of the simultaneous stopping rule that would close the auction for all construction permits after the first round in which no bidder applies a waiver, withdraws a provisionally winning bid (if withdrawals are permitted in this auction), or places any new bid on a construction permit for which it is not the provisionally winning bidder, which means that, absent any other bidding activity, a bidder placing a new bid on a construction permit for which it is the provisionally winning bidder would not keep the auction open under this modified stopping rule. (2) Use a modified version of the simultaneous stopping rule that would close the auction for all construction permits after the first round in which no bidder applies a waiver, withdraws a provisionally winning bid (if withdrawals are permitted in this auction), or places any new bid on a construction permit that already has a provisionally winning bid, which means that, absent any other bidding activity, a bidder placing a new bid on an FCC-held construction permit (a construction permit that does not already have a provisionally winning bid) would not keep the auction open under this modified stopping rule. (3) Use a modified version of the simultaneous stopping rule that combines options (1) and (2). (4) The auction would close after a specified number of additional rounds (special stopping rule) to be announced by the Bureaus. If the Bureaus invoke this special stopping rule, they will accept bids in the specified final round(s), after which the auction will close. (5) The auction would remain open even if no bidder places any new bid, applies a waiver, or withdraws any provisionally winning bid (if withdrawals are permitted in this auction). In this event, the effect will be the same as if a bidder had applied a waiver. The activity rule will apply as usual, and a bidder with insufficient activity will either lose bidding eligibility or use a waiver.
19. The Bureaus propose to exercise these options only in certain circumstances, for example, where the auction is proceeding unusually slowly or quickly, there is minimal overall bidding activity, or it appears likely that the auction will not close within a reasonable period of time or will close prematurely. Before exercising these options, the Bureaus are likely to attempt to change the pace of the auction. For example, the Bureaus may adjust the pace of bidding by changing the number of bidding rounds per day and/or the minimum acceptable bids. The Bureaus proposed to retain the discretion to exercise any of these options with or without prior announcement during the auction. The Bureaus seek comment on these proposals.
20.
21.
22. The Bureaus further propose that the amount of the upfront payment submitted by a bidder will determine its initial bidding eligibility in bidding units. The Bureaus propose to assign each construction permit a specific number of bidding units, equal to one bidding unit per dollar of the upfront payment listed in Attachment A of the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice. The number of bidding units for a given construction permit is fixed and does not change during the auction as prices change. If an applicant is found to be qualified to bid on more than one permit in Auction 83, such a bidder may place bids on multiple construction permits, provided that the total number of bidding units associated with those construction permits does not exceed the bidder's current eligibility. A bidder cannot increase its eligibility during the auction; it can only maintain its
23.
24.
25. The FCC auction bidding system will assume that a bidder that does not meet the activity requirement would prefer to use an activity rule waiver (if available) rather than lose bidding eligibility. Therefore, the system will automatically apply a waiver at the end of any bidding round in which a bidder's activity is below the minimum required unless (1) the bidder has no activity rule waivers remaining or (2) the bidder overrides the automatic application of a waiver by reducing eligibility, thereby meeting the activity requirement. If a bidder has no waivers remaining and does not satisfy the required activity level, the bidder's current eligibility will be permanently reduced, possibly curtailing or eliminating the ability to place additional bids in the auction.
26. A bidder with insufficient activity may wish to reduce its bidding eligibility rather than use an activity rule waiver. If so, the bidder must affirmatively override the automatic waiver mechanism during the bidding round by using the reduce eligibility function in the FCC auction bidding system. In this case, the bidder's eligibility would be permanently reduced to bring it into compliance with the specified activity requirement. Reducing eligibility is an irreversible action; once eligibility has been reduced, a bidder cannot regain its lost bidding eligibility.
27. Under the proposed simultaneous stopping rule, a bidder may apply an activity rule waiver proactively as a means to keep the auction open without placing a bid. If a bidder proactively were to apply an activity rule waiver (using the proactive waiver function in the FCC auction bidding system) during a bidding round in which no bids are placed or withdrawn (if bid withdrawals are permitted in this auction), the auction will remain open and the bidder's eligibility will be preserved. An automatic waiver applied by the FCC auction bidding system in a round in which there are no new bids, no bid withdrawal (if bid withdrawals are permitted in this auction), or no proactive waiver will not keep the auction open.
28. The Bureaus propose that each bidder in Auction 83 be provided with three activity rule waivers that may be used at the bidder's discretion during the course of the auction. The Bureaus seek comment on this proposal.
29.
30. A minimum opening bid is the minimum bid price set at the beginning of the auction below which no bids are accepted. Because it is an effective tool for accelerating the competitive bidding process, the Bureaus propose to establish minimum opening bid amounts for Auction 83 determined by taking into account the type of service and class of facility offered, market size, population covered by the proposed broadcast facility, and recent broadcast transaction data. Attachment A of the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice lists a proposed minimum opening bid amount for each construction permit available in Auction 83. The Bureaus seek comment on the minimum opening bid amounts specified in Attachment A of the Auction 83 Comment Public Notice.
31. If commenters believe that these minimum opening bid amounts will result in unsold construction permits, are not reasonable amounts, or should instead operate as reserve prices, they should explain why this is so and comment on the desirability of an alternative approach. The Bureaus ask commenters to support their claims with valuation analyses and suggested amounts or formulas for reserve prices or minimum opening bids. In establishing the minimum opening bid amounts, the Bureaus particularly seek comment on factors that could reasonably have an impact on bidders' valuation of the broadcast spectrum, including the type of service offered, market size, population covered by the proposed broadcast facility, and any other relevant factors.
32.
33. The first of the acceptable bid amounts is called the minimum acceptable bid amount. The minimum acceptable bid amount for a construction permit will be equal to its minimum opening bid amount until there is a provisionally winning bid for the construction permit. After there is a provisionally winning bid for a construction permit, the minimum acceptable bid amount will be a certain percentage higher. The percentage used for this calculation, the minimum acceptable bid increment percentage, is multiplied by the provisionally winning bid amount, and the resulting amount is added to the provisionally winning bid amount. If, for example, the minimum acceptable bid increment percentage is 10 percent, then the provisionally winning bid amount is multiplied by 10 percent. The result of that calculation is added to the provisionally winning bid amount, and that sum is rounded using the Commission's standard rounding procedure for auctions. If bid withdrawals are permitted in this auction, in the case of a construction
34. The FCC will calculate the eight additional bid amounts using the minimum acceptable bid amount and an additional bid increment percentage. The minimum acceptable bid amount is multiplied by the additional bid increment percentage, and that result rounded is the additional increment amount. The first additional acceptable bid amount equals the minimum acceptable bid amount plus the additional increment amount. The second additional acceptable bid amount equals the minimum acceptable bid amount plus two times the additional increment amount; the third additional acceptable bid amount is the minimum acceptable bid amount plus three times the additional increment amount; etc. If, for example, the additional bid increment percentage is 5 percent, then the calculation of the additional increment amount is (minimum acceptable bid amount) * (0.05), rounded. The first additional acceptable bid amount equals (minimum acceptable bid amount) + (additional increment amount); the second additional acceptable bid amount equals (minimum acceptable bid amount) + (2 *(additional increment amount)); the third additional acceptable bid amount equals (minimum acceptable bid amount) + (3 *(additional increment amount)); etc. The Bureaus will round the results using the Commission's standard rounding procedures for auctions.
35. For Auction 83, the Bureaus propose to use a minimum acceptable bid increment percentage of 10 percent. This means that the minimum acceptable bid amount for a construction permit will be approximately 10 percent greater than the provisionally winning bid amount for the construction permit. To calculate the additional acceptable bid amounts, the Bureaus proposed to use an additional bid increment percentage of 5 percent. The Bureaus seek comment on these proposals.
36. The Bureaus propose to retain the discretion to change the minimum acceptable bid amounts, the minimum acceptable bid increment percentage, the additional bid increment percentage, and the number of acceptable bid amounts if the Bureaus determine that circumstances so dictate. Further, the Bureaus retain the discretion to do so on a construction-permit-by-construction-permit basis. The Bureaus also propose to retain the discretion to limit (a) the amount by which a minimum acceptable bid for a construction permit may increase compared with the corresponding provisionally winning bid, and (b) the amount by which an additional bid amount may increase compared with the immediately preceding acceptable bid amount. For example, the Bureaus could set a $1,000 limit on increases in minimum acceptable bid amounts over provisionally winning bids. Thus, if calculating a minimum acceptable bid using the minimum acceptable bid increment percentage results in a minimum acceptable bid amount that is $1,200 higher than the provisionally winning bid on a construction permit, the minimum acceptable bid amount would instead be capped at $1,000 above the provisionally winning bid. The Bureaus seek comment on the circumstances under which the Bureaus should employ such a limit, factors the Bureaus should consider when determining the dollar amount of the limit, and the tradeoffs in setting such a limit or changing other parameters, such as changing the minimum acceptable bid percentage, the bid increment percentage, or the number of acceptable bid amounts. If the Bureaus exercise this discretion, they will alert bidders by announcement in the FCC auction bidding system during the auction. The Bureaus seek comment on these proposals
37.
38. The auction bidding system assigns a pseudo-random number to each bid when the bid is entered. If identical high bid amounts are submitted on a construction permit in any given round (
39. A provisionally winning bid will be retained until there is a higher bid on the construction permit at the close of a subsequent round, unless the provisionally winning bid is withdrawn (if bid withdrawals are permitted in this auction). The Bureaus remind bidders that provisionally winning bids count toward a bidder's activity level for purposes of the activity rule.
40.
41. The Bureaus also seek comment on whether bid withdrawals should be permitted in Auction 83. When permitted in an auction, bid withdrawals provide a bidder with the option of withdrawing bids placed in prior rounds that have become provisionally winning bids. A bidder would be able to withdraw its provisionally winning bids using the withdraw function in the FCC auction bidding system. A bidder that withdraws its provisionally winning bid(s), if permitted in this auction, is subject to the bid withdrawal payment provisions of 47 CFR 1.2104(g) and 1.2109.
42. Based on the nature of the permits available in Auction 83 and on the experience of the Bureaus with past auctions of broadcast construction permits, the Bureaus propose to prohibit bidders from withdrawing any bid after the close of the round in which the bid was placed. The Bureaus make this proposal in light of the site- and applicant-specific nature and wide geographic dispersion of the permits available in this closed auction, which suggests that potential applicants for this auction will have limited opportunity to aggregate construction permits through the auction process because of the closed MX groups previously established. Thus, the Bureaus believe that it is unlikely that
43.
44. The amount of the interim bid withdrawal payment may range from three to 20 percent of the withdrawn bid amount. If bid withdrawals are allowed in Auction 83, the Bureaus propose that the interim bid withdrawal payment be 20 percent of the withdrawn bid. The Bureaus request comment on using 20 percent for calculating an interim bid withdrawal payment amount in Auction 83. Commenters advocating the use of bid withdrawals should also address the percentage of the interim bid withdrawal payment.
45.
46. Based on the nature of the service and the construction permits being offered, the Bureaus propose for Auction 83 an additional default payment of 20 percent of the relevant bid. The Bureaus seek comment on this proposal.
47. The Bureaus intend to provide educational opportunities for applicants to familiarize themselves with the FCC auction application system and the auction bidding system.
48. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) requires that an initial regulatory flexibility analysis be prepared for notice and comment rulemaking proceedings unless the agency certifies that the rule, if promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, 5 U.S.C. 605(b). The RFA generally defines the term small entity as having the same meaning as the terms small business, small organization, and small governmental jurisdiction. In addition, the term small business has the same meaning as the term small business concern under the Small Business Act, 5 U.S.C. 601(3). According to the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632, a small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration.
49. The Auction 83 Comment Public Notice seeks comment on proposed procedures to govern Auction 83, an auction of up to 43 commercial FM translator construction permits, and on proposed procedures for processing pending Auction 83 applications. This process is intended to provide notice of and adequate time for potential applicants to comment on proposed application processing and auction procedures. To promote the efficient and fair administration of the competitive bidding process for all Auction 83 participants, including small businesses, the Bureaus seek comment on the following: (1) Whether certain aspects of the rules governing auction applications, including the prohibitions on major changes and on certain communications as well as the rules governing bidding-related agreements including the current prohibition on joint bidding arrangements, should be waived to account for regulatory and business changes that have occurred since Auction 83 applications were filed in 2003; (2) Use of a simultaneous multiple-round auction format, consisting of sequential bidding rounds with a simultaneous stopping rule (with Bureau discretion to exercise alternative stopping rules under certain circumstances); (3) A specific minimum opening bid amount for each construction permit available in Auction 83; (4) A specific upfront payment amount for each construction permit; (5) Establishment of a bidder's initial bidding eligibility in bidding units based on that bidder's upfront payment through assignment of a specific number of bidding units for each construction permit; (6) Use of an activity rule that would require bidders to bid actively during the auction rather than waiting until late in the auction before participating; (7) A single stage auction in which a bidder is required to be active on 100 percent of its bidding eligibility in each round of the auction; (8) Provision of three activity rule waivers for each bidder to allow it to preserve bidding eligibility during the course of the auction; (9) Use of minimum acceptable bid amounts and additional acceptable amounts, along with a proposed methodology for calculating such amounts, with the Bureaus retaining discretion to change their methodology if circumstances dictate; (10) A procedure for breaking ties if identical high bid amounts are submitted on a permit in a given round; (11) Bid removal procedures; (12) Whether to permit bid withdrawals; (13) Establishment of an interim bid withdrawal percentage of 20 percent of the withdrawn bid in the event the Bureaus allow bid withdrawals in Auction 83; and (14) Establishment of an additional default payment of 20 percent under 47 CFR 1.2104(g)(2) in the event that a winning bidder defaults or is disqualified after the auction.
50. The specific procedures and minimum opening bids on which comment is sought in this Public Notice will affect all applicants participating in Auction 83. Any revisions to application procedures for pending Auction 83 applications would affect only those entities that are commonly controlled, or that underwent a major change of ownership or control after the short-form application deadline. Auction 83 is a closed auction, and only the 57 separate entities listed in
51. This proceeding has been designated as a permit-but-disclose proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by March 2, 2018 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725—17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20502. Commenters are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
U.S. Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
To ensure consideration, submit written comments, on or before April 2, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230 (or through the internet at
Direct requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions to Robin A. Pennington, U.S. Census Bureau, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233 (or through the internet at
The School District Review Program (SDRP) is one of many voluntary geographic partnership programs at the U.S. Census Bureau. The SDRP collects school district information and boundaries to update the Census Bureau's geographic database of addresses, streets, and boundaries. The Census Bureau uses its geographic database to tie demographic data from surveys and the decennial census to locations and areas, such as cities, school districts, and counties. To tabulate statistics by localities, the Census Bureau must have accurate addresses and boundaries.
The boundaries collected in SDRP and other geographic programs will create census blocks, which are the building blocks for all Census Bureau geographic boundaries. Census blocks are the smallest unit of census geography used for tabulating data. Blocks nest within every other type of geographic area, including school districts. By combining census blocks, the Census Bureau is able to accurately report the exact number of people in each geographic area, including school districts, according to that area's boundaries. While the geographic programs differ in requirements, time frame, and participants, SDRP and the other geographic programs all follow the same basic process:
1. The Census Bureau invites eligible participants to take part in the program. For SDRP, the Census Bureau invites state Title I coordinators and mapping coordinators.
2. If they elect to join the program, participants receive a copy of the boundaries or addresses that the Census Bureau has on file. The Census Bureau also provides SDRP participants with free customized mapping software to facilitate their work.
3. Participants review the boundaries or addresses in the Census Bureau-provided digital maps and update them if needed. For SDRP, participants reach out to contacts in their state to collect updates.
4. Participants return their updates to the Census Bureau. In the SDRP, this is known as the Annotation Phase.
5. The Census Bureau updates its geographic database with boundary or address updates from participants.
6. In the SDRP Verification Phase, the Census Bureau creates maps from its geographic database and sends them to participants for final review.
7. The Census Bureau uses the newly updated boundaries and addresses to tabulate statistics.
The Census Bureau requests state officials to review and update the school district information the Census Bureau has on file through the SDRP. State officials will provide the Census Bureau with updates as well as corrections to the federal Local Education Agency (LEA) identification numbers, school district boundaries, school names, grade ranges, and levels for which each school district is financially responsible.
The main purpose of the school district information obtained through this program is to assist in forming the Census Bureau's estimates of the number of families with children, aged 5 through 17, in poverty for each school district for the U.S. Department of Education. These Census Bureau estimates are the basis of the Title I allocation for each school district. The SDRP is of vital importance for each state's allocation under Title I of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act (ESEA) as amended by Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015, Public Law 114-95. The U.S. Department of Education uses these estimates to allocate more than $14 billion in Title I funding annually.
The National Center for Education Statistics (NCES) sponsors the SDRP. The NCES identifies a Title I coordinator for each state and the District of Columbia, and the Census Bureau works with the Title I coordinator on assigning a mapping coordinator in each state to work with the Census Bureau to implement this work. The mapping coordinator collects updates from local school districts, state education officials, county planners, and state data centers, and ensures that submissions are completed within the SDRP's time frame. The respondents for the SDRP are the Title I coordinators and mapping coordinators from the 50 states and the District of Columbia.
The SDRP encompasses Type 1 and Type 2 school districts as defined by the NCES. Type 1 is a local school district that is not a component of a supervisory union. Type 2 is a local school district component of a supervisory union sharing a superintendent and administrative services with other local school districts.
The SDRP consists of two phases—the Annotation Phase and the Verification Phase. In the Annotation Phase, the Census Bureau provides mapping coordinators with materials containing the most current school district boundaries and information the Census Bureau has on file for their state. Mapping coordinators review the data and submit changes to the school district boundaries or information to the Census Bureau. The Census Bureau reviews and processes the information submitted by mapping coordinators, and the Census Bureau updates all verified changes into the Master Address File/Topologically Integrated Geographic Encoding and Referencing (MAF/TIGER) database. In the Verification Phase, mapping coordinators verify that the Census Bureau accurately and
In the Annotation Phase, mapping coordinators gather school district updates from school district superintendents and other state officials and use Census Bureau-provided materials to review and update school district boundaries, names, codes, and geographic relationships. The Census Bureau provides mapping coordinators with school district listings, spatial data in Esri shapefile format, blank submission logs, and Geographic Update Partnership Software (GUPS). The school district listings consist of school district inventories, school names, levels, grade ranges, and other data about school districts within their state. If the mapping coordinator has non-spatial updates (
In the Verification Phase, the Census Bureau sends mapping coordinators newly created listings and digital files, and mapping coordinators use the SDRP verification module in GUPS to review these files and verify that the Census Bureau correctly captured their submitted information. The mapping coordinator can tag the area of issue and send the information to the Census Bureau to make corrections if the Census Bureau did not incorporate their boundary changes or other updates correctly.
Annotation Phase: 51.
Verification Phase: 51.
Annotation Phase: 30 hours.
Verification Phase: 10 hours.
Annotation Phase: 1,530 hours.
Verification Phase: 510 hours.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Summarization of comments submitted in response to this notice will be included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection. Comments will also become a matter of public record.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Rhode Island Commerce Corporation, grantee of FTZ 105, requesting authority to reorganize the zone under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on January 25, 2018.
FTZ 105 was approved by the FTZ Board on September 13, 1984 (Board Order 270, 49 FR 37133, September 21, 1984) and expanded on January 17, 1997 (Board Order 867, 62 FR 4027-4028, January 28, 1997). The current zone includes the following sites:
The grantee's proposed service area under the ASF would be the Counties of Bristol, Kent, Newport, Providence and Washington, Rhode Island, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed service area is within and adjacent to the Providence Customs and Border Protection port of entry.
The applicant is requesting authority to reorganize its existing zone to include all of the existing sites as “magnet” sites. The ASF allows for the possible exemption of one magnet site from the “sunset” time limits that generally apply to sites under the ASF and the applicant proposes that Site 1 be so exempted. No subzones/usage-driven sites are being requested at this time.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is April 2, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to April 16, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Madawaska Foreign-Trade Zone Corporation, grantee of FTZ 179, requesting authority to reorganize the zone under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on January 25, 2018.
FTZ 179 was approved by the FTZ Board on May 24, 1991 (Board Order 525, 56 FR 25406, June 4, 1991). The current zone includes the following site:
The grantee's proposed service area under the ASF would be the towns of Fort Kent, Frenchville, Grand Isle, Madawaska, St. Agatha and Van Buren, Maine, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed service area is within and adjacent to the Madawaska Customs and Border Protection port of entry.
The applicant is requesting authority to reorganize the zone under the ASF. The applicant is also requesting that Site 1 be removed from the zone due to changed circumstances. No new sites are being requested at this time. The application would have no impact on FTZ 179's previous approved authorized subzone.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Kathleen Boyce of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is April 2, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to April 16, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the
“Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
On September 27, 2017, the Richland-Lexington Airport District, grantee of FTZ 127, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board on behalf of BGM America, Inc., within Subzone 127A, in Marion, South Carolina.
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On November 8, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Commerce) published the preliminary results of the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on large residential washers from the Republic of Korea (Korea). We invited interested parties to comment but received no comments or requests for a hearing. Therefore, the final results remain unchanged from the preliminary results and we continue to find that LG Electronics, Inc. (LGE) made sales of suject merchandise at prices below normal value during the period of review (POR).
Applicable January 31, 2018.
David Goldberger, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4136.
On November 8, 2017, Commerce published the
The products covered by the order are all large residential washers and certain subassemblies thereof from Korea. The products are currently classifiable under subheadings 8450.20.0040 and 8450.20.0080 of the Harmonized Tariff System of the United States (HTSUS). Products subject to this order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 8450.11.0040, 8450.11.0080, 8450.90.2000, and 8450.90.6000. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise subject to this scope is dispositive.
As no parties submitted comments on the margin calculation methodology used in the
As a result of this review, the Department determines that the following weighted-average dumping margin exists for entries of subject merchandise that were produced and/or exported by LGE during the POR:
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.212(b), Commerce determined, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise in accordance with the final results of this review. Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of this administrative review.
For LGE, which has a weighted-average dumping margin which is not zero or
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for LGE will be the rate established in the final results of this review; (2) for previously reviewed or investigated companies not participating in this review, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recent period; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the less-than-fair-value (LTFV) investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recent period for the manufacturer of the merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 11.80 percent, the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping and/or countervailing duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation, which is subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice and call for applications.
The U.S. Department of Commerce (DOC), International Trade Administration (ITA) announces that it will accept applications for the International Buyer Program (IBP) Select for quarter 1 of calendar year 2019 (January 1, 2019, through March 31, 2019). The IBP Select is currently undergoing a program review that may result in new ITA products and services for trade shows. The program review may not be complete in time to provide products and services for shows that occur in the first quarter of calendar year 2019, so the IBP is moving forward with accepting applications for only that time period. The IBP may announce subsequent calls for applications for other quarters of calendar year 2019, depending on how soon ITA finalizes the program review. Should the program review result in new ITA products and services for trade shows, they will be announced separately in the
This announcement sets out the objectives, procedures and application review criteria for IBP Select. Under IBP Select, ITA recruits international buyers to U.S. trade shows to meet with U.S suppliers exhibiting at those shows. The main difference between IBP and IBP Select is that IBP offers worldwide promotion, whereas IBP Select focuses on promotion and recruitment in up to five international markets. Specifically, through the IBP Select, the DOC selects domestic trade shows that will receive ITA services in the form of targeted promotion and recruitment in up to five foreign markets, as well as export counseling to exhibitors at the trade show. This notice covers selection for IBP Select participation during quarter 1 of calendar year 2019.
Applications for IBP Select for quarter 1 of calendar year 2019 must be received by March 19, 2018.
The application form can be found at
Vidya Desai, Senior Advisor, Trade Promotion Programs, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1300 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Ronald Reagan Building, Suite 800M—Mezzanine Level—Atrium North, Washington, DC 20004; Telephone (202) 482-2311; Email:
The IBP was established in the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-418, title II, § 2304, codified at 15 U.S.C. 4724) to bring international buyers together with U.S. firms by promoting leading U.S. trade shows in industries with high export potential. The IBP emphasizes cooperation
Through the IBP Select, ITA selects U.S. trade shows, with participation by U.S. firms interested in exporting, that ITA determines to be leading international trade shows. DOC provides successful applicants with services in the form of targeted overseas promotion of the show by U.S. Embassies and Consulates; outreach to show participants about exporting; recruitment of potential buyers to attend the shows; and staff assistance in setting up and staffing international trade centers at the shows. Targeted promotion in up to five markets can be executed through the overseas offices of ITA or by U.S. Embassies in countries where ITA does not maintain offices.
ITA is accepting applications for IBP Select from trade show organizers of trade shows taking place between January 1, 2019, and March 31, 2019. Selection of a trade show for IBP Select is valid for one show. A trade show organizer seeking selection for a recurring show must submit a new application for selection for each occurrence of the show. For shows that occur more than once in a calendar year, the trade show organizer must submit a separate application for each show.
There is no fee required to submit an application. For IBP Select in quarter 1 of calendar year 2019, ITA expects to select approximately 3 shows from among the applicants. ITA will select those shows that are determined to most clearly support the statutory mandate in 15 U.S.C. 4721 to promote U.S. exports, especially those of small- and medium-sized enterprises, and that best meet the selection criteria articulated below. Once selected, applicants will be required to enter into a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the DOC, and submit payment of the $6,000 participation fee (by check or credit card) within 30 days of written notification of acceptance into IBP Select. The MOA constitutes an agreement between the DOC and the show organizer specifying which responsibilities for international promotion and export assistance services at the trade shows are to be undertaken by the DOC as part of the IBP Select and, in turn, which responsibilities are to be undertaken by the show organizer. Anyone requesting application information will be sent a sample copy of the MOA along with the application form and a copy of this
Selection as an IBP Select show does not constitute a guarantee by DOC of the show's success. IBP Select selection is not an endorsement of the show except as to its international buyer activities. Non-selection of an applicant for IBP Select status should not be viewed as a determination that the show will not be successful in promoting U.S. exports.
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The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements of the application to this program (0625-0143) under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain polyester staple fiber (PSF) from the People's Republic of China (China) for the period of review (POR), June 1, 2016, through May 31, 2017.
Applicable January 31, 2018.
Paul Walker, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-0413.
On August 1, 2017, based on a timely request for review by DAK Americas, LLC (the petitioner), Commerce published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party that requested the review withdraws its request within 90 days of the publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The petitioner withdrew its request within the 90-day deadline. No other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. As a result, we are rescinding the administrative review of PSF from China for the POR.
We will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Because Commerce is rescinding this administrative review in its entirety, the entries to which this administrative review pertained shall be assessed antidumping duties at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication of this notice.
This notice serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of the antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice and call for applications.
In this notice, the U.S. Department of Commerce (DOC) International Trade Administration (ITA) announces that it will accept applications for the International Buyer Program (IBP) for quarter 1 of calendar year 2019 (January 1, 2019, through March 31, 2019). The IBP is currently undergoing a program review that may result in new ITA products and services for trade shows. The program review may not be complete in time to provide products and services for shows that occur in the first quarter of calendar year 2019, so the IBP is moving forward with accepting applications for only that time period. The IBP may announce subsequent calls for applications for other quarters of calendar year 2019, depending on how soon ITA finalizes the program review. Should the program review result in new ITA products and services for trade shows, they will be announced separately in the
This announcement also sets out the objectives, procedures and application review criteria for the IBP. The purpose of the IBP is to bring international buyers together with U.S. firms in industries with high export potential at leading U.S. trade shows. Specifically, through the IBP, the ITA selects domestic trade shows which will receive ITA services in the form of global promotion in foreign markets, recruitment of foreign buyers, and provision of export counseling to exhibitors at the trade show. This notice covers selection for IBP participation during quarter 1 of calendar year 2019.
Applications for the IBP for quarter 1 of calendar year 2019 must be received by March 19, 2018.
The application form can be found at
Vidya Desai, Senior Advisor for Trade Events, Trade Promotion Programs, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1300 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Ronald Reagan Building, Suite 800M—Mezzanine Level—Atrium North, Washington, DC 20004; Telephone (202) 482-2311; Facsimile: (202) 482-7800; Email:
The IBP was established in the Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act of 1988 (Pub. L. 100-418, title II, § 2304, codified at 15 U.S.C. 4724) to bring international buyers together with U.S. firms by promoting leading U.S. trade shows in industries with high export potential. The IBP emphasizes cooperation between the DOC and trade show organizers to benefit U.S. firms exhibiting at selected shows and provides practical, hands-on assistance such as export counseling and market analysis to U.S. companies interested in exporting. Shows selected for the IBP will provide a venue for U.S. companies interested in expanding their sales into international markets.
Through the IBP, ITA selects U.S. trade shows, with participation by U.S. firms interested in exporting, that ITA determines to be leading international trade shows, for promotion in overseas markets by U.S. Embassies and Consulates. The DOC is authorized to provide successful applicants with services in the form of overseas promotion of the show; outreach to show participants about exporting; recruitment of potential buyers to attend the events; and staff assistance in setting up international trade centers at the shows. Worldwide promotion is executed through ITA offices at U.S. Embassies and Consulates in more than 70 countries representing the United States' major trading partners, and also in Embassies in countries where ITA does not maintain offices.
ITA is accepting applications from trade show organizers for the IBP for trade shows taking place between January 1, 2019, and March 31, 2019. Selection of a trade show is valid for one show,
For the IBP in quarter 1 of calendar year 2019, the ITA expects to select approximately 8 shows from among the applicants. The ITA will select those shows that are determined to most clearly meet the statutory mandate in 15 U.S.C. 4721 to promote U.S. exports, especially those of small- and medium-sized enterprises, and the selection criteria articulated below.
There is no fee required to submit an application. If accepted into the program for quarter 1 of calendar year 2019, a participation fee of $9,800 is required for shows of five days or fewer. For trade shows more than five days in duration, or requiring more than one International Trade Center, a participation fee of $15,000 is required. For trade shows ten days or more in duration, and/or requiring more than two International Trade Centers, the participation fee will be determined by DOC and stated in the written notification of acceptance calculated on a full cost recovery basis. Successful applicants will be required to enter into a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with ITA within 10 days of written notification of acceptance into the program. The participation fee (by check or credit card) is due within 30 days of written notification of acceptance into the program.
The MOA constitutes an agreement between ITA and the show organizer specifying which responsibilities for international promotion and export assistance services at the trade shows are to be undertaken by ITA as part of the IBP and, in turn, which responsibilities are to be undertaken by the show organizer. Anyone requesting application information will be sent a sample copy of the MOA along with the application and a copy of this
Selection as an IBP partner does not constitute a guarantee by DOC of the show's success. IBP selection is not an endorsement of the show except as to its international buyer activities. Non-selection of an applicant for the IBP should not be viewed as a determination that the show will not be successful in promoting U.S. exports.
If the program review described in the
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The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements of the application to this program (Form OMB 0625-0143) under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Notice.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (“USPTO”) issued a revision of the ninth edition of the Manual of Patent Examining Procedure (“MPEP”) in January 2018 to provide updated information on patent examination policy and procedure (“January 2018 revision”). The MPEP is published to provide patent examiners and the public with a reference work on the practices and procedures relative to the prosecution of patent applications before the USPTO. The MPEP contains instructions to examiners, as well as other material in the nature of information and interpretation, and outlines the current procedures which the examiners are required or authorized to follow in appropriate cases in the normal examination of a patent application.
The USPTO prefers that suggestions for improving the form and content of the MPEP be submitted via email to
Robert A. Clarke, Editor of the MPEP by telephone (571-272-7735) or by email (
The USPTO issued a revision to the ninth edition of the MPEP in January 2018, which provides USPTO patent examiners, applicants, attorneys, agents, representatives of applicants, and other members of the public with a reference work on the practices and procedures relative to the prosecution of patent applications before the USPTO. The MPEP contains instructions to examiners, as well as other material in the nature of information and interpretation, and outlines the current procedures which the examiners are required or authorized to follow in appropriate cases in the normal examination of a patent application. Although the MPEP does not have the force of law or the force of the rules in Title 37 of the Code of Federal Regulations, it “is well known to those registered to practice in the PTO and reflects the presumptions under which the PTO operates.”
In the January 2018 revision, sections of chapters 200, 700-1000, 1200, 1400, 1500, 1800, 2000-2300, 2500, and 2700 have been updated. The updated sections have a revision indicator of [R-08.2017], meaning these sections have been updated to reflect USPTO patent practice and relevant case law as of August 31, 2017. In addition, Chapter FPC (the Form Paragraph Book), the Table of Contents, Foreword, Introduction, Subject Matter Index, and all Appendices except Appendix I and Appendix P have been updated. The changes in the January 2018 revision are discussed in the Change Summary for the Ninth Edition, Revision 08.2017. The policies stated in the January 2018 revision supersede any policies stated in prior editions, including revisions, of the MPEP to the extent that there is any conflict.
The January 2018 revision of the ninth edition of the MPEP may be viewed or downloaded free of charge from the USPTO website at
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice of application.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice of receipt of an application (Application), filed on December 22, 2017, by Galveston Bay LNG, LLC (Galveston Bay LNG), requesting long-term, multi-contract authorization to export domestically produced liquefied natural gas (LNG) in a volume equivalent to 785.7 billion cubic feet (Bcf) per year of natural gas. Galveston Bay LNG seeks authorization to export this LNG from its proposed natural gas liquefaction facility to be located in Texas City, Texas (Galveston Bay LNG Project).
Galveston Bay LNG seeks authorization to export this LNG to countries with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy, including both countries with which the United States has entered into a free trade agreement (FTA) requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas (FTA countries) and all other countries (non-FTA countries). Galveston Bay LNG requests the non-FTA authorization for a term of 20 years, to begin on the date of first export following the commencement of operations or seven years from the date of a final order granting export authorization, whichever is first. In addition, Galveston Bay LNG is requesting that it be afforded a three-year make-up period for the purpose of exporting any volume it is unable to export during the original export period, consistent with DOE/FE precedent. Galveston Bay LNG further requests this authorization on its own behalf and as agent for other entities who hold title to
Protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and written comments are invited.
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, requests for additional procedures, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, April 2, 2018.
Beverly Howard or Larine Moore, U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34), Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9387; (202) 586-9478.
Cassandra S. Bernstein, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Electricity and Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 6D-033, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9793.
In the Application, Galveston Bay LNG requests authorization to export LNG from the proposed Galveston Bay LNG Project to both FTA countries and non-FTA countries. This Notice applies only to the portion of the Application requesting authority to export LNG to non-FTA countries pursuant to section 3(a) of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b(a). DOE separately will review the portion of the Application requesting authority to export LNG to FTA countries pursuant to section 3(c) of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b(c).
In reviewing Galveston Bay LNG's request for a non-FTA export authorization, DOE will consider any issues required by law or policy. DOE will consider domestic need for the natural gas, as well as any other issues determined to be appropriate, including whether the arrangement is consistent with DOE's policy of promoting competition in the marketplace by allowing commercial parties to freely negotiate their own trade arrangements. As part of this analysis, DOE will consider the following two studies examining the cumulative impacts of exporting domestically produced LNG:
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Additionally, DOE will consider the following environmental documents:
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Parties that may oppose this Application should address these issues and documents in their comments and/or protests, as well as other issues deemed relevant to the non-FTA portion of the Application.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321
In response to this Notice, any person may file a protest, comments, or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention, as applicable, regarding the non-FTA export portion of the Application. Interested persons will be provided 60 days from the date of publication of this Notice in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention.
Any person wishing to become a party to the proceeding must file a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. The filing of comments or a protest with respect to the Application will not serve to make the commenter or protestant a party to the proceeding, although protests and comments received from persons who are not parties will be considered in determining the appropriate action to be taken on the Application. All protests, comments, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention must meet the requirements specified by the regulations in 10 CFR part 590.
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Emailing the filing to
A decisional record on the Application will be developed through responses to this Notice by parties, including the parties' written comments and replies thereto. Additional procedures will be used as necessary to achieve a complete understanding of the facts and issues. If an additional procedure is scheduled, notice will be provided to all parties. If no party requests additional procedures, a final
The Application is available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The Application and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE web address:
Office of Fossil Energy, DOE.
Notice of application.
The Office of Fossil Energy (FE) of the Department of Energy (DOE) gives notice of receipt of an application (Application), filed on January 4, 2018, by Freeport LNG Expansion, L.P., FLNG Liquefaction LLC, FLNG Liquefaction 2, LLC, and FLNG Liquefaction 3, LLC (collectively, FLEX). The Application requests blanket authorization to export domestically produced liquefied natural gas (LNG) in an amount up to the equivalent of 782 billion cubic feet (Bcf) of natural gas on a cumulative basis over a two-year period, commencing on the earlier of the date of first short-term export or September 1, 2018. The LNG would be exported from the Freeport LNG Liquefaction Project (Liquefaction Project), which is currently under construction at the Freeport LNG Terminal on Quintana Island, Texas. FLEX requests authorization to export the LNG to any country with the capacity to import LNG via ocean-going carrier and with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy, including both countries with which the United States has entered into a free trade agreement (FTA) requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas (FTA countries) and all other countries (non-FTA countries). FLEX seeks to export this LNG both before and after commercial operations at the Liquefaction Project begin. FLEX requests this authorization on its own behalf and as agent for other entities who hold title to the natural gas at the time of export. Additional details can be found in FLEX's Application, posted on the DOE/FE website at:
Protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, and written comments are invited.
Protests, motions to intervene or notices of intervention, as applicable, requests for additional procedures, and written comments are to be filed using procedures detailed in the Public Comment Procedures section no later than 4:30 p.m., Eastern time, March 2, 2018.
Kyle W. Moorman or Larine Moore, U.S. Department of Energy (FE-34) Office of Regulation and International Engagement, Office of Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-7970; (202) 586-9478.
Cassandra Bernstein, U.S. Department of Energy (GC-76) Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Electricity and Fossil Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, (202) 586-9793.
FLEX requests a short-term blanket authorization to export LNG produced prior to the start of commercial operations at its Liquefaction Project, as well as after commercial operations begin (as market opportunities arise). FLEX commits that the short-term volumes to be exported under the requested authorization, when added to any volumes exported under FLEX's existing long-term export authorizations, will not exceed the maximum volumes approved under those DOE/FE authorizations in any annual (consecutive 12-month) period.
The portion of the Application seeking authority to export LNG on a short-term basis to non-FTA countries will be reviewed pursuant to section 3(a) of the NGA, 15 U.S.C. 717b(a), and DOE will consider any issues required by law or policy. In reviewing this Application, DOE will consider domestic need for the natural gas, as well as any other issues determined to be appropriate, including whether the arrangement is consistent with DOE's policy of promoting competition in the marketplace by allowing commercial parties to freely negotiate their own trade arrangements. As part of this analysis, DOE will consider the following two studies examining the cumulative impacts of exporting domestically produced LNG:
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Additionally, DOE will consider the following environmental documents:
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Parties that may oppose this Application should address these issues and documents in their comments and/
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4321
Interested persons will be provided 30 days from the date of publication of this Notice in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, notices of intervention, or motions for additional procedures.
In response to this Notice, any person may file a protest, comments, or a motion to intervene or notice of intervention, as applicable. Interested parties will be provided 30 days from the date of publication of this Notice in which to submit comments, protests, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention.
Any person wishing to become a party to the proceeding must file a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. The filing of comments or a protest with respect to the Application will not serve to make the commenter or protestant a party to the proceeding, although protests and comments received from persons who are not parties will be considered in determining the appropriate action to be taken on the Application. All protests, comments, motions to intervene, or notices of intervention must meet the requirements specified by the regulations in 10 CFR part 590.
Filings may be submitted using one of the following methods: (1) Emailing the filing to
A decisional record on the Application will be developed through responses to this notice by parties, including the parties' written comments and replies thereto. Additional procedures will be used as necessary to achieve a complete understanding of the facts and issues. If an additional procedure is scheduled, notice will be provided to all parties. If no party requests additional procedures, a final Opinion and Order may be issued based on the official record, including the Application and responses filed by parties pursuant to this notice, in accordance with 10 CFR 590.316.
The Application is available for inspection and copying in the Office of Regulation and International Engagement docket room, Room 3E-042, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585. The docket room is open between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The Application and any filed protests, motions to intervene or notice of interventions, and comments will also be available electronically by going to the following DOE/FE Web address:
National Energy Technology Laboratory, Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of public meeting.
The National Energy Technology Laboratory (NETL) will host a public meeting via WebEx February 27, 2018, of the Supercritical CO
The public meeting will be held on February 27, 2018, from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. EST.
The public meeting will be held via WebEx and hosted by NETL.
For further information regarding the public meeting, please contact Seth Lawson or Walter Perry at NETL by telephone at (304) 285-4469, by email at
The public meeting will be held via WebEx. The public meeting will begin at 1:00 p.m. and end at 3:00 p.m. Meeting details will be available prior to the meeting on the NETL website,
Oxy-combustion systems in directly heated supercritical CO
The format of the meeting will facilitate equal opportunity for discussion among all participants; all participants will be welcome to speak. Following a detailed presentation by one volunteer participant regarding lessons learned from his or her area of research, other participants will be provided the opportunity to briefly
This meeting is considered “open-to-the-public”; the purpose for this meeting has been examined during the planning stages, and NETL management has made specific determinations that affect attendance. All information presented at this meeting must meet criteria for public sharing or be published and available in the public domain. Participants should not communicate information that is considered official use only, proprietary, sensitive, restricted or protected in any way. Foreign nationals, who may be present, have not been approved for access to DOE information and technologies.
U.S. Department of Energy.
Notice and request for OMB review and comment.
The Department of Energy (DOE), pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, intends to extend for three years, an information collection request with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). All Federal agencies administering programs subject to Davis-Bacon wage provisions are required to submit to the Department of Labor (DOL) a report of all new covered contracts/projects and all compliance and enforcement activities every six months. In order for the DOE to comply with this reporting requirement, it must collect contract and enforcement information from Recovery Act funded Loan and Loan Guarantee Borrowers, DOE direct contractors, and other prime contractors that administer DOE programs subject to Davis-Bacon requirements.
Comments regarding this collection must be received on or before March 2, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, please advise the OMB Desk Officer of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at (202) 395-4650.
Written comments should be sent to: DOE Desk Officer at Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20503.
And to: John M. Sullivan, GC-63, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585; Fax: (202) 586-0971; or email at:
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to John M. Sullivan, GC-63, Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585; Fax: (202) 586-0971; or email at:
This information collection request contains: (1) OMB No. 1910-5165; (2) Information Collection Request Title: Davis-Bacon Semi-Annual Labor Compliance Report; (3) Type of Request: Three-year extension without changes; (4) Purpose: To obtain information from the Department of Energy Management and Operation, Facilities Management Contractors, and recipients of financial assistance whose work is subject to the Davis-Bacon Act; (5) Annual Estimated Number of Respondents: 75; (6) Annual Estimated Number of Total Responses: 150; (7) Annual Estimated Number of Burden Hours: 2 per respondent for total of 300 hours per year; (8) Annual Estimated Reporting and Recordkeeping Cost Burden: $0.00 annually.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency has submitted an information collection request (ICR)—Laboratory Quality Assurance Evaluation Program for Analysis of
Additional comments may be submitted on or before March 2, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2002-0011, to (1) EPA online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Dan Hautman, Technical Support Center (TSC), Office of Ground Water and Drinking Water, (MC-140), Environmental Protection Agency, 26 West Martin Luther King Drive, Cincinnati, Ohio 45268; telephone number: 513-569-7274; fax number: 513-569-7191; email address:
Supporting documents, which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting, are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of public comment period.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing a 30-day public comment period associated with release of the draft IRIS Assessment Plan for Uranium. This document communicates information on the scoping needs identified by EPA program and regional offices and the IRIS Program's initial problem formulation activities. Specifically, the assessment plan outlines the objectives for each assessment and the type of evidence considered most pertinent to address the scoping needs. EPA is releasing this draft IRIS Assessment Plan for public comment at least 60 days in advance of a public science webinar planned on March 22, 2018.
The 30-day public comment period begins January 31, 2018, and ends March 2, 2018. Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018.
The IRIS Assessment Plan for Uranium, will be available via the internet on IRIS' website at
For information on the public comment period, contact the ORD Docket at the EPA Headquarters Docket Center; telephone: 202-566-1752; facsimile: 202-566-9744; or email:
For technical information on the draft IRIS Assessment Plan for Uranium, contact Dr. James Avery, NCEA; telephone: 202-564-1494; or email:
EPA's IRIS Program is a human health assessment program that evaluates quantitative and qualitative risk information on effects that may result from exposure to chemicals found in the environment. Through the IRIS Program, EPA provides the highest quality science-based human health assessments to support the Agency's regulatory activities and decisions to protect public health. As part of scoping and initial problem formulation activities prior to the development of a draft assessment, the IRIS Program carries out a broad, preliminary literature survey to assist in identifying health effects that have been studied in relation to the chemical or substance of interest, as well as science issues that may need to be considered when evaluating toxicity. This information, in conjunction with scoping needs identified by EPA program and regional offices, is used to inform the development of an IRIS Assessment Plan (IAP).
The IAP communicates the plan for developing each individual chemical assessment to the public and includes summary information on the IRIS Program's scoping and initial problem formulation, objectives and specific aims for the assessment, and a PECO (Populations, Exposures, Comparators, and Outcomes) for the systematic review. The PECO provides the framework for developing literature search strategies and inclusion/exclusion criteria, particularly with respect to evidence stream (
In order to allow for public input, EPA is convening a public webinar to discuss the draft IRIS Assessment Plan for Uranium March 22, 2018. Specific teleconference and webinar information regarding this public meeting will be provided through the IRIS website (
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-ORD-2017-0474 for uranium, by one of the following methods:
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The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is 202-566-1744. Deliveries are only accepted during the docket's normal hours of operation, and special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. If you provide comments by mail or hand delivery, please submit three copies of the comments. For attachments, provide an index, number pages consecutively with the comments, and submit an unbound original and three copies.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of public comment period.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing a 30-day public comment period associated with the Systematic Review Protocol for the IRIS Chloroform Assessment. The protocol describes the systematic review procedures and other methodology planned for use in developing the chloroform assessment. EPA is making this Protocol available to the public via the docket and the IRIS website. These documents were prepared by the National Center for Environmental Assessment (NCEA) within EPA's Office of Research and Development (ORD).
The 30-day public comment period begins January 31, 2018, and ends March 2, 2018. Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018. The Systematic Review Protocol for chloroform can also be found on the chemical landing page on the IRIS website (
The Systematic Review Protocol for the chloroform IRIS assessment, will be available via the internet on IRIS website at
For information on the docket, contact the ORD Docket at the EPA Headquarters Docket Center; telephone: 202-566-1752; facsimile: 202-566-9744; or email:
For technical information on the protocol, contact Dr. James Avery, NCEA; telephone: 202-564-1494; or email:
EPA's IRIS Program is a human health assessment program that evaluates quantitative and qualitative risk information on effects that may result from exposure to chemicals found in the environment. Through the IRIS Program, EPA provides the highest quality science-based human health assessments to support the Agency's regulatory activities and decisions to protect public health. As part of developing a draft IRIS assessment, EPA presents a methods document, referred to as the protocol, for conducting a chemical-specific systematic review of the available scientific literature. Protocols include strategies for literature searches, criteria for study inclusion or exclusion, considerations for evaluating study methods, information management for extracting data, approaches for synthesis within and across lines of evidence, and methods for derivation of toxicity values.
The protocol serves to inform the subsequent development of the draft assessment and is made available to the public. EPA may update the protocol based on the evaluation of the literature and any updates will be posted to the docket and on the IRIS website.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-ORD-2017-0497 for chloroform, by one of the following methods:
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The EPA Docket Center Public Reading Room is open from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays. The telephone number for the Public Reading Room is 202-566-1744. Deliveries are only accepted during the docket's normal hours of operation, and special arrangements should be made for deliveries of boxed information. If you provide comments by mail or hand delivery, please submit three copies of the comments. For attachments, provide an index, number pages consecutively with the comments, and submit an unbound original and three copies.
The following item has been deleted from the list of items scheduled for consideration at the Tuesday, January 30, 2018, Open Meeting and previously listed in the Commission's Notice of January 23, 2018.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before March 2, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the web page
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents,
Nature and Extent of Confidentiality Although most information collected in FCC Form 183 will be made available for public inspection, the Commission will withhold certain information collected in FCC Form 183 from routine public inspection. Specifically, the Commission will treat certain technical information submitted in FCC Form 183 as confidential and as though the applicant has requested that this information be treated as confidential trade secrets and/or commercial information. In addition, an applicant may use the abbreviated process under 47 CFR 0.459(a)(4) to request confidential treatment of certain financial information contained in its FCC Form 183 application. However, if a request for public inspection for this technical or financial information is made under 47 CFR 0.461, and the applicant has any objections to disclosure, the applicant will be notified and will be required to justify continued confidential treatment of its request. To the extent that a respondent seeks to have other information collected in FCC Form 183 withheld from public inspection, the respondent may request confidential treatment pursuant to 47 CFR 0.459.
In the CAF-II auction, service providers will compete to receive support of up to $1.98 billion to offer voice and broadband service in unserved high-cost areas. To implement reform and conduct the CAF-II auction, the Commission adopted new rules for the CAF-II auction which include new information collections. In the
Under this information collection, the Commission will collect information that will be used to determine whether an applicant is legally qualified to participate in an auction for Connect America Fund Phase II support (CAF-II support). To aid in collecting this information, the Commission has created FCC Form 183, which the public will use to provide the necessary information and certifications. Commission staff will review the information collected on FCC Form 183 as part of the pre-auction process, prior to the start of the auction, and determine whether each applicant satisfies the Commission's requirements to participate in an auction for CAF-II support. Without the information collected on FCC Form 183, the Commission will not be able to determine if an applicant is legally qualified to participate in the auction and has complied with the various applicable regulatory and statutory auction requirements for such participation. This approach provides an appropriate screen to ensure serious participation without being unduly burdensome.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than February 27, 2018.
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than February 20, 2018.
1.
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), HHS.
Notice of Five AHRQ Subcommittee Meetings.
The subcommittees listed below are part of AHRQ's Health Services Research Initial Review Group Committee. Grant applications are to be reviewed and discussed at these meetings. Each subcommittee meeting will commence in open session before closing to the public for the duration of the meeting.
See below for dates of meetings:
(below specifics where each meeting will be held)
Hilton Rockville & Executive Meeting Center, 1750 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
(to obtain a roster of members, agenda or minutes of the non-confidential portions of the meetings.)
Mrs. Bonnie Campbell, Committee Management Officer, Office of Extramural Research Education and Priority Populations, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), 5600 Fishers Lane, Rockville, Maryland 20857, Telephone (301) 427-1554.
These meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with 5 U.S.C. App. 2 section 10(d), 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6). In accordance with section 10 (a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. 2), AHRQ announces meetings of the above-listed scientific peer review groups, which are subcommittees of AHRQ's Health Services Research Initial Review Group Committees. Each subcommittee meeting will commence in open session before closing to the public for the duration of the meeting. The subcommittee meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in 5 U.S.C. App. 2 section 10(d), 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(4), and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Agenda items for these meetings are subject to change as priorities dictate.
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of availability.
NIOSH announces the availability of the final National Occupational Research Agenda for Manufacturing
The final document was published on January 25, 2018.
The document may be obtained at the following link:
Emily Novicki, M.A., M.P.H, (
On August 23, 2017, NIOSH published a request for public review in the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies the opportunity to comment on a proposed and/or continuing information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection project titled Information Collection for U.S. Tuberculosis Follow-up Worksheet for Newly-Arrived Persons with Overseas Tuberculosis Classifications—CDC is proposing a TB follow-up worksheet to capture domestic TB examination data for persons arriving to the U.S. with overseas TB classifications.
CDC must receive written comments on or before April 2, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2018-0013 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road, NE, MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that will help:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
5. Assess information collection costs.
Information Collection for U.S. Tuberculosis Follow-up Worksheet for Newly-Arrived Persons with Overseas Tuberculosis Classifications—Existing Information Collection in Use Without an OMB Control Number—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC highly recommends that persons with overseas classification A or B for TB receive U.S. follow-up evaluations to prevent new transmission of TB. This information will assist CDC in fulfilling its regulatory responsibility to prevent the importation and spread of communicable diseases from foreign countries (42 CFR part 71) and interstate control of communicable diseases in humans (42 CFR part 70).
Section 361 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 264) authorizes the Secretary of Health and Human Services to make and enforce regulations necessary to prevent the introduction, transmission, or spread of communicable disease from foreign countries into the United States. Under its delegated authority in 42 CFR parts 70 and 71, the Division of Global Migration and Quarantine (DGMQ) works to fulfill this responsibility through numerous activities that include monitoring the arrival of persons with Class A and Class B tuberculosis (TB) conditions and coordinating domestic follow-up examinations to prevent new transmission of TB in the United States.
The Secretary of Health and Human Services also has the legal authority to establish regulations outlining the requirements for the medical examination of aliens before they may be admitted into the United States. This authority is provided under Section 212(a)(1)(A) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(1)(A)) and Section 325 of the Public Health Service Act 42 U.S.C. 252. These regulations are codified in 42 CFR part 34, which establish requirements that determine whether aliens can be admitted into the United States, which includes health examinations when aliens attempt to adjust status to lawful permanent residents.
The TB follow-up worksheet is designed to capture U.S. TB examination data for newly arriving persons to the U.S. with overseas classification A and B for TB. The information collected by the TB follow-up worksheet will provide a method of performing several TB prevention activities, both international and domestic in nature.
The U.S. foreign born population had the highest incidence of TB compared to the U.S. non-foreign born population. CDC strongly recommends incoming persons receive follow-up examinations for TB in the U.S. This data collection will facilitate the methodical collection of TB follow-up outcome data to monitor and track persons with overseas classification A and B for TB and will assist in the national effort to prevent new transmission of TB. To accurately determine rates of TB, recent U.S. arrivals receive domestic follow-up evaluations. U.S. health departments will provide domestic follow-up outcome information to CDC. Without this data, DGMQ will not have a method of tracking and monitoring newly arrived persons with overseas classification A or B for TB. DGMQ will use information reported on the worksheet to ensure that TB programs are effectively tracking new foreign arrivals and coordinating follow-up evaluations with local clinicians. To monitor and evaluate domestic TB program performance, CDC needs to collect data on all elements of TB domestic follow-up up evaluations including CXR, diagnosis, and U.S. treatment outcomes.
The Division of Global Migration and Quarantine (DGMQ) staff along with other federal partners will also use this information to evaluate overseas panel physician performance and overseas prevention activities. To evaluate panel physician performance and overseas TB prevention activities, CDC needs to know the results of domestic chest x-ray (CXR), CXR comparison sputum smear and culture, and TB diagnosis along with domestic reviews of overseas treatment.
There are no costs to respondents except their time to complete the questionnaires. The annualized burden for this data collection is 2,200 hours.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for SAPIEN XT TRANSCATHETER HEART VALVE and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of applications to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that medical device.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For medical devices, the testing phase begins with a clinical investigation of the device and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the device and continues until permission to market the device is granted. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a medical device will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(3)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the medical device SAPIEN XT TRANSCATHETER HEART VALVE. SAPIEN XT TRANSCATHETER HEART VALVE is indicated for relief of aortic stenosis in patients with symptomatic heart disease due to severe native calcific aortic stenosis (aortic valve area ≤1.0 cm2 or aortic valve area index ≤0.6 cm2/m2, a mean aortic valve gradient of ≥40 mmHg, or a peak aortic-jet velocity of ≥4.0 m/s), and with native anatomy appropriate for the 23, 26, or 29 mm valve system, who are judged by a heart team, including a cardiac surgeon, to be at high or greater risk for open surgical therapy (
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for SAPIEN XT TRANSCATHETER HEART VALVE is 1,370 days. Of this time, 959 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 411 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its applications for patent extension, this applicant seeks 889 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for DUAVEE and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product DUAVEE (conjugated estrogens/bazedoxifene acetate). DUAVEE is indicated for treatment of the following conditions in women with a uterus: (1) Treatment of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause and (2) prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received patent term restoration applications for DUAVEE (U.S. Patent Nos. 5,998,402 and 6,479,535) from Wyeth LLC, and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining the patents' eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated November 3, 2015, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of DUAVEE represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for DUAVEE is 5,683 days. Of this time, 5,317 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 366 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 5 years of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for LENVIMA and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product LENVIMA (lenvatinib mesylate). LENVIMA is indicated for treatment of patients with locally recurrent or metastatic, progressive, radioactive iodine-refractory differentiated thyroid cancer. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for LENVIMA (U.S. Patent No. 7,253,286) from EISAI R&D Management Co., Ltd., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated July 12, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of LENVIMA represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for LENVIMA is 3,580 days. Of this time, 3,396 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 184 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 1,465 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for MOBI-C CERVICAL DISC PROSTHESIS and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (see the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For medical devices, the testing phase begins with a clinical investigation of the device and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the device and continues until permission to market the device is granted. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a medical device will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(3)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the medical device MOBI-C CERVICAL DISC PROSTHESIS. MOBI-C CERVICAL DISC PROSTHESIS is indicated in skeletally mature patients for reconstruction of the disc at one level from C3-C7 following single-level discectomy for intractable radiculopathy (arm pain and/or a neurological deficit) with or without neck pain or
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for MOBI-C CERVICAL DISC PROSTHESIS is 2,758 days. Of this time, 1,821 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 937 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 323 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for KEYTRUDA and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human biological product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human biological products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the biological product becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human biological product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the biological product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human biological product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human biologic product KEYTRUDA (pembrolizumab). KEYTRUDA is a programmed death receptor-1 (PD-1)-blocking antibody indicated for the treatment of:
• Patients with unresectable or metastatic melanoma.
• Patients with metastatic non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) whose tumors have high PD-ligand 1 (PD-L1) expression (Tumor Proportion Score (TPS) ≥ 50%) as determined by an FDA-approved test, with no epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) or anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) genomic tumor aberrations, and no prior systemic chemotherapy treatment for metastatic NSCLC.
• Patients with metastatic NSCLC whose tumors express PD-L1 (TPS ≥ 1%) as determined by an FDA-approved test, with disease progression on or after platinum-containing chemotherapy. Patients with EGFR or ALK genomic tumor aberrations should have disease progression on FDA-approved therapy for these aberrations prior to receiving KEYTRUDA.
• Patients with recurrent or metastatic head and neck squamous cell carcinoma with disease progression on or after platinum-containing chemotherapy. This indication is approved under accelerated approval based on tumor response rate and durability of response. Continued approval for this indication may be contingent upon verification and description of clinical benefit in the confirmatory trials.
• Adult and pediatric patients with refractory classical Hodgkin lymphoma, or who have relapsed after three or more prior lines of therapy. This indication is approved under accelerated approval based on tumor response and durability of response. Continued approval for this indication may be contingent upon verification and description of clinical benefit in the confirmatory trials.
Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for KEYTRUDA (U.S. Patent No. 8,354,509) from Merck Sharp & Dohme B.V., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated October 15, 2015, FDA advised the USPTO that this human biological product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of KEYTRUDA represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 83 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24 ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for CRESEMBA as approved under new drug application (NDA) 207501 and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of applications to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product as approved under NDA 207501.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before April 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product CRESEMBA (isavuconazonium sulfate). CRESEMBA is indicated for use in the treatment of invasive aspergillosis and invasive mucormycosis. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received patent term restoration applications for CRESEMBA as approved under NDA 207501 (U.S. Patent Nos. 6,812,238 and 7,459,561) from Basilea Pharmaceutica International Ltd., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining the patents' eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated July 28, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of CRESEMBA represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for CRESEMBA is 3,528 days. Of this time, 3,286 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 242 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its applications for patent extension based on NDA 207501, this applicant seeks 5 years or 1,264 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Office of the Secretary, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of the Secretary (OS), Department of Health and Human Services, is publishing the following summary of a proposed collection for public comment.
Comments on the ICR must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit your comments to
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the document identifier 0990-New-60D and project title for reference, to
Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including any of the following subjects: (1) The necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Focusing specifically on six of the 17 sites, the in-depth implementation and outcome evaluation of the SAMHSA AOT Grant Program for Individuals with Serious Mental Illness is being carried out by RTI International, in partnership with Duke University and Policy Research Associates (PRA). The completed implementation evaluation, conducted from November 2016 to August 2017, gathered information related to the processes and practices of AOT across the six in-depth sites. The information to be collected for the outcome evaluation will allow ASPE and partners SAMHSA and NIMH to assess which elements of AOT programs influence health and social outcomes for people under AOT orders, as well as the use of services, associated costs, and patient and family satisfaction with the AOT process.
The total annual burden hours estimated for this information collection request are summarized in the table below.
Section 30.18 of the Department of Health and Human Services' claims collection regulations (45 CFR part 30) provides that the Secretary shall charge an annual rate of interest, which is determined and fixed by the Secretary of the Treasury after considering private consumer rates of interest on the date that the Department of Health and Human Services becomes entitled to recovery. The rate cannot be lower than the Department of Treasury's current value of funds rate or the applicable rate determined from the “Schedule of Certified Interest Rates with Range of Maturities” unless the Secretary waives interest in whole or part, or a different rate is prescribed by statute, contract, or repayment agreement. The Secretary of
The current rate of 10
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Hypertension and Microcirculation Study Section, February 08, 2018, 08:00 a.m. to February 09, 2018, 06:00 p.m., Hilton Garden Inn Orlando East UCF, 1959 N. Alafaya Trail, Orlando, FL 32822 which was published in the
The meeting will be held on February 8, 2018 at 08:00 a.m. and end 06:00 p.m. The meeting location remains the same. The meeting is closed to the public.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Deafness and Other Communication Disorders Advisory Council, January 26, 2018, 08:30 a.m. to January 26, 2018, 02:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Building 31, 31 Center Drive, Conference Room 6, Bethesda, MD 20892 which was published in the
The meeting will be held as a teleconference due to the government shutdown and only essential business will be discussed. The time of the meeting is 10 a.m. to 12:30 p.m. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the NHLBI Mentored Clinical and Basic Science Review Committee.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are owned by an agency of the U.S.
Licensing information and copies of the patent applications listed below may be obtained by emailing the indicated licensing contact at the National Heart, Lung, and Blood, Office of Technology Transfer and Development Office of Technology Transfer, 31 Center Drive Room 4A29, MSC2479, Bethesda, MD 20892-2479; telephone: 301-402-5579. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement may be required to receive copies of the patent applications.
This notice is in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing. A description of the technology follows.
Potential Commercial Applications:
• Hepatitis B therapy.
• Hepatocellular carcinoma prophylaxis.
Development Stage:
• In vitro data available.
• U.S. Provisional Patent Application 62/534,603 filed July 19, 2017.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Skeletal Biology Development and Disease Study Section, February 8, 2018, 8:00 a.m. to February 9, 2018, 3:00 p.m., Westin Baltimore Washington Airport, 1100 Old Elkridge Landing Road, Linthicum Heights, MD, 21090 which was published in the
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the NHLBI Mentored Transition to Independence Review Committee.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Advisory Council on Aging, January 23, 2018, 3:00 p.m. to January 24, 2018, 2:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Building
Because of the strong possibility that the government would be shut down during the scheduled council date, rescheduling would have been very difficult due to the very tight timing of initiatives whose concepts were expected to be approved at January council. NIA had arranged for Notices of their availability to be published by early February for April 17 deadline (for FY 2018 award). The institute made the decision to hold an abbreviated council via teleconference on Friday January 19th, prior to the midnight deadline to keep the government open. They were counseled to post this information on their IC website. The meeting is closed to the public.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Psychosocial Risk and Disease Prevention Study Section, January 22, 2018, 08:00 a.m. to January 23, 2018, 06:00 p.m., Embassy Suites at the Chevy Chase Pavilion, 4300 Military Road NW, Washington, DC 20015 which was published in the
The meeting will be held on February 27, 2018, 8:00 a.m. to February 28, 2018, 6:00 p.m. at Hyatt Regency Bethesda, One Metro Center, Bethesda, MD 20814. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the Center for Scientific Review Special Emphasis Panel, January 23, 2018, 08:00 a.m. to January 23, 2018, 03:00 p.m., Embassy Suites at the Chevy Chase Pavilion, 4300 Military Road NW, Washington, DC 20015 which was published in the
The meeting will be held on February 28, 2018, 8:00 a.m.-12:00 p.m. at Hyatt Regency Bethesda, One Metro Center, Bethesda, MD 20814. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Transportation Security Administration, DHS.
60-day notice.
The Transportation Security Administration (TSA) invites public comment on one currently approved Information Collection Request (ICR), Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number 1652-0041, abstracted below that we will submit to OMB for a revision in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected burden. The collection involves the submission of ratings and written comments about the quality of training instruction from TSA students who successfully complete TSA instructor-led classroom training, including civilian Canine Training Center (CTC) students who graduate from the Explosives Detection Canine Handler Course, Passenger Screening Canine Handler Course, Bridge Course, Canine Technical Operations Course, or the Office of Security Operations Canine (OSO) Management Course.
Send your comments by April 2, 2018.
Comments may be emailed to
Christina A. Walsh at the above address, or by telephone (571) 227-2062.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information requirement is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Consistent with the requirements of Executive Order (E.O.) 13771, Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, and E.O. 13777, Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda, TSA is also requesting comments on the extent to which this request for information could be modified to reduce the burden on respondents.
TSA is revising the information collection because the agency is changing the questions and layout of the evaluation to standardize all Level 1 course evaluations across TSA.
The estimated burden is approximately 30 minutes (0.5 hours) per participant, 39.5 hours per calendar year (average 79 students per calendar year) to read, answer, and submit the questions. The annual respondents and burden hours have decreased from the prior ICR submission estimates due to the focus being civilian/non-TSA personnel. The number of students decreased from 180 to 79. The annual burden hours have decreased accordingly. In addition, TSA reduced its hour burden estimates from 60 minutes to 30 minutes based on actual usage data.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information or new collection of
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 2, 2018.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0010 in the body of the letter, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2006-0050. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS website at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed extension of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 2, 2018.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0001in the body of the letter, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2006-0028. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS website at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information or new collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 2, 2018.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0091 in the body of the letter, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2006-0052. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division,
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed extension of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until April 2, 2018.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0123 in the body of the letter, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2012-0003. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy,
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, PIH, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Arlette Mussington, Office of Policy, Programs and Legislative Initiatives, PIH, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW (L'Enfant Plaza, Room 2206), Washington, DC 20410; telephone 202-402-4109, (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Mussington.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806, Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; email
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
The United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's (HUD) Office of Native American Programs (ONAP) is developing a system called the Loan Origination System (ONAP-LOS) to support the Section 184 Indian Home Loan Guarantee Program. The ONAP- LOS system will deliver automated processes for case registration, reservation of funds, issuance of loan guarantee certificates, and lender registration and re-certification. This system will capture and maintain data across the following major information categories: lenders, borrowers, properties, and loan. The enhanced enterprise solution will provide participating lender partners with clarity and transparency around the ONAP enforcement efforts and it will expand access to credit for eligible borrowers. The initial release of the ONAP-LOS will deliver the following high-level capabilities:
ONAP designed the new system to reduce the number of forms needed and the time to prepare the forms while ensuring the highest level of security and privacy protections. ONAP-LOS is available to all lenders with direct guarantee approval, upon completion of scheduled training.
ONAP operates the Section 184-A program for eligible native Hawaiians. The program is designed to offer home ownership, property rehabilitation, and new construction opportunities for eligible native Hawaiian individuals and families wanting to own a home on Hawaiian home lands. The Hawaiian Homelands Homeownership Act of 2000 added a new Section 184A to the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992 which authorized the Native Hawaiian Housing Loan Guarantee Program. The regulations for Section 184-A are found at 24 CFR part 1007. This Paperwork Reduction Act package includes all forms required for the Section 184-A program.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: Including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806, Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; email
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: Including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.
Notice of information collection.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the USGS is proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
Lorna Schmid, Federal Geographic Data Committee Office of the Secretariat, USGS, Mail Stop 509, 12201 Sunrise Valley Dr., Reston, VA 20192 (mail); 703-648-6834 (phone); or
We, the U.S.G.S., in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the U.S.G.S.; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the U.S.G.S. enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the U.S.G.S. minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authorities for this action are the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.
Notice of information collection.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the U.S. Geological Survey (U.S.G.S.) is proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, Thomas Holm, USGS, EROS Center, 47914 252nd Street, Sioux Falls, SD 57198 (mail), by telephone (605)-594-6127, or
We, the U.S.G.S., in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the U.S.G.S.; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the U.S.G.S. enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the U.S.G.S. minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The award was established in 1974 to honor the memory of Dr. William T. Pecora, former Director of the USGS and Under Secretary, Department of the Interior. Dr. Pecora was a motivating force behind the establishment of a program for civil remote sensing of the Earth from space. His early vision and support helped establish what we know today as the Landsat satellite program. The purpose of the award is to recognize individuals or groups working in the field of remote sensing of the earth. National and international nominations are accepted from the public and private sector individuals, teams, organizations, and professional societies.
Nomination packages include three sections: (A) Cover Sheet, (B) Summary Statement, and (C) Supplemental Materials. The cover sheet includes professional contact information. The Summary Statement is limited to two pages and describes the nominee's achievements in the scientific and technical remote sensing community, contributions leading to successful practical applications of remote sensing, and/or major breakthroughs in remote sensing science or technology. Nominations may include up to 10 pages of supplemental information such as resume, publications list, and/or letters of endorsement.
Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours: 100 hours.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.
Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) are proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Erin Korris, by email at
We, the USGS, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the USGS; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the USGS enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the USGS minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Bureau of Land Management (BLM), are proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Mary Linda Ponticelli by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the BLM; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the BLM enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the BLM minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor—and a person is not required to respond to—a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation) is publishing this notice to announce that a Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Glen Canyon Dam Adaptive Management Work Group (AMWG) will take place.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, February 14, 2018, from 9:30 a.m. to approximately 5:00 p.m., and Thursday, February 15, 2018, from 8:30 a.m. to approximately 3:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Crowne Plaza Phoenix Airport Hotel, 4300 East Washington Street, Phoenix, Arizona 85034.
Katrina Grantz, Bureau of Reclamation, telephone (801) 524-3635; email at
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552B, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Notice of Information Collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are proposing to renew an information collection for OSMRE's call for nominations for its Excellence in Surface Coal Mining Reclamation Awards and Abandoned Mine Land Reclamation Awards.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before April 2, 2018.
Send your comments on this information collection request (ICR) by mail to: The Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Attn: John Trelease, 1849 C Street NW, Mail Stop 4559, Washington, DC 20240. Comments may also be submitted electronically to
To request additional information about this ICR, contact John Trelease by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the OSMRE; (2) is the estimate of burden accurate; (3) how might the OSMRE enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) how might the OSMRE minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
This notice provides the public with 60 days in which to comment on the following information collection activity:
The authority for this action are the Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (30 U.S.C. 1201,
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Department of the Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
We, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are announcing the date, time, and location of the public meeting to be held on the Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Western Energy Company's Rosebud Mine Area F (Project) in southeastern Montana.
OSMRE and co-lead agency, Montana Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), will hold a public meeting on the Draft EIS on February 13, 2018, between 3:00 p.m. and 7:00 p.m. at the Colstrip High School Auditorium at 5000 Pine Butte Drive, Colstrip, MT 59323.
Logan Sholar, OSMRE Project Coordinator; Telephone: 303-293-5036; Address: 1999 Broadway Street, Suite 3320, Denver, Colorado 80202-3050; email:
See the
OSMRE published its notice of availability for the Draft EIS and the Project in the
The primary purpose of the meeting is to obtain input on the Project and Draft EIS. Therefore, we encourage you to limit your testimony to the merits of the Project and Draft EIS.
The public meeting will be conducted in an open-house style format and will include informational displays and areas where attendees may record and submit written comments. At 5:00 p.m., DEQ and OSMRE staff will explain the EIS public involvement process and provide a brief description of the proposed project. Following this introduction, attendees will have the opportunity to provide oral testimony until 6:15 p.m. Oral testimony will be limited to three minutes per person. A transcriber will record the oral comments for the project record. Interpreters will be available upon request.
If you are a disabled individual who needs reasonable accommodations to attend the public meeting, please contact the person listed under
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission (the “Commission”) has determined not to review a January 8, 2018, initial determination (Order No. 7) (the “ID”) granting an unopposed motion to amend the complaint and notice of investigation.
Ron Traud, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3427. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436, telephone 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
On November 28, 2017, the Commission instituted this investigation under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337 (“section 337”), based on a complaint filed by LG Chem, Ltd. of South Korea; LG Chem Michigan Inc. of Holland Michigan; LG Chem Power Inc. of Troy, Michigan; and Toray Industries, Inc. of Japan. (collectively, “LG”). 82 FR 56265, 56265-66 (Nov. 28, 2017). The complaint alleges a violation of section 337 by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent Nos. 7,662,517; 7,638,241; and 7,709,152. The complaint named as respondents Amperex Technology Limited of Hong Kong; DJI Technology Co., Ltd.; DJI Technology, Inc. of Burbank, CA; Guangdong OPPO Mobile, Telecommunications Corp., Ltd. of China; and OPPO Digital, Inc. of Menlo Park, CA. The Office of Unfair Import Investigations is not a party in this investigation.
On January 3, 2018, LG filed an unopposed motion seeking leave to amend the complaint and notice of investigation in this matter to correct the name of respondent DJI Technology Co., Ltd. to SZ DJI Technology Co., Ltd. On January 8, 2018, the administrative law judge issued Order No. 7, the ID, which grants the motion, finding that the motion complies with Commission Rule 210.14(b). No party filed a petition seeking review of the ID.
The Commission has determined not to review the ID.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, on December 26, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Cinegy GmbH, Munich, Germany; John Fleming (individual member), Asco Vale, Australia; and Mark Franken (individual member), Winston Hills, Australia, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Advanced Media Workflow Association, Inc. intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On March 28, 2000, Advanced Media Workflow Association, Inc. filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 18, 2017. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on December 22, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
On September 20, 2004, NFPA filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on September 28, 2017. A notice was published in the
On January 25, 2018, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the Western District of Washington in the lawsuit entitled
The proposed Consent Decree resolves claims alleged against the Defendants for natural resource damages caused by discharges of hazardous substances and oil to the Port Gardner Bay Area in Everett, Washington. The settlement requires each Defendant to pay its allocated share of the total damages estimated for the Port Gardner Bay Area and the assessment costs incurred by the Natural Resource Trustees. The Consent Decree requires natural resource damages payments totaling $3,946,633 and reimbursement of assessment costs totaling $344,253. The Defendants will receive covenants not to sue under the Clean Water Act; the Oil Pollution Act; the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (“CERCLA”); and the State of Washington Model Toxics Control Act for natural resource damages caused by discharges of hazardous substances and oil from their respective facilities, identified in Appendix B to the Decree, to the Port Gardner Bay Area.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department website:
Please enclose a check or money order for $8.50 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Employment and Training Administration, Labor.
Notice.
This notice announces a change in benefit payment status under the EB program for the Virgin Islands.
The following change has occurred since the publication of the last notice regarding the Virgin Islands' EB status:
• The Virgin Islands' 13-week insured unemployment rate (IUR) for the week ending December 02, 2017 was 5.68 percent which exceeds 120 percent of the corresponding rate in the prior year. This caused Virgin Islands to be triggered “on” to an EB period that began December 17, 2017. The State will remain in an EB period for a minimum of 13 weeks.
The trigger notice covering state eligibility for the EB program can be found at:
The duration of benefits payable in the EB program, and the terms and conditions on which they are payable, are governed by the Federal-State Extended Unemployment Compensation Act of 1970, as amended, and the operating instructions issued to the states by the U.S. Department of Labor. In the case of a state beginning an EB period, the State Workforce Agency will furnish a written notice of potential entitlement to each individual who has exhausted all rights to regular benefits and is potentially eligible for EB (20 CFR 615.13 (c) (1)).
Persons who believe they may be entitled to EB, or who wish to inquire about their rights under the program, should contact their State Workforce Agency.
U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Office of Unemployment Insurance Room S-4524, Attn: Anatoli Sznoluch, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210, telephone number (202) 693-3176 (this is not a toll-free number) or by email:
Employment and Training Administration, Labor.
Notice.
Each year, the Department of Defense issues a Schedule of Remuneration that may be used by states, as needed, for UCX purposes. States must use the schedule to determine Federal military wages for UCX “first claims” only when the Federal Claims Control Center (FCCC) responds to a request for information indicating that there is no Copy 5 of the Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty (DD Form 214) for an individual under the social security number provided. A response from the FCCC that indicates “no DD214 on file” will prompt the state to start the affidavit process and to use the attached schedule to calculate the Federal military wages for an unemployment insurance or UCX monetary determination.
The schedule applies to UCX “first claims” filed beginning with the first day of the first week that begins on or after January 1, 2018, pursuant to the UCX program regulations (see 20 CFR 614.12(c)). States must continue to use the 2017 schedule (or other appropriate schedule) for UCX “first claims” filed before the effective date of the revised schedule.
National Credit Union Administration.
Notice; Request for Information (RFI).
At the May 19, 2016, meeting of the NCUA Board, the agency discussed plans for modernizing NCUA's collection of data from federally insured credit unions. Key goals of the modernization effort include reducing the reporting burden on credit unions, improving offsite supervision capability, and updating the organization of the forms and related instructions.
In June 2016, the NCUA issued a Request for Information in the
The working group also conducted additional technical research, such as on generally accepted accounting principles relevant to the Call Report. The working group's comprehensive analysis resulted in this proposal to reorganize the schedules in the Call Report and Profile, retire obsolete account codes, and relocate some account codes to other collections. The proposed streamlining for the Call Report results in a net reduction of roughly 40 percent of account codes. The proposed changes to the Profile result in approximately a 20 percent net reduction.
The proposed updates to the 5300 Call Report and 4501A Profile forms, instructions, and related background material are available for review and comment, online at
Comments must be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Comments may be submitted using
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NCUA will post all material received by the deadline on the agency website (
Mary Thor, National Credit Union Administration, Office of Examination and Insurance, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314, telephone (703) 518-6586, and email
The National Credit Union Administration's (NCUA) regulation and supervision of federally insured credit unions is designed to protect the safety and soundness of credit unions and enforce applicable laws and regulations. As the financial services industry and credit union landscape evolve, the NCUA must regularly review and update our data collection and other supervisory processes. While the NCUA is proposing to reduce the amount of data collected
After extensive outreach, the working group developed a prototype of streamlined Call Report and Profile forms. The current Call Report has 1,523
The prototype Call Report adds 413 new account codes to accommodate necessary changes such as for ASC Topic 326, Financial Instruments Current Expected Credit Losses and for the risk-based capital rule currently scheduled to go into effect in January 2019.
After these additions, the final number of total account codes on the prototype Call Report is 919—a net reduction of approximately 40 percent.
The NCUA is seeking comments on all proposed changes to the Call Report form 5300, the Profile form 4501A, and their accompanying instructions. The proposed forms and instructions are available on the NCUA's Call Report Modernization web page. When reviewing the comment documents, please consider the following questions.
1. Are there account codes that are proposed to be retired that are still pertinent? If so, please provide the account code(s) and the reason for maintaining it.
2. Are there additional account codes that should be retired or consolidated? If so, please provide the account code(s) and the reason for retiring it.
3. Are relocated account codes grouped logically? If not, please propose a location you feel is more logically suited.
4. Should any of the schedules be expanded to assist in analysis based on new rules or accounting changes? If so, please provide details of data the NCUA should also collect.
5. Are the instructions adequate in both content and design? If not, please cite specific sections that require improvement or correction.
6. How much lead time do credit unions need to work with vendors to make changes to their systems in order to support such changes to the Call Report?
7. Are there any other operational issues the NCUA should be aware of prior to implementing the proposed changes?
8. From your perspective, do you think this is a reduction in your reporting burden? Please explain.
Information received will not be used for statistical purposes. Responses containing references to studies, research, or data not widely available to the public should include copies of referenced materials. A description of the commenter's organization and its interest in the Call Report and Profile will help the NCUA use the input provided.
National Labor Relations Board.
Notice of administrative change in status of the Anchorage, Alaska Resident Office (Region 19) of the National Labor Relations Board, which has been closed and the area will be served by agents working from other locations.
The National Labor Relations Board has closed its Anchorage, Alaska Resident Office because it has determined that closing the office and serving the area with resident agents working in the area, will result in significant savings while continuing to effectively serve the area currently served by this office.
Roxanne Rothschild, Deputy Executive Secretary, 1015 Half Street SE, Room 5011, Washington, DC 20570. Telephone: (202) 273-1940.
The National Labor Relations Board has closed its Anchorage Resident Office and now services the area through full-time Resident Agents. This change was prompted by an examination of the staffing, caseloads, and rental and operating costs for the Anchorage office. This revision is nonsubstantive or merely procedural in nature. The Board expects no adverse impact on the quality of casehandling as a result of the office closure.
Region 19, which handles cases arising in Alaska, is headed by a Regional Director, who works in the Seattle, Washington Regional office and has full authority for the processing of both unfair labor practice and representation cases in that area.
The most recent list of Regional and Subregional Offices was published at 65 FR 53228-53229 on August 29, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 44602-44603 on Wednesday, July 24, 2012.
Concurrent with this Notice, the NLRB is revising its Statement of Organization and Functions to delete reference to the Anchorage office as a place where persons can obtain service in Region 19. The revision to the Board's Statement of Organization and Functions is attached.
Since July 20, 2017, the NLRB has solicited and received feedback on the proposed closure of the Anchorage, Alaska office. The decision to close this office and restructure the Agency's operations in the manner set forth here was informed by comments from stakeholders. Because this is a general notice that is related to the organization of the NLRB, it is not a regulation or rule subject to Executive Order 12866.
Pursuant to the change set forth here, the National Labor Relations Board has amended its Statement of Organization and Functions as follows:
(A) “Areas Served by Regional and Subregional Offices” is amended in following manner:
(1) Region 19 is amended to read as follows:
Region 19. Seattle, Washington. Services Alaska and all counties in Washington except Clark; in Idaho, services Adams, Benewah, Bonner, Boundary, Clark, Clearwater, Custer, Fremont, Idaho, Kootenai, Latah, Lemhi, Lewis, Nez Perce, Shoshone, and Valley Counties; and in Montana, services Beaverhead, Broadwater, Cascade, Deer Lodge, Flathead, Gallatin, Glacia, Granite, Jefferson, Lake, Lewis, and Clark, Liberty, Lincoln, Madison, Meagher, Mineral, Missoula, Pondera, Powell, Ravatti, Sanders, Silver Bow, Teton, and Toole Counties.
Subregion 36. Portland, Oregon. Services Oregon and Clark County in Washington.
Persons may also obtain service from a Resident Agent located in Anchorage, Alaska.
By Direction of the Board.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Regulatory guide; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing Revision 3 to Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.174, “An Approach for Using Probabilistic Risk Assessment in Risk-Informed Decisions on Plant-Specific Changes to the Licensing Basis.” This proposed guide, Revision 3, has been revised to incorporate additional information related to the evaluation of defense-in-depth since Revision 2 of RG 1.174 was issued in 2011. The proposed revision includes additional guidance on defense-in-depth to assure the defense-in-depth philosophy is interpreted and implemented consistently.
Revision 3 to RG 1.174 is available on January 31, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2012-0110 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Regulatory guides are not copyrighted, and NRC approval is not required to reproduce them.
Anders Gilbertson, telephone: 301-415-1541, email:
The NRC is issuing a revision to an existing guide in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the agency's regulations, techniques that the NRC staff uses in evaluating specific issues or postulated events, and data that the NRC staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses. Revision 3 of RG 1.174 describes an approach that is acceptable to the staff of the NRC when developing risk-informed applications for a licensing basis change that considers engineering issues and applies risk insights.
Revision 3 of RG 1.174 was issued with a temporary identification of Draft Regulatory Guide, DG-1285. This revision (Revision 3) presents up-to-date defense-in-depth guidance using precise language to assure the defense-in-depth philosophy is interpreted and implemented consistently. Revision 3 contains significant changes including expansion of the guidance on the meaning of, and the process for assessing, the defense-in-depth considerations.
In addition, this revision adopts the term “PRA Acceptability,” including related phrasing variants, in place of terms such as “PRA quality,” “PRA technical adequacy,” and “technical
Regarding the guidance in Section C.6.3 of the guide on the licensee submittal documentation, the NRC has accepted via a letter issued on May 3, 2017 (See ADAMS Accession No. ML17079A427), an industry process entitled “Close-out of Facts and Observations (F&Os)” (See ADAMS Accession No. ML17086A431) that allows a licensee to formally close F&Os that were generated during a peer review process. If a licensee meets the conditions of acceptance as described in the NRC's letter, a licensee does not need to submit the closed F&Os in any future applications. It should be noted that the NRC position in the May 3rd letter is expected to be incorporated into the next revision of RG 1.200, “An Approach for Determining the Technical Adequacy of Probabilistic Risk Assessment Results for Risk-Informed Activities.”
The NRC published a notice of the availability of DG-1285 in the
This RG is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
RG 1.174 describes an approach that the NRC staff considers acceptable when developing risk-informed applications for a licensing basis change that considers engineering issues and applies risk insights. Issuance of this RG does not constitute backfitting as defined in section 50.109 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations (10 CFR) (the Backfit Rule) and is not otherwise inconsistent with the issue finality provisions in 10 CFR part 52. As discussed in the “Implementation” section of this RG, the NRC has no current intention to impose this guidance on holders of current operating licenses or combined licenses.
This RG may be applied to applications for amendments to operating licenses or combined licenses docketed by the NRC as of the date of issuance, as well as future applications submitted after the issuance of this regulatory guide. Such action would not constitute backfitting as defined in the Backfit Rule or be otherwise inconsistent with the applicable issue finality provision in 10 CFR part 52, inasmuch as such applicants or potential applicants are not within the scope of entities protected by the Backfit Rule or the relevant issue finality provisions in part 52.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
In accordance with the purposes of Sections 29 and 182b of the Atomic Energy Act (42 U.S.C. 2039, 2232b), the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards (ACRS) will hold a meeting February 8-10, 2018, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Procedures for the conduct of and participation in ACRS meetings were published in the
Thirty-five hard copies of each presentation or handout should be provided 30 minutes before the meeting. In addition, one electronic copy of each presentation should be emailed to the Cognizant ACRS Staff one day before meeting. If an electronic copy cannot be provided within this timeframe, presenters should provide the Cognizant ACRS Staff with a CD containing each presentation at least 30 minutes before the meeting.
In accordance with Subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463 and 5 U.S.C. 552b(c), certain portions of this meeting may be closed, as specifically noted above. Use of still, motion picture, and television cameras during the meeting may be limited to selected portions of the meeting as determined by the Chairman. Electronic recordings will be permitted only during the open portions of the meeting.
ACRS meeting agendas, meeting transcripts, and letter reports are available through the NRC Public Document Room at
Video teleconferencing service is available for observing open sessions of ACRS meetings. Those wishing to use this service should contact Mr. Theron Brown, ACRS Audio Visual Technician (301-415-6702), between 7:30 a.m. and 3:45 p.m. (ET), at least 10 days before the meeting to ensure the availability of this service. Individuals or organizations requesting this service will be responsible for telephone line charges and for providing the equipment and facilities that they use to establish the video teleconferencing link. The availability of video teleconferencing services is not guaranteed.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Notice of submission to the Office of Management and Budget; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The information collection is entitled, “Domestic Licensing of Production and Utilization Facilities.”
Submit comments by March 2, 2018.
Submit comments directly to the OMB reviewer at: Brandon DeBruhl, Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (3150-0011), NEOB-10202, Office of Management and Budget, Washington, DC 20503; telephone: 202-395-7315, email:
David Cullison, NRC Clearance Officer, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2084; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0173 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the OMB, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC recently submitted a request for renewal of an existing collection of information to
The NRC published a
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For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Future Plant Designs will hold a meeting on February 7, 2018 at 11545 Rockville Pike, Room T-2B1, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The entire meeting will be open to public attendance.
The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will review Final Regulatory Guide 1.232, “Guidance for Developing Principal Design Criteria for Non-Light-Water Reactors.” The Subcommittee will hear presentations by and hold discussions with NRC staff and other interested persons regarding this matter. The Subcommittee will gather information, analyze relevant issues and facts, and formulate proposed positions and actions, as appropriate, for deliberation by the Full Committee.
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Derek Widmayer (Telephone 391-221-1448 or Email
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC website at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 301-415-6702) to be escorted to the meeting room.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Temporary order and notice of application for a permanent order under section 9(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”).
Applicants have received a temporary order (“Temporary Order”) exempting them from section 9(a) of the Act, with respect to a guilty plea entered on January 25, 2018 (“Guilty Plea”), by BNP Paribas USA, Inc. (the “Pleading Entity”) in the United States District Court for the Southern District of New York (the “District Court”) in connection with a plea agreement (“Plea Agreement”) between the Pleading Entity and the United States Department of Justice (“DOJ”), until the Commission takes final action on an application for a permanent order (the “Permanent
BNP Paribas USA, Inc., BNP Paribas Asset Management USA, Inc. (“BNPP AM USA”), Bishop Street Capital Management Corp. (“BSCM”), and BNP Paribas Asset Management UK Limited (“BNPP AM UK”) (each, an “Applicant” and collectively, “Applicants”).
The application was filed on January 25, 2018.
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving Applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on February 20, 2018 and should be accompanied by proof of service on Applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: BNP Paribas USA, Inc., 787 Seventh Avenue, New York, NY 10019; BNPP AM USA: 200 Park Avenue, 11th Floor, New York, NY 10166; BSCM: First Hawaiian Center, 999 Bishop Street, Suite 2806, Honolulu, HI 96813; BNPP AM UK: 5 Aldermanbury Square, London EC2V 7BP, United Kingdom.
Jessica Shin, Attorney-Adviser, or Robert H. Shapiro, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a temporary order and a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Pleading Entity is a corporation organized under the laws of Delaware and wholly owned subsidiary of BNP Paribas S.A. (“BNPP”).
2. BNPP AM USA, a corporation formed under the laws of New York, is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”) and is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of BNPP and of the Pleading Entity. BNPP AM USA serves as sub-adviser to the investment companies registered under the Act or series of such companies listed in Part 1 of Appendix A to the application (each a “Fund” and, collectively, “Funds”). Until late April 2017, BNPP AM USA was named “Fischer Francis Trees & Watts, Inc.”
3. BSCM, a corporation formed under the laws of Hawaii in 1999, is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. BSCM is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of First Hawaiian, Inc., which is an approximately 62% owned indirect subsidiary of BNPP. BSCM serves as investment adviser to each Fund listed in Part 2 of Appendix A to the application.
4. BNPP AM UK, a corporation formed under the laws of the United Kingdom, is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. BNPP AM UK is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of BNPP. BNPP AM UK does not currently advise any Fund, but expects to be sub-adviser to the newly-organized Fund listed in Part 1B of Appendix A to the application.
5. While no existing company of which the Pleading Entity is an “affiliated person” within the meaning of section 2(a)(3) of the Act (“Affiliated Person”), other than BNPP AM USA, BSCM and BNPP AM UK (together, the “Fund Servicing Applicants”), currently serves as an investment adviser or depositor of any Fund, employees' securities company (“ESC”) or investment company that has elected to be treated as a business development company under the Act (“BDC”), or principal underwriter (as defined in section 2(a)(29) of the Act) for any open-end management investment company registered under the Act (“Open-End Fund”), unit investment trust registered under the Act (“UIT”), or face-amount certificate company registered under the Act (“FACC”), Applicants request that any relief granted by the Commission pursuant to the application also apply to any current or future Affiliated person of the Pleading Entity other than BNPP (together with the Fund Servicing Applicants, the “Covered Persons”) with respect to any activity contemplated by section 9(a) of the Act.
6. On January 25, 2018, the United States Department of Justice (the “Department of Justice”) filed a one-count criminal information (the “Information”) in the District Court. The Information charges that from as early as September 2011 until at least July 2013, the Pleading Entity, through a single Central and Eastern European, Middle Eastern and African Emerging Markets currencies (“CEEMEA” currencies) trader employed by BNP Paribas Securities Corp. (“Sec Corp”), participated in a conspiracy to suppress and eliminate competition in CEEMEA currencies by various methods (the “Conduct”), as further described in the application, in violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act (Title 15, United States Code, section 1).
7. Pursuant to the Plea Agreement, the Pleading Entity entered the Guilty Plea on January 25, 2018 in the District Court to the charge set out in the Information. According to the Plea Agreement, the Pleading Entity, among other things, agreed to a fine of $90 million. The Applicants expect that the District Court will enter a judgment against the Pleading Entity (the “Judgment”) that will require remedies that are materially the same as set forth in the Plea Agreement. The individual referenced in the Information as responsible for the Conduct is no longer employed by BNPP or any of its affiliates.
8. BNPP and its affiliates have entered into settlement agreements with other U.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies related to the Conduct. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“FRB”) entered a cease and desist order (the “FRB Order”) on July 17, 2017 against BNPP, the Pleading Entity and Sec Corp concerning unsafe and unsound banking practices relating to BNPP's foreign exchange (“FX”) business. The New York State Department of Financial Services (“DFS”) entered into a consent order (the “DFS Order”) on May 24, 2017 with BNPP and its New York branch (the “DFS Order Parties”) to settle DFS' investigations into alleged violations of the New York laws and regulations arising out of conduct in the DFS Order Parties' FX business during the period between 2007 and 2013.
1. Section 9(a)(1) of the Act provides, in pertinent part, that a person may not serve or act as an investment adviser or depositor of any registered investment company or as principal underwriter for any registered open-end investment company, UIT, or FACC, if such person within ten years has been convicted of any felony or misdemeanor, including those arising out of such person's conduct as a bank. Section 2(a)(10) of the Act defines the term “convicted” to include a plea of guilty. Section 9(a)(3) of the Act extends the prohibitions of section 9(a)(1) to a company, any affiliated person of which has been disqualified under the provisions of section 9(a)(1). Section 2(a)(3) of the Act defines “affiliated person” to include, among others, any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with, the other person. The Pleading Entity is an Affiliated Person of each of the other Applicants within the meaning of section 2(a)(3) of the Act. Therefore, the Applicants state that the Plea Agreement would result in a disqualification of the Applicants for ten years under section 9(a)(3) were they to act in any of the capacities listed in section 9(a), by effect of a conviction described in section 9(a)(1).
2. Section 9(c) of the Act provides that, upon application, the Commission shall by order grant an exemption from the disqualification provisions of section 9(a) of the Act, either unconditionally or on an appropriate temporary or other conditional basis, to any person if that person establishes that: (a) The prohibitions of section 9(a), as applied to the person, are unduly or disproportionately severe or (b) the conduct of the person has been such as not to make it against the public interest or the protection of investors to grant the exemption. Applicants have filed an application pursuant to section 9(c) seeking a Temporary Order and a Permanent Order exempting the Fund Servicing Applicants and other Covered Persons from the disqualification provisions of section 9(a) of the Act. The Covered Persons may, if the Orders are granted, in the future act in any of the capacities contemplated by section 9(a) of the Act subject to the applicable terms and conditions of the Orders.
3. Applicants believe they meet the standards for exemption specified in section 9(c). Applicants assert that (i) the scope of the misconduct was limited and did not involve any of the Fund Servicing Applicants acting as an “investment adviser” (as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Act) to Funds (such activities, “Fund Service Activities”), or any Fund with respect to which the Applicants engage in Fund Service Activities, (ii) application of the statutory bar would impose significant hardships on the Funds and their shareholders, (iii) the prohibitions of section 9(a), if applied to the BNPP and other Covered Persons, would be unduly or disproportionately severe and (iv) the Conduct did not constitute conduct that would make it against the public interest or protection of investors to grant the exemption from section 9(a).
4. Applicants represent that the Conduct did not involve any of Applicants acting in the capacity as an investment adviser or depositor of any Fund, ESC or BDC or as principal underwriter for any Open-End Fund, UIT or FACC. Applicants represent that the Conduct similarly did not involve any Fund with respect to which the Applicants engage in Fund Service Activities.
5. Applicants assert that neither the protection of investors nor the public interest would be served by permitting the section 9(a) disqualifications to apply to the Fund Servicing Applicants because those disqualifications would deprive the Fund of the advisory or sub-advisory services that shareholders expected the Funds would receive when they decided to invest in the Funds. Applicants also assert that the prohibitions of section 9(a) could operate to the financial detriment of the Funds and their shareholders, which would be an unduly and disproportionately severe consequence given that the Conduct did not involve any of the Fund Service Activities.
6. Applicants further represent that the inability of the Fund Servicing Applicants to continue providing investment advisory services to Funds would result in the Funds and their shareholders facing potential hardship, as described in the application. Applicants assert that if the Fund Servicing Applicants were barred under section 9(a) from providing investment advisory services to the Funds and were unable to obtain the requested exemption, the effect on their businesses and employees would be severe. Applicants state that the Fund Servicing Applicants have committed substantial capital and other resources to establishing expertise in advising and sub-advising Funds with a view to continuing and expanding this business, which Applicants consider strategically important. Applicants further state that prohibiting the Fund Servicing Applicants from engaging in Fund Service Activities would not only adversely affect their business, but would also adversely affect their employees who are involved in these activities. In addition, Applicants assert that if the Fund Servicing Applicants or Covered Persons are unable to expand their businesses in the future because of the imposition of the section 9(a) disqualification, it could also have an adverse impact on their businesses.
7. Applicants represent that: (1) None of the current or former directors, officers or employees of Applicants had any involvement in the Conduct; (2) no current or former employee of the Pleading Entity or of any other Covered Person who previously has been or who subsequently may be identified by the Pleading Entity or any U.S. or non-U.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies as having been responsible for the Conduct will be an officer, director, or employee of any Covered Person; (3) the identified employee has had no, and will not have any future, involvement in the Covered Persons' activities in any capacity described in section 9(a) of the Act; and (4) because the personnel of Applicants did not have any involvement in the Conduct, shareholders of the Fund were not affected any differently than if the Fund had received services from any other non-affiliated investment adviser.
8. Applicants have agreed that none of BNPP, the Applicants or any of the other Covered Persons will employ the former employee of an affiliate of the Pleading Entity or any other person who subsequently may be identified by the Pleading Entity or any U.S. or non-U.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies as having been responsible for the Conduct in any capacity without first making a further application to the Commission pursuant to section 9(c).
9. Applicants have also agreed that BNPP and each Applicant and Covered Person will adopt and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the
10. In addition, BNPP and each Applicant and Covered Person will comply in all material respects with the material terms and conditions of the Plea Agreement and with the materials terms of the FRB Order, the DFS Order any other orders issued by regulatory or enforcement agencies addressing the Conduct. Applicants further state that BNPP and its affiliates have undertaken certain remedial measures, as described in greater detail in the application. These include certain remedial measures as required by the Plea Agreement, the FRB Order, and the DFS Order, including improvements to the oversight, internal controls and compliance program, compliance risk management program, and internal audit program for FX trading. Applicants state that BNPP and its affiliates have taken a number of steps to enhance its internal controls, policies and procedures relating to its FX activities. Specifically, Applicants represent BNPP has devised and implemented new global detailed FX-specific policies and procedures and a comprehensive program to change the culture of the business with the aim that each individual within the business understands their responsibility for proper conduct and compliance. Applicants also represent that BNPP has globally rolled out culture and conduct workshops and training on BNPP's Foreign Exchange Local Markets remediation program. Additionally, Applicants represent that supervisors have been given increased tools to directly oversee their staff and identify conduct issues more effectively, permanent cross-bank chat rooms have been prohibited, and reverse trades are monitored through software designed to detect transactions (proprietary and customer) that were not exposed to the risk of the market and did not result in a change of beneficial ownership.
11. As a result of the foregoing, the Applicants submit that granting the exemption as requested in the application is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
12. To provide further assurance that the exemptive relief being requested herein would be consistent with the public interest and the protection of the investors, the Applicants agree that they will, as soon as reasonably practical, distribute to the boards of directors or trustees of the Funds (“Board”) written materials describing the circumstances that led to the Plea Agreement, as well as any effects on the Funds and the application. The written materials will include an offer to discuss the materials at an in-person meeting with the Board, including the directors who are not “interested persons” of the Funds as defined in section 2(a)(19) of the Act and their “independent legal counsel” as defined in rule 0-1(a)(6) under the Act, if any. The Applicants undertake to provide the Boards with all information concerning the Plea Agreement and the application as necessary for those Funds to fulfill their disclosure and other obligations under the U.S. federal securities laws and will provide them a copy of the Judgment as entered by the District Court.
13. Applicants state that certain of the Applicants and their affiliates have previously received an order under section 9(c) of the Act, as the result of conduct that triggered section 9(a), as described in greater detail in the application.
Applicants agree that any order granted by the Commission pursuant to the application will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Any temporary exemption granted pursuant to the application will be without prejudice to, and will not limit the Commission's rights in any manner with respect to, any Commission investigation of, or administrative proceedings involving or against, Covered Persons, including, without limitation, the consideration by the Commission of a permanent exemption from section 9(a) of the Act requested pursuant to the application or the revocation or removal of any temporary exemptions granted under the Act in connection with the application.
2. None of BNPP, the Applicants or any of the other Covered Persons will employ the former employee of an affiliate of the Pleading Entity or any other person who subsequently may be identified by the Pleading Entity or any U.S. or non-U.S. regulatory or enforcement agencies as having been responsible for the Conduct in any capacity without first making a further application to the Commission pursuant to section 9(c).
3. BNPP and each Applicant and Covered Person will adopt and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that it will comply with the terms and conditions of the Orders within 60 days of the date of the Permanent Order or, with respect to condition four, such later date or dates as may be contemplated by the FRB Order, the DFS Order or any other orders issued by regulatory or enforcement agencies addressing the Conduct.
4. BNPP and each Applicant and Covered Person will comply in all material respects with the material terms and conditions of the Plea Agreement and with the material terms of the FRB Order, the DFS Order and any other orders issued by regulatory or enforcement agencies addressing the Conduct.
5. Applicants will provide written notification to the Chief Counsel of the Commission's Division of Investment Management with a copy to the Chief Counsel of the Commission's Division of Enforcement of a material violation of the terms and conditions of any of the Orders within 30 days of discovery of the material violation.
The Commission has considered the matter and finds that Applicants have made the necessary showing to justify granting a temporary exemption.
Accordingly,
By the Commission.
On December 18, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) proposed rule change SR-OCC-2017-020 (“Proposed Rule Change”) pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
On January 22, 2018, the Commission sent OCC a request for additional information, which tolls the Commission's 60-day review period for the Advance Notice.
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
In order to provide the Commission with sufficient time to consider the Proposed Rule Change, the Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the Proposed Rule Change.
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On December 8, 2017, The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) proposed rule change SR-OCC-2017-021 (“Proposed Rule Change”) pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
On January 22, 2018, the Commission sent OCC a request for additional information, which tolls the Commission's 60-day review period for the Advance Notice.
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
In order to provide the Commission with sufficient time to consider the Proposed Rule Change, the Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the Proposed Rule Change.
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to reflect changes to certain representations made in the respective proposed rule changes previously filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 19b-4 relating to the Guggenheim Ultra Short Duration ETF and the Guggenheim Total Return Bond ETF (each a “Fund” and, collectively, the “Funds”). Shares of the Funds are currently listed and traded on the Exchange under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Commission has approved the listing and trading on the Exchange of shares (“Shares”) of the Funds, under NYSE Arca Rule 8.600-E (formerly NYSE Arca Equities Rule 8.600), which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares.
The Shares of the Guggenheim Ultra Short Duration ETF are offered by Claymore Exchange-Traded Fund Trust and Shares of the Guggenheim Total Return Bond ETF are offered by Claymore Exchange-Traded Fund Trust 2 (together with the Claymore Exchange-Traded Fund Trust, the “Claymore Trusts”). PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust has filed a combined prospectus and proxy statement (the “Proxy Statement”) with the Commission on Form N-14 describing a “Plan of Reorganization” pursuant to which, following approval of the Funds' shareholders, all or substantially all of the assets and substantially all of the liabilities of each Fund would be transferred to a corresponding, newly-formed fund of the PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust, described below. According to the Proxy Statement, the investment objective of each Fund will be the same following implementation of the Plan of Reorganization (“Reorganization”).
In this proposed rule change, the Exchange proposes to reflect changes to certain representations made in the respective proposed rule changes previously filed with the Commission pursuant to Rule 19b-4 relating to the Funds, as described above,
The First Short Duration Notice stated the name of the Fund as Guggenheim Enhanced Ultra-Short Bond ETF, which name was later changed to Guggenheim Enhanced Short Duration ETF and then to Guggenheim Ultra Short Duration ETF. Following the Reorganization, the name of the Fund will be PowerShares Ultra Short Duration Portfolio.
The Second Short Duration Notice stated that the Fund's trust is Claymore Exchange-Traded Fund Trust and the Fund's investment adviser is Guggenheim Funds Investment Advisors, LLC. Following the Reorganization, the Fund's trust will be PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust, and the Fund's investment adviser and sub-adviser will be Invesco PowerShares Capital Management LLC and Invesco Advisers, Inc., respectively.
An investment adviser to an open-end fund is required to be registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). As a result, with respect to PowerShares Ultra Short Duration Portfolio and PowerShares Total Return Bond Portfolio, Invesco PowerShares Capital Management LLC and Invesco Advisers, Inc., as adviser and sub-adviser, respectively, and their related personnel, are subject to the provisions of Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act relating to codes of ethics. This Rule requires investment advisers to adopt a code of ethics that reflects the fiduciary nature of the relationship to clients as well as compliance with other applicable securities laws. Accordingly, procedures designed to prevent the communication and misuse of non-public information by an investment adviser must be consistent with Rule 204A-1 under the Advisers Act. In addition, Rule 206(4)-7 under the Advisers Act makes it unlawful for an investment adviser to provide investment advice to clients unless such investment adviser has (i) adopted and implemented written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violation, by the investment adviser and its supervised persons, of the Advisers Act and the Commission rules adopted thereunder; (ii) implemented, at a minimum, an annual review regarding the adequacy of the policies and procedures established pursuant to subparagraph (i) above and the effectiveness of their implementation; and (iii) designated an individual (who is a supervised person) responsible for administering the policies and procedures adopted under subparagraph (i) above.
The First Short Duration Notice stated that the Fund's distributor is Claymore Securities, Inc. Following the Reorganization, the Fund's distributor will be Invesco Distributors, Inc.
The First Short Duration Notice stated the Fund is considered non-diversified under the 1940 Act;
The Total Return Releases stated the name of the Fund as Guggenheim Total Return Bond ETF. Following the Reorganization, the Fund's name will be PowerShares Total Return Bond Portfolio.
The Total Return Releases stated that the Fund's trust is Claymore Exchange-Traded Fund Trust 2, and the Fund's investment adviser is Guggenheim Partners Investment Management, LLC. Following the Reorganization, the Fund's trust will be PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust, and the Fund's investment adviser will be Invesco PowerShares Capital Management LLC. The Total Return Releases did not specify that the Fund will have a sub-adviser. Following the Reorganization, the Fund will have a sub-adviser, namely, Invesco Advisers, Inc.
The investment objective of each Fund will remain unchanged. Except for the changes noted above, all other representations made in the Short Duration Releases and the Total Return Releases, respectively, remain unchanged.
The basis under the Act for this proposed rule change is the requirement under Section 6(b)(5)
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, and is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest.
PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust has filed the Proxy Statement describing the Reorganization pursuant to which, following approval of the Funds' shareholders, all assets of each Fund would be transferred to a corresponding fund of the PowerShares Actively Managed Exchange-Traded Fund Trust. This filing proposes to reflect organizational and administrative changes that would be implemented as a result of the Reorganization, including changes to the Funds' names, the trust entity issuing shares of the Funds, the adviser and sub-adviser to the Funds and the distributor for the Funds. In addition, following the Reorganization, the PowerShares Ultra Short Duration Portfolio's registration statement will state that it will be considered non-diversified under the 1940 Act. As noted above, Invesco PowerShares Capital Management LLC and Invesco Advisers, Inc. each is not registered as a broker-dealer but is affiliated with a broker-dealer. Each such entity has implemented and will maintain a fire wall with respect to its affiliated broker-dealer regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will enhance competition and benefit of [sic] investors and the marketplace by permitting continued listing and trading of Shares of the Funds following implementation of the changes described above that would follow the Reorganization, which changes are non-substantive and would not impact the respective investment objective of each Fund.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative prior to 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
The Exchange has asked the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay so that the proposal may become operative immediately upon filing. The Commission notes that the proposal would allow the Exchange to reflect organizational and administrative changes to the Funds that would be implemented as a result of the Reorganization, including changes to the Funds' names, the trust entity issuing shares of the Funds, the adviser and sub-adviser to the Funds, and the distributor for the Funds. In addition, following the Reorganization, the PowerShares Ultra Short Duration Portfolio's registration statement will state that it will be considered non-diversified under the 1940 Act. The Commission further notes that the Exchange represents that the investment objective of each Fund will remain the same, and, except for the changes noted in this proposed rule change, all other representations made in the Short Duration Releases and the Total Return Releases remain unchanged. The Commission believes that the proposal raises no new or novel regulatory issues and waiver of the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The following is a notice of applications for deregistration under section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 for the month of January 2018. A copy of each application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
The Commission: Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Jill Ehrlich, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6819 or Chief Counsel's Office at (202) 551-6821; SEC, Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-8010.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d), and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The requested order would permit (a) actively-managed series of certain open-end management investment companies (“Funds”) to issue shares redeemable in large aggregations only (“Creation Units”); (b) secondary market transactions in Fund shares to occur at negotiated market prices rather than at net asset value (“NAV”); (c) certain Funds to pay redemption proceeds, under certain circumstances, more than seven days after the tender of shares for redemption; (d) certain affiliated persons of a Fund to deposit securities into, and receive securities from, the Fund in connection with the purchase and redemption of Creation Units; (e) certain registered management investment companies and unit investment trusts outside of the same group of investment companies as the Funds (“Funds of Funds”) to acquire shares of the Funds; and (f) certain Funds (“Feeder Funds”) to create and redeem Creation Units in-kind in a master-feeder structure.
EquBot LLC (the “Initial Adviser”), a Delaware limited liability company that, prior to relying on the relief requested, will be registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, ETF Series Solutions (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company with multiple series.
The application was filed on December 22, 2017.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on February 20, 2018, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit, or for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: W. John McGuire, Esq., Morgan, Lewis & Bockius LLP, 1111 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20004-2541 and Michael D. Barolsky, Esq., U.S. Bancorp Fund Services, LLC, 615 E. Michigan Street, Milwaukee, WI 53202.
Deepak Pai, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6876, or Robert H. Shapiro, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order that would allow Funds to operate as actively-managed exchange traded funds (“ETFs”).
2. Each Fund will consist of a portfolio of securities and other assets and investment positions (“Portfolio Instruments”). Each Fund will disclose on its website the identities and quantities of the Portfolio Instruments that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the day.
3. Shares will be purchased and redeemed in Creation Units only and generally on an in-kind basis. Except where the purchase or redemption will include cash under the limited circumstances specified in the application, purchasers will be required to purchase Creation Units by depositing specified instruments (“Deposit Instruments”), and shareholders redeeming their shares will receive specified instruments (“Redemption Instruments”). The Deposit Instruments and the Redemption Instruments will each correspond pro rata to the positions in the Fund's portfolio (including cash positions) except as specified in the application.
4. Because shares will not be individually redeemable, applicants request an exemption from section 5(a)(1) and section 2(a)(32) of the Act that would permit the Funds to register as open-end management investment companies and issue shares that are redeemable in Creation Units only.
5. Applicants also request an exemption from section 22(d) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act as secondary market trading in shares will take place at negotiated prices, not at a current offering price described in a Fund's prospectus, and not at a price based on NAV. Applicants state that (a) secondary market trading in shares does not involve a Fund as a party and will not result in dilution of an investment in shares, and (b) to the extent different prices exist during a given trading day, or from day to day, such variances occur as a result of third-party market forces, such as supply and demand. Therefore, applicants assert that secondary market transactions in shares will not lead to discrimination or preferential treatment among purchasers. Finally, applicants represent that share market prices will be disciplined by arbitrage
6. With respect to Funds that hold non-U.S. Portfolio Instruments and that effect creations and redemptions of Creation Units in kind, applicants request relief from the requirement imposed by section 22(e) in order to allow such Funds to pay redemption proceeds within fifteen calendar days following the tender of Creation Units for redemption. Applicants assert that the requested relief would not be inconsistent with the spirit and intent of section 22(e) to prevent unreasonable, undisclosed or unforeseen delays in the actual payment of redemption proceeds.
7. Applicants request an exemption to permit Funds of Funds to acquire Fund shares beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act; and the Funds, and any principal underwriter for the Funds, and/or any broker or dealer registered under the Exchange Act, to sell shares to Funds of Funds beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The application's terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help prevent any potential (i) undue influence over a Fund through control or voting power, or in connection with certain services, transactions, and underwritings, (ii) excessive layering of fees, and (iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
8. Applicants request an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act to permit persons that are affiliated persons, or second-tier affiliates, of the Funds, solely by virtue of certain ownership interests, to effectuate purchases and redemptions in-kind. The deposit procedures for in-kind purchases of Creation Units and the redemption procedures for in-kind redemptions of Creation Units will be the same for all purchases and redemptions and Deposit Instruments and Redemption Instruments will be valued in the same manner as those Portfolio Instruments currently held by the Funds. Applicants also seek relief from the prohibitions on affiliated transactions in section 17(a) to permit a Fund to sell its shares to and redeem its shares from a Fund of Funds, and to engage in the accompanying in-kind transactions with the Fund of Funds.
9. Applicants also request relief to permit a Feeder Fund to acquire shares of another registered investment company managed by the Adviser having substantially the same investment objectives as the Feeder Fund (“Master Fund”) beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(A) and permit the Master Fund, and any principal underwriter for the Master Fund, to sell shares of the Master Fund to the Feeder Fund beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(B).
10. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain sub-advisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the sub-advisers.
FS Series Trust (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company, and FS Fund Advisor, LLC (the “Advisor”), a Delaware limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (together with the Trust, the “Applicants”).
The application was filed on April 12, 2017 and amended on September 22, 2017.
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on February 19, 2018, and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: 201 Rouse Boulevard, Philadelphia, PA 19112.
James Maclean, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-7794, or Andrea Ottomanelli Magovern, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6768 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's website by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Advisor will serve as the investment adviser to the Subadvised Series pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with the Trust (each, an “Investment Management Agreement” and, collectively, the “Investment Management Agreements”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Advisor, subject to Board approval, to hire a Non-Affiliated Sub-Advisor or a Wholly-Owned Sub-Advisor, pursuant to Sub-Advisory Agreements and materially amend Sub-Advisory Agreements with Non-Affiliated Sub-Advisors and Wholly-Owned Sub-Advisors without obtaining the shareholder approval required under section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Subadvised Series' shareholders and notification about sub-advisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Subadvised Series' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the application, the Investment Management Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval while the role of the Sub-Advisors is substantially equivalent to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Sub-advisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Subadvised Series. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Advisor's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Sub-Advisors that are more advantageous for the Subadvised Series.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Danh Vo: Take My Breath Away,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Solomon R. Guggenheim Museum, New York, New York, from on or about February 9, 2018, until on or about May 9, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Cézanne Portraits,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the National Gallery of Art, Washington, District of Columbia, from on or about March 25, 2018, until on or about July 1, 2018, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Bureau of International Security and Nonproliferation, Department of State.
Notice.
A determination has been made that North Korean entities have engaged in activities that require the imposition of measures pursuant to the Arms Export Control Act, as amended, and the Export Administration Act of 1979, as amended (as carried out under Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001).
Pam Durham, Office of Missile, Biological, and Chemical Nonproliferation, Bureau of International Security and Nonproliferation, Department of State (202-647-4930). On import ban issues, Susan Demske, Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, Department of the Treasury (202-622-4855). On U.S. Government procurement ban issues, Eric Moore, Office of the Procurement Executive, Department of State (703-875-4079).
Pursuant to Section 73(a)(1) of the Arms Export Control Act [22 U.S.C. 2797b(a)(1)]; Section 11B(b)(1) of the Export Administration Act of 1979 [50 U.S.C. app. 2410b(b)(1)], as carried out under Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001 (hereinafter cited as the “Export Administration Act of 1979”); and Executive Order 12851 of June 11, 1993, the U.S. Government determined on January 4, 2018 that the following foreign persons have engaged in missile technology proliferation activities that require the imposition of the sanctions described in Sections 73(a)(2)(B) and (C) of the Arms Export Control Act [22 U.S.C. 2797b(a)(2)(B) and (C)] and Sections 11B(b)(1)(B)(ii) and (iii) of the Export Administration Act of 1979 [50 U.S.C. app. 2410b(b)(1)(B)(ii) and (iii)] on these entities:
Chilsong Trading Corporation (North Korea) and its sub-units and successors. Korea Kuryonggang Trading Corporation (North Korea) and its sub-units and successors.
Accordingly, the following sanctions are being imposed on these entities for two years:
(A) Denial of all new individual licenses for the transfer to the sanctioned entities of all items on the U.S. Munitions List and all items the export of which is controlled under the Export Administration Act;
(B) Denial of all U.S. Government contracts with the sanctioned entities; and
(C) Prohibition on the importation into the U.S. of all products produced by the sanctioned entities.
With respect to items controlled pursuant to the Export Administration Act of 1979, the above export sanction only applies to exports made pursuant to individual export licenses.
Additionally, because North Korea is a country with a non-market economy that is not a former member of the Warsaw Pact (as referenced in the definition of “person” in section 74(8)(B) of the Arms Export Control Act), the following sanctions shall be applied for two years to all activities of the North Korean government relating to the development or production of missile equipment or technology and all activities of the North Korean government affecting the development or production of electronics, space systems or equipment, and military aircraft:
(A) Denial of all new individual licenses for the transfer to the government activities described above of all items on the U.S. Munitions List;
(B) Denial of all U.S. Government contracts with the government activities described above; and
(C) Prohibition on the importation into the U.S. of all products produced by the government activities described above.
These measures shall be implemented by the responsible departments and agencies of the United States Government as provided in Executive Order 12851 of June 11, 1993.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 86 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers. The exemptions enable these individuals to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce without meeting the vision requirements in one eye.
Each group of renewed exemptions were applicable on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates stated in the discussions below. Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-1998-4334; FMCSA-1999-5578; FMCSA-2000-8398; FMCSA-2001-9561; FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2003-15268; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2005-21254; FMCSA-2007-27333; FMCSA-2007-27515; FMCSA-2007-27897; FMCSA-2007-28695; FMCSA-2008-0121; FMCSA-2009-0154; FMCSA-2011-0092; FMCSA-2011-0124; FMCSA-2011-0140; FMCSA-2011-0141; FMCSA-2013-0027; FMCSA-2013-0028; FMCSA-2013-0029; FMCSA-2013-0030; FMCSA-2014-0007; FMCSA-2014-0300; FMCSA-2014-0304; FMCSA-2015-0048; FMCSA-2015-0052; FMCSA-2015-0053; FMCSA-2015-0055 using any of the following methods:
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Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for five years if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the five-year period. FMCSA grants exemptions from the FMCSRs for a two-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding vision found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) states that a person is physically qualified to driver a CMV if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber.
The 86 individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the vision standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period.
Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), an exemption may be granted for no longer than two years from its approval date and may be renewed upon application. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the 86 applicants has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement (63 FR 66226; 64 FR 16517; 64 FR 27027; 64 FR 51568; 65 FR 78256; 66 FR 16311; 66 FR 30502; 66 FR 41654; 66 FR 41656; 66 FR 48504; 68 FR 13360; 68 FR 19598; 68 FR 33570; 68 FR 37197; 68 FR 44837; 68 FR 48989; 68 FR 54775; 70 FR 17504; 70 FR 25878; 70 FR 30997; 70 FR 30999; 70 FR 41811; 70 FR 42615; 70 FR 46567; 70 FR 53412; 72 FR 12666;
As of September 6, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 35 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirement in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers (65 FR 78256; 66 FR 16311; 66 FR 30502; 66 FR 41654; 68 FR 13360; 68 FR 44837; 70 FR 17504; 70 FR 25878; 70 FR 30997; 70 FR 41811; 72 FR 12666; 72 FR 21313; 72 FR 25831; 72 FR 27624; 72 FR 28093; 72 FR 32703; 72 FR 40362; 74 FR 19270; 74 FR 23472; 74 FR 26461; 74 FR 26464; 74 FR 34395; 74 FR 34630; 76 FR 25762; 76 FR 25766; 76 FR 32017; 76 FR 34135; 76 FR 37168; 76 FR 37169; 76 FR 37885; 76 FR 44652; 76 FR 50318; 78 FR 24798; 78 FR 26106; 78 FR 27281; 78 FR 32708; 78 FR 34140; 78 FR 34143; 78 FR 37270; 78 FR 41188; 78 FR 41975; 78 FR 46407; 78 FR 51269; 78 FR 52602; 78 FR 56986; 78 FR 56993; 79 FR 4531; 79 FR 38659; 79 FR 53514; 80 FR 2473; 80 FR 14223; 80 FR 18693; 80 FR 26139; 80 FR 26320; 80 FR 29154; 80 FR 31640; 80 FR 33007; 80 FR 33009; 80 FR 33011; 80 FR 35699; 80 FR 36395; 80 FR 37718; 80 FR 40122; 80 FR 44185; 80 FR 44188; 80 FR 48404; 80 FR 48409; 80 FR 50917; 80 FR 62161; 80 FR 62163):
The drivers were included in the following docket numbers: FMCSA-2000-8398; FMCSA-2001-9561; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2007-27333; FMCSA-2007-27515; FMCSA-2009-0121; FMCSA-2011-0092; FMCSA-2011-0140; FMCSA-2013-0027; FMCSA-2013-0028; FMCSA-2013-0029; FMCSA-2013-0030; FMCSA-2014-0007; FMCSA-2014-0300; FMCSA-2014-0304; FMCSA-2015-0048; FMCSA-2015-0052; FMCSA-2015-0053; FMCSA-2015-0055. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 6, 2017, and will expire on September 6, 2019.
As of September 7, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following four individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (76 FR 34136; 76 FR 37169; 76 FR 50318; 76 FR 55463; 78 FR 78477; 80 FR 50915):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-2011-0124; FMCSA-2011-0140. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 7, 2017, and will expire on September 7, 2019.
As of September 13, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following ten individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (76 FR 34136; 76 FR 37169; 76 FR 50318; 76 FR 55463; 78 FR 78477; 80 FR 50915):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-2011-0124; FMCSA-2011-0140. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 13, 2017, and will expire on September 13, 2019.
As of September 16, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 11 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 27281; 78 FR 34143; 78 FR 41188; 78 FR 41975; 78 FR 52602; 78 FR 56986; 80 FR 48411):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-2013-0028; FMCSA-2013-0029; FMCSA-2013-0030. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 16, 2017, and will expire on September 16, 2019.
As of September 22, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 15 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (78 FR 27281; 78 FR 34143; 78 FR 41188; 78 FR 41975; 78 FR 52602; 78 FR 56986; 80 FR 48411):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2005-20560; FMCSA-2009-0154; FMCSA-2011-0124. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 22, 2017, and will expire on September 22, 2019.
As of September 23, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following nine individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (64 FR 27027; 64 FR 51568; 66 FR 48504; 68 FR 19598; 68 FR 33570; 68 FR 37197; 68 FR 48989; 68 FR 54775; 70 FR 30999; 70 FR 42615; 70 FR 46567; 70 FR 53412; 72 FR 39879; 72 FR 52419; 72 FR 62896; 74 FR 43221; 76 FR 53708; 78 FR 78477; 80 FR 53383):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-1999-5578; FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2003-15268; FMCSA-2005-21254; FMCSA-2007-27897. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 23, 2017, and will expire on September 23, 2019.
As of September 27, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following two individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the vision requirements (72 FR 46261; 72 FR 54972; 74 FR 43223; 76 FR 40445; 76 FR 53710; 76 FR 55469; 78 FR 78477):
The drivers were included in docket numbers: FMCSA-1999-5578; FMCSA-2003-14504; FMCSA-2003-15268; FMCSA-2005-21254; FMCSA-2007-27897. Their exemptions are applicable as of September 27, 2017, and will expire on September 27, 2019.
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) Each driver must undergo an annual physical examination (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirements in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), and (b) by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5, who attests that the driver is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) each driver must provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the Medical Examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification if he/her is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the 86 exemption applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above. In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt two individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on December 28, 2017. The exemptions expire on December 28, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On November 27, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from two individuals requesting an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) and requested comments from the public 82 FR 56108. The public comment period ended on December 27, 2017, and zero comments were received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
FMCSA received zero comments in this proceeding.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA may grant an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
In reaching the decision to grant these exemption requests, FMCSA considered the 2007 recommendations of the Agency's Medical Expert Panel (MEP). The January 15, 2013,
The Agency's decision regarding these exemption applications is based on an individualized assessment of each applicant's medical information, including the root cause of the respective seizure(s) and medical information about the applicant's seizure history, the length of time that has elapsed since the individual's last seizure, the stability of each individual's treatment regimen and the duration of time on or off of anti-seizure medication. In addition, the Agency reviewed the treating clinician's medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV with a history of seizure and each applicant's driving record found in the Commercial Driver's License Information System (CDLIS) for commercial driver's license (CDL) holders, and interstate and intrastate inspections recorded in the Motor Carrier Management Information System (MCMIS). For non-CDL holders, the Agency reviewed the driving records from the State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). A summary of each applicant's seizure history was discussed in the November 27, 2017
These two applicants have been seizure-free over a range of 11 years while taking anti-seizure medication and maintained a stable medication treatment regimen for the last two years. In each case, the applicant's treating physician verified his or her seizure history and supports the ability to drive commercially.
The Agency acknowledges the potential consequences of a driver experiencing a seizure while operating a CMV. However, the Agency believes the drivers granted this exemption have demonstrated that they are unlikely to have a seizure and their medical condition does not pose a risk to public safety.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and includes the following: (1) Each driver must remain seizure-free and maintain a stable treatment during the two-year exemption period; (2) each driver must submit annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) each driver must undergo an annual medical examination by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5; and (4) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the two exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorder prohibition, 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), subject to the requirements cited above: David W. Pamperin (WI); Sury L. Seijas (CT).
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FMCSA announces its plan to submit the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval and invites public comment. This new collection of information is for the National Consumer Complaint Database (NCCDB), which is an online interface allowing consumers, drivers and others to file complaints against unsafe and unscrupulous motor carriers and/or their employees. The NCCDB also allows complaints to be filed about shippers, receivers and transportation intermediaries. Complaints cover a wide range of issues, including but not limited to safety, driver harassment, coercion, movement of household goods (HHG), financial responsibility instruments for brokers and freight forwarders, and Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) complaints.
Please send your comments by March 2, 2018. OMB must receive your comments by this date in order to act quickly on the ICR.
All comments should reference Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Number FMCSA-2016-0407. Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the attention of the Desk Officer, Department of Transportation/Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, and sent via electronic mail to
James Dubose, Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 6th Floor, West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001. Telephone: (215) 656-7259; Email:
On November 29, 2016, FMCSA published a notice in the
On January 30, 2017, the Owner Operator Independent Drivers Association, Inc. filed a comment (OOIDA Comments) in response to the November 29 Notice.
More specifically, OOIDA's comment consists of the following sections: (A) Coercion complaint example, (B) Confirmation and tracking must be provided, (C) NCCDB Name, (D) The inefficiencies of the online portal and (E) Other Concerns.
OOIDA provided an example of a coercion
In its comments, OOIDA indicates that “[o]ften times, driver do not receive a tracking number and are unaware of the status of their grievances.”
FMCSA has resolved OOIDA's concerns. Once a complaint is submitted, the system will assign and display the Complaint Identification Number and provide an option to print the complaint.
OOIDA indicates that the term “National Consumer Complaint Database” is causing confusion about the types of complaints that can be filed. OOIDA argues that the title does not support the Agency's safety mandate.
FMCSA is open to considering a name change for the complaint database. Given that many stakeholders file
OOIDA provides recommendations for modifications to the NCCDB online portal. According to OOIDA, “[t]hese changes would improve the portal's efficiency and the overall experience for the user.”
OOIDA states a typical OOIDA member would select the category of “Driver” to file a complaint on the NCCDB home page. OOIDA also states the home page does not clarify the heading of “Truck Complaint” or its category for “Truck Safety.” OOIDA states a driver could follow the prompts and spend considerable time typing an incident description to discover they did not select the correct category. This could result in a driver giving up on the complaint filing process.
FMCSA acknowledges OOIDA's concern and will work to improve future releases of the NCCDB system to address the issue.
OOIDA states that it is problematic for a driver to know the USDOT number of a motor carrier when attempting to file a complaint. It states that if the individual does not know the USDOT number of the entity he/she is filing against, the next step may be to enter the Company Information. OOIDA explains that upon completing the relevant information, the logical step would be to click the “NEXT” button. However, it states the required action is to click “Add Company” and suggests this sequence implies that a driver enter another company. OOIDA recommends changing this language to “Select this Company” or “Use This Company Information” as the next logical step. OOIDA further suggests that the heading “Complaint on Carrier(s)” be changed to “Company You Have Entered” or some similar language.
FMCSA acknowledges the proposed amendments to the language and agrees with the recommendations. FMCSA will work with OOIDA on its suggestions and make the changes referenced above in a future release of the NCCDB.
OOIDA states the language in the NCCDB is inconsistent in the complaint filing process. At one step, the term “Company Information” is used; however, in the next step, the term “Complaint on Carrier(s)” is used.
FMCSA looks forward to working with OOIDA on its suggestions and will incorporate this recommendation in a future release of the website.
OOIDA points out a number of issues associated with a complainant searching the NCCDB by USDOT number. In particular, OOIDA points out that redundant information appears after a complainant clicks on the “Select” option after the search result appears. OOIDA recommends that the heading “You Have Selected” followed by the company name and associated information be substituted for the redundant information.
FMCSA accepts this recommendation and will incorporate in a future release of the NCCDB. The Agency is also committed to working with OOIDA on other concerns it raises in this portion of its comments.
While OOIDA notes that the NCCDB permits “a variety of file types to be uploaded, it is missing critical file types such as MP4 video.”
FMCSA has updated its capabilities to accommodate up to 20-megabyte file sizes and video formats that are compatible with NCCDB software.
OOIDA notes that a “Back Button Warning” should be displayed when individuals file complaints in the NCCDB. Presently, when the back button is used, it returns the filer to the home page and the individual must reenter their complaint.
FMCSA accepts OOIDA's suggestion to include a “Back Button Warning” and will include this change in a future release of the NCCDB.
OOIDA indicates that when a complaint is being entered, the NCCDB should not allow the complainant to continue in the online process if any fields remain blank. A process such as this would have notified their member to complete the online process for a successful submission of the complaint.
OOIDA states that one of the NCCDB's stronger points is the ample time allowed before a user is automatically logged out of a session when there is a pause in data input.
FMCSA will continue to maintain the current login time for entering complaints.
OOIDA expresses concern that the ICR states, “[t]here is no complaint history for the recently added coercion and harassment complaint categories, or for complaints regarding financial responsibility instruments for brokers and/or freight forwarders.”
FMCSA did not have data to provide in the November 29 Notice. The coercion, harassment, and the financial responsibility categories were, at that time, only recently added. However, in Fiscal Year 2016, complainants filed complaints in the NCCDB as follows: 362 financial responsibility; 96 harassment; and 224 coercion. This 2016 data is included in the cost calculation.
The FMCSA maintains online information and resources to assist drivers, others in the motor carrier industry and members of the public in filing safety complaints regarding HHG carriers, hazardous materials (HM) carriers, property carriers, cargo tank facilities, and passenger carriers. There is also information pertaining to the filing of complaints regarding brokers, freight forwarders, and financial responsibility. Finally, there is information regarding consumer complaints, particularly regarding HHG transportation and ADA compliance. This online interface is known as the NCCDB. When effectively applied, the NCCDB can contribute to safer motor carrier operations on our nation's highways and improved consumer protection.
The NCCDB grew out of a telephone hotline known as the Safety Violation Hotline Service. Congress mandated this hotline in Section 4017 of the “Transportation Equity Act of the 21st
The NCCDB fulfills the requirements of these mandates. Complaints will be accepted through the NCCDB in connection with other statutory mandates, including, but not limited to, protection of drivers against harassment and coercion under sections 32301(b) and 32911, respectively, of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act, Public Law 112-141, 126 Stat. 405. The NCCDB will also accept complaints from interested parties regarding third party intermediaries (brokers and freight forwarders) and their associated financial responsibility instruments.
You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including: (1) Whether the proposed collection is necessary for the FMCSA to perform its functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways for the FMCSA to enhance the quality, usefulness, and clarity of the collected information; and (4) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition; grant of application for exemption.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) announces its decision to grant Daimler Trucks North America LLC's (DTNA) application for a limited 5-year exemption allowing motor carriers operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) manufactured by the company to use an Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera mounted lower in the windshield than is currently permitted. The Agency has determined that lower placement of the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera would not have an adverse impact on safety and that adherence to the terms and conditions of the exemption would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level of safety provided by the regulation.
This exemption is effective February 1, 2018 and ending January 31, 2023.
Mr. Jose R. Cestero, Vehicle and Roadside Operations Division, Office of Carrier, Driver, and Vehicle Safety, MC-PSV, (202) 366-5541, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
Section 4007 of the Transportation Equity Act for the 21st Century (TEA- 21) [Pub. L. 105-178, June 9, 1998, 112 Stat. 401] amended 49 U.S.C. 31315 and 31136(e) to provide authority to grant exemptions from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). On August 20, 2004, FMCSA published a final rule (69 FR 51589) implementing section 4007. Under this rule, FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews the safety analyses and the public comments and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
DTNA applied for an exemption from 49 CFR 393.60(e)(1) to allow an Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera to be mounted lower in the windshield than is currently permitted by the Agency's regulations in order to utilize a mounting location that allows optimal functionality of the system camera. A copy of the application is included in the docket referenced at the beginning of this notice.
Section 393.60(e)(1)(i) of the FMCSRs prohibits the obstruction of the driver's field of view by devices mounted on the
DTNA states that the exemption, in addition to providing attention assist and lane departure warning functions, would allow DTNA to enable additional safety features in the future that will provide further safety benefits such as traffic sign recognition, active lane keeping, video capture, and intelligent headlight control. DTNA states that the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera will become a critical enabler for future technology such as autonomous vehicles. The camera housing is approximately 102 mm (4.01 inches) wide by 177 mm (6.97 inches) tall, and will be mounted in the approximate center and near the top of the windshield with the bottom edge of the camera system approximately 8.5 inches below the upper edge of the area swept by the windshield wipers, outside of the driver's (and passenger's) normal sight lines to the road ahead, highway signs and signals, and all mirrors. This location will allow for the optimal functionality of the advanced safety systems supported by the camera. DTNA states that mounting the camera in this location does not significantly obstruct the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 104, “
DTNA has installed prototype camera housings in fifteen DTNA conventional type vehicles and assessed the impact of the camera on driver and passenger visibility on over 50 CDL drivers and over 900,000 miles. This includes over-the-road mileage accumulation through a mixture of mountain, freeway, highway, and city routes. DTNA states that all drivers and passengers agreed that there was no noticeable obstruction to the normal sight lines to the road ahead, highway signs, signals, or any mirrors.
Without the proposed exemption, DTNA states that the customer will be unable to use Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system cameras on DTNA commercial motor vehicles due to concerns that (1) its “customers may be in violation of the current regulation,” and (2) “the camera will not perform adequately to provide the safety benefit intended by the systems.”
The exemption would apply to all CMV operators driving DTNA vehicles with the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning systems camera installed. DTNA believes that mounting the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera within 7 inches below the upper edge of the windshield will allow for optimal functionality of the advance safety systems while providing visibility of the road ahead, highway signs, signals, and all mirrors.
FMCSA published a notice of the application in the
The FMCSA has evaluated the DTNA exemption application. The Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera is approximately 7 inches tall, and is mounted near the top of the center of the windshield with the bottom of the camera system located approximately 8.5 inches below the top of the area swept by the windshield wipers. The camera system needs to be mounted in this location to properly perform its functions of monitoring the driver and the roadway for lane markings. The size of the camera system precludes mounting it (1) higher in the windshield, and (2) within 4 inches from the top of the area swept by the windshield wipers to comply with § 393.60(e)(1)(ii)(A).
The Agency believes that granting the temporary exemption to allow the placement of the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera lower than currently permitted by the Agency's regulations will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety achieved without the exemption because (1) based on the technical information available, there is no indication that the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera would obstruct drivers' views of the roadway, highway signs and surrounding traffic; (2) generally, trucks and buses have an elevated seating position that greatly improves the forward visual field of the driver, and any impairment of available sight lines would be minimal; and (3) the mounting location 8.5 inches below the top of the area swept by the windshield wipers and out of the driver's normal sightline will be reasonable and enforceable at roadside. In addition, the Agency believes that the use of Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system cameras by fleets is likely to improve the overall level of safety to the motoring public.
This action is consistent with previous Agency action permitting the placement of similarly-sized devices on CMVs outside the driver's sight lines to the road and highway signs and signals. FMCSA is not aware of any evidence that the installation of other vehicle safety technologies mounted on the interior of the windshield has resulted in any degradation in safety.
The Agency hereby grants the exemption for a 5-year period, beginning January 31, 2018 and ending January 31, 2023. During the temporary exemption period, motor carriers will be allowed to operate CMVs manufactured by DTNA equipped with the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera mounted in the approximate center of the windshield such that the bottom edge of the camera is not more than 8.5 inches below the top of the area swept by the windshield wipers and outside the driver's sight lines to all mirrors, highway signs, signals, and view of the road ahead. The exemption will be valid for 5 years unless rescinded earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) Motor carriers and/or commercial motor vehicles fail to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b).
Interested parties possessing information that would demonstrate that motor carriers operating DTNA CMVs equipped with the Attention Assist and Lane Departure Warning system camera are not achieving the requisite statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any such information and, if safety is being
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(d), as implemented by 49 CFR 381.600, during the period this exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation applicable to interstate commerce that conflicts with or is inconsistent with this exemption with respect to a firm or person operating under the exemption. States may, but are not required to, adopt the same exemption with respect to operations in intrastate commerce.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from seven individuals for an exemption from the prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against operation of a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) by persons with a current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope, dyspnea, collapse, or congestive heart failure. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket ID FMCSA-FMCSA-2017-0326 using any of the following methods:
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Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the FMCSRs for a five-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the five-year period. FMCSA grants exemptions from the FMCSRs for a two-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
The seven individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from 49 CFR 391.41(b)(4). Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(4) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope, dyspnea, collapse, or congestive cardiac failure.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
Mr. D'Ercole is a 77 year old CDL holder in New Jersey. An October 30, 2017 letter from his cardiologist states that his ICD was implanted in June 2017 and that since that time he he has had no event on his AICD implant. His exercise test in May 2017 showed good exercise capacity.
Mr. Goodwin is a 54 year old driver in New Hampshire. A May 2017 letter from his cardiologist states that his ICD was implanted in February 2015 and at the time of the letter had not deployed.
Mr. Hairr is a 23 year old driver in North Carolina. Medical documentation from his cardiologist dated September 2017 and a cardiologist letter without a date indicates that his ICD was implanted in 2013 and has not discharged since it was implanted. The letter states that he has no dizziness, lightheadedness, palpitations, chest pain, undue shortness of breath, exercise intolerance or syncope since ICD placement. His cardiologist states that from a cardiac standpoint, we have not limited [him] from any activities or concerns related to syncope.
Mr. Pickett is a 78 year old Class A CDL holder in Indiana. An April 2017 letter from his cardiologist indicates that his permanent pacemaker was upgraded to a biventricular automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator in February 2017 and has not deployed since that time. His cardiologist states that Mr. Pickett has not reported any syncopal episodes and that he plans to follow up visits for him every three months.
Mr. Richardson is a 55 year old driver in Michigan. A December 20, 2017 letter from his cardiologist states that Mr. Richardson underwent ICD implant in August 2017 and that he has no history of ICD being deployed. At his last visit in November 2017 he had had almost complete resolution of symptoms and showed no arrhythmias since implant.
Mr. Stephens is a 54 year old Class A CDL holder in Virginia. An August 2017 letter from his cardiologist states that his biventricular ICD was implanted in April 2015. The cardiologist's letter also states that Mr. Stephens does not have symptoms related to his underlying condition, has not had any episodes of loss of consciousness, has an ejection fraction of 45 per cent on echocardiogram, and is NYHA class I symptomatically.
Mr. Weiner is a 56 year old driver in Minnesota. A May 2017 letter from his cardiologist states that his ICD was implanted in July 2014, has not deployed since it was implanted, and is now asymptomatic. The letter states that his current underlying heart condition is well compensated.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the dates section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of renewal of exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for six individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on December 16, 2017. The exemptions expire on December 16, 2019. Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket Nos. FMCSA-2014-0382; FMCSA-2015-0115; FMCSA-2015-0119 using any of the following methods:
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Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for five years if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the five-year period. FMCSA grants exemptions from the FMCSRs for a two-year period to align with the maximum duration of a driver's medical certification.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria to assist Medical Examiners in determining whether drivers with certain medical conditions are qualified to operate a CMV in interstate commerce. [49 CFR part 391, APPENDIX A TO PART 391—MEDICAL ADVISORY CRITERIA, section H. Epilepsy: § 391.41(b)(8), paragraphs 3, 4, and 5.]
The six individuals listed in this notice have requested renewal of their exemptions from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), in accordance with FMCSA procedures. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated these applications for renewal on their merits and decided to extend each exemption for a renewable two-year period.
Interested parties or organizations possessing information that would otherwise show that any, or all, of these drivers are not currently achieving the statutory level of safety should immediately notify FMCSA. The Agency will evaluate any adverse evidence submitted and, if safety is being compromised or if continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA will take immediate steps to revoke the exemption of a driver.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each of the six applicants has satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition. The six drivers in this notice remain in good standing with the Agency, have maintained their medical monitoring and have not exhibited any medical issues that would compromise their ability to safely operate a CMV during the previous two-year exemption period. In addition, for Commercial Driver's License (CDL) holders, the Commercial Driver's License Information System (CDLIS) and the Motor Carrier Management Information System (MCMIS) are searched for crash and violation data. For non-CDL holders, the Agency reviews the driving records from the State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA). These factors provide an adequate basis for predicting each driver's ability to continue to safely operate a CMV in interstate commerce. Therefore, FMCSA concludes that extending the exemption for each renewal applicant for a period of two years is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
As of December 16, 2017, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following six individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in the FMCSRs for interstate CMV drivers:
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2014-0382; FMCSA-2015-0115; FMCSA-2015-0119. Their exemptions are applicable as of December 16, 2017, and will expire on December 16, 2019.
The exemptions are extended subject to the following conditions: (1) Each driver must remain seizure-free and maintain a stable treatment during the two-year exemption period; (2) each driver must submit annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) each driver must undergo an annual medical examination by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5; and (4) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official. The exemption will be rescinded if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the six exemption applications, FMCSA renews the exemptions of the aforementioned drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(8). In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for three individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on October 22, 2017. The exemptions expire on October 22, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On November 27, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for three individuals from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (82 FR 56106). The public comment period ended on December 27, 2017 and zero comments were received.
As stated in the previous notice, FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria to assist Medical Examiners in determining whether drivers with certain medical conditions are qualified to operate a CMV in interstate commerce. [49 CFR part 391, APPENDIX A TO PART 391—MEDICAL ADVISORY CRITERIA, section H. Epilepsy: § 391.41(b)(8), paragraphs 3, 4, and 5.]
FMCSA received zero comments in this preceding.
Based upon its evaluation of the three renewal exemption applications, FMCSA announces its' decision to exempt the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41 (b)(8): Joshua Abel, (MD); Jeremy H. Fryburg, (PA); and Anthony E. Martens, (SD).
The drivers were included in docket number FMCSA-2015-0118. Their exemptions are applicable as of October 22, 2017, and will expire on October 22, 2019.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces that Old Dominion Freight Line Inc. (Old Dominion) has requested an exemption from the electronic logging device (ELD) requirements. Old Dominion request this exemption to allow the company to install ELD devices running on automatic on-board recording device (AOBRD) software in commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) added to the company's fleet for up to one year from the December 18, 2017, ELD mandate compliance date. If granted, this modified ELD phase-in period will allow Old Dominion's AORBD/ELD provider, PeopleNet, to complete the development of the software necessary to integrate ELD data with the company's fleet management and safety systems to fully meet the ELD mandate. FMCSA considers the request to be on behalf of all motor carriers in similar situations concerning the integration of PeopleNet's ELD software into fleet management systems.
Comments must be received on or before March 2, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Number FMCSA-2018-0002 by any of the following methods:
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• Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
Please see the
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Tom Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2018-0002), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comments online, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
Old Dominion, USDOT 90849, reports that it is an interstate motor carrier based in North Carolina with 228 Service Centers located throughout the country. Its operations cover the entire continental United States. The company is one of the largest less-than-truckload carriers in the country, operating a fleet of more than 8,500 power units and employing more than 10,100 CMV drivers.
Old Dominion began equipping its vehicles with PeopleNet AOBRDs in 2010, and by 2011 the entire fleet was equipped with devices which meet the requirements of 49 CFR 395.15. Data from the AOBRDs feed directly into the company's fleet management and safety systems, enabling its dispatchers to know precisely where each of its drivers is at any given time and how many hours he/she has available under the Federal hours-of-service rules. This functionality is not required by the AOBRD rules under 49 CFR 395.15 or the ELD requirements under Subpart B of 49 CFR art 395.
Currently, the PeopleNet AOBRD software allows carriers to configure certain specifications. If the settings were not adjustable, the PeopleNet AOBRD would be similar to, but not identical to the FMCSA's ELD technical specifications. Old Dominion has configured its settings in the PeopleNet AOBRDs it uses. However, certain AOBRD software changes must be made by PeopleNet, including:
• Disabling the “skip feature;”
• Limiting the auto-duty status change threshold to 5 miles; and
• Limiting geo-fencing of yard time to 0.5 miles.
When these changes are fully implemented, the PeopleNet system used by Old Dominion would meet the ELD requirements according to Old Dominion.
Old Dominion is requesting a one-year exemption to permit the company to install and use ELD hours-of-service recording devices (
FMCSA considers the request to be on behalf of all motor carriers in similar situations concerning the integration of PeopleNet's ELD software into fleet management systems.
Old Dominion explained that all of the PeopleNet AOBRD and ELD hardware currently installed in Old Dominion's vehicles, and the systems that will be installed in the near future, would satisfy the ELD mandate after the company implements the transition to PeopleNet's December 15, 2017, release. However, the new PeopleNet release does not include the necessary means to integrate into Old Dominion's fleet management and safety software.
A copy of Old Dominion's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions for 10 individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were applicable on August 13, 2017. The exemptions expire on August 13, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On November 27, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for 10 individuals from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (82 FR 56110). The public comment period ended on December 27, 2017 and zero comments were received.
As stated in the previous notice, FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria to assist Medical Examiners in determining whether drivers with certain medical conditions are qualified to operate a CMV in interstate commerce. [49 CFR part 391, APPENDIX A TO PART 391—MEDICAL ADVISORY CRITERIA, section H. Epilepsy: § 391.41(b)(8), paragraphs 3, 4, and 5.]
FMCSA received zero comments in this preceding.
Based upon its evaluation of the 10 renewal exemption applications, FMCSA announces its decision to exempt the following drivers from the epilepsy and seizure disorders prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8):
The drivers were included in docket numbers FMCSA-2010-0203; FMCSA-2011-0389; FMCSA-2012-0050; FMCSA-2012-0294; FMCSA-2012-0094; FMCSA-2014-0382; FMCSA-2015-0116; FMCSA-2015-0117. Their exemptions are applicable as of August 13, 2017, and will expire on August 13, 2019.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0010. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel S/V LOBO is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0010 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0007. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel MOMENT is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0007 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0012. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel DOWN UNDER is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0012 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation.
Notice.
The Maritime Administration (MARAD) announces that it is changing the open season enrollment procedures for U.S.-flag vessel operators wishing to enroll their vessels in the Voluntary Intermodal Sealift Agreement (VISA) program. Specifically, MARAD will no longer announce an annual open season for enrollment. MARAD invites interested U.S.-flag vessel operators that are not currently in the program to apply at any time throughout the year. The open enrollment change will be in line with new requirements in the Department of Defense (DOD) VISA contingency contract.
Any U.S.-flag vessel operator organized under the laws of a state of the United States or the District of Columbia, and who is able and willing to commit militarily useful sealift assets and assume the related consequential risks of commercial disruption, may be eligible to participate in the VISA program.
The mission of VISA is to provide commercial sealift and intermodal shipping services and systems, including access to vessels, vessel space, intermodal systems and equipment, terminal facilities, and related management services, to the DOD, as necessary, to meet national defense contingency requirements or national emergencies. Carriers enrolled in the VISA program provide DOD with assured access to such services during contingencies. In return for their VISA commitment, DOD gives VISA
VISA program applications may be submitted at any time.
Submit applications and questions related to this notice to William G. McDonald, Director, Office of Sealift Support, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone (202) 366-0688; Fax (202) 366-5904.
William G. McDonald, Director, Office of Sealift Support, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone (202) 366-0688; Fax (202) 366-5904, electronic mail to
The VISA program was established pursuant to Sec. 708 of the Defense Production Act of 1950, as amended (DPA) (50 U.S.C. 4558). The VISA program was created to provide for voluntary agreements for emergency preparedness programs. Pursuant to the DPA, voluntary agreements for preparedness programs, including the VISA program expire five (5) years after the date they became effective.
The VISA program is open to U.S.-flag vessel operators of oceangoing militarily useful vessels, to include tugs and barges. An operator is defined as an owner or bareboat charterer of a vessel. Tug enrollment alone does not satisfy VISA eligibility. Barge enrollment alone does not satisfy VISA eligibility. Operators include vessel owners and bareboat charter operators if satisfactory signed agreements are in place committing the assets of the owner to VISA. Voyage and space charterers are not considered U.S.-flag vessel operators for purposes of VISA eligibility.
The VISA program provides for the staged, time-phased availability of participants' shipping services/systems through pre-negotiated contracts between the Government and participants. Such arrangements are jointly planned with the MARAD, U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM), and participants in peacetime to allow effective and best valued use of commercial sealift capacity, provide DOD assured contingency access, and to minimize commercial disruption.
There are three time-phased stages in the event of VISA activation. VISA Stages I and II provide for pre-negotiated contracts between DOD and participants to provide sealift capacity to meet all projected DOD contingency requirements. These contracts are executed in accordance with approved DOD contracting methodologies. VISA Stage III provides for additional capacity to DOD when Stages I and II commitments or volunteered capacity are insufficient to meet contingency requirements, and adequate shipping services from non-participants are not available through established DOD contracting practices or U.S. Government treaty agreements.
Historically, the VISA program's annual open season enrollment period was tied to DOD's peacetime cargo contracting cycle which was based on the Government's fiscal year (October 1 through September 30) and VISA participants' capacity commitments were locked in for an annual period. Currently, DOD's new contract requirements have been revised and state that if any change in a VISA participant's U.S.-flag fleet is necessary during the period of their contract, a minimum 30-day notice must be provided to USTRANSCOM identifying the change. Therefore, MARAD is no longer required to announce an annual open season because DOD modifies VISA participants' capacity commitments and contingency contracts throughout the year. This new process adds efficiency and eliminates redundancy.
In return for their VISA commitment, DOD awards peacetime cargo contracts to VISA participants on a priority basis. Award of DOD cargoes to meet DOD peacetime and contingency requirements is made on the basis of the following priorities: U.S.-flag vessel capacity operated by VISA participants and U.S.-flag Vessel Sharing Agreement (VSA) capacity held by VISA participants; U.S.-flag vessel capacity operated by non-participants; combination U.S.-flag/foreign-flag vessel capacity operated by VISA participants, and combination U.S.-flag/foreign-flag VSA capacity held by VISA participants; combination U.S.-flag/foreign-flag vessel capacity operated by non-participants; U.S.-owned or operated foreign-flag vessel capacity and VSA capacity held by VISA participants; U.S.-owned or operated foreign-flag vessel capacity and VSA capacity held by non-participants; and foreign-owned or operated foreign-flag vessel capacity of non-participants.
Applicants must provide satisfactory evidence that the vessels being committed to the VISA program are operational and are intended to be operated by the applicant in the carriage of commercial or government preference cargoes. Operator is defined as an ocean common carrier or contract carrier that owns, controls or manages vessels by which ocean transportation is provided. While vessel brokers, freight forwarders, and agents play an important role as a conduit to locate and secure appropriate vessels for the carriage of DOD cargo, they are not eligible to participate in the VISA program due to lack of requisite vessel ownership or operation.
Any U.S.-flag vessel operator desiring to receive priority consideration for DOD peacetime contracts must enroll 100% of their entire U.S.-flag militarily useful capacity and associated services to the VISA program and commit no less than 50 percent of its total U.S.-flag capacity in Stage III of the VISA program. Participants operating vessels in international trade may receive top tier consideration in the award of DOD peacetime contracts by committing the minimum percentages of capacity to all three stages of VISA or bottom tier consideration by committing the minimum percentage of capacity to only Stage III of VISA. USTRANSCOM and MARAD will coordinate to ensure that the amount of sealift assets committed to Stages I and II will not have an adverse national economic impact. To minimize domestic commercial disruption, participants operating vessels exclusively in the domestic Jones Act trades are not required to commit the capacity of those U.S. domestic trading vessels to VISA Stages I and II. Overall VISA commitment requirements are based on annual enrollment.
In order to protect a U.S.-flag vessel operator's market share during contingency activation, VISA allows participants to join with other vessel operators in Carrier Coordination Agreements (CCAs) to satisfy commercial or DOD requirements. VISA provides a defense against antitrust laws in accordance with the DPA. CCAs must be submitted to MARAD for coordination with the Department of Justice for approval, before they can be utilized.
If VISA applicants have the capability to track their vessels, they must include the tracking system used in their VISA
In addition to receiving priority in the award of DOD peacetime cargo, a participant will receive compensation during contingency activation for that capacity activated under Stage I, II and III. The amount of compensation will depend on the Stage at which capacity is activated. During enrollment, each participant must select one of several compensation methodologies. The compensation methodology selection will be completed with USTRANSCOM resulting in prices in contingency contracts between DOD and the participant.
All VISA applicants accepted for VISA participation, but which do not have a Facility Security Clearance (FCL), will be required to pursue the clearance process with the Defense Security Service (DSS). If the accepted applicant does not have a clearance, MARAD will initiate the clearance process with DSS. Participants must have a FCL and individual security clearances, at a minimum of SECRET level, for key personnel in order for them to participate in the VISA Joint Planning Advisory Group (JPAG) meetings and to meet VISA contingency contract obligations. One of the objectives of the JPAG is to provide the USTRANSCOM, MARAD, and VISA participants a planning forum to analyze DOD contingency sealift/intermodal service and resource requirements against industry commitments. JPAG meetings are often SECRET classified sessions. Eligibility for VISA participation will be terminated if an applicant is rejected for a facility clearance or if it fails to progress in a timely manner in the clearance process.
New applicants may apply to participate by obtaining a VISA application package (Form MA-1020 (OMB Approval No. 2133-0532)) from the Director, Office of Sealift Support. Form MA-1020 includes instructions for completing and submitting the application, blank VISA Application forms and a request for information regarding the operations and U.S. citizenship of the applicant company. A copy of the VISA document as published in the
Applicants must provide the following: U.S. citizenship documentation; copy of their Articles of Incorporation and bylaws; copies of loadline documents from a recognized classification society to validate oceangoing vessel capability; U.S. Coast Guard Certificates of Documentation for all vessels in their fleet; copy of bareboat charters, if applicable, valid through the period of enrollment, which state that the owner will not interfere with the charterer's obligation to commit chartered vessel(s) to the VISA program for the duration of the charter; and copy of time charters, valid through the period of enrollment, for tug services to barge operators, if sufficient tug service is not owned or bareboat chartered by the VISA applicant. Barge operators must provide evidence to MARAD that tug service of sufficient horsepower will be available for all barges enrolled in the VISA program.
Once MARAD has reviewed the application and determined VISA eligibility, MARAD will sign the VISA application document which completes the eligibility phase of the VISA enrollment process. Approved VISA participants will be responsible for ensuring that information submitted with their application remains up to date beyond the approval process. If charter agreements are due to expire, participants must provide MARAD with charters that extend the charter duration for another 12 months or longer.
After VISA eligibility is approved by MARAD, approved applicants are required to execute a VISA Contingency Contract with USTRANSCOM. The USTRANSCOM VISA Contingency Contract will specify the following: Participant's Stage III commitment, and appropriate Stage I and/or II commitments for the period of performance; Drytime Contingency terms and conditions; and Liner Contingency terms and conditions, if applicable. If any change is expected in the Contractor's U.S. flag fleet during the period of the applicable VISA Contingency Contract, a minimum 30-day notice shall be provided to MARAD and USTRANSCOM identifying the change and to alter the VISA Capacity Commitment indicated on Attachment 1 of the VISA Contingency Contract.
Execution of the USTRANSCOM VISA Contingency Contract completes the enrollment process and establishes the approved applicant as a VISA Participant. The Maritime Administration reserves the right to revalidate all eligibility requirements without notice. USTRANSCOM reserves the right to revalidate eligibility for VISA priority for DOD business at any time without notice.
49 CFR 1.92, 1.93.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0013. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel SNOCKERED is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0013 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0008. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel LIBERTINE is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0008 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0011. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel PUNAWELEWELE KAI is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0011 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Maritime Administration, DOT.
Notice.
The Secretary of Transportation, as represented by the Maritime Administration (MARAD), is authorized to grant waivers of the U.S.-build requirement of the coastwise laws under certain circumstances. A request for such a waiver has been received by MARAD. The vessel, and a brief description of the proposed service, is listed below.
Submit comments on or before March 2, 2018.
Comments should refer to docket number MARAD-2018-0008. Written comments may be submitted by hand or by mail to the Docket Clerk, U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590. You may also send comments electronically via the internet at
Bianca Carr, U.S. Department of Transportation, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W23-453, Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-9309, Email
As described by the applicant the intended service of the vessel WINSOME RIDE is:
The complete application is given in DOT docket MARAD-2018-0008 at
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT/MARAD solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT/MARAD posts these comments, without edit, to
49 CFR 1.93(a), 46 U.S.C. 55103, 46 U.S.C. 12121.
By Order of the Maritime Administrator.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of six individuals that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See
OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel. 202-622-4855; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel: Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410.
The Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's website (
On January 25, 2018, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
1. POPALZAI, Hafiz Mohammed, Chaman, Balochistan, Pakistan; DOB 1967 to 1969; nationality Afghanistan; Gender Male (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: TALIBAN; Linked To: ISHAKZAI, Gul Agha).
Designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for acting for or on behalf of the TALIBAN, an entity determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
Also designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for acting for or on behalf of GUL AGHA ISHAKZAI, an individual determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
2. MUHAMMAD, Faqir (a.k.a. MOHAMMAD, Faqir; a.k.a. MUHAMMAD, Faqeer; a.k.a. ZEYAR, Faqir Mohammad), Bannu, Pakistan; Lahore, Pakistan; DOB 1968; POB North Waziristan Agency, Pakistan; alt. POB Federally Administered Tribal Areas, Pakistan; alt. POB Khowst Province, Afghanistan; nationality Pakistan; Gender Male (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAQQANI NETWORK).
Designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for acting for or on behalf of the HAQQANI NETWORK, an entity determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
3. HAMIDI, Gula Khan (a.k.a. HAMEEDI, Gula Khan; a.k.a. HAMIDI, Gul Muhammad), Afghanistan; Istanbul, Turkey; DOB 1976; POB Afghanistan; nationality Afghanistan; Gender Male; Passport OR944957 (Afghanistan); Identification Number 99652828346; alt. Identification Number A387489 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: HAQQANI NETWORK).
Designated pursuant to section 1(d)(i) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for assisting in, sponsoring, or providing financial, material, or technological support for, or financial or other services to or in support of, the HAQQANI NETWORK, an entity determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
4. SANI, Abdul Samad (a.k.a. SANI, Mullah Samad; a.k.a. SANI, Samad; a.k.a. “Haji Nika”; a.k.a. “Haji Nika Ishaqzai”; a.k.a. “Haji Salani”), Quetta, Pakistan; DOB 1960 to 1962; POB Band-e-Temor, Maiwand District, Kandahar Province, Afghanistan; nationality Afghanistan; alt. nationality Pakistan; Gender Male (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: TALIBAN).
Designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for acting for or on behalf of the TALIBAN, an entity determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
5. INAYATULLAH (a.k.a. ENAYATULLAH, Maulawi; a.k.a. FATEHULLAH, Mullah; a.k.a. “Ghowya”), Pakistan; DOB 1972; POB Chahar Darah District, Kunduz Province, Afghanistan; Gender Male; Maulawi (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: TALIBAN).
Designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or
6. ABDUL BASEER, Abdul Qadeer Basir (a.k.a. AHMAT, Abdul Qadir; a.k.a. BASIR, Abdul Qadir; a.k.a. HAQQANI, Abdul Qadir; a.k.a. QADIR, Abdul; a.k.a. “Nasibullah”), Peshawar, Pakistan; DOB 1964; POB Nangarhar Province, Afghanistan; nationality Afghanistan; Gender Male; Passport D000974 (Afghanistan) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: TALIBAN).
Designated pursuant to section 1(c) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten to Commit, or Support Terrorism” (E.O. 13224) for acting for or on behalf of the TALIBAN, an entity determined to be subject to E.O. 13224.
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on these requests.
Comments should be received on or before March 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained from Jennifer Quintana by emailing
44 U.S.C. 3501
The Office of National Veterans Sports Programs and Special Events, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Office of National Veterans Sports Programs and Special Events (NVSPSE), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Joshua McCoy at (202) 461-0456 or Fax (202) 495-5228.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.
By direction of the Secretary.
Human Resources Management, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Human Resources Management (HRM), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Jean Hayes at (202) 461-7863.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, HRM invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of HRM's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of HRM's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.
a. Child Care Subsidy Application Form, VA Form 0730a.
b. Child Care Provider Information (For the Child Care Subsidy Program), VA Form 0730b.
a. VA employees complete VA Form 0730a to request participation in VA's child care subsidy program. VA will use the data collected to determine the percentage of monthly cost to be subsidized for child care.
b. VA Form 0730b is completed by the child care provider. The data will be used to determine whether the child care provider is licensed and/or regulated by the state to perform child care.
a. VA Form 0730a—667 hours.
b. VA Form 0730b—333 hours.
a. VA Form 0730a—20 minutes.
b. VA Form 0730B—10 minutes.
a. VA Form 0730a—2,000.
b. VA Form 0730b—2,000.
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will
Comments must be submitted on or before March 2, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
38 U.S.C. 2301(f)(1)).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 615-9241.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C. 8133(a), 8135(a).
By direction of the Secretary.
Notice.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), Veterans Health Administration (VHA), is seeking nominations of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment as a member of the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses (hereinafter referred to as “the Committee”). The Committee was established to provide advice to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs (Secretary) on the proposed research studies, plans,
In accordance with recently revised guidance regarding the ban on lobbyists serving as members of advisory boards and commissions, Federally-registered lobbyists are prohibited from serving on Federal advisory committees in an individual capacity. Additional information regarding this issue can be found at:
Nominations for membership on the Committee must be received no later than 5:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, on March 1, 2018.
All nominations should be mailed to Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW (10P9), Washington, DC 20420, emailed to
Dr. Victor Kalasinsky, Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW (10P), Washington, DC 20420, telephone (202) 443-5600. (This is not a toll free number.) A copy of the Committee's charter and list of the current membership can be obtained by contacting Dr. Kalasinsky or by accessing the website:
VHA is requesting nominations for upcoming vacancies on the Committee. The Committee is currently composed of 16 members. The members of the Committee are appointed by the Secretary from the general public, including but not limited to:
(1) Gulf War Veterans;
(2) Representatives of such Veterans;
(3) Members of the medical and scientific communities representing disciplines such as, but not limited to, epidemiology, immunology, environmental health, neurology, and toxicology.
To the extent possible, the Secretary seeks members who have diverse professional and personal qualifications. We ask that nominations include information of this type so that VA can ensure a balanced Committee membership.
The Committee meets at least once and up to three times annually. In accordance with Federal Travel Regulation, Committee members will receive travel expenses and a per diem allowance for any travel made in connection with duties as members of the Committee.
VA makes every effort to ensure that the membership of its advisory committees is fairly balanced in terms of points of view represented and the committee's function. Appointments to this Committee shall be made without discrimination based on a person's race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. Nominations must state that the nominee appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership. An ethics review is conducted for each selected nominee.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 615-9241.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
38 U.S.C., Part I, Chapter 5, Section 527.
Patient Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—8 hours.
Provider Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—2 hours.
Patient Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—5 minutes.
Provider Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—5 minutes.
Patient Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—100.
Provider Satisfaction with Mental Health-Clinical Pharmacy Specialists at the Madison VA—20.
By direction of the Secretary.
Human Resources Management, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Human Resources Management (HRM), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before April 2, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Jean Hayes at (202) 461-7863.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, HRM invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of HRM's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of HRM's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
Public Law 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.
By direction of the Secretary.
Federal Crop Insurance Corporation, USDA.
Final rule with request for comments.
The Federal Crop Insurance Corporation (FCIC) amends the Common Crop Insurance Regulations, Nursery Crop Insurance Provisions. The intended effect of this action is to clarify existing policy provisions, increase risk management choices allowed by the policy provisions, and expand availability to more producers. The changes will be effective for the 2019 and succeeding crop years.
This final rule is effective January 31, 2018. However, FCIC will accept written comments on this final rule until close of business April 2, 2018. FCIC may consider the comments received and may conduct additional rulemaking based on the comments.
FCIC prefers interested persons submit their comments electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Interested persons may submit comments, identified by Docket ID No. FCIC-17-0006, by any of the following methods:
•
•
FCIC will post all comments received, including those received by mail, without change to
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received for any dockets by the name of the person submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an entity, such as an association, business, labor union, etc.). Interested persons may review the complete User Notice and Privacy Notice for Regulations.gov at
Tim Hoffmann, Product Management, Product Administration and Standards Division, Risk Management Agency, United States Department of Agriculture, Beacon Facility, Stop 0812, Room 421, PO Box 419205, Kansas City, MO 64141-6205, telephone (816) 926-7730.
FCIC amends the Common Crop Insurance Regulations (7 CFR part 457) by revising 7 CFR 457.162 Nursery Crop Insurance Provisions to be effective for the 2019 and succeeding crop years.
The changes to 7 CFR 457.162 Nursery Crop Insurance Provisions are as follows:
1. FCIC is removing the paragraph immediately preceding section 1, which refers to the order of priority if a conflict exists among the policy provisions. This same provision is contained in the Basic Provisions. Therefore, the appearance here is duplicative and should be removed from the Nursery Crop Insurance Provisions (Crop Provisions).
2. Section 1—FCIC is deleting the definition of “Act.” The definition of “Act” is contained in the Basic Provisions. Therefore, it is duplicative and should be removed from the Crop Provisions.
FCIC is revising the definition of “amount of insurance” to incorporate language that is currently contained in section 3(e) that reduces the amount of insurance if any claims have previously been paid for the crop year. The language is more appropriately placed in the definition.
FCIC is revising the definition of “basic unit value.” The term is used repeatedly throughout the Crop Provisions, usually with a phrase such as “including any revision” or “including the Peak Inventory Endorsement if elected.” To simplify the provisions, this information is incorporated into the definition of “basic unit value.”
FCIC is adding a definition of “catalog,” which is contained in the Special Provisions. In addition, the phrases “wholesale nursery catalog or price list,” “nursery catalog or price list,” and “catalog or price list,” are used interchangeably throughout the Crop Provisions. To simplify the provisions, the term “catalog” now replaces these phrases throughout.
FCIC is revising the definition of “container grown” to improve readability and to clarify that “container grown” is a nursery practice. FCIC is also revising the definition to change the term “pot” to “standard nursery container.” The term “pot” is the name of a specific standard nursery container size and the term must change to “standard nursery container” in this definition so that all standard nursery containers are included in this definition.
FCIC is adding a definition of “Crop Inventory Valuation Report (CIVR)” as a result of the inclusion of this term in newly-designated paragraph (c)(ii) in section 6.
FCIC is revising the definition of “crop year deductible” to simplify it. The definition uses the phrase “sum of all plant inventory values for each basic unit,” which means the same thing as “basic unit value.” Therefore, the phrase is replaced with the phrase “basic unit value” to make it easier to read and understand. The definition also states any loss under the Rehabilitation Endorsement is not considered a loss. This phrase is not needed with the revised definition of “crop year deductible” since payments under the Rehabilitation Endorsement do not affect the deductible.
FCIC is deleting the definition of “deductible percentage.” The term “deductible” is defined in the Basic Provisions. Therefore, having the definition in the Crop Provisions is duplicative and unnecessary.
FCIC is deleting the definitions of “Eligible Plant List” and “Plant Price Schedule” and replacing them with the definition of “Eligible Plant List and Plant Price Schedule (EPLPPS).” The definitions of “Eligible Plant List” and the definition of “Plant Price Schedule” refer to the same document. Combining the two definitions will prevent
FCIC is revising the definition of “fabric grow bag” to clarify fabric grow bags may be used for growing any type of field grown nursery plant, rather than restricting it to woody plants only. It is a common growing practice for fabric grow bags to be used for growing plants other than woody plants.
FCIC is deleting the definition of “FCIC.” Its meaning is provided in the preamble to the Basic Provisions. Therefore, having the definition in the Crop Provisions is unnecessary.
FCIC is revising the definition of “field grown” to clarify that field grown is a nursery practice. FCIC is also removing the phrase “without the use of an artificial root containment device” because the definition goes on to specify plants grown in in-ground fabric grow bags, plants balled and burlapped, or plants in containers that allow the plants to root into the ground are considered field grown. Plants grown in in-ground fabric grow bags, plants balled and burlapped, and plants in containers are all grown using artificial root containment devices. Therefore, the phrase is being removed to prevent confusion and redundancy.
FCIC is replacing the term “field market value A” and “field market value B” with “field market value A (FMVA)” and “field market value B (FMVB),” respectively. FCIC is also revising the definitions of those terms to be concise and easy to read.
FCIC is revising the definition of “good nursery practices.” The definition currently states, “In lieu of the definition of good farming practices in section 1 of the Basic Provisions. . .” The definition of good farming practices contained in the Basic Provisions allows published information to be considered when making good farming practice determinations. The phrase “In lieu of” replaces the definition contained in the Basic Provisions when in fact the definitions should be read together because published information regarding good farming practices applies to nursery producers. Therefore, “in lieu of” is changed to “in addition to” to make it clear that published information can be considered when making good farming practice determinations for nursery producers.
FCIC is revising the definition of “liners” to incorporate language currently contained in the Special Provisions that specifies the acceptable, insurable dimensions of liners.
FCIC is revising the definition of “loss.” The term is used in the Crop Provisions and is usually preceded with the phrase “as adjusted by any previous under-report factor.” A Special Provisions statement uses the term “loss” preceded by the phrase “as adjusted by any previous under-report factor or over-report factor.” That Special Provisions statement, along with other Special Provisions statements related to the over-report factor, is incorporated into the Crop Provisions. The definition of “loss” is revised to include the phrase “as adjusted by any previous under-report factor or over-report factor” in order to eliminate the need to repeat that phrase throughout the Crop Provisions.
FCIC is adding the definition of “lowest price,” which is currently contained in the Special Provisions. The phrase “the price for each plant and size listed on your [Plant Inventory Value Report (PIVR)] will be the lower of the [EPLPPS] price or the lowest wholesale price in your nursery catalog or price list” is used repeatedly throughout the Crop Provisions. To simplify the provisions, the Crop Provisions will substitute this phrase with the term “lowest price.”
FCIC is revising the definition of “marketable” to provide clarity. The definition uses the word “it” but does not clarify what “it” means. The definition also uses the term “market” but does not indicate if the term refers to usual or customary market channels employed by the nursery operation or a secondary market where lesser values prevail. Therefore, the definition is being revised to clarify “a plant that can be sold in a customary or secondary market for a non-zero value.”
FCIC is revising the definition of “nursery” to change the percentage from 50 percent to 40 percent. FCIC has received comments that the 50 percent requirement is arbitrary and that FCIC may be omitting market share by imposing that restriction. Since the nature of prices is such that retail prices are higher than wholesale prices, the retail share of total sales is weighted more heavily. In addition, the industry has evolved since this limit was implemented with more nurseries engaging in both wholesale and retail sales. By lowering the requirement from 50 to 40 percent of sales, FCIC is allowing more nurseries to be eligible for insurance while still recognizing the intent of the program is to provide coverage to nurseries with a large share of their production dedicated to wholesale sales. FCIC is also revising the definition to clarify what “gross income” means. The current definition states a nursery is “a business enterprise that grows the nursery plants and derives at least 50 percent of its gross income from the wholesale marketing of such plants.” The revised language clarifies “gross income” by adding the phrase “derived from plant sales” to clarify only income from plant sales, is included when determining if the nursery qualifies for insurance under this definition. Income from sales of other products is not included. For example, assume the nursery derives 60 percent of its income from landscape sales, 25 percent from wholesale plant sales, and 15 percent from retail plant sales. This nursery would be eligible for insurance according to the revised definition because 62.5 percent (25 percent wholesale plant sales/(25 percent wholesale plant sales + 15 retail plant sales) = 25/40 = 62.5 percent wholesale plant sales) of the gross income derived from plant sales is from the wholesale marketing of plants.
FCIC is revising the definition of “occurrence deductible” to incorporate the revised definition of “occurrence deductible” contained in the Special Provisions. The revised “occurrence deductible” definition addresses the over-report factor and its application in the calculation of the occurrence deductible.
FCIC is adding the definition of “over-report factor,” which has been in the Special Provisions since 2011. The “over-report factor” ensures indemnities are not overpaid when the reported basic unit values reported on the PIVR are greater than the inventory value immediately preceding the loss (FMVA). The current provisions already include an under-report factor to address situations where the reported basic unit values are less than FMVA. The over-report factor addresses the contrasting situation.
FCIC is revising the definition of “practice” to specify the insurable practices are listed in the actuarial documents to be consistent with other Crop Provisions. Although this change would allow practices to be added or removed through the actuarial documents, FCIC currently does not intend on adding any new practices or removing any existing practices.
FCIC is adding a definition of “restock.” Restock is not a defined term, but is used several times in the Crop Provisions. It is defined in the Peak Inventory Endorsement. Since the term is used in both documents, the definition should be moved to the Crop Provisions.
FCIC is revising the definition of “sales closing date” to add the phrase “of these Crop Provisions” at the end.
FCIC is revising the definition of “standard nursery containers.” A variation of this definition is contained in the Special Provisions, and is incorporated into the Crop Provisions. The definition specifies the minimum insurable dimension for “standard nursery containers.”
FCIC is revising the definition of “survival factor” to improve readability.
FCIC is revising the definition of “under-report factor” to remove the phrase “as adjusted by any previous under-report factor,” since this phrase is to be included in the definition of “loss” and is not necessary in this definition. FCIC is also removing the last sentence which refers to Rehabilitation Endorsement payments. The sentence is not necessary in the definition of “under-report factor.”
3. Section 2—FCIC is revising paragraph (a) by subdividing the paragraph into two subparagraphs and adding provisions to allow basic units by non-contiguous land for the field grown practice only. Policyholders will be required to keep records separate for each unit if they elect basic units by non-contiguous land. This change gives the policyholders who insure their field grown practice the choice of selecting basic units either by plant type or by non-contiguous land. Policyholders may have several nursery locations throughout a county. FCIC has received requests to allow policyholders to insure each location as a separate unit because different locations have inherently different risks. Therefore, under the current policy language, one location may suffer damage while other locations may not. In the event of a loss, all locations within the unit must be assessed for damage, creating extra burden on the policyholder and insurance provider. Further, the loss in one location may be offset by production in other locations, making it difficult for policyholders to be compensated for the damage suffered at a single location. Allowing separate basic units by non-contiguous land for the field grown practice will decrease the burden on policyholders and insurance providers while also allowing policyholders greater flexibility to make appropriate risk management decisions for their nursery locations throughout a county. Basic units by non-contiguous land will not be available to the container grown practice, unless allowed by Special Provisions, in order to prevent fraud, waste and abuse. Containers are highly portable and may be moved from one location to another based on the operations' needs. With or without intentions or motives, container grown operations could increase the chances of an indemnity when they move inventory from one location (basic unit) to another.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (a)(1) to remove the phrase “designated in section 2(b).” This phrase refers to the list of insurable plant types that are currently listed in paragraph (b). However, FCIC is removing the list of insurable plant types from paragraph (b), so this phrase is no longer applicable.
FCIC is revising paragraph (b) to remove the list of insurable plant types. Insurable types for other crops are listed in the actuarial documents. For nursery, the insurable plant types are listed in the Crop Provisions and in the actuarial documents. It is not necessary to list them in both documents so FCIC is removing the list from the Crop Provisions.
4. Section 3—FCIC is revising paragraph (a) to remove the reference to the misreporting provisions in the Basic Provisions. The misreporting provisions have been removed from the Basic Provisions so the reference in the Crop Provisions is no longer valid.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) by removing the reference to the Peak Inventory Endorsement and replacing it with the Peak Inventory Value Report since the policyholder submits a Peak Inventory Value Report rather than a Peak Inventory Endorsement.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(B) by clarifying that a coverage level must be selected if the new plant is not categorized under a plant type reported on the initial PIVR or Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable. Previously the provision did not reference the Peak Inventory Value Report. The provisions in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(A) refer to the Peak Inventory Value Report, so the addition of the Peak Inventory Value Report in paragraph (c)(1)(iv)(B) makes the provisions in the two paragraphs consistent.
FCIC is also revising paragraph (d) to remove the references to the 2006 crop year. The references are no longer needed. By removing the references to the 2006 crop year, paragraph (d)(2)(i) is removed. As a result, paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) and (iii) are redesignated as paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and(ii), respectively.
FCIC is removing the provisions in paragraph (e). These provisions are now included in the revised definition of “amount of insurance,” and therefore, are no longer necessary. FCIC is redesignating paragraph (f) as (e).
5. Section 6—FCIC is revising paragraph (b) to clarify that a separate PIVR must be submitted for each insured practice. The word “separate” is added to provide clarification. FCIC is also revising paragraph (b) to state a separate PIVR is required for each non-contiguous land unit within each insured practice if the policyholder selects basic units by non-contiguous land.
FCIC is revising paragraph (b)(1) to include a provision that addresses the date by when policyholders will be notified if their applications are rejected because the required documents are unacceptable. The current provisions only state the policyholders will be notified, but are silent on when they will be notified.
FCIC is revising paragraph (b)(2) to clarify insurance attaches on the 31st day after all required documents are received. The current provisions state insurance attaches 30 days after the documents are received. The Nursery Underwriting Guide clarifies what is meant by 30 days: The 30-day waiting period does not include the date the required documentation is submitted or the date insurance attaches but the provision is more appropriate in the Crop Provisions. Now the provisions are clear that insurance would not attach until 30 full days have elapsed after the documents were received. FCIC is including the same clarification in the Crop Provisions.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(1) to include basic units by non-contiguous land to be consistent with the other changes to the policy allowing such units.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(2) to divide the paragraph into subparagraphs to make the paragraph easier to read. Newly-designated paragraph (c)(2)(i) is revised by adding the phrase “or a CIVR.” The current provisions state the policyholder may be required to provide a detailed plant inventory listing that includes the name, the number, and the size of each plant. Adding the phrase mentioned above gives the insurance provider an option of requesting a detailed plant inventory listing or the CIVR, which is a plant inventory list created using the Nursery Inventory Software. FCIC is also moving the last sentence of paragraph (c)(2) to newly designated paragraph (c)(2)(ii) because it is more appropriately placed there than at the end of newly-designated paragraph (c)(2)(iii).
Newly-designated paragraph (c)(2)(iii) contains the provisions currently in paragraph (c)(2) regarding the policyholders' ability to obtain and maintain nursery stock. FCIC is revising
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(3) to improve readability and adding new paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) and (c)(4) to incorporate provisions currently contained in the Special Provisions. These provisions refer to the consequences for failing to provide adequate documentation depending on whether the documentation is requested before or after insurance attaches.
FCIC is moving paragraph (f) to a newly-designated paragraph (c)(5). Paragraph (c) contains PIVR reporting requirements for policyholders. The current paragraph (f) contains PIVR reporting requirements for policyholders who elect catastrophic risk protection coverage. Since both paragraphs contain PIVR reporting requirements, moving paragraph (f) into paragraph (c) will add clarity by aligning related content. The information contained in paragraph (f) is more appropriate under paragraph (c), which contains reporting requirements for all policyholders. FCIC is also omitting some of the provisions from paragraph (f) because the provisions are identical to the provisions contained in paragraph (c)(3), which applies to catastrophic risk protection coverage and additional coverage. This reduces redundancy and improves readability.
FCIC is revising paragraph (d) to include the phrase “if applicable” following the phrase “Peak Inventory Value Report.” This change is being made because the provision is only applicable to a Peak Inventory Value Report if the Peak Endorsement is elected.
FCIC is revising the introductory text in paragraph (e) to replace the phrase “inventory value by basic unit” with the phrase “basic unit value.” The two phrases are synonymous, but “basic unit value” is defined in section 1 so the phrase “basic unit value” is more appropriate.
FCIC is revising paragraph (e)(1). The provisions require the price for each plant and size listed on the PIVR must meet certain criteria. However, the price for each plant and size is not listed on the PIVR; instead, the basic unit value is listed on the PIVR. Therefore, the provisions are revised to state the basic unit value listed on the PIVR must meet certain criteria. FCIC is also revising paragraph (e)(1) to clarify that the inventory value for liners must also be multiplied by the survival factor.
FCIC replaced the reference to the Plant Price Schedule with the reference to the EPLPPS in paragraph (e)(2).
With the removal of paragraph (f), as mentioned above, paragraphs (g) through (k) have been redesignated as (f) through (j).
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (f)(1) to state a revised PIVR must meet the same requirements as the original PIVR. Currently, redesignated paragraph (f)(1) limits the requirements for a revised PIVR to those requirements for a PIVR listed in paragraph (c). However, the requirements for a PIVR listed in paragraph (e) also apply to a revised PIVR.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (f)(2) to state why an inspection will be conducted when a revised PIVR is submitted. Currently, the provisions only state that an inspection will be performed. The revised provisions state an inspection will be performed to determine if adequate and acceptable facilities exist to accommodate the requested increased inventory value.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (f)(2) to state an inspection will be performed if a Peak Inventory Endorsement is purchased and the inventory reported on the Peak Inventory Value Report is increased 50 percent or more from the previous total of all basic unit values. Currently, an inspection will be performed whenever the total of all basic unit values included on the PIVR increases by 50 percent or more due to a revised PIVR. However, the policyholder can purchase a Peak Inventory Endorsement to increase the amount of insurance by 200 percent with no mandatory inspection requirement. Adding language regarding Peak Inventory Endorsements to this section aligns the inspection requirements for revised PIVRs and Peak Inventory Value Reports.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (f)(3). The current provisions state the insurance provider has the discretion to perform an inspection when the total of all basic unit values on a revised PIVR is increased less than 50 percent. This paragraph is revised to include language regarding Peak Inventory Endorsements. This revision aligns the inspection requirements for revised PIVRs and Peak Inventory Value Reports. The provisions are also revised to make the wording in this paragraph and in redesignated paragraph (f)(2) consistent.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (f)(5). Current provisions state any increase in reported basic unit values will be rejected if a loss occurs before the increased value takes effect. The provisions are revised to include the following parenthetical: “(rejection can occur at any time we discover such loss occurred)” because in some cases the loss will not be discovered until after the increased value takes effect and this will clarify that the increase can be rejected at any time it is determined that a loss occurred before the increased value took effect. This language is consistent with language in section 3 regarding rejecting any request for changes in coverage level if a loss occurs prior to the date insurance is scheduled to attach for the new coverage level.
FCIC is adding a new paragraph (f)(7). Provisions in redesignated section 3(e) state the amount of insurance may be increased in accordance with redesignated section 6(f) if the nursery is restocked. Redesignated section 6(f) contains provisions that allow the inventory value, which is a key component of the amount of insurance, to be increased twice during the crop year by submitting a revised PIVR, but is not clear if increasing the amount of insurance due to restocking the nursery is counted as one of the two allowable revisions. New paragraph (f)(7) clarifies if the policyholder suffers an insured loss on a basic unit and restocks the nursery, then the policyholder is allowed to increase the reported inventory value for the basic unit one additional time.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (g)(2). The provisions state damaged plants will be removed from the PIVR if they are not accepted. However, plants are not listed on the PIVR, instead the insurable value of plants in each basic unit is listed on the PIVR. Therefore, FCIC is revising the provisions to state the insurable value of the damaged plants will be removed from the basic unit value reported on the PIVR.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (i) by removing
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (i)(4) to include the phrase “(except printed discount schedules)” to be consistent with the new definition of “catalog” in section 1.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (i)(5) by replacing the term
6. Section 7—FCIC is revising paragraph (a) to include provisions specifying that the premium is multiplied by .55 when the catastrophic risk protection coverage is elected. Currently, the provisions only address how premium is calculated for additional coverage. This provision is added to prevent confusion.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c). This paragraph states premium will be charged for the entire month “if your premium is prorated.” This clause is not necessary since the remainder of this provision adequately describes the calculation of premium for a partial month.
FCIC is revising paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) to replace the date of “April 1” with the phrase “the premium billing date listed in the actuarial documents.” Because the premium billing date is listed in the actuarial documents, it is not necessary to list it in the Crop Provisions. FCIC is also revising paragraph (d)(2) by adding the phrase “or submission of your PIVR or catalog” to the end of the paragraph to maintain consistency between the beginning of the paragraph and the end of the paragraph.
7. Section 8—FCIC is revising the introductory text to clarify the insured crop will be all insurable nursery plants and plant types within each insured practice. FCIC is also removing the phrase, “contained on the Eligible Price List, in which you have a share.” Although Eligible Price List should be Eligible Plant List, the term is not needed since paragraph (a) contains the requirement that plants be shown on the Eligible Plant List. The phrase, “in which you have a share,” is revised and moved to a new paragraph (a) to be consistent with the format of other Crop Provisions. Paragraphs (a) through (j) are redesignated as paragraphs (b) through (k).
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (i) to state plants grown to be sold with the root system removed are not insurable. The current provision states plants grown for sale as Christmas trees are not insurable. The intent of this provision is to exclude plants severed from their root systems and then sold. There are plants listed on the EPLPPS grown for sale as Christmas trees with the root system attached. One example is the Norfolk Island Pine, which is grown and sold in a container with the root system attached. Currently, those plants are not insurable because they are “grown for sale as Christmas trees.” Therefore, the provision is reworded to clarify all plants that are grown and sold with the root system attached are insurable.
8. Section 9—FCIC is removing all references to the 2006 crop year. The references are no longer needed. Paragraph (a)(1)(i) has been deleted as a result. Paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) and (iii) have been redesignated as paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii), respectively.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (a)(1)(i) by stating the insurance provider will notify the policyholder in writing if the application is rejected because the PIVR or catalog is not acceptable. The current provisions only state the insurance provider will notify the policyholder in writing if the inventory is not acceptable. Section 6(b)(1) states policyholders will be notified in writing before the end of the 30-day waiting period because the inspection determines the policyholders do not meet the insurability requirements or the PIVR, catalog, or supporting documentation (if requested by us) is not acceptable. Similar language to this already exists in redesignated paragraph (a)(1)(i) but that language is revised to be consistent with the wording of the language in section 6(b)(1). Consistency between the two sections reduces confusion.
FCIC is also revising redesignated paragraph (a)(1)(i). This paragraph states coverage begins on June 1 if the policyholder applies for coverage on or before May 1. Following this provision is a phrase that says, “30 days after your crop insurance agent receives an application signed by you.” The phrase reiterates that coverage attaches on June 1, which is 30 days after May 1, and is not needed.
FCIC is revising redesignated paragraph (a)(1)(ii). This paragraph currently states coverage will not begin until the next crop year if the policyholder applies for coverage after May 1. To minimize confusion, FCIC is revising this paragraph to state coverage will not begin until the 31st day, which occurs on or after the beginning of the next crop year, after all such documents have been received.
FCIC is adding a new paragraph (b)(5) to state insurance ends when the crop has been abandoned. Section 11 of the Basic Provisions currently contains information regarding abandonment of the crop but section 9 of the Crop Provisions states that section 11 of the Basic Provisions does not apply. Therefore, information regarding abandonment of the crop is included in the Crop Provisions.
9. Section 10—FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(3) to incorporate the lead-in sentence from paragraph (c)(3)(i). The lead-in sentence says, “you have installed adequate cold protection equipment or facilities.” This lead-in sentence is not contained in paragraph (c)(3)(ii), but should be. Therefore, for consistency and simplification, the lead-in sentence from paragraph (c)(3)(i) is added to paragraph (c)(3), and removed from paragraph (c)(3)(i), so that it applies to both subparagraphs.
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(3)(ii) by adding the phrase “or facilities” after the phrase “required cold protection equipment.” This change is made to be consistent with the language in paragraph (c)(3).
FCIC is revising paragraph (c)(6) to be consistent with the change to the definition of “good nursery practices.” The phrase “In lieu of section 12(b) of the Basic Provisions” in paragraph (c)(6) is removed because good nursery practices as defined in the Crop Provisions will be in addition to good farming practices as defined in the Basic Provisions.
10. Section 11—FCIC is revising paragraph (b). Current provisions state, “Failure to obtain our written consent as required by section 11(a)(1) will result in the denial of your claim.” The provisions do not clearly state on what portion of the policy the claim will be denied. The revised provision clarifies the intent of the provisions, which is to deny the claim on an individual basic unit basis. The provisions are also revised so that they are written in plain language.
11. Section 12—FCIC is incorporating provisions throughout section 12 currently contained in the Special Provisions regarding the over-report factor, including revising paragraph (a), revising paragraph (d), and adding a new paragraph (h).
FCIC is revising paragraph (f)(1) to change the lead-in clause from “For other than catastrophic risk protection coverage” to “For additional coverage.” This change improves readability and provides consistency with the terminology used throughout the Crop Provisions.
FCIC is adding a new paragraph (i) to address record-keeping for policyholders who elect basic units by non-contiguous land. In section 2(a), FCIC added provisions to allow for basic units by non-contiguous land, which included the requirement for policyholders to keep records separate by unit. If policyholders elect basic units by non-contiguous land, and a loss occurs on only one unit, then policyholders need to have records
12. Section 14—FCIC is adding a new paragraph (a) and redesignating paragraphs (a) through (c) as (b) through (d), respectively. The newly added paragraph (a) is added to clarify that written agreements are only allowed for plants not listed on the EPLPPS.
FCIC is revising newly designated paragraphs (b) and (d) by changing the term “cancellation date” to “sales closing date.” Current provisions state written agreements must be requested with the application for the initial crop year or no later than the cancellation date for subsequent crop years. The provisions are changed so that the deadline is the sales closing date, rather than the cancellation date. If, according to the current provisions, a policyholder submits a request prior to the cancellation date (for example, May 15th), the policyholder would have a lapse in coverage from June 1st (the start date of the crop year) until June 15th because of the 30-day waiting period. By changing the deadline to the sales closing date (May 1st), the policyholder does not risk having a lapse in coverage because coverage will automatically attach on June 1st, if the written agreement is approved. Also in redesignated paragraph (b), FCIC revised the reference “section 14(c)” to state “section 14(d)” in order to accommodate the redesignation of paragraph (c) as (d).
13. Section 15—FCIC is revising the Single Unit Example and the Peak Inventory Endorsement Example to improve readability. FCIC is also adding a Single Unit Example regarding the over-report factor, which is currently contained in the Special Provisions.
This regulation modifies program eligibility criteria along with several elements of the Nursery Crop Provisions. The intended effect of this action is to clarify and simplify policy provisions, allow basic units by non-contiguous land for the field grown practice, and reduce the 50 percent wholesale sales requirement to 40 percent. This regulation is related to a crop insurance policy, which is a contract between an approved insurance provider and the insured. In order to make the rule effective for the upcoming crop year, RMA is publishing it as a final rule. To accomplish this, RMA is employing the contracts exemption at 5 U.S.C. 553(a)(2), which grants agencies the opportunity publish rules related contracts without the prior notice and public comment period typically required in rulemaking. If RMA elected not to use the contracts exemption, farmers would be denied the added flexibility this rule provides to the crop insurance program for a full crop year. Moreover, while RMA is using the contracts exemption to make the changes effective for the upcoming crop year, the agency remains committed to public participation in rulemaking and will accept written comments on this final rule. RMA will consider all comments that are received and may conduct additional rulemaking based on the comments.
Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasized the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) designated this rule as not significant under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” and therefore, OMB has not reviewed this rule. The rule is not subject to Executive Order 13771, “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs.”
Pursuant to the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35, subchapter I), the collections of information in this rule have been approved by OMB under control number 0563-0053.
FCIC is committed to complying with the E-Government Act of 2002, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector. This rule contains no Federal mandates (under the regulatory provisions of title II of the UMRA) for State, local, and tribal governments or the private sector. Therefore, this rule is not subject to the requirements of sections 202 and 205 of UMRA.
It has been determined under section 1(a) of Executive Order 13132, Federalism, that this rule does not have sufficient implications to warrant consultation with the States. The provisions contained in this rule will not have a substantial direct effect on States, or on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Federal Crop Insurance Corporation has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under E.O. 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
FCIC certifies that this regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Program requirements for the Federal crop insurance program are the same for all producers regardless of the size of their farming operation. For instance, all producers are required to submit an application and acreage report to establish their insurance guarantees and compute premium amounts, and all producers are required
This program is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.450.
This program is not subject to the provisions of Executive Order 12372, which require intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. See 2 CFR part 415, subpart C.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with Executive Order 12988 on civil justice reform. The provisions of this rule will not have a retroactive effect. The provisions of this rule will preempt State and local laws to the extent such State and local laws are inconsistent herewith. With respect to any direct action taken by FCIC or action by FCIC directing the insurance provider to take specific action under the terms of the crop insurance policy, the administrative appeal provisions published at 7 CFR part 11 must be exhausted before any action against FCIC for judicial review may be brought.
This action is not expected to have a significant economic impact on the quality of the human environment, health, or safety. Therefore, neither an Environmental Assessment nor an Environmental Impact Statement is needed.
Crop insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, as set forth in the preamble, the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation amends 7 CFR part 457 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 1506(l) and 1506(o).
The revisions and additions reads as follows:
(1) Such documents may be issued by season, by plant type, or other basis consistent with your business practices.
(2) The documents can be in any form, but must meet the minimum standards contained in section 6(j), except that the printed discount schedules do not have to be provided to customers.
(1) The botanical and common names of insurable plants;
(2) The cold protection requirements for container grown material and the areas in which they apply;
(3) The hardiness zone in which field grown material is insurable;
(4) The designated hardiness zones available for each county;
(5) The plant type, storage key, and hardiness zone classification for each plant on the list; and
(6) A schedule of insurable plant prices that establishes the highest value accepted for insurance purposes unless otherwise allowed by the policy or an endorsement to the policy.
(1) The deductible multiplied by FMVA and:
(i) In under-report situations, multiplied by the under-report factor; or
(ii) In over-report situations, multiplied by the sum of 1.000 plus the over-report factor; or
(2) The crop year deductible.
(1) The basic unit value reported on the PIVR, including any Peak Inventory Value Report during the coverage term of a Peak Inventory Endorsement, if applicable, minus the total of all previous losses;
(2) FMVA plus the insured value of plants listed on the verifiable sales records, minus 1.100; and
(3) Dividing the result of paragraph (1) of this definition by the result of paragraph (2) of this definition.
(4) If the result is greater than 0.000, then the over-report factor applies.
(1) 1.000; or
(2) The basic unit value, including a Peak Inventory Value Report during the coverage term of a Peak Inventory Endorsement, if applicable, minus the total of all previous losses; and dividing that result by FMVA.
(a) If you elect additional coverage for a practice, a basic unit, as defined in section 1 of the Basic Provisions, may be divided into additional basic units by:
(1) Each insurable plant type for which a premium rate is provided by the actuarial documents; or
(2) For the field grown practice only, non-contiguous land. Basic units by non-contiguous land for the container grown practice may be allowed if provided for in the Special Provisions.
(b) Only the plant types listed in the actuarial documents are insurable.
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(iv) * * *
(A) A new plant is added under a revised PIVR or Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable; and
(B) The new plant is not categorized under a plant type reported on the initial PIVR or Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable.
(d) * * *
(2) For carryover policies:
(i) Changes must be requested on or before the sales closing date; and
(ii) Unless we reject the proposed increase because a loss occurs within 30 days of the date the request is made (rejection can occur at any time we discover such loss has occurred), requested changes will take effect on the date of the start of the crop year.
(b) You must submit a separate PIVR for each insured practice, as applicable, and two copies of your most recent catalog to us with your application and on or before the sales closing date for each crop year following the year of application. If you elected basic units by non-contiguous land, you must also submit a separate PIVR for each non-contiguous land unit within the insured practice, and keep all records separate by unit.
(1) You will be notified in writing on or before the end of the 30-day waiting period if an application for insurance is rejected because the inspection determines you do not meet the insurability requirements or the PIVR, catalog, or supporting documentation (if requested by us) is not acceptable.
(2) If you fail to provide a PIVR or catalog on or before the sales closing date for any crop year, insurance will not attach until the 31st day after all such documents have been received by your crop insurance agent and we will not be liable for any losses that occur before insurance has attached.
(c) The PIVR must include, by basic unit, all growing locations, basic unit value, coverage level selected, as applicable, and your share.
(1) If you do not elect additional basic units by plant type, or additional basic units by non-contiguous land, or if you elect catastrophic risk protection coverage, the inventory values for each plant type in the basic unit must be separately reported on the PIVR and totaled to determine the basic unit value.
(2) At our option, you will be required to provide documentation in support of your PIVR, including, but not limited to the following:
(i) A detailed plant inventory listing that includes the name, the number, and the size of each plant, or a CIVR;
(ii) Acceptable records of sales and purchases of plants for the three previous crop years in the amount of detail we require. Acceptable records must contain the name and telephone number of the purchaser or seller, as applicable, names of the plants, the number of each plant sold or purchased, and the sales price for each plant; and
(iii) Your ability to properly obtain and maintain nursery plants.
(3) If you fail to provide the requested documentation:
(i) Before insurance attaches, your insurance will be denied for the crop year for any basic units for which you did not provide such documentation. This provision does not apply to:
(A) Plant varieties you have not previously grown; or
(B) New nurseries where an inspection has determined you have the ability to properly obtain and maintain the nursery plants.
(ii) After insurance attaches, you will still owe premium, but you will not receive an indemnity for any basic units for which you did not provide such documentation. This provision does not apply to:
(A) Plant varieties you have not previously grown; or
(B) New nurseries where an inspection has determined you have the ability to properly obtain and maintain the nursery plants.
(4) If you provide inadequate documentation (
(5) For policies insured at the catastrophic risk protection level, you must report, on the PIVR for each practice insured, your greatest plant sales in any of the previous three years and the actual inventory value on the date insurance attaches. For each applicable practice, the total of your basic unit values cannot exceed 110 percent of the higher of your:
(i) Greatest amount of plant sales in any of the previous three years; or
(ii) Actual inventory value on the date insurance attaches.
(e) Your PIVR must reflect your insurable basic unit value.
(1) The basic unit value you report on your PIVR must be based on the lowest price for each plant size included in the inventory. The inventory value of insured liners must be multiplied by the survival factor.
(2) In no instance will we be liable for plant values greater than those contained in the EPLPPS.
(f) You may increase your reported inventory value for each basic unit no more than twice during the crop year by submitting a revised PIVR prior to 30 days before the end of such crop year.
(1) Any requested increase must be made in writing and meet all the requirements of the original PIVR.
(2) We will perform an inspection of the nursery to determine if adequate and acceptable facilities exist to accommodate the requested increased inventory value when the total of all the basic unit values contained on the revised PIVR or Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable, is increased 50 percent or more from the previous total of all the basic unit values on the PIVR, and the increase is not due to restocking subsequent to an insured loss.
(3) At our discretion, we may inspect the nursery to determine if adequate and acceptable facilities exist to accommodate the requested increased inventory value if an increase of less than 50 percent is reported on the revised PIVR or Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable.
(4) Your revised PIVR will be considered accepted by us and insurance will attach on any proposed increase in inventory value 30 days after your written request is received unless we reject the proposed increase in your plant inventory value in writing.
(5) We will reject any requested increase if a loss occurs within 30 days of the date the request is made (rejection can occur at any time we discover such loss has occurred).
(6) You cannot revise your PIVR to decrease the plant inventory value after the start of the insurance period specified in section 9.
(7) Notwithstanding section 6(f), if you have suffered an insured loss on a basic unit and have restocked the nursery, then you are allowed to increase your reported inventory value for the basic unit one additional time by submitting a revised PIVR.
(g) * * *
(2) The insurable value of such plants will be removed from the applicable basic unit value reported on the PIVR if they are not accepted;
(3) The procedure for calculating the insurable value of damaged plants that are accepted for coverage is contained in the Special Provisions.
(j) At a minimum, your catalog must meet the following standards:
(4) Be provided to customers (except printed discount schedules) and used in the sale of your plants; and
(5) List each plant's name (botanical or common), plant or container size, and wholesale price.
(a) In lieu of section 7(c) of the Basic Provisions, we will determine your premium by multiplying the amount of insurance by the appropriate premium rate, any premium adjustment factor, and the monthly proration factor contained in the actuarial documents. If you elect catastrophic risk protection coverage, this calculation must also be multiplied by fifty-five percent.
(d) In lieu of section 7(a) of the Basic Provisions:
(1) If you apply for insurance before the premium billing date listed in the actuarial documents, the annual premium is earned and payable at the time coverage begins. You will be billed for the premium and administrative fee not earlier than the premium billing date listed in the actuarial documents.
(2) If you apply for insurance, or submit your PIVR or catalog, on or after the premium billing date listed in the actuarial documents, the premium for the partial crop year will be due and must be paid at the time of application or submission of your PIVR or catalog.
(3) Failure to pay the premium at the time of application or when you submit your PIVR or catalog will result in no insurance and no indemnity being owed for the crop year.
In lieu of the provisions of sections 8 and 9 of the Basic Provisions, the insured crop will be all nursery plants in each practice you elect to insure, and:
(a) For which you have a share;
(i) Are grown and sold with the root system attached;
(a) In lieu of section 11 of the Basic Provisions:
(1) For the year of application, if you apply for coverage:
(i) On or before May 1st of the crop year, coverage begins June 1st, unless we notify you in writing that your application is rejected because your PIVR, catalog, or supporting documentation (if requested by us) is not acceptable;
(ii) After May 1st, coverage will not begin until the 31st day after we receive all acceptable documents; and
(2) For continuous policies, the insurance period begins on each June 1st.
(b) Insurance ends at the earliest of:
(1) The date of final adjustment of a loss when the total indemnities due equal the amount of insurance;
(2) Removal of bare root nursery plant material from the field;
(3) Removal of all other insured plant material from the nursery;
(4) May 31st; or
(5) Abandonment of the crop on the basic unit.
(c) * * *
(3) Cold temperatures, if cold protection is required in the EPLPPS, unless you have installed adequate cold protection equipment or facilities and:
(i) There is a failure or breakdown of the cold protection equipment or facilities resulting from an insurable cause of loss specified in section 10(a) (the insured plants must be damaged by cold temperatures and the damage must occur within 72 hours of the failure of such equipment or facilities unless we establish that repair or replacement was not possible between the time of failure or breakdown and the time the damaging temperatures occurred); or
(ii) The lowest temperature or its duration exceeded the ability of the required cold protection equipment or facilities to keep the insured plants from sustaining cold damage;
(b) If you fail to obtain our written consent as required by section 11(a)(1), your claim will be denied on each basic unit for which written consent was not obtained.
We will determine indemnities for any unit as follows:
(a) Determine the under-report factor or over-report factor, as applicable, for the basic unit;
(b) Determine the occurrence deductible;
(c) Subtract FMVB from FMVA;
(d) Multiply the result of 12(c) by the under-report factor or one minus the over-report factor (1.000 − over-report factor), as applicable;
(e) Subtract the occurrence deductible from the result in section 12(d); and
(f) If the result of section 12(e) is greater than zero, and subject to the limit stated in section 12(g):
(1) For additional coverage, your indemnity equals the result of section 12(e) multiplied by your share.
(2) For catastrophic risk protection coverage, your indemnity equals the result of section 12(e) multiplied by fifty-five percent and by your share.
(g) The total of all indemnities for the crop year will not exceed the amount of insurance, including any peak amount of insurance during the coverage term of the Peak Inventory Endorsement, if this endorsement is elected.
(h) In order to prevent your indemnity from being reduced when you have over-reported your basic unit value, the following must apply: FMVA plus the insured value of the plants listed on the verifiable sales records must support, within 10 percent, the basic unit value reported on the PIVR, revised PIVR, and Peak Inventory Value Report, if applicable, minus the total of all previous losses. Otherwise, any indemnity for that basic unit will be reduced by an over-report factor.
(i) If you elected basic units by non-contiguous land, in accordance with section 3(a)(ii), and you do not keep your records separate by unit, we will combine all basic units for which records were not kept separate.
(a) Written agreements may only be requested for plants not listed on the EPLPPS.
Assume you have a 100 percent share and the basic unit value reported by you is $100,000. Your coverage level is 75 percent. Your amount of insurance is $75,000 ($100,000 × .75). At the time of loss, we determine that the value of your inventory immediately before the loss (FMVA) is $125,000, and the value after the loss (FMVB) is $80,000. Your indemnity would be calculated as follows:
Step (1): $100,000 ÷ $125,000 = .80 is the under-report factor;
Step (2): The occurrence deductible is the lesser of a) .25 × $125,000 × .80 = $25,000; or b) $100,000 × (1.00 − .75) = $25,000;
Step (3): $125,000 − $80,000 = $45,000 loss;
Step (4): $45,000 × .80 = $36,000 loss after the under-report factor is applied;
Step (5): $36,000 − $25,000 = $11,000 loss after the occurrence deductible; and
Step (6): $11,000 × 1.000 share = $11,000 indemnity payment.
Assume you have a 100 percent share and the basic unit value reported by you is $125,000. Your coverage level is 75 percent. Your amount of insurance is $93,750 ($125,000 × .75). At the time of loss, we determine that the value of your inventory immediately before the loss (FMVA) is $100,000, and the value after the loss (FMVB) is $50,000. You provide verifiable sales records containing an insured value of plants equaling $10,000. Your indemnity would be calculated as follows:
Step (1): ($125,000 ÷ ($100,000 + $10,000)) − 1.100 = .04 is the over-report factor;
Step (2): The occurrence deductible is the lesser of: a) .25 × $100,000 × (1.000 + .04) = $26,000; or b) .25 × $125,000 = $31,250;
Step (3): $100,000 − $50,000 = $50,000 loss;
Step (4): $50,000 × (1.000 − .04) = $48,000 loss after the over-report factor is applied;
Step (5): $48,000 − $26,000 = $22,000 loss after the occurrence deductible; and
Step (6): $22,000 × 1.000 share = $22,000 indemnity payment.
Assume you have a second loss on the same basic unit as the first example. Your amount of insurance has been reduced by subtracting your previous indemnity payment of $11,000 from your amount of insurance ($75,000 − $11,000 = $64,000). Your crop year deductible has been reduced to zero by the previous loss ($25,000 − $36,000, but not less than zero). You purchase a Peak Inventory Endorsement and report $60,000 in inventory. Your peak amount of insurance is your reported inventory times your coverage level ($60,000 × .75 = $45,000). The combined amount of insurance for the coverage term of the peak endorsement is $64,000 + $45,000 = $109,000. Your crop year deductible is increased by $15,000 ($60,000 × .25). At the time of loss, we determine that the value of your inventory immediately before the loss (FMVA) is $124,000, and the value after the loss (FMVB) is $58,000. Your indemnity would be calculated as follows:
Step (1): ($160,000 − $36,000)/$124,000 = 1.00 is the under-report factor;
Step (2): The occurrence deductible is the lesser of: a) .25 × $60,000 × 1.00 = $15,000; or b) $60,000 × .25 = $15,000;
Step (3): $124,000 − $58,000 = $66,000 loss;
Step (4): $66,000 × 1.00 = $66,000 loss after the under-report factor is applied;
Step (5): $66,000 − $15,000 = $51,000 loss after the occurrence deductible; and
Step (6): $51,000 × 1.000 share = $51,000 indemnity payment.
Your peak amount of insurance is reduced to zero. Your amount of insurance is reduced by the amount the indemnity exceeds the peak amount of insurance. $64,000 − ($51,000 − $45,000) = $64,000 − $6,000 = $58,000.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |