Page Range | 51423-51722 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
80 FR 51612 - National Science Board; Sunshine Act Meetings | |
80 FR 51498 - Proposed Modification of Restricted Area R-7201; Farallon De Medinilla Island; Mariana Islands, GU | |
80 FR 51617 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
80 FR 51423 - Implementation of Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards | |
80 FR 51563 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
80 FR 51611 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
80 FR 51614 - Design of Structures, Components, Equipment, and Systems, and Reactor Coolant System and Connected Systems | |
80 FR 51612 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
80 FR 51481 - Reactor Effluents | |
80 FR 51649 - Generalized System of Preferences (GSP): Deadline for Comments on U.S. International Trade Commission Report | |
80 FR 51589 - Additional Clarifying Guidance, Waivers, and Alternative Requirements for Grantees in Receipt of Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery Funds Under the Disaster Relief Appropriations Act, 2013 | |
80 FR 51540 - Request for Comments on a Proposed Pilot Program Exploring an Alternative Approach to Institution Decisions in Post Grant Administrative Reviews | |
80 FR 51535 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 7-Mayaguez, Puerto Rico; Authorization of Production Activity; Neolpharma, Inc.; Subzone 7O; (Pharmaceutical Products) Caguas, Puerto Rico | |
80 FR 51534 - Authorization of Production Activity; Foreign-Trade Zone 39; Valeo North America, Inc. d/b/a Valeo Compressor North America (Motor Vehicle Air-Conditioner Compressors); Dallas, Texas | |
80 FR 51535 - Foreign-Trade Zone 82-Mobile, Alabama; Authorization of Production Activity; Outokumpu Stainless USA, LLC (Stainless Steel Products); Calvert, Alabama | |
80 FR 51536 - Certain Magnesia Carbon Bricks From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Rescission of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review | |
80 FR 51535 - Aluminum Extrusions From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Scope Ruling and Notice of Amended Final Scope Ruling Pursuant to Court Decision | |
80 FR 51647 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Request and Comment Request | |
80 FR 51606 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Consortium for NASGRO Development and Support | |
80 FR 51464 - Schedule of Fees for Consular Services, Department of State and Overseas Embassies and Consulates | |
80 FR 51579 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Visa Waiver Program Carrier Agreement | |
80 FR 51558 - Final Test Guidelines; Endocrine Disruptor Screening Program Test Guidelines (Series 890); Three Tier 2 Non-Mammalian Tests; Notice of Availability | |
80 FR 51561 - Notice of a Public Meeting and Opportunity for Public Comment on Considerations for Risk Assessment of Genetically Engineered Algae | |
80 FR 51556 - Pesticide Product Registrations; Receipt of Applications for New Uses | |
80 FR 51560 - Pesticide Product Registrations; Receipt of Applications for New Active Ingredients | |
80 FR 51564 - Submission for OMB Review; Claims and Appeals | |
80 FR 51607 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993; International Association of Plumbing and Mechanical Officials | |
80 FR 51565 - Meeting of the Community Preventive Services Task Force (Task Force) | |
80 FR 51605 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-IMS Global Learning Consortium, Inc. | |
80 FR 51605 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Die Products Consortium | |
80 FR 51562 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Diesel Emissions Reduction Act (DERA) Rebate Program; EPA ICR No. 2461.02, OMB Control No. 2060-0686 RENEWAL | |
80 FR 51605 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-ODVA, Inc. | |
80 FR 51605 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Heterogeneous System Architecture Foundation | |
80 FR 51604 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Advanced Combustion Catalyst and Aftertreatment Technologies | |
80 FR 51557 - Good Neighbor Environmental Board; Notification of Public Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 51606 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Pistoia Alliance, Inc. | |
80 FR 51577 - Navigation Safety Advisory Council | |
80 FR 51470 - Safety Zone, Coast Guard Exercise Area, Hood Canal, Washington | |
80 FR 51606 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Clean Diesel VI | |
80 FR 51570 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission to OMB for Review and Approval; Public Comment Request | |
80 FR 51539 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits | |
80 FR 51572 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 51582 - Extension of the Designation of Haiti for Temporary Protected Status | |
80 FR 51579 - Extension of Employment Authorization for Haitian F-1 Nonimmigrant Students Experiencing Severe Economic Hardship as a Direct Result of the January 12, 2010 Earthquake in Haiti | |
80 FR 51572 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request; Surveys To Support an Evaluation of the National Human Genome Research Institute (NHGRI) Summer Workshop in Genomics (Short Course) | |
80 FR 51474 - Payment for Part B Medical and Other Health Services | |
80 FR 51566 - Subcommittee for Dose Reconstruction Reviews (SDRR), Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
80 FR 51566 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health (ABRWH or the Advisory Board), National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) | |
80 FR 51567 - Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health: Notice of Charter Renewal | |
80 FR 51567 - Board of Scientific Counselors, National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (BSC, NIOSH) | |
80 FR 51613 - Information Collection: Domestic Licensing of Source Material | |
80 FR 51476 - Application of Labor Laws to Government Acquisitions | |
80 FR 51525 - Fisheries Off West Coast States; Modifications of the West Coast Commercial, Recreational, and Treaty Indian Salmon Fisheries; Inseason Actions #16 Through #21 | |
80 FR 51476 - Quality Assurance | |
80 FR 51504 - Medicare Program; Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement Payment Model for Acute Care Hospitals Furnishing Lower Extremity Joint Replacement Services; Corrections | |
80 FR 51474 - Quality Improvement Organization Review | |
80 FR 51554 - Notice of Commission or Commission Staff Attendance at MISO Meetings | |
80 FR 51551 - Equitrans, L.P.; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed TP-371 Pipeline Replacement Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
80 FR 51548 - Freeport LNG Development, L.P.; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Planned Freeport LNG Train 4 Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
80 FR 51551 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
80 FR 51554 - Golden Hills Wind, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
80 FR 51550 - HIC Energy, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
80 FR 51546 - Louisville Gas and Electric Company; Kentucky Utilities Company; Notice of Filing | |
80 FR 51553 - Greycliff Wind Prime, LLC; Greycliff Wind Prime, LLC; Notice of Petition for Declaratory Order | |
80 FR 51547 - Merricourt Power Partners, LLC v. Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.; Notice of Complaint | |
80 FR 51550 - WBI Energy Transmission, Inc.; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
80 FR 51609 - OMB Sequestration Update Report to the President and Congress for Fiscal Year 2016 | |
80 FR 51534 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 51483 - Appliance Standards and Rulemaking Federal Advisory Committee: Notice of Intent To Establish the Dedicated Purpose Pool Pumps Working Group To Negotiate a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR) for Energy Conservation Standards | |
80 FR 51545 - Application To Export Electric Energy; Lion Shield Energy, LLC | |
80 FR 51495 - Airworthiness Directives; M7 Aerospace LLC Airplanes | |
80 FR 51556 - Central Valley Project, California-Oregon Transmission Project, Pacific Alternating Current Intertie, and Information on the Path 15 Transmission Upgrade-Rate Order No. WAPA-173 | |
80 FR 51564 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
80 FR 51576 - Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 51533 - Privacy Act of 1974, New System of Records | |
80 FR 51534 - Privacy Act of 1974, Abolished System of Records | |
80 FR 51487 - Energy Conservation Program for Certain Commercial and Industrial Equipment: Proposed Determination of Natural Draft Commercial Packaged Boilers as Covered Industrial Equipment | |
80 FR 51654 - Notice of Meeting of the Advisory Council on Transportation Statistics (ACTS) of the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Research and Technology (OST-R) | |
80 FR 51608 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Voluntary Fiduciary Correction Program | |
80 FR 51607 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Marine Terminal Operations and Longshoring Standards | |
80 FR 51543 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Study of Enhanced College Advising in Upward Bound | |
80 FR 51482 - Energy Conservation Standards for Commercial and Industrial Fans and Blowers: Availability of Provisional Analysis Tools and Notice of Data Availability | |
80 FR 51527 - Pacific Island Pelagic Fisheries; Exemption for Large U.S. Longline Vessels To Fish in Portions of the American Samoa Large Vessel Prohibited Area | |
80 FR 51543 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; ED School Climate Surveys (EDSCLS) Benchmark Study 2016 | |
80 FR 51476 - International Fisheries; Western and Central Pacific Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species; Fishing Effort Limits in Purse Seine Fisheries for 2015 | |
80 FR 51542 - Independent Review Panel on Military Medical Construction Standards; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
80 FR 51478 - International Fisheries; Western and Central Pacific Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species; Purse Seine Fishing Restrictions During Closure Periods | |
80 FR 51523 - Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Shrimp Fishery of the Gulf of Mexico; Amendment 15 | |
80 FR 51575 - National Maritime Security Advisory Committee; Meeting | |
80 FR 51655 - Advisory Committee on Women Veterans, Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 51603 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
80 FR 51650 - Denial of Motor Vehicle Defect Petition | |
80 FR 51567 - Medical Device Epidemiology Network Registry Task Force Report; Availability, Web Site Location and Request for Comments | |
80 FR 51544 - Advisory Committee on Student Financial Assistance: Meeting | |
80 FR 51580 - Homeland Security Information Network Advisory Committee; Meeting | |
80 FR 51568 - National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program; List of Petitions Received | |
80 FR 51571 - Meeting of the National Vaccine Advisory Committee | |
80 FR 51474 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
80 FR 51554 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
80 FR 51545 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 51546 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
80 FR 51632 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of the Shares of the AltShares Long/Short High Yield Fund of ETFis Series Trust I | |
80 FR 51645 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 to Proposed Rule Change Consisting of Proposed New Rule G-42, on Duties of Non-Solicitor Municipal Advisors, and Proposed Amendments to Rule G-8, on Books and Records To Be Made by Brokers, Dealers, Municipal Securities Dealers, and Municipal Advisors | |
80 FR 51642 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, Relating to Rule 6.53C and Complex Orders on the Hybrid System | |
80 FR 51617 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Amending Section 907.00 of the Listed Company Manual (the “Manual”) To (i) Amend the Suite of Complimentary Products and Services That Are Offered to Certain Current and Newly Listed Companies, (ii) Update the Value of Complimentary Products and Services Offered to Listed Companies, and (iii) Provide That Complimentary Products and Services Would Also Be Offered to Companies that Transfer Their Listing to the Exchange From Another National Securities Exchange | |
80 FR 51615 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Chapter XV, Section 3 Entitled “NASDAQ Options Market-Access Services” | |
80 FR 51641 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Miami International Securities Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Fee Schedule | |
80 FR 51627 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Relating to Surveillance Agreements | |
80 FR 51622 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Relating to Surveillance Agreements | |
80 FR 51638 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; National Securities Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 and No Objection to Advance Notice Filing, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, to Establish a Prefunded Liquidity Program As Part of NSCC's Liquidity Risk Management | |
80 FR 51594 - Renewal of Agency Information Collection for the Application for Admission to Haskell Indian Nations University and to Southwestern Indian Polytechnic Institute | |
80 FR 51595 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Accounts Receivable Confirmations-OMB Control Number 1012-0001; Comment Request | |
80 FR 51597 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Delegated and Cooperative Activities With States and Indian Tribes-OMB Control Number 1012-0003; Comment Request | |
80 FR 51588 - Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Comment Request; FHA Insured Title I Property Improvement and Manufactured Home Loan Programs | |
80 FR 51593 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Section 3 Summary Report for Economic Opportunities for Low and Very Low Income Persons (Form HUD 60002) and Section 3 Complaint Register (Form HUD 958) | |
80 FR 51593 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Insurance Termination Request for Multifamily Mortgage | |
80 FR 51531 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request-Generic Clearance for the Development of Nutrition Education Messages and Products for the General Public | |
80 FR 51650 - Determination Under the Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act | |
80 FR 51604 - Hearings of the Judicial Conference Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence | |
80 FR 51573 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
80 FR 51574 - National Institute of Dental & Craniofacial Research; Notice of Meeting | |
80 FR 51532 - Codex Alimentarius Commission: Meeting of the Codex Committee on Food Hygiene | |
80 FR 51469 - Drawbridge Operation Regulations; Northeast Cape Fear River, Wilmington, NC | |
80 FR 51469 - Drawbridge Operation Regulations; Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Wrightsville Beach, NC | |
80 FR 51654 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
80 FR 51470 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Klamath Falls, Oregon Nonattainment Area; Fine Particulate Matter Emissions Inventory and SIP Strengthening Measures | |
80 FR 51499 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of Utah; Revisions to the Utah Division of Administrative Rules, R307-300 Series; Area Source Rules for Attainment of Fine Particulate Matter Standards | |
80 FR 51476 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
80 FR 51538 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Expenditure Survey of Atlantic Highly Migratory Species Tournaments and Participants | |
80 FR 51609 - Report on Countries That Are Candidates for Millennium Challenge Account Eligibility in Fiscal Year 2016 and Countries That Would Be Candidates But For Legal Prohibitions | |
80 FR 51538 - Availability of Seats for National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Councils, Correction | |
80 FR 51488 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 51506 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Determination of Critical Habitat for the Marbled Murrelet | |
80 FR 51491 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 51466 - Federal Housing Administration (FHA): Standardizing Method of Payment for FHA Insurance Claims | |
80 FR 51424 - Energy Conservation Program: Test Procedures for External Power Supplies | |
80 FR 51443 - Airworthiness Directives; Cessna Aircraft Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 51456 - Airworthiness Directives; SOCATA Airplanes | |
80 FR 51454 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Helicopters | |
80 FR 51447 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
80 FR 51459 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
80 FR 51461 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
80 FR 51450 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
80 FR 51658 - Migratory Bird Hunting; Proposed Frameworks for Late-Season Migratory Bird Hunting Regulations | |
80 FR 51684 - Applications by Security-Based Swap Dealers or Major Security-Based Swap Participants for Statutorily Disqualified Associated Persons To Effect or Be Involved in Effecting Security-Based Swaps |
Food Safety and Inspection Service
Economic Analysis Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Western Area Power Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
Office of Natural Resources Revenue
Antitrust Division
Federal Aviation Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Final rule.
This final rule implements OMB's guidance on Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, published on December 26, 2013. NARA published an interim final rule proposing its implementation of OMB's new requirements on December 19, 2014 (79 FR 75871), along with other Federal awarding agencies. NARA received no comments on the interim final rule and by this action adopts the rule as final.
This rule is final on September 24, 2015.
Contact Kimberly Keravuori, by telephone at 301-837-3151, by email at
On December 26, 2013, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) streamlined the Federal Government's guidance on Federal awards and published final guidance in the
As stated in 2 CFR 200.110 of the guidance, Federal agencies must implement the OMB guidance on Federal awards by regulatory action. Implementing the Uniform Guidance will reduce administrative burden and risk of waste, fraud, and abuse for the approximately $600 billion per year awarded in Federal financial assistance. The result will be more Federal dollars reprogrammed to support the mission, new entities able to compete and win awards, and ultimately a stronger framework to provide key services to American citizens and support the basic research that underpins the United Stated economy.
In accord with this requirement, on December 19, 2014, OMB and Federal awarding agencies, including NARA, published a joint interim final rule in the
NARA's portion of the joint interim rule adopted OMB's new guidance by replacing 2 CFR 2600, making minor revisions to 36 CFR 1206 (regulations for the National Historical Publications and Records Commission, NARA's grant-making organization) to reflect adoption of 2 CFR 200, and removing 36 CFR 1207 and 1210 (which were rendered obsolete by the new provisions). Additional NARA grant administration policies in 36 CFR parts 1202, 1206, 1208, 1211, and 1212 remained in effect.
NARA received no comments on these proposed changes.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Ch. 3506; 5 CFR 1320 Appendix A.1) (PRA), we reviewed the final rule and determined that there are no new collections of information contained therein. However, the OMB uniform guidance in 2 CFR 200 may have a negligible effect on burden estimates for existing information collections, including recordkeeping requirements for non-Federal entities that receive Federal awards.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires an agency that is issuing a final rule to provide a final regulatory flexibility analysis or to certify that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The common interim final rule implemented OMB final guidance issued on December 26, 2013, and will not have a significant economic impact beyond the impact of the December 2013 guidance; the same remains true for this final rule.
Pursuant to Executive Order 12866, OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) has designated this joint interim final rule to be significant.
Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 Determination
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Unfunded Mandates Act) (2 U.S.C. 1532) requires that covered agencies
OMB determined that the joint interim final rule did not have any Federalism implications, as required by Executive Order 13132. The same remains true for NARA's final rule.
Accounting, Administrative practice and procedure, Appeal procedures, Auditing, Audit requirements, Colleges and universities, Cost principles, Grant administration, Grant programs, Hospitals, Intergovernmental relations, Nonprofit organizations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Research misconduct, Small business, State and local governments, Tribal governments.
Archives and records, Grant programs—education, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accounting, Archives and records, Audit requirements, Grant administration, Grant programs, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, State and local governments.
Accounting, Archives and records, Audit requirements, Colleges and universities, Grant administration, Grant programs, Nonprofit organizations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, under the authority in 44 U.S.C. 2104(a); 44 U.S.C. 2501-2506; and 2 CFR 200, NARA adopts as a final rule without change the interim rule amending 2 CFR 2600, 36 CFR 1206, 1207, and 1210, which was published at 79 FR 75871 on December 19, 2014.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Final rule.
On October 9, 2014, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) to amend the test procedure for External Power Supplies (EPSs). That proposed rulemaking serves as the basis for this final rule. The U.S. Department of Energy is issuing a final rule amending its test procedure for external power supplies. These changes, which will not affect the measured energy use, will harmonize the instrumentation resolution and uncertainty requirements with the second edition of the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 62301 standard when measuring standby power along with other international standards programs, and clarify certain testing set-up requirements. This final rule also clarifies which products are subject to energy conservation standards.
The effective date of this rule is September 24, 2015.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this rule was approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of September 24, 2015.
The docket, which includes
A link to the docket Web page can be found at:
For further information on how to review the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
Direct requests for additional information may be sent to Mr. Jeremy Dommu, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-2J, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC, 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-9870.
Email:
In the office of the General Counsel, contact Mr. Michael Kido, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC, 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-8145. Email:
Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (42 U.S.C. 6291,
Under EPCA, the energy conservation program consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing, (2) labeling, (3) Federal energy conservation standards, and (4) certification and enforcement procedures. The testing requirements consist of test procedures that manufacturers of covered products must use as the basis for (1) certifying to DOE that their products comply with the applicable energy conservation standards adopted under EPCA, and (2) making representations about the efficiency of those products. Similarly, DOE must use these test procedures to determine whether the products comply with any relevant standards promulgated under EPCA.
Under 42 U.S.C. 6293, EPCA sets forth the criteria and procedures DOE follows when prescribing or amending test procedures for covered products. EPCA provides in relevant part that any test procedures prescribed or amended under this section shall be reasonably designed to produce test results that measure the energy efficiency, energy use, or estimated annual operating cost of a covered product during a representative average use cycle or period of use and shall not be unduly burdensome to conduct. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(3))
In addition, when DOE determines that a test procedure requires amending, it publishes a notice with the proposed changes and offers the public an opportunity to comment on the proposal. (42 U.S.C. 6293(b)(2)) As part of this process, DOE determines the extent to which, if any, the proposed test procedure would alter the measured energy efficiency of any covered product as determined under the existing test procedure. (42 U.S.C. 6293(e)(1))
Section 135 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005 (EPACT 2005), Public Law 109-58 (Aug. 8, 2005), amended sections 321 and 325 of EPCA by adding certain provisions related to external power supplies (EPSs). Among these provisions were new definitions defining what constitutes an EPS and a requirement that DOE prescribe “definitions and test procedures for the power use of battery chargers and external power supplies.” (42 U.S.C. 6295(u)(1)(A)) DOE complied with this requirement by publishing a test procedure final rule that, among other things, established a new Appendix Z to address the testing of EPSs to measure their energy efficiency and power consumption. See 71 FR 71340 (Dec. 8, 2006) (codified at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, Appendix Z “Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of External Power Supplies”).
Congress further amended EPCA's EPS provisions through its enactment of the Energy Independence and Security Act of 2007 (EISA 2007), Public Law 110-140 (Dec. 19, 2007). That law amended sections 321, 323, and 325 of EPCA. These changes are noted below.
Section 301 of EISA 2007 amended section 321 of EPCA by modifying the EPS-related definitions found in 42 U.S.C. 6291. While EPACT 2005 defined an EPS as “an external power supply circuit that is used to convert household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current to operate a consumer product,”
Section 310 of EISA 2007 amended section 325 of EPCA by defining the terms “active mode,” “standby mode,” and “off mode.” Each of these modes corresponds to the operational status of a given product—
DOE further amended Appendix Z by adding a test method for multiple-voltage EPSs, 76 FR 31750 (June 1, 2011). The amendments also revised the definition of “active power” and clarified how to test an EPS that has a current-limiting function, that can communicate with its load, or that combines the current-limiting function with the ability to communicate with a load. A current-limited EPS is one that can significantly lower its output voltage once an internal output current limit has been exceeded, while an EPS that communicates with its load refers to an EPS's ability to identify or otherwise exchange information with its load (
After releasing a preliminary analysis and issuing a proposed set of energy conservation standards, DOE published a final rule prescribing new standards for non-Class A EPSs and amended standards for some Class A EPSs. See 79 FR 7845 (Feb. 20, 2014). EPSs manufactured on or after February 10, 2016 must comply with these standards; for products built outside the U.S., EPSs imported on or after February 10, 2016, must comply with the new standards.
Following the publication of these standards, DOE received many follow-up questions and requests for clarification regarding the testing of EPSs. To address these issues, DOE published a test procedure NOPR on October 9, 2014, which proposed amending the EPS test procedure to ensure sufficient clarity regarding EPS testing and certification. 79 FR 60996. As part of the proposed rule, DOE outlined certain clarifications to Appendix Z to eliminate any testing ambiguity when measuring the efficiency of an EPS. DOE also proposed to include additional, but optional, measurements within Appendix Z concerning EPS power factor and other loading points outside those previously codified in the CFR. Lastly, DOE expressed its intent to consider all EPSs within the scope of the standards under a single sampling plan rather than maintaining separate sampling plans for Class A EPSs and non-Class A EPSs.
Upon stakeholder request, DOE held a public meeting on November 21, 2014, to discuss these proposed changes to the EPS test procedure. Prior to that meeting, DOE extended the initial deadline for submitting comments. See 79 FR 65351 (Nov. 4, 2014). DOE noted this change at the public meeting. DOE analyzed all of the comments received in response to the October 2014 test procedure NOPR from the list of commenters in Table I-1 and incorporated recommendations, where appropriate, into this test procedure final rule.
This final rule amends the DOE test procedure for EPSs. The amendments are based on the proposed changes in the test procedure NOPR. While DOE is adopting many of the proposals from the NOPR, some of the proposed amendments have been removed from consideration or modified based on stakeholder feedback. As indicated in greater detail below, these amendments clarify the current procedure in Appendix Z and the definitions set forth in 10 CFR 430.2, as well as update the materials incorporated by reference in 10 CFR 430.3. This rule also amends 10 CFR 430.32(w) by inserting a table to more clearly identify applicable EPS standards based on whether the EPS is (1) a Class A or non-Class A EPS and (2) direct or indirect operation. These minor amendments will eliminate any potential ambiguity contained in the test procedure and clarify the regulatory text to ensure that regulated entities fully understand the long-standing views and interpretations of DOE with respect to the application and implementation of the test procedure and the scope of the EPS standards. These amendments will not affect the measured energy use of these products. Instead, they will clarify the manner in which to test for compliance with the EPS energy conservation standards.
First, this final rule harmonizes DOE's test procedure with the latest version of IEC 62301 by providing specific resolution and measurement tolerances. These specifications will help to ensure that testing is performed with equipment that is capable of reaching these tolerances and that the resulting measurements are consistent.
Second, DOE is outlining the testing configurations that can be used to avoid potential losses caused by testing cables. Appendix Z currently does not clearly outline how multiple measurement devices that operate simultaneously should be connected to a unit under test (UUT). These changes remove the potential for electrical energy losses in the measurement cables and help ensure accurate and repeatable results.
Third, DOE is clarifying that when testing an EPS that is incapable of being tested at one or more of the loading conditions used to calculate the average active mode efficiency, such conditions will be omitted when calculating this metric. Instead, the average active mode efficiency will be determined by averaging the efficiency results at each of the loading conditions that can be measured.
Fourth, this final rule defines and clarifies how to test adaptive EPSs (also referred to as “adaptive-charging,” “smart-charging,” or “quick-charging” EPSs). Because these types of EPSs were not considered when the current test procedure was first adopted, Appendix Z did not explicitly address the unique characteristics of these types of EPSs to ensure reproducible and repeatable results. This final rule makes certain clarifications to address these products by providing a standardized method for all manufacturers and testing laboratories to follow when testing an adaptive EPS.
Fifth, DOE is including a table within 10 CFR 430.32 (“Energy and water conservation standards and their compliance dates”) that clearly outlines which sets of standards apply to which EPS classes. The inclusion of the table is again meant to provide clarity to manufacturers who are trying to determine the applicable standards.
Sixth, DOE is adopting the same sampling plan that is already in place for Class A EPSs for those EPSs that will be subject to standards for the first time in 2016. These revisions consolidate all EPSs that are subject to standards under a single sampling plan and provide manufacturers with the necessary procedures they will need to follow when certifying their EPSs as compliant with the applicable standards. Previously, DOE only provided a sampling plan for Class A EPSs and reserved a second sampling plan for non-Class A EPSs. By adopting a single sampling plan that applies to all EPSs in this final rule, DOE is creating a single, statistically sufficient approach for ensuring that a given EPS basic model complies with the applicable standards.
Finally, this rule incorporates text from the California Energy Commission's (CEC) “Test Method for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Single-Voltage External AC-DC and AC-AC Power Supplies” into Appendix Z. This document is already incorporated by reference in the current language of Appendix Z. DOE believes that by adopting the referenced text directly, it will help to reduce the testing burden on manufacturers and clarify the intended test methods within a single document.
A summary of these amendments to specific sections of 10 CFR part 430 can be found in Table II-1.
To ease the overall burden involved with the testing of EPSs, and to continue to improve DOE's efforts at harmonizing its testing requirements where feasible to do so, DOE proposed to incorporate by reference into the EPS test procedure the second edition of IEC 62301. The IEC published Edition 2.0 of IEC 62301 in January 2011, shortly before DOE's previous revision to the EPS test procedure. 76 FR 31750. This revised version of the testing standard refined the test equipment specifications, measuring techniques, and uncertainty determination to improve the method for measuring loads with high crest factors and/or low power factors, such as the low power modes typical of EPSs operating in no-load mode. Incorporating this edition into the EPS test procedure would encompass the resolution parameters for power measurements and uncertainty methodologies found in Section 4 (General conditions for measurements) as well as the associated references to Annexes B (Notes on the measurement of low power modes) and D (Determination of uncertainty of measurement) within that section of the second edition of the IEC 62301 standard. While harmonizing with the latest IEC standard is a statutory requirement, DOE nonetheless requested stakeholder feedback regarding the proposed revisions.
TIA, the CA IOUs, NRDC, and Schneider Electric were all supportive of DOE's proposal to harmonize with the latest resolution and uncertainty requirements in the second edition of IEC 62301. (TIA, No.17 at p.2;
With the unanimous support of stakeholders and the statutory mandate to harmonize with the latest IEC standard, DOE is amending the EPS test procedure, codified in Appendix Z of Subpart B to 10 CFR 430, in this final rule to incorporate by reference the second edition of IEC 62301. DOE is specifically referencing the second edition of this standard and is not adopting the proposed approach of referencing the most recent version. DOE lacks authority to adopt a “generic” provision for incorporation by reference. Any standard must be specifically approved for incorporation by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51; furthermore, in order to request approval, the agency must summarize the pertinent parts of the standard in the preamble of both the proposed and final rules. (1 CFR 51.5). Accordingly, references to IEC 62301 are limited to the second edition and its relevant annexes. As part of these amendments, DOE will also amend section 430.3 “Materials incorporated by reference” to add Appendix Z to the list of test procedures that reference the second edition of IEC 62301.
In the NOPR, DOE attempted to clarify certain sections within the DOE test procedure to ensure the test procedure provides accurate, repeatable and reproducible test results. DOE had previously proposed, and ultimately finalized, requirements in 2006 that incorporated by reference certain sections of a test procedure adopted by the California Energy Commission (CEC) into Appendix Z. See generally, 71 FR 71339 (Dec. 8, 2006) (final rule incorporating elements of the CEC test procedure for EPSs). That procedure—“Test Method for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Single-Voltage External AC-DC and AC-AC Power Supplies (August 11, 2004)”—contained a number of provisions, including one (“Measurement Approach”) that outlined how UUTs should be conditioned and connected to metering equipment to properly perform the test regardless of the type of load. While this provision generally describes the testing set-up to follow, it also contains gaps that could lead to inconsistent results when testing an EPS.
DOE specifically noted that the CEC procedure offers no clear instructions regarding how to avoid introducing additional efficiency losses when connecting additional metering equipment, such as voltmeters and ammeters. Using data it collected from investigative testing concerning multiple interpretations of the test procedure text, DOE found that technicians could measure a lower voltage on the output of the UUT when using a voltmeter and ammeter to determine the power consumption if the voltmeter is connected farther down the circuit path than the series ammeter connection. Such inconsistencies would not occur if the voltmeter were instead physically and electrically connected directly to the output of the UUT. In theory, the ammeter acts as a dead short (
The CA IOUs and NRDC both agreed with DOE's proposal to clarify the language in the CEC test procedure within its own EPS procedure to accurately capture real world losses without introducing any additional losses from the test equipment. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.2; NRDC,
In DOE's view, the adoption of the proposed revisions will enhance the usability and repeatability of the current test procedure. Based on the stakeholder comments noted above, in addition to adopting the language proposed in the NOPR to make these connections at the output cable of the EPS, DOE has included a configuration diagram for connecting additional metering equipment between the electronic or resistive load and the output of the UTT. Adding this diagram, in addition to being consistent with DOE's proposal, will help maximize the level of clarity for tests when conducting the test procedure, thereby minimizing the risk of obtaining significantly different results regarding the energy usage of a tested EPS. Figure III.1 which will be included as part of the regulatory text, illustrates an example on how to connect the test equipment to the UUT.
This diagram only illustrates one possible connection assuming a single-voltage EPS, but DOE believes it will also help to provide further aid to technicians in addition to the new test procedure language. These two descriptions, in combination, will help avoid errors caused by differing interpretations of the test procedure language. As stakeholders correctly noted, ensuring a correct connection will reduce any additional losses in the circuit path by eliminating the influence of the testing leads and their contact resistance. Measuring the efficiency of a UUT at any other point would significantly depart from the test methodology currently in place. If DOE were to adopt the measurement method proposed by Wahl, it would allow manufacturers to ignore the DC output cord losses associated with their products. Such an allowance would ease the design burden on manufacturers and result in more products on the EPS market that are less efficient than the recently amended efficiency standards intended. Accordingly, DOE is not adopting Wahl's suggestion and is not requiring a certain type of setup (such as a Kelvin connection), as suggested by ITI. Instead, DOE has adopted its proposed approach and is clarifying the regulatory text by specifying that additional metering equipment should be physically and electrically connected at the end of the output cable of the UUT.
The EPS test procedure produces five output values that are used to determine whether a tested EPS complies with Federal standards. These output values (or metrics) are outlined in sections 4(a)(i) and 5(b)(i)(A)(5) of Appendix Z and include active mode efficiency measurements at 25 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, and 100 percent load as well as the total power consumption of an EPS at 0 percent load. The measured efficiency levels at the loading points (
However, as noted in the NOPR, DOE has become aware of other EPS designs which use hiccup protection at loading conditions under 100 percent as a form of fault protection and reset. These EPSs will drive the output voltage down to zero to eliminate any power delivery when the end-use product demands less than a certain percentage of the nameplate output current. Once the output has been reduced to zero, the EPS will periodically check the output load conditions by momentarily reestablishing the nameplate output voltage and monitoring the resulting current draw. If the minimum output current is not reached during these periods, the output voltage is driven to zero again and the EPS output power drops to zero. Similar to EPSs that utilize output current-limiting at maximum load, these EPSs cannot be tested properly under the current DOE test procedure when testing at loading conditions where the hiccup protection is implemented.
To quantify the active mode efficiency of these EPSs, DOE proposed to amend section 4(a)(i)(C) of Appendix Z (which includes a procedure to test those EPSs that list both an instantaneous and continuous output current) to require that in cases where an EPS cannot sustain output at one or more of the four loading conditions, these loading conditions should not be measured. Instead, for these EPSs, the average efficiency would be the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain output. In addition to this provision, DOE proposed to define the “average active mode efficiency” of an EPS as the average of the active mode efficiencies recorded when an EPS is loaded at 100 percent, 75 percent, 50 percent, and 25 percent of its nameplate output current. DOE believed that defining average active mode efficiency would assist manufacturers in preparing certification reports and provide additional clarity as to which metrics are considered for compliance with the federal standards. DOE sought comment on the benefits or burdens of representing the average active mode efficiency of these devices as the average of the efficiencies at the loading conditions that can be tested and on the proposed definition for average active mode efficiency.
ITI and Schneider Electric both favored letting manufacturers of EPSs with hiccup protection test their products using only the loading conditions that can be tested. (ITI, No.10 at p.3; Schneider Electric, No.13 at p.3) However, PTI and AHAM disagreed with DOE's proposal over concerns that manufacturers would be punished for innovation and designing for overall energy savings. AHAM stated that current-limiting technologies are a well-developed feature of EPS design and could possibly deliver less power more efficiently at the loading conditions by entering states similar to hiccup protection. (AHAM, No.11 at p.3) PTI agreed with AHAM, stating that manufacturers should not be punished for finding methods of lowering power consumption and that DOE should take the issue under further study to fully understand the impact of the proposed changes (PTI, No.15 at p.2).
The EPS test procedure was developed to apply to any EPS that is subject to Federal energy conservation standards. EPSs are regulated based on the power conversion efficiency at multiple loading points and the no-load power consumption. While DOE recognizes that EPS active mode efficiency is optimized based on the loading conditions expected by the end-use product, DOE's method of measuring efficiency across the entire loading spectrum ensures that the EPS efficiency is quantifiable and repeatable for all EPSs subject to the federal efficiency standards regardless of usage profiles. The fact that an EPS uses current-limiting techniques at specific loading conditions means that the EPS cannot support such loading conditions and will instead revert to a lower power state when such load demands are required. This means that the state of operation when the current-limiting process is initiated is not representative of the EPS's ability to deliver the required loading point current to the end-use product. Accordingly, DOE believes that any efficiency measurements taken under these circumstances would not represent the actual conversion efficiency at the loading condition where current-limiting occurs and should therefore not be included in the average active mode efficiency. Additionally, DOE is aware of current-limiting techniques utilized in EPSs at only very high loads or lower loads relative to the EPS's nameplate output power. While EPS efficiency tends to decrease at these loading conditions, the conversion efficiency is typically the poorest at very low loads. When EPSs enter current-limiting, low power states, they deliver a much lower power to the end-use product and the conversion efficiency suffers. Therefore, excluding these measurements from the average active-mode efficiency metric would not impair innovation or other energy efficiency efforts because average active-mode efficiency would only include the efficiency at the loading conditions that can be sustained, and not include loading conditions that are represented by lower power, but decreased conversion efficiency. DOE also believes, contrary to AHAM and PTI's comments, that this will result in an advantage to manufacturers by requiring them to calculate average active-mode efficiency using only the higher efficiency measurements taken at the loading conditions that the EPS can sustain. As a result, DOE is codifying in this final rule its definition for average active mode efficiency as the average of the loading conditions (100 percent, 75 percent, 50 percent, and 25 percent of its nameplate output current) for which the EPS can sustain the output current.
As discussed in the NOPR, power factor is a relative measure of transmission losses between the power plant and an item plugged into AC mains (
DOE stated that power factor is a critical component in establishing the overall efficiency profile of EPSs. Most of the efficient power supplies available on the market today use switched-mode topologies (
The CA IOUs and NRDC urged that power factor be measured at each loading condition because the power factor affects the overall system efficiency. Both also urged DOE to make power factor measurements mandatory for EPSs with a nameplate output power exceeding 50 watts. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.3; NRDC, et al., No.18 at p.4) NRDC agreed with DOE's initial assessment that the additional burden placed on manufacturers would be minimal as most modern day power meters are capable of measuring true power factor and collecting such data would allow for a complete analysis of the impact of EPS power factor on energy consumption. (NRDC, et al., No.18 at p.4) Several stakeholders, however, disagreed with DOE's proposal to include optional power factor measurements at each loading condition.
ITI and Schneider Electric both stated that they do not support measuring power factor below loads of 75 watts. (ITI, No.10 at p.3; Schneider, No.13 at p.3) ITI and Schneider questioned the value of measuring this value. They also noted that global criteria were available to measure power factor at ratings of 75 watts and higher. AHAM also suggested that DOE refrain from including power factor measurements and to instead focus on product efficiency, noting that without defined test parameters such as source impedance there cannot be meaningful and repeatable power factor measurements. (AHAM, No.11 at p.3) TIA expressed similar concerns, stating that expanding the rule beyond product efficiency to power distribution will only serve to increase stakeholder confusion when the emphasis of the test procedure should be focused on product efficiencies. (TIA, No.17 at p.3) PTI argued that power factor is outside the scope of the rulemaking to provide meaningful measures of energy efficiency. (PTI, No.15 at p.3)
After carefully considering these comments, DOE has decided, at this time, not to adopt a voluntary provision to record power factor. As noted by several commenters and by DOE itself, see 79 FR at 61001, the efficiency impacts attributable to lower power factors are more pronounced in cases involving higher input powers. The availability of criteria for measuring power factors starting at 75 watts suggests that this power level may be an appropriate minimum power level at which to consider the impacts from power factor. However, DOE currently lacks sufficient data to make a fully informed decision on whether power factor measurements should be limited in this manner. Additionally, even though DOE presented its power factor proposal as a voluntary option, the benefits of the proposal are, at this time, unclear. In light of this situation, along with the significant questions raised by commenters, DOE is declining to adopt this aspect of its proposal. DOE may, however, continue to evaluate the merits of regulating power factor in future energy conservation efforts.
In the test procedure NOPR, DOE described a new EPS technology that enables EPSs that connect to their end-use products via a universal serial bus (USB) to provide higher charging currents than specified in the USB standard by increasing the output voltage of the EPS in cases where the end-use product battery is severely depleted. This technology has the advantage of speeding the charging process and cutting the overall time needed to charge a product's battery. DOE noted that this faster charging was activated through communication lines between the charger and the charge control chip embedded in the end-use device. However, DOE stated that only certain products paired with the necessary chargers are able to communicate and have the EPS provide a higher charging current. The same chargers would not be able to reach the same charging current when paired with a device not capable of this communication.
DOE proposed to refer to these types of EPSs as “adaptive EPSs” and to define them as single-voltage EPSs that can alter their output voltage during active mode based on an established communication protocol with the end-use application without any user-generated action. DOE believed that, due to the fluctuation in the output voltage of adaptive EPSs depending on the state of the end-use product, manufacturers might list multiple output voltages, multiple output currents, and/or multiple output powers to categorize all the potential states of the EPS, making the correct testing conditions difficult to discern within the existing DOE test procedure. To remove this potential ambiguity, DOE proposed that adaptive EPSs would be tested at both the highest and lowest achievable output voltages for loading conditions where output current is greater than 0% of the rated nameplate output current. For the 0% loading condition, or the no-load measurement condition, DOE proposed to add clarifying language stating that the EPS under test must be placed in no-load mode and any additional signal connections to the unit be disconnected prior to measuring input power. DOE believed that if the load was not disconnected from the EPS entirely, but instead, the current demand was decreased to zero electronically with the load still physically connected, that the output voltage may remain artificially high and impact the results of the no-load power measurement. The higher output voltage would not be representative of the voltage this EPS would operate under in no-load mode, because an adaptive EPS would only output a higher voltage when requested via the adaptive communication protocol. While this methodology was consistent with DOE's approach to testing switch-selectable EPSs, DOE sought input from stakeholders on its proposal and any additional proposals that may increase the accuracy of the test method.
Several stakeholders commented on DOE's proposed definition of an adaptive EPS. Both the CA IOUs and ITI supported DOE's proposed definition of
DOE is not aware of any existing adaptive EPS technology that relies on analog communication. Nonetheless, some stakeholders have urged DOE to provide further guidance as to what can be considered an adaptive EPS. To this end, DOE is clarifying its adaptive EPS definition by incorporating PTI's suggestion that the communication protocol used by adaptive EPSs is digital. Consequently, an adaptive EPS is an EPS that can alter its output voltage during active-mode based on an established digital communication protocol with the end-use application without any user-generated action. By specifying the use of digital communication, DOE seeks to remove any classification ambiguity related to the line and load fluctuations that are common with any power supply and help clarify the intended definition proposed in the NOPR.
DOE also received feedback from stakeholders on its proposed approach to testing adaptive EPSs. While recognizing the limitations of the proposed approach, NRDC and the CA IOUs nevertheless supported DOE's proposed approach to test adaptive EPSs at the highest and lowest achievable output voltages. (NRDC, et al., No. 18 at p.6, CA IOUs, No. 16 at p.2) However, the CA IOUs stated that DOE should test adaptive EPSs with and without the communication enabled at both the highest and lowest output voltage to establish the most accurate no-load power consumption metric. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.2-3) AHAM, however, stated that EPSs should be tested at the nameplate rating regardless of whether they are adaptive EPSs and that the product classification should be decided by the manufacturer. AHAM also stated it was unclear whether the current procedure could not be performed on adaptive EPSs—and if it could, in its view, there would be no reason to make a change for these EPSs. (AHAM, No.11 at p.3)
Other stakeholders provided DOE with additional information concerning the likely nameplate markings of adaptive EPSs. Both Schneider Electric and ITI commented that adaptive EPSs should align with the IEC 60950 standard for safety of information technology equipment, which requires every output voltage to be listed along with the associated output current. (Schneider, No.13 at p.4; ITI, No.10 at p.4).
DOE believes that any test procedure should be flexible enough to apply to several different design variations of one consumer product. Adaptive EPSs are unique among EPSs because of their ability to operate at one power level when communicating with certain consumer products but an inability to reach a similar operating point when used with other consumer products that lack the communication. The EPS test procedure should be able to capture the efficiencies at the various output conditions in which it will operate, which includes these two scenarios. DOE continues to believe that this could be performed by conducting the test twice at each loading condition—once at the highest achievable output voltage that is utilized while communicating with a load and once at the lowest achievable output voltage utilized during load communication. Due to the nature of EPS design, the points in between the highest and lowest output voltage will be no less efficient than either extreme.
The average active-mode efficiency will still be based on the average of the four loading conditions used to measure single-voltage efficiency. However, manufacturers of adaptive EPSs will generate two average active-mode efficiency metrics for each EPS—one based on the average of the efficiencies recorded at the lowest voltage achieved during the charging cycle and one based on the average of the efficiencies recorded at the highest voltage achieved during the charging cycle. This methodology will also allow DOE to maintain consistency with its testing approach for switch-selectable EPSs. Unlike switch-selectable EPSs, DOE will only require manufacturers of adaptive EPSs to certify their products with one no-load power measurement, as such EPSs operate at only one output voltage when in a no-load state.
With respect to no-load mode, switch-selectable EPSs, by definition, can maintain several different output voltages when the end-use product is disconnected from the EPS. The exact output voltage is determined by the position of the switch on the EPS enclosure. The fact that the output voltage can change via a user-generated action means that the no-load power consumption at each output voltage can vary despite the fact that the power drawn from the mains is consumed by the EPS in the no-load state. For this reason, DOE requires manufacturers of switch-selectable EPSs to certify the no-load metric at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltage for these products.
Adaptive EPSs, however, can only maintain higher voltages while communicating with the end-use product via a physical USB connection. During the no-load measurement, the EPS will be disconnected from any load and will, as a result, not be communicating with the end-use product. Placing the EPS into no-load mode will therefore yield a static output voltage such that one measurement will be sufficient to represent the actual power consumption of the EPS when disconnected from the load. DOE will amend section 429.37 to state that manufacturers will be required to submit average active-mode efficiencies at both the highest and lowest nameplate output voltage as well as a single no-load power measurement for adaptive EPSs.
Stakeholders and interested parties also contributed a number of comments related to applicable standards for adaptive EPSs. NRDC and the CA IOUs both stated that adaptive EPSs should meet the applicable standards at both voltage conditions tested under DOE's test methodology. (NRDC, et al., No. 18 at p.6, CA IOUs, No.16 at p.3) However,
The ability of an adaptive EPS to alter its output voltage based on digital communication with an end-use product does not prevent an adaptive EPS from meeting the statutory definition of a Class A EPS as set by Congress in EISA 2007. Among other factors, a Class A EPS is able to convert to only 1 AC or DC output voltage at a time. Based on DOE's understanding of adaptive EPSs, while such EPSs can alter their output voltage, and/or current based on communications received from the end-use product, they still can only output one voltage at any given time. As such, DOE expects many adaptive EPSs to fall within the definition of a Class A EPS, and would therefore, be subject to the currently applicable standards for Class A EPSs. Manufacturers of Class A adaptive EPSs should be compliant and certify compliance with the Class A EPS standards by testing them according to the DOE test procedure. Similarly, these EPSs will be subject to the standards with which compliance in required in February 2016.
DOE currently requires that efficiency measurements be recorded by manufacturers at 0 percent, 25 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, and 100 percent of the nameplate output current load. See 10 CFR 430, Subpart B, Appendix Z. The last four metrics are ultimately averaged to determine the overall active mode efficiency of an EPS. While these measurements span the majority of an EPS's loading profile, consumer loads are increasingly utilizing standby modes to minimize power consumption during periods of inactivity, a development that has resulted in many EPSs spending more time in loading conditions below 25 percent, where the EPS active mode efficiency tends to rapidly decrease due to the increase in the ratio of fixed losses to the output power. This decrease is due in large part to a higher loss ratio where the fixed losses represent a higher percentage of the overall power consumed when compared to the output power.
To collect data on EPS efficiency and energy consumption at these lower loading points, DOE proposed to add an optional, loading condition at 10% the nameplate output current of the EPS under test to the test procedure in the NOPR. DOE cited research conducted by NRDC
The CA IOUs agreed that an additional measurement at 10% of the tested EPS's nameplate output power could be an important measurement when characterizing the energy consumption of EPSs and supported DOE's intention to exclude it from the average active mode efficiency metric. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.2) In fact, both NRDC and the CA IOUs urged DOE to make the 10% measurement mandatory for all EPSs with a nameplate output power exceeding 50 watts in order to capture efficiency data for EPSs typically used with products that spend a significant portion of time in lower power modes such as laptops. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.3; NRDC, et al., No.18 at p.3) However, several other stakeholders disagreed with DOE's proposed approach.
ITI questioned the utility of including a 10% loading condition as an optional measurement, asserted that such a requirement would be burdensome without clearly being useful and noted that DOE should not expect to see significantly higher efficiency gains made at lower loads. ITI added that the inclusion of an additional 10% loading point does not more completely represent the achievable efficiencies of EPSs. (ITI, No.10 at p.5) ITI added that while the 10% loading point could represent achievable efficiencies for some EPSs in certain industries, it would not be universally applicable. See id. Schneider Electric agreed with ITI, stating that the 10% loading condition may more accurately capture the achievable efficiencies of EPSs in certain industries but not all. (Schneider, No.13 at p.5) PTI stated similarly that the currently-followed approach of averaging of the four loading conditions within the test procedure is already questionable because EPSs generally operate at higher loads and adding a 10% loading condition moves DOE further away from its intended goal of measuring EPS efficiency under typical usage. (PTI, No.15 at p.3) AHAM added that the inclusion of a 10% loading condition gives a low loading level the same weight as a much higher loading condition. (AHAM, No.11 at p.3) Lastly, TIA stated that DOE should not include an additional loading point measurement within the test procedure even in an optional capacity unless it has collected data that would support such a revision. (TIA, No.17 at p.3)
After carefully considering these comments, DOE has re-evaluated its proposal to include an additional, optional active-mode efficiency measurement at 10% of an EPS's nameplate output power and is declining to include such a measurement in the test procedure at this time. While DOE does not believe this addition would have presented a significant burden to manufacturers, the fact that the measurement would have been optional leads DOE to believe that the likelihood of gathering substantial data on EPS efficiency at lower loads through voluntary additions to certification reports would be very low. Instead, DOE may opt to further evaluate the merits of recording additional loading point measurements prior to setting any future recording requirement at this or another level. As part of this effort, DOE may continue to evaluate any potential loading conditions that may better represent the total energy consumption of EPSs associated with various consumer products rather than focusing entirely
After receiving several questions concerning the amended standards for EPSs issued on February 10, 2014, DOE proposed in the NOPR to amend 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(iii) to include a clarifying table to more clearly identify which EPS standards apply based on whether the EPS is (1) a Class A or non-Class A EPS and (2) direct or indirect operation. As currently defined in DOE's regulations at 10 CFR 430.2, a “direct operation EPS” is an EPS that can operate a consumer product that is not a battery charger without the assistance of a battery, whereas an “indirect operation EPS” is an EPS that cannot operate a consumer product (other than a battery charger) without the assistance of a battery. The applicable standards for each combination of these products can be seen in Table III-1 below.
DOE intended the definitions of direct operation and indirect operation EPSs to be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive, so that any EPS would be either a direct or indirect operation EPS, but not both. The new regulations required that any direct-operation EPS (regardless of whether it was also a Class A EPS) would have to meet these new standards. Any indirect operation EPS would not be required to meet the new standards, but would still be required to comply with the Class A efficiency requirements if that EPS meets the definition of a Class A EPS. The Class A EPS definition is found in 42 U.S.C. 6291(36). DOE also updated the International Efficiency Marking Protocol to add a new mark, “VI,” to indicate compliance with the new efficiency requirements established for direct operation EPSs. In order to assist manufacturers in determining which standards apply to their product, DOE proposed to add Table III-1 to 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(iii).
NRDC supported DOE's clarification on which standards apply to which types of EPSs and the proposed revisions to the CFR. (NRDC et al., No.18 at p.2) There were no comments opposing the inclusion of the clarifying table. As such, DOE is amending 10 CFR 430.32(w)(1)(iii) to include Table III-1. Although DOE had intended the definitions of direct operation and indirect operation EPSs to be collectively exhaustive, DOE now believes that these terms may not adequately describe the full range of EPSs available. Nonetheless, Table 1 does accurately reflect the relationship between the new standards and classifications and the statutory standards and classifications. Additionally, since manufacturers must use the test procedure in Appendix Z to Subpart B of Part 430 when making any representation of the energy efficiency or energy consumption of an external power supply that is within the scope of the test procedure.
DOE is also clarifying that only those external power supplies subject to the energy conservation standards fall within the scope of the test procedure. By excluding external power supplies that are not subject to standards from the scope of the test procedure, manufacturers of these EPSs will not have to use Appendix Z when making representations of the energy efficiency or energy consumption of those EPSs.
In addition to the clarifications made in this final rule, DOE expects to address additional issues that were raised in the context of this rulemaking in a forthcoming notice of proposed rulemaking related to external power supplies.
The NOPR discussed whether EPSs that power battery chargers contained in separate physical enclosures from their end-use products would be considered indirect operation EPSs under the proposed test procedure. 79 FR at 61005. DOE noted that a battery charger is considered a consumer product in and of itself, and DOE is currently undertaking a rulemaking to consider establishing efficiency standards for battery chargers. Because that rulemaking would encompass the efficiency of EPSs that power battery chargers, DOE has defined direct operation EPS to exclude such EPSs. See 10 CFR 430.2 (“Direct operation external power supply means an external power supply that can operate a consumer product that is not a battery charger without the assistance of a battery.”). An EPS that can only operate a battery charger in a separate physical enclosure from the end-use product, but not any other consumer product, is not a direct operation EPS, and would therefore, not be subject to the efficiency standards for direct operation EPSs. See 79 FR 7859, 7929. DOE proposed to modify the indirect operation EPS definition to clarify that EPSs that can only operate battery chargers contained in physical enclosures separate from the end-use products (but not other consumer products) are indirect operation EPSs. The proposed definition specified that an indirect operation EPS is an EPS that (1) cannot operate a consumer product (that is not a battery charger) without the assistance of a battery or (2) solely provides power to a battery charger that is contained in a separate physical enclosure from the end-use product. DOE received several stakeholder comments on the definition and determination methodology associated with indirect operation EPSs.
NRDC and AHAM both supported DOE's revision to the definition of an indirect operation EPS. (NRDC, et al., No.18 at 2-3, AHAM, No.11 at p.3) AHAM also expressed concern, however, that the determination method for an indirect operation EPS is part of the definition rather than the EPS test procedure. (AHAM, No.11 at p.2) In its view, because determining whether an EPS is an indirect operation EPS involves testing, those steps should be moved to become part of the test procedure. PTI agreed with AHAM's assertion and stated that the determination method needs to be performed in the context of a test procedure that specifies equipment and environmental requirements. (PTI, No.15 at p.3)
ITI disagreed with the proposed revision to the indirect operation EPS definition and suggested removing the clause, “that is contained in a separate physical enclosure from the end-use product,” from that revision. It also urged DOE to provide more clarity as to the meaning of “operate a consumer product.” According to ITI, a consumer product should operate by providing equivalent functionality when being
The indirect operation determination method is not intended to test a product for energy consumption, but to place it into the appropriate product class for standards compliance and remains part of the indirect operation definition itself. Therefore, DOE does not believe that providing specific conditions is necessary for a determination method as opposed to a discrete test procedure. DOE does not see any compelling reason to move a determination of the applicability of the amended federal efficiency standards into the test procedure. Therefore, DOE intends to keep the determination of an indirect operation EPS outside the language of the test procedure.
As has been discussed, an EPS that can only operate a battery charger, but not any other consumer product, may be regulated as part of the battery charger at a later date by separate efficiency standards for battery chargers. After consideration of the issues raised in ITI's comment, DOE believes that further consideration of how best to clarify the indirect operation external power supply definition is warranted. Accordingly, DOE plans to address the definition in a forthcoming notice of proposed rulemaking.
In addition to proposed revisions to the indirect operation definition, DOE attempted to clarify some of the ambiguity regarding standards applicable to EPSs that can be used with multiple end-use applications, some of which are operated directly and others indirectly in the NOPR. See generally, 79 FR 60996. DOE stated that so long as an EPS can operate any consumer product directly, DOE considers it to be a direct operation EPS. If an EPS is shipped with a consumer product that the EPS can only operate indirectly, but that same EPS can also be used to directly operate another consumer product, DOE would still consider that EPS to be a direct operation EPS and subject to the applicable direct operation EPS efficiency standards.
PTI commented that DOE's assertion that an EPS can only be indirect if it is incapable of powering any product directly is unreasonable because a manufacturer could in no way certify that the EPS associated with any end-use product might be used in another manner by a different manufacturer. (PTI, No.15 at p.3) AHAM similarly stated that manufacturers must not be held accountable for consumers using certain EPSs with other products they were never intended to be associated with. (AHAM, No.11 at p.2) ITI recommended that DOE resolve any confusion regarding the certification of products that could be used in multiple configurations by specifying that when an “individual stakeholder” sells an EPS in both configurations, the EPS should comply with the direct operation standards. (ITI, No.10 at p.6)
DOE intended this proposal regarding indirect and direct operation EPSs to clarify the standards applicable to specific EPSs. In stating that so long as an EPS can operate any consumer product directly it is considered a direct operation EPS, DOE intended to refer to a manufacturer's distribution footprint and how its products may be deployed in the field. If, for example, a manufacturer uses one EPS design for a number of consumer products within a design family, and that EPS could be considered a direct operation EPS with one product and an indirect operation EPS with another product within that design family, then the EPS would need to meet the direct operation EPS standards. If the EPS is designed in a way that would make it only capable of operating certain types of products, and those products are operated exclusively indirectly, it would not be subject to the direct operation standards. Similarly, if an original equipment manufacturer (OEM) or an original design manufacturer (ODM) sells an EPS design to be used with other consumer products, the burden then falls on the EPS-certifying manufacturer (typically importers) to understand the intended use of the EPS in the field and certify accordingly. Failure to submit a certification report as a direct operation EPS, however, is not determinative that an EPS is not a direct operation EPS.
In the NOPR, DOE explained that certain components, commonly referred to as “transformers” or “drivers”, that are used with solid state lighting (SSL) applications, would be subject to the Class A EPS energy conservation standards provided that they meet the statutory definition of a Class A EPS. This definition, as established by Congress in EISA 2007, provides six characteristics of a Class A EPS, all of which must be met in order for a device to be considered a Class A EPS. As discussed in the February 10, 2014 final rule, DOE determined that there were no technical differences between the EPSs that power certain SSL (including LED) products and those that are used with other end-use applications that would prevent an EPS used with SSL products from meeting the statutory definition of a Class A EPS. 79 FR 7846. See also 79 FR at 61005-61006 (reiterating DOE's belief that “many drivers, or transformers, used for SSL applications would meet the definition of a Class A EPS and . . . be subject to the applicable energy conservation standards.”) As such, DOE believes that many drivers or transformers, such as LED drivers used for landscape lighting, lighting strings, portable luminaires, and other lighting applications, would meet all six characteristics of a Class A EPS and would therefore be subject to the applicable energy conservation standards. In the NOPR public meeting, DOE provided further guidance on how manufacturers should interpret the six characteristics of a Class A EPS as it relates to SSL applications.
Specifically, DOE clarified at the public meeting that an EPS is designed to convert line voltage AC input into lower voltage AC or DC output and explained that because fluorescent ballasts output higher voltage AC waveforms than the line voltage input they receive, they would not be considered an EPS. See Transcript (Pub. Mtg. Transcript, No. 9 at p. 47-48). During the meeting, DOE also discussed that one of the Class A criteria is that the device must be contained in a separate physical enclosure from the end-use product. Because many LED drivers are contained inside the same housing as the luminaire itself, these devices would not be considered Class A EPSs because they are contained within the same physical enclosure of the end-use product.
In response to the proposed rule, DOE received several comments on how to apply the statutory criteria for EPSs, particularly in the context of SSL drivers. The CA IOUs agreed that, with limited exceptions, drivers and transformers for SSL products meet the criteria to be considered within the scope of the rulemaking. (CA IOUs, No.16 at p.2) However, NEMA took issue with a number of aspects of DOE's approach regarding SSL products. It disagreed with DOE's conclusion that there are no technical differences between SSL drivers and other types of EPSs included within the scope of the revised EPS standards, citing such additional features as dimming functionality, network control, and light color control. (NEMA, No.14 at p.3) NEMA also commented that under certain interpretations of the rulemaking text, even the products DOE specifically listed as included within the EPS scope could be excluded. It requested that DOE revise its interpretation of a consumer product and provide concrete examples of covered and non-covered products to assist the lighting industry's
Lutron Electronics echoed many of NEMA's concerns, stating that the scope of the EPS rulemaking was unclear as it related to LED drivers and that DOE's assertion that LED drivers are technologically equivalent to other similarly rated EPSs that fall within the rule's scope was not based on any technical analysis. (Lutron, No.12 at p.2) Lutron also stated that DOE should follow the course of other standards development organizations and consider regulating LED drivers and lighting ballasts in a separate rulemaking from EPSs. Lutron claims that treating these products as regulated EPSs will eliminate certain SSL drivers with networking capabilities from the market because of the strict no-load standards required by the 2014 final rule. Lutron argued that eliminating this added utility will remove several smart energy management tools from buildings and result in higher overall energy consumption. Additionally, Lutron agreed with NEMA's statement that LED drivers should not be considered as part of the EPS rulemaking because they are not “external” to the luminaire they are powering. (Lutron, No.12 at p.3-4)
Any device that meets the congressional definition of an EPS is a covered product that may be subject to energy conservation standards. (42 U.S.C. 6291(36)) Congress defined an EPS as “an external power supply circuit that is used to convert household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current to operate a consumer product.” 42 U.S.C. 6291(36)(A). While a device that meets the EPS definition is considered a covered product, only certain EPSs are currently subject to energy conservation standards. Specifically, Congress defined, and established energy conservation standards for, Class A EPSs. (42 U.S.C. 6291(36)(C)(i)). DOE has no authority to alter the applicability of the Class A EPS standards as set forth by Congress.
Whether a given product satisfies the applicable definition is assessed at the time a product is manufactured. For products imported into the U.S., this is the date of importation. See 42 U.S.C. 6291(10) (“The term `manufacture' means to manufacture, produce, assemble or import.”) Thus, although many LED drivers are sold to an end-user inside the same housing as a luminaire, an LED driver imported into the U.S. as a separate product, prior to being incorporated into a luminaire, is a Class A EPS at the time of its manufacture (importation), if it meets the other five criteria, because it would not yet be contained within the same physical enclosure as the end-use product. However, if any such LED driver were not able to convert household electric current into DC current or lower-voltage AC current at the time it is imported, it would not meet the definition of an EPS and, therefore, would not be subject to energy conservation standards.
When determining whether an EPS meets the statutory definition of a Class A EPS, DOE evaluates whether all six characteristics are present in the device in question. While NEMA has brought forward several additional functionalities, such as dimming functionality, network control, and light color control, that may be used to distinguish one Class A EPS from another, any device that contains the six criteria of a Class A EPS would be subject to the Class A EPS energy conservation standards. Only the six characteristics of a Class A EPS, and not any additional technical functionality, are used by DOE to determine whether a device is considered a Class A EPS. As such, DOE expects some SSL drivers to fall within the definition of a Class A EPS and, consequently, are subject to the current Class A standards. Class A EPSs must meet the Class A EPS standards when tested using the DOE test procedure and sampling provisions. Similarly, these Class A EPSs will be subject to the standards with which compliance is required in February 2016. (See discussion regarding Table III-1.)
Finally, in addressing stakeholder concerns that SSL drivers cannot be tested under the existing DOE test procedure when taking the no-load measurement of a hard-wired connection, DOE notes the test method states that the no-load measurement should be taken by cutting the cord adjacent to the end-use product and conducting the measurement probes at that point in section 4(a)(ii) of Appendix Z. As discussed in Section K, this language was previously incorporated by reference in Appendix Z by citing the CEC's “Test Method for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Single-Voltage External AC-DC and AC-AC Power Supplies (August 11, 2004)”, but will be adopted into Appendix Z as part of this final rule. Therefore, DOE's test method does, in fact, provide a clear method for testing no-load mode of hardwired connections.
Nonetheless, DOE recognizes that EPSs may change over time as manufacturers add new features and update designs in order to compete for consumers. Acknowledging that innovation and product development may occasionally cause products to change in ways that either (1) make the results of a test procedure not representative of actual energy use or efficiency, or (2) make it impossible to test in accordance with the relevant test procedure, DOE considers petitions for waivers from test procedures under certain circumstances. Any interested party—typically a manufacturer—may submit a petition for a test procedure waiver for a basic model of a covered product if the basic model's design prevents it from being tested according to the test procedures, or if the test procedure yields materially inaccurate or unrepresentative energy use data. 10 CFR 430.27. To the extent that manufacturers wish to obtain a waiver from the EPS test procedure, manufacturers should petition DOE for a waiver and/or interim waiver. More information on the waiver process is available on the DOE Web site:
For certification and compliance, manufacturers are required to rate each basic model according to the sampling provisions specified in 10 CFR part 429. In the NOPR, DOE explained that because the recent energy conservation standards apply to direct operation EPSs, which include both Class A and non-Class A EPSs, there is no longer a need to differentiate between Class A and non-Class A EPSs for the purposes of Part 429. See 79 FR at 61006. As a result, DOE proposed to amend § 429.37 so that the sampling plan would be applied to any EPS subject to energy conservation standards. DOE sought comment on this proposal to apply the sampling plan requirements to all EPSs subject to an energy conservation standard, regardless of whether they meet the Class A definition.
AHAM agreed that there should not be differing class requirements between different types of EPSs and supported DOE's proposal to have one singular sampling plan for all products within the scope of the EPS standards. (AHAM, No.11 at p.3-4) The CA IOUs and NRDC
ITI agreed that adopting one sampling plan may work for some but not all situations, citing the difference between DOE's sampling plans based on manufacturing volume and industry sampling plans. ITI recommended that DOE consider specific quality control documents typically used by industry to ensure an acceptable outgoing quality control level, optimize yield, and minimize cost. However, they did not outline specific instances where one sampling plan would be problematic. (ITI, No.10 at p.7)
Based on the comments submitted by stakeholders, DOE has not found any technical reason that would prevent both Class A and non-Class A EPSs from being subject to the same sampling requirements. DOE's current Class A sampling requirements are consistent with the sampling plans of other consumer products. Therefore, DOE is amending 429.37 in this final rule to establish one sampling plan for EPSs.
In the process of developing the EPS test procedure, DOE incorporated existing methodologies from a number of different standard setting organizations. For example, the single-voltage test procedure codified in Appendix Z references specific sections of the CEC's “Test Method for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Single-Voltage External AC-DC and AC-AC Power Supplies (August 11, 2004)” to outline how the active mode efficiency and no-load mode power consumption tests should be performed. Within these sections, there are two additional references to standards developed by IEC
In 2013, the Canadian Standards Association (CSA) recognized the confusion associated with referencing multiple documents and amended their EPS test procedure
AHAM specifically commented that the DOE and CSA procedures are identical and if DOE wished to incorporate any language by reference it would be more appropriate to do so from a document published by a standard setting organization rather than one developed by a government contractor. (AHAM, No.11 at p.2-3) Since then, DOE has evaluated the merits of referencing the CSA test procedure directly rather than continuing to revise the CEC text with additional exceptions and clarifications.
After further consideration, DOE is instead electing to incorporate the text previously incorporated by reference from the CEC's “Test Method for Calculating the Energy Efficiency of Single-Voltage External AC-DC and AC-AC Power Supplies (August 11, 2004)” into Appendix Z of Subpart B to 10 CFR part 430. If DOE were to incorporate the CSA test procedure, it would still need to make certain clarifications based on the amendments adopted in this final rule, and the intent behind adopting one point of reference within the test procedure would be nullified. Technicians would still need to refer to multiple sources in order to follow the DOE EPS test procedure. Instead, DOE is adopting an approach identical to the one taken by the CSA during the 2013 revision of its test procedure such that multiple references can be consolidated into a single document. This approach will not alter the method used to determine the active mode efficiency or no-load power consumption in any way. Rather, it will directly insert the test methodology from the CEC test procedure into Appendix Z and eliminate the need for technicians to reference specific sections of that document. This revision will also allow DOE to modify the specific text within Appendix Z should the need arise in any future rulemakings rather than having to provide additional clarifications on the procedures detailed in the CEC test method.
Any amendments DOE has codified within Appendix Z related to referenced CEC text will be incorporated into the language adopted in this final rule as well. For example, DOE will adopt nearly all of the text in the “General Conditions for Measurement” section of the CEC test procedure that was previously incorporated by reference, expect for those provisions in the section for which DOE had already codified exceptions. Specifically, this section of the CEC test procedure noted that EPSs are to be tested at both 115VAC, 60 Hz and 230VAC, 50 Hz. However, DOE codified language in the 2006 test procedure final rule that states that EPSs will only be tested at 115V, AC, 60Hz. So, although the text from this section is being adopted into Appendix Z as part of this final rule, DOE is modifying the specific language associated with the test voltages to align with the exceptions already codified in Appendix Z. All other similar instances are also reflected in the regulatory text. Since these clarifications to the referenced text were previously adopted for the EPS test procedure, the modifications to the text from the CEC procedure will not alter the way the test procedure is performed. DOE believes this approach will further reduce any confusion over the current EPS test procedure regulatory text, and is therefore adopting this approach as part of this final rule.
The effective date for this test procedure is 30 days after publication in the
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that test procedure rulemakings do not constitute “significant regulatory actions” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993). Accordingly, this action was not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
For manufacturers of EPSs, the Small Business Administration (SBA) has set a size threshold, which defines those entities classified as “small businesses” for the purposes of the statute. DOE used the SBA's small business size standards to determine whether any small entities would be subject to the requirements of the rule. 65 FR 30836, 30848 (May 15, 2000), as amended at 65 FR 53533, 53544 (Sept. 5, 2000) and codified at 13 CFR part 121. The size standards are listed by North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code and industry description and are available at
DOE reviewed the final rule under the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act and the procedures and policies published on February 19, 2003. This final rule prescribes certain limited clarifying amendments to an already-existing test procedure that will help manufacturers and testing laboratories to consistently conduct that procedure when measuring the energy efficiency of an EPS, including in those instances where compliance with the applicable Federal energy conservation is being assessed. DOE has concluded that the final rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Although DOE initially believed that there were no domestic manufacturers of EPS who qualify as small businesses, DOE conducted a further review to update its assessment. DOE's most recent small business search continued to show that the majority of EPS manufacturers are foreign-owned and -operated companies. Of the few that are domestically-owned, most are larger companies with more than 500 employees. DOE's most recent search again showed that there are no small, domestic manufacturers of EPSs. Even if small domestic manufacturers of EPSs existed in the U.S., the nature of the revisions to the EPS test procedure make it unlikely that these changes would have created any additional certification costs that would cause adverse impacts to those manufacturers. Therefore, there are no small business impacts to evaluate for purposes of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
In addition, DOE expects any potential impact from this final rule to be minimal. As noted earlier, DOE's EPS test procedure has existed since 2005 and the modest clarifications in the final rule are unlikely to create a burden on any manufacturers. These revisions harmonize the instrumentation resolution and uncertainty requirements with the second edition of the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 62301 standard when measuring standby power along with other international standards programs. They also clarify certain testing set-up requirements. These updates will not increase the testing burden on EPS manufacturers.
For these reasons, DOE certifies that this final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Manufacturers of EPSs must certify to DOE that their products comply with any applicable energy conservation standards. In certifying compliance, manufacturers must test their products according to the DOE test procedures for EPSs, including any amendments adopted for those test procedures. DOE has established regulations for the certification and recordkeeping requirements for all covered consumer products and commercial equipment, including EPSs.
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
This rule amends the DOE test procedure for EPSs. DOE has determined that this rule falls into a class of actions that are categorically excluded from review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999), imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies
Regarding the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (Feb. 7, 1996), imposes on Federal agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard; and (4) promote simplification and burden reduction. Section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b) to determine whether they are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has completed the required review and determined that, to the extent permitted by law, this final rule meets the relevant standards of Executive Order 12988.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires each Federal agency to assess the effects of Federal regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. Public Law 104-4, sec. 201 (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1531). For a regulatory action resulting in a rule that may cause the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation), section 202 of UMRA requires a Federal agency to publish a written statement that estimates the resulting costs, benefits, and other effects on the national economy. (2 U.S.C. 1532(a), (b)) The UMRA also requires a Federal agency to develop an effective process to permit timely input by elected officers of State, local, and Tribal governments on a proposed “significant intergovernmental mandate,” and requires an agency plan for giving notice and opportunity for timely input to potentially affected small governments before establishing any requirements that might significantly or uniquely affect small governments. On March 18, 1997, DOE published a statement of policy on its process for intergovernmental consultation under UMRA. 62 FR 12820; also available at
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277) requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule that may affect family well-being. This final rule will not have any impact on the autonomy or integrity of the family as an institution. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
DOE has determined, under Executive Order 12630, “Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights” 53 FR 8859 (March 18, 1988), that this regulation will not result in any takings that might require compensation under the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
Section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516 note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (Feb. 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (Oct. 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this final rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to OMB, a Statement of Energy Effects for any significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgated or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy; or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution, or use if the regulation is implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution, and use.
This regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. Moreover, it would not have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, nor has it been designated as a significant energy action by the Administrator of OIRA. Therefore, it is not a significant energy action, and,
Under section 301 of the Department of Energy Organization Act (Pub. L. 95-91; 42 U.S.C. 7101), DOE must comply with section 32 of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, as amended by the Federal Energy Administration Authorization Act of 1977. (15 U.S.C. 788; FEAA) Section 32 essentially provides in relevant part that, where a proposed rule authorizes or requires use of commercial standards, the notice of proposed rulemaking must inform the public of the use and background of such standards. In addition, section 32(c) requires DOE to consult with the Attorney General and the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) concerning the impact of the commercial or industry standards on competition.
This final rule incorporates testing methods contained in the following standard: IEC Standard 62301 “Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power.” It also incorporates a testing method developed by the State of California, section 1604(u)(1) of the CEC 2007 Appliance Efficiency Regulations. DOE has evaluated these testing standards and believes that the IEC standard was developed in a manner that fully provides for public participation, comment, and review. Additionally, DOE has consulted with the Attorney General and the Chairwoman of the FTC concerning the effect on competition of requiring manufacturers to use the test method in this standard and neither objected to its incorporation.
In this final rule, DOE is updating the incorporation by reference of International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) Standard 62301 (“IEC 62301”), (Edition 2.0, 2011-01), Household electrical appliances—Measurement of standby power, to add it to Appendix Z. This testing standard is an industry accepted test procedure that sets a standardized method to follow when measuring the standby power of household and similar electrical appliances. Included within this testing standard are the details regarding test set-up, testing conditions, and stability requirements that are necessary to help ensure consistent and repeatable test results. Copies of this testing standard are readily available from the IEC at
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will report to Congress on the promulgation of this rule before its effective date. The report will state that it has been determined that the rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this final rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Household appliances, Imports, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Small businesses.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, DOE amends parts 429 and 430 of Chapter II of Title 10, Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 6291-6317.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) External power supplies: The average active mode efficiency as a percentage (%), no-load mode power consumption in watts (W), nameplate output power in watts (W), and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A) of the basic model or the output current in amperes (A) of the highest- and lowest-voltage models within the external power supply design family.
(ii) Switch-selectable single-voltage external power supplies: The average active mode efficiency as a percentage (%) value, no-load mode power consumption in watts (W) using the lowest and highest selectable output voltages, nameplate output power in watts (W), and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A).
(iii) Adaptive single-voltage external power supplies: The average active-mode efficiency as a percentage (%) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages, no-load mode power consumption in watts (W), nameplate output power in watts (W) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages, and, if missing from the nameplate, the output current in amperes (A) at the highest and lowest nameplate output voltages.
(iv) External power supplies that are exempt from no-load mode requirements under § 430.32(w)(1)(iii) of this chapter: A statement that the product is designed to be connected to a security or life safety alarm or surveillance system component, the average active-mode efficiency as a percentage (%), the nameplate output power in watts (W), and if missing from the nameplate, the certification report must also include the output current in amperes (A) of the basic model or the output current in amperes (A) of the highest- and lowest-voltage models within the external power supply design family.
42 U.S.C. 6291-6309; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
(p) * * *
(4) IEC 62301 (“IEC 62301”),
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Starting on February 21, 2016, any representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of external power supplies must be made in accordance with the results of testing pursuant to this appendix. Prior to February 21, 2016, representations made with respect to the energy use or efficiency of external power supplies must be made in accordance with this appendix or Appendix Z as it appeared at 10 CFR part 430, subpart B, Appendix Z as contained in the 10 CFR parts 200 to 499 edition revised as of January 1, 2015. Because representations must be made in accordance with tests conducted pursuant to this appendix as of February 21, 2016, manufacturers may wish to begin using this test procedure as soon as possible.
This appendix covers the test requirements used to measure the energy consumption of direct operation external power supplies and indirect operation Class A external power supplies subject to the energy conservation standards set forth at § 430.32(w)(1).
f. Average Active-Mode Efficiency means the average of the loading conditions (100 percent, 75 percent, 50 percent, and 25 percent of its nameplate output current) for which it can sustain the output current.
g.
(a) Single-Voltage External Power Supply.
(i) Any power measurements recorded, as well as any power measurement equipment utilized for testing, shall conform to the uncertainty and resolution requirements outlined in Section 4, “General conditions for measurements,” as well as Annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low power modes,” and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement,” of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
(ii) As is specified in IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), the tests shall be carried out in a room that has an air speed close to the unit under test (UUT) of ≤0.5 m/s. The ambient temperature shall be maintained at 20 ± 5 °C throughout the test. There shall be no intentional cooling of the UUT by use of separately powered fans, air conditioners, or heat sinks. The UUT shall be tested on a thermally non-conductive surface. Products intended for outdoor use may be tested at additional temperatures, provided those are in addition to the conditions specified above and are noted in a separate section on the test report.
(iii) If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input in the United States, it shall be tested at 115 V at 60 Hz. If the UUT is intended for operation on AC line-voltage input but cannot be operated at 115 V at 60 Hz, it shall not be tested. The input voltage shall be within ±1 percent of the above specified voltage.
(iv) The input voltage source must be capable of delivering at least 10 times the nameplate input power of the UUT as is specified in IEEE 1515-2000 (Referenced for guidance only, see § 430.4). Regardless of the AC source type, the THD of the supply voltage when supplying the UUT in the specified mode must not exceed 2%, up to and including the 13th harmonic (as specified in IEC 62301). The peak value of the test voltage must be within 1.34 and 1.49 times its RMS value (as specified in IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3)).
(v) Select all leads used in the test set-up as specified in Table B.2— “Commonly used values for wire gages and related voltage drops” in IEEE 15152000.
(b) * * *
(A) Any power measurements recorded, as well as any power measurement equipment utilized for testing, must conform to the uncertainty and resolution requirements outlined in Section 4, “General conditions for measurements”, as well as Annexes B, “Notes on the measurement of low power modes”, and D, “Determination of uncertainty of measurement”, of IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3).
(B) [Reserved]
(a) * * *
(A) Any built-in switch in the UUT controlling power flow to the AC input must be in the “on” position for this measurement, and note the existence of such a switch in the final test report. Test power supplies packaged for consumer use to power a product with the DC output cord supplied by the manufacturer. There are two options for connecting metering equipment to the output of this type of power supply: Cut the cord immediately adjacent to the DC output connector, or attach leads and measure the efficiency from the output connector itself. If the power supply is attached directly to the product that it is powering, cut the cord immediately adjacent to the powered product and connect DC measurement probes at that point. Any additional metering equipment such as voltmeters and/or ammeters used in conjunction with resistive or electronic loads must be
(B) External power supplies must be tested in their final, completed configuration in order to represent their measured efficiency on product labels or specification sheets. Although the same procedure may be used to test the efficiency of a bare circuit board power supply prior to its incorporation into a finished housing and the attachment of its DC output cord, the efficiency of the bare circuit board power supply may not be used to characterize the efficiency of the final product (once enclosed in a case and fitted with a DC output cord). For example, a power supply manufacturer or component manufacturer may wish to assess the efficiency of a design that it intends to provide to an OEM for incorporation into a finished external power supply, but these results may not be used to represent the efficiency of the finished external power supply.
(C) All single voltage external AC-DC power supplies have a nameplate output current. This is the value used to determine the four active-mode load conditions and the no load condition required by this test procedure. The UUT shall be tested at the following load conditions:
The 2% allowance is of nameplate output current, not of the calculated current value. For example, a UUT at Load Condition 3 may be tested in a range from 48% to 52% of rated output current. Additional load conditions may be selected at the technician's discretion, as described in IEEE 1515-2000 (Referenced for guidance only, see § 430.4), but are not required by this test procedure. For Loading Condition 5, place the UUT in no-load mode, disconnect any additional signal connections to the UUT, and measure input power.
1. Where the external power supply lists both an instantaneous and continuous output current, test the external power supply at the continuous condition only.
2. If an external power supply cannot sustain output at one or more of loading conditions 1-4 as specified in Table 1, test the external power supply only at the loading conditions for which it can sustain output. In these cases, the average active mode efficiency is the average of the loading conditions for which it can sustain the output.
(D) Test switch-selectable single-voltage external power supplies twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
(E) Test adaptive external power supplies twice—once at the highest achievable output voltage and once at the lowest.
(F) In order to load the power supply to produce all four active-mode load conditions, use a set of variable resistive or electronic loads. Although these loads may have different characteristics than the electronic loads power supplies are intended to power, they provide standardized and readily repeatable references for testing and product comparison. Note that resistive loads need not be measured precisely with an ohmmeter; simply adjust a variable resistor to the point where the ammeter confirms that the desired percentage of nameplate output current is flowing. For electronic loads, adjust the desired output current in constant current (CC) mode rather than adjusting the required output power in constant power (CP) mode.
(G) As noted in IEC 62301 (incorporated by reference; see § 430.3), instantaneous measurements are appropriate when power readings are stable in a particular load condition. Operate the UUT at 100% of nameplate current output for at least 30 minutes immediately prior to conducting efficiency measurements. After this warm-up period, monitor AC input power for a period of 5 minutes to assess the stability of the UUT. If the power level does not drift by more than 5% from the maximum value observed, the UUT is considered stable and the measurements should be recorded at the end of the 5-minute period. Measure subsequent load conditions under the same 5-minute stability parameters. Note that only one warm-up period of 30 minutes is required for each UUT at the beginning of the test procedure. If the AC input power is not stable over a 5-minute period, follow the guidelines established by IEC 62301 for measuring average power or accumulated energy over time for both AC input and DC output. Conduct efficiency measurements in sequence from Load Condition 1 to Load Condition 5 as indicated in Table 1. If testing of additional, optional load conditions is desired, that testing should be conducted in accordance with this test procedure and subsequent to completing the sequence described above.
(H) Calculate efficiency by dividing the UUT's measured DC output power at a given load condition by the true AC input power measured at that load condition. Calculate average efficiency as the arithmetic mean of the efficiency values calculated at Test Conditions 1, 2, 3, and 4 in Table 1, and record this value. Average efficiency for the UUT is a simple arithmetic average of active-mode efficiency values, and is not intended to represent weighted average efficiency, which would vary according to the duty cycle of the product powered by the UUT.
(I) Power consumption of the UUT at each Load Condition 1-4 is the difference between the DC output power (W) at that Load Condition and the AC input power (W) at that Load Condition. The power consumption of Load Condition 5 (no load) is equal to the AC input power (W) at that Load Condition.
(ii) Off-Mode Measurement—If the external power supply UUT incorporates manual on-off switches, place the UUT in off-mode, and measure and record its power consumption at “Load Condition 5” in Table 1. The measurement of the off-mode energy consumption must conform to the requirements specified in paragraph 4(a)(i) of this appendix, except that all manual on-off switches must be placed in the “off” position for the off-mode measurement. The UUT is considered stable if, over 5 minutes with samples taken at least once every second, the AC input power does not drift from the maximum value observed by more than 1 percent or 50 milliwatts, whichever is greater. Measure the off-mode power consumption of a switch-selectable single-voltage external power supply twice—once at the highest nameplate output voltage and once at the lowest.
(w) * * *
(1)* * *
(iii) Except as provided in paragraphs (w)(5), (w)(6), and (w)(7) of this section, all external power supplies manufactured on or after February 10, 2016, shall meet the following standards:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Cessna Aircraft Company Model 500, 501, 550, 551, S550, 560, and 650 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of smoke and/or fire in the tailcone caused by sparking due to excessive wear of the brushes in the air conditioning (A/C) motor. This AD requires inspections to determine if certain A/C compressor motors are installed and to determine the accumulated hours on certain A/C compressor motor assemblies; and repetitive replacement of the brushes in the A/C compressor motor assembly, or, as an option to the brush replacement, deactivation of the A/C system and
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
For service information identified in this AD, contact Cessna Aircraft Co., P.O. Box 7706, Wichita, KS 67277; phone: 316-517-6215; fax: 316-517-5802; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Craig Henrichsen, Aerospace Engineer, Electrical Systems and Avionics Branch, ACE-119W, FAA, Wichita Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Mid-Continent Airport, Wichita, KS 67209; phone: 316-946-4110; fax: 316-946-4107; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Cessna Aircraft Company Model 500, 501, 550, 551, S550, 560, and 650 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (80 FR 3516, January 23, 2015) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 3516, January 23, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 3516, January 23, 2015).
We consider this AD interim action. The reporting data required by this AD will enable us to obtain better insight into brush wear. The reporting data will also indicate if the replacement intervals we established are adequate. After we analyze the reporting data received, we might consider further rulemaking.
We reviewed the following service information, which describes procedures for replacement of life-limited components, including part number FWA1134104-1 or FWA1134104-5 A/C compressor motor brushes.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 6, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 500/501 Maintenance Manual.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 10, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550/551 Maintenance Manual.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 12, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550 Bravo Maintenance Manual.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 9, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model S550 Maintenance Manual.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 22, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 560 Maintenance Manual.
• Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 32, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 650 Maintenance Manual.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 333 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591. ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to the Cessna Aircraft Company airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in table 1 to paragraph (c) of this AD, that have an air conditioning (A/C) system installed via a Cessna Aircraft Company supplemental type certificate (STC) identified in paragraph (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(3), or (c)(4) of this AD.
(1) SA3849SW (
(2) SA7580SW (
(3) SA7753SW (
(4) SA8918SW (
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 21, Air Conditioning.
This AD was prompted by reports of smoke and/or fire in the tailcone caused by sparking due to excessive wear of the brushes in the A/C motor. We are issuing this AD to prevent the brushes in the A/C motor from wearing down beyond their limits, which could result in the rivet in the brush contacting the commutator, causing sparks and consequent fire and/or smoke in the tailcone with no means to detect or extinguish the fire and/or smoke.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 30 days or 10 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first: Inspect the A/C compressor motor to determine whether P/N FWA1134104-1 or P/N FWA1134104-5 is installed. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number of the A/C compressor motor can be conclusively determined from that review.
If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, any A/C compressor motor having P/N FWA1134104-1 or P/N FWA1134104-5 is found: Within 30 days or 10 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, determine the hour reading on the A/C compressor hour meter as specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) Inspect the number of hours accumulated on the A/C compressor hour meter.
(2) Check the airplane logbook for any entry for replacing the A/C compressor motor brushes with new brushes, or for replacing the compressor motor or compressor condenser module assembly (pallet) with a motor or assembly that has new brushes.
(i) If the logbook contains an entry for replacement of parts, as specified in paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, determine the number of hours accumulated on the A/C compressor motor brushes by comparing the number of hours on the compressor motor since replacement and use this number in lieu of the number determined in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD.
(ii) If, through the logbook check, a determination cannot be made regarding the number of hours accumulated on the A/C compressor motor brushes, as specified in paragraph (h)(2) of this AD, use the number of hours accumulated on the A/C compressor hour meter determined in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, or presume the brushes have over 500 hours time-in-service.
Using the hour reading on the A/C compressor hour meter determined in paragraph (h) of this AD, replace the A/C compressor motor brushes with new brushes at the later of the times specified in paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this AD. Thereafter, repeat the replacement of the A/C compressor motor brushes at intervals not to exceed 500 hours time-in-service on the A/C compressor motor. Do the replacement in accordance with the applicable Cessna maintenance manual subject specified in paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(6) of this AD.
(1) Before the accumulation of 500 total hours time-in-service on the A/C compressor motor.
(2) Before further flight after doing the inspection required in paragraph (h) of this AD.
Use the instructions in the applicable Cessna maintenance manual subject specified in paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(6) of this AD to do the replacement required by paragraph (i) of this AD.
(1) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 6, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 500/501 Maintenance Manual.
(2) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 10, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550/551 Maintenance Manual.
(3) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 12, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550 Bravo Maintenance Manual.
(4) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 9, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model S550 Maintenance Manual.
(5) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 22, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 560 Maintenance Manual.
(6) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 32, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 650 Maintenance Manual.
In lieu of replacing the A/C compressor motor brushes as required by this AD, deactivate the A/C system as specified in paragraph (k)(1) or (k)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For all airplanes except Model 650 airplanes: Pull the vapor cycle A/C circuit breaker labeled “AIR COND,” do the actions specified in paragraphs (k)(1)(i) and (k)(1)(ii) of this AD, and document deactivation of the system in the airplane logbook, referring to this AD as the reason for deactivation.
(i) Fabricate a placard that states: “A/C DISABLED” with 1/8-inch black lettering on a white background.
(ii) Install the placard on the airplane instrument panel within 6 inches of the A/C selection switch.
(2) For Model 650 airplanes: Pull the vapor cycle A/C circuit breaker labeled “FWD EVAP FAN,” do the actions specified in paragraphs (k)(1)(i) and (k)(1)(ii) of this AD, and document deactivation of the system in the airplane logbook, referring to this AD as the reason for deactivation.
While the A/C system is deactivated, it is recommended that airplane operators remain aware of the operating temperature limitations specified in the applicable airplane flight manual.
If the A/C system is deactivated, as specified in paragraph (k) of this AD, prior to the A/C system being reactivated: Perform the inspection specified in paragraph (h) of this AD, and do the replacements specified in paragraph (i) of this AD, at the times specified in paragraph (i) of this AD. Return the A/C system to service by doing the actions specified in paragraph (l)(1) or (l)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For all airplanes except Model 650 airplanes: Push in the vapor cycle A/C circuit breaker labeled “AIR COND,” remove the placard by the A/C selection switch that states “A/C DISABLED,” and document reactivation of the system in the airplane logbook.
(2) For Model 650 airplanes: Push in the vapor cycle A/C circuit breaker labeled “FWD EVAP FAN,” remove the placard by the A/C selection switch that states “A/C DISABLED,” and document reactivation of the system in the airplane logbook.
For the first two A/C compressor motor brush replacement cycles on each airplane, send the removed brushes to Cessna Aircraft Company, Cessna Service Parts and
(1) The model and serial number of the airplane.
(2) The part number of the motor.
(3) The part number of the brushes, if known.
(4) The elapsed time, in motor hours, since the last brush/motor replacement, if known.
(5) If motor hours are unknown, report the elapsed airplane flight hours since the last brush/motor replacement, and indicate that motor hours are unknown.
(6) The number of motor hours currently displayed on the pallet hour meter, if installed.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install an A/C compressor motor having P/N FWA1134104-1 or P/N FWA1134104-5, unless the inspection specified in paragraph (h) of this AD is done before installation, and the replacements specified in paragraph (i) of this AD are subsequently done in accordance with the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (j)(1) through (j)(6) of this AD at the times specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
Special flight permits may be issued in accordance with sections 21.197 and 21.199 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199) with the following limitation: Operation of the A/C system is prohibited.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number for this information collection is 2120-0056. Public reporting for this collection of information is estimated to be approximately 5 minutes per response, including the time for reviewing instructions, completing and reviewing the collection of information. All responses to this collection of information are mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at: 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, Attn: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
(1) The Manager, Wichita Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (r) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
For more information about this AD, contact Craig Henrichsen, Aerospace Engineer, Electrical Systems and Avionics Branch, ACE-119W, FAA, Wichita ACO, 1801 Airport Road, Room 100, Mid-Continent Airport, Wichita, KS 67209; phone: 316-946-4110; fax: 316-946-4107; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 6, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 500/501 Maintenance Manual.
(ii) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 10, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550/551 Maintenance Manual.
(iii) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 12, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 550 Bravo Maintenance Manual.
(iv) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 9, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model S550 Maintenance Manual.
(v) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 22, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 560 Maintenance Manual.
(vi) Subject 4-11-00, Replacement Time Limits, of Chapter 4, Airworthiness Limitations, Revision 32, dated June 23, 2014, of the Cessna Model 650 Maintenance Manual.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Cessna Aircraft Co., P.O. Box 7706, Wichita, KS 67277; phone: 316-517-6215; fax: 316-517-5802; email:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, B4-620, B4-622, B4-622R airplanes; all Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes; and certain Airbus Model A300 F4-605R airplanes. This AD was prompted by the manufacturer's review of all repairs accomplished using the structural repair manual. This review was done using revised fatigue and damage tolerance calculations. This AD requires an inspection of the surrounding panels of the left and right forward passenger doors, and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct previous incomplete or inadequate repairs to the surrounding panels of the left and right forward passenger doors and the fail-safe ring, which could negatively affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, B4-620, B4-622, B4-622R airplanes; all Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes; and certain Airbus Model A300 F4-605R airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0101, dated May 2, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, B4-620, B4-622, B4-622R airplanes; all Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes; and certain Airbus Model A300 F4-605R airplanes. The MCAI states:
In the frame of the Ageing Airplane Safety Rule (AASR), all existing Structural Repair Manual (SRM) repairs were reviewed.
This analysis, which consisted in new Fatigue and Damage Tolerance calculations, revealed that some repairs in the area surrounding the forward passenger/crew door and the fail safe ring are no longer adequate.
These repairs, if not reworked, could affect the structural integrity of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Airbus issued Service Bulletin (SB) A300-53-6173 (later revised), to provide instructions for the inspection of repairs on the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) forward door surrounding panels.
For the reasons described above, and further to the AASR implementation, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of the forward door surrounding panels to identify SRM repairs in these areas and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s).
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (80 FR 8566, February 18, 2015) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 8566, February 18, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 8566, February 18, 2015).
Airbus has issued Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014. The service information describes procedures for a one-time detailed of the area surrounding the forward passenger/crew door and the fail safe ring to determine if any repairs have been done, and corrective actions. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 65 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 120 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $663,000, or $10,200 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take up to 730 work-hours and require parts costing up to $72,250, for a cost of up to $134,300 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, B4-620, B4-622, and B4-622R airplanes, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(2) Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(3) Model A300F4-605R airplanes, all manufacturer serial numbers, except those on which Airbus Modification 12699 was embodied in production.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by the manufacturer's review of all repairs accomplished using the structural repair manual. This review was done using revised fatigue and damage tolerance calculations. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct previous incomplete or inadequate repairs to the surrounding panels of the left and right forward passenger doors and the fail-safe ring, which could negatively affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the time specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, whichever is later: Do a detailed inspection of the surrounding panels of the left and right forward passenger doors to determine if any repairs have been done, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014.
(1) Prior to the accumulation of 30,000 total flight cycles or 67,500 total flight hours, whichever occurs first.
(2) Within 28 months after the effective date of this AD.
If any affected repair is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Before further flight, identify the reworked area(s), the percentage of the rework, and the limits of the rework, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014.
During the repair identification required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if any rework is found that is outside the allowable damage limits specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014: Before further flight, rework or repair, as applicable, using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
Although Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014, specifies to contact Airbus for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair before further flight using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
This paragraph provides credit for the actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, dated August 1, 2013, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0101, dated May 2, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (n)(3) and (n)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6173, Revision 01, dated February 28, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate,
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2011-08-51 for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. AD 2011-08-51 required repetitive inspections of the lap joint at certain stringers along the entire length from certain body stations. This new AD expands the inspection area, requires additional inspections for cracks and open pockets, requires corrective actions if necessary, and revises the compliance times. This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) that has determined that the lower fastener holes in the lower skin of the fuselage lap splice are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the lower fastener holes in the lower skin of the fuselage lap splice, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2011-08-51, Amendment 39-16701 (76 FR 28632, May 18, 2011). AD 2011-08-51 applied to certain The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing requested that we revise the last sentence in paragraph (k) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) to clarify that the on-condition actions may be “inspection or repair” rather than “inspection and repair.” Boeing stated that condition 10 in table 6 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, describes obtaining inspection or repair instructions. Boeing explained that, depending on the configuration details identified, repetitive inspections alone may be an appropriate action, or a repair may be the appropriate action.
We agree with the commenter's request. Varying detail configurations and the total flight cycles at the time of the finding are used to determine if an inspection program is adequate to address the unsafe condition or if installation of a repair is required. We have revised the wording in paragraph (k) of this AD to require inspection or repair.
Southwest Airlines (SWA) stated that the heading “Repetitive Inspections for Crack Indications at Stringers S-4R and S-4L, Body Station (BS) 360 to BS 908,” of paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) is misleading. SWA explained that the heading is confusing since the paragraph contains both an initial inspection and repetitive inspections.
We agree to clarify the terminology used in the heading. When the term “repetitive” is used, it does not necessarily exclude the initial action. Many existing ADs use the term “repetitive” in the headers for paragraphs that contain both the initial action and repetitive actions. We find that no change to this AD is necessary regarding this issue.
SWA requested that we add a note in paragraph (g) and paragraph (h) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) specifying that Group 3 airplanes do not require inspection between BS 540 and BS 727E. SWA stated that Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, specifies no inspections to be accomplished from BS 540 to BS 727E on Group 3 airplanes. SWA stated that, since paragraphs (g) and (h) of the proposed AD and tables 1, 2, and 3 of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, define the inspection area as stringers 4L and 4R from BS 360 to BS 908 for all airplanes, it could be interpreted that the proposed AD would require an increased inspection area for Group 3 airplanes.
We partially agree with the commenter's request. We disagree to add a note in paragraph (g) and paragraph (h) of this AD. The Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, are clear regarding which areas must be inspected. The
SWA requested that we revise paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) to clarify the compliance times. SWA recommended splitting the paragraph requirements into three separate paragraphs to address three different airplane groups. SWA stated that table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, does not account for airplanes that were inspected previously using either Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011, or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011. SWA stated that it is unclear how to apply the compliance times in table 1 for these airplanes, and as a result, airplanes with more than 30,000 total flight cycles that were not inspected previously using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, will have exceeded the compliance times in table 1 upon the effective date of the AD.
SWA stated that since paragraph (n) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of the proposed AD that were performed prior to the effective date of the AD using either Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011, or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011, SWA assumes that the intent of paragraph (g) of the proposed AD is for the operator to accomplish the first inspection in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, within 500 cycles from the last inspection accomplished previously in accordance with either the Boeing Alert Service Bulletin, dated April 4, 2011, or Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011.
We do not agree with the commenter's request to revise paragraph (g) of this AD. However, we do agree to clarify the compliance times. For airplanes that were inspected previously using either Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011, or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011, the next inspection must be done within 500 cycles from the last inspection accomplished previously in accordance with either the Boeing Alert Service Bulletin, dated April 4, 2011, or Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011, except as provided by table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, provides optional inspections that may be used after inspections in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, have been accomplished.
For airplanes that were not inspected previously using either Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011, or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011, the initial inspection must be done within the applicable compliance times specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
SWA requested that we provide clarification regarding the applicability of table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, for accomplishing the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014). SWA stated that the inspection intervals defined in table 2 are dependent on the total flight cycles of airplanes that meet condition 1 (no crack found), and that operators of airplanes that meet condition 2 (any crack found) should contact Boeing for repair instructions prior to further flight.
SWA stated that the alternative repetitive inspection intervals apply only to aircraft that meet condition 1 each time the aircraft is inspected. SWA explained that it is unclear whether or not the operator is able to continue utilizing the table 2 inspection intervals if condition 2 is found during any repetitive inspection on an airplane, or if the operator must revert back to the table 1 repetitive inspection interval from that point forward for that airplane.
We agree that clarification is necessary. Paragraph (l) of this AD requires a repair if any crack is found. Accomplishment of the repair terminates the repetitive inspections required by paragraphs (g) and (j) of this AD in the repaired area only. Repetitive inspections must be done on all unrepaired areas at the times specified in table 1 or table 2, as applicable. We find that no change to this AD is necessary regarding this issue.
SWA requested that we include a provision in paragraph (n) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) to provide credit for the general visual inspection required by paragraph (k) of the proposed AD for skin panels that were replaced using the procedures specified in Figure 35 of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53-1306, provided that the corrective action for Condition 9 is followed.
SWA also requested that we add an exception in paragraph (m) of the proposed AD (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) that allows the operator to omit the inspection required by paragraph (k) of the proposed AD if the corrective action for Condition 9 is followed and the operator's records show the part number of the skin assembly installed on the airplane.
To justify its requests, SWA stated that its airplanes, defined as Group 1 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, on which the crown skin panel replacement was accomplished as described previously in Figure 35 of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53-1306, were inspected previously to determine if the existing skin assembly was an “MPN 65C35798-1 (open pockets
We disagree with the commenter's requests. The fuselage crown skin replacements described in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-53-1306 are a part of a SWA-specific modification program. We do not consider it appropriate to include various provisions in an AD that are applicable only to a single operator's unique use of an affected airplane. However, an operator may request approval of an alternative method of compliance under the provisions of paragraph (o) of this AD if sufficient data are submitted to substantiate that the fuselage crown skin replacements would provide an acceptable level of safety. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (79 FR 68381, November 17, 2014).
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We consider this AD interim action. An investigation is ongoing, and no terminating action has been developed. Once terminating action is developed, approved, and available, we might consider additional rulemaking.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. The service information describes procedures for inspections for crack indications at certain stringers, an inspection for open pockets of the lower skin panel at stringer S-4R, and repairs. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 130 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide a cost estimate for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701, “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We have determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
This AD replaces AD 2011-08-51, Amendment 39-16701 (76 FR 28632, May 18, 2011).
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53: Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) that has determined that the lower fastener holes in the lower skin of the fuselage lap splice are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the lower fastener holes in the lower skin of the fuselage lap splice, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014: Do an external eddy current inspection, or internal eddy current and detailed inspections, for crack indications at stringers S-4R and S-4L, from BS 360 to BS 908, as applicable, except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD, in accordance with Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Repeat the inspection(s) thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in table 1 or table 2, as applicable, of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Either inspection option may be used at any repetitive inspection cycle.
At the applicable time specified in table 3 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m) of this AD: Do one-time internal detailed and eddy current inspections for cracks at stringers S-4R and S-4L, from BS 360 to BS 908, as applicable, in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Accomplishment of the inspections required by this paragraph does not terminate the repetitive inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
For airplanes identified as Group 2, 3, 5, and 7 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014: At the applicable time specified in table 4 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m) of this AD, do one-time internal detailed and eddy current inspections for cracks at stringer S-4R, from BS 908 to BS 1016, in accordance with Part 3 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014.
For airplanes identified as Group 2, 3, 5, and 7 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014: At the applicable time specified in table 5 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m) of this AD, do external eddy current inspections, or internal eddy current and detailed inspections, for cracks at stringer S-4R, from BS 908 to BS 1016, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Repeat the inspection(s) thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in table 5 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. Either inspection option may be used at any repetitive inspection cycle.
For airplanes identified as Group 1, 4, and 6 in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014: At the applicable time specified in table 6 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, except as required by paragraph (m) of this AD, do a general visual inspection for open pockets of the lower skin panel at stringer S-4R, from BS 908 to BS 1016, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014. If any open pocket is found, before further flight, inspect or repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by this AD: Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD. Accomplishment of repairs approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (o) of this AD terminates the repetitive inspections specified in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this AD in the repaired areas only.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the Revision 2 date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011; or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, 2011. Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, dated April 4, 2011, was incorporated by reference in AD 2011-08-51, Amendment 39-16701 (76 FR 28632, May 18, 2011). Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 1, dated April 8, is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (p)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) AMOCs approved for AD 2011-08-51, Amendment 39-16701 (76 FR 28632, May 18, 2011), are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of paragraphs (g) and (l) of this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Jennifer Tsakoumakis, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5264; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (q)(4) and (q)(5) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on September 29, 2015.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1319, Revision 2, dated April 4, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
(5) You may view this referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, AS350C, AS350D, AS350D1, AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, AS355NP, EC130B4, and EC130T2 helicopters. This AD requires inspecting the swashplate assembly rotating star to determine whether a ferrule was installed. If a ferrule exists, this AD requires inspecting the rotating star for a crack and removing any cracked rotating star. This AD was prompted by a report that reconditioning the rotating swashplate per a certain repair procedure could result in the rotating star cracking. The actions of this AD are intended to detect a crack in the rotating star and prevent failure of the rotating star and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain documents listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email:
On March 27, 2015, at 80 FR 16325, the
The NPRM was prompted by AD No. 2014-0132R1, dated June 2, 2014, issued by EASA, which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union. EASA AD No. 2014-0132R1 corrects an unsafe condition for Airbus Helicopters (previously Eurocopter France) Model AS 350 B, BA, BB, B1, B2, B3, D, AS 355 E, F, F1, F2, N, NP, EC 130 B4, and T2 helicopters if equipped with a swashplate assembly with a rotating star, P/N 350A371003-04, P/N 350A371003-05, P/N 350A371003-06, P/N 350A371003-07, or P/N 350A371003-08. EASA advises that during a repair of a helicopter, it was discovered that rotating swashplates reconditioned in accordance with a certain repair procedure could experience a high stress level. This condition, if not corrected, could affect the service life of the part. To address this unsafe condition, EASA AD No. 2014-0132R1 requires repetitive inspections and replacement of the rotating star.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD, but we received no comments on the NPRM (80 FR 16325, March 27, 2015).
These helicopters have been approved by the aviation authority of France and are approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with France, EASA, its
The EASA AD requires reporting inspection findings to Airbus Helicopters. This AD makes no such requirement. The EASA AD does not apply to Airbus Helicopters Model AS350C and AS350D1 helicopters, whereas this AD applies to those models. The EASA AD applies to Model AS350BB helicopters, and this AD does not because that model is not type certificated in the United States. The EASA AD requires replacing the rotating star, unless already accomplished, by December 31, 2014, while we require replacing the rotating star within 160 hours time-in-service, unless already accomplished.
This AD also prohibits installing a rotating star with a ferrule, and the EASA AD does not.
We reviewed Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. EC130 62A010 for Model EC130B4 and EC130T2 helicopters; ASB No. AS355 62.00.33 for Model AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, and AS355NP helicopters; and ASB No. AS350 62.00.34 for Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350BB, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3, AS350D, and military version AS350L1 helicopters; all Revision 0 and all dated April 28, 2014.
The ASBs report that a certain repair sheet instruction, which requires reconditioning the rotating swashplate by machining and adding a steel ferrule to accommodate a swashplate bearing, potentially affects the service life limit specified in the airworthiness limitations section. The ASBs provide procedures for inspecting the swashplate assembly's rotating star for a ferrule and if a ferrule exists, inspecting for a crack. The ASBs call for replacing the rotating star before further flight if a crack exists, and before December 31, 2014, if a ferrule is present and there are no cracks. If there is no ferrule, the ASBs require no additional action.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 1,132 helicopters of U.S. Registry and that labor costs average $85 a work hour. Based on these estimates, we expect the following costs:
• Visually inspecting the swashplate assembly requires 0.25 work-hour for a labor cost of about $21 per inspection. No parts are needed for a total cost of about $21 per inspection per helicopter, or about $23,772 for the U.S. fleet.
• Dye-penetrant inspecting the rotating star requires 1 work-hour for a labor cost of about $85 per helicopter. No parts are needed for a total cost of $85 per inspection helicopter and $96,220 for the U.S. fleet.
• Replacing the rotating star, ferrule, and associated parts requires 16 work hours, and parts cost $8,354, for a total cost of $9,714 per helicopter.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on helicopters identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction; and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
We prepared an economic evaluation of the estimated costs to comply with this AD and placed it in the AD docket.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD applies to Airbus Helicopters Model AS350B, AS350BA, AS350B1, AS350B2, AS350B3,AS350C, AS350D, AS350D1, AS355E, AS355F, AS355F1, AS355F2, AS355N, AS355NP, EC130B4, and EC130T2 helicopters with a swashplate assembly with rotating star, part number (P/N) 350A371003-04, 350A371003-05, 350A371003-06, 350A371003-07, or 350A371003-08, certificated in any category.
This AD defines the unsafe condition as a crack in a rotating star in a main rotor blade (M/R) swashplate assembly. This condition could result in loss of the M/R pitch control and subsequent loss of helicopter control.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
You are responsible for performing each action required by this AD within the specified compliance time unless it has already been accomplished prior to that time.
(1) Within 165 hours time-in-service (TIS), visually inspect the swashplate assembly to determine whether a ferrule is installed on the rotating star. If the ferrule is not visible, use a magnetic retriever positioned in Area (X) as shown in the pictures under paragraph 3.B.2.b., Accomplishment Instructions, of Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. EC130 62A010, ASB No. AS350 62.00.34, or ASB No. AS355 62.00.33, all Revision 0, and all dated April 28, 2014, whichever is applicable to your helicopter, to determine whether the ferrule is installed. The magnetic retriever will be magnetized if a ferrule is installed.
(2) If a ferrule is not installed, no further action is needed.
(3) If a ferrule is installed on the rotating star, before further flight, dye-penetrant inspect the rotating star for a crack in areas “Z” depicted in Figure 1 of Airbus Helicopters ASB No. EC130 62A010, ASB No. AS350 62.00.34, or ASB No. AS355 62.00.33, all Revision 0, and all dated April 28, 2014, as applicable to your model helicopter.
(i) If the rotating star has a crack, before further flight, remove from service the rotating star; ferrule; and the screws, washers and nuts used to attach the pitch change rods, compass, and the rotating star deflector.
(ii) If the rotating star does not have a crack, within 160 hours TIS, remove from service the rotating star; ferrule; and the screws, washers and nuts used to attach the pitch change rods, compass, and the rotating star deflector.
(4) Do not install a rotating star P/N 350A371003-04, 350A371003-05, 350A371003-06, 350A371003-07, or 350A371003-08 with a ferrule.
Special flight permits are prohibited.
(1) The Manager, Safety Management Group, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Send your proposal to: Robert Grant, Aviation Safety Engineer, Safety Management Group, FAA, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Fort Worth, Texas 76177; telephone (817) 222-5110; email
(2) For operations conducted under a 14 CFR part 119 operating certificate or under 14 CFR part 91, subpart K, we suggest that you notify your principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office or certificate holding district office, before operating any aircraft complying with this AD through an AMOC.
The subject of this AD is addressed in the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2014-0132R1, dated June 2, 2014. You may view the EASA AD on the Internet at
Joint Aircraft Service Component (JASC) Code: 6200, Main Rotor System.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Helicopters Alert Service Bulletin (ASB) No. EC130 62A010, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014.
(ii) Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS350 62.00.34, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014.
(iii) Airbus Helicopters ASB No. AS355 62.00.33, Revision 0, dated April 28, 2014.
(3) For Airbus Helicopters service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus Helicopters, Inc., 2701 N. Forum Drive, Grand Prairie, TX 75052; telephone (972) 641-0000 or (800) 232-0323; fax (972) 641-3775; or at
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Office of the Regional Counsel, Southwest Region, 10101 Hillwood Pkwy., Room 6N-321, Fort Worth, Texas 76177. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (817) 222-5110.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2007-04-13 for certain SOCATA Model TBM 700 airplaness (type certificate previously held by EADS SOCATA). This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks found on the main landing gear cylinders. We are issuing this AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain other publication listed in this AD as of March 23, 2007 (72 FR 7576, February 16, 2007).
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact SOCATA, Direction des Services, 65921 Tarbes Cedex 9, France; telephone: 33 (0)5 62.41.73.00; fax: 33 (0)5 62.41.76.54; or SOCATA North America, North Perry Airport, 7501 S Airport Rd., Pembroke Pines, Florida 33023, telephone: (954) 893-1400; fax: (954) 964-4141; Internet:
Albert J. Mercado, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4119; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We issued a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to make changes to an NPRM (80 FR 8821, February 19, 2015), which would amend 14 CFR part 39 to add an AD that would apply to certain SOCATA Model TBM 700 airplaness (type certificate previously held by EADS SOCATA). That SNPRM was published in the
Since we issued AD 2007-04-13, it has been determined that the time between repetitive inspections should be extended and an optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections is now available.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued AD No. 2006-0085R2, dated January 16, 2015 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Cracks on several main landing gear (MLG) cylinders have been reported in service.
This condition, if not to detected and corrected, could lead to fatigue cracks in the shock strut cylinder of the MLG, which could result in a collapsed MLG during take-off or landing runs, and possibly reduce the structural integrity of the aeroplane.
To address this unsafe condition, EASA issued AD 2006-0085 to require repetitive special detailed inspections (SDI) for cracks of the MLG shock strut cylinder and, depending on findings, relevant investigative and corrective actions.
After that AD was issued, SOCATA performed an analysis to demonstrate that the inspection interval could be extended, and developed a reinforced MLG less prone to fatigue, which is embodied in production through SOCATA modification (MOD) 70-0190-32 and can be introduced in service through SOCATA Service Bulletin (SB) 70-130-32 at Revision 03.
Prompted by these developments, EASA issued AD 2006-0085R1 to increase the inspection interval and to introduce the installation of a reinforced MLG on the right hand (RH) side and left hand (LH) side as an optional terminating action for the repetitive SDI required by this AD.
Since that AD was issued, it was found that aeroplanes MSN 639 to 683 (inclusive) are not affected by this AD. The applicability has therefore been revised to remove those MSN.
In addition, we have determined that airplanes with MLG with forging body that had not reached 1,750 landings as of March 23, 2007 (the effective date of AD 2007-04-13) were not affected by the AD. This is not the intent and allows airplanes to fly indefinitely with the unsafe condition. This AD includes those airplanes with MLG with forging body either at or under 1,750 landings as of March 23, 2007, and extends the time between the repetitive inspections until a reinforced landing gear is installed, which terminates the repetitive inspections.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received one supportive comment to the NPRM (80 FR 8821, February 19, 2015) and no comments on the SNPRM (80 FR 33208, June 11, 2015) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the SNPRM (80 FR 33208, June 11, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the SNPRM (80 FR 33208, June 11, 2015).
EADS SOCATA has issued TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, ATA No. 32, dated January 2006, and SOCATA has issued DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014. The actions described in this service information are intended to correct the unsafe condition identified in the MCAI. The DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014, incorporates procedures for replacing cracked MLG with a reinforced MLG as a terminating action for the repetitive inspections. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 431 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 3 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $109,905, or $255 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 4 work-hours and require parts costing $6,000, for a cost of $6,340 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
This AD supersedes AD 2007-04-13, Amendment 39-14945, (72 FR 7576, February 16, 2007) (“AD 2007-04-13”).
This AD applies to SOCATA Model TBM 700 airplanes, serial numbers 1 through 638 and 687, that:
(1) are not equipped with a left-hand main landing gear (MLG) body part number (P/N) D68161 or D68161-1 and a right-hand MLG body P/N D68162 or D68162-1; and
(2) are certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 32: Landing gear.
This AD was prompted from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks found on the main landing gear cylinders. In addition, the FAA determined that airplanes with MLG with forging body that had not reached 1,750 landings as of March 23, 2007 (the effective date of AD 2007-04-13) were not affected by AD 2007-04-13. This is not the intent and allows airplanes to fly indefinitely with the unsafe condition. This AD increases the scope of the affected airplanes by including those airplanes with MLG with forging body either at or under 1,750 landings as of March 23, 2007, increases the time between the repetitive inspections, and incorporates a modification to terminate the required repetitive inspections. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the shock strut cylinder of the MLG, which could cause the MLG to fail. Failure of the shock strut cylinder of the MLG could result in a collapsed MLG during takeoff or landing and possible reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Unless already done, do the actions in paragraphs (f)(1), (f)(2), and (h) of this AD:
(1) For MLG with forging body that were either at or under 1,750 landings as of March 23, 2007 (the effective date of (AD 2007-04-13): Upon or before accumulating 1,750 landings on the MLG with forging body since new or within the next 100 landings after September 29, 2015 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs later, inspect the forging body for cracks. Do the inspection following the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, dated January 2006, or DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014.
(2) If no cracks are detected during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, repetitively thereafter inspect at intervals not to exceed 240 landings until a reinforced landing gear specified in paragraph E. Terminating Solution of the Accomplishment Instructions in DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014, is installed.
Unless already done, do the actions in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (h) of this AD, including all subparagraphs:
(1) As of March 23, 2007 (the effective date retained from AD 2007-04-13), for MLG with forging body totaling more than 1,750 landings but less than 3,501 landings since new:
(i) Inspect the forging body for cracks within 100 landings after March 23, 2007 (the effective date retained from AD 2007-04-13), following the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, dated January 2006, or DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014.
(ii) If no cracks are detected during the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this AD, repetitively thereafter inspect at intervals not to exceed 240 landings until a reinforced landing gear specified in paragraph E. Terminating Solution of the Accomplishment Instructions in DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014, is installed.
(2) As of March 23, 2007 (the effective date retained from AD 2007-04-13), for MLG with forging body totaling more than 3,500 landings since new:
(i) Inspect the forging body for cracks within 25 landings after March 23, 2007 (the effective date retained from AD 2007-04-13), following the Accomplishment Instructions of EADS SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, dated January 2006, or DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014.
(ii) If no cracks are detected during the inspection required in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this AD, repetitively thereafter inspect at intervals not to exceed 240 landings until a reinforced landing gear specified in paragraph E. Terminating Solution of the Accomplishment Instructions in DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014, is installed.
If any cracks are detected during any inspection required in paragraphs (f)(1) through (g)(2) of this AD, including all subparagraphs:
(1) Before further flight, remove the affected landing gear leg and confirm the presence of the crack with dye penetrant inspection or fluorescent penetrant inspection.
(2) If the crack is confirmed, before further flight, contact SOCATA at the address in paragraph (l)(5) of this AD to coordinate the FAA-approved landing gear repair/replacement and implement any FAA-approved repair/replacement instructions obtained from SOCATA, or replace the cracked landing gear with a reinforced landing gear specified in paragraph E. Terminating Solution of the Accomplishment Instructions in DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014. This replacement terminates the repetitive inspections required by this AD.
The compliance times of this AD are presented in landings instead of hours time-in-service (TIS). If the number of landings is unknown, hours TIS may be used by dividing the number of hours TIS by 1.35.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to MCAI European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD No. 2006-0085R2, dated January 16, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on September 29, 2015.
(i) DAHER-SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, Revision 3, dated December 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(4) The following service information was approved for IBR on March 23, 2007 (72 FR 7576, February 16, 2007).
(i) EADS SOCATA TBM Aircraft Mandatory Service Bulletin SB 70-130, dated January 2006.
(ii) Reserved.
(5) For SOCATA service information identified in this AD, contact SOCATA, Direction des Services, 65921 Tarbes Cedex 9, France; telephone: 33 (0)5 62.41.73.00; fax: 33 (0)5 62.41.76.54; or SOCATA North America, North Perry Airport, 7501 S Airport Rd., Pembroke Pines, Florida 33023, telephone: (954) 893-1400; fax: (954) 964-4141; Internet:
(6) You may view this service information at FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(7) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by an in-service report of an uncommanded and unannunciated nose wheel steering during airplane pushback from the gate. This AD requires installing new cable assemblies with a pull-down resistor. We are issuing this AD to prevent an uncommanded nose wheel steering during takeoff or landing in the event of an open circuit in the steering system, and possible consequent runway excursion.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone 416-375-4000; fax 416-375-4539; email
Assata Dessaline, Aerospace Engineer, Avionics and Services Branch, ANE-172, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone (516) 228-7301; fax (516) 794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2013-38, dated November 28, 2013 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400, -401, and -402 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
There has been one in-service report of an un-commanded and un-annunciated nose wheel steering during aeroplane push-back from the gate. The investigation revealed that a design deficiency exists within the steering control unit (SCU) where an open circuit may not be adequately detected and annunciated to the flight crew. A sustained open circuit could result in an un-commanded and un-annunciated nose wheel steering input.
Un-commanded nose wheel steering during takeoff or landing may lead to a runway excursion.
This [Canadian] AD mandates the installation of new cable assemblies, with a pull-down resistor, to ensure that the nose wheel steering system reverts to fail-safe free castor mode in the event of an open circuit in the steering system.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comment received on the NPRM (80 FR 3504, January 23, 2015) and the FAA's response to each comment.
Horizon Air requested that we amend paragraph (g) of the proposed AD (80 FR 3504, January 23, 2015) to exclude Part A, “Job Set-up,” and Part C “Close Out,” sections of the Accomplishment Instructions in Bombardier Service
We agree with the commenter's request to exclude the “Job Set-up” and “Close Out” sections of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-122, Revision A, dated August 28, 2013. We have revised paragraph (g) of this AD to require accomplishment of only paragraph B., “Procedure,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-122, Revision A, dated October 4, 2013.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the change described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 3504, January 23, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 3504, January 23, 2015).
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
Bombardier, Inc. has issued Service Bulletin 84-32-122, Revision A, dated October 4, 2013. This service information describes procedures for incorporating Bombardier Modification Summary (Modsum) 4-126585 to install new cable assemblies with a pull-down resistor to the pilot hand control and rudder pedal potentiometer of the nose wheel steering control unit. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 81 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 6 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts will cost about $2,541 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $247,131, or $3,051 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc. Model DHC-8-400, -401, and-402 series airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers 4001 through 4448 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 32, Landing gear.
This AD was prompted by an in-service report of an uncommanded and unannunciated nose wheel steering during airplane pushback from the gate. We are issuing this AD to prevent an uncommanded nose wheel steering during takeoff or landing in the event of an open circuit in the steering system, and possible consequent runway excursion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 2,000 flight cycles or 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first: Incorporate Bombardier Modsum 4-126585 to install new cable assemblies, with a pull-down resistor, in accordance with paragraph B., “Procedure,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-122, Revision A, dated October 4, 2013.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-122, dated August 28, 2013. This service information is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), ANE-170, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the New York ACO, send it to ATTN: Program Manager, Continuing Operational Safety, FAA, New York ACO, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7300; fax 516-794-5531. Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must specifically reference this AD.
(2) Contacting the Manufacturer: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer, the action must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, New York ACO, ANE-170, FAA; or the Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s, TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO). If approved by the DAO, the approval must include the DAO-authorized signature.
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2013-38, dated November 28, 2013, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference may be obtained at the addresses specified in paragraphs (k)(3) and (k)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 84-32-122, Revision A, dated October 4, 2013.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., Q-Series Technical Help Desk, 123 Garratt Boulevard, Toronto, Ontario M3K 1Y5, Canada; telephone 416-375-4000; fax 416-375-4539; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of several events where pilots experienced difficulty in lateral control of the airplane after doing a climb through heavy rain conditions and a determination that the cause was water ingress in the aileron control pulley assembly. This AD requires, for certain airplanes, inspecting for correct clearance and rework if necessary, and, for certain other airplanes, installing a cover for the aileron pulley assembly. We are issuing this AD to prevent water ingress in the aileron control pulley assembly, which could freeze in cold conditions and result in reduced control of the airplane.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 29, 2015.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
Fabio Buttitta, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Branch, ANE-171, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7303; fax 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2014-23, dated July 18, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. The MCAI states:
There have been several reports whereby pilots have experienced difficulty in lateral control following climb through heavy rain conditions. In each event, the pilots were able to overcome this difficulty without disconnecting the aileron control. An investigation has determined that the root cause of the restricted movement of the aileron was due to water ingress into the wing root aileron control pulley assembly through a gap on the wing-to-fuselage fairing resulting in freezing of the aileron control system.
If not corrected, this condition could result in reduced lateral control of the aeroplane.
This [Canadian] AD mandates [for certain airplanes] the incorporation of a cover for the aileron pulley assembly [and inspection and rework if necessary] to prevent water ingress in the aileron control pulley assembly [and for certain other airplanes, mandates an inspection and rework if necessary].
The inspection involves doing a general visual inspection for correct clearance. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM (80 FR 16608, March 30, 2015) or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 16608, March 30, 2015) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (80 FR 16608, March 30, 2015).
Bombardier has issued the following service information:
• Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014;
• Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014;
• Service Bulletin 700-27-5004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014; and
• Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
This service information describes procedures, for certain airplanes, for installing a cover for the No. 1 aileron pulley, including an inspection for correct clearance and rework, and for certain other airplanes, for an inspection for correct clearance and rework. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 60 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 9 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $45,900, or $765 per product.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD becomes effective September 29, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes, certificated in any category, having serial numbers 9002 through 9520 inclusive and 9998.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by a report of several events where pilots experienced difficulty in lateral control of the airplane after doing a climb through heavy rain conditions and a determination that the cause was water ingress in the aileron control pulley assembly. We are issuing this AD to prevent water ingress in the aileron control pulley assembly, which could freeze in cold conditions and result in reduced control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraph (j) of this AD, for airplanes on which a cover for the No. 1 aileron pulley has not been installed as of the effective date of this AD: Within 150 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, install a cover for the No. 1 aileron pulley, including doing a general visual inspection for correct clearance and rework as applicable, in accordance with paragraph C., “PART B—Modification,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service bulletins identified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) for this AD.
(1) For Model BD-700-1A10 airplanes: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014; or 700-27-6004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(2) For Model BD-700-1A11 airplanes: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014; or 700-27-5004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
Except as provided by paragraph (j) of this AD, for airplanes on which a cover for the No. 1 aileron pulley has been incorporated using the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD as of the effective date of this AD: Within 150 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD, do a general visual inspection for correct clearance and, before further flight, rework, as applicable, in accordance with paragraph B., “PART A—Inspection and Rework,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD.
(1) For Model BD-700-1A10 airplanes: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, dated March 5, 2012; or 700-27-6004, dated March 5, 2012.
(2) For Model BD-700-1A11 airplanes: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, dated March 5, 2012; or 700-27-5004, dated March 5, 2012.
Except as provided by paragraph (j) of this AD, for airplanes on which the Service Non-Incorporated Engineering Orders (SNIEO) or Service Requests for Product Support Action (SRPSA) that are listed in table 2 of paragraph 1.A., “Effectivity,” in the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (i)(1), (i)(2), and (i)(3) of this AD have been incorporated: Within 150 flight cycles from the effective date of this AD, do the re-identification of the overwing panels, in accordance with paragraph 2.B(2)(g) of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD.
(1) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(2) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(3) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
Airplanes on which the applicable SRPSA, as identified in table 1 of paragraph 1.A., “Effectivity,” in the applicable service information identified in paragraph (j)(1), (j)(2), or (j)(3) of this AD has been accomplished as of the effective date of this AD, meet the intent of paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this AD, and no further action is required.
(1) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(2) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(3) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (k)(1) through (k)(8) of this AD, which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 01, dated July 16, 2012.
(2) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 02, dated June 17, 2014.
(3) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 01, dated July 16, 2012.
(4) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 02, dated June 17, 2014.
(5) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-5004, Revision 01, dated July 16, 2012.
(6) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-5004, Revision 02, dated June 17, 2014.
(7) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 01, dated July 16, 2012.
(8) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 02, dated June 17, 2014.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2014-23, dated July 18, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (n)(3) and (n)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-27-034, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(ii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-076, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(iii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-5004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(iv) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-27-6004, Revision 04, dated September 4, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Department of State.
Final rule.
This rule adopts as final the interim final rule published in the
The Effective date of the final rule published in the
Jill Warning, Office of the Comptroller, Bureau of Consular Affairs, Department of State; phone: 202-485-6683, telefax: 202-485-6826; email:
For the complete explanation of the background of this rule, including the rationale for the change, the authority of the Department of State (“Department”) to make the fee changes in question, and an explanation of the study that produced the fee amounts, consult the prior public notices cited in the “Background” section below.
The Department published an interim final rule in the
This rule establishes the following fees for the categories below:
The fee change for the reduced Border Crossing Card fee for Mexican citizens under age 15 whose parent or guardian has or is applying for a Border Crossing Card is not included in this final rule. This fee was included in the interim final rule published in August 2014, and raised from $15 to $16. The same month, Congress ordered this fee to be increased by $1 pursuant to Section 2 of Public Law 113-160. This additional increase was implemented in a final rule published on December 31, 2014, which raised this fee from $16 to $17. See 79 FR 79064. Therefore, this fee is not included in this final rule.
The original publication of the interim final rule included an incorrect effective date of September 6, 2014, for the above changes in fees. That date was subsequently corrected, but the correction contained an error (erroneously stating “September 12, 2104”).
In the 60-day period since the publication of the interim final rule, more than 70 comments were received.
The large majority of the comments received expressed concern about the increased fee for the Administrative Processing of Formal Renunciation of U.S. Citizenship.
Most commenters requested to pay a lower fee for the renunciation service, suggesting that they be grandfathered in to the previous fee of $450. The majority of these commenters had initiated the process of renouncing their nationality prior to the announcement of the new fee.
The Department's policy for citizenship-related services, including the Administrative Processing of Formal Renunciation of U.S. Citizenship, is to collect the fee in effect at the time that the service is provided. Although the renunciation process involves multiple steps, the service is rendered when the oath to renounce one's nationality is sworn. U.S. nationals who intend to renounce their nationality and have a meeting or information session with the consular post for that purpose, but who change their minds and do not take the oath, are
More than one-third of the comments suggested that the increased fee to process renunciations is a burden. These commenters asserted that the new fee is too costly. Some expressed concern about their own ability to afford the higher fee, pointing to personal
In raising the fee to process renunciations, the Department has not restricted or burdened the right of expatriation. Further, the fee is not punitive, and is unrelated to the IRS tax legislation criticized in some comments, except to the extent that the legislation caused an increase in consular workload that must be paid for by user fees.
On a per-service basis, renunciation is among the most time-consuming of all consular services. In the past, however, the Department charged less than the full cost of the renunciation service. The total number of renunciations was previously small and constituted a minor demand on the Department's resources. Consequently, it was difficult to assess accurately the cost of the service. In contrast, in recent years, the number of people requesting the renunciation service has risen dramatically, driven in part by tax legislation affecting U.S. taxpayers abroad, including the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), materially increasing the resources devoted to providing the service. At one post alone, renunciations rose from under 100 in 2009 to more than 1,100 in the first ten months of 2014. Finally, improvements to the CoSM made the cost of the renunciation service more apparent. For all these reasons, the Department decided to raise the fee to reflect the full cost of the service.
The Department has closely examined comments regarding the right of expatriation, which is addressed in the Immigration and Nationality Act and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The increased fee, however, does not impinge on the right of expatriation. Rather, the increased fee reflects the amount of resources necessary for the U.S. government to verify that all constitutional and other requirements for expatriation are satisfied in every case. As described in detail below, the process of expatriation for a U.S. national requires a thorough, serious, time-consuming process, in view of U.S. Supreme Court jurisprudence that declared unconstitutional an involuntary or forcible expatriation. In
A few commenters questioned the rationale for raising the renunciation fee, seeking more insight into how the fee is determined. Some commenters disputed that the higher fee actually represents the true cost of processing a renunciation. In particular, one commenter applied the Consular Time Charge of $135 to the renunciation fee and asked whether the service actually takes 17 hours. Another commenter specifically requested more information about the CoSM.
As described in the interim final rule, the CoSM uses activity-based costing to identify, describe, assign costs to, and report on agency operations. Using a process view, the model assigns resource costs such as salaries, travel, and supplies to different activities such as adjudicating an application or printing a visa foil. These activity costs are then assigned to cost objects, or products and services (visas, passports, administrative processing of a renunciation), to determine how much each service costs.
The CoSM demonstrated that documenting a U.S. national's renunciation of nationality is extremely costly. The cost of the service is not limited to the time consular officers spend with the renunciant at the appointment. The application is reviewed both overseas and domestically, requiring a substantial amount of time to ensure full compliance with the law. Through the provision of substantial information and one or two in-person interviews, the consular officer must determine that the individual is indeed a U.S. national, advise the individual on the consequences of loss of nationality, and determine that the individual fully intends to relinquish all the rights and privileges attendant to U.S. nationality, including the ability to reside in the United States unless properly documented as an alien. The consular officer also must determine whether the individual is seeking loss of nationality voluntarily or is under duress, a process that can be demanding in the case of minors or individuals with a developmental disability or mental illness. At the oath-taking interview, the consular officer must document the renunciation service on several forms signed by the individual seeking loss of nationality. The consular officer also must document the service in consular systems as well as in memoranda from the consular officer to headquarters. All forms and memoranda are closely reviewed at headquarters by a country officer and a senior approving officer within the Bureau of Consular Affairs, and may include consultation with legal advisers within the Bureau of Consular Affairs and the Office of the Legal Adviser. Some applications require multiple rounds of correspondence between post and headquarters.
Each individual issued a Certificate of Loss of Nationality also is advised of the possibility of seeking a future Administrative Review of the loss of nationality, a process that is conducted by the Office of Legal Affairs, Directorate of Overseas Citizens Service, Bureau of Consular Affairs. This review must consider whether the statute pursuant to which the initial finding of loss of nationality was made has been deemed to be unconstitutional. The review must also take notice of any significant change in the analysis of expatriation cases following a holding of the Supreme Court. Furthermore, the review must also take notice of any change in the interpretation of expatriation law that is adopted by the Department. Lastly, the review must evaluate evidence submitted by the expatriate that indicates that his or her commission of a statutory act of expatriation was either involuntary or
In addition to the time spent processing renunciations overseas and domestically, the full cost of processing renunciations includes a portion of overhead costs that support consular operations overseas per OMB Circular A-25, Revised. These costs include overseas rent and security, information technology equipment, and applicable headquarters support. The Consular Time Charge of $135 per hour was not used in calculating the cost of a renunciation service. The Consular Time Charge is used in conjunction with other for-fee services listed on the Schedule of Fees for Consular Services that are provided outside of the office or outside of normal working hours.
Four comments asserted that the renunciation should be made more efficient rather than more costly. A few asked if there were ways to reduce bureaucracy and paperwork to lower the cost of the service. Specifically, one commenter pointed to the German renunciation process, which involves an online application, mailed certified copies of certain documents, and no in-person interviews. As described above, certain legal requirements exist in the U.S. system, unique to our laws and jurisprudence, to protect both the integrity of the process and the rights of those renouncing. The renunciation process involves significant safeguards to ensure that the renunciant is a U.S. national, fully understands the serious consequences of renunciation, and seeks to renounce voluntarily and intentionally. In short, the comprehensive process of expatriation under U.S. law does not impinge, but rather protects, the right of expatriation.
Finally, two comments raised questions about payment options and sought clarification on the effective date for the fee change. The new fee for processing renunciations took effect September 12, 2014. Payment by credit card (at most posts) or cash (in local or U.S. currency) is accepted at post at the time that the oath of renunciation is sworn.
In addition to the comments on the renunciation fee increase, the Department also received eight comments about the changes in immigrant and nonimmigrant visa fees. Most sought clarification on how the visa fees were changing, which payment options are available, and when the new fees will go into effect. One commenter asserted that the visa fees are set too low.
All tiered immigrant and nonimmigrant visa fees addressed in this rulemaking are set to reflect the costs of providing each service. The new visa fees went into effect on September 12, 2014. Further details on particular fees, including payment options, can be found on the Web site of the embassy or consulate where the applicant would like to make a visa appointment.
The Department adjusted the fees in light of the CoSM's findings that the U.S. government was not fully covering its costs for providing these consular services. Pursuant to OMB guidance, the Department endeavors to recover the cost of providing services that benefit specific individuals, as opposed to the general public.
For a summary of the regulatory findings and analyses regarding this rulemaking, please refer to the findings and analyses published with the interim final rule, which can be found at 79 FR 51247, which are adopted herein. The rule became effective September 6, 2014. As noted above, the Department has considered the comments submitted in response to the interim final rule, and does not adopt them. Thus, the rule remains in effect.
This proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563, Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review, and does not require an assessment of potential costs and benefits under section 6(a)(3) of Executive Order 12866 or under section 1 of Executive Order 13563. OMB has not reviewed it under those Orders. The Department of State has also considered this rule in light of Executive Order 13563, dated January 18, 2011, and affirms that this regulation is consistent with the guidance therein.
Consular services, Fees, Passports, and Visas.
Accordingly, the interim final rule amending 22 CFR part 22, which was published in the
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing-Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Final rule.
This final rule is a cost-savings measure to update HUD's regulations regarding the payment of FHA insurance claims in debentures. Section 520(a) of the National Housing Act grants the Secretary discretion to pay insurance claims in cash or debentures. Although some sections of HUD's regulations have provided mortgagees the option to elect payment of FHA insurance claims in debentures, HUD has not paid an FHA insurance claim in debentures under these regulations in approximately 5 years. This final rule amends applicable FHA regulations to bring consistency in determining the method of payment for FHA insurance claims. This final rule follows publication of the February 20, 2015, proposed rule and adopts the proposed rule without change.
For information about: HUD's Single Family Housing program, contact Ivery Himes, Director, Office of Single Family Asset Management, Office of Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 9172, Washington, DC 20410; telephone number 202-708-1672; HUD's Multifamily Housing program, contact Sivert Ritchie, Multifamily Claims Branch, Office of Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 6252, Washington, DC 20410-8000; telephone number 202-708-2510. The telephone numbers listed above are not toll-free numbers. Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access these numbers through TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339 (this is a toll-free number).
On February 20, 2015, HUD published a rule in the
The February 20, 2015, rule proposed amending FHA's regulations to bring uniformity and consistency in the payment of FHA insurance claims among FHA programs in the following sections: §§ 203.400, 203.476, 203.478, 207.259, 220.751, 220.760, 220.822, 221.762, 232.885, 236.265, 241.261, 241.885, and 241.1205. As a result of these changes, § 220.760 was proposed to be removed because it was unnecessary. Please see the February 20, 2015, proposed rule for a more detailed description of the proposed changes.
The public comment period for the proposed rule closed on April 21, 2015, and HUD did not receive any public comments. As a result, this final rule adopts the proposed rule without change.
Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulations and Regulatory Review) directs executive agencies to analyze regulations that are “outmoded, ineffective, insufficient, or excessively burdensome, and to modify, streamline, expand, or repeal them in accordance with what has been learned.” Executive Order 13563 also directs that, where relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives, and to the extent permitted by law, agencies are to identify and consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public.
Consistent with Executive Order 13563, the purposes of the reform to FHA's regulations regarding Secretarial discretion of the type of FHA insurance claim payment are to eliminate unnecessary spending and to bring consistency regarding the payment of insurance claims across FHA programs. As discussed in the preamble, the interagency agreement with Treasury costs HUD over $206,000 per year, even though HUD currently does not have any debentures for payment of FHA insurance claims in circulation, and has not made a payment in debentures in approximately 5 years for these insurance claims. In addition, different FHA programs treat payment of FHA insurance claims differently, and this final rule simplifies the regulations so that the authority to determine the method of claim payment rests with the Secretary who can determine whether it is fiscally prudent to offer FHA insurance claim payments in debentures, cash, or both.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule does not direct, provide for assistance or loan and mortgage insurance for, or otherwise govern or regulate the following: real property acquisition, disposition, leasing, rehabilitation, alteration, demolition, or new construction. Furthermore, the rule does not establish, revise, or provide for standards for construction or construction materials, manufactured housing, or occupancy. Accordingly, under 24 CFR 50.19(c)(1), this final rule is categorically excluded from environmental review under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321).
Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either (i) imposes substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments and is not required by statute or (ii) preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. This final rule does not have federalism implications and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) (UMRA) establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments and on the private sector. This final rule does not impose any Federal mandates on any State, local, or tribal governments or on the private sector, within the meaning of the UMRA.
This final rule reduces information collection requirements already submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for Mortgage Insurance-Homes is 14.117; Mortgage Insurance Nursing Homes, Intermediate Care Facilities, Board and Care Homes, and Assisted Living Facilities is 14.129; Mortgage Insurance-Rental Housing is 14.134; and Mortgage Insurance for the Purchase or Refinancing of Existing Multifamily Housing Projects is 14.155.
Hawaiian Natives, Home improvement, Indians—lands, Loan programs—housing and community development; Mortgage insurance; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Solar energy.
Manufactured homes, Mortgage insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Solar energy.
Home improvement, Loan programs—housing and community development, Mortgage insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Urban renewal.
Low and moderate income housing, Mortgage insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Fire prevention, Health facilities, Loan programs—health, Loan programs—housing and community development, Mortgage insurance, Nursing homes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs—housing and community development, Low and moderate income housing, Mortgage insurance, Rent subsidies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Home improvement, Loan programs—housing and community development, Mortgage insurance, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Solar energy.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated above, HUD amends 24 CFR parts 203, 207, 220, 221, 232, 236, and 241 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 1709, 1710, 1715b, 1715z-16, 1715u, 1717z-21, and 1735d; 15 U.S.C. 1639c; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
(a) If the application for insurance benefits is acceptable to the Commissioner, payment of the insurance claim shall be made in cash, in debentures, or in a combination of both, as determined by the Commissioner either at, or prior to, the time of payment.
(b) An insurance claim paid on a mortgage insured under section 223(e) of the National Housing Act shall be paid in cash from the Special Risk Insurance Fund.
(g) All property of the borrower held by the lender or to which it is entitled and, if the Commissioner elects to make payments in debentures, all cash held by the lender or to which it is entitled, including deposits made for the account of the borrower and which have not been applied in reduction of the principal loan indebtedness;
(c)
12 U.S.C. 1701z-11(e), 1709(c)(1), 1713, 1715(b), and 1735d; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
(a)
(2) An insurance claim paid on a mortgage insured under section 223(e) of the National Housing Act shall be paid in cash from the Special Risk Insurance Fund.
12 U.S.C. 1713, 1715b, 1715k, and 1735d; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
(a) All of the provisions of subpart B, part 207, of this chapter, covering mortgages insured under section 207 of the National Housing Act, apply with full force and effect to multifamily project mortgages insured under section 220 of the National Housing Act, except § 207.256b Modification of mortgage terms.
12 U.S.C. 1715b, 1715l, and 1735d; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
12 U.S.C. 1715b, 1715w, 1735d, and 1735f-19; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
(a)
12 U.S.C. 1715b, 1715z-1, and 1735d; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
12 U.S.C. 1715b, 1715z-6, and 1735d; 42 U.S.C. 3535(d).
All of the provisions of § 207.259 of this chapter relating to insurance benefits shall apply to multifamily loans insured under this subpart.
(a)
All the provisions of § 207.259 of this chapter relating to insurance benefits shall apply to an equity or acquisition loan insured under subpart F of this part.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the S. R. 74 Bridge across the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, mile 283.1, at Wrightsville Beach, NC. This deviation is necessary to facilitate the annual Beach2Battleship Iron and Half-Iron Distance Triathlons. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from 6:30 a.m. to 11 a.m. on October 17, 2015.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2015-0722], is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Hal R. Pitts, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard; telephone (757) 398-6222, email
The North Carolina Department of Transportation, who owns and operates the S. R. 74 Bridge, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations set out in 33 CFR 117.821(a)(4), to facilitate the annual Beach2Battleship Iron and Half-Iron Distance Triathlons.
Under the normal operating schedule for the S. R. 74 Bridge across the Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, mile 283.1, at Wrightsville Beach, NC in 33 CFR 117.821(a)(4); the draw need only open on the hour between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m. and open on demand between 7 p.m. and 7 a.m. The bridge has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 20 feet above mean high water.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will be closed to navigation from 6:30 a.m. to 11 a.m. on October 17, 2015. The Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway is used by a variety of vessels including small commercial fishing vessels and recreational vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully coordinated the restrictions with commercial and recreational waterway users.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge in the closed position. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notice to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessels can arrange their transits to minimize any impacts caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Isabel S. Holmes Bridge across the Northeast Cape Fear River, mile 1.0, at Wilmington, NC. This deviation is necessary to facilitate the annual Beach2Battleship Iron and Half-Iron Distance Triathlons. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from 9:30 a.m. to 6 p.m. on October 17, 2015.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2015-0723], is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Hal R. Pitts, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard; telephone (757)
The North Carolina Department of Transportation, who owns and operates the Isabel S. Holmes Bridge, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations set out in 33 CFR 117.829(a), to facilitate the annual Beach2Battleship Iron and Half-Iron Distance Triathlons.
Under the normal operating schedule for the Isabel S. Holmes Bridge across the Northeast Cape Fear River, mile 1.0, at Wilmington, NC in 33 CFR 117.829(a); the draw will be closed to pleasure craft from 6 a.m. to 6 p.m. every day except at 10 a.m. and 2 p.m. when the draw will open for all waiting vessels; the draw will open on signal for Government and commercial vessels at all times; the draw will open for all vessels on signal from 6 p.m. to 6 a.m. The bridge has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 40 feet above mean high water.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will be closed to navigation from 9:30 a.m. to 6 p.m. on October 17, 2015. The Northeast Cape Fear River is used by a variety of vessels including small commercial fishing vessels, recreational vessels and tug and barge. The Coast Guard has carefully coordinated the restrictions with commercial and recreational waterway users.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge in the closed position. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notice to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessels can arrange their transits to minimize any impacts caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone around vessels involved in Coast Guard training exercises in Hood Canal, WA from September 23, 2015 through September 24, 2015, unless cancelled sooner by the Captain of the Port. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the maritime public and vessels participating in these exercises. During the enforcement period, entry into this zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or his Designated Representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.1339 will be enforced from 12:01 a.m. on September 23, 2015 through 11:59 p.m. on September 24, 2015, unless cancelled sooner by the Captain of the Port.
If you have questions on this notice, call or email LT Kate Haseley, Sector Puget Sound Waterways Management Division, Coast Guard; telephone 206-217-6051, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the safety zone around vessels involved in Coast Guard training exercises in Hood Canal, WA set forth in 33 CFR 165.1339, from 12:01 a.m. on September 23, 2015 through 11:59 p.m. on September 24, 2015, unless cancelled sooner by the Captain of the Port. Under the provisions of 33 CFR 165.1339, no person or vessel may enter or remain within 500 yards of any vessel involved in Coast Guard training exercises while such vessel is transiting Hood Canal, WA between Foul Weather Bluff and the entrance to Dabob Bay, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port or his Designated Representative. In addition, the regulation establishes requirements for all vessels to obtain permission for entry during the enforcement period by contacting the on-scene patrol commander on VHF channel 13 or 16, or the Sector Puget Sound Joint Harbor Operations Center at 206-217-6001. Members of the maritime public will be able to identify participating vessels as those flying the Coast Guard Ensign. The COTP may also be assisted in the enforcement of the zone by other federal, state, or local agencies.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 U.S.C. 165.1339 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this notice in the
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (ODEQ) on December 12, 2012 to address Clean Air Act (CAA) requirements for the Klamath Falls, Oregon nonattainment area for the 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
This final rule is effective on September 24, 2015.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2013-0005. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Justin A. Spenillo at (206) 553-6125,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
Detailed information on the history of the PM
The comment period on our proposed approval ended January 29, 2015 and we did not receive any comments on the proposal. We are therefore finalizing our approval. The primary element of the Klamath County Clean Air Ordinance 63.06 to help ensure attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS is the episodic curtailment program which restricts the use of woodstoves and fireplaces on days that are conducive to the buildup of PM
In addition to the episodic curtailment program, the ordinance includes provisions that impose restrictions on what can be burned in woodstoves and fireplaces at any time. The ordinance requires that only seasoned wood, specifically dry, seasoned cordwood, pressed sawdust logs, organic charcoal or pellets specifically manufactured for the appliance, be burned in solid fuel-fired appliances. The rules and ordinance also specifically prohibit the burning of garbage and other named prohibited materials. These material restrictions control the PM
As mentioned in the
Accordingly, this combination of provisions constitutes continuous emission limitations, consistent with Federal Clean Air Act requirements. Specifically, reliance on the episodic curtailment program and other provisions regulating fuel described above serves as an adequate alternative emission limit during the starting of fires in solid fuel-fired appliances, when use of the 20% opacity limits would be infeasible. Reliance on those requirements during startup periods is limited and specific to the operation of solid fuel-fired appliances, minimizes the frequency and duration of those periods, and minimizes the impact of emissions on ambient air quality during those periods, while the episodic curtailment program ensures that emission impacts are avoided during potential worst-case periods. While EPA's guidance on alternative emission limits also specifies that the owner or operator's actions during startup and shutdown periods be documented by properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs or other relevant evidence, we do not think it is reasonable to apply that element of the guidance in this case, because we conclude it would be an unreasonable burden to impose this recordkeeping requirement for individual home heating situations. See 80 FR 33840 (June 12, 2015). [relevant discussion is on page 278-279 of the notice available at
The EPA approves the emissions inventory for the Klamath Falls NAA, submitted by ODEQ on December 12, 2012, as meeting the emissions inventory requirements of section 172(c)(3) of the CAA for 2006 PM
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Oregon Administrative Rules and Klamath County ordinances described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because this action does not involve technical standards; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 26, 2015. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(a) * * *
(1) The allowance for an anesthesia service furnished by a medically directed CRNA is based on a fixed percentage of the allowance recognized for the anesthesia service personally performed by the physician alone, as specified in § 414.46(d)(3); and
In Title 42 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Parts 430 to 481, revised as of October 1, 2014, on page 591, in § 476.80, make the following changes:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Bret Gates, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4133.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some of these communities may adopt and submit the required documentation of legally enforceable floodplain management measures after this rule is published but prior to the actual suspension date. These communities will not be suspended and will continue to be eligible for the sale of NFIP flood insurance. A notice withdrawing the suspension of such communities will be published in the
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
2. The tables published under the authority of § 64.6 are amended as follows:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule; withdrawal.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is withdrawing a duplicate final rule which it published inadvertently on June 23, 2015.
This withdrawal is effective August 25, 2015.
Bret Gates, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4133.
On June 23, 2015, FEMA published a final rule, Suspension of Community Eligibility (Docket ID FEMA-2015-0001; Internal Docket No. FEMA-8385) (80 FR 35851), that had previously been published on June 4, 2015 (80 FR 31847). The June 23, 2015 final rule publication was in error, and FEMA withdraws publication of the duplicate rule. This error does not alter the effective dates of the final rule that was published on June 4, 2015.
In Title 48 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Chapter 1, Parts 1 to 51, revised as of October 1, 2014, on page 952, remove section 46.806.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
This rule makes final an interim rule that established a fishing effort limit for calendar year 2015 for U.S. purse seine vessels in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and on the high seas between the latitudes of 20° N. and 20° S. in the area of
This rule is effective on August 25, 2015.
Copies of supporting documents prepared for this final rule, including the regulatory impact review (RIR) and the environmental assessment (EA) and supplemental EA prepared for the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) purposes, as well as the interim rule, are available via the Federal e-rulemaking Portal, at
Emily Crigler, NMFS PIRO, 808-725-5036.
On May 21, 2015, NMFS published an interim rule in the
The 2015 purse seine fishing effort limit for the ELAPS was formulated as in previous rules to establish limits for the ELAPS: The applicable limit for the U.S. EEZ portion of the ELAPS, 558 fishing days per year, is combined with the applicable limit for the high seas portion of the ELAPS, 1,270 fishing days per year, resulting in a combined limit of 1,828 fishing days in the ELAPS for calendar year 2015.
As established in existing regulations for purse seine fishing effort limits in the ELAPS, NMFS monitors the number of fishing days spent in the ELAPS using data submitted in logbooks and other available information. On June 8, 2015, NMFS issued a temporary rule in the
This final rule is issued under the authority of the WCPFC Implementation Act (16 U.S.C. 6901
This final rule makes final the interim rule that established the limit of 1,828 fishing days for the calendar year 2015.
NMFS received two sets of comments on the interim rule. The comments are summarized below, followed by responses from NMFS.
No changes from the interim rule have been made in this final rule.
On May 12, 2015, as the interim rule was being finalized for publication, NMFS received a petition for rulemaking from Tri Marine Management Company, LLC (Tri Marine). The company requested, first, that NOAA undertake an emergency rulemaking to implement the 2015 limit on fishing effort by U.S. purse seine vessels on the high seas and in the U.S. exclusive economic zone in the Convention Area, and second, that NOAA issue a rule exempting from that limit any U.S. purse seine vessel that, pursuant to contract or declaration of intent, delivers or will deliver at least half its catch to tuna processing facilities in American Samoa. This final rule addresses the first part of the petition by implementing the 2015 limit on fishing effort for U.S. purse seiners on the high seas and in the U.S. EEZ. On July 17, 2015, NMFS published a notice of receipt of, and request for comment on, the Tri Marine petition (80 FR 42464). Any action taken by NMFS in response to the second petitioned action will be taken separately from the rulemaking in this document, after consideration of public comment on the notice of receipt of the petition.
The regulations at 50 CFR 300.223 implementing the ELAPS closure prohibit U.S. purse seine vessels from conducting bunkering operations in the ELAPS during the closure period, since bunkering is included in the definition of fishing (see 50 CFR 300.211). During the ELAPS closure, the U.S. purse seine fleet generally continues to be allowed to fish under the South Pacific Tuna Treaty in some foreign EEZs; however, the vessels are not necessarily authorized by those nations to conduct bunkering activities in their waters. Consequently, they are effectively forced to conduct bunkering operations in foreign waters or ports, which can result in substantial costs to fishing businesses. In a separate, but related rulemaking (RIN 0648-BF23), which is
The Administrator, Pacific Islands Region, NMFS, has determined that this final rule is consistent with the WCPFC Implementation Act and other applicable laws.
NMFS may waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness required under the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(d), upon a finding of good cause that the delay is impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. NMFS finds that it would be contrary to the public interest to delay the effective date of this final rule. The requirements have been in effect through the interim rule since May 21, 2015, and the ELAPS has been closed to fishing by U.S. purse seiners since June 15, 2015. If this final rule does not enter into effect immediately, there could be public confusion as to whether the ELAPS is reopened to fishing until the rule enters into effect. Thus, this final rule is effective upon publication in the
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Because prior notice and opportunity for public comment were not required for the interim rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Administrative practice and procedure, Fish, Fisheries, Fishing, Marine resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
16 U.S.C. 6901
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Interim rule; request for comments.
This interim rule amends the regulations to remove the restriction that prohibits U.S. purse seine vessels from conducting bunkering (refueling) activities in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and on the high seas between the latitudes of 20° N. and 20° S. in the area of application of the Convention on the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean (Convention), also known as the Effort Limit Area for Purse Seine or ELAPS, when this area is closed to U.S. purse seine fishing. This action would relieve U.S. purse seine vessels from the burden of the prohibition while continuing to satisfy U.S. obligations pursuant to the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act.
This rule is effective on August 25, 2015. Comments must be submitted in writing by September 24, 2015.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0098, and the regulatory impact review (RIR) prepared for the interim rule, by either of the following methods:
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1. Go to
2. Click the “Comment Now!” icon, complete the required fields, and
3. Enter or attach your comments.
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Copies of the RIR and the Record of Environmental Consideration prepared for National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) purposes are available at
Emily Crigler, NMFS PIRO, 808-725-5036.
The Convention focuses on the conservation and management of highly migratory species (HMS) and the management of fisheries for HMS. The objective of the Convention is to ensure, through effective management, the long-term conservation and sustainable use of HMS in the western and central Pacific Ocean (WCPO). To accomplish this objective, the Convention established the Commission on the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean (WCPFC or Commission). The
As a Contracting Party to the Convention and a Member of the Commission, the United States is obligated to implement the decisions of the Commission. The Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act (16 U.S.C. 6901
At its Eleventh Regular Session, in December 2014, the Commission adopted Conservation and Management Measure (CMM) 2014-01, “Conservation and Management Measure for Bigeye, Yellowfin and Skipjack Tuna in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean.” CMM 2014-01 is the most recent in a series of CMMs for the management of tropical tuna stocks under the purview of the Commission. It is the immediate successor to CMM 2013-01, adopted in December 2013. These and other CMMs are available at:
The stated general objective of CMM 2014-01 and several of its predecessor CMMs is to ensure that the stocks of bigeye tuna (
CMM 2014-01 went into effect February 3, 2015, and is generally applicable for the 2015-2017 period. The CMM includes provisions for purse seine vessels, longline vessels, and other types of vessels that fish for HMS. The CMM's provisions for purse seine vessels include limits on the allowable number of fishing vessels, limits on the allowable level of fishing effort, restrictions on the use of fish aggregating devices, requirements to retain all bigeye tuna, yellowfin tuna, and skipjack tuna except in specific circumstances, and requirements to carry vessel observers.
The provisions of CMM 2014-01 apply on the high seas and in EEZs in the Convention Area; they do not apply in territorial seas or archipelagic waters.
CMM 2014-01 includes specific fishing effort limits for purse seine vessels.
On May 21, 2015, NMFS published an interim rule to establish a limit on fishing effort by U.S. purse seine vessels in the ELAPS for the calendar year 2015 (80 FR 29220), in accordance with the relevant provisions of CMM 2014-01. The limit is 1,828 fishing days, and went into effect on May 21, 2015. NMFS is issuing a final rule that responds to comments on the interim rule issued on May 21, 2015 (see the final rule identified by RIN 0648-BF03), which is being published elsewhere in this issue of the
On June 8, 2015, NMFS determined that the 2015 ELAPS limit was expected to be reached and, in accordance with the procedures established at 50 CFR 300.223, issued a temporary rule announcing that the purse seine fishery in the ELAPS would be closed to fishing by U.S. purse seine vessels starting June 15, 2015, and would remain closed through December 31, 2015 (80 FR 32313).
The regulations at 50 CFR 300.223, promulgated in 2009, specify that once a fishery closure in the ELAPS goes into effect, U.S. fishing vessels equipped with purse seine gear may not be used to fish in the ELAPS during the closure period. Because the definition of fishing, as established in 50 CFR 300.211, specifically includes bunkering, U.S. purse seine vessels under these regulations are prohibited from conducting bunkering operations in the ELAPS. During the closure of the ELAPS, U.S. purse seine vessels are generally allowed to fish in some foreign EEZs pursuant to the South Pacific Tuna Treaty. Information suggests that the U.S. WCPO purse seine fleet conducts about half of all bunkering operations on the high seas in order to support fishing operations in foreign EEZs in the WCPO. Since the regulations at 50 CFR 300.223 prohibit bunkering on the high seas in the WCPO for the remainder of 2015, the vessels are compelled to bunker in foreign waters or ports, which brings additional costs to these businesses. As stated in the RIR, it is difficult to estimate the costs to these businesses of the bunkering prohibition, but considering lost fishing time, transit costs, higher fuel prices, and, in the situation of having to go to port, port-associated costs, it is clear the additional costs could be substantial.
This interim rule is limited to amending the regulations at 50 CFR 300.223 to remove the restriction that prohibits U.S. purse seine vessels from conducting bunkering (refueling) activities within the ELAPS after a closure is announced. The regulations at 50 CFR 300.223(a)(3) state that once a fishery closure is announced, fishing vessels of the United States equipped with purse seine gear may not be used to fish in the ELAPS during the period specified in the
This action is consistent with the provisions of CMM 2014-01 regarding purse seine fishing effort limits and is undertaken pursuant to the WCPFC Implementation Act. Although
The Administrator, Pacific Islands Region, NMFS, has determined that this interim rule is consistent with the WCPFC Implementation Act and other applicable laws.
The Assistant Administrator finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) to waive prior notice and the opportunity for public comment on this action, because it would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This rule removes a restriction that prohibits U.S. purse seine vessels from conducting bunkering (refueling) activities in the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and in certain areas of the high seas. Without the amendments in this interim final rule, vessels would be compelled to bunker in foreign waters or ports, which brings additional costs to these businesses. It is difficult to estimate the costs to these businesses, but it could be substantial due to lost fishing time, transit costs, higher fuel prices, and, in the situation of having to go to port, port-associated costs. If this rule is delayed to allow for prior notice and opportunity for public comment, it could result in substantial economic costs to the regulated community as the bunkering prohibition is currently effective and impacting the regulated community. In addition, continuing this restriction is not necessary to satisfy the obligations of the United States as a member of the Commission.
The Assistant Administrative finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness because the bunkering prohibition is currently effective and impacting the regulated community. If this rule is delayed to allow for a 30-day delay in effectiveness, it could result in substantial economic costs to the regulated community. In order to avoid the possible economic impacts, this rule needs to be implemented immediately.
This interim rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Because prior notice and opportunity for public comment are not required for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Administrative practice and procedure, Fish, Fisheries, Fishing, Marine resources, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 300 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 6901
(a) * * *
(3) Once a fishery closure is announced pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, fishing vessels of the United States equipped with purse seine gear may not be used to fish in the ELAPS during the period specified in the
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking; extension of comment period.
On May 4, 2015, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) requested public comment on an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPR) to obtain input for the development of a regulatory basis that would support potential amendments to those regulations concerning how NRC licensees demonstrate meeting the “as low as is reasonably achievable” standard with respect to effluents from nuclear power plants. The purpose of the potential amendments would be to more closely align these NRC regulations with the terminology and dose-related methodology published by the International Commission on Radiation Protection (ICRP), as contained in the ICRP Publication 103 (2007). The public comment period was originally scheduled to close on September 1, 2015. The NRC received a request to extend the public comment period on the ANPR and is approving a one-time, 30-day extension to provide additional time for members of the public and other stakeholders to develop and submit their comments.
The public comment period in the notice published on May 4, 2015 (80 FR 25237), is extended. Comments should be filed no later than October 1, 2015. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Carolyn Lauron, telephone: 301-415-2736, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2014-0044 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2014-0044 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
On May 4, 2015, the NRC published an ANPR (80 FR 25237) for public comment to obtain input on the development of a regulatory basis. The
The ANPR identified specific questions and issues with respect to a possible revision of the NRC's regulations at 10 CFR part 50, appendix I, and associated guidance. Comments from members of the public and other stakeholders, including responses to the specific questions, will be considered by the NRC staff when it develops the regulatory basis. The public comment period was originally scheduled to close on September 1, 2015. The NRC received a request (ADAMS Accession No. ML15217A373) to extend the public comment period on the ANPR and is approving a one-time, 30-day extension, until October 1, 2015, to provide additional time for members of the public and other stakeholders to develop and submit their comments.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Close of public comment period.
The comment period for the Availability of Provisional Analysis Tools and Notice of Data Availability pertaining to the development of energy conservation standards for commercial and industrial fan and blower equipment published on May 1, 2015, closes on September 8, 2015.
The comment period for the Availability of Provisional Analysis Tools and Notice of Data Availability closes on September 8, 2015.
Any comments submitted must identify the framework document for commercial and industrial fans and blowers and provide docket number EERE-2013-BT-STD-0006 and/or RIN number 1904-AC55. Comments may be submitted using any of the following methods:
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Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-6590. Email:
Mr. Peter Cochran, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-9496. Email:
For further information on how to submit a comment and review other public comments and the docket, contact Ms. Brenda Edwards at (202) 586-2945 or by email:
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published a proposed determination that commercial and industrial fans and blowers (fans) meet the definition of covered equipment under the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975, as amended (76 FR 37628, June 28, 2011). As part of its further consideration of this determination, DOE has initiated a rulemaking to establish energy conservation standards for commercial and industrial fans and blowers. To date, DOE has published a notice of public meeting and availability of the framework document to consider such standards (78 FR 7306 (Feb. 1, 2013)), and two Availabilities of Provisional Analysis Tools and Notices of Data Availability (NODAs) (79 FR 73246 (Dec. 10, 2014), and 80 FR 24841 (May 1, 2015)). The second NODA provided for the submission of public comments through Fans and Blowers Working Group meetings established by the Appliance Standards Regulatory Advisory Committee (ASRAC), which concludes on September 8, 2015.
In addition to issuing these publications, DOE has participated in and provided support to the Fans and Blowers Working Group. In particular, the second NODA was published to inform the proceedings of the Working Group and serve as a starting point for its work. The proceedings of the Working Group, including revised analysis largely supersede the content of the May 2015 NODA. DOE encouraged stakeholders to provide any additional data or information and to submit comments on the content and analysis developed during the ASRAC Working Group process. Supporting material presented during the Working Group meetings and transcripts, as well as supporting documents including industry publications are available in the Fans and Blowers rulemaking docket at:
Given that the Fans and Blowers Working Group meetings will conclude by September 8, 2015, DOE believes that closing the comment period on September 8, 2015 will allow sufficient time for interested parties to submit comments. Accordingly, DOE will consider any comments received by September 8, 2015 to be timely submitted.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, DOE.
Notice of intent and announcement of public meeting.
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE or the Department) is giving notice of a public meeting and that DOE intends to establish a negotiated rulemaking working group under the Appliance Standards and Rulemaking Federal Advisory Committee (ASRAC) in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) and the Negotiated Rulemaking Act (NRA) to negotiate the proposal of new energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps standards and to discuss certain aspects of the proposed Federal test procedure for pumps that would apply to dedicated purpose pool pumps. The purpose of the working group will be to discuss and, if possible, reach consensus on a proposal to establish energy conservation standards and a test procedure for dedicated purpose pool pumps, as authorized by the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA) of 1975, as amended. (With respect to the test procedure, DOE is seeking to establish a consensus on specific aspects that would play a role in the manner in which this equipment would be tested.) The working group will consist of representatives of parties having a defined stake in the outcome of the proposed standards and amended test procedure, and will consult, as appropriate, with a range of experts on technical issues. The working group is expected to develop the necessary data, test procedure, and definitions for dedicated purpose pool pumps and provide a report back to ASRAC no later than December 29, 2015.
DOE will host a public meeting and webinar on September 30, 2015 from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. in Room IE-245 and October 1, 2015 from 8 a.m. to 3 p.m. in Room 8E-089 Washington, DC.
Written comments and applications (
U.S. Department of Energy, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585, Room IE-245 on September 30, 2015 and in Room 8E-089 on October 1, 2015. Individuals will also have the opportunity to participate by webinar. For webinar and call-in information, please visit
Interested person may submit comments and an application for membership (including a cover letter and resume), identified by docket number EERE-2015-BT-STD-0008 any of the following methods:
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4.
No telefacsimilies (faxes) will be accepted.
John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Building Technologies (EE-2J), 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20024. Phone: 202-287-1692. Email:
DOE is announcing its intent to negotiate proposed energy conservation standards and establish a test procedure that would apply to dedicated purpose pool pumps, under the authority of sections 563 and 564 of the NRA (5 U.S.C. 561-570, Pub. L. 104-320). These efforts to establish standards and a test procedure for dedicated purpose pool pumps through a negotiated rulemaking will be developed under the authority of EPCA, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 6311(1) and 42 U.S.C. 6291
As required by the NRA, DOE is giving notice that it is establishing a working group under ASRAC to discuss certain aspects related to testing and the potential development of proposed energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps.
DOE has decided to use the negotiated rulemaking process to discuss certain test procedure amendments and develop proposed energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps. The primary reason for using the negotiated rulemaking process for this product is that stakeholders strongly support a consensual rulemaking effort. DOE believes such a regulatory negotiation process will be less adversarial and better suited to resolving complex technical issues. An important virtue of negotiated rulemaking is that it allows expert dialog that is much better than traditional techniques at getting the facts and issues right and will result in a proposed rule that will effectively reflect Congressional intent.
A regulatory negotiation will enable DOE to engage in direct and sustained dialog with informed, interested, and affected parties when drafting the regulation, rather than obtaining input during a public comment period after developing and publishing a proposed rule. Gaining this early understanding of all parties' perspectives allows DOE to address key issues at an earlier stage of the process, thereby allowing more time for an iterative process to resolve issues. A rule drafted by negotiation with informed and affected parties is expected to be potentially more pragmatic and more easily implemented than a rule arising from the traditional process. Such rulemaking improvement is likely to provide the public with the full benefits of the rule while minimizing the potential negative
Usually, DOE develops a proposed rulemaking using Department staff and consultant resources. Congress noted in the NRA, however, that regulatory development may “discourage the affected parties from meeting and communicating with each other, and may cause parties with different interests to assume conflicting and antagonistic positions * * *.” 5 U.S.C. 561(2)(2). Congress also stated that “adversarial rulemaking deprives the affected parties and the public of the benefits of face-to-face negotiations and cooperation in developing and reaching agreement on a rule. It also deprives them of the benefits of shared information, knowledge, expertise, and technical abilities possessed by the affected parties.” 5 U.S.C. 561(2)(3).
Using negotiated rulemaking to develop a proposed rule differs fundamentally from the Department-centered process. In negotiated rulemaking, a proposed rule is developed by an advisory committee or working group, chartered under FACA, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, composed of members chosen to represent the various interests that will be significantly affected by the rule. The goal of the advisory committee or working group is to reach consensus on the treatment of the major issues involved with the rule. The process starts with the Department's careful identification of all interests potentially affected by the rulemaking under consideration. To help with this identification, the Department publishes a notice of intent such as this one in the
After an advisory committee or working group reaches consensus on the provisions of a proposed rule, the Department, consistent with its legal obligations, uses such consensus as the basis of its proposed rule, which then is published in the
The NRA enables DOE to establish an advisory committee or working group if it is determined that the use of the negotiated rulemaking process is in the public interest. DOE intends to develop Federal regulations that build on the depth of experience accrued in both the public and private sectors in implementing standards and programs.
DOE has determined that the regulatory negotiation process will provide for obtaining a diverse array of in-depth input, as well as an opportunity for increased collaborative discussion from both private-sector stakeholders and government officials who are familiar with the test procedures and energy efficiency of dedicated purpose pool pumps.
In initiating this regulatory negotiation process to develop the test procedure and energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps, DOE is making a commitment to provide adequate resources to facilitate timely and successful completion of the process. This commitment includes making the process a priority activity for all representatives, components, officials, and personnel of the Department who need to be involved in the rulemaking, from the time of initiation until such time as a final rule is issued or the process is expressly terminated. DOE will provide administrative support for the process and will take steps to ensure that the advisory committee or working group has the dedicated resources it requires to complete its work in a timely fashion. Specifically, DOE will make available the following support services: Properly equipped space adequate for public meetings and caucuses; logistical support; word processing and distribution of background information; the service of a facilitator; and such additional research and other technical assistance as may be necessary.
To the maximum extent possible consistent with the legal obligations of the Department, DOE will use the consensus of the advisory committee or working group as the basis for the rule the Department proposes for public notice and comment.
As discussed above, the negotiated rulemaking process differs fundamentally from the usual process for developing a proposed rule. Negotiation enables interested and affected parties to discuss various approaches to issues rather than asking them only to respond to a proposal developed by the Department. The negotiation process involves a mutual education of the various parties on the practical concerns about the impact of standards. Each advisory committee or working group member participates in resolving the interests and concerns of other members, rather than leaving it up to DOE to evaluate and incorporate different points of view.
A key principle of negotiated rulemaking is that agreement is by consensus of all the interests. Thus, no one interest or group of interests is able to control the process. The NRA defines consensus as the unanimous concurrence among interests represented on a negotiated rulemaking committee or working group, unless the committee or working group itself unanimously agrees to use a different definition. 5 U.S.C. 562. In addition, experience has demonstrated that using a trained mediator to facilitate this process will assist all parties, including DOE, in identifying their real interests in the rule, and thus will enable parties to focus on and resolve the important issues.
The following issues and concerns will underlie the work of the Negotiated Rulemaking Committee for dedicated purpose pool pumps:
• Certain aspects of the proposed test procedure, including key test procedure conditions, as applicable; and
• All relevant data and proposals for definition of dedicated purpose pool pumps, leading to proposed energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps.
To examine the underlying issues outlined above, and others not yet articulated, all parties in the negotiation will need DOE to provide data and an analytic framework complete and accurate enough to support their deliberations. DOE's analyses must be adequate to inform a prospective negotiation—for example, a preliminary Technical Support Document or equivalent must be available and timely.
A working group will be formed and operated in full compliance with the requirements of FACA and in a manner consistent with the requirements of the NRA. DOE has determined that the working group not exceed 25 members. The Department believes that more than 25 members would make it difficult to conduct effective negotiations. DOE is aware that there are many more potential participants than there are membership slots on the working group. The Department does not believe, nor does the NRA contemplate, that each potentially affected group must participate directly in the negotiations; nevertheless, each affected interest can be adequately represented. To have a successful negotiation, it is important for interested parties to identify and form coalitions that adequately represent significantly affected interests. To provide adequate representation, those coalitions must agree to support, both financially and technically, a member of the working group whom they choose to represent their interests.
DOE recognizes that when it considers adding covered products and establishing energy efficiency standards for residential products and commercial equipment, various segments of society may be affected in different ways, in some cases producing unique “interests” in a proposed rule based on income, gender, or other factors. The Department will pay attention to providing that any unique interests that have been identified, and that may be significantly affected by the proposed rule, are represented.
FACA also requires that members of the public have the opportunity to attend meetings of the full committee and speak or otherwise address the committee during the public comment period. In addition, any member of the public is permitted to file a written statement with the advisory committee. DOE plans to follow these same procedures in conducting meetings of the working group.
DOE anticipates that the working group will comprise no more than 25 members who represent affected and interested stakeholder groups, at least one of whom must be a member of the ASRAC. As required by FACA, the Department will conduct the negotiated rulemaking with particular attention to ensuring full and balanced representation of those interests that may be significantly affected by the proposed rule governing dedicated purpose pool pump energy conservation standards. Section 562 of the NRA defines the term “interest” as “with respect to an issue or matter, multiple parties which have a similar point of view or which are likely to be affected in a similar manner.” Listed below are parties the Department to date has identified as being “significantly affected” by a proposed rule regarding the energy efficiency of dedicated purpose pool pumps.
• The Department of Energy
• Trade Associations representing manufacturers of dedicated purpose pool pumps
• Manufacturers of dedicated purpose pool pumps and component manufacturers and related suppliers
• Distributors or contractors selling or installing dedicated purpose pool pumps
• Utilities
• Energy efficiency/environmental advocacy groups
• Consumers
One purpose of this notice of intent is to determine whether Federal regulations regarding dedicated purpose pool pumps will significantly affect interests that are not listed above. DOE invites comment and suggestions on its initial list of significantly affected interests.
Members may be individuals or organizations. If the effort is to be fruitful, participants on the working group should be able to fully and adequately represent the viewpoints of their respective interests. This document gives notice of DOE's process to other potential participants and affords them the opportunity to request representation in the negotiations. Those who wish to be appointed as members of the working group, should submit a request to DOE, in accordance with the public participation procedures outlined in the
• Attendance at approximately ten (10), one (1) to two (2) day meetings (with the potential for two (2) additional one (1) or two (2) day meetings);
• Travel costs to those meetings; and
• Preparation time for those meetings.
Members serving on the working group will not receive compensation for their services. Interested parties who are not selected for membership on the working group may make valuable contributions to this negotiated rulemaking effort in any of the following ways:
• The person may request to be placed on the working group mailing list and submit written comments as appropriate.
• The person may attend working group meetings, which are open to the public; caucus with his or her interest's member on the working group; or even address the working group during the public comment portion of the working group meeting.
• The person could assist the efforts of a workgroup that the working group might establish.
A working group may establish informal workgroups, which usually are asked to facilitate committee deliberations by assisting with various technical matters (
Every working group member must be willing to negotiate in good faith and have the authority, granted by his or her constituency, to do so. The first step is to ensure that each member has good communications with his or her
Certain concepts are central to negotiating in good faith. One is the willingness to bring all issues to the bargaining table in an attempt to reach a consensus, as opposed to keeping key issues in reserve. The second is a willingness to keep the issues at the table and not take them to other forums. Finally, good faith includes a willingness to move away from some of the positions often taken in a more traditional rulemaking process, and instead explore openly with other parties all ideas that may emerge from the working group's discussions.
The facilitator will act as a neutral in the substantive development of the proposed standard. Rather, the facilitator's role generally includes:
• Impartially assisting the members of the working group in conducting discussions and negotiations; and
• Impartially assisting in performing the duties of the Designated Federal Official under FACA.
The DOE representative will be a full and active participant in the consensus building negotiations. The Department's representative will meet regularly with senior Department officials, briefing them on the negotiations and receiving their suggestions and advice so that he or she can effectively represent the Department's views regarding the issues before the working group. DOE's representative also will ensure that the entire spectrum of governmental interests affected by the standards rulemaking, including the Office of Management and Budget, the Attorney General, and other Departmental offices, are kept informed of the negotiations and encouraged to make their concerns known in a timely fashion.
After evaluating the comments submitted in response to this notice of intent and the requests for nominations, DOE will either inform the members of the working group that they have been selected or determine that conducting a negotiated rulemaking is inappropriate.
DOE will advise working group members of administrative matters related to the functions of the working group before beginning. DOE will establish a meeting schedule based on the settlement agreement and produce the necessary documents so as to adhere to that schedule. While the negotiated rulemaking process is underway, DOE is committed to performing much of the same analysis as it would during a normal standards rulemaking process and to providing information and technical support to the working group.
Under the framework that would be presented to ASRAC, the working group would be expected to provide a status report to ASRAC by December 29, 2015 so that ASRAC can determine next steps in the process, including negotiation of energy conservation standards for dedicated purpose pool pumps.
DOE requests comments on whether it should use the negotiated rulemaking process to address the issues addressed in this notice and if so, which parties should be included in a negotiated rulemaking to develop draft language pertaining to the energy efficiency of dedicated purpose pool pumps. DOE also seeks suggestions of additional interests and/or stakeholders that should be represented on the working group. All who wish to participate as members of the working group should submit a request for nomination to DOE.
Members of the public are welcome to observe the business of the meeting and, if time allows, may make oral statements during the specified period for public comment. To attend the meeting and/or to make oral statements regarding any of the items on the agenda, email
Due to the REAL ID Act implemented by the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) recent changes regarding ID requirements for individuals wishing to enter Federal buildings from specific states and U.S. territories. Driver's licenses from the following states or territory will not be accepted for building entry and one of the alternate forms of ID listed below will be required.
DHS has determined that regular driver's licenses (and ID cards) from the following jurisdictions are not acceptable for entry into DOE facilities: Alaska, Louisiana, New York, American Samoa, Maine, Oklahoma, Arizona, Massachusetts, Washington, and Minnesota.
Acceptable alternate forms of Photo-ID include: U.S. Passport or Passport Card; An Enhanced Driver's License or Enhanced ID-Card issued by the states of Minnesota, New York or Washington (Enhanced licenses issued by these states are clearly marked Enhanced or Enhanced Driver's License); A military ID or other Federal government issued Photo-ID card.
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of today's notice of intent.
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Proposed determination of coverage; withdrawal.
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) withdraws its August 13, 2013, notice of proposed determination that natural draft commercial packaged boilers meet the criteria for covered equipment under Part A-1 of Title III of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (EPCA), as amended. 78 FR 49202. DOE is taking this action after consideration of comments received in response to the notice of proposed determination and other relevant rulemakings that indicate a common and long-standing understanding from interested parties that natural draft commercial packaged boilers are and have been covered equipment under part A-1 of Title III of EPCA.
The proposed determination is withdrawn August 25, 2015.
Mr. James Raba, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-8654. Email:
Mr. Peter Cochran, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585. Telephone: (202) 586-9496. Email:
Title III, Part C
On August 13, 2013, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published in the
In parallel, DOE initiated a rulemaking to amend the energy conservation standards for commercial packaged boilers. On September 3, 2013, DOE published a notice of public meeting in the
DOE received several written comments that are relevant to the coverage determination of natural draft commercial packaged boilers in response both to the August 2013 NOPD and the November 2014 NOPM.
In response to the August 2013 NOPD, DOE received comments from the Air-Conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute (AHRI).
AHRI stated that the long time practices of both industry and DOE make clear that natural draft commercial packaged boilers are covered equipment subject to the efficiency standards established in accordance with EPCA, noting that the minimum efficiency standards specified for commercial boilers have been applied to all commercial packaged boiler models, natural draft or otherwise, for the past 20 years. AHRI further noted that the minimum efficiency standards specified for commercial boilers in American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air-Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE) Standard 90.1, “Energy Standard for Buildings Except Low-Rise Residential Buildings” (upon which the Federal standards are based) have been applied to all models since the first edition of the standard more than 35 years ago, and asserted that there should be no question that natural draft commercial packaged boilers are covered equipment subject to DOE's efficiency standards. Finally, AHRI suggested that if it is necessary to prevent ambiguity in the definition, DOE simply edit the definition to clarify that a commercial packaged boiler is shipped with mechanical draft equipment only if required, which AHRI asserted reflects the proper reading that the definition covers all types of boilers. (AHRI, No. 7 at pp. 1-2)
In response to the November 2014 NOPM, DOE received comments from various interested parties, including
In summary, comments received from interested parties, both from the August 2013 NOPD and the November 2014 NOPM, support DOE's understanding that packaged boilers, as currently defined under EPCA, include natural draft packaged boilers. Therefore, DOE concludes that it is not necessary to publish a final coverage determination for natural draft commercial packaged boilers and is withdrawing its notice of proposed determination.
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this withdrawal notice.
Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Energy conservation, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 777-200 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the skin lap splices at certain stringers in certain fuselage sections are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require inspections to detect cracking of fuselage skin lap splices in certain fuselage sections, and corrective actions if necessary; modification of left-side and right-side lap splices; and post-modification repetitive inspections for cracks in the modified lap splices, and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the skin lap splices, and consequent risk of sudden decompression and the inability to sustain limit flight and pressure loads.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 9, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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•
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•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Haytham Alaidy, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6573; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Structural fatigue damage is progressive. It begins as minute cracks, and those cracks grow under the action of repeated stresses. This can happen because of normal operational conditions and design attributes, or because of isolated situations or incidents such as material defects, poor fabrication quality, or corrosion pits, dings, or scratches. Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally. Global fatigue damage is general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. Multiple-site damage is global damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Global damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site-damage and multiple-element-damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
During Model 777 fatigue testing, skin cracks were found at the stringer S-14 lap splice. These cracks initiated at scribe lines that were made inadvertently in production when maskant was removed from the skin panels. This condition, if not corrected, could result in fatigue cracking of the skin lap splices, and consequent reduced structural integrity of the airplane and could cause sudden decompression and the inability to sustain limit flight and pressure loads.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014. The service bulletin describes procedures for inspections to detect cracking of fuselage skin lap splices and repairs, modification to the skin lap splices; and repetitive inspections for cracks in the modified lap splices and repairs. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, specifies concurrent accomplishment of an inspection of the fuselage skin for external scribe lines, skin cracks, and repair, which are described in Boeing Service Bulletin 777-53A0054, Revision 1, dated November 4, 2010. The actions described in Boeing Service Bulletin 777-53A0054, Revision 1, dated November 4, 2010, are required by AD 2013-07-11, Amendment 39-17415 (78 FR 22185, April 15, 2013); therefore, those actions are not required in this NPRM.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, describes doing inspections for cracks in the skin of the stringer lap splices and repair, which are also described in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0043, dated November 9, 2011. The actions described in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0043, dated November 9, 2011, are required by AD 2012-14-03, Amendment 39-17117 (77 FR 42962, July 23, 2012); therefore, those actions are not required in this NPRM.
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” Refer to Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, for information on the procedures and compliance times.
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. “Corrective actions” are actions that correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
The compliance time for the modification specified in this proposed AD for addressing WFD was established to ensure that discrepant structure is modified before WFD develops in airplanes. Standard inspection techniques cannot be relied on to detect WFD before it becomes a hazard to flight. We will not grant any extensions of the compliance time to complete any AD-mandated service bulletin related to WFD without extensive new data that would substantiate and clearly warrant such an extension.
The service bulletin specifies to contact the manufacturer for instructions on how to repair certain conditions, but this proposed AD would require repairing those conditions in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as RC (required for compliance) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the following provisions apply: (1) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 21 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by October 9, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 777-200 series airplanes, certified in any category; as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the skin lap splices at certain stringers in certain fuselage sections are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the skin lap splices, and consequent risk of sudden decompression and the inability to sustain limit flight and pressure loads.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014: Do Part 1, inspection “A,” of the modification area for cracks; Part 2, inspection “B,” of the modification area for cracks; and Part 3, inspection “C,” of the modification area for scribe lines and cracks; as applicable; and do all applicable corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) Inspection “A” includes an external phased array ultrasonic inspection for cracks in the lower/overlapped skin of the stringer S-14 left and right (L/R) lap splices between fuselage station 655 and station 1434, and an open hole high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection for skin cracks at the upper and lower fastener rows of the stringer lap splices.
(2) Inspection “B” includes the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) through (g)(2)(iv) of this AD.
(i) A detailed inspection for cracks of any skin panel common to a stringer lap splice
(ii) Either an ultrasonic inspection or a surface HFEC inspection for cracks (depending on the location of the scribe line(s)) of any skin panel common to a stringer lap splice between fuselage station 655 and station 1434 that has a scribe line 0.001 inch or deeper.
(iii) An external phased array ultrasonic inspection for cracks in the lower/overlapped skin of the stringer S-14L/R lap splices between fuselage station 655 and station 1434.
(iv) An open hole HFEC inspection for skin cracks at the upper and lower fastener rows of the stringer lap splices.
(3) Inspection “C” includes the inspections for scribe lines and cracks specified in paragraphs (g)(3)(i), (g)(3)(ii), and (g)(3)(iii) of this AD on stringer S-14L/R lap splice between fuselage station 655 and station 1434 on both sides of the airplane.
(i) A detailed inspection for scribe lines. If any scribe line is found during the inspection required by this paragraph, the actions include the inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(3)(i)(A) and (g)(3)(i)(B) of this AD.
(A) A detailed inspection for cracks of the scribe line area(s).
(B) Either an ultrasonic inspection or a surface HFEC inspection for cracks (depending on the location of the scribe line(s)).
(ii) An external phased array ultrasonic inspection for cracks in the lower/overlapped skin of the stringer lap splices between fuselage station 655 and station 1434.
(iii) An open hole HFEC inspection for skin cracks at the upper and lower fastener rows of the stringer S-14L/R lap splices.
(1) Where Paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time “after the effective date of this AD.”
(2) If, during accomplishment of any inspection required by this AD, any condition is found for which Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, specifies to contact Boeing for special repair instructions or supplemental instructions for the modification, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance): Before further flight, do the repair or modification using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014: Do the left-side and right-side lap splice modification, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014: Do a post-modification internal surface HFEC inspection for skin cracks in the modified lap splices on both sides of the airplane; and do all applicable corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspection of the modified lap splices thereafter at the applicable intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 777-53A0052, dated October 10, 2014.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (k)(4)(i) and (k)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Haytham Alaidy, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6573; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of fractured forward attach fittings of the inboard flap outboard aft flap track. The fractured fittings were determined to be the result of corrosion pits forming on the inside diameter of the fittings. This proposed AD would require an inspection for the affected part number and serial number of the main flap; various additional repetitive inspections of the fitting, if necessary; and replacement of the fitting or nested bushing installation, if necessary, which would terminate the inspections. This proposed AD would also provide for optional terminating action for the repetitive inspections. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fracture of the fitting, which could result in the loss of the inboard aft flap and could lead to a punctured fuselage, causing injury to the flightcrew and passengers, and damage to the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 9, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Eric Lin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-917-6412; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports of fractured forward attach fittings of the inboard flap outboard aft flap track, and it is believed to be the result of corrosion pits forming on the inside diameter of the fittings. Four operators have reported finding four fractured forward attach fittings of the aft flap track of the inboard flap on airplanes with approximately 20,300 to 31,900 total flight hours and approximately 5,900 to 8,500 total flight cycles. In addition, two operators reported three cracked fittings on airplanes with approximately 29,300 to 35,700 total flight hours and approximately 5,200 to 7,900 total flight cycles. This condition, if not corrected, could result in the loss of the inboard aft flap and could lead to a punctured fuselage, causing injury to the flightcrew and passengers, and damage to the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. The service information describes procedures for an inspection for the affected part number and serial number of the main flap; various additional repetitive inspections of the fitting, if necessary; and replacement of the fitting or nested bushing installation, if necessary, which would eliminate the need for the inspections. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” Refer to this service information for details on the procedures and compliance times.
The FAA worked in conjunction with industry, under the Airworthiness Directive Implementation Aviation Rulemaking Committee (ARC), to enhance the AD system. One enhancement was a new process for annotating which steps in the service information are required for compliance with an AD. Differentiating these steps from other tasks in the service information is expected to improve an owner's/operator's understanding of crucial AD requirements and help provide consistent judgment in AD compliance. The steps identified as Required for Compliance (RC) in any service information identified previously have a direct effect on detecting, preventing, resolving, or eliminating an identified unsafe condition.
For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the following provisions apply: (1) the steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD, and an AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures; and (2) steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, specifies groups 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 airplanes as the effectivity. However, this proposed AD is applicable only to groups 1, 2, and 4 airplanes (Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER airplanes) because the identified unsafe condition only affects these airplanes. For groups 3 and 5 airplanes (Model 777F airplanes), the
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 148 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. The nested bushing installation of the attach fitting and the fitting replacement are also optional terminating actions. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft on which these actions might be done.
According to the manufacturer, all of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by October 9, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model 777-200, -200LR, -300, and -300ER series airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by reports of fractured forward attach fittings of the inboard flap outboard aft flap track. The fractured fittings were determined to be the result of corrosion pits forming on the inside diameter of the fittings. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fracture of the fitting, which could result in the loss of the inboard aft flap and could lead to a punctured fuselage, causing injury to the flightcrew and passengers, and damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, except as provided by paragraph (l) of this AD: Do an inspection of the inboard flap of the main flap for affected part and serial numbers, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. A review of airplane maintenance records is acceptable in lieu of this inspection if the part number and serial number of the inboard flap can be conclusively determined from that review.
If any inboard flap of the main flap having an affected part number and serial number is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Except as provided by paragraph (l) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do the inspections specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, until a terminating action in paragraph (k)(1), (k)(2), or (k)(3) of this AD is done.
(1) At the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap: Do a detailed inspection for cracking and bushing migration, and a high frequency eddy current inspection for cracking, in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) At the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap: Do a detailed inspection for cracking and bushing migration, and an ultrasound inspection for cracking, in accordance with Part 3 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
If any bushing migration but no cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do the actions specified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(3) of this AD. Accomplishment of a terminating action specified in paragraph (i)(3) or (k) of this AD terminates the actions required by this paragraph.
(1) Apply corrosion inhibiting compound BMS 3-23, Type II, around the bushing flanges on each side of the fitting, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014. Re-apply the corrosion inhibiting compound at the time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) Repeat the inspections specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, except inspect for cracking only.
(3) Do a terminating action specified in paragraph (i)(3)(i), (i)(3)(ii), or (i)(3)(iii) of this AD.
(i) Install a nested bushing to the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(ii) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(iii) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
If any cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (h) or (i)(3) of this AD: At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, do a terminating action specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this AD. Replacement of the forward attach fitting as specified in paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this AD terminates the actions in this AD.
(1) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(2) Replace the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014.
(1) Installation of the nested bushing to the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap, in accordance with Part 4 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD.
(2) Replacement of the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with an aluminum fitting, in accordance with Part 5 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD.
(3) Replacement of the forward attach fitting of the aft flap track of the inboard flap with a titanium fitting, in accordance with Part 6 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, terminates the requirements of this AD.
Where Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2014, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Special Attention Service Bulletin 777-57-0094, dated January 29, 2014, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for the actions specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Boeing Multi Operator Message MOM-MOM-13-0137-01B, dated February 21, 2013, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (o)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. For a repair method to be approved, the repair must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (n)(4)(i) and (n)(4)(ii) apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Eric Lin, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-917-6412; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all M7 Aerospace LLC Models SA26-AT, SA226-T, SA226-AT, SA226-T(B), SA226-TC, SA227-AT, SA227-TT, SA227-AC (C-26A), SA227-BC (C-26A), SA227-CC, and SA227-DC (C-26B) airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by information that the airplane flight manual (AFM) does not provide adequate guidance in the handling of engine failures, which may lead to reliance on the negative torque system (NTS) for reducing drag. This condition could lead the pilot to not fully feather the propeller with consequent loss of control. This proposed AD would require inserting updates into the airplane flight manual (AFM) and/or the pilot operating handbook (POH) that will clearly establish that the NTS is not designed to automatically feather the propeller but only to provide drag protection. We are proposing this AD to correct the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by October 9, 2015.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
• Mail: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
• Hand Delivery: Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact M7 Aerospace LLC, 10823 NE Entrance Road, San Antonio, Texas 78216; phone: (210) 824-9421; fax: (210) 804-7766; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Michael Heusser, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Fort Worth Aircraft Certification Office, 2601 Meacham Blvd., Fort Worth, Texas 76137; telephone: (817) 222-5038; fax: (817) 222-5960; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The FAA received a report of an accident where an M7 Aerospace LLC Model SA227-AC airplane experienced left engine power loss and consequent loss of control. Training manuals provide descriptions of the negative torque system (NTS), which provides partial anti-drag protection if a negative torque condition is sensed. This feature might cause pilots to assume the system automatically provides full anti-drag protection in the event of an engine failure or power loss. The pilot must also take prompt action to fully feather the propeller on the failed engine to reduce drag. A pilot's sole reliance on the NTS for reducing drag in the event of engine power loss may result in the pilot's failure to initiate the Engine Failure Inflight checklist and feather the propellers in time.
This condition, if not corrected, could result in loss of control of the aircraft due to excessive asymmetric drag.
We reviewed the following M7 Aerospace LLC AFM revisions:
• AFM revision dated May 14, 2015, section III, SA26-AT Dash One;
• AFM revision dated May 14, 2015, section III, SA26-AT Dash Two;
• AFM revision B-33, sections i and III, SA226-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM revision A-29, sections i and III, SA226-T, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM revision B-29, sections i and 3, SA226-T(B), dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM revision A-43, sections i and III, SA226-TC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (4AC) revision B-11, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (4MC) revision A-12, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (6AC) revision A-16, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (7AC) revision B-19, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (7MC) revision A-13, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (8AC) revision A-15, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AC, dated November 14, 2014;
• Pilot operating handbook (POH)/AFM (4AT) revision A-12, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM (6AT) revision 13, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM (6AT), section 7, revision 7, SA227-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM (7AT) revision B-12, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM (8AT) revision 13, sections 0 and 3, SA227-AT, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (6BC) revision 21, sections 0 and 3, SA227-BC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (6CC) revision 17, sections 0 and 3, SA227-CC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (6DC) revision 34, sections 0 and 3, SA227-DC, dated November 14, 2014;
• AFM (8DC) revision 8, sections 0 and 3, SA227-DC, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM revision 15, sections 0 and 3, SA227-TT Fairchild 300, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM revision 13, sections 0 and 3, SA227-TT Fairchild 312, dated November 14, 2014;
• POH/AFM revision 29, sections 0 and 3, SA227-TT, dated November 14, 2014.
The M7 Aerospace LP service information describes procedures for inflight engine shutdown procedures. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
In addition, minimum controllable airspeed for single engine landing is being investigated for possible future action.
This proposed AD would require updates be inserted into the AFM that will clearly establish that the NTS is not designed to automatically feather the propeller but only to provide drag protection.
The proposed requirements do not address anything on the above-referenced minimum controllable airspeed for single engine landing.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 360 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by October 9, 2015.
None.
This AD applies to M7 Aerospace LLC Models SA26-AT, SA226-T, SA226-AT, SA226-T(B), SA226-TC, SA227-AT, SA227-TT, SA227-AC (C-26A), SA227-BC (C-26A), SA227-CC, and SA227-DC (C-26B) airplanes, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 01, Operations Information.
This AD was prompted by information that a pilot's sole reliance on the NTS for reducing drag in the event of engine power loss may result in the pilot's failure to initiate the Engine Failure Inflight checklist and feather the propellers in time. This could lead the pilot to not fully feather the propeller with consequent loss of control. We are issuing this AD to add information to the AFM and/or POH that reliance on the NTS to reduce drag during an engine failure could lead the pilot to not fully feather the propeller with consequent loss of control.
Comply with this AD within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, unless already done.
Incorporate the applicable M7 Aerospace LLC AFM revisions as listed in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(12) of this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(8
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
(15)
(16)
(17)
(18)
(19)
(20)
(21)
(1) The Manager, Fort Worth Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (i)(1) of this AD.
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Michael Heusser, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Fort Worth Aircraft Certification Office, 2601 Meacham Blvd., Fort Worth, Texas 76137; telephone: (817) 222-5038; fax: (817) 222-5960; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact M7 Aerospace LLC, 10823 NE Entrance Road, San Antonio, Texas 78216; phone: (210) 824-9421; fax: (210)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to expand the lateral boundary of restricted area R-7201, Farallon De Medinilla Island, Mariana Islands, GU. The expanded restricted airspace would be used to support strategic and attack bombing, close air support bombing, naval gunfire, and strafing and special operations training. This action also proposes to rename the restricted area from R-7201 to R-7201A.
Comments must be received on or before October 9, 2015.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001; telephone: (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-0739 and Airspace Docket No. 14-AWP-11, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
Jason Stahl, Airspace Policy and Regulations Group, Office of Airspace Services, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (202) 267-8783.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of the airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would modify the restricted area airspace at Farallon De Medinilla Island, Mariana Islands, GU, to enhance aviation safety and accommodate essential U.S. Navy training requirements.
The Department of the Navy is seeking to expand R-7201 out from its current 3-nautical mile (NM) radius to a 12-NM radius. The proposed action is needed in order to support training activities that involve the use of advanced weapons systems which the current airspace does not sufficiently and safely provide. The Navy and other services require fully capable training and testing range complexes (land, sea, and airspace) that provide realistic and controlled environments with sufficient surface Danger Zones (DZs) and Special Use Airspace vital for safety and mission success.
Farrallon de Medinilla (FDM) consists of the island land mass and the restricted airspace designated R-7201. The land mass is approximately 1.7 miles long and 0.3 miles wide. It contains a live-fire and inert bombing range and supports live-fire and inert engagements such as surface-to-ground and air-to-ground gunnery, bombing and missile exercises, fire support, and precision weapons. Restricted Area R-7201 surrounds FDM and the surrounding waters within a 3-NM radius from center extending from the surface to Flight Level (FL) 600. FDM and R-7201 are the Department of Defense's (DOD) only United States controlled range in the western Pacific available to forward-deployed forces for live-fire and inert training. For this reason, it plays a unique role in national defense. R-7201's location is ideal for access and availability and its relative isolation facilitates a variety of attack profiles.
Due to Guam and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands' (CNMI) strategic location and DOD's ongoing reassessment of the Western Pacific military alignment, there has been a dramatic increase in the importance of the Mariana Islands Range Complex (MIRC) as a training venue and its capabilities to support required military training. Flight training profiles, altitudes and speed are severely restricted to ensure containment due to the small size of the current restricted area. In order to fully exploit the capabilities of modern weapons systems and provide the required training scenarios that replicate conditions encountered during deployments today, it is necessary to expand R-7201 laterally. This action would enable the military to continue to achieve and maintain service readiness using the MIRC to support and conduct current, emerging, and future training activities. The proposed R-7201 expansion would support naval gun fire training, readiness and the utilization of advanced lasers with Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance that exceed the current 3 NM constraints of the existing airspace. Additionally, the expansion would serve to support the U.S. Air Force's Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)/Strike program. It is anticipated that a 45 percent increase in operations and training would occur within the expanded airspace and will accommodate an increased training tempo, newer aircraft and weapon systems that are commensurate with the ISR/Strike mission that the current airspace cannot support.
The Navy has leased FDM from CNMI since 1971 and in 1983 negotiated a 50-year lease with an option to renew for another 50 years. No maneuver training is permitted on FDM and the nearshore waters are leased to the U.S. for military purposes, specifically for use as a live fire naval gunfire and air warfare air strike training range. As such, FDM and its nearshore area have always been an off-limits area to all personnel both civilian and military due to unexploded ordnance concerns. In addition to the proposed R-7201 expansion, the DZ around FDM would be expanded to 12 NM to align with the proposed restricted airspace. The DZ would restrict all private and commercial vessels from entering the area only when hazardous activities are scheduled.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (FAA Docket No. FAA-2014-0739 and Airspace Docket No. 14-AWP-11) and be submitted in triplicate to the Docket Management System (see
Commenters wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2015-0739 and Airspace Docket No. 14-AWP-11.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this action may be changed in light of comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the closing date for comments. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person at the Dockets Office (see
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
The FAA is proposing an amendment to 14 CFR part 73 to expand the lateral dimensions of restricted area R-7201, Farallon De Medinilla Island, Mariana Islands, GU and rename it R-7201A. The proposed R-7201A would be the minimum size required for containing stand-off weapons employment, naval gun fire training, and laser activities conducted there. The actual usage of the restricted area is estimated to be 4-5 days per week, 3-6 hours per day with 1,680 sorties per year.
The proposed R-7201A boundary would extend the current boundary from 3 NM to 12 NM from latitude 16°01′04″ N., longitude 146°03′31″ E.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this proposed regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under Department of Transportation (DOT) Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subjected to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1E, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Prohibited areas, Restricted areas.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 73 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
Boundaries: Beginning at latitude 16°01′04″ N., longitude 146°03′31″ E.; extending outward in a 12 NM radius.
Altitudes: Surface up to and including FL 600.
Times of Use: As scheduled by NOTAM 12 hours in advance.
Controlling Agency: FAA, Guam Center/Radar Approach Control.
Using Agency: Commander, Naval Forces, Marianas.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing approval and conditional approval of portions of the fine particulate matter (PM
Written comments must be received on or before September 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by EPA-R08-OAR-2014-0369, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
•
Crystal Ostigaard, Air Program, EPA, Region 8, Mailcode 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, (303) 312-6602,
a.
b.
i. Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
ii. Follow directions—The agency may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
iii. Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
iv. Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
v. If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
vi. Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
vii. Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
viii. Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
On October 17, 2006 (71 FR 61144), the EPA strengthened the level of the 24-hour PM
Subsequently, on January 4, 2013, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia held that the EPA should have implemented the 2006 PM
On March 23, 2015, the EPA proposed the Fine Particulate Matter National Ambient Air Quality Standards: State Implementation Plan Requirements (“PM
The PM
Section 172(c)(1) of the Act (from subpart 1) requires that attainment plans, in general, provide for the implementation of all RACM as expeditiously as practicable (including RACT) and shall provide for attainment of the national primary ambient air quality standards. Section 189(a)(1)(C) (from subpart 4) requires moderate area attainment plans to contain provisions to assure that RACM is implemented no later than four years after designation.
The EPA stated its interpretation of the RACT and RACM requirements of subparts 1 and 4 in the 1992 General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, 57 FR 13498 (Apr. 6, 1992). For RACT, the EPA followed its “historic definition of RACT as the lowest emission limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility.” 57 FR 13541. Like RACT, the EPA has historically considered RACM to consist of control measures that are reasonably available, considering technological and economic feasibility.
Prior to the January 4, 2013 decision of the DC Circuit Court of Appeals, Utah developed a PM
In addition to Utah's February 2, 2012 SIP submittal, on May 9, 2013, June 8, 2013, February 18, 2014, April 17, 2014, May 20, 2014, July 10, 2014, August 6, 2014, and December 9, 2014 the State of Utah submitted to EPA various revisions to the Division of Administrative Rules (DAR), Title R307—Environmental Quality, set of rules, most of which are applicable to the Utah SIP for PM
A previous rule, Rule R307-340 Surface Coating Processes, was replaced in these submittals by the specific rules for coatings listed above. Utah correspondingly repealed R307-340. In addition, Rule R307-342, Adhesives and Sealants, replaces an unrelated rule, R307-342 Qualifications of Contractors and Test Procedures for Vapor Recovery
The final Utah submittal for fourteen of these rules was the December 9, 2014 submittal. The final Utah submittals for the remaining rules were from the February 2, 2012, May 9, 2013, June 8, 2013, February 18, 2014, April 17, 2014, May 20, 2014, July 10, 2014, and August 6, 2014 submittals. For each individual rule, the particular submittal containing the final version of the rule is identified in the technical support document provided in the docket for this proposed action.
The SIP revisions in the February 2, 2012, May 9, 2013, June 8, 2013, February 18, 2014, April 17, 2014, May 20, 2014, July 10, 2014, August 6, 2014, and December 9, 2014 submittals that we are proposing to act on involve revisions to the DAR, Title R307—Environmental Quality, R307-101-2 General Requirements: Definitions; R307-103, Administrative Procedures; and the R307-300 Series; Requirements for Specific Locations (Within Nonattainment and Maintenance Areas). A number of the rules were submitted in multiple submission packages. The final, most recent submission package for each individual rule supersedes earlier submissions, and our proposed determination for each rule takes all changes from those earlier submissions into account. These final rule submissions, except for revisions to R307-101-2, R307-103, and R307-328, and the repeal of R307-342, are submitted and requested for approval as RACM components of the PM
The rules for RACM for area sources fall into two types. First, there are a number of similar rules for control of VOC emissions. These rules cover categories of area sources that use materials that contain VOCs, and also in some cases categories of area sources that manufacture or produce these materials.
For the first type of rule, Utah generally allows area sources to comply in two ways. One is through use or production of materials with specified VOC content levels. The other is through use of add-on controls. For use of materials, in most rules sources can demonstrate compliance through manufacturer's data sheets. For add-on controls, the State has provided specific test methods to determine the efficiency of the controls.
The following is a summary of EPA's evaluation of the rule revisions. The details of our evaluation are provided in a TSD that is available in the docket for this action. In general, we reviewed the rules for: enforceability; RACM requirements (for those rules submitted as RACM); and other applicable requirements of the Act.
With respect to enforceability, section 110(a)(2)(A) of the Act requires SIP provisions such as emission limitations to be enforceable, and sections 110(a)(2)(F)(i) and (F)(ii) require plans to contain certain types of provisions related to enforceability, such as source monitoring, as prescribed by the Administrator. 40 CFR part 51, subpart K, Source Surveillance, prescribes requirements that plans must meet in this respect. 40 CFR Section 51.211 requires plans to contain legally enforceable procedures for owners or operators of stationary sources to maintain records and report information to the State in order to determine whether the source is in compliance. 40 CFR Section 51.212 requires plans to, among other things, contain enforceable test methods for each emission limit in the plan. Appropriate test methods may be selected from Appendix M to 40 CFR part 51 or Appendix A to 40 CFR part 60, or a state may use an alternative method following review and approval of that method by the EPA.
Our review of the rules for enforceability revealed a few potential issues. First, certain rules did not clearly identify the test method that should be used to determine compliance. On August 4, 2015, the State provided a clarification letter that addresses this issue. Second, certain rules specified use of an “equivalent method” for compliance. This can create issues for enforceability of the provision under section CAA 110(a)(2)(C), as well as potentially violating the requirement of section 110(i) that SIP requirements for stationary sources can only be changed (with certain limited exceptions) through the SIP revision process. The State has provided a letter on August 4, 2015 that commits to provide a specific SIP revision to either remove the provision for use of an equivalent method, or to specify the other methods that can be used for compliance. Details of our analysis are in the docket for this rulemaking.
For review of the State's RACM analyses, the EPA proposes to adopt the interpretation of RACM set out in the General Preamble, 57 FR 13498, 13540-13544 (April 6, 1992), and described in the March 23, 2015 proposed PM
Our detailed review of the State's RACM analyses for the rules we are acting on is provided in a TSD in the docket for this action. We did not review whether Utah's PM
Finally, we reviewed all rules for compliance with other requirements of the Act. This review revealed a potential issue with one provision in the general definitions in R307-101-2. The provision defined “PM
EPA is proposing approval of the revisions to Administrative Rules R307-101-2 and R307-103, along with the additions/revisions/repeals in R307-300 Series; Requirements for Specific Locations (Within Nonattainment and Maintenance Areas), R307-303, R307-307, R307-312 (conditionally approved, see below), R307-335, R307-340 (repealed), R307-342 (repealed and replaced), R307-343, R307-344, R307-345, R307-346, R307-347, R307-348, R307-349, R307-350, R307-351, R307-352, R307-353, R307-354, R307-355, R307-356, R307-357, and R307-361 for incorporation to the Utah SIP as submitted by the State of Utah on May 9, 2013, June 8, 2013, February 18, 2014, April 17, 2014, May 20, 2014, July 10, 2014, August 6, 2014, and December 9, 2014. We are proposing to approve Utah's determination that the above rules in R307-300 Series; Requirements for Specific Locations (Within Nonattainment and Maintenance Areas) constitute RACM for the Utah PM
EPA is proposing to conditionally approve revisions to R307-312 and R307-328. Additionally, EPA is proposing to conditionally approve Utah's determination that R307-312 constitutes RACM for the Utah PM
Finally, EPA is proposing to approve the repeal of R307-342, Qualification of Contractors and Test Procedures for Vapor Recovery Systems for Gasoline Delivery Tanks, submitted by DAQ on February 2, 2012.
Under section 110(l) of the CAA, the EPA cannot approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirements concerning attainment and reasonable further progress toward attainment of the NAAQS, or any other applicable requirement of the Act. In addition, section 110(l) requires that each revision to an implementation plan submitted by a state shall be adopted by the state after reasonable notice and public hearing.
The Utah SIP revisions that the EPA is proposing to approve do not interfere with any applicable requirements of the Act. The DAR section R307-300 Series submitted by the DAQ on May 9, 2013, June 8, 2013, February 18, 2014, April 17, 2014, May 20, 2014, July 10, 2014, August 6, 2014, and December 9, 2014 are intended to strengthen the SIP and to serve as RACM for certain area sources for the Utah PM
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the DAQ rules promulgated in the DAR, R307-300 Series as discussed in section III,
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely proposes to approve state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the proposed rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Intergovernmental relations, Incorporation by reference, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organization compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Proposed rule; correction.
This document corrects technical and typographical errors that appeared in the proposed rule published in the July 14, 2015
The comment due date for the proposed rule published in the
Claire Schreiber,
Gabriel Scott,
In FR Doc. 2015-17190 of July 14, 2015 (80 FR 41198), there were a number of technical and typographical errors that are identified and corrected in the Correction of Errors section of this document.
On page 41210, in our discussion of the factors considered but not used in creating proposed strata, we inadvertently omitted a term and used an incorrect term.
On pages 41212 and 41269, we made errors in referencing the name of the Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement (CCJR) model.
On pages 41223 and 41224, in our discussion of the proposed pricing adjustment for high payment episodes, we made errors in describing the distribution model presented in Figure 2.
On page 41234, in our discussion of the proposed combination of CCJR episodes anchored by Medical Severity Diagnosis-Related Groups (MS-DRGs) 469 and 470, we made an error in the unpooled hospital-specific historical average payments calculation for MS-DRG 469 anchored target prices.
On pages 41235 and 41236, in our discussion of the proposed approach to combine pricing features, we made an error in the placement and the language of a sentence that was part of the bulleted text.
On page 41240, in the discussion of the criteria for applicable hospitals and performance scoring, we made errors in stating the percentage of eligible elective primary total hip arthroplasty/total knee arthoplasty (THA/TKA) patients for which hospitals must submit data and the timeframe for the submission of data.
On pages 41241 and 41242, we made errors in stating a National Quality Forum (NQF) measure number.
On page 41250, in the discussion of the accounting for CCJR reconciliation payments and repayments in other models and programs, we inadvertently omitted a word.
On page 41251, in the discussion of the accounting for per beneficiary per month (PBPM) payments in the episode definition, we made an error in stating the total number of models with PBPMs.
On pages 41268, 41270, and 41278, we made typographical errors in footnotes 42, 43, and 55, respectively. These errors include omitting the title of the article that was referenced, omitting the text of the footnote, and inadvertently adding a reference to a footnote.
On page 41283, in the discussion of “Case Mix Adjustment,” we inadvertently omitted a term.
On pages 41242, 41281, and 41284, we made technical and typographical errors in using the acronyms “CCJR-,” “HCAHPS,” and “THA”.
On page 41285, in our discussion of pre-operative assessments, we made errors in our designation of several bulleted paragraphs.
On pages 41287 and 41288, Table 16, we made errors in the table formatting and omitted language that would identify the entries pertaining to the duration of the performance period.
In FR Doc. 2015-17190 of July 14, 2015 (80 FR 41198), make the following corrections:
1. On page 41210, first column, fifth full paragraph, lines 1 through 3, the phrase “these measures are proposed to be part of the selection stratus” is corrected to read “these measures are not proposed to be part of the selection strata”.
2. On page 41212, lower half of the page, second column, first paragraph, lines 1 and 2, the phrase “Coordinated Quality Care-Joint Replacement” is corrected to read “Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement”.
3. On page 41223, third column, last paragraph, lines 7 through 12, the sentence “Similarly, we believe the BPCI distribution of Model 2 90-day LEJR episode payment amounts as displayed in Figure 1 provides information that is relevant to policy development regarding CCJR episodes.” is corrected to read “Similarly, we believe the distribution of 90-day LEJR episode payment amounts utilizing the BPCI Model 2 episode definition as displayed in Figure 2 provides information that is relevant to policy development regarding CCJR episodes.”.
4. On page 41224, top of the page, in the figure heading (Figure 2), the heading “FIGURE 2: ESTIMATED NATIONAL DISTRIBUTION of BPCI MODEL 2 LEJR 90-day EPISODE PAYMENT AMOUNTS” is corrected to read “FIGURE 2: ESTIMATED NATIONAL DISTRIBUTION OF LEJR 90-day EPISODE PAYMENT AMOUNTS”.
5. On page 41234, first column, first full paragraph, line 11, the phrase “hospital weight” is corrected to read “anchor factor”.
6. On page 41235, third column—
a. Sixth bulleted paragraph, last line, the phrase “the previous step.” is corrected to read “the previous step. We have posted region-specific historical average episode payments on the CCJR proposed rule Web site at
b. Last bulleted paragraph, lines 12 through 13, and page 41236, first column, first partial paragraph, lines 1 through 3, the sentence, “We have posted region-specific pooled historical average episode payments on the CCJR proposed rule Web site at
7. On page 41240—
a. Second column, last bulleted paragraph, line 3, the figure “70” is corrected to read “80”.
b. Third column—
(1) First full paragraph (bulleted), line 3, the phrase “12 month” is corrected to read “performance”.
(2) Second full paragraph, line 30, the figure “70” is corrected to read “80”.
8. On page 41241—
a. Top of the page, second column, first partial paragraph, line 27, the parenthetical reference “(NQF #1661)” is corrected to read “(NQF #0166)”.
b. Lower third of the page, in the table titled “TABLE 8—QUALITY MEASURE WEIGHTS IN COMPOSITE QUALITY SCORE”, first column of the table (Quality measure), line 3, the parenthetical reference “(NQF #1661)” is corrected to read “(NQF #0166)”.
9. On page 41242, top third of the page, third column, first full paragraph, line 9—
a. The acronym “HCAPHS” is corrected to read “HCAHPS”.
b. The parenthetical reference “(NQF #1661)” is corrected to read “(NQF #0166)”.
10. On page 41250, third column, first full paragraph, line 12, the phrase “to be able make” is corrected to read “to be able to make”.
11. On page 41251, second column, first full paragraph, line 2, the phrase “four existing models” is corrected to read “active models”.
12. On page 41268, second column, last paragraph, the footnote (footnote 42), “
13. On page 41269—
a. Second column, second full paragraph, lines 28 and 29, the phrase “Coordinated quality care-joint replacement model” is corrected to read “Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement model”.
b. Third column, first partial paragraph, lines 5 and 6, the phrase “Medicare-approved coordinated quality care-Joint Replacement model)” is corrected to read “Medicare-approved Comprehensive Care for Joint Replacement model)”.
14. On page 41270, third column, following the last paragraph, is corrected by adding the following footnoted paragraph (Footnote 43):
“
15. On page 41278, second column, third footnoted paragraph (Footnote 55) “
16. On page 41281, second column, last partial paragraph, line 1, the phrase “We note that CCJR—we chose to align” is corrected to read “We note that we chose to align”.
17. On page 41283, first column, sixth bulleted paragraph, the phrase “discharge and survey.” is corrected to read “discharge and survey completion.”.
18. On page 41284—
a. First column, first partial paragraph, line 44, the acronym “HCAPHS” is corrected to read “HCAHPS”.
b. Second column, first partial paragraph, line 7, the phrase “THA THA/TKA patient-reported” is corrected to read “THA/TKA patient-reported”.
19. On page 41285, second column, second bulleted paragraph—
a. Line 17, the phrase “—PROMIS” is corrected to read “++ PROMIS”.
b. Line 29, the phrase “—American Society” is corrected to read “++ American Society”.
c. Line 33, the phrase “—Total painful” is corrected to read “++ Total painful”.
d. Line 34, the phrase “—Quantified spinal” is corrected to read “++ Quantified spinal”.
20. On pages 41287 and 41288, the table titled “TABLE 16—EXAMPLE OF POTENTIAL PERFORMANCE PERIODS FOR PRE- AND POST-OPERATIVE THA/TKA VOLUNTARY DATA SUBMISSION” is corrected to read as follows:
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), request public comment in regard to our designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (
We will consider comments received or postmarked on or before October 26, 2015. Please note that comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see
Comment submission: You may submit written comments by one of the following methods:
(1)
(2)
We request that you send comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on
Eric V. Rickerson, State Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington Fish and Wildlife Office, 510 Desmond Drive SE., Suite 102, Lacey, WA 98503-1273 (telephone 360-753-9440, facsimile 360-753-9008); Paul Henson, State Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Oregon Fish and Wildlife Office, 2600 SE 98th Avenue, Suite 100, Portland, OR 97266, telephone 503-231-6179, facsimile 503-231-6195; Bruce Bingham, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Arcata Fish and Wildlife Office, 1655 Heindon Road, Arcata, CA 95521, telephone 707-822-7201, facsimile 707-822-8411; Jennifer Norris, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Sacramento Fish and Wildlife Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2605, Sacramento, CA 95825, telephone 916-414-6700, facsimile 916-414-6713; or Stephen P. Henry, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ventura Fish and Wildlife Office, 2493 Portola Road, Suite B, Ventura, CA 93003, telephone 805-644-1766, facsimile 805-644-3958. If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD), call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
We will base any final action on the best scientific data available. Therefore, we request comments or information from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, Native American tribes, the scientific community, industry, or any other interested party concerning this proposed rule. We particularly seek comments concerning:
(1) What areas within the currently designated critical habitat for the marbled murrelet were occupied at the time of listing and contain features essential to the conservation of the species;
(2) Special management considerations or protection that may be needed in critical habitat areas, including managing for the potential effects of climate change;
(3) What areas within the currently designated critical habitat are essential for the conservation of the species and why; and
(4) Information on the extent to which the description of economic impacts in this document is a reasonable estimate of the likely economic impacts of our proposed determination.
We will consider all comments and information received during the comment period on this proposed rulemaking during our preparation of a final determination.
Please note that submissions merely stating support for or opposition to the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, will not be considered in making a determination, as section 4(b) of the Act directs that determinations regarding the designation of critical habitat, or revisions thereto, must be made ”on the basis of the best scientific data available.”
You may submit your comments and materials by one of the methods listed in
If you submit information via
In making a final decision on this matter, we will take into consideration the comments and any additional information we receive. Comments and materials received, as well as some of the supporting documentation used in the preparation of a final determination, will be available for public inspection on
For additional information on previous Federal actions concerning the marbled murrelet, refer to the final listing rule published in the
On September 12, 2006, we published in the
On July 31, 2008, we published in the
On October 5, 2011, we published in the
On January 24, 2012, AFRC filed suit against the Service to delist the marbled murrelet and vacate critical habitat. On March 30, 2013, the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia granted in part AFRC's motion for summary judgment and denied a joint motion for vacatur of critical habitat pending completion of a voluntary remand. Following this ruling, the Service moved for a remand of the critical habitat rule, without vacatur, in light of recent case law setting more stringent requirements on the Service for specifying how designated areas meet the definition of critical habitat. On September 5, 2013, the district court ordered the voluntary remand without vacatur of the critical habitat rule, and set deadlines of September 30, 2015, for a proposed rule and September 30, 2016, for a final rule. The court ruled in favor of the Service regarding the Service's denial of plaintiffs' petition to delist the species, and that ruling was affirmed on appeal. See
A final rule designating critical habitat for the marbled murrelet was published in the
In this document, we are reconsidering the final rule designating critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, as revised on October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599). The current designation consists of approximately 3,698,100 ac (1,497,000 ha) of critical habitat in Washington, Oregon, and California. The critical habitat consists of 101 subunits: 37 in Washington, 33 in Oregon, and 31 in California. We are reconsidering the final rule for the purpose of evaluating whether all areas currently designated meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act. We describe and assess each of the elements of the definition of critical habitat, and evaluate whether these statutory criteria apply to the current designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. In order to conduct this evaluation, here we present the following relevant information:
Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the Act as:
(1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features
(a) Essential to the conservation of the species, and
(b) Which may require special management considerations or protection; and
(2) Specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.
Under the first prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat in section 3(5)(a)(i), areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed may be included in critical habitat if they contain physical or biological features: (1) Which are essential to the conservation of the species; and (2) which may require special management considerations or protection. For these areas, critical habitat designations identify, to the extent known using the best scientific data available, those physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the species (such as space, food, cover, and protected habitat). In identifying those physical and biological features within an area, we focus on the primary biological or physical constituent elements (primary constituent elements such as roost sites, nesting grounds, seasonal wetlands, water quality, tide, soil type) that are essential to the conservation of the species. Primary constituent elements (PCEs) are those specific elements of the physical or biological features that provide for a species' life-history processes and are essential to the conservation of the species.
Under the second prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat in section 3(5)(A)(ii), we can designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon the Secretary's determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species. For example, an area currently occupied by the species but that was not occupied at the time of listing may be essential for the conservation of the species and may be included in the critical habitat designation. In addition, if critical habitat is designated or revised subsequent to listing, we may designate areas as critical habitat that may currently be unoccupied but that were occupied at the time of listing. We designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area presently occupied by a species only when a designation limited to its present range would be inadequate to ensure the conservation of the species.
Here we describe the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet, for the purpose of evaluating whether these features are present within the areas designated as critical habitat for this reconsideration of the final rule.
We identified the specific physical or biological features essential for the conservation of the marbled murrelet from studies of this species' habitat, ecology, and life history as described below. Additional information can be found in the final listing rule published in the
Where newer scientific information is available that refutes or validates the information presented in the 1996 final critical habitat rule, that information is provided here and is so noted. However, this proposed rule does not constitute a complete summary of all new scientific information on the biology of the marbled murrelet since 1996. Because this rule reconsideration addresses the 1996 final critical habitat, as revised in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599), which designated critical habitat only in the terrestrial environment, the following section will solely focus on the terrestrial nesting habitat features. Forested areas with conditions that are capable of supporting nesting marbled murrelets are referred to as “suitable nesting habitat.” Loss of such nesting habitat was the primary basis for listing the marbled murrelet as threatened; hence protection of such habitat is essential to the conservation of the species. We consider the information provided here to represent the best available scientific data with regard to the physical or biological features essential for the marbled murrelet's use of terrestrial habitat.
Throughout the forested portion of the species' range, marbled murrelets typically nest in forested areas containing characteristics of older forests (Binford
Individual tree attributes that provide conditions suitable for nesting (
Northwestern forests and trees typically require 200 to 250 years to attain the attributes necessary to support marbled murrelet nesting, although characteristics of nesting habitat sometimes develop in younger coastal redwood (
Through the 1995 nesting season, 59 active or previously used tree nests had been located in Washington (9 nests), Oregon (36 nests), and California (14 nests) (Hamer and Nelson 1995, pp. 70-71; Nelson and Wilson 2002, p. 134; Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife murrelet database; California Department of Fish and Game murrelet database). All of the nests for which data were available in 1996 in Washington, Oregon, and California were in large trees that were more than 32 in (81 cm) dbh (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). Of the 33 nests for which data were available, 73 percent were on a moss substrate and 27 percent were on litter, such as bark pieces, conifer needles, small twigs, or duff (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). The majority of nest platforms were created by large or deformed branches (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 79). Nests found subsequently have characteristics generally consistent with these tree diameter and platform sources (McShane
More than 94 percent of the nests for which data were available in 1996 were in the top half of the nest trees, which may allow easy nest access and provide shelter from potential predators and weather. Canopy cover directly over the nests was typically high (average 84 percent; range 5 to 100 percent) in Washington, Oregon, and California (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). This cover may provide protection from predators and weather. Such canopy cover may be provided by trees adjacent to the nest tree, or by the nest tree itself. Canopy closure of the nest stand/site varied between 12 and 99 percent and averaged 48 percent (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 73). Information gathered subsequent to 1996 confirms that additional attributes of the platform are important including both vertical and horizontal cover and substrate. Known nest sites have platforms that are generally protected by branches above (vertical cover) or to the side (horizontal cover) (Huff
Nests have been located in forested areas dominated by coastal redwood, Douglas-fir (
For nesting habitat to be accessible to marbled murrelets, it must occur close enough to the marine environment for marbled murrelets to fly back and forth. The farthest inland distance for a site with nesting behavior detections is 52 mi (84 km) in Washington. The farthest known inland sites with nesting behavior detections in Oregon and California are 40 and 24 mi (65 and 39 km), respectively (Evans Mack
Prior to Euroamerican settlement in the Pacific Northwest, nesting habitat for the marbled murrelet was well distributed, particularly in the wetter portions of its range in Washington, Oregon, and California. This habitat was generally found in large, contiguous blocks of forest (Ripple 1994, p. 47) as described under the
Areas where marbled murrelets are concentrated at sea during the breeding season are likely determined by a combination of terrestrial and marine conditions. However, nesting habitat appears to be the most important factor affecting marbled murrelet distribution and numbers. Marine survey data confirmed conclusions made in the supplemental proposed critical habitat rule (August 10, 1995; 60 FR 40892) that marine observations of marbled
Consistent with Varoujean
In contrast, where nesting habitat is limited in southwest Washington, northwest Oregon, and portions of California, few marbled murrelets are found at sea during the nesting season (Ralph and Miller 1995, p. 358; Varoujean and Williams 1995, p. 336; Thompson 1996, p. 11). For instance, as of 1996, the area between the Olympic Peninsula in Washington and Tillamook County in Oregon (100 mi (160 km)) had few sites with detections indicative of nesting behavior or sightings at sea of marbled murrelets. In California, approximately 300 mi (480 km) separate the large breeding populations to the north in Humboldt and Del Norte Counties from the southern breeding population in San Mateo and Santa Cruz Counties. This reach contained few marbled murrelets during the breeding season; however, the area likely contained significant numbers of marbled murrelets before extensive logging (Paton and Ralph 1988, p. 11, Larsen 1991, pp. 15-17). More recent at-sea surveys confirm the low numbers of marbled murrelets in marine areas adjacent to inland areas that have limited nesting habitat (Miller
Dispersal mechanisms of marbled murrelets are not well understood; however, social interactions may play an important role. The presence of marbled murrelets in a forest stand may attract other pairs to currently unused habitat within the vicinity. This may be one of the reasons marbled murrelets have been observed in habitat not currently suitable for nesting, but in close proximity to known nesting sites (Hamer and Cummins 1990, p. 14; Hamer
Marbled murrelets are believed to be highly vulnerable to predation when on the nesting grounds, and the species has evolved a variety of morphological and behavioral characteristics indicative of selection pressures from predation (Ralph
From 1974 through 1993, of those marbled murrelet nests in Washington, Oregon, and California where nest success or failure was documented, approximately 64 percent of the nests failed. Of those nests, 57 percent failed due to predation (Nelson and Hamer 1995b, p. 93). Continuing research further supports predation as a significant cause of nest failure (McShane
Several possible reasons exist for the high observed predation rates of marbled murrelet nests. One possibility is that these high predation rates are normal, although it is unlikely that a stable population could have been maintained historically under the predation rates observed (Beissinger 1995, p. 390).
In the 1996 rule we hypothesized that populations of marbled murrelet predators such as corvids (jays, crows, and ravens) and great horned owls are increasing in the western United States, largely in response to habitat changes and food sources provided by humans (Robbins
In the 1996 rule, we also posited that creation of greater amounts of forest edge habitat may increase the vulnerability of marbled murrelet nests to predation and ultimately lead to higher rates of predation. Edge effects have been implicated in increased forest bird nest predation rates for other species of birds (Chasko and Gates 1982, pp. 21-23; Yahner and Scott 1988, p. 160). In a comprehensive review of the many studies on the potential relationship between forest fragmentation, edge, and adverse effects on forest nesting birds, Paton (1994, p. 25) concluded that “strong evidence exists that avian nest success declines near edges.” Small patches of habitat have a greater proportion of edge than do large patches of the same shape. However, many of the studies Paton (1994, entire) reviewed involved lands where forests and agricultural or urban areas interface, or they involved experiments with ground nests that are not readily applicable to canopy nesters such as marbled murrelets. Paton (1994, p. 25), therefore, stressed the need for studies specific to forests fragmented by timber harvest in the Pacific Northwest and elsewhere.
Some research on this topic has been conducted in areas dominated by timber production and using nests located off the ground (Ratti and Reese 1988, entire; Rudnicky and Hunter 1993, entire; Marzluff
Studies of artificial and natural nests conducted in Pacific Northwest forests also indicate that predation of forest bird nests may be affected by habitat fragmentation, forest management, and land development (Hansen
More recent information indicates that marbled murrelets locate their nests throughout forest stands and fragments, including along various types of natural and human-made edges (Hamer and Meekins 1999, p. 1; Manley 1999, p. 66; Bradley 2002, pp. 42, 44; Burger 2002, p. 48; Nelson and Wilson 2002, p. 98). In California and southern Oregon, areas with abundant numbers of marbled murrelets were farther from roads, occurred more often in parks protected from logging, and were less likely to occupy old-growth habitat if they were isolated (greater than 3 mi (5 km)) from other nesting marbled murrelets (Meyer
The conversion of large tracts of native forest to small, isolated forest patches with large edge can create changes in microclimate, vegetation species, and predator-prey dynamics—such changes are often collectively referred to as “edge effects.” Unfragmented, older-aged forests have lower temperatures and solar radiation and higher humidity compared to clearcuts and other open areas (
A large body of research indicates that marbled murrelet productivity is greatest in large, complex-structured forests far from human activity due to the reduced levels of predation present in such landscapes. Marbled murrelet productivity is lowest in fragmented landscapes; therefore, marbled murrelet nesting stands may be more productive if surrounded by simple-structured forests, and minimal human recreation and settlement. Human activities can significantly compromise the effectiveness of the forested areas surrounding nests to protect the birds and/or eggs from predation (Huhta
In addition to studies of edge effects, some research initiated prior to 1996 looked at the importance of stand size. Among all Pacific Northwest birds, the marbled murrelet is considered to be one of the most sensitive to forest fragmentation (Hansen and Urban 1992, p. 168). Marbled murrelet nest stand size in Washington, Oregon, and California varied between 7 and 2,717 ac (3 and 1,100 ha) and averaged 509 ac (206 ha) (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 73). Nelson and Hamer (1995b, p. 96) found that successful marbled murrelets tended to nest in larger stands than did unsuccessful marbled murrelets, but these results were not statistically significant. Miller and Ralph (1995, entire) compared marbled murrelet survey detection rates among four stand size classes in California. Recording a relatively consistent trend, they observed that a higher percentage of large stands (33.3 percent) had nesting behavior detections when compared to smaller stands (19.8 percent), while a greater percentage of the smallest stands (63.9 percent) had no presence or nesting behavior detections when compared to the largest stands (52.4 percent) (Miller and Ralph 1995, pp. 210-212). However, these results were not statistically significant, and the authors did not conclude that marbled murrelets preferentially select or use larger stands. The authors suggested the effects of stand size on marbled murrelet presence and use may be masked by other factors such as stand history and proximity of a stand to other old-growth stands. Rodway
In addition to stand size, general landscape condition may influence the degree to which marbled murrelets nest in an area. In Washington, marbled murrelet detections increased when old-growth/mature forests make up more than 30 percent of the landscape (Hamer and Cummins 1990, p. 43). Hamer and Cummins (1990, p. 43) found that detections of marbled murrelets decreased in Washington when the percentage of clear-cut/meadow in the landscape increased above 25 percent. Additionally, Raphael
In summary, the best scientific information available strongly suggests that marbled murrelet reproductive success may be adversely affected by forest fragmentation associated with either natural disturbances, such as severe fire or windthrow, or certain land management practices, generally associated with timber harvest or clearing of forest. Based on this information, the Service concluded that the maintenance and development of suitable habitat in relatively large contiguous blocks as described in the 1996 rule and the draft Marbled Murrelet (Washington, Oregon, and California Population) Recovery Plan (draft recovery plan) (USFWS 1995, pp. 70-71, finalized in 1997) would contribute to the recovery of the marbled murrelet. These blocks of habitat should contain the structural features and spatial heterogeneity naturally found at the landscape level, the stand level, and the individual tree level in Pacific Northwest forest ecosystems (Hansen
Therefore, based on the information presented in the 1996 final critical habitat rule and more recent data that continue to confirm the conclusions drawn in that rule, we consider the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet to include forests that are capable of providing the characteristics required for successful nesting by marbled murrelets. Such forests are typically coniferous forests in contiguous stands with large core areas of old-growth or trees with old-growth characteristics and a low ratio of edge to interior. However, due to timber harvest history we recognize that, in some areas, such as south of Cape Mendocino in California, coniferous forests with relatively smaller core areas of old-growth or trees with old-growth characteristics are essential for the conservation of the marbled murrelet because they are all that remain on the landscape. Forests capable of providing for successful nesting throughout the range of the listed DPS are typically dominated by coastal redwood, Douglas-fir, mountain hemlock, Sitka spruce, western hemlock, or western red cedar, and must be within flight distance to marine foraging areas for marbled murrelets.
The most important characteristic of marbled murrelet nesting habitat is the presence of nest platforms. These structures are typically found in old-growth and mature forests, but can also be found in a variety of forest types including younger forests containing remnant large trees. Potential nesting areas may contain fewer than one suitable nesting tree per acre and nest trees may be scattered or clumped throughout the area. Large areas of unfragmented forest are necessary to minimize edge effects and reduce the impacts of nest predators to increase the probability of nest success. Forests are dynamic systems that occur on the landscape in a mosaic of successional stages, both as the result of natural disturbances (fire, windthrow) or anthropogenic management (timber harvest). On a landscape basis, forests with a canopy height of at least one-half the site-potential tree height in proximity to potential nest trees contribute to the conservation of the marbled murrelet. Trees of at least one-half the site-potential height are tall enough to reach up into the lower
According to 50 CFR 424.12(b), we are required to identify the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet within the geographical area occupied at the time of listing, focusing on the “primary constituent elements” (PCEs) of those features. We consider PCEs to be those specific elements of the physical or biological features that provide for a species' life-history processes and are essential to the conservation of the species. For the marbled murrelet, those life-history processes associated with terrestrial habitat are specifically related to nesting. Therefore, as previously described in our designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (61 FR 26256; May 24, 1996), and further supported by more recent information, our designation of critical habitat focused on the following PCEs specific to the marbled murrelet:
(1) Individual trees with potential nesting platforms, and
(2) forested areas within 0.5 mile (0.8 kilometer) of individual trees with potential nesting platforms, and with a canopy height of at least one-half the site-potential tree height. This includes all such forest, regardless of contiguity.
These PCEs are essential to provide and support suitable nesting habitat for successful reproduction of the marbled murrelet.
In our evaluation of whether the current designation meets the statutory definition of critical habitat, we must assess not only whether the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing contain the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species, but also whether those features may require special management considerations or protection. Here we describe the special management considerations or protection that apply to the physical or biological features and PCEs identified for the marbled murrelet.
As discussed above and in the 1996 final rule designating critical habitat (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26261-26263), marbled murrelets are found in forests containing a variety of forest structure, which is in part the result of varied management practices and natural disturbance (Hansen
Current and historical loss of marbled murrelet nesting habitat is generally attributed to timber harvest and land conversion practices, although, in some areas, natural catastrophic disturbances such as forest fires have caused losses (Hansen
Some of the forests that were affected by past natural disturbances, such as forest fires and wind throw, currently provide suitable nesting habitat for marbled murrelets because they retain scattered individual or clumps of large trees that provide structure for nesting (Hansen
Within the range of the marbled murrelet on Federal lands, the Northwest Forest Plan (NWFP) (USDA and USDI 1994, entire) designated a system of Late Successional Reserves (LSRs), which provides large areas expected to eventually develop into contiguous, unfragmented forest. In addition to LSRs, the NWFP designated a system of Adaptive Management Areas, where efforts focus on answering management questions, and matrix areas, where most forest production occurs. Administratively withdrawn lands, as described in the individual National Forest or BLM land use plans, are also part of the NWFP.
In the 1996 final rule, we acknowledged the value of implementation of the NWFP as an integral role in marbled murrelet conservation. As a result, designated critical habitat on lands within the NWFP area administered by the National Forests and BLM was congruent with LSRs. These areas, as managed under the NWFP, should develop into large blocks of suitable murrelet nesting habitat given sufficient time. However, LSRs are plan-level designations with less assurance of long-term persistence than areas designated by Congress. Designation of LSRs as critical habitat complements and supports the NWFP and helps to ensure persistence of this management directive over time. These lands managed under the NWFP require special management considerations or protection to allow the full development of the essential physical or biological features as represented by large blocks of forest with the old-growth characteristics that will provide suitable nesting habitat for marbled murrelets.
In some areas, the large blocks of Federal land under the NWFP are presently capable of providing the necessary contribution for recovery of the species. However, the marbled murrelet's range includes areas that are south of the range of the northern spotted owl (the focus of the NWFP), where Federal lands are subject to timber harvest. Therefore, the critical habitat designated on Federal lands outside of the NWFP also require special management considerations or protection to enhance or restore the old-growth characteristics required for nesting by marbled murrelets, and to attain the large blocks of contiguous habitat necessary to reduce edge effects and predation.
In the 1996 critical habitat rule (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256), the Service designated selected non-Federal lands that met the requirements identified in the Criteria for Identifying Critical Habitat section, in those areas where Federal lands alone were insufficient to provide suitable nesting habitat for the recovery of the species. For example, State lands were considered to be particularly important in southwestern Washington, northwestern Oregon, and in California south of Cape Mendocino. Small segments of county lands were also included in northwestern Oregon and central California. Some private lands were designated as critical habitat because they provided essential elements and occurred where Federal lands were, and continue to be, very limited, although suitable habitat on private land is typically much more limited than on public lands. In California, south of Cape Mendocino, State, county, city, and private lands contain the last remnants of nesting habitat for the southern-most population of murrelets, which is the smallest, most isolated, and most susceptible to extirpation. All of the non-Federal lands have been and continue to be subject to some amount of timber harvest and habitat fragmentation and lower habitat effectiveness due to human activity. Therefore, all non-Federal lands within the designation require special management considerations or protection to preserve suitable nesting habitat where it is already present, and to provide for the development of suitable nesting habitat in areas currently in early successional stages.
In summary, areas that provide the essential physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet may require special management considerations or protection. Because succession has been set back or fragmentation has occurred due to either natural or anthropogenic disturbance, those essential features may require special management considerations or protections to promote the development of the large, contiguous blocks of unfragmented, undisturbed coniferous forest with old-growth characteristics (
Critical habitat is defined as the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed under section (3)(5)(A)(i) of the Act. For the purposes of critical habitat, the Service must first determine what constitutes the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing. We consider this to be a relatively broad-scale determination, as the wording of the Act clearly indicates that the specific areas that constitute critical habitat will be found within some larger geographical area. We consider the “geographical area occupied by the species” at the time of listing, for the purposes of section 3(5)(A)(i), to be the area that may be broadly delineated around the occurrences of a species, or generally equivalent to what is commonly understood as the “range” of the species. We consider a species occurrence to be a particular location in which individuals of the species are found throughout all or part of their life cycle, even if not used on a regular basis (
Within the listed DPS, at-sea observations indicate marbled murrelets use the marine environment along the Pacific Coast from the British Columbia, Canada/Washington border south to the Mexico/California border. Because they must fly back and forth to the nest from their marine foraging areas, marbled murrelets use inland areas for nesting that are nearby to those areas used by the species offshore. The inland extent of terrestrial habitat use varies from north to south and depends upon the presence of nesting structures in relation to marine foraging areas. Marbled murrelets have been detected as far inland as 70 miles (mi) (113 kilometers (km)) in Washington, but the inland extent narrows going south, where marbled murrelets generally occur within 25 mi (40 km) of the coast in California. At a broad scale, the geographical area occupied by the listed DPS of the marbled murrelet at the time of listing includes the west coast from the British Columbia, Canada/Washington border south to the Mexico/California border, ranging inland from approximately 70 mi (113 km) in Washington to roughly 25 mi (40 km) of the coast in California. However, the inland nesting habitat extends southward in California only to just south of Monterey Bay. Occurrence data that supports this geographic range includes at-sea surveys, radar detections, radio-telemetry studies, and audio-visual surveys.
At the time the marbled murrelet was listed (October 1, 1992; 57 FR 45528), occurrence data were very limited. However, the geographic range was generally known at that time, with the exception of the exact inland extent.
We now describe what is known about marbled murrelet use of the critical habitat subunits that were designated in 1996, as revised in 2011. In 1996, only terrestrial areas were designated as critical habitat. Terrestrial habitat is used by the marbled murrelet only for the purpose of nesting; therefore, we focus on those specific areas used for nesting by the species. Because we did not designate critical habitat in the marine environment, that aspect of the species' life history or available data will not be discussed further, unless it is pertinent to the terrestrial habitat.
At the landscape scale, marbled murrelets show fidelity to marine foraging areas and may return to specific watersheds for nesting (Nelson 1997, pp. 13, 16-17, 20; Cam
Not all survey data are indicative of nesting. The specific types of data that we relied upon include audiovisual surveys and specific nest locations, which may have been located through radio-telemetry studies, tree climbing, chicks on the ground, or egg shell fragments. Audiovisual surveys result in a variety of detections, only some of which are specific indicators of nesting behavior tied to the area being surveyed. The types of behaviors that are indicative of nesting include: Sub-canopy behaviors, circling above the canopy, and stationary calling. Other types of detections, such as radar and fly-overs observed during audiovisual surveys, provide information regarding the general use of an area, but generally do not tie the observed individual(s) to a specific forested area (Evans Mack
There continue to be gaps in our knowledge of marbled murrelet use in the terrestrial environment. Surveys are site/project specific and generally have been conducted for the purposes of allowing timber harvest. Surveys not conducted in adherence to the strict protocol may have missed nesting behaviors due to the cryptic nature of marbled murrelets and their nests. For example, a single visit to a location where marbled murrelets are present has only a 55 percent chance of detecting marbled murrelets (Evans Mack
We consider the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing for the purposes of critical habitat to be equivalent to the nesting range of the marbled murrelet, for the reasons described above. However, it is important to note that at the time of listing, we may not have had data that definitively demonstrated the presence of nesting murrelets within each specific area designated as critical habitat. Some of these areas still lack adequate survey information. Yet because these areas fall within the broader nesting range of the species, we consider them to have been occupied at the time of listing. For the purposes of clarity, we further evaluated the specific areas within that broader geographic range to determine whether we have documented detections of behaviors indicative of nesting by the marbled murrelet at the scale of each subunit. The following types of data are indicative of the marbled murrelet's use of forested areas for nesting and will be relied upon to make the determination of whether we have documentation of nesting behavior by critical habitat subunit:
(a)
(1) Audio/visual surveys conducted according to the Pacific Seabird Group (PSG) survey protocol (Evans Mack
(2) Nest locations obtained through radio-telemetry tracking, tree climbing, egg-shell fragments, and chicks on the ground.
(b)
Radar-based marbled murrelet detections and presence-only detections (such as flying over or heard only) resulting from audio/visual surveys were not used to classify a subunit as positive in terms of nesting behavior detections. Even though these detections indicate use of an area by marbled murrelets, these types of detections do not link murrelet nesting to specific areas of forested habitat.
In Washington and California, occurrence data, including nest locations and audio/visual survey data, are maintained in State wildlife agency databases. The Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife marbled murrelet data was obtained by the Service on June 19, 2014, and includes data collected through 2013. The California Department of Fish and Wildlife's marbled murrelet occurrence database, as currently maintained by the Arcata Fish and Wildlife Office, was accessed on February 5, 2015. The database includes information on some surveys conducted through 2006, with one observation from 2014, but is incomplete for the State. Audio/visual surveys in Oregon are not maintained in a centralized database. The Service, through a cooperative agreement, provided funds to the Oregon State University to obtain and collate Oregon survey data. The data provided to the Service included surveys through 2003, mainly on Federal lands. Additionally, the BLM and Oregon Department of Forestry provided a summary of current survey data, as of March of 2015, within critical habitat in Oregon. Survey data for private lands in Oregon were not available.
We have determined that all 101 subunits designated as critical habitat in 1996, as revised in 2011, are within the geographical range occupied by the species at the time of listing, and all 101 subunits contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species. Evidence of the presence of PCEs is based on nests located within a subunit, nesting behavior detections, audio-visual survey station placements (generally surveys are only conducted if there are nesting platforms present in the forested area), and specific forest inventory data. All of these forms of evidence point to the presence of PCE 1, nesting platforms, within the subunit, as well as the presence of PCE 2. In addition, within all 101 subunits, the essential physical or biological features
Of the 101 subunits, 78 (all critical habitat subunits except for those identified in Table 1, below) have either specific nesting behavior detection data within the subunit or forested areas within the subunit that are contiguous with forested areas within which nesting behaviors have been observed. In total, the 78 subunits with nesting behavior detections account for 3,335,400 ac (1,349,800 ha), or 90 percent of the total designation. These 78 subunits all contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protection, as described above, because these subunits have received or continue to receive some level of timber harvest, fragmentation of the forested landscape, and reduced habitat effectiveness from human activity. Therefore, we conclude that these 78 subunits meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act.
There are 23 subunits that did not have data indicating marbled murrelet nesting behaviors at the time of listing (Table 1). All of these subunits, however, are within the range of the species at the time of listing, and, hence, we consider them to be occupied. Of these 23 subunits, 2 are in Washington, 5 are in Oregon, and 16 are in California, totaling up to 362,600 ac (145,800 ha) or 10 percent of the designation. We have determined that all 23 subunits contain the essential physical or biological features and PCEs based on specific forest inventory data and audio-visual survey station placements. Only 7 of these 23 subunits have received partial or complete surveys to determine use by marbled murrelets. Very limited inland distribution information was available when the species was listed (1992) and in 1996 when critical habitat was designated (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, pp. 26269-26270). However, continued survey efforts have filled in gaps in the distribution that were not known at the time of listing. For example, as of June 2014, the Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife murrelet detection database contained 5,225 nesting behavior detections. Of these 5,225 detections, only 254 were from surveys before 1992 and only 2,149 were prior to 1996. Therefore, it is our opinion that had surveys been conducted in many of these 23 subunits, it is likely that nesting behaviors would have been detected.
Even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied at the time of listing because we do not have specific documentation of nesting behaviors, the Act permits designation of such areas as critical habitat if they are essential for the conservation of the species. We evaluated whether each of these 23 subunits are essential for the conservation of the species. In this evaluation we considered: (1) The importance of the area to the future recovery of the species; (2) whether the areas have or are capable of providing the essential physical or biological features; and (3) whether the areas provide connectivity between marine and terrestrial habitats. As stated above, we determined that all 23 subunits contain the physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet; therefore, all 23 subunits provide essential nesting habitat that is currently limited on the landscape. In particular, 13 subunits in California that are south of Cape Mendocino contain the last remnants of nesting habitat in that part of California. All 101 designated subunits work together to create a distribution of essential nesting habitat from north to south and inland from marine foraging areas. All of the designated critical habitat units occur within areas identified in the draft and final recovery plans for the marbled murrelet (USFWS 1995 and 1997, entire) as essential for the conservation of the species. Maintaining and increasing suitable nesting habitat for the marbled murrelet is a key objective for the conservation and recovery of the species, by providing for increases in nest success and productivity needed to attain long-term population viability. Based upon this information, we have determined that all of the 23 subunits where nesting behaviors have not been documented are, nonetheless, essential for the conservation of the species. Therefore, even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied, we conclude that they meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act.
As described above, all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (101 subunits) contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protection. We recognize that the physical or biological features and PCEs may not be uniformly distributed throughout these 101 subunits because historical harvest patterns and natural disturbances have created a mosaic of multiple-aged forests. Replacement of essential physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet can take centuries to grow.
We have additionally evaluated all currently designated critical habitat for the marbled murrelet applying the standard under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, and have determined that all 101 subunits included in this designation are essential for the conservation of the species. As detailed above, we have determined that all areas of critical habitat, whether known to be occupied at the time of listing or not, contain the physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet. All 101 designated subunits work together to create a distribution of essential nesting habitat from north to south and inland from marine foraging areas, and occur within areas identified in the draft and final recovery plans for the marbled murrelet (USFWS 1995 and 1997, entire) as essential for the conservation of the species. All areas designated as critical habitat are essential for the conservation and recovery of the marbled murrelet by maintaining and
The preamble to the 1996 final critical habitat rule (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26265) stated that within the boundaries of designated critical habitat, only those areas that contain one or more PCEs are, by definition, critical habitat, and areas without any PCEs are excluded by definition. This statement was in error; we clarified this language in the revised critical habitat rule published in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599, p. 61604), and we reemphasize this correction here. By introducing some ambiguity in our delineation of critical habitat, this language was inconsistent with the requirement that each critical habitat unit be delineated by specific limits using reference points and lines (50 CFR 424.12(c)). The Service does its best not to include areas that obviously cannot attain PCEs, such as alpine areas, water bodies, serpentine meadows, lava flows, airports, buildings, parking lots, etc. (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, p. 26269). However, the scale at which mapping is done for publication in the Code of Federal Regulations does not allow precise identification of these features, and, therefore, some may fall within the critical habitat boundaries. Hence, all lands within the mapped critical habitat boundaries for the marbled murrelet are critical habitat.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies, including the Service, to ensure that any action they fund, authorize, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered species or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat of such species. A detailed explanation of the regulatory effects of critical habitat in terms of consultation under section 7 of the Act and application of the adverse modification standard is provided in the October 5, 2011, final rule revising critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (76 FR 61599).
Section 7 consultation is required whenever there is a discretionary Federal action that may affect listed species or designated critical habitat. Section 7(a)(3) also states that a Federal agency shall consult with the Secretary on any prospective agency action at the request of, and in cooperation with, the prospective permit or license applicant if the applicant has reason to believe that an endangered species or a threatened species may be present in the area affected by his or her project and that implementation of such action will likely affect such species. The initiation of section 7 consultation under the jeopardy standard takes place if the species may be present and the action may affect the species. As described above, because of the relatively coarse scale at which critical habitat is designated, the species may or may not be present within all portions of the “geographical area occupied by the species” or may be present only periodically. Therefore, at the time of any consultation under section 7 of the Act, the species of interest may not be present within the action area for the purposes of the section 7 consultation, even if that action area is within the “geographical area occupied by the species.”
We recognize that critical habitat designated at a particular point in time may not include all of the habitat areas that we may later determine are necessary for the recovery of the species. For these reasons, a critical habitat designation does not signal that habitat outside the designated area is unimportant or may not be needed for recovery of the species. Areas that are important to the conservation of the species, both inside and outside the critical habitat designation, will continue to be subject to: (1) Conservation actions implemented under section 7(a)(1) of the Act, (2) regulatory protections afforded by the requirement in section 7(a)(2) of the Act for Federal agencies to ensure their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species, and (3) section 9 of the Act's prohibitions on taking any individual of the species, including taking caused by actions that affect habitat. Federally funded or permitted projects affecting listed species outside their designated critical habitat areas may still result in jeopardy findings in some cases. These protections and conservation tools will continue to contribute to recovery of this species. Similarly, critical habitat designations made on the basis of the best available information at the time of designation will not control the direction and substance of future recovery plans, habitat conservation plans (HCPs), or other species conservation planning efforts if new information available at the time of these planning efforts calls for a different outcome.
Section 4(b)(2) of the Act and its implementing regulations require that we consider the economic impact that may result from a designation or revision of critical habitat. If critical habitat has not been previously designated, the probable economic impact of a proposed critical habitat designation is analyzed by comparing scenarios both “with critical habitat” and “without critical habitat.” The “without critical habitat” scenario represents the baseline for the analysis, and includes the existing regulatory and socio-economic burden imposed on landowners, managers, or other resource users potentially affected by the designation of critical habitat (
Baseline protections as a result of the listed status of the marbled murrelet include sections 7, 9, and 10 of the Act, and any economic impacts resulting
• Section 7 of the Act, even absent critical habitat designation, requires Federal agencies to consult with the Service to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out will not likely jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species. Consultations under the jeopardy standard result in administrative costs, as well as impacts of conservation efforts resulting from consideration of this standard.
• Section 9 defines the actions that are prohibited by the Act. In particular, it prohibits the “take” of endangered wildlife, where “take” means to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct. The economic impacts associated with this section manifest themselves in sections 7 and 10.
• Under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act, an entity (
In the present rulemaking, we are not starting from a “without critical habitat” baseline. In this particular case, critical habitat has been in place for the marbled murrelet since May 24, 1996 (61 FR 26256), and was most recently revised on October 5, 2011 (76 FR 61599). Since the 2011 revision resulted only in the removal of some areas of critical habitat, all areas remaining in the current designation have been critical habitat for the marbled murrelet since 1996. This current critical habitat designation forms the baseline for our consideration of the potential economic impacts of this proposed rule. In this document, we describe our evaluation and conclusion that all of the currently designated areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. Specifically, we have clarified that all areas are within the range of the marbled murrelet and, therefore, occupied by the species at the time of listing, and contain the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management consideration or protection. Furthermore, although all areas are considered to have been occupied at the time of listing, all areas do not necessarily have specific data indicating known detections of nesting murrelets at the time of listing. Therefore, we have further evaluated and determined that all critical habitat, regardless of whether we have information indicating definitive use by nesting murrelets at the time of listing, is essential for the conservation of the species. As a result of our evaluation, we are not proposing any modification to the boundaries of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, nor are we proposing any changes to the definition of the PCEs (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256).
We have considered the probable incremental economic impacts that may result from this proposed rule with regard to critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. Critical habitat designation will not affect activities that do not have any Federal involvement; designation of critical habitat affects only activities conducted, funded, permitted, or authorized by Federal agencies. In areas where the marbled murrelet is present, Federal agencies already are required to consult with the Service under section 7 of the Act on activities they fund, permit, or implement that may affect the species. In this particular case, because all areas that we have considered are already designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, where a Federal nexus occurs, consultations to avoid the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat have been incorporated into the existing consultation process. Federal agencies have been consulting under section 7 of the Act on critical habitat for the marbled murrelet for approximately 20 years. As this proposed rule does not suggest the addition of any new areas as critical habitat, any probable economic impacts resulting from this rulemaking would result solely from our clarification of how all of the areas currently designated meet the statutory definition of critical habitat. The incremental economic impacts of this proposed rule would, therefore, be equal to any additional costs incurred as the result of a difference between the outcome of consultations as they are currently conducted and consultations as they would be conducted if this rulemaking is finalized as proposed.
We fully considered any probable economic impacts that may result from this proposed rule. Based upon our evaluation, we do not anticipate changes to the consultation process or effect determinations made for critical habitat as a result of our evaluation and conclusion that all areas meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act. In addition, we do not anticipate requiring additional or different project modifications than are currently requested when an action “may affect” critical habitat. Therefore, it is the Service's expectation that this proposed rule clarifying the 1996 critical habitat designation, as revised in 2011, which explains how all areas within the boundaries of the current designation meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act, will result in no additional (incremental) economic impacts.
In order to confirm that our assessment of the potential economic impacts of this proposed rule is accurate, we asked those Federal action agencies that manage lands that are critical habitat or with whom we have consulted over the past 20 years on marbled murrelet critical habitat to review our evaluation and characterization of the changes, if any, to consultation under section 7 that may be anticipated as a consequence of this proposed rule. We specifically asked each agency whether our proposed rule would be likely to result in any additional economic impacts on their agency (incremental impacts), above and beyond those already incurred as a result of the current critical habitat designation for the marbled murrelet (baseline impacts). Based on our consultation history with Federal agencies, it is our understanding that action agencies currently consult on effects to marbled murrelet critical habitat through an analysis of the effects to the PCEs. We asked the action agencies to confirm or correct this understanding, and to verify our characterization of how these consultations take place under the current designation, which we described as follows:
• If an action will take place within designated critical habitat, the action agency considers the action area to be critical habitat, irrelevant of the presence of PCEs. The action agency then determines whether there are PCEs within the action area. If the action agency determines there are no PCEs within the action area, the agency makes a “no effect” determination and the Service is not consulted.
• If the action agency determines there are PCEs within the action area, they analyze the action's potential effects on the PCEs, which may result in a “no effect” or “may effect”
Whether the critical habitat subunit or action area is considered to be “occupied” by the species is irrelevant to the effect determination made for critical habitat. Rather, the determination of “occupancy” is relevant to the effect determination for the species and any minimization measures that may be implemented (such as project timing).
In this proposed rule we have reconsidered and clarified that we consider all areas to have been occupied by the species at the time of listing, and that all of these areas have the PCEs. Because occupancy of the critical habitat subunit or action area is considered irrelevant to the effect determination made for critical habitat, the Service does not anticipate changes to the consultation process or effect determinations made for critical habitat as a result of this determination. In addition, the Service does not anticipate requiring additional or different project modifications than are currently requested when an action “may affect” critical habitat. Therefore, it is the Service's expectation that the proposed rule clarifying the 1996 critical habitat designation [
We solicited review and comment on our draft summary of the anticipated economic impacts of this proposed rule, as described above, from seven Federal agencies with whom we regularly consult on marbled murrelet critical habitat (the U.S. Forest Service (USFS), U.S. Bureau of Land Management (BLM), National Park Service (NPS), Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA), U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps), Federal Highway Administration (FHA), and Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC)). We received responses from four of these agencies: the USFS representing multiple national forests, the BLM representing multiple districts, the NPS representing Redwood National Park and State Parks partnership, and the BIA. All responses agreed with our evaluation of the potential incremental effects of the proposed rule, and confirmed that they did not anticipate any additional costs as a result of the clarification of areas occupied at the time of listing. Our initial letter of inquiry and all responses received from the action agencies are available for review in the Supplemental Materials folder at
We additionally considered any potential economic impacts on non-Federal entities as a result of this proposed rule. In our experience, any economic impacts to non-Federal parties are generally associated with the development of HCPs under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. However, as described above, in most cases the incentive for the development of an HCP is the potential issuance of an incidental take permit in connection with an activity or project in an area where a listed animal species occurs. HCPs are seldom undertaken in response to a critical habitat designation, but in such a case the costs associated with the development of an HCP prompted by the designation of critical habitat would be considered an incremental impact of that designation. In this particular situation, because we are not proposing any changes to the boundaries of critical habitat, we do not anticipate the initiation of any new HCPs in response to this proposed rule; therefore, we do not anticipate any costs to non-Federal parties associated with HCP development.
Other potential costs to non-Federal entities as a result of critical habitat designation might include costs to third party private applicants in association with Federal activities. In most cases, consultations under section 7 of the Act involve only the Service and other Federal agencies, such as the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. Sometimes, however, consultations may include a third party involved in projects that involve a permitted entity, such as the recipient of a Clean Water Act section 404 permit. In such cases, these private parties may incur some costs, such as the cost of applying for the permit in question, or the time spent gathering and providing information for a permit. These costs and administrative effort on the part of third party applicants, if attributable solely to critical habitat, would be incremental impacts of the designation. In this particular case, however, because we are not proposing any boundary changes to the current critical habitat designation, we do not anticipate any change from the current baseline conditions in terms of potential costs to third parties; therefore, we expect any incremental impacts to non-Federal parties associated with this proposed rule to be minimal.
Based on our evaluation and the information provided to us by the Federal action agencies within the critical habitat area under consideration, we conclude that this proposed rule will result in little if any additional economic impacts above baseline costs, and we seek public input on this conclusion.
We have examined all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet in 1996 (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256), as revised in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599), and evaluated whether all areas meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A) of the Act. Based upon our evaluation, we have determined that all 101 subunits designated as critical habitat are within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing, and each of these subunits provide the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protections. Therefore, we conclude that all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act. Of the 101 subunits, 78 of those subunits had documented detections of nesting behavior at the time of listing. We have determined that we do not have sufficient data to definitively document nesting behavior within the other 23 subunits at the time of listing. However, even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied, the Secretary has determined that they are essential for the conservation of the species, as they contribute to the maintenance or increase of suitable nesting habitat required to achieve the conservation and recovery of the marbled murrelet; therefore, we conclude that they meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act.
In addition, recognizing that the detection of nesting behaviors or the presence of essential physical or biological features or PCEs within a subunit may be evaluated on multiple scales, such that at some finer scales some subset of the subunit may be considered unoccupied or lacking in PCEs, we evaluated the designation in its entirety as if it were unoccupied under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, and found that all areas of critical habitat are essential for the conservation of the species. We have here clarified that we have evaluated all critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, and have concluded that in all cases the areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A) of the Act. In addition, as required by section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we have considered the
Therefore, we conclude that, under the Act, critical habitat as currently designated for the marbled murrelet in the Code of Federal Regulations remains valid, and we seek public input on this determination.
Section 4(b)(5) of the Act provides for one or more public hearings on this proposal, if requested. Requests must be received within 45 days after the date of publication of this proposed rule in the
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA; 5 U.S.C. 601
According to the Small Business Administration, small entities include small organizations such as independent nonprofit organizations; small governmental jurisdictions, including school boards and city and town governments that serve fewer than 50,000 residents; and small businesses (13 CFR 121.201). Small businesses include manufacturing and mining concerns with fewer than 500 employees, wholesale trade entities with fewer than 100 employees, retail and service businesses with less than $5 million in annual sales, general and heavy construction businesses with less than $27.5 million in annual business, special trade contractors doing less than $11.5 million in annual business, and agricultural businesses with annual sales less than $750,000. To determine if potential economic impacts to these small entities are significant, we considered the types of activities that might trigger regulatory impacts under this designation as well as types of project modifications that may result. In general, the term “significant economic impact” is meant to apply to a typical small business firm's business operations.
The Service's current understanding of the requirements under the RFA, as amended, and following recent court decisions, is that Federal agencies are only required to evaluate the potential incremental impacts of rulemaking on those entities directly regulated by the rulemaking itself, and therefore, not required to evaluate the potential impacts to indirectly regulated entities. The regulatory mechanism through which critical habitat protections are realized is section 7 of the Act, which requires Federal agencies, in consultation with the Service, to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out by the Agency is not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Therefore, under section 7, only Federal action agencies are directly subject to the specific regulatory requirement (avoiding destruction and adverse modification) imposed by critical habitat designation. Consequently, it is our position that only Federal action agencies will be directly regulated by this designation. Moreover, Federal agencies are not small entities. Therefore, because no small entities are directly regulated by this rulemaking, the Service certifies that, if promulgated, this determination of critical habitat will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In summary, we have considered whether this proposed rule would result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. For the above reasons and based on currently available information, we certify that, if promulgated, the proposed determination of critical habitat would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities. Therefore, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required.
Executive Order 13211 (Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use) requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain action. In our consideration of potential economic impacts, we did not find that this rule clarification will significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. This proposed rule only clarifies how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act, and does not propose any changes to the boundaries of the current critical habitat. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501
(1) This rule will not produce a Federal mandate. In general, a Federal mandate is a provision in legislation, statute, or regulation that would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, or tribal governments, or the private sector, and includes both “Federal intergovernmental mandates” and “Federal private sector mandates.” These terms are defined in 2 U.S.C. 658(5)-(7). “Federal intergovernmental mandate” includes a regulation that “would impose an enforceable duty
The designation of critical habitat does not impose a legally binding duty on non-Federal Government entities or private parties. Under the Act, the only regulatory effect is that Federal agencies must ensure that their actions do not destroy or adversely modify critical habitat under section 7. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency. Furthermore, to the extent that non-Federal entities are indirectly impacted because they receive Federal assistance or participate in a voluntary Federal aid program, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act would not apply, nor would critical habitat shift the costs of the large entitlement programs listed above onto State governments.
(2) We do not believe that this rule will significantly or uniquely affect small governments because this proposed rule only clarifies how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act, and does not propose any changes to the boundaries of the current critical habitat, therefore, landownership within critical habitat does not change. Therefore, a Small Government Agency Plan is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 12630 (“Government Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Private Property Rights”), we analyzed the potential takings implications of this proposed determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. This proposed rule clarifies whether and how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act, and does not propose any changes to the boundaries of the current critical habitat, therefore, landownership within critical habitat does not change. Thus, we conclude that this proposed rule does not pose additional takings implications for lands within or affected by the original 1996 designation. Critical habitat designation does not affect landowner actions that do not require Federal funding or permits, nor does it preclude development of habitat conservation programs or issuance of incidental take permits to permit actions that do require Federal funding or permits to go forward. Therefore, based on the best available information, as described above, we conclude that this proposed determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet does not pose significant takings implications.
In accordance with E.O. 13132 (Federalism), this proposed rule does not have significant Federalism effects. A Federalism assessment is not required. From a Federalism perspective, the designation of critical habitat directly affects only the responsibilities of Federal agencies. The Act imposes no other duties with respect to critical habitat, either for States and local governments, or for anyone else. As a result, the rule does not have substantial direct effects either on the States, or on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of powers and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The designation may have some benefit to these governments because the areas that contain the features essential to the conservation of the species are more clearly defined, and the physical and biological features of the habitat necessary to the conservation of the species are specifically identified. This information does not alter where and what federally sponsored activities may occur. However, it may assist these local governments in long-range planning (because these local governments no longer have to wait for case-by-case section 7 consultations to occur).
Where State and local governments require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for actions that may affect critical habitat, consultation under section 7(a)(2) would be required. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform), the Office of the Solicitor has determined that the rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order. In our proposal, we have reconsidered designated critical habitat for the marbled murrelet for the purpose of assessing whether all of the areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat in accordance with the provisions of the Act. To assist the public in understanding the habitat needs of the species, the proposed rule identifies the elements of physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet.
This rule does not contain any new collections of information that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
It is our position that, outside the jurisdiction of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Tenth Circuit, we do not need to prepare environmental analyses pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 (Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretarial Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to tribes.
There are no tribal lands designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet.
We are required by Executive Orders 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
(1) Be logically organized;
(2) Use the active voice to address readers directly;
(3) Use clear language rather than jargon;
(4) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
(5) Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in
A complete list of all references cited in this rule is available on the Internet at
The primary authors of this document are the staff members of the Washington Fish and Wildlife Office, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (see
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1977, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes regulations to implement Amendment 15 to the Fishery Management Plan for the Shrimp Fishery of the Gulf of Mexico (FMP), as prepared and submitted by the Gulf of Mexico (Gulf) Fishery Management Council (Council). This rule would revise the FMP framework procedures to streamline the process for changing certain regulations affecting the shrimp fishery. Additionally, this rule proposes changes to the FMP that would revise the maximum sustainable yield (MSY), overfishing threshold, and overfished threshold definitions and values for three species of penaeid shrimp. The intent of this proposed rule and Amendment 15 are to streamline the management process for Gulf shrimp stocks and to revise criteria for determining the overfished and overfishing status of each penaeid shrimp stock using the best available science.
Written comments must be received on or before September 24, 2015.
You may submit comments on the proposed rule, identified by “NOAA-NMFS-2015-0097” by any of the following methods:
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Electronic copies of Amendment 15, which includes an environmental assessment, a Regulatory Flexibility Act analysis, and a regulatory impact review, may be obtained from the Southeast Regional Office Web site at
Susan Gerhart, telephone: 727-824-5305, or email:
The shrimp fishery in the Gulf is managed under the FMP. The FMP was prepared by the Council and implemented through regulations at 50 CFR part 622 under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act).
This proposed rule would revise the FMP framework procedures at § 622.60(a) and (b) to allow for modification of accountability measures under the standard documentation process of the open framework procedure. Framework procedures for a FMP allow for changes in specific management measures and parameters that can be made more efficiently than changes made through a FMP plan amendment. This framework procedure was first implemented in the Generic Annual Catch Limit (ACL) Amendment (76 FR 82044, December 29, 2011). Also, this proposed rule would remove outdated terminology from the regulations, such as “total allowable catch,” and remove the phrase “transfer at sea provisions” from the list of framework procedures because this phrase was inadvertently included in the final rule for the Generic ACL Amendment (76 FR 82044, December 29, 2011).
Amendment 15 also contains actions that are not being codified in the regulations, but guide the Council and NMFS in establishing other management measures, which are codifed. Amendment 15 would revise the MSY, overfishing threshold, and the overfished threshold definitions and values for penaeid shrimp stocks (brown, white, and pink shrimp). MSY is the largest average catch that can continuously be taken from a stock under existing environmental conditions. Overfishing occurs whenever the rate of removal is too high and jeopardizes the capacity of a stock or stock complex to produce the MSY on a continuing basis. A stock or stock complex is considered overfished when its biomass has declined below the capacity of the stock or stock complex to produce MSY on a continuing basis.
The criteria and values for MSY, overfishing threshold, and overfished threshold for penaeid shrimp were established in Amendment 13 to the FMP (71 FR 56039, September 26, 2006). Historically, Gulf penaeid shrimp stocks were assessed with a virtual population analysis (VPA), which reported output in terms of number of parents. However, the 2007 pink shrimp stock assessment VPA incorrectly determined pink shrimp were undergoing overfishing because the model could not accommodate low effort. In 2009, NMFS stock assessment analysts determined that the stock synthesis model was the best choice for modeling Gulf shrimp populations. Amendment 15 would modify these stock status determination criteria to match the biomass-based output of the stock synthesis model, which was deemed a better assessment model for shrimp by NMFS biologists and the Council's Scientific and Statistical Committee. These revisions to the penaeid shrimp stock status criteria are expected to have little to no change in the biological, physical, or ecological environments because these changes are only to the stock status reference points and will not have a direct impact on the actual harvest of penaeid shrimp.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with Amendment 15, the FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) that this rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis for this determination is as follows:
A description of this proposed rule, why it is being considered, and the objectives of this proposed rule are contained in the preamble and in the
This proposed rule is expected to directly affect commercial fishermen holding valid or renewable Federal Gulf shrimp permits. The SBA established size criteria for all major industry sectors in the U.S. including fish harvesters and for-hire operations. A business involved in shellfish harvesting is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and its combined annual receipts are not in excess of $5.5 million (NAICS code 114112, shellfish fishing) for all of its affiliated operations worldwide.
The Federal shrimp permit for the commercial harvest of penaeid shrimp in the Gulf exclusive economic zone has been under a moratorium since 2007 (71 FR 56039, September 26, 2006). At the start of the moratorium, 1,933 vessels qualified for and received the Federal shrimp permit. Over time, the number of permitted shrimp vessels has declined, and in 2013 there were 1,546 such permitted vessels.
From 2006 through 2012, an average of 4,757 vessels fished for shrimp in the Gulf, of which 27 percent were federally permitted vessels and the rest, non-federally permitted vessels that fished only in state waters. Despite the fewer number of vessels, federally permitted vessels accounted for an average of 67 percent of total shrimp landings and 77 percent of total ex-vessel revenues. A federally permitted vessel in the Gulf shrimp fishery, on average, generated revenues from commercial fishing of approximately $254,000 (2012 dollars) annually.
Based on the revenue figures above, all vessels expected to be directly affected by this proposed rule are determined for the purpose of this analysis to be small business entities.
The modifications to the MSY, overfishing threshold, and overfished threshold definitions and values for penaeid shrimp in Amendment 15 would make these parameters consistent with the model currently used in the stock assessment for penaeid shrimp species. Because modifications of these parameters would not affect the harvest of shrimp or restrict the operations of shrimp vessels, no direct economic effects would ensue from this action within the amendment.
The proposed regulatory change to allow for modification of accountability measures under the standard documentation process of the open framework procedure would streamline the process for changing certain regulations affecting the shrimp fishery. This action would improve the administrative environment of developing regulations for the shrimp fishery, but would have no direct economic effects on the operations of affected shrimp vessels. This rule would also remove outdated terminology from the regulations, such as “total allowable catch,” and remove the phrase “transfer at sea provisions” from the list of framework procedures to correct an inadvertent error. Both these change would have no direct economic effects on the operations of affected shrimp vessels. Therefore, it is expected that the measures contained in this proposed rule would have no effects on the profits of any affected shrimp vessels.
No duplicative, overlapping, or conflicting Federal rules have been identified. In addition, no new reporting, record-keeping, or other compliance requirements are introduced
The information provided above supports a determination that this rule, if implemented, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Because of this determination, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
Fisheries, Fishing, Gulf of Mexico, Shrimp.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 622 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a)
(b)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Modification of fishing seasons; request for comments.
NMFS announces six inseason actions in the ocean salmon fisheries. These inseason actions modified the commercial, recreational, and treaty Indian salmon fisheries in the area from the U.S./Canada border to the U.S./Mexico border.
The effective dates for the inseason actions are set out in this document under the heading Inseason Actions. Comments will be accepted through September 9, 2015.
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0001, by any one of the following methods:
•
•
Peggy Mundy at 206-526-4323.
In the 2015 annual management measures for ocean salmon fisheries (80 FR 25611, May 5, 2015), NMFS announced the commercial and recreational fisheries in the area from the U.S./Canada border to the U.S./Mexico border, beginning May 1, 2015, and 2016 salmon fisheries opening earlier than May 1, 2016. NMFS is authorized to implement inseason management actions to modify fishing seasons and quotas as necessary to provide fishing opportunity while meeting management objectives for the affected species (50 CFR 660.409). Inseason actions in the salmon fishery may be taken directly by NMFS (50 CFR 660.409(a)—Fixed inseason management provisions) or upon consultation with the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) and the appropriate State Directors (50 CFR 660.409(b)—Flexible inseason management provisions). The state management agencies that participated in the consultations described in this document were: California Department of Fish and Wildlife (CDFW), Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife (ODFW) and Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife (WDFW).
Management of the salmon fisheries is generally divided into two geographic areas: North of Cape Falcon (U.S./Canada border to Cape Falcon, OR) and south of Cape Falcon (Cape Falcon, OR, to the U.S./Mexico border). The inseason actions reported in this document affect fisheries north and south of Cape Falcon. Within the south of Cape Falcon area, the Klamath Management Zone (KMZ) extends from Humbug Mountain, OR, to Humboldt South Jetty, CA, and is divided at the Oregon/California border into the Oregon KMZ to the north and California KMZ to the south. All times mentioned refer to Pacific daylight time.
All other restrictions and regulations remain in effect as announced for the 2015 ocean salmon fisheries and 2016 salmon fisheries opening prior to May 1, 2016 (80 FR 25611, May 5, 2015).
The RA determined that the best available information indicated that Chinook salmon and halibut catch to date and fishery effort supported the above inseason actions recommended by the states of Washington and Oregon, and the treaty Indian tribes. The states manage the fisheries in state waters adjacent to the areas of the U.S. exclusive economic zone in accordance with these Federal actions; the tribes manage fisheries in areas described in the annual management measures (80 FR 25611, May 5, 2015). As provided by the inseason notice procedures of 50 CFR 660.411, actual notice of the described regulatory actions was given, prior to the time the action was effective, by telephone hotline numbers 206-526-6667 and 800-662-9825, and by U.S. Coast Guard Notice to Mariners broadcasts on Channel 16 VHF-FM and 2182 kHz.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds that good cause exists for this notification to be issued without affording prior notice and opportunity for public comment under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) because such notification would be impracticable. As previously noted, actual notice of the regulatory actions was provided to fishers through telephone hotline and radio notification. These actions comply with the requirements of the annual management measures for ocean salmon fisheries (80 FR 25611, May 5, 2015), the West Coast Salmon Fishery Management Plan (Salmon FMP), and regulations implementing the Salmon FMP, 50 CFR 660.409 and 660.411. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment was impracticable because NMFS and the state agencies had insufficient time to provide for prior notice and the opportunity for public comment between the time Chinook salmon catch and effort assessments and projections were developed and fisheries impacts were calculated, and the time the fishery modifications had to be implemented in order to ensure that fisheries are managed based on the best available scientific information, ensuring that conservation objectives and ESA consultation standards are not exceeded. The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness required under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), as a delay in effectiveness of these actions would allow fishing at levels inconsistent with the goals of the Salmon FMP and the current management measures.
These actions are authorized by 50 CFR 660.409 and 660.411 and are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
NMFS proposes to allow large federally permitted U.S. longline vessels to fish in certain areas of the Large Vessel Prohibited Area (LVPA) around Swains Island, Tutuila, and the Manua Islands. NMFS would continue to prohibit fishing in the LVPA by large purse seine vessels. The fishing requirements for the Rose Atoll Marine National Monument would remain unchanged. The intent of the proposed rule is to improve the viability of the American Samoa longline fishery and achieve optimum yield from the fishery while preventing overfishing, in accordance with National Standard 1.
NMFS must receive comments by September 24, 2015.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2015-0080, by either of the following methods:
•
•
The Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) and NMFS prepared an environmental analysis that describes the potential impacts on the human environment that could result from the proposed rule. The environmental analysis and other supporting documents are available at
Jarad Makaiau, NMFS PIRO Sustainable Fisheries, 808-725-5176.
In 2002, the Council recommended establishing, and NMFS implemented, the LVPA around Swain's, Tutuila, and the Manua Islands, and Rose Atoll. At the time, the Council and NMFS established the LVPA to prevent the potential for gear conflicts and catch competition between large and small fishing vessels. Such conflicts and competition could have led to reduced opportunities for sustained participation in the small-scale pelagic fisheries. The LVPA, which extends seaward approximately
The American Samoa pelagic fisheries have changed since 2002, and the conditions that led the Council and NMFS to establish the LVPA are no longer present. Only a few small longline vessels (just one active in 2014) have been operating on a regular basis, and the large vessels (19 active in 2014) have faced declining catch per unit of effort (CPUE), increased costs, and greatly reduced revenues. The LVPA may be unnecessarily reducing the efficiency of the larger American Samoa longline vessels by displacing the fleet from a part of their historical fishing grounds.
To address fishery conditions resulting from the LVPA, the Council recommended that NMFS allow federally-permitted U.S. longline vessels 50 ft and longer to fish in portions of the LVPA. Specifically, the proposed action would allow large U.S. vessels that hold a Federal American Samoa longline limited entry permit to fish within the LVPA seaward of 12 nm around Swains Island, Tutuila, and the Manua Islands (see Fig. 1). NMFS would continue to prohibit fishing in the LVPA by large purse seine vessels. The fishing requirements for the Rose Atoll Marine National Monument would also remain unchanged.
The proposed action would allow fishing in an additional 16,817 nm
The Council and NMFS will annually review the effects of the proposed action on catch rates, small vessel participation, and sustainable fisheries development initiatives. Any proposed changes would be subject to additional environmental review and opportunity for public review and comment.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator for Fisheries has determined that this proposed rule is consistent with the FEP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable laws, subject to further consideration after public comment.
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. A description of the proposed action, why it is being considered, and the legal basis for it are contained in the preamble to this proposed rule.
The Western Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) established the American Samoa large vessel prohibited areas (LVPA) to separate large-vessel (50 feet or greater) fishing activities from those of smaller vessels, and to prevent potential gear conflicts and catch competition. NMFS implemented the LVPA in 2002 (67 FR 4369; January 30, 2002), with minor modifications to the boundaries in 2012, related to the establishment of the Rose Atoll Marine National Monument (77 FR 34260; June 11, 2012).
At the time that the LVPA was implemented, nearly 40 alia and other small vessels fished alongside 25 large vessels. The establishment of the LVPA prohibited fishing by all but two large vessels. The Council and NMFS allowed the two vessels to fish in the LVPA based on their fishing history. In recent years, far fewer small vessels operate within the LVPA and the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) surrounding American Samoa. Meanwhile, the large longliners based in American Samoa struggle to maintain operating, with estimated fleet-wide revenue of $6.8 million (
This proposed rule would provide economic relief to the American Samoa large longline vessel fleet, through an exemption to the prohibition from fishing within specific areas of the LVPA. The proposed action would allow the large longline vessels to fish over an additional 16,817 nm
The proposed action would directly affect operators of American Samoa-based longline vessels with Class C or D permits. Based on available information, NMFS has determined that all affected entities are small entities under the SBA definition of a small entity,
NMFS does not expect the rule to have disproportionate economic impacts between large and small entities directly affected by this rule, although the small vessels currently allowed to fish throughout the LVPA may be indirectly affected by the potential increase in the number of large longliners fishing within a portion of the LVPA. Furthermore, there would be disproportionate economic impacts among the universe of vessels based on gear, homeport, or vessel length.
Even though this proposed action would apply to a substantial number of vessels, the implementation of this action will not result in significant adverse economic impacts to individual vessels. The proposed action does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with other Federal rules and is not expected to have significant impact on small entities (as discussed above), organizations, or government jurisdictions. As such, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and none has been prepared.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
Administrative practice and procedure, American Samoa, Fisheries, Fishing, Guam, Hawaiian natives, Northern Mariana Islands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 665 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a)
(1) An exemption will be issued to a person who currently owns a large vessel to use that vessel to fish for western Pacific pelagic MUS in the American Samoa large vessel prohibited areas, if the person seeking the exemption had been the owner of that vessel when it was registered for use with a Western Pacific general longline permit, and has made at least one landing of western Pacific pelagic MUS in American Samoa on or prior to November 13, 1997.
(2) A landing of western Pacific pelagic MUS for the purpose of this paragraph must have been properly recorded on a NMFS Western Pacific Federal daily longline form that was submitted to NMFS, as required in § 665.14.
(3) An exemption is valid only for a vessel that was registered for use with a Western Pacific general longline permit and landed western Pacific pelagic MUS in American Samoa on or prior to November 13, 1997, or for a replacement vessel of equal or smaller LOA than the vessel that was initially registered for use with a Western Pacific general longline permit on or prior to November 13, 1997.
(4) An exemption is valid only for the vessel for which it is registered. An exemption not registered for use with a particular vessel may not be used.
(5) An exemption may not be transferred to another person.
(6) If more than one person,
(b)
(1) EEZ waters around Tutuila Island enclosed by straight lines connecting the following coordinates:
(2) EEZ waters around the Manua Islands enclosed by straight lines connecting the following coordinates:
(3) EEZ waters around Swains Island enclosed by straight lines connecting the following coordinates:
Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion (CNPP), USDA.
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice invites the general public and other public agencies to comment on a proposed information collection. This is an extension of a currently approved collection. Burden hours and total number of responses have not changed. This notice announces the Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion's (CNPP) intention to request the Office of Management and Budget's approval of the information collection processes and instruments to be used during consumer research while testing nutrition education messages and products developed for the general public. The purpose of performing consumer research is to identify consumers' understanding of potential nutrition education messages and obtain their reaction to prototypes of nutrition education products, including Internet based tools. The information collected will be used to refine messages and improve the usefulness of products as well as aid consumer understanding of current Dietary Guidelines for Americans and related materials (OMB No.: 0584-0523, Expiration Date 1/31/2016).
Written comments must be submitted on or before October 26, 2015 to be assured consideration.
Comments are invited on (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments may be sent to Dietary Guidelines Communications, Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1034, Alexandria, VA 22302. Comments may also be submitted via fax to the attention of Dietary Guidelines Communications at 703-305-3300 or through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
All written comments will be open for public inspection during regular business hours (8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday) at the Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion's main office located at 3101 Park Center Drive, Room 1034, Alexandria, Virginia 22302.
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Requests for additional information should be directed to Dietary Guidelines Communications at 703-305-7600 or email
The Dietary Guidelines are issued jointly by the Secretaries of USDA and Health and Human Services (HHS) every five years (the National Nutrition Monitoring and Related Research Act of 1990 [7 U.S.C. 5341]). The Dietary Guidelines serve as the cornerstone of Federal nutrition policy and form the basis for nutrition education efforts (nutrition messages and development of consumer materials) for these agencies. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans provides advice for making food and physical activity choices that help promote good health, a healthy weight, and help prevent disease.
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans includes USDA Food Pattern recommendations about what and how much to eat. To communicate the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, USDA established a comprehensive communications initiative which includes the MyPlate icon; a Web site designed for professionals and consumers, ChooseMyPlate.gov; and a variety of professional and consumer resources. The MyPlate icon emphasizes the five food groups to remind Americans to eat more healthfully. Activities to promote the Dietary Guidelines are critical to CNPP's mission, and fulfill requirements of the Government Performance and Results Act of 1993 (31 U.S.C. 9701).
Information collected from consumer research will be used to further develop the Dietary Guidelines and related communications. These may include: (1) Messages and products that help general consumers make healthier food and physical activity choices; (2) Additions and enhancements to ChooseMyPlate.gov; and (3) Resources for special population groups that might be identified. USDA is working closely in collaboration with HHS in the current Dietary Guidelines revision cycle for producing the 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans. With the potential for revised or new recommendations, the possibility for developing new messages, materials and tools exists. CNPP has among its major functions the
Pursuant to 7 CFR 2.19(a)(3), the Secretary of Agriculture has delegated authority to CNPP for, among other things, developing materials to aid the public in selecting food for good nutrition; coordinating nutrition education promotion and professional education projects within the Department; and consulting with Federal and State agencies, Congress, universities, and other public and private organizations and the general public regarding food consumption and dietary adequacy.
The products for these initiatives will be tested using qualitative and possibly quantitative consumer research techniques, which may include focus groups (with general consumers or with specific target groups such as low-income consumers, children, older Americans, educators, students, etc.), interviews (
The total estimated annual burden is 12,003.50 hours and 57,000 responses. Current estimates are based on both historical numbers of respondents from past projects as well as estimates for projects to be conducted in the next three years.
Office of the Under Secretary for Food Safety, USDA.
Notice of public meeting and request for comments.
The Office of the Under Secretary for Food Safety, U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), are sponsoring a public meeting on October 19, 2015. The objective of the public meeting is to provide information and receive public comments on agenda items and draft United States (U.S.) positions to be discussed at the 47th Session of the Codex Committee on Food Hygiene (CCFH) of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), taking place in Boston, Massachusetts November 9-13, 2015. The Deputy Under Secretary for Food Safety and the FDA recognize the importance of providing interested parties the opportunity to obtain background information on the 47th Session of CCFH and to address items on the agenda.
The public meeting is scheduled for Monday, October 19, 2015 from 1:00-4:00 p.m.
The public meeting will take place at the Jamie L. Whitten Building, United States Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Room 107-A, Washington, DC 20250.
Documents related to the 47th Session of the CCFH will be accessible via the Internet at the following address:
Jenny Scott, U.S. Delegate to the CCFH, invites U.S. interested parties to submit their comments electronically to the following email address
If you wish to participate in the public meeting for the 47th Session of the CCFH by conference call, please use the call-in number listed below.
Participant code will be listed on the following link closer to the meeting date.
Attendees may register to attend the public meeting by emailing
Codex was established in 1963 by two United Nations organizations, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). Through adoption of food standards, codes of practice, and other guidelines developed by its committees, and by promoting their adoption and implementation by governments, Codex seeks to protect the health of consumers and ensure that fair practices are used in the food trade.
The Codex Committee on Food Hygiene is responsible for:
(a) Drafting basic provisions on food hygiene applicable to all food;
(b) Considering, amending if necessary, and endorsing provisions on hygiene prepared by Codex commodity committees and contained in Codex commodity standards;
(c) Considering, amending if necessary, and endorsing provisions on hygiene prepared by Codex commodity committees and contained in Codex codes of practice unless, in specific cases, the Commission has decided otherwise;
(d) Drafting provisions on hygiene applicable to specific food items or food groups, whether coming within the terms of reference of a Codex commodity committee or not;
(e) Considering specific hygiene problems assigned to it by the Commission;
(f) Suggesting and prioritizing topics on which there is a need for microbiological risk assessment at the international level and to develop questions to be addressed by the risk assessors; and
(g) Considering microbiological risk management matters in relation to food hygiene, including food irradiation, and in relation to the risk assessment of FAO and WHO.
The CCFH is hosted by the United States.
The following items on the Agenda for the 47th Session of the CCFH will be discussed during the public meeting:
• Proposed Draft Guidelines for the Control of Nontyphoidal
• Proposed Draft Guidelines on the Application of General Principles of Food Hygiene to the Control of Foodborne Parasites.
• New work proposals/Forward Work plan.
• Discussion paper on the need to revise the Code of Hygienic Practice for Fresh Fruits and Vegetables
• Discussion paper on the revision of the General Principles of Food Hygiene and its HACCP annex
Each issue listed will be fully described in documents distributed, or to be distributed, by the Codex Secretariat prior to the Committee meeting. Members of the public may access or request copies of these documents (see
At the October 19, 2015, public meeting, draft U.S. positions on the agenda items will be described and discussed, and attendees will have the opportunity to pose questions and offer comments. Written comments may be offered at the meeting or sent to the U.S. Delegate for the 47th Session of the CCFH, Jenny Scott (see
Public awareness of all segments of rulemaking and policy development is important. Consequently, FSIS will announce this
FSIS also will make copies of this publication available through the FSIS Constituent Update, which is used to provide information regarding FSIS policies, procedures, regulations,
No agency, officer, or employee of the USDA shall, on the grounds of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, or political beliefs, exclude from participation in, deny the benefits of, or subject to discrimination any person in the United States under any program or activity conducted by the USDA.
To file a complaint of discrimination, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, which may be accessed online at
Send your completed complaint form or letter to USDA by mail, fax, or email:
Email:
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means for communication (Braille, large print, audiotape, etc.) should contact USDA's TARGET Center at (202) 720-2600 (voice and TDD).
U.S. Department of Commerce, National Institute of Standards and Technology.
Notice of Privacy Act System of Records: “COMMERCE/NIST-8, Child Care Subsidy Program Records.”
The Department of Commerce publishes this notice to announce the
The system of records becomes effective on August 25, 2015.
For a copy of the system of records please mail requests to: Essex W. Brown, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899, Building 101, Room A224, (301) 975-3801.
Kaitlyn Kemp, National Institute of Standards and Technology, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899, Building 101, Room A123, (301) 975-3319.
On July 14, 2015 (80 FR 40995), the Department of Commerce published a notice in the
U.S. Department of Commerce, National Institute of Standards and Technology
Final notice to delete a Privacy Act System of Records: “COMMERCE/NBS-2, Inventors of Energy-Related Processes and Devices.”
The Department of Commerce publishes this notice to announce the effective date of a deletion of a Privacy Act System of Records notice COMMERCE/NBS-2, Inventors of Energy-Related Processes and Devices.
This system of records will be deleted on August 25, 2015.
Director, Management and Organization Office, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-1710, 301-975-4074.
Director, Management and Organization Office, 100 Bureau Drive, Mail Stop 1710, Gaithersburg, MD 20899-1710, 301-975-4074.
On July 14, 2015 (80 FR 40997), the Department of Commerce published a notice in the
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
The data from the survey are primarily intended as general purpose statistics. They should be readily available to answer any number of research and policy questions related to foreign direct investment in the U.S.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to OIRA
On April 20, 2015, Valeo North America, Inc. d/b/a Valeo Compressor
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
On April 21, 2015, the City of Mobile, grantee of FTZ 82, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board on behalf of Outokumpu Stainless USA, LLC, within Subzone 82I, in Calvert, Alabama.
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
On April 20, 2015, the Puerto Rico Industrial Development Company, grantee of FTZ 7, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board on behalf of Neolpharma, Inc., located within Subzone 7O, in Caguas, Puerto Rico.
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On July 22, 2015, the United States Court of International Trade (CIT or Court) sustained the Department of Commerce's (Department's) final results of redetermination,
Consistent with the decision of the United States Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit (CAFC) in
Eric B. Greynolds, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-6071.
On July 7, 2011, Rubbermaid submitted its scope request involving 13 product models, which fall into three categories of floor cleaning products: Quick-Connect frames, Quick-Connect handles, and mopping kits.
In
In the Remand Results, the Department clarified its interpretation of the exclusion criteria for “finished merchandise” and “finished goods kits.”
With respect to the mopping kits, the Department found that these products met the exclusion for finished goods kits because (1) they were comprised of aluminum extrusions plus an additional non-extruded aluminum component which went beyond mere fasteners, and (2) in light of the certain other scope rulings,
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision with respect to the Final Scope Ruling on Cleaning System Components, the Department amends its final scope ruling. The Department finds that the scope of the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with section 516A(c)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding its administrative review of the countervailing duty (CVD) order on certain magnesia carbon bricks (MCBs) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) for the period January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013 (POR).
Gene H. Calvert, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3586.
On September 2, 2014, the Department published in the
The Department stated in the
On December 19, 2014, we received timely no shipment certifications from Fengchi Co., Fengchi Mining, and Fengchi Refractories.
Subsequently, the Department found that its data query that generated the Original CBP Data had been constructed for an incorrect period. The Department placed Corrected CBP Data onto the record on July 22, 2015, and gave interested parties an opportunity to comment on these data.
On July 28, 2015, Resco, Magnesita, and Harbison Walker International submitted timely comments on the Corrected CBP Data, requesting that the Department ask CBP for entry summary information regarding the entries listed in the Corrected CBP Data.
On August 12, 2015, the Department issued a memorandum stating that it intended to rescind this review based on the lack of suspended entries for Companies Subject to Review.
Section 351.213(d)(3) of the Department's regulations states that “{the} Secretary may rescind an administrative review, in whole or only with respect to a particular exporter or producer, if the Secretary concludes that, during the period covered by the review, there were no entries, exports, or sales of the subject merchandise, as the case may be.”
In this instance, because the Corrected CBP Data show there are no suspended
This notice serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with section 751 of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before October 26, 2015.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to George Silva at (301) 427-8503 or
This request is for a new collection of information.
The objective of the study is to collect information on the earnings and expenditures of Atlantic Highly Migratory Species (HMS) tournament operators and participants. The study will use two survey instruments to collect information from tournament operators and participants. One survey will ask tournament operators to characterize and quantify their operating costs and income sources in addition to describing their tournament participants. The other survey instrument will ask fishing tournament participants to estimate their expenditures associated with travel to, entering, and participating in the tournament.
The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) will collect cost and earnings data from all tournaments registered within the year (approximately 260 based on recent years' tournament registration data). In addition, NMFS will select fifty percent of registered tournaments to distribute expenditure surveys to anglers registered for those tournament events. The Atlantic HMS Management Division is currently consulting with tournament organizers and participants to design the survey instruments to ensure NMFS captures data on all relevant expenditures.
As specified in the Magnuson-Stevenson Fishery Conservation and Management Act of 1996 (and reauthorized in 2007), NMFS is required to enumerate the economic impacts of the policies it implements on fishing participants and coastal communities. The cost and earnings data collected in this survey will be used to estimate the economic contributions and impacts of Atlantic HMS tournaments regionally.
The primary data collection vehicle will be paper and/or internet-based survey forms delivered at tournament events. Telephone and personal interviews may be employed to supplement and verify written survey responses.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice and request for applications; correction.
ONMS published a request for applications for vacant seats on seven of its 13 national marine sanctuary advisory councils on August 14, 2015
Applications are due by September 30, 2015.
Application kits are specific to each advisory council. As such, application must be obtained from and returned to a council-specific address. For the Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council, contact: Nathalie Ward, Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary, 175 Edward Foster Road, Scituate, MA 02066; (781) 545-8026 extension 206; email
For further information on the Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council, please contact the individual identified in the Addresses section of this notice. Additional information on the other six advisory councils with vacant seats is available in the August 14, 2015, notice discussed under
As described in the August 14, 2015 notice (80 FR 48828), ONMS is seeking applications for vacant seats for seven of its 13 national marine sanctuary advisory councils (advisory councils). Vacant seats, including positions (
The following is a list of the vacant seats, including positions (
The list of all other vacant seats for which applications are currently being sought is included in the August 14, 2015, notice referenced above.
16 U.S.C. Sections 1431,
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS has made a preliminary determination that an exempted fishing permit application contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. This exempted fishing permit would allow two commercial fishing vessels to test the functional performance of a large-mesh belly panel to reduce windowpane flounder bycatch while fishing for scup within the Southern New England and Mid-Atlantic windowpane flounder stock area. The research would be conducted by the Cornell University Cooperative Extension of the Suffolk County Marine Program.
Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for a proposed exempted fishing permit.
Comments must be received on or before September 9, 2015.
You may submit written comments by any of the following methods:
• Email:
• Mail: John K. Bullard, Regional Administrator, NMFS, Greater Atlantic Regional Office, 55 Great Republic Drive, Gloucester, MA 01930. Mark the outside of the envelope “Comments on Cornell Small Mesh Windowpane Bycatch EFP.”
• Fax: (978) 281-9135.
Reid Lichwell, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9112,
Cornell University Cooperative Extension of the Suffolk County Marine Program (CCE) submitted a complete application for an exempted fishing permit on June 18, 2015. This EFP would exempt vessels from the following regulations: 50 CFR 648.122(d), possession limits for scup. This EFP would also exempt participating vessels from possession limits and minimum size requirements specified in 50 CFR part 648, subparts B and D through O, including windowpane flounder, while samples are being weighed prior to discard. The EFP would allow these exemptions from September 1, 2015 to May 31, 2016.
This exemption would allow vessels to retain scup in excess of the Winter II possession limit. The Winter II possession limit timeframe is November 1, 2015 to December 31, 2015, and the limit will be identified in a future
The project will be conducted primarily during the fall months (September-November), while both scup and windowpane flounder reside predominately inshore, with the two species occurring together in high numbers south of Long Island, NY, and Nantucket, MA. However, trips may also occur in the spring if more data or additional trips are needed.
The participating vessels would conduct research fishing concurrently, orienting the vessels side-by-side, within a half mile of each other while fishing gear is deployed. The vessels would be using typical scup trawl fishing methods and the participants would be members of the small mesh scup trawl fleet, holding scup permits. To test the experimental gear, one vessel will have its scup net modified with the large-mesh belly panel installed into the first belly of the net, the other vessel will have the same scup net without the large-mesh belly panel added. The resulting catch data will identify the differences in catch between the standard net and the experimental net. The vessels will alternate the use of the standard net and the net with the experimental gear, giving each vessel the same amount of tows using each gear type. The two vessels would be of similar size and horsepower with identical doors, legs, and ground cables.
The vessels will concurrently conduct seven days of research fishing over the course of two to three trips, with a minimum of six tows per day for each vessel, with each tow lasting an hour. This will provide a minimum of 84 tows (42 with the standard net and 42 with the experimental net) for the research project. Each vessel would weigh its respective catch of both scup and windowpane flounder and measure the length of 100 random samples of each species after each tow. If fewer than 100 individuals from a sample species are caught, all individuals will be measured. The total weight of all additional species from each tow will be obtained either by weighing or by catch estimations.
The vessels would retain legal size scup and other legally permitted species to be landed and sold. Windowpane flounder and other prohibited species will not be retained. No additional mortality of fish species or interactions with protected species would occur during this project, beyond that of typical commercial scup trawl operations.
If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the year. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
16 U.S.C. 1801
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Request for comments.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) is requesting comments on a proposed pilot program pertaining to the institution and conduct of the post grant administrative trials provided for in the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA). The AIA provides for the following post grant administrative trials:
Comments must be sent by electronic mail message over the Internet addressed to:
Scott R. Boalick, Vice Chief Administrative Patent Judge, Patent Trial and Appeal Board, by telephone at (571) 272-9797.
Notwithstanding the success-to-date, the USPTO is pro-actively looking for ways to enhance its operations for the benefit of its stakeholders and therefore is interested in exploring alternative approaches that might improve its efficiency in handling AIA post grant proceedings while being fair to both sides and continuing to provide high quality decisions. Based upon comments received from the public through public fora and formal requests, the agency is considering a pilot program to test changing how the institution phase of a post grant proceeding is handled.
Once trial is instituted, the AIA mandates that the resulting trial be conducted before a three-member panel of the PTAB. Generally, under current practice, the same panel of three administrative patent judges (APJs) decides whether to institute and, if instituted, handles the remainder of the proceeding, much like how federal district court judges handle cases through motions to dismiss, summary
To date and currently, the agency has intended to meet the resource demands on the PTAB due to both AIA post grant proceedings and ex parte appeals by hiring additional judges. Even with continued hiring, however, increases in filings and the growing number of cases may strain the PTAB's continuing ability to make timely decisions and meet statutory deadlines. Therefore, the agency wishes to explore and gain data on a potentially more efficient alternative to the current three-judge institution model. Having a single judge decide whether to institute trial in a post grant proceeding, instead of a panel of three judges, would allow more judges to be available to attend to other matters, such as reducing the ex parte appeal backlog and handling more post grant proceedings.
The authority to determine whether to institute and conduct a trial has been delegated to a Board member or employee acting with the authority of the Board.
Due to the
Finally, it is possible that an IPR initially selected for the single-APJ pilot program will ultimately be determined unsuitable for inclusion in the pilot. In such a situation, the IPR would be removed from the proposed single-APJ pilot program.
1. Should the USPTO conduct the single-APJ institution pilot program as proposed herein to explore changes to the current panel assignment practice in determining whether to institute review in a post grant proceeding?
2. What are the advantages or disadvantages of the proposed single-APJ institution pilot program?
3. How should the USPTO handle a request for rehearing of a decision on whether to institute trial made by a single APJ?
4. What information should the USPTO include in reporting the outcome of the proposed single-APJ institution pilot program?
5. Are there any other suggestions for conservation and more efficient use of the judicial resources at the PTAB?
Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice of meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Independent Review Panel on Military Medical Construction Standards (“the Panel”).
8:00 a.m.-9:00 a.m. EDT (Administrative Working Meeting)
9:00 a.m.-11:30 a.m. EDT (Open Session)
11:30 a.m.-1:30 p.m. EDT (Administrative Working Meeting)
Falls Church Marriott Fairview Park, 3111 Fairview Park Drive, Falls Church, Virginia, 22042.
The Executive Director and Designated Federal Officer is Ms. Christine Bader, 7700 Arlington Boulevard, Suite 5101, Falls Church, Virginia 22042,
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
At this meeting, the Panel will publically deliberate its findings and recommendations of its final report addressing the Ike Skelton National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for Fiscal Year 2011 (Pub. L. 111-383), Section 2852(b) requirement to provide the Secretary of Defense independent advice and recommendations regarding a construction standard for military medical centers to provide a single standard of care, as set forth in this notice:
a. Reviewing the unified military medical construction standards to determine the standards consistency with industry practices and benchmarks for world class medical construction;
b. Reviewing ongoing construction programs within the DoD to ensure medical construction standards are uniformly applied across applicable military centers;
c. Assessing the DoD approach to planning and programming facility improvements with specific emphasis on facility selection criteria and proportional assessment system; and facility programming responsibilities between the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs and the Secretaries of the Military Departments;
d. Assessing whether the Comprehensive Master Plan for the National Capital Region Medical (“the Master Plan”), dated April 2010, is adequate to fulfill statutory requirements, as required by section 2714 of the Military Construction Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010 (division B of Pub. L. 111-84; 123 Stat. 2656), to ensure that the facilities and organizational structure described in the Master Plan result in world class military medical centers in the National Capital Region; and
e. Making recommendations regarding any adjustments of the Master Plan that are needed to ensure the provision of world class military medical centers and delivery system in the National Capital Region.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended, and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165 and subject to availability of space, the Panel meeting is open to the public from 9:00 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. on September 11, 2015, as the Panel will meet in an open forum to deliberate the findings and recommendations that will be contained in the Panel's final report to the Secretary of Defense.
A copy of the agenda or any updates to the agenda for the September 11, 2015, meeting, as well as any other materials presented, may be obtained at the meeting.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended, and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102-3.165 and subject to availability of space, this meeting is open to the public. Seating is limited and is on a first-come basis. All members of the public who wish to attend the public meeting must contact Ms. Kendal Brown at the number listed in the section
Individuals requiring special accommodations to access the public meeting should contact Ms. Kendal Brown at least five (5) business days prior to the meeting so that appropriate arrangements can be made.
Any member of the public wishing to provide comments to the Panel may do so in accordance with 41 CFR 102-3.105(j) and 102-3.140 and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, and the procedures described in this notice.
Individuals desiring to provide comments to the Panel may do so by submitting a written statement to the Executive Director (see
The Executive Director will review all timely submissions with the Panel Chairperson and ensure they are provided to members of the Panel before the meeting that is subject to this notice. After reviewing the written comments, the Panel Chairperson and the Executive Director may choose to invite the submitter to orally present their issue during the open portion of this meeting. The Executive Director, in consultation with the Panel Chairperson, may allot time for members of the public to present their issues for review and discussion by the Panel.
IES, Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 26, 2015.
Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Marsha Silverberg, (202)208-7178.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Institute of Education Sciences (IES)/National Center for Education Statistics (NCES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 24, 2015.
Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Kashka Kubzdela, (202) 502-7411.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Advisory Committee on Student Financial Assistance, Department of Education.
Announcement of open teleconference meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a forthcoming open teleconference meeting of the Advisory Committee on Student Financial Assistance. This notice also describes the functions of the Advisory Committee. Notice of this meeting is required under section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. This document is intended to notify the general public of their opportunity to attend.
The Committee will meet via teleconference on Wednesday, September 9, 2015, beginning at 3:00 p.m. and ending at approximately 3:30 p.m. (EDT).
Office of the Advisory Committee on Student Financial Assistance, Capitol Place, 555 New Jersey Ave. NW., Suite 522, Washington DC 20202-7582.
Ms. Tracy Jones, Executive Officer, Advisory Committee on Student Financial Assistance, Capitol Place, 555 New Jersey Ave. NW., Suite 522, Washington DC 20202-7582, (202) 219-2099.
The Advisory Committee has scheduled this teleconference for the sole purpose of electing an ACSFA member to serve as chair and a member to serve as vice-chair for one year beginning October 1, 2015.
Space at the New Jersey Avenue meeting site and “dial-in” (listen only) line for the teleconference meeting is limited, and you are encouraged to register early if you plan to attend. You may register by sending an email to the following email address:
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Section 491 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 as amended by Pub. L. 100-50 (20 U.S.C. 1098).
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of application.
Lion Shield Energy, LLC (Applicant) has applied for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico pursuant to section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before September 24, 2015.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b), 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).
On August 14, 2015, DOE received an application from the Applicant for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities.
In its application, the Applicant states that it does not own or control any electric generation or transmission facilities, and it does not have a franchised service area. The electric energy that the Applicant proposes to export to Mexico would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning the Applicant's application to export electric energy to Mexico should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-415. An additional copy is to be provided to Sergio Blanchet, Lion Shield Energy, LLC, 1095 Evergreen Circle, Suite 200, The Woodlands, TX 77380.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on August 14, 2015, Louisville Gas and Electric Company and Kentucky Utilities Company (LG&E/KU) submitted a petition for waiver and request for expedited review in connection with a proposed refined coal sale arrangement between LG&E/KU and Clean Coal Solutions LLC.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Comment Date: 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on September 4, 2015.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric reliability filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on August 17, 2015, pursuant to section 206 and 306 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e and 825e and Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206, Merricourt Power Partners, LLC (Merricourt or Complainant), filed a formal complaint against Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc. (Respondent or MISO) alleging that MISO's refusal to amend Complainant's generation interconnection agreement (GIA) to extend the commercial operation date is unjust, unreasonable and unduly discriminatory and preferential in violation of the FPA, as more fully explained in the complaint.
Complainant certifies that copies of the complaint were served on the contacts for MISO and Montana-Dakota Utilities Company, the interconnecting transmission owner, as listed on the Commission's list of Corporate Officials and in the GIA.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Freeport LNG Train 4 Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Freeport LNG Development, L.P. (Freeport LNG) in Brazoria, Texas. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the planned project is in the public interest.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before September 18, 2015.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on June 3, 2015, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. PF15-25-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this planned project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
A fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” is available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (PF15-25-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Freeport LNG intends to add a fourth liquefaction unit to Freeport LNG's natural gas liquefaction facilities on Quintana Island in Brazoria County, Texas. The Freeport LNG Train 4 Project (Train 4 Project) would be located west and adjacent to the facilities authorized and currently under construction for the Phase II Modification Project (Docket No. CP12-29-000) and Liquefaction Project (Docket No. CP12-509-000), which comprises three liquefaction trains and related facilities. Train 4 would be within the existing Freeport LNG site boundary.
Freeport LNG indicates that the Train 4 Project would provide additional liquefaction capacity of approximately 5.1 million metric tonnes per annum (mtpa) of LNG for export, which equates to a natural gas throughput capacity of approximately 0.72 billion cubic feet per day (Bcf/d). This would enable Freeport LNG to respond favorably and proactively to short- and longer-term fluctuations in domestic and global gas markets.
The Freeport LNG Train 4 Project would consist of the following facilities:
• A propane pre-cooled mixed refrigerant liquefaction unit;
• a feed gas receiving and metering station;
• utility, auxiliary, and control systems, including common utilities, spill containment systems, fire and safety systems, one electric substation, security systems, and plant roads.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in Appendix 1.
The Train 4 Project liquefaction facilities would be entirely within the Freeport LNG's existing site boundary on Quintana Island in Brazoria County, Texas. Construction of the liquefaction facilities would be within areas approved as temporary work space for the Phase II Modification Project and Liquefaction Project. Construction of the Train 4 Project liquefaction facilities is expected to affect about 87 acres of land.
Following construction, Freeport LNG would maintain about 21 acres for permanent operation of the Train 4 Project's facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses.
The facility will receive natural gas from a 2,000-foot-long intrastate natural gas pipeline (feed gas pipeline) and power from a five-mile-long electric line
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the authorization of natural gas facilities under Section 3 of the Natural Gas Act. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the planned project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife, including endangered and threatened species;
• socioeconomics;
• visual impacts;
• air quality and noise;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate possible alternatives to the planned project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
Although no formal application has been filed, we have already initiated our NEPA review under the Commission's pre-filing process. The purpose of the pre-filing process is to encourage early involvement of interested stakeholders and to identify and resolve issues before the FERC receives an application. As part of our pre-filing review, we have begun to contact some federal and state agencies to discuss their involvement in the scoping process and the preparation of the EA.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. If we publish and distribute the EA to the public there will be an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before we make our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the Texas State Historic Preservation Office, and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
We have already identified several issues that we think deserve attention based on a preliminary review of the planned facilities and the environmental information provided by Freeport LNG. This preliminary list of issues may change based on your comments and our analysis.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the planned project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies of the EA will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (Appendix 2).
Once Freeport LNG files its application with the Commission, you may want to become an “intervenor,” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of HIC Energy, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is September 8, 2015.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that on August 10, 2015, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc. (WBI), 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503, filed in Docket No. CP15-542-000 a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.210 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), as amended, requesting authorization to install and operate new mainline natural gas facilities in North Dakota (Project). Specifically, WBI proposes to: (i) Install a new 1,380 horsepower compressor unit at the Charbonneau Compressor Station in McKenzie County; (ii) retrofit the existing compressor unit at the Williston Compressor Station in Williams County; (iii) install an additional regulator at the Minot Transfer Station in Ward County; and (iv) install various appurtenances. WBI states that the Project will make available an additional 18,200 dekatherms per day of firm transportation capacity from the Bakken Shale to an existing interconnect with Northern Border Pipeline Company at an estimated cost of $3,650,000, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the Web at
Any questions concerning this application may be directed to Keith A. Tiggelaar, Director of Regulatory Affairs, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc., 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503, by telephone at (701) 530-1560 or by email at
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9,
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenter's will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meeting related to the transmission planning activities of the Florida Reliability Coordinating Council, Inc.'s (FRCC) Regional Transmission Planning Process.
The above-referenced meeting will be via Web conference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The discussions at the meeting described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact Rhonda Jones, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-6154 or
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the TP-371 Pipeline Replacement Project (TP-371 Project) involving abandonment and the construction and operation of replacement facilities by Equitrans, L.P. (Equitrans) in Armstrong and Indiana Counties, Pennsylvania. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before September 18, 2015.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on July 10, 2015, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP15-528-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
Equitrans provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” This fact sheet addresses a number of typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP15-528-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Equitrans is seeking a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity under Section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) to construct and operate a natural gas transmission pipeline and related facilities in Armstrong and Indiana Counties, Pennsylvania, and permission under Section 7(b) of the NGA to abandon in place an adjacent, existing segment of pipeline. No change in the transportation capacity of the existing pipeline system is proposed. According to Equitrans, its project would upgrade the existing system to allow for in-line inspection and improve the operational efficiency and reliability.
The TP-371 Project would consist of the following facilities:
• Construction of about 21.0 miles of new 20-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline mostly adjacent to the abandoned pipeline extending from Equitrans' existing pipeline system in Armstrong County, Pennsylvania to the Egry Interconnect in Indiana County, Pennsylvania (the replacement segment);
• abandonment of about 21.0 miles of existing 12-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline (the existing segment) that primarily parallels the replacement segment;
• installation of a pig
• installation of five mainline valve sites;
• transfer of seven tie-in locations from the existing facilities to the replacement segment;
• construction of two new ground beds for cathodic protection, and modification of a third;
• temporary and permanent access roads; and
• temporary laydown/contractor yards.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb about 329 acres of land for the pipeline and facilities, including lands needed for abandonment of the existing segment and facilities. Following construction, Equitrans would maintain about 131 acres for permanent operation of the project's facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. About 95 percent of the proposed pipeline route parallels the existing segment and overlaps Equitrans existing right-of-way.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• air quality and noise;
• endangered and threatened species;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate possible alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before we make our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues related to this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the “Document-less Intervention Guide” under the “e-filing” link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public meetings or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
Take notice that on August 17, 2015, pursuant to section 210(h) of the Public Utility Regulatory Policies Act of 1978 (PURPA), 16 U.S.C. 824a-3(h)(2006) and Rule 207(a)(2) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.207(a)(2), Greycliff Wind Prime, LLC (Greycliff or Petitioner) filed a petition for declaratory order requesting that the Commission take enforcement action under section 210(h) of PURPA against the Montana Public Service Commission (MPSC) for its continued reliance on A.R.M. 38.5.1902(5) (Montana Rule), or in the alternative, Greycliff seeks a declaratory order finding that the MPSC's continued reliance on the Montana Rule, and MPSC decisions interpreting the Montana Rule, fail to implement PURPA and the Commission's regulations thereunder, alleging that the Montana Rule eliminates the rights of qualifying facilities to create a legally enforceable obligation and to choose how to sell their energy capacity, as more fully explained in the petition.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Description: Initial rate filing: Sumas NITSA Amendment No 2 SA No. 626 to be effective 2/1/2015.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Golden Hills Wind, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is September 8, 2015.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission hereby gives notice that members of the Commission and Commission staff may attend the following MISO-related meetings:
Unless otherwise noted all of the meetings above will be held at: MISO Headquarters, 701 City Center Drive, 720 City Center Drive, and, Carmel, IN 46032.
Further information may be found at
The above-referenced meetings are open to the public.
The discussions at each of the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact Patrick Clarey, Office of Energy Markets Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (317) 249-5937 or
Western Area Power Administration, DOE.
Notice of Proposed Extension of Power, Transmission, and Ancillary Services Formula Rates.
The Western Area Power Administration (Western), a power marketing administration within the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), proposes to extend the existing Central Valley Project power, transmission, and ancillary services formula rates, California-Oregon Transmission Project transmission formula rate, Pacific Alternating Current Intertie transmission formula rate, and third-party transmission service formula rate through September 30, 2019. The existing Rate Schedules CV-F13, CPP-2, CV-T3, CV-NWT5, COTP-T3, PACI-T3, CV-TPT7, CV-UUP1, CV-SPR4, CV-SUR4, CV-RFS4, CV-EID4, and CV-GID1 expire on September 30, 2016.
A consultation and comment period starts with the publication of this notice and will end on September 24, 2015. Western will accept written comments any time during the consultation and comment period.
Send written comments to: Mr. Subhash Paluru, Regional Manager, or Ms. Regina Rieger, Rates Manager, Sierra Nevada Region, Western Area Power Administration, 114 Parkshore Drive, Folsom, CA 95630-4710; or email comments to
Ms. Regina Rieger, Rates Manager, Sierra Nevada Region, Western Area Power Administration, 114 Parkshore Drive, Folsom, CA 95630-4710, telephone (916) 353-4629, email
Western proposes to extend the current rate schedules through September 30, 2019. A three-year formula rate extension followed by a five-year formula rate adjustment process will align with the end of the 2004 Power Marketing Plan, allowing Western time to review existing formula rate methodologies, solicit input from its customers and other interested parties, and determine whether revisions to those methodologies are warranted. The existing rates provide sufficient revenue to repay all annual expenses, including interest expense, and to repay capital investments within the allowable periods, thus ensuring repayment within the cost recovery criteria set forth in DOE Order RA 6120.2.
By Delegation Order No. 00-037.00A, effective October 25, 2013, the Secretary of Energy delegated: (1) The authority to develop power and transmission rates to Western's Administrator; (2) the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Deputy Secretary of Energy; and (3) the authority to confirm, approve, and place into effect on a final basis, to remand, or to disapprove such rates to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC).
FERC confirmed and approved the existing formula rates defined in Rate Schedules CV-F13, CPP-2, CV-T3, CV-NWT5, COTP-T3, PACI-T3, CV-TPT7, CV-UUP1, CV-SPR4, CV-SUR4, CV-RFS4, CV-EID4, and CV-GID1, filed under Rate Order No. WAPA-156,
In accordance with 10 CFR 903.23, Western determined it is not necessary to hold a public information or public comment forum. Western will post comments received to its Rates Web site, noted above, after the close of the comment period. Comments must be received by the end of the comment and consultation period to ensure they are considered by Western. After review of public comments, Western will take further action on the proposed formula rate extension consistent with 10 CFR 903.23.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA has received applications to register new uses for pesticide products containing currently registered active ingredients. Pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on these applications.
Comments must be received on or before September 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by the Docket Identification (ID) Number and the EPA Registration Number of interest as shown in the body of this document, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Susan Lewis, Director, Registration Division (RD) (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
1.
2.
3.
EPA has received applications to register new uses for pesticide products containing currently registered active ingredients. Pursuant to the provisions of FIFRA section 3(c)(4) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(4)), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on these applications. Notice of receipt of these applications does not imply a decision by EPA on these applications. For actions being evaluated under EPA's public participation process for registration actions, there will be an additional opportunity for public comment on the proposed decisions. Please see EPA's public participation Web site for additional information on this process
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2.
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of Public Advisory Committee meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, notice is hereby given that the Good Neighbor Environmental Board will hold a public meeting on Thursday, September 17 and Friday, September 18, 2015 in San Diego, CA. The meeting is open to the public.
The Good Neighbor Environmental Board will hold an open meeting on Thursday, September 17 from 9:00 a.m. (registration at 8:30 a.m.) to 5:45 p.m. The following day, Friday, September 18 the Board will meet from 8:30 a.m. (registration at 8:00 a.m.) until 4:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the Wyndham San Diego Bayside, 1355 North Harbor Drive, San Diego, CA, 92101. The phone number is 1-619-232-3861. The meeting is open to the public, with limited seating on a first-come, first-serve basis.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is announcing the availability of three Office of Chemical Safety and Pollution Prevention (OCSPP) final test guidelines: Medaka Extended One-generation Reproduction Test (MEOGRT), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2200; Larval Amphibian Growth and Development Assay (LAGDA), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2300; and Avian Two-generation Toxicity Test in the Japanese Quail (JQTT), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2100. These test guidelines are part of a series of test guidelines established by OCSPP for use in testing pesticides and chemical substances. The test guidelines serve as a compendium of accepted scientific methodologies and protocols that are intended to provide data to inform regulatory decisions. The test guidelines provide guidance for conducting the test and are also used by EPA, the public, and companies that submit data to EPA.
Sharlene Matten, telephone number: (202) 564-0130, email address:
EPA is announcing the availability of three final test guidelines: Medaka Extended One-generation Reproduction Test (MEOGRT), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2200; Larval Amphibian Growth and Development Assay (LAGDA), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2300; and Avian Two-generation Toxicity Test in the Japanese Quail (JQTT), OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2100. These test guidelines are part of a series of test guidelines established by OCSPP for use in testing pesticides and chemical substances to develop data for submission to the Agency under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) section 408 (21 U.S.C. 346a), the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) (7 U.S.C. 136
The test guidelines provide guidance for conducting the test and are also used by EPA, the public, and companies that are subject to data submission requirements under TSCA, FIFRA, and/or FFDCA. As guidance documents, the test guidelines are not binding on either EPA or any outside parties and EPA may depart from the test guidelines where circumstances warrant and without prior notice. At places in this guidance, the Agency uses the word “should.” In this guidance, use of “should” with regard to an action means that the action is recommended rather than mandatory. The procedures contained in the test guidelines are recommended for generating the data that are the subject of the test guideline, but EPA recognizes that departures may be appropriate in specific situations. You may propose alternatives to the recommendations described in the test guidelines and the Agency will assess them for appropriateness on a case-by-case basis.
This action is directed to the public in general. Although this action may be of particular interest to those persons who are or may be required to conduct testing of pesticides and chemical substances for submission to EPA under TSCA, FIFRA, and/or FFDCA, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
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EPA is announcing the availability of three final test guidelines that are being added to its 890 Series, entitled “Endocrine Disruptor Screening Program Test Guidelines” and identified as follows:
1. OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2200, entitled
2. OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2300, entitled
3. OCSPP Test Guideline 890.2100, entitled
On January 30, 2015, the Agency released three draft non-mammalian test guidelines for public review and comment as described in a
Comments were submitted by representatives from the following organizations: Endocrine Policy Forum, SynTech Research Laboratory Services, American Petroleum Institute, Wildlife International, People for Ethical Treatment of Animals, the Physicians Committee for Responsible Medicine, and the Humane Society of the United States. Comments were grouped according to each test guidelines: JQTT (890.2100), MEOGRT (890.2200) and LAGDA (890.2300).
EPA worked with the OECD to harmonize test guidelines for MEOGRT (Ref. 2) and LAGDA (Ref. 3). The OECD test guidelines were approved at the Working Group of National Coordinators of the Test Guidelines Programme (WNT) and endorsed by the Joint Meeting of the Chemicals Committee and the Working Party on Chemicals, Pesticides and Biotechnology in June 2015 prior to EPA finalizing the U.S. MEOGRT and LAGDA test guidelines. EPA revised the terminology, procedures, and statistical practices to harmonize the MEOGRT and LAGDA test guidelines with analogous OECD's test guidelines and at the same time incorporated public comments received that were not already addressed in the harmonization.
A summary of the substantive changes reflected in the final U.S. MEOGRT and LAGDA test guidelines is provided:
1. The option for extending the MEOGRT through F2 generation reproduction has been removed from the final test guideline pending additional data. The test will end following hatching of the F2 offspring. This is consistent with the decision made in the draft OECD test guideline for MEOGRT. This test guideline may be updated as new information and data are considered. For example, guidance on extending the F2 generation through reproduction may be potentially useful under certain circumstances (
2. The mean water temperature over the duration of the MEOGRT has been changed to 25 ± 2 °C to be consistent with the analogous OECD test guideline.
3. The LAGDA developmental stage terminology has been clarified to avoid confusion with what is meant by complete metamorphosis.
4. Clarified the conduct of liver and kidney histopathology in the MEOGRT and LAGDA test guidelines for overt toxicity. An effort was made to clarify and provide more explicit guidance as to what specific histopathology is appropriate based on the results of the study.
5. The rationale for use of solvent control only, dilution water control only, or pooled controls in the statistical analyses for the MEOGRT and LAGDA was clarified.
6. The guidelines have been modified to address commenters' concerns that they be more flexible and less prescriptive. Examples have been provided as appropriate to add clarity.
The JQTT draft test guideline (OCSPP 890.2100) was revised to address comments provided by the public, the draft OECD test guideline for the avian two-generation toxicity test in the Japanese quail (Ref. 4), as well as the existing EPA and OECD test guidelines for avian one-generation toxicity tests (Refs. 5 and 6). EPA revised the terminology, procedures, endpoints measured, figures, tables, and appendices in the JQTT test guideline to clarify specific points raised by public commenters as follows:
1. The revised test guidelines include fewer endpoints. For example, the revisions eliminated behavioral endpoints to reduce the overall numbers of birds required for the study; eliminated endpoints that are difficult to obtain (
2. For clarity, the test termination point is following measurement of the 14-day survival of filial 2 (F2) generation chicks. This is the minimum length of the study necessary to evaluate and measure a chemical's effect on the F1 generation's reproductive performance. If delayed reproduction is observed in F1 birds, a decision to extend the F2 generation may be made. If extended, the test should be terminated when F2 birds are approximately 6 weeks old when 90% of control animals have reached sexual maturity. The decision to limit the length of the JQTT is consistent with EPA's efforts to move to extended one-generation reproduction test protocols for Tier 2 tests rather than multigenerational studies (Ref. 7). Extended one-generation reproduction tests are technically sound, save animals, and reduce costs.
3. The guidelines have been modified to address commenters' concerns that they be more flexible and less prescriptive. Examples have been provided as appropriate to add clarity.
The following is a listing of the documents that are specifically referenced in this document. The docket includes these documents and other information considered by EPA, including documents that are referenced within the documents that are in the docket, even if the referenced document is not physically located in the docket. For assistance in locating these other documents, please consult the persons listed under
1. EPA Draft Test Guidelines; Endocrine Disruptor Screening Program Test Guidelines (Series 890); Three Tier 2 Non-Mammalian Tests; Notice of Availability and Public Comment,
2. OECD, Test No. 240: Medaka Extended One-Generation Reproduction Test, OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, section 2 (2015). It is available at
3. OECD, Test No. 241: Larval Amphibian Growth and Development Test, OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, section 2 (2015). It is available at
4. OECD Guidelines for Testing of Chemicals. Proposal for a new test guideline: Avian Two-generation Toxicity Test in the Japanese Quail, Draft November 2005. It is available at
5. U.S. EPA Ecological Effects Test Guidelines; OCSPP 850.2300, Avian Reproduction Test. January 2012. EPA 712C-023. It is available at
6. OECD, Test No. 206: Avian Reproduction Test. OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, section 2—Effect on Biotic Systems (adopted 1984). OECD Publishing, Paris (1993) DOI: It is available at
7. OECD, Test No. 443: Extended One-Generation Reproductive Toxicity Study, OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, section 4, 28 July 2011, DOI. It is available at
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA has received applications to register pesticide products containing active ingredients not included in any currently registered pesticide products. Pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on these applications.
Comments must be received on or before September 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, identified by the Docket Identification (ID) Number and the File Symbol of interest as shown in the body of this document, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Robert McNally, Director, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (BPPD) (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
1.
2.
3.
EPA has received applications to register pesticide products containing active ingredients not included in any currently registered pesticide products. Pursuant to the provisions of FIFRA section 3(c)(4) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(4)), EPA is hereby providing notice of receipt and opportunity to comment on these applications. Notice of receipt of these applications does not imply a decision by EPA on these applications. For actions being evaluated under EPA's public participation process for registration actions, there will be an additional opportunity for public comment on the proposed decisions. Please see EPA's public participation Web site for additional information on this process
1.
2.
3.
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA will be hosting a public meeting entitled, “Workshop for Public Input on Considerations for Risk Assessment of Genetically Engineered Algae” on September 30, 2015. The objective of this workshop is to receive public input and comments on EPA's data needs to support risk assessments of biotechnology products subject to oversight under the Toxic Substances Control Act that make use of genetically engineered algae and cyanobacteria. The workshop will inform an update to an EPA guidance document entitled “Points to Consider in The Preparation of TSCA Biotechnology Submissions for Microorganisms”. EPA encourages all members of the public interested in participating in this workshop to register to attend, whether in-person or through the Web-connect and teleconference that will also be available.
To request accommodation of a disability, please contact the workshop logistics person listed under
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets in general is available at
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including those interested in environmental and human health assessment, the industrial and commercial biotechnology industry—including those employing modern versions sometimes referred to as synthetic biology, the algae production industry, chemical producers and users, consumer product companies, and members of the public interested in the assessment of biotechnology risks. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action.
The docket for this action, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2015-0508, is available at
When preparing comments for EPA, whether oral or in writing, see the tips at
The objective of this workshop is to discuss EPA's data needs to support risk assessments of biotechnology products subject to oversight under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA), 15 U.S.C. 2601
Members of the public are invited to review the presentations and supporting documentation, including the EPA guidance document, and to provide comments on the workshop subject matter by the end of the comment period specified. This information is distributed solely for informational purposes and should not be construed to represent any Agency determination or policy. The meeting will be open to the public and experts in biotechnology, algae production, and risk assessment are encouraged to attend and present their views.
The workshop will be available via Web connect and teleconferencing for registered participants. All registered participants will receive information on how to connect to the workshop prior to its start.
Members of the public may register to attend the workshop as observers and may also register to speak offering oral comments on the day of the workshop. A registered speaker is encouraged to focus on issues directly relevant to science-based aspects of the workshop and to address specific scientific points in the speaker's oral comments. Each speaker is allowed between 2-3 minutes. To accommodate as many registered speakers as possible, speakers may present oral comments only, without visual aids or written material. Given time constraints, the number of speakers allowed during the comment periods will be decided upon by the workshop chair. Speakers will be selected in a manner designed to optimize representation from all organizations, affiliations, and present a balance of science issues relevant to the workshop.
To attend the workshop in person or to receive access through Web connect and teleconference, you must register no later than 11:59 p.m., on Friday, September 25, 2015, using one of the methods described under
Time permitting, on-site registrants may offer comments following those who registered earlier. For workshop logistics or registration questions contact the person listed under
Members of the public may register to attend or speak if planning to offer oral comments during the scheduled public comment periods. To register for the meeting online or by mail, you must provide your full name, organization or affiliation, and contact information. If you indicate that you wish to speak, you will be asked to select one of these categories that most closely reflect the content of your oral comments: Environmental Protection, Algae/Cyanobacteria Production, Biotechnology, Biological/Genetic Engineering, Risk Assessment, Microorganisms, Ecotoxicity, Industrial Chemicals, Guidance or Other.
15 U.S.C. 2601
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Diesel Emissions Reduction Act (DERA) Rebate Program” (EPA ICR No. 2461.02, OMB Control No. 2060-0686 RENEWAL) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before October 26, 2015.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0103, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Tyler Cooley, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, (Mail Code: 6406A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 415-972-3937; fax number: 202-343-2803; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EPA uses approved procedures and forms to collect necessary information to operate its grant and rebate programs. EPA has been providing rebates under DERA since Fiscal Year 2012. EPA is requesting an extension of the current ICR, which is currently approved through October 31, 2015, for forms needed to collect necessary information to operate a rebate program as authorized by Congress under the DERA program.
EPA collects information from applicants to the DERA rebate program. Information collected is used to ensure eligibility of applicants and engines to receive funds under DERA, and to calculate estimated and actual emissions benefits that result from activities funded with rebates as required in DERA's authorizing legislation.
Pursuant to the provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b), notice is hereby given that at 10 a.m. on Tuesday, August 18, 2015, the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation met in closed session to consider matters related to the Corporation's supervision, corporate, and resolution activities.
In calling the meeting, the Board determined, on motion of Vice Chairman Thomas M. Hoenig, seconded by Paul M. Nash (Acting in the place and stead of Director Thomas J. Curry (Comptroller of the Currency)), concurred in by Director Richard Cordray (Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau), and Chairman Martin J. Gruenberg, that Corporation business required its consideration of the matters which were to be the subject of this meeting on less than seven days' notice to the public; that no earlier notice of the meeting was practicable; that the public interest did not require consideration of the matters in a meeting open to public observation; and that the matters could be considered in a closed meeting by authority of subsections (c)(4), (c)(6), (c)(8), (c)(9)(A)(ii), (c)(9)(B), and (c)(10) of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 18, 2015.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco (Gerald C. Tsai, Director, Applications and Enforcement) 101 Market Street, San Francisco, California 94105-1579:
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, August 20, 2015.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning claims and appeals. A notice was published in the
Submit comments on or before September 24, 2015.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
• Regulations.gov:
• Mail: General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405. ATTN: Ms. Flowers/IC 9000-0035, Claims and Appeals.
Mr. Charles Gray, Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, 703-795-6328 or via email at
It is the Government's policy to try to resolve all contractual issues by mutual agreement at the contracting officer's level without litigation. Reasonable efforts should be made to resolve controversies prior to submission of a contractor's claim. The Contract Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 7103) requires that claims exceeding $100,000 must be accompanied by a certification that (1) the claim is made in good faith; (2) supporting data are accurate and complete; and (3) the amount requested accurately reflects the contract adjustment for which the contractor believes the Government is liable. The information, as required by FAR clause 52.233-1, Disputes, is used by a contracting officer to decide or resolve the claim. Contractors may appeal the contracting officer's decision by submitting written appeals to the appropriate officials.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of meeting.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the next meeting of the Community Preventive Services Task Force (Task Force). The Task Force is an independent, nonpartisan, nonfederal, and unpaid panel. Its members represent a broad range of research, practice, and policy expertise in prevention, wellness, health promotion, and public health, and are appointed by the CDC Director. The Task Force was convened in 1996 by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to identify community preventive programs, services, and policies that increase healthy longevity, save lives and dollars and improve Americans' quality of life. CDC is mandated to provide ongoing administrative, research, and technical support for the operations of the Task Force. During its meetings, the Task Force considers the findings of systematic reviews on existing research, and issues recommendations. Task Force recommendations are not mandates for compliance or spending. Instead, they provide information about evidence-based options that decision makers and stakeholders can consider when determining what best meets the specific needs, preferences, available resources, and constraints of their jurisdictions and constituents. The Task Force's recommendations, along with the systematic reviews of the scientific evidence on which they are based, are compiled in the
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, October 28, 2015 from 8:30 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. EDT and Thursday, October 29, 2015 from 8:30 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. EDT.
The Task Force Meeting will be held at CDC Edward R. Roybal Campus, Tom Harkin Global Communications Center (Building 19), 1600 Clifton Road NE., Atlanta, GA 30329. You should be aware that the meeting location is in a Federal government building; therefore, Federal security measures are applicable. For additional information, please see Roybal Campus Security Guidelines under
U.S. citizens must RSVP by 10/19/2015.
Non U.S. citizens must RSVP by 10/05/2015 due to additional security steps that must be completed. Failure to RSVP by the dates identified could result in the inability to attend the Task Force meeting due to the strict security regulations on federal facilities.
A Webcast URL will be provided to everyone who registers to participate in the meeting and will be sent to you upon receipt of your RSVP. All meeting attendees must RSVP to
All meeting attendees must RSVP by the dates outlined under Meeting Accessibility. In planning your arrival time, please take into account the need to park and clear security. All visitors must enter the Edward R. Roybal Campus through the front entrance on Clifton Road. Your car may be searched, and the guard force will then direct visitors to the designated parking area. Upon arrival at the facility, visitors must present government issued photo identification (
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), announces the following meeting for the aforementioned subcommittee:
In December 2000, the President delegated responsibility for funding, staffing, and operating the Advisory Board to HHS, which subsequently delegated this authority to CDC. NIOSH implements this responsibility for CDC. The charter was issued on August 3, 2001, renewed at appropriate intervals, and will expire on August 3, 2017.
The agenda is subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), and pursuant to the requirements of 42 CFR 83.15(a), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee:
In December 2000, the President delegated responsibility for funding, staffing, and operating the Advisory Board to HHS, which subsequently delegated this authority to the CDC. NIOSH implements this responsibility for CDC. The charter was issued on August 3, 2001, renewed at appropriate intervals, and will expire on August 3, 2017.
The agenda is subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following meeting for the aforementioned committee:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate. An agenda is also posted on the NIOSH Web site (
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463) of October 6, 1972, that the Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health, Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed for a 2-year period through August 3, 2017.
For information, contact Mr. Theodore Katz, Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Board on Radiation and Worker Health, Department of Health and Human Services, 1600 Clifton Road, M/S E20, Atlanta, Georgia 30341, telephone 404/498-2533, or fax 404/498-2570.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of the report and Web site location where the Agency has posted the report entitled “Recommendations for a National Medical Device Evaluation System: Strategically Coordinated Registry Networks to Bridge the Clinical Care and Research,” developed by the Medical Device Epidemiology Network's Medical Device Registry Task Force. In addition, FDA has established a docket where stakeholders may provide comments.
Submit either electronic or written comments by October 26, 2015.
Submit electronic comments on this document to
Danica Marinac-Dabic, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4110, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6689, email:
FDA's Center for Devices and Radiological Health is responsible for protecting the public health by assuring the safety and effectiveness of medical devices and radiation-emitting products. A key part of this mission is to monitor medical devices and radiological products for continued safety and effectiveness after they are in use and to help the public get the accurate, science-based information they need to improve their health.
In September 2012, the FDA published a report, “Strengthening Our National System for Medical Device Postmarket Surveillance,” that proposed
One of these next steps consisted of establishing a multistakeholder Medical Device Registry Task Force to promote the development of national and international device registries for selected products (Ref. 1). Under a cooperative agreement with the FDA, Duke University convened the Medical Device Registry Task Force as a part of the Medical Device Epidemiology Network public-private partnership in 2014. The Task Force membership included representatives from a broad array of stakeholder groups and areas of expertise including patients, provider organizations, hospitals, health plans, industry, government agencies, as well as methodologists and academic researchers.
The Medical Device Registry Task Force was charged to: (1) Identify existing registries that may contribute to the system; (2) leverage ongoing registry efforts focused on quality improvement, reimbursement, patient-centered outcomes and other activities to best meet the needs of multiple stakeholders; (3) identify priority medical device types for which the establishment of a longitudinal registry is of significant public health importance; (4) define registry governance and data quality practices that promote rigorous design, conduct, analysis, and transparency to meet stakeholder needs; and (5) develop strategies for the use of registries to support premarket approval and clearance (Ref. 1).
This notice announces the availability and Web site location of the Medical Device Registry Task Force's report, entitled “Recommendations for a National Medical Device Evaluation System: Strategically Coordinated Registry Networks to Bridge the Clinical Care and Research.” FDA invites interested persons to submit comments on this report. We have established a docket where comments may be submitted (see
Interested persons may submit either electronic comments regarding this document to
The following reference has been placed on display in the Division of Dockets Management (see
1. “Strengthening Our National System for Medical Device Postmarket Surveillance: Update and Next Steps,” April 2013, available at
Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) is publishing this notice of petitions received under the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (the Program), as required by Section 2112(b)(2) of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, as amended. While the Secretary of Health and Human Services is named as the respondent in all proceedings brought by the filing of petitions for compensation under the Program, the United States Court of Federal Claims is charged by statute with responsibility for considering and acting upon the petitions.
For information about requirements for filing petitions, and the Program in general, contact the Clerk, United States Court of Federal Claims, 717 Madison Place NW., Washington, DC 20005, (202) 357-6400. For information on HRSA's role in the Program, contact the Director, National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 11C-26, Rockville, MD 20857; (301) 443-6593, or visit our Web site at:
The Program provides a system of no-fault compensation for certain individuals who have been injured by specified childhood vaccines. Subtitle 2 of Title XXI of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-10
A petition may be filed with respect to injuries, disabilities, illnesses, conditions, and deaths resulting from vaccines described in the Vaccine Injury Table (the Table) set forth at 42 CFR 100.3. This Table lists for each covered childhood vaccine the conditions that may lead to compensation and, for each condition, the time period for occurrence of the first symptom or manifestation of onset or of significant aggravation after vaccine administration. Compensation may also be awarded for conditions not listed in the Table and for conditions that are manifested outside the time periods specified in the Table, but only if the petitioner shows that the condition was caused by one of the listed vaccines.
Section 2112(b)(2) of the PHS Act, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-12(b)(2), requires that “[w]ithin 30 days after the Secretary receives service of any petition filed under section 2111 the Secretary shall publish notice of such petition in the
Section 2112(b)(2) also provides that the special master “shall afford all interested persons an opportunity to submit relevant, written information” relating to the following:
1. The existence of evidence “that there is not a preponderance of the evidence that the illness, disability, injury, condition, or death described in the petition is due to factors unrelated to the administration of the vaccine described in the petition,” and
2. Any allegation in a petition that the petitioner either:
a. “[S]ustained, or had significantly aggravated, any illness, disability, injury, or condition not set forth in the Vaccine Injury Table but which was caused by” one of the vaccines referred to in the Table, or
b. “[S]ustained, or had significantly aggravated, any illness, disability, injury, or condition set forth in the Vaccine Injury Table the first symptom or manifestation of the onset or significant aggravation of which did not occur within the time period set forth in the Table but which was caused by a vaccine” referred to in the Table.
In accordance with Section 2112(b)(2), all interested persons may submit written information relevant to the issues described above in the case of the petitions listed below. Any person choosing to do so should file an original and three (3) copies of the information with the Clerk of the U.S. Court of Federal Claims at the address listed above (under the heading
Health Resources and Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) has submitted an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. Comments submitted during the first public review of this ICR will be provided to OMB. OMB will accept further comments from the public during the review and approval period.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than September 24, 2015.
Submit your comments, including the Information Collection Request Title, to the desk officer for HRSA, either by email to
To request a copy of the clearance requests submitted to OMB for review, email the HRSA Information Collection Clearance Officer at
The overarching goal of this grant program is to coordinate and conduct innovative outreach activities through a strong consortium in order to: (1) Identify and enroll uninsured individuals and families who are eligible for public health insurance such as Medicare, Medicaid, and Children's Health Insurance Program; qualified health plans offered through Health Insurance Marketplaces; and/or private health insurance plans in rural communities; and (2) educate the newly insured individuals in rural communities about their health insurance benefits, help connect them to primary care and preventive services to which they now have access, and help them retain their health insurance coverage.
A 60-day
National Vaccine Program Office, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
As stipulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is hereby giving notice that the National Vaccine Advisory Committee (NVAC) will hold a meeting September 9-10, 2015. The meeting is open to the public. However, pre-registration is required for both public attendance and public comment. Individuals who wish to attend the meeting and/or participate in the public comment session should register at
The meeting will be held on September 9-10, 2015. The meeting times and agenda will be posted on the NVAC Web site at
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, the Great Hall, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201.
The meeting can also be accessed through a live webcast the day of the meeting. For more information, visit
National Vaccine Program Office, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Room 715-H, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201. Phone: (202) 690-5566; email:
Pursuant to Section 2101 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300aa-1), the Secretary of Health and Human Services was mandated to establish the National Vaccine Program to achieve optimal prevention of human infectious diseases through immunization and to achieve optimal prevention against adverse reactions to vaccines. The NVAC was established to provide advice and make recommendations to the Director of the National Vaccine Program on matters related to the Program's responsibilities. The Assistant Secretary for Health serves as Director of the National Vaccine Program.
During the September NVAC meeting, the Committee will hear updates on a number of Departmental and stakeholder activities that are working to strengthen our national immunization system. The Committee will hear an update on progress towards the Healthy People 2020 immunization goals, followed by presentations specifically examining progress towards the Healthy People 2020 goal to achieve 90% influenza vaccination coverage among healthcare personnel. In particular, the Committee will look at challenges and opportunities for helping improve influenza vaccination among healthcare personnel in long-term care settings.
The Committee also will hear about efforts to support global immunization including an introduction to a number of global immunization strategies currently under development such as an update to the CDC's Global Immunization Strategic Framework, the newly established USAID Immunization Blueprint for Action, and the Pan American Health Organization's proposed Regional Plan of Action on Immunization. In addition, the NVAC will hear a brief overview describing the success of efforts to develop the first Ebola vaccine.
The Committee will be presented with information on how data on state exemption laws is collected and used to inform studies on vaccination coverage and vaccine acceptance in specific populations. NVAC will also host a session continuing their discussions on vaccine confidence that will include
Public attendance at the meeting is limited to the available space. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the National Vaccine Program Office at the address/phone listed above at least one week prior to the meeting. For those unable to attend in person, a live webcast will be available. More information on registration and accessing the webcast can be found at
Members of the public will have the opportunity to provide comments at the NVAC meeting during the public comment periods designated on the agenda. Public comments made during the meeting will be limited to three minutes per person to ensure time is allotted for all those wishing to speak. Individuals are also welcome to submit their written comments. Written comments should not exceed three pages in length. Individuals submitting written comments should email their comments to the National Vaccine Program Office (
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases Special Emphasis Panel; PAR-13-074: Small R03 Grants for New Investigators.
Under the provisions of Section 3507(a)(l)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH), has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
To obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments or request more information on the proposed project contact: Carla L. Easter, Ph.D., Chief, Education and Community Involvement Branch, NHGRI, Building 31, Room B1B55, 31 Center Drive, MSC 2070, Bethesda, MD 20892 or call non-toll-free number (301) 594-1364 or Email your request, including your address to:
The Education and Community Involvement Branch (ECIB) designed the program to accomplish the following goals, which align with elements of both the NIH and NHGRI missions:
• Expand NIH and NHGRI's professional network to reach out to diverse communities, and to create new partnership opportunities.
• Prepare the next generation of genomics professionals for an era of genomic medicine.
• Train and diversify the pipeline of genome professionals in alignment with the NIH and US Department of Health and Human Services diversity efforts.
The ECIB has collected informal course evaluations from active participants immediately upon course completion since inception of the Short Course in 2003, and then used the data to tweak the program, but it has not conducted a long-term, cumulative and substantive outcome evaluation. NHGRI and the ECIB propose to conduct such an outcome evaluation, focusing on three main objectives:
(1) To understand the degree of genetic and genomic curriculum integration by faculty participants;
(2) To explore the barriers and supports faculty experience and changes when integrating curriculum; and
(3) To investigate the influence of the program on the participants' career path.
Survey findings will provide valuable information about the various methods and pathways instructors use to disseminate new knowledge (and the associated timelines), the barriers and supports experienced by faculty as they integrate new knowledge into their teaching, and insights about additional avenues of support that NHGRI could provide teaching faculty from the types of institutions identified. Key indicators will also provide evidence about the degree to which the Short Course is meeting its goals. Collectively, the outcome evaluation will inform future program design and budget allocations.
OMB approval is requested for 2 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 155.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Dental and Craniofacial Research Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
The National Maritime Security Advisory Committee will meet in Washington, DC to discuss various issues relating to national maritime security. This meeting will be open to the public.
The Committee will meet on Tuesday, September 29, 2015, from 1:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m. and Wednesday, September 30, 2015, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. This meeting may close early if all business is finished. All written public material and requests to make oral presentations should reach the Coast Guard on or before September 23, 2015.
The meeting will be held at U.S. Department of Transportation Headquarters (Oklahoma Room), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC, 20590. Due to security, members of the public wishing to attend must register with Mr. Ryan Owens, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the National Maritime Security Advisory Committee, telephone 202-372-1108 or
This meeting will be broadcasted via a web enabled interactive online format and teleconference line. To participate via teleconference, dial 1-855-475-2447; the pass code to join is 764 990 20#. Additionally, if you would like to participate in this meeting via the online web format, please log onto
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact the person listed in the
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the issues to be considered by the Committee as listed in the “Agenda” section below. Comments that the public wishes the members to see prior to the meeting should be submitted no later than September 23, 2015. Identify your comments by docket number [USCG-2015-0693] using one of the following methods:
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Public comments will be sought throughout the meeting by the Designated Federal Officer as specific issues are discussed by the committee. Additionally, public oral comment periods will be held during the meetings on September 29, 2015, from 4:00 p.m. to 4:15 p.m., and September 30, 2015, from 11:10 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 3 minutes. Please note that the public comment period will end following the last call for comments. Contact the person listed in the
Mr. Ryan Owens, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the National Maritime Security Advisory Committee, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue SE., Stop 7581, Washington, DC 20593-7581; telephone 202-372-1108 or email
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Title 5, United States Code, Appendix. The National Maritime Security Advisory Committee operates under the authority of 46 U.S.C. 70112. The National Maritime Security Advisory Committee provides advice, consults with, and makes recommendations to the Secretary of Homeland Security, via the Commandant of the Coast Guard, on matters relating to national maritime security.
A copy of all meeting documentation will be available at
The committee will meet to review, discuss and formulate recommendations on the following issues:
(1) Coast Guard Cyber Security Strategy. The Coast Guard issued a Cyber Security Strategy on June 16, 2015. A copy of the strategy can be found at
(2) Transportation Worker Identification Credential; Next
(3) Coast Guard Industry Training Revisions. The Coast Guard operates a program that places members in positions within the maritime industry to better understand how it works. The Committee will be tasked with developing recommendations on how to enhance this program.
(4) Update on harmonization of rules with Canada and the Beyond the Border Initiative. The Committee will receive an update brief on these two programs.
(5) Public comment period.
The Committee will meet to review, discuss and formulate recommendations on the following issues:
(1) Extremely Hazardous Cargo Strategy. The Committee will receive a brief and provide recommendations on the implementation of the Department of Homeland Security's Extremely Hazardous Cargo Strategy.
(2) Energy Renaissance. National Maritime Security Advisory Committee will receive a brief and provide recommendations on the increased movement of petrochemical cargos in the inland waterways.
(3) Election of New Chairman and Vice Chairman.
(4) Public comment period.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
The Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee and its working groups will meet to discuss various issues related to the training and fitness of merchant marine personnel. These meetings will be open to the public.
The Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee working groups are scheduled to meet on September 16, 2015, from 8 a.m. until 5:30 p.m., and the full Committee is scheduled to meet on September 17, 2015, from 8 a.m. until 5:30 p.m. Written comments for distribution to Committee members and for inclusion on the Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee Web site must be submitted on or before September 8, 2015. Please note that these meetings may adjourn early if all business is finished.
The Committee will meet in the Coast Guard National Maritime Center, 100 Forbes Drive, Martinsburg, WV 25404-7120.
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the issues to be considered by the Committee and working groups as listed in the “Agenda” section below. Written comments must be identified by Docket No. USCG-2015-0752 and submitted by one of the following methods:
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Public oral comment periods will be held each day. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 3 minutes. Please note that the public oral comment periods may end following the last call for comments. Contact Mr. Davis Breyer as indicated below to register as a speaker. This notice may be viewed in our online docket, USCG-2015-0752, at
Mr. Davis Breyer, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee, telephone 202-372-1445, or at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Title 5 United States Code Appendix.
The Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee was established under authority of section 310 of the Howard Coble Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2014, Title 46, United States Code, section 8108, and chartered under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, (Title 5, United States Code, Appendix). The Committee acts solely in an advisory capacity to the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security through the Commandant of the Coast Guard on matters relating to personnel in the U.S. merchant marine, including training, qualifications, certification, documentation, and fitness standards and other matters as assigned by the Commandant; shall review and comment on proposed Coast Guard regulations and policies relating to personnel in the United States merchant marine, including training, qualifications, certification, documentation, and fitness standards; may be given special assignments by the Secretary and may conduct studies, inquiries, workshops, and fact finding in consultation with individuals and groups in the private sector and with State or local governments; shall advise, consult with, and make recommendations reflecting its independent judgment to the Secretary.
A copy of all meeting documentation, including the task statements, is available at
The agenda for the September 16, 2015, meeting is as follows:
(1) The full Committee will meet briefly to discuss the working groups' business/task statements, which are listed under paragraph 2 (a)-(h) below.
(2) Working groups will address the following task statements which are available for viewing at
(a) Task Statement 30, Utilizing military education, training and assessment for the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers and U.S. Coast Guard Certifications;
(b) Task Statement 58, Communication between external stakeholders and the mariner credentialing program, as it relates to the National Maritime Center;
(c) Task Statement 84, Correction of merchant mariner credentials issued with clear errors;
(d) Task Statement 87, Review of policy documents providing guidance on the implementation of the December 24, 2013 International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping and Changes to National Endorsements rulemaking;
(e) Task Statement 88, Mariner occupational health risk study analysis to further develop policy guidance on mariner fitness; and
(f) Task Statement 89, Review and update of the International Maritime Organization's Maritime Safety Committee Circular MSC/Circ.1014, “Guidelines on Fatigue Mitigation and Management.”
(3) Reports of working groups. At the end of the day, the working groups will report to the full Committee on what was accomplished in their meetings. The full Committee will not take action on these reports on this date. Any official action taken as a result of this working group meeting will be taken on day 2 of the meeting.
(4) Public comment period.
(5) Adjournment of meeting.
The agenda for the September 17, 2015, full Committee meeting is as follows:
(1) Introduction;
(2) Remarks from Coast Guard Leadership;
(3) Designated Federal Officer announcements;
(4) Roll call of Committee members and determination of a quorum;
(5) Reports from the following working groups;
(a) Task Statement 30, Utilizing military education, training and assessment for the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers and U.S. Coast Guard Certifications;
(b) Task Statement 58, Communication between external stakeholders and the mariner credentialing program, as it relates to the National Maritime Center;
(c) Task Statement 80, Develop training guidelines for mariners employed aboard vessels subject to the International Code of Safety for Ships Using Gases or Other Low-flashpoint Fuels;
(d) Task Statement 81, Development of competency requirements for vessel personnel working within the polar regions;
(e) Task Statement 84, Correction of merchant mariner credentials issued with clear errors; and
(f) Task Statement 87, Review of policy documents providing guidance on the implementation of the December 24, 2013 International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping and Changes to National Endorsements rulemaking.
(g) Task Statement 88, Mariner occupational health risk study analysis to further develop policy guidance on mariner fitness.
(h) Task Statement 89, Review and update of International Maritime Organization's Maritime Safety Committee Circular MSC/Circ.1014, “Guidelines on Fatigue Mitigation and Management.”
(6) Other items for discussion:
(a) Report on the Implementation of the 2010 Amendments to the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping;
(b) Report on National Maritime Center activities from the National Maritime Center Commanding Officer, such as the net processing time it takes for mariners to receive their credentials after application submittal;
(c) Report on Mariner Credentialing Program Policy Division activities, such as its current initiatives and projects;
(d) Report on International Maritime Organization/International Labor Organization issues related to the merchant marine industry; and
(e) Briefings about on-going Coast Guard projects related to personnel in the U.S. merchant marine, including a draft task statement concerning job descriptions for the various billets on merchant vessels.
(7) New Business.
New task statement—“Merchant Mariner Credential Expiration Harmonization.”
(8) Public comment period.
(9) Discussion of working group recommendations. The Committee will review the information presented on each issue, deliberate on any recommendations presented by the working groups and approve/formulate recommendations for the Department's consideration. Official action on these recommendations may be taken on this date.
(10) Closing remarks/plans for next meeting.
(11) Adjournment of meeting.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting.
The Navigation Safety Advisory Council will meet in Arlington, Virginia to discuss matters relating to maritime collisions, rammings, and groundings, Inland Rules of the Road, International Rules of the Road, navigation regulations and equipment, routing measures, marine information, diving safety, and aids to navigation systems. These meetings will be open to the public.
The Navigation Safety Advisory Council will meet on Wednesday, September 9, 2015, from 8 a.m. to 5:30 p.m., and on Thursday, September 10, 2015, from 8 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. Please note these meetings may close early if the Council has completed its business.
The meeting will be held at the Holiday Inn Arlington at Ballston, 4610 Fairfax Drive, Arlington VA 22203.
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact Mr. Burt Lahn listed in the
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the
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A public comment period will be held during the meeting on September 9, 2015, from 5 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. and on September 10, 2015, prior to the close of the meeting. Public presentations may also be given. Speakers are requested to limit their presentation and comments to 10 minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments. To register as a speaker, contact Mr. Burt Lahn listed in the
If you have questions about these meetings, please contact Mr. George Detweiler, the Navigation Safety Advisory Council Alternate Designated Federal Officer, Commandant (CG-NAV-2), U.S. Coast Guard, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue SE., Stop 7418, Washington, DC 20593, telephone 202-372-1566 or email
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Title 5 United States Code, Appendix.
The Navigation Safety Advisory Council is an advisory committee authorized in 33 United States Code 2073 and chartered under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The Navigation Safety Advisory Council provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary, through the Commandant of the U.S. Coast Guard, on matters relating to prevention of maritime collisions, rammings, and groundings, Inland and International Rules of the Road, navigation regulations and equipment, routing measures, marine information, diving safety, and aids to navigation systems.
A copy of all meeting documentation will be available at
The Navigation Safety Advisory Council will meet to review, discuss and formulate recommendations on the following topics.
(1) Electronic Chart Systems. The Coast Guard has received periodic inquiries from the U.S. marine industry about the use of electronic charts on non-SOLAS commercial vessels. Navigation Safety Advisory Council will be asked to provide views on the use of electronic charts and associated equipment on domestic commercial vessels;
(2) Atlantic Coast Port Access Route Study. The Atlantic Coast Port Access Route Study was initiated to study the navigational users and industrial development off the Atlantic Coast. The Coast Guard will provide an update on the results of this ongoing effort including Marine Planning Guidelines developed in conjunction with the Atlantic Coast Port Access Route Study;
(3) The Coast Guard's Future of Navigation initiative leverages technology in order to optimize the mix of electronic and visual aids to navigation. The Coast Guard will provide information on this project. This will include a presentation on the Seacoast Waterways Analysis and Management Study; and
(4) Vessel Traffic Services. The Coast Guard will provide an update of the Vessel Traffic Service program and information concerning the National Transportation Safety Board Vessel Traffic Services Safety Study.
Following the above presentations, the Designated Federal Officer will form a subcommittee to continue discussions on the task statement: Navigation Safety Advisory Council Task 15-01—Unmanned Maritime Systems Best Practices.
The Designated Federal Officer will form subcommittees to discuss and provide recommendations on the following new task statements as appropriate:
(1) Navigation Safety Advisory Council Task 15-03—Marine Planning Guidelines. The Council will be asked to review the Marine Planning Guidelines and provide comments and recommendations; and
(2) Navigation Safety Advisory Council Task 15-04—Discontinuance of an Aid to Navigation. The Coast Guard will review its existing discontinuance of an aid to navigation process and present its new draft process for review and comment by the Council.
(3) Navigation Safety Advisory Council Task 15-05—Electronic Chart Systems. The Council will be asked to review the Electronic Chart Systems carriage requirements and a draft Coast Guard policy concerning their use of ECS in lieu of paper charts.
Public comments or questions will be taken during the meeting as the Council discusses each issue and prior to the Council formulating recommendations on each issue. There will also be a public comment period at the end of the meeting.
(1) Subcommittee discussions continued from Wednesday, September 9, 2015;
(2) Subcommittee reports presented to the Council;
(3) New Business;
a. Summary of Navigation Safety Advisory Council action items.
b. Schedule next meeting date—Spring, 2016.
c. Council discussions and acceptance of new tasks.
A public comment period will be held after the discussion of new tasks. Speakers' comments are limited to 10 minutes each. Public comments or questions will be taken at the discretion of the Designated Federal Officer during the discussion and recommendations, and new business portion of the meeting.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) of the Department of Homeland Security will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act: Visa Waiver Program Carrier Agreement (CBP Form I-775). This is a proposed extension of an information collection that was previously approved. CBP is proposing that this information collection be extended with no change to the burden hours or to the information collected. This document is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments should be received on or before September 24, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to Tracey Denning, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Regulations and Rulings, Office of International Trade, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, at 202-325-0265.
This proposed information collection was previously published in the
The Visa Waiver Program Carrier Agreement (CBP Form I-775) is used by carriers to request acceptance by CBP into the Visa Waiver Program (VWP). This form is an agreement whereby carriers agree to the terms of the VWP as delineated in Section 217(e) of the INA (8 U.S.C. 1187(e)). Once participation is granted, CBP Form I-775 serves to hold carriers liable for the transportation costs, to ensure the completion of required forms, and to share passenger data. Regulations are promulgated at 8 CFR part 217.6, Carrier Agreements. A copy of CBP Form I-775 is accessible at:
U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE), DHS.
Notice.
This notice informs the public of the extension of an earlier notice, which suspended certain requirements for F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti and who are experiencing severe economic
This notice is effective August 25, 2015, and will remain in effect until July 22, 2017.
Louis Farrell, Director, Student and Exchange Visitor Program, MS 5600, U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement, 500 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20536-5600; email:
The Secretary of Homeland Security is exercising authority under 8 CFR 214.2(f)(9) to extend the suspension of the applicability of certain requirements governing on-campus and off-campus employment for F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti and who are experiencing severe economic hardship as a direct result of the of the January 12, 2010 earthquake in Haiti.
F-1 nonimmigrant students granted employment authorization through the notice will continue to be deemed to be engaged in a “full course of study” for the duration of their employment authorization, provided they satisfy the minimum course load requirement described in the 2010 Haitian F-1 nonimmigrant notice.
This notice applies exclusively to F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti and who were lawfully present in the United States in F-1 nonimmigrant status on January 12, 2010, under section 101(a)(15)(F)(i) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15)(F)(i); and who are—
(1) Enrolled in an institution that is Student and Exchange Visitor Program (SEVP)-certified for enrollment of F-1 students,
(2) Currently maintaining F-1 status, and
(3) Experiencing severe economic hardship as a direct result of the January 12, 2010 earthquake in Haiti.
This notice applies to both undergraduate and graduate students, as well as elementary school, middle school, and high school students. The notice, however, applies differently to elementary school, middle school, and high school students (see the discussion published in the 2010 Haitian F-1 nonimmigrant notice, 75 FR 56120, available at
F-1 students covered by this notice who transfer to other academic institutions that are SEVP-certified for enrollment of F-1 students remain eligible for the relief provided by means of this notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) took action to provide temporary relief to F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti and who experienced severe economic hardship because of the January 12, 2010 earthquake.
The January 12, 2010 earthquake caused extensive damage to Haiti's infrastructure, public health, agriculture, transportation, and educational facilities. While significant progress has been made in living conditions and infrastructure in Haiti, the country continues to struggle with many people still displaced as a result of the earthquake, and it faces ongoing challenges to its overall economic situation. According to the International Organization for Migration (IOM), as of January 9, 2015, approximately 80,000 Haitians remain in temporary camps.
The United States is committed to continuing to assist the people of Haiti. DHS is therefore extending the suspension of certain requirements involving employment authorization for certain F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti and who are continuing to experience severe economic hardship as a result of the earthquake.
F-1 nonimmigrant students whose country of citizenship is Haiti; who were lawfully present in the United States on January 12, 2010; and who are experiencing severe economic hardship because of the January 12, 2010 earthquake may apply for employment authorization under the guidelines described in the 2010 Haitian F-1 nonimmigrant notice. This notice extends the time period during which such F-1 students may seek employment authorization due to the earthquake. It does not impose any new or additional policies or procedures beyond those listed in the original notice. All interested F-1 students should follow the instructions listed in the original notice.
Information Sharing Environment (ISEO)/Office of Chief Information Officer (OCIO), Department of Homeland Security.
Committee management; notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Homeland Security Information Network Advisory Council (HSINAC) calls a full body, in-person meeting of its membership to receive all relevant information and facilitate development of recommendations to the HSIN Program Management Office (PMO) in the major issue area of developing Focused Mission Growth outcome measures.
The HSINAC will meet Monday, September 28, 2015 from 9 a.m.-5 p.m. EST and Tuesday, September 29, 2015 from 9 a.m.-12 p.m. in Washington, DC, and via conference call and HSIN Connect, an online web-conferencing tool, both of which will be made available to members of the general public. Please note that the meeting may end early if the committee has completed its business.
The meeting will be held in Washington, DC at 131 M. Street NE., 6th floor Conference Room and virtually via HSIN Connect, an online web-conferencing tool at
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact Allison Buchinski,
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the issues to be considered by the committee. Comments must be submitted in writing no later than September 18, must be identified by the docket number—DHS-2015-0051, and may be submitted by
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A public comment period will be held during the meeting on Monday, September 28, from 4:30 p.m. to 4:45 p.m. and again on Tuesday, September 29, from 11:00 a.m. to 11:15 a.m. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 3 minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the time indicated, following the last call for comments. Contact one of the individuals listed below to register as a speaker.
Designated Federal Officer, Michael Brody,
The Homeland Security Information Network Advisory Committee (HSINAC) is an advisory body to the Homeland Security Information Network (HSIN) Program Office. This committee provides advice and recommendations to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) on matters relating to HSIN. These matters include system requirements, operating policies, community organization, knowledge management, interoperability and federation with other systems, and any other aspect of HSIN that supports the operations of DHS and its Federal, state, territorial, local, tribal, international, and private sector mission partners. Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. Appendix. The HSINAC provides advice and recommendations to DHS on matters relating to HSIN.
The Agenda will have three major components. The first, Program Updates, will provide the HSINAC with information necessary to discuss and develop recommendations on specific advice related to the critical mission areas in which HSIN achieves growth in its user base and/or mission application, and how mission can establish a clear, reusable set of mission based outcome measures which will adequately convey the actual mission impact that HSIN has in homeland security operations. The second, Recommendations Development, will involve the deliberation by the HSINAC on the major issue area of defining Focused Mission Growth outcome measures to assist the Program in defining user success moving forward.
a. HSINAC Members receive HSIN PMO updates on the following key issues, and offer critical feedback, guidance, and initial formulation of recommendations for future program enhancements:
i. An Introduction to the Information Sharing Environment Office (ISEO)—Members are provided an overview of the office and HSIN's recent alignment with ISEO and OCIO.
ii. The State of HSIN—Members are provided a strategic update on HSIN's progresses, challenges, and future plans.
iii. Focused Mission Growth—Members will hear about the Program's goals to enhance the quality of the HSIN user experience while adding mission value through a feedback session with the group.
iv. HSIN Annual Assessment—Members are given an overview of the HSIN Annual Report process and partake in a short focus group session to assist in the development of partner-focused success stories illustrating HSIN's role in fulfilling its mission to be the central provider of information sharing capabilities that allow for collaboration, situational awareness, and information exchange to fulfill our partner's homeland security mission areas.
a. Mission Focused Outcomes—Members will partake in a session to ensure that HSIN's operation and support is aligned with mission events, major incidents, and issues, assisting the HSIN Program with defining its mission based outcome measures.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
Through this Notice, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) announces that the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) is extending the designation of Haiti for Temporary Protected Status (TPS) for 18 months, from January 23, 2016 through July 22, 2017.
The extension allows currently eligible TPS beneficiaries to retain TPS through July 22, 2017, so long as they otherwise continue to meet the eligibility requirements for TPS. The Secretary has determined that an extension is warranted because the conditions in Haiti that prompted the TPS designation continue to be met. There continue to be extraordinary and temporary conditions in that country that prevent Haitian nationals (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) from returning to Haiti in safety.
Through this Notice, DHS also sets forth procedures necessary for nationals of Haiti (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) to re-register for TPS and to apply for renewal of their Employment Authorization Documents (EAD) with U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS). Re-registration is limited to persons who have previously registered for TPS under the designation of Haiti and whose applications have been granted. Certain nationals of Haiti (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) who have not previously applied for TPS may be eligible to apply under the late initial registration provisions if they meet (1) at least one of the late initial filing criteria, and (2) all TPS eligibility criteria (including continuous residence in the United States since January 12, 2011, and continuous physical presence in the United States since July 23, 2011).
For individuals who have already been granted TPS under Haiti's designation, the 60-day re-registration period runs from August 25, 2015 through October 26, 2015. USCIS will issue new EADs with a July 22, 2017 expiration date to eligible Haiti TPS beneficiaries who timely re-register and apply for EADs under this extension. Given the timeframes involved with processing TPS re-registration applications, DHS recognizes that not all re-registrants will receive new EADs before their current EADs expire on January 22, 2016. Accordingly, through this Notice, DHS automatically extends the validity of EADs issued under the TPS designation of Haiti for 6 months, through July 22, 2016, and explains how TPS beneficiaries and their employers may determine which EADs are automatically extended and their impact on Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) and the E-Verify processes.
The 18-month extension of the TPS designation of Haiti is effective January 23, 2016, and will remain in effect through July 22, 2017. The 60-day re-registration period runs from August 25, 2015 through October 26, 2015. (
• For further information on TPS, including guidance on the application process and additional information on eligibility, please visit the USCIS TPS Web page at
• You can also contact the TPS Operations Program Manager at the Waivers and Temporary Services Branch, Service Center Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2060; or by phone at (202) 272-1533 (this is not a toll-free number).
• Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
• Further information will also be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice.
• TPS is a temporary immigration status granted to eligible nationals of a country designated for TPS under the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), or to eligible persons without nationality who last habitually resided in the designated country.
• During the TPS designation period, TPS beneficiaries are eligible to remain in the United States, may not be removed, and are authorized to work and obtain EADs so long as they continue to meet the requirements of TPS.
• TPS beneficiaries may also be granted travel authorization as a matter of discretion.
• The granting of TPS does not result in or lead to permanent resident status.
• To qualify for TPS, beneficiaries must meet the eligibility standards at INA section 244(c)(2) and 8 CFR 244.2-.4.
• When the Secretary terminates a country's TPS designation, beneficiaries return to the same immigration status they maintained before TPS, if any (unless that status has since expired or been terminated), or to any other lawfully obtained immigration status they received while registered for TPS.
On January 21, 2010, the Secretary designated Haiti for TPS based on extraordinary and temporary conditions within the country, specifically the effects of the 7.0-magnitude earthquake that occurred on January 12, 2010.
Section 244(b)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1), authorizes the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate agencies of the U.S. Government (Government), to designate a foreign state (or part thereof) for TPS if the Secretary determines that certain country conditions exist.
At least 60 days before the expiration of a country's TPS designation or extension, the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, must review the conditions in a foreign state designated for TPS to determine whether the conditions for the TPS designation continue to be met.
Over the past year, DHS and the Department of State (DOS) have continued to review conditions in Haiti. Based on this review and after consulting with DOS, the Secretary has determined that an 18-month extension is warranted because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that led to Haiti's designation continue to exist and prevent Haitian nationals (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) from returning to Haiti in safety.
Many of the conditions prompting the original January 2010 TPS designation and the May 2011 redesignation persist, including a housing shortage, a cholera epidemic, limited access to medical care, damage to the economy, political instability, security risks, limited access to food and water, a heightened vulnerability of women and children, and environmental risks. More than 5 years after the earthquake, Haiti continues to recover.
The January 12, 2010 earthquake caused extensive damage to the country's physical infrastructure and public health, agricultural, housing, transportation, and educational facilities. The Haitian government estimates that 105,000 houses were destroyed and 188,383 houses collapsed or suffered considerable damage. At the peak of the displacement, estimates of people internally displaced range from approximately 1.5 million to 2.3 million. While most of the earthquake related rubble has been cleared, and there have been improvements to road conditions, the effort to rebuild damaged buildings has been slow. Virtually all government offices and ministries were destroyed in downtown Port-au-Prince and, 5 years later, remain housed in temporary facilities.
While the country continues to make progress in relocating people made homeless by the 2010 earthquake, estimates by the International Organization for Migration in December 2014 put the number of Haitians still living in internally displaced person (IDP) camps at approximately 80,000 scattered across 105 sites. Basic services available to camp residents have deteriorated as IDP camps close and funding dries up, with most camps lacking waste management services and adequate sanitation facilities—leading to a high risk of cholera transmission—and possessing malnutrition rates higher than emergency thresholds. Gender-based violence that exists within these informal settlement areas continues to be a serious concern and personal security is a serious and pervasive issue. While IDP camps are closing, Haiti's housing shortage remains far from resolved. Haiti lacks sufficient housing units to address its pre-earthquake shortage, replace damaged or destroyed units, and satisfy projected urban growth. Some Haitians have returned to unsafe homes or built houses in informal settlements located in hazardous areas without access to basic services.
Lingering infrastructure damage since the earthquake has also impacted food security. Even prior to the 2010 earthquake, Haiti had one of the highest rates of hunger and malnutrition in the Western Hemisphere, with 45 percent of the population undernourished and 30 percent of children under 5 suffering from chronic malnutrition. Damage from the 2010 earthquake exacerbated Haiti's historic food security challenges. An estimated 2.5 million people are unable to cover their basic food needs and a January 2015 United Nations report estimated that over 600,000 people were facing severe food insecurity.
Haiti's longstanding public health challenges were exacerbated by the January 2010 earthquake and an ongoing cholera epidemic that started in October 2010. The introduction of cholera in Haiti shortly after the earthquake, and its persistence since then, is mainly due to the lack of access to clean water and appropriate sanitation facilities. Concerted efforts by Haiti and its partners have reduced the number of reported cholera cases in the country, but Haiti continues to host the largest cholera epidemic in the Western Hemisphere. As of December 2014, the cholera epidemic has affected approximately 725,000 people and claimed over 8,800 lives in Haiti since October 2010. In January 2015, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention stated that outbreaks of epidemic diseases still occur and that progress has been slow and limited in restoring Haiti's physical health infrastructure.
Haiti's ability to recover has been further constrained by political instability. The January 2010 earthquake had an immediate impact on governance and the rule of law in Haiti, killing an estimated 18 percent of the country's civil service and destroying key government infrastructure, including the National Palace, 28 of 29 government ministry buildings, the National Police headquarters, and various judicial facilities. Following the expiration of local and parliamentary
Although the Government of Haiti has taken significant steps to improve stability and the quality of life for Haitian citizens, Haiti continues to lack the adequate infrastructure, health and sanitation services, and emergency response capacity necessary to ensure the personal safety of Haitian nationals.
Based upon this review and after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, the Secretary has determined that:
• The conditions that prompted the July 23, 2011 redesignation of Haiti for TPS continue to be met.
• There continue to be extraordinary and temporary conditions in Haiti that prevent Haitian nationals (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) from returning to Haiti in safety.
• It is not contrary to the national interest of the United States to permit Haitians (or aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti) who meet the eligibility requirements of TPS to remain in the United States temporarily.
• The designation of Haiti for TPS should be extended for an 18-month period from January 23, 2016 through July 22, 2017.
• There are approximately 50,000 current Haiti TPS beneficiaries who are expected to file for re-registration under the extension.
By the authority vested in me as Secretary under INA section 244, 8 U.S.C. 1254a, I have determined, after consultation with the appropriate Government agencies, that the conditions that prompted the redesignation of Haiti for TPS on July 23, 2011, continue to be met.
To register or re-register for TPS based on the designation of Haiti, an applicant must submit each of the following two applications:
• If you are filing an application for late initial registration, you must pay the fee for the Application for Temporary Protected Status (Form I-821).
• If you are filing an application for re-registration, you do not need to pay the fee for the Application for Temporary Protected Status (Form I-821).
• If you are applying for late initial registration and want an EAD, you must pay the fee for the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) only if you are age 14 through 65. No fee for the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) is required if you are requesting an initial EAD and are under the age of 14 or over the age of 65 and applying for late initial registration.
• If you are applying for re-registration, you must pay the fee for the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) only if you want an EAD, regardless of age.
• You do not pay the fee for the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) if you are not requesting an EAD, regardless of whether you are applying for late initial registration or re-registration. You must submit both completed application forms together. If you are unable to pay for the Application for Employment Authorization (Form I-765) and/or biometrics fee, you may apply for a fee waiver by completing a Request for Fee Waiver (Form I-912) or submitting a personal letter requesting a fee waiver, and by providing satisfactory supporting documentation. For more information on the application forms and fees for TPS, please visit the USCIS TPS Web page at
Biometrics (such as fingerprints) are required for all applicants 14 years of age or older. Those applicants must submit a biometric services fee. As previously stated, if you are unable to pay for the biometric services fee, you may apply for a fee waiver by completing a Request for Fee Waiver (Form I-912) or by submitting a personal letter requesting a fee waiver, and providing satisfactory supporting documentation. For more information on the biometric services fee, please visit the USCIS Web site at
USCIS urges all re-registering applicants to file as soon as possible within the 60-day re-registration period so that USCIS can process the applications and issue EADs promptly. Filing early will also allow those applicants who may receive denials of their fee waiver requests to have time to re-file their applications before the re-registration deadline. If, however, an applicant receives a denial of his or her fee waiver request and is unable to re-file by the re-registration deadline, the applicant may still re-file his or her application. This situation will be reviewed to determine whether the applicant has established good cause for late re-registration. However, applicants are urged to re-file within 45 days of the date on their USCIS fee waiver denial notice, if at all possible.
Mail your application for TPS to the proper address in Table 1.
If you were granted TPS by an Immigration Judge (IJ) or the Board of Immigration Appeals (BIA) and you wish to request an EAD or are re-registering for the first time following a grant of TPS by an IJ or the BIA, please mail your application to the appropriate mailing address in Table 1. Upon receiving a Notice of Action (Form I-797) from USCIS, please send an email to the appropriate USCIS Service Center handling your application providing the receipt number and stating that you submitted a re-registration and/or request for an EAD based on an IJ/BIA grant of TPS. If your USCIS receipt number begins with the letters “LIN,” please email the Nebraska Service Center at
You cannot electronically file your application when re-registering or submitting an initial registration for Haiti TPS. Please mail your application to the mailing address listed in Table 1.
To obtain case status information about your TPS application, including the status of a request for an EAD, you can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
Provided that you currently have TPS under the designation of Haiti, this Notice automatically extends your EAD by 6 months if you:
• Are a national of Haiti (or an alien having no nationality who last habitually resided in Haiti);
• Received an EAD under the last extension of TPS for Haiti; and
• Have an EAD with a marked expiration date of January 22, 2016, bearing the notation “A-12” or “C-19” on the face of the card under “Category.”
Although this Notice automatically extends your EAD through July 22, 2016, you must re-register timely for TPS in accordance with the procedures described in this Notice if you would like to maintain your TPS.
You can find a list of acceptable document choices on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9). You can find additional detailed information on the USCIS I-9 Central Web page at
You may present any document from List A (reflecting both your identity and employment authorization) or one document from List B (reflecting identity) together with one document from List C (reflecting employment authorization). You may present an acceptable receipt for List A, List B, or List C documents as described in the Form I-9 Instructions. An acceptable receipt is one that shows an employee has applied to replace a document that was lost, stolen or damaged. If you present this receipt, you must present your employer with the actual document within 90 days. An EAD is an acceptable document under “List A.” Employers may not reject a document based on a future expiration date.
If your EAD has an expiration date of January 22, 2016, and states “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category,” it has been extended automatically for 6 months by virtue of this
Even though EADs with an expiration date of January 22, 2016, that state “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category” have been automatically extended for 6 months by this
By July 22, 2016, the expiration date of the automatic extension, your employer must reverify your employment authorization. At that time, you must present any unexpired document from List A or any unexpired document from List C on Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) to reverify employment authorization, or an acceptable List A or List C receipt described in the Form I-9 instructions. Your employer is required to reverify on Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) the employment authorization of current employees upon the automatically extended expiration date of a TPS-related EAD, which is July 22, 2016, in this case. Your employer should use either Section 3 of the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) originally completed for the employee or, if this section has already been completed or if the version of Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) is no longer valid, complete Section 3 of a new Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) using the most current version. Note that your employer may not specify which List A or List C document employees must present, and cannot reject an acceptable receipt. An acceptable receipt is one that shows an employee has applied to replace a document that was lost, stolen or damaged.
No. When completing Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9), including reverifying employment authorization, employers must accept any documentation that appears on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) that reasonably appears to be genuine and that relates to you or an acceptable List A, List B, or List C receipt. Employers may not request documentation that does not appear on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents.” Therefore, employers may not request proof of Haitian citizenship or proof of re-registration for TPS when completing Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) for new hires or reverifying the employment authorization of current employees. Refer to the Note to Employees section of this Notice for important information about your rights if your employer rejects lawful documentation, requires additional documentation, or otherwise discriminates against you based on your citizenship or immigration status, or your national origin. Note that although you are not required to provide your employer with a copy of this
After July 22, 2016, employers may no longer accept the EADs that this
When using an automatically extended EAD to complete Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) for a new job prior to July 22, 2016, you and your employer should do the following:
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Check “An alien authorized to work;”
b. Write the automatically extended EAD expiration date (July 22, 2016) in the first space; and
c. Write your alien number (USCIS number or A-number) in the second space (your EAD or other document from DHS will have your USCIS number or A-number printed on it; the USCIS number is the same as your A-number without the A prefix).
2. For Section 2, employers should record the:
a. Document title;
b. Issuing authority;
c. Document number; and
d. Automatically extended EAD expiration date (July 22, 2016).
By July 22, 2016, employers must reverify the employee's employment authorization in Section 3 of the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9).
If you are an existing employee who presented a TPS-related EAD that was valid when you first started your job but that EAD has now been automatically extended, your employer may reinspect your automatically extended EAD if the employer does not have a photocopy of the EAD on file, and you and your employer should correct your previously completed Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) as follows:
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date in the first space;
b. Write “July 22, 2016” above the previous date;
c. Write “TPS Ext.” in the margin of Section 1; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 1.
2. For Section 2, employers should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date written in Section 2;
b. Write “July 22, 2016” above the previous date;
c. Write “EAD Ext.” in the margin of Section 2; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 2.
By July 22, 2016, when the automatic extension of EADs expires, employers must reverify the employee's employment authorization in Section 3.
If you are an employer who participates in E-Verify and you have an employee who is a TPS beneficiary who provided a TPS-related EAD when he or she first started working for you, you will receive a “Work Authorization Documents Expiring” case alert when this EAD is about to expire. Usually, this message is an alert to complete Section 3 of the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) to reverify an employee's employment authorization. For existing employees with TPS-related EADs that have been automatically extended, employers should dismiss this alert by clicking the red “X” in the “dismiss alert” column and follow the instructions above explaining how to correct the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9). By July 22, 2016, employment authorization must be reverified in Section 3. Employers should never use E-Verify for reverification.
Employers are reminded that the laws requiring proper employment eligibility verification and prohibiting unfair immigration-related employment practices remain in full force. This Notice does not supersede or in any way limit applicable employment verification rules and policy guidance, including those rules setting forth reverification requirements. For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, employers may call USCIS at 888-464-4218 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email USCIS at
For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, employees may call USCIS at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email at
To comply with the law, employers must accept any document or combination of documents from the Lists of Acceptable Documents if the documentation reasonably appears to be genuine and to relate to the employee, or an acceptable List A, List B, or List C receipt described in the Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) Instructions. Employers may not require extra or additional documentation beyond what is required for Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) completion. Further, employers participating in E-Verify who receive an E-Verify case result of “Tentative Nonconfirmation” (TNC) must promptly inform employees of the TNC and give such employees an opportunity to contest the TNC. A TNC case result means that the information entered into E-Verify from Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) differs from records available to DHS or the Social Security Administration.
Employers may not terminate, suspend, delay training, withhold pay, lower pay, or take any adverse action against an employee based on the employee's decision to contest a TNC or because the case is still pending with E-Verify. A Final Nonconfirmation (FNC) case result is received when E-Verify cannot verify an employee's employment eligibility. An employer may terminate employment based on a case result of FNC. Work-authorized employees who receive an FNC may call USCIS for assistance at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028). An employee that believes he or she was discriminated against by an employer in the E-Verify process based on citizenship or immigration status or based on national origin, may contact OSC's Worker
While Federal Government agencies must follow the guidelines laid out by the Federal Government, State and local government agencies establish their own rules and guidelines when granting certain benefits. Each State may have different laws, requirements, and determinations about what documents you need to provide to prove eligibility for certain benefits. Whether you are applying for a Federal, State, or local government benefit, you may need to provide the government agency with documents that show you are a TPS beneficiary and/or show you are authorized to work based on TPS. Examples are:
(1) Your unexpired EAD;
(2) A copy of this
(3) A copy of your Application for Temporary Protected Status Notice of Action (Form I-797) for this re-registration;
(4) A copy of your past or current Application for Temporary Protected Status Approval Notice (Form I-797), if you received one from USCIS; and/or
(5) If there is an automatic extension of work authorization, a copy of the fact sheet from the USCIS TPS Web site that provides information on the automatic extension.
Check with the government agency regarding which document(s) the agency will accept. You may also provide the agency with a copy of this
Some benefit-granting agencies use the USCIS Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements Program (SAVE) to verify the current immigration status of applicants for public benefits. If such an agency has denied your application based solely or in part on a SAVE response, the agency must offer you the opportunity to appeal the decision in accordance with the agency's procedures. If the agency has received and acted upon or will act upon a SAVE verification and you do not believe the response is correct, you may make an InfoPass appointment for an in-person interview at a local USCIS office. Detailed information on how to make corrections, make an appointment, or submit a written request to correct records under the Freedom of Information Act can be found at the SAVE Web site at
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
The proposed information collection requirement described below will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act. The Department is soliciting public comments on the subject proposal.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Reports Liaison Officer, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410, Room 9120 or the number for the Federal Information Relay Service (1-800-877-8339).
Kevin Stevens, Director, Home Mortgage Insurance Division, Office of Single Family Program Development, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410, telephone (202) 708-2121 (this is not a toll free number) for copies of the proposed forms and other available information.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
• Lenders approved to make insured Title I loans
• Dealers/Contractors
• Manufacturers of manufactured homes
• Applicants for property improvement loans
• Applicants for manufactured home loans
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C., Chapter 35, as amended.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
This notice provides clarifying guidance, waivers, and alternative requirements for Community Development Block Grant Disaster Recovery grantees in receipt of funds under the Disaster Relief Appropriations Act, 2013 (the Appropriations Act). This notice modifies requirements for infrastructure projects funded by grantees receiving an allocation for Hurricane Sandy. This notice also provides waivers and alternative requirements for the State of New Jersey's Energy Resilience Bank and LMI Homeowner Rebuilding Program, and for New York City's infrastructure projects and the Breezy Point Flood Mitigation System.
Effective Date: August 31, 2015.
Stanley Gimont, Director, Office of Block Grant Assistance, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7286, Washington, DC 20410, telephone number 202-708-3587. Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339. Facsimile inquiries may be sent to Mr. Gimont at 202-401-2044. (Except for the “800” number, these telephone numbers are not toll-free.) Email inquiries may be sent to
The Appropriations Act (Pub. L. 113-2, approved January 29, 2013) made available $16 billion in Community Development Block Grant disaster recovery (CDBG-DR) funds for necessary expenses related to disaster relief, long-term recovery, restoration of infrastructure and housing, and economic revitalization in the most impacted and distressed areas, resulting from a major disaster declared pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5121
This notice specifies a waiver and alternative requirements and modifies requirements for Hurricane Sandy grantees in receipt of allocations under the Appropriations Act, which are described within the
The Appropriations Act authorizes the Secretary to waive, or specify alternative requirements for, any provision of any statute or regulation that the Secretary administers in connection with HUD's obligation or use by the recipient of these funds (except for requirements related to fair housing, nondiscrimination, labor standards, and the environment). Waivers and alternative requirements are based upon a determination by the Secretary that good cause exists and that the waiver or alternative requirement is not inconsistent with the overall purposes of Title I of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5301
For the waivers and alternative requirements described in this notice, the Secretary has determined that good cause exists and that the waivers and alternative requirements are not inconsistent with the overall purpose of the HCD Act. Grantees may request waivers and alternative requirements from the Department as needed to address specific needs related to their recovery activities. Under the requirements of the Appropriations Act, waivers must be published in the
1.
Oftentimes CDBG-DR grantees are awarded Federal recovery funds for which CDBG-DR can be used as the source for the required non-Federal local match of funds. These Federal
Prior to HUD's November 18, 2013, notice, many grantees had coordinated with Federal agencies to secure funding for critical infrastructure projects, but only upon establishment of the Sandy Recovery Office and the launch of the Regional Coordination Working Group (now known as the Sandy Regional Infrastructure Resilience Coordination Group or SRIRC Group), in January 2014, would grantees have been able to comply with Federal coordination requirements outlined in the November 18, 2013 notice. In addition, grantees may have completed infrastructure projects before the establishment of the requirements described in that notice at paragraph 2 at 78 FR 69107.
Accordingly, the clarification described in the March 27, 2014, notice at paragraph II.1.b. is amended to read, “Infrastructure requirements described in paragraph 2 at 78 FR 69107 do not apply to any infrastructure project where funds have been obligated by a Federal agency under any federal grant-in-aid program on or before January 15, 2014, or where a project funded through any means was completed on or before January 15, 2014.”
The Department approved the ERB in the State's disaster recovery Action Plan for the second allocation of CDBG-DR funds under the Appropriations Act on May 30, 2014.
The ERB aligns with the Hurricane Sandy Rebuilding Strategy's (the Strategy) goal of “Ensuring a Regionally Coordinated, Resilient Approach to Infrastructure Investment,” and the Strategy specifically references the ERB as a program developed by the State with assistance from the Hurricane Sandy Rebuilding Task Force. The Strategy notes “most energy infrastructure is privately-owned and operated, which means that resilience investment will come about only through close cooperation between the Federal and State governments and the private sector.”
Many of the facilities expected to receive funding through the State's ERB provide critical public services but are owned by a mix of public and for-profit entities, or are solely privately owned, and cannot be assisted under the current prohibitions imposed by the March 5, 2013, notice. At least 20 of the 108 potentially eligible hospital facilities are operated as for-profit entities and do not meet the small business criteria. Moreover, 438 of the State's 617 long-term care facilities and 95 of 170 institutions of higher learning are operated as for-profit entities and do not meet the small business criteria. The State also anticipates funding private utilities, such as private water districts, which serve the needs of their regional populations in the same manner as public utilities.
These facilities often serve communities most impacted by Hurricane Sandy, having high concentrations of low- and moderate-income (LMI) persons, and they provide essential services to vulnerable populations that are comparable to their public and non-profit counterparts. Without a waiver of the restrictions on assistance to certain types of businesses, many of these critical facilities would be ineligible for funding, leaving large gaps in the State's regional distributed energy networks and excluding significant populations (including LMI persons) from benefiting from the State's resiliency measures.
While not every critical facility will serve predominantly LMI populations, vulnerable residents typically rely more on community-based facilities and services, especially in disaster scenarios. To the extent that the ERB will be funding such facilities and services, LMI populations would benefit especially from the increased resiliency of critical infrastructure during the next storm event. Accordingly, as a condition of providing this waiver, HUD is requiring the State to develop a scoring methodology for the selection of ERB projects that provides preferential treatment to LMI areas and populations. The LMI benefit scoring methodology is to be designed to ensure continued progress by the State in meeting its overall CDBG-DR grant LMI benefit requirement and to ensure that, in financing ERB projects, the State places a significant priority on serving LMI areas and populations.
In its request to the Department, the State acknowledged that the ERB is not a substitute for private investment, but is instead designed to leverage additional private investment in resilient energy systems. The State has developed ERB financial products using substantial market research and analysis to ensure that products are attractive to consumers in the market, while also generating proceeds for the ERB. The State is also developing assistance packages that consist of variable contributions of loans, forgivable loans, and grants, with each product requiring varying levels of equity investments. Market research and analysis specific to each business sector and uniform
Based on the critical role that the ERB will fulfill in ensuring long-term resiliency within Sandy-impacted New Jersey communities and for only those activities funded by the ERB as described in the State's approved disaster recovery Action Plan Amendment, the Department is waiving the alternative requirement in the March 5, 2013, notice and subsequent notices that prohibit funding businesses that do not meet the SBA definition of small business and funding of private utilities, subject to the following alternative requirements. As a condition of this waiver the State must:
• Provide preferential treatment to LMI areas and populations in its ERB scoring methodology;
• Require an equity contribution for for-profit critical facilities, the amount of which is to be based on uniform underwriting standards developed by the State and uniformly applied to all such facilities, to ensure that the level of assistance provided to these facilities addresses only the actual identified needs of the project; and
• Establish a mix of financing terms (loan, forgivable loan, and/or grant) for each assisted for-profit facility, based on the business's financial capacity, in order to ensure that assistance is based on actual identified need, in order to achieve a targeted use of funds and to safeguard against the potential over-subsidization of for-profit facilities.
This waiver allows the State to add new potential beneficiaries to the activity described within its amended Action Plan for disaster recovery. This change will constitute a substantial amendment as described in the March 5, 2013, notice (78 FR 14329) at paragraph VI.A.3.a. Accordingly, the State must submit a Substantial Action Plan Amendment revising its description of the ERB to include affected entities, and this amendment will be subject to the citizen participation requirements of the March 5, 2013, notice at VI.A.3, which requires no less than 7 calendar days to solicit public comment.
HUD must obligate all funds under the Appropriations Act by September 30, 2017. Because grantees are required to expend program funds within 2-years following HUD's obligation of the funds, CDBG-DR funds used to finance ERB projects will automatically qualify under the 2-year alternative urgent need certification requirement. The State, however, intends to apply program income generated through ERB projects to additional ERB projects and may also apply program income from its other CDBG-DR programs to the ERB, beyond the 2-year period of the alternative urgent need certification requirement. The State has requested authority to use the alternative urgent need certification requirement; for the life of the CDBG-DR grant, for program income applied to the ERB. Without this extension, funds critical to the performance of the ERB could not be classified as meeting the urgent need national objective and program participants may be unable to raise necessary private capital for critical energy resilience projects. Providing this flexibility for ERB-financed projects will allow the projects to be implemented following the obligation of all CDBG-DR funds to the ERB and until the State has closed out its CDBG-DR Sandy recovery grant.
Therefore, until grant closeout and for only program income used to fund ERB activities, HUD is permitting the State of New Jersey, when the use of the urgent need national objective is warranted, to document the use of the urgent need national objective by applying the waiver and alternative requirement regarding urgent need at paragraph VI.A.1.f. of the March 5, 2013, notice (78 FR 14336). The program income requirements described in paragraphs A.2 and A.17 of section VI of the March 5, 2013, notice (78 FR 14336) will continue to apply.
The State of New Jersey implemented the LMI Homeowners Rebuilding Program pursuant to a VCA with the Department, which was executed on May 30, 2014. The VCA was established in response to a complaint filed by civil rights and fair housing organizations regarding the State's administration of its CDBG-DR funded recovery programs. The VCA required the State to implement the LMI Homeowners Rebuilding Program more than 1-year after the 1-year, post-disaster time
Accordingly, based on the critical role of the LMI Homeowner Rebuilding Program in providing housing recovery assistance to LMI residents and for only those applicants assisted through the State's LMI Homeowners Rebuilding Program, the Department is extending the date by which grantees may reimburse expenses incurred by applicants to the date of application to the LMI Homeowners Rebuilding Program, provided such expenses would otherwise be eligible expenses.
New York City is composed of five counties (which are coterminous with its five boroughs) that are subordinate to the municipal government, and the city's authority precludes the need for due consideration of the counties' response. Requiring the city to adhere to the Department's requirements for major infrastructure projects in such cases would impose additional and unnecessary standards for relatively small projects that do not warrant the level of scrutiny triggered by the requirements. Accordingly, for purposes of identifying major infrastructure projects that are held to the requirements of the notice published November 18, 2013, and any subsequent notice that includes provisions for major infrastructure projects, HUD is providing New York City a waiver of the major infrastructure identification criteria to exclude projects located in multiple counties that are located exclusively within the city, only where the project would not otherwise meet the definition of a major infrastructure project by exceeding the total cost thresholds described above.
Under the CDBG Entitlement Program regulations, which are applicable to units of local government, New York City may use CDBG-DR funds to finance the rehabilitation of privately owned buildings and improvements for residential purposes, including grounds improvements that are incidental to and necessary for housing rehabilitation. This housing rehabilitation provision does not permit the city to construct a new flood mitigation system that improves the grounds of a privately held cooperative that benefits an entire community. The community's unique status as a cooperative on a single property lot also precludes the city from funding the activity as an eligible public facility and improvement under the CDBG regulations at 24 CFR 570.201(c).
The flood mitigation system proposed for Breezy Point will provide critical protection to CDBG-DR home rehabilitation investments as well as investments from other Federal partners, and it will improve waterfronts damaged by Hurricane Sandy. The city has determined that the system is necessary to permit long-term disaster recovery from Hurricane Sandy for the Breezy Point community. Thus, the city has requested the ability to construct the project as part of its CDBG-DR housing rehabilitation and reconstruction efforts in the community.
The city is seeking $58.2 million to construct this system from FEMA's Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (HMGP), which requires a 25-percent, local match or $14.55 million that may potentially be sourced from the city's CDBG-DR grant. The community provides year-round residency to 4,300 people and consists of 2,400 homes, nearly all of which were damaged during Hurricane Sandy. The city and community, with State and Federal partners, has worked to rehabilitate homes and reconstruct the community. Federal investments in housing rehabilitation total approximately $450 million, including National Flood Insurance Program policy payments, SBA loans, FEMA Individual Assistance grants, the city's Rapid Repair grants, and CDBG-DR grants through the city's NYC Build it Back Program. The NYC Build it Back Program alone is projected to provide $200 million in housing rehabilitation assistance to households in the area, including $80 million in assistance to approximately 400 low- or moderate-income households. Without a provision to allow this flood mitigation improvement, Federal investments as well as numerous private and public interests would be exposed to flooding during major flood events and if sea levels rise. A Benefit-Cost Analysis conducted by the city identified a reduction in expected annual flood damages to the community of between 50 percent and 98 percent as a result of this project. In addition, according to the city, the protection that this project will provide has the potential to lower flood insurance premiums for structures in the neighborhood in the event of the revision of FEMA's area Flood Insurance Study (FIS) and the effective Base Flood Elevation.
Therefore, for the city's Breezy Point Flood Mitigation System only, the Department is waiving 24 CFR 570.202(a)(1) to the extent necessary to allow for the city's Breezy Point Flood Mitigation System to be classified as an eligible housing rehabilitation and preservation activity. Further, the Department is waiving section 105(a)4 of the HCD Act to the extent necessary to allow for the new construction associated with this activity that would otherwise be prohibited.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for the disaster recovery grants under this notice is 4.269.
A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) with respect to the environment has been made in accordance with HUD regulations at 24 CFR part 50, which implement section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). The FONSI is available for public inspection between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m., weekdays, in the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel,
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Comments Due Date: September 24, 2015.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
The Section 3 Summary Report (Form HUD 60002) is used by recipients of HUD financial assistance (
The Section 3 Complaint Register (Form HUD 958) is used by individuals and business owners that meet the definition of a Section 3 resident or businesses concern set forth at 24 CFR 135.5, or their representatives, to file complaints alleging noncompliance with the regulatory requirements of Section 3 against recipients of covered HUD financial assistance or their contractors. Information collected on this form is used to inform the Department about recipients that potentially are not complying with 24 CFR 135, and to initiate subsequent complaint investigations and compliance reviews.
Respondents:
A. The Section 3 Summary Report—Form HUD 60002: Staff at public housing agencies, municipalities and HUD multi-family property owners.
B. The Complaint Register Form HUD 958: Low-income residents and businesses
The information will be used by the Department to monitor program recipients' compliance with requirements of Section 3. HUD headquarters will use the information to assess the results of the Department's efforts to meet the regulatory objectives; make compliance determinations; influence enforcement actions; and formulate policy decisions.
The Section 3 Complaint Register (Form HUD 958) is used by individuals and business owners that meet the definition of a Section 3 resident or businesses concern set forth at 24 CFR 135.5, or their representatives, to file complaints alleging noncompliance with the regulatory requirements of Section 3 against recipients of covered HUD financial assistance or their contractors. Information collected on this form is used to inform the Department about recipients that potentially are not complying with 24 CFR 135, and to initiate subsequent complaint investigations and compliance reviews.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Bureau of Indian Education (BIE) is seeking comments on the renewal of Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the collection of information for the Application for Admission to Haskell Indian Nations University (Haskell) and to
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 24, 2015.
You may submit comments on the information collection to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior at the Office of Management and Budget, by facsimile to (202) 395-5806 or you may send an email to:
Ms. Jacquelyn Cheek, phone: (202) 208-6983. You may review the information collection request online at
The BIE is requesting renewal of OMB approval for the admission forms for Haskell and SIPI. These admission forms are used in determining program eligibility of American Indian and Alaska Native students for educational services. These forms are utilized pursuant to the Blood Quantum Act, Public Law 99-228; the Synder Act, chapter 115, Public Law 67-85; and, the Indian Appropriations of the 48th Congress, chapter 180, page 91, For Support of Schools, July 4, 1884.
On April 23, 2015, the BIA published a notice announcing the renewal of this information collection and provided a 60-day comment period in the
The BIE requests your comments on this collection concerning: (a) The necessity of this information collection for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (hours and cost) of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Ways we could enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) Ways we could minimize the burden of the collection of the information on the respondents.
Please note that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and an individual need not respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid OMB Control Number.
It is our policy to make all comments available to the public for review at the location listed in the
Office of Natural Resources Revenue (ONRR), Interior.
Notice of extension.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), ONRR is inviting comments on a collection of information requests that we will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. This Information Collection Request (ICR) covers the paperwork requirements under the Chief Financial Officers Act of 1990 (CFO).
Submit written comments on or before October 26, 2015.
You may submit comments on this ICR to ONRR by using one of the following three methods (please reference “ICR 1012-0001” in your comments):
1. Electronically go to
2. Mail comments to Mr. Luis Aguilar, Regulatory Specialist, ONRR, P.O. Box 25165, MS 61030A, Denver, Colorado 80225-0165.
3. Hand-carry or mail comments, using an overnight courier service, to ONRR. Our courier address is Building 85, Room A-614, Denver Federal Center, West 6th Ave. and Kipling St., Denver, Colorado 80225.
For questions on technical issues, contact Mr. Hans Meingast, Financial Management, MRM, ONRR, telephone (303) 231-3382 or email at
The Secretary of the United States Department of the Interior is responsible
We have posted those laws pertaining to mineral leases on Federal and Indian lands and the OCS at
Minerals produced from Federal and Indian leases vary greatly in the nature of occurrence, production, and processing methods. When a company or an individual enters into a lease to explore, develop, produce, and dispose of minerals from Federal or Indian lands, that company or individual agrees to pay the lessor a share in an amount or value of production from the leased lands. The regulations require the lessee to report various kinds of information to the lessor relative to the disposition of the leased minerals. Such information is generally available within the records of the lessee or others involved in developing, transporting, processing, purchasing, or selling such minerals. The information we collect includes data necessary to ensure that lessees accurately value production and appropriately pay royalties.
Companies submit financial information monthly to ONRR on Forms ONRR-2014, Report of Sales and Royalty Remittance (OMB Control Number 1012-0004), and ONRR-4430, Solid Minerals Production and Royalty Report (OMB Control Number 1012-0010).
Every year, under the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), the Department's Office of Inspector General, or its agent (agent), audits the Department's financial statements. The Department's goal is to receive an unqualified opinion. Accounts receivable confirmations are a common practice in the audit business. Due to continuously increasing scrutiny on financial audits, third-party confirmation of the validity of ONRR's financial records is necessary.
As part of the CFO audit, the agent selects a sample of accounts receivable items and provides the sample items to ONRR. ONRR then identifies the company names and addresses for the sample items selected, and creates accounts receivable confirmation letters. In order to meet the CFO requirements, the letters must be on ONRR letterhead; and the Deputy Director for ONRR, or his or her designee, must sign the letters. The letter requests third-party confirmation responses by a specified date on whether or not ONRR's accounts receivable records agree with royalty payor records for the following items: Customer identification; royalty/invoice number; payor-assigned document number; date of ONRR receipt; original amount the payor reported; and remaining balance due ONRR. The agent mails the letters to the payors, instructing them to respond directly to the agent to confirm the accuracy and validity of selected royalty receivable items and amounts. Verifying the amounts reported and the balances due requires research and analysis by payors.
We are requesting OMB's approval to continue to collect this information. Not collecting this information would limit the Secretary's ability to discharge the duties of the office. ONRR protects proprietary information that payors submit, and there are no questions of a sensitive nature included in this information collection.
Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires each agency to “* * * provide 60-day notice in the
The PRA also requires agencies to estimate the total annual reporting “non-hour cost” burden to respondents or recordkeepers resulting from the collection of information. If you have costs to generate, maintain, and disclose this information, you should comment and provide your total capital and startup cost components or annual operation, maintenance, and purchase of service components. You should describe the methods you use to estimate major cost factors, including system and technology acquisition, expected useful life of capital equipment, discount rate(s), and the period over which you incur costs. Capital and startup costs include, among other items, computers and software you purchase to prepare for collecting information; monitoring, sampling, and testing equipment; and record storage facilities. Generally, your estimates should not include equipment or services purchased: (i) Before October 1, 1995; (ii) to comply with requirements not associated with the information collection; (iii) for reasons other than to provide information or keep records for the Government; or (iv) as part of customary and usual business or private practices.
We will summarize written responses to this notice and address them in our ICR submission for OMB approval, including appropriate adjustments to the estimated burden. We will provide a copy of the ICR to you without charge upon request. We also will post the ICR on our Web site at
Office of Natural Resources Revenue, Interior.
Notice of renewal of an existing Information Collection.
To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Office of Natural Resources Revenue (ONRR) is notifying the public that we have submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) an information collection request (ICR) to renew approval of the paperwork requirements in the regulations under 30 CFR parts 1227, 1228, and 1229. This notice also provides the public with a second opportunity to comment on the paperwork burden of these regulatory requirements.
OMB has up to 60 days to approve or disapprove this information collection request but may respond after 30 days; therefore, you should submit your public comments to OMB by September 24, 2015 for the assurance of consideration.
You may submit your written comments directly to the Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior (OMB Control Number 1012-0003), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, by email to
For questions on technical issues, contact Peter Hanley, State and Tribal Support, ONRR, at (303) 231-3721, or via email to
The Secretary of the U.S. Department of the Interior is responsible for mineral resource development on Federal and Indian lands and the Outer Continental Shelf (OCS). Under the Mineral Leasing Act of 1920, Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act of 1953 (OCS Lands Act), Geothermal Steam Act of 1970, and Indian Mineral Development Act of 1982, the Secretary is required to manage mineral resource production on Federal and Indian lands and the OCS, collect the royalties and other mineral revenues due, and distribute the funds collected in accordance with applicable laws. The Secretary also has a trust responsibility to manage Indian lands and to seek advice and information from Indian beneficiaries. ONRR performs the minerals revenue management functions for the Secretary and assists the Secretary in carrying out the Department's trust responsibility for Indian lands. Public laws pertaining to mineral leases on Federal and Indian lands and the OCS are available at
When a company or an individual enters into a lease to explore, develop, produce, and dispose of minerals from Federal or Indian lands, that company or individual agrees to pay the lessor a share (royalty) of the value received from production on leased lands. The lessee, or the designee, must report various kinds of information to the lessor relative to the disposition of the leased minerals. Such information is generally available within the records of the lessee or others involved in developing, transporting, processing, purchasing, or selling such minerals. The information that ONRR collects includes data necessary to ensure that the lessee accurately values and appropriately pays all royalties and other mineral revenues due.
The Federal Oil and Gas Royalty Management Act of 1982 (FOGRMA), which the Federal Oil and Gas Royalty Simplification and Fairness Act of 1996 amended, authorizes the Secretary to develop delegated and cooperative agreements with States (30 U.S.C. 1735, sect. 205) and Indian Tribes (30 U.S.C. 1732, sect. 202) to conduct certain inspections, audits, investigations, or limited enforcement activities for oil and gas leases within their respective boundaries. The States and Indian Tribes are working partners and are an integral part of the overall onshore and offshore compliance effort. The Appropriations Act of 1992 also authorizes the States and Tribes to perform the same functions for coal and other solid mineral leases.
This collection of information is necessary in order to verify that States and Tribes are able to effectively conduct audits and related investigations of Federal and Indian oil, gas, coal, any other solid minerals, and geothermal royalty revenues from Federal and Tribal leased lands. Relevant parts of the regulations include 30 CFR parts 1227, 1228, and 1229, as described below:
Title 30 CFR part 1227—Delegation to States provides procedures to delegate certain Federal minerals revenue management functions to States for Federal oil and gas leases. This regulation also provides only audit and investigation functions to States for Federal geothermal and solid mineral leases, and leases subject to section 8(g) of the OCS Lands Act, within their State boundaries. In order for ONRR to consider a State for such delegation, the State must submit a written proposal to, and receive approval from, the ONRR Director. States also must provide periodic accounting documentation to ONRR, including an annual work plan and quarterly reimbursement vouchers.
Title 30 CFR part 1228—Cooperative Activities with States and Indian Tribes, provides procedures for Indian Tribes to carry out audits and related investigations of their respective leased lands. The Tribe must submit a written proposal to ONRR in order to enter into a cooperative agreement. The proposal must outline the activities that the Tribe will undertake and must present evidence that the Tribe can meet the Secretary's standards in order for the Tribe to conduct the activities. The Tribe also must submit an annual work plan and budget, as well as quarterly reimbursement vouchers.
Title 30 CFR part 1229—Delegation to States provides procedures for States to carry out audits and related investigations of leased Indian lands within their respective State boundaries by permission of the respective Indian Tribal councils or individual Indian mineral owners. The State must receive the Secretary's delegation of authority and submit annual audit work plans
ONRR protects proprietary information that the States and Tribes submit under this collection. We do not collect items of a sensitive nature. States and Tribes must respond in order to obtain the benefit of entering into a cooperative agreement with the Secretary.
We have not included in our estimates certain usual and customary requirements that States and Tribes perform in the normal course of business. This 30-day
Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires each agency to “* * * provide 60-day notice in the
To comply with the public consultation process, we published a notice in the
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS) at EDIS,
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at USITC.
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to section 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Silicon Genesis Corp. on August 19, 2015. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain silicon-on-insulator wafers. The complaint names as a respondent S.O.I.TEC Silicon on Insulator Technologies, S.A. of France. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a permanent exclusion order, cease and desist orders, and a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or section 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3083”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of sections 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence, Judicial Conference of the United States.
Revised Notice of Proposed Amendments and Open Hearings.
The Advisory Committees on the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure and the Federal Rules of Evidence have proposed amendments to the following rules:
Bankruptcy Rules 1001 and 1006
Evidence Rules 803 and 902
The text of the proposed rules amendments and the accompanying Committee Notes can be found at the United States Federal Courts' Web site at:
All written comments and suggestions with respect to the proposed amendments may be submitted on or after the opening of the period for public comment on August 14, 2015, but no later than February 16, 2016. Written comments must be submitted electronically, following the instructions provided at the Web site address provided above. In accordance with established procedures, all comments submitted are available for public inspection.
Public hearings are scheduled to be held on these proposed amendments as follows:
• Bankruptcy Rule 1001 and 1006 in Washington, DC on January 22, 2016, and in Pasadena, CA, on January 29, 2016;
• Rules of Evidence 803 and 902 in Phoenix, AZ, on January 6, 2016, and in Washington, DC, on February 12, 2016.
Those wishing to testify should contact the Secretary at the address below in writing at least 30 days before the hearing.
Rebecca A. Womeldorf, Secretary, Committee on Rules of Practice and Procedure of the Judicial Conference of the United States, Thurgood Marshall Federal Judiciary Building, One Columbus Circle NE., Suite 7-240, Washington, DC 20544, Telephone (202) 502-1820.
Notice is hereby given that, on July 27, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and AC
On March 20, 2015, AC
Notice is hereby given that, on July 20, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Scholastic, New York, NY; University of Glasgow, Glasgow, Scotland, UNITED KINGDOM; Courseload, Indianapolis, IN; and Bridgepoint Education, San Diego, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and IMS Global intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On April 7, 2000, IMS Global filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on May 7, 2015. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on August 5, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Endo Kogyo Co., Ltd., Niigata, JAPAN; Digital Arts Sales Corporation, Baguio City, PHILIPPINES; OES, Inc., London, Ontario, CANADA; CTH Systems Inc., Calgary, Alberta, CANADA; and Adullam Tech., Seongnam-shi, REPUBLIC OF KOREA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and ODVA intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On June 21, 1995, ODVA filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on April 14, 2015. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on August 7, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Broadcom Corporation, Irvine, CA; and Apical Ltd., London, UNITED KINGDOM, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and HSA Foundation intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On August 31, 2012, HSA Foundation filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on May 18, 2015. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on August 3, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the
Also, Samsung Electronics, Seoul, REPUBLIC OF KOREA; and LSI Logic Corp., Milpitas, CA, have withdrawn as parties to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and DPC intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On November 15, 1999, DPC filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on November 7, 2013. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on July 24, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Eaton, Marshall, MI has withdrawn as a party to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Clean Diesel VI intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On July 16, 2012, Clean Diesel VI filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
Notice is hereby given that, on July 15, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
Also, Etzard Stotle (individual member), Arlesheim, SWITZERLAND, has withdrawn as a party to this venture.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and Pistoia Alliance, Inc. intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On May 28, 2009, Pistoia Alliance, Inc. filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on April 29, 2015. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on August 5, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. § 4301
Also, Volvo Aero Corporation, Trollhättan, SWEDEN; and Spirit Aerosystems, Wichita, KS, have withdrawn as parties to this venture. Furthermore, the period of performance has been extended to May 16, 2016.
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and NASGRO intends to file additional written
On October 3, 2001, NASGRO filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on October 3, 2011. A notice was published in the
Notice is hereby given that, on July 9, 2015, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
On September 14, 2004, IAPMO filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on March 11, 2013. A notice was published in the
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Marine Terminal Operations and Longshoring Standards” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before September 24, 2015.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-OSHA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Marine Terminal Operations Standard and Longshoring Standard information collection requirements codified, respectively, in regulations 29 CFR parts 1917 and 1918. The Standards contain requirements related to testing, certification, and marking of specific types of cargo lifting appliances and associated cargo handling gear and other cargo handling equipment such as conveyors and industrial trucks. Occupational Safety and Health Act sections 2(b)(9), (6), and 8(c) authorize this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on August 31, 2015. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Voluntary Fiduciary Correction Program,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before September 24, 2015.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-EBSA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Voluntary Fiduciary Correction Program (VFCP) information collection. The VFCP provides a method for voluntary correction of specified types of transactions that violate (or are suspected of violating) Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1001
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on August 31, 2015. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other
Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget.
Notice of availability of the OMB Sequestration Update Report to the President and Congress for FY 2016.
OMB is issuing the
SUBMISSION AND AVAILABILITY OF REPORTS.—Each report required by this section shall be submitted, in the case of CBO, to the House of Representatives, the Senate and OMB and, in the case of OMB, to the House of Representatives, the Senate, and the President on the day it is issued. On the following day a notice of the report shall be printed in the
The OMB Sequestration Reports to the President and Congress is available on-line on the OMB home page at:
Thomas Tobasko, 6202 New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503, Email address:
Millennium Challenge Corporation.
Notice.
Section 608(a) of the Millennium Challenge Act of 2003 requires the Millennium Challenge Corporation to publish a report that identifies countries that are “candidate countries” for Millennium Challenge Account assistance during FY 2016. The report is set forth in full below.
This report to Congress is provided in accordance with section 608(a) of the Millennium Challenge Act of 2003, as amended, 22 U.S.C. 7701, 7707(a) (the Act).
The Act authorizes the provision of assistance for global development through the Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) for countries that enter into a Millennium Challenge Compact with the United States to support policies and programs that advance the progress of such countries to achieve lasting economic growth and poverty reduction. The Act requires MCC to take a number of steps in selecting countries with which MCC will seek to enter into a compact, including determining the countries that will be eligible countries for fiscal year (FY) 2016 based on (a) a country's demonstrated commitment to (i) just and democratic governance, (ii) economic freedom, and (iii) investments in its people; and (b) the opportunity to reduce poverty and generate economic growth in the country, and (c) the availability of funds to MCC. These steps include the submission of reports to the congressional committees specified in the Act and the publication of notices in the
The countries that are “candidate countries” for FY 2016 based on their per capita income levels and their eligibility to receive assistance under U.S. law and countries that would be candidate countries but for specified legal prohibitions on assistance (section 608(a) of the Act);
The criteria and methodology that the MCC Board of Directors (Board) will use to measure and evaluate the relative policy performance of the “candidate countries” consistent with the requirements of subsections (a) and (b) of section 607 of the Act in order to determine “eligible countries” from among the “candidate countries” (section 608(b) of the Act); and
The list of countries determined by the Board to be “eligible countries” for FY 2016, identification of such countries with which the Board will seek to enter into compacts, and a justification for such eligibility
This report is the first of three required reports listed above.
The Act requires the identification of all countries that are candidate countries for FY 2016 and the identification of all countries that would be candidate countries but for specified legal prohibitions on assistance. Under the terms of the Act, sections 606(a) and (b) set forth the two income tests countries must satisfy to be candidate countries.
Under the redefined categories, a country will be a candidate country for FY 2016 if it:
Meets one of the following tests:
Has a per capita income that is not greater than the World Bank's lower middle income country threshold for such fiscal year ($4,125 gross national income per capita for FY 2016); and is among the 75 lowest per capita income countries, as identified by the World Bank; or
Has a per capita income that is not greater than the World Bank's lower middle income country threshold for such fiscal year ($4,125 gross national income per capita for FY 2016); but is
And
Is not ineligible to receive U.S. economic assistance under part I of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, as amended (the Foreign Assistance Act), by reason of the application of the Foreign Assistance Act or any other provision of law.
Due to the provisions requiring countries to retain their former income classification for three fiscal years, changes from the low income to lower middle income categories or vice versa for FY 2016 will go into effect for FY 2019. Countries transitioning to the upper middle income category do not retain their former income classification.
Pursuant to section 606(c) of the Act, the Board identified the following countries as candidate countries under the Act for FY 2016. In so doing, the Board referred to the prohibitions on assistance to countries for FY 2015 under the FY 2015 SFOAA.
Countries that would be considered candidate countries for FY 2016, but are ineligible to receive United States economic assistance under part I of the Foreign Assistance Act by reason of the application of any provision of the Foreign Assistance Act or any other
Bolivia is subject to foreign assistance restrictions pursuant to section 706(3) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Year 2003 (Pub. L. 107-228), regarding adherence to obligations under international counternarcotics agreements and other counternarcotics measures.
Burma is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions pursuant to section 570 of the FY 1997 Foreign Operations, Export Financing, and Related Programs Appropriations Act (Pub. L. 104-208) which prohibits assistance to the government of Burma until it makes measurable and substantial progress in improving human rights practices and implementing democratic governance.
Eritrea is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions due to its status as a Tier III country under the Trafficking Victims Protection Act of 2000 (22 U.S.C. 7101
North Korea is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions pursuant to section 7007 of the FY 2015 SFOAA, which prohibits direct assistance to the government of North Korea.
South Sudan is subject to foreign assistance restrictions pursuant to section 7042(j)(2) of the FY 2015 SFOAA, which prohibits, with limited exceptions, assistance to the central government of South Sudan until the Secretary of State certifies and reports to Congress that such government is taking steps to provide access for humanitarian organizations; end the use of child soldiers; support a cessation of hostilities agreement; protect freedoms of expression, association, and assembly; reduce corruption related to the extraction and sale of oil and gas; and establish democratic institutions, including accountable military and police forces under civilian authority.
Sudan is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions pursuant to section 7042(k) of the FY 2015 SFOAA, which prohibits (with limited exceptions) assistance to the government of Sudan.
Syria is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions pursuant to section 7007 of the FY 2015 SFOAA, which prohibits direct assistance to the government of Syria.
Zimbabwe is subject to foreign assistance restrictions, including restrictions pursuant to section 7042(m)(2) of the FY 2015 SFOAA, which prohibits (with limited exceptions) assistance for the central government of Zimbabwe unless the Secretary of State certifies and reports to Congress that the rule of law has been restored, including respect for ownership and title to property, and freedoms of expression, association, and assembly.
Countries identified above as candidate countries, as well as countries that would be considered candidate countries but for the applicability of legal provisions that prohibit U.S. economic assistance, may be the subject of future statutory restrictions or determinations, or changed country circumstances, that affect their legal eligibility for assistance under part I of the Foreign Assistance Act by reason of application of the Foreign Assistance Act or any other provision of law for FY 2016.
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide agencies with mandatory instructions for what to do with records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The instructions authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by September 24, 2015. Once NARA appraises the records, we will send you a copy of the schedule you requested. We usually prepare appraisal memoranda that contain additional information concerning the records covered by a proposed schedule. You may also request these. If you do, we will also provide them once we have completed the appraisal. You have 30 days after we send you these requested documents in which to submit comments.
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Management Services (ACNR) using one of the following means:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Management Services (ACNR); National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing retention periods for records and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize disposal of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media-neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media-neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it has created or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after
No agencies may destroy Federal records without the approval of the Archivist of the United States. The Archivist grants this approval only after thorough consideration of the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions requesting disposition authority, this notice states that the schedule has agency-wide applicability (in the case of schedules that cover records that may be accumulated throughout an agency) or lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records, provides the control number assigned to each schedule, the total number of schedule items, and the number of temporary items (the records proposed for destruction), and includes a brief description of the temporary records. The records schedule itself contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their disposition. If NARA staff has prepared an appraisal memorandum for the schedule, it also includes information about the records. You may request additional information about the disposition process at the addresses above.
1. Department of the Army, Agency-wide (DAA-AU-2014-0029, 5 items, 5 temporary items). Records relating to human resources management including financial documents, photographs, and general personnel action files.
2. Department of Defense, Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DAA-0374-2014-0035, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Mechanical engineering drawings of tools and tool design.
3. Department of Defense, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (DAA-0537-2014-0002, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Records include preliminary oversight investigative files and quarterly reports.
4. Department of Defense, Office of the Secretary of Defense (DAA-0330-2014-0020, 6 items, 1 temporary item). Reference files of the Defense POW/MIA Accounting Agency. Proposed for permanent retention are case files, witness files, camp files, thematic subject files, and audiovisual records.
5. Department of Energy, Agency-wide (DAA-0434-2015-0005, 3 items, 3 temporary items). Records relating to processing security clearances and access authorizations.
6. Department of Justice, Criminal Division (DAA-0060-2015-0004, 5 items, 5 temporary items). Program records related to asset forfeiture and equitable sharing administration.
7. Department of Labor, Office of the Secretary and Deputy Secretary (DAA-0174-2014-0011, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Generic letters received in reaction to special issues or events. Also included are related working papers.
8. Department of the Treasury, Internal Revenue Service (DAA-0058-2015-0005, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Document transmittal form used in routine processing of taxpayer liability agreements.
9. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Division of Research, Markets, & Regulations (DAA-0587-2015-0002, 11 items, 8 temporary items). Records include rulemaking and publications development records, informal internal regulatory guidance, third-party publications and data, and background material. Proposed for permanent retention are public rulemaking dockets, interpretations of laws and regulations, and official research publications.
10. National Archives and Records Administration, Research Services (N2-84-15-1, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Non-record materials relating to records of Foreign Service Posts of the Department of State. These materials were accessioned to the National Archives but lack sufficient historical value to warrant continued preservation.
The National Science Board's
Monday, August 31, 2015 at 2-3 p.m. EDT.
Committee chair's remarks, conflict of interest policy and application to committee, discussion of nominations process for the NSB class of 2016-2022, timeline and date to open nominations.
Closed.
This meeting will be held by teleconference originating at the National Science Board Office, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22230.
Please refer to the National Science Board Web site (
9:30 a.m., Wednesday, September 9, 2015.
NTSB Conference Center, 429 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20594.
The one item is open to the public.
The press and public may enter the NTSB Conference Center one hour prior to the meeting for set up and seating.
Individuals requesting specific accommodations should contact Rochelle Hall at (202) 314-6305 or by email at
The public may view the meeting via a live or archived webcast by accessing a link under “News & Events” on the NTSB home page at
Schedule updates, including weather-related cancellations, are also available at
Candi Bing at (202) 314-6403 or by email at
For Media Information Contact: Peter Knudson at (202) 314-6100 or by email at
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Renewal of existing information collection; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) invites public comment on the renewal of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for an existing collection of information. The information collection is titled, “10 CFR part 40, Domestic Licensing of Source Material” (3150-0020). The NRC regulations that are the subject of this information collection establish procedures and criteria for the issuance of licenses to receive title to, receive, possess, use, transfer, or deliver source material. Information concerning the annual estimated burdens associated with the recordkeeping, reporting, and third party notification requirements imposed by these regulations is provided in the Supporting Statement for 10 CFR part 40 Domestic Licensing of Source Material.
Submit comments by October 26, 2015. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
•
•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Tremaine Donnell, Office of Information Services, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6258; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0129 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
• NRC's Clearance Officer: A copy of the collection of information and related instructions may be obtained without charge by contacting the NRC's Clearance Officer, Tremaine Donnell, Office of Information Services, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6258; email:
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information in comment submissions that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. All comment submissions are posted at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the NRC is requesting public comment on its intention to request the OMB's approval for the information collection summarized below.
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The NRC is seeking comments that address the following questions:
1. Is the proposed collection of information necessary for the NRC to properly perform its functions? Does the information have practical utility?
2. Is the estimate of the burden of the information collection accurate?
3. Is there a way to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected?
4. How can the burden of the information collection on respondents be minimized, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology?
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Standard review plan-draft section revision; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is soliciting public comment on the following sections in Chapter 3, “Design of Structures, Components, Equipment, and Systems Reactor Coolant System and Connected Systems,” and Chapter 5, “Reactor Coolant System and Connected Systems,” of NUREG-0800, “Standard Review Plan for the Review of Safety Analysis Reports for Nuclear Power Plants: LWR Edition,” Section 3.2.1, “Seismic Classification,” Section 3.2.2, “System Quality Group Classification,” Section 3.6.2, “Determination of Rupture Locations and Dynamic Effects Associated with the Postulated Rupture of Piping,” Section 3.9.1, “Special Topics for Mechanical Components,” Section 3.10, “Seismic and Dynamic Qualification of Mechanical and Electrical Equipment,” Section 5.2.1.1, “Compliance with the Codes and Standards Rule,” Section 5.2.1.2, “Applicable Code Cases,” and Branch Technical Position (BTP) 3-4, “Applicable Code Cases.”
Comments must be filed no later than October 26, 2015.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
•
•
For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Mark Notich, telephone: 301-415-3053; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2015-0198 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by the following methods:
• Federal Rulemaking Web site: Go to
• NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS): You may obtain publicly-available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at
• NRC's PDR: You may examine and purchase copies of public documents at the NRC's PDR, Room O1-F21, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
Please include Docket ID NRC-2015-0198 in the subject line of your comment submission, in order to ensure that the NRC is able to make your comment submission available to the public in this docket.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
The NRC seeks public comment on the proposed draft revisions of Standard Review Plan (SRP) Sections 3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.6.2, 3.9.1, 3.10, 5.2.1.1, 5.2.1.2, and BTP 3-4. These sections have been developed to assist NRC staff's review the design of structures, components, equipment, and systems, as well as assess compliance with codes, standards, and code cases for the reactor coolant system and connected systems under parts 50 and 52 of Title 10 of the
Following NRC staff's evaluation of submitted comments, the NRC intends to finalize the proposed revisions of SRP Sections 3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.6.2, 3.9.1, 3.10, 5.2.1.1, 5.2.1.2, and BTP 3-4 in ADAMS and post them on the NRC's public Web site at
The ADAMS accession numbers for the current revisions, proposed draft revisions, and redline strikeouts comparing current revisions and the proposed revisions of individual sections are available in ADAMS under the following accession numbers:
Issuance of these draft SRP sections does not constitute backfitting as defined in 10 CFR 50.109, nor is it inconsistent with any of the issue finality provisions in 10 CFR part 52. These draft SRP sections do not contain any new requirements for COL applicants or holders under 10 CFR part 52, or for licensees of existing operating units licensed under 10 CFR part 50. Rather, it contains additional draft guidance and clarification on staff review of Preliminary Amendment Requests.
The NRC staff does not intend to impose or apply the positions described in the draft SRP to existing licenses and regulatory approvals. Hence, the issuance of a final SRP—even if considered guidance within the purview of the issue finality provisions in 10 CFR part 52—would not need to be evaluated as if it were a backfit or as being inconsistent with issue finality provisions. If, in the future, the NRC staff seeks to impose a position in the SRP on holders of already issued licenses in a manner that does not provide issue finality as described in the applicable issue finality provision, then the staff must make the showing as set forth in the Backfit Rule or address the criteria for avoiding issue finality as described in the applicable issue finality provision.
The NRC staff does not, at this time, intend to impose the positions represented in the draft SRP sections in a manner that is inconsistent with any issue finality provisions. If, in the future, the staff seeks to impose a position in the draft SRP in a manner that does not provide issue finality as described in the applicable issue finality provision, then the staff must address the criteria for avoiding issue finality as described in the applicable issue finality provision.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to waive SQF Port
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to offer NOM Participants that transition from OTTO Ports to SQF Ports
The Exchange seeks to incentivize NOM Market Makers to transition from OTTO to SQF Ports by providing a waiver of the SQF Port Fee in the month in which such transition occurs.
NOM Market Makers utilize OTTO and SQF ports for their market making business, which require a greater throughput as compared to the other ports. The Exchange believes that by offering this SQF Port Fee waiver a greater number of NOM Market Makers will transition to SQF Ports, which offers a more robust protocol.
NASDAQ believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange's proposal to incentivize NOM Participants to transition from OTTO Ports to SQF Ports by offering a waiver of the SQF Port Fee is reasonable because the Exchange believes that SQF Ports provides NOM Market Makers greater benefits in performing their market making functions by offering more robust protocols. Also, NOM Participants will benefit from the ability to make this transition without incurring SQF and OTTO Port fees in a single month; they will only incur OTTO Port Fees, provided the proper notice is provided to the Exchange.
The Exchange's proposal to incentivize NOM Participants to transition from OTTO Ports to SQF Ports by offering a waiver of the SQF Port Fee is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange is offering all NOM Market Makers the opportunity to transition from OTTO Ports to SQF Ports without incurring an SQF Port Fee, provided the proper written notification is provided to the Exchange. NOM Market Makers are valuable market participants that provide liquidity in the marketplace and incur costs unlike other market participants because NOM Market Makers add value through continuous quoting
The proposed rule change will not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Offering NOM Market Makers the opportunity to transition from OTTO Ports to SQF Ports, at no additional cost, does not impose any undue burden on intra-market competition because NOM Market Makers have obligations
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which many sophisticated and knowledgeable market participants can readily and do send order flow to competing exchanges if they deem fee levels or rebate incentives at a particular exchange to be excessive or inadequate. These market forces ensure that the Exchange's fees and rebates remain competitive with the fee structures at other trading platforms.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a Closed Meeting on Thursday, August 27, 2015 at 2 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the Closed Meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (5), (7), (9)(ii) and (10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the Closed Meeting.
Commissioner Aguilar, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the Closed Meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the Closed Meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
Resolution of litigation claims;
Adjudicatory matters; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend section 907.00 of the listed company manual (the “manual”) [sic] to (i)
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
In December 2013, The [sic] Exchange adopted a rule to expand the suite of complimentary products and services that it offers to certain current and newly listed companies on the Exchange. Under this rule, certain companies currently listed on the Exchange (“Eligible Current Listings”) are offered a suite of complimentary products and services that varies depending on the number of shares of common stock or other equity security that a company has outstanding. Similarly, the Exchange presently offers a suite of complimentary products and services to (i) any U.S. company that lists common stock on the Exchange for the first time and any non-U.S. company that lists an equity security on the Exchange under Section 102.01 or 103.00 of the Manual for the first time, regardless of whether such U.S. or non-U.S. company conducts an offering, and (ii) any U.S. or non-U.S. company emerging from a bankruptcy, spinoff (where a company lists new shares in the absence of a public offering), or carve-out (where a company carves out a business line or division, which then conducts a separate initial public offering) (collectively, “Eligible New Listings”).
Based on the Exchange's experience offering complimentary products and services to Eligible Current Listings and Eligible New Listings, the Exchange now proposes to amend Section 907.00 of the Manual to (i) amend the suite of complimentary products and services that are offered to Eligible Current Listings and Eligible New Listings, and (ii) update the value of complimentary products and services offered to such companies. The Exchange will further amend Section 907.00 of the Manual to specify that certain companies that transfer their listing of common stock or equity securities to the Exchange from another national securities exchange (“Eligible Transfer Companies”) will be eligible to receive an enhanced package of complimentary products and services that is comparable to the package offered to Eligible New Listings. Currently, companies that transfer their listing to the Exchange are offered complimentary products and services on the same terms as Eligible Current Listings.
The Exchange proposes to update the approximate commercial values of the products and services it presently offers to Eligible Current Listings and Eligible New Listings. Based on conversations with the vendors, the Exchange believes that the updated values would more accurately reflect the cost associated with providing these products and services. Accordingly, the approximate commercial value of market surveillance products and services would change from $45,000 to $55,000 per annum, the approximate commercial value of corporate governance tools would change from $20,000 to $50,000 per annum, the approximate commercial value of web-hosting products and services would change from a range of $12,000-16,000 to $16,000 per annum, the approximate commercial value of market analytics products and services would change from $20,000 to $30,000 per annum and the approximate commercial value of news distribution products and services would change from $10,000 to $20,000 per annum.
The Exchange also proposes to add whistleblower hotline services (with a commercial value of approximately $4,000 annually) to the list of services that it offers to all listed companies for a period of 24 months. The Exchange believes that having a whistleblower hotline service is an essential component of good corporate governance and providing this service to all listed companies would assist them in complying with, among other things, the requirements of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, Foreign Corrupt Practices Act and UK Bribery Act.
The Exchange also proposes to include web-casting services (with a commercial value of approximately $6,500 annually) as a separate category of complimentary products and services offered to certain issuers.
The Exchange further proposes to amend Section 907.00 of the Manual to remove data room services and virtual investor relation tools as a complimentary product offered to all listed companies. Since such products were first offered by the Exchange, very few listed companies have requested to receive them. Based on this extremely low demand, therefore, the Exchange believes it is appropriate to discontinue these offerings. The Exchange proposes to replace these discontinued products by offering a whistleblower hotline for a period of 24 calendar months which, for the reasons stated above, it believes will be more useful to listed companies. In addition, all listed companies will continue to be eligible for some level of complimentary products and services via the Exchange's Market Access Center.
Currently, all listed issuers receive some complimentary products and services through NYSE Market Access Center. The Exchange also offers Eligible Current Listings a suite of products and services that varies based on the number of shares such companies have issued and outstanding. Eligible Current Listings that have more than 270 million shares issued and outstanding (each a “Tier One Eligible Current Listing”) are presently offered (i) a choice of market surveillance, corporate governance tools and advisory services or market analytics products and services, and (ii) web-hosting products and services, on a complimentary basis. Eligible Current Listings that have between 160 million and 269.9 million shares issued and outstanding (each a “Tier Two Eligible Current Listing”) are presently offered a
The Exchange currently offers Eligible New Listings different products and services based on such companies' global market value. Eligible New Listings with a global market value of $400 million or more (each a “Tier A Eligible New Listing”) are presently offered (i) market surveillance products and services for a period of 12 calendar months from the date of listing or (ii) a choice of market analytics products and services or corporate governance tools for a period of 24 calendar months from the date of listing. Eligible New Listings with a global market value of less than $400 million (each a “Tier B Eligible New Listing”) are presently offered web-hosting and news distribution products and services for a period of 24 months from the date of listing. The Exchange proposes to amend Section 907.00 to provide that, in addition to the currently offered market surveillance products and services, Tier A Eligible New Listings would be offered market analytics, web-hosting, web-casting, corporate governance tools, and news distribution products and services, in each case, for a period of 24 calendar months. Because the Exchange will offer each of these services to Tier A Eligible New Listings for a period of 24 months, it proposes to delete text from Section 907.00 that discusses providing certain services for only 12 months as well as options for continuing such services at the end of the initial 12 month period.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Section 907.00 to provide that, in addition to the currently offered web-hosting and news distribution products and services, Tier B Eligible New Listings would be offered web-casting, market analytics and corporate governance tools, in each case, for a period of 24 calendar months.
The Exchange believes that it is appropriate to expand the suite of complimentary products and services it offers to Tier A and Tier B Eligible New Listings because such companies are listing on the Exchange for the first time and frequently have greater needs with respect to developing their corporate governance and shareholder outreach capabilities. Further, the Nasdaq Stock Market (“Nasdaq”) offers comparable complimentary products and services to newly listed companies and the Exchange believes that the proposed changes would enable the Exchange to compete for new listings.
The Exchange faces competition in the market for listing services. As part of this competition, the Exchange seeks to entice Nasdaq-listed companies to transfer their listing to the Exchange. Similarly, Nasdaq seeks to entice Exchange-listed companies to transfer to Nasdaq. The Exchange believes that one way Nasdaq seeks to entice Exchange-listed companies to transfer to Nasdaq is to offer such companies a suite of complimentary products and services that they do not currently receive on the Exchange.
The specific tools and services offered by the products discussed herein will be developed by the Exchange or by third-party vendors. NYSE Governance Services
The Exchange has learned that companies listing on the Exchange for the first time often require a period of time after listing to complete the contracting and training process with vendors providing the complimentary products and services. Therefore, many companies are not able to begin using the suite of products offered to them immediately on the date of listing. To address this issue, the Exchange proposes to amend Section 907.00 to specify that if an Eligible New Listing or Eligible Transfer Company begins using a particular service within 30 days after the date of listing, the complimentary period begins on such date of first use. In all other instances, the complimentary period will begin on the listing date.
Lastly, the Exchange proposes to amend Section 907.00 to change the term “newly listed issuer” to “Eligible New Listing” and give such new term the definition it is given herein. Separately, because the Exchange proposes to offer an enhanced package of complimentary products and services to Eligible Transfer Companies (as opposed to the more limited package that transfer companies currently receive if they qualify as an Eligible Current Listing), the Exchange proposes to amend Section 907.00 to include a definition for such category of listed companies. Throughout the entirety of Section 907.00 of the Manual, the Exchange proposes to change the term “currently listed issuers” to “Eligible Current Listings.”
The Exchange also proposes to amend the first paragraph of Section 907.00 of the Manual to specify that it will offer certain complimentary products and services and access to discounted third-party products and services through the NYSE Market Access Center to both currently and newly listed issuers, whereas previously it stated such services were only offered to currently listed issuers.
The Exchange will implement the proposed rule upon approval. Any Eligible New Listing that listed on the Exchange prior to approval of the proposed rule will continue to receive services under the terms of the current rule. Therefore, for as long as any Eligible New Listing is receiving services under the terms of Section 907.00 of the Manual as currently in effect, the Exchange will maintain a link
With respect to Eligible Current Listings, such companies will be offered Web-casting and whistleblower services as described herein from the date of approval. Further, as discussed above, the Exchange proposes to discontinue offering complimentary corporate governance services to Eligible Current Listings due to a low demand for that product. Notwithstanding the approval of the proposed rule change, however, to the extent that the Exchange has already paid a third-party provider (prior to approval) for corporate governance services to an Eligible Current Listing, such complimentary service will continue until the payments run out. Once any pre-approval payments run out, such services will be discontinued. The Exchange expects all corporate governance services to Eligible Current Listings to be completely discontinued no later than early 2016.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to offer complimentary products and services to attract new listings, retain currently listed issuers, and respond to competitive pressures. The Exchange faces competition in the market for listing services and it competes, in part, by improving the quality of the services that it offers to listed companies. By offering products and services on a complimentary basis and ensuring that it is offering the services most valued by its listed issuers, the Exchange will improve the quality of the services that listed companies receive.
The Exchange believes it is appropriate to expand the suite of complimentary products and services offered to Tier A and Tier B Eligible New Listings and to offer such complimentary products and services to Tier A and Tier B Eligible Transfer Companies because such services will ease the transition of companies that are becoming public for the first time or transferring their listing to a new exchange. Further, Nasdaq offers a comparable suite of complimentary products and services to new listings and transfers and the proposed rule change will enable the Exchange to more effectively compete for listings.
The Exchange believes it is appropriate to remove corporate governance services from the list of complimentary products and services that it offers to Tier One and Tier Two Eligible Current Listings and to not offer such services to Eligible Transfer Companies because, as described herein, such services are less beneficial
The Exchange believes that its proposal to enhance the package of complimentary products and services that it offers to Eligible Transfer Companies from the suite such companies are currently offered as Eligible Current Listings is consistent with Sections 6(b)(8)
With respect to the addition of Web-casting as a product offered to each tier of Eligible Current Listings, Eligible New Listings and Eligible Transfer Companies, the Exchange believes that it is reasonable to offer this product because listed companies have indicated to the Exchange that such Web-casting products would be beneficial to their shareholder outreach initiatives.
Lastly, the Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to offer complimentary whistleblower services to all companies listed on the Exchange in lieu of data room services and virtual investor relation tools for which there was very little demand. Companies are not forced or required to utilize the complimentary products and services as a condition of listing. All companies will continue to receive some level of free services.
Allowing companies up to 30 days after their listing to start using the complimentary products and services is a reflection of the Exchange's experience that it can take companies a period of time to review and complete necessary contracts and training for services following their listing. Allowing this modest 30 day period, if the company needs it, helps ensure that the company will have the benefit of the full period permitted under the rule to actually use the services, thus giving companies the full intended benefit.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed change amends the suite of products and services offered to certain listed companies. The proposed rule change also allows for an enhanced package of complimentary products and services to be offered to Eligible Transfer Companies as opposed to the package they are currently offered as Eligible Current Listings. All similarly situated companies are eligible for the same package of services. Further, the Exchange notes that Nasdaq already offers a similar suite of complimentary products and services to companies initially listing or transferring their listing to its market. Therefore, the proposed changes to Section 907.00 of the Manual will increase competition by enabling the Exchange to more effectively compete for listings.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) Institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-NYSE-2015-36. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Chapter IV, Section 3 (Criteria for Underlying Securities) of the rules governing the BX Options Market (“BX Options”)
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3 to allow the listing of options overlying ETFs
This proposal is based on a recent immediately effective filing of Phlx that added exactly the same language as proposed herein, as well as that of other exchanges,
Rule 19b-4(e) provides that the listing and trading of a new derivative securities product by an SRO shall not be deemed a proposed rule change, pursuant to paragraph (c)(l) of Rule 19b-4
The surveillance agreement requirement (also known as the “requirement” or “regime”) was initially put into effect on Phlx, which is the oldest options exchange within the Group, for options on ETFs well over a decade ago but has proven to have anti-competitive effects that are detrimental to investors.
The Exchange allows for the listing and trading of options on ETFs. BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i) provides the listings standards for options on ETFs, which includes ETFs with non-U.S. component securities,
(i) Any non-U.S. component stocks of the index or portfolio on which the Fund Shares are based that are not subject to comprehensive surveillance agreements do not in the aggregate represent more than 50% of the weight of the index or portfolio;
(ii) stocks for which the primary market is in any one country that is not subject to a comprehensive surveillance agreement do not represent 20% or more of the weight of the index;
(iii) stocks for which the primary market is in any two countries that are not subject to comprehensive surveillance agreements do not represent 33% or more of the weight of the index.
The Exchange proposes to modify the surveillance agreement requirement for options on ETFs that are listed pursuant to generic listing standards for series of ETFs, based on international or global indexes—for which case a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required.
When the surveillance agreement requirement was instituted in 2001 on Phlx as discussed, ETFs were, comparatively speaking, in a developmental state.
The current surveillance requirement has, at times, resulted in the investing public having to forego the opportunity to hedge risk or engage in other listed options strategies in a competitive environment. ETFs may lack active options contracts that would be more likely to develop if multiple exchanges could compete to offer and promote them. For example, an investor in the iShares MSCI Indonesia ETF (EIDO) is not permitted to sell call options or purchase protective puts simply because the Exchange cannot obtain a surveillance agreement with Bursa Efek Indonesia. However, an investor in iShares MSCI Emerging Markets Fund (EEM) is afforded the right to engage in listed options trading to hedge risk or execute other beneficial options strategies. Both underlying exchange-traded funds, EIDO and EEM, are listed for trading in the U.S., subject to constant regulatory scrutiny, and permitted to be purchased and sold via registered broker/dealers, yet, options can now be offered only on EEM. The Exchange believes this disparate treatment between investors of foreign-based instruments, especially between those that buy and sell options contracts on ETFs, which currently require surveillance agreements, as opposed to those that buy and sell shares of the underlying ETFs, which currently do not have the same onerous surveillance agreement requirement that ETF options have,
The current surveillance agreement requirements, as well as all other requirements to list options on ETFs,
The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved generic listing standards pursuant to Rule 19b-4(e) of the Exchange Act
In addition, the Commission has previously approved proposals for the
Options on ETFs listed pursuant to these generic standards for international and global indexes would be traded, in all other respects, under the Exchange's existing trading rules and procedures that apply to options on ETFs and would be covered under the Exchange's surveillance program for options on ETFs.
Pursuant to proposed BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i), the Exchange may list and trade options on an ETF without a CSSA provided that the ETF is listed pursuant to generic listing standards for ETFs based on international or global indexes, in which case a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required. As noted, one such rule, which discusses things such as weighting, capitalization, trading volume, minimum number of components, and where components are listed, is NASDAQ Rule 5705(b)(3)(A)(ii) regarding ETFs (IFSs and PDRs).
The Exchange believes that this proposed listing standard for options on ETFs is reasonable for international and global indexes, and, when applied in conjunction with the other listing requirements, will result in options overlying ETFs that are sufficiently broad in scope and not readily susceptible to manipulation. The Exchange also believes that allowing the Exchange to list options overlying ETFs that are listed on equities exchanges pursuant to generic standards for series of ETFs based on international or global indexes under which a CSSA is not required, will result in options overlying ETFs that are adequately diversified in weighting for any single security or small group of securities to significantly reduce concerns that trading in options overlying ETFs based on international or global indexes could become a surrogate for trading in unregistered securities.
The Exchange believes that ETFs based on international and global indexes that have been listed pursuant to the generic standards are sufficiently defined so as to make options overlying such ETFs not susceptible instruments for manipulation. The Exchange believes that the threat of manipulation is, as discussed below, sufficiently mitigated for underlying ETFs that have been listed on equities exchanges pursuant to generic listing standards for series of ETFs based on international or global indexes under which a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required and for the overlying options; the Exchange does not see the need for a CSSA to be in place before listing and trading options on such ETFs. The Exchange notes that its proposal does not replace the need for a CSSA as provided in current BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i). The provisions of Section 3(i), including the need for a CSSA, remain materially unchanged and will continue to apply to options on ETFs that are not listed on an equities exchange pursuant to generic listing standards for series of
Finally, to account for proposed BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i) and make Section 3 easier to follow, the Exchange proposes technical changes to the formatting of this section of the rule. Thus, the Exchange proposes re-numbering BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i)i.-iii to BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i)i.(1)-(3), respectively. And, for consistency, the Exchange proposes re-numbering BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i)iv.-vi. to BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i)ii.-iv., respectively. This is merely re-numbering and there are no changes to the language of these parts of Section 3(i).
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposal would promote just and equitable principles of trade. When the surveillance agreement requirement was instituted as discussed in 2001 on Phlx, the oldest options exchange in the Group, ETFs were, comparatively speaking, in a developmental state.
The proposal would in general protect investors and the public interest. The Exchange believes that modifying the surveillance agreement requirement for ETFs would not hinder the Exchange from performing surveillance duties designed to protect investors and the public interest. There are various data consolidators, vendors, and outlets that can be used to access data and information regarding ETFs and the underlying securities (
The proposal would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system. Multiple listing of ETFs, options, and other securities and competition are some of the central features of the current national market system. The Exchange believes that the surveillance agreement requirement has led to clearly anti-competitive results in a market that is based on competition. As such, the Exchange believes that the surveillance agreement requirement for options on certain ETFs is no longer necessary and proposes new BX Options Chapter IV, Section 3(i). The proposed rule change will significantly benefit market participants. As discussed at length, the proposed rule will negate the negative anti-competitive effect of the current surveillance agreement requirement that has resulted in de facto regulatory monopolies where only solitary exchanges, or only a few exchanges, are able to list certain ETF options products. The Exchange believes this is inconsistent with Commission policies and the developing national market system, as well as the competitive nature of the market, and therefore proposes amendment.
For the above reasons, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that the proposal is, as discussed, decidedly pro-competitive and is a competitive response to the inability to list products because of the surveillance agreement requirement. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will result in additional investment options and opportunities to achieve the investment objectives of market participants seeking efficient trading and hedging vehicles, to the benefit of investors, market participants, and the marketplace in general. Competition is one of the principal features of the national market system. The Exchange believes that this proposal will expand competitive opportunities to list and trade products on the Exchange as noted.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend NOM Chapter IV, Section 3 to allow the listing of options overlying ETFs
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend NOM Chapter IV, Section 3 to allow the listing of options overlying ETFs
This proposal is based on a recent immediately effective filing of Phlx that added exactly the same language as proposed herein, as well as that of other exchanges,
Rule 19b-4(e) provides that the listing and trading of a new derivative securities product by an SRO shall not be deemed a proposed rule change, pursuant to paragraph (c)(l) of Rule 19b-4
The surveillance agreement requirement (also known as the “requirement” or “regime”) was initially put into effect on Phlx, which is the oldest options exchange within the Group, for options on ETFs well over a decade ago but has proven to have anti-competitive effects that are detrimental to investors.
The Exchange allows for the listing and trading of options on ETFs. NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i) provides the listings standards for options on ETFs, which includes ETFs with non-U.S. component securities, such as ETFs based on international or global indexes. Currently, NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i) regarding options on ETFs has a three-level surveillance agreement requirement (reproduced in relevant part):
(i) Any non-U.S. component stocks of the index or portfolio on which the Fund Shares are based that are not
(ii) stocks for which the primary market is in any one country that is not subject to a comprehensive surveillance agreement do not represent 20% or more of the weight of the index;
(iii) stocks for which the primary market is in any two countries that are not subject to comprehensive surveillance agreements do not represent 33% or more of the weight of the index.
The Exchange proposes to modify the surveillance agreement requirement for options on ETFs that are listed pursuant to generic listing standards for series of ETFs, based on international or global indexes—for which case a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required.
When the surveillance agreement requirement was instituted in 2001 on Phlx as discussed, ETFs were, comparatively speaking, in a developmental state.
The current surveillance requirement has, at times, resulted in the investing public having to forego the opportunity to hedge risk or engage in other listed options strategies in a competitive environment. ETFs may lack active options contracts that would be more likely to develop if multiple exchanges could compete to offer and promote them. For example, an investor in the iShares MSCI Indonesia ETF (EIDO) is not permitted to sell call options or purchase protective puts simply because the Exchange cannot obtain a surveillance agreement with Bursa Efek Indonesia. However, an investor in iShares MSCI Emerging Markets Fund (EEM) is afforded the right to engage in listed options trading to hedge risk or execute other beneficial options strategies. Both underlying exchange-traded funds, EIDO and EEM, are listed for trading in the U.S., subject to constant regulatory scrutiny, and permitted to be purchased and sold via registered broker/dealers, yet, options can now be offered only on EEM. The Exchange believes this disparate treatment between investors of foreign-based instruments, especially between those that buy and sell options contracts on ETFs, which currently require surveillance agreements, as opposed to those that buy and sell shares of the underlying ETFs, which currently do not have the same onerous surveillance agreement requirement that ETF options have,
The current surveillance agreement requirements, as well as all other requirements to list options on ETFs,
The Exchange notes that the Commission has previously approved generic listing standards pursuant to Rule 19b-4(e) of the Exchange Act
In addition, the Commission has previously approved proposals for the listing and trading of options on ETFs based on international indexes as well as global indexes (
Options on ETFs listed pursuant to these generic standards for international and global indexes would be traded, in all other respects, under the Exchange's existing trading rules and procedures that apply to options on ETFs and would be covered under the Exchange's surveillance program for options on ETFs.
Pursuant to proposed NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i), the Exchange may list and trade options on an ETF without a CSSA provided that the ETF is listed pursuant to generic listing standards for ETFs based on international or global indexes, in which case a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required. As noted, one such rule, which discusses things such as weighting, capitalization, trading volume, minimum number of components, and where components are listed, is NASDAQ Rule 5705(b)(3)(A)(ii) regarding ETFs (IFSs and PDRs).
The Exchange believes that this proposed listing standard for options on ETFs is reasonable for international and global indexes, and, when applied in conjunction with the other listing requirements, will result in options overlying ETFs that are sufficiently broad in scope and not readily susceptible to manipulation. The Exchange also believes that allowing the Exchange to list options overlying ETFs that are listed on equities exchanges pursuant to generic standards for series of ETFs based on international or global indexes under which a CSSA is not required, will result in options overlying ETFs that are adequately diversified in weighting for any single security or small group of securities to significantly reduce concerns that trading in options overlying ETFs based on international or global indexes could become a surrogate for trading in unregistered securities.
The Exchange believes that ETFs based on international and global indexes that have been listed pursuant to the generic standards are sufficiently defined so as to make options overlying such ETFs not susceptible instruments for manipulation. The Exchange believes that the threat of manipulation is, as discussed below, sufficiently mitigated for underlying ETFs that have been listed on equities exchanges pursuant to generic listing standards for series of ETFs based on international or global indexes under which a comprehensive surveillance agreement is not required and for the overlying options; the Exchange does not see the need for a CSSA to be in place before listing and trading options on such ETFs. The Exchange notes that its proposal does not replace the need for a CSSA as provided in current NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i). The provisions of Section 3(i), including the need for a CSSA, remain materially unchanged and will continue to apply to options on ETFs that are not listed on an equities exchange pursuant to generic listing standards for series of ETFs based on international or global indexes pursuant to which a CSSA is not required. Instead, proposed NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i) adds an additional listing mechanism for certain qualifying options on ETFs to be listed on the Exchange.
Finally, to account for proposed NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i) and make Section 3 easier to follow, the Exchange proposes technical changes to the
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The proposal would promote just and equitable principles of trade. When the surveillance agreement requirement was instituted as discussed in 2001 on Phlx, the oldest options exchange in the Group, ETFs were, comparatively speaking, in a developmental state.
The proposal would in general protect investors and the public interest. The Exchange believes that modifying the surveillance agreement requirement for ETFs would not hinder the Exchange from performing surveillance duties designed to protect investors and the public interest. There are various data consolidators, vendors, and outlets that can be used to access data and information regarding ETFs and the underlying securities (
The proposal would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system. Multiple listing of ETFs, options, and other securities and competition are some of the central features of the current national market system. The Exchange believes that the surveillance agreement requirement has led to clearly anti-competitive results in a market that is based on competition. As such, the Exchange believes that the surveillance agreement requirement for options on certain ETFs is no longer necessary and proposes new NOM Chapter IV, Section 3(i). The proposed rule change will significantly benefit market participants. As discussed at length, the proposed rule will negate the negative anti-competitive effect of the current surveillance agreement requirement that has resulted in de facto regulatory monopolies where only solitary exchanges, or only a few exchanges, are able to list certain ETF options products. The Exchange believes this is inconsistent with Commission policies and the developing national market system, as well as the competitive nature of the market, and therefore proposes amendment.
For the above reasons, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that the proposal is, as discussed, decidedly pro-competitive and is a competitive response to the inability to list products because of the surveillance agreement requirement. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will result in additional investment options and opportunities to achieve the investment objectives of market participants seeking efficient trading and hedging vehicles, to the benefit of investors, market participants, and the marketplace in general. Competition is one of the principal features of the national market system. The Exchange believes that this proposal will expand competitive opportunities to list and trade products on the Exchange as noted.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Nasdaq proposes to list and trade the shares of the AltShares Long/Short High Yield Fund (the “Fund”) of ETFis Series Trust I (the “Trust”) under Nasdaq Rule 5735 (“Managed Fund Shares”).
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares of the Fund under Nasdaq Rule 5735, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares
Etfis Capital LLC is the investment adviser (“Adviser”) to the Fund. Bramshill Investments, LLC is the investment sub-adviser to the Fund (the “Sub-Adviser”). The Sub-Adviser is responsible for daily portfolio management and all investment decisions for the Fund. ETF Distributors LLC (the “Distributor”) will be the principal underwriter and distributor of the Fund's Shares. The Bank of New York Mellon Corporation (“BNY”) will act as the administrator, accounting agent, custodian and transfer agent to the Fund.
Paragraph (g) of Rule 5735 provides that if the investment adviser to the investment company issuing Managed Fund Shares is affiliated with a broker-dealer, such investment adviser shall erect a “fire wall” between the investment adviser and the broker-dealer with respect to access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to such investment company portfolio.
The Fund's investment objective is to seek current income and capital appreciation with reduced volatility over time.
The Fund will seek to achieve its investment objective primarily by investing in a portfolio of “high yield” debt securities of U.S. companies.
Under normal market conditions,
The Fund will not have any portfolio maturity limitation and may invest its assets in instruments with short-term, medium-term or long-term maturities. Issuers of securities in which the Fund expects to invest will include large and medium capitalization companies, and may include small capitalization companies. The Sub-Adviser expects the Fund's investment portfolio to include up to 200 different securities positions with a target portfolio net exposure (the market value of the Long Position minus the market value of the Short Position) of between −20% and 100%.
In selecting securities for the Fund's portfolio, the Sub-Adviser generally will analyze debt securities included in the Bloomberg USD Corporate High Yield Bond Index (the “Bloomberg High Yield Index”). While the Fund may invest directly in high yield debt securities, the Sub-Adviser may also implement the Fund's strategy by investing in exchange-traded pools (which will consist of exchange-traded funds,
Positions in high-yield debt securities also may include foreign debt securities traded on U.S. or foreign exchanges or in U.S. or foreign over-the-counter markets, which may be denominated in foreign currencies. (Any currency hedging will be accomplished by taking long or short positions in ETPs.)
“High yield debt securities” generally include debt securities that are rated lower than “BBB−” by Standard & Poor's Ratings Group or “Baa3” by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. or at a similar level by another nationally recognized statistical rating organization, or are unrated but are deemed to be of comparable quality by the Sub-Adviser. These securities consist of senior and subordinated corporate debt obligations (bonds, debentures, notes and commercial paper). The Fund may invest in the foregoing corporate debt obligations, senior bank loans (including through loan assignments and loan participations), preferred stocks, municipal bonds, convertible bonds and convertible preferred stocks.
As a result of its trading strategy, the Fund expects to engage in frequent portfolio transactions that will likely result in higher portfolio turnover than other similar investment companies. Portfolio turnover is a ratio that indicates how often the securities in an investment company's portfolio change during a year. A higher portfolio turnover rate indicates a greater number of changes, and a lower portfolio turnover rate indicates a smaller number of changes. Under normal circumstances, the anticipated annual portfolio turnover rate for the Fund is expected to be greater than 100%.
The Fund may invest in other types of investments, as set forth in this section. In addition to investing in High Yield ETPs as discussed under Principal Investments, the Fund could invest in other fixed-income ETPs—but will not invest in leveraged ETPs. Due to legal limitations, the Fund will be prevented from purchasing more than 3% of an ETF's outstanding shares unless: (i) The ETF or the Fund has received an order for exemptive relief from the 3% limitation from the Commission that is applicable to the Fund; and (ii) the ETF and the Fund take appropriate steps to comply with any conditions in such order. The Fund may invest in warrants.
In certain adverse market, economic, political, or other conditions, the Fund may temporarily depart from its normal investment policies and strategy, provided that the alternative is consistent with the Fund's investment objective and is in the best interest of the Fund. At such times, the Fund may invest in cash or cash equivalents, such as money market instruments,
The Fund anticipates investing entirely in fully liquid assets, but it has the flexibility to invest up to 15% of its net assets in illiquid securities and other
The Fund may not invest more than 25% of the value of its total assets in securities of issuers in any particular industry.
The Fund's investments (including investments in ETPs) will not be utilized to seek to achieve a leveraged return on the Fund's net assets. The Fund will not invest in futures contracts, will not invest in options, will not invest in swaps, and will not invest in other derivative instruments.
The Fund will issue and redeem Shares only in Creation Units, through the Distributor, without a sales load (but subject to transaction fees), at the net asset value (“NAV”) next determined after receipt of an order in proper form, on a continuous basis every day except weekends and specified holidays, pursuant to the terms of the agreement executed with each Authorized Participant (as defined below). The NAV of the Fund will be determined once each business day, normally as of the close of regular trading on the NYSE, generally, 4:00 p.m. Eastern time.
The consideration for purchase of a Creation Unit will consist of either (i) an in-kind deposit of a designated portfolio of securities (the “Deposit Securities”) for each Creation Unit constituting a substantial replication, or a representation, of the securities included in the Fund's portfolio and an amount of cash (the “Cash Component”) computed as described below or (ii) cash totaling the NAV of the Creation Unit (“Deposit Cash”). The “Cash Component” will be an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the shares (per Creation Unit) and the market value of the Deposit Securities. The Fund may also effect a portion of an otherwise in-kind creation or redemption for cash, in accordance with the Exemptive Order.
As applicable, (i) the Deposit Securities and the Cash Component, together, or (ii) the Deposit Cash, will constitute the “Fund Deposit,” which will represent the minimum initial and subsequent investment amount for a Creation Unit of the Fund. If the Cash Component is a positive number (
To be eligible to place orders with respect to creations and redemptions of Creation Units, an entity must be (i) a “Participating Party,”
BNY, through the NSCC, will make available on each business day, immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange's Regular Market Session (currently 9:30 a.m. Eastern time), the list of the names and the required number of shares of each Deposit Security to be included in the current Fund Deposit (based on information at the end of the previous business day) for the Fund. Such Fund Deposit, subject to any relevant adjustments, will be applicable in order to effect purchases of Creation Units of the Fund until such time as the next announced composition of the Deposit Securities is made available.
Shares may be redeemed only in Creation Units at their NAV next determined after receipt of a redemption request in proper form by the Fund through BNY and only on a business day.
With respect to the Fund, BNY, through the NSCC, will make available immediately prior to the opening of business on the Exchange (9:30 a.m. Eastern time) on each business day, the list of the names and share quantities of the Fund's portfolio securities (“Fund Securities”) that will be applicable (subject to possible amendment or correction) to redemption requests received in proper form on that day. Fund Securities received on redemption
Unless cash redemptions are available or specified for the Fund, the redemption proceeds for a Creation Unit will consist of Fund Securities as announced by BNY on the business day of the request for redemption received in proper form plus cash in an amount equal to the difference between the NAV of the Shares being redeemed, as next determined after a receipt of a request in proper form, and the value of the Fund Securities (the “Cash Redemption Amount”), less a fixed redemption transaction fee and any applicable additional variable charge as set forth in the Registration Statement. In the event that the Fund Securities have a value greater than the NAV of the Shares, a compensating cash payment equal to the differential will be required to be made by or through an Authorized Participant by the redeeming shareholder. Notwithstanding the foregoing, at the Trust's discretion, an Authorized Participant may receive the corresponding cash value of the securities in lieu of one or more Fund Securities.
The creation order and redemption order cut off time for the Fund is expected to be 3:00 p.m. Eastern time. On days when the Exchange closes earlier than normal and in the case of custom orders, the Fund may require orders for Creation Units to be placed earlier in the day.
The NAV per Share for the Fund will be computed by dividing the value of the net assets of the Fund (
ETPs, exchange-traded fixed income securities, exchange-traded convertible securities, exchange-traded warrants and any other exchange traded securities will be valued at the official closing price on their principal exchange or board of trade, or lacking any current reported sale at the time of valuation, at the mean between the most recent bid and asked quotations on the principal exchange or board of trade. Portfolio securities traded on more than one securities exchange will be valued at the last sale price or official closing price, as applicable, on the business day as of which such value is being determined at the close of the exchange representing the principal market for such securities. Fixed-income securities traded over-the-counter (including high yield fixed-income securities and money market instruments); warrants traded over-the-counter; and convertible securities traded over-the-counter will be valued at the mean between the most recent available bid and asked quotations provided by parties that make a market in the instrument. If recent bid and asked quotations are not available, these securities will be valued in accordance with the Fund's fair valuation procedures. Money market instruments with maturities of less than 60 days will be valued at amortized cost. Shares of mutual funds that are not exchange-listed will be valued at their net asset value.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, in determining the value of any security or asset, the Fund may use a valuation provided by a pricing vendor employed by the Trust and approved by the Trust Board. The pricing vendor may base such valuations upon dealer quotes, by analyzing the listed market, by utilizing matrix pricing, by analyzing market correlations and pricing and/or employing sensitivity analysis.
The Adviser may use various pricing services, or discontinue the use of any pricing service, as approved by the Trust Board from time to time. A price obtained from a pricing service based on such pricing service's valuation matrix may be considered a market valuation. Any assets or liabilities denominated in currencies other than the U.S. dollar will be converted into U.S. dollars at the current market rates on the date of valuation as quoted by one or more sources.
In the event that current market valuations are not readily available or such valuations do not reflect current market value, the Trust's procedures require the Adviser's Pricing Committee to determine a security's fair value in accordance with the Fund's fair value pricing procedures, which are approved by the Trust Board and consistent with the 1940 Act.
The Fund's Web site, which will be publicly available prior to the public offering of Shares, will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund that may be downloaded. The Web site will include additional quantitative information updated on a daily basis, including, for the Fund: (1) The prior business day's reported NAV, mid-point of the bid/ask spread at the time of calculation of such NAV (the “Bid/Ask Price”),
On a daily basis, the Fund will disclose for each portfolio security and other asset of the Fund the following information on the Fund's Web site (if applicable): Name, ticker symbol, CUSIP number or other identifier, if any; type of holding (such as “bond”, “note”, “preferred stock”, “ETP”, “mutual fund”); quantity held (as measured by, for example, number of shares, contracts or units); maturity date, if any; coupon rate, if any; effective date, if any; market value of the holding; and the percentage weighting of the holdings in the Fund's portfolio. The Web site information will be publicly available at no charge.
In addition, for the Fund, an estimated value, defined in Rule 5735 as the “Intraday Indicative Value,” that reflects an estimated intraday value of the Fund's portfolio, will be disseminated. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service,
The dissemination of the Intraday Indicative Value, together with the Disclosed Portfolio, will allow investors to determine the value of the underlying portfolio of the Fund on a daily basis and to provide a close estimate of that value throughout the trading day.
Investors will also be able to obtain the Fund's Statement of Additional Information (“SAI”), the Fund's Shareholder Reports, and its Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR, filed twice a year. The Fund's SAI and Shareholder Reports will be available from the Fund free upon request, and those documents and the Form N-CSR and Form N-SAR may be viewed on-screen or downloaded from the Commission's Web site at
Intra-day, executable price quotations on the high yield debt securities, bank loans, warrants, other fixed-income and convertible securities, including cash and cash equivalents, ETPs and other assets held by the Fund are available from major broker-dealer firms or on the exchange on which they are traded, if applicable. The foregoing, intra-day price information is available through subscription services, such as Bloomberg and Thomson Reuters, which can be accessed by Authorized Participants and other investors. The previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the exchange-traded securities held by the Fund will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers. Quotation and last sale information for the exchange-traded securities held by the Fund will be available via UTP Level 1, as well as Nasdaq proprietary quote and trade services.
Information regarding market price and volume of the Shares is and will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services. The previous day's closing price and trading volume information for the Shares will be published daily in the financial section of newspapers. Quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via UTP Level 1, as well as Nasdaq proprietary quote and trade services.
The Shares will be subject to Rule 5735, which sets forth the initial and continued listing criteria applicable to Managed Fund Shares. The Exchange represents that, for initial and/or continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3
With respect to trading halts, the Exchange may consider all relevant factors in exercising its discretion to halt or suspend trading in the Shares of the Fund. Nasdaq will halt or pause trading in the Shares under the conditions specified in Nasdaq Rules 4120 and 4121, including the trading pauses under Nasdaq Rules 4120(a)(11) and (12). Trading may be halted because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable. These may include: (1) The extent to which trading is not occurring in the securities and/or the financial instruments constituting the Disclosed Portfolio of the Fund; or (2) whether other unusual conditions or circumstances detrimental to the maintenance of a fair and orderly market are present. Trading in the Shares also will be subject to Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted.
Nasdaq deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to Nasdaq's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. Nasdaq will allow trading in the Shares from 7:00 a.m. until 8:00 p.m. Eastern time. The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions. As provided in Nasdaq Rule 5735(b)(3), the minimum price variation for quoting and entry of orders in Managed Fund Shares traded on the Exchange is $0.01.
The Exchange represents that trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances, administered by both Nasdaq and also the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
The surveillances referred to above generally focus on detecting securities trading outside their normal patterns, which could be indicative of manipulative or other violative activity.
FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares or other exchange-traded securities with other markets and other entities that are ISG members, and FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, may obtain trading information regarding trading in the Shares; exchange-traded fixed income securities; exchange-traded warrants; exchange-traded convertible securities; ETPs; or other exchange-traded securities from such markets and other entities. In addition, the Exchange may obtain information regarding trading in the Shares; exchange-traded warrants; exchange-traded fixed-income securities; exchange-traded convertible securities; ETPs; or other exchange-traded securities from markets and other entities that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has in place a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
In addition, the Exchange also has a general policy prohibiting the distribution of material, nonpublic information by its employees.
Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Circular will discuss the following: (1) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (2) Nasdaq Rule 2111A, which imposes suitability obligations on Nasdaq members with respect to recommending transactions in the Shares to customers; (3) how and by whom information regarding the Intraday Indicative Value and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (4) the risks involved in trading the Shares during the Pre-Market and Post-Market Sessions when an updated Intraday Indicative Value will not be calculated or publicly disseminated; (5) the requirement that members deliver a prospectus to investors purchasing newly issued Shares prior to or concurrently with the confirmation of a transaction; and (6) trading information.
In addition, the Information Circular will advise members, prior to the commencement of trading, of the prospectus delivery requirements applicable to the Fund. Members purchasing Shares from the Fund for resale to investors will deliver a prospectus to such investors. The Information Circular will also discuss any exemptive, no-action and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act.
Additionally, the Information Circular will reference that the Fund is subject to various fees and expenses described in the Registration Statement. The Information Circular will also disclose the trading hours of the Shares of the Fund and the applicable NAV Calculation Time for the Shares. The Information Circular will disclose that information about the Shares of the Fund will be publicly available on the Fund' Web site.
Nasdaq believes that the proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that the Shares will be listed and traded on the Exchange pursuant to the initial and continued listing criteria in Nasdaq Rule 5735. The Exchange believes that its surveillance procedures are adequate to properly monitor the trading of the Shares on Nasdaq during all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules and the applicable federal securities laws. The Adviser is affiliated with a broker-dealer and has implemented a “fire wall” with respect to such broker-dealer regarding access to information concerning the composition and/or changes to the Fund's portfolio. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares. The Exchange may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement.
The proposed rule change is designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade and to protect investors and the public interest in that the Exchange will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time. In addition, a large amount of information is publicly available regarding the Fund and the Shares, thereby promoting market transparency. The Fund's portfolio holdings will be disclosed on its Web site daily after the close of trading on the Exchange and prior to the opening of trading on the Exchange the following day. Moreover, the Intraday Indicative Value, available on the NASDAQ OMX Information LLC proprietary index data service will be widely disseminated and broadly displayed at least every 15 seconds during the Regular Market Session. On each business day, before commencement of trading in Shares in the Regular Market Session on the Exchange, the Fund will disclose on its Web site the Disclosed Portfolio that will form the basis for the Fund's calculation of NAV at the end of the business day. Information regarding market price and trading volume of the Shares is and will be continually available on a real-time basis throughout the day on brokers' computer screens and other electronic services, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares will be available via UTP Level 1, as well as Nasdaq proprietary quote and trade services. Intra-day, executable price quotations on the high yield debt securities, bank loans, other fixed-income and convertible securities, including cash and cash equivalents, ETPs and other assets held by the Fund are available from major broker-dealer firms or on the exchange on which they are traded, if applicable. The foregoing
The Web site for the Fund will include a form of the prospectus for the Fund and additional data relating to NAV and other applicable quantitative information. Trading in Shares of the Fund will be halted if the circuit breaker parameters in Nasdaq Rule 4120(a)(11) have been reached or because of market conditions or for reasons that, in the view of the Exchange, make trading in the Shares inadvisable, and trading in the Shares will be subject to Nasdaq Rule 5735(d)(2)(D), which sets forth circumstances under which Shares of the Fund may be halted. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
The proposed rule change is designed to perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded product that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace. As noted above, the Exchange has in place surveillance procedures relating to trading in the Shares and may obtain information via ISG from other exchanges that are members of ISG or with which the Exchange has entered into a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement. In addition, as noted above, investors will have ready access to information regarding the Fund's holdings, the Intraday Indicative Value, the Disclosed Portfolio, and quotation and last sale information for the Shares.
For the above reasons, Nasdaq believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will facilitate the listing and trading of an additional type of actively-managed exchange-traded fund that will enhance competition among market participants, to the benefit of investors and the marketplace.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On June 26, 2015, National Securities Clearing Corporation (“NSCC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) advance notice SR-NSCC-2015-802 (“Advance Notice”) pursuant to Section 806(e)(1) of the Payment, Clearing, and Settlement Supervision Act of 2010 (“Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act”)
As described by NSCC in its Advance Notice, as modified by Amendment No. 1, NSCC has proposed to establish the Prefunded Liquidity Program to raise prefunded liquidity and diversify its liquidity resources through the private placement of unsecured debt, consisting of a combination of short-term promissory notes (“Commercial Paper Notes”) and extendible-term promissory notes (“Extendible Notes,” together with the Commercial Paper Notes, “Notes”), to institutional investors in an aggregate amount not to exceed $5 billion. The proceeds from the Prefunded Liquidity Program will supplement NSCC's existing liquidity resources, which collectively provide NSCC with liquidity to complete end-of-day settlement in the event of the default of an NSCC Member.
The Prefunded Liquidity Program will be established as a combination of both Commercial Paper Notes, which typically have shorter maturities, and Extendible Notes, which typically have longer maturities. NSCC intends to structure the Prefunded Liquidity Program such that the maturities of the issued Notes are staggered to avoid concentrations of maturing liabilities. The average maturity of the aggregate Notes outstanding issued under the Prefunded Liquidity Program is broadly estimated to range between three and six months. The Commercial Paper Notes and the Extendible Notes will be represented by one or more master notes issued in the name of The Depository Trust Company (“DTC”) or its nominee. The Notes will be issued only through the book-entry system of DTC and will not be certificated.
The Commercial Paper Notes either will be interest bearing or sold at a discount from their face amount, and the Extendible Notes will be interest bearing. Interest payable on the Notes will be at market rates customary for such type of debt and reflective of the creditworthiness of NSCC. The Commercial Paper Notes will have a maturity not to exceed 397 calendar days from the date of issue and will not be redeemable by NSCC prior to maturity, nor will they contain any provision for extension, renewal, automatic rollover or voluntary prepayment. The Extendible Notes will have an initial maturity of 397 calendar days from the date of issue. However, each month following the date of issue, the holder of an Extendible Note will be permitted to elect to extend the maturity of all or a portion of the principal amount of such Extendible Note for an additional 30 calendar days. A holder of an Extendible Note will be permitted to continue to extend its Extendible Note up to the final maturity date, which is expected to be a maximum of six years from the date of issue. If a holder of an Extendible Note fails to exercise its right to extend the maturity of all or a portion of the Extendible Note, such portion of the Extendible Note would be deemed to be represented by a new note (“Non-Extended Note”), and NSCC would have the option to redeem any Non-Extended Note in whole, but not in part, at any time prior to the maturity date of that Non-Extended Note, which would be 12 months from the date on which they opted not to extend.
NSCC will hold the proceeds from the issuance of the Notes in a cash deposit account at the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (“FRBNY”)
NSCC's liquidity needs are driven by the requirement to complete end-of-day settlement, on an ongoing basis, in the event of Member default. If an NSCC Member defaults, as a CCP for the cash markets, NSCC would need to complete settlement of guaranteed transactions on the failing Member's behalf from the date of default through the remainder of
NSCC measures and manages its liquidity risk by performing daily simulations that measure the amount of liquidity NSCC would require in a number of scenarios, including amounts required over the settlement cycle in the event that the Member or Member family to which NSCC has the largest aggregate liquidity exposure defaults. NSCC seeks to maintain qualified liquidity resources in an amount sufficient to meet this requirement. NSCC's existing liquidity resources include: (1) The cash in NSCC's Clearing Fund; (2) the cash that would be obtained by drawing upon NSCC's committed 364-day credit facility with a consortium of banks (“Line of Credit”); and (3) additional cash deposits, known as “Supplemental Liquidity Deposits,” designed to cover the heightened liquidity exposure arising around monthly option expiry periods, required from those Members whose activity would pose the largest liquidity exposure to NSCC.
NSCC states that by providing NSCC with additional, prefunded, and readily available liquidity resources to be used to complete end-of-day settlement as needed in the event of a Member default, the proposed Prefunded Liquidity Program will provide additional certainty, stability, and safety to NSCC, its Members, and the U.S. equities market that it serves. The Prefunded Liquidity Program also is designed to reduce NSCC's concentration risk with respect to its liquidity resources because it is anticipated that many of the potential institutional investors who would be purchasers of the Notes are not currently providing liquidity resources to NSCC.
The Prefunded Liquidity Program was developed in coordination with a standing advisory group, the Clearing Agency Liquidity Council (“CALC”), which includes representatives of NSCC's Members and participants of NSCC's affiliate, the Fixed Income Clearing Corporation. The CALC was established in 2013 to facilitate dialogue between these clearing agencies and their participants regarding liquidity initiatives.
Although the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act does not specify a standard of review for an advance notice, the Commission believes that the stated purpose of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act is instructive.
Section 805(a)(2) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act
• Promote robust risk management;
• promote safety and soundness;
• reduce systemic risks; and
• support the stability of the broader financial system.
The Commission has adopted risk management standards under Section 805(a)(2) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act (“Clearing Agency Standards”) and the Exchange Act.
The Commission believes the proposal in the Advance Notice is consistent with the objectives and principles described in Section 805(b) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act,
The objectives and principles of Section 805(b) of the Payment, Clearing and Settlement Supervision Act are to promote robust risk management, promote safety and soundness, reduce systemic risks, and support the stability of the broader financial system.
Rule 17Ad-22(b)(3)
By the Commission.
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange is filing a proposal to amend the MIAX Options Fee Schedule (the “Fee Schedule”) to establish fees for the MIAX Financial Information Exchange (“FIX”) Drop Copy Port.
While changes to the Fee Schedule pursuant to this proposal are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated these changes to be operative on September 1, 2015.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to establish a monthly port fee of $500 per port for the use of the new MIAX FIX Drop Copy Port.
Currently, the Exchange assesses fees for the use of its FIX Ports. A FIX Port is an interface with MIAX systems that enables the Port user (typically an Electronic Exchange Member (“EEM”)
The proposed FIX Drop Copy Port is a messaging interface that will provide a copy of real-time trade execution information to FIX Drop Copy Port users who subscribe to the service. FIX Drop Copy Port users are those users who are designated by an EEM to receive the information and the information is restricted for use by the EEM only. The Exchange proposes to assess a monthly per port fee to users of the FIX Drop Copy Ports.
MIAX currently assesses fees for Exchange connectivity and services used by Members. Such Exchange connectivity is gained through various ports. MIAX currently assesses monthly per port fees for FIX Ports. Similarly, the Exchange is proposing to establish a monthly per port fee for the use of the FIX Drop Copy Port.
The FIX Drop Copy Port provides the user with a copy of real-time trade execution updates. The updates contain a copy of trade execution messages on a low latency, real-time basis. A FIX Drop Copy Port can be configured to monitor any number of FIX Ports used by that EEM and a FIX Port user can have any number of FIX Drop Copy Ports. The FIX Drop Copy Port will send messages containing reports of order executions to the user based upon the group of FIX Ports that it is configured to monitor. Other order related messages will not be sent via the FIX Drop Copy port.
MIAX will assess a FIX Drop Copy Port fee of $500 per port per month. Similar to the FIX Port Fees, the FIX Drop Copy Port Fee will be based on the number of FIX Drop Copy Ports to which a user subscribes and the fee includes connectivity to the Exchange's primary, secondary and disaster recovery data centers at no additional cost. The Exchange intends to assess the fee on a per port basis for the data and information used in trading options contracts and ongoing entitlement management and configuration. The Exchange believes that this should enable it to remain competitive with other exchanges with respect to fees charged for similar ports.
The Exchange is also proposing to amend the Fee Schedule's Table of Contents to reflect the addition of the FIX Drop Copy Port Fee in new Section (5)(d)(iv).
The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Fee Schedule is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Exchange believes that this amendment is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange is uniformly assessing the FIX Drop Copy Port Fees on all users that wish to subscribe to it.
The Exchange further believes that the proposed FIX Drop Copy Port Fee is reasonable because it is within the range of similar fees charged by other exchanges, and because the FIX Drop Copy Port is offered as an optional service for those users who wish to subscribe to it.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. The proposed fees for services provided to its Members and others using its facilities will not have an impact on competition. In fact, MIAX's proposed FIX Drop Copy Port Fee is comparable to fees charged by other options exchanges for the same or similar services.
The FIX Drop Copy Port is offered as an additional service for users at a price that is within the range of prices for similar ports offered by other exchanges, and therefore the Exchange believes that the price of the port fee does not impose a burden on competition.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 12, 2015, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (the “Exchange” or “CBOE”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act” or “Act”),
The Exchange seeks to modify CBOE Rule 6.53C to allow the Exchange to further distinguish between the complex order origin types that are eligible for the COB and COA.
The Exchange proposes to modify CBOE Rule 6.53C so that it could determine whether the following two additional types of market participants are eligible for entry into the COB and the COA: (i) Non-broker-dealer public customers that are Voluntary Professional Customers or Professional Customers (herein, “Professionals”) and (ii) non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Voluntary Professional Customers or Professional Customers.
CBOE states that it is proposing this change so that it may prevent orders from Professionals from triggering a COA. According to the Exchange, CBOE participants currently may cancel and replace their complex orders as often as they wish without incurring any cancellation fees. Each order that meets the eligibility requirements detailed in CBOE Rule 6.53C,
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
The Exchange's proposed rule change would provide the Exchange discretion to determine whether two additional groups of market participants are eligible for entry into the COA and COB: (i) Professionals and (ii) non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Professionals.
In light of these issues and concerns, the Commission believes that questions arise regarding whether the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(8) of the Act. As the Commission continues to evaluate the issues presented by the proposal, the Commission solicits comment on whether the proposal is consistent with the Act and whether the Exchange has met its burden in presenting a statutory analysis of how its proposal is consistent with the Act. In particular, the grounds for disapproval under consideration include whether the Exchange's proposal is consistent with Sections 6(b)(5)
In addition, under the Commission's rules of procedure, a self-regulatory organization that proposes to amend its rules bears the burden of demonstrating
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their views, data and arguments with respect to the concerns identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposed rule change. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposal is consistent with Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(8)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposal should be approved or disapproved by September 15, 2015. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by September 29, 2015. In light of the concerns raised by the proposed rule change, as discussed above, the Commission invites additional comment on the proposed rule change as the Commission continues its analysis of whether the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5),
1. Would excluding orders submitted by Professionals from entry into the COA or COB adversely affect the ability of Professionals to execute their orders? Why or why not?
2. Do commenters agree with the Exchange that there are an excessive number of Professional COA messages that adversely affect the likelihood of executions for non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Professionals? Would excluding Professionals orders from the COA increase the likelihood of, or otherwise impact, executions for non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Professionals? If so, how?
3. Is the volume of auction messages generated by Professionals disruptive to the auction process? If so, how?
4. Are there other methods that involve less potential for unfair discrimination that could be used to reduce the volume of messages?
5. Do Professionals want their orders to be eligible for entry into the COA or the COB? Why or why not?
6. Although the Exchange states that the proposal is intended to allow the Exchange to prevent Professionals from entry into the COB or COA, the proposed rule change, as drafted, would also allow the Exchange to determine that non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Professionals Customers are not eligible for entry into both the COA and the COB. Do commenters believe that excluding non-broker-dealer public customers that are not Professionals from the COA and COB is consistent with the Act? Is so, why? If not, why not?
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On April 24, 2015, the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (“MSRB”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act” or “Act”)
The MSRB is proposing to delete, in Proposed Rule G-42(a)(ii), the phrase “, without limitation,” to address any ambiguity regarding the relationship between additional fiduciary duties and the specified duties of care and loyalty. The MSRB, however, emphasizes the proposed amendment in no respect narrows or otherwise substantively modifies the scope of the fiduciary duty to which a municipal advisor would be subject under Proposed Rule G-42. Under Proposed Rule G-42(a)(ii), a municipal advisor is subject to a fiduciary duty that includes a duty of loyalty and a duty of care. It has been the MSRB's intent from the inception of this rulemaking initiative not to purport to comprehensively set forth every aspect of the fiduciary duty that may be owed under the broad principle that Congress determined should apply to municipal advisors to municipal entity clients. Instead, Proposed Rule G-42 is designed primarily to set forth the core principles of the fiduciary duty that a municipal advisor would owe to its municipal entity client, and address and provide guidance on certain conduct that is likely to occur and issues that are likely to arise in the provision of municipal advisory services. Although it is not possible for the MSRB to set forth every aspect of a fiduciary duty in Proposed Rule G-42 and the MSRB has not sought to do so, the MSRB nevertheless believes that the proposed rule change will provide municipal advisors with significant helpful guidance in understanding many aspects of their fiduciary duty and the conduct that is required of them.
The MSRB is also proposing amendments to streamline the steps needed to comply with proposed sections (b) and (c) generally, which are also responsive to comments received regarding the combined requirements of the proposed paragraphs.
The MSRB proposes amendments regarding proposed section (c), which requires the documentation of the municipal advisory relationship in writing, and, in proposed subsection (c)(ii), which provides that a municipal advisor must include in the documentation the disclosures of conflicts of interest and other information (
The MSRB also proposes to amend, in response to comments, proposed subsection (c)(iv) of Rule G-42 of the original proposed rule change to require a municipal advisor, at the time of making the disclosures required under proposed subsections (c)(iii) and (c)(iv), to provide its clients with a brief explanation of the basis for the
In response to a concern raised in the comments, the MSRB proposes to clarify, in proposed section (d), a specific requirement applicable to a recommendation made by a municipal advisor, and distinguish it from the requirements a municipal advisor is subject to when reviewing a recommendation made by another party. The proposed amendment to proposed section (d) would add a statement providing that “a municipal advisor making a recommendation must have a reasonable basis to believe that the recommended municipal securities transaction or municipal financial product is suitable for the client,” which would clarify the proposed requirement that the municipal advisor must determine, based on the information obtained through the reasonable diligence of such municipal advisor, whether the municipal securities transaction or municipal financial product is suitable for the client. The proposed amendment would state more explicitly that a municipal advisor would be prohibited from making recommendations to clients regarding municipal securities transactions and municipal financial products that are unsuitable for such clients. To further clarify proposed section (d), the MSRB also proposes to modify proposed subsection (d)(ii) to provide that the requirement to inform the client that a recommendation is unsuitable potentially arises only in the context of the review of a recommendation of another, by adding the parenthetical phrase “(as may be applicable in the case of a review of a recommendation).”
The MSRB also proposes a minor amendment to clarify proposed Rule G-42(e)(i)(B), which prohibits a municipal advisor from delivering an invoice for fees or expenses for municipal advisory activities that do not accurately reflect the activities actually performed or the personnel that actually performed those activities. Specifically, as revised, the provision would prohibit the delivery of such an invoice if it “is materially inaccurate in its reflection of the activities actually performed or the personnel that actually performed those activities.” The proposed clarification, which is responsive to comments that expressed concern regarding invoices containing minor or immaterial errors, would incorporate in the proposed provision an explicit, rather than implicit, limitation based on materiality, and is consistent with the MSRB's explanation of the provision in the original proposed rule change.
Finally, Amendment No. 1 would incorporate minor, non-substantive amendments to proposed subsections (e)(ii), regarding prohibited principal transactions. The proposed amendments to proposed subsection (e)(ii) would clarify the provision, to provide:
A municipal advisor to a municipal entity client, and any affiliate of such municipal advisor, is prohibited from engaging with the municipal entity client in a principal transaction that is the same, or directly related to the, municipal securities transaction or municipal financial product as to which the municipal advisor is providing or has provided advice to the municipal entity client.
Similarly, technical and non-substantive changes would be incorporated in proposed subsection (f)(i), defining the term, “Engaging in a principal transaction.” Finally, the proposed amendments to proposed paragraph .11 of the Supplementary Material would renumber the provision as proposed paragraph .12 of the Supplementary Material, as previously noted, and change the reference in the second line of the provision from “engaging in a principal transaction” to “principal transaction” to conform proposed renumbered paragraph .12 to proposed amended subsection (f)(i).
The MSRB proposes to make the proposed rule change effective six months after Commission approval of all changes.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding the foregoing, including whether the filing as amended by Amendment No. 1 is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, pursuant to delegated authority.
The Social Security Administration (SSA) publishes a list of information collection packages requiring clearance by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in compliance with Public Law 104-13, the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, effective October 1, 1995. This notice includes revisions and extensions of OMB-approved information collections.
SSA is soliciting comments on the accuracy of the agency's burden estimate; the need for the information; its practical utility; ways to enhance its quality, utility, and clarity; and ways to minimize burden on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Mail, email, or fax your comments and recommendations on the information collection(s) to the OMB Desk Officer and SSA Reports Clearance Officer at the following addresses or fax numbers. (OMB), Office of Management and Budget, Attn: Desk Officer for SSA, Fax: 202-395-6974, Email address:
Or you may submit your comments online through
I. The information collection below is pending at SSA. SSA will submit it to OMB within 60 days from the date of this notice. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than October 26, 2015. Individuals can obtain copies of the collection instrument by writing to the above email address.
Response to Notice of Revised Determination—20 CFR 404.913-404.914, 404.992(b), 416.1413-416.1414, and 416.1492(d)—0960-0347. When SSA determines: (1) Claimants for initial disability benefits do not actually have a disability, or (2) current disability recipients' records show their disability ceased, SSA notifies the disability claimants or recipients of this decision. In response to this notice, the affected claimants and disability recipients have the following recourse: (1) They may request a disability hearing to contest SSA's decision and (2) they may submit additional information or evidence for SSA to consider. Disability claimants, recipients, and their representatives use Form SSA-765 to accomplish these two actions. If respondents request the first option, SSA's Disability Hearings Unit uses the form to schedule a hearing; ensure an interpreter is present, if required; and ensure the disability recipients or claimants and their representatives receive a notice about the place and time of the hearing. If respondents choose the second option, SSA uses the form and other evidence to reevaluate the claimant's case and determine if the new information or evidence will change SSA's decision. The respondents are disability claimants, current disability recipients, or their representatives.
Type of Request: Extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
II. SSA submitted the information collections below to OMB for clearance. Your comments regarding the information collections would be most useful if OMB and SSA receive them 30 days from the date of this publication. To be sure we consider your comments, we must receive them no later than September 24, 2015. Individuals can obtain copies of the OMB clearance packages by writing to
1. Physician's/Medical Officer's Statement of Patient's Capability to Manage Benefits—20 CFR 404.2015 and 416.615—0960-0024. SSA appoints a representative payee in cases where we determine beneficiaries are not capable of managing their own benefits. In those instances, we require medical evidence to determine the beneficiaries' capability of managing or directing their benefit payments. SSA collects medical evidence on Form SSA-787 to (1) determine beneficiaries' capability or inability to handle their own benefits, and (2) assist in determining the beneficiaries' need for a representative payee. The respondents are the beneficiary's physicians, or medical officers of the institution in which the beneficiary resides.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
2. State Supplementation Provisions: Agreement; Payments—20 CFR 416.2095-416.2098, 20 CFR 416.2099—0960-0240. Section 1618 of the Social Security Act (Act) requires those states administering their own supplementary income payment program(s) to demonstrate compliance with the Act by passing Federal cost-of-living increases on to individuals who are eligible for state supplementary payments, and informing SSA of their compliance. In general, states report their supplementary payment information annually by the maintenance-of-payment levels method. However, SSA may ask them to report up to four times in a year by the total-expenditures method. Regardless of the method, the states confirm their compliance with the requirements, and provide any changes to their optional supplementary payment rates. SSA uses the information to determine each state's
Type of Request: Extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
3. Continuation of Supplemental Security Income Payments for the Temporarily Institutionalized—Certification of Period and Need to Maintain Home—20 CFR 416.212(b)(1)—0960-0516. When SSI recipients (1) enter a public institution or (2) enter a private medical treatment facility with Medicaid paying more than 50 percent of expenses, SSA must reduce recipients' SSI payments to a nominal sum. However, if this institutionalization is temporary (defined as a maximum of three months), SSA may waive the reduction. Before SSA can waive the SSI payment reduction, the agency must receive the following documentation: (1) A physician's certification stating the SSI recipient will only be institutionalized for a maximum of three months, and (2) certification from the recipient, the recipient's family, or friends, confirming the recipient needs SSI payments to maintain the living arrangements to which the individual will return post-institutionalization. To obtain this information, SSA employees contact the recipient (or a knowledgeable source) to obtain the required physician's certification and the statement of need. SSA does not require any specific format for these items, so long as we obtain the necessary attestations. The respondents are SSI recipients, their family or friends, as well as physicians or hospital staff members who treat the SSI recipient.
Type of Request: Extension of an OMB-approved information collection.
4. Request for Deceased Individual's Social Security Record—20 CFR 402.130—0960-0665. When a member of the public requests an individual's Social Security record, SSA needs the name and address of the requestor as well as a description of the requested record to process the request. SSA uses the information the respondent provides on Form SSA-711, or via an Internet request through SSA's electronic Freedom of Information Act (eFOIA) Web site, to (1) verify the wage earner is deceased and (2) access the correct Social Security record. Respondents are members of the public requesting deceased individuals' Social Security records.
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
Cost Burden *:
In addition, SSA charges fees to the respondent for this information. The following charts shows the fees per transaction based on the information the respondent provides on the SSA-711 (or in eFOIA):
* As these costs are dependent on the respondent's provided information, we charge them on an as needed basis, and cannot provide a total annual estimate of the cost burden. We do not know whether the respondent provided the decedent's SSN until we manually review and process each SSA-711.
5. Electronic Health Records Partnering Program Evaluation Form—20 CFR 404.1614, 416.1014, 24 CFR 495.300-495.370—0960-0798. The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act promotes the adoption and meaningful use of health information technology (IT), particularly in the context of working with government agencies. Similarly, section 3004 of the Public Health Service Act requires health care providers or health insurance issuers with government contracts to implement, acquire, or upgrade their health IT systems and products to meet adopted standards and implementation specifications. To support expansion of SSA's health IT initiative as defined under HITECH, SSA developed Form SSA-680, the Health IT Partner Program Assessment—participating Facilities and Available Content Form. The SSA-680 allows healthcare providers to provide the information SSA needs to determine their ability to exchange health information with us electronically. We evaluate potential partners (
Type of Request: Revision of an OMB-approved information collection.
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice of deadline for comments.
The GSP Program at the Office of the United States Trade Representative. The telephone number is (202) 395-2974, the fax number is (202) 395-9674, and the email address is
On July 6, 2015, USTR announced in the
The USITC is expected to release the public version of its report on these two waiver requests in late August 2015. Comments on the USITC report should be submitted to USTR via
All submissions in response to this notice must conform to the GSP regulations set forth at 15 CFR part 2007, except as modified in
All submissions in response to this notice must be in English and must be submitted electronically via
Submissions in response to this notice, except for information granted “business confidential” status under 15 CFR part 2003.6, will be available for public viewing pursuant to 15 CFR part 2007.6 at
Office of the United States Trade Representative.
Notice.
The United States Trade Representative has determined that Curaçao meets certain customs criteria of the Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act and, therefore, imports of eligible products from Curaçao qualify for the enhanced trade benefits provided under the Act.
Mary Estelle Ryckman, Senior Advisor, Office of the United States Trade Representative, (202) 395-9585.
The Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act (Title II of the Trade and Development Act of 2000, Pub. L. 106-200) (CBTPA) expands the trade benefits available to Caribbean and Central American beneficiary countries under the Caribbean Basin Economic Recovery Act (CBERA). The enhanced trade benefits provided by the CBTPA are available to imports of eligible products from countries that (1) the President designates as CBTPA beneficiary countries, and (2) meet the requirements of the CBERA relating to implementation of customs procedures and requirements similar to those in Chapter 5 of the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) that assist the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) in verifying the origin of the products.
In Proclamation 9072 of December 23, 2013, the President designated Curaçao as a CBERA and a CBTPA beneficiary country. In that proclamation, the President also delegated to the United States Trade Representative (USTR) the authority to determine whether Curaçao is meeting the customs criteria of the CBERA. The President directed the USTR to announce any such determinations in the
Based on information and commitments provided by Curaçao to date, I have determined that Curaçao satisfies the requirements of section 213(b)(4)(A)(ii) of the CBERA relating to the implementation of procedures and requirements similar in all material respects to those in Chapter 5 of the NAFTA. Accordingly, pursuant to the authority vested in the USTR by Proclamation 9072, the HTS is modified by (i) modifying general note 17(a) to the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States by adding in alphabetical sequence “Curaçao,” and (ii) modifying U.S. note 1 to subchapter XX of chapter 98 by inserting in alphabetical sequence “Curaçao,”, effective with respect to articles entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, on the date of this notice.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, (NHTSA), Department of Transportation.
Denial of a petition for a defect investigation.
This notice sets forth the reasons for denying a petition submitted to NHTSA, 49 U.S.C. 30162, 49 CFR part 552, requesting that the agency open “an investigation into low-speed surging in different models of Toyota automobiles in which the car starts accelerating and the engine RPM increases even when the accelerator pedal is not depressed.”
Mr. Stephen McHenry, Vehicle Control Division, Office of Defects Investigation, NHTSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Telephone 202-366-4883. Email
Interested persons may petition NHTSA requesting that the agency initiate an investigation to determine whether a motor vehicle or item of replacement equipment does not comply with an applicable motor vehicle safety standard or contains a defect that relates to motor vehicle safety. 49 U.S.C. 30162(a)(2); 49 CFR 552.1. Upon receipt of a properly filed petition, the agency conducts a technical review of the petition, material submitted with the petition, and any additional information. 49 U.S.C. 30162(c); 49 CFR 552.6. The technical review may consist solely of a review of information already in the possession of the agency, or it may include the collection of information from the motor vehicle manufacturer and/or other sources. After considering the technical review and taking into account appropriate factors, which may include, among others, allocation of agency resources, agency priorities, the likelihood of uncovering sufficient evidence to establish the existence of a defect, and the likelihood of success in any necessary enforcement litigation, the agency will grant or deny the petition.
In a letter dated June 19, 2015, Dr. Gopal Raghavan (the petitioner) requested that NHTSA open “an investigation into low-speed surging in different models of Toyota automobiles in which the car starts accelerating and the engine RPM increases even when the accelerator pedal is not depressed.” Dr. Raghavan based his request on his analysis of EDR data from an accident involving his wife and from two other accidents in Toyota vehicles. NHTSA has reviewed the material cited by the petitioner. The results of this review and our evaluation of the petition are set forth in the DP15-005 Petition Analysis Report, published in its entirety as an appendix to this notice.
After a thorough assessment of the material submitted by the petitioner, the information already in NHTSA's possession, and the potential risks to safety implicated by the petitioner's allegations, it is unlikely that an order concerning the notification and remedy of a safety-related defect would result from any proceeding initiated by the granting of Dr. Raghavan's petition. After full consideration of the potential for finding a safety related defect in the vehicle, and in view of NHTSA's enforcement priorities, its previous investigations into this issue, and the need to allocate and prioritize NHTSA's limited resources to best accomplish the agency's mission, the petition is denied.
On June 29, 2015, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) received a June 19, 2015 letter from Dr. Gopal Raghavan, Ph.D. EE (the petitioner), petitioning the agency “for an investigation into low-speed surging in different models of Toyota automobiles in which the car starts accelerating and the engine RPM increases even when the accelerator pedal is not depressed.” In support of this request, the petitioner provides his analysis of Event Data Recorder (EDR) data from three accidents, which he alleges, “shows a troubling similarity amongst EDRs of Toyota cars showing sudden acceleration.”
Since the petition is based on several misconceptions about Toyota EDR pre-crash data, a short background of this system is provided. The Toyota EDR collects pre-trigger data (vehicle speed, engine speed, brake switch status, and accelerator pedal position sensor #1 voltage) from the vehicle's High Speed Controller Area Network (HS-CAN), which is refreshed either periodically or immediately by the respective control modules.
The EDR continuously performs 1 Hz sampling of HS-CAN pre-trigger data and stores the data in a temporary buffer. The EDR only saves this data, along with the trigger data, when it detects a triggering event such as a crash.
In 2010, NHTSA's Vehicle Research and Test Center (VRTC) conducted testing to validate the EDR pre-crash data used in NHTSA field investigations.
Subsequent studies have confirmed the limitations of stored EDR pre-crash data in capturing the entire crash event due to the data refresh rates, data resolutions and EDR sampling rates.
The Bosch CDR report provided with the petition clearly notes these issues in the first two items of Data Limitations section on page one of the report:
• Due to limitations of the data recorded by the airbag ECU, such as the resolution, data range, sampling interval, time period of the recording, and the items recorded, the information provided by this data may not be sufficient to capture the entire crash.
• Pre-Crash data is recorded in discrete intervals. Due to different refresh rates within the vehicle's electronics, the data recorded may not be synchronous to each other.
The first incident identified by the petitioner involved a sudden acceleration accident experienced by his wife as she
According to the EDR data, immediately prior to impact (t = 0.6 s) the brake pedal was not applied and the accelerator pedal was depressed to approximately 71 percent of full apply.
The second incident identified by the petitioner involved a MY 2010 Toyota Corolla that accelerated into a parked vehicle during an attempted curbside-parking maneuver in a residential neighborhood on June 8, 2014 (VOQ 10637908). NHTSA examined this incident in Defect Petition DP14-003, which the agency closed on April 29, 2015.
In the police report for this accident, the driver states that she stopped at an intersection with the intention of turning right and parking along the curb behind a parked vehicle. When interviewed by ODI, the driver indicated that as she applied the brakes during the incident, the car responded by accelerating. She stated that it did not slow down, and it continued to increase in speed until it hit the back of the parked vehicle. Similar to the current petitioner's incident, the EDR data for this incident (Table 3) shows no recorded service brake application until the airbag module trigger point (t = 0s).
Based on the vehicle speeds recorded just prior to impact (t = −0.8 s), the Corolla was less than a car length from the parked vehicle and traveling 7 to 9 feet per second with no indication of service brake application. At this speed and distance, the driver should be applying the brake to safely stop the vehicle and avoid the collision. Although the recorded accelerator rate voltages do not show a pedal application corresponding with the surge,
The third incident identified by the petitioner involved a MY 2009 Toyota Camry that accelerated into a building when attempting to park in a storefront facing parking space on December 21, 2009 (VOQ 10299750). This incident was among 58 accidents investigated by NHTSA in 2010 as part of the joint study with NASA. A description of the incident, identified as Case 33 in the NHTSA study, was included as an example of the 39 accidents classified as pedal misapplications in a 2011 report summarizing NHTSA's field investigations.
As described in the 2011 report, the driver had turned from a lane of traffic to enter a parking space and was about to come to a rest facing a shopping plaza storefront when the vehicle lunged forward through the façade of a hair salon. The driver reported having his foot on the brake when the acceleration occurred. Table 4 shows the EDR pre-crash data for this accident, as published in the 2011 report.
The EDR data for this incident shows no recorded service brake application during the event. Immediately prior to impact and after the vehicle had entered the parking space, the driver pressed the accelerator pedal to the floor when intending to apply the brake.
According to the petitioner, “The fact that all three cars were
The “glitch” in accelerator pedal voltage that the petitioner alleges occurs after the 3.7 mph speed recording, is the voltage increase resulting from the accelerator pedal applications by the drivers. The petitioner claims that the voltage spike suggests a potential vehicle based cause, speculating, “the accelerator is either calculating an incorrect accelerator value or receiving a noise spike on the accelerator sensor.” However, such speculation ignores the facts that the accelerator pedal has redundant sensors and that NASA already thoroughly examined this subject during the joint study. The common pattern is that the “glitches” occur at the moments in the events when the driver should be initiating braking, but no braking has occurred.
Thus, the only common signature evident in the incidents is that in all three the surges occurred when the driver should have initiated braking for a vehicle entering a parking space at low speed. The fact that the vehicles suddenly accelerated just as they were beginning to enter their intended parking spaces instead of braking to a stop as intended is a signature of pedal misapplication by the driver. NHTSA has observed this signature in investigations of sudden acceleration dating back to the first such investigation that ODI opened in 1978. It is not isolated to any particular makes or models of vehicles or to any throttle design technologies.
The petitioner claims that each of the incidents he analyzed displays evidence of engine speed increases without any application of the accelerator pedal. For example, in his analysis of his wife's incident he states, “by −1.6 seconds the engine RPM has DOUBLED to 800 with no depression of the accelerator.” This assertion reflects a misunderstanding of the manner in which the Toyota EDR samples and records pre-crash data as previously described in this report and in prior reports published by NHTSA.
First, as indicated in this report and in the Data Definitions section on page two of the Bosch CDR report attached to the petition, the Toyota EDR records engine speed in 400 rpm increments (rounded down). For example, a recorded value of 400 rpm indicates that the measured engine speed was between 400 and 799 rpm. Thus, an increase in recorded engine speed from 400 to 800 rpm could result from a change in engine speed of just 1 rpm.
Second, the nominal idle speed for a MY 2009 ES350 when the engine is warm, the transmission is in gear (
Finally, it is not accurate to state that engine speed increases did not result from accelerator pedal applications based strictly on the recorded EDR data, since the data do not necessarily show all accelerator pedal applications (see section 2.1 and Figure 1) and because of the differences in refresh rates for engine speed and accelerator rate. Although actual engine speed will closely follow accelerator rate, the recorded accelerator rate may slightly lag behind recorded engine speed due to the slower refresh rate of the accelerator signal (see Table 1). Thus, the increase in recorded engine speed at −1.6 seconds prior to impact could very well have resulted from the initial stages of the large pedal application that the EDR recorded at −0.6 seconds.
The EDR data used by the petitioner for Case 33 was from the initial readout ODI performed with the original version of software available from Toyota (Table 5). This version converted accelerator pedal sensor #1 voltages to an accelerator status of OFF, MIDDLE or FULL. A supplemental report to the NHTSA February 2011 report included a copy of this readout.
Table 4 shows the data from the readout obtained using the updated software. Rather than maintaining a consistent voltage as may be misinterpreted by the OFF accelerator levels shown in Table 5, the accelerator pedal rates in the updated readout in Table 4 show that the driver was applying the accelerator pedal at varying rates throughout the event. Thus, the petitioner's conclusions that the vehicle was coasting and the driver had not depressed the accelerator pedal when the idle speed was increasing are incorrect and do not provide evidence of a vehicle defect.
The petitioner incorrectly characterizes the joint NASA-NHTSA study as a “high-speed study.” In fact, the joint study focused on all potential vulnerabilities in the Toyota ETCS-i system that were not associated with the
The incidents analyzed by the petitioner fall within the scope of prior work conducted in the joint NHTSA-NASA study of Toyota ETCS-i and, more recently, the analysis conducted in evaluating Defect Petition DP14-003. His claims appear to be based on upon several misconceptions regarding the manner in which Toyota EDR sample and record data, as well as a misunderstanding of the scope of and results from prior work conducted by NHTSA, NASA and others related to sudden unintended acceleration and the use of EDR data in related field investigations. The petitioner has presented no new evidence or theories not already considered by NHTSA that warrant reconsideration of any of the analyses or conclusions from that prior work.
In our view, a defects investigation is unlikely to result in a finding that a defect related to motor vehicle safety exists, or a NHTSA order for the notification and remedy of a safety-related defect as alleged by the petitioner, at the conclusion of the requested investigation. Therefore, given a thorough analysis of the potential for finding a safety related defect in the vehicle, and in view of NHTSA's enforcement priorities, its previous investigations into this issue, and the need to allocate and prioritize NHTSA's limited resources to best accomplish the agency's safety mission and mitigate risk, the petition is denied. This action does not constitute a finding by NHTSA that a safety-related defect does not exist. The agency will take further action if warranted by future circumstances.
49 U.S.C. 30162(d); delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.50 and 501.8.
Bureau of Transportation Statistics (BTS), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of meeting.
This notice announces, pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (Pub. L. 72-363; 5 U.S.C. app. 2), a meeting of the Advisory Council on Transportation Statistics (ACTS). The meeting will be held on Thursday, September 10th, 2015 from 8:30 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. EST at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Room E37-302, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC. Section 52011 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) directs the U.S. Department of Transportation to establish an Advisory Council on Transportation Statistics subject to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C., App. 2) to advise the Bureau of Transportation Statistics (BTS) on the quality, reliability, consistency, objectivity, and relevance of transportation statistics and analyses collected, supported, or disseminated by the Bureau and the Department. The following is a summary of the draft meeting agenda: (1) USDOT Welcome and Introduction of Council Members; (2) Update on Current BTS Issues; (3) Discussion about Future Data Products; (4) Program Review; (5) Public Comments and Closing Remarks. Participation is open to the public.
Members of the public who wish to participate must notify Mr. D.Senay Gales at
Notice of this meeting is provided in accordance with the FACA and the General Services Administration regulations (41 CFR part 102-3) covering management of Federal advisory committees.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before September 24, 2015 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestion for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling (202) 927-5331, email at
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 2, that the Advisory Committee on Women Veterans will conduct a site visit on September 21-24, 2015, in Washington, DC. Meetings are open to the public, except when the Committee is off site for facility tours. Sessions at the Washington DC VA Medical Center and Walter Reed National Military Medical Center will be closed, to protect patient privacy during tours of medical facilities. Closing portions of the sessions are in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6). Briefings at VA Central Office will be open to the public. The site visit will also include a town hall meeting.
The purpose of the Committee is to advise the Secretary of Veterans Affairs regarding the needs of women Veterans with respect to health care, rehabilitation, compensation, outreach, and other programs and activities administered by VA designed to meet such needs. The Committee makes recommendations to the Secretary regarding such programs and activities.
On September 21, the Committee will convene an open session at VA Central Office, room 930, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. The agenda will include a status review of recommendations from the Committee's 2010, 2012, 2014 reports; an overview of VA initiatives, and a working session for the Committee to develop its response to a Congressionally-mandated study.
On the morning of September 22, the Committee will convene a closed session from 8:30 a.m. to 11:30 a.m., as it visits the Washington DC VA Medical Center, 50 Irving Street NW., Washington, DC 20422. The Committee will reconvene an open session in the afternoon, as it conducts a town hall meeting with the women Veterans community and other stakeholders at the Women's Memorial, located at the ceremonial entrance to Arlington National Cemetery, in Arlington, VA. The town hall meeting will take place from 2:00 p.m. to 3:30 p.m.
On September 23, the Committee will convene an open session at VA Central Office, in the G.V. Sonny Montgomery Conference Center, room 230, from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Briefings will include an update on VA's National Women Veterans Campaign, various women health issues, education and employment initiatives; an update briefing on the 2014 Report of the Advisory Committee on Women Veterans; and continuation of the Committee's working session.
On the morning of September 24, the Committee will convene a closed session, 8:30 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. as it visits Walter Reed National Military Medical Center, 8901 Rockville Pike, Bethesda, MD 20889. In the afternoon, the Committee will reconvene an open session at VA Central Office, in the G.V. Sonny Montgomery Conference Center, room 230 from 3:00 p.m. to 4:30 p.m., to conduct a brief after action discussion.
Members of the public may submit a written statement for the Committee's review to
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Proposed rule; supplemental.
The Fish and Wildlife Service (hereinafter Service or we) is proposing to establish the 2015-16 late-season hunting regulations for certain migratory game birds. We annually prescribe frameworks, or outer limits, for dates and times when hunting may occur and the number of birds that may be taken and possessed in late seasons. These frameworks are necessary to allow State selections of seasons and limits and to allow recreational harvest at levels compatible with population and habitat conditions.
You must submit comments on the proposed migratory bird hunting late-season frameworks by September 4, 2015.
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• U.S. mail or hand delivery: Public Comments Processing, Attn: FWS-HQ-MB-2014-0064; Division of Policy, Performance, and Management Programs; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; MS: BPHC; 5275 Leesburg Pike; Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
We will post all comments on
Ron W. Kokel, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Department of the Interior, MS: MB, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803; (703) 358-1967.
On April 13, 2015, we published in the
Subsequent documents will refer only to numbered items requiring attention. Therefore, it is important to note that we will omit those items requiring no attention, and remaining numbered items will be discontinuous and appear incomplete.
On June 11, 2015, we published in the
On June 24-25, 2015, we held open meetings with the Flyway Council Consultants, at which the participants reviewed information on the current status of migratory shore and upland game birds and developed recommendations for the 2015-16 regulations for these species plus regulations for migratory game birds in Alaska, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands; special September waterfowl seasons in designated States; special sea duck seasons in the Atlantic Flyway; and extended falconry seasons. In addition, we reviewed and discussed preliminary information on the status of waterfowl as it relates to the development and selection of the regulatory packages for the 2015-16 regular waterfowl seasons.
On July 21, 2015, we published in the
On July 29-30, 2015, we held open meetings with the Flyway Council Consultants, at which the participants reviewed the status of waterfowl and developed recommendations for the 2015-16 regulations for these species.
This document deals specifically with proposed frameworks for the late-season migratory bird hunting regulations. It will lead to final frameworks from which States may select season dates, shooting hours, areas, and limits. We have considered all pertinent comments received through August 1, 2015, on the April 13 and June 11, 2015, rulemaking documents in developing this document. In addition, new proposals for certain late-season regulations are provided for public comment. The comment period is specified above under
The following paragraphs provide preliminary information on the status and harvest of waterfowl excerpted from various reports. For more detailed information on methodologies and results, you may obtain complete copies of the various reports at the address indicated under
Federal, provincial, and State agencies conduct surveys each spring to estimate the size of breeding populations and to evaluate habitat conditions. These surveys are conducted using fixed-wing aircraft, helicopters, and ground crews and encompass principal breeding areas of North America, covering an area over 2.0 million square miles. The traditional survey area comprises Alaska, western Canada, and the northcentral United States, and includes approximately 1.3 million square miles. The eastern survey area includes parts of Ontario, Quebec, Labrador, Newfoundland, Nova Scotia, Prince Edward Island, New Brunswick, New York, and Maine, an area of approximately 0.7 million square miles.
Despite an early spring over most of the survey area, habitat conditions during the 2015 Waterfowl Breeding Population and Habitat Survey (WBPHS) were similar to or poorer than last year. With the exception of portions of southern Saskatchewan and central latitudes of eastern Canada, in many areas the decline in habitat conditions was due to average to below-average annual precipitation. The total pond estimate (Prairie Canada and United States combined) was 6.3 ± 0.2 million, which was 12 percent below the 2014 estimate of 7.2 ± 0.2 million but 21 percent above the long-term average of 5.2 ± 0.03 million. The 2015 estimate of ponds in Prairie Canada was 4.2 ± 0.1 million. This estimate was 10 percent below the 2014 estimate of 4.6 ± 0.2 million but 19 percent above the long-term average (3.5 ± 0.02 million). The 2015 pond estimate for the northcentral United States was 2.2 ± 0.09 million, which was 16 percent below the 2014 estimate of 2.6 ± 0.1 million and 28 percent above the long-term average (1.7 ± 0.02 million). Additional details of the 2015 Survey were provided in the July 21
In the traditional survey area, which includes strata 1-18, 20-50, and 75-77, the total duck population estimate (excluding scoters [
The eastern survey area was restratified in 2005, and is now composed of strata 51-72. In the eastern survey area, estimated abundance of American black ducks (
The midcontinent mallard population is composed of mallards from the traditional survey area (revised in 2008 to exclude mallards in Alaska and the Old Crow Flats area of the Yukon Territory), Michigan, Minnesota, and Wisconsin, and is estimated to be 13.8 ± 1.4 million birds in 2015. This is similar to the 2014 estimate of 13.4 ± 1.3 million. See section 1.A. General Harvest Strategy for further discussion of the implications of this information for this year's selection of the appropriate hunting regulations.
We provide information on the population status and productivity of North American Canada geese (
In 2015, conditions in the Arctic and boreal areas important for geese were variable. Compared to last year, snow and ice conditions were less extensive in the western Arctic, more extensive in the central Arctic, and similar in the eastern Arctic. Breeding conditions were good on Bylot Island in the eastern Arctic, and an average to above-average fall flight was expected for greater snow geese. Biologists reported later-than-average spring phenology at Southampton Island, the northern and western coastal areas of the Hudson Bay, and the southern portion of Baffin Island. Atlantic brant have had 3 years of low production, and below-average production was expected again this year. Habitat conditions across Atlantic Canada were generally good, except for a more persistent spring snow pack and ice coverage in higher elevation areas in Newfoundland and Labrador. Nesting conditions were below average on the Ungava Peninsula, and lakes and ponds along the eastern Hudson Bay coast remained frozen in mid-June. North Atlantic Population and Atlantic Population Canada goose numbers were similar to recent averages, and average fall flights were expected. Of the Canada goose populations that migrate through the Mississippi Flyway, Eastern Prairie
Across much of the Canadian and U.S. prairies, spring phenology was early. Habitat conditions were generally rated good to fair on the Canadian prairies and fair to poor on the U.S. prairies. Southern and central portions of the western United States were exceptionally dry, and habitat conditions there were generally poor. However, production of temperate-nesting Canada geese over most of their North American range is expected to be average, and similar to previous years.
Of the 28 goose and swan populations included in the report, 6 had significant positive trends during the most recent 10-year period (
National surveys of migratory bird hunters were conducted during the 2013-14 and 2014-15 hunting seasons. Over 1 million waterfowl hunters harvested 13,716,400 (± 6 percent) ducks and 3,360,400 (± 6 percent) geese in 2013, and over 1 million waterfowl hunters harvested 13,267,800 (± 4 percent) ducks and 3,321,100 (± 11 percent) geese in 2014. Mallard, green-winged teal, gadwall, blue-winged/cinnamon teal, and wood duck (
The preliminary proposed rulemaking, which appeared in the April 13, 2015,
We received recommendations from all four Flyway Councils. Some recommendations supported continuation of last year's frameworks. Due to the comprehensive nature of the annual review of the frameworks performed by the Councils, support for continuation of last year's frameworks is assumed for items for which no recommendations were received. Council recommendations for changes in the frameworks are summarized below.
We seek additional information and comments on the recommendations in this supplemental proposed rule. New proposals and modifications to previously described proposals are discussed below. Wherever possible, they are discussed under headings corresponding to the numbered items in the April 13 and June 11, 2015,
Categories used to discuss issues related to duck harvest management are: (A) General Harvest Strategy, (B) Regulatory Alternatives, (C) Zones and Split Seasons, and (D) Special Seasons/Species Management. The categories correspond to previously published issues/discussion, and only those containing substantial recommendations are discussed below.
For the 2015 hunting season, we are continuing to consider the same regulatory alternatives as those used last year. The nature of the “restrictive,” “moderate,” and “liberal” alternatives has remained essentially unchanged since 1997, except that extended framework dates have been offered in the “moderate” and “liberal” regulatory alternatives since 2002 (67 FR 47224; July 17, 2002). Also, in 2003, we agreed to place a constraint on closed seasons in the Mississippi and Central Flyways whenever the midcontinent mallard breeding-population size (as defined prior to 2008; traditional survey area plus Minnesota, Michigan, and Wisconsin) was ≥ 5.5 million (68 FR 37362; June 23, 2003). This constraint subsequently was revised in 2008 to ≥ 4.75 million to account for the change in the definition of midcontinent mallards to exclude birds from Alaska and the Old Crow Flats area of the Yukon Territory (73 FR 43293; July 24, 2008).
The optimal AHM strategies for mid-continent, eastern, and western mallards for the 2015-16 hunting season were calculated using: (1) Harvest-management objectives specific to each mallard stock; (2) the 2015 regulatory alternatives; and (3) current population models and associated weights. Based on this year's survey results of 11.79 million mid-continent mallards (traditional survey area minus Alaska and the Old Crow Flats area of the Yukon Territory, plus Minnesota, Wisconsin, and Michigan) and 4.15 million ponds in Prairie Canada, 0.73 million eastern mallards (0.19 million and 0.54 million respectively in northeast Canada and the northeastern United States), and 0.73 million western mallards (0.26 million in California-Oregon and 0.47 million in Alaska), the optimal regulatory choice for all four Flyways is the “liberal” alternative. Therefore, we concur with the recommendations of the Atlantic, Mississippi, Central, and Pacific Flyway Councils regarding selection of the “liberal” regulatory alternative and propose to adopt the “liberal” regulatory alternative, as described in the July 21, 2015,
For the 2015-16 season, the optimal country-specific regulatory strategies were calculated in September 2014 using: (1) The black duck harvest objective (98 percent of long-term cumulative harvest); (2) 2015-16 country-specific regulatory alternatives; (3) parameter estimates for mallard competition and additive mortality; and (4) 2014 estimates of 0.619 million breeding black ducks and 0.445 million breeding mallards in the core survey area. The optimal regulatory choices are the moderate package in Canada and the restrictive package in the United States.
This year's spring survey resulted in an estimate of 757,000 canvasbacks and 4.15 million Canadian ponds. The canvasback harvest strategy predicts a 2016 canvasback breeding population of 727,000 birds under a liberal duck season with a 2-bird daily bag limit. Because the predicted 2016 spring canvasback population under a liberal 2-bird-bag season is greater than 725,000, and since the recommended duck season under AHM is liberal, the harvest strategy stipulates that there should be a full canvasback season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
The 2015 breeding population estimate for scaup is 4.40 million, which is similar to the 2014 estimate. An optimal regulatory strategy for scaup was calculated with an objective of achieving 95 percent of maximum long-term cumulative harvest and updated model parameters and their relative weights. Based on this year's breeding population estimate of 4.40 million, the optimal regulatory choice for scaup is the “moderate” package in all four Flyways.
The Mississippi and Central Flyway Councils recommended that we allow States to use their established definitions of age for youth hunters as the age requirement for participation in youth hunting days, not to include anyone over the age of 17.
The Pacific Flyway Council recommended the following changes to goose season frameworks for the Pacific Flyway:
1. In Oregon and Washington, modify frameworks to close the season for dusky Canada geese in Oregon's Northwest Permit Zone and Washington's Southwest Permit Zone, and restrict beginning goose shooting hours to no earlier than sunrise in Oregon's Northwest Permit Zone and Washington's Southwest Permit Zone.
2. In Oregon, expand the Northwest Permit Zone to include the Northwest Zone, and modify the Tillamook County Special Management Area by reducing the area from all of Tillamook County to only that area currently described as closed to goose hunting.
3. In Washington, modify frameworks to eliminate the special late season and extend the regular season to March 10 in Areas 2A and 2B (Southwest Permit Zone), eliminate the Aleutian goose bag limit restriction in Area 2B, and expand the Southwest Permit Zone to include all of Clark County (2A) and Grays Harbour County (2B).
4. In Idaho, modify the frameworks to create a new zone by removing Bear Lake County and Caribou County, except that portion within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, from Zone 2 and renaming these counties Zone 4.
We agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendations to close the dusky Canada goose season and restrict shooting hours for geese in the Permit Zones of Oregon and Washington, and expand Permit Zone boundaries. Seven subspecies of Canada geese winter in the Pacific Flyway and are managed as separate populations. Most Canada goose populations are abundant and at or above population objectives; however, the dusky Canada goose population has generally remained at <20,000 geese. Dusky Canada geese have a small breeding range including the Copper River Delta and adjacent islands in Alaska. Since 1985, the dusky Canada goose breeding population has varied between 7,000 and 18,000 geese. The most recent (2015) estimate of the breeding population size is 17,873 geese, and the recent 3-year (2012-2015, no estimate was available in 2013) average is 15,574 geese. In addition to the small population size, the dusky goose population has low harvest potential, and these birds are especially vulnerable to harvest. Consequently, the take of dusky geese must be limited to a greater extent than other Canada goose populations in the Pacific Flyway.
A permit and quota system with mandatory hunter reporting at check stations was implemented in 1985, in the primary dusky Canada goose wintering area of Oregon and Washington (Permit Zones). Once the quota was exceeded, the goose season in the Permit Zones was closed to protect against additional take of dusky geese. Check stations cost about $335,000 annually to operate in Oregon and Washington. Due to budgetary constraints, Oregon and Washington prefer to close the dusky Canada goose season rather than operate a quota system with mandatory hunter reporting at check stations.
Regular Canada goose seasons in the Permit Zones of Oregon and Washington
We also agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation for minor changes to the existing Canada goose hunting seasons in Oregon and Washington. The bag limit restriction of 1 Aleutian Canada goose in Pacific County, Washington (Area 2B), (within the overall Canada goose daily bag limit) was first implemented when hunting of Aleutian Canada geese resumed in Oregon and Washington, after the subspecies was removed from protection under the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
In Washington, a special late Canada goose season has been offered in Areas 2A and 2B (Southwest Permit Zone). The special late goose season could be held between the Saturday following the close of the general goose season, which was the last Sunday in January, and March 10. Eliminating the special late season and extend the regular season to March 10 in Areas 2A and 2B for Canada goose has no consequence in season length or outside dates, but reduces the number of splits allowed in the Canada goose season from 4 to 3. The change will simplify regulations and is expected to have no biological impact to the Canada goose population. Also, regular season outside dates for white-fronted geese and light geese in Washington extend through March 10.I
Lastly, we agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation for minor changes to the existing goose hunting zones in Idaho. The modifications to the Idaho goose zones are intended to provide additional flexibility to Idaho in addressing resident Canada goose over abundance. Breeding population indices for Pacific and Rocky Mountain populations of Canada geese currently exceed management objectives in Flyway management plans. The 3-year (2013-2015) average population estimate for the Pacific Population of western Canada geese is 214,603, and is well above the objective of 126,650 geese. The 3-year (2013-2015) average population estimate for the Rocky Mountain Population of western Canada geese is 158,038, and above the objective of 88,000 to 146,000 geese. In order to accommodate an early Canada Goose season in Bear Lake County and Caribou County, except that portion within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, it is necessary to create a new goose zone in Idaho.
The Central Flyway Council recommended that frameworks for white-fronted geese in the east-tier States of the Central Flyway be revised to the Saturday nearest September 24 until the Sunday nearest February 15 with a season length of 74 days and a daily bag of 3 birds, an 88-day season with a daily bag of 2 birds, or a 107-day season with a daily bag limit of 1 bird. The Council recommended an increase of 1 bird in the daily bag limit in the Western Goose Zone of Texas, but no change in the bag limit for other west-tier States. All the recommended revisions are consistent with the newly revised white-fronted goose management plan.
If the mid-winter waterfowl survey (MWS) count is <100,000 Atlantic brant, the season would be closed.
If the MWS count is between 100,000 and 115,000 brant, States could select a 30-day season with a 1-bird daily bag limit.
If the MWS count is between 115,000 and 130,000 brant, States could select a 30-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
If the MWS count is between 130,000 and 150,000 brant, States could select a 50-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
If the MWS count is between 150,000 and 200,000 brant, States could select a 60-day season with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
If the MWS count is >200,000 brant, States could select a 60-day season with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Under all the above open season alternatives, seasons would be between the Saturday nearest September 24 and January 31. Further, States could split their seasons into 2 segments.
Utilizing the newly revised brant hunt plan, the Atlantic Flyway Council recommended a 30-day season with a 1-bird daily bag limit for the 2015-16 hunting season.
The Mississippi Flyway Council recommended revising the brant frameworks in the Mississippi Flyway to allow States the option of including brant in an aggregate bag limit with white-fronted and/or Canada geese.
The Pacific Flyway Council recommended increasing the brant season length in California from 30 to 37 days.
The Atlantic Flyway notes that there have been 3 consecutive years of poor Atlantic brant production, and 2015 may also be poor. Further, the population has been below management plan goals for the last 6 years. The 2015 mid-winter index (MWI) for Atlantic brant was 111,434. The Council's revised brant hunt plan allows for a 30-day season with a 1-bird daily bag limit when the MWI estimate falls between 100,000 and 115,000 brant. Recognizing the Council's continuing concerns about the status of Atlantic brant, we support the Atlantic Flyway Council's revisions to the brant hunt plan and the recommendation for the 2015-16 season.
Regarding the Mississippi Flyway Council's recommendation to allow States the option of including brant in an aggregate bag limit with white-fronted and/or Canada geese, we concur. Very few brant are harvested in the Mississippi Flyway, so this simplification of the regulations will have no biological impact to the population.
Lastly, we agree with the Pacific Flyway Council's recommendation for increasing the season length from 30 days to 37 days in California. The Flyway management plan for Pacific brant allows harvest to increase by two times the current level if the 3-year average population index exceeds 135,000 brant based on the mid-winter waterfowl survey. The 3-year (2013-2015) average is 157,700 brant. Increasing the season length by 7 days will allow additional hunting opportunity while maintaining the 2-bird daily bag limit for brant, and is not expected to increase harvest appreciably from that during a 30-day season.
The Department of the Interior's policy is, whenever possible, to afford the public an opportunity to participate in the rulemaking process. Accordingly, we invite interested persons to submit written comments, suggestions, or recommendations regarding the proposed regulations. Before promulgating final migratory game bird hunting regulations, we will consider all comments we receive. These comments, and any additional information we receive, may lead to final regulations that differ from these proposals.
You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in the
Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on
We will consider, but possibly may not respond in detail to, each comment. As in the past, we will summarize all comments we receive during the comment period and respond to them after the closing date in the preambles of any final rules.
Based on our most current data, we are affirming our required determinations made in the April 13, June 11, and July 21 proposed rules; for descriptions of our actions to ensure compliance with the following statutes and Executive Orders, see our April 13, 2015, proposed rule (80 FR 19852):
• National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Consideration;
• Endangered Species Act Consideration;
• Regulatory Flexibility Act;
• Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act;
• Unfunded Mandates Reform Act;
• Executive Orders 12630, 12866, 12988, 13132, 13175, 13211, and 13563.
We are updating one required determination in this document, as follows:
This proposed rule does not contain any new information collection requirements that require approval under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
• 1018-0019—North American Woodcock Singing Ground Survey (expires 5/31/2018).
• 1018-0023—Migratory Bird Surveys (expires 6/30/2017). Includes Migratory Bird Harvest Information Program, Migratory Bird Hunter Surveys, Sandhill Crane Survey, and Parts Collection Survey.
Exports, Hunting, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.
The rules that eventually will be promulgated for the 2015-16 hunting season are authorized under 16 U.S.C. 703-712 and 16 U.S.C. 742 a-j.
Pursuant to the Migratory Bird Treaty Act and delegated authorities, the Department of the Interior approved the following proposals for season lengths, shooting hours, bag and possession limits, and outside dates within which States may select seasons for hunting waterfowl and coots between the dates of September 1, 2015, and March 10, 2016. These frameworks are summarized below.
Dates: All outside dates noted below are inclusive.
Shooting and Hawking (taking by falconry) Hours: Unless otherwise specified, from one-half hour before sunrise to sunset daily.
Possession Limits: Unless otherwise specified, possession limits are three times the daily bag limit.
Permits: For some species of migratory birds, the Service authorizes the use of permits to regulate harvest or monitor their take by sport hunters, or both. In many cases (
These Federally authorized, State-issued permits are issued to individuals, and only the individual whose name and address appears on the permit at the time of issuance is authorized to take migratory birds at levels specified in the permit, in accordance with provisions of both Federal and State regulations governing the hunting season. The permit must be carried by the permittee when exercising its provisions and must be presented to any law enforcement officer upon request. The permit is not transferrable or assignable to another individual, and may not be sold, bartered, traded, or otherwise provided to another person. If the permit is altered or defaced in any way, the permit becomes invalid.
Atlantic Flyway—includes Connecticut, Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, South Carolina, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia.
Mississippi Flyway—includes Alabama, Arkansas, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Mississippi, Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee, and Wisconsin.
Central Flyway—includes Colorado (east of the Continental Divide), Kansas, Montana (Counties of Blaine, Carbon, Fergus, Judith Basin, Stillwater, Sweetgrass, Wheatland, and all counties east thereof), Nebraska, New Mexico (east of the Continental Divide except the Jicarilla Apache Indian Reservation), North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming (east of the Continental Divide).
Pacific Flyway—includes Alaska, Arizona, California, Idaho, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, Washington, and those portions of Colorado, Montana, New Mexico, and Wyoming not included in the Central Flyway.
High Plains Mallard Management Unit—roughly defined as that portion of the Central Flyway that lies west of the 100th meridian.
For the purpose of hunting regulations listed below, the collective terms “dark” and “light” geese include the following species:
Area, Zone, and Unit Descriptions: Geographic descriptions related to late-season regulations are contained in a later portion of this document.
Area-Specific Provisions: Frameworks for open seasons, season lengths, bag
In the Atlantic Flyway States of Connecticut, Delaware, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Jersey, North Carolina, and Pennsylvania, where Sunday hunting is prohibited Statewide by State law, all Sundays are closed to all take of migratory waterfowl (including mergansers and coots).
Outside Dates: States may select 2 days per duck-hunting zone, designated as “Youth Waterfowl Hunting Days,” in addition to their regular duck seasons. The days must be held outside any regular duck season on a weekend, holidays, or other non-school days when youth hunters would have the maximum opportunity to participate. The days may be held up to 14 days before or after any regular duck-season frameworks or within any split of a regular duck season, or within any other open season on migratory birds.
Daily Bag Limits: The daily bag limits may include ducks, geese, tundra swans, mergansers, coots, moorhens, and gallinules and would be the same as those allowed in the regular season. Flyway species and area restrictions would remain in effect.
Shooting Hours: One-half hour before sunrise to sunset.
Participation Restrictions: Youth hunters must be 15 years of age or younger. In addition, an adult at least 18 years of age must accompany the youth hunter into the field. This adult may not duck hunt but may participate in other seasons that are open on the special youth day. Tundra swans may only be taken by participants possessing applicable tundra swan permits.
Outside Dates: Between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31).
Hunting Seasons and Duck Limits: 60 days. The daily bag limit is 6 ducks, including no more than 4 mallards (no more than 2 of which can be females), 1 black duck, 2 pintails, 1 mottled duck, 1 fulvous whistling duck, 3 wood ducks, 2 redheads, 2 scaup, 2 canvasbacks, and 4 scoters.
Closures: The season on harlequin ducks is closed.
Sea Ducks: Within the special sea duck areas, during the regular duck season in the Atlantic Flyway, States may choose to allow the above sea duck limits in addition to the limits applying to other ducks during the regular duck season. In all other areas, sea ducks may be taken only during the regular open season for ducks and are part of the regular duck season daily bag (not to exceed 4 scoters) and possession limits.
Merganser Limits: The daily bag limit of mergansers is 5, only 2 of which may be hooded mergansers. In States that include mergansers in the duck bag limit, the daily limit is the same as the duck bag limit, only 2 of which may be hooded mergansers.
Coot Limits: The daily bag limit is 15 coots.
Lake Champlain Zone, New York: The waterfowl seasons, limits, and shooting hours should be the same as those selected for the Lake Champlain Zone of Vermont.
Connecticut River Zone, Vermont: The waterfowl seasons, limits, and shooting hours should be the same as those selected for the Inland Zone of New Hampshire.
Zoning and Split Seasons: Delaware, Florida, Georgia, Maryland, North Carolina, Rhode Island, South Carolina, Virginia, and West Virginia may split their seasons into three segments; Connecticut, Maine, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Pennsylvania, and Vermont may select hunting seasons by zones and may split their seasons into two segments in each zone.
Season Lengths, Outside Dates, and Limits: Specific regulations for Canada geese are shown below by State. These seasons also include white-fronted geese. Unless specified otherwise, seasons may be split into two segments.
North Atlantic Population (NAP) Zone: Between October 1 and February 15, a 70-day season may be held with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Atlantic Population (AP) Zone: A 50-day season may be held between October 10 and February 5, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
South Zone: A special season may be held between January 15 and February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
Resident Population (RP) Zone: An 80-day season may be held between October 1 and February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between November 15 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between November 15 and February 5, with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
NAP Zone: A 70-day season may be held between October 1 and February 15, with a 3-bird daily bag limit. Additionally, a special season may be held from January 15 to February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between October 10 and February 5, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24) and February 5, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24) and February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
Special Late Goose Season Area: A special season may be held in designated areas of North and South New Jersey from January 15 to February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
NAP Zone: Between October 1 and February 15, a 70-day season may be held, with a 3-bird daily bag limit in both the High Harvest and Low Harvest areas.
Special Late Goose Season Area: A special season may be held between January 15 and February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit in designated areas of Suffolk County.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24), except in the Lake Champlain Area where the opening date is October 10, and February 5, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Western Long Island RP Zone: A 107-day season may be held between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10, with an 8-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
Rest of State RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24) and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
SJBP Zone: A 70-day season may be held between October 1 and December 31, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between October 1 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
Northeast Hunt Unit: A 14-day season may be held between the Saturday prior to December 25 (December 19) and January 31, with a 1-bird daily bag limit.
SJBP Zone: A 78-day season may be held between the first Saturday in October (October 3) and February 15, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24) and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between the fourth Saturday in October (October 24) and February 5, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Lake Champlain Zone and Interior Zone: A 50-day season may be held between October 10 and February 5 with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
Connecticut River Zone: A 70-day season may be held between October 1 and February 15, with a 3-bird daily bag limit.
SJBP Zone: A 40-day season may be held between November 15 and January 14, with a 3-bird daily bag limit. Additionally, a special late season may be held between January 15 and February 15, with a 5-bird daily bag limit.
AP Zone: A 50-day season may be held between November 15 and February 5, with a 2-bird daily bag limit.
RP Zone: An 80-day season may be held between November 15 and March 10, with a 5-bird daily bag limit. The season may be split into 3 segments.
Season Lengths, Outside Dates, and Limits: States may select a 107-day season between October 1 and March 10, with a 25-bird daily bag limit and no possession limit. States may split their seasons into three segments.
Season Lengths, Outside Dates, and Limits: States may select a 30-day season between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and January 31, with a 1-bird daily bag limit. States may split their seasons into two segments.
Outside Dates: Between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31).
Hunting Seasons and Duck Limits: The season may not exceed 60 days, with a daily bag limit of 6 ducks, including no more than 4 mallards (no more than 2 of which may be females), 1 mottled duck, 1 black duck, 2 pintails, 3 wood ducks, 2 canvasbacks, 3 scaup, and 2 redheads. In addition to the daily limits listed above, the States of Iowa, Michigan, Minnesota, and Wisconsin may include an additional 2 blue-winged teal in the daily bag limit in lieu of selecting an experimental September teal season during the first 16 days of the regular duck season in each respective duck hunting zone.
Merganser Limits: The daily bag limit is 5, only 2 of which may be hooded mergansers. In States that include mergansers in the duck bag limit, the daily limit is the same as the duck bag limit, only 2 of which may be hooded mergansers.
Coot Limits: The daily bag limit is 15 coots.
Zoning and Split Seasons: Alabama, Illinois, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee, and Wisconsin may select hunting seasons by zones.
In Alabama, Indiana, Iowa, Kentucky, Louisiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Missouri, Ohio, Tennessee, and Wisconsin, the season may be split into two segments in each zone.
In Arkansas and Mississippi, the season may be split into three segments.
Split Seasons: Seasons for geese may be split into three segments.
Season Lengths, Outside Dates, and Limits: States may select seasons for light geese not to exceed 107 days, with 20 geese daily between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. There is no possession limit for light geese. Arkansas, Illinois, Louisiana, Kentucky, Missouri, Mississippi, and Tennessee may select a season for white-fronted geese not to exceed 74 days with 3 geese daily, or 88 days with 2 geese daily, or 107 days with 1 goose daily between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the Sunday nearest February 15 (February 14); Alabama, Iowa, Indiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Ohio, and Wisconsin may select a season for white-fronted geese not to exceed 107 day with 5 geese daily, in aggregate with dark geese. States may select a season for brant not to exceed 70 days with 2 brant daily, or 107 days with 1 brant daily with outside dates the same as Canada geese; alternately, States may include brant in an aggregate goose bag limit with either Canada geese, white-fronted geese, or dark geese. States may select seasons for Canada geese not to exceed 92 days with 2 geese daily or 78 days with 3 geese daily between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and January 31 with the following exceptions listed by State:
Late Canada Goose Season Area: A special Canada goose season of up to 15 days may be held during February 1-15 in the Late Canada Goose Season Zone. During this special season, the daily bag limit cannot exceed 5 Canada geese.
The framework opening date for all geese is September 11 in the Upper Peninsula of Michigan and September 16 in the Lower Peninsula of Michigan.
Southern Michigan Late Canada Goose Season Zone: A 30-day special Canada goose season may be held between December 31 and February 15. The daily bag limit is 5 Canada geese.
Horicon Zone: The framework opening date for all geese is September 16.
Exterior Zone: The framework opening date for all geese is September 16.
Additional Limits: In addition to the harvest limits stated for the respective zones above, an additional 4,500 Canada geese may be taken in the Horicon Zone under special agricultural permits.
Outside Dates: Between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31).
Hunting Seasons:
High Plains Mallard Management Unit (roughly defined as that portion of the Central Flyway which lies west of the 100th meridian): 97 days. The last 23 days must run consecutively and may start no earlier than the Saturday nearest December 10 (December 12).
Remainder of the Central Flyway: 74 days.
Bag Limits: The daily bag limit is 6 ducks, with species and sex restrictions as follows: 5 mallards (no more than 2 of which may be females), 3 scaup, 2 redheads, 3 wood ducks, 2 pintails, and 2 canvasbacks. In Texas, the daily bag limit on mottled ducks is 1, except that no mottled ducks may be taken during the first 5 days of the season. In addition to the daily limits listed above, the States of Montana, North Dakota, South Dakota, and Wyoming, in lieu of selecting an experimental September teal season, may include an additional daily bag and possession limit of 2 and 6 blue-winged teal, respectively, during the first 16 days of the regular duck season in each respective duck hunting zone. These extra limits are in addition to the regular duck bag and possession limits.
Merganser Limits: The daily bag limit is 5 mergansers, only 2 of which may be hooded mergansers. In States that include mergansers in the duck daily bag limit, the daily limit may be the same as the duck bag limit, only two of which may be hooded mergansers.
Coot Limits: The daily bag limit is 15 coots.
Zoning and Split Seasons: Colorado, Kansas (Low Plains portion), Montana, Nebraska, New Mexico, Oklahoma (Low Plains portion), South Dakota (Low Plains portion), Texas (Low Plains portion), and Wyoming may select hunting seasons by zones.
In Colorado, Kansas, Montana, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming, the regular season may be split into two segments.
Split Seasons: Seasons for geese may be split into three segments. Three-way split seasons for Canada geese require Central Flyway Council and U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service approval, and a 3-year evaluation by each participating State.
Outside Dates: For dark geese, seasons may be selected between the outside dates of the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the Sunday nearest February 15 (February 14). For light geese, outside dates for seasons may be selected between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. In the Rainwater Basin Light Goose Area (East and West) of Nebraska, temporal and spatial restrictions that are consistent with the late-winter snow goose hunting strategy cooperatively developed by the Central Flyway Council and the Service are required.
Season Lengths and Limits:
Light Geese: States may select a light goose season not to exceed 107 days. The daily bag limit for light geese is 50 with no possession limit.
Dark Geese: In Kansas, Nebraska, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, and the Eastern Goose Zone of Texas, States may select a season for Canada geese (or any other dark goose species except white-fronted geese) not to exceed 107 days with a daily bag limit of 8. For white-fronted geese, these States may select either a season of 74 days with a bag limit of 3, or an 88-day season with a bag limit of 2, or a season of 107 days with a bag limit of 1.
In Colorado, Montana, New Mexico, and Wyoming, States may select seasons not to exceed 107 days. The daily bag limit for dark geese is 5 in the aggregate.
In the Western Goose Zone of Texas, the season may not exceed 95 days. The daily bag limit for Canada geese (or any other dark goose species except white-fronted geese) is 5. The daily bag limit for white-fronted geese is 2.
Outside Dates: Between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31).
Hunting Seasons and Duck and Merganser Limits: Concurrent 107 days. The daily bag limit is 7 ducks and mergansers, including no more than 2 female mallards, 2 pintails, 2 canvasbacks, 3 scaup, and 2 redheads. For scaup, the season length is 86 days, which may be split according to applicable zones and split duck hunting configurations approved for each State.
In States or zones with a split duck and merganser season, the season on coots, common moorhens, and purple gallinules may remain open during the closed portion of the duck and merganser season splits, but not to exceed 107 days.
Coot, Common Moorhen, and Purple Gallinule Limits: The daily bag limit of coots, common moorhens, and purple gallinules are 25, singly or in the aggregate.
Zoning and Split Seasons: Arizona, California, Idaho, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, Washington, and Wyoming may select hunting seasons by zones. Arizona, California, Idaho, Nevada, Oregon, Utah, Washington, and Wyoming may split their seasons into two segments.
Colorado, Montana, and New Mexico may split their seasons into three segments.
Colorado River Zone, California: Seasons and limits should be the same as seasons and limits selected in the adjacent portion of Arizona (South Zone).
Season Lengths, Outside Dates, and Limits:
Canada geese and brant: Except as subsequently noted, 107-day seasons may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31). In Arizona, Colorado, Idaho, Montana, Nevada, and Utah, the daily bag limit is 4 Canada geese and brant in the aggregate. In New Mexico and Wyoming, the daily bag limit is 3 Canada geese and brant in the aggregate. In California, Oregon, and Washington, the daily bag limit is 4 Canada geese. For brant, Oregon and Washington may select a 16-day season and California a 37-day season. Days must be consecutive. Washington and California may select hunting seasons for up to two zones. The daily bag limit is 2 brant and is in addition to other goose limits. In Oregon and California, the brant season must end no later than December 15.
White-fronted geese: Except as subsequently noted, 107-day seasons may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. The daily bag limit is 10.
Light geese: Except as subsequently noted, 107-day seasons may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. The daily bag limit is 20.
Split Seasons: Unless otherwise specified, seasons for geese may be split
Balance of State Zone: A Canada goose season may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. In the Sacramento Valley Special Management Area, the season on white-fronted geese must end on or before December 28, and the daily bag limit is 3 white-fronted geese. In the North Coast Special Management Area, hunting days that occur after the last Sunday in January should be concurrent with Oregon's South Coast Zone.
Zone 2: Idaho will continue to monitor the snow goose hunt that occurs after the last Sunday in January in the American Falls Reservoir/Fort Hall Bottoms and surrounding areas at 3-year intervals.
Harney and Lake County Zone: For Lake County only, the daily white-fronted goose bag limit is 1.
Northwest Permit Zone: A Canada goose season may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. Goose seasons may be split into 3 segments. The daily bag limit of light geese is 6. In the Tillamook County Management Area, the hunting season is closed on geese.
South Coast Zone: A Canada goose season may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. The daily bag limit of Canada geese is 6. Hunting days that occur after the last Sunday in January should be concurrent with California's North Coast Special Management Area. Goose seasons may be split into 3 segments.
Area 1: Goose season outside dates are between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and the last Sunday in January (January 31).
Areas 2A and 2B (Southwest Permit Zone): A Canada goose season may be selected with outside dates between the Saturday nearest September 24 (September 26) and March 10. Goose seasons may be split into 3 segments.
Area 4: Goose seasons may be split into 3 segments.
In Oregon and Washington permit zones, the hunting season is closed on dusky Canada geese. A dusky Canada goose is any dark-breasted Canada goose (Munsell 10 YR color value five or less) with a bill length between 40 and 50 millimeters. Hunting of geese will only be by hunters possessing a State-issued permit authorizing them to do so. Shooting hours for geese may begin no earlier than sunrise. Regular Canada goose seasons in the permit zones of Oregon and Washington remain subject to the Memorandum of Understanding entered into with the Service regarding monitoring the impacts of take during the regular Canada goose season on the dusky Canada goose population.
In portions of the Pacific Flyway (Montana, Nevada, and Utah), an open season for taking a limited number of swans may be selected. Permits will be issued by the State and will authorize each permittee to take no more than 1 swan per season with each permit. Nevada may issue up to 2 permits per hunter. Montana and Utah may only issue 1 permit per hunter. Each State's season may open no earlier than the Saturday nearest October 1 (October 3). These seasons are also subject to the following conditions:
In addition, the States of Utah and Nevada must implement a harvest-monitoring program to measure the species composition of the swan harvest. The harvest-monitoring program must require that all harvested swans or their species-determinant parts be examined by either State or Federal biologists for the purpose of species classification. The States should use appropriate measures to maximize hunter compliance in providing bagged swans for examination. Further, the States of Montana, Nevada, and Utah must achieve at least an 80-percent compliance rate, or subsequent permits will be reduced by 10 percent. All three States must provide to the Service by June 30, 2016, a report detailing harvest, hunter participation, reporting compliance, and monitoring of swan populations in the designated hunt areas.
In portions of the Atlantic Flyway (North Carolina and Virginia) and the Central Flyway (North Dakota, South Dakota [east of the Missouri River], and that portion of Montana in the Central Flyway), an open season for taking a limited number of tundra swans may be selected. Permits will be issued by the States that authorize the take of no more than 1 tundra swan per permit. A second permit may be issued to hunters from unused permits remaining after the first drawing. The States must obtain harvest and hunter participation data. These seasons are also subject to the following conditions:
North Zone: That portion of the State north of I-95.
South Zone: Remainder of the State.
North Zone: That portion north of the line extending east along Maine State Highway 110 from the New Hampshire-Maine State line to the intersection of Maine State Highway 11 in Newfield; then north and east along Route 11 to the intersection of U.S. Route 202 in Auburn; then north and east on Route 202 to the intersection of I-95 in Augusta; then north and east along I-95 to Route 15 in Bangor; then east along Route 15 to Route 9; then east along Route 9 to Stony Brook in Baileyville; then east along Stony Brook to the United States border.
Coastal Zone: That portion south of a line extending east from the Maine-New Brunswick border in Calais at the Route 1 Bridge; then south along Route 1 to the Maine-New Hampshire border in Kittery.
South Zone: Remainder of the State.
Western Zone: That portion of the State west of a line extending south from the Vermont State line on I-91 to MA 9, west on MA 9 to MA 10, south on MA 10 to U.S. 202, south on U.S. 202 to the Connecticut State line.
Central Zone: That portion of the State east of the Berkshire Zone and west of a line extending south from the New Hampshire State line on I-95 to U.S. 1, south on U.S. 1 to I-93, south on I-93 to MA 3, south on MA 3 to U.S. 6, west on U.S. 6 to MA 28, west on MA 28 to I-195, west to the Rhode Island State line; except the waters, and the lands 150 yards inland from the high-water mark, of the Assonet River upstream to the MA 24 bridge, and the Taunton River upstream to the Center St.- Elm St. bridge shall be in the Coastal Zone.
Coastal Zone: That portion of Massachusetts east and south of the Central Zone.
Northern Zone: That portion of the State east and north of the Inland Zone beginning at the Jct. of Rte.10 and Rte.25A in Orford, east on Rte. 25A to Rte. 25 in Wentworth, southeast on Rte. 25 to Exit 26 of Rte. I-93 in Plymouth, south on Rte. I-93 to Rte. 3 at Exit 24 of Rte. I-93 in Ashland, northeast on Rte. 3 to Rte. 113 in Holderness, north on Rte. 113 to Rte. 113-A in Sandwich, north on Rte. 113-A to Rte. 113 in Tamworth, east on Rte. 113 to Rte. 16 in Chocorua, north on Rte. 16 to Rte. 302 in Conway, east on Rte. 302 to the Maine—New Hampshire border.
Inland Zone: That portion of the State south and west of the Northern Zone, west of the Coastal Zone, and includes the area of Vermont and New Hampshire as described for hunting reciprocity. A person holding a New Hampshire hunting license which allows the taking of migratory waterfowl or a person holding a Vermont resident hunting license which allows the taking of migratory waterfowl may take migratory waterfowl and coots from the following designated area of the Inland Zone: the State of Vermont east of Rte. I-91 at the Massachusetts border, north on Rte. I-91 to Rte. 2, north on Rte. 2 to Rte. 102, north on Rte. 102 to Rte. 253, and north on Rte. 253 to the border with Canada and the area of NH west of Rte. 63 at the MA border, north on Rte. 63 to Rte. 12, north on Rte. 12 to Rte. 12-A, north on Rte. 12A to Rte 10, north on Rte. 10 to Rte. 135, north on Rte. 135 to Rte. 3, north on Rte. 3 to the intersection with the Connecticut River.
Coastal Zone: That portion of the State east of a line beginning at the Maine-New Hampshire border in Rollinsford, then extending to Rte. 4 west to the city of Dover, south to the intersection of Rte. 108, south along Rte. 108 through Madbury, Durham, and Newmarket to the junction of Rte. 85 in Newfields, south to Rte. 101 in Exeter, east to Interstate 95 (New Hampshire Turnpike) in Hampton, and south to the Massachusetts border.
Coastal Zone: That portion of the State seaward of a line beginning at the New York State line in Raritan Bay and extending west along the New York State line to NJ 440 at Perth Amboy; west on NJ 440 to the Garden State Parkway; south on the Garden State Parkway to the shoreline at Cape May and continuing to the Delaware State line in Delaware Bay.
North Zone: That portion of the State west of the Coastal Zone and north of a line extending west from the Garden State Parkway on NJ 70 to the New Jersey Turnpike, north on the turnpike to U.S. 206, north on U.S. 206 to U.S. 1 at Trenton, west on U.S. 1 to the Pennsylvania State line in the Delaware River.
South Zone: That portion of the State not within the North Zone or the Coastal Zone.
Lake Champlain Zone: That area east and north of a continuous line extending along U.S. 11 from the New York—Canada International boundary south to NY 9B, south along NY 9B to U.S. 9, south along U.S. 9 to NY 22 south of Keesville; south along NY 22 to the west shore of South Bay, along and around the shoreline of South Bay to NY 22 on the east shore of South Bay; southeast along NY 22 to U.S. 4, northeast along U.S. 4 to the Vermont State line.
Long Island Zone: That area consisting of Nassau County, Suffolk County, that area of Westchester County southeast of I-95, and their tidal waters.
Western Zone: That area west of a line extending from Lake Ontario east along the north shore of the Salmon River to I-81, and south along I-81 to the Pennsylvania State line.
Northeastern Zone: That area north of a continuous line extending from Lake Ontario east along the north shore of the Salmon River to I-81, south along I-81 to NY 31, east along NY 31 to NY 13, north along NY 13 to NY 49, east along NY 49 to NY 365, east along NY 365 to NY 28, east along NY 28 to NY 29, east along NY 29 to NY 22, north along NY 22 to Washington County Route 153, east along CR 153 to the New York—Vermont boundary, exclusive of the Lake Champlain Zone.
Southeastern Zone: The remaining portion of New York.
Lake Erie Zone: The Lake Erie waters of Pennsylvania and a shoreline margin along Lake Erie from New York on the east to Ohio on the west extending 150 yards inland, but including all of Presque Isle Peninsula.
Northwest Zone: The area bounded on the north by the Lake Erie Zone and including all of Erie and Crawford Counties and those portions of Mercer and Venango Counties north of I-80.
North Zone: That portion of the State east of the Northwest Zone and north of a line extending east on I-80 to U.S. 220, Route 220 to I-180, I-180 to I-80, and I-80 to the Delaware River.
South Zone: The remaining portion of Pennsylvania.
Lake Champlain Zone: The U.S. portion of Lake Champlain and that area north and west of the line extending from the New York border along U.S. 4 to VT 22A at Fair Haven; VT 22A to U.S. 7 at Vergennes; U.S. 7 to VT 78 at Swanton; VT 78 to VT 36; VT 36 to Maquam Bay on Lake Champlain; along
Interior Zone: That portion of Vermont east of the Lake Champlain Zone and west of a line extending from the Massachusetts border at Interstate 91; north along Interstate 91 to U.S. 2; east along U.S. 2 to VT 102; north along VT 102 to VT 253; north along VT 253 to the Canadian border.
Connecticut River Zone: The remaining portion of Vermont east of the Interior Zone.
South Zone: Mobile and Baldwin Counties.
North Zone: The remainder of Alabama.
North Zone: That portion of the State north of a line extending west from the Indiana border along Peotone-Beecher Road to Illinois Route 50, south along Illinois Route 50 to Wilmington-Peotone Road, west along Wilmington-Peotone Road to Illinois Route 53, north along Illinois Route 53 to New River Road, northwest along New River Road to Interstate Highway 55, south along I-55 to Pine Bluff-Lorenzo Road, west along Pine Bluff-Lorenzo Road to Illinois Route 47, north along Illinois Route 47 to I-80, west along I-80 to I-39, south along I-39 to Illinois Route 18, west along Illinois Route 18 to Illinois Route 29, south along Illinois Route 29 to Illinois Route 17, west along Illinois Route 17 to the Mississippi River, and due south across the Mississippi River to the Iowa border.
Central Zone: That portion of the State south of the North Duck Zone line to a line extending west from the Indiana border along I-70 to Illinois Route 4, south along Illinois Route 4 to Illinois Route 161, west along Illinois Route 161 to Illinois Route 158, south and west along Illinois Route 158 to Illinois Route 159, south along Illinois Route 159 to Illinois Route 3, south along Illinois Route 3 to St. Leo's Road, south along St. Leo's Road to Modoc Road, west along Modoc Road to Modoc Ferry Road, southwest along Modoc Ferry Road to Levee Road, southeast along Levee Road to County Route 12 (Modoc Ferry entrance Road), south along County Route 12 to the Modoc Ferry route and southwest on the Modoc Ferry route across the Mississippi River to the Missouri border.
South Zone: That portion of the State south and east of a line extending west from the Indiana border along Interstate 70, south along U.S. Highway 45, to Illinois Route 13, west along Illinois Route 13 to Greenbriar Road, north on Greenbriar Road to Sycamore Road, west on Sycamore Road to N. Reed Station Road, south on N. Reed Station Road to Illinois Route 13, west along Illinois Route 13 to Illinois Route 127, south along Illinois Route 127 to State Forest Road (1025 N), west along State Forest Road to Illinois Route 3, north along Illinois Route 3 to the south bank of the Big Muddy River, west along the south bank of the Big Muddy River to the Mississippi River, west across the Mississippi River to the Missouri border.
South Central Zone: The remainder of the State between the south border of the Central Zone and the North border of the South Zone.
North Zone: That part of Indiana north of a line extending east from the Illinois border along State Road 18 to U.S. 31; north along U.S. 31 to U.S. 24; east along U.S. 24 to Huntington; southeast along U.S. 224; south along State Road 5; and east along State Road 124 to the Ohio border.
Central Zone: That part of Indiana south of the North Zone boundary and north of the South Zone boundary.
South Zone: That part of Indiana south of a line extending east from the Illinois border along U.S. 40; south along U.S. 41; east along State Road 58; south along State Road 37 to Bedford; and east along U.S. 50 to the Ohio border.
North Zone: That portion of Iowa north of a line beginning on the South Dakota-Iowa border at Interstate 29, southeast along Interstate 29 to State Highway 175, east along State Highway 175 to State Highway 37, southeast along State Highway 37 to State Highway 183, northeast along State Highway 183 to State Highway 141, east along State Highway 141 to U.S. Highway 30, and along U.S. Highway 30 to the Illinois border.
Missouri River Zone: That portion of Iowa west of a line beginning on the South Dakota-Iowa border at Interstate 29, southeast along Interstate 29 to State Highway 175, and west along State Highway 175 to the Iowa-Nebraska border.
South Zone: The remainder of Iowa.
West Zone: All counties west of and including Butler, Daviess, Ohio, Simpson, and Warren Counties.
East Zone: The remainder of Kentucky.
West: That portion of the State west and north of a line beginning at the Arkansas-Louisiana border on LA 3; south on LA 3 to Bossier City; then east along I-20 to Minden; then south along LA 7 to Ringgold; then east along LA 4 to Jonesboro; then south along U.S. Hwy 167 to its junction with LA 106; west on LA 106 to Oakdale; then south on U.S. Hwy 165 to junction with U.S. Hwy 190 at Kinder; then west on U.S. Hwy 190/LA 12 to the Texas State border.
East: That portion of the State east and north of a line beginning at the Arkansas-Louisiana border on LA 3; south on LA 3 to Bossier City; then east along I-20 to Minden; then south along LA 7 to Ringgold; then east along LA 4 to Jonesboro; then south along U.S. Hwy 167 to Lafayette; then southeast along U.S. Hwy 90 to the Mississippi State line.
Coastal: Remainder of the State.
North Zone: The Upper Peninsula.
Middle Zone: That portion of the Lower Peninsula north of a line beginning at the Wisconsin State line in Lake Michigan due west of the mouth of Stony Creek in Oceana County; then due east to, and easterly and southerly along the south shore of Stony Creek to Scenic Drive, easterly and southerly along Scenic Drive to Stony Lake Road, easterly along Stony Lake and Garfield Roads to Michigan Highway 20, east along Michigan 20 to U.S. Highway 10 Business Route (BR) in the city of Midland, easterly along U.S. 10 BR to U.S. 10, easterly along U.S. 10 to Interstate Highway 75/U.S. Highway 23, northerly along I-75/U.S. 23 to the U.S. 23 exit at Standish, easterly along U.S. 23 to the centerline of the Au Gres River, then southerly along the centerline of the Au Gres River to Saginaw Bay, then on a line directly east 10 miles into Saginaw Bay, and from that point on a line directly northeast to the Canadian border.
South Zone: The remainder of Michigan.
North Duck Zone: That portion of the State north of a line extending east from the North Dakota State line along State Highway 210 to State Highway 23 and east to State Highway 39 and east to the
South Duck Zone: The portion of the State south of a line extending east from the South Dakota State line along U.S. Highway 212 to Interstate 494 and east to Interstate 94 and east to the Wisconsin State line.
Central Duck Zone: The remainder of the State.
North Zone: That portion of Missouri north of a line running west from the Illinois border at Lock and Dam 25; west on Lincoln County Hwy. N to Mo. Hwy. 79; south on Mo. Hwy. 79 to Mo. Hwy. 47; west on Mo. Hwy. 47 to I-70; west on I-70 to the Kansas border.
Middle Zone: The remainder of Missouri not included in other zones.
South Zone: That portion of Missouri south of a line running west from the Illinois border on Mo. Hwy. 74 to Mo. Hwy. 25; south on Mo. Hwy. 25 to U.S. Hwy. 62; west on U.S. Hwy. 62 to Mo. Hwy. 53; north on Mo. Hwy. 53 to Mo. Hwy. 51; north on Mo. Hwy. 51 to U.S. Hwy. 60; west on U.S. Hwy. 60 to Mo. Hwy. 21; north on Mo. Hwy. 21 to Mo. Hwy. 72; west on Mo. Hwy. 72 to Mo. Hwy. 32; west on Mo. Hwy. 32 to U.S. Hwy. 65; north on U.S. Hwy. 65 to U.S. Hwy. 54; west on U.S. Hwy. 54 to U.S. Hwy. 71; south on U.S. Hwy. 71 to Jasper County Hwy. M (Base Line Blvd.); west on Jasper County Hwy. M (Base Line Blvd.) to CRD 40 (Base Line Blvd.); west on CRD 40 (Base Line Blvd.) to the Kansas border.
Lake Erie Marsh Zone: Includes all land and water within the boundaries of the area bordered by Interstate 75 from the Ohio-Michigan line to Interstate 280 to Interstate 80 to the Erie-Lorain County line extending to a line measuring two hundred (200) yards from the shoreline into the waters of Lake Erie and including the waters of Sandusky Bay and Maumee Bay.
North Zone: That portion of the State north of a line beginning at the Ohio-Indiana border and extending east along Interstate 70 to the Ohio-West Virginia border.
South Zone: The remainder of Ohio.
Reelfoot Zone: All or portions of Lake and Obion Counties.
Remainder of State: That portion of Tennessee outside of the Reelfoot Zone.
North Zone: That portion of the State north of a line extending east from the Minnesota State line along U.S. Highway 10 into Portage County to County Highway HH, east on County Highway HH to State Highway 66 and then east on State Highway 66 to U.S. Highway 10, continuing east on U.S. Highway 10 to U.S. Highway 41, then north on U.S. Highway 41 to the Michigan State line.
Mississippi River Zone: That area encompassed by a line beginning at the intersection of the Burlington Northern & Santa Fe Railway and the Illinois State line in Grant County and extending northerly along the Burlington Northern & Santa Fe Railway to the city limit of Prescott in Pierce County, then west along the Prescott city limit to the Minnesota State line.
South Zone: The remainder of Wisconsin.
Northeast Zone: All areas east of Interstate 25 and north of Interstate 70.
Southeast Zone: All areas east of Interstate 25 and south of Interstate 70, and all of El Paso, Pueblo, Huerfano, and Las Animas Counties.
Mountain/Foothills Zone: All areas west of Interstate 25 and east of the Continental Divide, except El Paso, Pueblo, Huerfano, and Las Animas Counties.
High Plains Zone: That portion of the State west of U.S. 283.
Early Zone: That part of Kansas bounded by a line from the Nebraska-Kansas State line south on K-128 to its junction with U.S.-36, then east on U.S.-36 to its junction with K-199, then south on K-199 to its junction with Republic County 30 Rd, then south on Republic County 30 Rd to its junction with K-148, then east on K-148 to its junction with Republic County 50 Rd, then south on Republic County 50 Rd to its junction with Cloud County 40th Rd, then south on Cloud County 40th Rd to its junction with K-9, then west on K-9 to its junction with U.S.-24, then west on U.S.-24 to its junction with U.S.-281, then north on U.S.-281 to its junction with U.S.-36, then west on U.S.-36 to its junction with U.S.-183, then south on U.S.-183 to its junction with U.S.-24, then west on U.S.-24 to its junction with K-18, then southeast on K-18 to its junction with U.S.-183, then south on U.S.-183 to its junction with K-4, then east on K-4 to its junction with I-135, then south on I-135 to its junction with K-61, then southwest on K-61 to McPherson County 14th Avenue, then south on McPherson County 14th Avenue to its junction with Arapaho Rd, then west on Arapaho Rd to its junction with K-61, then southwest on K-61 to its junction with K-96, then northwest on K-96 to its junction with U.S.-56, then southwest on U.S.-56 to its junction with K-19, then east on K-19 to its junction with U.S.-281, then south on U.S.-281 to its junction with U.S.-54, then west on U.S.-54 to its junction with U.S.-183, then north on U.S.-183 to its junction with U.S.-56, then southwest on U.S.-56 to its junction with Ford County Rd 126, then south on Ford County Rd 126 to its junction with U.S.-400, then northwest on U.S.-400 to its junction with U.S.-283, then north on U.S.-283 to its junction with the Nebraska-Kansas State line, then east along the Nebraska-Kansas State line to its junction with K-128.
Late Zone: That part of Kansas bounded by a line from the Nebraska-Kansas State line south on K-128 to its junction with U.S.-36, then east on U.S.-36 to its junction with K-199, then south on K-199 to its junction with Republic County 30 Rd, then south on Republic County 30 Rd to its junction with K-148, then east on K-148 to its junction with Republic County 50 Rd, then south on Republic County 50 Rd to its junction with Cloud County 40th Rd, then south on Cloud County 40th Rd to its junction with K-9, then west on K-9 to its junction with U.S.-24, then west on U.S.-24 to its junction with U.S.-281, then north on U.S.-281 to its junction with U.S.-36, then west on U.S.-36 to its junction with U.S.-183, then south on U.S.-183 to its junction with U.S.-24, then west on U.S.-24 to its junction with K-18, then southeast on K-18 to its junction with U.S.-183, then south on U.S.-183 to its junction with K-4, then east on K-4 to its junction with I-135, then south on I-135 to its junction with K-61, then southwest on K-61 to 14th Avenue, then south on 14th Avenue to its junction with Arapaho Rd, then west on Arapaho Rd to its junction with K-61, then southwest on K-61 to its junction with K-96, then northwest on K-96 to its junction with U.S.-56, then southwest on U.S.-56 to its junction with K-19, then east on K-19 to its junction with U.S.-281, then south on U.S.-281 to its junction with U.S.-54, then west on U.S.-54 to its junction with U.S.-183, then north on U.S.-183 to its junction with U.S.-56, then southwest on U.S.-56 to its junction with Ford County Rd 126, then south on Ford County Rd 126 to its junction with U.S.-400, then northwest on U.S.-400 to its junction with U.S.-283, then south on U.S.-283 to its junction with the
Southeast Zone: That part of Kansas bounded by a line from the Missouri-Kansas State line west on K-68 to its junction with U.S.-35, then southwest on U.S.-35 to its junction with Butler County, NE 150th Street, then west on NE 150th Street until its junction with K-77, then south on K-77 to the Oklahoma-Kansas State line, then east along the Kansas-Oklahoma State line to its junction with the Missouri State line, then north along the Kansas-Missouri State line to its junction with K-68.
Zone 1: The Counties of Blaine, Carbon, Carter, Daniels, Dawson, Fallon, Ferus, Garfield, Golden Valley, Judith Basin, McCone, Musselshell, Petroleum, Phillips, Powder River, Richland, Roosevelt, Sheridan, Stillwater, Sweet Grass, Valley, Wheatland, Wibaux, and Yellowstone.
Zone 2: The Counties of Big Horn, Custer, Prairie, Rosebud, and Treasure.
High Plains: That portion of Nebraska lying west of a line beginning at the South Dakota-Nebraska border on U.S. Hwy. 183; south on U.S. Hwy. 183 to U.S. Hwy. 20; west on U.S. Hwy. 20 to NE Hwy. 7; south on NE Hwy. 7 to NE Hwy. 91; southwest on NE Hwy. 91 to NE Hwy. 2; southeast on NE Hwy. 2 to NE Hwy. 92; west on NE Hwy. 92 to NE Hwy. 40; south on NE Hwy. 40 to NE Hwy. 47; south on NE Hwy. 47 to NE Hwy. 23; east on NE Hwy. 23 to U.S. Hwy. 283; and south on U.S. Hwy. 283 to the Kansas-Nebraska border.
Zone 1: Area bounded by designated Federal and State highways and political boundaries beginning at the South Dakota-Nebraska border west of NE Hwy. 26E Spur and north of NE Hwy. 12; those portions of Dixon, Cedar and Knox Counties north of NE Hwy. 12; that portion of Keya Paha County east of U.S. Hwy. 183; and all of Boyd County. Both banks of the Niobrara River in Keya Paha and Boyd counties east of U.S. Hwy. 183 shall be included in Zone 1.
Zone 2: The area south of Zone 1 and north of Zone 3.
Zone 3: Area bounded by designated Federal and State highways, County Roads, and political boundaries beginning at the Wyoming-Nebraska border at the intersection of the Interstate Canal; east along northern borders of Scotts Bluff and Morrill Counties to Broadwater Road; south to Morrill County Rd 94; east to County Rd 135; south to County Rd 88; southeast to County Rd 151; south to County Rd 80; east to County Rd 161; south to County Rd 76; east to County Rd 165; south to Country Rd 167; south to U.S. Hwy. 26; east to County Rd 171; north to County Rd 68; east to County Rd 183; south to County Rd 64; east to County Rd 189; north to County Rd 70; east to County Rd 201; south to County Rd 60A; east to County Rd 203; south to County Rd 52; east to Keith County Line; east along the northern boundaries of Keith and Lincoln Counties to NE Hwy. 97; south to U.S. Hwy 83; south to E Hall School Rd; east to N Airport Road; south to U.S. Hwy. 30; east to Merrick County Rd 13; north to County Rd O; east to NE Hwy. 14; north to NE Hwy. 52; west and north to NE Hwy. 91; west to U.S. Hwy. 281; south to NE Hwy. 22; west to NE Hwy. 11; northwest to NE Hwy. 91; west to U.S. Hwy. 183; south to Round Valley Rd; west to Sargent River Rd; west to Sargent Rd; west to Milburn Rd; north to Blaine County Line; east to Loup County Line; north to NE Hwy. 91; west to North Loup Spur Rd; north to North Loup River Rd; east to Pleasant Valley/Worth Rd; east to Loup County Line; north to Loup-Brown county line; east along northern boundaries of Loup and Garfield Counties to Cedar River Road; south to NE Hwy. 70; east to U.S. Hwy. 281; north to NE Hwy. 70; east to NE Hwy. 14; south to NE Hwy. 39; southeast to NE Hwy. 22; east to U.S. Hwy. 81; southeast to U.S. Hwy. 30; east to U.S. Hwy. 75; north to the Washington County line; east to the Iowa-Nebraska border; south to the Missouri-Nebraska border; south to Kansas-Nebraska border; west along Kansas-Nebraska border to Colorado-Nebraska border; north and west to Wyoming-Nebraska border; north to intersection of Interstate Canal; and excluding that area in Zone 4.
Zone 4: Area encompassed by designated Federal and State highways and County Roads beginning at the intersection of NE Hwy. 8 and U.S. Hwy. 75; north to U.S. Hwy. 136; east to the intersection of U.S. Hwy. 136 and the Steamboat Trace (Trace); north along the Trace to the intersection with Federal Levee R-562; north along Federal Levee R-562 to the intersection with the Trace; north along the Trace/Burlington Northern Railroad right-of-way to NE Hwy. 2; west to U.S. Hwy. 75; north to NE Hwy. 2; west to NE Hwy. 43; north to U.S. Hwy. 34; east to NE Hwy. 63; north to NE Hwy. 66; north and west to U.S. Hwy. 77; north to NE Hwy. 92; west to NE Hwy. Spur 12F; south to Butler County Rd 30; east to County Rd X; south to County Rd 27; west to County Rd W; south to County Rd 26; east to County Rd X; south to County Rd 21 (Seward County Line); west to NE Hwy. 15; north to County Rd 34; west to County Rd J; south to NE Hwy. 92; west to U.S. Hwy. 81; south to NE Hwy. 66; west to Polk County Rd C; north to NE Hwy. 92; west to U.S. Hwy. 30; west to Merrick County Rd 17; south to Hordlake Road; southeast to Prairie Island Road; southeast to Hamilton County Rd T; south to NE Hwy. 66; west to NE Hwy. 14; south to County Rd 22; west to County Rd M; south to County Rd 21; west to County Rd K; south to U.S. Hwy. 34; west to NE Hwy. 2; south to U.S. Hwy. I-80; west to Gunbarrel Rd (Hall/Hamilton county line); south to Giltner Rd; west to U.S. Hwy. 281; south to U.S. Hwy. 34; west to NE Hwy. 10; north to Kearney County Rd R and Phelps County Rd 742; west to U.S. Hwy. 283; south to U.S. Hwy 34; east to U.S. Hwy. 136; east to U.S. Hwy. 183; north to NE Hwy. 4; east to NE Hwy. 10; south to U.S. Hwy. 136; east to NE Hwy. 14; south to NE Hwy. 8; east to U.S. Hwy. 81; north to NE Hwy. 4; east to NE Hwy. 15; south to U.S. Hwy. 136; east to NE Hwy. 103; south to NE Hwy. 8; east to U.S. Hwy. 75.
North Zone: That portion of the State north of I-40 and U.S. 54.
South Zone: The remainder of New Mexico.
High Plains Unit: That portion of the State south and west of a line from the South Dakota State line along U.S. 83 and I-94 to ND 41, north to U.S. 2, west to the Williams/Divide County line, then north along the County line to the Canadian border.
Low Plains Unit: The remainder of North Dakota.
High Plains Zone: The Counties of Beaver, Cimarron, and Texas.
Low Plains Zone 1: That portion of the State east of the High Plains Zone and north of a line extending east from the Texas State line along OK 33 to OK 47, east along OK 47 to U.S. 183, south along U.S. 183 to I-40, east along I-40
Low Plains Zone 2: The remainder of Oklahoma.
High Plains Zone: That portion of the State west of a line beginning at the North Dakota State line and extending south along U.S. 83 to U.S. 14, east on U.S. 14 to Blunt, south on the Blunt-Canning Rd to SD 34, east and south on SD 34 to SD 50 at Lee's Corner, south on SD 50 to I-90, east on I-90 to SD 50, south on SD 50 to SD 44, west on SD 44 across the Platte-Winner bridge to SD 47, south on SD 47 to U.S. 18, east on U.S. 18 to SD 47, south on SD 47 to the Nebraska State line.
North Zone: That portion of northeastern South Dakota east of the High Plains Unit and north of a line extending east along U.S. 212 to the Minnesota State line.
South Zone: That portion of Gregory County east of SD 47 and south of SD 44; Charles Mix County south of SD 44 to the Douglas County line; south on SD 50 to Geddes; east on the Geddes Highway to U.S. 281; south on U.S. 281 and U.S. 18 to SD 50; south and east on SD 50 to the Bon Homme County line; the Counties of Bon Homme, Yankton, and Clay south of SD 50; and Union County south and west of SD 50 and I-29.
Middle Zone: The remainder of South Dakota.
High Plains Zone: That portion of the State west of a line extending south from the Oklahoma State line along U.S. 183 to Vernon, south along U.S. 283 to Albany, south along TX 6 to TX 351 to Abilene, south along U.S. 277 to Del Rio, then south along the Del Rio International Toll Bridge access road to the Mexico border.
Low Plains North Zone: That portion of northeastern Texas east of the High Plains Zone and north of a line beginning at the International Toll Bridge south of Del Rio, then extending east on U.S. 90 to San Antonio, then continuing east on I-10 to the Louisiana State line at Orange, Texas.
Low Plains South Zone: The remainder of Texas.
Zone C1: Big Horn, Converse, Goshen, Hot Springs, Natrona, Park, Platte, and Washakie Counties; and Fremont County excluding the portions west or south of the Continental Divide.
Zone C2: Campbell, Crook, Johnson, Niobrara, Sheridan, and Weston Counties.
Zone C3: Albany and Laramie Counties; and that portion of Carbon County east of the Continental Divide.
Game Management Units (GMU) as follows:
South Zone: Those portions of GMUs 6 and 8 in Yavapai County, and GMUs 10 and 12B-45.
North Zone: GMUs 1-5, those portions of GMUs 6 and 8 within Coconino County, and GMUs 7, 9, 12A.
Northeastern Zone: In that portion of California lying east and north of a line beginning at the intersection of Interstate 5 with the California-Oregon line; south along Interstate 5 to its junction with Walters Lane south of the town of Yreka; west along Walters Lane to its junction with Easy Street; south along Easy Street to the junction with Old Highway 99; south along Old Highway 99 to the point of intersection with Interstate 5 north of the town of Weed; south along Interstate 5 to its junction with Highway 89; east and south along Highway 89 to Main Street Greenville; north and east to its junction with North Valley Road; south to its junction of Diamond Mountain Road; north and east to its junction with North Arm Road; south and west to the junction of North Valley Road; south to the junction with Arlington Road (A22); west to the junction of Highway 89; south and west to the junction of Highway 70; east on Highway 70 to Highway 395; south and east on Highway 395 to the point of intersection with the California-Nevada State line; north along the California-Nevada State line to the junction of the California-Nevada-Oregon State lines; west along the California-Oregon State line to the point of origin.
Colorado River Zone: Those portions of San Bernardino, Riverside, and Imperial Counties east of a line extending from the Nevada State line south along U.S. 95 to Vidal Junction; south on a road known as “Aqueduct Road” in San Bernardino County through the town of Rice to the San Bernardino-Riverside County line; south on a road known in Riverside County as the “Desert Center to Rice Road” to the town of Desert Center; east 31 miles on I-10 to the Wiley Well Road; south on this road to Wiley Well; southeast along the Army-Milpitas Road to the Blythe, Brawley, Davis Lake intersections; south on the Blythe-Brawley paved road to the Ogilby and Tumco Mine Road; south on this road to U.S. 80; east 7 miles on U.S. 80 to the Andrade-Algodones Road; south on this paved road to the Mexican border at Algodones, Mexico.
Southern Zone: That portion of southern California (but excluding the Colorado River Zone) south and east of a line extending from the Pacific Ocean east along the Santa Maria River to CA 166 near the City of Santa Maria; east on CA 166 to CA 99; south on CA 99 to the crest of the Tehachapi Mountains at Tejon Pass; east and north along the crest of the Tehachapi Mountains to CA 178 at Walker Pass; east on CA 178 to U.S. 395 at the town of Inyokern; south on U.S. 395 to CA 58; east on CA 58 to I-15; east on I-15 to CA 127; north on CA 127 to the Nevada State line.
Southern San Joaquin Valley Zone: All of Kings and Tulare Counties and that portion of Kern County north of the Southern Zone.
Balance of State Zone: The remainder of California not included in the Northeastern, Southern, and Colorado River Zones, and the Southern San Joaquin Valley Zone.
Zone 1: All lands and waters within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, including private in-holdings; Bannock County; Bingham County, except that portion within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County east of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 2: Adams, Bear Lake, Benewah, Blaine, Bonner, Bonneville, Boundary, Butte, Camas, Clark, Clearwater, Custer, Franklin, Fremont, Idaho, Jefferson, Kootenai, Latah, Lemhi, Lewis, Madison, Nez Perce, Oneida, Shoshone, Teton, and Valley Counties; Bingham County within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County, except the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County west of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 3: Ada, Boise, Canyon, Cassia, Elmore, Gem, Gooding, Jerome, Lincoln, Minidoka, Owyhee, Payette, Twin Falls, and Washington Counties.
Northeast Zone: All of Elko and White Pine Counties.
Northwest Zone: All of Carson City, Churchill, Douglas, Esmeralda, Eureka, Humboldt, Lander, Lyon, Mineral, Nye, Pershing, Storey, and Washoe Counties.
South Zone: All of Clark and Lincoln Counties.
Moapa Valley Special Management Area: That portion of Clark County including the Moapa Valley to the confluence of the Muddy and Virgin Rivers.
Zone 1: Clatsop, Tillamook, Lincoln, Lane, Douglas, Coos, Curry, Josephine, Jackson, Linn, Benton, Polk, Marion, Yamhill, Washington, Columbia, Multnomah, Clackamas, Hood River, Wasco, Sherman, Gilliam, Morrow and Umatilla Counties.
Columbia Basin Mallard Management Unit: Gilliam, Morrow, and Umatilla Counties.
Zone 2: The remainder of the State.
Zone 1: All of Box Elder, Cache, Daggett, Davis, Duchesne, Morgan, Rich, Salt Lake, Summit, Uintah, Utah, Wasatch, and Weber Counties, and that part of Toole County north of I-80.
Zone 2: The remainder of Utah.
East Zone: All areas east of the Pacific Crest Trail and east of the Big White Salmon River in Klickitat County.
Columbia Basin Mallard Management Unit: Same as East Zone.
West Zone: All areas to the west of the East Zone.
Snake River Zone: Beginning at the south boundary of Yellowstone National Park and the Continental Divide; south along the Continental Divide to Union Pass and the Union Pass Road (U.S.F.S. Road 600); west and south along the Union Pass Road to U.S.F.S. Road 605; south along U.S.F.S. Road 605 to the Bridger-Teton National Forest boundary; along the national forest boundary to the Idaho State line; north along the Idaho State line to the south boundary of Yellowstone National Park; east along the Yellowstone National Park boundary to the Continental Divide.
Balance of State Zone: Balance of the Pacific Flyway in Wyoming outside the Snake River Zone.
AP Unit: Litchfield County and the portion of Hartford County west of a line beginning at the Massachusetts border in Suffield and extending south along Route 159 to its intersection with Route 91 in Hartford, and then extending south along Route 91 to its intersection with the Hartford/Middlesex County line.
AFRP Unit: Starting at the intersection of I-95 and the Quinnipiac River, north on the Quinnipiac River to its intersection with I-91, north on I-91 to I-691, west on I-691 to the Hartford County line, and encompassing the rest of New Haven County and Fairfield County in its entirety.
NAP H-Unit: All of the rest of the State not included in the AP or AFRP descriptions above.
South Zone: Same as for ducks.
North Zone: Same as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks.
Resident Population (RP) Zone: Garrett, Allegany, Washington, Frederick, and Montgomery Counties; that portion of Prince George's County west of Route 3 and Route 301; that portion of Charles County west of Route 301 to the Virginia State line; and that portion of Carroll County west of Route 31 to the intersection of Route 97, and west of Route 97 to the Pennsylvania line.
AP Zone: Remainder of the State.
NAP Zone: Central and Coastal Zones (see duck zones).
AP Zone: The Western Zone (see duck zones).
Special Late Season Area: The Central Zone and that portion of the Coastal Zone (see duck zones) that lies north of the Cape Cod Canal, north to the New Hampshire line.
Same zones as for ducks.
AP Zone: North and South Zones (see duck zones).
RP Zone: The Coastal Zone (see duck zones).
Special Late Season Area: In northern New Jersey, that portion of the State within a continuous line that runs east along the New York State boundary line to the Hudson River; then south along the New York State boundary to its intersection with Route 440 at Perth Amboy; then west on Route 440 to its intersection with Route 287; then west along Route 287 to its intersection with Route 206 in Bedminster (Exit 18); then north along Route 206 to its intersection with Route 94: then west along Route 94 to the tollbridge in Columbia; then north along the Pennsylvania State boundary in the Delaware River to the beginning point. In southern New Jersey, that portion of the State within a continuous line that runs west from the Atlantic Ocean at Ship Bottom along Route 72 to Route 70; then west along Route 70 to Route 206; then south along Route 206 to Route 536; then west along Route 536 to Route 322; then west along Route 322 to Route 55; then south along Route 55 to Route 553 (Buck Road); then south along Route 553 to Route 40; then east along Route 40 to route 55; then south along Route 55 to Route 552 (Sherman Avenue); then west along Route 552 to Carmel Road; then south along Carmel Road to Route 49; then east along Route 49 to Route 555; then south along Route 555 to Route 553; then east along Route 553 to Route 649; then north along Route 649 to Route 670; then east along Route 670 to Route 47; then north along Route 47 to Route 548; then east along Route 548 to Route 49; then east along Route 49 to Route 50; then south along Route 50 to Route 9; then south along Route 9 to Route 625 (Sea Isle City Boulevard); then east along Route 625 to the Atlantic Ocean; then north to the beginning point.
Lake Champlain Goose Area: The same as the Lake Champlain Waterfowl Hunting Zone, which is that area of New York State lying east and north of a continuous line extending along Route 11 from the New York-Canada International boundary south to Route 9B, south along Route 9B to Route 9, south along Route 9 to Route 22 south of Keeseville, south along Route 22 to the west shore of South Bay along and around the shoreline of South Bay to Route 22 on the east shore of South Bay, southeast along Route 22 to Route 4, northeast along Route 4 to the New York-Vermont boundary.
Northeast Goose Area: The same as the Northeastern Waterfowl Hunting Zone, which is that area of New York State lying north of a continuous line extending from Lake Ontario east along the north shore of the Salmon River to Interstate 81, south along Interstate Route 81 to Route 31, east along Route 31 to Route 13, north along Route 13 to Route 49, east along Route 49 to Route 365, east along Route 365 to Route 28, east along Route 28 to Route 29, east along Route 29 to Route 22 at Greenwich Junction, north along Route 22 to Washington County Route 153, east along CR 153 to the New York-Vermont boundary, exclusive of the Lake Champlain Zone.
East Central Goose Area: That area of New York State lying inside of a continuous line extending from Interstate Route 81 in Cicero, east along Route 31 to Route 13, north along Route 13 to Route 49, east along Route 49 to Route 365, east along Route 365 to
West Central Goose Area: That area of New York State lying within a continuous line beginning at the point where the northerly extension of Route 269 (County Line Road on the Niagara-Orleans County boundary) meets the International boundary with Canada, south to the shore of Lake Ontario at the eastern boundary of Golden Hill State Park, south along the extension of Route 269 and Route 269 to Route 104 at Jeddo, west along Route 104 to Niagara County Route 271, south along Route 271 to Route 31E at Middleport, south along Route 31E to Route 31, west along Route 31 to Griswold Street, south along Griswold Street to Ditch Road, south along Ditch Road to Foot Road, south along Foot Road to the north bank of Tonawanda Creek, west along the north bank of Tonawanda Creek to Route 93, south along Route 93 to Route 5, east along Route 5 to Crittenden-Murrays Corners Road, south on Crittenden-Murrays Corners Road to the NYS Thruway, east along the Thruway 90 to Route 98 (at Thruway Exit 48) in Batavia, south along Route 98 to Route 20, east along Route 20 to Route 19 in Pavilion Center, south along Route 19 to Route 63, southeast along Route 63 to Route 246, south along Route 246 to Route 39 in Perry, northeast along Route 39 to Route 20A, northeast along Route 20A to Route 20, east along Route 20 to Route 364 (near Canandaigua), south and east along Route 364 to Yates County Route 18 (Italy Valley Road), southwest along Route 18 to Yates County Route 34, east along Route 34 to Yates County Route 32, south along Route 32 to Steuben County Route 122, south along Route 122 to Route 53, south along Route 53 to Steuben County Route 74, east along Route 74 to Route 54A (near Pulteney), south along Route 54A to Steuben County Route 87, east along Route 87 to Steuben County Route 96, east along Route 96 to Steuben County Route 114, east along Route 114 to Schuyler County Route 23, east and southeast along Route 23 to Schuyler County Route 28, southeast along Route 28 to Route 409 at Watkins Glen, south along Route 409 to Route 14, south along Route 14 to Route 224 at Montour Falls, east along Route 224 to Route 228 in Odessa, north along Route 228 to Route 79 in Mecklenburg, east along Route 79 to Route 366 in Ithaca, northeast along Route 366 to Route 13, northeast along Route 13 to Interstate Route 81 in Cortland, north along Route 81 to the north shore of the Salmon River to shore of Lake Ontario, extending generally northwest in a straight line to the nearest point of the International boundary with Canada, south and west along the International boundary to the point of beginning.
Hudson Valley Goose Area: That area of New York State lying within a continuous line extending from Route 4 at the New York-Vermont boundary, west and south along Route 4 to Route 149 at Fort Ann, west on Route 149 to Route 9, south along Route 9 to Interstate Route 87 (at Exit 20 in Glens Falls), south along Route 87 to Route 29, west along Route 29 to Route 147 at Kimball Corners, south along Route 147 to Schenectady County Route 40 (West Glenville Road), west along Route 40 to Touareuna Road, south along Touareuna Road to Schenectady County Route 59, south along Route 59 to State Route 5, east along Route 5 to the Lock 9 bridge, southwest along the Lock 9 bridge to Route 5S, southeast along Route 5S to Schenectady County Route 58, southwest along Route 58 to the NYS Thruway, south along the Thruway to Route 7, southwest along Route 7 to Schenectady County Route 103, south along Route 103 to Route 406, east along Route 406 to Schenectady County Route 99 (Windy Hill Road), south along Route 99 to Dunnsville Road, south along Dunnsville Road to Route 397, southwest along Route 397 to Route 146 at Altamont, southeast along Route 146 to Main Street in Altamont, west along Main Street to Route 156, southeast along Route 156 to Albany County Route 307, southeast along Route 307 to Route 85A, southwest along Route 85A to Route 85, south along Route 85 to Route 443, southeast along Route 443 to Albany County Route 301 at Clarksville, southeast along Route 301 to Route 32, south along Route 32 to Route 23 at Cairo, west along Route 23 to Joseph Chadderdon Road, southeast along Joseph Chadderdon Road to Hearts Content Road (Greene County Route 31), southeast along Route 31 to Route 32, south along Route 32 to Greene County Route 23A, east along Route 23A to Interstate Route 87 (the NYS Thruway), south along Route 87 to Route 28 (Exit 19) near Kingston, northwest on Route 28 to Route 209, southwest on Route 209 to the New York-Pennsylvania boundary, southeast along the New York-Pennsylvania boundary to the New York-New Jersey boundary, southeast along the New York-New Jersey boundary to Route 210 near Greenwood Lake, northeast along Route 210 to Orange County Route 5, northeast along Orange County Route 5 to Route 105 in the Village of Monroe, east and north along Route 105 to Route 32, northeast along Route 32 to Orange County Route 107 (Quaker Avenue), east along Route 107 to Route 9W, north along Route 9W to the south bank of Moodna Creek, southeast along the south bank of Moodna Creek to the New Windsor-Cornwall town boundary, northeast along the New Windsor-Cornwall town boundary to the Orange-Dutchess County boundary (middle of the Hudson River), north along the county boundary to Interstate Route 84, east along Route 84 to the Dutchess-Putnam County boundary, east along the county boundary to the New York-Connecticut boundary, north along the New York-Connecticut boundary to the New York-Massachusetts boundary, north along the New York-Massachusetts boundary to the New York-Vermont boundary, north to the point of beginning.
Eastern Long Island Goose Area (NAP High Harvest Area): That area of Suffolk County lying east of a continuous line extending due south from the New York-Connecticut boundary to the northernmost end of Roanoke Avenue in the Town of Riverhead; then south on Roanoke Avenue (which becomes County Route 73) to State Route 25; then west on Route 25 to Peconic Avenue; then south on Peconic Avenue to County Route (CR) 104 (Riverleigh Avenue); then south on CR 104 to CR 31 (Old Riverhead Road); then south on CR 31 to Oak Street; then south on Oak
Western Long Island Goose Area (RP Area): That area of Westchester County and its tidal waters southeast of Interstate Route 95 and that area of Nassau and Suffolk Counties lying west of a continuous line extending due south from the New York-Connecticut boundary to the northernmost end of the Sunken Meadow State Parkway; then south on the Sunken Meadow Parkway to the Sagtikos State Parkway; then south on the Sagtikos Parkway to the Robert Moses State Parkway; then south on the Robert Moses Parkway to its southernmost end; then due south to international waters.
Central Long Island Goose Area (NAP Low Harvest Area): That area of Suffolk County lying between the Western and Eastern Long Island Goose Areas, as defined above.
South Goose Area: The remainder of New York State, excluding New York City.
Special Late Canada Goose Area: That area of the Central Long Island Goose Area lying north of State Route 25A and west of a continuous line extending northward from State Route 25A along Randall Road (near Shoreham) to North Country Road, then east to Sound Road and then north to Long Island Sound and then due north to the New York-Connecticut boundary.
SJBP Hunt Zone: Includes the following Counties or portions of Counties: Anson, Cabarrus, Chatham, Davidson, Durham, Halifax (that portion east of NC 903), Montgomery (that portion west of NC 109), Northampton, Richmond (that portion south of NC 73 and west of U.S. 220 and north of U.S. 74), Rowan, Stanly, Union, and Wake.
RP Hunt Zone: Includes the following Counties or portions of Counties: Alamance, Alleghany, Alexander, Ashe, Avery, Beaufort, Bertie (that portion south and west of a line formed by NC 45 at the Washington Co. line to U.S. 17 in Midway, U.S. 17 in Midway to U.S. 13 in Windsor, U.S. 13 in Windsor to the Hertford Co. line), Bladen, Brunswick, Buncombe, Burke, Caldwell, Carteret, Caswell, Catawba, Cherokee, Clay, Cleveland, Columbus, Craven, Cumberland, Davie, Duplin, Edgecombe, Forsyth, Franklin, Gaston, Gates, Graham, Granville, Greene, Guilford, Halifax (that portion west of NC 903), Harnett, Haywood, Henderson, Hertford, Hoke, Iredell, Jackson, Johnston, Jones, Lee, Lenoir, Lincoln, McDowell, Macon, Madison, Martin, Mecklenburg, Mitchell, Montgomery (that portion that is east of NC 109), Moore, Nash, New Hanover, Onslow, Orange, Pamlico, Pender, Person, Pitt, Polk, Randolph, Richmond (all of the county with exception of that portion that is south of NC 73 and west of U.S. 220 and north of U.S. 74), Robeson, Rockingham, Rutherford, Sampson, Scotland, Stokes, Surry, Swain, Transylvania, Vance, Warren, Watauga, Wayne, Wilkes, Wilson, Yadkin, and Yancey.
Northeast Hunt Unit: Includes the following Counties or portions of Counties: Bertie (that portion north and east of a line formed by NC 45 at the Washington County line to U.S. 17 in Midway, U.S. 17 in Midway to U.S. 13 in Windsor, U.S. 13 in Windsor to the Hertford Co. line), Camden, Chowan, Currituck, Dare, Hyde, Pasquotank, Perquimans, Tyrrell, and Washington.
Resident Canada Goose Zone: All of Pennsylvania except for SJBP Zone and the area east of route SR 97 from the Maryland State Line to the intersection of SR 194, east of SR 194 to intersection of U.S. Route 30, south of U.S. Route 30 to SR 441, east of SR 441 to SR 743, east of SR 743 to intersection of I-81, east of I-81 to intersection of I-80, and south of I-80 to the New Jersey State line.
SJBP Zone: The area north of I-80 and west of I-79 including in the city of Erie west of Bay Front Parkway to and including the Lake Erie Duck zone (Lake Erie, Presque Isle, and the area within 150 yards of the Lake Erie Shoreline).
AP Zone: The area east of route SR 97 from Maryland State Line to the intersection of SR 194, east of SR 194 to intersection of U.S. Route 30, south of U.S. Route 30 to SR 441, east of SR 441 to SR 743, east of SR 743 to intersection of I-81, east of I-81 to intersection of I-80, south of I-80 to New Jersey State line.
Special Area for Canada Geese: Kent and Providence Counties and portions of the towns of Exeter and North Kingston within Washington County (see State regulations for detailed descriptions).
Canada Goose Area: Statewide except for the following area:
East of U.S. 301: That portion of Clarendon County bounded to the North by S-14-25, to the East by Hwy 260, and to the South by the markers delineating the channel of the Santee River. West of U.S. 301: That portion of Clarendon County bounded on the North by S-14-26 extending southward to that portion of Orangeburg County bordered by Hwy 6.
Same zones as for ducks.
AP Zone: The area east and south of the following line—the Stafford County line from the Potomac River west to Interstate 95 at Fredericksburg, then south along Interstate 95 to Petersburg, then Route 460 (SE) to City of Suffolk, then south along Route 32 to the North Carolina line.
SJBP Zone: The area to the west of the AP Zone boundary and east of the following line: The “Blue Ridge” (mountain spine) at the West Virginia-Virginia Border (Loudoun County-Clarke County line) south to Interstate 64 (the Blue Ridge line follows county borders along the western edge of Loudoun-Fauquier-Rappahannock-Madison-Greene-Albemarle and into Nelson Counties), then east along Interstate Rt. 64 to Route 15, then south along Rt. 15 to the North Carolina line.
RP Zone: The remainder of the State west of the SJBP Zone.
Same zones as for ducks, but in addition:
SJBP Zone: That portion of Morgan County east of U.S. Highway 31, north of State Highway 36, and west of U.S. 231; that portion of Limestone County south of U.S. 72; and that portion of Madison County south of Swancott Road and west of Triana Road.
Northwest Zone: Baxter, Benton, Boone, Carroll, Conway, Crawford, Faulkner, Franklin, Johnson, Logan, Madison, Marion, Newton, Perry, Pope, Pulaski, Searcy, Sebastian, Scott, Van Buren, Washington, and Yell Counties.
North Zone: That portion of the State north of a line extending west from the Indiana border along Interstate 80 to I-39, south along I-39 to Illinois Route 18, west along Illinois Route 18 to Illinois Route 29, south along Illinois Route 29 to Illinois Route 17, west along Illinois Route 17 to the Mississippi River, and due south across the Mississippi River to the Iowa border.
Central Zone: That portion of the State south of the North Goose Zone line to a line extending west from the Indiana border along I-70 to Illinois Route 4, south along Illinois Route 4 to Illinois Route 161, west along Illinois
South Zone: Same zones as for ducks.
South Central Zone: Same zones as for ducks.
Same zones as for ducks but in addition:
Late Canada Goose Season Zone: That part of the State encompassed by the following Counties: Steuben, Lagrange, Elkhart, St. Joseph, La Porte, Starke, Marshall, Kosciusko, Noble, De Kalb, Allen, Whitley, Huntington, Wells, Adams, Boone, Hamilton, Madison, Hendricks, Marion, Hancock, Morgan, Johnson, Shelby, Vermillion, Parke, Vigo, Clay, Sullivan, and Greene.
Same zones as for ducks.
Western Zone: That portion of the State west of a line beginning at the Tennessee State line at Fulton and extending north along the Purchase Parkway to Interstate Highway 24, east along I-24 to U.S. Highway 641, north along U.S. 641 to U.S. 60, northeast along U.S. 60 to the Henderson County line, then south, east, and northerly along the Henderson County line to the Indiana State line.
Pennyroyal/Coalfield Zone: Butler, Daviess, Ohio, Simpson, and Warren Counties and all counties lying west to the boundary of the Western Goose Zone.
Same zones as for ducks.
North Zone—Same as North duck zone.
Middle Zone—Same as Middle duck zone.
South Zone—Same as South duck zone.
Tuscola/Huron Goose Management Unit (GMU): Those portions of Tuscola and Huron Counties bounded on the south by Michigan Highway 138 and Bay City Road, on the east by Colwood and Bay Port Roads, on the north by Kilmanagh Road and a line extending directly west off the end of Kilmanagh Road into Saginaw Bay to the west boundary, and on the west by the Tuscola-Bay County line and a line extending directly north off the end of the Tuscola-Bay County line into Saginaw Bay to the north boundary.
Allegan County GMU: That area encompassed by a line beginning at the junction of 136th Avenue and Interstate Highway 196 in Lake Town Township and extending easterly along 136th Avenue to Michigan Highway 40, southerly along Michigan 40 through the city of Allegan to 108th Avenue in Trowbridge Township, westerly along 108th Avenue to 46th Street, northerly along 46th Street to 109th Avenue, westerly along 109th Avenue to I-196 in Casco Township, then northerly along I-196 to the point of beginning.
Saginaw County GMU: That portion of Saginaw County bounded by Michigan Highway 46 on the north; Michigan 52 on the west; Michigan 57 on the south; and Michigan 13 on the east.
Muskegon Wastewater GMU: That portion of Muskegon County within the boundaries of the Muskegon County wastewater system, east of the Muskegon State Game Area, in sections 5, 6, 7, 8, 17, 18, 19, 20, 29, 30, and 32, T10N R14W, and sections 1, 2, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 24, and 25, T10N R15W, as posted.
Southern Michigan Late Season Canada Goose Zone: Same as the South Duck Zone excluding Tuscola/Huron Goose Management Unit (GMU), Allegan County GMU, Saginaw County GMU, and Muskegon Wastewater GMU.
Same zones as for ducks but in addition:
Rochester Goose Zone: That part of the State within the following described boundary:
Beginning at the intersection of State Trunk Highway (STH) 247 and County State Aid Highway (CSAH) 4, Wabasha County; thence along CSAH 4 to CSAH 10, Olmsted County; thence along CSAH 10 to CSAH 9, Olmsted County; thence along CSAH 9 to CSAH 22, Winona County; thence along CSAH 22 to STH 74; thence along STH 74 to STH 30; thence along STH 30 to CSAH 13, Dodge County; thence along CSAH 13 to U.S. Highway 14; thence along U.S. Highway 14 to STH 57; thence along STH 57 to CSAH 24, Dodge County; thence along CSAH 24 to CSAH 13, Olmsted County; thence along CSAH 13 to U.S. Highway 52; thence along U.S. Highway 52 to CSAH 12, Olmsted County; thence along CSAH 12 to STH 247; thence along STH 247 to the point of beginning.
Same zones as for ducks.
Lake Erie Goose Zone: That portion of Ohio north of a line beginning at the Michigan border and extending south along Interstate 75 to Interstate 280, south on Interstate 280 to Interstate 80, and east on Interstate 80 to the Pennsylvania border.
North Zone: That portion of Ohio north of a line beginning at the Indiana border and extending east along Interstate 70 to the West Virginia border excluding the portion of Ohio within the Lake Erie Goose Zone.
South Zone: The remainder of Ohio.
Northwest Goose Zone: Lake, Obion, and Weakley Counties and those portions of Gibson and Dyer Counties north of State Highways 20 and 104 and east of U.S. Highways 45 and 45W
Remainder of State: That portion of Tennessee outside of the Northwest Goose Zone.
Same zones as for ducks but in addition:
Horicon Zone: That portion of the State encompassed by a boundary beginning at the intersection of State 23 and State 73 and moves south along State 73 until the intersection of State 73 and State 60, then moves east along State 60 until the intersection of State 60 and State 83, and then moves north along State 83 until the intersection of State 83 and State 33 at which point it moves east until the intersection of State 33 and U.S .45, then moves north along U.S. 45 until the intersection of U.S. 45 and State 23, at which point it moves west along State 23 until the intersection of State 23 and State 73.
Exterior Zone: That portion of the State not included in the Horicon Zone.
Mississippi River Subzone: That area encompassed by a line beginning at the intersection of the Burlington Northern & Santa Fe Railway and the Illinois State line in Grant County and extending northerly along the Burlington Northern & Santa Fe Railway to the city limit of Prescott in Pierce County, then west along the Prescott city limit to the Minnesota State line.
Northern Front Range Area: All areas in Boulder, Larimer and Weld Counties from the Continental Divide east along the Wyoming border to U.S. 85, south on U.S. 85 to the Adams County line, and all lands in Adams, Arapahoe, Broomfield, Clear Creek, Denver, Douglas, Gilpin, and Jefferson Counties.
North Park Area: Jackson County.
South Park and San Luis Valley Area: All of Alamosa, Chaffee, Conejos, Costilla, Custer, Fremont, Lake, Park, Rio Grande and Teller Counties, and those portions of Saguache, Mineral and Hinsdale Counties east of the Continental Divide.
Remainder: Remainder of the Central Flyway portion of Colorado.
Eastern Colorado Late Light Goose Area: That portion of the State east of Interstate Highway 25.
Zone N: The Counties of Blaine, Carter, Daniels, Dawson, Fallon, Fergus, Garfield, Golden Valley, Judith Basin, McCone, Musselshell, Petroleum, Phillips, Powder River, Richland, Roosevelt, Sheridan, Stillwater, Sweet Grass, Valley, Wheatland, and Wibaux.
Zone S: The Counties of Big Horn, Carbon, Custer, Prairie, Rosebud, Treasure, and Yellowstone.
Niobrara Unit: That area contained within and bounded by the intersection of the South Dakota State line and the eastern Cherry County line, south along the Cherry County line to the Niobrara River, east to the Norden Road, south on the Norden Road to U.S. Hwy 20, east along U.S. Hwy 20 to NE Hwy 14, north along NE Hwy 14 to NE Hwy 59 and County Road 872, west along County Road 872 to the Knox County Line, north along the Knox County Line to the South Dakota State line. Where the Niobrara River forms the boundary, both banks of the river are included in the Niobrara Unit.
East Unit: That area north and east of U.S. 81 at the Kansas-Nebraska State line, north to NE Hwy 91, east to U.S. 275, south to U.S. 77, south to NE 91, east to U.S. 30, east to Nebraska-Iowa State line.
Platte River Unit: That area north and west of U.S. 81 at the Kansas-Nebraska State line, north to NE Hwy 91, west along NE 91 to NE 11, north to the Holt County line, west along the northern border of Garfield, Loup, Blaine and Thomas Counties to the Hooker County line, south along the Thomas-Hooker County lines to the McPherson County line, east along the south border of Thomas County to the western line of Custer County, south along the Custer-Logan County line to NE 92, west to U.S. 83, north to NE 92, west to NE 61, south along NE 61 to NE 92, west along NE 92 to U.S. Hwy 26, south along U.S. Hwy 26 to Keith County Line, south along Keith County Line to the Colorado State line.
Panhandle Unit: That area north and west of Keith-Deuel County Line at the Nebraska-Colorado State line, north along the Keith County Line to U.S. Hwy 26, west to NE Hwy 92, east to NE Hwy 61, north along NE Hwy 61 to NE Hwy 2, west along NE 2 to the corner formed by Garden-Grant-Sheridan Counties, west along the north border of Garden, Morrill, and Scotts Bluff Counties to the intersection of the Interstate Canal, west to the Wyoming State line.
North-Central Unit: The remainder of the State.
Rainwater Basin Light Goose Area: The area bounded by the junction of NE Hwy. 92 and NE Hwy. 15, south along NE Hwy. 15 to NE Hwy. 4, west along NE Hwy. 4 to U.S. Hwy. 34, west along U.S. Hwy. 34 to U.S. Hwy. 283, north along U.S. Hwy. 283 to U.S. Hwy. 30, east along U.S. Hwy. 30 to NE Hwy. 92, east along NE Hwy. 92 to the beginning.
Remainder of State: The remainder portion of Nebraska.
Middle Rio Grande Valley Unit: Sierra, Socorro, and Valencia Counties.
Remainder: The remainder of the Central Flyway portion of New Mexico.
Missouri River Canada Goose Zone: The area within and bounded by a line starting where ND Hwy 6 crosses the South Dakota border; thence north on ND Hwy 6 to I-94; thence west on I-94 to ND Hwy 49; thence north on ND Hwy 49 to ND Hwy 200; thence north on Mercer County Rd. 21 to the section line between sections 8 and 9 (T146N-R87W); thence north on that section line to the southern shoreline to Lake Sakakawea; thence east along the southern shoreline (including Mallard Island) of Lake Sakakawea to U.S. Hwy 83; thence south on U.S. Hwy 83 to ND Hwy 200; thence east on ND Hwy 200 to ND Hwy 41; thence south on ND Hwy 41 to U.S. Hwy 83; thence south on U.S. Hwy 83 to I-94; thence east on I-94 to U.S. Hwy 83; thence south on U.S. Hwy 83 to the South Dakota border; thence west along the South Dakota border to ND Hwy 6.
Rest of State: Remainder of North Dakota.
Unit 1: The Counties of Campbell, Marshall, Roberts, Day, Clark, Codington, Grant, Hamlin, Deuel, Walworth, that portion of Dewey County north of Bureau of Indian Affairs Road 8, Bureau of Indian Affairs Road 9, and the section of U.S. Highway 212 east of the Bureau of Indian Affairs Road 8 junction, that portion of Potter County east of U.S. Highway 83, that portion of Sully County east of U.S. Highway 83, portions of Hyde, Buffalo, Brule, and Charles Mix and Bon Homme Counties north and east of a line beginning at the Hughes-Hyde County line on State Highway 34, east to Lees Boulevard, southeast to the State Highway 34, east 7 miles to 350th Avenue, south to Interstate 90 on 350th Avenue, south and east on State Highway 50 to Geddes, east on 285th Street to U.S. Highway 281, north on U.S. Highway 281 to the Charles Mix-Douglas County boundary, that portion of Bon Homme County north of State Highway 50, that portion of Perkins County west of State Highway 75 and south of State Highway 20; McPherson, Edmunds, Kingsbury, Brookings, Lake, Moody, Miner, Faulk, Hand, Jerauld, Douglas, Hutchinson, Turner, Union, Clay, Yankton, Aurora, Beadle, Davison, Hanson, Sanborn, Spink, Brown, Harding, Butte, Lawrence, Meade, Oglala Lakota (formerly Shannon), Jackson, Mellette, Todd, Jones, Haakon, Corson, Ziebach, and McCook Counties; and those portions of Minnehaha and Lincoln counties outside of an area bounded by a line beginning at the junction of the South Dakota-Minnesota state line and Minnehaha County Highway 122 (254th Street) west to its junction with Minnehaha County Highway 149 (464th Avenue), south on Minnehaha County Highway 149 (464th Avenue) to Hartford, then south on Minnehaha County Highway 151 (463rd Avenue) to State Highway 42, east on State Highway 42 to State Highway 17, south on State Highway 17 to its junction with Lincoln County Highway 116 (Klondike Road), and east on Lincoln County Highway 116 (Klondike Road) to the South Dakota-Iowa state line, then north along the South Dakota-Iowa and South Dakota-Minnesota border to the junction of the South Dakota-Minnesota state line
Unit 2: Remainder of South Dakota.
Unit 3: Bennett County.
Northeast Goose Zone: That portion of Texas lying east and north of a line beginning at the Texas-Oklahoma border at U.S. 81, then continuing south to Bowie and then southeasterly along U.S. 81 and U.S. 287 to I-35W and I-35 to the juncture with I-10 in San Antonio, then east on I-10 to the Texas-Louisiana border.
Southeast Goose Zone: That portion of Texas lying east and south of a line beginning at the International Toll Bridge at Laredo, then continuing north following I-35 to the juncture with I-10 in San Antonio, then easterly along I-10 to the Texas-Louisiana border.
West Goose Zone: The remainder of the State.
Zone G1: Big Horn, Converse, Hot Springs, Natrona, Park, and Washakie Counties; and Fremont County excluding those portions south or west of the Continental Divide.
Zone G1A: Goshen and Platte Counties.
Zone G2: Campbell, Crook, Johnson, Niobrara, Sheridan, and Weston Counties.
Zone G3: Albany and Laramie Counties; and that portion of Carbon County east of the Continental Divide.
North Zone: Game Management Units 1-5, those portions of Game Management Units 6 and 8 within Coconino County, and Game Management Units 7, 9, and 12A.
South Zone: Those portions of Game Management Units 6 and 8 in Yavapai County, and Game Management Units 10 and 12B-45.
Northeastern Zone: In that portion of California lying east and north of a line beginning at the intersection of Interstate 5 with the California-Oregon line; south along Interstate 5 to its junction with Walters Lane south of the town of Yreka; west along Walters Lane to its junction with Easy Street; south along Easy Street to the junction with Old Highway 99; south along Old Highway 99 to the point of intersection with Interstate 5 north of the town of Weed; south along Interstate 5 to its junction with Highway 89; east and south along Highway 89 to main street Greenville; north and east to its junction with North Valley Road; south to its junction of Diamond Mountain Road; north and east to its junction with North Arm Road; south and west to the junction of North Valley Road; south to the junction with Arlington Road (A22); west to the junction of Highway 89; south and west to the junction of Highway 70; east on Highway 70 to Highway 395; south and east on Highway 395 to the point of intersection with the California-Nevada State line; north along the California-Nevada State line to the junction of the California-Nevada-Oregon State lines west along the California-Oregon State line to the point of origin.
Colorado River Zone: Those portions of San Bernardino, Riverside, and Imperial Counties east of a line extending from the Nevada border south along U.S. 95 to Vidal Junction; south on a road known as “Aqueduct Road” in San Bernardino County through the town of Rice to the San Bernardino-Riverside County line; south on a road known in Riverside County as the “Desert Center to Rice Road” to the town of Desert Center; east 31 miles on I-10 to the Wiley Well Road; south on this road to Wiley Well; southeast along the Army-Milpitas Road to the Blythe, Brawley, Davis Lake intersections; south on the Blythe-Brawley paved road to the Ogilby and Tumco Mine Road; south on this road to U.S. 80; east 7 miles on U.S. 80 to the Andrade-Algodones Road; south on this paved road to the Mexican border at Algodones, Mexico.
Southern Zone: That portion of southern California (but excluding the Colorado River Zone) south and east of a line extending from the Pacific Ocean east along the Santa Maria River to CA 166 near the City of Santa Maria; east on CA 166 to CA 99; south on CA 99 to the crest of the Tehachapi Mountains at Tejon Pass; east and north along the crest of the Tehachapi Mountains to CA 178 at Walker Pass; east on CA 178 to U.S. 395 at the town of Inyokern; south on U.S. 395 to CA 58; east on CA 58 to I-15; east on I-15 to CA 127; north on CA 127 to the Nevada border.
Imperial County Special Management Area: The area bounded by a line beginning at Highway 86 and the Navy Test Base Road; south on Highway 86 to the town of Westmoreland; continue through the town of Westmoreland to Route S26; east on Route S26 to Highway 115; north on Highway 115 to Weist Rd.; north on Weist Rd. to Flowing Wells Rd.; northeast on Flowing Wells Rd. to the Coachella Canal; northwest on the Coachella Canal to Drop 18; a straight line from Drop 18 to Frink Rd.; south on Frink Rd. to Highway 111; north on Highway 111 to Niland Marina Rd.; southwest on Niland Marina Rd. to the old Imperial County boat ramp and the water line of the Salton Sea; from the water line of the Salton Sea, a straight line across the Salton Sea to the Salinity Control Research Facility and the Navy Test Base Road; southwest on the Navy Test Base Road to the point of beginning.
Balance of State Zone: The remainder of California not included in the Northeastern, Southern, and the Colorado River Zones.
North Coast Special Management Area: The Counties of Del Norte and Humboldt.
Sacramento Valley Special Management Area: That area bounded by a line beginning at Willows south on I-5 to Hahn Road; easterly on Hahn Road and the Grimes-Arbuckle Road to Grimes; northerly on CA 45 to the junction with CA 162; northerly on CA 45/162 to Glenn; and westerly on CA 162 to the point of beginning in Willows.
West Central Area: Archuleta, Delta, Dolores, Gunnison, LaPlata, Montezuma, Montrose, Ouray, San Juan, and San Miguel Counties and those portions of Hinsdale, Mineral, and Saguache Counties west of the Continental Divide.
State Area: The remainder of the Pacific-Flyway Portion of Colorado.
Zone 1: All lands and waters within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, including private in-holdings; Bannock County; Bingham County, except that portion within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County east of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 2: Adams, Benewah, Blaine, Bonner, Bonneville, Boundary, Butte, Camas, Clark, Clearwater, Custer, Franklin, Fremont, Idaho, Jefferson, Kootenai, Latah, Lemhi, Lewis, Madison, Nez Perce, Oneida, Shoshone, Teton, and Valley Counties; and Power County west of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 3: Ada, Boise, Canyon, Cassia, Elmore, Gem, Gooding, Jerome, Lincoln, Minidoka, Owyhee, Payette, Twin Falls, and Washington Counties.
Zone 4: Bear Lake County; Bingham County within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; and Caribou County, except that portion within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation.
Zone 1: All lands and waters within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, including private in-holdings; Bannock County; Bingham County, except that portion within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County east of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 2: Adams, Bear Lake, Benewah, Blaine, Bonner, Bonneville, Boundary, Butte, Camas, Clark, Clearwater, Custer, Franklin, Fremont, Idaho, Jefferson, Kootenai, Latah, Lemhi, Lewis, Madison, Nez Perce, Oneida, Shoshone, Teton, and Valley Counties; Bingham County within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County, except the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County west of State Highway 37 and State Highway 39.
Zone 3: Ada, Boise, Canyon, Cassia, Elmore, Gem, Gooding, Jerome, Lincoln, Minidoka, Owyhee, Payette, Twin Falls, and Washington Counties.
Zone 1: All lands and waters within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation, including private in-holdings; Bannock County; Bingham County east of the west bank of the Snake River, west of the McTucker boat ramp access road, and east of the American Falls Reservoir bluff, except that portion within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage; Caribou County within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; and Power County below the American Falls Reservoir bluff, and within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation.
Zone 2: Bingham County west of the west bank of the Snake River, east of the McTucker boat ramp access road, and west of the American Falls Reservoir bluff; Power County, except below the American Falls Reservoir bluff and those lands and waters within the Fort Hall Indian Reservation.
Zone 3: Ada, Boise, Canyon, Cassia, Elmore, Gem, Gooding, Jerome, Lincoln, Minidoka, Owyhee, Payette, Twin Falls, and Washington Counties.
Zone 4: Adams, Bear Lake, Benewah, Blaine, Bonner, Bonneville, Boundary, Butte, Camas, Clark, Clearwater, Custer, Franklin, Fremont, Idaho, Jefferson, Kootenai, Latah, Lemhi, Lewis, Madison, Nez Perce, Oneida, Shoshone, Teton, and Valley Counties; Caribou County, except the Fort Hall Indian Reservation; Bingham County within the Blackfoot Reservoir drainage.
East of the Divide Zone: The Pacific Flyway portion of the State located east of the Continental Divide.
West of the Divide Zone: The remainder of the Pacific Flyway portion of Montana.
Northeast Zone: All of Elko and White Pine Counties.
Northwest Zone: All of Carson City, Churchill, Douglas, Esmeralda, Eureka, Humboldt, Lander, Lyon, Mineral, Nye, Pershing, Storey, and Washoe Counties.
South Zone: All of Clark and Lincoln Counties.
North Zone: The Pacific Flyway portion of New Mexico located north of I-40.
South Zone: The Pacific Flyway portion of New Mexico located south of I-40.
Northwest Permit Zone: Benton, Clatsop, Columbia, Clackamas, Lane, Lincoln, Linn, Marion, Multnomah, Polk, Tillamook, Washington, and Yamhill Counties.
Lower Columbia/N. Willamette Valley Management Area: Those portions of Clatsop, Columbia, Multnomah, and Washington Counties within the Northwest Special Permit Zone.
Tillamook County Management Area: That portion of Tillamook County beginning at the point where Old Woods Rd crosses the south shores of Horn Creek, north on Old Woods Rd to Sand Lake Rd at Woods, north on Sand Lake Rd to the intersection with McPhillips Dr, due west (~200 yards) from the intersection to the Pacific coastline, south on the Pacific coastline to Neskowin Creek, east along the north shores of Neskowin Creek and then Hawk Creek to Salem Ave, east on Salem Ave in Neskowin to Hawk Ave, east on Hawk Ave to Hwy 101, north on Hwy 101 to Resort Dr, north on Resort Dr to a point due west of the south shores of Horn Creek at its confluence with the Nestucca River, due east (~80 yards) across the Nestucca River to the south shores of Horn Creek, east along the south shores of Horn Creek to the point of beginning.
Southwest Zone: Those portions of Douglas, Coos, and Curry Counties east of Highway 101, and Josephine and Jackson Counties.
South Coast Zone: Those portions of Douglas, Coos, and Curry Counties west of Highway 101.
Eastern Zone: Hood River, Wasco, Sherman, Gilliam, Morrow, Umatilla, Deschutes, Jefferson, Crook, Wheeler, Grant, Baker, Union, and Wallowa Counties.
Klamath County Zone: All of Klamath County.
Harney and Lake County Zone: All of Harney and Lake Counties.
Malheur County Zone: All of Malheur County.
Northern Zone: That portion of Box Elder County beginning the Weber-Box Elder county line, north along the Box Elder county line to the Utah-Idaho State line; west on this line to Stone, Idaho-Snowville, Utah road; southwest on this road to the Locomotive Springs Wildlife Management Area boundary; west, south, east, and then north along this boundary to the county road; east on the county road, past Monument Point and across Salt Wells Flat, to the intersection with Promontory Road; south on Promontory Road to a point directly west of the northwest corner of the Bear River Migratory Bird Refuge boundary; east along a line to the northwest corner of the Refuge boundary; south and east along the Refuge boundary to the southeast corner of the boundary; northeast along the boundary to the Perry access road; east on the Perry access road to I-15; south on I-15 to the Weber-Box Elder County line.
Wasatch Front Zone: Boundary begins at the Weber-Box Elder county line at I-15; east along Weber county line to U.S.-89; south on U.S.-89 to I-84; east and south and along I-84 to I-80; south along I-80 to U.S.-189; south and west along U.S.-189 to the Utah County line; southeast and then west along this line to I-15; north on I-15 to U.S.-6; west on U.S.-6 to SR-36; north on SR-36 to I-80; north along a line from this intersection to the southern tip of Promontory Point and Promontory Road; east and north along this road to the causeway separating Bear River Bay from Ogden Bay; east on this causeway to the southwest corner of Great Salt Lake Mineral Corporations (GSLMC) west impoundment; north and east along GSLMC's west impoundment to the northwest corner of the impoundment; directly north from this point along an imaginary line to the southern boundary of Bear River Migratory Bird Refuge; east along this southern boundary to the Perry access road; northeast along this road to I-15; south along I-15 to the Weber-Box Elder county line.
Washington County Zone: All of Washington County.
Balance of State Zone: The remainder of Utah.
Area 1: Skagit, Island, and Snohomish Counties.
Area 2A (Southwest Permit Zone): Clark, Cowlitz, and Wahkiakum Counties.
Area 2B (Southwest Permit Zone): Grays Harbor and Pacific Counties.
Area 3: All areas west of the Pacific Crest Trail and west of the Big White Salmon River that are not included in Areas 1, 2A, and 2B.
Area 4: Adams, Benton, Chelan, Douglas, Franklin, Grant, Kittitas, Lincoln, Okanogan, Spokane, and Walla Walla Counties.
Area 5: All areas east of the Pacific Crest Trail and east of the Big White Salmon River that are not included in Area 4.
Northern Zone: Del Norte, Humboldt and Mendocino Counties.
Balance of State Zone: Balance of the State.
Puget Sound Zone: Skagit County.
Coastal Zone: Pacific County.
Open Area: Cascade, Chouteau, Hill, Liberty, and Toole Counties and those portions of Pondera and Teton Counties lying east of U.S. 287-89.
Open Area: Churchill, Lyon, and Pershing Counties.
Open Area: Those portions of Box Elder, Weber, Davis, Salt Lake, and Toole Counties lying west of I-15, north of I-80, and south of a line beginning from the Forest Street exit to the Bear River National Wildlife Refuge boundary; then north and west along the Bear River National Wildlife Refuge boundary to the farthest west boundary of the Refuge; then west along a line to Promontory Road; then north on Promontory Road to the intersection of SR 83; then north on SR 83 to I-84; then north and west on I-84 to State Hwy 30; then west on State Hwy 30 to the Nevada-Utah State line; then south on the Nevada-Utah State line to I-80.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Proposed rule.
Pursuant to Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”), as added by Section 764(a) of Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) is proposing Rule of Practice 194. Proposed Rule of Practice 194 would provide a process for a registered security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant (collectively, “SBS Entity”) to make an application to the Commission for an order permitting an associated person who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. Proposed Rule of Practice 194 also would exclude an SBS Entity, subject to certain limitations, from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to associated persons that are not natural persons for a period of 30 days following the associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification or 30 days following the person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of an SBS Entity; for a period of 180 days following the filing of a complete application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 and notice if the application and notice are filed within the same 30-day time period; and for a period of 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“CFTC”), a self-regulatory organization (“SRO”) or a registered futures association pending a final decision with respect to an application or process with respect to the associated person for the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, where the application has been filed or process started prior to or within the same 30-day time period and a notice has been filed with the Commission within the same 30-day time period. The proposed Rule of Practice 194 also would provide, in certain circumstances, for an extension of the temporary exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to associated persons that are not natural persons to comply with the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6). Finally, proposed Rule of Practice 194 would provide that, subject to certain conditions, an SBS Entity may permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf, without making an application pursuant to the proposed rule, where the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association has granted a prior application or otherwise granted relief from a statutory disqualification with respect to that associated person.
Comments must be received on or before October 26, 2015.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Use the Federal Rulemaking Portal (
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Studies, memoranda or other substantive items may be added by the Commission or staff to the comment file during this rulemaking. A notification of the inclusion in the comment file of any such materials will be made available on the Commission's Web site. To ensure direct electronic receipt of such notifications, sign up through the “Stay Connected” option at
Paula R. Jenson, Deputy Chief Counsel, Joseph Furey, Assistant Chief Counsel, Bonnie Gauch, Senior Special Counsel, Joanne Rutkowski, Senior Special Counsel, Natasha Vij Greiner, Branch Chief, Jonathan C. Shapiro, Special Counsel, at 202-551-5550, Division of Trading and Markets, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-7010.
The Commission is proposing for public comment Rule of Practice 194 [17 CFR 201.194], under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) [15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)].
Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), as added by Section 764(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act, makes it unlawful for an SBS Entity to permit an associated person
To date, however, the Commission has not established a separate, more specific rule by which an SBS Entity may apply to the Commission to permit an associated person who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. This proposal, if adopted, would establish such a rule. The proposal would specify the process for obtaining relief from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), including by setting forth the required showing, the form of application and the items to be addressed with respect to associated persons that are natural persons and that are not natural persons.
The proposal would provide a temporary exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) that would apply both to the case where (i) an associated person entity that is already effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity becomes subject to a statutory disqualification, and (ii) an entity that is already subject to a statutory disqualification becomes an associated person that is effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity. Specifically, an SBS Entity would be temporarily excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to associated person entities (i) for a period of 30 days following the associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification or 30 days following the person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of an SBS Entity; (ii) for a period of 180 days following the filing of a complete application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 and notice if the application and notice are filed within the same 30-day time period; and (iii) for a period of 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by, the CFTC, an SRO
Finally, this proposal would provide that an SBS Entity may permit, subject to certain conditions, an associated person (whether a natural person or an entity) that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, without making an application, where the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association has granted a prior application or otherwise granted relief from a statutory disqualification with respect to the associated person.
On October 12, 2011, the Commission proposed requirements for an SBS Entity to register with the Commission, as well as additional provisions related to registration.
The Commission received one comment relevant to potentially developing an alternative process to establish exceptions to Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6).
To address these concerns, the commenter stated that the Commission should narrow the scope of the associated persons considered to be effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps, or, alternatively, exercise its statutory authority to grant exceptions to the general ban on an SBS Entity from associating with a person subject to a statutory disqualification.
Concurrent with the issuance of this proposing release,
The Commission also adopted a requirement in Rule 15Fb6-2 that the Chief Compliance Officer of an SBS Entity certify on Form SBSE-C that it has performed background checks on all of its associated persons that are natural persons who effect or are involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf, and neither knows, nor in the exercise of reasonable care should have known, that any of its associated persons that effect or are involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf are subject to a statutory disqualification, unless otherwise specifically provided by rule, regulation or order of the Commission.
Finally, the Commission modified its guidance on the scope of the phrase “involved in effecting” security-based swaps, as that phrase is used in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6).
The Commission is proposing Rule of Practice 194, which would provide a process by which an SBS Entity could apply to the Commission for an order permitting an associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity where the associated person is subject to a statutory disqualification
The rule would prescribe the form of application and the items to be addressed with respect to an associated person that is a natural person or entity. The rule would also provide for notice to the applicant in cases where the Commission staff anticipates making an adverse recommendation to the Commission with respect to an application made pursuant to this rule. In such cases, the applicant would be provided with a written statement of the reasons for the Commission staff's preliminary recommendation, and the applicant would have 30 days to submit a written statement in response.
The Commission is also proposing paragraph (i) to proposed Rule of
In addition, the Commission is proposing paragraph (j) to Rule of Practice 194, which provides that, where certain conditions are met, an SBS Entity would not need to file an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 to permit a statutorily disqualified associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. Specifically, paragraph (j) to proposed Rule of Practice 194 would allow an SBS Entity, subject to certain conditions, to permit a statutorily disqualified associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity without making an application to the Commission, where the Commission, CFTC, an SRO (
Under the federal securities laws, certain registered entities have various procedural avenues to be able to associate, where warranted, with persons subject to a statutory disqualification or other bar, including the Commission's Rule of Practice 193
Rule of Practice 193 provides a process by which individuals that are not regulated by an SRO (
The rule requires the filing of an affidavit from the individual, addressing, among other items, (1) the time period since the imposition of the bar; (2) any restitution or similar action taken by the individual to recompense any person injured by the misconduct that resulted in the bar; (3) the individual's employment during the period subsequent to imposition of the bar; (4) the capacity or position in which the individual proposes to be associated; (5) the manner and extent of supervision to be exercised over such individual and, where applicable, by such individual and (6) any relevant courses, seminars, examinations or other actions completed by the individual subsequent to imposition of the bar to prepare for his or her return to the securities business.
Rule 193 also requires a written statement from the proposed employer, describing, among other things, the terms and conditions of employment and the supervision to be exercised over the barred individual.
Under Exchange Act Section 15A(g)(2), “[a] registered securities association may, and in cases in which the Commission, by order, directs as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors shall, deny membership to any registered broker or dealer, and bar from becoming associated with a member any person, who is subject to a statutory disqualification.”
The FINRA Rule 9520 Series sets forth procedures for a person to become or remain associated with a member, notwithstanding the existence of a statutory disqualification, and for a current member or person associated with a member to obtain relief from the eligibility or qualification requirements of the FINRA By-Laws and rules.
Where required, FINRA sends a notice or notification to the Commission of its proposal to admit or continue the membership of a person or association with a member notwithstanding statutory disqualification in accordance with Exchange Act Rule 19h-1.
The statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)
• Defined associated persons of Swap Entities to be limited to natural persons.
• Adopted Regulation 23.22(b), permitting association with a Swap Entity with respect to a person who is already listed as a principal, registered as an associated person of another CFTC registrant, or registered as a floor broker or floor trader, notwithstanding that the person is subject to a statutory disqualification under the CEA.
• In addition, CFTC staff has issued no-action relief to Swap Entities that allows them to permit a statutorily disqualified associated person to effect or be involved in effecting swap transactions on behalf of a Swap Entity, provided that NFA provides notice to the Swap Entity that, had the person applied for registration as an associated person, NFA would have granted such registration.
Proposed paragraph (a) defines the scope of proposed Rule of Practice 194, providing a process for submitting applications by an SBS Entity seeking an order of the Commission permitting an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. The proposed rule would allow an SBS Entity to voluntarily submit an application to the Commission to request an order where an associated person of an SBS Entity is subject to a statutory disqualification and thereby prohibited from effecting or being involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6).
Notably, however, where the conditions set forth in proposed paragraph (j) are met, an SBS Entity would not need to file an application under Rule of Practice 194 to permit a statutorily disqualified associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. In such instances, a more limited notification would be required.
Proposed paragraph (b) sets forth the required showing for an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194. For the Commission to issue an order granting relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194, the Commission would need to find that it would be consistent with the public interest to permit the associated person of the SBS Entity who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
In meeting the burden of showing that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity is consistent with the public interest, the application and supporting documentation must demonstrate that the terms or conditions of association, procedures, or proposed supervision (if the associated person is a natural person), for an associated person are reasonably designed to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework. In addition to the items set forth in paragraphs (d) and (f) of proposed Rule of Practice 194, the Commission would consider the nature of the findings that resulted in the statutory disqualification in determining whether the association is consistent with the public interest.
The Commission preliminarily believes that the public interest standard is appropriate because it is consistent with the overall purpose of the Exchange Act, and specifically for “transactions in securities . . . [to be] effected with a national public interest which makes it necessary to provide for regulation and control of such transactions and of practices and matters related thereto.”
Proposed paragraphs (c) and (e) specify the form of the application to be submitted under proposed Rule of Practice 194 for natural persons and entities (respectively). Proposed paragraphs (c) and (e) would require that each application with respect to an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification shall be supported by a written statement, signed by a knowledgeable person authorized by the SBS Entity, which addresses the items in proposed Rule of Practice 194(d) and (f).
The Commission proposes that the SBS Entity (rather than the associated person) submit the application, including by providing the signed written statement under proposed paragraphs (c) and (e), for several reasons. First, the SBS Entity is the person that is subject to the restrictions under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). Second, requiring an SBS Entity to submit the written statement with respect to an associated person would reinforce, in certain circumstances, the necessity of additional oversight by the SBS Entity over the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification, as SBS Entities would determine what information and documents to include in an application with respect to an associated person.
The application would be filed pursuant to Rules of Practice 151, 152 and 153.
Proposed paragraphs (c) and (e) would require that the following exhibits be included with an application to help the Commission assess whether it is consistent with the public interest to allow the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity:
• Proposed paragraphs (c)(1) and (e)(1) would require a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification. The proposed requirement would help inform the Commission about the nature of the conduct that led to the statutory disqualification. For example, in the event that the statutory disqualification arose from misconduct relating to security-based swap transactions in particular, or is otherwise investment-related, it may inform the Commission's decision of whether it is consistent with the public interest for the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity.
• Proposed paragraphs (c)(2) and (e)(2) would require an undertaking by the applicant to notify the Commission promptly in writing if any information submitted in support of the application becomes materially false or misleading while the application is pending. This proposed requirement is designed to require that information provided by the applicant be complete and accurate so that the Commission is provided the necessary information in order to effectively evaluate the pending application.
• Proposed paragraphs (c)(4) and (e)(5) would require a copy of any decision, order, or document issued with respect to any proceedings
In addition to the information above, proposed paragraph (c) of the proposed rule would require that each application with respect to an associated person that is a
• Proposed paragraph (c)(3) would require a copy of the questionnaire or application for employment specified in Exchange Act Rule 15Fb6-2(b) with respect to the associated person,
Additionally, proposed paragraph (e) of the proposed rule would require that each application with respect to an associated person that is
• Proposed paragraph (e)(3) would require a copy of any organizational charts of the associated person, if available. To the extent that the associated person employs any natural persons subject to a statutory disqualification (which would be required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (e)(6) of proposed Rule of Practice 194, discussed
• Proposed paragraph (e)(4) would require a copy of policies and procedures relating to the conduct resulting in the statutory disqualification that the associated person entity has in place to ensure compliance with any federal or state securities laws, the CEA, the rules or regulations thereunder, or the rules of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, any SRO, or any foreign regulatory authority, as applicable. Such information would help inform the Commission as to whether the associated person entity has adequate policies and procedures in place, to the extent applicable, to ensure compliance with the federal securities laws or SRO rules. The information requested here is also consistent with the statutory scheme, as violations of the statutes and regulations listed here may result in a statutory disqualification under Exchange Act Section 3(a)(39).
• Proposed paragraph (e)(6) would require the name of any natural persons employed by the associated person that are subject to a statutory disqualification and would effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. For any such natural person, the applicant should indicate whether the individual is an officer, partner, direct or indirect owner of the associated person. Because an SBS Entity separately would be required to seek relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194 for any such natural persons to be able to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, the application would only require a list of the names, not any further information that would be included in those separate applications.
Proposed paragraphs (d) and (f) under Rule of Practice 194 set forth the items to be addressed for applications with respect to natural persons and entities (respectively). Each of the items in proposed paragraphs (d) and (f) would be addressed in the written statement required by proposed paragraphs (c) and (e). The Commission believes that the items listed are important to help the Commission assess whether it would be consistent with the public interest to allow the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(1) and (f)(2) would require an applicant to address the associated person's compliance with any order resulting in the statutory disqualification, including whether the associated person has paid fines or penalties, disgorged monies, made restitution or paid any other monetary compensation required by any such order. Whether an associated person has complied in full with any order resulting in the statutory disqualification (including with all monetary penalties imposed) could be relevant to assessing whether it is consistent with the public interest to allow the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity. This information could be relevant because the Commission believes that it generally would not be consistent with the public interest to issue an order granting relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to persons that have failed to abide by the terms of a prior order resulting in a statutory disqualification. The Commission believes that the failure to comply with an order resulting in the statutory disqualification may be relevant for assessing the risk of whether an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification may engage in future misconduct.
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(3) and (f)(3) would require the applicant to address the capacity or position in which the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the SBS Entity. In addressing the capacity or position in which the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the SBS Entity, the applicant should provide a description of the proposed duties and responsibilities of the associated person. An associated person effecting or “involved in effecting”
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(6) and (f)(6) would require the applicant to describe the compliance and disciplinary history, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, of the SBS Entity. In addition to the description of the compliance and disciplinary history, the applicant may provide any relevant documentation during the five years preceding the filing of the application, including, but not be limited to, the disclosure reporting pages on Forms SBSE, SBSE-A and SBSE-BD
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(9) and (f)(5) would require a detailed statement of why the associated person should be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, including what steps the associated person or applicant have taken, or will take, to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework. This proposed requirement is designed to provide an opportunity for an applicant to provide a narrative or rationale to explain why it is consistent with the public interest to allow the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(10) and (f)(7) would require an applicant to discuss whether, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, the associated person has been involved in any litigation concerning investment or investment-related activities
• Proposed paragraphs (d)(11) and (f)(8) would require any other information that the applicant believes to be material to the application. This provision is designed to require an applicant to provide all information that likely will be material to the Commission's consideration of an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, notwithstanding that such information may not be specifically required by the rule. This provision also is designed to provide the applicant with an opportunity to provide any additional information that the applicant believes is important to the Commission's consideration of the SBS Entity's application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, but that is not specifically required by the rule.
In addition to the items discussed above, proposed paragraph (d) of the proposed rule would require applications with respect to
• Proposed paragraph (d)(2) would require the applicant to address the associated person's employment during the period subsequent to the issuance of the statutory disqualification. Where the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification has been employed without issue since the conduct resulting in the statutory disqualification, that fact may be relevant to the Commission's assessment as to whether it would be consistent with the public interest for the person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity.
• Proposed paragraph (d)(4) would require the applicant to describe the terms and conditions of employment and supervision to be exercised over the associated person and, where applicable, by such associated person. The Commission is proposing this requirement so that the Commission will be able to better assess the extent to which the terms and conditions of employment and supervision may create or mitigate the risk that the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification may engage in future misconduct. Moreover, the Commission is proposing to require that the applicant describe any supervision to be exercised by the associated person because the Commission believes that there could be a greater risk of harm where an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification has greater supervisory responsibilities, or is supervising another person that is also subject to a statutory disqualification. In the event a prior application has been submitted with respect to the associated person, as set forth in proposed paragraph (g) to proposed Rule of Practice 194, the SBS Entity should describe in what manner the terms and conditions of employment and supervision will differ, if at all, from the supervision in any such prior application.
• Proposed paragraph (d)(5) would require the applicant to list the qualifications, experience, and disciplinary history
• Proposed paragraph (d)(7) would require the applicant to list the names of any other associated persons at the SBS Entity who have previously been
• Proposed paragraph (d)(8) would require the applicant to address whether the associated person has taken any relevant courses, seminars, examinations or other actions subsequent to becoming subject to a statutory disqualification to prepare for his or her participation in the security-based swap business. The information provided by proposed paragraph (d)(8) would inform the Commission as to whether the associated person has taken steps to apprise himself of relevant obligations under the federal securities or other laws or regulations, and, as a result, may factor into the Commission's decision as to whether it would be consistent with the public interest for the person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity.
In addition to the items discussed above, proposed paragraph (f) of the proposed rule would require applications with respect to persons that are
• Proposed paragraph (f)(1) would require general background information about the associated person, including (i) the number of employees, (ii) the number and location of offices, (iii) the type(s) of business(es) in which the associated person is engaged; and (iv) the SRO memberships and effective dates of such membership of the associated person, if applicable. This requirement would assist the Commission in understanding the business of the associated person, including determining what SROs, if any, oversee the associated person. The Commission believes that obtaining basic background information about the firm would aid the Commission in understanding the entity that is an associated person, and therefore aid in its assessment of whether it is in the public interest to permit the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
• Proposed paragraph (f)(4) would require a description of whether, with respect to the statutory disqualification and the sanctions imposed, the associated person was ordered to undertake any changes to its organizational structure or policies and procedures set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(e)(4), and to the extent that such changes were mandated, to describe what changes were mandated and whether the associated person has implemented them. This proposed requirement may aid the Commission in assessing whether the applicant has made changes to mitigate the occurrence of any future conduct that may result in statutory disqualification.
Proposed paragraph (g) would require an applicant to provide as part of the application any order, notice or other applicable document reflecting the grant, denial or other disposition (including any dispositions on appeal) of any prior application concerning the associated person under proposed Rule of Practice 194 and other similar processes.
Information concerning the grant or denial (or other disposition) of a prior application or other request for relief, and the reasons for the grant or denial, may be relevant to the Commission's assessment as to whether it would be consistent with the public interest for the person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity. For example, in the event that a prior application has been granted, but the terms and conditions of employment with the other registrant are materially different from the SBS Entity, the Commission could consider whether the terms and conditions at the SBS Entity that are different may result in any greater risk of future misconduct. In addition, if a prior application has been denied the Commission may take into consideration the prior application or request for relief in its determination of whether permitting an associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity would be consistent with the public interest to grant an application under Rule of Practice 194. Notably, under such circumstances (
• Proposed paragraph (g)(1) would require an applicant to provide any order, notice or other applicable document where an application has previously been made for the associated person pursuant to Rule of Practice 194.
• Proposed paragraph (g)(2) would require an applicant to provide any order, notice or other applicable document where an application has previously been made for the associated person pursuant to Rule of Practice 193.
• Proposed paragraph (g)(3) would require an applicant to provide any order, notice or other applicable document where an application has previously been made on behalf of the associated person pursuant to Section 9(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Investment Company Act”).
• Proposed paragraph (g)(4) would require an applicant to provide any order, notice or other applicable document where an application has previously been made on behalf of the associated person pursuant to Exchange Act Section 19(d),
• Proposed paragraph (g)(5) would require an applicant to provide any order, notice or other applicable document reflecting the grant, denial or other disposition (including any dispositions on appeal) of any prior process concerning the associated person by the CFTC or a registered futures association for listing as a principal, or for registration, including as an associated person, notwithstanding the existence of a statutory disqualification. Specifically, paragraph (g)(5) would provide as follows:
• Proposed paragraph (g)(5)(i) addresses the exception in CFTC Regulation 23.22(b).
• Proposed paragraph (g)(5)(ii) addresses the CFTC and NFA's current process for granting relief from CEA Section 4s(b)(6),
Proposed paragraph (h) governs the procedure where there is an adverse recommendation proposed by the Commission staff with respect to an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194. Consistent with Rule of Practice 193(e),
Under proposed paragraph (h), Commission staff would be required to provide a written statement for the reasons for an adverse recommendation. Consistent with Rule of Practice 193(e),
Where the Commission determines that it would be consistent with the public interest to permit the associated person of the SBS Entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, the Commission would issue an order granting relief. Where the Commission does not or cannot make the determination that it is in the public interest to permit the associated person of the SBS Entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, the Commission would issue an order denying the application. Orders issued in accordance with Rule of Practice 194 would be made publicly available. Applications and supporting materials would be kept confidential subject to applicable law.
Proposed paragraph (i) would provide for temporary relief from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to associated persons that are not natural persons and that are subject to a statutory disqualification. Proposed paragraph (i) is designed to address the situation where an operating SBS Entity becomes subject to the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)
As noted in a separate release adopting registration rules for SBS Entities, the scope of the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Exchange Act covers a wide range of actions, given the definitions of statutory disqualification and associated person, and the meaning of “involved in effecting” a security-based swap transaction, and the conduct that led to a statutory disqualification may pertain to management practices that occurred a long time ago or acts engaged in by personnel that are no longer employed by the associated person.
The Commission is concerned about the potential for business disruption to SBS Entities, and disruption to the security-based swap market, if SBS Entities engaged in the business must either cease operations, even temporarily, due to not being able to utilize the services of their associated entities, or move services to another entity that may not be as equipped to handle them pending a determination by the Commission on their application for relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194 or pending a determination by another regulator for similar relief.
The Commission preliminarily believes that the approach in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i) would appropriately consider the potentially competing objectives of minimizing the likelihood for business or market disruption while maintaining strong investor protections. In particular, while the rule would provide targeted relief with respect to associated person entities, it would not provide relief with respect to associated persons who are natural persons. The Commission believes that replacing, even temporarily, a natural person performing a particular security-based swap function would not create the same practical issues as with moving the services provided by an associated person entity to another entity.
Under proposed paragraph (i)(1)(i), an SBS Entity would be temporarily excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to an associated person that is not a natural person (1) for 30 days following the associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification, or (2) 30 days following the person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of an SBS Entity.
Under proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii), the SBS Entity would be excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to the associated person for 180 days following the filing of a complete application and notice pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194 by the SBS Entity if the application and notice is filed within the time period specified in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(i) (
Proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) does not limit the Commission from making a determination on the application prior to the expiration of the 180-day time period, and the Commission anticipates
While we expect that most applications could be acted upon within the proposed 180-day time period, a decision could be delayed for a number of reasons, such as when an application raises complex issues associated with the Commission's determination whether to grant permanent relief from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). Proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) thus would address the situation where the Commission does not render a decision on the Rule of Practice 194 application within the 180-day time period. Specifically, proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) provides that where the Commission does not render a decision within 180 days following the filing of an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, the SBS Entity would have 60 additional days to conform its activities to comply with the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). As a result, the proposed rule would provide that if the Commission does not act on the application within 180 days, the statutory prohibition would apply.
As noted, Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) prohibits SBS Entities from permitting associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification from effecting or being involved in effecting security-based swap transactions on behalf of the SBS Entity, except to the extent otherwise provide by rule, regulation or order of the Commission. The Commission is proposing to provide in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) that, if the Commission does not act on the application within the specified time period, the statutory prohibition would apply (subject to a 60-day period to provide an SBS Entity time to conform its activities to the statutory prohibition, as discussed below). The Commission preliminarily believes that in the context of this statutory framework, the proposed time period provided for in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) is appropriately tailored. In proposing to proceed in this manner and provide a period of time for the exception from the prohibition to continue, the Commission has taken into consideration the potential for the risk of market and business disruptions and the objective of maintaining strong investor and market protections, as discussed above. We preliminarily believe that the approach has taken into consideration these factors.
Proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) also would provide that where the Commission does not render a decision within 180 days, the SBS Entity would have 60 additional days to comply with the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). This provision is designed to provide the applicant, where the Commission does not act on an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 within 180 days and the SBS Entity becomes immediately subject to the statutory prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), sufficient time to implement any structural or other changes necessary to ensure that the SBS Entity would not have the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. The 60-day time period is designed to provide the SBS Entity a sufficient amount of time to make any structural or other changes necessary to ensure compliance with the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) to avoid disruption, but not so long as to continue to allow an SBS Entity to permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity for longer than necessary to avoid potential market or business disruptions.
Under proposed paragraph (i)(1)(iii), the SBS Entity would be excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) for a period of 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by,
In addition, under proposed paragraph (i)(1)(iii), where the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association does not render a decision or renders an adverse decision with respect to the associated person within the 180-day time period, the SBS Entity would have 60 additional days to conform its activities to comply with the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). Similar to proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii), this provision is aimed at preventing market or business disruptions that may result from the scenario where the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association does not render a decision or renders an adverse decision with respect to the associated person within the 180-day time period, and the SBS Entity therefore becomes immediately subject to the statutory prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). The 60-day time period is designed to provide the SBS Entity a sufficient amount of time to make any structural or other necessary changes to ensure compliance with the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), but not so long as to continue to allow an SBS Entity to permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to
The SBS Entity would not be able to avail itself of the temporary exclusion set forth in proposed paragraph (i)(1) in two circumstances. First, the temporary exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) would not be available where the Commission has otherwise ordered—for example, where the Commission, by order, has censured, placed limitations on the activities or functions of the associated person, or suspended or barred such person from being associated with an SBS Entity. Second, the temporary exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) would not be available in cases where the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association has previously denied membership, association, registration or listing as a principal with respect to the associated person that is the subject of the pending application. In both circumstances, the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or registered futures association will have affirmatively made a determination to not allow an associated person to participate in the financial industry. The Commission preliminarily believes that, in such cases, the SBS Entity should not be able to avail itself of the temporary exclusion with respect to the associated person because doing so would enable an associated person to participate in the security-based swap market notwithstanding that the Commission or another regulator has otherwise prohibited the associated person from participating in another sector of the financial industry.
Proposed paragraph (i)(2) would provide that an SBS Entity would be excluded from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)
The Commission is not proposing to require such notice with respect to associated persons that are natural persons, because natural persons would not be able to avail themselves of the temporary exclusion proposed in paragraph (i). As a result, a natural person that is subject to a statutory disqualification would not be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity while an application is pending. Additionally, where the association, registration or listing as a principal has been granted or otherwise approved with respect to an associated person that is a natural person by the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or registered futures association, notwithstanding that the associated person is subject to a statutory disqualification, such an order or other relevant document would be made publicly available,
Proposed paragraph (i)(3) would provide that where the Commission denies an application pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to an associated person that is not a natural person, the Commission may provide by order an extension of the exclusion provided for in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) as is necessary or appropriate to allow the applicant to comply with the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). Under this proposed provision, the Commission would extend the temporary exclusion provided for in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) where the Commission determines that doing so is necessary or appropriate. The Commission believes that proposed paragraph (i)(3) provides the Commission with sufficient flexibility so that the Commission may determine, based on its discretionary review of the particular facts and circumstances with respect to an application, whether or not it is necessary or appropriate to extend the temporary exclusion provided for in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii). For example, under certain circumstances, the Commission may determine that is necessary or appropriate to provide a certain amount of time for an SBS Entity to wind down operations with an associated person entity that is subject to a statutory disqualification in order to avoid disruptions to the security-based swaps business of the SBS Entity or to the security-based swap market. In other instances, there may not be a risk of market or business disruptions in the event that an SBS Entity is prohibited from permitting an associated person entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. In such instances, the Commission may specify in an order denying an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 that no extension of the exclusion provided for in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) would be necessary or appropriate.
Although the Commission is proposing paragraph (i)(1) at this time, the Commission is also soliciting comment on two alternative approaches with respect to this provision. First, the Commission solicits comment on whether proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) should alternatively provide that, if the Commission does not render a decision within the appropriate time frame, the application shall be deemed granted. Under this alternative, the Commission would consider the extent to which providing that the application would be deemed granted if the Commission does not act in the 180-day time period would help to avoid potential market and business disruptions that may result when the temporary exclusion expires after day 180 (as opposed to providing a 60-day conformity period). The Commission would also consider how such an approach would impact counterparty and investor protection in cases where the Commission has not made a specific finding that it is consistent with the public interest to permit a statutorily disqualified associated person entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity.
Second, the Commission solicits comment on whether, alternatively, the Commission should provide an exclusion to permit an SBS Entity to allow associated person entities subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities. As noted in Section II.B.3, the CFTC has
Paragraph (j) of proposed Rule of Practice 194 would limit the applicability of the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) by prescribing the conditions under which an SBS Entity may permit a person associated with it that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf without being required to file an application under Rule of Practice 194.
Under the proposed rules, the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association will have specifically reviewed the underlying basis for the statutory disqualification and made an affirmative finding to grant or otherwise approve membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, notwithstanding the statutory disqualification. So long as the terms and conditions are adhered to in the context of the association with the SBS Entity, the Commission believes it would not be necessary for the Commission (other than in cases where the person is subject to a Commission bar) to re-examine an event for which relief has already been granted. The Commission further notes, consistent with the CFTC in adopting an analogous provision in Regulation 23.22(b),
Specifically, subject to the conditions specified in proposed paragraph (j)(2), proposed Rule of Practice of Practice 194(j)(1) would provide as follows:
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1)(i) would permit a person associated with an SBS Entity that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity where the person has admitted to or continued in membership, or participation or association with a member, of an SRO, such as FINRA, notwithstanding that such person is subject to a statutory disqualification under Exchange Act Section 3(a)(39).
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1)(ii) would permit a person associated with an SBS Entity that is a natural person and that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity where the person has been granted consent to associate pursuant to Rule of Practice 193.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1)(iii) would permit a person associated with an SBS Entity that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity where an application has previously been granted under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to the associated person. For example, proposed paragraph (j)(1)(iii) would include instances where an SBS Entity had previously received approval of an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect an associated person, and the same person becomes an associated person of a different SBS Entity.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1)(iv) would permit a person associated with an SBS Entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity where, notwithstanding the a statutory disqualification under CEA Sections 8a(2) or 8a(3),
Paragraph (j)(2) of proposed Rule of Practice 194 would set forth the conditions necessary for an SBS Entity to meet in order to permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. An SBS Entity seeking to rely on proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1) would have to meet all of the conditions specified in proposed paragraph (j)(2).
Under proposed paragraph (j)(2)(i), all matters giving rise to a statutory disqualification under Exchange Act Section 3(a)(39)(A) through (F) must have been subject to an application or process where the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal has been granted or otherwise approved by the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or registered futures association. This provision is designed to ensure that either the Commission, CFTC, an SRO (
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(ii) would provide that an SBS Entity may permit a person associated with it that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf, without filing an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, only where the terms and conditions of the association with the SBS Entity are the same in all material respects as those approved in connection with the prior order, notice or other applicable document granting the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal provided for in paragraph (j)(1). In short, to obtain relief from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), the associated person of the SBS Entity must be subject to the same terms and conditions—including, for example, supervisory requirements—as those previously imposed by the agency, an SRO or a registered future association (
The Commission is proposing this provision so that an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification remains subject to the same terms and conditions with respect to the SBS Entity. For example, where relief previously granted by FINRA includes specific supervisory requirements following an eligibility proceeding, but a person is not subject to the same requirements by the SBS Entity, the Commission believes that it should review whether the terms and conditions of the association with the SBS Entity are appropriate under an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) would provide that, where an SBS Entity seeks for an associated person that is a natural person to be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity without filing an application pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194(j), the SBS Entity would be required to file a notice with the Commission. Specifically, proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) would require the following information in the notice:
• The name of the SBS Entity;
• The name of the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification;
• The name of the associated person's prospective supervisor(s) at the SBS Entity;
• The place of employment for the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification;
• The identity of any agency, SRO or registered futures association that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association, registration or listing as a principal.
The Commission believes that the information requested by the notice under proposed paragraphs (j)(2)(iii) would aid the Commission and its staff in assessing risk at SBS Entities, including for examination purposes. By knowing the name of the SBS Entity, name and location of the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification, and the name of the supervisor of the associated person, the Commission will obtain information that may be useful for examination purposes, such as determining whether to examine a particular SBS Entity and whom to speak to at the SBS Entity. The identity of an agency, SRO or registered futures association that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association could be useful to the Commission because the Commission staff could use the information to confer with or seek information from that agency, SRO or registered futures association, if necessary.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iv) would provide that, where an SBS Entity seeks for an associated person that is not a natural person to be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity without filing an application pursuant to proposed Rule
• The name of the SBS Entity;
• The name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification;
• The identification of any agency, SRO or a registered futures association that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association, registration or listing as a principal.
The Commission believes that knowing the name of the statutorily disqualified associated person would aid the Commission and its staff in assessing risk at SBS Entities, including for examination purposes. Additionally, the identity of an agency, SRO or registered futures association that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association could be useful to the Commission because the Commission staff could use the information to confer with or seek information from that agency, SRO or registered futures association, if necessary.
The proposed Note, which is similar to the Preliminary Note to Rule of Practice 193, is designed to advise applicants of the importance of having adequate supervision in place at the SBS Entity so as to minimize the risk of subsequent occurrences of misconduct.
In particular, the Note to proposed Rule of Practice 194 would provide that:
• An application made pursuant to the rule must show that it would be consistent with the public interest to permit the associated person of the SBS Entity to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
• The nature of the supervision that an associated person will receive or exercise as an associated person with a registered entity is an important matter bearing upon the public interest. The Commission believes that this statement would inform applicants that associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification should have adequate supervision so as to prevent potential future harm to counterparties, SBS Entities themselves, or other persons. The Commission would generally be less likely to issue an order granting relief under Rule of Practice 194 where the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification is not subject to adequate supervision.
• In meeting the burden of showing that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity is consistent with the public interest, the application and supporting documentation must demonstrate that the terms or conditions of association, procedures, or proposed supervision (if the associated person is a natural person), are reasonably designed to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework. The Commission is proposing to include this statement to advise applicants of the importance of these items to the Commission's consideration of whether to grant relief.
• Normally, the applicant's burden of demonstrating that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity is consistent with the public interest will be difficult to meet where the associated person is to be supervised by, or is to supervise, another statutorily disqualified individual. The Commission is proposing to include this statement because the Commission believes that there may be a greater risk of harm where a person that is subject to a statutory disqualification is supervising another person that is subject to a statutory disqualification.
• Where the associated person wishes to become the sole proprietor of a registered entity and thus is seeking that the Commission issue an order permitting the associated person who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity notwithstanding an absence of supervision, the applicant's burden will be difficult to meet. The Commission is proposing to include this statement because, as stated, the Commission believes that there is a greater risk of harm where the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification is not subject to adequate supervision.
• The associated person may be limited to association in a specified capacity with a particular registered entity and may also be subject to specific terms and conditions. The Commission is proposing to include this statement to advise applicants that the Commission may consider whether to impose limitations on permitting an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swap transactions on behalf of an SBS Entity. Those terms and conditions may concern, for example, heightened supervisory conditions or other procedures with respect to the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification.
Finally, the proposed Note discusses various procedural aspects of proposed Rule of Practice 194, including the following:
• In addition to the information specifically required by the rule, applications with respect to natural persons should be supplemented, where appropriate, by written statements of individuals who are competent to attest to the associated person's character, employment performance, and other relevant information. This statement is designed to encourage applicants to provide written statements from individuals other than the applicant and the associated person, to help the Commission better assess whether issuing an order granting relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194 is consistent with the public interest.
• In addition to the information required by the rule, the Commission staff may request additional information to assist in the Commission's review. This statement is designed to inform applicants that the Commission staff may request additional information beyond that provided by the SBS Entity in its application. For example, where
• Intentional misstatements or omissions of fact may constitute criminal violations of 18 U.S.C. 1001,
• The Commission will not consider any application that attempts to reargue or collaterally attack the findings that resulted in the statutory disqualification. This statement is designed to advise applicants that Rule of Practice 194 may not be used as an appeals process for the underlying findings. The Commission notes there are other appropriate avenues for challenging decisions.
The Commission is requesting comment regarding all aspects of proposed Rule of Practice 194, including any investor protection or other concerns. The Commission particularly requests comment from entities that intend to register as SBS Entities and that anticipate making an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, were it to be adopted, as well as counterparties to such SBS Entities. This information will help inform the Commission's consideration of the appropriate process through which SBS Entities could seek relief from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6).
The Commission also seeks comment on the particular questions below. The Commission will carefully consider all comments and information received, and will benefit especially from detailed responses.
Q-1. Is it necessary for the Commission to have a rule that specifies the process, such as that proposed in Rule of Practice 194, for SBS Entities to seek relief for their associated persons who are subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps? Why or why not?
Q-2. How many SBS Entities are likely to submit applications pursuant to the proposed rule? Please specify the number of applications that would likely relate to an associated person that is a natural person versus an entity.
Q-3. Should the Commission make its determination based on whether it would be consistent with the public interest to permit the person associated with the SBS Entity who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity? Should the Commission adopt a different standard of review? If so, what should it be, and why?
Q-4. Should the Commission look to Rule of Practice 193 and FINRA Forms MC-400 and MC-400A in establishing the form of application in proposed Rule of Practice 194? Please explain why or why not. In addition, if the Commission should not model the proposed rule on Rule of Practice 193 or FINRA Forms MC-400 and MC-400A, what alternatives (if any) should the Commission consider and why?
Q-5. Is the information requested in proposed Rule of Practice 194(c) for natural persons appropriate? Should the Commission request any additional information? If so, what items? Please explain the reasons for excluding any information or including any additional information, as well as the costs and benefits of doing so.
Q-6. With respect to the requirement in proposed Rule of Practice 194(c)(1) and (e)(1) to provide a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification, is there information other than that which would be contained in such order or other applicable document that the Commission should require the applicant to provide (
Q-7. Proposed Rule of Practice 194(c)(4) and (e)(5) require a copy of a decision, order or other document issued other than with respect to a proceeding resulting in the imposition of disciplinary sanctions or pending proceeding against the associated person issued by a court, state agency, agency, SRO or foreign financial regulator. Is there additional information other than that which would be contained in such documents that the Commission should require the applicant to provide? If so, in what instances? Should the Commission not require documents issued in connection with pending proceedings (
Q-8. With respect to the requirement in proposed Rule of Practice 194(c)(4) and (e)(5), is five years an appropriate time period with respect to requiring a copy of any decision, order, or document issued by a court, state agency, agency, SRO or foreign financial regulator? Should the Commission require a different time period? If so, please explain why.
Q-9. Are the items required to be addressed by proposed Rule of Practice 194(d) for natural persons appropriate? Should the Commission require that additional items be addressed? If so, what additional items? Please explain the reasons for excluding any item or including any additional item, as well as the costs and benefits of doing so.
Q-10. With respect to the requirement in proposed Rule of Practice 194(d)(6) and (f)(6), should the Commission require the compliance and disciplinary history during the five years preceding the filing of the application of the SBS Entity? Should the Commission limit the requirement, for example, by requiring only the compliance and disciplinary history of an office or location of an SBS Entity?
Q-11. With respect to the requirement in proposed Rule of Practice 194(d)(6) and (f)(6), is five years an appropriate time period with respect to the compliance and disciplinary history of the SBS Entity? Should the Commission require a different time period? If so, please explain why.
Q-12. With respect to the requirement in proposed Rule of Practice 194(d)(10) and (f)(7), is five years an appropriate time period with respect to litigation or unsatisfied judgments concerning investment or investment-related activities? Should the Commission require a different time period? If so, please explain why. Should the request for information with respect to litigation or unsatisfied judgments be limited to those concerning investment or investment-related activities? Should the request for information with respect to litigation or unsatisfied judgments be expanded to those concerning swaps or other financial instruments? If so, please explain why.
Q-13. Are the items requested in proposed Rule of Practice 194(e) for entities appropriate? For example, should the Commission request organizational charts of an associated person entity under proposed paragraph
Q-14. Are the items to be addressed in proposed Rule of Practice 194(f) for entities appropriate? Should the Commission request that any additional items be addressed? If so, what additional items? Please explain the reasons for excluding any item or including any additional item, as well as the costs and benefits of doing so.
Q-15. Should the Commission request information regarding prior applications or processes concerning the associated person, as proposed in Rule of Practice 194(g)? If not, why not? Are there any other prior applications or processes concerning associated persons that are relevant that the Commission should request? Proposed paragraph (g) requests information regarding prior applications or processes with respect to market intermediaries, such as broker-dealers. Should the Commission request information regarding prior applications or processes with respect to other types of persons, such as issuers?
Q-16. Are there any restrictions (
Q-17. Is the process set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(h) appropriate? Does 30 days provide a sufficient time to provide a written statement in response to a notice of an adverse recommendation by Commission staff? Should the time period set forth in proposed paragraph (h) (30 days for a response by the applicant) be shorter or longer, and, if so, why?
Q-18. Should the Commission provide the temporary exclusion set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i)(1)? Does the temporary exclusion set forth in proposed paragraph (i) adequately consider the interest in providing regulatory certainty and addressing concerns about potential investor or counterparty harm? Is it consistent with the Commission's investor protection mandate? Is it consistent with the Commission's mandates to maintain fair, orderly, and efficient markets and facilitate capital formation? Should the temporary exclusion be modified in any way? If so, please explain how the temporary exclusion should be modified and the benefits and costs of such an approach. For example, should the temporary exclusion be applicable only to associated persons that are not natural persons, as proposed, should it also be applicable to associated persons that are natural persons, or should the temporary exclusion not be provided to any associated person at all?
Q-19. Should the Commission provide for an exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to associated person entities for 30 days following the associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification or 30 days following the person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of an SBS Entity, as set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i)(1)(i)?
Q-20. Should the Commission apply the temporary exclusion in proposed paragraph (i)(1) with respect to both filings made within 30 days of an associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification and those made within 30 days of a person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of an SBS Entity?
Q-21. Does 30 days provide a sufficient time period to file an application pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194 such that an entity may be able to avail itself of the temporary exclusion set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i)(1)(ii) or (iii)? Should the Commission provide for a process by which an applicant can submit a request for an extension of time? For example, where good cause is shown, should the Commission or its staff be able to extend the 30-day time period provided for in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i)(1) upon request by an SBS Entity? If so, during the time period for consideration of that request, should the SBS Entity be temporarily excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)?
Q-22. As proposed in paragraph (i)(1)(ii), should the Commission provide that an SBS Entity would be excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) for 180 days following the filing of a complete application pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194 by an SBS Entity if the application is filed within the time period specified in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(i) (
Q-23. As proposed, if the Commission does not render a decision on the application within 180 days, the temporary exclusion expires and the SBS Entity becomes subject to the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). As an alternative, as discussed above in Section II.C.8, should the Commission provide that where the Commission does not render a decision within 180 days following the filing of a complete application pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194, the application shall be deemed granted? Please explain why, as well as the costs and the benefits of this alternative approach.
Q-24. Proposed paragraph (i)(1)(iii) provides that an SBS Entity would be excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) for 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association with respect to an application or process with respect to the associated person for the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, where such application has been filed or process started prior to or within the time period specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) (
Q-25. Should the proposed rule provide for either of the 60-day time periods set forth in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) and (iii) to comply to the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)? If so, why; if not, why not. Should the Commission provide for a process by which an applicant can submit a request for an extension of time of these time periods? For example, where good cause is shown, should the rule specify that the Commission or its staff may extend the 60-day time period provided for in proposed Rule of Practice 194(i)(1)(ii) and (iii) upon request by an SBS Entity? If so, during the time period for consideration of such request, should the SBS Entity be temporarily excluded from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)?
Q-26. Should the Commission, as proposed in paragraph (i)(2), require that an SBS Entity file a notice with the Commission setting forth the name of the SBS Entity, the name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification, and attaching as an exhibit to the notice a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification in order to qualify for the temporary exclusion provided in proposed paragraph (i)(1)(ii) and (i)(1)(iii)? Should any information be included or excluded from the notice? If so, please specify what information should be included or excluded.
Q-27. Should the notice required under proposed paragraph (i)(2) be made public? Why or why not? Should any additional information be made public, such as the application and any corresponding exhibits required under proposed paragraphs (c) through (g)?
Q-28. Should the Commission provide that, where the Commission denies an application with respect to an associated person entity, the Commission may provide by order an extension of the temporary exclusion as is necessary or appropriate to allow the applicant to comply with the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), as set forth in proposed paragraph (i)(3)? Should the Commission provide by rule a limitation on the maximum time period allowed for any such extension?
Q-29. In addition to providing the Commission with the ability to extend the temporary exclusion when the Commission denies an application, as proposed paragraph (i)(3), should the Commission specify a minimum period of time for such an extension of the temporary exclusion following the issuance of an adverse decision (
Q-30. As noted in Section II.B.3, the CFTC rules provide that associated persons of swap dealers and major swap participants are natural persons.
Q-31. If the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) were limited to natural persons associated with an SBS Entity, what would be the impact on SBS Entities, counterparties and other market participants? For example, what would be the impact, if any, on the legal and compliance burden on SBS Entities (including any restructuring costs)? What would be the impact, if any, on counterparties' evaluation of the risk of entering into security-based swaps with an SBS Entity that had associated person entities subject to a statutory disqualification? What would be the impact on investor protections and the fair and orderly operation of the security-based swap market?
Q-32. If the prohibition set forth in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) were limited to natural persons associated with an SBS Entity, should the Commission require that an SBS Entity provide a notice to the Commission that would set forth the name of the associated person entity that is subject to a statutory disqualification? Why or why not? What information should any such notice contain or attach (
Q-33. Proposed paragraph (j) would, in part, permit associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities, without making an application pursuant to the proposed rule, in cases where another regulatory authority (
Q-34. As an alternative, except with regard to cases where the Commission has previously granted relief under the Commission's Rule of Practice 193 or proposed Rule of Practice 194, should the Commission remove the approach outlined in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j), and require the Commission to make the relevant determination to permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity?
Q-35. Should proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) be limited to only
Q-36. Should proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) be limited to only associated persons that are not natural persons (
Q-37. If the Commission were to provide an exclusion from the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) where another regulatory authority has previously made an affirmative finding with respect to the statutory disqualification as proposed in paragraph (j)(1)(i) and (iv), what regulatory authorities should be included in the scope of such a rule? For example, should the Commission limit proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) only to persons that have been admitted to or continued in membership, or participation or association with a member, of a national securities association (
Q-38. Should the exclusion from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) where another regulatory authority has previously made an affirmative finding, as provided in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(1)(i) and (iv), be limited only to certain types of conduct resulting in a statutory disqualification (
Q-39. Should the Commission exclude from the scope of Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6), as proposed in paragraph (j)(1)(iv), a CFTC registrant notwithstanding that the person is subject to a statutory disqualification under CEA Sections 8a(2) or 8a(3)? Are there any categories of CFTC registrants that the Commission should not exclude? If so, please explain why.
Q-40. Should the Commission exclude from the scope of the prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) associated persons whom NFA has determined pursuant to the CFTC Staff No-Action Letter
Q-41. Under proposed Rule of Practice 194(j), are there any other types of registrants or persons that the Commission should exclude from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)? For example, should the Commission exclude any persons associated with an entity regulated by a prudential regulator or a foreign financial regulatory authority where the prudential regulator or foreign financial regulatory authority has previously granted relief with respect to the statutory disqualification? If so, please specify the regulator, and explain how the process that regulator uses to assess an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification is comparable to the applications or processes covered by proposed Rule of Practice 194(j).
Q-42. Under proposed Rule of Practice 194(j), are there any additional categories of associated persons of SBS Entities that the Commission should exclude from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)? If so, please provide the additional category and provide the reasons for including the category.
Q-43. As proposed in paragraph (j)(1)(ii), should the Commission allow SBS Entities to permit associated persons that are natural persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, without making an application pursuant to the proposed rule, in cases where the natural person has been permitted to associate pursuant to the Rule of Practice 193? If so, why; if not, why not?
Q-44. As proposed in paragraph (j)(1)(iii), should the Commission allow SBS Entities to permit associated persons (natural persons and entities) that are subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, without making an application pursuant to the proposed rule, in cases where the person has previously been permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity pursuant to the Rule of Practice 194? If so, why; if not, why not?
Q-45. As proposed, for the exclusion in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) to apply, should the Commission require that all matters giving rise to a statutory disqualification under Exchange Act Section 3(a)(39)(A) through (F) must have been subject to a process where the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal has been granted or otherwise approved? If so, please explain why. Should proposed Rule of Practice 194 address the scenario where there were prior applications or processes arising from the same matter resulting in statutory disqualification, but where one application was denied while the other one was granted? For example, should the event that is later in time control whether the Commission should permit the person subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swap transactions? If so, please explain why.
Q-46. For the exclusion in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) to apply, should the Commission require that the terms and conditions of the association with the SBS Entity be the same in all material respects as those approved in connection with a previous order, notice or other applicable document granting the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, as set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(ii)? If so, why; if not, why not?
Q-47. For the exclusion in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) to apply, should the Commission require the notice set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) and (iv)? If so, why; if not, why not? Should the Commission require any additional information in either notice? Are there any categories of information in either notice that the Commission should exclude? If so, please provide the category and the reasons for excluding it. Should the Commission adopt a different format for either notice, such as a form? If so, please explain why and provide a description of the format for the notice. Should the notice required under proposed paragraph (j)(2)(iii) and (iv) be made public? Why or why not?
Q-48. With respect to associated person entities, should the scope of proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) be limited to entities that have previously been granted relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194, as set forth in proposed paragraph (j)(1)(iii)? Should the Commission exclude from the scope of proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) entities that have previously been granted relief under another process (
Q-49. Should the Commission have a different process with respect to associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification as a result of certain types of conduct (
Proposed Rule of Practice 194 contains “collection of information requirements” within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”). The Commission has submitted the information to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for review in accordance with 44 U.S.C. 3507 and 5 CFR 1320.11. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a current valid control number. The title of this collection is “Rule of Practice 194.” OMB has not yet assigned a Control Number for this collection. The collections of information required by Rule of Practice 194 would be necessary for an SBS Entity to seek relief pursuant to the proposed rule or to rely on the exception in the rule for associated persons.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194 would provide a process by which an SBS Entity could apply for Commission for an order permitting an associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity notwithstanding a statutory disqualification. To make an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, the SBS Entity filing an application with respect to an associated person that is a natural person would provide to the Commission:
• Exhibits required by proposed paragraph (c) to Rule of Practice 194, including a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification; an undertaking by the applicant to notify promptly the Commission in writing if any information submitted in support of the application becomes materially false or misleading while the application is pending; a copy of the questionnaire or application for employment specified in Rule 15Fb6-2(b),
• A written statement that includes the information specified in proposed paragraphs (d) and (g) to Rule of Practice 194, including, but not limited to: The associated person's compliance with any order resulting in statutory disqualification; the capacity or position in which the person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the SBS Entity; the terms and conditions of employment and supervision to be exercised over such associated person and, where applicable, by such associated person; the compliance and disciplinary history, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, of the SBS Entity; information concerning prior applications or processes.
To make an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194, the SBS Entity filing an application with respect to an associated person that is not a natural person would provide to the Commission:
• Exhibits required by proposed paragraph (e) to Rule of Practice 194, including a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification; an undertaking by the applicant to notify promptly the Commission in writing if any information submitted in support of the application becomes materially false or misleading while the application is pending; organizational charts of the associated person (if available); certain applicable policies and procedures of the associated person; a copy of an order, decision, or document issued by the court, agency or SRO issued during the five years preceding the filing of the application; in cases where the associated person has been subject of any proceedings resulting in the imposition of disciplinary sanctions during the five years preceding the filing of the application or is the subject of a pending proceeding by the Commission, CFTC, any federal or state regulatory or law enforcement agency, registered futures association, foreign financial regulatory authority, registered national securities association, or any other SRO, or commodities exchange or any court, a copy of the related order, decision, or document issued by the court, agency or SRO; the names of any natural persons employed by the associated person that are subject to a statutory disqualification and that would effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity.
• A written statement that includes the information specified in proposed paragraphs (f) and (g) to Rule of Practice 194, including, but not limited to: General background information about the associated person; the associated person's compliance with any order resulting in statutory disqualification; the capacity or position in which the person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the SBS Entity; the compliance and disciplinary history, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, of the SBS Entity; information concerning prior applications or processes.
• To be eligible for the temporary exclusion set forth in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) and (i)(1)(iii) to proposed Rule of Practice 194, under proposed paragraph (i)(2), the SBS Entity would be required to file with the application a notice setting forth the name of the SBS Entity and the name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification, and attaching as an exhibit to the notice a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification.
Under paragraph (h) to proposed Rule of Practice 194, an applicant could submit a written statement in response to any adverse recommendation proposed by Commission staff with respect to an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194.
An SBS Entity would not be required to file an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to certain associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification, as provided for in proposed paragraph (j) of proposed Rule of Practice 194. To meet those requirements, however, the SBS Entity would be required to file a notice with the Commission. For associated persons that are natural persons, the notice in proposed paragraph (j)(2)(iii) would set forth: (1) The name of the SBS Entity; (2) the name of the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification; (3) the name of the associated person's prospective supervisor(s) at the SBS Entity; (4) the place of employment for the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification; and (5) identification of any SRO or agency that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association, registration or listing as a principal. For associated persons that are not natural persons, the notice in proposed paragraph (j)(2)(iv) would set forth: (1) The name of the SBS Entity; (2) the
The information sought in connection with proposed Rule of Practice 194 would assist the Commission in determining whether allowing associated persons to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of a SBS Entity, notwithstanding statutory disqualification, is consistent with the public interest.
The Commission has sought to minimize the burdens and costs associated with proposed Rule of Practice 194. First, the Commission is not requiring an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to certain associated persons subject to a statutory disqualification previously granted relief (
Information collected in connection with an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 would assist the Commission in determining whether an associated person of an SBS Entity should be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity, notwithstanding that the associated person is subject to a statutory disqualification. Although, absent the proposed rule, an SBS Entity could nonetheless submit an application for an exemptive order directly under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6),
Information collected in connection with the notices provided by Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) and (j)(2)(iv) would assist the Commission for examination purposes by identifying associated persons that are subject to a statutory disqualification (and other basic information).
The Commission has previously stated that it believes that, based on data obtained from the Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation and conversations with market participants, approximately fifty entities may fit within the definition of security-based swap dealer and up to five entities may fit within the definition of major security-based swap participant—55 SBS Entities in total.
With respect to associated persons that are natural persons, as discussed in Section V.C.1 below, the Commission has estimated that there will be 423 total associated persons that are natural persons at each SBS dealer and 63 total associated persons that are natural persons at each major participant, or 21,465 total associated persons that are natural persons.
In addition, to estimate the number of such persons, the Commission staff has conferred with NFA to assess how many associated persons of the 112 provisionally registered Swap Entities
Accordingly, based on that available data, the Commission estimates that, on an average annual basis, SBS Entities would seek relief in accordance with proposed Rule of Practice 194 for five
With respect to associated persons that are not natural persons, as discussed in Section V.C.1 below, the Commission has estimated that as many as 868 entity persons may be associating with all SBS Entities.
The Commission preliminarily believes that Exchange Act Rule 15Fb6-1 will apply to the bulk of statutorily disqualified associated persons that are not natural persons, and that, on an average annual basis, a limited number of the associated persons that are not natural persons would be subject to a statutory disqualification. By way of comparison, in 2014, of the nearly 4,000 registered broker-dealers, FINRA received 10 MC-400A applications with respect to member firms (nine of which were related to the entity, while one was due to an owner/control person of the member firm being subject to a statutory disqualification),
Therefore, the Commission anticipates that, on an average annual basis, SBS Entities would file five applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to associated persons that are natural persons, two applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to associated persons that are entities, and seven notices for natural persons and entities under proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) and (j)(2)(iv). The Commission seeks comment on these estimates.
It is likely that the time necessary to complete an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194 would vary depending on the number of exhibits required to be submitted in accordance with proposed Rule of Practice 194(c) and (e), and the amount of information that would need to be discussed in the written statement, as specified in proposed Rule of Practice 194(d), (f) and (g).
Based on the Commission staff's estimates and experience,
Given that the Commission estimates that, on an average annual basis, there will be five applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to associated persons that are natural persons, two applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 with respect to associated persons that are entities, and seven notices under proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) and (j)(2)(iv), the Commission estimates the total burden associated with filing such applications and notices on average to be 251 hours on an annual basis.
The Commission seeks comment on the collection of information burdens associated with proposed Rule of Practice 194.
Q-50. Is the estimate for the number of applications under Rule of Practice 194 appropriate? Is the estimate for the number of notices under proposed Rule of Practice 194(j)(2)(iii) and (j)(2)(iv) appropriate?
Q-51. Is the estimate for the amount of time that it would take on average for an SBS Entity to complete an application (and, if applicable, the accompanying notice provided for in proposed paragraph (i)(2)) under Rule of Practice 194 appropriate? Is the estimate for the amount of time that it would take
Q-52. Would SBS Entities incur costs for outside counsel in preparing applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194? If so, please provide estimates and any supporting data, if available.
The information collected pursuant to proposed Rule of Practice 194 will be kept confidential, subject to the provisions of applicable law.
Pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3505(c)(2)(B), the Commission solicits comment to:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection is necessary for the proper performance of our functions, including whether the information shall have practical utility;
2. Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
3. Determine whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Evaluate whether there are ways to minimize the burden of collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Persons submitting comments on the collection of information requirements should direct them to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503, and should also send a copy of their comments to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090, with referenced to File No. S7-14-15. Requests for materials submitted to OMB by the Commission with regard to this collection of information should be in writing, with reference to File No. S7-14-15, and be submitted to the Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549. As OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collections of information between 30 and 60 days after publication, a comment to OMB is best assured of having its full effect if OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)
Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) imposes a general prohibition on statutorily disqualified associated persons from effecting or being involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity unless otherwise permitted by the Commission. Concurrently with this proposal, the Commission is adopting final rules and forms establishing the registration process for SBS Entities. Among other things, these rules reference the events in the existing definition of statutory disqualification in Exchange Act Section 3(a)(39)(A) through (F)
Under the final registration rules, the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) applies to all associated persons, including both natural persons and associated entities of SBS Entities. The Commission is proposing Rule of Practice 194 to provide a process for a registered SBS Entity to make an application to the Commission to issue an order permitting an associated person who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity. Among other things, the proposed rule would:
• Specify how SBS Entities may apply to the Commission to permit an associated person subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity, including the form of application, items to be addressed, and standard of review and requiring applicants to make a showing that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps is consistent with the public interest;
• Provide a temporary exclusion from the general statutory prohibition pending a Commission, CFTC, SRO or registered futures association decision on an application regarding associated person entities effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities, if the application is filed within 30 days of the disqualification event or of the beginning of an association with a previously disqualified entity and a notice has been filed with the Commission within the same 30-day time period. The temporary exclusion expires 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association, and in the event of an adverse decision an SBS Entity will have 60 days to conform with the general statutory prohibition. The temporary exclusion pending Commission decision expires 180 days from the date of filing a complete application if the Commission has not rendered a decision on the application, after which SBS Entities will have 60 days to conform with the general statutory prohibition;
• Allow SBS Entities, under certain conditions, to permit associated persons who are subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on their behalf, provided the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association has granted a prior application or otherwise granted relief after a statutory disqualification review of that associated person, and provided appropriate notice has been filed.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194 is intended to establish a framework for SBS Entities seeking relief from the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act
In considering proposed Rule of Practice 194 and alternative regulatory approaches to a process for addressing statutory disqualification, we are mindful of the costs imposed by and the benefits obtained from our rules. Section 3(f) of the Exchange Act
As we have noted, Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) gives the Commission authority to provide relief from the statutory prohibition against associating with disqualified persons by rule, regulation, or order, and the Commission is not bound by any particular approach in exercising its discretion to provide relief. In particular, in the absence of the proposed rule or any other proposed approach, SBS Entities would still be able to apply for relief from Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) and the Commission would be able to issue an order either granting or denying relief. When determining whether to make an application for relief with respect to an associated person, an SBS Entity will weigh the scarcity and value of the particular skills of an associated person that is a natural person or the profits generated by an associated person entity's security-based swap business against (1) the application costs and reputational costs that come with choosing to associate with disqualified persons, and (2) their beliefs as to the likelihood of an approval or denial decision by the Commission. To the extent that proposed Rule of Practice 194 alters an SBS Entity's assessment of either application and reputational costs or beliefs about likely outcomes and the decision to apply with the Commission, economic costs and benefits may accrue to SBS Entities, associated persons, and counterparties to SBS Entities.
The Commission preliminarily believes that the primary benefits of the proposed approach are in (1) providing SBS Entities clarity regarding the items to be addressed, the information and supporting documentation to be submitted, and the standard of review (affecting application costs and beliefs about likely outcomes), and (2) ensuring that the Commission has sufficient information to make a meaningful determination that allowing an SBS Entity to permit statutorily disqualified associated persons to effect security-based swaps is consistent with the public interest. Finally, we note that regardless of the regulatory approach chosen, SBS Entities may find it less costly to disassociate with, or reassign, disqualified persons than to apply for relief.
The Commission lacks data on the complexity and variety of current SBS Entity business structures and activities, the degree of SBS Entity business reliance on associated persons subject to a statutory disqualification, the location and specificity of expertise of such persons, as well as the reputational costs of associating with disqualified persons. Further, the economic effects of various provisions of proposed Rule of Practice 194 hinge on whether and how significantly SBS Entities may be affected by the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6); how market participants will react to SBS Entities seeking relief through a Commission order compared to relief under proposed Rule of Practice 194, which will affect the reputational costs of the application under Rule of Practice 194 relative to baseline; and how other SBS Entities will react to the newly opened market share should some SBS Entities temporarily cease effecting security-based swaps or exit due to the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). To the best of our knowledge, no such data are publicly available. We, therefore, cannot quantify many of the effects, including the tradeoff behind an SBS Entity's choice to pursue relief and face potential reputational losses versus disassociating with the statutorily disqualified associated person. Where we cannot quantify, we discuss in qualitative terms the relevant economic effects, including the costs and benefits of proposed Rule of Practice 194 and alternative approaches.
To assess the economic impact of proposed Rule of Practice 194, the Commission is using as a baseline the regulation of SBS Entities as it exists at the time of this proposal, including applicable rules we have adopted, but excluding rules that we have proposed but not yet finalized. Included in our baseline are final rules establishing registration requirements for SBS Entities, which are being adopted concurrently with this proposal.
Our economic baseline presumes that the general prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6)
Thus, there are currently no registered entities that are required to comply with either the statutory disqualification certifications in the final registration rules or the statutory prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6). Nevertheless, the Commission believes that in order to perform a meaningful assessment of proposed Rule of Practice 194, the appropriate baseline is one where compliance with final registration rules is required, the general statutory prohibition is in effect, and the Commission may use its authority under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) to issue an order providing relief.
Because final registration rules are being adopted concurrently with this proposal, but compliance is not yet required, we do not have data on the actual number of SBS Entities that will register with the Commission, or the number of persons associated with registered SBS Entities. However, in the Registration Adopting Release, the Commission estimated that up to 50 entities may register with the Commission as security-based swap dealers, and up to five additional entities may register as major security-based swap participants.
Since registration requirements for major security-based swap participants are triggered by position thresholds, as opposed to activity thresholds for dealer registration, we anticipate that entities which may seek to register with the Commission as major security-based swap participants may more closely resemble hedge funds and investment advisors. To estimate the number of natural persons associated with major security-based swap participants, we use Form ADV filings by registered investment advisers. Based on this analysis, as of January 2, 2015 there were 11,506 registered investment advisers; these investment advisers had an average 63 employees each. We use this average as the basis for our estimate of 315 natural persons associated with major security-based swap participants.
Using historical Form ADV filings for investment advisers with control persons as of March 2015, investment advisors with control persons had an average of approximately 18.35 control persons listed as firms or organizations that started to associate between 2000 and 2014, and have not ended the association by December 31, 2014. We preliminarily believe that it may be appropriate to scale the figure by a factor of two to account for complexity in business structures and for the fact that major swap participants are likely to be similar to some of the larger investment advisors, which results in an estimate of up to approximately 184 (18.35 * 5 * 2 = 183.5) entities associated with major security-based swap market participants.
While the Commission lacks data on the incidence of statutory disqualifications in the security-based swap market, we look to the securities market and the experience of broker-dealers as a guide.
The Commission, however, recognizes that the number of applications received by NFA may only present a partial picture of the potential impact of a disqualification because,
The Commission preliminarily believes that the incidence of statutory disqualification among broker-dealers serves as a reasonable basis to estimate the incidence of disqualification among SBS Entities, because both broker-dealers and SBS Entities are engaged in the business of intermediating trade in financial instruments. As described above, in 2014 FINRA received 24 applications for individuals and 10 applications for member firms, out of approximately 272,000 registered representatives and 4,000 currently registered broker-dealers. We estimate that 55 entities will register with the Commission as SBS Entities, with an estimated 21,465 associated natural persons and 868 associated person entities. Assuming the number of applications for association with statutorily disqualified persons at SBS Entities is the same as at broker-dealers results in an estimate of approximately two applications for natural persons and one application for entities per year.
We also note that registered broker-dealers retain the option of complying with statutory disqualification provisions by disassociating with or reassigning disqualified persons. As a result, many instances of disqualification may resolve through disassociation or reassignment. Registered entities would likely take advantage of the provision only when the benefits of associating with a disqualified person outweigh the costs, including reputational costs, of making an application.
As reflected in Section II.B, the Commission, CFTC, FINRA, and NFA have already established processes that enable various persons subject to a statutory disqualification or other bars to be permitted to associate with regulated entities transacting in equity, bond, commodity, swap, and other markets. The numerous financial markets are integrated, often attracting the same market participants that trade across corporate bond, swap, and security-based swap markets, among others. The Commission has elsewhere estimated that approximately thirty-five entities currently registered with the CFTC as Swap Entities are expected to have sufficiently large security-based swap transaction volume or positions to require registration with the Commission as SBS Entities. We further estimated that sixteen market participants expected to register as SBS Entities have already registered with the Commission as broker-dealers
More broadly, swaps and security-based swaps enable market participants to trade on the risks of underlying reference securities, and these markets are integrated. As a result of cross-market participation, informational efficiency, pricing and liquidity in swaps and security-based swaps markets may influence reference security markets, and vice versa.
Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) provides the Commission with the authority to provide relief from the prohibition against using associated natural persons subject to a statutory disqualification to effect security-based swaps.
Broadly, limiting the involvement of statutorily disqualified persons in security-based swap markets on behalf of SBS Entities mitigates compliance and counterparty risks arising from disqualification and may facilitate competition among higher quality SBS Entities, better supervision and integrity of security-based swap markets. However, limits on disqualified persons may require SBS Entities to undergo business restructuring in the event of disqualification or to apply with the Commission for relief, the costs of which may be passed on to counterparties. Below we discuss this economic tradeoff as it pertains to individual rule provisions and alternatives being considered.
We estimate that the Commission will receive seven or fewer applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 per year (with respect to both associated persons that are natural persons and entities), and we preliminarily believe that SBS Entities may be able to easily reassign or disassociate from disqualified natural persons for the purposes of effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities. Therefore, we preliminarily believe the overall economic impact of the proposed rule will depend on how many associated person entities of SBS Entities become disqualified after the compliance date of final registration rules, the relative market share and structure of bilateral relationships of affected SBS Entities, and the response of other SBS Entities and market participants. We are mindful of the economic tradeoffs inherent in our policy choices and their impact on the securities markets. We discuss these economic effects in more detail below.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194 establishes a structured process that provides SBS Entities clarity and guidelines on the form of application, the items to be considered, and the standard of review. Furthermore, the proposed rule ensures that the Commission will have sufficient information to make a meaningful determination that providing relief for an associated person is consistent with the public interest.
Under the baseline scenario, absent proposed Rule of Practice 194, SBS Entities would still be able to apply to the Commission, and the Commission would still be able to exercise its authority to grant relief.
Absent proposed Rule of Practice 194, we preliminarily believe that SBS Entities seeking to apply for relief from Section 15F(b)(6) may apply to the Commission directly, outside of a formal process, possibly looking to either Rule of Practice 193
Finally, paragraph (j) of proposed Rule of Practice 194 provides relief in cases where the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO, or a registered futures association has granted a prior application or otherwise granted relief from a statutory disqualification with respect to that associated person. To the extent that SBS Entities, Swap Entities, and broker-dealers use the same personnel or entities to effect security-based swaps, swaps, and securities transactions, this proposed rule may conserve resources in the sense that SBS Entities will not have to undergo duplicate review when decisions about relief from statutory disqualifications have already been made by the Commission or another regulatory authority. These benefits are discussed in greater detail in Section V.D.1.c below.
As stated in Section II.C.7 above, orders issued in accordance with Rule of Practice 194 would be made publicly available. Further, for SBS Entities to be able to avail themselves of the temporary exclusion set forth in proposed paragraphs (i)(1)(ii) and (i)(1)(iii), applications related to disqualified associated entities would have to include a notice, which would be publicly disseminated by the Commission. The notice would set forth the name of the SBS Entity and the name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification, and attach as an exhibit to the notice a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification. Publicly available and publicly disseminated information regarding applications under proposed Rule of Practice 194 would provide market participants with information they may find useful in assessing their counterparties. In particular, market participants may use knowledge about whether an SBS Entity has applied for relief and/or whether an SBS Entity currently employs or associates with disqualified persons to effect security-based swaps when choosing counterparties. In general, such information may be valued by market participants when selecting counterparties, if they believe such knowledge is informative about the quality of a counterparty.
In addition, we note that this information may be useful to other SBS Entities. In particular, publicly available information regarding the outcome of Rule of Practice 194 applications may inform other SBS Entities' assessments of the likelihood that the Commission would grant relief in particular circumstances. For example, SBS Entities could look to outcomes in applications where disqualifications were for similar reasons; such information may be useful in determining whether it is cost effective to seek relief.
Beyond establishing a process for submitting applications, proposed Rule of Practice 194 allows an SBS Entity, subject to certain conditions, to permit an associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the SBS Entity without making an application to the Commission, if the associated person's membership, association, registration or listing as a principal has been granted or otherwise approved by the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association.
The proposed rule concerning associated persons previously granted relief by the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association provides SBS Entities with flexibility in hiring and assigning employees, and associating with entities, depending on business needs and required capabilities. Specifically, this provision would benefit SBS Entities transacting across markets through disqualified associated persons previously granted relief by the Commission, CFTC, NFA or FINRA, by enabling them to avoid costs of a separate application process under proposed Rule of Practice 194 or business restructuring. We also recognize that this provision reduces costs to SBS Entities from associating with disqualified persons previously granted relief by the Commission, CFTC, NFA or FINRA, so it may benefit these persons by potentially improving their employment options and business outcomes.
The temporary exclusion pending decision by the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association with respect to an associated person entity
The time-limited nature of the temporary exclusion pending review
We highlight that, as discussed in the Registration Adopting Release, inter-dealer transactions account for greater than 60% of single-name CDS transactions.
At the same time, without the temporary exclusion, other SBS Entities are likely to step in and intermediate the trades. The potential benefits of the temporary exclusion for market quality and competition, therefore, depend on the relative importance of existing bilateral relationships and on which SBS Entities would increase their participation, if some SBS Entities are temporarily unable to intermediate swaps due to statutory disqualification absent the temporary exclusion.
It is important to note that the temporary exclusion will not apply to associated person entities with respect to which the Commission has otherwise ordered, or with respect to which the Commission, CFTC, an SRO or registered futures association has previously denied an application.
We further note that the proposed temporary exclusion covers applications regarding associated person entities only, and excludes applications regarding associated persons that are natural persons. As a practical matter, an SBS Entity may be able to reassign or disassociate from a statutorily disqualified natural person effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps, whereas disassociating from statutorily disqualified entities may require more costly restructuring.
Based on the Commission's experience with similar applications, the Commission preliminarily estimates that the average time necessary for an SBS Entity to research the questions, and complete and file an application under Rule of Practice 194 would be approximately 40 hours for applications regarding entities, and 30 hours for applications regarding natural persons.
Notably, an SBS Entity would only submit such applications where the SBS Entity believed that the economic value of retaining a particular person to effect security-based swaps or continuing association with a statutorily disqualified entity outweighed the application costs associated with proposed Rule of Practice 194. In other words, any application costs would be incurred by SBS Entities on a voluntary basis. Furthermore, the decision to incur application costs would also reflect an SBS Entity's assessment of the likelihood of the Commission granting relief under the public interest standard set forth in proposed Rule of Practice 194(b).
We also note that, under the baseline, an SBS Entity would not be precluded under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) from seeking Commission relief.
Exchange Act Rule 19h-1 provides for Commission review of notices filed by SROs proposing to admit any person to, or continue any person in, membership or association with a member, notwithstanding statutory disqualification.
The temporary exclusion pending decision by the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association
Finally, if the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association renders an adverse decision with respect to an entity that is an associated person an SBS Entity, SBS Entities will have 60 days to conform with the general statutory prohibition.
As we noted above, under proposed Rule of Practice 194, the Commission will make public orders either approving or denying an application under the rule.
Disassociation itself may be costly, particularly for SBS Entities associated with a statutorily disqualified entity that is responsible for a large share of security-based swap business. In considering disassociation, an SBS Entity will weigh reputational costs against the cost of disassociation. For disqualified natural persons, such costs include the cost to an SBS Entity of replacing an employee (or other associated person), and will depend on the scarcity and value of a particular person's skills. For statutorily disqualified associated person entities, such costs may include the cost of eliminating or restructuring an entire business line.
The Commission has preliminarily assessed the effects arising from proposed Rule of Practice 194 on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. As noted above, limiting the ability of statutorily disqualified persons to effect security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities may mitigate compliance and counterparty risks and may facilitate competition among higher quality SBS Entities, enhancing integrity of security-based swap markets. At the same time, limits on disqualified person participation in security-based swap markets may involve costly business restructuring or costs of applying to the Commission for relief. As with the other economic effects already discussed, effects on efficiency, competition, and capital formation flow primarily from how the rule alters an SBS Entity's evaluation of the tradeoff between the value of an associated person's skill and expertise in effecting security-based swaps against the costs of applying for relief, and how the rule alters an SBS Entity's ultimate decision to seek relief.
As noted above, by providing a structured process and clarity as to the standard of review, proposed Rule of Practice 194 may conserve resources relative to the baseline for SBS Entities applying for relief under Section 15F(b)(6), and therefore create a more efficient process for SBS Entities that choose to apply. To the extent that the savings resulting from the proposed rule may encourage more SBS Entities to apply for relief, especially in the case of associated person entities, a greater number of SBS Entities may be able to effect security-based swaps without potentially costly business restructuring.
SBS Entities incur reputational and application costs of permitting statutorily disqualified persons to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps, and weigh these costs against the level and substitutability of disqualified persons' skills and expertise. Should more SBS Entities apply for relief, a greater number of disqualified persons may seek employment and business opportunities in security-based swap markets. However, persons eligible to rely on paragraph (j) to proposed Rule of Practice 194, regarding disqualifications already reviewed by the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association, may enjoy a competitive advantage over persons not eligible for the same treatment. Because SBS Entities would not need to expend resources filing an application, they may prefer associating with persons who can rely on proposed Rule of Practice 194(j) over their disqualified counterparts. If SBS Entities exhibit a preference for persons that can take advantage of proposed Rule of Practice 194(j), it could create competitive disparities among associated persons.
A temporary exclusion pending review by the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association, set forth in paragraph (i) to proposed Rule of Practice 194, would enable SBS Entities to continue their security-based swap market participation without incurring the costs of reassigning or disassociating from disqualified persons. As a result, SBS Entities associating with entities that become subject to a statutory disqualification can continue dealing in security-based swaps without incurring costs of business restructuring until the disposition of the application.
The overall effects of the temporary exclusion from the general statutory prohibition pending review are unclear. On the one hand, it may serve to mitigate potential disruptions should associated entities of a number of SBS Entities become disqualified, leading some SBS Entities to temporarily cease dealing activity pending Commission, CFTC, an SRO or registered futures association review, or to effect business restructuring. At the same time, the presence and magnitude of the potential market disruption is unclear, since other SBS Entities are likely to begin competing for the newly opened market share. The overall effects of this provision on security-based swap market quality and competition depend primarily on whether and which SBS Entities are able to win the newly opened market share in such cases.
Clarity about the items that the Commission will consider in making determinations may allow SBS Entities to make informed assessments about whether a particular application is likely to be approved or denied. Increased certainty about the process may, in turn, alter an SBS Entity's evaluation of its own cost-benefit tradeoff in determining whether to file an application for relief, enabling the entity to more efficiently expend resources.
Finally, while security-based swaps are important financial instruments that may facilitate the capital formation process, we preliminarily believe that the impact of proposed Rule of Practice 194 on capital formation will be
In addition to proposed Rule of Practice 194, the Commission has considered five primary alternative
The Commission has considered blanket relief from the general prohibition in Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) with respect to all associated person entities. Under this alternative, SBS Entities cross-registered as Swap Entities with the CFTC would experience potential economies of scope in associating with persons that are entities. Further, SBS Entities will avoid all costs of business restructuring if associated person entities become statutorily disqualified, or in the event of new associations with statutorily disqualified associated person entities effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps on their behalf.
Relative to the proposed temporary exclusion approach, SBS Entities would be less constrained by the general statutory prohibition and would be able to associate with any and all disqualified entity persons in any capacity without applying for relief under Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(6) or under Rule of Practice 194. Further, the uniform entity exemption approach gives SBS Entities certainty about their ability to permit disqualified entity persons to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps, whereas the proposed temporary exclusion expires after 180 days, and SBS Entities have 60 days to conform to the general statutory prohibition if the Commission, the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association does not render a decision on the application within that timeframe.
At the same time, the counterparty and compliance risks under the uniform entity exemption approach may be greater than those under the proposed approach. If the Commission excludes all disqualified associated entities from the scope of the general statutory prohibition, the Commission would be unable to make an individualized determination under proposed Rule of Practice 194 about whether permitting an associated person entity that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity is consistent with the public interest.
The overall effects of this alternative on security-based swap markets are unclear. Under this alternative, disqualified persons would not undergo substantive review and all disqualified entity persons would be able to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities, which may increase counterparty and compliance risks. However, SBS Entities associating with disqualified persons would not have to undergo business restructuring, the costs of which may flow through to counterparties, further mitigating the risk of disruptions.
The Commission could adopt a modified temporary exclusion, where if the Commission does not render a decision within 180 days the application would be considered granted. This alternative would effectively default to relief from the statutory prohibition for applications for Commission review, since SBS Entities would be able to permit disqualified associated entities to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on their behalf, unless the Commission makes an individualized determination that it is not consistent with the public interest to enable them to do so within 180 days of the application being filed. This may benefit SBS Entities by lowering uncertainty about the need to restructure the business and disassociate from the disqualified entity person. However, it may lead some applications to be considered granted before the Commission is able to perform an individualized assessment of the facts of each case, particularly in complex cases that may require an extensive review. These modifications may benefit SBS Entities, but may allow some disqualified associated entities to be able to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities where the Commission would not have deemed it consistent with the public interest to permit them to do so.
The Commission could also adopt the approach of automatically excepting SBS Entities that associate with statutorily disqualified persons if the matters that triggered the statutory disqualification were non-investment-related, while requiring SBS Entities to apply for relief under the proposed rules for investment-related statutory disqualifications.
Statutory disqualification and the potential inability to deal in various markets may present an incentive against misconduct, including non-investment-related misconduct. This alternative would also lower the information benefits of reviewing applications and supporting materials, including information concerning supervisory structure, terms of employment and other items, which will inform Commission understanding of SBS Entity associations and ongoing oversight. Finally, some statutory disqualification triggers that may not fall in the “investment related offense” category (
The proposed rules allow SBS Entities to permit statutorily disqualified persons to effect or be involved in
This alternative approach would allow the Commission to review the facts and circumstances of each case and make an individualized public interest determination with respect to each disqualified associated person concerning whether they should be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities, and under which conditions. If fewer SBS Entities choose to go through a separate review by the Commission, this alternative may result in a smaller number of disqualified associated persons effecting or involved in effecting security-based swaps. To the extent that statutory disqualification and terms and conditions of reassociation may indicate compliance and counterparty risks, this may improve compliance and counterparty protections for security-based swap market participants.
However, this alternative may increase costs for SBS Entities. Specifically, this alternative would require SBS Entities to incur the application costs under Rule of Practice 194 with respect to associated persons that have already been approved by the CFTC, SRO or a registered futures association, or costs of restructuring the business or disassociating from such persons altogether. If the application is denied, SBS Entities would need to restructure the business or disassociate from the associated person. In addition, in light of the high degree of integration among swap and security-based swap markets and expected cross-registration, many SBS Entities are expected to transact across swap, security-based swap and reference security markets, and some SBS Entities may be relying on the same personnel and entities in effecting, for instance, single name and index CDS. This approach would limit SBS Entity flexibility in hiring and retaining disqualified associated persons where the SBS Entity believes the person's quality and expertise outweigh the reputational costs of associating with a disqualified person and where the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association has made a favorable finding with respect to the associated person.
The effects of this alternative on security-based swap markets will depend on the extent of reliance by SBS Entities on disqualified persons approved by the CFTC, an SRO or a registered futures association, magnitude of the above business restructuring costs, significance of bilateral counterparty relationships, and the severity of compliance and counterparty risks posed by disqualified associated persons. As discussed in earlier sections, we lack data or other information to quantify these effects with any degree of certainty.
Lastly, the Commission could establish a uniform prohibition on associated person entities subject to statutory disqualification effecting or being involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities. Under this approach, all disqualified associated entities not covered by the exemption in final registration rules would be barred from intermediating security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities. To the extent that past disqualifications can point to higher compliance and counterparty risks, this alternative could potentially strengthen counterparty protections. Further, the inability to participate in various markets due to disqualification disincentivizes misconduct. Adopting this approach would strengthen these incentive effects, which may improve compliance with federal securities laws, rules and regulations.
However, barring all disqualified associated entities from effecting or being involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of SBS Entities would impose costs of business restructuring for a number of SBS Entities, which may in turn affect market quality. In the event of a disqualification after the compliance date of the final registration rules, SBS Entities would be required to cease intermediating security-based swaps and restructure their business to disassociate from all disqualified entities. If a number of entities associated with different SBS Entities become disqualified at the same time, a number of SBS Entities may become temporarily unable to effect security-based swaps due to disqualification. Currently, inter-dealer transactions account for over 60% of single-name CDS transactions, which reflects the central position of a small number of dealers, each of which may intermediate trades between many hundreds of counterparties. If some of the central dealers are temporarily unable to effect security-based swaps, higher transaction costs or market disruptions may occur. However, we note that other SBS Entities may step in to pick up the market share. The overall economic effects will depend on: (i) The costs and the required length of time for business restructuring; (ii) which SBS Entities would be able to pick up the newly available market share; and (iii) the relative importance of bilateral relationships between SBS Entities and counterparties.
Lastly, this alternative may decrease the number of entities seeking to associate with SBS Entities since disqualified entity persons will no longer be able to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps. Such disqualified entities may seek to associate with security-based swap market participants that are not required to register (entities falling within the
The Commission is requesting comments regarding the economic analysis set forth here. To the extent possible, the Commission requests that market participants and other commenters provide supporting data and analysis with respect to the benefits, costs, and effects on competition, efficiency, and capital formation of adopting proposed Rule of Practice 194, or any reasonable alternatives.
Although the Commission is seeking comments on the economic analysis generally, the Commission is also soliciting comment on the following specific issues:
Q-53. Has the Commission accurately characterized the costs and benefits of proposed Rule of Practice 194? If not, why not? Should any of the costs or benefits be modified? What, if any, other costs or benefits should the Commission take into account?
Q-54. Has the Commission accurately characterized the effects on competition, efficiency, and capital formation arising from proposed Rule of Practice 194? If not, why not?
Q-55. Has the Commission reasonably estimated the application costs associated with proposed Rule of Practice 194? Has the Commission reasonably estimated the average number of applicants per year (with respect to both natural persons and entities)? Are there any other costs that the Commission should take into account regarding preparing, reviewing, and submitting an application under proposed Rule of Practice 194? If the application costs are too high, how specifically should the Commission modify proposed Rule of Practice 194 to reduce application costs?
Q-56. Is it a reasonable characterization that the effects of the rule on capital formation will be
Q-57. Has the Commission accurately characterized the costs, benefits, and effects on competition, efficiency, and capital formation of the alternatives specified above? If not, why not? Should any of the costs or benefits be modified? What, if any, other costs or benefits should the Commission take into account?
Q-58. Are there other reasonable alternatives that the Commission should consider? What are the costs, benefits, and effects on competition, efficiency, and capital formation of any other alternatives?
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”)
For purposes of Commission rulemaking in connection with the RFA, a small entity includes: (i) When used with reference to an “issuer” or a “person,” other than an investment company, an “issuer” or “person” that, on the last day of its most recent fiscal year, had total assets of $5 million or less,
Under the standards adopted by the Small Business Administration, small entities in the finance and insurance industry include the following:
(i) For entities engaged in certain credit intermediation and related activities, entities with $550 million or less in assets;
(ii) for entities engaged in non-depository credit intermediation and certain other activities, entities with $38.5 million or less in annual receipts;
(iii) for entities engaged in financial investments and related activities, entities with $38.5 million or less in annual receipts;
(iv) for insurance carriers and entities engaged in related activities, entities with $38.5 million or less in annual receipts, or 1,500 employees for direct property and casualty insurance carriers;
(v) for funds, trusts, and other financial vehicles, entities with $32.5 million or less in annual receipts.
SBA definitions of small businesses apply to a firm's parent company and all affiliates as a single entity.
Proposed Rule of Practice 194 would, if adopted, establish rules concerning an application by SBS Entity to the Commission for an order permitting an associated person that is a natural person and that is subject to a statutorily disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of an SBS Entity. With respect to SBS Entities, based on feedback from market participants and our information about the security-based swap markets, the Commission continues to believe that (1) the types of entities that would engage in more than a
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission certifies that the proposed Rule of Practice 194 would not, if adopted, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities for purposes of the RFA.
The Commission encourages written comments regarding this certification. The Commission requests that commenters describe the nature of any impact on small entities and provide supporting data to support the extent of the impact.
For purposes of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (“SBREFA”)
The Commission is proposing Rule of Practice 194 pursuant to Exchange Act Section 15F(b)(4) and (6),
In accordance with the foregoing, the Securities and Exchange Commission is proposing to amend Title 17, Chapter II of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77h-1, 77j, 77s, 77u, 77sss, 77ttt, 78(c)(b), 78d-1, 78d-2, 78
A security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant making an application under this section should refer to Appendix A to § 201.194—Note Concerning Applications by Security-Based Swap Dealers or Major Security-Based Swap Participants for Statutorily Disqualified Associated Persons To Effect or Be Involved In Effecting Security-Based Swaps.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) A copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification;
(2) An undertaking by the applicant to notify promptly the Commission in writing if any information submitted in support of the application becomes materially false or misleading while the application is pending;
(3) A copy of the questionnaire or application for employment specified in 17 CFR 240.15Fb6-2(b), with respect to the associated person; and
(4) If the associated person has been the subject of any proceeding resulting in the imposition of disciplinary sanctions during the five years preceding the filing of the application or is the subject of a pending proceeding by the Commission, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, any federal or state regulatory or law enforcement agency, registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21), foreign financial regulatory authority, registered national securities association, or any other self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)), or commodities exchange, or any court, the applicant should include a copy of any order, decision, or document issued by the court, agency, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or other relevant authority involved.
(d)
(1) The associated person's compliance with any order resulting in statutory disqualification, including whether the associated person has paid fines or penalties, disgorged monies, made restitution or paid any other monetary compensation required by any such order;
(2) The associated person's employment during the period subsequent to becoming subject to a statutory disqualification;
(3) The capacity or position in which the person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant;
(4) The terms and conditions of employment and supervision to be exercised over such associated person and, where applicable, by such associated person;
(5) The qualifications, experience, and disciplinary history of the proposed supervisor(s) of the associated person;
(6) The compliance and disciplinary history, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, of the applicant;
(7) The names of any other associated persons at the applicant who have previously been subject to a statutory disqualification and whether they are to be supervised by the associated person;
(8) Any relevant courses, seminars, examinations or other actions completed by the associated person subsequent to becoming subject to a statutory disqualification to prepare for his or her participation in the security-based swap business;
(9) Notwithstanding the event resulting in statutory disqualification, the applicant should provide a detailed statement of why the associated person should be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant, including what steps the associated person or applicant has taken, or will take, to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework;
(10) Whether the associated person has been involved in any litigation during the five years preceding the filing of the application concerning investment or investment-related activities or whether there are any unsatisfied judgments outstanding
(11) Any other information that the applicant believes to be material to the application.
(e)
(1) A copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification;
(2) An undertaking by the applicant to notify immediately the Commission in writing if any information submitted in support of the application becomes materially false or misleading while the application is pending;
(3) Organizational charts of the associated person, if available;
(4) Policies and procedures relating to the conduct resulting in the statutory disqualification that the associated person has in place to ensure compliance with the federal or state securities laws, the Commodity Exchange Act, the rules or regulations thereunder, or the rules of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board, or any self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)), or any foreign regulatory authority, as applicable;
(5) If the associated person has been the subject of any proceedings resulting in the imposition of disciplinary sanctions during the five years preceding the filing of the application or is the subject of a pending proceeding by the Commission, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, any federal or state regulatory or law enforcement agency, registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21), foreign financial regulatory authority, registered national securities association, or any other self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)), or commodities exchange, or any court, the applicant should include a copy of any order, decision, or document issued by the court, agency, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or other relevant authority involved, if available; and
(6) The names of any natural persons employed by the associated person that are subject to a statutory disqualification and that would effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant. For any such natural person, the applicant should indicate if the individual is an officer, partner, direct or indirect owner of the associated person.
(f)
(1) General background information about the associated person, including number of employees; number and location of offices; the type(s) of business(es) in which the associated person is engaged; and self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) memberships of the associated person and the effective dates of membership, if applicable;
(2) The associated person's compliance with any order resulting in a statutory disqualification, including whether the associated person has paid fines or penalties, disgorged monies, made restitution or paid any other monetary compensation required by any such order;
(3) The capacity or position in which the person subject to a statutory disqualification proposes to be associated with the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant;
(4) A description of whether, with respect to the statutory disqualification and the sanctions imposed, the associated person was ordered to undertake any changes to its organizational structure or policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (e)(4) of this section. To the extent that such changes were mandated, describe what changes were mandated and whether the associated person has implemented them;
(5) Notwithstanding the conduct resulting in a statutory disqualification, the applicant should provide a detailed statement of why the associated person should be permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant, including what steps the associated person or applicant have taken, or will take, to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework;
(6) The compliance and disciplinary history, during the five years preceding the filing of the application, of the applicant;
(7) Whether the associated person has been involved in any litigation during the five years preceding the filing of the application concerning investment or investment-related activities or whether there are any unsatisfied judgments outstanding against the associated person concerning investment or investment-related activities, to the extent not otherwise covered by paragraph (f)(6) of this section. If so, the applicant should provide details regarding such litigation or unsatisfied judgments; and
(8) Any other information that the applicant believes to be material to the application.
(g)
(1) Pursuant to this section;
(2) Pursuant to Rule of Practice 193 (17 CFR 201.193);
(3) Pursuant to Investment Company Act Section 9(c) (15 U.S.C. 80a-9(c));
(4) Pursuant to Section 19(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s(d)), Rule 19h-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (17 CFR 240.19h-1), or a proceeding by a self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) for a person to become or remain a member, or an associated person of a member, notwithstanding the existence of a statutory disqualification; or
(5) By the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) for registration, including as an associated person, or listing as a principal, notwithstanding the existence of a statutory disqualification, including:
(i) Any order or other document providing that the associated person may be listed as a principal or registered as an associated person of a futures commission merchant, retail foreign exchange dealer, introducing broker,
(ii) Any determination by a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) that had the associated person applied for registration as an associated person of a swap dealer or a major swap participant, notwithstanding statutory disqualification, the application would have been granted or denied.
(h)
(i)
(i) For 30 days following the associated person becoming subject to a statutory disqualification or 30 days following the person that is subject to a statutory disqualification becoming an associated person of a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant; and
(ii) For 180 days following the filing of a complete application pursuant to this section and a notice pursuant to paragraph (i)(2) by a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant if the application and notice are filed within the time period specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i), or until such time the Commission makes a determination on such application within the 180-day time period; provided that where the Commission does not render a decision within 180 days following the filing of such application, the applicant shall have 60 days to comply with the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)); or
(iii) For 180 days following the filing of a complete application with, or initiation of a process by, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) with respect to the associated person for the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, where such application has been filed or process started prior to or within the time period specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section and a notice has been filed with the Commission pursuant to (i)(2) of this section within the time period specified in paragraph (i)(1)(i); provided that where the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) does not render a decision or renders an adverse decision with respect to the associated person within the 180-day time period, the applicant shall have 60 days to comply with the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)).
(2) A security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant shall be excluded from the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)) as provided in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section where the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant has filed a notice with the Commission setting forth the name of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant and the name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification, and attaching as an exhibit to the notice a copy of the order or other applicable document that resulted in the associated person being subject to a statutory disqualification.
(3) Where the Commission denies an application pursuant to this section with respect to an associated person that is not a natural person, the Commission may provide by order an extension of the exclusion provided for in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section as is necessary or appropriate to allow the applicant to comply with the prohibition in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)).
(j)
(i) The person has been admitted to or continued in membership, or participation or association with a member, of a self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)), notwithstanding that such person is subject to a statutory disqualification under Section 3(a)(39)(A) through (F) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)(A) through (F));
(ii) The person is a natural person and has been granted consent to associate pursuant to the Rule of Practice 193 (17 CFR 201.193);
(iii) The person has been permitted to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant pursuant to this section; or
(iv) The person has been registered as, or listed as a principal of, a futures commission merchant, retail foreign exchange dealer, introducing broker, commodity pool operator, commodity trading advisor, or leverage transaction merchant, registered as an associated person of any of the foregoing, registered as or listed as a principal of a swap dealer or major swap participant, or registered as a floor broker or floor trader, notwithstanding that the person is subject to a statutory disqualification under Sections 8a(2) or 8a(3) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 12a(2), (3)), and the person is not subject to a Commission bar or suspension pursuant to Sections 15(b), 15B, 15E, 15F or 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o(b), 78o-4, 78o-7, 78o-10, 78q-1), Section 9(b) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-9(b)) or Section 203(f) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3(f)).
(2) A security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant may permit a person associated with it that is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on its behalf, without making an application pursuant to this section, as provided in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, subject to the following conditions:
(i) All matters giving rise to a statutory disqualification under Section 3(a)(39)(A) through (F) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)(A) through (F)) have been subject to a process where the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal has been granted or otherwise approved by the Commission, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21);
(ii) The terms and conditions of the association with the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant are the same in all material respects as those approved in connection with a previous order, notice or other applicable document granting the membership, association, registration or listing as a principal, as provided in paragraph (j)(1) of this section;
(iii) Where the associated person is a natural person, the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant has filed a notice with the Commission, setting forth, as appropriate:
(A) The name of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant;
(B) The name of the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification;
(C) The name of the associated person's prospective supervisor(s) at the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant;
(D) The place of employment for the associated person subject to a statutory disqualification; and
(E) Identification of any agency, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association, registration or listing as a principal; and
(iv) Where the associated person is not a natural person, the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant has filed a notice with the Commission setting forth:
(A) The name of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant;
(B) The name of the associated person that is subject to a statutory disqualification; and
(C) Identification of any agency, self-regulatory organization (as provided in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(26)) or a registered futures association (as provided in 7 U.S.C. 21) that has indicated its agreement with the terms and conditions of the proposed association, registration or listing as a principal.
(a) Under Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)), except to the extent otherwise specifically provided by rule, regulation, or order of the Commission, it shall be unlawful for a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant to permit any person associated with a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant, if the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant knew, or in the exercise of reasonable care should have known, of the statutory disqualification.
(b) In accordance with the authority granted in Section 15F(b)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(b)(6)), this rule governs applications to the Commission by a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant for the Commission to issue an order to permit an associated person of a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant who is subject to a statutory disqualification to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant.
(c) Applications made pursuant to this rule must show that it would be consistent with the public interest to permit the associated person of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant. In addition to the information specifically required by the rule, with respect to associated persons that are natural persons, applications should be supplemented, where appropriate, by written statements of individuals who are competent to attest to the associated person's character, employment performance, and other relevant information. In addition to the information required by the rule, the Commission staff may request supplementary information to assist in the Commission's review. Intentional misstatements or omissions of fact may constitute criminal violations of 18 U.S.C. 1001,
(d) The nature of the supervision that an associated person that is a natural person will receive or exercise as an associated person with a registered entity is an important matter bearing upon the public interest. In meeting the burden of showing that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant is consistent with the public interest, the application and supporting documentation must demonstrate that the terms or conditions of association, procedures or proposed supervision, are reasonably designed to ensure that the statutory disqualification does not negatively impact upon the ability of the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant in compliance with the applicable statutory and regulatory framework.
(e) Normally, the applicant's burden of demonstrating that permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant is consistent with the public interest will be difficult to meet where the associated person that is a natural person is to be supervised by, or is to supervise, another statutorily disqualified individual. In addition, where the associated person wishes to become the sole proprietor of a registered entity and thus is applying to the Commission to issue an order permitting the associated person to effect or be involved in effecting security-based swaps on behalf of the security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant notwithstanding an absence of supervision, the applicant's burden will be difficult to meet. The associated person may be limited to association in a specified capacity with a particular registered entity and may also be subject to specific terms and conditions.
By the Commission.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |