Page Range | 48609-48748 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 48718 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 48667 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone off Alaska; Shortraker Rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska | |
82 FR 48720 - Collection of Information Under Review by Office of Management and Budget; OMB Control Number: 1625-0119 | |
82 FR 48717 - Receipt of Information Under the Toxic Substances Control Act | |
82 FR 48703 - Supervisory Highlights: Summer 2017 | |
82 FR 48719 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48738 - Notice of Application for Approval To Discontinue or Modify a Railroad Signal System | |
82 FR 48609 - Privacy Act Regulations; Correction | |
82 FR 48609 - National Environmental Policy Act Regulations; Correction | |
82 FR 48656 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; 2017-2018 Biennial Specifications and Management Measures; Inseason Adjustments | |
82 FR 48727 - Revision of the Guidance Document for Alternative Disposal Requests | |
82 FR 48721 - Accreditation and Approval of AmSpec LLC (Plainfield, IL) as a Commercial Gauger and Laboratory | |
82 FR 48747 - Agency Information Collection Activity Under OMB Review: Living Will and Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care | |
82 FR 48681 - Certain Uncoated Groundwood Paper From Canada: Postponement of Preliminary Determination in the Countervailing Duty Investigation | |
82 FR 48682 - Circular Welded Carbon Quality Steel Pipe From the People's Republic of China: Rescission of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2016 | |
82 FR 48681 - Certain Steel Nails From the United Arab Emirates: Continuation of Antidumping Duty Order | |
82 FR 48715 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Personal Authentication Service (PAS) for FSA ID | |
82 FR 48674 - 2018 Annual Determination To Implement the Sea Turtle Observer Requirement | |
82 FR 48723 - Notice of Realty Action; Recreation and Public Purposes Act Classification | |
82 FR 48746 - Cooperative Studies Scientific Evaluation Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 48737 - Foreign Affairs Policy Board Charter Renewal | |
82 FR 48680 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48737 - Presidential Declaration of a Major Disaster for the State of California | |
82 FR 48679 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Minnesota Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 48718 - Patient Safety Organizations: Voluntary Relinquishment From the American College of Physicians Patient Safety Organization | |
82 FR 48728 - Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction) | |
82 FR 48737 - Thirty Seventh RTCA SC-216 Aeronautical Systems Security Plenary | |
82 FR 48714 - Notice of Availability of an Environmental Assessment Addressing Defense Logistics Agency Construction and Operation of a Disposition Services Complex at DLA Disposition Services Red River, Texas | |
82 FR 48630 - Veterans' Mortgage Life Insurance-Coverage Amendment | |
82 FR 48726 - Advisory Committee for Mathematical and Physical Sciences; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 48679 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48718 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
82 FR 48748 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Application of Surviving Spouse or Child for REPS Benefits | |
82 FR 48747 - Agency Information Collection Activity: VA Disaster Resilience Survey of Community Dwelling Veterans | |
82 FR 48739 - Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Motor Theft Prevention Standard; General Motors Corporation | |
82 FR 48741 - Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard; Fiat Chrysler Automobiles US LLC | |
82 FR 48744 - Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard; Nissan North America, Inc. | |
82 FR 48743 - Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard; Toyota Motor North America, Inc. | |
82 FR 48716 - Big Chino Valley Pumped Storage LLC; Notice of Preliminary Permit Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Competing Applications | |
82 FR 48717 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 48715 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 48724 - Brass Sheet and Strip From France, Germany, Italy, and Japan; Determinations | |
82 FR 48724 - Certain Personal Transporters, Components Thereof, and Packaging and Manuals Therefor and Certain Personal Transporters and Components Thereof; Notice of a Commission Determination To Review in Part a Final Initial Determination; Schedule for Filing Written Submissions on Certain Issues Under Review and on Remedy, the Public Interest, and Bonding | |
82 FR 48729 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48738 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48702 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Protocol for Access to Tissue Specimen Samples From the National Marine Mammal Tissue Bank | |
82 FR 48730 - Agency Forms Submitted for OMB Review, Request for Comments | |
82 FR 48732 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 48632 - Update to Product Lists | |
82 FR 48733 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Investors Exchange LLC; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rule 14.602 To Describe the Complimentary Products and Services To Be Made Available to All Listed Companies | |
82 FR 48734 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Depository Trust Company; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the DTC Distributions Guide Relating to Announcements and Tax Treatment of Certain Corporate Action Events and To Amend the DTC Fee Schedule | |
82 FR 48701 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 48683 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to U.S. Navy 2018 Ice Exercise Activities in the Beaufort Sea and Arctic Ocean | |
82 FR 48746 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 1024-A; Extension of Comment Period | |
82 FR 48722 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Verification of Indian Preference for Employment in BIA and IHS | |
82 FR 48668 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc., Airplanes | |
82 FR 48655 - Pipeline Safety: Safety of Underground Natural Gas Storage Facilities | |
82 FR 48615 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 48609 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 48614 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 48611 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 48723 - Cancellation of September 13, 2016, Meeting of the Wekiva River System Advisory Management Committee | |
82 FR 48637 - Significant New Use Rules on Certain Chemical Substances | |
82 FR 48618 - Treatment of Transactions in Which Federal Financial Assistance Is Provided | |
82 FR 48671 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes |
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Indian Affairs Bureau
Land Management Bureau
National Park Service
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
National Capital Planning Commission.
Final rule; correction.
The National Capital Planning Commission (NCPC or Commission) is correcting a final rule that appeared in the
Effective October 30, 2017.
Anne R. Schuyler, General Counsel and Chief FOIA Officer, 202-482-7223,
In FR Doc. 2017-20614 appearing on page 45421 in the
National Capital Planning Commission.
Final rule; correction.
The National Capital Planning Commission (NCPC or Commission) is correcting a final rule that appeared in the
Effective October 20, 2017.
Anne R. Schuyler, General Counsel and Chief FOIA Officer, 202-482-7223,
In FR Doc. 2017-19996 appearing on page 44044 in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective October 19, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of October 19, 2017.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd. Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective October 19, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of October 19, 2017.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC, 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part § 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective October 19, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of October 19, 2017.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective October 19, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of October 19, 2017.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Final regulations.
This document contains final regulations under section 597 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). These final regulations amend existing regulations that address the federal income tax treatment of transactions in which federal financial assistance (FFA) is provided to banks and domestic building and loan associations, and they clarify the federal income tax consequences of those transactions to banks, domestic building and loan associations, and related parties. These regulations affect banks, domestic building and loan associations, and related parties.
Russell G. Jones, (202) 317-5357, or Ken Cohen, (202) 317-5367 (not toll-free numbers).
The collections of information contained in these final regulations have been reviewed and approved by the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) under OMB control number 1545-1300. The collections of information in these final regulations are in §§ 1.597-2(c)(4), 1.597-4(g)(5), 1.597-6(c), and 1.597-7(c)(3). The collections of information in these regulations are necessary for the proper performance of the function of the IRS by providing relevant information concerning the deferred FFA account and the amount of income tax potentially not subject to collection. The collections also inform the IRS and certain financial institutions that certain elections in these regulations have been made.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number.
Books and records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by section 6103.
On May 20, 2015, the Treasury Department and the IRS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-140991-09) in the
The Treasury Department and the IRS received no comments on the proposed regulations, and no public hearing was requested or held. This Treasury decision thus adopts the proposed regulations with only non-substantive, clarifying changes. For example, the final regulations clarify that, with respect to any election provided under the final regulations that is available for a consolidated group to make, the agent for the group, within the meaning of § 1.1502-77, must make the election.
Like the proposed regulations, these final regulations amend and restate all of §§ 1.597-2 through 1.597-7 in order to make the reading of the regulations more user-friendly. However, unlike the proposed regulations, rather than restating all of § 1.597-1, these final regulations expressly list the changes to the definitions in § 1.597-1. This change to the proposed regulations is merely for the sake of clarity and no substantive change is intended. These final regulations make no changes to § 1.597-8.
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13653. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. It is hereby certified that the collection of information contained in these regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This certification is based on the fact that the regulations apply only to transactions involving banks or domestic building and loan associations, which tend to be larger businesses. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6). Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the notice of proposed rulemaking preceding these regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business, and no comments were received.
The principal author of these regulations is Russell G. Jones of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Corporate). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(i) Is a member of the same consolidated group as an Institution; and
(ii) Would be a member of the affiliated group that would be determined under section 1504(a) if the Institution were the common parent thereof.
(a)
(2)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(i) The excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the Institution's liabilities over the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets; and
(ii) The amount by which the excess for the taxable year of the Institution's deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) over its gross income (determined without regard to FFA) is greater than the excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets over the Institution's liabilities.
(3)
(i) The excess at the beginning of the taxable year of the Institution's liabilities over the adjusted bases of the Institution's assets;
(ii) The greater of—
(A) The excess for the taxable year of the Institution's deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Code (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) over its gross income (determined without regard to FFA); or
(B) The excess for the taxable year of the deductions allowed by chapter 1 of the Code (other than net operating and capital loss carryovers) of the consolidated group of which the Institution is a member on the last day of the Institution's taxable year over the group's gross income (determined without regard to FFA); and
(iii) The excess of the amount of any net operating loss carryover of the Institution (or in the case of a carryover from a consolidated return year of the Institution's current consolidated group, the net operating loss carryover of the group) to the taxable year over the amount described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(
(
(
(
(
(
(B)
(iv)
(v)
(5)
(6)
(ii)
(iii)
(7)
(d)
(2)
(ii) If an Agency makes a payment to an Institution pursuant to a Loss Guarantee with respect to a Covered Asset owned by an entity other than the Institution, the payment will be treated as made directly to the owner of the Covered Asset and included in the amount realized with respect to the Covered Asset when the Covered Asset is sold or charged off. The payment will be treated as further transferred through chains of ownership to the extent necessary to reflect the actual receipt of such payment. Any such transfer, if a deemed distribution, will not be a preferential dividend for purposes of sections 561, 562, 852, or 857.
(iii) For the purposes of this paragraph (d)(2), references to an amount realized include amounts obtained in whole or partial satisfaction of loans, amounts obtained by virtue of charging off or marking to market a Covered Asset, and other amounts similarly related to property, whether or not disposed of.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(B)
(iv)
(5)
(A) The amount of any FFA that is otherwise includible in income for the taxable year (before application of paragraph (c) of this section); and
(B) The balance (but not below zero) in the deferred FFA account, if any, maintained under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
(ii)
(iii)
(A) By an Institution other than a New Entity or an Acquiring, as a deduction of the amount in excess of FFA received that is required to be transferred to an Agency under section 11(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(g)); or
(B) By a New Entity or an Acquiring, as an adjustment to the purchase price paid in the Taxable Transfer (see § 1.338-7).
(e)
(ii) If the Agency instead lends M the $30 million, M's indebtedness to the Agency is disregarded and the results are the same as in paragraph (i) of this
(ii) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, M is treated as selling the property for $1 million, its fair market value, thus recognizing a $4 million loss ($5 million−$1 million). In addition, because M did not receive any consideration from the Agency, under paragraph (d)(4) of this section M has an adjustment to FFA of $1 million, the amount by which the fair market value of the transferred property ($1 million) exceeds the consideration M received from the Agency ($0). Because no FFA is provided to M in 2018, this adjustment reduces the balance of M's deferred FFA account to $9 million ($10 million−$1 million) under paragraph (d)(5)(i)(B) of this section. Because M's $4 million loss causes M's deductions to exceed its gross income by $4 million in 2018 and M has no remaining equity, under paragraph (c)(4)(iii)(A) of this section M must include $4 million of deferred FFA in income and must decrease the remaining $9 million balance of its deferred FFA account by the same amount, leaving a balance of $5 million.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(d)
(e) [Reserved]
(f)
(g)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2)
(e)
(f)
(2)
(g)
(2)
(i) All adjustments of the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries under section 481 are accelerated;
(ii) Deferred intercompany gains and losses and intercompany items with respect to the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries are taken into account and the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries take into account any other items required under the regulations under section 1502 for members that become nonmembers within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4);
(iii) The taxable year of the Institution and its Consolidated Subsidiaries closes and the Institution includes the amount described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section in income as ordinary income as its last item for that taxable year;
(iv) The members of the consolidated group owning the common stock of the Institution include in income any excess loss account with respect to the Institution's stock under § 1.1502-19 and any other items required under the regulations under section 1502 for members that own stock of corporations that become nonmembers within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4); and
(v) If the Institution's liabilities exceed the aggregate fair market value of its assets on the date the Institution is placed in Agency Receivership (or, in the case of a deemed election under paragraph (g)(6) of this section, on the date the consolidated group is deemed to make the election), the members of the consolidated group treat their stock in the Institution as worthless. (See §§ 1.337(d)-2, 1.1502-35(f), and 1.1502-36 for rules applicable when a member of a consolidated group is entitled to a worthless stock deduction with respect to stock of another member of the group.) In all other cases, the consolidated group will be treated as owning stock of a nonmember corporation until such stock is disposed of or becomes worthless under rules otherwise applicable.
(3)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(5)
(B)
(ii)
(6)
(ii)
(h)
(ii)
(iii)
(a)
(i) A transaction in which an entity transfers to a transferee other than a Bridge Bank—
(A) Any deposit liability (whether or not the Institution also transfers assets), if FFA is provided in connection with the transaction; or
(B) Any asset for which an Agency or a Controlled Entity has any financial obligation (for example, pursuant to a Loss Guarantee or Agency Obligation); or
(ii) A deemed transfer of assets described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(2)
(b)
(i) In connection with a transaction in which FFA is provided;
(ii) While the Institution is a Bridge Bank;
(iii) While the Institution has a positive balance in a deferred FFA account (see § 1.597-2(c)(4)(v) regarding the optional accelerated recapture of deferred FFA); or
(iv) With respect to a Consolidated Subsidiary, while the Institution of which it is a Consolidated Subsidiary is under Agency Control.
(2)
(i) Becomes a non-member (within the meaning of § 1.1502-32(d)(4)) of its consolidated group, other than pursuant to an election under § 1.597-4(g);
(ii) Becomes a member of an affiliated group of which it was not previously a member, other than pursuant to an election under § 1.597-4(g); or
(iii) Issues stock such that the stock that was outstanding before the imposition of Agency Control or the occurrence of any transaction in connection with the provision of FFA represents 50 percent or less of the vote or value of its outstanding stock (disregarding stock described in section 1504(a)(4) and stock owned by an Agency or a Controlled Entity).
(3)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(ii)
(d)
(2)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(B)
(e)
(2)
(ii)
(3)
(ii)
(4)
(5)
(f)
(ii) The transaction is a Taxable Transfer in which M receives $121 million of Net Worth Assistance under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. (M is treated as directly receiving the $121 million of Net Worth Assistance immediately before the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.) M transfers branches having a basis of $1 million and is treated as transferring $121 million in cash (the Net Worth Assistance) to N in exchange for N's assumption of $120 million of liabilities. Thus, M realizes a loss of $2 million on the transfer. The amount of the FFA M must include in its income in 2018 is limited by paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2 to $102 million, which is the sum of the $100 million excess of M's liabilities ($200 million) over the total adjusted basis of its assets ($100 million) at the beginning of 2018 and the $2 million excess for the taxable year (which results from the Taxable Transfer) of M's deductions (other than carryovers) over its gross income other than FFA. M must establish a deferred FFA account for the remaining $19 million of FFA under paragraph (c)(4) of § 1.597-2.
(iii) N, as the Acquiring, must allocate its $120 million purchase price for the assets acquired from M among those assets. Cash is a Class I asset. The branch assets are in Classes III and IV. N's adjusted basis in the cash is its amount, that is, $121 million under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Because this amount exceeds N's purchase price for all of the acquired assets by $1 million, N allocates no basis to the other acquired assets and, under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, must recapture the $1 million excess at an annual rate of $166,667 in the six consecutive taxable years beginning with 2018 (subject to acceleration for certain events).
(ii) On September 1, 2018, the Agency causes PB to issue 100 percent of its common stock for $2 million cash to X. On the same day, the Agency issues a $25 million note to
(iii) The stock issuance is a Taxable Transfer in which PB is treated as selling all of its assets to a new corporation, New PB, under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. PB is treated as directly receiving $25 million of Net Worth Assistance (the issue price of the Agency Obligation) immediately before the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(2) of § 1.597-3 and paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The amount of FFA PB must include in income is determined under paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 1.597-2. PB in turn is deemed to transfer the note (with a basis of $25 million) to New PB in the Taxable Transfer, together with $20 million of cash, all its loans outstanding (with a basis of $50 million) and its other non-financial assets (with a basis of $5 million). The amount realized by PB from the sale is $100 million (the amount of PB's liabilities deemed to be assumed by New PB). This amount realized equals PB's basis in its assets; thus, PB realizes no gain or loss on the transfer to New PB.
(iv) Residual Entity P also is treated as selling all its assets (consisting of real estate and claims in litigation) for $0 (the amount of consideration received by P) to a new corporation (New P) in a Taxable Transfer under paragraph (b)(3) of this section. (P's only liability is to the Agency and a liability to the Agency is not treated as a debt under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-3.) P's basis in its assets is $10 million; thus, P realizes a $10 million loss on the transfer to New P. The combined return filed by PB and P for 2018 will reflect a total loss on the Taxable Transfer of $10 million ($0 for PB and $10 million for P) under paragraph (e)(3) of this section. That return also will reflect FFA income from the Net Worth Assistance, determined under paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 1.597-2.
(v) New PB is treated as having acquired the assets it acquired from PB for $100 million, the amount of liabilities assumed. In allocating basis among these assets, New PB treats the Agency note and the loans outstanding (which are Covered Assets) as Class II assets. For the purpose of allocating basis, the fair market value of the Agency note is deemed to equal its adjusted issue price immediately before the transfer ($25 million), and the fair market value of the loans is their Expected Value, $50 million (the sum of the $40 million Third-Party Price and the $10 million that the Agency would pay if PB sold the loans for $40 million) under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-1. Alternatively, if the Third-Party Price for the loans were $60 million, then the fair market value of the loans would be $60 million, and there would be no payment from the Agency.
(vi) New P is treated as having acquired its assets for no consideration. Thus, its basis in its assets immediately after the transfer is zero. New PB and New P are not treated as a single entity under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(ii) During May 2018, MB earns $25,000 of interest income and accrues $20,000 of interest expense on depositor accounts and there is no net change in deposits other than the additional $20,000 of interest expense accrued on depositor accounts. MB pays $5,000 of wage expenses and has no other items of income or expense.
(iii) On June 1, 2018, the Agency causes MB to issue 100 percent of its stock to Corporation Y. In connection with the stock issuance, the Agency provides an Agency Obligation for $2 million and no other FFA.
(iv) The stock issuance results in a Taxable Transfer under paragraph (b) of this section. MB is treated as receiving the Agency Obligation immediately prior to the Taxable Transfer under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. MB has $1 million of basis in its account receivable for FFA. This receivable is treated as satisfied, offsetting $1 million of the $2 million of FFA provided by the Agency in connection with the Taxable Transfer. The status of the remaining $1 million of FFA as includible income is determined as of the end of the taxable year under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2. However, under paragraph (b) of § 1.597-2, MB obtains a $2 million basis in the Agency Obligation received as FFA.
(v) Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in the Taxable Transfer, Old Entity MB is treated as selling, to New Entity MB, all of Old Entity MB's assets, having a basis of $6,020,000 (the original $4 million of asset basis as of April 30, 2018, plus $20,000 net cash from May 2018 activities, plus the $2 million Agency Obligation received as FFA), for $5,020,000, the amount of Old Entity MB's liabilities assumed by New Entity MB pursuant to the Taxable Transfer. Therefore, Old Entity MB recognizes, in the aggregate, a loss of $1 million from the Taxable Transfer.
(vi) Because this $1 million loss causes Old Entity MB's deductions to exceed its gross income (determined without regard to FFA) by $1 million, Old Entity MB must include in its income the $1 million of FFA not offset by the FFA receivable under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2. (As of May 1, 2018, Old Entity MB's liabilities ($5 million) did not exceed MB's $5 million adjusted basis of its assets. For the taxable year, MB's deductions of $1,025,000 ($1 million loss from the Taxable Transfer, $20,000 interest expense and $5,000 of wage expense) exceeded its gross income (disregarding FFA) of $25,000 (interest income) by $1 million. Thus, under paragraph (c) of § 1.597-2, MB includes in income the entire $1 million of FFA not offset by the FFA receivable.)
(vii) Therefore, Old Entity MB's taxable income for the taxable year ending on the date of the Taxable Transfer is $0.
(viii) Residual Entity M is also deemed to engage in a deemed sale of its assets to New Entity M under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, but there are no federal income tax consequences as M has no assets or liabilities at the time of the deemed sale.
(ix) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, New Entity MB is treated as purchasing Old Entity MB's assets for $5,020,000, the amount of New Entity MB's liabilities. Of this, $2 million is allocated to the $2 million Agency Obligation, and $3,020,000 is allocated to the other assets New Entity MB is treated as purchasing in the Taxable Transfer.
(ii) At the end of 2018, the Third-Party Price for the loans drops to $400,000, and the Third-Party Price for each of the foreclosed properties remains at $50,000, The fair market value of the loans at the end of Year 2 is their Expected Value, $600,000 ($400,000 Third-Party Price + $200,000 (the amount of the loss if the loans were disposed of for the Third-Party Price × 33.33% (the Average Reimbursement Rate does not change)). Thus, if the loans otherwise may be charged off, marked to a market value, depreciated, or amortized, then the loans may be marked down to $600,000. The fair market value of each of the foreclosed properties remains at $66,667 ($50,000 Third-Party Price + $16,667 (the amount of the loss if the foreclosed property were sold for the Third-Party Price × 33.33%)). Therefore, the foreclosed properties may not be charged off or depreciated in 2018.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2)
(f)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
Department of Veterans Affairs.
Final rule.
This document amends Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) regulations governing the Veterans' Mortgage Life Insurance (VMLI) program in order to provide VMLI-eligible individuals the option to lower their premiums by purchasing less than the minimum coverage amount required under current VA regulations. The final rule also amends current VA regulations to reflect that the statutory maximum amount of coverage available under the VMLI program was previously increased to $200,000, to define the term “eligible individual,” and to clarify that eligibility for VMLI coverage has been extended to include servicemembers as well as veterans.
Effective October 19, 2017.
Jeanne King, Department of Veterans Affairs Regional Office and Insurance Center (310/290B), 5000 Wissahickon Avenue, P.O. Box 8079, Philadelphia, PA 19101, (215) 842-2000, ext. 4839 (this is not a toll-free number).
The Veterans' Mortgage Life Insurance (VMLI) program was established in 1971, to provide mortgage protection insurance to service-disabled veterans who receive Specially Adapted Housing Grants from VA. Section 2106(g) of title 38 of the United States Code mandates that the amount of VMLI in force shall be the amount necessary to pay the covered mortgage indebtedness in full, except as limited by section 2106(b) or “regulations prescribed by the Secretary under this section.” Section 2106(b) currently limits the amount of VMLI available to $200,000. VA has prescribed a regulation to reduce the amount of VMLI coverage required. Until VA exercised this regulatory authority, program participants were required to carry an amount of insurance equal to the lesser of $200,000 or the unpaid principal of their mortgage. This requirement caused some eligible individuals to forego any VMLI protection. Therefore, VA amended its regulations to permit program participants to carry VMLI in an amount less than both the $200,000 statutory maximum and the amount necessary to pay the covered mortgage indebtedness in full.
The comment period for the proposed rule ended on December 19, 2016, and VA received one comment. The commenter recommended that VA mandate a minimum amount of coverage that insureds should be required to purchase, in order to decrease the likelihood that the balance of the mortgage still owed after death would be burdensome for the insured's survivors. VA believes that it is preferable for veterans to participate in the VMLI program to the extent they can financially, rather than potentially foregoing coverage entirely because they cannot afford the mandatory-minimum amount required by VA. If an eligible individual opts out of the program because the cost to carry a mandated minimum amount of coverage was too costly, his or her survivors could ultimately be forced to assume an even greater indebtedness than if the individual carried some VMLI coverage. Therefore, the final rule is being adopted as is without any changes, and provides that VMLI insureds may select a level of coverage that is most appropriate in addressing their own unique financial circumstances.
The final rule amends the regulations to reflect that the maximum coverage amount is currently $200,000. It also provides a definition for the term “eligible individual” and clarifies that both servicemembers and veterans are entitled to apply for coverage under the program. Additionally, the final rule provides for one technical change to 38 CFR 8a.2(b)(8).
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires, at 2 U.S.C. 1532, that agencies prepare an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule that may result in an expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year. This final rule would have no such effect on State, local, and tribal governments or on the private sector.
This final rule contains no provisions constituting a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 12886 (Regulatory Planning and Review) defines a “significant regulatory action,” which requires
The economic, interagency, budgetary, legal, and policy implications of this regulatory action have been examined, and it has been determined not to be a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. VA's impact analysis can be found as a supporting document at
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs hereby certifies that this final rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as they are defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612. This final rule would directly affect only individuals and would not directly affect any small entities. Therefore, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), this rulemaking is exempt from the initial and final regulatory flexibility analysis requirements of sections 603 and 604.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number and title for the program affected by this document is 64.103, Life Insurance for Veterans.
Life insurance, Mortgage insurance, Veterans.
The Secretary of Veterans Affairs, or designee, approved this document and authorized the undersigned to sign and submit the document to the Office of the Federal Register for publication electronically as an official document of the Department of Veterans Affairs. Gina S. Farrisee, Deputy Chief of Staff, Department of Veterans Affairs, approved this document on August 24, 2017, for publication.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, VA amends 38 CFR part 8a as set forth below:
38 U.S.C. 501, and 2101 through 2106, unless otherwise noted.
The revision and additions read as follows:
(c) The term
(f) The term
The revision reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) $200,000.
The addition reads as follows:
The revision reads as follows:
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The Commission is updating the product lists. This action reflects a publication policy adopted by Commission order. The referenced policy assumes periodic updates. The updates are identified in the body of this document. The product lists, which are re-published in its entirety, include these updates.
For applicability dates, see
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6800.
July 13, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 47 (MC2017-154 and CP2017-218); July 17, 2017, Parcel Select Contract 22 (MC2017-155 and CP2017-219); July 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 332 (MC2017-156 and CP2017-220); July 20, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 333 (MC2017-157 and CP2017-221); July 20, 2017, Transferring First-Class Mail Parcels to the Competitive Product List (MC2015-7); July 24, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 334 (MC2017-158 and CP2017-222); July 31, 2017, Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 20 (MC2017-159 and CP2017-223); August 7, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 335 (MC2017-161 and CP2017-226); August 7, 2017, Priority Mail & First Class Package Service Contract 48 (MC2017-160 and CP2017-225); August 8, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 337 (MC2017-163 and CP2017-228); August 8, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 49 (MC2017-164 and CP2017-229); August 14, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 338 (MC2017-166 and CP2017-246); August 14, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 50 (MC2017-165 and CP2017-245); August 15, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 336 (MC2017-162 and CP2017-227); August 17, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 339 (MC2017-167 and CP2017-260); August 17, 2017, Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 21 (MC2017-168 and CP2017-261); August 18, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 340 (MC2017-169 and CP2017-262); August 29, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 341 (MC2017-171 and CP2017-272); August 29, 2017, First-Class Package Service Contract 78 (MC2017-172 and CP2017-273); August 29, 2017, Priority Mail & Frist-Class Package Service Contract 51 (MC2017-173 and CP2017-274); August 30, 2017, Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 22 (MC2017-177 and CP2017-278); August 30, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 52 (MC2017-174 and CP2017-275); August 30, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 53 (MC2017-175 and CP2017-276); August 30, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 342 (MC2017-176 and CP2017-277); August 31, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 343 (MC2017-178 and CP2017-279); August 31, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 344 (MC2017-179 and CP2017-280); September 8, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 345 (MC2017-180 and CP2017-281); September 8, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 346 (MC2017-181 and CP2017-282); September 8, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 347 (MC2017-182 and CP2017-283); September 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 348 (MC2017-184 and CP2017-285); September 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 349 (MC2017-185 and CP2017-286); September 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 350 (MC2017-186 and CP2017-287); September 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 351 (MC2017-187 and CP2017-288); September 19, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 352 (MC2017-188 and CP2017-289); September 20, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 54 (MC2017-192 and CP2017-293); September 20, 2017, First-Class Package Service Contract 79 (MC2017-193 and CP2017-294); September 20, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 353 (MC2017-189 and CP2017-290); September 20, 2017, Priority Mail Express Contract 50 (MC2017-190 and CP2017-291); September 20, 2017, Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 50 (MC2017-191 and CP2017-292); September 21, 2017, First-Class Package Service Contract 80 (MC2017-194 and CP2017-295); September 21, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 55 (MC2017-195 and CP2017-296); September 21, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 354 (MC2017-196 and CP2017-297); September 21, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 355 (MC2017-197 and CP2017-298); September 21, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 56 (MC2017-198 and CP2017-299); September 22, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 356 (MC2017-199 and CP2017-302); September 22, 2017, Priority Mail Contract 357 (MC2017-200 and CP2017-303); September 22, 2017, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 57 (MC2017-201 and CP2017-304); September 22, 2017, Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 51 (MC2017-202 and CP2017-305); September 26, 2017, First-Class Package Service Contract 81 (MC2017-203 and CP2017-310); September 27, 2017, Global Expedited Package Services 8 (MC2017-183 and CP2017-284).
This document identifies updates to the market dominant and the competitive product lists, which appear as 39 CFR Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 3020—Market Dominant Product List and 39 CFR Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 3020—Competitive Product List, respectively. Publication of the updated product lists in the
1. Transferring First-Class Mail Parcels to the Competitive Product List (MC2015-7) (Order No. 4009), moved July 20, 2017.
1. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 47 (MC2017-154 and CP2017-218) (Order No. 3998), added July 13, 2017.
2. Parcel Select Contract 22 (MC2017-155 and CP2017-219) (Order No. 4004), added July 17, 2017.
3. Priority Mail Contract 332 (MC2017-156 and CP2017-220) (Order No. 4007), added July 19, 2017.
4. Priority Mail Contract 333 (MC2017-157 and CP2017-221) (Order No. 4008), added July 20, 2017.
5. Transferring First-Class Mail Parcels to the Competitive Product List (MC2015-7) (Order No. 4009), moved July 20, 2017.
6. Priority Mail Contract 334 (MC2017-158 and CP2017-222) (Order No. 4012), added July 24, 2017.
7. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 20 (MC2017-159 and CP2017-223) (Order No. 4022), added July 31, 2017.
8. Priority Mail Contract 335 (MC2017-161 and CP2017-226) (Order No. 4028), added August 7, 2017.
9. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 48 (MC2017-160 and CP2017-225) (Order No. 4029), added August 7, 2017.
10. Priority Mail Contract 337 (MC2017-163 and CP2017-228) (Order No. 4030), added August 8, 2017.
11. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 49 (MC2017-164 and CP2017-229) (Order No. 4031), added August 8, 2017.
12. Priority Mail Contract 338 (MC2017-166 and CP2017-246) (Order No. 4037), added August 14, 2017.
13. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 50 (MC2017-165 and CP2017-245) (Order No. 4038), added August 14, 2017.
14. Priority Mail Contract 336 (MC2017-162 and CP2017-227) (Order No. 4040), added August 15, 2017.
15. Priority Mail Contract 339 (MC2017-167 and CP2017-260) (Order No. 4050), added August 17, 2017.
16. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 21 (MC2017-168 and CP2017-261) (Order No. 4052), added August 17, 2017.
17. Priority Mail Contract 340 (MC2017-169 and CP2017-262) (Order No. 4054), added August 18, 2017.
18. Priority Mail Contract 341 (MC2017-171 and CP2017-272) (Order No. 4077), added August 29, 2017.
19. First-Class Package Service Contract 78 (MC2017-172 and CP2017-273) (Order No. 4078), added August 29, 2017.
20. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 51 (MC2017-173 and CP2017-274) (Order No. 4079), added August 29, 2017.
21. Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 22 (MC2017-177 and CP2017-278) (Order No. 4082), added August 30, 2017.
22. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 52 (MC2017-174 and CP2017-275) (Order No. 4083), added August 30, 2017.
23. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 53 (MC2017-175 and CP2017-276) (Order No. 4084), added August 30, 2017.
24. Priority Mail Contract 342 (MC2017-176 and CP2017-277) (Order No. 4085), added August 30, 2017.
25. Priority Mail Contract 343 (MC2017-178 and CP2017-279) (Order No. 4086), added August 31, 2017.
26. Priority Mail Contract 344 (MC2017-179 and CP2017-280) (Order No. 4087), added August 31, 2017.
27. Priority Mail Contract 345 (MC2017-180 and CP2017-281) (Order No. 4092), added September 8, 2017.
28. Priority Mail Contract 346 (MC2017-181 and CP2017-282) (Order No. 4093), added September 8, 2017.
29. Priority Mail Contract 347 (MC2017-182 and CP2017-283) (Order No. 4094), added September 8, 2017.
30. Priority Mail Contract 348 (MC2017-184 and CP2017-285) (Order No. 4098), added September 19, 2017.
31. Priority Mail Contract 349 (MC2017-185 and CP2017-286) (Order No. 4099), added September 19, 2017.
32. Priority Mail Contract 350 (MC2017-186 and CP2017-287) (Order No. 4100), added September 19, 2017.
33. Priority Mail Contract 351 (MC2017-187 and CP2017-288) (Order No. 4101), added September 19, 2017.
34. Priority Mail Contract 352 (MC2017-188 and CP2017-289) (Order No. 4102), added September 19, 2017.
35. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 54 (MC2017-192 and CP2017-293) (Order No. 4103), added September 20, 2017.
36. First-Class Package Service Contract 79 (MC2017-193 and CP2017-294) (Order No. 4104), added September 20, 2017.
37. Priority Mail Contract 353 (MC2017-189 and CP2017-290) (Order No. 4105), added September 20, 2017.
38. Priority Mail Express Contract 50 (MC2017-190 and CP2017-291) (Order No. 4106), added September 20, 2017.
39. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 50 (MC2017-191 and CP2017-292) (Order No. 4107), added September 20, 2017.
40. First-Class Package Service Contract 80 (MC2017-194 and CP2017-295) (Order No. 4110), added September 21, 2017.
41. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 55 (MC2017-195 and CP2017-296) (Order No. 4111), added September 21, 2017.
42. Priority Mail Contract 354 (MC2017-196 and CP2017-297) (Order No. 4112), added September 21, 2017.
43. Priority Mail Contract 355 (MC2017-197 and CP2017-298) (Order No. 4113), added September 21, 2017.
44. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 56 (MC2017-198 and CP2017-299) (Order No. 4114), added September 21, 2017.
45. Priority Mail Contract 356 (MC2017-199 and CP2017-302) (Order No. 4118), added September 22, 2017.
46. Priority Mail Contract 357 (MC2017-200 and CP2017-303) (Order No. 4119), added September 22, 2017.
47. Priority Mail & First-Class Package Service Contract 57 (MC2017-201 and CP2017-304) (Order No. 4120), added September 22, 2017.
48. Priority Mail Express & Priority Mail Contract 51 (MC2017-202 and CP2017-305) (Order No. 4121), added September 22, 2017.
49. First-Class Package Service Contract 81 (MC2017-203 and CP2017-310) (Order No. 4124), added September 26, 2017.
50. Global Expedited Package Services 8 (MC2017-183 and CP2017-284) (Order No. 4129), added September 27, 2017.
The following negotiated service agreements have expired, or have been terminated early, and are being deleted from the Competitive Product List:
1. Priority Mail Contract 81 (MC2014-24 and CP2014-47) (Order No. 2071).
2. Priority Mail Contract 88 (MC2014-37 and CP2014-63) (Order No. 2139).
3. Priority Mail Contract 90 (MC2014-40 and CP2014-73) (Order No. 2172).
4. Priority Mail Contract 152 (MC2016-13 and CP2016-15) (Order No. 2803).
5. First-Class Package Service Contract 36 (MC2014-32 and CP2014-57) (Order No. 2128).
Administrative practice and procedure, Postal Service.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Postal Regulatory Commission amends chapter III of title 39 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
39 U.S.C. 503; 3622; 3631; 3642; 3682.
(An asterisk (*) indicates an organizational class or group, not a Postal Service product.)
(An asterisk (*) indicates an organizational class or group, not a Postal Service product.)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
EPA is promulgating significant new use rules (SNURs) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) for 29 chemical substances which were the subject of premanufacture notices (PMNs). The chemical substances are subject to consent orders issued by EPA pursuant to section 5(e) of TSCA. This action requires persons who intend to manufacture (defined by statute to include import) or process any of these 29 chemical substances for an activity that is designated as a significant new use by this rule to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing that activity. The required notification initiates EPA's evaluation of the intended use within the applicable review period. Persons may not commence manufacture or processing for the significant new use until EPA has conducted a review of the notice, made an appropriate determination on the notice, and has taken such actions as are required with that determination.
This rule is effective on December 18, 2017. For purposes of judicial review, this rule shall be promulgated at 1 p.m. (e.s.t.) on November 2, 2017.
Written adverse or critical comments, or notice of intent to submit adverse or critical comments, on one or more of these SNURs must be received on or before November 20, 2017 (see Unit VI. of the
For additional information on related reporting requirement dates, see Units I.A., VI., and VII. of the
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2017-0166, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture, process, or use the chemical substances contained in this rule. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Manufacturers or processors of one or more subject chemical substances (NAICS codes 325 and 324110),
This action may also affect certain entities through pre-existing import certification and export notification
1.
2.
EPA is promulgating these SNURs using direct final procedures. These SNURs will require persons to notify EPA at least 90 days before commencing the manufacture or processing of a chemical substance for any activity designated by these SNURs as a significant new use. Receipt of such notices allows EPA to assess risks that may be presented by the intended uses and, if appropriate, to regulate the proposed use before it occurs. Additional rationale and background to these rules are more fully set out in the preamble to EPA's first direct final SNUR published in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(2)) authorizes EPA to determine that a use of a chemical substance is a “significant new use.” EPA must make this determination by rule after considering all relevant factors, including the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in Unit III. Once EPA determines that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use, TSCA section 5(a)(1)(B)(i) (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)(i)) requires persons to submit a significant new use notice (SNUN) to EPA at least 90 days before they manufacture or process the chemical substance for that use. TSCA prohibits such manufacturing or processing from commencing until EPA has conducted a review of the notice, made an appropriate determination on the notice, and taken such actions as are required in association with that determination (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)(ii)). As described in Unit V., the general SNUR provisions are found at 40 CFR part 721, subpart A.
General provisions for SNURs appear in 40 CFR part 721, subpart A. These provisions describe persons subject to the rule, recordkeeping requirements, exemptions to reporting requirements, and applicability of the rule to uses occurring before the effective date of the rule. Provisions relating to user fees appear at 40 CFR part 700. Pursuant to § 721.1(c), persons subject to these SNURs must comply with the same SNUN requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as submitters of PMNs under TSCA section 5(a)(1)(A) (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(A)). In particular, these requirements include the information submission requirements of TSCA sections 5(b) and 5(d)(1) (15 U.S.C. 2604(b) and 2604(d)(1)), the exemptions authorized by TSCA sections 5(h)(1), 5(h)(2), 5(h)(3), and 5(h)(5) (15 U.S.C. 2604(h)(1), 2604(h)(2), 2604(h)(3), and 2604(h)(5)), and the regulations at 40 CFR part 720. Once EPA receives a SNUN, EPA must either determine that the significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk of injury or take such regulatory action as is associated with an alternative determination before the manufacture or processing for the significant new use can commence. If EPA determines that the significant new use is not likely to present an unreasonable risk, EPA is required under TSCA section 5(g) (15 U.S.C. 2604(g)) to make public, and submit for publication in the
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA states that EPA's determination that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use must be made after consideration of all relevant factors, including:
• The projected volume of manufacturing and processing of a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use changes the type or form of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The extent to which a use increases the magnitude and duration of exposure of human beings or the environment to a chemical substance.
• The reasonably anticipated manner and methods of manufacturing, processing, distribution in commerce, and disposal of a chemical substance.
In addition to these factors enumerated in TSCA section 5(a)(2), the statute authorized EPA to consider any other relevant factors.
To determine what would constitute a significant new use for the 37 chemical substances that are the subject of these SNURs, EPA considered relevant information about the toxicity of the chemical substances, likely human exposures and environmental releases associated with possible uses, and the four bulleted TSCA section 5(a)(2) factors listed in this unit.
EPA is establishing significant new use and recordkeeping requirements for 29 chemical substances in 40 CFR part 721, subpart E. In this unit, EPA provides the following information for each chemical substance:
• PMN number.
• Chemical name (generic name, if the specific name is claimed as CBI).
• Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry number (if assigned for non-confidential chemical identities).
• Basis for the consent order under TSCA section 5(e) (15 U.S.C. 2604(e)).
• Tests recommended by EPA to provide sufficient information to evaluate the chemical substance (see Unit VIII. for more information).
• CFR citation assigned in the regulatory text section of this rule.
The regulatory text section of this rule specifies the activities designated as
This rule includes 29 PMN substances that are subject to “risk-based” consent orders under TSCA section 5(e)(1)(A)(ii)(I) (15 U.S.C. 2604(e)(1)(A)(ii)(I)) where EPA determined that activities associated with the PMN substances may present unreasonable risk to human health or the environment. Those consent orders require protective measures to limit exposures or otherwise mitigate the potential unreasonable risk. The SNURs are promulgated pursuant to § 721.160, and are based on and consistent with the provisions in the underlying consent orders. The SNURs designate as a “significant new use” the absence of the protective measures required in the corresponding consent orders.
Where EPA determined that the PMN substance may present an unreasonable risk of injury to human health via inhalation exposure, the underlying TSCA section 5(e) consent order usually requires, among other things, that potentially exposed employees wear specified respirators unless actual measurements of the workplace air show that air-borne concentrations of the PMN substance are below a New Chemical Exposure Limit (NCEL) that is established by EPA to provide adequate protection to human health. In addition to the actual NCEL concentration, the comprehensive NCELs provisions in TSCA section 5(e) consent orders, which are modeled after Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Permissible Exposure Limits (PELs) provisions, include requirements addressing performance criteria for sampling and analytical methods, periodic monitoring, respiratory protection, and recordkeeping. However, no comparable NCEL provisions currently exist in 40 CFR part 721, subpart B, for SNURs. Therefore, for these cases, the individual SNURs in 40 CFR part 721, subpart E, will state that persons subject to the SNUR who wish to pursue NCELs as an alternative to the § 721.63 respirator requirements may request to do so under § 721.30. EPA expects that persons whose requests under § 721.30 to use the NCELs approach for SNURs are approved by EPA will be required to comply with NCELs provisions that are comparable to those contained in the corresponding TSCA section 5(e) consent order for the same chemical substance.
1. Use of personal protective equipment to prevent dermal exposure.
2. Not use, formulate, or distribute for use other than as stated in the PMN.
3. No manufacture beyond an annual production volume of 150,000 kg.
1. Use of personal protective equipment to prevent dermal exposure and a NIOSH-certified respirator with N-100, P-100, or R-100 cartridges with an assigned protection factor (APF) of at least 50 (where there is a potential for inhalation exposure).
2. Use of the PMN substances only for the uses specified in the consent order.
3. No use in application methods that generate a dust, mist, or aerosol unless such application method occurs in an enclosed process.
4. No use of the PMN substances resulting in releases to surface waters and disposal of the PMN substances only by landfill or incineration.
1. Use of a NIOSH-certified respirator with an APF of at least 10 (where there is a potential for inhalation exposures).
2. Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the Safety Data Sheet (SDS).
3. No manufacture beyond an annual production volume of 150,000 kg.
4. Not process or use the PMN substance for non-industrial applications.
5. Not process or use the PMN substance in formulations where the concentration is greater than 1%.
1. Use of personal protective equipment to prevent dermal exposures.
2. Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in a safety data sheet (SDS).
3. Use of the PMN substances only for the use specified in the consent order.
4. Use of the PMN substances at a concentration no greater than 1.5% by weight in the final product.
(1) Import only of the PMN substance as a solution.
(2) Use only as an optical brightener for textiles, paper and paperboard.
(3) No use of the PMN substance in application methods that generate a dust, mist, or aerosol unless such application method occurs in an enclosed process.
(4) Non industrial use only where the PMN substance is not sold for “consumer use” or for “commercial uses” (as the term is defined in § 721.3) when the “saleable goods or service” could introduce PMN material into a “consumer” setting (as that term is defined in § 721.3).
(1) No domestic manufacture of the PMN substances.
(2) No manufacture beyond the annual production volume specified in the consent order.
(3) Use of the PMN substances only for the use specified in the consent order.
(4) Compliance with the release to water provisions.
(1) No domestic manufacture of the PMN substance.
(2) Use of the PMN substance only for the use specified in the consent order.
(1) No manufacture of the PMN such that residual formaldehyde is more than 0.1 weight percent of the PMN substance.
(2) Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
(3) Use of the PMN substance only for the use specified in the consent order.
(4) No application method that generates a dust, mist, or aerosol.
(1) Manufacture of the PMN substances to contain no more than 0.1% residual isocyanate by weight.
(2) No sale of the PMN substances for “consumer use” or for “commercial uses” (as the term is defined in § 721.3) when the “saleable goods or service” could introduce PMNs material into a
(3) Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
(1) Distribution of the PMN substance only in a liquid or gel formulation, unless the solid particle form has a particle size distribution where less than 0.5% of the particles are less than 10 microns.
(2) No use in application methods that generate a dust, mist, or aerosol unless such application method occurs in an enclosed process.
(1) Use of personal protective equipment involving impervious gloves (where there is a potential for dermal exposure).
(2) Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
(3) No manufacture, process, or use of the substances as consumer products.
(4) Manufacture of the PMN substances to contain no more than 0.1 residual isocyanate by weight.
(1) Use of personal protective equipment involving impervious gloves and protective clothing (where there is a potential for dermal exposure) and a NIOSH-certified respirator with an APF of at least 50 (where there is a potential for inhalation exposure).
(2) No manufacture, process, or use of the substance for use in a consumer product.
(3) Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
(4) Manufacture of the PMN substance to contain no more than 0.1 residual by weight of chemicals described in the 5(e) consent order.
(1) Manufacture of the PMN substance such that the minimum average molecular weight is 18,000 daltons.
(2) No processing or use in any manner or method that generates a dust, mist, or aerosol.
(3) Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
1. Use of personal protective equipment including impervious gloves and protective clothing to prevent dermal exposure.
2. Use of the PMN substance only for the use specified in the consent order.
3. Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
1. Use of personal protective equipment to prevent dermal exposure.
2. Use of a NIOSH-certified respirator with an APF of at least 1000 or compliance with a NCEL of 0.3 ppm as an 8-hour time-weighted average to prevent inhalation exposure.
3. Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
4. Use of the PMN substance only for the use specified in the consent order.
5. No use in application methods that generate a dust, mist, or aerosol unless such application method occurs in an enclosed process.
6. No use of the PMN substance resulting in releases to surface waters and disposal of the PMN substance only by landfill or incineration.
1. Manufacture of the PMN substance to have an average molecular weight no less than 1500 daltons.
2. Manufacture of the PMN substance to have no more than 24% by weight of the acid component.
3. Use of the PMN substance only as intermediate.
1. Use of personal protective equipment including impervious gloves and protective clothing to prevent dermal exposure and a NIOSH-certified respirator with an APF of at least 10 to prevent inhalation exposure.
2. Use of the PMN substance only for the use specified in the consent order.
3. Establishment and use of a hazard communication program, including human health precautionary statements on each label and in the SDS.
4. No use of the PMN substance resulting in releases to surface waters.
During review of the PMNs submitted for the chemical substances that are subject to these SNURs, EPA concluded that for all 29 chemical substances, regulation was warranted under TSCA section 5(e), pending the development of information sufficient to make reasoned evaluations of the health or environmental effects of the chemical substances. The basis for such findings is outlined in Unit IV. Based on these findings, TSCA section 5(e) consent orders requiring the use of appropriate exposure controls were negotiated with the PMN submitters. The SNUR provisions for these chemical substances are consistent with the provisions of the TSCA section 5(e) consent orders. These SNURs are promulgated pursuant to § 721.160 (see Unit VI.).
EPA is issuing these SNURs for specific chemical substances which have undergone premanufacture review because the Agency wants to achieve the following objectives with regard to the significant new uses designated in this rule:
• EPA will receive notice of any person's intent to manufacture or process a TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory (TSCA Inventory) listed chemical substance for the described significant new use before that activity begins.
• EPA will have an opportunity to review and evaluate data submitted in a SNUN before the notice submitter begins manufacturing or processing a listed chemical substance for the described significant new use.
• EPA will be able to either determine that the prospective manufacture or processing is not likely to present an unreasonable risk, or to take necessary regulatory action associated with any other determination, before the
• EPA will ensure that all manufacturers and processors of the same chemical substance that is subject to a TSCA section 5(e) consent order are subject to similar requirements.
Issuance of a SNUR for a chemical substance does not signify that the chemical substance is listed on the TSCA Inventory. Guidance on how to determine if a chemical substance is on the TSCA Inventory is available on the Internet at
EPA is issuing these SNURs as a direct final rule, as described in § 721.160(c)(3). In accordance with § 721.160(c)(3)(ii) the effective date of this rule is December 18, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives written adverse or critical comments, or notice of intent to submit adverse or critical comments before November 20, 2017.
If EPA receives written adverse or critical comments, or notice of intent to submit adverse or critical comments, on one or more of these SNURs before November 20, 2017, EPA will withdraw the relevant sections of this direct final rule before its effective date. EPA will then issue a proposed SNUR for the chemical substance(s) on which adverse or critical comments were received, providing a 30-day period for public comment.
This rule establishes SNURs for a number of chemical substances. Any person who submits adverse or critical comments, or notice of intent to submit adverse or critical comments, must identify the chemical substance and the new use to which it applies. EPA will not withdraw a SNUR for a chemical substance not identified in the comment.
To establish a significant new use, EPA must determine that the use is not ongoing. The chemical substances subject to this rule have undergone premanufacture review. In cases where EPA has not received a notice of commencement (NOC) and the chemical substance has not been added to the TSCA Inventory, no person may commence such activities without first submitting a PMN. Therefore, for chemical substances for which an NOC has not been submitted EPA concludes that the designated significant new uses are not ongoing.
When chemical substances identified in this rule are added to the TSCA Inventory, EPA recognizes that, before the rule is effective, other persons might engage in a use that has been identified as a significant new use. However, TSCA section 5(e) consent orders have been issued for these chemical substances, and the PMN submitters are prohibited by the TSCA section 5(e) consent orders from undertaking activities which would be designated as significant new uses. The identities of 19 of the 29 chemical substances subject to this rule have been claimed as confidential and EPA has received no post-PMN
Therefore, EPA designates July 10, 2017 (the date of public release/web posting of this rule) as the cutoff date for determining whether the new use is ongoing. This designation varies slightly from EPA's past practice of designating the date of
Persons who begin commercial manufacture or processing of the chemical substances for a significant new use identified as of that date would have to cease any such activity upon the effective date of the final rule. To resume their activities, these persons would have to first comply with all applicable SNUR notification requirements and wait until the notice review period, including any extensions, expires. If such a person met the conditions of advance compliance under § 721.45(h), the person would be considered exempt from the requirements of the SNUR. Consult the
EPA recognizes that TSCA section 5 does not require developing any particular new information (
In the absence of a rule order, or consent agreement under TSCA section 4 covering the chemical substance, persons are required only to submit information in their possession or control and to describe any other information known to or reasonably ascertainable by them (see § 720.50). However, upon review of PMNs and SNUNs, the Agency has the authority to require appropriate testing. Unit IV. lists required or recommended testing for all of the listed SNURs. Descriptions of tests are provided for informational purposes. EPA strongly encourages persons, before performing any testing, to consult with the Agency pertaining to protocol selection. To access the OCSPP test guidelines referenced in this document electronically, please go to
In the TSCA section 5(e) consent orders for the chemical substances regulated under this rule, EPA has established production volume limits in view of the lack of data on the potential health and environmental risks that may be posed by the significant new uses or increased exposure to the chemical substances. These limits cannot be exceeded unless the PMN submitter first submits the results of tests specified in the order that would permit a reasoned evaluation of the potential risks posed by these chemical substances. Under recent TSCA section 5(e) consent orders, each PMN submitter is required to submit each study at least 14 weeks (earlier TSCA section 5(e) consent orders required submissions at least 12 weeks) before reaching the specified production limit. Listings of the tests specified in the TSCA section 5(e) consent orders are included in Unit IV. The SNURs contain the same production volume limits as the TSCA section 5(e) consent orders. Exceeding these production limits is defined as a significant new use. Persons who intend
The recommended tests specified in Unit IV. may not be the only means of addressing the potential risks of the chemical substance. However, submitting a SNUN without any test data may increase the likelihood that EPA will take action under TSCA section 5(e), particularly if satisfactory test results have not been obtained from a prior PMN or SNUN submitter. EPA recommends that potential SNUN submitters contact EPA early enough so that they will be able to conduct the appropriate tests.
SNUN submitters should be aware that EPA will be better able to evaluate SNUNs which provide detailed information on the following:
• Human exposure and environmental release that may result from the significant new use of the chemical substances.
• Potential benefits of the chemical substances.
• Information on risks posed by the chemical substances compared to risks posed by potential substitutes.
By this rule, EPA is establishing certain significant new uses which have been claimed as CBI subject to Agency confidentiality regulations at 40 CFR part 2 and 40 CFR part 720, subpart E. Absent a final determination or other disposition of the confidentiality claim under 40 CFR part 2 procedures, EPA is required to keep this information confidential. EPA promulgated a procedure to deal with the situation where a specific significant new use is CBI, at § 721.1725(b)(1).
Under these procedures a manufacturer or processor may request EPA to determine whether a proposed use would be a significant new use under the rule. The manufacturer or processor must show that it has a
If EPA determines that the use identified in the
According to § 721.1(c), persons submitting a SNUN must comply with the same notification requirements and EPA regulatory procedures as persons submitting a PMN, including submission of test data on health and environmental effects as described in § 720.50. SNUNs must be submitted on EPA Form No. 7710-25, generated using e-PMN software, and submitted to the Agency in accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 720.40 and 721.25. E-PMN software is available electronically at
EPA has evaluated the potential costs of establishing SNUN requirements for potential manufacturers and processors of the chemical substances subject to this rule. EPA's complete economic analysis is available in the docket under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2017-0166.
This action establishes SNURs for several new chemical substances that were the subject of PMNs, or TSCA section 5(e) consent orders. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled
According to PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
The information collection requirements related to this action have already been approved by OMB pursuant to PRA under OMB control number 2070-0012 (EPA ICR No. 574). This action does not impose any burden requiring additional OMB approval. If an entity were to submit a SNUN to the Agency, the annual burden is estimated to average between 30 and 170 hours per response. This burden estimate includes the time needed to review instructions, search existing data sources, gather and maintain the data needed, and complete, review, and submit the required SNUN.
Send any comments about the accuracy of the burden estimate, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, including through the use of automated collection techniques, to the Director, Collection Strategies Division, Office of Environmental Information (2822T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001. Please remember to include the OMB control number in any correspondence, but do not submit any completed forms to this address.
On February 18, 2012, EPA certified pursuant to RFA section 605(b) (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), that promulgation of a SNUR does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities where the following are true:
1. A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
2. The SNUR submitted by any small entity would not cost significantly more than $8,300.
A copy of that certification is available in the docket for this action.
This action is within the scope of the February 18, 2012 certification. Based on the Economic Analysis discussed in Unit XI. and EPA's experience promulgating SNURs (discussed in the certification), EPA believes that the following are true:
• A significant number of SNUNs would not be submitted by small entities in response to the SNUR.
• Submission of the SNUN would not cost any small entity significantly more than $8,300.
Therefore, the promulgation of the SNUR would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Based on EPA's experience with proposing and finalizing SNURs, State, local, and Tribal governments have not been impacted by these rulemakings, and EPA does not have any reasons to believe that any State, local, or Tribal government will be impacted by this action. As such, EPA has determined that this action does not impose any enforceable duty, contain any unfunded mandate, or otherwise have any effect on small governments subject to the requirements of UMRA sections 202, 203, 204, or 205 (2 U.S.C. 1502, 1503, 1504, or 1505
This action will not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999).
This action does not have Tribal implications because it is not expected to have substantial direct effects on Indian Tribes. This action does not significantly nor uniquely affect the communities of Indian Tribal governments, nor does it involve or impose any requirements that affect Indian Tribes. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this action.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because this is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866, and this action does not address environmental health or safety risks disproportionately affecting children.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because this action is not expected to affect energy supply, distribution, or use and because this action is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
In addition, since this action does not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note), does not apply to this action.
This action does not entail special considerations of environmental justice related issues as delineated by Executive Order 12898, entitled “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations” (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous substances, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR parts 9 and 721 are amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 135
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2625(c).
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A) If as a result of the test data required under the TSCA section 5(e) consent order for the substance, the employer becomes aware that the substance may present a risk of injury to human health or the environment, the employer must incorporate this new information, and any information on methods for protecting against such risk, into a MSDS as described in § 721.72(c) within 90 days from the time the employer becomes aware of the new information. If the substance is not being manufactured, processed, or used in the employer's workplace, the employer must add the new information to a MSDS before the substance is reintroduced into the workplace.
(B) The employer must ensure that persons who will receive the PMN substance from the employer, or who have received the PMN substance from the employer within 5 years from the date the employer becomes aware of the new information described in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, are provided an MSDS containing the information required under paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section within 90 days from the time the employer becomes aware of the new information.
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) A NIOSH-certified air-purifying, tight-fitting full-face respirator equipped with N-100, P-100, or R-100 cartridges.
(B) Any NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a tight-fitting full facepiece and equipped with HEPA filters.
(C) Any NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) NIOSH-certified respirator with an N-100, P-100, or R-100 cartridge.
(B) NIOSH-certified power air purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges in combination with HEPA filters.
(C) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece, hood, or helmet.
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) Any NIOSH-certified air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with N100 (if oil aerosols absent), R-100, or P-100 filter(s).
(B) Any NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a tight-fitting full facepiece and equipped with HEPA filters.
(C) Any NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(D) Any NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a tight-fitting full facepiece (half or full facepiece).
(E) Any NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) equipped with a hood or helmet or a full facepiece.
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) Any NIOSH-certified powered air purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges.
(B) Any NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(C) Any NIOSH-certified pressure-demand or other positive pressure mode supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(D) Any NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(E) Any NIOSH-certified pressure-demand or other positive pressure mode supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece.
(
(
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(ii) [Reserved].
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(2) The significant new uses are:
(i)
(A) NIOSH-certified respirator with an N-100, P-100, or R-100 cartridge.
(B) NIOSH-certified power air purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor (acid gas, organic vapor, or substance specific) cartridges in combination with HEPA filters.
(C) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece, hood, or helmet.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
This document was received for publication by the Office of the Federal Register on October 10, 2017.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA); DOT.
Interim final rule; reopening comment period.
The Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) is announcing an additional opportunity for the public to comment on an interim final rule (IFR) titled: “Pipeline Safety: Underground Natural Gas Storage Facilities.” PHMSA is reopening the comment period in response to a petition for reconsideration filed jointly by the American Gas Association, American Petroleum Institute, and the American Public Gas Association. By reopening the comment period, PHMSA is providing all interested parties with the opportunity to comment on the IFR and the merits and claims of the petition. PHMSA will consider all public comments and address the petition for reconsideration in the final rule.
The comment period for the interim final rule published on December 19, 2016 (81 FR 91860), is reopened. Comments must be received by November 20, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by the docket number PHMSA-2016-0016 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Comments are posted without changes or edits to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Byron Coy, Senior Technical Advisor, Pipeline Safety Policy and Programs, by telephone at 609-771-7810 or by email at
In December 2016, PHMSA issued an interim final rule (IFR) titled: “Pipeline Safety: Underground Natural Gas Storage Facilities” (81 FR 91860). In the IFR, PHMSA established minimum federal safety standards for intrastate and interstate underground natural gas storage facilities under its regulatory authority at 49 U.S.C. 60101 and 60102 and as directed by section 12 of the “Protecting our Infrastructure of Pipelines and Enhancing Safety Act of 2016.” On January 18, 2017, the American Gas Association, the American Petroleum Institute, the American Public Gas Association, and the Interstate Natural Gas Association of America (INGAA) jointly submitted a petition seeking reconsideration of certain provisions of the IFR. (INGAA has since withdrawn from the petition.)
Recognizing that the IFR set certain deadlines by which the operators of underground natural gas storage facilities must act but that would occur before PHMSA could adopt a final rule, PHMSA published a notice on June 20, 2017, in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule; inseason adjustments to biennial groundfish management measures.
This final rule announces inseason changes to management measures in the Pacific Coast groundfish fisheries. This action, which is authorized by the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (PCGFMP), is intended to allow fisheries to access more abundant groundfish stocks while protecting overfished and depleted stocks.
This final rule is effective October 19, 2017.
Karen Palmigiano, phone: 206-526-4491, fax: 206-526-6736, or email:
This rule is accessible via the Internet at the Office of the Federal Register Web site at
The PCGFMP and its implementing regulations at title 50 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), part 660, subparts C through G, regulate fishing for over 90 species of groundfish off the coasts of Washington, Oregon, and California. Groundfish specifications and management measures are developed by the Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), and are implemented by NMFS.
The final rule to implement the 2017-2018 harvest specifications and management measures for most species of the Pacific coast groundfish fishery was published on February 7, 2017 (82 FR 9634).
The Council, in coordination with Pacific Coast Treaty Indian Tribes and the States of Washington, Oregon, and California, recommended three changes to current groundfish management measures at its September 11-18, 2017 meeting. The changes the Council recommended include: (1) Increasing the sablefish trip limits in the limited entry fixed gear (LEFG) and open access (OA) sablefish daily trip limit (DTL) fisheries north of 36° North latitude (N. lat.), (2) adding a reference to the current lingcod size limits in the trip limit table for the trawl fishery, and (3) implementing depth restrictions in the California recreational fishery.
To increase harvest opportunities for LEFG and OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat., the Council recommended increases to sablefish trip limits for all remaining periods in 2017. Trip limits for LEFG and OA sablefish DTL fisheries have been designated at 50 CFR 660.60(c)(1)(i) and in Section 6.2.1 of the PCGFMP as routine management measures.
Sablefish are distributed coastwide with harvest specifications split north and south of 36° N. lat. Trip limit increases, for species such as sablefish, are intended to increase attainment of the non-trawl harvest guideline (HG).
To assist the Council in evaluating the increases to sablefish trip limits, the Groundfish Management Team (GMT) made model-based landings projections for the LEFG and OA sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat. for the remainder of this year. These projections were based on the most recent information available. The model predicts harvest of 76 percent (194 mt) of the LEFG harvest guideline (HG) (258 mt) and harvest of 77 percent (326 mt) of the OA sablefish DTL fishery HG (425 mt) under the current limits through the end of the year. With the recommended increase in sablefish trip limits, the projected harvest is 80 percent (206.9 mt) of the LEFG HG (258 mt) and 88 percent (374 mt) of the OA sablefish DTL fishery HG (425 mt) through the end of the year. This increase in trip limits does not change projected impacts to co-occurring overfished species from those anticipated in the 2017-18 harvest specifications and management measures, as the projected impacts to those species assume that the entire sablefish ACL is harvested. Finally, projections for the LEFG sablefish fisheries south of 36° N. lat. are similar to levels anticipated in the 2017-18 harvest specifications and management measures, and no requests were made by industry for changes; therefore, no inseason actions were considered. Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing, by modifying Tables 2 (North and South) to part 660, subpart E, trip limit changes for the LEFG sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat. The trip limits for sablefish in the LEFG fishery north of 36° N. lat. increase from “1,100 lb (499 kg) per week, not to exceed 3,300 lb (1,497 kg) per two months” to “1,500 lb (680 kg) per week, not to exceed 4,500 lb (2,041 kg) per two months” beginning in period 5 through the end of the year.
The Council also recommended and NMFS is implementing, by modifying Tables 3 (North and South) to part 660, subpart F, trip limits for sablefish in the OA sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N. lat., an increase from “300 lb (136 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 1,000 lb (454 kg), not to exceed 2,000 lb (907 kg) per two months” to “300 lb (136 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 1,300 lb (590 kg), not to exceed 2,600 lb (1,179 kg) per two months” beginning in period 5 through the end of the year.
At the September Council meeting, members of the Enforcement Consultants (EC) noted confusion with regards to size limits for lingcod, an IFQ species, caught with trawl gear in the Shorebased IFQ Program north and south of 42° N. lat. Currently, lingcod size limits apply, per regulations at § 660.60(h)(5)(ii)(B)(
Size limits are designated as routine management measures at § 660.60(c)(1)(i) and in Section 6.2.1 of the PCGFMP. Based on the reasons stated above, instead of including a reference to lingcod size limits in Tables 1 (North and South), NMFS is making clarifying edits to existing regulations at § 660.60(h)(5)(ii)(B), which is the section of the regulations describing weight conversions and size limits for the Shorebased IFQ Program. The change to the regulations includes a clear reference to the lingcod size limits for north and south of 42° N. lat. for the Shorebased IFQ Program for both the whole fish and fish with the head removed.
In June 2016, the Council recommended Oregon and California recreational groundfish regulations for 2017 and 2018. At that time, management measures were anticipated to keep recreational catch within HGs and targets. However, recently, recreational fisheries in both Oregon and California have experienced higher than expected mortality for certain species. These species include black rockfish and cabezon in Oregon only, as well as yelloweye rockfish in both Oregon and California. The higher mortality has likely been the result of more favorable weather conditions experienced over the past few months, as well as increased fishing for groundfish due to a decline in salmon harvest opportunities due to the status of salmon stocks. Because of these factors, effort and impacts have been higher than originally projected, and will approach and/or exceed relevant state HGs. The state of Oregon has recently taken action through their state processes to address the higher than anticipated harvest in their recreational fisheries. California, however, relies on modifications to the federal regulations to address their higher than anticipated harvest. Inseason changes to depth restrictions for the California recreational fishery are designated at § 660.60(c)(3)(i) and in Section 6.2.1 of the PCGFMP as routine management measures.
At the September Council meeting, the GMT was informed that California was experiencing higher than projected recreational harvest of yelloweye rockfish. The California Department of Fish and Wildlife (CDFW) stated in their report (September 2017 Council Meeting, Agenda Item E.10.a, Supplemental CDFW Report 1) that information through September 10, 2017 suggested that, without intervention to reduce encounters, the California recreational harvest of yelloweye rockfish would exceed the state's HG by 15 percent, or almost 0.6 mt over their 3.9 mt HG. Based on this new information, the GMT conducted model-based runs for two alternative season structures that included depth-based area closures for October-December. The model determined that by restricting the depths at which fishing may occur, CDFW could reduce the projected impacts to yelloweye rockfish by 0.3-0.4 mt.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing, through modifications to regulations at § 660.360(c)(3)(i)(A)(
Under the current regulations, recreational fishing is restricted by depth in the Northern and Mendocino Management Areas during May through October 31; with all depths open for November and December. With the implementation of this rule, recreational fishing in this management area will be restricted from mid-October through the end of the year to shoreward of the 20 fm depth contour. Additionally, recreational fishing is currently restricted to shoreward of the 40 fm depth contour in the San Francisco Management Area and the 50 fm depth contour in the Central Management Area. Through this rule, recreational fishing will be further restricted between October 16 and December 31 in these areas. Beginning October 16 in the San Francisco Management Area, recreational fishing will be prohibited seaward of the 30 fm depth contour and the 40 fm depth contour in the Central Management Area.
More restrictive depth restrictions are intended to allow some recreational fishing to continue to occur while reducing catch of overfished yelloweye rockfish and keeping projected total catch through the end of the year below the ACL. According to the most recent data, even taking into account the overages in Oregon and California, there is an approximately 1.3 mt residual amount of yelloweye rockfish from the off-the-top deductions that were made through the biennial specifications process, including 0.4 mt that was not allocated at the beginning of the biennium, 0.9 mt from research which is projected to go unused, and 0.3 mt from incidental open access that is projected to go unused. Therefore, even if California takes an additional 0.6 mt over their 3.9 mt allocation, there is an extremely low risk of exceeding the ACL.
This final rule makes routine inseason adjustments to groundfish fishery management measures, based on the best available information, consistent with the PCGFMP and its implementing regulations.
This action is taken under the authority of 50 CFR 660.60(c) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The aggregate data upon which these actions are based are available for public inspection at the Office of the Administrator, West Coast Region, NMFS, during business hours.
NMFS finds good cause to waive prior public notice and comment on the revisions to groundfish management measures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) because notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Also, for the same reasons, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), so that this final rule may become effective October 19, 2017. The adjustments to management measures in this document affect commercial fisheries in Washington, Oregon and California and recreational fisheries in California. No aspect of this action is controversial, and changes of this nature were anticipated in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures established through a notice and comment rulemaking for 2017-18.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated below, NMFS finds good cause to waive prior notice and comment and to waive the delay in effectiveness.
At its September 2017 Council meeting, the Council recommended an increase to LEFG and OA sablefish north of 36° N. lat. trip limits be implemented as quickly as possible to allow harvest of sablefish to approach but not exceed the 2017 ACL. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior
It is in the public interest for fishermen to have an opportunity to harvest the sablefish ACL north of 36° N. lat. because the sablefish fishery contributes revenue to the coastal communities of Washington, Oregon, and California. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to allow catch of sablefish through the end of the year to approach but not exceed the ACL, and allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available.
At its September Council meeting, the Council recommended NMFS include a reference to the lingcod size limits for north and south of 42° N. lat. in the trip limit tables for the limited entry trawl fishery, Tables 1 (North and South). After additional consideration, NMFS is clarifying existing regulations instead of adding a reference to the trip limit tables for the reasons mentioned in the above section. There was not sufficient time after the Council meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would not be in the public interest for fishermen or the public. Fisherman knowing and abiding by the correct size limits in regulation protects small and juvenile fish and prevents unintended impacts to the stock. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to make the lingcod size limits clearer for fishermen and the NOAA Office of Law Enforcement as well as state enforcement agencies, which will help them to abide by all federal size limits for lingcod, and is consistent with the best scientific information available.
At its September Council meeting, the Council recommended changes to the depth restrictions for recreational fishery management areas off of California be implemented as soon as possible to prevent further exceedance of the state HG for yelloweye rockfish (3.9 mt) while still providing recreational fishing opportunity to that sector. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would prevent NMFS and California from managing the California recreational sector using the best available science to address exceedance of the State's yelloweye rockfish HG, keep catch through the end of the year within the rebuilding ACL, while allowing harvest opportunites as intended by the Council and in accordance with the PCGFMP and applicable law. These depth-based restrictions will move vessels to shallower waters where they are less likely to encounter yelloweye rockfish, while also providing the recreational fishing opportunity that benefits local communities.
It is in the public interest in California to allow the recreational fishery to remain open for the remainder of the year. Recreational fishing in California contributes revenue to the coastal communities of that state, and closing the fishery for the remainder of the year would cause adverse economic impacts to those communities. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to provide recreational fishing opportunity for the duration of the year, keep the yelloweye rockfish harvest within the federal ACL, and is consistent with the best scientific information available.
Fisheries, Fishing, and Indian fisheries.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(h) * * *
(5) * * *
(ii) * * *
(B)
(
(
(
(c) * * *
(3) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) * * *
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National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting retention of shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary because the 2017 total allowable catch of shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA has been reached.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), October 16, 2017, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2017.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2017 total allowable catch (TAC) of shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA is 38 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish of the GOA (82 FR 12032, February 27, 2017).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(2), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the 2017 TAC of shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA has been reached. Therefore, NMFS is requiring that shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA be treated as prohibited species in accordance with § 679.21(b).
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay prohibiting the retention of shortraker rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of October 10, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by §§ 679.20 and 679.21 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-1A11 (CL-600), CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant), and CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of fractured rudder pedal tubes on the pilot-side rudder bar assembly. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of the rudder pedal tubes for cracking and corrective actions if necessary. Replacement of both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies is terminating action for the inspections. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by December 4, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; Widebody Customer Response Center North America toll-free telephone 1-866-538-1247 or direct-dial telephone 1-514-855-2999; fax 514-855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7329; fax 516-794-5531.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2017-09, dated February 22, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc., Model CL-600-1A11 (CL-600), CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant), and CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes. The MCAI states:
There have been two in-service reports of fractured rudder pedal tubes installed on the pilot-side rudder bar assembly on CL-600-2B19 aeroplanes. Laboratory examination of the fractured rudder pedal tubes found that in both cases, the fatigue cracks initiated at the aft taper pin holes where the connecting rod fitting is attached. Fatigue testing of the rudder pedal tubes confirmed that the fatigue cracking is due to loads induced during parking brake application. Therefore, only the rudder pedal tubes on the pilot's side are vulnerable to fatigue cracking as the parking brake is primarily applied by the pilot.
Loss of pilot rudder pedal input during flight would result in reduced yaw controllability of the aeroplane. Loss of pilot rudder pedal input during takeoff or landing may lead to a runway excursion.
This [Canadian] AD mandates initial and repetitive [detailed visual or eddy current] inspections [for cracking] of both pilot-side rudder pedal tubes, part number (P/N) 600-90204-3 until the terminating action in Part III of this [Canadian] AD is accomplished [
Corrective actions include replacement of both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies and repair. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Bombardier, Inc., has issued the following service information. The service information describes procedures for repetitive inspections of the rudder pedal tubes for cracking, replacement of both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies, and repair. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models.
• Service Bulletin 600-0770, Revision 01, including Appendix A, dated March 31, 2016.
• Service Bulletin 601-0643, Revision 01, including Appendix A, dated March 31, 2016.
• Service Bulletin 604-27-037, dated March 31, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
• Service Bulletin 605-27-002, dated June 30, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
• Service Bulletin 605-27-008, dated March 31, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 141 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for any on-condition repairs specified in this proposed AD. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this repair.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by December 4, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to the Bombardier, Inc., airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Model CL-600-1A11 (CL-600) airplanes, serial numbers (S/Ns) 1004 through 1085 inclusive.
(2) Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant) airplanes, S/Ns 3001 through 3066 inclusive.
(3) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes, S/
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by reports of fractured rudder pedal tubes on the pilot-side rudder bar assembly. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the pilot-side rudder pedal tubes. Loss of pilot rudder pedal input during flight could result in reduced yaw controllability of the airplane. Loss of pilot rudder pedal input during takeoff or landing could lead to a runway excursion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD, do a detailed or eddy current inspection of both pilot-side rudder pedal tubes for cracking, in accordance with Part A of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(6) of this AD. If no cracking is found, before further flight, mark the part in accordance with Part A of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(6) of this AD. Repeat the detailed or eddy current inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 600 flight cycles if a detailed inspection was performed, or 1,000 flight cycles if an eddy current inspection was performed. Repeat the inspection until the terminating action specified in paragraph (i) of this AD is accomplished.
(1) For Model CL-600-1A11 (CL-600) airplanes, S/Ns 1004 through 1085 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 600-0770, Revision 01, including Appendix A, dated March 31, 2016.
(2) For Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant) airplanes, S/Ns 3001 through 3066 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 601-0643, Revision 01, including Appendix A, dated March 31, 2016.
(3) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes, S/Ns 5001 through 5194 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 601-0643, Revision 01, including Appendix A, dated March 31, 2016.
(4) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes, S/Ns 5301 through 5665 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 604-27-037, dated March 31, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
(5) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes, S/Ns 5701 through 5988 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 605-27-008, dated March 31, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
(6) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes, S/Ns 6050 through 6099 inclusive: Bombardier, Inc., Service Bulletin 605-27-002, dated June 30, 2016, including Appendix A, Revision 01, dated March 31, 2016.
(1) If any cracking is found around the aft tapered holes during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, before further flight, replace both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies, in accordance with Part B of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(6) of this AD.
(2) If any other damage (
Replacement of both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies in accordance with Part B of the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(6) of this AD terminates the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
Replacement of both pilot-side rudder bar assemblies using Part B of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 600-0770, dated August 31, 2015; or Bombardier Service Bulletin 601-0643, dated August 31, 2015; is not terminating action for the inspections required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Special flight permits, as described in Section 21.197 and Section 21.199 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR 21.197 and 21.199), are not allowed if any cracking is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2017-09, dated February 22, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Section, FAA, New York ACO Branch, 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7329; fax 516-794-5531.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; Widebody Customer Response Center North America toll-free telephone 1-866-538-1247 or direct-dial telephone 1-514-855-2999; fax 514-855-7401; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM); reopening of comment period.
We are revising an earlier proposal to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2012-22-15, which applies to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes. This action revises the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) by proposing to require incorporating new airworthiness limitations into the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products. Since these actions would impose an additional burden over those in the NPRM, we are reopening the comment period to allow the public the chance to comment on these proposed changes.
The comment period for the NPRM published in the
We must receive comments on this SNPRM by December 4, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this SNPRM, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We issued AD 2012-22-15, Amendment 39-17252 (77 FR 68063, November 15, 2012) (“AD 2012-22-15”). AD 2012-22-15 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes.
We issued an NPRM to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would supersede AD 2012-22-15. The NPRM published in the
Since we issued the NPRM, additional airworthiness limitations have been issued and we have determined it is necessary to require revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the new airworthiness limitations.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2017-0095, dated May 30, 2017 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Fokker Services Engineering Report SE-623 contains the Airworthiness Limitation Items (ALIs) and Safe Life Items (SLIs). This report is Part 2 of the Airworthiness Limitations Section (ALS Part 2) of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, referred to in Section 06, Appendix 1, of the Fokker 70/100 Maintenance Review Board document.
The complete ALS consists of:
Part 1—Report SE-473, Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs)—ref. EASA AD 2015-0027 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2016-11-22, Amendment 39-18549 (81 FR 36438, June 7, 2016)],
Part 2—Report SE-623, ALIs and SLIs—ref. EASA AD 2016-0125 [which corresponds to certain requirements in FAA AD 2012-22-15], and
Part 3—Report SE-672, Fuel ALIs and CDCCLs—ref. EASA AD 2015-0032 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2016-11-15, Amendment 39-18542 (81 FR 36447, June 7, 2016)].
The instructions contained in those reports have been identified as mandatory actions for continued airworthiness. Failure to accomplish these actions could result in an unsafe condition.
EASA previously issued AD 2016-0125, requiring the actions described in ALS Part 2, Report SE-623 at issue 15 and 16.
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, Fokker Services published issue 17 of Report SE-623, containing new and/or more restrictive maintenance tasks.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of AD 2016-0125, which is superseded, and requires implementation of the maintenance actions as specified in ALS Part 2 of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness, Fokker Services Engineering Report SE-623 at issue 17 (hereafter referred to as `ALS Part 2' in this [EASA] AD).
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Fokker Services B.V. has issued Engineering Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 ALI's and SLI's,” Issue 17, dated April 26, 2017. The service information describes new and more restrictive airworthiness limitations. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this proposal. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
Certain changes described above expand the scope of the NPRM. As a result, we have determined that it is necessary to reopen the comment period to provide additional opportunity for the public to comment on this SNPRM.
We estimate that this SNPRM affects 15 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2012-22-15, and retained in this proposed AD, take about 1 work-hour per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 2012-22-15 is $85 per product.
We also estimate that it would take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the new basic requirements of this SNPRM. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this SNPRM on U.S. operators to be $1,275, or $85 per product.
The new requirements of this SNPRM add no additional economic burden.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to transport category airplanes to the Director of the System Oversight Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by December 4, 2017.
(1) This AD replaces AD 2012-22-15, Amendment 39-17252 (77 FR 68063, November 15, 2012) (“AD 2012-22-15”).
(2) This AD affects AD 2012-12-07, Amendment 39-17087 (77 FR 37788, June 25, 2012) (“AD 2012-12-07”).
(3) This AD affects AD 2008-06-20 R1, Amendment 39-16089 (74 FR 61018, November 23, 2009) (“AD 2008-06-20 R1”), which replaced AD 2008-06-20, Amendment 39-15432 (73 FR 14661, March 19, 2008), retaining its requirements.
This AD applies to Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 05, Time Limits/Maintenance Checks.
This AD was prompted by a revision of an airworthiness limitations items (ALIs) document, which introduces new and more restrictive maintenance requirements and
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (i) of AD 2012-22-15, with revised compliance language. Within 3 months after December 20, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-22-15), revise the maintenance program to incorporate the airworthiness limitations specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011. For all tasks and retirement lives identified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011, the initial compliance times start from the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD, and the repetitive inspections must be accomplished thereafter at the applicable interval specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011. Doing the revision required by paragraph (k) of this AD terminates the requirements of this paragraph.
(1) Within 3 months after December 20, 2012 (the effective date of AD 2012-22-15).
(2) At the time specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (j) of AD 2012-22-15, with specific delegation approval language. If any discrepancy, as defined in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011, is found during accomplishment of any task specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011: Within the applicable compliance time specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011, accomplish the applicable corrective actions in accordance with Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011, except as required by paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) If no compliance time is identified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011, accomplish the applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(2) If any discrepancy is found and there is no corrective action specified in Fokker Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 Airworthiness Limitation Items and Safe Life Items,” Issue 8, released March 17, 2011: Before further flight, contact the Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Fokker Services' EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA); for approved corrective actions, and accomplish those actions before further flight.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (k) of AD 2012-22-15, with a new exception. Except as required by paragraph (k) of this AD, after accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (g) of this AD, no alternative actions (
This paragraph restates the terminating action specified in paragraph (m) of AD 2012-22-15, with revised compliance language. Accomplishing the actions specified in paragraph (g) of this AD terminates the requirements of paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(5) of AD 2008-06-20 R1.
Within 30 days of the effective date of this AD, revise the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate the airworthiness limitations specified in Fokker Services B.V. Engineering Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 ALI's and SLI's,” Issue 17, dated April 26, 2017. Accomplishing the revision required by this paragraph terminates the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD. Accomplishing the revision required by this paragraph also terminates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2012-12-07.
(1) The initial compliance times for the tasks specified in Fokker Services B.V. Engineering Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 ALI's and SLI's,” Issue 17, dated April 26, 2017, are at the later of the applicable compliance times specified in Fokker Services B.V. Engineering Report SE-623, “Fokker 70/100 ALI's and SLI's,” Issue 17, dated April 26, 2017, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever is later.
(2) If any discrepancy is found, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA; or the EASA; or Fokker B.V. Service's EASA DOA. If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
After the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, has been revised as required by paragraph (k) of this AD, no alternative actions (
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive AD 2017-0095, dated May 30, 2017, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Section, Transport Standards Branch, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule.
The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) publishes a proposed Annual Determination (AD) for 2018, pursuant to its authority under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). Through the AD, NMFS identifies U.S. fisheries operating in the Atlantic Ocean, Gulf of Mexico, and Pacific Ocean that will be required to take fisheries observers upon NMFS' request. The purpose of observing identified fisheries is to learn more about sea turtle interactions in a given fishery, evaluate measures to prevent or reduce sea turtle takes and to implement the prohibition against sea turtle takes. Fisheries identified on the 2018 AD (see Table 1) will be eligible to carry observers as of January 1, 2018, and will remain on the AD for a five-year period until December 31, 2022.
Comments must be received by November 20, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2017-0058, by either of the following methods:
Alexis Gutierrez, Office of Protected Resources, 301-427-8402; Ellen Keane, Greater Atlantic Region, 978-282-8476; Dennis Klemm, Southeast Region, 727-824-5312; Dan Lawson, West Coast Region, 562-980-3209; Irene Kelly, Pacific Islands Region, 808-725-5141. Individuals who use a telecommunications device for the hearing impaired may call the Federal Information Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. Eastern time, Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays.
Information regarding the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) List of Fisheries (LOF) may be obtained at
• NMFS, Greater Atlantic Region, Protected Resources Division, 55 Great Republic Drive, Gloucester, MA 01930;
• NMFS, Southeast Region, Protected Resources Division, 263 13th Avenue South, St. Petersburg, FL 33701;
• NMFS, West Coast Region, Protected Resources Division, 501 W. Ocean Blvd., Suite 4200, Long Beach, CA 90802;
• NMFS, Pacific Islands Region, Protected Resources Division, 1845 Wasp Blvd., Building 176, Honolulu, HI 96818.
Under the ESA, 16 U.S.C. 1531
Incidental take, or bycatch, in fishing gear is the primary anthropogenic source of sea turtle injury and mortality in U.S. waters. Section 9 of the ESA prohibits the take (including harassing, harming, pursuing, hunting, shooting, wounding, killing, trapping, capturing, or collecting or attempting to engage in any such conduct), including incidental take, of endangered sea turtles. Pursuant to section 4(d) of the ESA, NMFS has issued regulations extending the prohibition of take, with exceptions, to threatened sea turtles (50 CFR 223.205 and 223.206). Section 11 of the ESA provides for civil and criminal penalties for anyone who violates the Act or a regulation issued to implement the Act. NMFS may grant exceptions to the take prohibitions with an incidental take statement or an incidental take permit issued pursuant to ESA section 7 or 10, respectively. To do so, NMFS must determine the activity that will result in incidental take is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the affected listed species. For some Federal fisheries and most state fisheries, NMFS has not granted an exception for incidental takes of sea turtles primarily because we lack information about fishery-sea turtle interactions.
The most effective way for NMFS to learn more about sea turtle-fishery interactions in order to implement the take prohibitions and prevent or minimize take is to place observers aboard fishing vessels. In 2007, NMFS issued a regulation (50 CFR 222.402) establishing procedures to annually identify, pursuant to specified criteria and after notice and opportunity for comment, those fisheries in which the agency intends to place observers (72 FR 43176; August 3, 2007). These regulations specify that NMFS may place observers on U.S. fishing vessels, commercial or recreational, operating in U.S. territorial waters, the U.S. exclusive economic zone (EEZ), or on the high seas, or on vessels that are otherwise subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. Failure to comply with the requirements under this rule
NMFS will pay the direct costs for vessels to carry observers. These include observer salary and insurance costs. NMFS may also evaluate other potential direct costs, should they arise. Once selected, a fishery will be required to carry observers, if requested, for a period of five years without further action by NMFS. This will enable NMFS to develop an appropriate sampling protocol to investigate whether, how, when, where, and under what conditions incidental takes are occurring; to evaluate whether existing measures are minimizing or preventing takes; and to implement ESA take prohibitions and conserve turtles.
Sea turtle species found in waters of the Atlantic Ocean and Gulf of Mexico include green, hawksbill, Kemp's ridley, leatherback, and loggerhead turtles. The waters off the U.S. east coast and Gulf of Mexico provide important foraging, breeding, and migrating habitat for these species. Further, the southeastern United States, from North Carolina through the Florida Gulf coast, is a major sea turtle nesting area for loggerhead, leatherback, and green turtles, and, to a much lesser extent, Kemp's ridley and hawksbill turtles.
Four sea turtle species occur seasonally in New England and Mid-Atlantic continental shelf waters north of Cape Hatteras, North Carolina: Green, Kemp's ridley, leatherback, and loggerhead. The occurrence of these species in these waters is largely temperature dependent. In general, some turtles move up the coast from southern wintering areas as water temperatures warm in the spring. The trend reverses in the fall as water temperatures decrease. By December, turtles that migrated northward return to southern waters for the winter. Hard-shelled species are most commonly found south of Cape Cod, Massachusetts. Leatherbacks regularly occur as far north in U.S. waters as the Gulf of Maine in the summer and fall.
Green turtles inhabit inshore and nearshore waters from Texas to Massachusetts, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and Puerto Rico. While foraging and developmental habitats also occur in the wider Caribbean, important feeding areas in Florida include the Indian River Lagoon, the Florida Keys, Florida Bay, Homosassa, Crystal River, Cedar Key, and St. Joseph Bay. The bays and sounds of North Carolina and Texas also provide important foraging habitat for green turtles.
In the Atlantic, hawksbills are most common in Puerto Rico and its associated islands and in the U.S. Virgin Islands. In the continental United States, the species is primarily recorded from south Texas and south Florida and infrequently from the remaining Gulf States and north of Florida. Kemp's ridleys occur throughout waters of the Gulf of Mexico and U.S. Atlantic coast from Florida to New England. The major nesting area for Kemp's ridleys is in Tamaulipas, Mexico, with limited nesting extending to the Texas coast.
Loggerheads occur throughout the Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico, ranging from inshore shallow water habitats to deeper oceanic waters. The largest nesting assemblage of loggerheads in the world is in the southeastern United States from Florida to North Carolina.
Adult leatherbacks are capable of tolerating a wide range of water temperatures and have been sighted along the entire continental coast of the United States as far north as the Gulf of Maine and south to Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and into the Gulf of Mexico. The southeast coast of Florida represents a significant nesting area for leatherbacks in the western North Atlantic.
Leatherback sea turtles are consistently present off the U.S. west coast, usually north of Point Conception, California. They migrate to central and northern California from their natal beaches in the Western Pacific to feed on jellyfish during summer and fall. Leatherback turtles usually appear in Monterey Bay and California coastal waters during August and September and move offshore in October and November. Other observed areas of summer leatherback concentration include northern California and the waters off Washington through northern Oregon, offshore from the Columbia River plume.
Green, loggerhead, and olive ridley sea turtles are rarely observed in the U.S. west coast EEZ, but records show that all species have stranded in California and the Pacific Northwest. Two small resident populations of green turtles have been identified in the southern California Bight, associated historically with the warm water outflows from power plants in San Diego Bay and the San Gabriel River in Long Beach, California. In the eastern Pacific, loggerheads have been reported as far north as Alaska and as far south as Chile. Occasionally there are sightings reported from the coasts of Washington and Oregon, but most records are of juveniles off the coast of California. Based upon observer records and aerial observations, loggerheads travel into the southern California Bight during El Niño events (or warm water conditions similar to an El Niño). The majority of fishery interactions with loggerheads during El Niño conditions have occurred during the summer. Olive ridleys have been recorded stranded all along the U.S. west coast. Olive ridleys are believed to use warm water currents along the west coast for foraging. The specific distribution of olive ridleys along the U.S. west coast is unknown at this time.
Sea turtles occur throughout the Pacific Islands Region including the State of Hawaii and the U.S. territories of Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands (CNMI). Green and hawksbill turtles are most common in nearshore waters while leatherbacks, loggerheads, and olive ridleys occur in offshore pelagic waters.
Pursuant to 50 CFR 222.402, NOAA's Assistant Administrator for Fisheries (AA), in consultation with Regional Administrators and Fisheries Science Center Directors, develops a proposed AD identifying which fisheries are required to carry observers, if requested, to monitor potential interactions with sea turtles. NMFS provides an opportunity for public comment on any proposed determination. The best available scientific, commercial, or other information regarding sea turtle-fishery interactions; sea turtle distribution; sea turtle strandings; fishing techniques, gears used, target species, seasons and areas fished; and/or qualitative data from logbooks or fisher reports informs the determination. Specifically, this determination is based on the extent to which:
(1) The fishery operates in the same waters and at the same time as sea turtles are present;
(2) The fishery operates at the same time or prior to elevated sea turtle strandings; or
(3) The fishery uses a gear or technique that is known or likely to result in incidental take of sea turtles based on documented or reported takes in the same or similar fisheries; and
(4) NMFS intends to monitor the fishery and anticipates that it will have the funds to do so.
The AA uses the most recent version of the annually published LOF as the
NMFS consulted with appropriate state and Federal fisheries officials to identify which fisheries, both commercial and recreational, to consider. NMFS carefully considered all recommendations and information available for developing the proposed AD. This is not an exhaustive or comprehensive list of all fisheries with documented or suspected takes of sea turtles. For other fisheries, NMFS may already be addressing incidental take through another mechanism (
Notice of the final determination will publish in the
The first AD was published in 2010 and identified 19 fisheries that were required to carry observers for a period of 5 years, through December 31, 2014, if requested by NMFS. On the 2015 AD, NMFS identified 14 fisheries, 11 were previously listed and 3 were newly listed. The 14 fisheries are currently required to carry observers for a period of 5 years, through December 31, 2019. The fisheries currently listed on the AD can be found at
NMFS is proposing to include 2 new fisheries (both in the Atlantic Ocean/Gulf of Mexico) on the 2018 AD. The two fisheries, described below and listed in Table 1, are the Mid-Atlantic Gillnet fishery and the Gulf of Mexico Menhaden Purse Seine Fishery.
NMFS used the 2017 MMPA LOF (82 FR 3655; January 12, 2017) as the comprehensive list of commercial fisheries to evaluate for fisheries to include on the AD. The fishery name, definition, and number of vessels/persons for fisheries listed on the AD are taken from the most recent MMPA LOF. Additionally, the fishery descriptions below include a particular fishery's current classification on the MMPA LOF (
Sea turtles are vulnerable to entanglement and drowning in gillnets, especially when gear is unattended. The main risk to sea turtles from capture in gillnet gear is forced submergence (
NMFS proposes to include the Mid-Atlantic Gillnet Fishery on the 2018 AD given known interactions between sea turtles and this gear type and the need to collect more sea turtle bycatch data in state inshore gillnet fisheries. The Mid-Atlantic gillnet fishery was not listed in the 2015 AD, but the Chesapeake Bay Inshore Gillnet Fishery and Long Island Inshore Gillnet fishery were. By including the Mid-Atlantic gillnet fishery in the 2018 AD, we authorize observer coverage more completely along the mid-Atlantic region. The Mid-Atlantic gillnet fishery (estimated 3,950 vessels/persons) targets monkfish, spiny dogfish, smooth dogfish, bluefish, weakfish, menhaden, spot, croaker, striped bass, large and small coastal sharks, Spanish mackerel, king mackerel, American shad, black drum, skate spp., yellow perch, white perch, herring, scup, kingfish, spotted seatrout, and butterfish. The fishery uses drift and sink gillnets, including nets set in a sink, stab, set, strike, or drift fashion, with some unanchored drift or sink nets used to target specific species. The dominant material is monofilament twine with stretched mesh sizes from 2.5-12 in. (6.4-30.5 cm), and string lengths from 150-8,400 feet (ft) (46-2,560 meter (m)). This fishery operates year-round west of a line drawn at 72°30′ W. long. south to 36°33.03′ N. lat. and east to the eastern edge of the EEZ and north of the North Carolina/South Carolina border, not including Category II and III inshore gillnet fisheries (
Gear in this fishery is managed by several Federal FMPs and Interstate FMPs managed by the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission. These fisheries are primarily managed by total allowable catch (TAC); individual trip limits (quotas); effort caps (limited number of days at sea per vessel); time and area closures; and gear restrictions and modifications.
This fishery is classified as Category I on the MMPA LOF, which authorizes NMFS to observe this fishery in state and Federal waters for marine mammal interactions and to collect information on sea turtles should a take occur on an observed trip. This fishery was listed on the 2010 AD, and was eligible for observer coverage through 2014.
NMFS proposes to include this fishery pursuant to the criteria identified at 50 CFR 222.402(a)(1) for listing a fishery on the AD because sea turtles are known to occur in the same areas where the fishery operates, takes have been well documented in this fishery, and NMFS intends to monitor this fishery, particularly the segment that occurs in the nearshore coastal waters of the mid-Atlantic and Delaware Bay.
Pound net, weir, seine and floating trap fisheries may use mesh similar to that used in gillnets, but the gear is
NMFS proposes including the Gulf of Mexico Menhaden Purse Seine Fishery on the 2018 AD. The Gulf of Mexico Menhaden Purse Seine Fishery (estimated 40-42 vessels/persons) targets menhaden and thread herring. The fishery uses purse seine gear and operates in bays, sounds, and nearshore coastal waters along the Gulf of Mexico coast. The majority of fishing effort occurs in Louisiana and Mississippi, with lesser effort in Alabama and Texas state waters. Florida prohibits the use of purse seines in state waters. The fishery is managed under the Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commission Interstate Gulf Menhaden Fishery Management Plan.
This fishery is classified as Category II on the MMPA LOF, and NMFS has not yet included it on a previous AD. The fishery was observed in the early-1990s by Louisiana State University. Sea turtle strandings in the northern Gulf of Mexico have been documented during times and in areas near where the menhaden fishery operates. In 2011, NMFS operated a pilot observer program in this fishery to better understand the fishery's operations and evaluate the feasibility of observing for marine mammal and sea turtle bycatch. During the pilot observer program, two sea turtles were documented, one dead Kemp's ridley that was excluded by the large fish excluder, and one live unidentified turtle that was successfully released from the purse-seine net. Future observer efforts will build on the information obtained in 2011.
NMFS proposes to include this fishery pursuant to the criteria identified at 50 CFR 222.402(a)(1) for listing a fishery on the AD because sea turtles are known to occur in the same areas where the fishery operates, takes have been documented in this fishery, and NMFS intends to monitor this fishery.
As part of the proposed 2018 AD, NMFS has included, to the extent practicable, information on the fisheries and gear types to observe, geographic and seasonal scope of coverage, and any other relevant information. NMFS intends to monitor the fisheries and anticipates that it will have the funds to do so. After publication of a final AD, a 30-day delay in effective date for implementing observer coverage will follow, except for those fisheries where the AA has determined that there is good cause pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act to make the rule effective without a 30-day delay.
The design of any observer program for fisheries identified through the AD process, including how observers will be allocated to individual vessels, will vary among fisheries, fishing sectors, gear types, and geographic regions and will ultimately be determined by the individual NMFS Regional Office, Science Center, and/or observer program. During the program design, NMFS will follow the standards below for distributing and placing observers among fisheries identified in the AD and among vessels in those fisheries:
(1) The requirement to obtain the best available scientific information;
(2) The requirement that observers be assigned fairly and equitably among fisheries and among vessels in a fishery;
(3) The requirement that no individual person or vessel, or group of persons or vessels, be subject to inappropriate, excessive observer coverage; and
(4) The need to minimize costs and avoid duplication, where practicable.
Vessels subject to observer coverage under the AD must comply with observer safety requirements specified in 50 CFR 600.725 and 600.746. Specifically, 50 CFR 600.746(c) requires vessels subject to observer coverage to provide adequate and safe conditions for carrying an observer and conditions that allow for operation of normal observer functions. To provide such conditions, a vessel must comply with the applicable regulations regarding observer accommodations (see 50 CFR parts 229, 300, 600, 622, 635, 648, 660, and 679) and possess a current United States Coast Guard (USCG) Commercial Fishing Vessel Safety Examination decal or a USCG certificate of examination. A vessel that fails to meet these requirements at the time an observer is to be deployed is prohibited from fishing (50 CFR 600.746(f)), unless NMFS determines that an alternative platform (
Additional information on observer programs in commercial fisheries is on the NMFS National Observer Program's Web site:
The Chief Counsel for Regulation of the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. On December 29, 2015, we issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts (revenue) for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS code 11411) for RFA compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the prior Small Business Administration standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million
NMFS has estimated that approximately 4,000 vessels participating in the two proposed fisheries listed in Table 1 would be eligible to carry an observer if requested. However, NMFS would only request a fraction of the total number of participants to carry an observer based on the sampling protocol identified for each fishery by regional observer programs. As noted throughout this proposed rule, NMFS would select vessels and focus coverage in times and areas where fishing effort overlaps with sea turtle distribution. Due to the unpredictability of fishing effort, NMFS cannot determine the specific number of vessels that it will request to carry an observer.
If a vessel is requested to carry an observer, fishers will not incur any direct economic costs associated with carrying that observer. In addition, 50 CFR 222.404(b) states that an observer will not be placed on a vessel if the facilities for quartering an observer or performing observer functions are inadequate or unsafe, thereby exempting vessels too small to accommodate an observer from this requirement. As a result of this certification, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and was not prepared.
The information collection for the AD is approved under Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control number 0648-0593.
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866.
An environmental assessment (EA) was prepared under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) on the issuance of the regulations to implement this observer requirement in 50 CFR part 222, subpart D. The EA concluded that implementing these regulations would not have a significant impact on the human environment. This proposed rule would not make any significant change in the management of fisheries included on the AD; and, therefore, this proposed rule would not change the analysis or conclusion of the EA. If NMFS takes a management action for a specific fishery, for example, requiring fishing gear modifications, NMFS would first prepare any environmental document required under NEPA and specific to that action.
This proposed rule would not affect species listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA or their associated critical habitat. The impacts of numerous fisheries have been analyzed in various biological opinions, and this proposed rule would not affect the conclusions of those opinions. The inclusion of fisheries on the AD is not considered a management action that would adversely affect threatened or endangered species. If NMFS takes a management action, for example, requiring modifications to fishing gear and/or practices, NMFS would review the action for potential adverse effects to listed species under the ESA.
This proposed rule would have no adverse impacts on sea turtles and may have a positive impact on sea turtles by improving knowledge of sea turtles and the fisheries interacting with sea turtles through information collected from observer programs.
This proposed rule would not affect the land or water uses or natural resources of the coastal zone, as specified under section 307 of the Coastal Zone Management Act.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques and other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by November 20, 2017 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), New Executive Office Building, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Commentors are encouraged to submit their comments to OMB via email to:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Minnesota Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 11:00 a.m. (Central Time) Wednesday November 8, 2017. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to discuss completion of and reporting on their 2017 study of civil rights and policing practices in the State.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, November 8, 2017, at 11:00 a.m. CST.
Carolyn Allen at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-329-8893, conference ID number: 9974470. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
Please click on the “Meeting Details” and “Documents” links to download. Records generated from this meeting may also be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's Web site,
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Respondents are separated into three type of operation classifications: (1) Merchant wholesale establishments, excluding manufacturers' sales branches and offices; (2) manufacturers' sales branches and offices; and (3) agents, brokers, and business-to-business electronic markets. The survey requests firms to provide annual sales, annual e-commerce sales, year-end inventories held inside or outside of the United States, total operating expenses, purchases, and for selected industries, commissions, and sales on their own account. These data are used to satisfy a variety of public and business needs such as conducting economic market analysis, gauging company performance, and forecasting future demand as well as serving as a benchmark for the estimates compiled from the Monthly Wholesale Trade Survey [OMB No. 0607-0190].
Results will be published on the current 2012 NAICS basis, by type of wholesaler, at the United States summary level, and for selected wholesale industries approximately 14 months after the end of the reference year
A new sample was introduced with the 2016 AWTS. Approximately 73% of the sample asked to report will be doing so for the first time (and, consequently, approximately 73% of the old sample will no longer be asked to report). For the 2016 AWTS the Census Bureau requested two years of data, 2016 and 2015, in order to link old and new samples and ensure that the published estimates continue to be reliable and accurate. Every 5 years AWTS collects detailed operating expenses and sales tax. These items were last collected in 2013 for the 2012 survey year. The plan is to reinstate these questions in 2018 as part of the 2017 AWTS data collection. These detailed expense questions are only applicable to the merchant wholesale establishments, excluding manufacturers' sales branches and offices.
The Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA) uses the data to estimate the change in the private inventories component of gross domestic product (GDP) and output in both the benchmark and annual input-output (I-O) accounts and GDP by industry. The tax data are used to prepare estimates of GDP by industry and to derive industry output for the I-O accounts. The data on detailed operating expenses are used to produce national estimates of value added, gross output, and intermediate inputs and serve as a benchmark for the annual industry accounts, which provide the control totals for the GDP-by-state accounts.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics uses the data as input to its Producer Price Indices and in developing productivity measurements.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable October 19, 2017.
Whitley Herndon at (202) 482-6274, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On August 29, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Department) initiated a countervailing duty (CVD) investigation on certain uncoated groundwood paper from Canada.
Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in a CVD investigation within 65 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. However, section 703(c)(1) of the Act permits the Department to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation if: (A) The petitioner
On September 21, 2017, the petitioner submitted a timely request that we postpone the CVD preliminary determination. In its request, the petitioner cited the need for the Department to have sufficient time to thoroughly investigate each of the alleged subsidies, including by issuing any supplemental questionnaires.
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of the determination by the Department of Commerce (Department) and the International Trade Commission (ITC) that revocation of the antidumping duty order on certain steel nails (nails) from the United Arab Emirates (UAE) would likely lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping and material injury to an industry in the United States, the Department is publishing a notice of continuation of the antidumping duty order on nails from the UAE.
Applicable October 19, 2017.
Annathea Cook, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0250.
On March 23, 2012, the Department published in the
On April 3, 2017, the Department published the notice of initiation of the first sunset review of the
The merchandise covered by this
Certain steel nails subject to this
Excluded from the scope of this
Also excluded from the scope of this
• Non-collated (
• non-collated (
• wire collated steel nails, in coils, having a galvanized finish, a smooth, barbed or ringed shank, an actual length of 0.500″ to 1.75″, inclusive; an actual shank diameter of 0.116″ to 0.166″, inclusive; and an actual head diameter of 0.3375″ to 0.500″, inclusive;
• non-collated (
• corrugated nails. A corrugated nail is made of a small strip of corrugated steel with sharp points on one side;
• thumb tacks, which are currently classified under HTSUS 7317.00.10.00;
• fasteners suitable for use in powder-actuated hand tools, not threaded and threaded, which are currently classified under HTSUS 7317.00.20 and 7317.00.30;
• certain steel nails that are equal to or less than 0.0720 inches in shank diameter, round or rectangular in cross section, between 0.375 inches and 2.5 inches in length, and that are collated with adhesive or polyester film tape backed with a heat seal adhesive; and
• fasteners having a case hardness greater than or equal to 50 HRC, a carbon content greater than or equal to 0.5 percent, a round head, a secondary reduced-diameter raised head section, a centered shank, and a smooth symmetrical point, suitable for use in gas-actuated hand tools. While the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this
As a result of the determinations by the Department and the ITC that revocation of the
The effective date of the continuation of the
This five-year sunset review and this notice are in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and published pursuant to section 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(f)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the countervailing duty (CVD) order on circular welded carbon quality steel pipe (CWP) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) for the period January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, based on the timely withdrawal of the request for review.
Applicable October 19, 2017.
Terre Keaton Stefanova, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1280.
On July 3, 2017, the Department published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Secretary will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if a party who requested the review withdraws the request within 90 days of the date of publication of notice of initiation of the requested review. The petitioner timely withdrew its request for an administrative review by the 90-day deadline. No other parties requested an administrative review of the order. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), we are rescinding the administrative review of the CVD order on CWP from the PRC covering the period January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess countervailing duties on all appropriate entries at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated countervailing duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or the conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751 of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed incidental harassment authorization (IHA); request for comments.
NMFS has received a request from the United States Department of the Navy (Navy) for authorization to take marine mammals incidental to Ice Exercise 2018 (ICEX18) activities proposed within the Beaufort Sea and Arctic Ocean north of Prudhoe Bay, Alaska. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities. NMFS will consider public comments prior to making any final decision on the issuance of the requested MMPA authorizations and agency responses will be summarized in the final notice of our decision. The Navy's activities are considered a military readiness activity pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), as amended by the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2004 (NDAA).
Comments and information must be received no later than November 20, 2017.
Comments should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service. Physical comments should be sent to 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 and electronic comments should be sent to
Rob Pauline, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8408. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained online at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
The MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).The NDAA (Pub. L. 108-136) removed the “small numbers” and “specified geographical region” limitations indicated above and amended the definition of “harassment” as it applies to a “military readiness activity” to read as follows (Section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA): (i) Any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A Harassment); or (ii) Any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered (Level B Harassment).
To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. §§ 4321
The Navy is currently preparing an environmental assessment (EA) titled
We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice prior to concluding our NEPA process or making a final decision on the IHA request.
On April 12, 2017, NMFS received a request from the Navy for the taking of marine mammals incidental to submarine training and testing activities including establishment of a tracking range on an ice floe in the Beaufort Sea and Arctic Ocean north of Prudhoe Bay, Alaska. The Navy's request is for take of ringed seals (
The Navy proposes to conduct submarine training and testing activities from an ice camp stationed on an ice floe in the Beaufort Sea and Arctic Ocean for six weeks between February and April 2018. Active acoustic transmissions (low, mid, and high-frequency) may result in the occurrence of temporary hearing impairment (temporary threshold shift (TTS)) and behavioral harassment of ringed seals.
The proposed action would occur over approximately a six-week period from February through April 2018, including deployment and demobilization of the ice camp. The submarine training and testing activities would occur over approximately four weeks during the six-week period. The proposed IHA would be valid from February 1, 2018 through May 1, 2018.
The ice camp would be established approximately 100-200 nmi (185-370 kilometers (km)) north of Prudhoe Bay, Alaska. The exact location cannot be identified ahead of time as required conditions (
ICEX18 includes the deployment of a temporary camp situated on an ice floe. The camp will consist of a series of portable tents. In the past, the Navy would construct temporary wooden structures at ICEX camps, but they no longer do so. A portable tracking range for submarine training and testing would be installed near the ice camp. Eight hydrophones, located on the ice and extending to 30 meters (m) below the ice, would be deployed by drilling holes in the ice and lowering the cable down into the water column. Four hydrophones would be physically connected to the command hut via cables (Figure 1-2 in Application) while the remaining four would transmit data via radio frequencies. Additionally, tracking pingers would be configured aboard each submarine to continuously monitor the location of the submarines. Acoustic communications with the submarines would be used to coordinate the training and testing schedule with the submarines; an underwater telephone would be used as a backup to the acoustic communications.
Submarine activities associated with ICEX18 are classified, but generally entail safety maneuvers, active sonar use and exercise torpedo use. These maneuvers and sonar use are similar to submarine activities conducted in other undersea environments. They are being conducted in the Arctic to test their performance in a cold environment.
Submarine training and testing activities generate acoustic transmissions that may impact marine mammals. Some acoustic sources either are above the known hearing range of marine species or have narrow beam widths and short pulse lengths that would not result in effects to marine species. Potential effects from these
Active buoys and moored sources would be used during ICEX18. One active buoy would be the Autonomous Reverberation Measurement System, which would be attached to the bottom of the ice and may be active for up to 30 days of ICEX18. Additionally, a Massachusetts Institute of Technology/Lincoln Lab vertical line array would be deployed through a hole in the ice to a source depth of 150 meters (m). This array would have continuous wave and chirp transmission capability. The continuous wave and chirp transmissions would both be active for no more than 8 days during ICEX18. Over one day of testing (
The Naval Research Laboratory would also utilize an unmanned underwater vehicle for the deployment of a synthetic aperture source (SAS), which would transmit for 24 hours per day for up to 4 days. The SAS would be used to make measurements of the acoustic interaction with the ice/water interface. Source parameters, including active sonar transmissions from submarines and torpedoes, are classified. Additional details for the active sources described above can be found in Table 1.
Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see “Proposed Mitigation” and “Proposed Monitoring and Reporting”).
Sections 3 and 4 of the application summarize available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, and behavior and life history, of ringed seals (
Table 2 lists all of the species that could occur in the project area and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including regulatory status under the MMPA and the Endangered Species Act (ESA) and potential biological removal (PBR). Only the ringed seal, however, is expected to occur in the project area during the time of year when project activities would take place. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2016). PBR is defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (as described in NMFS's SARs). While no mortality is anticipated or authorized here, PBR and annual serious injury and mortality from anthropogenic sources are included here as gross indicators of the status of the species and other threats.
The marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represents the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS's stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. The
The only species that could potentially occur in the proposed survey area is the ringed seal. Total sea ice coverage is expected across the study area during the study period which precludes the presence of other arctic marine mammal species. As described below, ringed seals temporally and spatially co-occur with the activity to the degree that take is reasonably likely to occur, and therefore we have proposed authorizing take.
Ringed seals are found in seasonally and permanently ice-covered waters of the Northern Hemisphere (North Atlantic Marine Mammal Commission 2004). The Alaska stock of ringed seals is found in the study area. Though a reliable population estimate for the entire Alaska stock is not available, research programs have recently developed new survey methods and partial, but useful, abundance estimates. In spring of 2012 and 2013, U.S. and Russian researchers conducted aerial abundance and distribution surveys of the entire Bering Sea and Sea of Okhotsk (Moreland
Throughout their range, ringed seals have an affinity for ice-covered waters and are well adapted to occupying both shore-fast and pack ice (Kelly 1988b). Ringed seals can be found further offshore than other pinnipeds since they can maintain breathing holes in ice thickness greater than 2 m (Smith and Stirling 1975). Breathing holes are maintained by ringed seals' sharp teeth and claws on their fore flippers. They remain in contact with ice most of the year and use it as a platform for molting in late spring to early summer, for pupping and nursing in late winter to early spring, and for resting at other times of the year.
Ringed seals have at least two distinct types of subnivean lairs: haul-out lairs and birthing lairs (Smith and Stirling 1975). Haul-out lairs are typically single-chambered and offer protection from predators and cold weather. Birthing lairs are larger, multi-chambered areas that are used for pupping in addition to protection from predators. Ringed seal populations pup on both land-fast ice as well as stable pack ice. Lentfer (1972) found that ringed seals north of Barrow, Alaska (west of the ice camp), build their subnivean lairs on the pack ice near pressure ridges. Since subnivean lairs were found north of Barrow, Alaska, in pack ice, they are also assumed to be found within the sea ice in the ice camp proposed action area. Ringed seals excavate subnivean lairs in drifts over their breathing holes in the ice, in which they rest, give birth, and nurse their pups for 5-9 weeks during late winter and spring (Chapskii 1940; McLaren 1958; Smith and Stirling 1975). Snow depths of at least 50-65 centimeters (cm) are required for functional birth lairs (Kelly 1988a; Lydersen 1998; Lydersen and Gjertz 1986; Smith and Stirling 1975), and such depths typically are found only where 20-30 cm or more of snow has accumulated on flat ice and then drifted along pressure ridges or ice hummocks (Hammill 2008; Lydersen
In Alaskan waters, during winter and early spring when sea ice is at its maximal extent, ringed seals are abundant in the northern Bering Sea, Norton and Kotzebue Sounds, and throughout the Chukchi and Beaufort Seas (Frost 1985; Kelly 1988b) and, therefore, are found in the study area (Figure 2-1 in Application). Passive acoustic monitoring of ringed seals from a high frequency recording package deployed at a depth of 240 m in the Chukchi Sea 120 km north- northwest of Barrow, Alaska, detected ringed seals in the area between mid- December and late May over the four year study (Jones
In general, ringed seals prey on fish and crustaceans. Ringed seals are known to consume up to 72 different species in their diet; their preferred prey species is the polar cod (Jefferson
Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
• Low-frequency cetaceans (mysticetes): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 Hz and 35 kHz, with best hearing estimated to be from 100 Hz to 8 kHz;
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (larger toothed whales, beaked whales, and most delphinids): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz, with best hearing from 10 to less than 100 kHz;
• High-frequency cetaceans (porpoises, river dolphins, and members of the genera Kogia and Cephalorhynchus; including two members of the genus Lagenorhynchus, on the basis of recent echolocation data and genetic data): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 275 Hz and 160 kHz;
• Pinnipeds in water; Phocidae (true seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 50 Hz to 86 kHz, with best hearing between 1-50 kHz;
• Pinnipeds in water; Otariidae (eared seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between 60 Hz and 39 kHz, with best hearing between 2-48 kHz.
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2016) for a review of
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document will include a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination” section considers the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Proposed Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
Here, we first provide background information on marine mammal hearing before discussing the potential effects of the use of active acoustic sources on marine mammals.
Sound travels in waves, the basic components of which are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude. Frequency is the number of pressure waves that pass by a reference point per unit of time and is measured in hertz (Hz) or cycles per second. Wavelength is the distance between two peaks of a sound wave; lower frequency sounds have longer wavelengths than higher frequency sounds and attenuate (decrease) more rapidly in shallower water. Amplitude is the height of the sound pressure wave or the `loudness' of a sound and is typically measured using the decibel (dB) scale. A dB is the ratio between a measured pressure (with sound) and a reference pressure (sound at a constant pressure, established by scientific standards). It is a logarithmic unit that accounts for large variations in amplitude; therefore, relatively small changes in dB ratings correspond to large changes in sound pressure. When referring to sound pressure levels (SPLs; the sound force per unit area), sound is referenced in the context of underwater sound pressure to 1 microPascal (μPa). One pascal is the pressure resulting from a force of one newton exerted over an area of one square meter. The source level (SL) represents the sound level at a distance of 1 m from the source (referenced to 1 μPa). The received level is the sound level at the listener's position. Note that all underwater sound levels in this document are referenced to a pressure of 1 µPa and all airborne sound levels in this document are referenced to a pressure of 20 µPa.
Root mean square (rms) is the quadratic mean sound pressure over the duration of an impulse. RMS is calculated by squaring all of the sound amplitudes, averaging the squares, and then taking the square root of the average (Urick 1983). Rms accounts for both positive and negative values; squaring the pressures makes all values positive so that they may be accounted for in the summation of pressure levels (Hastings and Popper 2005). This measurement is often used in the context of discussing behavioral effects, in part because behavioral effects, which often result from auditory cues, may be better expressed through averaged units than by peak pressures.
When underwater objects vibrate or activity occurs, sound-pressure waves are created. These waves alternately compress and decompress the water as the sound wave travels. Underwater sound waves radiate in all directions away from the source (similar to ripples on the surface of a pond), except in cases where the source is directional. The compressions and decompressions associated with sound waves are detected as changes in pressure by aquatic life and man-made sound receptors such as hydrophones.
Even in the absence of sound from the specified activity, the underwater environment is typically loud due to ambient sound. Ambient sound is defined as environmental background sound levels lacking a single source or point (Richardson
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The sum of the various natural and anthropogenic sound sources at any given location and time—which comprise “ambient” or “background” sound—depends not only on the source levels (as determined by current weather conditions and levels of biological and shipping activity) but also on the ability of sound to propagate through the environment. In turn, sound propagation is dependent on the spatially and temporally varying properties of the water column and sea floor, and is frequency-dependent. As a result of the dependence on a large number of varying factors, ambient sound levels can be expected to vary widely over both coarse and fine spatial and temporal scales. Sound levels at a given frequency and location can vary by 10-20 dB from day to day (Richardson
Underwater sounds fall into one of two general sound types: Pulsed and non-pulsed (defined in the following paragraphs). The distinction between these two sound types is important because they have differing potential to cause physical effects, particularly with regard to hearing (
Pulsed sound sources (
Non-pulsed sounds can be tonal, narrowband, or broadband, brief or prolonged, and may be either continuous or non-continuous (ANSI 1995; NIOSH 1998). Some of these non-pulsed sounds can be transient signals of short duration but without the essential properties of pulses (
Modern sonar technology includes a variety of sonar sensor and processing systems. In concept, the simplest active sonar emits sound waves, or “pings,” sent out in multiple directions, and the sound waves then reflect off of the target object in multiple directions. The sonar source calculates the time it takes for the reflected sound waves to return; this calculation determines the distance to the target object. More sophisticated active sonar systems emit a ping and then rapidly scan or listen to the sound waves in a specific area. This provides both distance to the target and directional information. Even more advanced sonar systems use multiple receivers to listen to echoes from several directions simultaneously and provide efficient detection of both direction and distance. In general, when sonar is in use, the sonar `pings' occur at intervals, referred to as a duty cycle, and the signals themselves are very short in duration. For example, sonar that emits a 1-second ping every 10 seconds has a 10 percent duty cycle. The Navy's most powerful hull-mounted mid-frequency sonar source typically emits a 1-second ping every 50 seconds representing a 2 percent duty cycle. The Navy utilizes sonar systems and other acoustic sensors in support of a variety of mission requirements.
Please refer to the information given previously regarding sound, characteristics of sound types, and metrics used in this document. Anthropogenic sounds cover a broad range of frequencies and sound levels and can have a range of highly variable impacts on marine life, from none or minor to potentially severe responses, depending on received levels, duration of exposure, behavioral context, and various other factors. The potential effects of underwater sound from active acoustic sources can potentially result in one or more of the following: temporary or permanent hearing impairment, non-auditory physical or physiological effects, behavioral disturbance, stress, and masking (Richardson
When PTS occurs, there is physical damage to the sound receptors in the ear (
Relationships between TTS and PTS thresholds have not been studied in marine mammals—PTS data exists only for a single harbor seal (Kastak
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
Currently, TTS data only exist for four species of cetaceans (bottlenose dolphin (
Habituation can occur when an animal's response to a stimulus wanes with repeated exposure, usually in the absence of unpleasant associated events (Wartzok
Available studies show wide variation in response to underwater sound; therefore, it is difficult to predict specifically how any given sound in a particular instance might affect marine mammals perceiving the signal. If a marine mammal does react briefly to an underwater sound by changing its behavior or moving a small distance, the impacts of the change are unlikely to be significant to the individual, let alone the stock or population. However, if a sound source displaces marine mammals from an important feeding or breeding area for a prolonged period, impacts on individuals and populations could be significant (
Changes in dive behavior can vary widely, and may consist of increased or decreased dive times and surface intervals as well as changes in the rates of ascent and descent during a dive (
Disruption of feeding behavior can be difficult to correlate with anthropogenic sound exposure, so it is usually inferred by observed displacement from known foraging areas, the appearance of secondary indicators (
Variations in respiration naturally vary with different behaviors and alterations to breathing rate as a function of acoustic exposure can be expected to co-occur with other behavioral reactions, such as a flight response or an alteration in diving. However, respiration rates in and of themselves may be representative of annoyance or an acute stress response. Various studies have shown that respiration rates may either be unaffected or could increase, depending on the species and signal characteristics, again highlighting the importance in understanding species differences in the tolerance of underwater noise when determining the potential for impacts resulting from anthropogenic sound exposure (
Marine mammals vocalize for different purposes and across multiple modes, such as whistling, echolocation click production, calling, and singing. Changes in vocalization behavior in response to anthropogenic noise can
Avoidance is the displacement of an individual from an area or migration path as a result of the presence of a sound or other stressors, and is one of the most obvious manifestations of disturbance in marine mammals (Richardson
A flight response is a dramatic change in normal movement to a directed and rapid movement away from the perceived location of a sound source. The flight response differs from other avoidance responses in the intensity of the response (
Behavioral disturbance can also impact marine mammals in more subtle ways. Increased vigilance may result in costs related to diversion of focus and attention (
Many animals perform vital functions, such as feeding, resting, traveling, and socializing, on a diel cycle (24-hour cycle). Disruption of such functions resulting from reactions to stressors such as sound exposure are more likely to be significant if they last more than one diel cycle or recur on subsequent days (Southall
For non-impulsive sounds (
Seals exposed to non-impulsive sources with a received sound pressure level within the range of calculated exposures, (142-193 dB re 1 μPa), have been shown to change their behavior by modifying diving activity and avoidance of the sound source (Götz
Adult ringed seals spend up to 20 percent of the time in subnivean lairs during the timeframe of the proposed action (Kelly
If the acoustic transmissions are heard and are perceived as a threat, ringed seals within subnivean lairs could react to the sound in a similar fashion to their reaction to other threats, such as polar bears (
Ringed seal mothers have a strong bond with their pups and may physically move their pups from the birth lair to an alternate lair to avoid predation, sometimes risking their lives to defend their pups from potential predators (Smith 1987). Additionally, it is not unusual to find up to three birth lairs within 100 m of each other, probably made by the same female seal, as well as one or more haul-out lairs in the immediate area (Smith
Neuroendocrine stress responses often involve the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system. Virtually all neuroendocrine functions that are affected by stress—including immune competence, reproduction, metabolism, and behavior—are regulated by pituitary hormones. Stress-induced changes in the secretion of pituitary hormones have been implicated in failed reproduction, altered metabolism, reduced immune competence, and behavioral disturbance (
The primary distinction between stress (which is adaptive and does not normally place an animal at risk) and “distress” is the cost of the response. During a stress response, an animal uses glycogen stores that can be quickly replenished once the stress is alleviated. In such circumstances, the cost of the stress response would not pose serious fitness consequences. However, when an animal does not have sufficient energy reserves to satisfy the energetic costs of a stress response, energy resources must be diverted from other functions. This state of distress will last until the animal replenishes its energetic reserves sufficient to restore normal function.
Relationships between these physiological mechanisms, animal behavior, and the costs of stress responses are well-studied through controlled experiments and for both laboratory and free-ranging animals (
Under certain circumstances, marine mammals experiencing significant masking could also be impaired from maximizing their performance fitness in survival and reproduction. Therefore, when the coincident (masking) sound is man-made, it may be considered harassment when disrupting or altering critical behaviors. It is important to distinguish TTS and PTS, which persist after the sound exposure, from masking, which occurs during the sound exposure. Because masking (without resulting in TS) is not associated with abnormal physiological function, it is not considered a physiological effect, but rather a potential behavioral effect.
The frequency range of the potentially masking sound is important in determining any potential behavioral impacts. For example, low-frequency signals may have less effect on high-frequency echolocation sounds produced by odontocetes but are more likely to affect detection of mysticete communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds
Masking affects both senders and receivers of acoustic signals and can potentially have long-term chronic effects on marine mammals at the population level as well as at the individual level. Low-frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of SPL) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, with most of the increase from distant commercial shipping (Hildebrand 2009). All anthropogenic sound sources, but especially chronic and lower-frequency signals (
Hearing capabilities of invertebrates are largely unknown (Lovell
Studies of sound energy effects on invertebrates are few, and identify only behavioral responses. Non-auditory injury, permanent threshold shift, temporary threshold shift, and masking studies have not been conducted for invertebrates. Both behavioral and auditory brainstem response studies suggest that crustaceans may sense frequencies up to 3 kHz, but best sensitivity is likely below 200 Hz (Goodall
It is expected that most marine invertebrates would not sense the frequencies of the sonar associated with the proposed action. Most marine invertebrates would not be close enough to active sonar systems to potentially experience impacts to sensory structures. Any marine invertebrate capable of sensing sound may alter its behavior if exposed to sonar. Although acoustic transmissions produced during the proposed action may briefly impact individuals, intermittent exposures to sonar are not expected to impact survival, growth, recruitment, or reproduction of widespread marine invertebrate populations.
The fish species located in the study area include those that are closely associated with the deep ocean habitat of the Beaufort Sea. Nearly 250 marine fish species have been described in the Arctic, excluding the larger parts of the sub-Arctic Bering, Barents, and Norwegian Seas (Mecklenburg
All fish have two sensory systems to detect sound in the water: The inner ear, which functions very much like the inner ear in other vertebrates, and the lateral line, which consists of a series of receptors along the fish's body (Popper and Fay 2010; Popper
Fish species in the study area are expected to hear the low-frequency sources associated with the proposed action, but most are not expected to detect sounds above this threshold. Only a few fish species are able to detect mid-frequency sonar above 1 kHz and could have behavioral reactions or experience auditory masking during these activities. These effects are expected to be transient and long-term consequences for the population are not expected. Fish with hearing specializations capable of detecting high-frequency sounds are not expected to be within the study area. If hearing specialists were present, they would have to be in close vicinity to the source to experience effects from the acoustic transmission. Human-generated sound could alter the behavior of a fish in a manner that would affect its way of living, such as where it tries to locate food or how well it can locate a potential mate; behavioral responses to loud noise could include a startle response, such as the fish swimming away from the source, the fish “freezing” and staying in place, or scattering (Popper 2003). Auditory masking could also interfere with a fish's ability to hear biologically relevant sounds, inhibiting the ability to detect both predators and prey, and impacting schooling, mating, and navigating (Popper 2003). If an individual fish comes into contact with low-frequency acoustic transmissions and is able to perceive the transmissions, they are expected to exhibit short-term behavioral reactions, when initially exposed to acoustic transmissions, which would not significantly alter breeding, foraging, or populations. Overall effects to fish from active sonar sources would be localized, temporary, and infrequent.
ICEX18 personnel will be actively conducting testing and training operations on the sea ice and will travel around the camp area, including the runway, on snowmobiles. Although the Navy does not anticipate observing any seals on the ice, it is possible that the presence of active humans could behaviorally disturb ringed seals that are in lairs or on the ice. As discussed above, the camp will not be deployed in areas with pressure ridges and seals will have opportunity to move away from disturbances associated with human activity. Furthermore, camp personnel will maintain a 100-meter avoidance distance for all marine mammals on the ice. Based on this information, we do not believe the presence of humans on ice will result in take.
Our preliminary determination of effects to the physical environment includes minimal possible impacts to ringed seals and ringed seal habitat from camp operation or deployment activities. In summary, given the relatively short duration of submarine testing and training activities, relatively small area that would be affected, and lack of physical impacts to habitat, the proposed actions are not likely to have a permanent, adverse effect on populations of prey species or marine mammal habitat. Therefore, any impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term consequences for individual ringed seals or their populations.
This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes proposed for authorization through this IHA, which will inform the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. For this military readiness activity, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: (i) Any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A Harassment); or (ii) Any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered (Level B Harassment).
Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns and TTS, for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to acoustic transmissions. Based on the nature of the activity, Level A harassment is neither anticipated nor proposed to be authorized. However, as described previously, no serious injury or mortality is anticipated or proposed to be authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.
Described in the most basic way, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be
Using the best available science, NMFS recommends acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment), TTS, or behavioral harassment (Level B harassment). The thresholds used to predict occurrences of each type of take are described below.
Behavioral harassment—In coordination with NMFS, the Navy developed behavioral harassment thresholds to support Phase III environmental analyses and MMPA Letter of Authorization renewals for the Navy's testing and training military readiness activities; these behavioral harassment thresholds are being proposed for use here to evaluate the potential effects of this proposed action. The response of a marine mammal to an anthropogenic sound will depend on the frequency, duration, temporal pattern and amplitude of the sound as well as the animal's prior experience with the sound and the context in which the sound is encountered (
Southall
The Navy's Phase III proposed pinniped behavioral threshold has been updated based on controlled exposure experiments on the following captive animals: Hooded seal, gray seal, and California sea lion (Götz
Level A harassment and TTS—NMFS' Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Technical Guidance, 2016) identifies dual criteria to assess auditory injury (Level A harassment) to five different marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive).
These thresholds were developed by compiling and synthesizing the best available science and soliciting input multiple times from both the public and peer reviewers to inform the final product. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS 2016 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at:
The PTS/TTS analyses begins with mathematical modeling to predict the sound transmission patterns from Navy sources, including sonar. These data are then coupled with marine species distribution and abundance data to determine the sound levels likely to be received by various marine species. These criteria and thresholds are applied to estimate specific effects that animals exposed to Navy-generated sound may experience. For weighting function derivation, the most critical data required are TTS onset exposure levels as a function of exposure frequency. These values can be estimated from published literature by examining TTS as a function of sound exposure level (SEL) for various frequencies.
To estimate TTS onset values, only TTS data from behavioral hearing tests
As in previous acoustic effects analysis (Finneran and Jenkins 2012; Southall
Table 3 below provides the weighted criteria and thresholds used in this analysis for estimating quantitative acoustic exposures of marine mammals from the proposed action.
The Navy performed a quantitative analysis to estimate the number of mammals that could be harassed by the underwater acoustic transmissions during the proposed action. Inputs to the quantitative analysis included marine mammal density estimates, marine mammal depth occurrence distributions (Navy 2017a), oceanographic and environmental data, marine mammal hearing data, and criteria and thresholds for levels of potential effects.
The density estimate used to estimate take is derived from habitat-based modeling by Kaschner
Note that while other surveys by Frost
The quantitative analysis consists of computer modeled estimates and a post-model analysis to determine the number of potential animal exposures. The model calculates sound energy propagation from the proposed active acoustic sources, the sound received by animat (virtual animal) dosimeters representing marine mammals distributed in the area around the modeled activity, and whether the sound received by a marine mammal exceeds the thresholds for effects.
The Navy developed a set of software tools and compiled data for estimating
NAEMO then records the energy received by each animat within the energy footprint of the event and calculates the number of animats having received levels of energy exposures that fall within defined impact thresholds. Predicted effects on the animats within a scenario are then tallied and the highest order effect (based on severity of criteria;
There are limitations to the data used in the acoustic effects model, and the results must be interpreted within these context. While the most accurate data and input assumptions have been used in the modeling, when there is a lack of definitive data to support an aspect of the modeling, modeling assumptions believed to overestimate the number of exposures have been chosen:
• Animats are modeled as being underwater, stationary, and facing the source and therefore always predicted to receive the maximum sound level (
• Animats do not move horizontally (but change their position vertically within the water column), which may overestimate physiological effects such as hearing loss, especially for slow moving or stationary sound sources in the model;
• Animats are stationary horizontally and therefore do not avoid the sound source, unlike in the wild where animals would most often avoid exposures at higher sound levels, especially those exposures that may result in PTS;
• Multiple exposures within any 24-hour period are considered one continuous exposure for the purposes of calculating the temporary or permanent hearing loss, because there are not sufficient data to estimate a hearing recovery function for the time between exposures; and
• Mitigation measures that are implemented were not considered in the model. In reality, sound-producing activities would be reduced, stopped, or delayed if marine mammals are detected by submarines via passive acoustic monitoring.
Because of these inherent model limitations and simplifications, model-estimated results must be further analyzed, considering such factors as the range to specific effects, avoidance, and the likelihood of successfully implementing mitigation measures. This analysis uses a number of factors in addition to the acoustic model results to predict acoustic effects on marine mammals.
For non-impulsive sources, NAEMO calculates the sound pressure level (SPL) and SEL for each active emission over the entire duration of an event. These data are then processed using a bootstrapping routine to compute the number of animats exposed to SPL and SEL in 1 dB bins across all track iterations and population draws. (Bootstrapping is a type of resampling where large numbers of smaller samples of the same size are repeatedly drawn, with replacement, from a single original sample.) SEL is checked during this process to ensure that all animats are grouped in either an SPL or SEL category. A mean number of SPL and SEL exposures are computed for each 1 dB bin. The mean value is based on the number of animats exposed at that dB level from each track iteration and population draw. The behavioral risk function curve is applied to each 1 dB bin to compute the number of behaviorally exposed animats per bin. The number of behaviorally exposed animats per bin is summed to produce the total number of behavior exposures.
Mean 1 dB bin SEL exposures are then summed to determine the number of PTS and TTS exposures. PTS exposures represent the cumulative number of animats exposed at or above the PTS threshold. The number of TTS exposures represents the cumulative number of animats exposed at or above the TTS threshold and below the PTS threshold. Animats exposed below the TTS threshold were grouped in the SPL category.
Platforms such as a submarine using one or more sound sources are modeled in accordance with relevant vehicle dynamics and time durations by moving them across an area whose size is representative of the training event's operational area. For analysis purposes, the Navy uses distance cutoffs, which is the maximum distance a Level B take would occur, beyond which the potential for significant behavioral responses is considered unlikely. For animals located beyond the range to effects, no significant behavioral responses are predicted. This is based on the Navy's Phase III environmental analysis (Navy 2017a). The Navy referenced Southall
For ICEX18 unclassified sources (
As discussed above, within NAEMO animats do not move horizontally or react in any way to avoid sound. Furthermore, mitigation measures that are implemented during training or testing activities that reduce the likelihood of physiological impacts are not considered in quantitative analysis. Therefore, the current model overestimates acoustic impacts, especially physiological impacts near the sound source. The behavioral criteria used as a part of this analysis acknowledges that a behavioral reaction is likely to occur at levels below those required to cause hearing loss (TTS or PTS). At close ranges and high sound levels approaching those that could cause PTS, avoidance of the area immediately around the sound source is the assumed behavioral response for most cases.
In previous environmental analyses, the Navy has implemented analytical factors to account for avoidance behavior and the implementation of mitigation measures. The application of avoidance and mitigation factors has only been applied to model-estimated PTS exposures given the short distance over which PTS is estimated. Given that no PTS exposures were estimated during the modeling process for this proposed action, the implementation of avoidance and mitigation factors were not included in this analysis.
Utilizing the NAEMO model, the Navy projected that there will be 1,665 behavioral Level B harassment takes and an additional 11 Level B takes due to TTS for a total of 1,676 takes of ringed seals. All takes would be underwater. Note that these quantitative results should be regarded as conservative estimates that are strongly influenced by limited marine mammal population data.
In order to issue an IHA under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, “and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking” for certain subsistence uses. NMFS' regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)). The NDAA for FY 2004 amended the MMPA as it relates to military readiness activities and the incidental take authorization process such that “least practicable adverse impact” shall include consideration of personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, we carefully weigh two primary factors:
(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammal species or stocks, their habitat, and their availability for subsistence uses (where relevant). This analysis will consider such things as the nature of the potential adverse impact (such as likelihood, scope, and range), the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented, and the likelihood of successful implementation; and
(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation. Practicability of implementation may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, specifically considers personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(A)(ii)).
The following general mitigation actions are proposed for ICEX18 to avoid any take of ringed seals on the ice floe:
• Camp deployment would begin in mid-February and would be completed by March 15, which is well before ringed seal pupping season begins. Pups are weaned and then mating occurs in April and May. Completing camp deployment before ringed seal pupping begins will allow ringed seals to avoid the camp area prior to pupping and mating seasons, reducing potential impacts.
• Camp location will not be in proximity to pressure ridges in order to allow camp deployment and operation of an aircraft runway. This will minimize physical impacts to subnivean lairs.
• Camp deployment will gradually increase over five days, allowing seals to relocate to lairs that are not in the immediate vicinity of the camp.
• Passengers on all on-ice vehicles would observe for marine and terrestrial animals; any marine or terrestrial animal observed on the ice would be avoided by 328 ft (100 m). On-ice vehicles would not be used to follow any animal, with the exception of actively deterring polar bears if the situation requires.
• Personnel operating on-ice vehicles would avoid areas of deep snowdrifts near pressure ridges, which are preferred areas for subnivean lair development.
• All material (
The following mitigation actions are proposed for ICEX18 activities involving acoustic transmissions:
• For activities involving active acoustic transmissions from submarines and torpedoes, passive acoustic sensors on the submarines will listen for vocalizing marine mammals prior to the initiation of exercise activities. If a marine mammal is detected, the submarine will delay active transmissions, including the launching of torpedoes, and not restart until after 15 minutes have passed with no marine mammal detections. If there are no animal detections, it is assumed that the vocalizing animal is no longer in the immediate area and is unlikely to be subject to harassment. Ramp up procedures will not be required as they would result in an unacceptable impact on readiness and on the realism of training.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as to ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
The U.S. Navy has coordinated with NMFS to develop an overarching program plan in which specific monitoring would occur. This plan is called the Integrated Comprehensive Monitoring Program (ICMP) (U.S. Department of the Navy 2011). The ICMP has been created in direct response to Navy permitting requirements established in various MMPA Final Rules, ESA consultations, Biological Opinions, and applicable regulations. As a framework document, the ICMP applies by regulation to those activities on ranges and operating areas for which the Navy is seeking or has sought incidental take authorizations. The ICMP is intended to coordinate monitoring efforts across all regions and to allocate the most appropriate level and type of effort based on set of standardized research goals, and in acknowledgement of regional scientific value and resource availability.
The ICMP is focused on Navy training and testing ranges where the majority of Navy activities occur regularly as those areas have the greatest potential for being impacted. ICEX18 in comparison is a short duration exercise that occurs approximately every other year. Due to the location and expeditionary nature of the ice camp, the number of personnel onsite is extremely limited and is constrained by the requirement to be able to evacuate all personnel in a single day with small planes. As such, a dedicated monitoring project would not be feasible as it would require additional personnel and equipment to locate, tag and monitor the seals.
The Navy is committed to documenting and reporting relevant aspects of training and research activities to verify implementation of mitigation, comply with current permits, and improve future environmental assessments. All sonar usage will be collected via the Navy's Sonar Positional Reporting System database and reported. If any injury or death of a marine mammal is observed during the ICEX18 activity, the Navy will immediately halt the activity and report the incident consistent with the stranding and reporting protocol in the Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing stranding response plan (Navy 2013). This approach is also consistent with other Navy documents including the Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing Environmental Impact Statement/Overseas Environmental Impact Statement.
The Navy will provide NMFS with a draft exercise monitoring report within 90 days of the conclusion of the proposed activity. The draft exercise monitoring report will include data regarding sonar use and any mammal sightings or detection will be documented. The report will also include information on the number of sonar shutdowns recorded. If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days of submission of the draft final report, the draft final report will constitute the final report. If comments are received, a final report must be submitted within 30 days after receipt of comments.
NMFS has defined negligible impact as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
Underwater acoustic transmissions associated with ICEX18, as outlined previously, have the potential to result in Level B harassment of ringed seals in the form of TTS and behavioral disturbance. No serious injury, mortality or Level A takes are anticipated to result from this activity. At close ranges and high sound levels approaching those that could cause PTS, avoidance of the area immediately around the sound source would be ringed seals' likely behavioral response. NMFS anticipates that there will be 11 Level B takes due to TTS and 1,665 behavioral Level B harassment takes, for a total of 1,676 ringed seal takes.
Note that there are only 11 Level B takes due to TTS since the TTS range to effects is small at only 100 meters or less while the behavioral effects range is significantly larger extending up to 10 km. TTS is a temporary impairment of hearing and TTS can last from minutes or hours to days (in cases of strong TTS). In many cases, however, hearing sensitivity recovers rapidly after exposure to the sound ends. Though TTS may occur in up to 11 animals, the overall fitness of these individuals is unlikely to be affected and negative impacts to the entire stock are not anticipated.
Effects on individuals that are taken by Level B harassment could include alteration of dive behavior, alteration of foraging behavior, effects to breathing, interference with or alteration of vocalization, avoidance, and flight. More severe behavioral responses are not anticipated due to the localized, intermittent use of active acoustic sources and mitigation by passive acoustic monitoring which will limit exposure to sound sources. Most likely, individuals will simply be temporarily displaced by moving away from the sound source. As described previously in the behavioral effects section seals exposed to non-impulsive sources with a received sound pressure level within the range of calculated exposures, (142-193 dB re 1 µPa), have been shown to change their behavior by modifying diving activity and avoidance of the sound source (Götz
The Navy's proposed activities are localized and of relatively short duration. While the total project area is large, the Navy expects that most activities will occur within the ice camp action area in relatively close proximity to the ice camp. The larger study area depicts the range where submarines may maneuver during the exercise. The ice camp will be in existence for up to six weeks with acoustic transmission occurring intermittently over four weeks. The Autonomous Reverberation Measurement System would be active for up to 30 days; the vertical line array would be active for up to four hours per day for no more than eight days, and; the unmanned underwater vehicle used for the deployment of a synthetic aperture source would transmit for 24 hours per day for up to eight days.
The project is not expected to have significant adverse effects on marine mammal habitat. The project activities are limited in time and would not modify physical marine mammal habitat. While the activities may cause some fish to leave the area of disturbance, temporarily impacting marine mammals' foraging opportunities, this would encompass a relatively small area of habitat leaving large areas of existing fish and marine mammal foraging habitat unaffected. As such, the impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term negative consequences.
For on-ice activity, neither take nor mortality of seals are expected due to measures followed during the exercise. Foot and snowmobile movement on the ice will be designed to avoid pressure ridges, where ringed seals build their lairs; runways will be built in areas without pressure ridges; snowmobiles will follow established routes; and camp buildup is gradual, with activity increasing over the first five days providing seals the opportunity to move to a different lair outside the ice camp area. The Navy will also employ its standard 100-meter avoidance distance from any arctic animals. Implementation of these measures should ensure that ringed seal lairs are not crushed or damaged during ICEX18 activities.
The ringed seal pupping season on the ice lasts for five to nine weeks during late winter and spring. Ice camp deployment would begin in mid-February and be completed by March 15, before the pupping season. This will allow ringed seals to avoid the ice camp area once the pupping season begins, thereby reducing potential impacts to nursing mothers and pups. Furthermore, ringed seal mothers are known to physically move pups from the birth lair to an alternate lair to avoid predation. If a ringed seal mother perceives the acoustic transmissions as a threat, the local network of multiple birth and haul-out lairs would allow the mother and pup to move to a new lair.
The estimated population of the Alaska stock of ringed seals in the Bering Sea is 170,000 animals (Muto
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• No serious injury or mortality is anticipated or authorized;
• Impacts will be limited to Level B harassment;
• A small percentage (<1 percent) of the Alaska stock of ringed seals would be subject to Level B harassment;
• TTS is expected to affect only a limited number of animals;
• There will be no loss or modification of ringed seal prey or habitat;
• Physical impacts to ringed seal subnivean lairs will be avoided; and
• Ice camp activities would not affect animals during the pupping season.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds that the total marine mammal take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.
Impacts to subsistence uses of marine mammals resulting from the proposed action are not anticipated. The proposed action would occur outside of the primary subsistence use season (
Section 7(a)(2) of the ESA of 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531
No incidental take of ESA-listed species is proposed for authorization or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.
As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue an IHA to the Navy for conducting submarine training and testing provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. This section contains a draft of the IHA itself. The wording contained in this section is proposed for inclusion in the IHA (if issued).
1. This Authorization is valid from February 1, 2018 through May 1, 2018.
2. This Authorization is valid only for activities associated with submarine training and testing in the Beaufort Sea and Arctic Ocean.
3. General Conditions.
(a) A copy of this IHA must be in the possession of the Navy, its designees, and work crew personnel operating under the authority of this IHA.
(b) The number of animals and species authorized for taking by Level B harassment is 1,676 ringed seals.
4. Prohibitions.
(a) The taking, by incidental harassment only, is limited to the species and number listed under condition 3(b). The taking by death of these species or the taking by harassment, injury or death of any other species of marine mammal is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this Authorization.
5. Mitigation Measures.
The holder of this Authorization is required to implement the following mitigation measures.
(a) Shutdown Measures.
(i) The Navy shall implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected by submarines via passive acoustics during use of active sonar transmissions from submarines and torpedoes.
(ii) The Navy shall not restart acoustic transmissions until after 15 minutes have passed with no marine mammal detections.
(b) The Navy shall avoid on-ice take by implementing the following:
(i) Foot and snowmobile movement shall avoid pressure ridges;
(ii) The ice camp, including runway, shall be built on multi-year ice without pressure ridges;
(iii) Snowmobiles shall follow established routes;
(iv) Camp deployment shall be gradual with activity increasing over the first five days and shall be completed by March 15, 2018.
(vi) Implementation of 100-meter avoidance distance of all marine mammals.
6. Reporting.
The holder of this Authorization is required to:
(a) Submit a draft exercise monitoring report within 90 days of the completion of proposed training and testing activities.
(b) The draft exercise monitoring report will include data regarding sonar use and any marine mammal sightings or detection. It will also include information on the number of sonar-related shutdowns recorded.
(c) If no comments are received from NMFS within 30 days of submission of the draft final report, the draft final report will constitute the final report. If comments are received, a final report must be submitted within 30 days after receipt of comments.
(d) Reporting injured or dead marine mammals:
(i) In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this IHA, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, the Navy shall immediately cease the specified activities and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, and the Alaska Regional Stranding Coordinator, NMFS. The Navy shall adhere to protocols outlined in the Stranding Response Plan for Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing (AFTT) Study Area (November 2013).
7. This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if the holder fails to abide by the conditions prescribed herein, or if NMFS determines the authorized taking is having more than a negligible impact on the species or stock of affected marine mammals.
We request comment on our analyses, the draft authorization, and any other aspect of this Notice of Proposed IHA for the Navy's proposed ICEX18 training and testing activities. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform our final decision on the request for MMPA authorization.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting (webinar).
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Coastal Pelagic Species Management Team (CPSMT) and Coastal Pelagic Species Advisory Subpanel (CPSAS) will hold a webinar meeting that is open to the public.
The webinar will be held Tuesday, November 7, 2017, from 1 p.m. to 4 p.m., or until business has been completed.
The meeting will be held via webinar. A public listening station is available at the Pacific Council office (address below). To attend the webinar,
Kerry Griffin, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2409.
The purpose of the meeting is to discuss items on the agenda of the November Pacific Council meeting, being held November 14-20, 2017 in Costa Mesa, CA. These may include exempted fishing permit proposals, methodology review proposals, and administrative matters. The CPSAS and CPSMT may develop reports to the Pacific Council on those items, and public comment may be taken at the discretion of the CPSMT and CPSAS Chairs.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This public listening station is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt (
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before December 18, 2017.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Sarah Wilkin, (301) 427-8470 or
This request is for extension of a current information collection.
In 1989, the National Marine Mammal Tissue Bank (NMMTB) was established by the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Office of Protected Resources (OPR) in collaboration with the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), Minerals Management Service (MMS), and the U.S. Geological Survey/Biological Resources Division (USGS/BRD). The NMMTB provides protocols, techniques, and physical facilities for the long-term storage of tissues from marine mammals. Scientists can request tissues from this repository for retrospective analyses to determine environmental trends of contaminants and other substances of interest. The NMMTB collects, processes, and stores tissues from specific indicator species (
The purposes of this collection of information are: (1) To enable NOAA to allow the scientific community the opportunity to request tissue specimen samples from the NMMTB and, (2) to enable the Marine Mammal Health and Stranding Response Program (MMHSRP) of NOAA to assemble information on all specimens submitted to the National Institute of Standards and Technology's Marine Environmental Specimen Bank (Marine ESB), which includes the NMMTB.
Respondents must complete a specimen banking information sheet for every sample submitted to the Bank. Methods of submitting reports include Internet, mail and facsimile transmission of paper forms. Those requesting samples send the information, and their research findings, mainly via email.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Supervisory Highlights; notice.
The Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau or CFPB) is issuing its fifteenth edition of its Supervisory Highlights. In this issue of
The Bureau released this edition of the Supervisory Highlights on its Web site on September 12, 2017.
Adetola Adenuga, Consumer Financial Protection Analyst, Office of Supervision Policy, 1700 G Street NW., 20552, (202) 435-9373.
The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau is committed to a consumer financial marketplace that is fair, transparent, and competitive, and that works for all consumers. The Bureau supervises both bank and nonbank institutions to help meet this goal. The findings reported here reflect information obtained from supervisory activities that were generally completed between January 2017 and June 2017 (unless otherwise stated). In some instances, not all corrective actions, including through enforcement, have been completed at the time of this report's publication.
CFPB supervisory reviews and examinations typically involve assessing a supervised entity's compliance management system and compliance with Federal consumer financial laws. When Supervision determines that a supervised entity has violated a statute or regulation, Supervision directs the entity to undertake appropriate corrective measures, such as implementing new policies, changing written communications, improving training or monitoring, or otherwise changing conduct to ensure the illegal practices cease. Supervision also directs the entity to send refunds to consumers, pay restitution, credit borrower accounts, or take other remedial actions as appropriate.
Recent supervisory resolutions have resulted in total restitution payments of approximately $14 million to more than 104,000 consumers during the review period. In addition to these nonpublic supervisory activities, the Bureau also resolves violations using public enforcement actions.
Please submit any questions or comments to
Recent supervisory observations are reported in the areas of automobile loan servicing, credit card account management, debt collection, deposits, mortgage origination, mortgage servicing, remittances, service provider program, short-term small-dollar lending, and fair lending.
In the Bureau's recent auto servicing examinations, examiners reviewed how servicers are overseeing repossession agents and how repossessions are conducted. Through that work, examiners identified an unfair practice relating to repossession at one or more automobile servicers.
To secure an auto loan, borrowers give creditors a security interest in their vehicles. When a borrower defaults, a creditor can exercise its rights under the contract and repossess the secured vehicle. Many auto servicers provide options to borrowers to avoid repossession once a loan is delinquent or in default. Servicers may have formal extension agreements that allow borrowers to forbear payments for a certain period of time or may cancel a repossession order once a borrower makes a payment.
In one or more recent exams, examiners found that one or more entities were repossessing vehicles after the repossession was supposed to be cancelled. In these instances, the servicer(s) wrongfully coded the account as remaining delinquent, customer service representatives did not timely cancel the repossession order after borrowers made sufficient payments or entered an agreement with the servicer to avoid repossession, or repossession agents had not checked the documentation before repossessing and thus did not learn that the repossession had been cancelled.
Bureau examiners concluded that it was an unfair practice to repossess vehicles where borrowers had brought the account current, entered an agreement with the servicer to avoid repossession, or made a payment sufficient to stop the repossession, where reasonably practicable given the timing of the borrower's action.
Supervision directed the servicer(s) to stop the practice. In response to our examiners' findings, the servicer(s) informed Supervision that the affected consumers were refunded the
Supervision reviewed the credit card account management operations of one or more supervised entities over the past few months. Typically, examiners assess advertising and marketing, account origination, account servicing, payments and periodic statements, dispute resolution, and the marketing, sale and servicing of credit card add-on products. Bureau examiners found that supervised entities generally are complying with Federal consumer financial laws. However, in one or more recent examinations, examiners observed that one or more entities violated Regulation Z and committed the deceptive practices as described below.
Examiners observed that one or more credit card issuers violated Regulation Z by failing to provide the requisite tabular disclosures with the account opening materials provided to numerous cardholders.
During one or more examinations, credit card companies provided consumers with the opportunity to pay their credit card bills by mail, online, or in person free of charge or by using one of two pay-by-phone services. The first pay-by-phone service permitted consumers to make an expedited payment for a predetermined fee, credited the same day or the following business day. The second pay-by-phone service allowed consumers to arrange future payments options free of charge to be credited to the consumer's account as soon as two days after the call. Customer service representatives were given a call script to read to consumers describing both the fee-based expedited payment option and the free future payments option.
A review of calls between customer service representatives and consumers revealed that in one or more examinations representatives did not follow the script in its entirety and often read the script for expedited payments only. Typically, customer service representatives did not inform consumers of any free payment options until after the consumer authorized the expedited phone payment and the customer service representatives did not inform consumers that the payment could be paid free of charge by phone by not expediting when the payment was credited. This practice resulted in consumers incurring fees for expedited payments that could have been avoided. Supervision found this practice was deceptive because these customer service representatives made an implied misrepresentation to consumers paying over the phone that all of the pay-by-phone services carried a fee.
Supervision directed the entity(ies) to establish effective controls over communications to consumers, ensure representatives informed consumers of free payment options prior to authorization of an expedited phone payment, and reimburse fees to consumers impacted by the deceptive representations about the costs and availability of pay-by-phone options.
One or more entities provided its customer service representatives with call scripts that contained basic information about debt cancellation credit card add-on product(s). A review of calls by examiners indicated that customer service representatives often did not read the entire script, and in some instances, did not read the script at all. In one or more instances, the customer service representatives did not correct consumers' stated erroneous assumptions concerning the benefits of the product(s), misrepresented the potential fees, and assured consumer(s) that the product(s) would avoid the accrual of late fees or other penalties.
Supervision found such practices constituted deceptive marketing and sales practices by misrepresenting product features, such as the cost and coverage of the optional debt cancellation add-on product.
Regulation Z requires credit card issuers to follow an error resolution process when a cardholder submits a billing error notice and provides that, during resolution, the cardholder may withhold payment for the disputed amount and the issuer shall not report the disputed amount as delinquent.
During one or more examinations, examiners observed that entities: (1) Failed to provide consumers with a timely written acknowledgement of receipt of a billing error notice;
The root cause of these regulatory violations can, among other things, be attributed to weak oversight of service providers that handle dispute resolution for the card issuers. At one or more entities, management failed to perform sufficient due diligence of a service provider hired to perform intake of incoming phone calls from customers who reported billing errors and other disputes, and ceased doing business with the service provider because of increasing complaints about the service provider's customer service. One or more entities failed to have sufficient documentation of its monitoring of service providers and did not audit its oversight of service providers.
Supervision directed one or more entities to develop a plan that ensures the handling of billing error disputes is corrected, identifies all impacted consumers, and remediates harmed consumers. One or more entities were directed to revise their service provider program(s) to require document retention relating to service provider monitoring and risk assessment reviews.
The Bureau's Supervision program covers certain bank and nonbank creditors that originate and collect their own debt, as well as nonbanks that are larger participants in the debt collection market. These reviews, among other things, evaluate the adequacy of the relevant entities' compliance management systems and communications with consumers. At one or more entities, examiners' review of these systems and practices included activities conducted in a foreign country. During recent examinations of larger participants, examiners identified several violations of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA),
At one or more entities, examiners discovered that debt collectors followed client instructions that led to violations of the FDCPA. Entities can mitigate the risk of an FDCPA violation if they determine whether client instructions would violate the FDCPA before following them.
Under section 805(b) of the FDCPA, a debt collector generally may not communicate with a person other than the consumer in connection with the collection of a debt without permission from the consumer. Examiners determined that one or more entities did not confirm that the correct party had been contacted prior to beginning collection activities. As a result, one or more entities communicated with a third party in connection with the collection of a debt by discussing the debt with an authorized user of a credit card who was not financially responsible for the debt (and who was not otherwise a “consumer” under section 805(b)). In response to these findings, one or more entities enhanced consumer verification processes to include the verification of first and last names, and confirmation of date of birth or the last four digits of Social Security number, before disclosing the debt or the nature of the call to the consumer. Additionally, one or more entities revised their processes to discuss the debt with an authorized user only after explicit authorization from the cardholder. Lastly, the entities trained their collection agents on the enhanced policies and procedures.
Under section 807(10) of the FDCPA, a debt collector may not use false representations or deceptive means to collect or attempt to collect any debt. Examiners determined that one or more entities violated the FDCPA by attempting to collect a debt directly from the authorized user of a credit card even though the authorized user was not financially responsible for the debt. The practice of soliciting payment from a non-obligated user in a manner that implies that the authorized user is personally responsible for the debt constitutes a deceptive means to collect a debt in violation of the FDCPA. One or more entities have undertaken remedial and corrective actions regarding these violations, which are under review by Supervision.
As noted above, a debt collector may not use false representations or deceptive means to collect or attempt to collect any debt under section 807(10) of the FDCPA. Examiners found that one or more entities made false representations to consumers about the effect on their credit score of paying a debt in full rather than settling the debt for less than the full amount. As the CFPB explained in a 2013 bulletin, representations about the impact of paying a debt on a consumer's credit score may be deceptive. The bulletin states that “in light of the numerous factors that influence an individual consumer's credit score, such payments may not improve the credit score of the consumer to whom the representation is being made. Consequently, debt owners or third-party debt collectors may well deceive consumers if they make representations that paying debts in collection will improve a consumer's credit score.”
Under section 805(a)(1) of the FDCPA, a debt collector may not communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt at any unusual time or place or a time or place known or which should be known to be inconvenient to the consumer. Examiners discovered that consumers were contacted by one or more entities outside of the hours of 8:00 a.m. to 9:00 p.m. (which, in the absence of knowledge to the contrary, may be assumed to be convenient) or at times consumers had previously informed the entities were inconvenient. These violations were caused by the failure to accurately update account notes and the use of auto dialers that based call parameters solely on the consumer's area code, rather than also considering the consumer's last known address. Supervision directed one or more entities to enhance compliance monitoring for dialer systems to ensure that they input system parameters accurately and to ensure that they
The CFPB continues to examine banks for compliance with Regulation E as well as review for any unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices (UDAAPs) in connection with deposit accounts. As described in more detail below, CFPB examiners continue to find deceptive acts or practices related to deposit disclosures and representations that incorrectly inform consumers about fees, including conditions when certain fees will apply. Separately, Supervision concluded that one or more institutions were engaging in deceptive acts or practices by misrepresenting deposit overdraft protection products. Examiners also found unfair acts or practices related to conditions where one or more institutions froze deposit accounts. Finally, examiners continue to find issues associated with Regulation E error resolution investigations.
In all cases where examiners found UDAAPs or violations of Regulation E, Supervision directed institutions to make appropriate changes to address the underlying issue(s), as well as enhance compliance management systems to prevent future violations and, where appropriate, to remediate consumers for harm they experienced.
Examiners found that one or more institutions engaged in unfair acts or practices by placing hard holds on customer accounts to stop all activity when the institution(s) observed suspicious activity. These hard holds resulted in the consumers' accounts being locked, resulting in payments not being honored, deposits being rejected, and the consumer lacking access to his or her funds for as long as two weeks. Examiners also found that one or more institutions failed to clearly, consistently, and promptly communicate information about the nature and status of these hard holds to consumers. Examiners found that less drastic measures would have sufficiently addressed the suspicious activity concern in many instances. Even where the hard holds were appropriate, the failure to properly communicate with consumers prevented consumers from being able to take measures to mitigate the injury.
Supervision directed the institution(s) to cease unnecessarily placing hard holds on consumer deposit accounts and to develop and implement policies and procedures to clearly, consistently, and promptly communicate with consumers with respect to hard holds placed on their accounts.
Examiners found that one or more institutions engaged in deceptive acts or practices by representing in deposit account fee schedules that monthly account service fees would be waived under circumstances in which those fees, in fact, would be assessed. One or more institutions offered a deposit product that contained a monthly service fee. The service fee was waived if consumers met certain qualifications. One such qualification—as described in the fee schedules—was if the consumer made ten or more payments from the checking account during a statement cycle. In fact, only debit card purchases and debit card payments qualified toward the fee waiver threshold, and other payments from a consumer's checking account, such as ACH payments, did not qualify. Moreover, only payments that “posted” during the statement cycle qualified toward the waiver and payments that were initiated but not posted during the statement cycle did not qualify. The representations that the institution(s) made in the fee schedules could lead a reasonable consumer to believe that all checking-account payments initiated during the statement cycle would qualify toward the ten-payment fee waiver threshold, a material aspect of the product or service. As a result, Supervision cited the institution(s) for deceptive acts or practices. Supervision directed the institution(s) to ensure that all disclosures regarding the fee waivers include accurate and non-misleading information.
Supervision continues to find violations of Regulation E's error resolution requirements. As noted in the Fall 2014 edition of
Examiners found that one or more institutions violated several of the error resolution provisions of Regulation E. Among other things, examiners observed that one or more entities prematurely closed investigations and denied claims when consumers failed to submit, or delayed in submitting, supplemental information beyond that which financial institutions may require under Regulation E.
In 2010, Federal rules took effect that prohibited banks and credit unions from charging overdraft fees on ATM and one-time debit card transactions unless consumers affirmatively opted in.
Supervision determined that one or more institutions engaged in a deceptive act or practice by misrepresenting their opt-in deposit overdraft protection products when answering inbound telephone calls from consumers, including that:
The overdraft protection product applied to check, automated clearing house (ACH), and recurring bill payment transactions, when the overdraft protection product did not apply to those transactions;
The overdraft protection product would allow a consumer to withdraw more than the daily ATM cash withdrawal limit and be subject to only one overdraft fee. In actuality, a consumer would not have been allowed to surpass the daily ATM cash
The overdraft protection product would take effect on the same day as enrollment, when the product would not actually take effect until the next day.
Supervision determined that these representations misled or were likely to mislead a reasonable consumer regarding a material aspect of the overdraft protection product and that account opening disclosures or subsequent enrollment disclosures did not cure the misleading representations. Supervision directed one or more depository institutions to cease misrepresenting features of their overdraft protection products.
Supervision assessed the mortgage origination operations of one or more supervised entities for compliance with applicable Federal consumer financial laws. Examiners identified instances of regulatory violations and one or more instances where supervised entities engaged in a deceptive practice, as described below.
Supervision has completed its first round of mortgage origination examinations for compliance with the Know Before You Owe mortgage disclosure rule. The Bureau stated that it would be sensitive to the progress made by supervised entities focused on making good faith efforts to come into compliance with the rule upon the effective date of October 3, 2015. Initial examination findings and observations conclude that, for the most part, supervised entities, both banks and nonbanks, were able to effectively implement and comply with the Know Before You Owe mortgage disclosure rule changes. However, examiners did find some violations. Listed below are violations found by examiners relating to the content and timing of Loan Estimates and Closing Disclosures:
Amounts paid by the consumer at closing exceeded the amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate beyond the applicable tolerance threshold;
The entity(ies) failed to retain evidence of compliance with the requirements associated with the Loan Estimate;
The entity(ies) failed to obtain and/or document the consumer's intent to proceed with the transaction prior to imposing a fee in connection with the consumer's application;
Waivers of the three-day review period did not contain a bona fide personal financial emergency;
The entity(ies) failed to provide consumers with a list identifying at least one available settlement service provider, if the creditor permits the consumer to shop for a settlement service;
The entity(ies) failed to disclose the amount payable into an escrow account on the Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure when the consumer elected to escrow taxes and insurance;
Loan Estimates did not include the date and time at which estimated closings cost expire;
The entity(ies) failed to properly disclose on the Closing Disclosure fees the consumer paid prior to closing.
Examiners worked in a collaborative manner with one or more entities to identify the root cause of these violations and determine appropriate corrective actions, including reimbursement to consumers where tolerance violations occurred.
At one or more entities, pursuant to certain disclosure language a specified service deposit was collected from consumers but unused portions were not reimbursed when consumers withdrew their applications. This would constitute unfair acts or practices in those cases where the loans did not proceed to closing due to the entity's unreasonable actions or inactions. Supervision directed each entity to conduct a review to identify impacted consumers. Refunds were provided to consumers where the loan files could not support retention of the service deposit.
Under Regulation Z, a contract or other agreement for a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling (including a home equity line of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling) may not include terms that require arbitration or any other non-judicial procedure to resolve any controversy or settle any claims arising out of the transaction.
Despite this prohibition, at one or more entities examiners identified template language for certain residential loan document(s) containing a notice that the note is subject to arbitration. Supervision concluded that use of the arbitration-related notice constitutes a deceptive act or practice since it is likely to mislead a reasonable consumer into believing that a claim arising under the residential loan document must be submitted to arbitration. After having viewed the notice, a consumer would have been more likely to agree to post-dispute arbitration or to fail to pursue judicial remedies under the mistaken belief that arbitration was required. Supervision directed one or more of the entities to cease further use of the template.
Regulation X provides important process protections for borrowers in financial distress who apply for a foreclosure alternative. Specifically, it requires mortgage servicers to exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining documents and information to complete a loss mitigation application.
While Regulation X permits a servicer to offer a loss mitigation option based on a borrower's incomplete application under certain circumstances,
In recent exams, examiners found that one or more servicers received oral incomplete loss mitigation applications and pre-approved borrowers for short-term payment forbearance programs based on those applications. However, the servicer(s) did not notify borrowers of their right to complete the application and did not separately request other information needed to evaluate for all the other loss mitigation options offered by the owner or assignee of the loan. And near the end of the program, and prior to the end of the short-term payment forbearance period, the servicer(s) failed to conduct outreach to determine whether borrowers wished to complete the application and proceed with a full loss mitigation evaluation.
Supervision determined that the servicer(s) violated Regulation X by failing to exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining documents and information to complete a loss mitigation application.
Supervision previously identified broad waiver of rights clauses in forbearance, loan modification and other loss mitigation options as violating the Dodd-Frank Act's prohibition against unfair or deceptive acts or practices.
Supervision continues to find broad waivers of rights in loss mitigation agreements. For example, in exchange for a short sale agreement, one or more servicers required consumers to completely waive, release, and relinquish any claims of any nature against the servicer(s) arising out of or relating to the mortgage note and any obligations thereunder, and to agree that they had no defenses to payment in full under the note. Supervision determined the waiver to be deceptive and required the servicer(s) to remove it from the agreements.
In one or more servicing exams, Supervision also identified blanket waivers in cash-for-keys agreements that gave borrowers the opportunity to receive a payment in exchange for their commitment to vacate the property by a date certain, thereby avoiding eviction proceedings. The servicer(s) presented the waivers as take-it-or-leave-it boilerplate and a reasonable borrower would have construed them to broadly waive all claims or defenses including any in connection with the original credit transaction that the borrower might have asserted against the servicer(s). Supervision determined the waiver to be deceptive and unfair, and directed the servicer(s) to remove all such waivers from the agreements.
The CFPB continues to examine both large banks and nonbanks for compliance with the CFPB's amendments to Regulation E governing international money transfers (or remittances).
CFPB's examination program for both bank and nonbank remittance providers assesses the adequacy of each entity's CMS for remittance transfers. These reviews also check for providers' compliance with the Remittance Rule and other applicable Federal consumer financial laws. Supervision directed entities to make appropriate changes to compliance management systems to prevent future violations and, where appropriate, to remediate consumers for harm they experienced.
Examiners found that one or more supervised entities violated section 919(a)(1)
Similarly, one or more institutions violated section 919(a)(1) of EFTA and applicable provisions of Regulation E by failing to treat international bill payment services in excess of $15 as remittance transfers and, as a result, failed to comply with the required disclosure, error resolution, and cancellation requirements of the Remittance Rule. Supervision directed entities to make appropriate changes to their CMS in order to prevent future violations.
The Spring 2017 edition of
Examiners reviewed whether one or more service provider(s) adequately considered certain requirements of the Title XIV Final Rule in developing products for mortgage servicers.
The Bureau's Supervision program covers entities that offer or provide payday loans. Such entities often offer other short-term, small dollar (STSD) products to consumers as well such as single payment, installment, or auto or vehicle title loans. During the examinations of STSD entities, examiners identified CMS weaknesses and violations of Federal consumer financial law, including the Dodd-Frank Act's prohibition on UDAAPs. Highlighted below are some of the UDAAP findings in recent examinations regarding collection practices, marketing representations, representations regarding use of references, and payment practices.
As noted in the Spring 2014
Examiners found that one or more entities, in the course of collecting their own debt, called borrowers at their places of employment. The entity(ies) placed repeated calls to borrowers at work even after borrowers asked the lenders to stop calling them at work or told the lenders that the borrowers' employers did not allow such calls. Examiners determined that this collection activity constituted an unfair act or practice. The practice of continuing to call borrowers repeatedly at the workplace after requests to stop causes or is likely to cause substantial injury because continued contact may result in negative employment consequences to the borrower. Borrowers cannot avoid the injury when the lenders continue to make repeated calls after the borrowers requested that they stop. Where the lender has been expressly told to stop contacting the consumer at work or that the employer prohibits such calls, the harm to consumers from continued calling outweighs any countervailing benefits to consumers and competition. One or more lenders have undertaken remedial and corrective actions regarding these violations, which are under review by Supervision.
Examiners observed one or more entities routinely making repeated calls to third parties, including personal and work references that borrowers listed on their loan applications. In some instances, one or more entities repeatedly requested that the third parties relay messages to delinquent borrowers in a manner that disclosed or risk disclosing the debt. The loan applications required consumers to list the names and numbers of third parties and, in some instances, disclosures provided to consumers conveyed that the individuals listed would be contacted by the entity(ies) only as part of the origination and underwriting process. The collection calls to third parties were not made for the purpose of locating the borrowers.
Supervision determined that these collection activities constituted unfair acts or practices. Through these calls, the entity(ies) caused or was likely to cause substantial injury because the entity(ies) either disclosed or risked disclosing borrowers' default or delinquency to third parties. The consumer injury associated with the calls could not be reasonably avoided because the borrowers were not aware that the lenders would contact references or other third parties for debt collection purposes, nor were they aware that one or more lenders would continue to call such references after requests to stop. The benefits to consumers and to competition did not outweigh the injury; the entities had the borrower's location information and therefore had other ways to reach consumers without disclosing or risking disclosure of the borrowers' default or delinquency to third parties. One or more entities have undertaken remedial and corrective actions regarding these violations, which are under review by Supervision.
Examiners observed one or more entities in the course of collecting delinquent or defaulted loans making statements to borrowers that they must immediately contact the lenders to avoid additional collection activity, including being visited at home or work. In fact, the entity(ies) did not actually conduct such in-person collection visits. Supervision concluded these representations constituted deceptive acts or practices. Delinquent consumers could reasonably interpret the entity(ies)' statements to mean that in-
Examiners observed that one or more entities advertised that consumers could receive loans without undergoing credit checks. However, these entity(ies) obtained consumer reports from specialty consumer reporting companies during their underwriting processes and sometimes denied loans to consumers based on the information in the reports. Supervision concluded that this conduct constituted deceptive acts or practices. The advertisements were deceptive because they were likely to mislead reasonable consumers into believing that no credit inquiries would be conducted and thus, they could receive a loan without a credit check. These misrepresentations were likely to influence consumers' decisions to choose to apply for the loans. Supervision directed the one or more entities to cease advertising that consumers could receive loans without credit checks.
Examiners observed that one or more entities advertised products and services in outdoor signage that the entity(ies) did not, in fact, offer. They consisted of products and services that the lenders had not offered for several years but would be of interest to payday loan customers. Supervision concluded that by advertising products and services the entity(ies) did not, in fact, offer, the lenders engaged in deceptive acts or practices. A reasonable consumer could interpret the outdoor advertising to mean that the consumers who wished to purchase the advertised services could do so inside the stores. The representations were material because they impacted a consumer's conduct in terms of whether to visit the stores. Supervision directed the one or more entities to cease advertising products and services that they did not offer.
Examiners observed one or more entities advertising that many of their products and services had substantially lower fees than their competitors' products and services. The entity(ies), however, did not have substantiation to support these claims. The entity(ies) relied on out-of-date internal analyses that only covered fees for a small number of products and services and did not reflect current rates, products, or services or those of their competitors. Supervision concluded that by making these misleading comparisons, the entity(ies) engaged in deceptive acts or practices. The representations were likely to mislead reasonable consumers into believing that the entity(ies) had a basis for claiming that consumers would pay lower fees for the products and services identified in the advertisement. This misrepresentation was material because it likely influenced consumers' decisions to obtain these products and services from the entity(s) over other short-term, small-dollar lenders. Supervision directed one or more entities to cease advertising that their fees were lower than their competitors, absent adequate substantiation.
Examiners observed one or more entities representing on their Web sites that consumers may “apply online” by completing lengthy online forms. The forms solicited all or most of the information that a consumer would typically submit in order to apply for a short-term, small-dollar loan. The forms also permitted consumers to list most states as their home State, suggesting that an application for an online loan was available to consumers nationwide. In fact, consumers could not apply online because the entity(ies) only originate loans at their physical store front locations and do not originate loans based on the purported online loan applications. Consumers could only receive a loan from the lenders if they visited storefront locations. In addition, the entity(ies) only extends credit in a small number of States where they operate, not nationwide. Supervision determined that the entity(ies)' representations constituted deceptive acts or practices. Consumers acting reasonably were likely to view the “apply online” advertisements on the lenders' Web sites and comprehensive online applications as invitations to apply for, and receive, loans online. The representations were material because had consumers understood that they could not obtain a loan from the entity(ies) based on where they lived or that would be required to visit a storefront location to obtain a loan, many consumers would decide not to submit the purported application forms with detailed contact and financial information, and instead seek out other loan options. Supervision directed the one or more entities to revise their Web sites and other marketing materials.
Examiners observed one or more entities making false representations regarding the use of information provided by consumers in loan applications. The entity(ies) required applicants to provide names of references, including work colleagues, neighbors, and family members, on the loan applications. On its loan applications, the entity(ies) represented, directly and by implication, that the references would only be contacted to verify information and evaluate creditworthiness in connection with the consumers' loans. However, the entity(ies) also contacted the applicants' references to market loan products to them. Supervision concluded that the entity(ies), by misleading consumers about how they would use the consumers' references, engaged in deceptive acts or practices. A consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances could interpret the loan applications to mean that the entity(ies) would only contact references in connection with the consumers' loans and that the entity(ies) would not market their services to the individuals identified by consumers as references. The representations were material because they were likely to impact consumer behavior. For example, if borrowers were aware that the entity(ies) makes marketing calls to the references listed on applications, borrowers may provide different references or not apply for the loan at all. Supervision directed one or more lenders to ensure that all disclosures regarding the collection and use of references do not include any false or misleading information.
Examiners also observed one or more entities representing, directly or by implication, in loan applications that the reference information provided by borrowers would be used only to contact references regarding the borrowers' loan applications. The entity(ies) indicated that these references would be “checked,” implying that they would be contacted only at loan origination. Instead, the entity(ies) repeatedly contacted the references when the borrowers' loans became delinquent. Supervision concluded that these representations constituted deceptive acts or practices.
Examiners observed that one or more entities debited the accounts of borrowers who had already paid their debts. Under the applicable loan agreements, the entity(ies) was permitted to initiate ACH debits from the accounts of borrowers whose loans were past due. However, one or more entities sought payment through the ACH system from the accounts of borrowers who had already paid their loans by making cash payments at branch locations. Supervision concluded that failing to implement adequate processes to reasonably avoid unauthorized charges of, debits to, and overpayments by borrowers constituted unfair acts or practices. The failure to prevent successful and unsuccessful payment attempts to the accounts of borrowers who paid their debts caused substantial injury in the form of overpayments and fees. Consumers could not avoid this injury because they were not aware, regardless of whether they were making payments in response to collection efforts, that ACH debits had been initiated. The injury to consumers from failing to have adequate processes to avoid the unauthorized charges, debits and overpayments outweighs the benefits to consumers or competition, given that implementing such processes would not involve excessive costs to the entity(ies). One or more entities have undertaken remedial and corrective actions regarding these violations, which are under review by Supervision.
One or more entities also failed to implement adequate processes to accurately and promptly identify and refund borrowers who paid more than they owed, either in person at stores or via the ACH network. Several consumers did not receive refunds until examiners alerted the entity(ies) to the overpayments, which in some cases was almost a year after the borrowers made the overpayments. Supervision concluded that by failing to implement adequate processes to accurately and promptly monitor, identify, correct, and refund overpayments by consumers, the entity(ies) engaged in unfair acts or practices. The acts or practices caused injury to borrowers who have paid their debts because a number of consumers were deprived of their funds for extended periods of time. They could not avoid the injury because they were unaware that the entity(ies) would double debit their accounts and the consumers have no control over the lenders' refund process. The injury to borrowers from failing to have adequate processes to refund borrowers outweighs the benefits to them or to competition, given that implementing such processes would not involve excessive costs to the entity(ies). One or more entities have undertaken remedial and corrective actions regarding these violations, which are under review by Supervision.
As part of its fair lending work, the Bureau seeks to ensure that creditworthy consumers have access to the full array of appropriate options when they have trouble paying their mortgages, without regard to any prohibited basis. Mortgage servicing, and specifically default servicing, may introduce fair lending risks because of the complexity of certain processes, the range of default servicing options, and the discretion that can sometimes exist in evaluating and selecting among available default servicing options.
In mortgage servicing, our supervisory work has included use of the Mortgage Servicing Exam Procedures and the ECOA Baseline Modules, both of which are part of the CFPB Supervision and Examination Manual. Examination teams use these procedures to conduct ECOA Baseline Reviews, which evaluate institutions' compliance management systems (CMS), or ECOA Targeted Reviews, which are more in-depth reviews of activities that may pose heightened fair lending risks to consumers. As discussed in the Mortgage Servicing Special Edition of
In one or more ECOA targeted reviews of mortgage servicers, CFPB examiners found weaknesses in fair lending CMS. In general, examiners found deficiencies in oversight by board and senior management, monitoring and corrective action processes, compliance audits, and oversight of third-party service providers.
In one or more examinations, data quality issues, which were related to a lack of complete and accurate loan servicing records, made certain fair lending analyses difficult or impossible to perform. Examiners attributed these data quality issues to significant weaknesses in CMS-related policies, procedures, and service provider oversight.
Separately, fair lending analysis at one or more mortgage servicers was affected by a lack of readily-accessible information concerning a borrower's ethnicity, race, and sex information that had been collected pursuant to Regulation B or Regulation C and transferred to the servicer. One or more mortgage servicers acknowledged the importance of retaining in readily-accessible format—for the express purpose of performing future fair lending analyses—ethnicity, race, and sex data that it had received in the borrower's origination file.
On June 7, 2017, the CFPB announced an enforcement action against Fay Servicing for failing to provide mortgage borrowers with certain protections against foreclosure that are required by law.
Fay Servicing failed to send or timely send both acknowledgment and evaluation notices with the relevant, correct information, putting the onus on borrowers to try to determine what else they had to do to attempt to save their homes or otherwise avoid foreclosure. The Bureau also found instances where the servicer illegally launched or moved forward with the foreclosure process while borrowers were actively seeking help to save their homes. The CFPB has ordered Fay Servicing to provide timely and accurate acknowledgment and evaluation notices, to solicit certain consumers for available loss mitigation options and pay up to $1.15 million to harmed borrowers.
On March 15, 2017, the Bureau announced an enforcement action against Nationstar Mortgage LLC, d/b/a Mr. Cooper (Nationstar) for violating the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) by consistently failing to report accurate data from 2012 through 2014, under the version of the HMDA rule that predates the creation of the CFPB.
Through its supervision process, the Bureau found that Nationstar's HMDA compliance systems were flawed and generated mortgage lending data with significant, preventable errors. Nationstar also failed to maintain detailed HMDA data collection and validation procedures, and failed to implement adequate compliance procedures. It also created reporting discrepancies by failing to maintain consistent data definitions among its various lines of business.
Nationstar has a history of HMDA non-compliance. In 2011, the Commonwealth of Massachusetts Division of Banks reached a settlement with Nationstar to address HMDA compliance deficiencies. The loan file samples reviewed by the Bureau showed substantial error rates in three consecutive reporting years, even after the settlement with the Massachusetts Division of Banks. In the samples reviewed, the Bureau found error rates of 13 percent in 2012, 33 percent in 2013, and 21 percent in 2014.
The Bureau's consent order requires Nationstar to pay a $1.75 million penalty to the Bureau's Civil Penalty Fund. Nationstar must also review, correct, and make available its corrected HMDA data from 2012-14. In addition, Nationstar must assess and undertake any necessary improvements to its HMDA compliance management system to prevent future violations. The action includes the largest HMDA civil penalty imposed by the Bureau to date, which stems from Nationstar's market size, the substantial magnitude of its errors, and its history of previous violations.
In addition to the public enforcement actions above, recent supervisory activities have resulted in approximately $14 million in restitution to more than 104,000 consumers. These nonpublic supervisory actions generally have been the product of CFPB supervision and examinations, often involving either examiner findings or self-reported violations of Federal consumer financial law during the course of an examination. Recent nonpublic resolutions were reached in auto finance origination matters.
In the Summer 2015 edition of
In June 2017, the Bureau released a blog which noted that in fiscal year 2016, about one-third of those examinations that were considered through the ARC process were determined appropriate for further investigation for possible public enforcement action. This equated to approximately 10 percent of all examinations in fiscal year 2016.
More detailed information on the number of ARC decisions is presented in Table 1 below. This table reflects the total number of ARC decisions and their outcomes for the fiscal years 2012 through 2016. The numbers in the table do not reflect all supervisory examinations or all enforcement investigations in any given year. Instead, they show the ARC decisions made on the subset of matters that go through the ARC process, which are generally those examinations in which the exam team found evidence of significant violations of Federal consumer financial law. These numbers are also reflective in part of the Bureau's risk-based approach to supervision. Pursuant to that approach, the Bureau concentrates its efforts on institutions and product lines that it determines through its analytical prioritization process pose the greatest risk to consumers.
As reflected in the table, since 2014, the number of matters raising issues that trigger the ARC process and the number of those matters that are determined appropriate for further investigation for possible public enforcement action moving to enforcement—in whole or in part—have remained somewhat consistent. Taken together, about a third of the ARC decisions in fiscal years 2014 to 2016 were determined appropriate for further investigation for possible public enforcement action. Any violations identified in the remaining matters were determined appropriate to be resolved through confidential supervisory action.
The Bureau commits to publishing ARC data going forward at the conclusion of each fiscal year, beginning with the data for fiscal year 2017 in the next edition of
As reported in previous editions of
The effective date of the change in the Federal agency that receives and processes the HMDA data does not coincide with the effective date for the new HMDA data to be collected and reported under the Final Rule amending Regulation C published in the
Additional information about HMDA, the HMDA Filing Instructions Guide (FIG) and other data submission resources are located at:
As part of its supervision of very large banks and nonbank mortgage lenders, the CFPB reviews the accuracy of HMDA data and the adequacy of HMDA compliance programs. In 2013, the CFPB issued a bulletin reminding mortgage lenders about the importance of submitting correct mortgage loan data. The CFPB has conducted HMDA reviews at dozens of bank and nonbank mortgage lenders, and has found that many lenders have adequate compliance systems and produce HMDA data with few errors. Moreover, while some lenders have been required to resubmit their HMDA data because their errors exceeded the relevant resubmission thresholds, most of those matters have been addressed through a supervisory resolution.
As noted above, the 2015 Final Rule's new data requirements will apply to data collected beginning on January 1, 2018. Given the recent updates to the rule, the Bureau's current principal focus is on providing regulatory implementation support to financial institutions, to assist them in operationally implementing the recent changes to the HMDA requirements. After the rule takes effect, consistent with our approach to the implementation of other Bureau rules requiring significant systems and operational changes, our approach will generally be diagnostic and corrective, not punitive. In our initial examinations for compliance with the rule, we intend to consider whether companies have made good faith efforts to come into compliance with the rule in a timely manner. Specifically, we will be evaluating a company's overall efforts to come into compliance, including assessing the compliance management system and conducting transaction testing. If errors are identified, we will work with the institution to determine the root cause of the issue and determine what corrective actions, if any, are necessary.
In August 2017, the FFIEC, of which the Bureau is a member agency, released the
When examining financial institutions, federal supervisory agencies may check the accuracy of HMDA data within a sample of reported transactions. If examiners find that the number of errors in the sample exceeds certain thresholds, the lender is directed to correct and resubmit its HMDA data.
In light of the new data fields that will be required beginning in 2018, the new Guidelines:
Eliminate the file error resubmission threshold under which a financial institution would be directed to correct and resubmit its entire Loan Application Register (LAR) if the total number of sample files with one or more errors equaled or exceeded a certain threshold.
Establish, for the purpose of counting errors toward the field error resubmission threshold, allowable tolerances for certain data fields.
Provide a more lenient 10 percent field error resubmission threshold for financial institutions with LAR counts of 100 or less, many of which are community banks and credit unions.
At the same time, the Guidelines ensure HMDA data integrity by maintaining field error resubmission thresholds that safeguard the accuracy of each data field, and thus all data, reported under HMDA. Furthermore, under the Guidelines, examiners may direct financial institutions to change their policies, procedures, audit processes, or other aspects of its compliance management system to prevent the reoccurrence of errors.
The Guidelines represent a joint effort by the Bureau, the FRB, the OCC, the FDIC, and the NCUA to provide—for the first time—uniform guidelines across all Federal HMDA supervisory agencies. This collaboration began with the Bureau issuing a Request for Information
Information about HMDA and other data submission resources are located at
On August 30, 2017, the CFPB released revised Compliance Management Review examination procedures. The procedures were updated in order to reflect changes to the FFIEC Interagency Consumer Compliance Ratings System (CC Ratings System), which became effective March 31, 2017. These procedures do not reflect any new or additional expectations of institutions regarding their CMS, nor do they change the examiner's assessment from that which examiners have been conducting in the past: They only reorganize the procedures to align with the CC Ratings System and formalize current CMS review processes.
As revised, the CMS examination procedures are divided into five Modules:
In general, all CFPB reviews will include Modules 1, 2, 3, and 5. Module 4 will generally be included in targeted reviews of individual product lines, as well as examinations that will result in the institution receiving a consumer compliance rating. The CMS review for target reviews will generally be limited to reviewing aspects of CMS pertaining to the product line under review. To the extent that CMS for a particular product line or a specific institution has been previously reviewed, CFPB examiners may evaluate CMS by reviewing previous conclusions and assessing only the changes to the current CMS program.
The CFPB is committed to providing guidance on its supervisory priorities to industry and members of the public.
On July 31, 2017, the Bureau released Bulletin 2017-01,
The Bureau recognizes the value of communicating its program findings to CFPB-supervised entities to help them comply with Federal consumer financial law, and to other stakeholders to foster a better understanding of the CFPB's work.
To this end, the Bureau remains committed to publishing its
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice of availability (NOA).
DLA announces the availability of an Environmental Assessment (EA) documenting the potential environmental effects associated with the Proposed Action to construct and operate a DLA Disposition Services Complex at DLA Disposition Services Red River, Texas, which is on the Red River Army Depot. The EA has been prepared as required under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA).
The public comment period will end on November 20, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by DOD-2017-OS-0057, to one of the following:
•
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Ira Silverberg at 703-767-0705 during normal business hours Monday through Friday, from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. (EDT) or by email:
The EA complies with 32 Code of Federal
Comments received by the end of the 30-day period will be considered when preparing the final version of the documents. The EA is available electronically at the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before December 18, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following qualifying facility filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
On September 29, 2017, Big Chino Valley Pumped Storage LLC (Big Chino) filed an application for a preliminary permit, pursuant to section 4(f) of the Federal Power Act, proposing to study the feasibility of the Big Chino Valley Pumped Storage Project (project) to be located near Chino Valley in Yavapai, Coconino, and Mohave Counties, Arizona. The sole purpose of a preliminary permit, if issued, is to grant the permit holder priority to file a license application during the permit term. A preliminary permit does not authorize the permit holder to perform any land-disturbing activities or otherwise enter upon lands or waters owned by others without the owners' express permission.
The proposed project will be closed-loop. Water to initially fill the reservoirs and required make-up water will be pumped from locally available groundwater sources. The proposed project would consist of an upper and lower reservoir, a 10.1-mile-long water conveyance system connecting the two reservoirs, a powerhouse, and three 500-kV transmission lines. A 2,900-foot-long, 360-foot-high rockfill, concrete-faced dam would be constructed to form the 50-acre upper reservoir, which would have a storage capacity of 19,739-acre-foot at an elevation of 6,560 feet. A 2,700-foot-long, 250-foot-high rockfill, concrete-faced dam would be constructed to form a 50-acre lower reservoir with a storage capacity of 19,811-acre-foot at an elevation of 5,294 feet. Water would be conveyed from the upper reservoir to the lower reservoir via two upper reservoir inlet/outlets, two vertical shafts, two horizontal power tunnels, two penstock manifold tunnels, and eight 12-foot-diameter, steel-lined penstocks. The powerhouse would contain eight pump-turbine/motor-generator units rated at 250 MW each. From the powerhouse, water will discharge into eight, 16-foot diameter draft tubes from each unit and then into two, 32-foot-diameter tailrace tunnels, which will discharge into the lower reservoir through a lower reservoir inlet/outlet structure. Project power would be transmitted through a 30-mile-long 500-kilovolt (kV), line traversing northerly to interconnect with the existing Arizona Public Service owned- and operated Eldorado-Moenkopi 500-kV line or a planned and sited new Dine Navajo Transmission Project 500-kV line from Moenkopi to Marketplace; a 54-mile long 500-kV traversing westerly to interconnect with an existing Western Area Power Administration owned and operated 230-kV line from Prescott to Peacock that would be upgraded to 500 kV; and a 47-mile-long 500-kV line traversing easterly to interconnect with two Navajo Southern Transmission 500-kV lines owned by participants of the Navajo Generating Plant and operated by Arizona Public Service.
The estimated annual generation of the project would be 4,614 gigawatt-hours.
Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, competing applications (without notices of intent), or notices of intent to file competing applications: 60 days from the issuance of this notice. Competing applications and notices of intent must meet the requirements of 18 CFR 4.36.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, notices of intent, and competing applications using the Commission's eFiling system at
More information about this project, including a copy of the application, can be viewed or printed on the eLibrary link of Commission's Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is announcing its receipt of information submitted pursuant to a rule, order, or consent agreement issued under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). As required by TSCA, this document identifies each chemical substance and/or mixture for which information has been received; the uses or intended uses of such chemical substance and/or mixture; and describes the nature of the information received. Each chemical substance and/or mixture related to this announcement is identified in Unit I. under
Information received about the following chemical substance(s) and/or mixture(s) is provided in Unit IV.:
Section 4(d) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2603(d)) requires EPA to publish a notice in the
A docket, identified by the docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2013-0677, has been established for this
EPA's dockets are available electronically at
As specified by TSCA section 4(d), this unit identifies the information received by EPA:
1.
2.
3.
• Request for exemption from testing requirements.
The docket ID number assigned to this information is EPA-HQ-OPPT-2007-0531.
15 U.S.C. 2601
Export-Import Bank of the United States.
Submission for OMB review and comments request.
The Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM), as a part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to comment on the proposed information collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
This collection of information is necessary to determine eligibility of the export sales for insurance coverage. The Report of Premiums Payable for Financial Institutions Only is used to determine the eligibility of the shipment(s) and to calculate the premium due to Ex-Im Bank for its support of the shipment(s) under its insurance program. Export-Import Bank customers will be able to submit this form on paper or electronically.
By neutralizing the effect of export credit support offered by foreign governments and by absorbing credit risks that the private sector will not accept, EXIM enables U.S. exporters to compete fairly in foreign markets on the basis of price and product. Under the Working Capital Guarantee Program, EXIM provides repayment guarantees to lenders on secured, short-term working capital loans made to qualified exporters. The guarantee may be approved for a single loan or a revolving line of credit. In the event that a buyer defaults on a transaction insured by EXIM, the insured exporter or lender may seek payment by the submission of a claim.
Comments must be received on or before December 18, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Comments may be submitted electronically on
Form can be viewed at
Pursuant to the provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b), notice is hereby given that at 10:00 a.m. on Tuesday, October 17, 2017, the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation met in closed session to consider matters related to the Corporation's supervision, corporate, and resolution activities.
In calling the meeting, the Board determined, on motion of Vice Chairman Thomas M. Hoenig, seconded by Director Richard Cordray (Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau), concurred in by Director Keith A. Noreika (Acting Comptroller of the Currency), and Chairman Martin J. Gruenberg, that Corporation business required its consideration of the matters which were to be the subject of this meeting on less than seven days' notice to the public; that no earlier notice of the meeting was practicable; that the public interest did not require consideration of the matters in a meeting open to public observation; and that the matters could be considered in a closed meeting by authority of subsections (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(6), (c)(8), (c)(9)(A)(ii), (c)(9)(B), and (c)(10) of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(6), (c)(8), (c)(9)(A)(ii), (c)(9)(B), and (c)(10).
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of delisting.
The Patient Safety Rule authorizes AHRQ, on behalf of the Secretary of HHS, to list as a PSO an entity that attests that it meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for listing. A PSO can be “delisted” by the Secretary if it is found to no longer meet the requirements of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, when a PSO chooses to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO for any reason, or when a PSO's listing expires. AHRQ has accepted a notification of voluntary relinquishment from the American College of Physicians Patient Safety Organization of its status as a PSO, and has delisted the PSO accordingly.
The directories for both listed and delisted PSOs are ongoing and reviewed weekly by AHRQ. The delisting was applicable at 12:00 Midnight ET (2400) on October 10, 2017.
Both directories can be accessed electronically at the following HHS Web site:
Eileen Hogan, Center for Quality Improvement and Patient Safety, AHRQ, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 06N94B, Rockville, MD 20857; Telephone (toll free): (866) 403-3697; Telephone (local): (301) 427-1111; TTY (toll free): (866) 438-7231; TTY (local): (301) 427-1130; Email:
The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005, 42 U.S.C. 299b-21 to b-26, (Patient Safety Act) and the related Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Final Rule, 42 CFR part 3 (Patient Safety Rule), published in the
The Patient Safety Act authorizes the listing of PSOs, which are entities or component organizations whose mission and primary activity are to conduct activities to improve patient safety and the quality of health care delivery.
HHS issued the Patient Safety Rule to implement the Patient Safety Act. AHRQ administers the provisions of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule relating to the listing and operation of PSOs. The Patient Safety Rule authorizes AHRQ to list as a PSO an entity that attests that it meets the statutory and regulatory requirements for listing. A PSO can be “delisted” if it is found to no longer meet the requirements of the Patient Safety Act and Patient Safety Rule, when a PSO chooses to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO for any reason, or when a PSO's listing expires. Section 3.108(d) of the Patient Safety Rule requires AHRQ to provide public notice when it removes an organization from the list of federally approved PSOs.
AHRQ has accepted a notification from the American College of Physicians Patient Safety Organization, a component entity of American College of Physicians, PSO number P0128, to voluntarily relinquish its status as a PSO. Accordingly, the American College of Physicians Patient Safety Organization was delisted effective at 12:00 Midnight ET (2400) on October 10, 2017.
The American College of Physicians Patient Safety Organization has patient safety work product (PSWP) in its possession. The PSO will meet the requirements of section 3.108(c)(2)(i) of the Patient Safety Rule regarding notification to providers that have reported to the PSO and of section 3.108(c)(2)(ii) regarding disposition of PSWP consistent with section 3.108(b)(3). According to section 3.108(b)(3) of the Patient Safety Rule, the PSO has 90 days from the effective date of delisting and revocation to complete the disposition of PSWP that is currently in the PSO's possession.
More information on PSOs can be obtained through AHRQ's PSO Web site at
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, HHS.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by November 20, 2017.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs,
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
William Parham at (410) 786-4669.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
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Coast Guard, DHS.
Thirty-day notice requesting comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 the U.S. Coast Guard is forwarding an Information Collection Request (ICR), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), requesting approval for reinstatement, without change, of the following collection of information: 1625-0119, Coast Guard Exchange System Scholarship Application. Our ICR describes the information we seek to collect from the public. Review and comments by OIRA ensure we only impose paperwork burdens commensurate with our performance of duties.
Comments must reach the Coast Guard and OIRA on or before November 20, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Coast Guard docket number [USCG-2016-0598] to the Coast Guard using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
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A copy of the ICR is available through the docket on the Internet at
Mr. Anthony Smith, Office of Information Management, telephone 202-475-3532, or fax 202-372-8405, for questions on these documents.
This Notice relies on the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended. An ICR is an application to OIRA seeking the approval, extension, or renewal of a Coast Guard collection of information (Collection). The ICR contains information describing the Collection's purpose, the Collection's likely burden on the affected public, an explanation of the necessity of the Collection, and other important information describing the Collection. There is one ICR for each Collection.
The Coast Guard invites comments on whether this ICR should be granted based on the Collection being necessary for the proper performance of Departmental functions. In particular, the Coast Guard would appreciate comments addressing: (1) The practical utility of the Collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the Collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of information subject to the Collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the Collection on respondents,
We encourage you to respond to this request by submitting comments and related materials. Comments to Coast Guard or OIRA must contain the OMB Control Number of the ICR. They must also contain the docket number of this request, [USCG-2016-0598], and must be received by November 20, 2017.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
OIRA posts its decisions on ICRs online at
This request provides a 30-day comment period required by OIRA. The Coast Guard has published the 60-day notice (81 FR 95154, December 27, 2016) required by 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2). That Notice elicited no comments. Accordingly, no changes have been made to the Collections.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of accreditation and approval of AmSpec LLC (Plainfield, IL), as a commercial gauger and laboratory.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to CBP regulations, that AmSpec LLC (Plainfield, IL), has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes for the next three years as of April 26, 2017.
AmSpec LLC (Plainfield, IL) was approved and accredited as a commercial gauger and laboratory as of April 26, 2017. The next triennial inspection date will be scheduled for April 2020.
Christopher J. Mocella, Laboratories and Scientific Services Directorate, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1500N, Washington, DC 20229, tel. 202-344-1060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13, that AmSpec LLC, 12351 South Industrial Drive East, Plainfield, IL 60585, has been approved to gauge petroleum and certain petroleum products and accredited to test petroleum and certain petroleum products for customs purposes, in accordance with the provisions of 19 CFR 151.12 and 19 CFR 151.13. AmSpec LLC is approved for the following gauging procedures for petroleum and certain petroleum products from the American Petroleum Institute (API):
AmSpec LLC is accredited for the following laboratory analysis procedures and methods for petroleum and certain petroleum products set forth by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection Laboratory Methods (CBPL) and American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM):
Anyone wishing to employ this entity to conduct laboratory analyses and gauger services should request and receive written assurances from the entity that it is accredited or approved by the U.S. Customs and Border Protection to conduct the specific test or gauger service requested. Alternatively, inquiries regarding the specific test or gauger service this entity is accredited or approved to perform may be directed to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection by calling (202) 344-1060. The inquiry may also be sent to
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) is proposing to renew an information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before December 18, 2017.
Send your comments on the information collection request (ICR) by mail to Ms. Laurel Iron Cloud, Chief, Division of Tribal Government Services, Office of Indian Services, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 1849 C Street NW., Mail Stop 4513 MIB, Washington, DC 20240; facsimile: (202) 208-5113; email:
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Ms. Laurel Iron Cloud, telephone (202) 513-7641.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
We are soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of the BIA (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the BIA enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the BIA minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. We will include or summarize each comment in our request to OMB to approve this ICR. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of realty action.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) has examined 28.69 acres of public land located in Kootenai County, Idaho, and found it suitable for classification for lease and conveyance under the provisions of the Recreation and Public Purposes (R&PP) Act, as amended.
In order to be considered in the classification determination, all comments must be received or postmarked no later than December 4, 2017.
You may submit written comments by either of the following methods:
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Documents pertinent to this proposal may be examined at the BLM Coeur d'Alene Field Office at the above address during regular business hours (7:45 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.). Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
For further information and/or to have your name added to our mailing list, contact Janna Paronto, Realty Specialist, at the above address or phone 208-769-5037, or visit the BLM project Web site at
The City of Coeur d'Alene, Idaho submitted an application to the BLM to lease and eventually acquire the subject parcel of land for use as a park, under the authority of the R&PP Act, as amended. The parcel, which is located in the city limits within an abandoned railroad right-of-way corridor, is described as:
The area described contains 28.69 acres as shown on the official survey plat dated January 18, 2002.
The described parcel is not needed for any Federal purpose. The classification is in the public interest and is consistent with the BLM Coeur d'Alene Resource Management Plan, dated June 29, 2007 and the Resource Management Plan Amendment approved on May 26, 2017.
Effective upon publication of this Notice in the
Interested parties may submit written comments regarding the classification. Comments on the classification should be limited to whether the land is physically suited for the proposed use, and whether the use is consistent with local planning and zoning, as well as State and Federal programs. Any adverse comments concerning the classification decision will be reviewed by the authorized officer, who may sustain, vacate, or modify the realty action.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask the BLM in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
43 CFR 2741.5(h).
National Park Service, Interior.
Cancellation of meeting.
Notice is hereby given in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the September 13, 2016, meeting of the Wekiva River System Advisory Management Committee previously announced in the
Jaime Doubek-Racine, Community Planner and Designated Federal Official, Rivers, Trails, and Conservation Assistance Program, Florida Field Office, Southeast Region, 5342 Clark Road, PMB #123, Sarasota, Florida 34233, or via telephone (941) 685-5912.
The Wekiva River System Advisory Management Committee was established by Public Law 106-299 to assist in the development of the comprehensive management plan for the Wekiva River System and provide advice to the Secretary of the Interior in carrying out management responsibilities of the Secretary under the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16 U.S.C. 1274).
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), instituted these reviews on March 1, 2017 (82 FR 12238) and determined on June 5, 2017 that it would conduct expedited reviews (82 FR 32871, July 18, 2017).
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). It completed and filed its determinations in these reviews on October 13, 2017. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4733 (October 2017), entitled
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission (“the Commission”) has determined to review in part the final initial determination (“ID”) issued by the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) finding in part a violation of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, in the above-referenced investigation on August 10, 2017. The Commission requests certain briefing from the parties on the issues under review, as indicated in this notice. The Commission also requests briefing from the parties and interested persons on the issues of remedy, the public interest, and bonding.
Michael Liberman, Esq., Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3115. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
The Commission instituted Inv. No. 337-TA-1007,
On September 21, 2016, the Commission instituted Inv. No. 337-TA-1021,
Subsequently, the Commission determined not to review an ID finding respondents PhunkeeDuck, Inc. and Segaway in default. Order No. 9 (Sept. 1, 2016) (
The Commission likewise determined not to review an ID granting a motion to terminate the investigation as to the '763 patent. Order No. 19 (Dec. 16, 2016) (
Furthermore, the Commission determined to review an ID terminating respondent Inventist, Inc. in this investigation based on a Consent Order Stipulation and proposed Consent Order. Order No. 25 (Jan. 31, 2017) (Notice of Review issued Feb. 22, 2017 (“Notice of Review”)). The Commission requested corrections to be made in the proposed Consent Order.
The Commission also determined not to review an ID to terminate this investigation as to Razor USA, LLC based on a Settlement Agreement and Release. Order No. 28 (Mar. 22, 2017) (
As a result, the following two patents (and 13 claims) and two trademarks remain at issue in this investigation: Claims 1, 3-5, and 7 of the `230 patent; claims 1-4 and 6 of the `607 patent; U.S. Trademark Registration No. 2,727,948; and U.S. Trademark Registration No. 2,769,942. The following respondents participated in the evidentiary hearing and remain in the investigation: Airwheel, Chic, Jetson, Powerboard, and Swagway.
The evidentiary hearing on the question of violation of section 337 was held from April 18 through April 21, 2017. The final ID finding in part a violation of section 337 was issued on August 10, 2017. The ALJ issued his recommended determination on remedy, the public interest and bonding on August 22, 2017. The ALJ recommended that if the Commission finds a violation of section 337 in the present investigation, the Commission should: (1) Issue a general exclusion order (“GEO”) covering accused products found to infringe the asserted patents; (2) issue a limited exclusion order (“LEO”) covering accused products found to infringe the asserted patents if the Commission does not issue a GEO; (3) issue an LEO covering accused products found to infringe the asserted trademarks; (4) issue cease and desist orders; and (5) not require a bond during the Presidential review period. RD at 1-2; 18. No public interest statements were filed by the public in this investigation.
All parties to this investigation that participated in the evidentiary hearing (with the exception of respondent Powerboard) filed timely petitions for review of various portions of the final ID. The parties likewise filed timely responses to the petitions.
On September 11, 2017, Complainants filed a “Request For Acceptance of Memorandum Correcting Misstatements of the Record Found In Respondents Chic's and Airwheel's Oppositions and OUII'S Response to Complainant's Petition For Review” (“Request”). The IA and Respondents Chic and Airwheel filed timely responsive pleadings opposing Complainants' Request. The Commission notes that no such further briefing is normally permitted, and that in any event it can resolve the relevant facts from the established record in this Investigation without additional briefing from Complainants or any other party in determining whether to review the final ID. Accordingly, Complainants' Request is denied.
Having examined the record in this investigation, including the final ID, the petitions for review, and the responses thereto, the Commission has determined to review the final ID in part. In particular, the Commission has determined as follows:
(1) To review the ID's determination that the claim term “maximum operating velocity” should be construed to mean “a variable maximum velocity where adequate acceleration potential is available to enable balance and control of the vehicle,”
(2) to review the ID's determination that “nothing in the plain language of the disputed limitation [`the motorized drive arrangement causing, when powered, automatically balanced operation of the system'] from claim 1 of the '230 patent requires the operation by a rider. The claim only requires the `motorized drive arrangement causing, when powered, automatically balanced operation of the system,' ”
(3) to review the ID's infringement, validity, and domestic industry (technical prong) determinations pertaining to the '230 patent;
(4) to review the instances in the ID that refer to a disclaimer of “manual input” with respect to the '607 patent. On review, the Commission finds that this disclaimer is actually a disclaimer of “manual input via joystick.” The Commission notes that the ID uses these terms interchangeably and determines not to review any other portion of the ID's analysis or findings pertaining to this disclaimer. The Commission's analysis on this issue will be provided in our opinion, which will issue upon conclusion of the investigations;
(5) to review the ID's finding with respect to actual confusion regarding the SWAGWAY mark,
In addition, the Commission has determined to correct two typographical errors: In the first line of the last paragraph on page 170 “the Swagway `trademark” is replaced with “the Segway `trademark”; and in the first line on page 171 “`Swagway'” is replaced with “`Segway'”.
The Commission has determined not to review the remainder of the ID.
The parties are requested to brief their positions on only the following issues, with reference to the applicable law and the evidentiary record:
1. The ID determined with respect to the '230 patent that “the claim term `maximum operating velocity' should be construed to mean `a variable maximum velocity where adequate acceleration potential is available to enable balance and control of the vehicle.' ” ID at 44.
a. Does intrinsic evidence support the ID's above determination?
b. Does extrinsic evidence support the ID's above determination?
2. The ID determined with respect to the `230 patent that “nothing in the plain language of the disputed limitation [`the motorized drive arrangement causing, when powered, automatically balanced operation of the system'] from claim 1 of the `230 patent requires the operation by a rider. The claim only requires the `motorized drive arrangement causing, when powered, automatically balanced operation of the system.' ” ID at 82.
a. Does intrinsic evidence support the ID's above determination?
b. Does extrinsic evidence support the ID's above determination?
In connection with the final disposition of this investigation, the Commission may (1) issue an order that could result in the exclusion of the subject articles from entry into the United States, and/or (2) issue one or more cease and desist orders that could result in the respondents being required to cease and desist from engaging in unfair acts in the importation and sale of such articles. Accordingly, the Commission is interested in receiving written submissions that address the form of remedy, if any, that should be ordered, including against the defaulted respondents. If a party seeks exclusion of an article from entry into the United States for purposes other than entry for consumption, the party should so indicate and provide information establishing that activities involving other types of entry either are adversely affecting it or are likely to do so. For background, see
If the Commission contemplates some form of remedy, it must consider the effects of that remedy upon the public interest. The factors the Commission will consider include the effect that an exclusion order and/or cease and desist orders would have on (1) the public health and welfare, (2) competitive conditions in the U.S. economy, (3) U.S. production of articles that are like or directly competitive with those that are subject to investigation, and (4) U.S. consumers. The Commission is therefore interested in receiving written submissions that address the aforementioned public interest factors in the context of this investigation.
If the Commission orders some form of remedy, the U.S. Trade Representative, as delegated by the President, has 60 days to approve or disapprove the Commission's action.
Complainants are further requested to provide the expiration date of the `230 patent, the HTSUS numbers under which the accused articles are imported, and any known importers of the accused products. The written submissions and proposed remedial orders must be filed no later than the close of business on October 30, 2017. Reply submissions must be filed no later than the close of business on November 6, 2017. No further submissions on these issues will be permitted unless otherwise ordered by the Commission.
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“ `Inv. No. 337-TA-1007,' `Investigation No. 337-TA-1021' (Consolidated))” in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, and in Part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR part 210.
By order of the Commission.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation (NSF) announces the following meeting:
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft guidance; public meeting and request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is requesting comment on the draft revision to its guidance document for alternative disposal requests entitled, “Guidance for the Reviews of Proposed Disposal Procedures and Transfers of Radioactive Material Under 10 CFR 20.2002 and 10 CFR 40.13(a).”
Submit comments by December 18, 2017. Comments received after this date will be considered if it is practical to do so, but the NRC is able to assure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Robert Lee Gladney, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-1022; email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0198 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2017-0198 in your submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC posts all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
In 2007, following developments in the national program for Low-Level Radioactive Waste disposal (LLRW), as well as changes in the regulatory environment, the NRC conducted a Strategic Assessment of the NRC's regulatory program for LLRW. The results of this assessment were published in late 2007 in SECY-07-0180, “Strategic Assessment of Low-Level Radioactive Waste Regulatory Program” (ADAMS Accession No. ML071350299). The goal of the 2007 assessment was to identify and prioritize staff activities that: (1) Ensure safe and secure LLRW disposal; (2) improve the effectiveness, efficiency, and adaptability of the NRC's LLRW regulatory program; and (3) ensure regulatory stability and predictability,
One high priority task (Task 2) in the Strategic Assessment was to address the challenge of alternative disposal of Very Low-Level Waste (VLLW), in accordance with § 20.2002 of title 10 of the
On August 31, 2009, the NRC issued interim staff procedure, “Review, Approval, and Documentation of Low-Activity Waste Disposals in Accordance with 10 CFR 20.2002 and 10 CFR 40.13(a)” (ADAMS Accession No. ML092460058). Prior to its issuance, there had been no single procedure covering safety and security reviews, the preparation of an environmental assessment, and coordination with internal and external stakeholders for alternative disposal requests. Accordingly, this document was developed and issued to provide consistency and guidance for NRC staff's review of alternative disposal requests received from licensees, applicants, and other entities for alternative disposal of licensed material. In addition, the NRC determined that this guidance would be finalized after it had been implemented and used for more alternative disposal requests.
In order to set the direction for the NRC's LLRW regulatory program in the next several years, including the alternative disposal request review process, the NRC decided to conduct a new evaluation of the NRC's LLRW program (referred to as a Programmatic Assessment). The results of this assessment were published in October 2016, in SECY-16-0118, “Programmatic Assessment of Low-Level Radioactive Waste Regulatory Program” (ADAMS Accession No. ML15243A192). The objectives of the 2016 assessment were similar to the objectives of the 2007 Strategic Assessment. Both assessments also have considered future needs and changes that may occur in the nation's commercial LLRW management system. One of the high priority tasks (Task 5) included within Enclosure 1 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15243A205) of the Programmatic Assessment was to address the challenge of alternative disposal of VLLW by finalizing the draft guidance document. Per the Programmatic Assessment, this final draft would be published for public comment, then issued as a final document.
Accordingly, the purpose of this draft revision to the guidance is to improve the alternative disposal process by providing more clarity, consistency, and transparency to the process. In addition, this draft revision to the guidance also clarifies the meaning of disposal relative to 10 CFR 20.2002 authorizations to include recycling and reuse of materials. The draft revision to the guidance is available for public comment as ADAMS Accession No. ML16326A063. The NRC is interested in receiving comments related to the draft revision to the guidance from stakeholders, including professional organizations, licensees, Agreement States, and members of the public. Comments will be considered to determine if additional changes to the draft revision to the guidance and the alternative disposal request process are needed.
During the comment period, the NRC will conduct a public meeting at the NRC's Headquarters that will explain the draft revision to the guidance and address questions. Information regarding the public meeting will be posted on the NRC's public meeting Web site at least 10 calendar days before the meeting. The NRC's public meeting Web site is located at
The NRC will also post the meeting notice on the Federal rulemaking Web site at
The NRC staff will treat all public feedback as public comments on the draft revision to the guidance and consider them as it finalizes the revision to the guidance.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Regulatory guide; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing Revision 5 to Regulatory Guide (RG) 1.28, “Quality Assurance Program Criteria (Design and Construction).” This regulatory guide (RG 1.28) updates the guidance to endorse, with clarification or exceptions, multiple revisions of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers standard NQA-1 titled “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications.” The proposed revision describes methods that the NRC considers acceptable for establishing and implementing a quality assurance (QA) program for the design and construction of nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants.
Revision 5 to RG 1.28 is available on October 19, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0079 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Regulatory guides are not copyrighted, and NRC approval is not required to reproduce them.
Ashley Ferguson, Office of New Reactors, telephone: 301-415-6638, email:
The NRC is issuing a revision to an existing guide in the NRC's “Regulatory Guide” series. This series was developed to describe and make available to the public information regarding methods that are acceptable to the NRC staff for implementing specific parts of the agency's regulations, techniques that the NRC staff uses in evaluating specific issues or postulated events, and data that the NRC staff needs in its review of applications for permits and licenses.
Revision 5 of RG 1.28 was issued with a temporary identification of Draft Regulatory Guide, DG-1326. This revision of the guide (Revision 5) updates the guidance to endorse, with clarification or exceptions, multiple revisions of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers standard NQA-1 titled “Quality Assurance Requirements for Nuclear Facility Applications.”
The NRC published a notice of the availability of DG-1326 in the
This RG is a rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found it to be a major rule as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
This RG 1.28 describes methods that the NRC considers acceptable for establishing and implementing a QA program for the design and construction of nuclear power plants and fuel reprocessing plants. Issuance of this RG does not constitute backfitting as defined in § 50.109 of title 10 of the
This RG may be applied to applications for operating licenses, combined licenses, early site permits, and certified design rules docketed by the NRC as of the date of issuance of this RG, as well as future applications submitted after the issuance of the regulatory guide. Such action would not constitute backfitting as defined in the Backfit Rule or be otherwise inconsistent with the applicable issue finality provision in part 52, inasmuch as such applicants or potential applicants are not within the scope of entities protected by the Backfit Rule or the relevant issue finality provisions in part 52.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The purpose of the RUIA Claims Notification and Verification System is to provide two notices, pre-payment Form ID-4K, Prepayment Notice of Employees' Applications and Claims for Benefits Under the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act, and post-payment Form ID-4E, Notice of RUIA Claim Determination. Prepayment Form ID-4K provides notice to a claimant's base-year employer(s), of each unemployment application and unemployment and sickness claim filed for benefits under the RUIA and provides the employer an opportunity to convey information relevant to the proper adjudication of the claim.
The railroad employer can elect to receive Form ID-4K by one of three options: A computer-generated paper notice, by Electronic Data Interchange (EDI), or online via the RRB's Employer Reporting System (ERS). The railroad employer can respond to the ID-4K notice by telephone, manually by mailing a completed ID-4K back to the RRB, or electronically via EDI or ERS. Completion is voluntary. The RRB proposes to replace using EDI with the use of secure File Transfer Protocol (FTP), which is the standard network protocol used for transferring files between a railroad employer and the RRB. The RRB proposes no changes to the other versions of the ID-4K.
Once the RRB determines to pay a claim post-payment Form Letter ID-4E, Notice of RUIA Claim Determination, is used to notify the base-year employer(s). This gives the employer a second
The ID-4E mainframe-generated paper notice, EDI, and Internet versions are transmitted on a daily basis, generally on the same day that the claims are approved for payment. Railroad employers who are mailed Form ID-4E are instructed to write if they want a reconsideration of the RRB's determination to pay. Employers who receive the ID-4E electronically, may file a reconsideration request by completing the ID-4E by either EDI or ERS. Completion is voluntary. The RRB proposes to replace using EDI with the use of secure File Transfer Protocol (FTP). The RRB proposes no changes to the other versions of the ID-4E.
Completion is voluntary, however, the RRB will be unable to provide a PRC or allow a requestor to establish a PIN/Password (thereby denying system access), if the requests are not completed. The RRB proposes no changes to the PRC screens or the PIN/Password screens.
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collections of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collections; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collections; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
Under Section 2(e)(2) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), an age and service annuity, spouse annuity, or divorced spouse annuity cannot be paid unless the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) has evidence that the applicant has ceased railroad employment and
Normally, the employee, spouse, or divorced spouse relinquishes rights and certifies that employment has ended as part of the annuity application process. However, this is
Under Section 5(a) of the Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act (RUIA), claims for benefits are to be made in accordance with such regulations as the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) shall prescribe. The provisions for claiming sickness benefits as provided by Section 2 of the RUIA are prescribed in 20 CFR 335.2. Included in these provisions is the RRB's acceptance of forms executed by someone else on behalf of an employee if the RRB is satisfied that the employee is sick or injured to the extent of being unable to sign forms.
The RRB utilizes Form SI-10, Statement of Authority to Act for Employee, to provide the means for an individual to apply for authority to act on behalf of an incapacitated employee and also to obtain the information necessary to determine that the delegation should be made. Part I of the form is completed by the applicant for the authority and Part II is completed by the employee's doctor. One response is requested of each respondent. Completion is required to obtain benefits.
Section 215(a)(7) of the Social Security Act provides for a reduction in social security benefits based on employment not covered under the Social Security Act or the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA). This provision applies a different social security benefit formula to most workers who are first eligible after 1985 to both a pension based in whole or in part on non-covered employment and a social security retirement or disability benefit. There is a guarantee provision that limits the reduction in the social security benefit to one-half of the portion of the pension based on non-covered employment after 1956. Section 8011 of Public Law 100-647 changed the effective date of the onset from the first month of eligibility to the first month of concurrent entitlement to the non-covered service benefit and the RRA benefit.
Section 3(a)(1) of the RRA provides that the Tier I benefit of an employee annuity shall be equal to the amount (before any reduction for age or deduction for work) the employee would receive if entitled to a like benefit under the Social Security Act. The reduction for a non-covered service pension also applies to a Tier I portion of the employee annuity under the RRA when the annuity or non-covered service pension begins after 1985. Since the amount of a spouse's Tier I benefit is one-half of the employee's Tier I, the spouse annuity is also affected.
Form G-209, Employee Non-Covered Service Pension Questionnaire, is used by the RRB to obtain needed information (1) from a railroad employee who while completing Form AA-1, Application for Employee
Comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Brian Foster, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois 60611-1275 or
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 15c1-7 states that any act of a broker-dealer designed to effect securities transactions with or for a customer account over which the broker-dealer (directly or through an agent or employee) has discretion will be considered a fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive practice under the federal securities laws, unless a record is made of the transaction immediately by the broker-dealer. The record must include (a) the name of the customer, (b) the name, amount, and price of the security, and (c) the date and time when such transaction took place.
The Commission estimates that 394 respondents collect information related to approximately 400,000 transactions annually under Rule 15c1-7 and that each respondent would spend approximately 5 minutes on the collection of information for each transaction, for approximately 33,338 aggregate hours per year (approximately 84.6 hours per respondent).
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comments to: Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, or by sending an email to:
On August 10, 2017, the Investors Exchange LLC (“IEX” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange has proposed to adopt Rule 14.602 to describe the complimentary products and services that will be offered to all listed companies pursuant to a listing program that the Exchange intends to begin in 2017.
In particular, the Exchange has proposed to provide all listed companies with the same optional complimentary services through access to IEX Issuer, a market information analytics platform consisting of access to a team of market professionals and web-based content.
The Exchange represented in its proposal that all issuers listed on the Exchange will have access to services through IEX Issuer on the same basis and that the Exchange will not be proposing to offer any additional products and services to listed companies on a tiered or differentiated basis.
The Commission has carefully reviewed the proposed rule change and finds that it is consistent with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act.
The Commission believes that the proposed rule change, which would permit the Exchange to provide complimentary products and services to all listed companies through IEX Issuer, as described above,
The Commission notes that all listed companies will receive access to the same services on the same basis without any differentiation and the Exchange is not proposing to offer any additional products and services to listed companies on a tiered or differentiated basis. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and, in particular, that the products and services are equitably allocated among issuers consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act, and the rule does not unfairly discriminate between issuers consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
As described above, the Exchange will provide all of the products and services and will separately provide information about additional products and services available from third-party vendors that IEX determines may be relevant to listed issuers. As noted by the Exchange in its proposal, listed companies may elect to purchase products and services from other vendors, or not to use any such products and services, rather than accepting the products and services offered by the Exchange.
The Commission believes that the Exchange is responding to competitive pressures in the market for listings in making this proposal. Specifically, the Exchange stated in its proposal that it expects to face competition as a new entrant in the market for exchange listings and that it believes the complimentary products and services that it offers to listed companies will facilitate its ability to attract and retain listings.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The proposed rule change
In its filing with the Commission, the clearing agency included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The clearing agency has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The proposed rule change would (i) revise the Distributions Guide to (A) enhance Announcements by adding Tax Events as a Distribution Event and (B) make technical and conforming changes relating to U.S. tax withholding and information reporting performed by DTC with respect to Tax Events; and (ii) add the New Fee to the Fee Schedule, as discussed below.
The Distributions Service includes the announcement, collection, allocation and reporting by DTC, on behalf of its Participants, of dividend, interest and principal payments for Eligible Securities held by Participants at DTC. This centralized processing provides efficiency for Participants for their receipt of (i) payment information and (ii) payments on Distribution Events, from multiple issuers and agents.
Section 305(c) of the Internal Revenue Code
In the most frequent scenario relevant to Distribution Events, an issuer that pays a cash dividend to its shareholders may trigger an increase to the conversion rate (“Convertible Rate Adjustment”)
In April 2016, the U.S. Treasury released proposed regulations to provide guidance to financial institutions regarding their withholding and reporting obligations.
Pursuant to the proposed rule change, in order to facilitate Participants' ability to comply with the requirements described above, DTC would revise the Distributions Guide to allow it to source information on Section 305(c) deemed distributions and other Tax Events for Securities on Deposit at DTC directly from issuers, and then provide the Tax Event information to Participants. DTC would distribute the Tax Event information for a deemed distribution in the same standardized manner that DTC uses to announce distributions. In this regard, DTC would revise the text of the Distributions Guide to (i) add Tax Events as a Distribution Event covered by the functionality described in the Distributions Guide and (ii) add a new section titled “Tax Event Announcements” to (a) describe and define Tax Events and Tax Event Announcements and (b) describe the systemic data fields (“Fields”) that DTC would use to provide relevant Tax Event information for a Security to Participants, including: (1) “Event Type” to be shown as “Tax Event,” (2) “Sub Event Type,” which would be used to classify the type of Tax Event, (3) Payable Date, (4) Record Date, (5) “Cash Rate,” to provide the amount of the deemed distribution, and (6) “Comments,” which would be used to provide any other pertinent information regarding the Tax Event.
Pursuant to the Fee Schedule, DTC charges fees to Participants for the processing of corporate action events. Fees are established to offset the cost of processing all aspects of the applicable corporate action event, including the announcement processing, the actual processing of payments, and book-entries associated with the corporate action. Pursuant to the proposed rule change, the Fee Schedule would be revised so that a Participant that holds Securities subject to a Tax Event would be charged flat fee of $40 per announcement. The proposed New Fee would align DTC's revenue with costs for retrieving Tax Event information from issuers and announcing that information to Participants, as proposed. The New Fee would be added to the Fee Schedule underneath the heading for U.S. Tax Withholding, which is a feature of the Distributions Service, for reference purposes so that it would be located on the Fee Schedule in the same place as other fees charged for tax-related processing performed by DTC.
DTC performs adjustments for entitlement and allocation activity that is outside of traditional pay date allocations. This includes activity tracking for stock loans, repos, and due bill fail tracking.
The proposed rule change would be implemented on October 2, 2017.
DTC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act, and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to DTC, in particular Sections 17A(b)(3)(D)
Section 17A(b)(3)(D) of the Act
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
DTC does not believe that the proposed rule change proposing to amend the Distributions Guide to provide for the announcement of Tax Events would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition, because the information that would be provided to Participants in this regard is necessary for Participants to receive in order to be able to accurately perform tax accounting for their positions held at DTC, and maintain compliance with their tax withholding requirements, as described above. The addition of the New Fee could have an impact on competition because only those Participants that hold Securities subject to Tax Events would be charged the New Fee. To the extent the proposed rule change to add the New Fee to the Fee Schedule would provide for a burden on competition, DTC believes it would be necessary and appropriate under the Act because the New Fee is required to cover the cost of providing the Tax Event information to Participants, which information is necessary for Participants to receive in order to facilitate their compliance with their tax withholding obligations.
DTC has not received or solicited any written comments relating to this proposal. DTC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by DTC.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice.
This is a Notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of California (FEMA-4344-DR), dated 10/12/2017.
Issued on 10/12/2017.
Submit completed loan applications to: U.S. Small Business Administration, Processing and Disbursement Center, 14925 Kingsport Road, Fort Worth, TX 76155.
A. Escobar, Office of Disaster Assistance, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Suite 6050, Washington, DC 20416, (202) 205-6734.
Notice is hereby given that as a result of the President's major disaster declaration on 10/12/2017, applications for disaster loans may be filed at the address listed above or other locally announced locations.
The following areas have been determined to be adversely affected by the disaster:
The Interest Rates are:
The number assigned to this disaster for physical damage is 153525 and for economic injury is 153530.
In accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App., the Department of State announces the Charter of the Foreign Affairs Policy Board, established July 2011, was renewed for a two year period. The Board is established under the general authority of the Secretary of State and the Department of State set forth in title 22 of the United States Code, in particular Section 2656 of that Title, and consistent with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C., Appendix). The Foreign Affairs Policy Board was established to provide the Secretary of State, the Deputy Secretary of State, and the Director of Policy Planning with independent, informed advice and opinions concerning matters of U.S. foreign policy. It is comprised of twenty-five distinguished U.S. citizens from the private sector, nongovernmental organizations, think tanks, and academia.
Adam Lusin, 202-647-0724,
This document was received for publication by the Office of the Federal Register on October 16, 2017.
Federal Aviation Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation.
Thirty Seventh RTCA SC-216 Aeronautical Systems Security Plenary.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of a meeting of Thirty Seventh RTCA SC-216 Plenary. This is a subcommittee to RTCA.
This meeting will be held December 11-15, 2017 09:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at: Embraer Engineering and Technology Center, 1400 General Aviation Drive, Melbourne, Florida 32935. Pre-registration is required.
Karan Hofmann at
Pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of the Thirty Seventh RTCA SC-216 Plenary. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Persons wishing to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Under part 235 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations and 49 U.S.C. 20502(a), this provides the public notice that in a letter dated October 4, 2017, Norfolk Southern Corporation (NS) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) seeking approval to discontinue or modify a signal system. FRA assigned the petition Docket Number FRA-2017-0090.
NS seeks to discontinue signal A8E-1 and A8E-2 on running tracks number 11 & 12 in the approach to control point (CP) Harrisburg on the Pittsburgh Line at milepost PT 105 on the Harrisburg Division, Harrisburg PA.
These changes are being proposed because NS Operating Rule #93—
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment and a public hearing, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
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•
Communications received by December 4, 2017 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice and comment request.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), this notice announces that FRA is forwarding the currently approved Information Collection Requests (ICRs), abstracted below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The ICRs describe the information collections FRA is submitting for renewal and their expected burden.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 20, 2017.
Send comments regarding these information collections to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: FRA Desk Officer. Comments may also be sent via email to OMB at the following address:
Mr. Robert Brogan, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Railroad Safety, Safety Regulatory Analysis Division, RRS-21, Federal Railroad Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Mail Stop 25, Washington, DC 20590 (Telephone: (202) 493-6292); or Ms. Kim Toone, Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Administration, Office of Information
The PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, require Federal agencies to issue two notices seeking public comment on information collection activities before OMB may approve paperwork packages. 44 U.S.C. 3506, 3507; 5 CFR 1320.5, 1320.8(d)(1), and 1320.12. On June 30, 2017, FRA published a 60-day notice in the
Before OMB decides whether to approve these proposed collections of information, it must provide 30 days for public comment. 44 U.S.C. 3507(b); 5 CFR 1320.12(d). Federal law requires OMB to approve or disapprove paperwork packages between 30 and 60 days after the 30-day notice is published. 44 U.S.C. 3507(b)-(c); 5 CFR 1320.12(d);
Comments are invited on the following ICRs regarding: (1) Whether the information collection activities are necessary for FRA to properly execute its functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FRA's estimates of the burden of the information collection activities, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used to determine the estimates; (3) ways for FRA to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information being collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of information collection activities on the public, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Under 44 U.S.C. 3507(a) and 5 CFR 1320.5(b) and 1320.8(b)(3)(vi), FRA informs all interested parties that it may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to a collection of information, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
44 U.S.C. 3501-3520.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition for exemption.
This document grants in full General Motors Corporation's (GM) petition for an exemption of the Cadillac XT4 vehicle line in accordance with
The exemption granted by this notice is effective beginning with the 2019 model year (MY).
Hisham Mohamed, Office of International Policy, Fuel Economy, and Consumer Standards, NHTSA, W43-437, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Mr. Mohamed's phone number is (202) 366-0307. His fax number is (202) 493-2990.
In a petition dated May 29, 2017, GM requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for its Cadillac XT4 vehicle line beginning with MY 2019. The petition requested an exemption from parts-marking pursuant to 49 CFR 543,
Under 49 CFR part 543.5(a), a manufacturer may petition NHTSA to grant an exemption for one vehicle line per model year. In its petition, GM
GM's submission is considered a complete petition as required by 49 CFR 543.7, in that it meets the general requirements contained in 543.5 and the specific content requirements of 543.6.
In addressing the specific content requirements of 543.6, GM provided information on the reliability and durability of its proposed device. To ensure reliability and durability of the device, GM conducted tests based on its own specified standards. GM provided a detailed list of the specific tests it used to validate the integrity, durability and reliability of the PASS-Key III+ device. Some of the tests GM conducted were for high temperature storage, low temperature storage, thermal shock, humidity, frost, salt fog, flammability and others. GM believes that the device is reliable and durable since the components must operate as designed after each test. GM further stated that the design and assembly processes of the PASS-Key III+ subsystem and components are validated for 10 years of vehicle life and 150,000 miles of performance.
GM further stated that the PASS-Key III+ device has been designed to enhance the functionality and theft protection provided by its first, second and third generation PASS-Key, PASS-Key II, and PASS-Key III devices. GM also referenced data provided by the American Automobile Manufacturers Association (AAMA) in support of the effectiveness of GM's PASS-Key devices in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft. Specifically, GM stated that data which provide the basis for GM's confidence that the PASS-Key 111+ system will be effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft are contained in the response of the American Automobile Manufacturers Association (AAMA) to Docket 97-042; Notice I (NHTSA Request for Comments on its Preliminary Report to Congress on the Effects of the Anti Car Theft Act of 1992 and the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984). In the Report to Congress, AAMA stated the more recent antitheft systems are more effective in reducing auto theft. AAMA also cited the Highway Loss Data Institute (HLDI) findings on the effectiveness of antitheft devices in reducing theft. AAMA noted that vehicles with antitheft devices are less likely to be stolen for joyriding or transportation and therefore, their recovery rates are lower.
GM also noted that theft rate data have indicated a decline in theft rates for vehicle lines equipped with comparable devices that have received full exemptions from the parts-marking requirements. GM stated that the theft rate data, as provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation's National Crime Information Center (NCIC) and compiled by the agency, show that theft rates are lower for exempted GM models equipped with the PASS-Key-like systems than the theft rates for earlier models with similar appearance and construction that were parts-marked. Based on the performance of the PASS-Key, PASS-Key II, and PASS-Key III devices on other GM models, and the advanced technology utilized in PASS-Key III+, GM believes that the PASS-Key III+ device will be more effective in deterring theft than the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541.
Additionally, GM stated that the model year (MY) 2014 Cadillac CTS and SRX theft rates (per 1000 vehicles produced) are below the 1990/1991 median rate of 3.5826. Specifically, the theft for the MY 2014 Cadillac CTS is 0.3546 and 0.8481 for the MY 2014 Cadillac SRX vehicle line. Since the same antitheft device will be used on the 2019 MY Cadillac XT4, GM believes the statistical data indicates that this vehicle will also have an acceptable theft rate to obtain an exemption from the parts marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541. GM was granted an exemption from the parts-marking requirements by the agency for the Cadillac CTS vehicle line beginning with MY 2011 (See 74 FR 62385, November 27, 2009). The average theft rate for the Cadillac CTS and SRX vehicle lines, based on NHTSA's theft rate data, using 3 MYs data (MYs 2012-2014) are 0.8518 and 0.6020 respectively.
GM further stated that it believes that PASS-Key III+ devices will be more effective in deterring theft than the parts-marking requirements and that the agency should find that inclusion of the PASS-Key III+ device on the Cadillac XT4 vehicle line is sufficient to qualify
GM's proposed device lacks an audible or visible alarm. Therefore, this device cannot perform one of the functions listed in 49 CFR part 543.6(a)(3), that is, to call attention to unauthorized attempts to enter or move the vehicle. Based on comparison of the reduction in the theft rates of Chevrolet Corvettes using a passive antitheft device along with an audible/visible alarm system to the reduction in theft rates for the Chevrolet Camaro and the Pontiac Firebird models equipped with a passive antitheft device without an alarm, GM finds that the lack of an alarm or attention-attracting device does not compromise the theft deterrent performance of a device such as PASS-Key III+ device. In these instances, the agency has concluded that the lack of an audible or visible alarm has not prevented these antitheft devices from being effective protection against theft.
Based on the evidence submitted by GM, the agency believes that the antitheft device for the Cadillac XT4 vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR 541).
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.7(b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of Part 541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency finds that GM has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft device for the Cadillac XT4 vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR part 541). This conclusion is based on the information GM provided about its device.
The agency concludes that the device will provide four of the five types of performance listed in § 543.6(a)(3): Promoting activation; preventing defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full GM's petition for exemption for the Cadillac XT4 vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541, beginning with its model year (MY) 2019 vehicles. The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a given model year. 49 CFR part 543.7(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all Part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard.
If GM decides not to use the exemption for this line, it should formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked according to the requirements under 49 CFR parts 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).
NHTSA notes that if GM wishes in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. Part 543.7(d) states that a Part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, Part 543.9(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in that exemption.”
The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that Part 543.9(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting Part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition for exemption.
This document grants in full the Fiat Chrysler Automobiles US LLC's, (FCA) petition for exemption of the Jeep Wrangler vehicle line in accordance with 49 CFR part 543,
The exemption granted by this notice is effective beginning with 2018 model year (MY).
Ms. Carlita Ballard, International Policy, Fuel Economy and Consumer Programs, NHTSA, West Building, W43-439, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Ms. Ballard's phone number is (202) 366-5222. Her fax number is (202) 493-2990.
In a petition dated June 2, 2017, FCA requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for its Jeep Wrangler vehicle line beginning with MY 2018. The petition requested an exemption from parts-marking pursuant to 49 CFR part 543,
Under 49 CFR part 543.5(a), a manufacturer may petition NHTSA to grant an exemption for one vehicle line per model year. In its petition, FCA provided a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the components of the antitheft device for its Jeep Wrangler vehicle line. FCA stated that its MY 2018 Jeep Wrangler vehicle line will be installed with the Sentry Key Immobilizer System (SKIS) antitheft device as standard equipment on the entire vehicle line. The SKIS will provide passive vehicle protection by
FCA's submission is considered a complete petition as required by 49 CFR 543.7 in that it meets the general requirements contained in 543.5 and the specific content requirements of 543.6.
In addressing the specific content requirements of 49 CFR part 543.6, FCA provided information on the reliability and durability of the device. FCA conducted tests based on its own specified standards (
FCA stated that the SKIS immobilizer feature is activated when the transponder key is removed from the ignition system (whether the doors are open or not) and the ignition system is in the “OFF” position. Specifically, once the SKIS is activated, only a valid transponder key that is recognized by the ignition system will disable it and allow the vehicle to start and continue to run. FCA stated that the functions and features of the SKIS are all integral to the BCM in this vehicle. The RFHM contains a Radio Frequency (RF) transceiver and a microprocessor and it initiates the ignition process by communicating with the BCM. The RFHM and the ECM both use software that includes a rolling code algorithm strategy which helps to reduce the possibility of unauthorized SKIS disarming. The microprocessor-based SKIS hardware and software also uses electronic messages to communicate with other electronic modules in the vehicle over the Controller Area Network (CAN) data bus.
FCA further stated that the SKIS uses RF communication with an Advanced Encryption System (AES) to obtain confirmation that the transponder key is a valid FOBIK for operating the vehicle. The RFHM initiates the ignition process by communicating with the BCM. The RFHM contains an RF transceiver and a microprocessor. The RFHM is paired with a Keyless Go START/STOP push button (also known as the Keyless Ignition Node (“KIN”)). The RFHM receives Low Frequency (LF) and/or RF signals from the Sentry Key transponder through a tuned RF antenna. When the Keyless Go START/STOP button is pressed on the KIN, the RFHM transmits an LF signal to the transponder key. The RFHM then waits for a RF signal response from the transponder in the FOBIK. If the response received identifies the FOBIK as valid, the communication between the RFHM, the BCM, and the ECM proceeds, and the ECM allows the engine to start. If the ECM receives an invalid key message or receives no message from the RFHM over the CAN data bus, the engine will be disabled. FCA further stated that its antitheft immobilizer device prevents the engine from running for more than two seconds unless a valid transponder key is recognized by the ignition system. Additionally, FCA stated that only six consecutive invalid start attempts will be permitted and that all other attempts will be locked out by preventing the fuel injectors from firing and disabling the starter.
FCA stated that it expects the Jeep Wrangler vehicle line to mirror the lower theft rate results achieved by the Jeep Grand Cherokee vehicle line when ignition immobilizer systems were installed as standard equipment on the line. FCA stated that it has offered the SKIS immobilizer device as standard equipment on all Jeep Grand Cherokee vehicles since MY 1999. According to FCA, the average theft rate for Jeep Grand Cherokee vehicles, based on NHTSA's theft rate data for the four model years prior to 1999 (1995-1998), when a vehicle immobilizer device was not installed as standard equipment was 5.3574 per one thousand vehicles produced. This was significantly higher than the 1990/1991 median theft rate of 3.5826. However, FCA also indicated that the average theft rate for the Jeep Grand Cherokee for the nine model years (1999-2009, excluding MY 2007 and 2009) after installation of the standard immobilizer device was 2.5704, significantly lower than the median. The Jeep Grand Cherokee vehicle line was also granted an exemption from the parts-marking requirements beginning with MY 2004 (67 FR 79687, December 30, 2002). FCA further exerts that NHTSA's theft rate data for the Jeep Grand Cherokee indicates that the inclusion of a standard immobilizer device resulted in a 52 percent net average reduction in vehicle thefts. Theft rate data reported in the
Based on the evidence submitted by FCA, the agency believes that the antitheft device for the Jeep Wrangler vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR 41). The agency concludes that the device will provide four of the five types of performance listed in 49 CFR part 543.6(a)(3): Promoting activation; preventing defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR part 543.7(b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of part 541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency finds that FCA has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft
For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full FCA's petition for exemption for its Jeep Wrangler vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541, beginning with its MY 2018 Jeep Wrangler vehicles. The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a given model year. 49 CFR part 543.7(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard. FCA stated that an official nameplate for the vehicle has not yet been determined.
If FCA decides not to use the exemption for this vehicle line, it must formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the vehicle line must be fully marked as required by 49 CFR parts 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).
NHTSA notes that if FCA wishes in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. 49 CFR part 543.7(d) states that a part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the anti-theft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, 49 CFR part 543.9(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in that exemption.”
The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that 49 CFR part 543.9(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR part 1.95.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition for exemption.
This document grants in full the Toyota Motor North America, Inc.'s, (Toyota) petition for an exemption of the Avalon vehicle line. This petition is granted because the agency has determined that the antitheft device to be placed on the line as standard equipment is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the
The exemption granted by this notice is applicable beginning with the 2019 model year (MY).
Hisham Mohamed, International Policy, Fuel Economy and Consumer Programs, NHTSA, W43-437, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Mr. Mohamed's phone number is (202) 366-0307. His fax number is (202) 493-2990.
In a petition dated June 19, 2017, Toyota requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for the Avalon vehicle line beginning with MY 2019. The petition requested an exemption from parts-marking pursuant to 49 CFR part 543,
Under 49 CFR part 543.5(a), a manufacturer may petition NHTSA to grant an exemption for one vehicle line per model year. In its petition, Toyota provided a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the components of the antitheft device for the Avalon vehicle line. Toyota stated that its MY 2019 Avalon vehicle line will be installed with a “smart entry and start” system and an engine immobilizer as standard equipment. Key components of the “smart entry and start” system device on the Avalon vehicle line will include, a certification electronic control unit (ECU), engine switch, steering lock ECU, security indicator, door control receiver, electrical key, an engine immobilizer and an electronic control module (ECM). Toyota stated that there will also be position switches installed on the vehicle to protect the hood and doors from unauthorized tampering/opening. Toyota further explained that locking the doors can be accomplished through use of a key, wireless switch or its smart entry system, and that unauthorized tampering with the hood or door without using one of these methods will cause the position switches to trigger its antitheft device to operate. Toyota stated that it will not incorporate an audible and visual alarm system as standard equipment on its trim-line vehicles.
Toyota's submission is considered a complete petition as required by 49 CFR 543.7 in that it meets the general requirements contained in § 543.5 and the specific content requirements of § 543.6.
In addressing the specific content requirements of § 543.6, Toyota provided information on the reliability and durability of its proposed device. To ensure reliability and durability of the device, Toyota conducted tests based on its own specified standards. Toyota provided a detailed list of the tests conducted (
Toyota stated that its “smart entry and start system” device is activated when the engine switch is pushed from the
Toyota stated that the proposed antitheft device has also been installed as standard equipment on its Avalon vehicle line beginning with its MY 2015 vehicles. The theft rate for the MY 2015 Avalon vehicle line is not available. However, Toyota compared its proposed device to other devices NHTSA has determined to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as would compliance with the parts-marking requirements. Toyota compared its proposed device to that which has been installed on the Nissan Altima and granted a parts-marking exemption from 49 CFR part 541 by the agency beginning with its MY 2000 vehicles. Toyota also referenced the NHTSA theft rate data published for several years before and after the Nissan Altima was equipped with a standard immobilizer device. Specifically, Toyota stated that the publication showed that the average theft rate for the Nissan Altima dropped to 3.0 per 1,000 cars produced between MY's 2000-2006 compared to 5.3 per 1,000 cars produced between MY's 1996-1999. This represents approximately a 43% decrease in the theft rate for the Nissan Altima vehicle line installed with an immobilizer between MY's 2000-2006 as compared to the Nissan Altima vehicle line without an immobilizer between MY's 1996-1999. The theft rates for the Nissan Altima vehicle line using an average of three model years' data (2012-2014) are 2.4207, 1.7598 and 2.1212 respectively, all well below the median theft rate of 3.5826. Therefore, Toyota has concluded that the antitheft device proposed for its Avalon vehicle line is no less effective than those devices on the lines for which NHTSA has already granted full exemption from the parts-marking requirements. Toyota stated that it believes that installing the immobilizer device as standard equipment reduces the theft rate for the Avalon vehicle line and expects it to experience comparable effectiveness and ultimately be more effective than parts-marking labels.
Based on the supporting evidence submitted by Toyota on its device, the agency believes that the antitheft device for the Avalon vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR 541). The agency concludes that the device will provide four of the five types of performance listed in § 543.6(a)(3): Promoting activation; preventing defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.7 (b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of Part 541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency finds that Toyota has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft device for the Avalon vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR part 541). This conclusion is based on the information Toyota provided about its device.
For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full Toyota's petition for exemption for the Avalon vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541. The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a given model year. 49 CFR part 543.7(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all Part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard.
If Toyota decides not to use the exemption for this line, it should formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked according to the requirements under 49 CFR parts 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).
NHTSA notes that if Toyota wishes in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. Part 543.7(d) states that a Part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, Part 543.9(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in that exemption.”
The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that Part 543.9(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.95.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition for exemption.
This document grants in full the Nissan North America, Inc.'s, (Nissan) petition for exemption of the Infiniti QX50 vehicle line in accordance with the
The exemption granted by this notice is applicable beginning with the 2019 model year (MY).
Ms. Carlita Ballard, Office of International Policy, Fuel Economy and Consumer Programs, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building, Room W43-439, Washington, DC 20590. Ms. Ballard's telephone phone number is (202) 366-5222. Her fax number is (202) 493-2990.
In a petition dated July 8, 2017, Nissan requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for the Infiniti QX50 vehicle line beginning with MY 2019. The petition requested an exemption from parts-marking pursuant to 49 CFR part 543,
Under 49 CFR part 543.5(a), a manufacturer may petition NHTSA to grant an exemption for one vehicle line per model year. In its petition, Nissan provided a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the components of the antitheft device for the Infiniti QX50 vehicle line. Nissan stated that the MY 2019 Infiniti QX50 vehicle line will be installed with a passive, electronic engine immobilizer antitheft device as standard equipment. Key components of the antitheft device will include an engine immobilizer, engine control module (ECM), body control module (BCM), security indicator light, immobilizer antenna, Key FOB, and a specially-designed key with a microchip. Nissan stated that its vehicle's security indicator light will be a warning to a potential thief, and an added deterrence to a thief's decision to enter the vehicle. However, Nissan stated that its antitheft device will not provide any visible or audible indication if unauthorized vehicle entry (
Nissan's submission is considered a complete petition as required by 49 CFR 543.7, in that it meets the general requirements contained in § 543.5 and the specific content requirements of § 543.6.
In addressing the specific content requirements of 543.6, Nissan provided information on the reliability and durability of its proposed device. Nissan stated that its antitheft device is tested for specific parameters to ensure its reliability and durability. Nissan provided a detailed list of the tests conducted and believes that the device is reliable and durable since the device complied with its specified requirements for each test. Nissan further stated that its immobilizer device satisfies the European Directive ECE R116, including tamper resistance. Nissan also stated that all control units for the device are located inside the vehicle, providing further protection from unauthorized accessibility of the device from outside the vehicle.
Nissan stated that activation of its immobilizer device occurs automatically when the ignition switch is turned to the “OFF” position which then causes the security indicator light to flash notifying the operator that the immobilizer device is activated. Nissan stated that the immobilizer device prevents normal operation of the vehicle without using a specially-designed microchip key with a pre-registered “Key-ID”. Nissan also stated that, when the brake and clutch is on and the key FOB is near the engine start switch, the Key-ID is scanned via the immobilizer antenna. The microchip in the key transmits the Key-ID to the BCM, beginning an encrypted communication process. If the Key-ID and encrypted code are correct, the ECM will allow the engine to keep running and the driver to operate the vehicle. If the Key-ID and encrypted code are not correct, the ECM will cause the engine to shut down.
Nissan stated that the proposed device is functionally equivalent to the antitheft device installed on the MY 2011 Nissan Cube vehicle line which was granted a parts-marking exemption by the agency on April 14, 2010 (75 FR 19458). The agency notes that the theft rates for the Nissan Cube using an average of 3 MYs data (2012-2014), are 0.3322, 0.6471 and 2.0373 respectively.
Nissan provided data on the effectiveness of the antitheft device installed on its Infiniti QX50 vehicle line in support of the belief that its antitheft device will be highly effective in reducing and deterring theft. Nissan referenced the National Insurance Crime Bureau's data which it stated showed a 70% reduction in theft when comparing MY 1997 Ford Mustangs (with a standard immobilizer) to MY 1995 Ford Mustangs (without an immobilizer). Nissan also referenced the Highway Loss Data Institute's data which reported that BMW vehicles experienced theft loss reductions resulting in a 73% decrease in relative claim frequency and a 78% lower average loss payment per claim for vehicles equipped with an immobilizer. Additionally, Nissan stated that theft rates for its Pathfinder vehicle line experienced reductions from model year (MY) 2000 to 2001 and subsequent years with implementation of an engine immobilizer device as standard equipment. Specifically, Nissan stated that the agency's theft rate data for MY's 2001 through 2006 reported theft rates of 1.9146, 1.8011, 1.1482, 0.8102, 1.7298 and 1.3474 respectively for the Nissan Pathfinder.
Nissan compared its device to other similar devices previously granted exemptions by the agency. Specifically, it referenced the agency's grant of full exemptions to General Motors Corporation for its Buick Riviera and Oldsmobile Aurora vehicle lines (58 FR 44872, August 25, 1993) and its Cadillac Seville vehicle line (62 FR 20058, April 24, 1997) from the parts-marking requirements of the theft prevention standard. Nissan stated that it believes that since its device is functionally equivalent to other comparable manufacturer's devices that have already been granted parts-marking exemptions by the agency, along with the evidence of reduced theft rates for vehicle lines equipped with similar devices and advanced technology of transponder electronic security, the Nissan immobilizer device will have the potential to achieve the level of effectiveness equivalent to those vehicles already exempted by the agency. The agency agrees that the device is substantially similar to devices installed on other vehicle lines for which the agency has already granted exemptions.
Based on the supporting evidence submitted by Nissan, the agency believes that the antitheft device for the Infiniti QX50 vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR part 541). The agency concludes that the device will provide four of the five types of performance listed in § 543.6(a)(3): Promoting activation; preventing defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.7(b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of Part 541 either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency finds that Nissan has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft device for the Infiniti QX50 vehicle line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR part 541). This conclusion is based on the information Nissan provided about its device.
For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full Nissan's petition for exemption for the Nissan Infiniti QX50 vehicle line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541. The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a given model year. 49 CFR part 543.7(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all Part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard.
If Nissan decides not to use the exemption for this line, it must formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked according to the requirements under 49 CFR parts 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).
NHTSA notes that if Nissan wishes in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. Part 543.7(d) states that a Part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, Part 543.9(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in that exemption.”
The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that Part 543.9(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting Part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be
Issued in Washington, DC, under authority delegated in 49 CFR part 1.95.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments; extension of comment period.
This document extends the comment period for a notice and request for comments that was published in the
The comment period for the notice and request for comments published on August 28, 2017 (82 FR 40228), is extended to November 28, 2017.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke at (202) 317-6009, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
A notice and request for comments that appeared in the
The Department of Veterans Affairs gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Cooperative Studies Scientific Evaluation Committee will hold a meeting on December 13, 2017, at the American Association of Airport Executives, 601 Madison Street, Alexandria, VA. The meeting will begin at 8:30 a.m. and end at 3:30 p.m.
The Committee advises the Chief Research and Development Officer on the relevance and feasibility of proposed projects and the scientific validity and propriety of technical details, including protection of human subjects.
The session will be open to the public for approximately 30 minutes at the start of the meeting for the discussion of administrative matters and the general status of the program. The remaining portion of the meeting will be closed to the public for the Committee's review, discussion, and evaluation of research and development applications.
During the closed portion of the meeting, discussions and recommendations will deal with qualifications of personnel conducting the studies, staff and consultant critiques of research proposals and similar documents, and the medical records of patients who are study subjects, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. As provided by section 10(d) of Public Law 92-463, as amended, closing portions of this meeting is in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (c)(9)(B).
The Committee will not accept oral comments from the public for the open portion of the meeting. Those who plan to attend or wish additional information should contact Dr. Grant Huang, Acting Director, Cooperative Studies Program (10P9CS), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, at (202) 443-
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, this notice announces that the Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, will submit the collection of information abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and comment. The PRA submission describes the nature of the information collection and its expected cost and burden and it includes the actual data collection instrument.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 20, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor, Enterprise Records Service (005R1B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, (202) 461-5870 or email
38 U.S.C. 7331.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before December 18, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Brian McCarthy at (202) 461-6345.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor.
With respect to the following collection of information, VHA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VHA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VHA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use
The proposed study will be a one-time study of all VA patients in the United States. We will survey a sample of Veterans who at the time of fielding received care from any VA healthcare system in the U.S. at least once in the past 24 months. Health status, socioeconomic status, and other factors can impact a Veteran's resiliency/vulnerability during major disaster.
By direction of the Secretary.
Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
Veteran's Benefits Administration (VBA), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before December 18, 2017.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor at (202) 461-5870.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, VBA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of VBA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of VBA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
42 U.S.C. 402, E.O. 12436, Public Law 97-377 Section 156.
Executive Order 12436 “Payment of Certain Benefits to Survivors of Persons Who Died In or As A Result of Military Service” (found at 42 U.S.C. 402 (Note)) directs VA administer the provisions of Public Law 97-377 Section 156. VA codified this authority at 38 CFR 3.812.
VBA uses VA Form 21P-8924 to evaluate the eligibility of surviving spouses and children to REPS benefits, including information regarding the claimant's relationship to the Veteran, employment status, and earnings. Based on the information contained in the form, VBA makes decisions to grant, deny, or amend existing, benefits payments.
The VA Form number is being changed to “21P-8924” to reflect Pension and Fiduciary Service's responsibility for the form.
By direction of the Secretary.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |