Page Range | 56529-56701 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 56529 - Delegation of Authority Under the Foreign Aid Transparency and Accountability Act of 2016 | |
82 FR 56627 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 56625 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 56628 - Product Change-Priority Mail Express and Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 56627 - U.S. Army Installation Command | |
82 FR 56607 - Select Updates for Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
82 FR 56610 - Recommendations for Dual 510(k) and Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments Waiver by Application Studies; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
82 FR 56613 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; SOLX SYSTEM | |
82 FR 56612 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; REXULTI | |
82 FR 56606 - Roxane Laboratories, Inc.; Withdrawal of Approval of a New Drug Application for ROXICODONE (Oxycodone Hydrochloride) Sustained-Release Tablets, 10 Milligrams and 30 Milligrams | |
82 FR 56605 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; XURIDEN | |
82 FR 56628 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 56582 - Certain Tool Chests and Cabinets From the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Countervailing Duty Determination | |
82 FR 56615 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements for Human Food and Cosmetics Manufactured From, Processed With, or Otherwise Containing Material From Cattle | |
82 FR 56586 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 56586 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting (Webinar) | |
82 FR 56531 - Importation of Fresh Mango Fruit From Vietnam Into the Continental United States | |
82 FR 56540 - Metropolitan Planning Organization Coordination and Planning Area Reform | |
82 FR 56609 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; VELTASSA | |
82 FR 56545 - 18-Month Extension of Transition Period and Delay of Applicability Dates; Best Interest Contract Exemption (PTE 2016-01); Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets Between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs (PTE 2016-02); Prohibited Transaction Exemption 84-24 for Certain Transactions Involving Insurance Agents and Brokers, Pension Consultants, Insurance Companies, and Investment Company Principal Underwriters (PTE 84-24) | |
82 FR 56571 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Several Groundfish Species in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
82 FR 56596 - City Water and Light Plant of the City of Jonesboro; Notice of Filing | |
82 FR 56598 - Western Area Power Administration; Notice of Filing | |
82 FR 56594 - Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc.; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 56598 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 56580 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Arizona Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 56626 - Notice of Permit Modification Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
82 FR 56568 - Safety Zone, Savannah River, Savannah, GA | |
82 FR 56619 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request Information Collection Request Title: Health Professions Student Loan (HPSL) Program and Nursing Student Loan (NSL) Program Administrative Requirements (Regulations and Policy). OMB No. 0915-0047-Revision | |
82 FR 56566 - Safety Zone; Delaware River, Marcus Hook, PA | |
82 FR 56618 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Information Collection Request Title: NURSE Corps Scholarship Program, OMB No. 0915-0301-Revision | |
82 FR 56580 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Indiana Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights | |
82 FR 56623 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent Commercialization License: N6, A Novel, Broad, Highly Potent HIV-Specific Antibody | |
82 FR 56621 - Prospective Grant of an Exclusive Patent License: Concatenated L2 Peptide Based Human Papillomavirus Vaccines | |
82 FR 56622 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent License: T-Cells Transduced with HLA A11 Restricted CT-RCC HERV-E Reactive T-Cell Receptors for the Treatment of Renal Cell Carcinoma | |
82 FR 56581 - Impact of the Implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) on Legitimate Commercial Chemical, Biotechnology, and Pharmaceutical Activities Involving “Schedule 1” Chemicals (Including Schedule 1 Chemicals Produced as Intermediates) Through Calendar Year 2017 | |
82 FR 56604 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
82 FR 56624 - National Institute on Aging; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 56625 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 56622 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 56624 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences; Notice of Meetings | |
82 FR 56560 - Claims Procedure for Plans Providing Disability Benefits; 90-Day Delay of Applicability Date | |
82 FR 56625 - Certain Road Construction Machines and Components Thereof; Institution of Investigation | |
82 FR 56587 - Northwest Pipeline, LLC; Supplemental Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Amended North Seattle Lateral Upgrade Project and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
82 FR 56594 - Notice of Electric Quarterly Report Users Group Meeting | |
82 FR 56595 - City of Kaukauna, Wisconsin; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Motions To Intervene and Protests, Ready for Environmental Analysis, and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Terms and Conditions, and Prescriptions | |
82 FR 56597 - Occidental Energy Marketing, Inc. v. BridgeTex Pipeline Company, LLC; Notice of Complaint | |
82 FR 56596 - Blue Mountain Midstream LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 56599 - RH energytrans, LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed Risberg Line Project, and Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
82 FR 56626 - Notice of Permit Modification Issued Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
82 FR 56672 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Investigatory and Disciplinary Processes Substantially Similar to Nasdaq BX, Inc. and The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC | |
82 FR 56570 - Sunset Order; Access Charge Reform; Business Data Services | |
82 FR 56630 - Mandatory Contractual Stay Requirements for Qualified Financial Contracts | |
82 FR 56574 - Amendment of Section 73.624(g) of the Commission's Rules Regarding Submission of FCC Form 2100, Schedule G, Used To Report TV Stations' Ancillary or Supplementary Services | |
82 FR 56536 - Farm Credit Administration Board Policy Statements |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Federal Highway Administration
Federal Transit Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
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Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Final rule.
We are amending the regulations to allow the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam into the continental United States. As a condition of entry, fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will be subject to a systems approach that includes orchard or packinghouse requirements, irradiation treatment, and port of entry inspection. The fruit will also be required to be imported in commercial consignments and accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the national plant protection organization of Vietnam with an additional declaration stating that the consignment was inspected and found free of
Effective December 29, 2017.
Mr. Tony Román, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, Regulatory Coordination and Compliance, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2242.
Under the regulations in “Subpart—Fruits and Vegetables” (7 CFR 319.56-1 through 319.56-80, referred to below as the regulations or the fruits and vegetables regulations), the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) prohibits or restricts the importation of fruits and vegetables into the United States from certain parts of the world to prevent plant pests from being introduced into and spread within the United States.
On August 4, 2016, we published in the
We solicited comments concerning our proposal for 60 days ending October 3, 2016. We received 21 comments by that date. They were from producers, exporters, and representatives of State and foreign governments. Of these, four were fully supportive of the proposed action. The remaining 17 are discussed below by topic.
One commenter asked why APHIS focused on the importation of fresh mango fruit instead of other fruits that cannot be grown in the United States.
APHIS's phytosanitary evaluation process only begins once a country has submitted a formal request for market access for a particular commodity. APHIS does not solicit such requests, nor do we control which countries submit requests.
Two commenters argued that there is already an adequate fresh mango supply in the domestic market to meet existing demand. The commenters stated that importation of fresh mango fruit carries a risk of diminished market share for local producers and suggested that the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam not be allowed.
Such prohibitions would be beyond the scope of APHIS' statutory authority under the Plant Protection Act (7 U.S.C. 7701
Additionally, as a signatory to the World Trade Organization's Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement), the United States has agreed that any prohibitions it places on the importation of fruits and vegetables will be based on scientific evidence related to phytosanitary measures and issues, and will not be maintained without sufficient scientific evidence. The blanket prohibitions requested by the commenters would not be in keeping with this agreement.
Another commenter suggested that, given the transit time from Vietnam to the continental United States, the fresh mango fruit would have to be harvested in a very under ripe state in order to survive transit and would therefore prove unsuitable for the domestic market.
While the quality of the fresh mango fruit and the timing of harvest are important factors in its marketability, we are solely concerned with plant health and phytosanitary risk. The timing of harvest solely for marketability reasons is outside the scope of this regulation.
Another commenter suggested that APHIS consider the effect of imported pests, bacteria, and fungi on domestic producers.
We considered these potential effects in the pest risk assessment (PRA) and laid out mitigations against phytosanitary impact in the risk management document (RMD) that accompanied the proposed rule.
One commenter stated that there is no reason to risk the accidental importation of pests associated with fresh mango fruit from Vietnam except for political gain.
This action was predicated on several risk assessment documents that provide a scientific basis for potential importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam. Without these risk assessment documents, which have withstood several reviews and public comment periods, APHIS would not have proposed this action. Political and
Two other commenters wanted to know why Vietnam would choose to export fresh mangos to the United States given that those fresh mangos would represent only 1 percent of the overall domestic supply. The commenters inquired about the benefits of adding another source of fresh mango fruit to the existing stock.
APHIS' phytosanitary evaluation process only begins once a country has submitted a formal request for market access for a particular commodity. APHIS does not solicit such requests, nor do we control which countries submit requests. APHIS does not solicit information regarding the motivations for such requests, we merely subject them to science-based evaluation.
The PRA identified 18 quarantine pests that could be introduced into the continental United States in consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam. A quarantine pest is defined in § 319.56-2 as “a pest of potential economic importance to the area endangered thereby and not yet present there, or present but not widely distributed and being officially controlled.” The pests listed in the PRA are:
One commenter said that the chance of a mutation occurring that allows for one or multiple species to become resistant to the chemical treatments applied to fresh mango fruit from Vietnam was of potential concern. The commenter argued that, given the size of the pest list, such a mutation might be overlooked, resulting in an introduction of that mutated pest into the United States.
We believe that the standard suggested by the commenter would call for APHIS to postulate based on wholly unknowable risk factors. The PRA that accompanied the proposed rule provided a list of all pests of fresh mango fruit known to exist in Vietnam. This list was prepared using multiple data sources to ensure its completeness. For this same reason, we are confident it is accurate. If, however, a mutation of a pest is detected in Vietnam, APHIS will conduct further risk analysis in order to evaluate that pest to determine whether it is a quarantine pest, and whether it is likely to follow the importation pathway. If we determine that the pest is a quarantine pest and is likely to follow the pathway, we will work with the national plant protection organization (NPPO) of Vietnam to adjust the pest list and related phytosanitary measures to prevent its introduction into the United States.
Another commenter stated that Florida and Texas, two mango producing States, are already dealing with an emerging population of chili thrips. The commenter argued against the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam given the prevalence of the pest in that country.
Given the findings of the PRA, we are confident that the systems approach required for fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will mitigate the risk posed by such fresh mango fruit to introduce these pests.
A commenter suggested that chili thrips be removed from the pest list, because the pest does not have any developing stages associated with fresh mango fruit.
As cited in the PRA, chili thrips only attacks immature fruit of its hosts, including fresh mango fruit.
Based on the findings of the PRA, we determined that measures beyond standard port-of-entry inspection will be needed to mitigate the risks posed by the pests listed above. These measures were identified in the RMD and were used as the basis for the requirements of the systems approach.
One commenter asked if there is a fund to compensate domestic producers for crop loss were the systems approach to fail. The commenter proposed that fresh mango fruit from Vietnam be subject to a hot water treatment as has been required for fresh mango fruit from other countries.
The mitigations listed are proven effective in preventing the introduction of foreign pests into the United States and are the same or equivalent to those measures required for the importation of fresh mango fruit from other countries (
The same commenter stated that exporting countries may lie in their certifications of pest freedom.
For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, the RMD, and this final rule, we consider the provisions of this final rule adequate to mitigate the risk associated with the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam. The commenter did not provide any evidence suggesting that the mitigations are individually or collectively ineffective.
Another commenter requested that fresh mango fruit from Vietnam not be allowed into the State of Florida given that the climate in that State is conducive to the establishment of the listed pests.
We have determined, for the reasons described in the RMD that accompanied the proposed rule, that the measures specified in the RMD will effectively mitigate the risk associated with the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam. The commenter did not provide any evidence suggesting that the mitigations are not effective. Therefore, we are not taking the action requested by the commenter.
Fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will be required to be imported into the
An inspector will identify commercial consignments using such factors as: Quantity of produce, type of packaging, identification of grower or packinghouse on the packaging, and documents consigning the fruits or vegetables to a wholesaler or retailer. The NPPO of the exporting country verifies and approves commercial growing areas and maintains the list of all approved growers in that country. Anyone wishing to request this list should contact the NPPO of Vietnam for access.
Another commenter asked how we will ensure that non-commercial producers are not selling their fruit to commercial producers in order to skirt the requirements of the regulations.
APHIS and the NPPO of Vietnam will jointly develop an operational workplan. The workplan will incorporate details of traceability, treatment, and preclearance activities, including any inspection of articles that APHIS may perform before or after treatment. Traceability and verification that the fresh mango fruit was grown commercially will serve to prevent the scenario envisioned by the commenter.
Fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will be required to be treated with a minimum absorbed irradiation dose of 400 gray in accordance with § 305.9 of the phytosanitary treatment regulations in 7 CFR part 305. This is the established generic dose for all insect pests except pupae and adults of the order Lepidoptera and mango fruit pathogens. Consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will also have to meet all other relevant requirements in part 305, including monitoring of treatment by APHIS inspectors.
A commenter stated that irradiation is designed for certain insect species and may not be an effective treatment for the many other tropical fruit and citrus pests such as mites, as well as various pathogens, found in Vietnam.
We agree with the commenter, which is why the systems approach includes other phytosanitary procedures designed to provide protection from pests against which irradiation is not effective.
Another commenter was particularly concerned about peach fruit fly and pumpkin fruit fly and the potential for those pests to damage and infest domestic crops if they were to be accidentally introduced. The commenter inquired whether the required irradiation dose would kill all peach and pumpkin fruit flies.
While no treatment can be guaranteed to be 100 percent effective, the absorbed dose of 400 gray has been shown to be effective in preventing insects from reproducing. Irradiation treatment does not kill insects but instead renders them sterile or incapable of completing development.
One commenter stated that we should provide scientific evidence of how irradiation affects all the plant pests associated with fresh mango fruit from Vietnam.
We would not include data on the ways in which a given phytosanitary treatment affects plant pests for which it is not an approved treatment. All the pests associated with fresh mango fruit from Vietnam are not meant to be mitigated by the listed irradiation treatment; instead the required treatment works in concert with the other aspects of the systems approach in order to provide phytosanitary security. For a complete discussion of the efficacy of irradiation on those plant pests for which it is an approved treatment, please refer to the proposed and final rules entitled “Treatments for Fruits and Vegetables” (70 FR 33857-33873, Docket No. 03-077-1 and 71 FR 4451-4464, Docket No. 03-077-2).
In order to mitigate the risks posed by
One commenter wanted to know who will conduct orchard inspections.
Inspections are performed by the NPPO of Vietnam or its designee. If necessary, based on noncompliance events or program audits conducted in accordance with APHIS' policy, APHIS will provide qualified personnel to work cooperatively with the NPPO of Vietnam and all other program participants to review and evaluate operations in the field and packinghouses, quarantine pest management and control activities, and other safeguarding measures.
Another commenter asked when the broad-spectrum fungicide will be required to be applied during the growing season. The commenter also wanted to know whether the fungicide or fungicides are safe to use in conjunction with fresh mango fruit.
Fungicides are applied at the recommended rate deemed effective against the target pest, and, as stated in the proposed rule, may be applied at any time during the growing season but prior to harvest. Fungicide safety in relation to the growing environment is subject to oversight by Vietnam's environmental authorities. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates and monitors the level of fungicide residues present on imported fruits and vegetables intended for human consumption.
A commenter wanted to know how we will ensure that all necessary treatments are being applied prior to harvest and export.
Our standard practice is to conduct site visits prior to the initiation of any import program. This is to ensure that all required mitigations are in place and the agreed upon operational workplan is being enforced. Subject matter experts inspect production sites and packinghouses and report their findings to APHIS. Furthermore, the operational workplan authorizes the regional APHIS International Services Director to conduct periodic audit visits of production sites.
Another commenter inquired about the authorization process for inspectors in Vietnam, stating that we need to ensure that authorized inspectors have the relevant experience and a strong background in agriculture and food safety.
All inspections will be performed by APHIS and the NPPO of Vietnam as part of the established preclearance program in Vietnam. The NPPO of Vietnam is responsible for recruiting, vetting, and training inspectors so that they possess the necessary skills to successfully perform their duties. Preclearance programs, including the program in Vietnam, are an important piece in our safeguarding strategy.
Each consignment of fruit will have to be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of Vietnam that contains an additional declaration stating that the fruit in the consignment was inspected and found free of
We are confident that field inspection or treatment or packinghouse treatment and culling, in concert with the other requirements of the systems approach will be effective in mitigating phytosanitary risk. Any fruit that appeared asymptomatic, as posited by the commenters, would likely be in the early stages of infection. Given the transit time required to ship mangoes from Vietnam to the United States as well as mandatory port of entry inspections, it is likely that latent infection would be detected at this point in the importation process.
Consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will be subject to inspection at the port of entry. One commenter wanted to know if there is a defined set of requirements for halting the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam based on the results of these inspections.
Consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam will be seized at the port of entry in the United States if they fail to meet the entry requirements set out in the regulations or if quarantine pests are found.
Another commenter wanted to know the rate at which consignments will be inspected.
All shipments are inspected at the first port of entry into the United States. Fruit sampling will be conducted either as part of the pre-clearance program in Vietnam or, for those shipments of fresh mango fruit that were not subject to the pre-clearance program, by U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP). Actual sampling rates vary. In a pre-clearance program, fruits must be sampled at a rate that produces a 95 percent confidence of detecting a 2 percent or greater pest population for external pests and a 95 percent confidence of detecting a 10 percent or greater pest population for internal feeders. In the case of fresh mango fruit that were not subject to the pre-clearance program in Vietnam the sampling rate will be set by CBP inspectors. Generally speaking the CBP sampling rate is 2 percent of fruit in each consignment but may vary depending on various factors such as surface abnormalities noted during visual inspection.
A commenter questioned whether we should raise the costs and workload of inspectors at the ports by increasing their inspection duties.
APHIS has reviewed its resources and consulted with CBP and believes there is adequate coverage across the United States to ensure compliance with APHIS regulations, including the Vietnamese mango import program, as established by this rule.
Two commenters expressed concern regarding the use of irradiation as a phytosanitary treatment, saying that the potential effects of irradiation on those who consume irradiated foods should be considered. One of the commenters was particularly worried about the effect of irradiation on the enzymes found in raw foods, arguing that the long-term effects of irradiated food consumption have yet to be studied. The commenter argued that irradiated foods should be labeled accordingly.
While the impact of food on human health is regulated and monitored by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and, as such, these concerns are outside the scope of our authority, irradiated foods are wholesome and nutritious. Nutrient losses caused by irradiation are less than or about the same as losses caused by cooking and freezing.
Public health agencies worldwide have evaluated the safety of food irradiation over the last 50 years and found it to be safe. In 37 countries, more than 40 food products are irradiated. In some European countries, irradiation has been in use for decades. In the United States, the FDA regulates food irradiation. In addition, food irradiation has received official endorsement from the American Medical Association, the World Health Organization, and the International Atomic Energy Agency.
One commenter suggested that all pre-harvest orchard inspections and all treatments be performed by APHIS inspectors in addition to the NPPO of Vietnam.
APHIS will monitor and audit Vietnam's implementation of the systems approach for the importation of fresh mango fruit into the continental United States.
The same commenter said we should add a methyl bromide treatment requirement for an additional layer of phytosanitary protection against
Methyl bromide fumigation is not necessary. Neither methyl bromide nor vapor heat are approved treatments for fresh mango fruit. For the reasons explained in the proposed rule, the PRA, the RMD, and this final rule, we consider the current provisions adequate to mitigate the risk associated with the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam.
A commenter asked if it would be possible to observe inspectors at the port of entry to monitor implementation of the requirements.
The inspectors referenced by the commenter are trained agricultural specialists and we trust their knowledge and experience in phytosanitary inspections. Allowing outside parties to observe or participate in inspection work would potentially impede the inspectors' ability to perform their duties in a thorough and efficient manner. Inspections are performed in restricted areas and no civilians are allowed entry.
Some commenters expressed concerns that the NPPO of Vietnam would not be able to adequately implement the required systems approach. One commenter asked how APHIS would enforce production standards in order to provide phytosanitary protection. Another commenter stated that the integrated pest management program in Vietnam is in its early stages and most farmers overdose their crops due to inexperience. The commenter said that this practice demonstrates a lack of concern for water and soil quality and suggests that the NPPO will not hold Vietnamese produce to a sufficiently high standard. A third commenter requested further information on how we will ensure that our standards for a pest free consignment are made clear.
APHIS personnel in Vietnam will take part in the preclearance program we have established and ensure that our required mitigation measures are enforced, including those relating to the application of fungicides in the field. In addition, as previously stated, APHIS will monitor and audit Vietnam's implementation of the systems approach for the importation of fresh mango fruit into the continental United States. If we determine that the systems approach has not been fully implemented or maintained, we will take appropriate remedial action to ensure that the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam does not result in the dissemination of plant pests within the United States.
One commenter voiced concern regarding potential transshipment of fresh mango fruit from neighboring countries. The commenter wanted to know how we will prevent fresh mango fruit from being shipped into Vietnam
It is the responsibility of the NPPO of Vietnam to verify that production sites that grow articles for export and packinghouses that handle such articles are registered with the NPPO. Fresh mango fruit received and packed for export to the United States must be from approved orchards only and APHIS reserves the right to inspect packinghouses participating in the export program. Failure to adhere to program standards, including packaging transshipped fruits, may result in removal from the export program.
One commenter asked if the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would create economic benefits for special interests in either the United States or Vietnam. The commenter asked for assurance that the rule represents a good business deal for the United States.
APHIS bases its decisionmaking process on evaluation and mitigation of phytosanitary risk and not on the economic and trade factors referenced by the commenter.
Another commenter speculated that the work and resources required to allow for the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would be better expended on a higher value commodity.
Contrary to the commenter's assertion, the mechanisms, systems, and personnel for importing fruits and vegetables already exist. The addition of another commodity to the list of allowable imports, particularly as import levels are expected to be low, will not unduly tax the existing system.
A commenter observed that the economic analysis that accompanied the proposed rule stated that the expected importation level (3,000 metric tons [MT] annually) for fresh mango fruit from Vietnam was equal to the amount of fresh mango fruit produced domestically. The commenter questioned how the importation of an equal amount of fresh mango fruit to what is domestically grown represents a non-significant impact on U.S. mango producers.
U.S. fresh mango fruit production levels are indeed low and are estimated at 3,000 MT annually. However, from 1997 to 2015, fresh mango fruit imports increased from 187,000 MT to 391,000 MT. While the quantity that is imported from Vietnam is equivalent to the quantity produced in the United States, these imports will simply help meet the growing demand for mangoes. Fresh mango fruit imports from Vietnam represent less than one percent of total fresh mango fruit imports.
Therefore, for the reasons given in the proposed rule and in this document, we are adopting the proposed rule as a final rule, without change.
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. This rule is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have analyzed the potential economic effects of this action on small entities. The analysis is summarized below. Copies of the full analysis are available on the
This rule is in response to a request from Vietnam to be allowed to export fresh mango fruit to the continental United States. The annual quantity that Vietnam expects to export to the United States, 3,000 MT, represents less than 1 percent of U.S. fresh mango fruit imports, which grew from 187,000 MT in 1997 to 391,000 MT in 2015. Primary sources are Mexico, Peru, Ecuador, Brazil, and Guatemala. While mangoes are grown in Florida and Hawaii, with smaller quantities produced in California and Texas, U.S. annual production totals only about 3,000 MT.
Most if not all U.S. mango farms and wholesalers are small entities. However, given the small quantity expected to be imported from Vietnam relative to current import levels, the rule will not have a significant impact on U.S. mango producers. While Vietnam's mango season runs from February to September, encompassing that of the United States (Florida's season is from May to September), U.S. importers may benefit marginally in having Vietnam as another source of fresh mangoes that will help meet the growing demand.
Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This final rule allows fresh mango fruit to be imported into the continental United States from Vietnam. State and local laws and regulations regarding fresh mango fruit imported under this rule will be preempted while the fruit is in foreign commerce. Fresh fruits are generally imported for immediate distribution and sale to the consuming public, and remain in foreign commerce until sold to the ultimate consumer. The question of when foreign commerce ceases in other cases must be addressed on a case-by-case basis. No retroactive effect will be given to this rule, and this rule will not require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
In accordance with section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes. For information pertinent to E-Government Act compliance related to this rule, please contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
Coffee, Cotton, Fruits, Honey, Imports, Nursery stock, Plant diseases and pests, Plants, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rice, Sugar, Vegetables.
Accordingly, we are amending 7 CFR part 319 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 450 and 7701-7772 and 7781-7786; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.
Fresh mango (
(a) The fresh mango fruit may be imported in commercial consignments only.
(b) The fresh mango fruit must be treated for plant pests of the class Insecta, except pupae and adults of the order Lepidoptera, with irradiation in accordance with part 305 of this chapter.
(c) The risks presented by
(1) The fresh mango fruit are treated with a broad-spectrum post-harvest fungicidal dip; or
(2) The orchard of origin is inspected prior to the beginning of harvest and found free of
(3) The fresh mango fruit must originate from an orchard that was treated with a broad-spectrum fungicide during the growing season.
(d) Each consignment of fresh mango fruit must be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of Vietnam that contains an additional declaration stating that the fruit in the consignment was inspected and found free of
(e) The fruit is subject to inspection at the port of entry for all quarantine pests of concern.
Farm Credit Administration.
Notification of policy statements and index.
The Farm Credit Administration (FCA), as part of its annual public notification process, is publishing for notice an index of the 18 Board policy statements currently in existence. Most of the policy statements remain unchanged since our last
November 29, 2017.
A list of the 18 FCA Board policy statements is set forth below. FCA Board policy statements may be viewed online at
On August 24, 2017, the FCA Board updated FCA-PS-62 on, “Equal Employment Opportunity and Diversity.” The policy was published in the
On July 27, 2017, the FCA Board updated FCA-PS-68 on, “Farm Credit System Building Association Management Operations Policies and Practices.” The updated policy increases the dollar amount on contracts the Farm Credit System Building Association is required to competitively bid, to reflect current economic conditions. It clarifies requirements for FCA Board approval of Farm Credit System Building Association contracts to reflect current FCA practices. The complete policy statement is published below.
The FCA will continue to publish new or revised policy statements in their full text.
The FCSBA was established to provide the facilities and related services for the FCA and its field offices. The FCSBA is owned by the banks of the Farm Credit System (banks) and is funded by assessments, rental income from commercial tenants, and other income. The original ownership interest of each bank was based on the bank's assets as a percentage of total Farm Credit System (FCS) assets on June 30, 1981. The FCSBA owns and operates the FCA headquarters in McLean, Virginia, and holds the leases and provides certain services and furnishings for FCA field offices. The FCA Board has sole discretionary authority under section (1)5.16 of the Act to approve the plans and decisions for such building and facilities. In order to carry out this authority and to preserve the FCA's arms-length relationship with the banks, the Articles of Association and Bylaws of the FCSBA grant the FCA Board the responsibility to oversee the affairs of the FCSBA.
The purpose of this policy statement is to outline general parameters and
1. A cash statement of operations, an explanation of budget variances, and month-to-date cash reconciliation report. This report will include specific notations of any expected reallocations of funds requiring Board approval.
2. A status of all projects/building improvements that are planned, including current accounting of actual costs of each project.
3. A summary of the status of reserve accounts and investments including documentation as available demonstrating compliance with investment policies.
4. A comprehensive Management Objectives tracking report outlining the status of issues and projects resulting from a combination of one or more sources such as audit and examination recommendations, FCA Board directives, as well as management initiatives.
5. Other matters such as insurance, leasing and contract performance issues that may be timely for the particular reporting period.
1. A discussion of significant issues and accomplishments.
2. Audited financial statements and reportable conditions.
3. A discussion of the previous year's and current year's budget.
4. A discussion of basic and supplemental services provided to FCA by the FCSBA including an estimate of market and actual values of those services.
5. A discussion of non-budgeted expenditures, that have been reimbursed by the FCA.
As a part of the draft budget proposal to the FCA Board on or before November 1st every year, the FCSBA President shall provide an individual expense breakdown for each item within the object class. This breakdown shall include the actual expense from the previous year, the estimated expense for the current year, and the projected expense for the proposed year. Unanticipated and emergency expenses during the course of the year as well as expenditures beyond amounts approved for object classes may be funded out of the operating reserve subject to FCA Board approval.
Capital expenditures funded by transfers from the component reserve account should be shown separately with a breakdown of individual expenditures.
Adjustments to assessments can occur subject to FCA Board approval when total year end “cash and cash equivalents” exceed or are below operating and component reserve requirements. Adjustments are normally considered for third quarter assessments and are based upon the previous year's audited financial statements. Earnings, if any, are distributed through this process in lieu of direct payment.
With the goal of achieving the best long-term returns while minimizing risk, component reserves are invested solely in instruments backed by the U.S. Government and agencies of the U.S. Government. The maturities and amounts of component reserve investments shall be generally consistent with the anticipated liquidity needs of the FCSBA capital replacement and repair program. Component reserve investment decisions require FCA Board approval.
1. Competitively bid with a minimum of three bids, when in excess of $25,000.
2. Obtained with a minimum of three price quotes, when less than $25,000, and more than $10,000.
3. Generally awarded to the lowest bidder meeting contract specifications except in those instances where the differences in cost are considered negligible relative to a particular benefit offered by a higher bid.
4. Reviewed and approved by the FCA Board when in excess of $150,000 unless for outside auditors, property managers, or special studies. Contracts approved as part of the Budget do not need separate approval.
5. Reviewed and approved by the FCA Board when in excess of $25,000 if for outside auditors, property managers, or special studies. Contracts approved as part of the Budget do not need separate approval.
6. Retained in file a minimum of 3 years.
7. When possible, bid in conjunction with the budget year.
1. The FCSBA can provide the service on better terms than the FCA.
2. The service, if not provided by the FCSBA, could potentially adversely affect the aesthetic or other value of property, systems, building infrastructure, the health and safety of occupants, or the occupancy level of commercial tenants.
3. The capacity exists for the FCSBA to provide the service within the context of its employee expertise and/or its overall responsibilities to all tenants.
4. By providing the service, an advantage inures to the benefit of the FCS that would not otherwise occur.
5. An FCA Board determination that the service will be of particular benefit to the FCA, the FCS or the public. In the event of such a determination, no further FCA Board approval under Section A or Section F of this Policy Statement is necessary.
These supplemental services must be documented, and approved by the COO for services valued at $25,000 or less and approved by the FCA Board if valued in excess of $25,000. If the FCA Board approves a supplemental service, no further FCA Board authority under this Policy Statement is necessary. As deemed necessary, the FCSBA President shall issue SOPs prescribing operational or other details of FCSBA services provided to the FCA.
1. Reimbursement is not required for support provided by the FCSBA when resources are available within FCA Board approved budgets for the FCSBA and one or more of the criteria for supplemental services expenditures outlined above have been met.
2. Unless otherwise determined by an FCA Board action, supplemental support services requiring resources beyond that available within the FCSBA budget will require reimbursement.
3. Reimbursement that is not required is permitted at the discretion of the FCA Board.
Reimbursements in excess of $10,000 that occur on an ongoing basis will require a written Memorandum of Understanding between the FCA and the FCSBA outlining the terms and conditions of the services provided and reimbursement. One time or minor recurring reimbursements may be handled by purchase orders. Reimbursable expenses shall be determined on an actual cost basis or a recognized methodology to achieve the goal of fully reimbursing the FCSBA on the transaction.
By order of the board.
Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), Federal Transit Administration (FTA); U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This rulemaking rescinds certain transportation planning regulations pertaining to the establishment of the metropolitan planning area (MPA) boundaries, the designation of metropolitan planning organizations (MPO), and the coordination among MPOs. The amendments contained in this rule carry out the statutory mandate to rescind the final rule published on December 20, 2016, on this topic.
Effective on December 29, 2017.
For FHWA: Mr. Harlan W. Miller, Planning Oversight and Stewardship Team (HEPP-10), (202) 366-0847; or Ms. Janet Myers, Office of the Chief Counsel (HCC-30), (202) 366-2019. For FTA: Ms. Sherry Riklin, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 366-5407; Mr. Dwayne Weeks, Office of Planning and Environment, (202) 493-0316; or Mr. Christopher Hall, Office of the Chief Counsel, (202) 366-5218. Both agencies are located at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Office hours are from 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., ET for FHWA, and 9 a.m. to 5:30 p.m., ET for FTA, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
This document may be viewed online through the Federal eRulemaking portal at
Transportation planning is a cooperative, performance-driven process by which long and short-range transportation improvement priorities are determined. States, MPOs, and transit operators conduct transportation planning, with active involvement from the traveling public, the business community, community groups, environmental organizations, and freight operators. State governments, MPOs, and transit operators are essential partners in the management of the Nation's transportation system and best suited to develop and implement a continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive, or “3-C,” planning process for their States and metropolitan regions.
On December 20, 2016, FHWA and FTA promulgated a rule at 23 CFR part 450 and 49 CFR part 613 (81 FR 93448) (December 2016 Final Rule), which required MPOs to achieve compliance with the statutory requirement that an MPA include an entire urbanized area (UZA) and the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period through a range of coordination options including: Adjustment of their boundaries; coordination with other MPOs within their UZA to create unified planning products for the MPA; mergers; or the receipt of an exception from the Secretary.
On May 12, 2017, the President signed Public Law 115-33 (131 Stat. 845) repealing the December 2016 Final Rule. The legislation provides that the 2016 Final Rule shall have no force or effect, and any regulation revised by that rule shall be applied as if that rule had not been issued. As a result, the amendments in this final rule carry out that statutory instruction by revising the regulations to read as if the December 2016 Final Rule had not been issued.
The FHWA and FTA will continue to evaluate their regulations and guidance to promote improvements to the planning process in the least burdensome manner.
This rulemaking removes the revisions made by the December 2016 Final Rule, and restores the language promulgated in the May 27, 2016, rulemaking (81 FR 34050). Under the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553(b)), an agency may waive the normal notice-and-comment procedure if it finds, for good cause, that notice and comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. The Agencies find good cause that notice and comment for this rule is unnecessary due to the nature of the revisions (
The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rulemaking is a significant regulatory action within the meaning of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, and within the meaning of DOT regulatory policies and procedures. This action complies with E.O.s 12866, 13563, and 13771 to improve regulation.
This final rule is considered an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. This rulemaking eliminates requirements that MPOs achieve compliance with the statutory requirement that an MPA include an entire UZA and the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan by implementing one of several coordination options including: By adjusting their boundaries; by coordinating with other MPOs within their UZA to create unified planning products for the MPA; by merging; or by receiving an exception from the Secretary.
The FHWA and FTA have estimated that modifying these requirements would provide a maximum average annual cost savings of $86.3 million annually over 4 years and impose no additional costs on MPOs and States. This equates to a present value, using end of period discounting, of $330.4 million at a 3 percent discount rate and $312.8 million at a 7 percent discount rate. An indefinite horizon (
This action complies with the principles of E.O. 13563. After evaluating the costs and benefits of the rule, FHWA and FTA believe that the cost savings from this rulemaking would exceed the foregone benefits. These changes are not anticipated to adversely affect, in any material way, any sector of the economy. In addition, these changes will not create a serious inconsistency with any other agency's action or materially alter the budgetary impact of any entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs.
Since the Agencies find good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B) to waive notice and opportunity for comment for this rule, the provisions of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354, 5 U.S.C. 601-612) do not apply. However, the Agencies evaluated the effects of this action on small entities and determined the action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule addresses the obligation of Federal funds to State DOTs for Federal-aid highway projects. The rule affects two types of entities: State governments and MPOs. State governments do not meet the definition of a small entity under 5 U.S.C. 601, which have a population of less than 50,000.
The MPOs are considered governmental jurisdictions, and to qualify as a small entity, they need to serve less than 50,000 people. The MPOs serve UZAs with populations of 50,000 or more. Therefore, the MPOs that might incur economic impacts under this rule do not meet the definition of a small entity.
The FHWA and FTA hereby certify that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The FHWA and FTA have determined that this rule does not impose unfunded mandates, as defined by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4, March 22, 1995, 109 Stat. 48). This rule does not include a Federal mandate that may result in expenditures of $155.1 million or more in any single year (when adjusted for inflation) in 2012 dollars for either State, local, and Tribal governments in the aggregate, or by the private sector. In addition, the definition of “Federal mandate” in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act excludes financial assistance of the type in which State, local, or Tribal governments have authority to adjust their participation in the program in accordance with changes made in the program by the Federal Government. The Federal-aid highway program and the Federal Transit Act permit this type of flexibility.
Executive Order 13132 requires agencies to ensure meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that may have a substantial, direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. This action has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13132 dated August 4, 1999, and the Agencies determined this action will not have a substantial direct effect or sufficient federalism implications on the States. The Agencies also determined this action will not preempt any State law or regulation or affect the States' ability to discharge traditional State governmental functions.
The regulations implementing E.O. 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities apply to this program. Local entities should refer to the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Number 20.205, Highway Planning and Construction, for further information.
Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct, sponsor, or require through regulations. The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), and this rule does not impose additional information collection requirements for the purposes of the PRA above and beyond existing information collection clearances from OMB.
Federal agencies are required to adopt implementing procedures for the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) that establish specific criteria for, and identification of, three classes of actions: (1) Those that normally require preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement, (2) those that normally require preparation of an Environmental Assessment, and (3) those that are categorically excluded from further NEPA review (40 CFR 1507.3(b)). This rule qualifies for categorical exclusions under 23 CFR 771.117(c)(20) (promulgation of rules, regulations, and directives) and 771.117(c)(1) (activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction) for FHWA, and 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4) (planning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction) for FTA. The FHWA and FTA have evaluated whether the rule will involve unusual or extraordinary circumstances and have determined that it will not.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights. The FHWA and FTA do not believe this rule affects a taking of private property or otherwise has taking implications under E.O. 12630.
This rule meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. The FHWA and FTA certify that this action will not cause an environmental risk to health or safety that might disproportionately affect children.
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this rule under E.O. 13175, dated November 6, 2000, and believe that it will not have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes; will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments; and will not preempt Tribal laws. The rule addresses obligations of Federal funds
The FHWA and FTA have analyzed this action under E.O. 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. The FHWA and FTA have determined that this action is not a significant energy action under that order and is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. Therefore, a Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
The E.O. 12898 (Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations) and DOT Order 5610.2(a) (77 FR 27534, May 10, 2012) (available online at
The FHWA and FTA have issued additional documents relating to administration of E.O. 12898 and the DOT Order. On June 14, 2012, FHWA issued an update to its EJ order, FHWA Order 6640.23A (FHWA Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low Income Populations (available online at
The FHWA and FTA have evaluated this action under the E.O., the DOT Order, the FHWA Order, and the FTA Circular. The EJ principles, in the context of planning, should be considered when the planning process is being implemented at the State and local level. As part of their stewardship and oversight of the federally aided transportation planning process of the States, MPOs, and operators of public transportation, FHWA and FTA encourage these entities to incorporate EJ principles into the statewide and metropolitan planning processes and documents, as appropriate and consistent with the applicable orders and the FTA Circular. When FHWA and FTA make a future funding or other approval decision on a project basis, they will consider EJ.
Nothing inherent in the rule will disproportionately impact minority or low-income populations. The rule establishes procedures and other requirements to guide future State and local decisionmaking on programs and projects. Neither the rule nor 23 U.S.C. 134 and 135 dictate the outcome of those decisions. The FHWA and FTA have determined that this action will not cause disproportionately high and adverse human health and environmental effects on minority or low-income populations.
A Regulation Identifier Number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN number contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this rule with the Unified Agenda.
Grant programs—transportation, Highway and roads, Mass transportation, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Grant programs—transportation, Highways and roads, Mass transportation.
In consideration of the foregoing, FHWA and FTA amend title 23, Code of Federal Regulations, part 450, and title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, part 613, as set forth below:
23 U.S.C. 134, 135, and 315; 42 U.S.C. 7410
(a) * * *
(1) Coordinate planning carried out under this subpart with the metropolitan transportation planning activities carried out under subpart C of
The revision reads as follows:
(a) Set forth the national policy that the MPO designated for each urbanized area is to carry out a continuing, cooperative, and comprehensive performance-based multimodal transportation planning process, including the development of a metropolitan transportation plan and a TIP, that encourages and promotes the safe and efficient development, management, and operation of surface transportation systems to serve the mobility needs of people and freight (including accessible pedestrian walkways, bicycle transportation facilities, and intermodal facilities that support intercity transportation, including intercity buses and intercity bus facilities and commuter vanpool providers) fosters economic growth and development, and takes into consideration resiliency needs, while minimizing transportation-related fuel consumption and air pollution; and
(i) In an urbanized area not designated as a TMA that is an air quality attainment area, the MPO(s) may propose and submit to the FHWA and the FTA for approval a procedure for developing an abbreviated metropolitan transportation plan and TIP. In developing proposed simplified planning procedures, consideration shall be given to whether the abbreviated metropolitan transportation plan and TIP will achieve the purposes of 23 U.S.C. 134, 49 U.S.C. 5303, and this part, taking into account the complexity of the transportation problems in the area. The MPO shall develop simplified procedures in cooperation with the State(s) and public transportation operator(s).
(e) To the extent possible, only one MPO shall be designated for each urbanized area or group of contiguous urbanized areas. More than one MPO may be designated to serve an urbanized area only if the Governor(s) and the existing MPO, if applicable, determine that the size and complexity of the urbanized area-make designation of more than one MPO appropriate. In those cases where two or more MPOs serve the same urbanized area, the MPOs shall establish official, written agreements that clearly identify areas of coordination, and the division of transportation planning responsibilities among the MPOs.
(m) Each Governor with responsibility for a portion of a multistate metropolitan area and the appropriate MPOs shall, to the extent practicable, provide coordinated transportation planning for the entire MPA. The consent of Congress is granted to any two or more States to:
(a) The boundaries of a metropolitan planning area (MPA) shall be determined by agreement between the MPO and the Governor.
(1) At a minimum, the MPA boundaries shall encompass the entire existing urbanized area (as defined by the Bureau of the Census) plus the contiguous area expected to become urbanized within a 20-year forecast period for the metropolitan transportation plan.
(2) The MPA boundaries may be further expanded to encompass the entire metropolitan statistical area or combined statistical area, as defined by the Office of Management and Budget.
(b) An MPO that serves an urbanized area designated as a nonattainment area for ozone or carbon monoxide under the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) An MPA boundary may encompass more than one urbanized area.
(d) MPA boundaries may be established to coincide with the geography of regional economic development and growth forecasting areas.
(e) Identification of new urbanized areas within an existing metropolitan planning area by the Bureau of the Census shall not require redesignation of the existing MPO.
(f) Where the boundaries of the urbanized area or MPA extend across two or more States, the Governors with responsibility for a portion of the multistate area, the appropriate MPO(s), and the public transportation operator(s) are strongly encouraged to coordinate transportation planning for the entire multistate area.
(g) The MPA boundaries shall not overlap with each other.
(h) Where part of an urbanized area served by one MPO extends into an adjacent MPA, the MPOs shall, at a minimum, establish written agreements that clearly identify areas of coordination and the division of transportation planning responsibilities among and between the MPOs. Alternatively, the MPOs may adjust their existing boundaries so that the entire urbanized area lies within only one MPA. Boundary adjustments that change the composition of the MPO may require redesignation of one or more such MPOs.
(i) The MPO (in cooperation with the State and public transportation operator(s)) shall review the MPA boundaries after each Census to determine if existing MPA boundaries meet the minimum statutory requirements for new and updated urbanized area(s), and shall adjust them as necessary. As appropriate, additional adjustments should be made to reflect the most comprehensive boundary to foster an effective planning process that ensures connectivity between modes,
(j) Following MPA boundary approval by the MPO and the Governor, the MPA boundary descriptions shall be provided for informational purposes to the FHWA and the FTA. The MPA boundary descriptions shall be submitted either as a geo-spatial database or described in sufficient detail to enable the boundaries to be accurately delineated on a map.
(a) The MPO, the State(s), and the providers of public transportation shall cooperatively determine their mutual responsibilities in carrying out the metropolitan transportation planning process. These responsibilities shall be clearly identified in written agreements among the MPO, the State(s), and the providers of public transportation serving the MPA. To the extent possible, a single agreement between all responsible parties should be developed. The written agreement(s) shall include specific provisions for the development of financial plans that support the metropolitan transportation plan (see § 450.324) and the metropolitan TIP (see § 450.326), and development of the annual listing of obligated projects (see § 450.334).
(b) The MPO, the State(s), and the providers of public transportation should periodically review and update the agreement, as appropriate, to reflect effective changes.
(c) If the MPA does not include the entire nonattainment or maintenance area, there shall be a written agreement among the State department of transportation, State air quality agency, affected local agencies, and the MPO describing the process for cooperative planning and analysis of all projects outside the MPA within the nonattainment or maintenance area. The agreement must also indicate how the total transportation-related emissions for the nonattainment or maintenance area, including areas outside the MPA, will be treated for the purposes of determining conformity in accordance with the EPA's transportation conformity regulations (40 CFR part 93, subpart A). The agreement shall address policy mechanisms for resolving conflicts concerning transportation-related emissions that may arise between the MPA and the portion of the nonattainment or maintenance area outside the MPA.
(d) In nonattainment or maintenance areas, if the MPO is not the designated agency for air quality planning under section 174 of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7504), there shall be a written agreement between the MPO and the designated air quality planning agency describing their respective roles and responsibilities for air quality related transportation planning.
(e) If more than one MPO has been designated to serve an urbanized area there shall be a written agreement among the MPOs, the State(s), and the public transportation operator(s) describing how the metropolitan transportation planning processes will be coordinated to assure the development of consistent metropolitan transportation plans and TIPs across the MPA boundaries, particularly in cases in which a proposed transportation investment extends across the boundaries of more than one MPA. If any part of the urbanized area is a nonattainment or maintenance area, the agreement also shall include State and local air quality agencies. The metropolitan transportation planning processes for affected MPOs should, to the maximum extent possible, reflect coordinated data collection, analysis, and planning assumptions across the MPAs. Alternatively, a single metropolitan transportation plan and/or TIP for the entire urbanized area may be developed jointly by the MPOs in cooperation with their respective planning partners. Coordination efforts and outcomes shall be documented in subsequent transmittals of the UPWP and other planning products, including the metropolitan transportation plan and TIP, to the State(s), the FHWA, and the FTA.
(f) Where the boundaries of the urbanized area or MPA extend across two or more States, the Governors with responsibility for a portion of the multistate area, the appropriate MPO(s), and the public transportation operator(s) shall coordinate transportation planning for the entire multistate area. States involved in such multistate transportation planning may:
(1) Enter into agreements or compacts, not in conflict with any law of the United States, for cooperative efforts and mutual assistance in support of activities authorized under this section as the activities pertain to interstate areas and localities within the States; and
(2) Establish such agencies, joint or otherwise, as the States may determine desirable for making the agreements and compacts effective.
(g) If part of an urbanized area that has been designated as a TMA overlaps into an adjacent MPA serving an urbanized area that is not designated as a TMA, the adjacent urbanized area shall not be treated as a TMA. However, a written agreement shall be established between the MPOs with MPA boundaries, including a portion of the TMA, which clearly identifies the roles and responsibilities of each MPO in meeting specific TMA requirements (
(h)(1) The MPO(s), State(s), and the providers of public transportation shall jointly agree upon and develop specific written provisions for cooperatively developing and sharing information related to transportation performance data, the selection of performance targets, the reporting of performance targets, the reporting of performance to be used in tracking progress toward attainment of critical outcomes for the region of the MPO (see § 450.306(d)), and the collection of data for the State asset management plan for the NHS for each of the following circumstances:
(i) When one MPO serves an urbanized area;
(ii) When more than one MPO serves an urbanized area; and
(iii) When an urbanized area that has been designated as a TMA overlaps into an adjacent MPA serving an urbanized area that is not a TMA.
(2) These provisions shall be documented either:
(i) As part of the metropolitan planning agreements required under paragraphs (a), (e), and (g) of this section; or
(ii) Documented in some other means outside of the metropolitan planning agreements as determined cooperatively by the MPO(s), State(s), and providers of public transportation.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) The MPO, in cooperation with the State(s) and any affected public transportation operator(s), shall develop a TIP for the metropolitan planning area. The TIP shall reflect the investment priorities established in the current metropolitan transportation plan and shall cover a period of no less than 4 years, be updated at least every 4 years, and be approved by the MPO and the Governor. However, if the TIP covers more than 4 years, the FHWA and the FTA will consider the projects in the additional years as informational. The MPO may update the TIP more frequently, but the cycle for updating the TIP must be compatible with the STIP development and approval process. The TIP expires when the FHWA/FTA approval of the STIP expires. Copies of any updated or revised TIPs must be provided to the FHWA and the FTA. In nonattainment and maintenance areas subject to transportation conformity requirements, the FHWA and the FTA, as well as the MPO, must make a conformity determination on any updated or amended TIP, in accordance with the Clean Air Act requirements and the EPA's transportation conformity regulations (40 CFR part 93, subpart A).
23 U.S.C. 134, 135, and 217(g); 42 U.S.C. 3334, 4233, 4332, 7410
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Labor.
Extension of the transition period for PTE amendments.
This document extends the special transition period under sections II and IX of the Best Interest Contract Exemption and section VII of the Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs for 18 months. This document also delays the applicability of certain amendments to Prohibited Transaction Exemption 84-24 for the same period. The primary purpose of the amendments is to give the Department of Labor the time necessary to consider public comments under the criteria set forth in the Presidential Memorandum of February 3, 2017, including whether possible changes and alternatives to these exemptions would be appropriate in light of the current comment record and potential input from, and action by, the Securities and Exchange Commission and state insurance commissioners. The Department is granting the delay because of its concern that, without a delay in the applicability dates, consumers may face significant confusion, and regulated parties may incur undue expense to comply with conditions or requirements that the Department ultimately determines to revise or repeal. The former transition period was from June 9, 2017, to January 1, 2018. The new transition period ends on July 1, 2019, rather than on January 1, 2018. The amendments to these exemptions affect participants and beneficiaries of plans, IRA owners and fiduciaries with respect to such plans and IRAs.
This document extends the special transition period under sections II and IX of the Best Interest Contract Exemption and section VII of the Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs (82 FR 16902) to July 1, 2019, and delays the applicability of certain amendments to Prohibited Transaction Exemption 84-24 from January 1, 2018 (82 FR 16902) until July 1, 2019. See Section G of the
Brian Shiker or Susan Wilker, telephone (202) 693-8824, Office of Exemption Determinations, Employee Benefits Security Administration.
Section 3(21)(A)(ii) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (ERISA), in relevant part provides that a person is a fiduciary with respect to a plan to the extent he or she renders investment advice for a fee or other compensation, direct or indirect, with respect to any moneys or other property of such plan, or has any authority or responsibility to do so. Section 4975(e)(3)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (“Code”) has a parallel
On April 8, 2016, the Department replaced the 1975 regulation with a new regulatory definition (the “Fiduciary Rule”). The Fiduciary Rule defines who is a “fiduciary” of an employee benefit plan under section 3(21)(A)(ii) of ERISA as a result of giving investment advice to a plan or its participants or beneficiaries for a fee or other compensation. The Fiduciary Rule also applies to the definition of a “fiduciary” of a plan in the Code pursuant to Reorganization Plan No. 4 of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 1, 92 Stat. 3790. The Fiduciary Rule treats persons who provide investment advice or recommendations for a fee or other compensation with respect to assets of a plan or IRA as fiduciaries in a wider array of advice relationships than was true under the 1975 regulation. On the same date, the Department published two new administrative class exemptions from the prohibited transaction provisions of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1106) and the Code (26 U.S.C. 4975(c)(1)) (the Best Interest Contract Exemption (BIC Exemption) and the Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets Between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs (Principal Transactions Exemption)) as well as amendments to previously granted exemptions (collectively referred to as “PTEs,” unless otherwise indicated). The Fiduciary Rule and PTEs had an original applicability date of April 10, 2017.
By Memorandum dated February 3, 2017, the President directed the Department to prepare an updated analysis of the likely impact of the Fiduciary Rule on access to retirement information and financial advice. The President's Memorandum was published in the
On April 7, 2017, the Department promulgated a final rule extending the applicability date of the Fiduciary Rule by 60 days from April 10, 2017, to June 9, 2017 (“April Delay Rule”).
On July 6, 2017, the Department published in the
On August 31, 2017, the Department published a proposal (the August 31 Notice) to extend the current special transition period under sections II and IX of the BIC Exemption and section VII of the Principal Transactions Exemption from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2019. The Department also proposed in the August 31 Notice to delay the applicability of certain amendments to PTE 84-24 for the same period.
Although the Fiduciary Rule, BIC Exemption, and Principal Transactions Exemption first became applicable on June 9, 2017, with transition relief through January 1, 2018, the August 31 Notice proposed to extend the Transition Period until July 1, 2019. During this extended Transition Period, “Financial Institutions” and “Advisers,” as defined in the exemptions, would only have to comply with the “Impartial Conduct Standards” to satisfy the exemptions' requirements. In general, this means that Financial Institutions and Advisers must give prudent advice that is in retirement investors' best interest, charge no more than reasonable compensation, and avoid misleading statements.
The August 31 Notice proposed that the remaining conditions of the BIC Exemption would not become applicable until July 1, 2019. Remaining conditions include the requirement, for transactions involving IRA owners, that the Financial Institution enter into an enforceable written contract with the retirement investor. The contract would include an enforceable promise to adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards, an express acknowledgement of fiduciary status, and a variety of disclosures related to fees, services, and conflicts of interest. IRA owners, who do not have statutory enforcement rights under ERISA, would be able to enforce their contractual rights under state law. Also, as of July 1, 2019, the exemption would require Financial Institutions to adopt a substantial number of new policies and procedures that meet specified conflict-mitigation criteria. In particular, the policies and procedures must be reasonably and prudently designed to ensure that Advisers adhere to the Impartial Conduct Standards and must provide that neither the Financial Institution nor (to the best of its knowledge) its affiliates or related entities will use or rely on quotas, appraisals, performance or personnel actions, bonuses, contests, special awards, differential compensation, or other actions or incentives that are intended or would reasonably be expected to cause advisers to make recommendations that are not in the best interest of the retirement investor. Also as of July 1, 2019, Financial Institutions entering into contracts with IRA owners pursuant to the exemption would have to include a warranty that they have adopted and will comply with the required policies and procedures. Financial Institutions would also be required at that time to provide disclosures, both to the individual retirement investor on a transaction basis, and on a Web site.
Similarly, while the Principal Transactions Exemption is conditioned solely on adherence to the Impartial Conduct Standards during the Transition Period, the August 31 Notice also proposed that its remaining conditions would become applicable on July 1, 2019. The Principal Transactions Exemption permits investment advice fiduciaries to sell to or purchase from plans or IRAs “principal traded assets” through “principal transactions” and “riskless principal transactions”—transactions involving the sale from or purchase for the Financial Institution's own inventory. As of July 1, 2019, the exemption would require a contract and a policies and procedures warranty that mirror the requirements in the BIC Exemption. The Principal Transactions Exemption also includes some conditions that are different from the BIC Exemption, including credit and liquidity standards for debt securities sold to plans and IRAs pursuant to the exemption and additional disclosure requirements.
PTE 84-24, which applies to advisory transactions involving insurance and annuity contracts and mutual fund shares, was most recently amended in 2016 in conjunction with the development of the Fiduciary Rule, BIC Exemption, and Principal Transactions Exemption.
Based on its review and evaluation of the public comments, the Department is adopting the proposed amendments without change. Thus, the Transition Period in the BIC Exemption and Principal Transaction Exemption is extended for 18 months until July 1, 2019, and the applicability date of the amendments to PTE 84-24, other than the Impartial Conduct Standards, is delayed for the same period. Accordingly, the same rules and standards in effect between June 9, 2017, and December 31, 2017, will remain in effect throughout the duration of the extended Transition Period. Consequently, Financial Institutions and Advisers must continue to give prudent advice that is in retirement investors' best interest, charge no more than reasonable compensation, and avoid misleading statements. As the Department has stated previously:
The Impartial Conduct Standards represent fundamental obligations of fair dealing and fiduciary conduct. The concepts of prudence, undivided loyalty and reasonable compensation are all deeply rooted in ERISA and the common law of agency and trusts. These longstanding concepts of law and equity were developed in significant part to deal with the issues that arise when agents and persons in a position of trust have conflicting loyalties, and accordingly, are well-suited to the problems posed by conflicted investment advice.
It is based on the continued adherence to these fundamental protections that the Department, pursuant to 29 U.S.C. 1108 and 26 U.S.C. 4975, is making the necessary findings and granting the extension until July 1, 2019.
A delay of the remaining conditions of the BIC Exemption and Principal Transactions Exemption, and of the remaining amendments to PTE 84-24, is necessary and appropriate for multiple reasons. To begin with, the Department has not yet completed the reexamination of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs, as directed by the President on February 3, 2017. More time is needed to carefully and thoughtfully review the substantial commentary received in response to the multiple solicitations for comments in 2017 and to honor the President's directive to take a hard look at any potential undue burden. Whether, and to what extent, there will be changes to the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs as a result of this reexamination is unknown until its completion. The examination will help identify any potential alternative exemptions or conditions that could reduce costs and increase benefits to all affected parties, without unduly compromising protections for retirement investors. The Department anticipates that it will have a much clearer sense of the range of such alternatives only after it completes a careful review of the responses to the RFI. The Department also anticipates that it will propose in the near future a new streamlined class exemption. However, neither such a proposal nor any other changes or modifications to the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs, if any, realistically could be finalized by the current January 1, 2018, applicability date. Nor would that timeframe accommodate the Department's desire to coordinate with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and other regulators, such as the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) and the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) in the development of any such proposal or changes. The Chairman of the SEC has recently published a statement seeking public comments on the standards of conduct for investment advisers and broker-dealers, and has welcomed the Department's invitation to engage constructively as the SEC moves forward with its examination of the standards of conduct applicable to investment advisers and broker-dealers, and related matters. Absent a delay, however, Financial Institutions and Advisers would feel compelled to ready themselves for the provisions that would become applicable on January 1, 2018, despite the possibility of changes and alternatives on the horizon. The 18-month delay avoids obligating financial services providers to incur costs to comply with conditions, which may be revised, repealed, or replaced. The delay also avoids attendant investor confusion, ensuring that investors do not receive conflicting and confusing statements from their financial advisors as the result of any later revisions.
Not all commenters support this approach. As mentioned above, the Department received approximately 145 comment letters on the proposed 18-month delay. As with earlier comments on the April Delay Rule, as well as those received in response to Question 1 of the RFI, there is no uniform consensus on whether a delay is appropriate, or on the appropriate length of any delay. Some commenters supported the proposed 18-month delay, some commenters sought longer delays, and still other commenters opposed any delay at all. However, a clear majority of commenters support a delay of at least 18 months, with many supporting a much longer delay.
The primary reason commenters cited in support of the delay was to avoid unnecessary costs of compliance with provisions of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs that the commenters believed could be changed or rescinded upon completion of the review under the Presidential Memorandum.
The primary reason commenters gave against the delay is that investors will be economically harmed during the 18-month delay period because, according to these commenters, there would not be any meaningful enforcement mechanism in the PTEs without the contract, warranty, disclosure and other enforcement and accountability conditions.
Because the contract, warranty, disclosure and other enforcement and accountability conditions in the PTEs are intended to support adherence to the Impartial Conduct Standards, the Department acknowledges that the 18-month delay may result in a deferral of some of the estimated investor gains. As discussed below in the regulatory impact analysis, the precise amount of such deferral is unknown because the precise degree of adherence during the 18-month period also is unknown. Many commenters strongly dispute the likelihood of any harm to investors as result of the delay of the enforcement and accountability conditions. These commenters emphatically believe that investors are sufficiently protected by the imposition of the Impartial Conduct Standards along with many applicable non-ERISA consumer protections.
In this regard, the Department notes that, despite the view of several commenters, the duties of prudence and loyalty embedded in the Impartial Conduct Standards provide protection to retirement investors during the Transition Period, apart from the additional delayed enforcement and accountability provisions. The Department previously articulated the view that, during the Transition Period, it expects that advisers and financial institutions will adopt prudent supervisory mechanisms to prevent violations of the Impartial Conduct Standards.
Some commenters questioned the Department's authority to delay the PTE conditions and amendments as proposed. They focused their arguments on section 705 of the APA (5 U.S.C. 705), which permits an agency to postpone the effective date of an action, pending judicial review, if the agency finds that justice so requires. These commenters say that this provision is the only method by which a federal agency may delay or stay the applicability or effective date of a rule, even if another statute confers general rulemaking authority on that agency. Since the PTEs were applicable to transactions occurring on or after June 9, 2017, the commenters argue that section 705 of the APA, by its terms, is not available in this circumstance. In the absence of the availability of section 705 of the APA, they assert, the Department lacks authority to delay the applicability date of the PTE conditions and amendments, as proposed. However, the Department disagrees that it lacks authority to adopt the 18-month delay of the conditions and amendments in this circumstance, where the Department is acting through and in accordance with its ordinary notice and comment rulemaking procedures for PTEs, pursuant to both the APA and 29 U.S.C. 1108. As noted elsewhere in the document, the Department is granting
Although the August 31 Notice proposed a fixed 18-month delay, the proposal also specifically solicited comments on the benefit or harms of two alternative delay approaches: (1) A contingent delay that ends a specified period after the occurrence of a specific event, such as the Department's completion of the reexamination ordered by the President or the publication of changes to the Fiduciary Rule or PTEs; and (2) a tiered approach postponing full applicability until the earlier of or the later of (a) a time certain and (b) the end of a specified period after the occurrence of a specific event. There was no consensus among the commenters as to either the proper amount of time for a delay or the best approach (time certain delay versus contingent or tiered delays). Pros and cons were reported on all three approaches.
Many commenters supported the fixed 18-month delay in the proposal. The proposed 18-month period would commence on January 1, 2018, and end on July 1, 2019, regardless of exactly when the Department might complete its reexamination or take any other action or actions. The premise behind this approach is that, whatever action or actions may or may not be taken by the Department, such actions would be completed within the 18-month period. These commenters believe this approach provides more certainty, to both industry stakeholders and investors, as compared to the other approaches.
By contrast, many commenters believe a contingent or tiered approach is the better way forward.
As between the proposed 18-month fixed delay and the contingent and tiered alternatives, the Department continues to believe that using a date-certain approach, rather than one of the other alternatives, is the best way to respond to and minimize concerns about uncertainty with respect to the eventual application and scope of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. Although the contingent and tiered approaches have the built-in advantage of an automatic extension, if needed, it is difficult to choose the appropriate triggering event before the Department completes its reexamination of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. Interjecting unnecessary uncertainty regarding the future applicability and scope of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs is harmful to all stakeholders. In addition, the Department believes that the additional 18 months is sufficient to complete review of the new information in the record and to implement changes to the Fiduciary Rule and/or PTEs, if any, including opportunity for notice and comment and coordination with other regulatory agencies.
The proposal also solicited comments on whether to condition any extension of the Transition Period on the behavior of the entity seeking relief under the Transition Period. For example, the Department specifically asked for comment on whether to condition the delay on a Financial Institution's showing that it has, or a promise that it will, take steps to harness recent innovations in investment products and services, such as “clean shares.” All of the comments in response to this question opposed this idea. Some commenters expressed their concern that this approach would add confusion for Financial Institutions, who would be forced to change their products and services, and for retirement consumers, who would be forced to react to such changes.
The Department rejects certain comments beyond the scope of this rulemaking, whether such comments were received pursuant to the August 31 Notice or the RFI. For instance, one commenter urged the Department to amend the Principal Transactions Exemption for the Transition Period to remove the limits on products that can be traded on a principal basis, and allow those products that have historically been traded in the principal market to continue to be bought and sold by IRAs and plans, including, but not limited to, foreign currency, municipal bonds, and equity and debt IPOs. A different commenter requested that the Department revise the “grandfather” exemption, in section VII of the BIC Exemption, so that grandfathering treatment would apply to recommendations made prior to the expiration of the extended Transition Period (July 1, 2019).
ERISA section 408(a) specifically authorizes the Secretary of Labor to grant administrative exemptions from ERISA's prohibited transaction provisions.
On May 22, 2017, the Department issued a temporary enforcement policy covering the transition period between June 9, 2017, and January 1, 2018, during which the Department will not pursue claims against investment advice fiduciaries who are working diligently and in good faith to comply with their fiduciary duties and to meet the conditions of the PTEs, or otherwise treat those investment advice fiduciaries as being in violation of their fiduciary duties and not compliant with the PTEs.
Commenters supporting an extension of the Transition Period overwhelmingly indicated their support for also extending the temporary enforcement policy in FAB 2017-02, to align the two periods.
Although the Department has a statutory responsibility and broad authority to investigate or audit employee benefit plans and plan fiduciaries to ensure compliance with the law, compliance assistance for plan fiduciaries and other service providers is also a high priority for the Department. The Department has repeatedly said that its general approach to implementation will be marked by an emphasis on assisting (rather than citing violations and imposing penalties on) plans, plan fiduciaries, financial institutions, and others who are working diligently and in good faith to understand and come into compliance with the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. Consistent with that approach, the Department has determined that extended temporary enforcement relief is appropriate and in the interest of plans, plan fiduciaries, plan participants and beneficiaries, IRAs, and IRA owners. Accordingly, during the phased implementation period from June 7, 2016, to July 1, 2019, the Department will not pursue claims against fiduciaries who are working diligently and in good faith to comply with the Fiduciary Rule and applicable provisions of the PTEs, or treat those fiduciaries as being in violation of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs.
Accordingly, as the Department reviews the compliance efforts of firms and advisers during the Transition Period, it will focus on the affirmative steps that firms have taken to comply with the Impartial Conduct Standards and to reduce the scope and severity of conflicts of interest that could lead to violations of those standards. The Department recognizes that the development of effective, long-term compliance solutions may take time, but it remains critically important that firms take action to ensure that investment recommendations are governed by the best interests of retirement investors, rather than the potentially competing financial incentives of the firm or adviser.
As the Department explained in previous guidance, although firms “retain flexibility to choose precisely how to safeguard compliance with the Impartial Conduct Standards”
The Department also remains “broadly available to discuss compliance approaches and related issues with interested parties, and would invite interested parties to contact the Department”
The Department expects that the extension of the Transition Period under the BIC and Principal Transactions Exemptions and the delay of the amendments to PTE 84-24 (other than the Impartial Conduct Standards) will
If the Department revises or repeals some aspects of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs in the future, the delay will allow affected firms to avoid incurring significant implementation costs now which later might turn out to be unnecessary. Furthermore, the delay will provide firms with more time to develop new products and practices that can provide long-term solutions for mitigating conflicts of interests. For example, a commenter cited numerous logistical obstacles that must be surmounted before using clean share classes in the market.
This final rule is an economically significant action within the meaning of section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866, because it would likely have an effect on the economy of $100 million in at least one year. Accordingly, the Department has considered the costs and benefits of the final rule, which has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Beginning on June 9, 2017, Financial Institutions and Advisers generally were required to (1) make recommendations that are in their client's best interest (
The Department received many comments on the question of whether the delay would reduce investor gains. One group of commenters argued that the delay would not cause any harms to investors,
Another group of commenters argued that the delay would cause significant losses to investors,
The Department carefully reviewed and weighed these comments and the referenced reports on potential investor losses caused by this delay. Steps some firms already have taken toward compliance, if not reversed, may limit investor losses. By some accounts,
These potential losses, however, must be weighed against the costs that firms and investors would incur if the January 1, 2018 applicability date were not delayed. Absent delay, firms would be forced to rush to comply with provisions that the Department may soon revise or rescind. Notwithstanding whatever steps firms already have taken toward compliance, it is likely that for many, such a rush to comply would be costly, disruptive, and/or infeasible. Smaller firms, which may be least prepared to comply fully, might be affected most. The disruption also could adversely affect many investors. Some of the costs incurred could turn out to be wasted if costly provisions are later revised or rescinded—and subsequent implementation of revised provisions might sow confusion and yield additional disruption. This delay will avert such disruption along with the potentially wasted cost of complying with provisions that the Department later revises or rescinds. In addition, the Department notes that some commenters' observations that investor losses from this delay may exceed associated compliance cost savings do not reflect the totality of economic considerations properly at hand. While some investor losses will reflect decreases in overall social welfare, others will reflect transfers from investors to the financial industry, which, while undesirable, are not social costs per se. Compliance costs in turn represent only some of the societal costs that may be averted by this delay. Others include those attributable to the potential disruption and confusion that could adversely affect both firms and investors.
The Department acknowledges uncertainty surrounding potential investor losses from this delay. On balance, however, the Department concludes that the delay is justified, insofar as avoiding the market disruption that would occur if regulated parties incur costs to comply quickly with conditions or requirements the Department subsequently revises or repeals and the resultant significant consumer confusion justifies any attendant investor losses.
Some firms that are fiduciaries under the Fiduciary Rule may have committed resources to implementing procedures to support compliance with their fiduciary obligations. This may include changing their compensation structures and monitoring the practices and procedures of their advisers to ensure that conflicts of interest do not cause violations of the Fiduciary Rule and Impartial Conduct Standards of the PTEs, and maintaining sufficient records to corroborate that they are complying with the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. These firms have considerable flexibility to choose precisely how they will achieve compliance with the PTEs during the extended transition period. According to some commenters, the majority of broker-dealers have not yet made any changes to their internal compensation arrangements and have not fully developed monitoring systems.
Some commenters have asserted that the delay could result in cost savings for firms compared to the costs that were estimated in the Department's 2016 RIA to the extent that the requirements of the Fiduciary Rule and PTE conditions are modified in a way that would result in less expensive compliance costs. However, the Department generally believes that start-up costs not yet incurred for requirements previously scheduled to become applicable on January 1, 2018, should not be included, at this time, as a cost savings associated with this rule because the rule would merely delay the full implementation of certain conditions in the PTEs until July 1, 2019, while the Department considers whether to propose changes and alternatives to the exemptions. The Department would be required to assume for purposes of this regulatory impact analysis that those start-up costs that have not been incurred generally would be delayed rather than avoided unless or until the Department acts to modify the compliance obligations of firms and advisers to make them more efficient. Nonetheless, even based on that assumption, there may be some cost savings that could be quantified as arising from the delay because some ongoing costs would not be incurred until July 1, 2019. The Department has taken two approaches to quantifying the savings resulting from the delay in incurring such ongoing costs: (1) Quantifying the costs based on a shift in the time horizon of the costs (
The first of the two approaches reflects the time value of money (
The second of the two approaches simply estimates the expenses foregone during the period from January 1, 2018, to July 1, 2019, as a result of the delay. When the Department published the Fiduciary Rule and accompanying PTEs, it calculated that the total ongoing compliance costs of the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs were $1.5 billion annually. Therefore, the Department estimates the ten-year present value of the cost savings of firms not being required to incur ongoing compliance costs during an 18 month delay would be approximately $2.2 billion using a three percent discount rate
Based on its progress thus far with the review and reexamination directed by the President, however, the Department believes there may be evidence supporting alternatives that reduce costs and increase benefits to all affected parties, while maintaining protections for retirement investors. The Department anticipates that it will have a clearer sense of the range of such alternatives once it completes a careful review of the data and evidence submitted in response to the RFI.
The Department also cannot determine at this time the degree to which the infrastructure that affected firms have already established to ensure compliance with the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs exemptions would be sufficient to facilitate compliance with the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs conditions if they are modified in the future.
While the Department considered several alternatives that were informed by public comments, the Department's chosen alternative in this final rule is likely to yield the most desirable outcome, including avoidance of investor losses otherwise associated with costly market disruptions. In weighing different options, the Department took numerous factors into account. The Department's objective was to facilitate orderly marketplace innovation and avoid unnecessary confusion and uncertainty in the investment advice market and associated expenses for America's workers and retirees.
The Department solicited comments at the proposed rule stage regarding whether it should adopt an extension that would end (1) a specified period after the occurrence of a specific event (a contingent approach) or (2) on the earlier or the later of (a) a time certain and (b) the end of a specified period after the occurrence of a specific event (a tiered approach). Several commenters supported a contingent or tiered approach,
As discussed above in this preamble, some commenters urged the Department to require firms to comply with the original transitional requirements of the exemptions, not just the Impartial Conduct Standards.
The Department also considered not extending the transition period, which would mean that the remaining conditions in the PTEs would become applicable on January 1, 2018. The Department rejected this alternative because it would not provide sufficient time for the Department to complete its ongoing review of, or propose and finalize any changes to the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. Moreover, absent the extended transition period, Financial Institutions and Advisers would feel compelled to prepare for full compliance with PTE conditions that become applicable on January 1, 2018, despite the possibility that the Department might identify and adopt more efficient alternatives or other significant changes to the rule. This could lead to unnecessary compliance costs and market disruptions. As compared to a shorter delay with the
The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501,
OMB has previously approved information collections contained in the Fiduciary Rule and PTEs. The Department now is extending the transition period for the full conditions of the PTEs associated with its Fiduciary Rule until July 1, 2019. The Department is not modifying the substance of the information collections at this time; however, the current OMB approval periods of the information collection requests (ICRs) expire before the new applicability date for the full conditions of the PTEs as they currently exist. Therefore, many of the information collections will remain inactive for the remainder of the current ICR approval periods. The ICRs contained in the exemptions are discussed below.
For a more detailed discussion of the information collections and associated burden of this PTE, see the Department's PRA analysis at 81 FR 21002, 21071.
For a more detailed discussion of the information collections and associated burden of this PTE, see the Department's PRA analysis at 81 FR 21089, 21129.
The rule delays the applicability date of amendments to PTE 84-24 until July 1, 2019, except that the Impartial Conduct Standards became applicable on June 9, 2017. The Department does not have sufficient data to estimate that number of respondents that will use PTE 84-24 with the inclusion of Impartial Conduct Standards but delayed applicability date of amendments. Therefore, the Department has not revised its burden estimate.
For a more detailed discussion of the information collections and associated burden of this PTE, see the Department's PRA analysis at 81 FR 21147, 21171.
These paperwork burden estimates, which comprise start-up costs that will be incurred prior to the July 1, 2019, effective date (and the June 30, 2019, expiration date of the current approval periods), are summarized as follows:
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The final rule merely extends the transition period for the PTEs associated with the Fiduciary Rule. The impact on small entities will be determined when the Department issues future guidance after concluding its review of the rule and exemption. Any future guidance will be subject to notice and comment and contain a Regulatory Flexibility Act analysis. Accordingly, pursuant to section 605(b) of the RFA, the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Employee Benefits Security Administration hereby certifies that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This final rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA) provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each Federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any Federal mandate in a proposed or final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation with the base year 1995) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector. For purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, as well as Executive Order 12875, this final rule does not include any federal mandate that the Department expects would result in such expenditures by State, local, or tribal governments, or the private sector. The Department also does not expect that the delay will have any material economic impacts on State, local or tribal governments, or on health, safety, or the natural environment.
The impacts of this final rule are categorized consistently with the analysis of the original Fiduciary Rule and PTEs, and the Department has also concluded that the impacts identified in the RIA accompanying the Fiduciary Rule may still be used as a basis for estimating the potential impacts of this final rule. It has been determined that, for purposes of E.O. 13771, the impacts of the Fiduciary Rule that were identified in the 2016 analysis as costs, and that are presently categorized as cost savings (or negative costs) in this final rule, and impacts of the Fiduciary Rule that were identified in the 2016 analysis as a combination of transfers and positive benefits are categorized as a combination of (opposite-direction) transfers and negative benefits in this final rule. Accordingly, OMB has determined that this final rule is an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action.
The Secretary of Labor has discretionary authority to grant administrative exemptions under ERISA and the Code on an individual or class basis, but only if the Secretary first finds that the exemptions are (1) administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and (3) protective of the rights of the participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners. 29 U.S.C. 1108(a); see also 26 U.S.C. 4975(c)(2). The Secretary of Labor has found that the delay finalized below is: (1) Administratively feasible, (2) in the interests of plans and their participants and beneficiaries and IRA owners, and (3) protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of such plans and IRA owners.
Under this authority, and based on the reasons set forth above, the Department is amending the: (1) Best Interest Contract Exemption (PTE 2016-01); (2) Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets Between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs (PTE 2016-02); and (3) Prohibited Transaction Exemption 84-24 (PTE 84-24) for Certain Transactions Involving Insurance Agents and Brokers, Pension Consultants, Insurance Companies, and Investment Company Principal Underwriters, as set forth below. These amendments are effective on January 1, 2018.
1. The BIC Exemption (PTE 2016-01) is amended as follows:
A. The date “January 1, 2018” is deleted and “July 1, 2019” inserted in its place in the introductory
B.
C.
D.
2. The Class Exemption for Principal Transactions in Certain Assets Between Investment Advice Fiduciaries and Employee Benefit Plans and IRAs (PTE 2016-02), is amended as follows:
A. The date “January 1, 2018” is deleted and “July 1, 2019” inserted in its place in the introductory
B.
C.
3. Prohibited Transaction Exemption 84-24 for Certain Transactions Involving Insurance Agents and Brokers, Pension Consultants, Insurance Companies, and Investment Company Principal Underwriters, is amended as follows:
A. The date “January 1, 2018” is deleted where it appears in the introductory
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor.
Final rule; delay of applicability date.
This document delays for ninety (90) days—through April 1, 2018—the applicability of a final rule amending the claims procedure requirements applicable to ERISA-covered employee benefit plans that provide disability benefits (Final Rule). The Final Rule was published in the
The amendments are effective on January 1, 2018.
Frances P. Steen, Office of Regulations and Interpretations, Employee Benefits Security Administration, (202) 693-8500. This is not a toll free number.
Section 503 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (“ERISA”), requires that every employee benefit plan shall establish and maintain reasonable procedures governing the filing of benefit claims, notification of benefit determinations, and appeal of adverse benefit determinations. In accordance with its authority under ERISA section 503, and its general regulatory authority under ERISA section 505, the Department of Labor (“Department”) previously established regulations setting forth minimum requirements for employee benefit plan procedures pertaining to claims for benefits by participants and beneficiaries. 29 CFR 2560.503-1.
On December 19, 2016, the Department published a final regulation (“Final Rule”) amending the existing claims procedure regulation; the Final Rule revised the claims procedure rules for ERISA-covered employee benefit plans that provide disability benefits. The Final Rule was made effective January 18, 2017, but the Department delayed its applicability until January 1, 2018, in order to provide adequate time for disability benefit plans and their affected service providers to adjust to it, as well as for consumers and others to understand the changes made.
On February 24, 2017, the President issued Executive Order 13777 (“E.O. 13777”), entitled Enforcing the Regulatory Reform Agenda.
Not long thereafter, certain stakeholders asserted in writing that the Final Rule will drive up disability benefit plan costs, cause an increase in litigation, and consequently impair workers' access to disability insurance protections.
According to the stakeholders, a confidential survey of carriers covering approximately 18 million participants in group long term disability plans (which reflects approximately 45% of the group long-term disability insurance market), conducted by the stakeholders estimated that the Final Rule would cause average premium increases of 5-8% in 2018 (when the Final Rule is scheduled to take effect) for several survey participants.
The stakeholders stated that, while the Final Rule's Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) addressed the limited data sources that were publicly available at that time, the Department's ability to fully quantify and evaluate costs and benefits was accordingly constrained. But the stakeholders said that such data could be developed by the industry and provided to the Department, and have promised to work with the Department to obtain this data. They asserted that collecting the relevant data is a complex process that will take time and involve an expenditure of resources. For example, because each carrier's data is proprietary and contains sensitive business information, an independent third party must collect the data in a manner that protects this information. This may include, among other things, negotiating specific non-disclosure, security, and data retention agreements. They further observed that such a process must also be carefully designed to ensure that there are no violations of relevant federal or state laws, such as antitrust laws. The stakeholders also asserted that each carrier's existing information technology systems may collect and report data in different ways, so, to be usable, the data must be aggregated into standardized data sets, anonymized to ensure that no data point can be attributed to a single carrier, and reviewed and analyzed to ensure accuracy and reliability (as required for a regulatory impact analysis). The stakeholders made a commitment to provide this data and asked the Department to delay the Final Rule's applicability date.
In light of the foregoing, and pursuant to E.O. 13777, the Department published in the
The Department received approximately 110 comment letters in response to the proposed delay. As evidenced below, there is no consensus among the commenters regarding whether a delay is appropriate or the length of any such delay. Many commenters strongly support a delay, though much longer than 90 days, but at least as many commenters equally strongly oppose any delay of any length. All of the commenters' letters, and other related submissions made part of the public record, are available for public inspection on EBSA's Web site. After carefully considering the record, the proposal is adopted without change.
A significant number of commenters representing employers, plans, insurance carriers, and plan service providers strongly support a delay of the applicability date. Many of these commenters repeated prior assertions that the Final Rule, if not revised or repealed, will drive up disability benefit plan costs, cause an increase in litigation, and in doing so impair workers' access to disability benefit
Nearly all of the supporters of a delay requested a delay of longer than 90 days. The majority requested a delay ranging from 6 months to 1 year, with a few commenters requesting an even longer delay. The primary reason offered for a longer delay, according to these commenters, is that a 90-day delay will not provide enough time for the Department to complete a careful review of the public record (including the information and data due on December 11, 2017), to perform a review and analysis of the Final Rule in light of the information and data provided, to propose revisions to the Final Rule and receive comments, to publish a revised final rule, and to provide plans and their service providers sufficient time to comply with a revised rule.
By contrast, a significant number of commenters representing disability claimants strongly oppose any delay of the applicability date. These commenters firmly believe that disability claimants are in need of the increased procedural protections provided by the Final Rule, and that such protections are promised by section 503 of ERISA. These commenters argue that the Final Rule is the product of a valid and extensive multi-year rulemaking process, completed in December 2016, and that nothing in the public record has changed since then to warrant a delay. These commenters discount industry assertions that the Final Rule will lead to unwarranted price increases and reduced coverage as mere unsubstantiated and undocumented allegations. These commenters maintain that if such assertions were true, industry stakeholders would have proven their case during the rulemaking process that ended in 2016.
Importantly, many of these same commenters raised serious issues under the Administrative Procedures Act (APA) with respect to process surrounding the proposed delay. They argue that the Department has not clearly articulated its reasons for proposing a delay. They argue that the Department is relying on non-public information, provided exclusively by or on behalf of the industry, as the sole basis for the delay, and that the public has not been given a reasonable opportunity to review and respond to this non-public information. They also argue that the public will not have a reasonable opportunity to review and respond to the data and information, if any, submitted under the December 11, 2017, deadline. Some of these commenters even expressed concern that the delay could result in litigation for violations of the APA.
After carefully considering these comments, the proposal is adopted without change. Pursuant to E.O. 13777, the Department previously determined it was appropriate to seek additional input regarding the regulatory impact analysis in the Final Rule, and to that end publicly solicited comments on October 12, 2017.
At this juncture, the Department continues to think that a 90-day delay will be sufficient for it to complete the comment solicitation process, perform a reexamination of the information and data submitted, and take appropriate next steps. It is premature, in the Department's view, to consider a delay of longer than 90 days pending receipt of reliable data and information that reasonably supports the commenters' assertions that the Final Rule will lead to unwarranted cost increases and related diminution in disability coverage benefits. As discussed in the preamble to the NPRM, various stakeholders made a commitment to provide such data and information to the Department. There is little in the public record to date to support a further delay of the Final Rule or subsequent substantive changes. Thus, without data and information that provides sufficient empirical support for the assertions of the commenters and stakeholders seeking a rescission or revision of the Final Rule, it is not possible for the Department to conduct a meaningful reexamination or articulate a reasoned basis for further delaying the procedural protections for disability benefit claimants provided by the Final Rule. If the Department receives such supporting data and information, the Department will provide interested stakeholders with a reasonable opportunity for notice and comment on that data and information. Only at that point would the Department be in a position to seriously consider any further delay of some or all of the requirements of the Final Rule beyond April 1, 2018. Delaying the applicability date of the Final Rule beyond the proposed 90-day delay period is, in the Department's view, unwarranted at this point in time.
Likewise, the Department declines to extend the 60-day comment period for submitting data and information. As already noted, the proposal established this 60-day deadline (December 11, 2017) for submitting data and information germane to the examination of the merits of rescinding, modifying, or retaining the Final Rule. Many commenters who support a delay asserted that 60 days is an insufficient period of time for them to provide the data needed to support their claims of increased costs and litigation and reduced access to coverage. One reason offered in support of extending this deadline is that it is an unprecedented undertaking for disability carriers to work together to compile data to analyze the impact of rule on anticipated but unknowable consumer behavior.
The Department is not persuaded by these comments. The commenters and stakeholders who are arguing for a rescission or revision of the Final Rule made representations, both before the NPRM and again during the NPRM comment period, of unwarranted cost increases and related diminution in disability benefit coverage. Presumably, the commenters and stakeholders had a factual basis for making these representations and assertions to the government at the time they made them. Accordingly, the Department believes it is reasonable to expect those stakeholders to provide reasonably convincing factual support for their representations within a 60-day period. Also, on balance, the Department believes more harm than good would be caused by granting an extension of the 60-day comment period. Primarily this is because extending the 60-day comment period necessarily would require a corresponding delay of the 90-day applicability date, an outcome already rejected by the Department, above, as unwarranted at least at this point. While the Department takes note of the potential complexity involved in collecting relevant data and information, and recognizes that time and care is needed in such matters, the Department notes that not all insurance industry commenters requested an extension of the 60-day comment period. A major insurance trade association representing approximately 290 member insurance companies, for example, commented that it will respond with pertinent data and comments by December 11, 2017.
Nor does the Department agree with the commenters that assert violations of the APA with respect to the rulemaking process for the delay. The NPRM was published in the
The Department expects that the extension of the applicability date of the
Delaying the applicability date also will avert the possibility of a costly and disorderly transition if the Department subsequently changes the regulatory requirements as a result of its reexamination of the rule. Similarly, it could avert the possibility of unnecessary costs to consumers as a result of an unnecessarily confusing or disruptive transition if the Final Rule, for example, were to become applicable and then subsequently changed. The Department's objective is to complete its review of the Final Rule in conformance with E.O. 13777, analyze data and comments received in response to the proposed delay, determine whether future changes to the Final Rule are necessary, and propose and finalize any changes to the rule. If the Department revises or repeals some aspects of the rule in the future, the delay will allow affected firms to avoid incurring significant implementation costs now which later might turn out to be unnecessary, as well as to avoid unnecessary confusion to claimants from changing standards (should they change).
This extension of the applicability date of the Final Rule is a significant regulatory action within the meaning of section 3(f)(4) of Executive Order 12866, because it raises novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles set forth in the Executive Order. Therefore, the Department has considered the costs and benefits of the extension, and the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) has reviewed and approved the applicability date extension.
The Department's regulatory impact analysis of the Final Rule estimated that benefits derived by workers seeking disability benefits justify compliance costs. The 90-day delay of the applicability date would delay these estimated benefits and costs by 90 days.
Data limitations prevented the Department from quantifying benefits the Final Rule would provide to workers and their family members participating in ERISA-covered disability insurance plans. The RIA for the Final Rule includes a qualitative analysis of the benefits. The Department estimated at that time that as a result of the Final Rule:
• Some participants would receive payment for benefits they were entitled to that were improperly denied by the plan;
• There would be greater certainty and consistency in the handling of disability benefit claims and appeals, and improved access to information about the manner in which claims and appeals are adjudicated;
• Fairness and accuracy would increase in the claims adjudication process.
The Department estimated that the requirements of the Final Rule would have modest costs. The Department quantified the costs associated with two provisions of the Final Rule for which it had sufficient data: The requirements to provide: (1) Additional information to claimants in the appeals process ($14.5 million annually); and (2) information in a non-English language ($1.3 million annually).
Commenters representing employers, plans, insurance carriers, and plan service providers raised concerns that the Department underestimated the costs of the Final Rule and maintain that if the Department had properly estimated costs, it would have found that the costs exceed the Final Rule's benefits. Specifically, these commenters assert that among other things: (1) Requiring benefit denial notices to include a discussion of the basis for disagreeing with a disability determination made by the SSA will increase costs because SSA's definitions, policies, and procedures may be different from those of private disability plans; (2) providing that claimants are deemed to have exhausted the administrative remedies available if plans do not adhere to all claims processing rules, unless the violation was the result of a minor error and other specified conditions are met, will result in increased litigation and administrative costs to the detriment of plan participants; and (3) prohibiting plans from denying benefits on appeal based on new or additional evidence or rationales that were not included when the benefit was denied at the claims stage, unless the claimant is provided notice and an opportunity to respond to the new or additional information or rationales, will lead to protracted exchanges between plans and claimants that will cause delays, lead to higher costs, and have an adverse impact on plan participants. They also argue that participants in disability plans are very sensitive to price increases and predict that the cost increases associated with the Final Rule will cause some individuals to elect to drop or forego coverage, meaning that fewer people will have adequate income protection in the event of disability.
Other commenters on the 90-day proposed delay asserted that claims that the Final Rule would increase premiums 5 percent to 9 percent were excessive, and another commenter said that disability benefit plans with which it is associated had not experienced any cost increase due to the Final Rule. Commenters also asserted that an increase in litigation would be the result, not of excessive litigation, but of valid challenges to wrongly denied claims as the result of fairer claims processes that are implemented in response to the requirements of the Final Rule.
During the 90-day delay, the Department will reassess the impacts of the Final Rule. To ensure a robust assessment, the Department will closely analyze and utilize the information and data received in response to the Department's NPRM to help appropriately quantify the payments for plan benefits that plan participants would receive and any cost increases, or reductions in access to coverage that could result if the existing provisions of the Final Rule take effect. As the Department stated in the proposed rule, if any data submitted by stakeholders is not publicly available, the Department will work with stakeholders to ensure that any trade secrets and proprietary business information are protected from public disclosure and that the data collection process is designed to ensure that no violations of antitrust or other federal or state laws occur. This will help ensure that the Department reaches an optimal outcome and that full transparency is provided to the public.
While the Department considered several alternatives, the Department's chosen alternative in this final rule is likely to yield the most desirable
The Department considered having certain provisions of the Final Rule go into effect on January 1, 2018, while delaying others. The Department, however, ultimately decided not to adopt this approach because it has not yet received sufficient provision-specific data from commenters with respect to any aspect of the Final Rule, which would enable the Department to single out particular provisions for special treatment. The Department considered extending the delay by more than 90 days, but as discussed in the response to public comments above, it is premature, in the Department's view, even to consider a delay of longer than 90 days pending receipt of reliable data and information supporting the commenters' assertions that the Final Rule will lead to unwarranted cost increases and related diminution in disability coverage benefits. The Department also considered not extending the applicability date, which would have meant that the rule would become applicable on January 1, 2018. The Department rejected this alternative, because it would not provide sufficient time for the Department to receive and review data submitted in response to the request in the proposal, complete its ongoing review of the rule, and propose and finalize any changes to the rule. Moreover, absent the extended applicability date, disability plans would feel compelled to come into full compliance with the rule despite the possibility that the Department might identify and adopt more efficient alternatives. This could lead to unnecessary compliance costs to industry that are also passed on to consumers and market disruptions that could reduce consumer access to these products.
The Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) prohibits federal agencies from conducting or sponsoring a collection of information from the public without first obtaining approval from OMB.
OMB approved information collections contained in the Final Rule under OMB Control Number 1210-0053. The Department is not modifying the substance of the Information Collection Requests at this time; therefore, no action under the PRA is required. The information collections will become applicable at the same time the rule becomes applicable. The information collection requirements contained in the Final Rule are discussed below.
This rule delays the applicability date of the Department's amendments to the disability claims procedure rule for 90 days, through April 1, 2018. The Final Rule revised the rules applicable to ERISA-covered plans providing disability benefits. Some of these amendments revise disclosure requirements under the claims procedure rule that are information collections covered by the PRA. For example, benefit denial notices must contain a full discussion of why the plan denied the claim, and to the extent the plan did not follow or agree with the views presented by the claimant to the plan or health care professional treating the claimant or vocational professionals who evaluated the claimant, or a disability determination regarding the claimant presented by the claimant to the plan made by the SSA, the discussion must include an explanation of the basis for disagreeing with the views or disability determination. The notices also must include either: (1) The specific internal rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan relied upon in making the adverse determination or, alternatively, (2) a statement that such rules, guidelines, protocols, standards or other similar criteria of the plan do not exist. Plan administrators also must provide (1) claimants with any new or additional evidence considered free of charge, and (2) notices of adverse benefit determination potentially in a non-English language.
The burdens associated with the disability claims procedure revisions are summarized below and discussed in detail in the regulatory impact analysis contained in the preamble to the Final Rule (81 FR 92317, 92340 (Dec. 19, 2016)). It should be noted that this rule only affects the requirements applicable to disability benefit claims, which are a small subset of the total burden associated with the ERISA claims procedure information collection.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
The final rule is subject to the Congressional Review Act (CRA) provisions of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4) requires each federal agency to prepare a written statement assessing the effects of any federal mandate in a final agency rule that may result in an expenditure of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation with the base year 1995) in any one year by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector. For purposes of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, as well as Executive Order 12875, this final
Executive Order 13132 outlines fundamental principles of federalism, and requires the adherence to specific criteria by federal agencies in the process of their formulation and implementation of policies that have “substantial direct effects” on the States, the relationship between the national government and States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Federal agencies promulgating regulations that have federalism implications must consult with State and local officials and describe the extent of their consultation and the nature of the concerns of State and local officials in the preamble to the Final Rule.
This final rule does not have federalism implications because it merely delays the applicability date of the rule. Therefore, the final rule has no substantial direct effect on the States, the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. In compliance with the requirement of Executive Order 13132 that agencies examine closely any policies that may have federalism implications or limit the policy making discretion of the States, the Department welcomes input from States regarding this assessment.
Executive Order 13771, titled Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs, was issued on January 30, 2017. Section 2(a) of E.O. 13771 requires an agency, unless prohibited by law, to identify at least two existing regulations to be repealed when the agency publicly proposes for notice and comment, or otherwise promulgates, a new regulation. In furtherance of this requirement, section 2(c) of E.O. 13771 requires that the new incremental costs associated with new regulations shall, to the extent permitted by law, be offset by the elimination of existing costs associated with at least two prior regulations. This final rule is considered an E.O. 13771 deregulatory action. Details on the estimated cost savings can be found in the rule's economic analysis. The action is deregulatory as it merely delays the effective date, hence stakeholders do not have to comply with the regulation until April 1, 2018.
Claims, Employee benefit plans.
For the reasons stated above, the Department amends 29 CFR part 2560 as follows:
29 U.S.C. 1132, 1135, and Secretary of Labor's Order 1-2011, 77 FR 1088 (Jan. 9, 2012). Section 2560.503-1 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1133. Section 2560.502c-7 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(7). Section 2560.502c-4 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(4). Section 2560.502c-8 also issued under 29 U.S.C. 1132(c)(8).
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone on the waters of the Delaware River between Marcus Hook Range and Tinicum Range. The safety zone will temporarily restrict vessel traffic from transiting or anchoring in portions of the Delaware River while rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations are being conducted to facilitate the Main Channel Deepening project for the Delaware River. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from hazards created by rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the COTP or his designated representatives.
This rule is effective from November 30, 2017 through March 15, 2018.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Petty Officer Amanda Boone, Waterways Management Branch, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Delaware Bay; telephone (215) 271-4889, email
The Army Corps of Engineers notified the Coast Guard that Great Lakes Dredging and Dock Company will be conducting rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations, beginning November 30, 2017 through March 15, 2018, to facilitate the deepening of the main navigational channel to the new project depth of 45 feet. The Captain of the Port (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations will be a safety concern for anyone within 500 yards of the drill boat APACHE or dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK. In response, on November 14, 2017, the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled Safety Zone; Delaware River, Marcus Hook, PA (82 FR 52680.) There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this safety
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP has determined that there are potential hazards associated with the rock blasting and dredging operations. The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of personnel, vessels, and the marine environment within a 500-yard radius of rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations
As noted above, we received one comment on our NPRM published November 14, 2017. The comment stated that the proposed safety zone would be helpful to protect personnel while rock blasting is occurring. The Coast thanks the commenter for their support. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM, other than a correction of the beginning of the enforcement date in paragraph (e). While the preamble of the NPRM correctly stated that enforcement would begin on November 30, 2017, the draft regulatory text incorrectly stated that enforcement would begin on December 1, 2017.
This rule establishes a safety zone from November 30, 2017 through March 15, 2018. The safety zone covers all navigable waters in the Delaware River within 500 yards of vessels and machinery being used to conduct rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal operations between Marcus Hook Range and Tinicum Range. The safety zone will be enforced in an area and in a manner that does not conflict with transiting commercial and recreational traffic, except for the short periods of time when explosive detonations are being conducted and shortly thereafter, when the channel is being surveyed to ensure the navigational channel is clear for vessels to transit. These detonations will not occur more than three times a day. At all other times, at least one side of the main navigational channel will be open for vessels to transit. This rule describes communications for notifying waterway users of upcoming detonations and provides means for waterway users to request entry into the safety zone.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and traffic management of the safety zone. The Coast Guard does not anticipate a significant economic impact because the safety zone will be enforced in an area and in a manner that does not conflict with transiting commercial and recreational traffic, except for the short periods of time when explosive detonations are being conducted. The blasting detonations will not occur more than three times a day. At all other times, at least one side of the main navigational channel will be open for vessels to transit. Moreover, the Coast Guard will work in coordination with the pilots to ensure vessel traffic is limited during the times of detonation and Broadcast Notice to Mariners are made via VHF-FM marine channel 13 and 16 when blasting operations will occur.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone to protect waterway users that would prohibit entry within 500 yards of rock blasting, dredging, and rock removal. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) The operator of any vessel requesting to transit through the safety zone shall proceed as directed by the drill boat APACHE, the dredges TEXAS and NEW YORK, or the designated representative of the Captain of the Port and must operate at the minimum safe speed necessary to maintain steerage and reduce wake.
(3) No vessels may transit through the safety zone during times of explosive detonation. During explosive detonation, vessels will be required to maintain a 500 yard distance from the drill boat APACHE. The drill boat APACHE will make broadcasts, via VHF-FM Channel 13 and 16, at 15 minutes, 5 minutes, and 1 minute prior to detonation, as well as a countdown to detonation on VHF-FM Channel 16.
(4) After every explosive detonation a survey will be conducted by the dredging contractor to ensure the navigational channel is clear for vessels to transit. The drill boat APACHE will broadcast, via VHF-FM channel 13 and 16, when the survey has been completed and the channel is clear to transit. Vessels requesting to transit through the safety zone shall proceed as directed by the Captain of the Port and contact the drill boat APACHE on VHF-FM channel 13 to make safe passing arrangements.
(d)
(e)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for navigable waters around the M/V SWAN during its transit from the Savannah River entry point to Garden City Terminal in Savannah, GA and during cargo operations. The safety zone is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards created by the transport and offloading of oversized cranes. Entry of vessels or persons into this zone is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) Savannah or a designated representative.
This rule is effective without actual notice from November 29, 2017, through December 2, 2017. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email MST2 Adam White, Marine Safety Unit Savannah Office of Waterways Management, Coast Guard; telephone 912-652-4353, extension 233, or email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Immediate action is needed to respond to the potential safety hazards created by the transport and offloading of oversized cranes. The Coast Guard received information on October 12, 2017 regarding the operations beginning on November 21, 2017. The operation would begin before the rulemaking process would be completed. Because of the dangers posed by the cranes, the safety zone is necessary to provide for the safety of persons, vessels, and the marine environment in the event area. Therefore, it is impracticable and contrary to the public interest to delay promulgating this rule, as it is necessary to protect the safety of waterway users.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP Savannah has determined that potential hazards associated with the transport and offloading of oversized cranes starting November 21, 2017, will be a safety concern for anyone on the Savannah River from the Savannah River entry point to Garden City Terminal in Savannah, GA. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the safety zone during the M/V SWAN transit and cargo operations.
This rule establishes a safety zone from November 21, 2017 through December 2, 2017. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters within 500 yards of the M/V SWAN during cargo operations, and 1 mile ahead and astern of the M/V SWAN during inbound transit. The duration of the zone is intended to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in these navigable waters during transit and cargo operations. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13771 directs agencies to control regulatory costs through a budgeting process. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, this rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and pursuant to OMB guidance it is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-day of the safety zone. The safety zone is only in effect within a small area around the M/V SWAN and only for less than two weeks during operations. Vessels and persons seeking to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area may seek authority from the COTP or a designated representative. The Coast Guard will provide notification of the regulated area to the local maritime community by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16, and Marine Safety Security Bulletin release.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting only during inbound transit and cargo operations of the M/V SWAN. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegations No. 0170.1.
(a)
(1) All waters of the Savannah River within one nautical mile ahead and astern of the M/V SWAN as it transits from the Savannah River entrance to Garden City Terminal.
(2) All waters within a 500-yard radius around the M/V SWAN while conducting cargo operations at Garden City Terminal.
(b)
(c)
(2) Persons or vessels desiring to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the safety zone may contact COTP Savannah by telephone at (912) 652-4353, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16, to request authorization. If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area is granted by the COTP Savannah or a designated representative, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the COTP Savannah or a designated representative.
(3) The Coast Guard will provide notice of the regulated areas by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners, Marine Safety Security Bulletins, and on-scene designated representatives.
(d)
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, an information collection associated with the Commission's
The amendments to §§ 1.776 and 69.701 of the Commission's rules, published at June 2, 2017, 82 FR 25660, are effective November 29, 2017.
William Kehoe, Pricing Policy Division, Wireline Competition Bureau, at (202) 418-7122, or email:
This document announces that, on November 7, 2017, OMB approved, for a period of three years, the changes in information collection requirements relating to §§ 1.774, 1.776 and 69.701 of the Commission's rules, as contained in the Commission's
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received final OMB approval on November 7, 2017, for the information collection requirements contained in the modifications to §§ 1.774, 1.776, and 69.701 of the Commission's rules. Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number.
No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Number is 3060-0760.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Among other rules changes, the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and
Temporary rule; apportionment of reserves; request for comments.
NMFS apportions amounts of the non-specified reserve to the initial total allowable catch (ITAC) of Aleutian Islands (AI) Greenland turbot, AI “other rockfish,” Bering Sea (BS) sablefish, Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) Alaska plaice, BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI shortraker rockfish, BSAI sculpin, BSAI skates, and Central and Western Aleutian Islands (CAI/WAI) blackspotted/rougheye rockfish in the BSAI management area. This action is necessary to allow the fisheries to continue operating. It is intended to promote the goals and objectives of the fishery management plan for the BSAI management area.
Effective November 24, 2017, through 2400 hrs, Alaska local time, December 31, 2017. Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., Alaska local time, December 11, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0140, by either of the following methods:
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Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the (BSAI) exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2017 ITAC of AI Greenland turbot was established as 106 metric tons (mt), the 2017 ITAC of AI “other rockfish” was established at 550 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BS sablefish was established as 1,051 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BSAI Alaska plaice was established as 11,050 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BSAI northern rockfish was established as 4,250 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BSAI “other flatfish” was established as 2,125 mt, the 2017 TAC of BSAI shortraker rockfish was established as 125 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BSAI sculpins was established as 3,825 mt, the 2017 ITAC of BSAI skates was established as 22,100 mt, and the 2017 TAC of CAI/WAI blackspotted/rougheye rockfish was established as 125 mt by the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish of the BSAI (82 FR 11826, February 27, 2017). In accordance with § 679.20(a)(3) the Regional Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, has reviewed the most current available data and finds that the ITACs for AI Greenland turbot, AI “other rockfish,” BS sablefish, BSAI Alaska plaice, BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI shortraker rockfish, BSAI sculpin, BSAI skates, and CAI/WAI blackspotted/rougheye rockfish need to be supplemented from the non-specified reserve to promote efficiency in the utilization of fishery resources in the BSAI and allow fishing operations to continue.
Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(b)(3), NMFS apportions from the non-specified reserve of groundfish 19 mt to AI Greenland turbot, 21 mt to AI “other rockfish,” 48 mt to BS sablefish, 5,500 mt to BSAI Alaska plaice ITAC, 475 mt to BSAI northern rockfish ITAC, 2,050 mt to BSAI “other flatfish” ITAC, 30 mt to BSAI shortraker rockfish ITAC, 1,500 mt to BSAI sculpin ITAC, 1,487 mt to BSAI skates ITAC, and 10 mt to the CAI/WAI blackspotted/rougheye rockfish TAC in the BSAI management area. These apportionments are consistent with § 679.20(b)(1)(i) and do not result in overfishing of any target species because the revised ITACs and total allowable catch (TAC) are equal to or less than the specifications of the acceptable biological catch in the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (82 FR 11826, February 27, 2017).
The harvest specification for the 2017 ITACs and TACs included in the harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI are revised as follows: 125 mt for AI Greenland turbot, 571 mt for AI “other rockfish,” 16,550 mt for Alaska plaice, 4,175 mt for “other flatfish”, 155 mt for BSAI shortraker rockfish, 5,325 mt for BSAI sculpins, and 135 mt for CAI/WAI blackspotted/rougheye rockfish. The harvest specification for the 2017 ITAC included in the harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI is revised as follows: 1,099 mt for BS sablefish, 4,725 mt for BSAI northern rockfish, and 23,587 mt for BSAI skates.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, (AA) finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and § 679.20(b)(3)(iii)(A) as such a requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the apportionment of the non-specified reserves of groundfish to the AI Greenland turbot, AI “other rockfish,” BS sablefish, BSAI Alaska plaice, BSAI northern rockfish, BSAI “other flatfish,” BSAI shortraker rockfish, BSAI sculpin, BSAI skates, and CAI/WAI blackspotted/rougheye rockfish in the BSAI. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery, to allow the industry to plan for the fishing season, and to avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet and processors. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of November 21, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Under § 679.20(b)(3)(iii), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action (see
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801,
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) seeks comment on how to modernize two provisions in Part 73 of its rules governing broadcast licensees: Section 73.624(g), which establishes certain reporting obligations relating to the provision of ancillary or supplementary services, and Section 73.3580, which sets forth requirements concerning public notice of the filing of broadcast applications.
Comments are due on or before December 29, 2017; reply comments are due on or before January 16, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by MB Docket No. 17-264, by any of the following methods:
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For additional information on this proceeding, contact Raelynn Remy of the Policy Division, Media Bureau at
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, FCC 17-138, adopted and released on October 24, 2017. The full text is available for public inspection and copying during regular business hours in the FCC Reference Center, Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Room CY-A257, Washington, DC 20554. This document will also be available via ECFS at
1. In this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM), we seek comment on how to modernize two provisions in Part 73 of the Commission's rules governing broadcast licensees: Section 73.624(g), which establishes certain reporting obligations relating to the provision of ancillary or supplementary services, and Section 73.3580, which sets forth requirements concerning public notice of the filing of broadcast applications. First, we propose amendments to Section 73.624(g)(2) that would relieve certain television broadcasters of the obligation to submit FCC Form 2100, Schedule G,
2.
3. Pursuant to Congress's directives in Section 336, the Commission in 1998 developed a program to assess fees on revenues derived from the provision of ancillary or supplementary services by DTV licensees. The Commission adopted Section 73.624(g) of its rules, which set the fee for feeable ancillary or supplementary services at five percent of the gross revenues received from the provision of such services. And consistent with Section 336(e)(4), it required all commercial full power DTV licensees to file annual reports regarding their use of the DTV bitstream to provide such services.
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7. To the extent the Commission applied the annual reporting obligation to all DTV licensees so that it could “report to Congress on the [fee] program . . . and [give the agency] the information necessary to adjust the fee program as appropriate consistent with the use of the spectrum,” we tentatively conclude that such a broad application of the reporting obligation no longer is needed to carry out these objectives because the obligation would continue to apply to DTV stations that derive revenue from feeable services. We seek comment on our proposal and tentative conclusions.
8.
9. We therefore seek comment on whether we should update Section 73.3580 to permit applicants to provide public notice of the filing of broadcast applications either by publishing such notice in a newspaper, or by posting such notice on an Internet Web site, as some commenters have suggested. In particular, we seek comment on whether to allow applicants that currently are required under Section 73.3580 to publish notice of the filing of an application in a local newspaper, to provide such notice instead on an Internet Web site. We also seek comment on whether, in cases where an applicant is required to provide notice of the filing of an application through broadcast announcements (whether or not in conjunction with written notice in a local newspaper), the applicant should be permitted instead to post at least a portion of the content of those announcements online, together with a link to the applicant's online public file containing the relevant application, and to broadcast the address of the Internet Web site containing such information. We also ask for comment on whether there is a comparable way for broadcasters to inform consumers of various license applications, if not done through on-air announcements.
10. In the alternative, we seek comment on whether there is a need to impose any public notice obligations on certain applicants, given the ready availability of many license applications on the Commission's and stations' Web sites today. In particular, we note that the Commission's rules generally require that broadcast applicants place their license applications and related materials in the Commission-hosted online public inspection file and provide a link to that file on the home page of their Web sites, if they have Web sites. In addition, pursuant to Section 309 of the Act and its implementing rules, the Commission routinely gives public notice of the filing of broadcast applications. Members of the public also can be notified of the filing of broadcast applications by signing up to receive Commission-generated RSS feeds. In light of these various means of receiving notice of pending broadcast applications, we seek comment on whether the public interest would be served by repealing Section 73.3580 in its entirety.
11. Given the questions above regarding updating or repealing the rule, we tentatively conclude not to move forward with the proposals in the
12. Based on the record, we tentatively find that, at a minimum, updating Section 73.3580 would advance the public interest by affording applicants more flexibility in the means by which they provide notice of prospective and pending broadcast applications, while giving consumers improved access to information enabling them to participate in the licensing process. We seek comment on this tentative finding. We seek to modernize our rules to better reflect how broadcast audiences consume information today.
13. We seek comment on whether we should continue to impose different notice obligations based on the kind of service for which an applicant is seeking authorization (
14. As suggested by some commenters, should we craft requirements similar to those we adopted in updating Section 73.1216 of our rules (otherwise known as the Contest Rule), which similarly contemplate that public notice of certain information will be provided by broadcasters through both the Internet and broadcast announcements? If so, what aspects of the Contest Rule should guide our revisions to Section 73.3580? Parties urging us to adopt rules that deviate from, or are similar to, the rules
15. How, if at all, could the Commission streamline or simplify the public notice requirements of Section 73.3580 further to reduce costs and regulatory burdens for broadcasters, while ensuring that notice of pending or prospective applications is sufficient to enable robust public participation in the licensing process? Several commenters have asserted, for example, that Section 73.3580 as written is needlessly complex and confusing. As noted above, could the online public inspection file, which contains information about pending broadcast license applications, serve as an adequate substitute for newspaper publication (or other forms of notice) in certain cases, and thereby permit elimination of Section 73.3580 in its entirety? If so, would it be necessary to require stations to broadcast announcements regarding the filing of applications and the location of the online public file?
16. Finally, we note that Part 73 of the Commission's rules contains other provisions that require public notice through newspaper publication, broadcast announcements, or a combination of the two.
17. This document contains proposed modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
18. Permit-But-Disclose. This proceeding shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's
19. Comments and Replies. Pursuant to Sections 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS).
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Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
20. Availability of Documents. Comments, reply comments, and
21. People with Disabilities. To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
22. For additional information on this proceeding, contact Raelynn Remy of the Policy Division, Media Bureau, at
23. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA) the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis (IRFA) concerning the possible significant economic impact on small entities by the rules proposed in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM). Written public comments are requested on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA
24. The potential rule changes discussed in the NPRM stem from a Public Notice issued by the Commission in May 2017 launching an initiative to modernize the Commission's media regulations. Several commenters in the proceeding have argued that the Commission should amend Section 73.624(g) of its rules to require the filing of Form 2100, Schedule G, only by digital television (DTV) stations that have provided feeable ancillary or supplementary services during the relevant reporting period and thus must pay the five percent fee on gross revenues derived from those services. In addition, a number of commenters have urged the Commission to update Section 73.3580 of its rules by giving broadcast license applicants the flexibility to provide public notice of the filing of broadcast applications through the Internet.
25. The NPRM proposes amendments to Section 73.624(g)(2) that would relieve DTV stations that have provided no feeable ancillary or supplementary services of the obligation to file Form 2100, Schedule G, annually.
26. The proposed action is authorized pursuant to Sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), 303(r), 309, and 336 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), 303(r), 309, and 336.
27. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the SBA. The rules proposed herein will directly affect small television and radio broadcast stations. Below, we provide a list of such small entities.
• Television Broadcasting
• Radio Stations
28. In this section, we identify the reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements proposed in the NPRM and consider whether small entities are affected disproportionately by any such requirements.
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32. Because no commenter provided information specifically quantifying the costs and administrative burdens of complying with the existing Section 73.624(g) reporting requirements, we cannot precisely estimate the impact on small entities of eliminating those requirements for certain broadcast stations. The proposed revisions to Section 73.624(g) would relieve affected digital broadcast stations, including smaller stations, of the obligation to file certain information with the Commission on an annual basis. These revisions, if adopted, would require only those few stations that provide feeable ancillary or supplementary services to submit Form 2100, Schedule G, annually. We note similarly that no commenter has provided information specifically quantifying the costs and burdens of complying with the existing Section 73.3580 public notice requirements. Therefore, we cannot precisely estimate the impact on small entities of eliminating or changing those requirements. No party in the Media Modernization proceeding, including smaller entities, has opposed the proposals discussed in the NPRM. We thus find it reasonable to conclude that the benefits of adopting the proposals discussed therein would outweigh any costs.
33. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
34. The NPRM proposes to amend Section 73.624(g) to require only those DTV stations that receive feeable revenues from their provision of ancillary or supplementary services to submit Form 2100, Schedule G, on an annual basis. The record reflects that only a small number of DTV stations actually offer ancillary or supplementary services. Accordingly, if adopted, this proposal would eliminate an annual reporting obligation and the expenditure of resources associated with filing the annual reports for a substantial number of broadcast stations, including small entities. Because the revisions to Section 73.624(g) proposed by commenters are unopposed, we anticipate that DTV
35. The NPRM also seeks input on whether to adopt commenters' proposals to modify Section 73.3580 to permit public notice of the filing of broadcast applications through online postings on the Internet, as an alternative to publishing such notice in a newspaper, or to repeal Section 73.3580 in its entirety. Commenters' proposals, if adopted, would give all broadcast license applicants, including small entities, more flexibility in how they meet their obligation to notify the public of pending or prospective license applications, while improving the public's access to information enabling it to participate in the licensing process. Commenters assert that permitting public notice through the Internet would be less costly and administratively burdensome than the existing requirement and thus the proposal would provide a less burdensome compliance option for all applicants, including small entities. Because the revisions to Section 73.3580 proposed by commenters are unopposed, we anticipate that affected broadcasters, including small entities, would benefit from them.
36. None.
37. We adopt this NPRM pursuant to the authority found in Sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), 303(r), 309, and 336 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), 303(r), 309, and 336.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend Part 73 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) as set forth below:
47 U.S.C. 154, 303, 309, 310, 334, 336, and 339.
(g) * * *
(2)
(A) A brief description of the feeable ancillary or supplementary services provided;
(B) Gross revenues received from all feeable ancillary and supplementary services provided during the applicable period; and
(C) The amount of bitstream used to provide feeable ancillary or supplementary services during the applicable period. Licensees and permittees will certify under penalty of perjury the accuracy of the information reported. Failure to file information required by this section may result in appropriate sanctions.
(ii) A DTV licensee or permittee that has provided feeable ancillary or supplementary services at any point during a 12-month period ending on September 30 must additionally file the FCC's standard remittance form (Form 159) on the subsequent December 1. Licensees and permittees will certify the amount of gross revenues received from feeable ancillary or supplementary services for the applicable 12-month period and will remit the payment of the required fee.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Arizona Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 12:00 p.m. (Mountain Time) Friday, December 1, 2017. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to discuss logistics for March briefing on voting rights.
The meeting will be held on Friday, December 1, 2017, at 12:00 p.m. MT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 800-474-8920, conference ID number: 2072412. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Indiana Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Wednesday December 13, 2017, at 2:00 p.m. EST for the purpose of preparing for its public meeting on voting rights issues in the state.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, December 13, 2017, at 2:00 p.m. EST.
Melissa Wojnaroski, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 888-556-4997, conference ID: 6272038. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments;
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Notice of inquiry.
The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) is seeking public comments on the impact that implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), through the Chemical Weapons Convention Implementation Act (CWCIA) and the Chemical Weapons Convention Regulations (CWCR), has had on commercial activities involving “Schedule 1” chemicals during calendar year 2017. The purpose of this notice of inquiry is to collect information to assist BIS in its preparation of the annual certification to Congress on whether the legitimate commercial activities and interests of chemical, biotechnology, and pharmaceutical firms are being harmed by such implementation. This certification is required under Condition 9 of Senate Resolution 75, April 24, 1997, in which the Senate gave its advice and consent to the ratification of the CWC.
Comments must be received by December 29, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (please refer to RIN 0694-XC041 in all comments and in the subject line of email comments):
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• By mail or delivery to Regulatory Policy Division, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 2099B, 14th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
For questions on the Chemical Weapons Convention requirements for “Schedule 1” chemicals, contact Douglas Brown, Treaty Compliance Division, Office of Nonproliferation and Treaty Compliance, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Phone: (202) 482-1001. For questions on the submission of comments, contact Willard Fisher, Regulatory Policy Division, Office of Exporter Services, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Phone: (202) 482-2440.
In providing its advice and consent to the ratification of the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling, and Use of Chemical Weapons and Their Destruction, commonly called the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC or “the Convention”), the Senate included, in Senate Resolution 75 (S. Res. 75, April 24, 1997), several conditions to its ratification. Condition 9, titled “Protection of Advanced Biotechnology,” calls for the President to certify to Congress on an annual basis that “the legitimate commercial activities and interests of chemical, biotechnology, and pharmaceutical firms in the United States are not being significantly harmed by the limitations of the Convention on access to, and production of, those chemicals and toxins listed in Schedule 1.” On July 8, 2004, President Bush, by Executive Order 13346, delegated his authority to make the annual certification to the Secretary of Commerce.
The CWC is an international arms control treaty that contains certain verification provisions. In order to implement these verification provisions, the CWC established the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). The CWC imposes certain obligations on countries that have ratified the Convention (
“Schedule 1” chemicals consist of those toxic chemicals and precursors set forth in the CWC “Annex on Chemicals” and in Supplement No. 1 to part 712 of the Chemical Weapons Convention Regulations (CWCR) (15 CFR parts 710-722). The CWC identified these toxic chemicals and precursors as posing a high risk to the object and purpose of the Convention.
The CWC (Part VI of the “Verification Annex”) restricts the production of “Schedule 1” chemicals for protective purposes to two facilities per State Party: A single small-scale facility (SSSF) and a facility for production in quantities not exceeding 10 kg per year. The CWC Article-by-Article Analysis submitted to the Senate in Treaty Doc. 103-21 defined the term “protective purposes” to mean “used for determining the adequacy of defense equipment and measures.” Consistent with this definition and as authorized by Presidential Decision Directive (PDD) 70 (December 17, 1999), which specifies agency and departmental
The provisions of the CWC that affect commercial activities involving “Schedule 1” chemicals are implemented in the CWCR (see 15 CFR 712) and in the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) (see 15 CFR 742.18 and 15 CFR 745), both of which are administered by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS). Pursuant to CWC requirements, the CWCR restrict commercial production of “Schedule 1” chemicals to research, medical, or pharmaceutical purposes (the CWCR prohibit commercial production of “Schedule 1” chemicals for “protective purposes” because such production is effectively precluded per PDD-70, as described above—see 15 CFR 712.2(a)). The CWCR also contain other requirements and prohibitions that apply to “Schedule 1” chemicals and/or “Schedule 1” facilities. Specifically, the CWCR:
(1) Prohibit the import of “Schedule 1” chemicals from States not Party to the Convention (15 CFR 712.2(b));
(2) Require annual declarations by certain facilities engaged in the production of “Schedule 1” chemicals in excess of 100 grams aggregate per calendar year (
(3) Provide for government approval of “declared Schedule 1” facilities (15 CFR 712.5(f));
(4) Provide that “declared Schedule 1” facilities are subject to initial and routine inspection by the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (15 CFR 712.5(e) and 716.1(b)(1));
(5) Require 200 days advance notification of establishment of new “Schedule 1” production facilities producing greater than 100 grams aggregate of “Schedule 1” chemicals per calendar year (15 CFR 712.4);
(6) Require advance notification and annual reporting of all imports and exports of “Schedule 1” chemicals to, or from, other States Parties to the Convention (15 CFR 712.6, 742.18(a)(1) and 745.1); and
(7) Prohibit the export of “Schedule 1” chemicals to States not Party to the Convention (15 CFR 742.18(a)(1) and (b)(1)(ii)).
For purposes of the CWCR (see 15 CFR 710.1), “production of a Schedule 1 chemical” means the formation of “Schedule 1” chemicals through chemical synthesis, as well as processing to extract and isolate “Schedule 1” chemicals produced biologically. Such production is understood, for CWCR declaration purposes, to include intermediates, by-products, or waste products that are produced and consumed within a defined chemical manufacturing sequence, where such intermediates, by-products, or waste products are chemically stable and therefore exist for a sufficient time to make isolation from the manufacturing stream possible, but where, under normal or design operating conditions, isolation does not occur.
In order to assist in determining whether the legitimate commercial activities and interests of chemical, biotechnology, and pharmaceutical firms in the United States are significantly harmed by the limitations of the Convention on access to, and production of, “Schedule 1” chemicals as described in this notice, BIS is seeking public comments on any effects that implementation of the Chemical Weapons Convention, through the Chemical Weapons Convention Implementation Act and the Chemical Weapons Convention Regulations, has had on commercial activities involving “Schedule 1” chemicals during calendar year 2017. To allow BIS to properly evaluate the significance of any harm to commercial activities involving “Schedule 1” chemicals, public comments submitted in response to this notice of inquiry should include both a quantitative and qualitative assessment of the impact of the CWC on such activities.
All comments must be submitted to one of the addresses indicated in this notice. The Department requires that all comments be submitted in written form.
The Department encourages interested persons who wish to comment to do so at the earliest possible time. The period for submission of comments will close on December 29, 2017. The Department will consider all comments received before the close of the comment period. Comments received after the end of the comment period may not be considered. The Department will not accept comments accompanied by a request that a part or all of the material be treated confidentially because of its business proprietary nature or for any other reason. The Department will return such comments and materials to the persons submitting the comments and will not consider them. All comments submitted in response to this notice will be a matter of public record and will be available for public inspection and copying.
The Office of Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, displays public comments on the BIS Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Web site at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of certain tool chests and cabinets (tool chests) from the People's Republic of China (PRC). The period of investigation is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016. For information on the estimated subsidy rates,
Applicable November 29, 2017.
Hermes Pinilla or Thomas Schauer, AD/CVD Operations, Office I, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of
The Department published its affirmative
The products covered by this investigation are tool chests from the PRC. For a complete description of the scope of the investigation,
Since the
The subsidy programs under investigation and the issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs submitted by interested parties in this proceeding are discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised by parties, and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, is attached to this notice at Appendix II.
As provided in section 782(i) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), in September 2017, the Department verified the subsidy information reported by the Government of China (GOC) and the respondents. We used standard verification procedures, including an examination of relevant accounting and production records, and original source documents provided by the GOC and the respondents.
In making this final determination, the Department relied, in part, on facts available. As discussed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, because the GOC and companies that did not respond to our quantity-and-value questionnaire did not act to the best of their abilities in responding to the Department's requests for information, we drew an adverse inference where appropriate in selecting from among the facts otherwise available, pursuant to section 776(a) and (b) of the Act.
Based on our analysis of the information requested and received from the GOC and the company respondents since the
In accordance with section 705(c)(1)(B)(i)(I) of the Act, we calculated a CVD rate for each individually-investigated producer/exporter of the subject merchandise. Consistent with section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated an estimated “all-others” rate for exporters/producers not individually examined. Section 705(c)(5)(A)(i) of the Act provides that the “all-others” rate shall be an amount equal to the weighted-average of the countervailable subsidy rates established for individually investigated exporters/producers, excluding any rates that are zero or
We determine the total estimated countervailable subsidy rates to be:
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to interested parties within five days of the public announcement of this final determination in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
In accordance with section 703(d) of the Act, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all appropriate entries of tool chests from the PRC, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after September 15, 2017, the date of the publication of the
In accordance with section 705(d) of the Act, we will notify the ITC of our final affirmative CVD determination. In addition, we are making available to the ITC all non-privileged and non-proprietary information relating to this investigation. We will allow the ITC access to all privileged and business proprietary information in our files, provided the ITC confirms that it will not disclose such information, either publicly or under an administrative protective order (APO), without the written consent of the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance.
If the ITC determines that material injury, or threat of material injury, does not exist, this proceeding will be terminated and all cash deposits will be refunded. If the ITC determines that such injury does exist, we will issue a CVD order directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, CVDs on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation, as discussed above in the
In the event that the ITC issues a final negative injury determination, this notice will serve as the only reminder to parties subject to an APO of their responsibility concerning the destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation that is subject to sanction.
This determination is issued and published pursuant to sections 705(d) and 777(i) of the Act.
The scope of this investigation covers certain metal tool chests and tool cabinets, with drawers, (tool chests and cabinets), from the People's Republic of China (the PRC) and the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (Vietnam). The scope covers all metal tool chests and cabinets, including top chests, intermediate chests, tool cabinets and side cabinets, storage units, mobile work benches, and work stations and that have the following physical characteristics:
(1) A body made of carbon, alloy, or stainless steel and/or other metals;
(2) two or more drawers for storage in each individual unit;
(3) a width (side to side) exceeding 15 inches for side cabinets and exceeding 21 inches for all other individual units but not exceeding 60 inches;
(4) a body depth (front to back) exceeding 10 inches but not exceeding 24 inches; and
(5) prepackaged for retail sale.
For purposes of this scope, the width parameter applies to each individual unit,
Prepackaged for retail sale means the units may, for example, be packaged in a cardboard box, other type of container or packaging, and may bear a Universal Product Code, along with photographs, pictures, images, features, artwork, and/or product specifications. Subject tool chests and cabinets are covered whether imported in assembled or unassembled form. Subject merchandise includes tool chests and cabinets produced in the PRC or Vietnam but assembled, prepackaged for retail sale, or subject to other minor processing in a third country prior to importation into the United States. Similarly, it would include tool chests and cabinets produced in the PRC or Vietnam that are assembled, prepackaged for retail sale, or subject to other minor processing after importation into the United States.
Subject tool chests and cabinets may also have doors and shelves in addition to drawers, may have handles (typically mounted on the sides), and may have a work surface on the top. Subject tool chests and cabinets may be uncoated (
Subject tool chests and cabinets may be packaged as individual units or in sets. When packaged in sets, they typically include a cabinet with one or more chests that stack on top of the cabinet. Tool cabinets act as a base tool storage unit and typically have rollers, casters, or wheels to permit them to be moved more easily when loaded with tools. Work stations and mobile work benches are tool cabinets with a work surface on the top that may be made of rubber, plastic, metal, wood, or other materials.
Top chests are designed to be used with a tool cabinet to form a tool storage unit. The top chests may be mounted on top of the base tool cabinet or onto an intermediate chest. They are often packaged as a set with tool cabinets or intermediate chests, but may also be packaged separately. They may be packaged with mounting hardware (
Side cabinets are designed to be bolted or otherwise attached to the side of the base storage cabinet to expand the storage capacity of the base tool cabinet.
Subject tool chests and cabinets also may be packaged with a tool set included. Packaging a subject tool chest and cabinet with a tool set does not remove an otherwise covered subject tool chest and cabinet from the scope. When this occurs, the tools are not part of the subject merchandise.
All tool chests and cabinets that meet the above definition are included in the scope unless otherwise specifically excluded.
Excluded from the scope of the investigation are tool boxes, chests, and cabinets with bodies made of plastic, carbon fiber, wood, or other non-metallic substances.
Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are industrial grade steel tool chests and cabinets. The excluded industrial grade steel tool chests and cabinets are those:
(1) Having a body that is over 60 inches in width; or
(2) having each of the following physical characteristics:
(a) A body made of steel that is 0.047 inches or more in thickness;
(b) a body depth (front to back) exceeding 21 inches; and
(c) a unit weight that exceeds the maximum unit weight shown below for each width range:
Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are service carts. The excluded service carts have all of the following characteristics:
(1) Casters, wheels, or other similar devices which allow the service cart to be rolled from place to place;
(2) an open top for storage, a flat top or flat lid on top of the unit that opens;
(3) a space or gap between the casters, wheels, or other similar devices, and the bottom of the enclosed storage space (
(4) a total unit height, including casters, of less than 48 inches.
Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are non-mobile work benches. The excluded non-mobile work benches have all of the following characteristics:
(1) A solid top working surface;
(2) no drawers, one drawer, or two drawers in a side-by-side configuration; and
(3) the unit is supported by legs and has no solid front, side, or back panels enclosing the body of the unit.
Also excluded from the scope of the investigation are metal filing cabinets that are configured to hold hanging file folders and are classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) at subheading 9403.10.0020.
Merchandise subject to the investigation is classified under HTSUS categories 9403.20.0021, 9403.20.0026, 9403.20.0030 and 7326.90.8688, but may also be classified under HTSUS category 7326.90.3500. While HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and Customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting via webinar.
The New England Fishery Management Council's
This webinar will be held on Monday, December 18, 2017, beginning at 1:30 p.m. Webinar registration URL information:
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Scientific and Statistical Committee will review the 2017 Plan B Operational Assessment for Atlantic Halibut, and the work provided by the SSC sub-panel review and the Groundfish Plan Development Team. Taking into account the Council's Risk Policy Statement, the SSC will recommend an OFL and an ABC for each fishing year 2018-2020 that will prevent overfishing, and achieve rebuilding if needed, consistent with the Council's ABC control rule for groundfish stocks. Other business will be discussed as needed.
Although non-emergency issues not contained on the agenda may come before this Council for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Council action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency. The public also should be aware that the meeting will be recorded. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at 978-465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meeting (webinar).
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Ad hoc Ecosystem Workgroup (EWG) will hold a meeting via webinar to discuss the work associated with the Climate Change and Communities Initiative. The meeting is open to the public.
The webinar meeting will be held on Monday, December 18, 2017, from 11 a.m. to 3 p.m. (Pacific Standard Time) or until business for the day has been completed.
The meeting will be held via webinar. A public listening station is available at the Pacific Council office (address below). To attend the webinar (1) join the meeting by visiting this link
Dr. Kit Dahl, Pacific Council; telephone: (503) 820-2422.
The purpose of this webinar is for the EWG to discuss work associated with the Climate Change and Communities Initiative, which the Council has decided to embark upon. Two tasks have been assigned to the EWG as initial steps in this initiative. First, the EWG is organizing a series of briefings for the Council family on the potential effects of climate change on the California Current Ecosystem including fishing communities. Second, the EWG will draft a report on major Council decision types that may benefit from information on climate change impacts. This webinar in an opportunity for the EWG to discuss progress on these tasks and plan their completion. Public comments during the webinar will be received from attendees at the discretion of the EWG chair.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt (503) 820-2411 at least 10 business days prior to the meeting date.
As previously noticed on June 21, 2017, the staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) announced that it will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) to evaluate and discuss the environmental impacts of the North Seattle Lateral Upgrade Project involving construction and operation of facilities by Northwest Pipeline, LLC (Northwest) in Snohomish County, Washington. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
On October 23, 2017, Northwest filed an amendment to its current FERC application that proposes changes to the project facilities. Northwest now proposes to reduce the length of the upgraded pipeline facilities from 6.8 miles to 5.8 miles and to reroute a portion of its system off its existing right-of-way to avoid construction on the Fritch Forest Products mill site. This reroute was presented as a possible alternative to the originally filed project in the Commission's June 21, 2017
This supplemental notice announces the re-opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project (see appendix 1). You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before December 21, 2017.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
Northwest provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know? This fact sheet addresses a number of typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission will provide equal consideration to all comments received. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP17-441-001) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Northwest proposes to remove approximately 5.8 miles of the 8-inch-diameter North Seattle Lateral pipeline and replace it with 20-inch-diameter pipeline, primarily in the same trench. The project is in Snohomish County, Washington. According to Northwest, the proposed facilities would increase service reliability and enable Northwest to provide an incremental approximate 160 million cubic feet of natural gas per day of firm capacity to serve Puget Sound Energy.
The amended North Seattle Lateral Upgrade Project would consist of the following facilities:
• Replace 5.8-miles of 8-inch-diameter pipeline with 20-inch-diameter pipeline;
• rebuild the existing North Seattle/Everett meter station in order to accommodate the increased delivery capacity of the North Seattle Lateral;
• abandon and relocate approximately 0.1 mile of 16-inch-diameter pipeline;
• relocate an existing 8-inch pig launcher and a 20-inch pig receiver
• replace an existing 8-inch mainline valve with a 20-inch valve.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 2, and the reroute around the Fritch Mill is shown in appendix 3.
Construction activities related to the Upgrade Project would disturb about 88 acres of land for the pipeline replacement and aboveground facilities. With the exception of the proposed 0.15 mile reroute around the Fritch Mill, the new pipeline would be installed within Northwest's existing easement. Following construction, Northwest would maintain 43 acres of easement area for permanent operation of the project facilities; the remaining 45 acres of construction work space would be restored and revert to former uses. The entire existing right-of-way in which the replacements would be made parallels existing pipeline, utility, or road rights-of-way.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• endangered and threatened species;
• cultural resources;
• air quality and noise;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before making our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2 of this Notice.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
We have already identified two issues that we think deserve attention based on a preliminary review of the proposed facilities and the environmental information provided by Northwest. This preliminary list of issues may be changed based on your comments and our analysis.
• Effects of construction on residential properties
• Impacts on sensitive fish species during in-stream construction activities
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies of the EA will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 4).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an “intervenor” which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the Document-less Intervention Guide under the e-filing link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
On October 17, 2017, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) issued a notice that Commission staff will hold an Electric Quarterly Report (EQR) Users Group meeting on December 5, 2017. The meeting will take place from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. (EST) in the Commission Meeting Room at 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426. All interested persons are invited to attend. For those unable to attend in person, access to the meeting will be available via webcast.
Staff is hereby supplementing the October 17, 2017, notice with the agenda for discussion. During the meeting, Commission staff and the EQR users will discuss potential improvements to the EQR program and EQR filing process, including: (1) Progress since the last user group meeting; (2) EQR resources and Web site updates; (3) EQR validations and error messages; and (4) use of “Other” as a Product Name and Product Type Name. Please note that matters pending before the Commission and subject to ex parte limitations cannot be discussed at this meeting. An agenda of the meeting is attached.
Those interested in participating in the discussion are encouraged to attend in person. All interested persons (whether attending in person or via webcast) are asked to register online at
The webcast will allow persons to view and listen to the meeting. Questions during the meeting can be sent to
Commission conferences are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations, please send an email to
To increase administrative efficiency, issuances related to future EQR user group meetings will not be assigned to Docket Nos. RM01-8-000, RM10-12-000, RM12-3-000 and ER02-2001-000. For more information about the EQR Users Group meeting, please contact Jeff Sanders of the Commission's Office of Enforcement at (202) 502-6455, or send an email to
Take notice that on November 14, 2017, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc. (Southern Star), 4700 State Highway 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, filed a prior notice application pursuant to sections 157.205, and 157.216(b) of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Columbia's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-479-000. Southern Star requests authorization to construct, own and operate the Blue Mountain Chisholm Trail Project located in Grady and Carter Counties, Oklahoma. The proposed project consists of approximately 4.67 miles of 12‐inch diameter pipeline, associated above‐ground facilities, a booster compression site utilizing rental compressor units and a lateral to the delivery point, at a cost of $20,881,158, all as more fully set forth in the application which is open to the public for inspection.
Blue Mountain Midstream LLC (Blue Mountain) has proposed construction of a new cryogenic gas processing plant in Grady County,
The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Cindy C. Thompson, Manager, Regulatory, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., 4700 Highway 56, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301 or call (270) 852-4655, or email to
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to Section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenter will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, and prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application has been accepted for filing and is now ready for environmental analysis.
l.
Kaukauna is not proposing any new project facilities, and proposes to continue operating the project in a run-of-river mode, with a minimum impoundment elevation of 628.5 feet msl (0.5 foot less than the spillway crest elevation). Kaukauna also proposes to develop resource plans for mitigating the effects of reservoir drawdowns, woody debris removal, and erosion on aquatic resources; and mitigating the spread of invasive species.
m. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
n. Anyone may submit comments, a protest, or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210, .211, and .214. In determining the appropriate action to take, the Commission will consider all protests or other comments filed, but only those who file a motion to intervene in accordance with the Commission's Rules may become a party to the proceeding. Any comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified comment date for the particular application.
All filings must (1) bear in all capital letters the title PROTEST, MOTION TO INTERVENE, COMMENTS, REPLY COMMENTS, RECOMMENDATIONS, TERMS AND CONDITIONS, or PRESCRIPTIONS; (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person protesting or intervening; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. A copy of any protest or motion to intervene must be served upon each representative of the applicant specified in the particular application. A copy of all other filings in reference to this application must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed in the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.
You may also register online at
o.
Take notice that on November 21, 2017, City Water and Light Plant of the City of Jonesboro submitted a proposed revenue requirement under Schedule 2 of the Midcontinent Independent Transmission System Operator Tariff.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on November 9, 2017, Blue Mountain Midstream LLC (Blue Mountain), 14701 Hertz Quail Springs Pkwy, Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73134, filed in Docket No. CP18-14-000 an application under section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations, seeking a certificate of limited jurisdiction for the Blue Mountain Delivery Line located in Grady County, Oklahoma, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. Blue Mountain also requests a blanket certificate under Subpart F of Part 157 of the Commission's regulations. Blue Mountain further requests waivers of certain Commission regulatory requirements as set forth in the application.
Questions regarding this application should be directed to William F. Demarest, Jr., Husch Blackwell LLP, 750 17th Street NW., Suite 900, Washington, DC 20006, or by telephone at (202) 378-2310, or by email at
This filing is available for review at the Commission's Washington, DC offices, or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Blue Mountain seeks authority to construct, own and operate the Blue Mountain Delivery Line downstream from the Chisolm Trail Plant which will entail the construction of two natural gas pipelines totaling 9.57 miles and a metering and pigging facility. The two natural gas pipelines would be constructed in two stages. The first stage would be a 20-inch diameter steel pipeline approximately 4.35 miles in
Contemporaneously with Blue Mountain's construction of the first stage of the Blue Mountain Delivery Line, Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc. Southern Star will construct an approximately 5.5 mile pipeline from Southern Star's certificated interstate natural gas pipeline facilities in Grady County, Oklahoma, to the metering and pigging facility/CDP. Southern Star's construction activity will be performed pursuant to Southern Star's blanket certificate authority.
The second stage of the project will involve construction by Blue Mountain of a 12-inch diameter from the metering and pigging facility/CDP approximately 5.20 miles to an interconnect with the interstate natural gas pipeline facilities of Enable Gas Transmission, LLC, located in Grady County, Oklahoma.
Blue Mountain Midstream also requests general waiver of the Commission's rate schedule and tariff filing requirements, Part 154 of the Commission's regulations. Blue Mountain does not propose to charge any fee for transportation of gas, all of which will be owned by itself.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this Project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceeding for this project should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.214, 385.211 (2016), by the comment date below. A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission, and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit filings made with the Commission by mail, hand delivery, or Internet, in accordance with Rule 2001 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, id. 385.2001. A copy must be served on every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Protests and interventions may be filed electronically via the Internet in lieu of paper; see 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site under the e-filing link. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings.
If the Commission decides to set the application for a formal hearing before an Administrative Law Judge, the Commission will issue another notice describing that process. At the end of the Commission's review process, a final Commission order approving or denying the requested authorization will be issued.
Take notice that on November 21, 2017, pursuant to sections 1(4), 3(1), and 13(1) of the Interstate Commerce Act (ICA), 49 U.S.C. app. 1(4), 3(1), and 13(1) (1988), and Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206 (2017), and sections 343.1(a) and 343.2(c)(3) of the Commission's Procedural Rules Applicable to Oil Pipeline Proceedings, 18 CFR 343.1(a) and 343.2(c)(3), Occidental Energy Marketing, Inc., (Complainant) filed a formal complaint against BridgeTex Pipeline Company, LLC, (Respondent) alleging that, Respondent has unlawfully refused to provide service to Complainant under FERC Tariff Nos. 1.2.0 and 2.5.0, in violation of its duties as a common carrier under ICA section 1(4), all as more fully explained in the complaint.
Complainant certifies that copies of the complaint were served on the corporate representatives identified in Respondent's September 1, 2017 transmittal letter regarding the filing of BridgeTex FERC Tariff Nos. 4.0.0 and 5.0.0, as Respondent has not designated a person on the Commission's Corporate Officials List as representing Respondent in this action.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following PURPA 210(m)(3) filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric reliability filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on November 13, 2017 Western Area Power Administration submitted tariff filing per: DSW-BCP-FY2018 Base Charge—20171109 to be effective 12/14/2017.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. On or before the comment date, it is not necessary to serve motions to intervene or protests on persons other than the Applicant.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the Risberg Line Project involving construction, modification, and operation of facilities by RH energytrans, LLC (RH) in Crawford and Erie Counties, Pennsylvania and Ashtabula County, Ohio. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before December 21, 2017.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on October 16, 2017, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP18-6-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
RH provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know? This fact sheet addresses a number of typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at (202) 502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP18-6-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
In addition, the FERC environmental staff plans on attending RH-sponsored open houses in Conneaut, Ohio on December 5, 2017 and in Edinboro, Pennsylvania on December 6, 2017 to explain the Commission's environmental review process. If you are interested in attending, RH has requested that you RSVP at
RH proposes to construct, modify, operate, and maintain a new interstate natural gas pipeline system located in Crawford and Erie Counties, Pennsylvania and Ashtabula County, Ohio. The Risberg Line Project would provide about 55 million standard cubic feet of natural gas per day to Dominion Energy Ohio and other prospective customers in the vicinity of the project.
The Risberg Line Project would consist of the following actions in Pennsylvania:
• Minor modifications at the existing County Line Compressor Station in Erie County;
• installation of compression (approximately 1,600 horsepower, natural gas-fired), receipt metering, and appurtenant facilities at the existing (currently vacant) Meadville Compressor Station site in Crawford County;
• re-certification and use of an existing 12-inch-diameter pipeline extending 26.6 miles from the Meadville Compressor Station north to an existing valve set in Washington Township, Erie County, including construction of a new launcher/receiver;
• next to the Meadville Compressor Station, construction of a 650-foot lateral within the existing 12-inch-diameter pipeline right-of-way to move gas from the Tennessee Gas Pipeline Company, LLC system to the existing pipeline; and
• re-certification and use of a portion of an existing 8-inch-diameter pipeline extending from the 12-inch valve set west about 5.0 miles to a point in Elk Creek Township, Erie County (Line 10257), including construction of two new launcher/receivers.
In Pennsylvania and Ohio, the project would include:
• Construction of 28.3 miles of new 12-inch-diameter pipeline from the west end of the recertified 8-inch-diameter pipeline to connect with Dominion Energy Ohio facilities located in North Kingsville, Ashtabula County, Ohio (Risberg Pipeline). The pipeline would be constructed in new right-of-way and include launcher/receiver facilities and mainline valves; and
• construction of a new meter station at the terminus of the new pipeline in North Kingsville, Ashtabula County, Ohio.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb about 242 acres of land for the aboveground facilities, access roads, and the pipeline. Following construction, RH would maintain about 171 acres for permanent operation of the project's facilities; the remaining acreage would be restored and revert to former uses. Approximately 30 percent of the proposed new pipeline route parallels existing roads and railroads.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• socioeconomics;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife;
• endangered and threatened species;
• air quality and noise;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before making our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Offices (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project. We will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that we send the information related to this environmental review to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an intervenor which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the Document-less Intervention Guide under the e-filing link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific
Finally, public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the information collection request titled National Health Interview Survey (NHIS) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval. CDC previously published a “Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations” notice on August 21, 2017. CDC received eight comments related to the previous notice. This notice serves to allow an additional 30 days for public and affected agency comments.
CDC will accept all comments for this proposed information collection project. The Office of Management and Budget is particularly interested in comments that:
(a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including, through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(e) Assess information collection costs.
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
National Health Interview Survey (NHIS) (OMB Control Number 0920-0214, Expiration Date 12/31/2019)—Revision—National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Section 306 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C.), as amended, authorizes that the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS), acting through NCHS, shall collect statistics on the extent and nature of illness and disability of the population of the United States.
The annual National Health Interview Survey (NHIS) is a major source of general statistics on the health of the U.S. population and has been in the field continuously since 1957. This voluntary and confidential household-based survey collects demographic and health-related information from a nationally-representative sample of households and noninstitutionalized, civilian persons throughout the country. NHIS data have long been used by government, academic, and private researchers to evaluate both general health and specific issues, such as smoking, diabetes, health care coverage, and access to health care. The survey is also a leading source of data for the Congressionally-mandated “Health US” and related publications, as well as the single most important source of statistics to track progress toward Departmental health objectives.
The 2018 NHIS questionnaire remains largely unchanged from its 2017 version, with the exception of new supplements that are being added on asthma and cancer control. These supplements replace those from 2017 on receipt of culturally and linguistically appropriate health care services, diabetes, epilepsy, cognitive disability, complementary health, hepatitis B/C screening, vision, and heart disease and stroke prevention. Continuing from 2017 are supplemental questions about access to and utilization of care and barriers to care, disability and functioning, family food security, ABCS of heart disease and stroke prevention, immunizations, smokeless tobacco and e-cigarettes, and children's mental health.
In addition, in the last quarter of 2018, a portion of the regular 2018 NHIS sample will be used to carry out a dress rehearsal and systems test of the redesigned NHIS questionnaire that is scheduled for launch in January 2019. The redesigned questionnaire revises the NHIS both in terms of content and structure in order to (1) improve the measurement of covered health topics, (2) reduce respondent burden by shortening the length of the questionnaire and seamlessly integrating supplements, (3) harmonize overlapping content with other federal health surveys, (4) establish a long-term structure of ongoing and periodic topics, and (5) incorporate advances in survey methodology and measurement.
As in past years, and in accordance with the 1995 initiative to increase the integration of surveys within the DHHS, respondents to the 2018 NHIS will serve as the sampling frame for the Medical Expenditure Panel Survey. In addition, a subsample of NHIS respondents and/or members of commercial survey panels may be identified to participate in cognitive testing and methodological projects, using web and/or mail survey tools, that will inform the development of new rotating and supplemental content.
There is no cost to the respondents other than their time. Clearance is sought for three years, to collect data for 2018-2020, with an estimated annualized burden of 47,735 hours.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for XURIDEN and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before January 29, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product XURIDEN (uridine triacetate). XURIDEN is indicated for the treatment of hereditary orotic aciduria. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for XURIDEN (U.S. Patent No. 6,258,795) from Wellstat Therapeutics Corp., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated August 25, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of XURIDEN represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for XURIDEN is 8,494 days. Of this time, 8,254 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 240 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 5 years of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is withdrawing approval of new drug application (NDA) 020932 for ROXICODONE (oxycodone hydrochloride (HCl)) Sustained-Release Tablets, 10 milligrams (mg) and 30 mg, held by Roxane Laboratories, Inc. (Roxane). Roxane requested withdrawal of this application and waived its opportunity for a hearing.
The approval is withdrawn as of November 29, 2017.
Kristiana Brugger, Office of Regulatory Policy, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire
NDA 020932 for ROXICODONE SR (oxycodone HCl) Sustained-Release Tablets, 10 mg and 30 mg, was received on December 29, 1997, and approved on October 26, 1998, as safe and effective “for the management of moderate to severe pain where use of an opioid analgesic is appropriate for more than a few days” (see approval letter, available at
For the reasons discussed above, approval of NDA 020932, and all amendments and supplements thereto, is withdrawn. Distribution of ROXICODONE (oxycodone HCl) Sustained-Release Tablets, 10 mg and 30 mg, in interstate commerce without an approved application is illegal and subject to regulatory action (see sections 505(a) and 301(d) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 355(a) and 331(d)).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Select Updates for Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices.” FDA has developed this draft guidance to implement a section of the 21st Century Cures Act (Cures Act) that requires FDA to revise “V. Demonstrating Insignificant Risk of an Erroneous Result—Accuracy” of the guidance “Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices” (“2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance”) that was issued on January 30, 2008. This draft guidance updates FDA's thinking regarding the appropriate use of comparable performance between a waived user and a moderately complex laboratory user to demonstrate accuracy. This draft guidance is not final nor is it in effect at this time.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by January 29, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the internet. See the
Marina Kondratovich, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 4672, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6036; or Peter Tobin, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5657, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6169.
FDA has developed this draft guidance to implement section 3057 of the Cures Act (Pub. L. 114-255), which requires FDA to revise “V. Demonstrating Insignificant Risk of an Erroneous Result—Accuracy” of the guidance “Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices” (“2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance”) that was issued on January 30, 2008. This draft guidance updates FDA's thinking regarding the appropriate use of comparable performance between a waived user and a moderately complex laboratory user to demonstrate accuracy. The 2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance remains in effect, in its current form, until this draft guidance is finalized, at which time the updates in section III of this draft guidance will supersede the recommendations in section V of the 2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance.
FDA will incorporate the updates of the final version of this draft guidance into “V. Demonstrating Insignificant Risk of an Erroneous Result—Accuracy” of the 2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance. The remainder of the 2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance will not be changed by this update and will remain in effect.
The Secretary of Health and Human Services has delegated to FDA the authority to determine whether particular tests are “simple” and have “an insignificant risk of an erroneous result” under CLIA and are thus eligible for waiver categorization (69 FR 22849, April 27, 2004). The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is responsible for oversight of clinical laboratories, which includes issuing Certificates of Waiver. CLIA requires that clinical laboratories obtain a certificate before accepting materials derived from the human body for laboratory tests (42 U.S.C. 263a(b)). Laboratories that perform only tests that are “simple” and that have an “insignificant risk of an erroneous result” may obtain a certificate of waiver (42 U.S.C. 263a(d)(2)).
CLIA, 42 U.S.C. 263a(d)(3) Examinations and Procedures, as modified by the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA), reads as follows regarding tests that may be performed by laboratories with a Certificate of Waiver:
“The examinations and procedures [that may be performed by a laboratory with a Certificate of Waiver] . . . are laboratory examinations and procedures that have been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for home use or that, as determined by the Secretary, are simple laboratory examinations and procedures that have an insignificant risk of an erroneous result, including those that—(A) employ methodologies that are so simple and accurate as to render the likelihood of erroneous results by the user negligible, or (B) the Secretary has determined pose no unreasonable risk of harm to the patient if performed incorrectly.”
The 2008 CLIA Waiver Guidance describes recommendations for device manufacturers about study design and analysis for CLIA Waiver by Application to support an FDA determination as to whether the device meets the statutory criteria for waiver described above. This update provides additional details and pathways for demonstrating that a test has an insignificant risk of erroneous result which is a key element for obtaining a CLIA Waiver by Application.
In developing this specific update, we have considered interactions with stakeholders since the issuance of the final guidance on January 30, 2008.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on “Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of in Vitro Diagnostic Devices.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This draft guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. The collections of information in this guidance were approved under OMB control number 0910-0598. The collections of information in 21 CFR part 54 have been approved under 0910-0396, and the collections of information in 21 CFR parts 50 and 56 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0755.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for VELTASSA and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before January 29, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product,
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: a testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product VELTASSA (patiromer sorbitex calcium). VELTASSA is indicated for the treatment of hyperkalemia. Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for VELTASSA (U.S. Patent No. 8,147,873) from Relypsa, Inc., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated September 1, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of VELTASSA represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for VELTASSA is 2,844 days. Of this time, 2,478 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 366 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 832 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see DATES). Furthermore, as specified in § 60.30 (21 CFR 60.30), any interested person may petition FDA for a determination regarding whether the applicant for extension acted with due diligence during the regulatory review period. To meet its burden, the petition must comply with all the requirements of § 60.30, including but not limited to: Must be timely (see DATES), must be filed in accordance with § 10.20, must contain sufficient facts to merit an FDA investigation, and must certify that a true and complete copy of the petition has been served upon the patent applicant. (See H. Rept. 857, part 1, 98th Cong., 2d sess., pp. 41-42, 1984.) Petitions should be in the format specified in 21 CFR 10.30.
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Recommendations for Dual 510(k) and Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) Waiver by Application Studies.” It describes study designs for generating data that supports
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by January 29, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the internet. See the
Peter Tobin, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5645, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-6169.
In an application for CLIA waived categorization (CLIA Waiver by Application) a manufacturer submits evidence to FDA that a test, initially categorized as moderate complexity, meets the CLIA statutory criteria for waiver, 42 U.S.C. 263a(d)(3), and requests that FDA categorize the test as waived. Historically, CLIA Waiver by Application has followed clearance or approval of an IVD test. This stepwise approach currently remains the most utilized path by manufacturers. For additional information, please see FDA's Guidance, “Administrative Procedures for CLIA Categorization” (
While a premarket notification (510(k)) and CLIA Waiver by Application each include discrete elements not required in the other, both submissions include comparison and reproducibility studies. For a 510(k), such studies are often performed by trained operators (
An applicant may choose to conduct a single set of comparison and reproducibility studies with untrained operators to satisfy associated requirements for both 510(k) and CLIA Waiver by Application. To streamline the review of such data, the Dual 510(k) and CLIA Waiver by Application (Dual Submission) pathway, was established as part of the Medical Device User Fee Amendments of 2012 (MDUFA III), allowing the review of both a 510(k) and CLIA Waiver Application within a single submission with a reduced overall review time.
This guidance leverages FDA's experience implementing this pathway in MDUFA III in order to make the Dual Submission pathway least burdensome. Use of this guidance is expected to reduce study-related costs and provide time savings for manufacturers of certain Class II IVD devices intended for CLIA waived settings.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on Recommendations for Dual 510(k) and CLIA Waiver by Application Studies. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available
This draft guidance also refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. The collections of information in 21 CFR 54 have been approved under 0910-0396; the collections of information in 21 CFR parts 50 and 56 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0755, the collections of information in 21 CFR 807 have been approved under 0910-0120; the collections of information in the guidance document entitled “Recommendations for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA) Waiver Applications for Manufacturers of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices” have been approved under 0910-0598, the collections of information in the guidance document entitled “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions” have been approved under 0910-0756; and the collections of information in the guidance document entitled “Administrative Procedures for Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 Categorization” have been approved under 0910-0607.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for REXULTI and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before January 29, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product REXULTI (brexpiprazole). REXULTI is indicated for:
• Use as an adjunctive therapy to antidepressants for the treatment of major depressive disorder.
• Treatment of schizophrenia.
Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for REXULTI (U.S. Patent No. 7,888,362) from Otsuka Pharmaceutical Co., Ltd., and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated July 12, 2016, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of REXULTI represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for REXULTI is 2,636 days. Of this time, 2,271 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 365 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 868 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency) has determined the regulatory review period for SOLX SYSTEM and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of an application to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human drug product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (in the
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before January 29, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human drug products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the drug becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human drug product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the drug product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award (for example, half the testing phase must be subtracted as well as any time that may have occurred before the patent was issued), FDA's determination of the length of a regulatory review period for a human drug product will include all of the testing phase and approval phase as specified in 35 U.S.C. 156(g)(1)(B).
FDA has approved for marketing the human drug product SOLX SYSTEM. SOLX SYSTEM is indicated for:
• Pre-storage leukocyte reduction of Citrate Phosphate Dextrose Solution (CPD) whole blood followed by preparation of AS-7 Red Cells, Leukocytes Reduced, prepared at room temperature and placed at 1 to 6 °C within 24 hours of collection. AS-7 Red Cells, Leukocytes Reduced, may be stored at 1 to 6 °C for up to 42 days after collection.
• Pre-storage leukocyte reduction of CPD whole blood held at 1 to 6 °C and preparation of AS-7 Red Cells, Leukocytes Reduced within 72 hours after collection. AS-7 Red Cells, Leukocytes Reduced, may be stored at 1 to 6 °C for up to 42 days after collection.
• Preparation of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), Leukocytes Reduced prepared from a whole blood collection and frozen at −18 °C or below within 8 hours of collection. FFP, Leukocytes
• Preparation of Plasma Frozen within 24 hours after Phlebotomy (PF24), Leukocytes Reduced prepared from a whole blood collection. The product can be held at room temperature up to 8 hours after collection, refrigerated at 1 to 6 °C until separated, and placed at −18 °C or below within 24 hours of whole blood collection. PF24, Leukocytes Reduced may be stored at −18 °C or colder for up to 1 year after collection.
Subsequent to this approval, the USPTO received a patent term restoration application for SOLX SYSTEM (U.S. Patent No. 6,150,085) from Haemonetics Corporation, and the USPTO requested FDA's assistance in determining this patent's eligibility for patent term restoration. In a letter dated November 5, 2015, FDA advised the USPTO that this human drug product had undergone a regulatory review period and that the approval of SOLX SYSTEM represented the first permitted commercial marketing or use of the product. Thereafter, the USPTO requested that FDA determine the product's regulatory review period.
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for SOLX SYSTEM is 1,250 days. Of this time, 708 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 542 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its application for patent extension, this applicant seeks 894 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and, under 21 CFR 60.24, ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by December 29, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Ila S. Mizrachi, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-7726,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
FDA's regulations in §§ 189.5 and 700.27 (21 CFR 189.5 and 700.27) set forth bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)-related restrictions applicable to FDA-regulated human food and cosmetics. The regulations designate certain materials from cattle as “prohibited cattle materials,” including specified risk materials (SRMs), the small intestine of cattle not otherwise excluded from being a prohibited cattle material, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, and mechanically separated (MS) beef. Sections 189.5(c) and 700.27(c) set forth the requirements for recordkeeping and records access for FDA-regulated human food, including dietary supplements, and cosmetics manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing material derived
These requirements are necessary because once materials are separated from an animal it may not be possible, without records, to know the following: (1) Whether cattle material may contain SRMs (brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, vertebral column (excluding the vertebrae of the tail, the transverse processes of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae and the wings of the sacrum), and dorsal root ganglia from animals 30 months and older and tonsils and distal ileum of the small intestine from all animals of all ages); (2) whether the source animal for cattle material was inspected and passed; (3) whether the source animal for cattle material was nonambulatory disabled or MS beef; and (4) whether tallow in human food or cosmetics contain less than 0.15 percent insoluble impurities.
FDA's regulations in §§ 189.5(c) and 700.27(c) require manufacturers and processors of human food and cosmetics manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing material from cattle establish and maintain records sufficient to demonstrate that the human food or cosmetics are not manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains prohibited cattle materials. These records must be retained for 2 years at the manufacturing or processing establishment or at a reasonably accessible location. Maintenance of electronic records is acceptable, and electronic records are considered to be reasonably accessible if they are accessible from an onsite location. Records required by these sections and existing records relevant to compliance with these sections must be available to FDA for inspection and copying. Existing records may be used if they contain all of the required information and are retained for the required time period.
Because FDA does not easily have access to records maintained at foreign establishments, FDA regulations in §§ 189.5(c)(6) and 700.27(c)(6), respectively, require that when filing for entry with U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), the importer of record of human food or cosmetics manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing cattle material must affirm that the human food or cosmetics were manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing-cattle material and must affirm that the human food or cosmetics were manufactured in accordance with the applicable requirements of §§ 189.5 or 700.27. In addition, if human food or cosmetics were manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise containing-cattle material, the importer of record must provide within 5 business days records sufficient to demonstrate that the human food or cosmetics were not manufactured from, processed with, or otherwise contains prohibited cattle material, if requested.
Under FDA's regulations, FDA may designate a country from which cattle materials inspected and passed for human consumption are not considered prohibited cattle materials, and their use does not render human food or cosmetics adulterated. Sections 189.5(e) and 700.27(e) provide that a country seeking to be designated must send a written request to the Director of the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN Director). The information the country is required to submit includes information about a country's BSE case history, risk factors, measures to prevent the introduction and transmission of BSE, and any other information relevant to determining whether SRMs, the small intestine of cattle not otherwise excluded from being a prohibited cattle material, material from nonambulatory disabled cattle, or MS beef from the country seeking designation should be considered prohibited cattle materials. FDA uses the information to determine whether to grant a request for designation and to impose conditions if a request is granted.
Sections 189.5 and 700.27 further state that countries designated under §§ 189.5(e) and 700.27(e) will be subject to future review by FDA to determine whether their designations remain appropriate. As part of this process, FDA may ask designated countries to confirm their BSE situation and that the information submitted by them, in support of their original application, has remained unchanged. FDA may revoke a country's designation if FDA determines that it is no longer appropriate. Therefore, designated countries may respond to periodic FDA requests by submitting information to confirm their designations remain appropriate. FDA uses the information to ensure their designations remain appropriate.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Except where otherwise noted, this estimate is based on FDA's estimate of the number of facilities affected by the final rule entitled “Recordkeeping Requirements for Human Food and Cosmetics Manufactured From, Processed With, or Otherwise Containing Material From Cattle” published in the
FDA's estimate of the reporting burden for designation under §§ 189.5 and 700.27 is based on its experience and the average number of requests for designation received in the past 3 years. In the last 3 years, FDA has not received any requests for designation. Thus, FDA estimates that one or fewer will be received annually in the future. Based on this experience, FDA estimates the annual number of new requests for designation will be one. FDA estimates that preparing the information required by §§ 189.5 and 700.27 and submitting it to FDA in the form of a written request to the CFSAN Director will require a burden of approximately 80 hours per request. Thus, the burden for new requests for designation is estimated to be 80 hours annually, as shown in table 1, row 2.
Under §§ 189.5(e) and 700.27(e), designated countries are subject to future review by FDA and may respond to periodic FDA requests by submitting information to confirm their designations remain appropriate. In the last 3 years, FDA has not requested any reviews. Thus, FDA estimates that one or fewer will occur annually in the future. FDA estimates that the designated country undergoing a review in the future will need one-third of the time it took preparing its request for designation to respond to FDA's request for review, or 26 hours (80 hours × 0.33 = 26.4 hours, rounded to 26). The annual burden for reviews is estimated to be 26 hours, as shown in table 1, row 3. The total reporting burden for this information collection is estimated to be 1,915 hours annually.
In this estimate of the recordkeeping burden, FDA treats these recordkeeping activities as shared activities between the upstream and downstream facilities. It is in the best interests of both facilities in the relationship to share the burden necessary to comply with the regulations; therefore, FDA estimates the time burden of developing these records as a joint task between the two facilities. Thus, FDA estimates that this recordkeeping burden will be about 15 minutes per week, or 13 hours per year, and FDA assumes that the recordkeeping burden will be shared between two entities (
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than January 29, 2018.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
The revision to this clearance package will incorporate one new form and one updated form. The CSF Verification Form will be used to verify participant transfers to critical shortage facilities. The Initial Employment Verification Form has been revised to include all eligible service site types listed in the NURSE Corps SP Application and Program Guidance.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR should be received no later than January 29, 2018.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
In an effort to consolidate information collection requests and achieve greater programmatic efficiency, HRSA is incorporating the Deferment-HRSA Form 519 and AOR-HRSA Form 501 (OMB No. 0915-0044) into this information collection request. As a result, the OMB No. 0915-0044 package will be discontinued.
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
National Institutes of Health.
Notice.
The National Cancer Institute, an institute of the National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services, is contemplating the grant of an exclusive patent license to practice the inventions embodied in the Patents and Patent Applications listed in the Supplementary Information section of this notice to BravoVax Co., Ltd located in Wuhan, China.
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the National Cancer Institute's Technology Transfer Center on or before December 14, 2017 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated exclusive license should be directed to: Kevin W. Chang, Ph.D., Senior Technology Transfer Manager, NCI Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, RM 1E530 MSC 9702, Bethesda, MD 20892-9702 (for business mail), Rockville, MD 20850-9702 Telephone: (240)-276-6910; Facsimile: (240)-276-5504 Email:
United States Provisional Patent Application No. 60/649,249 filed February 1, 2005 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Reference No. E-103-2005/0-US-01]; United States Provisional Patent Application No. 60/697,655 filed July 7, 2005 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Reference No. E-103-2005/1-US-01]; United States Provisional Patent Application No. 60/752,268 filed December 21, 2005 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Reference No. E-103-2005/2-US-01]; International PCT Application No. PCT/US2006/003601 filed February 1, 2006, and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Reference No. E-103-2005/3-PCT-01]; United States Patent No. 8,404,244, issued March 26, 2013 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-US-02]; United States Patent No. 9,388,221 issued July 12, 2016 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-US-10]; Canadian Patent No. 2,596,698 issued May 16, 2017 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-CA-03]; Australian Patent No. 2006210792 issued November 8, 2012 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-AU-04]; Japanese Patent No. 5224821 issued March 22, 2013 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-JP-05]; Brazilian Patent Application No. PI0607097-3 filed February 1, 2006 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-BR-06]; Chinese Patent No. 200680011079.1 issued March 27, 2013 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-CN-07]; Indian Patent No. 263255 issued October 16, 2014 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-IN-08]; European Patent No. 1853307 issued December 14, 2016 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-EP-09]; German Patent No. 1853307 issued December 14, 2016 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-DE-11]; French Patent No. 1853307 issued December 14, 2016 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-FR-12]; and United Kingdom Patent No. 1853307 issued December 14, 2016 and entitled, “Papillomavirus L2 N-terminal Peptides For The Induction Of Broadly Cross-neutralizing Antibodies” [HHS Ref. No. E-103-2005/3-GB-13]. The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned and/or exclusively licensed to the government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive license territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to the use of Licensed Patent Rights for the following: “Development and use of
The subject technologies are papillomavirus L2 capsid protein based vaccines against HPV. The L2 protein is the minor papillomavirus capsid protein for papillomaviruses. It is known that antibodies to this protein can neutralize homologous infection. Furthermore, L2 proteins can induce cross-neutralizing antibodies. Specifically, epitopes at the N-terminus of L2 shared by cutaneous and mucosal types of papillomavirus types and by types that infect divergent species are broadly cross-neutralizing. These epitopes at the N-terminus of L2 can be used to elicit cross-neutralizing antibodies against different types of HPV.
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing, and the prospective exclusive license may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the National Cancer Institute receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.
In response to this Notice, the public may file comments or objections. Comments and objections, other than those in the form of a license application, will not be treated confidentially, and may be made publicly available.
License applications submitted in response to this Notice will be presumed to contain business confidential information and any release of information in these license applications will be made only as required and upon a request under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health.
Notice.
The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (“NHLBI”), an institute of the National Institutes of Health; an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services, is contemplating the grant of an Exclusive Patent License to commercialize the invention(s) embodied in the intellectual property estate stated in the Summary Information section of this notice to T-Cure Bioscience, Inc. located in Thousand Oaks, California and incorporated under the laws of Delaware.
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the NHLBI Office of Technology Transfer and Development
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated exclusive license should be directed to: Cristina Thalhammer-Reyero, Ph.D., MBA, Senior Licensing and Patenting Manager, NHLBI Office of Technology Transfer and Development, 31 Center Drive Room 4A29, MSC2479, Bethesda, MD 20892-2479; Telephone: +1-301-435-4507; Fax: +1-301-594-3080; Email:
The following represents the intellectual property to be licensed under the prospective agreement:
US Provisional Patent Application No. 62/357,265, filed June 30, 2016; and PCT Patent Application PCT/US2017/040449, filed June 30, 2017, “HERV-E Reactive T Cell Receptors and Methods of Use”, NIH Reference No. E-120-2016/0,1.
With respect to persons who have an obligation to assign their right, title and interest to the Government of the United States of America, the patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the Government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive license territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to the use of Licensed Patent Rights for the following: “Development and commercialization of T cell receptor based cancer immunotherapy for Renal Cell Carcinoma”.
The subject technology is based on an allogeneic T cell clone isolated from a clear cell renal cell carcinoma (ccRCC) HLA-A11 patient who showed prolonged tumor regression after an allogeneic transplant. This clone was found to have tumor specific cytotoxicity, killing patient's tumor cells in vitro. The antigen recognized by this clone is an HLA-A11 restricted peptide (named CT-RCC-1) and it is encoded by a novel human endogenous retrovirus-E (named CT-RCC HERV-E) whose expression was discovered to be restricted to ccRCC, but not observed in normal tissues or other tumor types. More than 80% of ccRCC tumors express CT-RCC HERV-E provirus, which makes it an ideal target for T cell based immunotherapy. The genes for a T cell receptor (TCR) that specifically recognizes an HLA-A11 restricted CT-RCC-1 antigen were sequenced and cloned. A retroviral vector encoding this TCR as well as a truncated CD34 protein lacking the intracellular domain, which can be used to facilitate the isolation of T-cells transduced with this TCR, was created. The vector can be used to transduce and expand normal T cells from HLA-A11 patients with metastatic ccRCC with the TCR. The transduced cytotoxic T cells can then be administered to subjects to treat or inhibit metastatic kidney cancer. Kidney cancer is responsible for approximately 12,000 deaths every year in the United States alone. As with most cancer, when detected at early stages, surgical intervention is highly effective. Phase I/II clinical trials are currently being planned in patients with metastatic ccRCC using normal patient's T-cells transduced with this vector.
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective Exclusive Patent License will be royalty bearing and may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the NHLBI Office of Technology Transfer and Development receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.
The public may file comments or objections in response to this Notice. Comments and objections, other than those in the form of a license application, will not be treated confidentially, and may be made publicly available.
License applications submitted in response to this Notice will be presumed to contain business confidential information and any release of information in these license applications will be made only as required and upon a request under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
National Institutes of Health.
Notice.
The National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID), an institute of the National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services, is contemplating the grant of an exclusive patent commercialization license to GlaxoSmithKline Intellectual Property Development Ltd (GSK) located at 980 Great West Road, Brentford, Middlesex, TW8 9GS, United Kingdom, to practice the inventions embodied in the patent applications listed in the
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases on or before December 14, 2017 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent applications, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated exclusive patent commercialization license should be directed to: Chris Kornak, Lead Technology Transfer and Patent Specialist, Technology Transfer and Intellectual Property Office, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, 5601 Fishers Lane, Suite 6D, MSC 9804, Rockville, MD 20852-9804, phone number 301-496-2644, or
The following represents the intellectual property to be licensed under the prospective agreement: HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/0-US-01, United States Provisonal Patent Application Serial No. 62/136,228, filed on 03/20/2015; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/1-US-01, United States Provisional Patent Application Serial No. 62/250,378 filed on 11/03/2015; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-PCT-01, PCT Patent Application Serial No. PCT/US2016/023145, filed on 03/18/2016; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-US-07, United States Patent Application Serial No. 15/559,791, filed on 09/19/2017; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-EP-05, European Patent Application Serial No. 16716979.6, filed on 10/19/2017; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-CA-03, Canadian Patent Application Serial No. 2,980,005, filed on 09/15/2017; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-AU-02, Australian Patent Application Serial No. 2016235541, filed on 09/08/2017; HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-CN-04, filing in process, HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-ZA-08, South African Patent Application Serial No. 2017/06155, filed on 09/11/2017; and HHS Reference No. E-131-2015/2-IN-06, Indian Patent Application
All rights in these inventions have been assigned to the Government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive patent commercialization license territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to: “Administration to humans of a GP120-binding protein or proteins, containing the 6 CDRs of the N6 antibody, all as described in the Licensed Patent Rights. This field of use does not include bi-specific/multi-specific constructs utilizing the Licensed Patent Rights.”
The N6 antibody has evolved a unique mode of binding that depends less on a variable area of the HIV envelope known as the V5 region and focuses more on conserved regions, which change relatively little among HIV strains. This allows N6 to tolerate changes in the HIV envelope, including the attachment of sugars in the V5 region, a major mechanism by which HIV develops resistance to other VRC01-class antibodies. N6 was shown in pre-clinical studies to neutralize approximately 98 percent of HIV isolates tested. The studies also demonstrate that N6 neutralizes approximately 80 percent of HIV isolates which were resistant to other antibodies of the same class, and does so very potently. Its breadth and potency makes N6 a highly desirable candidate for development in therapeutic or prophylactic strategies. An abstract of the subject invention was published in the
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective exclusive patent commercialization license will be royalty bearing and may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.
Complete applications for a license in the prospective field of use that are timely filed in response to this notice will be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated exclusive patent commercialization license. Comments and objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available for public inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of meetings of the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences.
The meetings will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the NHLBI Special Emphasis Panel.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
United States International Trade Commission.
December 7, 2017 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-566 and 731-TA-1342 (Final) (Softwood Lumber from Canada). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations and views of the Commission on December 22, 2017.
5. Outstanding action jackets: None.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
December 5, 2017 at 9:30 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-571-572 and 731-TA-1347-1348 (Final) (Biodiesel from Argentina and Indonesia). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations and views of the Commission on December 21, 2017.
5. Outstanding action jackets: None.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on October 26, 2017, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, on behalf of Caterpillar Inc. of Peoria, Illinois and Caterpillar Paving Products, Inc. of Minneapolis, Minnesota. A supplement was filed on November 9, 2017. The complaint, as supplemented, alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain road construction machines and components thereof by reason of infringement of one or more of U.S. Patent No. 7,140,693 (“the '693 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 9,045,871 (“the '871 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. 7,641,419 (“the '419 patent”). The complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists, or is in the process of being established, as required by the applicable Federal Statute.
The complainants request that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and a cease and desist order.
The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street, SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information
The Office of the Secretary, Docket Services Division, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-1802.
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain road construction machines and components thereof by reason of infringement of one or more of claims 1, 15-19, 24-28, 36 and 38 of the '693 patent; claims 1-5, 8, 9, 12-17 of the '871 patent; and claims 1-3, 7, and 8 of the '419 patent; and whether an industry in the United States exists, or is in the process of being established, as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337;
(2) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainants are:
(b) The respondent is the following entity alleged to be in violation of section 337, and is the party upon which the complaint is to be served:
(3) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
The Office of Unfair Import Investigations will not participate as a party in the investigation.
Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
National Science Foundation.
Notice of permit modification issued.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish notice of permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. This is the required notice.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, Office of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314; 703-292-8030; email:
On October 23, 2017, the National Science Foundation published a notice in the
National Science Foundation.
Notice of permit modification request received and permit issued.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish a notice of requests to modify permits issued to conduct activities regulated and permits issued under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. NSF has published regulations under the Antarctic Conservation Act in the Code of Federal Regulations. This is the required notice of a requested permit modification and permit issued.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, Office of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, VA 22314; 703-292-8030; email:
The National Science Foundation (NSF), as directed by the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-541, 45 CFR 670), as amended by the Antarctic Science, Tourism and Conservation Act of 1996, has developed regulations for the establishment of a permit system for various activities in Antarctica and designation of certain animals and certain geographic areas a requiring special protection.
NSF issued a permit (ACA 2018-012) to Jay J. Rotella on October 16, 2017. The issued permit allows the applicant to continue long-term studies of Weddell seal populations in Erebus Bay and the McMurdo Sound region to evaluate how temporal variation in the marine environment affects individual
The permit modification was issued on November 22, 2017.
2017-25417.
9:30 a.m., Tuesday, December 12, 2017.
9:00 a.m., Tuesday, December 12, 2017.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
10 CFR 2.206 request; receipt.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is giving notice that by petition dated March 16, 2017, as supplemented on April 10, May 21, June 25, July 24, August 16, August 18, October 11, October 12, October 15, and October 16, 2017, Dr. Michael Reimer (the petitioner) has requested that the NRC take action with regard to depleted uranium (DU) from the M101 spotting rounds licensed at the Pohakuloa Training Area (PTA) under source materials license SUC-1593. The petitioner's requests that have been accepted for evaluation are included in the
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0106 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
•
Amy Snyder, Senior Project Manager, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, Division of Decommissioning, Uranium Recovery and Waste Programs, Materials Decommissioning Branch, M.S. T8F05, 11545 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852-2738,
On March 16, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17110A308), as supplemented on April 10 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17250A248); May 21 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17143A165); June 25 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17177A703); July 24 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17249A091); August 16 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17248A524); August 18, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17249A075); and October 11, October 12, October 15, and October 16, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17292A690 (Pkg.)), the petitioner requested that the NRC take action with regard to the U.S. Army Installation Command (ADAMS Accession No. ML17079A447). The petitioner requested that the NRC reconsider approval of License SUC-1593 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16343A164) for possession of DU at four ranges located on PTA, one of the facilities licensed under SUC-1593 paying particular attention to environmental radiation monitoring. The petitioner is concerned about the adequacy of various aspects of the Environmental Radiation Monitoring Program for the licensed DU that is located in the radiation control areas at the PTA, transparency in the licensing of DU at the PTA, and the appropriateness of the DU inventory estimate at the PTA. As the basis for this request, the petitioner identified concerns about the lack of air sampling, the inappropriateness of the location and number of sediment samples, and insufficient geologic sampling procedures for sediment collection for the licensed DU that is located in radiation controlled areas at the PTA.
The request is being treated pursuant to section 2.206 of title 10 of the
Inappropriate number of sediment samples,
Inappropriate frequency of sediment sampling,
Inappropriate and poorly described analytical techniques (sample analysis methods),
Inappropriate geological sampling procedures for sediment collection, and
Inappropriate data evaluation methods (leading to dilution of samples) to determine the presence of depleted uranium outside the ranges associated with the Pohakuloa Training Area.
As provided by 10 CFR 2.206, appropriate action will be taken on this petition within a reasonable time.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on November 22, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Maria W. Votsch, 202-268-6525.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on November 24, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury (OCC).
Final rule.
The OCC is adopting a final rule that adds a new part to its rules to enhance the resilience and the safety and soundness of federally chartered and licensed financial institutions by addressing concerns relating to the exercise of default rights of certain financial contracts that could interfere with the orderly resolution of certain systemically important financial firms. Under the final rule, a covered bank is required to ensure that a covered qualified financial contract contains a contractual stay-and-transfer provision analogous to the statutory stay-and-transfer provision imposed under Title II of the Dodd-Frank, Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act and in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and limits the exercise of default rights based on the insolvency of an affiliate of the covered bank. In addition, this final rule makes conforming amendments to the Capital Adequacy Standards and the Liquidity Risk Measurement Standards in its regulations. The requirements of this final rule are substantively identical to those adopted in the final rules issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
This final rule is effective on January 1, 2018.
Valerie Song, Assistant Director, Scott Burnett, Attorney, or Colby Mangels, Attorney, Bank Activities and Structure Division, (202) 649-5500; Allison Hester-Haddad, Counsel, or Ron Shimabukuro, Senior Counsel, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, (202) 649-6282, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
In the wake of the financial crisis of 2007-2008, U.S. and international financial regulators have placed increased focus on improving the resolvability of large, complex financial institutions that operate in multiple jurisdictions, which are often referred to as global systemically important banking organizations (GSIBs). In connection with these ongoing efforts, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (FRB) worked jointly to develop and issue two separate notice of proposed rulemakings (NPRMs). The FRB issued an NPRM on May 3, 2016 (FRB Proposed Rule); the OCC issued an NPRM on August 19, 2017 (OCC Proposed Rule).
The OCC received 21 comments on the proposed rule,
The OCC has carefully reviewed all of the comments received. The proposed rule and the comments are discussed in Section III (Discussion of the Final Rule) of the preamble. The OCC notes that many of the comments submitted to the OCC also included attachments with the comments submitted to the FRB and FDIC. The OCC further notes that to the degree applicable, all comments submitted as attachments were treated
At the most basic level, the collective purpose of Agencies' NPRMs is to address a common supervisory concern raised by the resolvability of large, complex financial institutions in the United States that operate in multiple jurisdictions and that are subject to different supervisory authorities.
The threat to financial stability arises because all GSIBs are interconnected with other financial firms, including other GSIBs, through large volumes of QFCs. The failure of one entity within a GSIB can trigger disruptive terminations of these contracts if the counterparties of both the failed entity and its affiliates exercise their contractual rights to terminate the contracts and liquidate collateral. These terminations, especially if many counterparties lose confidence in the GSIB quickly, can destabilize the financial system and potentially spark a financial crisis through several channels. For example, such terminations can destabilize the failed entity's otherwise solvent affiliates, causing them to weaken or fail with adverse consequences to their counterparties that can result in a chain reaction that ripples through the financial system. They also may result in “fire sales” of large volumes of financial assets, in particular, the collateral that secures the contracts, which can in turn weaken and cause stress for other firms by depressing the value of similar assets that they hold.
The Agencies' NPRMs, generally would require banking organizations that are covered by the NPRMs to ensure that their covered QFCs: (1) Contain a contractual stay-and-transfer provision analogous to the statutory stay-and-transfer provision imposed under Title II of the Dodd-Frank, Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act),
In the United States, the FDI Act and the Dodd-Frank Act create special resolution frameworks for failed financial firms that provide that the rights of a failed financial firm's counterparties to terminate their QFCs are temporarily stayed when the financial firm enters a resolution proceeding to allow for the transfer of the relevant obligations under the QFC to a solvent entity. By requiring covered QFCs to contain a contractual stay-and-transfer provision analogous to the statutory stay-and-transfer provision imposed under the FDI Act and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, the counterparties of QFCs have essentially contractually opted into the FDI Act and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act temporary stay-and-transfer treatment. In this way, the Agencies' NPRMs address the concern that the statutory stay-and-transfer treatment would be challenged by a QFC counterparty, and might not be enforced by a court in a foreign jurisdiction.
With respect to the default rights based on the insolvency of an affiliate, the Agencies' NPRMs required covered QFCs to contain mandatory contractual provisions that would prohibit the counterparties of the QFCs from exercising default rights related, directly or indirectly, to the entry into resolution of an affiliate of the banking organizations covered by the NPRMs (cross-default rights), subject to certain creditor protection exceptions.
While the OCC shares many of the overall policy concerns discussed in Section I-A with the FRB and FDIC with respect to the resolvability of large, complex financial institutions in the United States, the primary focus of this final rule is specifically on the safety and soundness of national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies, as well as the overall stability of the Federal banking system,
Accordingly, OCC-supervised institutions that are affiliates or branches of U.S. GSIBs or Foreign GSIBs are exposed, through the interconnectedness of their QFCs and the QFCs of their affiliates, to destabilizing effects if their counterparties or the counterparties of their affiliates exercise default rights upon the entry into resolution of the
The OCC believes that each of the Federal banking agencies share a collective interest to insure the orderly resolution of all entities that make up a GSIB group. This final rule represents the OCC's effort to help address this systemic issue with respect to OCC-supervised institutions. Consequently, for the reasons discussed in this preamble, the OCC is issuing this final rule, which imposes substantively identical requirements on national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies as those imposed by the FRB and FDIC final rules.
The following background discussion describes in detail the financial contracts that are the subject of this final rule, the default rights often contained in such contracts, and impacts on financial stability resulting from the exercise of such default rights. This section also provides in more detail background information on the resolution strategies for GSIBs and how they fit within the resolution frameworks in the United States.
The final rule covers QFCs, which include swaps, other derivative contracts, repurchase agreements (repos) and reverse repos, and securities lending and borrowing agreements. GSIB entities enter into QFCs to borrow money to finance their investments, to lend money, to manage risk, to attempt to profit from market movements, and to enable their clients and counterparties to perform these financial activities.
QFCs play a role in economically valuable financial intermediation when markets are functioning normally. But they are also a major source of financial interconnectedness, which may pose a threat to financial stability in times of stress. The final rule focuses on one of the most serious threats to both a global systemically important bank holding company (BHC) and its covered banks' subsidiaries—the failure of a GSIB that is party to large volumes of QFCs, which are likely to include QFCs with counterparties that are themselves systemically important. By contract, a party to a QFC generally has the right to take certain actions if its counterparty defaults on the QFC (that is, if it fails to meet certain contractual obligations). Common default rights include the right to suspend performance of the non-defaulting party's obligations, the right to terminate or accelerate the contract, the right to set off amounts owed between the parties, and the right to seize and liquidate the defaulting party's collateral. In general, default rights allow a party to a QFC to reduce the credit risk associated with the QFC by granting it the right to exit the QFC and thereby reduce its exposure to its counterparty upon the occurrence of a specified condition, such as its counterparty's entry into resolution proceedings.
This final rule focuses on two distinct scenarios in which a non-defaulting party to a QFC is commonly able to exercise default rights. These two scenarios involve a default that occurs when either the defaulting party to the QFC or an affiliate of that party enters a resolution proceeding.
The first scenario occurs when a legal entity that is itself a party to the QFC enters a resolution proceeding. This final rule refers to such a scenario as a “direct default” and refers to the contractual default rights that arise from a direct default as “direct default rights.”
The second scenario occurs when an affiliate of the legal entity that is a direct party to the QFC (such as the direct party's parent holding company) enters a resolution proceeding. This final rule refers to such a scenario as a “cross-default” and refers to contractual default rights that arise from a cross-default as “cross-default rights.” For example, a GSIB parent entity might guarantee the derivatives transactions of its subsidiaries and those derivatives contracts could contain cross-default rights against a subsidiary of the GSIB that would be triggered by the bankruptcy filing of the GSIB parent entity even though the subsidiary continues to meet all of its financial obligations.
Direct default rights and cross-default rights are referred to collectively in this final rule as “default rights.”
As noted in the OCC Proposed Rule, if a significant number of QFC counterparties exercise their default rights precipitously and in a manner that would impede an orderly resolution of a GSIB, all QFC counterparties and the broader financial system, including institutions supervised by the OCC, may potentially be worse off and less stable.
The destabilization can occur in several ways. First, counterparties' exercise of default rights may drain liquidity from the troubled GSIB, forcing it to sell off assets at depressed prices, both because the sales must be done in a short timeframe and because the elevated supply will push prices down. These asset “fire sales” may cause or deepen balance-sheet insolvency at the GSIB, reducing the amount that its other creditors can recover and thereby imposing losses on those creditors and threatening their solvency (and, indirectly, the solvency of their own creditors, and so on). The GSIB may also respond by withdrawing liquidity that it had offered to other firms, forcing them to engage in asset fire sales. Alternatively, if the GSIB's QFC counterparty itself liquidates the QFC collateral at fire sale prices, the effect will again be to weaken the GSIB's balance sheet, because the debt satisfied by the liquidation would be less than
The asset fire sales can also spread contagion throughout the financial system by increasing volatility and by lowering the value of similar assets held by other financial institutions, potentially causing them to suffer diminished market confidence in their own solvency, mark-to-market losses, margin calls, and creditor runs (which could lead to further fire sales, thereby worsening the contagion). Finally, the early terminations of derivatives upon which the defaulting GSIB relied on to hedge its risks could leave major risks unhedged, increasing the GSIB's probable losses going forward.
Where there are significant simultaneous terminations and these effects occur contemporaneously, such as upon the failure of a GSIB that is party to a large volume of QFCs, they may pose a substantial risk to financial stability. In short, QFC continuity is important for the orderly resolution of a GSIB so that the instability caused by asset fire sales can be avoided.
As will be discussed further, the final rule is primarily concerned only with default rights that run against a GSIB—that is, direct default rights and cross-default rights that arise from the entry into resolution of a GSIB. The final rule would not affect contractual default rights that a GSIB (or any other entity) may have against a counterparty that is not a GSIB. The OCC believes that this limited scope is appropriate because the risk posed to financial stability by the exercise of QFC default rights is greatest when the defaulting counterparty is a GSIB.
Under the Dodd-Frank Act, many complex GSIBs are required to submit resolution plans to the FRB and the FDIC, detailing how the company can be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of material financial distress or failure of the company. In response to these requirements, these firms have developed resolution strategies that, broadly speaking, fall into two categories: The single-point-of-entry (SPOE) strategy and the multiple-point-of-entry (MPOE) strategy. As noted in the FRB Proposed Rule, cross-default rights in QFCs pose a potential obstacle to the implementation of either of these strategies.
In an SPOE resolution, only a single legal entity—the GSIB's top-tier BHC—would enter a resolution proceeding. The losses that led to the GSIB's failure would be passed up from the operating subsidiaries that incurred the losses to the holding company and would then be imposed on the equity holders and unsecured creditors of the holding company through the resolution process. This strategy is designed to help ensure that the GSIB's subsidiaries remain adequately capitalized. An SPOE resolution could thereby prevent those operating subsidiaries from failing or entering resolution themselves and allow them to instead continue normal operations. The expectation that the holding company's equity holders and unsecured creditors would absorb the GSIB's losses in the event of failure would help to maintain the confidence of the operating subsidiaries' creditors and counterparties (including QFC counterparties), reducing their incentive to engage in potentially destabilizing funding runs or margin calls and thus lowering the risk of asset fire sales.
An SPOE proceeding can avoid the need for covered banks to be placed into receivership or similar proceedings, as they would continue to operate as going concerns, only if the parent's entry into resolution proceedings does not trigger the exercise of cross-default rights. Accordingly, this final rule, by limiting such cross-default rights based on an affiliate's entry into resolution proceedings, enables the SPOE strategy, and in turn, would assist in stabilizing both the covered bank and the Federal banking system.
This final rule is also intended to yield benefits for resolution under the MPOE strategy. Unlike the SPOE strategy, an MPOE strategy involves several entities in the GSIB group entering proceedings. For example, an MPOE strategy might involve a Foreign GSIB's U.S. intermediate holding company going into resolution or a GSIB's U.S. insured depository institution entering resolution under the FDI Act. Similar to the benefits associated with the SPOE strategy, this final rule would help support the continued operation of affiliates of an entity experiencing resolution to the extent the affiliate continues to perform on its QFCs.
In order to understand the connection between direct defaults, cross-defaults, the SPOE and MPOE resolution strategies, and the threats to financial stability discussed previously, it is necessary to understand how QFCs, and the default rights contained therein, are treated when an entity enters resolution. The following sections discuss the treatment of QFCs in greater detail under three U.S. resolution laws: The Bankruptcy Code, the Orderly Liquidation Authority (OLA), and the FDI Act. As discussed in these sections, each of these resolution laws has special provisions detailing the treatment of QFCs upon an entity's entry into such proceedings.
The Bankruptcy Code, however, largely exempts QFC counterparties of the debtor from the automatic stay through special “safe harbor” provisions.
Where the failed firm is a GSIB's holding company with covered banks that are going concerns and are party to large volumes of QFCs, the mass exercise of default rights under the QFCs based on the affiliate default represents a significant impediment to the SPOE resolution strategy.
As noted, although a failed BHC would generally be resolved under the Bankruptcy Code, Congress recognized that a U.S. financial company might fail under extraordinary circumstances, in which an attempt to resolve it through the bankruptcy process would have serious adverse effects on financial stability in the United States. Title II therefore authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury, upon the recommendation of other government agencies and a determination that several preconditions are met, to place a U.S. financial company into a receivership conducted by the FDIC as an alternative to bankruptcy.
Title II empowers the FDIC, when it acts as receiver in an OLA resolution, to protect financial stability against the QFC-related threats discussed previously. Title II addresses direct default rights in a number of ways. Title II empowers the FDIC to transfer the QFCs to a bridge financial company or some other financial company that is not in a resolution proceeding and should therefore be capable of performing under the QFCs.
Title II addresses cross-default rights through a similar procedure. It empowers the FDIC “to enforce contracts of subsidiaries or affiliates” of the failed company that are guaranteed or otherwise supported by or linked to the covered financial company, notwithstanding any contractual right to cause the termination, liquidation, or acceleration of such contracts based solely on the insolvency, financial condition, or receivership of the failed company, so long as, if such contracts are guaranteed or otherwise supported by the covered financial company, the FDIC takes certain steps to protect the QFC counterparty's interests by the end of the business day following the company's entry into OLA resolution.
These stay-and-transfer provisions of the Dodd-Frank Act go far to mitigate the threat posed by QFC default rights by preventing mass closeouts against the entity that has entered into OLA proceedings or its going concern affiliates. At the same time, they allow for appropriate protections for QFC counterparties of the failed financial company. They only stay the exercise of default rights based on the failed company's entry into resolution, the fact of its insolvency, or its financial condition. Further, the stay period is brief, unless the FDIC transfers the QFCs to another financial company that is not in resolution and should therefore be capable of performing under the QFCs.
As discussed previously, the exercise of default rights by counterparties of a failed GSIB can have a significant impact on financial stability. This financial stability concern is necessarily intertwined with the safety and soundness of covered banks and the Federal banking system—the disorderly exercise of default rights can produce a sudden, contemporaneous threat to the safety and soundness of individual institutions throughout the system,
The purpose of this final rule is to enhance the safety and soundness of covered banks and the Federal banking system, thereby also bolstering financial stability generally, by addressing the two main issues raised by covered QFCs with the orderly resolution of these covered banks as generally previously described.
While Title II and the FDI Act empower the use of the QFC stay-and-transfer provisions, a court in a foreign jurisdiction may decline to enforce these important provisions. The final rule directly improves the safety and soundness of covered banks by clarifying the applicability of U.S. special resolution regimes to all counterparties, whether they are foreign or domestic. Although domestic entities are clearly subject to the temporary stay provisions of OLA and the FDI Act, these stays may be difficult to enforce in a cross-border context. As a result, domestic counterparties of a failed U.S. financial institution may be disadvantaged relative to foreign counterparties, as the domestic counterparties would be subject to the stay, and accompanying potential market volatility, while if the stay was not enforced by foreign authorities, foreign counterparties could close out immediately. Furthermore, a mass close out by such foreign counterparties would likely exacerbate market volatility, which in turn would likely magnify harm to the stayed U.S. counterparties' positions, which are likely to include other national banks and FSAs. This final rule would eliminate the potential for these adverse consequences by requiring covered banks to condition the exercise of default rights in covered contracts on the stay provisions of OLA and the FDI Act.
In spite of the QFC stay-and-transfer provisions in Title II and the FDI Act, the affiliates of a global systemically important BHC that goes into resolution under the Bankruptcy Code may face disruptions to their QFCs as their counterparties exercise cross-default rights. Thus, a healthy covered bank whose parent BHC entered resolution proceedings could fail due to its counterparties exercising cross-default rights. This is both a safety and soundness concern for the otherwise healthy covered bank, but it also has the additional negative effect of defeating the orderly resolution of the GSIB, since a key element of SPOE resolution in the United States is ensuring that critical operating subsidiaries—such as covered banks—continue to operate on a going concern basis. This final rule would address this issue by generally restricting the exercise of cross-default rights by counterparties against a covered bank.
Moreover, a disorderly resolution of the kind described could jeopardize not just the covered bank and the orderly resolution of its failed parent BHC, but all surviving counterparties, many of which are likely to be other national banks and other FSAs, regardless of size or interconnectedness, by harming the overall condition of the Federal banking system and the financial system as a whole. A disorderly resolution could result in additional defaults, fire sales of collateral, and other consequences likely to amplify the systemic fallout of the resolution of a covered bank.
The final rule is designed to minimize such disorder, and therefore enhance the safety and soundness of all individual national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies, the Federal banking system, and the broader financial system. This is particularly important because financial institutions are more sensitive than other firms to the overall health of the financial system.
The final rule covers the OCC-supervised operations of foreign banking organizations (FBOs) designated as systemically important, including national bank and FSA subsidiaries, as well as Federal branches and agencies, of these FBOs. As with a national bank or FSA subsidiary of a U.S. global systemically important BHC, the OCC believes that this final rule should apply to a national bank or FSA subsidiary of a global systematically important FBO for essentially the same reasons. While the national bank or FSA may not be considered systemically important itself, as part of a GSIB, the disorderly resolution of the covered national banks and FSAs could have a significant negative impact on the Federal banking system and on the U.S. financial system, in general.
Specifically, the final rule is designed to prevent the failure of a global systemically important FBO from disrupting the ongoing operations or orderly resolution of the covered bank by protecting the healthy national bank or FSA from the mass triggering of default rights by the QFC counterparties. Additionally, the application of this final rule to the QFCs of these national bank and FSA subsidiaries should avoid creating what may otherwise be an incentive for counterparties to concentrate QFCs in these firms because they are subject to fewer counterparty restrictions. Similarly, it is important to cover certain QFCs entered into by any Federal branch or agency of a global systemically important FBO in order to ensure the orderly resolution of these entities if the parent FBO were to be placed into resolution in its home jurisdiction.
The OCC is issuing this final rule under its authorities under the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1
In developing this final rule, the OCC reviewed and carefully considered all comments received on the OCC Proposed Rule as part of the notice and comment process. In addition, in light of the closely connected nature between BHC supervision and the supervision of national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies, and in order to maintain substantive consistency with the FRB Proposed Rule and FDIC Proposed Rule, the OCC reviewed comments received by the FRB and FDIC on their proposed rules to the degree such comments were relevant to
The proposed rule defined global systemically important BHC and global systemically important FBO by cross-reference to newly added subpart I of 12 CFR part 252 of the FRB Proposed Rule. The list of banking organizations that meet the methodology proposed in the FRB Proposed Rule is currently the same set of banking organizations that meet the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) definition of a GSIB.
Under the proposed rule, the term covered bank also included any subsidiary of a national bank, FSA, or Federal branch or agency. The definition of “subsidiary of covered bank” in the proposed rule was intended to mirror the definition of subsidiary in the FRB Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.82(b)(2) and (3)), and it was intended to be substantially the same as the FRB definition with respect to a subsidiary of a covered bank.
A number of commenters urged the OCC to move to a financial consolidation standard to define a “subsidiary of a covered bank” instead of the BHC Act control standard set forth in the FRB Regulation YY.
Commenters generally urged that regardless of whether financial consolidation is adopted for the purpose of defining “subsidiary,” the final rule should exclude any entities over which the covered bank does not exercise operational control. Specifically, with respect to comments to the FRB Proposed Rule, commenters noted that such entities could include merchant banking portfolio companies, section 2(h)(2) companies, joint ventures, sponsored funds as distinct from their sponsors or investment advisors, securitization vehicles, entities in which the covered entity holds only a minority interest and does not exert a controlling influence, and subsidiaries held pursuant to provisions for debt previously contracted in good faith (DPC subsidiaries).
Similarly, OCC commenters also requested that covered banks should exempt entities over which a covered bank does not exercise operational control. The OCC notes that with respect to covered banks, such entities would include DPC subsidiaries,
In terms of foreign GSIBs, some commenters believed that FBO subsidiaries for which the FBO has been given special relief by FRB order not to hold the subsidiary under an intermediate holding company (IHC) should not be included in the definition
The final rule generally adopts the definition of covered bank as proposed with the exception of the addition of a provision to include a national bank or FSA not under a BHC and that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on their most recent Call Report. This provision is intended to address the OCC's concern that a national bank or FSA, not under a BHC, with a sufficient number of large total assets would be subject to the requirement of the final rule. While currently a null set, the OCC believes that any national bank or FSA that has total assets that exceed $700 billion would raise similar concerns with respect to interconnectedness and financial contagion.
As in the proposed rule, a covered bank includes the OCC-regulated subsidiaries of entities identified as U.S. GSIB top-tier holding companies under the FRB GSIB surcharge rule.
The term “subsidiary” in the final rule continues to be defined by reference to BHC Act control as does the definition of “affiliate.”
The final rule excludes from the scope of covered bank DPC subsidiaries, portfolio companies held under the
Finally, covered banks include almost all U.S. operations of Foreign GSIBs—their national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches, Federal agencies, or subsidiaries of such entities. The final rule, like the proposed rule, covers only the U.S. operations of Foreign GSIBs. To provide the same treatment for foreign GSIBs and U.S. GSIBs, the final rule also excludes DPC subsidiaries, portfolio companies held under the Small Business Investment Act of 1956, and public welfare investments of foreign GSIBs.
The final rule does not exempt U.S. Federal branches and agencies of Foreign GSIBs or U.S. subsidiaries of Foreign GSIBs that are not held under an IHC pursuant to a FRB order, as requested by certain commenters. As with the coverage of subsidiaries of U.S. GSIBs, coverage of the U.S. operations of foreign GSIBs will enhance the prospects for an orderly resolution of the Foreign GSIB and its U.S. operations. In particular, covering QFCs that involve any U.S. subsidiary or Federal branch or agency of a Foreign GSIB will reduce the potentially disruptive cancellation of those QFCs if the Foreign GSIB or any of its subsidiaries enters resolution, including resolution under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code or the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes.
Commenters named several examples of contracts that fall into this category, including cash market securities transactions, certain spot foreign exchange (FX) transactions (including securities conversion transactions), retail brokerage agreements, retirement/Individual Retirement Account (IRA) account agreements, margin agreements, options agreements, FX forward master agreements, and delivery versus payment client agreements. Commenters contended that these types of QFCs number in the millions at some firms and that remediating these contracts to include the express provisions required by the final rule would require an enormous client outreach effort that would be extremely burdensome and costly while providing no meaningful resolution benefits. For example, commenters pointed out that for certain types of transactions, such as cash securities transactions, FX spot transactions, and retail QFCs, such a requirement could require an overhaul of existing market practice and documentation that affects hundreds of thousands, if not millions, of transactions occurring on a daily basis and significant education of the general market.
Commenters also urged the OCC to exclude QFCs that do not contain any default or cross-default rights but that may contain transfer restrictions. Commenters contended that examples of these types of agreements included investment advisory account agreements with retail customers, which contain transfer restrictions as required by Section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, but no direct default or cross-default rights; underwriting agreements;
Commenters also argued for the exclusion of a number of other types of contracts from the definition of covered QFC in the final rule. In particular, a number of commenters urged the OCC to exclude contracts issued in the capital markets or related to a capital market issuance, like warrants or a certificate representing a call option, typically on a security or a basket of securities. Although warrants issued in capital markets may contain direct default and cross-default rights as well
Commenters argued that issuers would be able to comply if the final rule's requirements applied only on a prospective basis with respect to new issuances, since new investors could be informed of the terms of the warrant at the time of purchase and no after-the-fact consent would be required, as is the case with existing outstanding warrants. Commenters expressed the view that prospective application of the final rule's requirements to warrants would allow time for firms to develop new warrant agreements and warrant certificates, to engage in client outreach efforts, and to make any appropriate public disclosures. Commenters suggested that the requirements of the final rule should only apply to such instruments issued after the effective date of the final rule and that the compliance period for such new issuances be extended to allow time to establish new issuance programs that comply with the final rule's requirements. Other examples of contracts in this category given by commenters include contracts with special purpose vehicles that are multi-issuance note platforms, which commenters urged would be difficult to remediate for similar reasons to warrants other than on a prospective basis.
Commenters also urged the exclusion of contracts for the purchase of commodities in the ordinary course of business (
In response to concerns raised by commenters, the final rule exempts QFCs that have no transfer restrictions or default rights, as these QFCs have no provisions that the rule is intended to address. The final rule effects this exemption by limiting the scope of QFCs potentially subject to the rule to those QFCs that explicitly restrict the transfer of a QFC from a covered bank or explicitly provide default rights that may be exercised against a covered bank (in-scope QFCs).
The final rule provides that a covered bank is not required to conform certain investment advisory contracts described by commenters (
The final rule also provides the OCC with authority to exempt one or more covered banks from conforming certain contracts or types of contracts to the final rule after considering, in addition to any other factor the OCC deems relevant, the burden the exemption would relieve and the potential impact of the exemption on the resolvability of the covered bank or its affiliates.
With respect to counterparties, the final rule has been changed to define “consolidated affiliate” by reference to financial consolidation principles, as generally reflected by U.S. GAAP or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS)
As discussed, the definition of “covered QFC” is intended to limit the restrictions of the final rule to those financial transactions whose disorderly unwind has substantial potential to frustrate the orderly resolution of a GSIB. By adopting the Dodd-Frank Act's definition of QFC, with the modifications described above, the final rule generally extends stay-and-transfer protections to the same types of transactions as Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act. In this way, the final rule enhances the prospects for an orderly resolution in bankruptcy and under the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes.
Some commenters requested clarification that transactions between a covered bank or covered entity client and its clearing member (as opposed to transactions where the covered bank or covered entity is the clearing member) would be subject to the rule's requirements, since this would be consistent with the Universal Protocol. As explained in this section, the exemption in the final rule regarding CCPs does not depend on whether the covered bank or covered entity is a clearing member or a client. A covered QFC—generally a QFC to which a covered bank or covered entity is a party—is exempted from the requirements of the final rule if a CCP is also a party.
A few commenters requested that the OCC modify the definition of “central counterparty,” which was defined by reference to the FRB Regulation YY
Commenters also urged the OCC to exclude from the requirements of the final rule all QFCs that are cleared, processed, or settled through the facilities of an FMU, as defined in Section 803(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act,
The final rule also makes clear that, if one or more FMUs are the only counterparties to a covered QFC, the covered bank is not required to conform the covered QFC to the final rule.
The final rule does not explicitly exclude futures and cleared swaps agreements with a FCM, as requested by a commenter. The nature and scope of the requested exclusion is unclear, and therefore, it is unclear whether the exclusion would be necessary, on the one hand, or overbroad, on the other hand. However, the final rule makes a number of other clarifications and exemptions that may help address the commenter's concern regarding FCM agreements.
Foreign GSIBs have master agreements that permit transactions to be entered into both at a Federal branch or agency of the Foreign GSIB and at a non-U.S. location of the Foreign GSIB (such as a foreign branch). Notwithstanding the proposed rule's general treatment of a master agreement and all QFCs thereunder as a single QFC, the proposed rule would have excluded QFCs under such a “multi-branch master agreement” that are not booked at a covered bank and for which no payment or delivery may be made at a covered bank.
One commenter also recommended that multi-branch master agreements be treated as a single QFC, rather than requiring the application of different requirements to different transactions thereunder, so as to align the proposed rule's requirements with current industry-standard documentation and to avoid additional implementation hurdles and costs. The commenter recommended that the entirety of a multi-branch master agreement and underlying transactions be a covered QFC if a new QFC with the counterparty or its consolidated affiliates is booked to the Federal branch or agency after the compliance date or if a new QFC is entered into with an affiliate of the Federal branch or agency that is also subject to the requirements.
The final rule does not, as requested by one commenter, deem the entirety of a multi-branch master agreement to be a covered QFC if a new QFC with the counterparty (or its consolidated affiliate) is booked to the covered entity or its affiliate. Many commenters supported excluding transactions from multi-branch master netting agreements that are not closely connected to the United States. In contrast to the proposed rule and these comments, the modification requested by this commenter would require transactions that are not booked in the United States or otherwise connected to the United States to be conformed to the requirements of the final rule. The commenter's concerns regarding costs associated with potentially breaking netting sets may nonetheless be addressed through adherence to the Universal Protocol or the U.S. Protocol, which are discussed below.
Finally, the non-defaulting party typically has the right to terminate the QFC, meaning that the parties would not make payments that would have been required under the QFC in the future. The phrase “default right” in § 47.2 of the proposed rule was broadly defined to include these common rights as well as “any similar rights.” Additionally, the definition included all such rights regardless of source, including rights existing under contract, statute, or common law.
However, the proposed definition excluded two rights that are typically associated with the business-as-usual functioning of a QFC. First, same-day netting that occurs during the life of the QFC in order to reduce the number and amount of payments each party owes the other was excluded from the definition of “default right.”
However, certain QFCs are also commonly subject to rights that would increase the amount of collateral or margin that the defaulting party (or a guarantor) must provide upon an event
Finally, contractual rights to terminate without the need to show cause, including rights to terminate on demand and rights to terminate at contractually specified intervals, were excluded from the definition of “default right” for purposes the proposed rule's restrictions on cross-default rights (§ 47.5 of the proposed rule).
“Business-as-usual” rights regarding changes in collateral or margin would not be included within the definition of default right to the extent that the right or operation of a contractual provision arises solely from either a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure. In response to commenters' requests for clarification, this exception includes changes in margin due to changes in market price, but does not include changes due to counterparty credit risk (
With respect to transactions with third parties, the final rule, like the proposed rule, does not require covered banks to address default rights in QFCs solely between parties that are not covered banks (
A number of commenters argued that QFCs should be exempt from the requirements of § 47.4 of the proposed rule if the QFC is governed by U.S. law. An example of such a QFC provided by commenters includes the standard form repurchase and securities lending agreement published by the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association. These commenters argued that counterparties to such agreements are already required to observe the stay-and-transfer provisions of the FDI Act and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, as mandatory provisions of U.S. Federal law, and that requiring an amendment of these types of QFCs to include the express provisions required under § 47.4 would be redundant and would not provide any material resolution benefit, but would significantly increase the remediation burden on covered banks.
Other commenters suggested a three-prong test of “nexus with the United States” for purposes of recognizing an exclusion from the express acknowledgment of the requirements of § 47.4 of the proposed rule. In
Commenters also argued that it would be more appropriate for Congress to act to obtain cross-border recognition of U.S. Special Resolution Regimes, rather than for the OCC to do so through this final rule.
In response to comments, the final rule exempts from the requirements of § 47.4 a covered QFC that meets two requirements.
This section of the final rule is consistent with efforts by regulators in other jurisdictions to address similar risks by requiring that financial firms within their jurisdictions ensure that the effect of the similar provisions under these foreign jurisdictions' respective special resolution regimes would be enforced by courts in other jurisdictions, including the United States. For example, the U.K.'s Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) recently required certain financial firms to ensure that their counterparties to newly created obligations agree to be subject to stays on early termination that are similar to those that would apply upon a U.K. firm's entry into resolution if the financial arrangements were governed by U.K. law.
As discussed in Section III.A. of this preamble, the OCC believes it is appropriate to adopt this final rule in order to promote the safety and soundness of the Federal banking system, and as a consequence, U.S. financial stability, by improving the resolvability and resilience of national banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies, pursuant to its existing statutory authorities. Because of the current risk that the stay-and-transfer provisions of U.S. Special Resolution Regimes may not be recognized under the laws of other jurisdictions, § 47.4 of the final rule requires similar contractual recognition to help ensure that courts in foreign jurisdictions will recognize these provisions.
This requirement advances the goal of the final rule of removing QFC-related obstacles to the orderly resolution of covered banks, and by extension their associated GSIBs. As discussed above, restrictions on the exercise of QFC default rights are an important prerequisite for an orderly GSIB resolution. Congress recognized the importance of such restrictions when it enacted the stay-and-transfer provisions of the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes. As demonstrated by the 2007-2009 financial crisis, the modern financial system is global in scope, and covered banks are party to large volumes of QFCs with connections to foreign jurisdictions. The stay-and-transfer provisions of the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes would not achieve their purpose of facilitating orderly resolution in the context of the failure of a GSIB with large volumes of QFCs, if such QFCs could escape the effect of those provisions. To remove doubt about the scope of coverage of these provisions, the requirements of § 47.4 of the final rule would ensure that the stay-and-transfer provisions apply as a matter of contract to all covered QFCs, wherever the transaction. This will advance the resolvability goals of the Dodd-Frank Act and the FDI Act and improve the resiliency of covered banks subject to the requirements.
First, the final rule distinguishes between a credit enhancement and a “direct QFC,” which is defined as any QFC that is not a credit enhancement. The final rule also defines “direct party” to mean a covered bank that itself is a party to the direct QFC, as distinct from an entity that provides a credit enhancement. In addition, the final rule defines “affiliate credit enhancement” to mean “a credit enhancement that is provided by an affiliate of the party to the direct QFC that the credit enhancement supports,” as distinct from a credit enhancement provided by either the direct party itself or by an unaffiliated party. Moreover, the final rule defines “covered affiliate credit enhancement” to mean an affiliate credit enhancement provided by a covered bank, or a covered entity under the FRB final rule, and defines “covered affiliate support provider” to mean the affiliate of the covered bank that provides the covered affiliate credit enhancement. Finally, the final rule defines the term “supported party” to mean any party that is the beneficiary of the covered affiliate support provider's obligations under a covered affiliate credit enhancement (that is, the QFC counterparty of a direct party, assuming that the direct QFC is subject to a covered affiliate credit enhancement).
A number of commenters representing counterparties to covered banks objected to § 47.5 of the proposed rule and requested the elimination of this provision. These commenters expressed concern about limitations on counterparties' exercise of default rights during insolvency proceedings and argued that rights should not be taken away from contracting parties other than where limitation of such rights is necessary for public policy reasons and the resolution process is controlled by a
Another commenter argued that non-defaulting counterparties should not be prevented from filing proofs of claim or other pleadings in a bankruptcy case during the stay period, since bankruptcy deadlines might pass and leave the counterparty unable to collect the unsecured creditor dividend. Commenters contended that restrictions on cross-default rights may lead to pro-cyclical behavior with asset managers moving funds away from covered entities as soon as those entities show signs of distress, and perhaps even in normal situations, and would disadvantage non-GSIB parties (
Some commenters argued that, if these rights must be restricted by law, Congress should impose such restrictions and that the requirements of the proposed rule circumvented the legislative process by creating a de facto amendment to the U.S. Bankruptcy Code that forecloses countless QFC counterparties from exercising their rights of cross-default protection under Section 362 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code. Some of these commenters argued that parties cannot by contract alter the U.S. Bankruptcy Code's provisions, such as the administrative priority of a claim in bankruptcy, and one commenter suggested that non-covered bank counterparties may challenge the legality of contractual stays on the exercise of default rights if a GSIB becomes distressed. Certain commenters also questioned the OCC's ability to rely on its authority under the National Bank Act in imposing these requirements over QFC counterparties not subject to its supervision and argued that making Title II resolution possible under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code was not an appropriate justification for the proposed rule. Other commenters, however, argued that the provisions of the proposed rule were necessary to address systemic risks posed by the exemption for QFCs in the U.S. Bankruptcy Code.
As an alternative to eliminating the proposed rule's requirements to remediate cross-default rights, these commenters expressed the view that, if the OCC adopts the proposed rule as final, the final rule should at least contain those minimum creditor protections established by the Universal Protocol. Certain commenters also argued that this provision in the proposed rule was overly broad in that it covered not only U.S. Federal resolution and insolvency proceedings but also State and foreign resolution and insolvency proceedings.
Some commenters argued that the OCC should eliminate the stay on default rights that are related “indirectly” to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to insolvency proceedings, claiming it is unclear what constitutes a right related “indirectly” to insolvency and noting that any default right exercised by a counterparty after an affiliate of that counterparty enters resolution could arguably be motivated by the affiliate's entry into resolution.
In an SPOE resolution, this damage can be avoided if actions of the following two types are prevented: The exercise of direct default rights against the top-tier holding company that has entered resolution, and the exercise of cross-default rights against the national bank and FSA subsidiaries and other operating subsidiaries based on their parent BHC entry into resolution. Direct default rights against the national bank or FSA subsidiary would not be exercisable, because that subsidiary
Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act's stay-and-transfer provisions would address both direct default rights and cross-default rights. But, as explained in the Background section, no similar statutory provisions would apply to a resolution under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code. The final rule attempts to address these obstacles to orderly resolution under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code by extending the stay-and transfer-provisions to any type of resolution. Similarly, the final rule would facilitate a transfer of the GSIB parent's interests in its subsidiaries, along with any credit enhancements it provides for those subsidiaries, to a solvent financial company by prohibiting covered banks from having QFCs that would allow the QFC counterparty to prevent such a transfer or to use it as a ground for exercising default rights.
Accordingly, the final rule is intended to enhance the potential for orderly resolution of a GSIB under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code, the FDI Act, or similar resolution proceedings. In doing so, the proposed rule would advance the Dodd-Frank Act's goal of making the orderly resolution of a covered bank workable under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code.
Likewise, the final rule retains the prohibition against contractual provisions that permit the exercise of default rights that are indirectly related to the resolution of an affiliate. QFCs may include a number of default rights triggered by an event that is not the resolution of an affiliate but is caused by the resolution, such as a credit rating downgrade in response to the resolution. A primary purpose of the final rule is to prevent early terminations caused by the resolution of an affiliate. A regulation that specifies each type of early termination provision that should be stayed would be over-inclusive, under-inclusive, and easy to evade. Similarly, a stay of default rights that are only directly related to the resolution of an affiliate could increase the likelihood of litigation to determine if the relationship between the default right and the affiliate resolution was sufficient to be considered “directly” related. The final rule attempts to decrease such uncertainty and litigation risk by including default rights that are related (
Moreover, the final rule does not affect parties' rights under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code. As explained above, the final rule does not prohibit a covered QFC from permitting the exercise of default rights against a covered entity that has entered bankruptcy proceedings.
The final rule could also prevent the disorderly failure of the national bank or FSA subsidiary and allow it to continue normal operations. In addition, while it may be in the individual interest of any given counterparty to exercise any available contractual rights to run on the national bank or FSA subsidiary, the mass exercise of such rights could harm the collective interest of all the counterparties by causing the subsidiary to fail. Therefore, like the automatic stay in bankruptcy, which also serves to maximize creditors' ultimate recoveries by preventing a disorderly liquidation of the debtor, the proposed rule would mitigate this collective action problem to the benefit of the creditors and counterparties of covered banks by preventing a disorderly resolution. And because many of these counterparties and creditors are themselves covered banks, or other systemically important financial firms, improving outcomes for these creditors and counterparties would further protect the safety and soundness of the Federal banking system and financial stability of the United States.
First, in order to ensure that the proposed prohibitions would apply only to cross-default rights (and not direct default rights), the final rule would provide that a covered QFC may permit the exercise of default rights based on the direct party's entry into a resolution proceeding.
One commenter requested the OCC revise this provision to clarify that default rights based on a covered bank or an affiliate entering resolution under the FDI Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act are not prohibited but instead are merely subject to the terms of such regimes. The commenter requested the OCC clarify that such default rights are permitted so long as they are subject to the provisions of the FDI Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act as required under § 47.5. The final rule eliminates this proposed exemption for special resolution regimes because the rule separately addresses cross-defaults arising from the FDI Act and because foreign special resolution regimes, along with efforts in other jurisdictions to contractually recognize stays of default rights under those regimes, should reduce the risk that such a regime should pose to the orderly resolution of a GSIB under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code or other ordinary insolvency proceedings.
The final rule also allows covered QFCs to permit the exercise of default rights based on the failure of (1) the direct party, (2) a covered affiliate support provider, or (3) a transferee that assumes a credit enhancement to satisfy its payment or delivery obligations under the direct QFC or credit enhancement. Moreover, the final rule would allow covered QFCs to permit the exercise of a default right in one QFC that is triggered by the direct party's failure to satisfy its payment or delivery obligations under another contract between the same parties. This exception takes appropriate account of the interdependence that exists among the contracts in effect between the same counterparties.
As explained in the proposed rule, the exceptions in the final rule for the
These exceptions also help to ensure that the counterparties of a covered bank's subsidiaries or affiliates would not risk the delay and expense associated with becoming involved in a bankruptcy proceeding, since, unlike a typical creditor of an entity that enters bankruptcy, the QFC counterparty would retain its ability under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code's safe harbors to exercise direct default rights. This should further reduce the counterparty's incentive to run. Reducing incentives to run in the period leading up to resolution promotes orderly resolution because a QFC creditor run (such as a mass withdrawal of repo funding) could lead to a disorderly resolution and pose a threat to financial stability.
Where a covered QFC is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement,
Under the final rule, contractual provisions may permit the exercise of default rights at the end of the stay period if the covered affiliate credit enhancement has not been transferred away from the covered affiliate support provider and that support provider becomes subject to a resolution proceeding other than a proceeding under Chapter 11 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code.
QFCs may also permit the exercise of default rights at the end of the stay period if the original credit support provider does not remain, and no transferee becomes obligated to the same (or substantially similar) extent as the original credit support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering a resolution proceeding (including a Chapter 11 proceeding) with respect to (a) the covered affiliate credit enhancement, (b) all other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the credit support provider on any other covered QFCs between the same parties, and (c) all credit enhancements provided by the credit support provider between the direct party and affiliates of the direct party's QFC counterparty. Such creditor protections are permitted to prevent the support provider or the transferee from “cherry picking” by assuming only those QFCs of a given counterparty that are favorable to the support provider or transferee. Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act and the FDI Act contain similar provisions to prevent cherry picking.
Finally, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is transferred to a transferee, then the non-defaulting counterparty could exercise default rights at the end of the stay period unless either (a) all of the support provider's ownership interests in the direct party are also transferred to the transferee or (b) reasonable assurance is provided that substantially all of the support provider's assets (or the net proceeds from the sale of those assets) will be transferred to the transferee in a timely manner. These conditions would help to assure the supported party that the transferee generally would be at least as financially capable of providing the credit enhancement as the covered affiliate support provider.
The final rule does not include the additional creditor protections of the Universal Protocol or other creditor protections requested by commenters. As explained in the proposed rule and below, the additional creditor protections of the Universal Protocol do not appear to materially diminish the prospects for an orderly resolution of a GSIB because the Universal Protocol includes a number of desirable features that the final rule otherwise lacks.
One commenter also argued that transfer should be limited to a bridge bank under the FDI Act or a bridge financial company under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act to ensure that the transferee is more likely to be able to satisfy the obligations of a credit support provider and is subject to regulatory oversight. Section 47.5 of the final rule permits QFCs to include provisions allowing a counterparty to exercise its default rights against a direct party that enters resolution under the FDI Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, other than the limited case contemplated by § 47.5(h) of the final rule. The OCC is not adopting the proposed additional creditor protection because it would defeat in large part the purpose of § 47.5 and potentially create confusion regarding the requirements and purposes of sections 47.4 and 47.5 of the final rule.
A few commenters expressed concern that the additional creditor protections applied only to QFCs supported by a credit enhancement provided by a “covered affiliate support provider” (
One commenter requested clarification that the creditors of a non-U.S. credit support provider are permitted to exercise any and all rights against that non-U.S. credit support provider that they could exercise under the non-U.S. resolution regime applicable to that non-U.S. credit support provider. In general, covered banks may be entities organized or operating in the United States or, with respect to U.S. GSIBs, abroad. The final rule, like the proposed rule, is limited to QFCs to which a covered bank is a party. Section 47.5 of the final rule generally prohibits QFCs to which a covered bank is a party from allowing the exercise of cross-default rights of the covered QFC, regardless of whether the affiliate entering resolution and/or the credit support provider is organized or operates in the United States.
Another commenter expressed concern that the proposed § 47.5(g)(3) (§ 47.5(f)(3) of the final rule) would provide a right without a remedy because, if the covered affiliate credit support provider is no longer obligated and no transferee has taken on the obligation, the non-covered entity counterparty may have only a breach of contract claim against an entity that has transferred all of its assets to a third party. The creditor protections of § 47.5, if triggered, permit contractual provisions allowing the exercise of existing default rights against the direct party to the covered QFC, as well as any existing rights against the credit enhancement provider. Another commenter suggested revising proposed § 47.5(g) (§ 47.5(f) of the final rule) to clarify that, for a covered direct QFC supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right after the stay period that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider entering into resolution proceedings. This reading is incorrect and revising the final rule as requested would largely defeat the purpose of § 47.5 of the final rule by merely delaying QFC termination en masse.
Some commenters also requested specific provisions related to physical commodity contracts, including a provision that would allow regulators to override a stay if necessary to avoid disruption of the supply or prevent exacerbation of price movements in a commodity or a provision that would allow the exercise of default rights of counterparties delivering or taking delivery of physical commodities if a covered bank defaults on any physical delivery obligation to any counterparty. As noted above, QFCs may permit a counterparty to exercise its default rights immediately, even during the stay period, if the covered bank fails to pay or perform on the covered QFC with the counterparty (or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default under the covered QFC).
This proposed requirement was intended to prevent QFC counterparties from circumventing the limitations on resolution-related default rights in this proposal by exercising other contractual default rights in instances where such QFC counterparty cannot demonstrate that the exercise of such other contractual default rights is unrelated to the affiliate's entry into resolution.
The proposed rule would have applied to a covered QFC regardless of whether the covered bank or the covered bank's direct counterparty is acting as a principal or as an agent. The proposed rule did not distinguish between agents and principals with respect to default rights or transfer restrictions applicable to covered QFCs. The proposed rule would have limited default rights and transfer restrictions that the principal and its agent may have against a covered bank consistent with the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes. The proposed rule would have ensured that, subject to the enumerated creditor protections, neither the agent nor the principal could exercise cross-default rights under the covered QFC against the covered bank based on the resolution of an affiliate of the covered bank.
Commenters contended that the requirement to conform QFCs with all affiliates of a counterparty when an agent is acting on behalf of the counterparty would be particularly burdensome, as the agent may not have information about the counterparty's affiliates or their contracts with covered entities. Commenters also requested clarification that conformance is not required of contracts between a covered entity as agent on behalf of a non-U.S. affiliate of a Foreign GSIB that would not be a covered bank under the proposed rule, since default rights related to the non-U.S. operations of Foreign GSIBs are not the focus of the rule and do not bear a sufficient connection to U.S. financial stability to warrant the burden and cost of compliance.
One commenter also urged that securities lending authorization agreements (SLAAs) should be exempt from the final rule. The commenter explained that SLAAs are banking services agreements that establish an agency relationship with the lender of securities and an agent, and may be considered credit enhancements for securities lending transactions (and therefore QFCs) because the SLAAs typically require the agent to indemnify the lender for any shortfall between the value of the collateral and the value of the securities in the event of a borrower default. The commenter explained that SLAAs typically do not contain provisions that may impede the resolution of a GSIB, but may contain termination rights or contractual restrictions on assignability. However, the commenter argued that the beneficiaries under SLAAs lack the incentive to contest the transfer of the SLAA to a bridge institution in the event of GSIB insolvency.
The final rule does not specifically exempt SLAAs because the agreements provide the beneficiaries with contractual rights that may hinder the orderly resolution of a GSIB and because it is unclear how such beneficiaries would act in response to the failure of their agent. More generally, the final rule does not exempt a QFC with respect to which an agent also acts in another capacity, such as guarantor. Continuing the example regarding the covered bank acting as agent with respect to a master securities lending agreement, if the covered entity also provided a SLAA that included the typical indemnification provision discussed above, the agency exemption of the final rule would not exclude the SLAA but would still exclude the master securities lending agreement. This is because the covered bank is acting solely as agent with respect to the master securities lending agreement but is acting as agent and guarantor with respect to the SLAA. However, SLAAs would be exempted under the final rule to the extent that they are not “in-scope QFCs” or otherwise meet the exemptions for covered QFCs of the final rule.
These issues are outside the scope of this final rule as they relate to the requirements of another rule issued by the OCC jointly with the other prudential regulators, as well as a rule issued by the CFTC. As commenters pointed out, addressing such issues may require consultation with the other prudential regulators as well as the CFTC and the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission to determine the impact of the amendments required by this final rule for purposes of the regulatory requirements under Title VII of the Dodd-Frank Act. However, as the proposed rule noted, the OCC is considering an amendment to the definition of “eligible master netting agreement” to account for the restrictions on covered QFCs and is consulting with the other prudential regulators and the CFTC on this aspect of the final rule.
The proposed rule noted that, while the scope of the stay-and-transfer provisions of the Universal Protocol are narrower than the stay-and-transfer provisions that would have been required under the proposed rule, and the Universal Protocol provides a number of creditor protection provisions that would not otherwise have been available under the proposed rule, the Universal Protocol includes a number of desirable features that the proposed rule lacked. The proposed rule explained that “when an entity (whether or not it is a covered bank) adheres to the [Universal] Protocol, it necessarily adheres to the [Universal] Protocol with respect to all covered entities that have also adhered to the [Universal] Protocol rather than one or a subset of covered entities (as the [proposed rule] may otherwise permit). . . . By allowing for all covered QFCs to be modified by the same contractual terms, this 'all-or-none' feature would promote transparency, predictability and equal treatment with respect to default rights of non-defaulting parties.”
A few commenters requested that the final rule clarify two technical aspects of adherence to the Universal Protocol. These commenters requested confirmation that adherence to the Universal Protocol would also satisfy the requirements of § 47.4. The commenters also requested confirmation that QFCs that incorporate the terms of the Universal Protocol by reference also would be deemed to comply with the terms of the proposed alternative method of compliance.
One commenter indicated that many non-covered entity counterparties do not have ISDA master agreements for physically-settled forward and commodity contracts and, therefore, compliance with the proposed rule's requirements through adherence to the Universal Protocol would entail substantial time and educational effort. As in the proposed rule, the final rule simply permits adherence to the Universal Protocol as one method of compliance with the final rule's requirements, and parties may meet the final rule's requirements through bilateral negotiation, if they choose. Moreover, the Securities Financing Transaction Annex and Other Agreements Annex of the Universal Protocol, which are specifically identified in the proposed and final rule, are designed to amend QFCs that are not ISDA master agreements.
With respect to the scope of the special resolution regimes of the Universal Protocol, commenters' concern focused on the special resolution regimes of “Protocol-eligible Regimes.” Some commenters also expressed concern with the scope of “Identified Regimes” of the Universal Protocol.
The Universal Protocol defines “Identified Regimes” as the special resolution regimes of France, Germany, Japan, Switzerland, and the United Kingdom, as well as the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes. The Universal Protocol defines “Protocol-eligible Regimes” as resolution regimes of other jurisdictions specified in the protocol that satisfies the requirements of the Universal Protocol. The Universal Protocol provides a “Country Annex,” which is a mechanism by which individual adherents to the Universal Protocol may agree that a specific jurisdiction satisfies the requirements of a “Protocol-eligible Regime.” The Universal Protocol referred to in the proposed rule did not include any Country Annex for any Protocol-eligible Regime.
Commenters requested the final rule include a safe harbor for an approved U.S. JMP that does not include Protocol-eligible Regimes. Commenters argued that many counterparties may not be able to adhere to the Universal Protocol because they would not be able to adhere to a Protocol-eligible Regime in the absence of law or regulation mandating such adherence, as it would force counterparties to give up default rights in jurisdictions where that is not yet legally required.
With respect to the universal adherence feature of the Universal Protocol, commenters argued that universal adherence imposed significant monitoring burdens since new adherents may join the Universal Protocol at any time. To address this concern, some commenters requested that an approved U.S. JMP allow a counterparty to adhere on a firm-by-firm or entity-by-entity basis. Other commenters suggested, or supported approval of, an approved U.S. JMP in which a counterparty would adhere to all current covered entities under the final rule (to be identified on a “static list”) and would adhere to new covered entities on an entity-by-entity basis. This static list, commenters argued, would retain the “universal adherence mechanics” of the Universal Protocol and allow market participants to fulfill due diligence obligations related to compliance. Commenters also argued that universal adherence would be overbroad because the Universal Protocol could amend QFCs to which a covered bank was not a party. Certain commenters argued that adhering with respect to any counterparty would also be inconsistent with their fiduciary duties.
Consistent with the proposed rule
The final rule also provides that the U.S. Protocol is required to include the U.S. Special Resolution Regimes and the other Identified Regimes but is not required to include Protocol-eligible Regimes.
The final rule does not permit the U.S. Protocol to permit parties to adhere on a firm-by-firm or entity-by-entity basis because such adherence mechanisms requested by commenters would obviate one of the primary benefits of the Universal Protocol: universal adherence. Similarly, the final rule does not permit adherence to a “static list” of all current covered entities, which other commenters requested.
The final rule also addresses provisions that allow an adherent to elect that Section 1 and/or Section 2 of the Universal Protocol do not apply to the adherent's contracts.
Consistent with the basic purposes of the final rule, the U.S. Protocol must require that opt-outs exercised by its adherents will only be effective to the extent that the affected covered QFCs otherwise conform to the requirements of the final rule. Therefore, the U.S. Protocol allows counterparties to exercise available opt-out rights in a manner that also allows covered banks to ensure that their covered QFCs continue to conform to the requirements of the final rule.
The final rule also provides that, under the U.S. Protocol, the opt-out in Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the Universal Protocol (Sunset Opt-out)
The final rule also expressly addresses a provision in the Universal Protocol that concerns the client-facing leg of a cleared transaction. As discussed above, the final rule, like the proposed rule, does not exempt the client-facing leg of a cleared transaction. Therefore, the U.S. Protocol must not include the exemption in Section 2 of the Universal Protocol regarding the client-facing leg of the transaction.
The first two factors concerned the potential impact of the requested creditor protections on GSIB resilience and resolvability. The next four concerned the scope of the covered bank's request: Adoption on an industry-wide basis, coverage of existing and future transactions, coverage of one or multiple QFCs, and coverage of some or all covered banks. Creditor protections that may be applied on an industry-wide basis may help to ensure that impediments to resolution are addressed on a uniform basis, which could increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment. Creditor protections that apply broadly to a range of QFCs and covered banks would increase the chance that all of a GSIB's QFC counterparties would be treated the same way during a resolution of that GSIB and may improve the prospects for an orderly resolution of that GSIB. By contrast, covered bank requests that would expand counterparties' rights beyond those afforded under existing QFCs would conflict with the proposed rule's goal of reducing the risk of mass unwinds of GSIB QFCs. The proposed rule also included three factors that focus on the creditor protections specific to supported parties. The proposed rule noted that the OCC may weigh the appropriateness of additional protections for supported QFCs against the potential impact of such provisions on the orderly resolution of a GSIB.
In addition to analyzing the request under the enumerated factors, a covered bank requesting that the OCC approve enhanced creditor protections would have been required to submit a legal opinion stating that the requested terms would be valid and enforceable under the applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, along with any additional relevant information requested by the OCC.
Under the proposed rule, the OCC could have approved a request for an alternative set of creditor protections if the terms of that QFC, as compared to a covered QFC containing only the limited exceptions discussed previously, would promote the orderly resolution of federally chartered or licensed institutions or their affiliates, prevent or mitigate risks to the financial stability of the United States or the Federal banking system that could arise from the failure of a global systemically important BHC or global systemically important FBO, and protect the safety and soundness of covered banks to at least the same extent. The proposed request-and-approval process improved flexibility by allowing for an industry-proposed alternative to the set of creditor protections permitted by the proposed rule while ensuring that any
The Protocol has the same general objective as the proposed rule, which is to make GSIB entities more resolvable by amending their contracts to, in effect, contractually recognize the applicability of special resolution regimes (including the OLA and the FDI Act) and to restrict cross-default provisions to facilitate orderly resolution under the U.S. Bankruptcy Code. The provisions of the Protocol largely track the requirements of the proposed rule.
The Protocol also includes a feature, not included in the proposed rule, that compensates for the Protocol's narrower scope and allowance for stronger creditor protections: When an entity
Like § 47.5 of the proposed rule, Section 2 of the Protocol was developed to increase GSIB resolvability under the Bankruptcy Code and other U.S. insolvency regimes. The Protocol does allow for somewhat broader creditor protections than would otherwise be permitted under the proposed rule, but, consistent with the Protocol's purpose, those additional creditor protections would not materially diminish the prospects for the orderly resolution of a GSIB. And the Protocol carries the desirable all-or-none feature, which would further increase a GSIB entity's resolvability and which the proposed rule otherwise lacks. For these reasons, and consistent with the broad policy objective of enhancing the stability of the U.S. financial system by increasing the resolvability of systemically important financial companies in the United States, this provision of the proposed rule is adopted by this final rule, to allow a covered bank to bring its covered QFCs into compliance by amending them through adherence to the Protocol (and, as relevant, the annexes to the Protocol).
One commenter suggested that the final rule should take effect no sooner than one year from the date that an approved U.S. JMP is published and available for adherence, including any additional time it might take to seek the OCC's approval of it. Certain commenters requested that the compliance deadline for covered QFCs entered into by an agent on behalf of a principal be extended by six months as well. Other commenters, however, cautioned against an approach that would impose different deadlines with respect to different classes of QFCs, as opposed to counterparty types, since the main challenge in connection with the remediation is the need for outreach to and education of counterparties. These commenters contended that once a counterparty has become familiar with the requirements of the rule and the terms of the required amendments, it would be more efficient to remediate all covered QFCs with the counterparty at the same time.
A number of commenters also requested that the OCC confirm that entities that are acquired by a GSIB, and thereby become new covered banks, have until the first day of the first calendar quarter immediately following one year after becoming covered banks to conform their existing QFCs. Commenters argued that this would allow the GSIB to conform existing QFCs in an orderly fashion without impairing the ability of covered bank and the affiliates of the covered bank to engage in corporate activities. These commenters also requested clarification that, during that conformance period, affiliates of covered banks would not be prohibited from entering into new transactions or QFCs with counterparties of the newly acquired entity if the existing covered banks otherwise comply with the final rule's requirements.
Some commenters urged the OCC to exclude existing contracts from the final rule's requirements and only apply the rule on a prospective basis. Certain commenters opposed application of the requirements of the rule to existing QFCs, requesting instead that the final rule only apply to QFCs entered into after the effective date of any final rule and that all pre-existing QFCs not be subject to the rule's requirements. Commenters suggested that end users of QFCs with GSIB affiliates might not have entered into existing contracts without the default rights prohibited in the proposed rule and that revising existing QFCs would be time-consuming and expensive. Commenters pointed out that this treatment would be consistent with the final rules in the U.K. and the statutory requirements adopted by Germany.
The final rule provides additional time for compliance with the requirements for other types of counterparties. In particular, for other types of financial counterparties
The OCC is giving this additional time for compliance to respond to concerns raised by commenters. The OCC encourages covered banks to start planning and outreach efforts early in order to come into compliance with the final rule in the time frames provided. The OCC believes that this additional time for compliance should also address concerns raised by commenters regarding the burden of conforming existing contracts by allowing firms additional time to conform all covered QFCs to the requirements of the final rule.
Although the phased-in compliance period does not contain special rules related to acting as an agent as requested by certain commenters, the final rule has been modified as described above to clarify that a covered bank does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC.
National banks, FSAs, and Federal branches and agencies that are covered banks when the final rule is effective on January 1, 2018, would be required to comply with the requirements of the final rule beginning on the first compliance date. Thus, a covered bank would be required to ensure that covered QFCs entered into on or after the first compliance date comply with the final rule's requirements but would be given more time to conform such covered QFCs with counterparties (or other parties to the QFC) that are not a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI.
In addition, a national bank, FSA or Federal branch or agency that becomes a covered bank after the January 1, 2018, effective date of the final rule (referred to as a “new covered bank” for purposes of this preamble) generally has the same period of time to comply as a national bank, FSA, or Federal branch or agency that is a covered bank on the January 1, 2018, effective date (
The OCC does not believe it is appropriate to exclude all pre-existing QFCs because of the current and future risk that existing covered QFCs pose to the orderly resolution of a covered bank. Moreover, application of different default rights to existing and future transactions within a netting set could cause the netting set to be broken, which commenters noted could increase burden to both parties to the netting set.
By permitting a covered bank to remain a party to noncompliant QFCs entered into before the effective date unless the covered bank or any affiliate (that is also a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI) enters into new QFCs with the same counterparty or its affiliates, the final rule strikes a balance between ensuring QFC continuity if the GSIB were to fail and ensuring that covered banks and their existing counterparties can manage any compliance costs and disruptions associated with conforming existing QFCs by refraining from entering into new QFCs. The requirement that a covered bank ensure that all existing QFCs with a particular counterparty and its affiliates are compliant before it or any affiliate of the covered bank (that is also a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI) enters into a new QFC with the same counterparty or its affiliates after the January 1, 2018, effective date will provide covered banks with an incentive to seek the modifications necessary to ensure that their QFCs with their most important counterparties are compliant. Moreover, the volume of noncompliant covered QFCs outstanding can be expected to decrease over time and eventually to reach zero. In light of these considerations, and to avoid creating potentially inappropriate compliance costs with respect to existing QFCs with counterparties that, together with their consolidated affiliates, do not enter into new covered QFCs with the GSIB on or after the first day of the calendar quarter that is one year from the January 1, 2018, effective date of the final rule, it would be appropriate to permit a limited number of noncompliant QFCs to remain outstanding, in keeping with the terms described above. Moreover, the final rule also excludes existing warrants and retail investment advisory agreements to address concerns raised by commenters and mitigate burden.
The regulatory capital rules, as implemented by the OCC, FRB, and FDIC, permit a bank to measure exposure from certain types of financial contracts on a net basis and recognize the risk-mitigating effect of financial collateral for other types of exposures, provided that the contracts are subject to a “qualifying master netting agreement,” a collateral agreement, eligible margin loan, or repo-style transaction (collectively referred to as netting agreements) that provides for certain rights upon a counterparty default. With limited exception, to qualify for netting treatment, a qualifying netting agreement must permit a bank to terminate, apply close-out netting, and promptly liquidate or set-off collateral upon an event of default of the counterparty (default rights), thereby reducing its counterparty exposure and market risks. Measuring the amount of exposure of these contracts on a net basis, rather than a gross basis, results in a lower measure of exposure, and thus, a lower capital requirement.
An exception to the immediate close-out requirement is made for the stay of default rights if the financial company is in receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or the FDI Act. Accordingly, transactions conducted under netting agreements where default rights may be stayed under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act or the FDI Act would not be disqualified from netting treatment.
On December 30, 2014, the OCC and the FRB issued a joint interim final rule (effective January 1, 2015) that amended the definitions of “qualifying master netting agreement,” “collateral agreement,” “eligible margin loan,” and “repo-style transaction,” in the OCC and FRB regulatory capital rules, and “qualifying master netting agreement” in the OCC and FRB liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) rules to expand the exception to the immediate close-out requirement to ensure that the current netting treatment under the regulatory capital, liquidity, and lending limits rules
Section 47.4 of the proposed rule essentially limits the default rights exercisable against a covered bank to the same stay-and-transfer restrictions imposed under the U.S. Special Resolution Regime against a direct counterparty. Section 47.4 of the proposed rule mirrors the contractual stay-and-transfer restrictions reflected in the ISDA Protocol with one notable difference. While adoption of the ISDA Protocol is voluntary, covered banks subject to the proposed rule must conform their covered QFCs to the stay-and-transfer restrictions in § 47.4.
With respect to limitations on cross-default rights in proposed § 47.5, the OCC proposed additional conforming amendments in order to maintain the existing netting treatment for covered QFCs for purposes of the regulatory capital, liquidity, and lending limits rules. Specifically, the OCC is proposed to amend the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement,” as well as to make conforming amendments to “collateral agreement,” “eligible margin loan,” and “repo-style transaction,” in the regulatory capital rules in part 3, and “qualifying master netting agreement” in the LCR rules in part 50 to ensure that the regulatory capital, liquidity, and lending limits treatment of OTC derivatives, repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and other collateralized transactions would be unaffected by the adoption of proposed § 47.5. Without these proposed amendments, covered banks that amend their covered QFCs to comply with this final rule would no longer be permitted to recognize covered QFCs as subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or satisfying the criteria necessary for the current regulatory capital, liquidity, and lending limits treatment, and would be required to measure exposure from these contracts on a gross, rather than net,
Although the proposed rule reformats some of the definitions in parts 3 and 50 to include the text from the interim final rule, the proposed amendments did not alter the substance or effect of the prior amendment adopted by the interim final rule.
The rule establishing margin and capital requirements for covered swap entities (swap margin rule) defines the term “eligible master netting agreement” in a manner similar to the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement.” Thus, it may also be appropriate to amend the definition of “eligible master netting agreement” to account for the proposed restrictions on covered entities' QFCs.
The APA requires that a substantive rule must be published not less than 30 days before its effective date, unless, among other things, the rule grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction.
Section 302 of the RCDRIA also requires the OCC to consider, consistent with principles of safety and soundness and the public interest, any administrative burdens that such regulations would place on depository institutions, including small depository institutions, and customers of depository institutions, as well as the benefits of such regulations.
In accordance with section 3512 of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) (as amended), the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and a respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. Certain provisions of the final rule contain “collection of information” requirements within the meaning of the PRA. The information collection requirements contained in this final rule were submitted to OMB for review at the proposed rule stage. OMB instructed the OCC to (i) examine public comment in response to the information collection requirements found in the proposed rule; and (ii) describe in the supporting statement for the final rule any public comments received and why any recommendations were or were not incorporated. The OCC received no comments regarding the information collection requirements contained in the proposed rule.
Comments continue to be invited on:
(a) Whether the collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the OCC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collections, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the information collections on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
All comments will become a matter of public record. Comments are solicited on aspects of this final rule that may affect reporting, recordkeeping, or disclosure requirements and burden estimates. Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0339, 400 7th Street SW., Suite 3E-218, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0339, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., #10235, Washington, DC 20503 or by email to:
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), an agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for all proposed and final rules that describes the impact of the rule on small entities.
The OCC currently supervises approximately 956 small entities.
The OCC has analyzed the final rule under the factors in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA).
The OCC finds that the rule does not trigger the UMRA cost threshold because we estimate that the UMRA cost is less than $36 million. The OCC believes that the largest direct cost of implementing the final rule is the cost of amending contracts without an ISDA master agreement in place, which is estimated to range from approximately $1.18 million to approximately $35.4 million. Accordingly, the OCC has not prepared the written statement described in section 202 of the UMRA.
Administrative practice and procedure, Capital, Federal savings associations, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Risk.
Administrative practice and procedure, Banks and banking, Bank resolution, Default rights, Federal savings associations, National banks, Qualified financial contracts, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Administrative practice and procedure, Banks and banking, Liquidity, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations.
For the reasons stated in the Supplementary Information, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency is amending 12 CFR part 3, adding 12 CFR part 47, and amending 12 CFR part 50 as follows:
12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 1462, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1818, 1828(n), 1828 note, 1831n note, 1835, 3907, 3909, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
The revisions are set forth below:
(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar
(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382 of this title 12, as applicable.
(1) * * *
(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the national bank or Federal
(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382, of this title 12, as applicable.
(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
(2) The agreement provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar
(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382, of this title 12, as applicable.
(3) * * *
(ii) * * *
(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
(
(
12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 3102(b), 3108(a), 5412(b)(2)(B), (D)-(F).
(a)
(b)
As used in this part:
(1) Either consolidates the other company, or is consolidated by the other company, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
(2) Is, along with the other company, consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
(3) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including, without limitation, rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement, or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation, and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay, or defer payment or performance thereunder, or modify the obligations of a party thereunder, or any similar rights; and
(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral, or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure;
(2) With respect to § 47.5, does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company that is established or designated for purposes of compliance with § 252.153 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.153); or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Federal Reserve Board under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company, money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2002
(vi) Any entity registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1
(vii) A securities holding company, with the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1
(viii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
(ix) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
(x) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
(xi) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator; or
(xii) An entity that would be a financial counterparty described in paragraphs (1)(i)-(xi) of this definition, if the entity were organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof.
(2) The term “financial counterparty” does not include any counterparty that is:
(i) A sovereign entity;
(ii) A multilateral development bank; or
(iii) The Bank for International Settlements.
(1) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1
(2) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a FMU or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the FMU of services to its participants or the use of services of the FMU by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the FMU.
(1) An individual;
(2) A business customer, but solely if and to the extent that:
(i) The national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency manages its transactions with the business customer, including deposits, unsecured funding, and credit facility and liquidity facility transactions, in the same way it manages its transactions with individuals;
(ii) Transactions with the business customer have liquidity risk characteristics that are similar to comparable transactions with individuals; and
(iii) The total aggregate funding raised from the business customer is less than $1.5 million; or
(3) A living or testamentary trust that:
(i) Is solely for the benefit of natural persons;
(ii) Does not have a corporate trustee; and
(iii) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years, if applicable under state law.
(1) Is organized as a bank, as defined in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)), the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a savings association, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a farm credit system institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2002
(2) Has total assets of $10,000,000,000 or less on the last day of the company's most recent fiscal year.
(a)
(b)
(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report);
(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important bank holding company that has been designated pursuant to § 252.82 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.82);
(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important foreign banking organization that has been designated pursuant to § 252.87 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.87); or
(iv) A Federal branch or agency, as defined in subpart B of this chapter (governing Federal branches and agencies), of a global systemically important foreign banking organization that has been designated pursuant to § 252.87 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.87).
(2)
(3)
(i) A subsidiary that is owned by a covered bank in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith pursuant to section 5137 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 29) (national bank) or section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464) (Federal savings association);
(ii) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662) (national banks), or under section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)) (Federal savings associations);
(iii) A subsidiary that is owned pursuant to paragraph (7) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh)), or paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(Eleventh)) (national banks), or § 5.59 of this chapter (12 CFR 5.59) (Federal savings associations) designed primarily to promote the public welfare, including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services or jobs).
(c)
(1) With respect to a covered bank that is a covered bank on January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered bank:
(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or
(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered bank, or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI, also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019.
(2) With respect to a covered bank that becomes a covered bank after January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered bank:
(i) Enters, executes or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank and January 1, 2019; or
(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered bank, if the covered bank or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI, also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered bank.
(d)
(1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered bank; or
(2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered bank.
(e)
(1) A covered bank does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and
(2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement.
(f)
(i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
(ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI; or
(iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this section, or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a small financial institution.
(2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered bank that is not a covered bank on January 1, 2018, must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this part by:
(i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following one year after the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
(ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI; or
(iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following two years from the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is not described in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section, or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a small financial institution.
(a)
(i) The covered QFC designates, in the manner described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC; and
(ii) Each party to the covered QFC, other than the covered bank, is:
(A) An individual that is domiciled in the United States, including any State;
(B) A company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
(C) A company the principal place of business of which is located in the United States, including any State; or
(D) A U.S. branch or U.S. agency.
(2) A covered QFC designates the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC if the covered QFC:
(i) Explicitly provides that the covered QFC is governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
(ii) Does not explicitly provide that one or both of the U.S. special resolution regimes, or a broader set of laws that includes a U.S. special resolution regime, is excluded from the laws governing the covered QFC.
(b)
(1) In the event the covered bank becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, the transfer of the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) from the covered bank will be effective to the same extent as the transfer would be effective under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
(2) In the event the covered bank or an affiliate of the covered bank becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, default rights with respect to the covered QFC that may be exercised against the covered bank are permitted to be exercised to no greater extent than the default rights could be exercised under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States.
(c)
(a)
(1) Does not explicitly provide any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; and
(2) Does not explicitly prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or would prohibit such a transfer only if the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
(b)
(2) A covered QFC may not prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding unless the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
(c)
(2)
(3)
(d)
(1) The direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(2) The direct party not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to the covered QFC or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default right in the covered QFC; or
(3) The covered affiliate support provider or transferee not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to a covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC.
(e)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(f)
(1) The covered affiliate support provider that remains obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a Chapter 11 proceeding;
(2) Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, the transferee, if any, becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(3) The covered affiliate support provider does not remain, and a transferee does not become, obligated to the same, or substantially similar, extent as the covered affiliate support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding with respect to:
(i) The covered affiliate credit enhancement;
(ii) All other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of other covered direct QFCs between the direct party and the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section; and
(iii) All covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of covered direct QFCs between the direct party and affiliates of the supported party referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section; or
(4) In the case of a transfer of the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee:
(i) All of the ownership interests of the direct party directly or indirectly held by the covered affiliate support provider are not transferred to the transferee; or
(ii) Reasonable assurance has not been provided that all or substantially all of the assets of the covered affiliate support provider (or net proceeds therefrom), excluding any assets reserved for the payment of costs and expenses of administration in the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, will be transferred or sold to the transferee in a timely manner.
(g)
(2)
(3)
(h)
(1) After the FDI Act stay period, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is not transferred pursuant to section 11(e)(9)-(e)(10) of Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(9)-(e)(10)) and any regulations promulgated thereunder; or
(2) During the FDI Act stay period, if the default right may only be exercised so as to permit the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement to suspend performance with respect to the supported party's obligations under the covered direct QFC to the same extent as the supported party would be entitled to do if the covered direct QFC were with the covered affiliate support provider and were treated in the same manner as the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
(i)
(1) The party seeking to exercise a default right to bear the burden of proof that the exercise is permitted under the covered QFC; and
(2) Clear and convincing evidence or a similar or higher burden of proof to exercise a default right.
(a)
(2) A covered QFC will be deemed to be amended by the universal protocol for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section notwithstanding the covered QFC being amended by one or more Country Annexes, as the term is defined in the universal protocol.
(3) For purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
(i) The
(ii) The
(A) The provisions of Section 1 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI and may be limited with respect to resolutions under the Identified Regimes, as those regimes are identified by the universal protocol;
(B) The provisions of Section 2 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
(C) The provisions of Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply with respect to U.S. special resolution regimes;
(D) The provision of Section 4(b) of the attachment to the universal protocol may only be effective to the extent that the covered QFC affected by an adherent's election thereunder would continue to meet the requirements of this part;
(E) The provisions of Section 2(k) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply; and
(F) The U.S. protocol may include minor and technical differences from the universal protocol and differences necessary to conform the U.S. protocol to the differences described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(E) of this section;
(iii) Amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol, with respect to covered QFCs between adherents to the protocol, includes amendments through incorporation of the terms of the protocol (by reference or otherwise) into the covered QFC; and
(iv) The
(b)
(2) Enhanced creditor protection conditions means a set of limited exemptions to the requirements of § 47.5(b) that are different than that of paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 47.5.
(3) A covered bank making a request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must provide:
(i) An analysis of the proposal that addresses each consideration in paragraph (d) of this section;
(ii) A written legal opinion verifying that proposed provisions or amendments would be valid and enforceable under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, including, in the case of proposed amendments, the validity and enforceability of the proposal to amend the covered QFCs; and
(iii) Any other relevant information that the OCC requests.
(c)
(d)
(1) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would reduce the resiliency of such covered banks during distress or increase the impact on U.S. financial stability were one or more of the covered banks to fail;
(2) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would materially decrease the ability of a covered bank, or an affiliate of a covered bank, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the covered bank, or an affiliate of a covered bank, that is required to submit a resolution plan;
(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the set of conditions or the mechanism in which they are applied facilitates, on an industry-wide basis, contractual modifications to remove impediments to resolution and increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment with respect to the default rights of non-defaulting parties to a covered QFC;
(4) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal applies to existing and future transactions;
(5) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would apply to multiple forms of QFCs or multiple covered banks or an affiliates of covered banks;
(6) Whether the proposal would permit a party to a covered QFC that is within the scope of the proposal to adhere to the proposal with respect to only one or a subset of covered banks or an affiliates of covered banks;
(7) With respect to a supported party, the degree of assurance the proposal provides to the supported party that the material payment and delivery obligations of the covered affiliate credit enhancement and the covered direct QFC it supports will continue to be performed after the covered affiliate support provider enters a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
(8) The presence, nature, and extent of any provisions that require a covered affiliate support provider or transferee to meet conditions other than material payment or delivery obligations to its creditors;
(9) The extent to which the supported party's overall credit risk to the direct party may increase if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are not met and the likelihood that the supported party's credit risk to the direct party would decrease or remain the same if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are met; and
(10) Whether the proposal provides the counterparty with additional default rights or other rights.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1) A CCP is party; or
(2) Each party (other than the covered bank) is an FMU.
(b)
(1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered bank is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part; or
(2) The direct party to which the excluded bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered bank is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part.
(c)
(1) An investment advisory contract that:
(i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;
(ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered into pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered bank except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and
(iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby.
(2) A warrant that:
(i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered bank or an affiliate of the covered bank; and
(ii) Was issued prior to January 1, 2018.
(d)
(1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered bank, or affiliates of the covered bank, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
(2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and
(3) Any other factor the OCC deems relevant.
12 U.S.C. 1
(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
(2) The agreement provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 225, or part 382 of this title, as applicable;
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt an investigatory and disciplinary process identical in all material respects to the investigatory and disciplinary processes of Nasdaq BX, Inc. (“BX”) and The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Phlx is proposing to adopt processes and related rules concerning investigative and disciplinary matters involving Phlx Members, Member Organizations, and persons associated with Member Organizations (also known as “Associated Persons”),
FINRA performs, among other things, investigatory and prosecutorial work for Phlx pursuant to a Regulatory Services Agreement between the two parties (the “RSA”).
As discussed in detail below, Phlx is proposing to eliminate the BCC and the related hearings process, and adopt a new Exchange Review Council and a related adjudicatory process that mirrors that of the Exchange's sister exchanges, BX, and Nasdaq. Under the new process, FINRA's responsibilities will now include the adjudicatory roles
Decisions
To implement the proposed change, Phlx is amending Phlx By-Law, Article V, Section 5-3, and its rules to adopt substantially similar text to that of BX and Nasdaq, reflect the changes to the process, and delete old text where necessary. Specifically and as discussed in greater detail below, the Exchange is deleting its current Disciplinary Rules found under the Rule 960 Series and replacing them with new investigatory and disciplinary rule sets under the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, which are in nearly all material respects identical
Responsibility for the adjudication of Phlx rules is divided into two categories: (1) Rules for which the BCC and Hearing Panels are responsible for adjudicating as formal disciplinary proceedings; and (2) Rules under which fines may be assessed or privileges suspended in lieu of disciplinary action.
Generally, notice to the SEC of final disciplinary action by an SRO is required pursuant to Rule 19d-1 of the Exchange Act; however, uncontested fines of $1,000 or less or exclusion of a clerical employee from the trading floor for five days or less for violations of regulations that relate to administration of order, decorum, health, safety, and welfare (“Order and Decorum”) are not required to be reported to the SEC. In addition, uncontested fines of $2,500 or less assessed for violation of MRVP rules are subject to abbreviated periodic SEC reporting.
Rule 60 provides the process for regulating Order and Decorum on the Exchange's trading floor. The Order and Decorum rules are found under Section H of the Options Floor Procedure Advices. Pursuant to Rule 60, both Exchange staff and Options Exchange Officials
In addition, an Options Exchange Official and an officer of the Exchange may exclude a Member or Associated Person from the trading floor. Both Exchange staff and Options Exchange Officials may alternatively refer the matter to the BCC for formal disciplinary proceeding, which would be charged with determining whether a fine or formal disciplinary proceeding is appropriate.
Under Rule 60, a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person may contest a fine by requesting a hearing before a Hearing Director appointed by the Chair of the BCC, who may overturn, affirm, or modify the citation. The Hearing Director's determination is final. A determination to exclude a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person from the trading floor is not appealable.
Rule 970 provides the process for regulating other behavior pursuant to the Advices not related to Order and Decorum through assessment of a fine.
With respect to violations that are adjudicated by the BCC and Hearing Panels, Rule 960.2(f)(i) requires the BCC to direct Exchange staff to initiate a Statement of Charges when it appears that there is probable cause for finding that a violation within the jurisdiction of the Exchange has occurred and disciplinary action is warranted.
The BCC is a Board-appointed committee
Under the RSA, FINRA is responsible for, among other things, the investigation of matters referred from the Phlx Market Surveillance and
Upon completion of an investigation, FINRA analyzes the evidence and applicable law, and makes a preliminary determination of whether or not a violation appears to have occurred. Known as a “Sufficiency of Evidence” review, it is the same process followed by FINRA staff in matters involving Members, Members Organizations and Associated Persons for the Exchange; however, in such matters the BCC provides authorization to proceed as proposed by FINRA instead of the ODA, as described below.
In certain cases, a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person will not accept the allegations made against it in the Statement of Charges. If a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person does not agree with the allegations, it may request that a Hearing Panel review the matter pursuant to Rule 960.5(a)1. Hearing Panels are charged with reviewing the facts and circumstances of a contested matter, and determining whether the Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person has committed a violation and if so, what the appropriate sanctions are, if any. A Hearing Panel also issues a written decision in conformity with its determination.
The BCC may also examine the business conduct and financial condition of a Member, Member Organization or Associated Person, and may authorize the initiation of any disciplinary actions or proceedings brought by the Exchange.
The BCC may also prescribe regulations for the carrying of securities on margin by Members and Member Organizations for customers, and it may also make such regulations in regard to the segregation or hypothecation of securities carried in customers' accounts as it deems advisable.
Under the proposed new process, the Exchange will continue to have authority to resolve certain violations outside of the formal disciplinary process. Options Exchange Officials and Exchange staff will continue to have authority to investigate possible violations of the Advices, issue fines, and in certain cases suspend trading floor access for violations of the Advices. The authority to resolve violations outside of the formal disciplinary process exists under proposed New Rule 9216. New Rule 9216 provides alternatives to the issuance of a formal complaint and the initiation of a formal disciplinary proceeding, which include the assessment of fines or exclusion from the Exchange's options trading floor. The Exchange is proposing to adopt New Rule 9216(a) (Acceptance, Waiver, and Consent Procedures). It will provide a new process by which the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation
The Exchange is also adopting New Rule 9216(b) to address the process for administering violations of regulations that are resolved by assessment of a fine, including regulations subject to the Exchange's minor rule violation regulations,
The Exchange is proposing to adopt New Rule 9216(b)(1) to address the process for administering fines included in the Advices that do not exceed $2,500 and are included in the MRVP. Unlike Rule 970, which provides a process whereby the Exchange issues a citation that may be subsequently contested by the Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person, New Rule 9216(b) does not provide a similar process. Under New Rule 9216(b)(1) and like the comparable rules of BX and Nasdaq, the Department of Enforcement or Department of Market Regulation may prepare and provide an MRVP letter to a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person for its signature. Unlike the BX and Nasdaq rules, the Exchange is also vesting the Phlx Regulation Department with the same authority given to the Department of Enforcement and Department of Market Regulation to administer the MRVP letter process.
The Exchange will follow the same process for violations of the Advices not included in the MRVP.
Last, the Exchange is proposing to adopt New Rule 9216(c) to address the process followed for violations of the Order and Decorum regulations under the Advices, none of which are [sic] included in the MRVP. The fines assessed for violations of the Order and Decorum Advices range from $50 to $10,000. Thus, fines assessed for violation of Order and Decorum regulations of $1,000 or less may be exempt from the reporting requirements of Rule 19d-1(c)(1) of the Exchange Act.
With respect to the formal disciplinary process, Phlx is retiring the BCC and its related processes and adopting new policy and disciplinary processes that are derived from those of BX and Nasdaq. Phlx and FINRA amended the RSA to include the processes formerly conducted by the BCC and Hearing Panels. As such, FINRA will now not only investigate possible violation of Phlx rules and federal securities laws and recommend action against Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons, but FINRA will also adjudicate matters pursuant to the Exchange's new rules.
The ODA is an office within FINRA, independent of the FINRA enforcement function and not involved in investigating or litigating cases.
The OHO, like the ODA, is an independent office within FINRA not
Upon the filing of a complaint, the respondent is afforded time to reply and request a hearing.
The Exchange is eliminating two committees under the By-Laws and adopting the Exchange Review Council in their stead. The Exchange Review Council will have, in all material respects, the same broad authority as the BX and Nasdaq Review Councils.
In its adjudicatory role, the Exchange Review Council will serve as an appellate body, with jurisdiction to: (i) Review decisions issued in disciplinary proceedings,
Likewise, the Exchange Review Council will review decisions issued by Hearing Panels concerning disciplinary matters and Membership Department decisions in membership proceedings concerning Members, Member Organizations, [sic] Associated Persons.
The Exchange Review Council may also call a Hearing Panel decision for review on its own motion, except that default decisions issued pursuant to New Rule 9269 shall be subject to a call for review by the CRO and a decision with respect to a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person that is an affiliate of the Exchange within the meaning of Rule 985 may not be called for review.
The Exchange notes that both Nasdaq and BX eliminated their respective Market Operations Review Committees and transferred those committees' responsibilities to their Review Councils.
The Exchange is adopting a New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, which are modeled on the BX and Nasdaq Rules, and which replace the current Rule 960 Series.
The New Rule 8000 Series is titled “Investigations and Sanctions,” and it governs the regulation of Member Organizations, Members and Associated Persons, investigations and sanctions. With respect to regulation of Member Organizations, Members and Associated Persons, the New Rule 8000 Series generally describes the regulatory contract between the Exchange and FINRA,
The New Rule 8200 Series concerns the investigative process. It grants the Phlx Regulation Department, including FINRA staff, the right to require Members, Member Organizations, Associated Persons and persons subject to the Exchange's jurisdiction to provide information and to testify under oath,
The New Rule 8300 Series describes the nature and effect of sanctions the Exchange may impose on a Member, Member Organization or Associated Person after compliance with the New Rule 9000 Series, including the circumstances under which the Exchange will release information concerning a disciplinary matter.
The New Rule 9000 Series is titled “Code of Procedure.” It governs proceedings for: disciplining Members, Member Organizations, and Associated
The New Rule 9100 Series describes the application and purpose of the New Rule 9000 Series, including the types of proceedings covered by the New Rules,
The New Rule 9200 Series sets forth the disciplinary process, including rules concerning the authorization and issuance of a complaint,
The New Rule 9300 Series sets forth the process for review of disciplinary proceedings by the Exchange Review Council and the Board.
The New Rule 9400 Series provides the process for expedited client suspension proceedings, involving alleged violations of New Rule 774 (Disruptive Quoting and Trading Activity Prohibited).
The New Rule 9500 Series provides the process for proceedings other than formal disciplinary proceedings. The New Rule 9520 Series sets forth procedures for a person to become or remain associated with a Member Organization, notwithstanding the existence of a statutory disqualification, and provides the process for a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person to obtain relief from the eligibility or qualification requirements. The New Rule 9550 Series
The New Rule 9600 Series provides procedures followed when a Member Organization seeks exemptive relief pursuant to any Exchange Rule that references the New Rule 9600 Series.
The New Rule 9800 Series provides the process followed by the Exchange in administering temporary cease-and-desist orders, including the initiation of proceeding to issue such an order,
As discussed above, the Exchange is amending its By-Laws, deleting the Rule 960 Series, and adopting the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series. As a consequence of these changes, the Exchange has amended or deleted other Rules, which are either not needed, duplicated elsewhere, or referenced the deleted rules or the BCC. Below is a description of the individual changes the Exchange is making to its Rules. The descriptions describe the current Rule, where the rule resides in the New Rules, and any differences between the current and New Rule.
Phlx is proposing to amend its By-Laws by deleting Article V, Section 5-3(b), “The Board shall appoint a Business Conduct Committee” and replace it with a new Section 5-3(b) titled “The Board shall appoint an Exchange Review Council.” Current Section 5-3(b) describes the jurisdiction and composition requirements of the BCC. New Section 5-3(b), which is copied from Article VII of the BX By-Laws and Article VI of the Nasdaq By-Laws, describes the jurisdiction and composition requirements of the Exchange Review Council. The new rule text of Section 5-3(b) materially differs from Article VII of the BX By-Laws and Article VI of the Nasdaq By-Laws in that new Phlx By-Law expressly provides that the Exchange Review Council may advise the Board in its administration of programs and systems for the surveillance and enforcement of rules governing Member, Member Organization and Associated Person conduct and trading activities in the national securities exchange operated by Phlx. In contrast, the related provisions of the BX and Nasdaq By-Laws only describe such an advisory role with respect to their members. The Exchange believes that BX and Nasdaq consider this Exchange Review Council advisory role to their respective boards to implicitly extend to associated persons. The Exchange also believes that this Exchange Review Council advisory role should include both Member Organizations and their Associated Persons, including Members. Consequently, the Exchange is expressly including Members and Associated Persons in this provision. Otherwise, the new rule text of Section 5-3(b) is identical in all material respects to that of Article VII of the BX By-Laws and Article VI of the Nasdaq By-Laws, differing in the By-Laws and rule numbers cited due to the Exchange's different numbering conventions. The Exchange notes that the majority of these Rules align with the comparable rules of BX and Nasdaq (
Phlx is proposing to amend its By-Laws by deleting Article V, Section 5-3(d), and holding it in reserve. Section 5-3(d) establishes the MORC and its functions, which have been incorporated into new Section 5-3(b).
Existing Rule 1 provides definitions for purposes of the rules of the Board, and rules and regulations of standing committees of the Exchange.
• The Exchange is amending the definition of the terms “Associated Person” and “Person Associated with a Member Organization” to include, for purposes of the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, an amended definition of what currently resides at Rule 960.1, Interpretation and Policies .01. The Exchange is proposing to replace use of the term “associated person of a member,” which as described below is incorrectly used at Rule 960.1, Interpretation and Policies .01 since there are no persons associated with a Member, with the defined term “associated person.” The Exchange is also proposing to make it clear that, for purposes of the 8000 and 9000 Rule Series, the term “person associated with a member organization” or “associated person” shall have the same meaning as the term “persons associated with a member” or “associated person of a member,” respectively, as provided in Section 3(a)(21) of the Exchange Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed changes to the defined terms does [sic] not change how they are presently applied.
• The Exchange is defining the new term “Code of Procedure” as the procedural rules contained in the New Rule 9000 Series.
• The Exchange is amending the definition of the term “Commission” to include the term “SEC.”
• The Exchange is defining the new term “Exchange Review Council,” which is copied from BX and Nasdaq Rules 0120(m). The Exchange notes that item (6) of the new definition differs from the BX and Nasdaq items (6) in that it cites the analogous Rules of the Exchange, which have different rule numbers. In addition, and as noted above in the By-Laws discussion, the rules for which the Exchange Review Council is the appellate body, which are listed under item (6) of each of the three exchanges, derive from the responsibilities of the former BX and Nasdaq MORCs that were incorporated into their Review Councils, and such responsibilities of the Exchange's current MORC. Accordingly, to the extent those rules differ, so do the citations under the Exchange Review Council definitions of the three exchanges.
• The Exchange is amending the definition of “Member” to add rule text that clarifies that a Member is a natural person and must be a person associated
• The Exchange is eliminating references to the phase-in period of Rule 611 of Regulation NMS under the definition of “Protected Bid,” since the phase-in period has since past. As a consequence, the Exchange is also deleting definitions of “Nasdaq Global Market Security” and “Nasdaq Capital Market Security,” which were solely referenced under the deleted portions of the definition of “Protected Bid.”
Rule 50 concerns the consequences of a Member's, Member Organization's, or Associated Person's failure to pay dues, fees, and other charges. Phlx is replacing the Rule with New Rule 9553, which is materially identical to the old Rule, except for the notice provisions under Rule 50(b), which require that service of a notice of suspension, cancellation or bar be done in accordance with Rule 960.6 (Summary Disposition Proceedings). Rule 960.6(b) requires that notice and a copy of a summary decision is provided to Respondents in accordance with Rule 960.11. Rule 960.11, in turn, allows service on a Respondent or Respondent's Counsel either personally or by deposit with the United States Postal Service (postage pre-paid via registered or certified mail), by courier service addressed to Respondent's Counsel or the Respondent at his address (as it appears on the books and records of the Exchange), or, upon mutual written consent of the parties, by electronic delivery. By contrast, New Rule 9553(b) requires notice in accordance with Rule 9134 (Methods of, Procedures for Service) or by facsimile or email. Rule 9134 is generally consistent with current requirements under Rule 50; however, Rule 9134 provides more specificity on the source of the addresses that may be used for service, types of allowable service by U.S. Postal Service, and when service is complete.
Rule 60 provides the process for assessing fines pursuant to the Order and Decorum regulations under Section H of the Option Floor Procedure Advices and Order & Decorum Regulations. The Order and Decorum regulations provide fines assessed in lieu of formal disciplinary proceedings for conduct relating to the administration of order, decorum, health, safety and welfare on the Exchange. The Exchange is proposing to adopt Rules 9216(c)(1) and (2) to address the process for administering violations of the Order and Decorum regulations under Section H of the Option Floor Procedure Advices.
• Rule 60(a)(i) provides an Options Exchange Official authority to assess fines on Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons for breaches of the Order and Decorum regulations. In addition, the rule permits the Options Exchange Official to refer the matter to the BCC, where it will proceed in accordance with the Rule 960 Series. The Exchange is moving Rule 60(a)(i) to New Rule 9216(c)(1) with minor changes. Specifically, the Exchange is replacing reference to the BCC with reference to the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation, which are the bodies responsible for bringing formal disciplinary action under the BX and Nasdaq rules. The Exchange is also providing that an Options Exchange Official, as a representative of the Phlx Regulation Department, may instead request authorization for the issuance of a complaint from the ODA directly.
• Rule 60(a)(ii) provides Exchange staff authority to assess fines on Members, Member Organizations, or persons associated with Member Organizations for breaches of the Order and Decorum regulations and is otherwise identical in all respects to Rule 60(a)(i), including permitting Exchange staff to refer the matter to the BCC, where it will proceed in accordance with the Rule 960 Series. The Exchange is moving Rule 60(a)(ii) to New Rule 9216(c)(1), which combines Rules 60(a)(i) and (ii), as modified by the minor changes described above. The Exchange is also providing that Exchange staff, acting as a representative of the Phlx Regulation Department, may instead request authorization of a complaint from the ODA directly.
• Rule 60(b)(i) provides Options Exchange Officials and officers of the Exchange authority exclude a Member or Associated Person from the trading floor for breaches of Order and Decorum regulations that occurred on the trading floor, or on the premises immediately adjacent to the trading floor. In particular, Members and Associated Persons are excluded if they pose an immediate threat to the safety of persons or property, are seriously disrupting Exchange operations, or are in possession of a firearm. Under the rule, Members or Associated Persons so excluded may be excluded for a period of up to five business days. The Exchange is moving the Rule to New Rule 9216(c)(2), with only a minor change to delete text that defines a “Member” as either a Member or a person associated with a Member Organization. As described above, a Member must be a person associated with a Member Organization; however, use of the term to refer to both types of Associated Persons may be confusing. Thus, the Exchange is instead including both terms individually.
• Rule 60(b)(ii)
• Rule 60(b)(iii) defines the “premises immediately adjacent to the trading floor” to include: (1) All premises other than the trading floor that are under Exchange control, and (2) premises in the building where the Exchange maintains its principal office and place of business, namely FMC Tower, 2929 Walnut Street, Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. The Exchange is moving the rule unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(2)(B).
• Rule 60(b)(iv) provides that exclusion from the floor may not be the exclusive sanction for breaches of the Order and Decorum regulations, which include, in addition to exclusion, a fine or referral to the BCC, where it shall proceed in accordance with the Rule 960 Series. The Exchange is moving the Rule to New Rule 9216(c)(2)(C) with minor changes. Specifically, the Exchange is replacing reference to referring matters to the BCC with reference to the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation, which are the appropriate bodies responsible for bringing formal disciplinary action under the BX and Nasdaq rules. The Exchange is also providing that the Phlx Regulation Department may instead request authorization of a complaint from the ODA directly.
• Rule 60(c) provides the process for Expedited Hearings for Members and Associated Persons that are excluded for a period exceeding forty-eight hours. Pursuant to the Rule, an expedited
• Rule 60, Commentary (a) provides the procedures to be followed in cases where a pre-set fine of up to $10,000 is summarily assessed. The Exchange is moving the Commentary under New Rule 9216(c)(1).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).01 requires the notice of the fine for breach of such regulations to be given by the issuance of a written citation, served by Exchange staff. The commentary provides that the cited party may accept or contest the written citation. The Exchange is moving the Commentary unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(A).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).02 provides the notice requirements for hearings arising from contested citations. The Exchange is moving the Commentary unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(B).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).03 provides the hearing recordation requirements. The Exchange is moving the Commentary unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(C).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).04 provides the procedure for hearings of contested fines. The Exchange is moving the Commentary with minor changes to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(D). Specifically, the Exchange is replacing the Chair of the BCC as the individual responsible for appointing a Hearing Director under the Rule with the Chair of the Exchange Review Council.
Rule 60, Commentary (a).05 provides the nature and timing of the Hearing Director's determination upon conclusion of the hearing. The Exchange is moving the Commentary unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(E).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).06 provides the conditions for assessing a forum fee. The Exchange is moving the Commentary to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(F), with only a minor change to update a citation to Rule 60 with New Rule 9216(c).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).07 states that there is no right of appeal of a hearing determination under the Rule. The Exchange is moving the Commentary unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(G).
Rule 60, Commentary (a).08 states that the Exchange will file a report in appropriate form with the SEC for any fine assessed under the Rule that is not contested and does not exceed $1,000. The Exchange is moving the Commentary, with only minor changes, to New Rule 9216(c)(1)(H) to clarify that the exemption to SEC reporting arises from SEC Rule 19d-1(c)(1).
• Rule 60, Commentary (b) provides the procedures to be followed when a Member or an Associated Person is to be excluded from the trading floor. The Exchange is moving the rule to New Rule 9216(c)(2)(E).
Rule 60, Commentary (b).01 provides that the determination that a Member or an Associated Person shall be excluded is final and that there shall be no appeal from such determination. The Exchange is moving the Rule unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(2)(E)(i).
Rule 60, Commentary (b).02 notes that the Exchange will file a report in appropriate form with the SEC, except in cases where a clerical employee is excluded for a breach of the Order and Decorum regulations. The Exchange is moving the Rule unchanged to New Rule 9216(c)(2)(E)(ii).
• RULE 60—REGULATION AND FINE SCHEDULE provides that most violations of the Order and Decorum Code are handled by a pre-set fine and/or sanction, and an Options Exchange Official or Exchange staff may refer the matter to the BCC for formal disciplinary proceedings. The Rule also provides that in the case of repeat violations of a regulation by the same individual, the amount of the fine is determined by the number of such violations which have occurred within the year immediately preceding the current violation. The Exchange is moving the Rule to New Rule 9216(c), with minor changes to cite the new disciplinary rules and to note that referrals for formal disciplinary proceedings are made to either the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation. The Exchange is also providing that an Options Exchange Official or Exchange Staff, as a representative of the Phlx Regulation Department, may instead request authorization of a complaint from the ODA directly.
The Rule 70 Series concerns insolvency of Members and Member Organizations, providing the Exchange with authority to suspend the permit of a Member that fails to perform its contracts or is deemed insolvent, and to suspend the permit of a Member or Member Organization that has failed to meet his or its engagements or is insolvent.
• Rule 70 permits the Exchange to suspend the permit of a Member upon notice of insolvency to the Exchange. Rule 71 permits the Exchange to suspend the permit of a Member if it appears to the BCC that the Member or its Member Organization has failed to meet its engagements or is insolvent. New Rule 9558(a) provides the CRO authority to direct FINRA to suspend a Member Organization, together with its permit(s), that is in such financial or operating difficulty that FINRA staff determines and so notifies the Commission that the Member Organization cannot be permitted to continue to do business as a Member Organization with safety to investors, creditors, other Member Organizations, or the Exchange. The Exchange notes that, although New Rule 9558 does not provide an affirmative obligation of Member Organizations to notify the Exchange that it is having financial difficulties, the Exchange does not believe that such an obligation is needed in light of the direct debit of Member Organization obligations and the prompt notice of a deficit in a Member Organization's account.
• Rule 72 concerns investigation of insolvency, and describes the Member's and Member Organization's obligation to cooperate with the BCC's investigation of insolvency. New Rule 8210 provides the Exchange similar authority to conduct an investigation and obligates a Member, Member Organization and Associated Person to provide information and allow Phlx Regulation Department and FINRA staff to inspect and copy books and records and accounts of such Member, Member Organization or person.
• Rule 73 concerns the time for settlement of an insolvent Member, and allows the Membership Department to terminate a Member's permit if the Member fails to settle with its creditors and apply for reinstatement within six months from the time of such suspension, and permits the Board of Directors or their [sic] designee to extend the time of settlement for periods not exceeding one year each. In lieu of this process, the Exchange is instead applying the process under New Rule 9558, which provides an expedited process for resolving suspensions issued to Member Organizations having financial or operating difficulties that places [sic] the safety of investors, creditors other Member Organizations, or the Exchange at risk. In terms of settlement with its creditors, the Exchange, FINRA acting on behalf of the Exchange, or to the extent a hearing is held, a Hearing Panel, may determine the steps necessary to lift the suspension. If a Member Organization fails to satisfy those prerequisites, the Exchange may terminate the Member Organization and its permit(s).
• Rule 74 concerns reinstatement of an insolvent Member, and requires Members applying for reinstatement of their permits to provide proof of settlement with their creditors, and provides the right to appeal a denial of reinstatement to the Board of Directors. New Rule 9558(d) provides that that [sic] a Member Organization may submit a written request for a hearing and written request for a stay, the Chief Hearing Officer or Hearing Officer assigned to the matter [sic] finds good cause exists to stay the limitation, prohibition or suspension.
• Rule 75 allows the Exchange to proceed with [sic] against a Member whose permit is suspended, or its affiliated Member Organization, for any offense committed by the Member either before or after the announcement of the suspension as if the suspension had not occurred. New Rule 9110(d) sets forth the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange, which provides similarly broad jurisdiction. Specifically, Rule 9110(d) provides that any Member, Member Organization, or any partner, officer, director or person employed by or associated with any Member Organization (the Respondent) who is alleged to have violated or aided and abetted a violation of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act), the rules and regulations thereunder, the By-Laws and Rules of the Exchange or any interpretation thereof, and the Rules, Regulations, resolutions and stated policies of the Board of Directors or any Committee of the Exchange, shall be subject to the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange. Moreover, the rule further provides that disciplinary jurisdiction applies to any Member, or any partner, officer, director, or person employed by or associated with a Member Organization, and any Member Organization following the termination of such person's permit or the termination of the employment by or the association with a Member Organization of such Member or partner, officer, director or person, or following the deregistration of a Member Organization from the Exchange.
• Rule 76 concerns the rights of a Member suspended for insolvency, and provides that such a Member and its affiliated Member Organization shall be deprived during the suspension of all rights and privileges of a Member or Member Organization, except the right to have its business transacted at Members' commission rates. As described above, New Rule 9558(a) provides that a Member Organization, together with its associated permit(s), may be suspended. This effectively ensures that it is unable to conduct business on the Exchange. New Rule 9558(d) provides that such a suspension shall remain in effect unless, after a timely written request for a hearing and written request for a stay, the Chief Hearing Officer or Hearing Officer assigned to the matter finds good cause exists to stay the limitation, prohibition or suspension. New Rule 9558(g) provides the process by which a Member Organization subject to a suspension may request termination of the suspension. Last, the Exchange notes that the concept of allowing a Member or Member Organization the right to transact at Members' commission rates applied to the time
Rule 124 concerns disputes that occur on or relate to the Phlx options trading floor. Under subparagraph (b) of the Rule, a Member's, Member Organization's, or Associated Person's failure to comply with an initial Options Exchange Official ruling may result in a referral to the BCC. Phlx is replacing reference to the BCC with reference to the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Market Regulation, or Department of Enforcement, which will be charged with the review of any such referred non-compliance. Phlx is proposing that the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Market Regulation, and Department of Enforcement have this discretion under the proposed Rules because these departments may exercise prosecutorial discretion to determine if formal disciplinary action is warranted. To the extent the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Market Regulation, or Department of Enforcement determines that formal disciplinary action is warranted, the department must gain approval from the ODA to issue a complaint. As described above, the ODA is an office within FINRA, independent of the enforcement function and not involved in investigating or litigating cases. Thus, ultimately the referred non-compliance will be reviewed by a committee independent of the enforcement function. Phlx is also replacing references to Rules 60 and 970 in subparagraphs (b) and (c) of the rule with references to New Rules 9216(c) and (b), respectively, which have replaced those Rules as discussed both above and below. Phlx is also making it clear under Rule 124(c) that Options Exchange Official rulings issued pursuant to Floor Procedure Advices not related to Order and Decorum are subject to the 9000 Series. As described below in relation to Rule 970, Phlx is adopting the process used by BX and Nasdaq in administering their MRVPs.
Rule 600 concerns a Member's and Member Organization's obligation to provide notice to the Exchange of its address and any changes thereto. The Rule also requires Members and Member Organizations to use FINRA's Web Central Registration Depository for reporting obligations. Rule 600(c) requires each Member and Member Organization applicant that is a registered broker or dealer pursuant to Section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 must [sic] use Web CRD to submit a Uniform Application for Broker-Dealer Registration, Form BD. The Exchange is deleting the term “member” from Rule 600(c) because it erroneously applies the requirement to Members, which, as discussed above, cannot be registered brokers or dealers. The Exchange is also adopting a new paragraph (d) to the Rule, which requires Member Organizations to report all contact information required by the Exchange to the FINRA Contact System. FINRA uses the FINRA Contact System as the repository of member firm contact information for its members, as do BX and Nasdaq under their respective Rule 1160. The Exchange is adopting this requirement to facilitate FINRA's execution of its responsibilities under the RSA.
Rule 615 concerns the Exchange's authority to waive the applicable Qualification Examination and accept other standards as evidence of an applicant's qualifications for registration. The Exchange is amending this Rule to make clear that the New Rule 9600 Series process for receiving a waiver is followed for such requests. The New Rule 9600 Series concerns the procedures for Member Organizations to request exemptions, and the appeal of adverse decisions regarding an exemptive request. Thus, Member Organizations may request an exemption to a Qualification Examination on behalf of their Associated Persons. The Exchange notes that text of Rule 615 currently closely mirrors BX and Nasdaq Rule 1070(d) and that the new language added to Rule 615 is taken from these BX and Nasdaq Rules.
Rule 712 concerns the Exchange's requirement that each Member Organization doing business with the public have an independent audit of its affairs at least once a year. Under the Supplementary Material to the Rule, the BCC provided guidance to Member Organizations on the textual requirements of the agreement between the Member Organization and its accountant, which is provided in supplementary material to the Rule and is cited as a directive of the BCC. In such references to the BCC, the Exchange is replacing it with references to the Exchange. With the retirement of the BCC, the Exchange is adopting the directive as a directive of the Exchange. The guidance requires accountants to Member Organizations to agree to provide notice of the commencement of an audit, and provide certain documents to the BCC. The Exchange is replacing references in the guidance to the BCC with references to the Membership
Rule 722 concerns requirements for margin accounts in miscellaneous securities. Subparagraph (d) of the rule provides that the BCC may appoint a World Currency Options Margin Subcommittee, charged with the monitoring of the use of letters of credit by world currency option writers, monitoring the volatility of each world currency underlying a class of world currency options traded on the Exchange and for recommending to the Exchange that higher margin requirements be imposed with respect to any world currency option position(s) whenever such Subcommittee deems such higher margin requirements advisable. The Exchange is replacing references to the BCC and Subcommittee with reference to the CRO and Committee, respectively. The Exchange believes that the CRO is best suited to select members of such a committee to make these determinations in light of the retirement of the BCC because the CRO has general supervision of the Exchange's regulatory operations, including the responsibility for overseeing its surveillance, examination, and enforcement functions and for administering any regulatory services agreements with another self-regulatory organization to which the Exchange is a party. The CRO meets with the regulatory oversight committee of the Board of Directors. As such, the Board will remain apprised of the formation of, and any decisions made by, the new Committee. The Exchange notes that the new Committee will have the same responsibilities under the amended rule as the Subcommittee does currently.
Rule 774 is currently held in reserve. The Exchange is amending Rule 774 to now include an express requirement that Member Organizations and Members not engage in disruptive quoting and trading activity. BX and Nasdaq adopted this authority under their respective Equities Rule 2170 and Options Rule Chapter III, Section 16 to clearly prohibit disruptive quoting and trading activity on both the equities and options markets.
Rule 777 prohibits certain guarantees made by Member Organizations or persons employed by them. Subparagraph (a) of the rule prohibits a guarantee of payment of the debit balance, in a customer's account, to his employer or to any other creditor carrying such account, without the prior written consent of the BCC. The Exchange is replacing reference to the BCC with reference to the CRO, who Phlx believes is best suited to make such determinations in light of the elimination of the BCC.
Rule 923 sets forth an applicant's right to appeal an adverse action with respect to a membership application, permit application, or other matter for which the Membership Department has responsibility. The Exchange is retaining this right under the Rule, but is replacing the current Board subcommittee appeals process with an Exchange Review Council appeals process with discretionary review by the Board based on the processes of BX and Nasdaq under their respective Rules 1016 and 1015. In adopting the new rule text under Rule 923, the Exchange is not copying the term “Applicant,” which is a defined term under BX and Nasdaq membership proceedings rules. The Exchange is rather using the term “applicant” as it is represented in current Rule 923, which applies to membership applications, permit applications, or other matters for which the Membership Department has responsibility.
The Rule 960 series sets forth the Exchange's current Disciplinary Rules. The Exchange is deleting the entire rule series
• Rule 960.1 concerns the jurisdiction of the Exchange in disciplinary matters.
Rule 960.1(a) defines who is subject to the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange as any Member, Member Organization, or any partner, officer, director or person employed by or associated with any Member or Member Organization (the Respondent) who is alleged to have violated or aided and abetted a violation of the Act, rules and regulations thereunder, the By-Laws and rules of the Exchange or any interpretation thereof, and the rules, regulations, resolutions and stated policies of the Board or any committee of the Exchange. After notice and opportunity for a hearing, such a Respondent may be appropriately disciplined by expulsion, suspension, fine, censure, limitation or termination as to activities, functions, operations, or association with a Member or Member Organization, or any other fitting sanction in accordance with the
Rule 960.1(b) permits the Exchange to charge a supervisor with a violation of a rule within the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange committed by an employee under his supervision or by the Member Organization with which he is associated, as though such violations were his own. Similarly, the rule permits the Exchange to charge a Member Organization with any violation within the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange committed by its officers, directors, or employees or by a Member or Associated Person, as though such violation were its own. The Exchange is moving this rule to New Rule 9110(d), which is not included in Rule 9110 of either BX or Nasdaq, but will preserve the Exchange's current jurisdiction under its rules.
Rule 960.1(c) extends the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange to continue after the termination of a Member's permit or employment or association with the firm, or following deregistration of the Member from the Exchange. Staff must serve written notice to the former Member within one year of receipt by the Exchange of notice of such termination or deregistration that the Exchange is making inquiry into a matter or matters, which occurred prior to the termination or deregistration. The Exchange is moving this Rule to New Rule 9110(d), which is not included in Rule 9110 of either BX or Nasdaq but will preserve the Exchange's current jurisdiction under its rules.
Rule 960.1, Interpretations and Policies .01 defines the term “person associated with a member” or “associated person of a member” as the same meaning as Section 3(a)(21) of the Act. The Exchange is retaining this definition by amending Rule 1(b), which currently defines “associated person” or “person associated with a member organization,” but is making a corrective change to the rule text by making it clear that the Rule applies to persons associated with a “member organization” instead of a “member.” As discussed above, there are no persons associated with a Member. Therefore, under amended Rule 1(b), the Exchange is noting that, for purposes of the Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, the terms “person associated with a member organization” or “associated person” have the same meaning as the terms “persons associated with a member” or “associated person of a member,” respectively, as provided in Section 3(a)(21) of the Act.
Rule 960.1, Interpretations and Policies .02 notes that summary suspension or other action taken pursuant to Exchange By-Laws or rules, or Section 6(d)(3) of the Act is not deemed to be disciplinary action under the disciplinary rules. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9558, which concerns summary proceedings authorized by Section 6(d)(3) of the Act. Although not explicitly noted in the New Rule, action taken under the rule is not defined as disciplinary action, but rather summary action to impose limitation, prohibition or suspension on a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person, pending the opportunity for a hearing.
• Rule 960.2 concerns the investigative process and authorization of complaints. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rules under the Rule 8000 and 9000 Series.
Rule 960.2(a) requires that the Exchange investigate possible violations within its disciplinary jurisdiction upon instruction of the Board, BCC, or other Exchange official or upon receipt by the Exchange of a written accusation from a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person, which specifies in reasonable detail the facts that are subject to the accusation. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 8210, which sets forth staff's (including FINRA staff's) authority to examine and investigate potential violations of the Exchange rules.
Rule 960.2(b) requires a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person to cooperate with Exchange staff in the investigative process, and to not otherwise impede or delay an Exchange investigation into matters within its disciplinary jurisdiction. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 8210, which specifically sets forth the Member's, Member Organization's, Associated Person's, or person subject to the Exchange's jurisdiction's obligation to cooperate with the Exchange and FINRA in the investigative process.
Rule 960.2(c) sets forth a Member's, Member Organization's or Associated Person's right to counsel in connection with requests for information, documents or testimony and throughout the course of any disciplinary proceeding and the review thereof, or any hearing concerning a summary action. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9141(b), which provides that a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person may be represented in any proceeding by an attorney, so long as the attorney has not been barred pursuant to New Rules 9150 or 9280. Although not explicitly stated in the rules, as is the case for BX and Nasdaq, FINRA allows a member or person associated with a member to be represented by counsel in an investigation.
Rule 960.2(d) requires staff to, upon forming a reasonable basis that a violation with [sic] the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange has occurred, submit a written report to the BCC that specifies the violations and the facts that gave rise to the violations. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9211(a)(1), which provides a process whereby staff may seek approval from the ODA to issue a complaint in a matter when staff believes that any Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person is violating or has violated any rule, regulation, or statutory provision, including the federal securities laws and the regulations thereunder, which the Exchange has jurisdiction to enforce.
Rule 960.2(e) requires staff, prior to submitting its report pursuant to subparagraph (d), to provide notice to the person who is the subject of the report of the nature of the allegations and specific rule(s) and/or law(s) that appear to have been violated. Such notice must also state that report will be reviewed by the BCC. The subject of the report may submit a written statement to the BCC stating why no disciplinary action should be taken. Staff must provide the subject with access to any documents and other materials in the Exchange's investigative file that were furnished by the subject or his agents. This Rule describes the “Wells Notice” process and, although there is no explicit rule under the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series that describes the Wells Notice process, FINRA uses this process in its disciplinary process.
Rule 960.2(f)(i) requires the BCC to direct staff to prepare a Statement of Charges when it appears that there is probable cause for finding a violation within the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange. Should the BCC determine there is not such probable cause, or disciplinary action is not warranted, it shall inform staff and instruct them not to initiate action. In such a case, the BCC must document its basis for its determination in its meeting minutes. This process is generally subsumed in the ODA approval process noted under New Rule 9211(a)(1). Under the new process, however, a
Rule 960.2(f)(ii) permits the Exchange, in the case of violations determined based on an exception-based surveillance program, to aggregate individual violations of the Exchange order handling rules and consider such violations as a single offense only in accordance with the guidelines set forth in the Exchange's Numerical Criteria for Bringing Cases for Violations of Exchange Order Handling Rules. The Rule also provides that the Exchange may batch individual violations of Rule 1014(c)(i)(A) pertaining to quote spread parameters (and corresponding Options Floor Procedure Advice F-6). In the alternative, the Exchange may refer the matter to the Business Conduct Committee for possible disciplinary action when: (i) The Exchange determines that there exists a pattern or practice of violative conduct without exceptional circumstances, or (ii) any single instance of violative conduct without exceptional circumstances is deemed to be so egregious that referral to the Business Conduct Committee for possible disciplinary action is appropriate. The Exchange is proposing to move the language under Rule 960.2(f)(ii) to New Rule 9211(a)(1), which discusses the authorization of complaints, with minor changes. Specifically, the Exchange is replacing text concerning referring matters to the BCC with requesting authorization from the ODA, which is the appropriate body responsible for authorizing the issuance of a complaint for conduct arising from violations under the Advices. The Exchange is also replacing references to the “Exchange” with references to the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Enforcement, or the Department of Market Regulation. The Exchange is also being more specific under the New Rules by noting that Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Enforcement, or the Department of Market Regulation may seek authorization to take formal disciplinary action from the ODA.
• Rule 960.3 concerns the contents and required service of Statements of Charges. The Rule requires Statements of Charges to include the specific provisions within the Exchange's disciplinary jurisdiction alleged to have been violated, the persons or organizations alleged to have committed each of the violations (the “Respondents”), and the specific acts that give rise to the alleged violations. New Rule 9212(a)(1) sets forth the required contents of a complaint. In this regard, the new requirements are substantially similar to the old rule. Specifically, both rules require the Exchange to name the specific provision(s) of the rules purported to have been violated by the respondent(s), and the specific conduct that gave rise to the alleged violations. In addition, Rule 960.3 provides a definition of the term “Respondents” as noted above, whereas New Rule 9212 does not; however, New Rule 9120(aa) provides a definition of the term “Respondents,” which is materially identical to the definition in Rule 960.3 and is designed to encompass the same entity in the process. Specifically, New Rule 9120(aa) defines “Respondent” as an Exchange Member, Member Organization or Associated Person against whom a complaint is issued in a disciplinary proceeding governed by the New Rule 9200 Series and in an appeal or review governed by the New Rule 9300 Series. Moreover, the definition notes that in a proceeding governed by the Rule 9800 Series, the term “Respondent” means an Exchange Member, Member Organization or Associated Person that has been served a notice initiating a cease and desist proceeding. Rule 960.3 also requires that a copy of the Statement of Charges be served on each of the Respondents. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9130 Series, which concerns the service and filing of papers in a matter. New Rule 9131 specifically sets forth the process for service of complaints and documents initiating proceedings.
• Rule 960.4 concerns the content and timing of submission of an Answer to a Statement of Charges. The Rule requires a Respondent to file an Answer within 15 business days after service of the Statement of Charges. The Rule allows a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person to request a hearing or alternatively request that a decision be rendered based upon the written submissions. The Rule also provides that the charges shall be considered admitted by a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person that fails to submit an Answer within the specified time, or failed to receive an extension from Exchange staff prior to the expiration of the 15 business day deadline. The Exchange is generally replacing this Rule with rules found in the New Rule 9220 Series, which concern requests for hearings. New Rule 9215 concerns Answers to Complaints and requires Respondents to file an Answer within 25 days after service of a complaint. New Rule 9138(a) defines a “day,” for purposes of the New Rule 9000 Series, as a calendar day. Like the old Rule, New Rule 9269 provides for the issuance of a default decision against a Respondent that fails to answer the complaint within the time afforded under New Rule 9215. Under New Rule 9221, a Respondent may request [sic] hearing, and if it does not request a hearing, subparagraph (c) of the rule permits a Hearing Panel or Extended Hearing Panel to consider the matter on the record.
• Rule 960.5 concerns the hearings process, and sets forth, among other things, the process for requesting a hearing, how Hearings Panels are selected, and the roles and responsibilities of Hearing Panel members and counsel thereto, the pre-hearing and hearing procedures, and the conduct of hearings. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with the New Rule 9200 Series, which provides a more comprehensive process than the existing rule.
Rule 960.5(a)1. allows a hearing to be held on a Statement of Charges if requested by the Respondent in its Answer or upon motion of the BCC or staff. The Rule requires hearings to be presided over by three Hearing Panelists. New Rule 9221 provides a Respondent with the right to request a hearing in its answer. If a Respondent does not request a hearing in its answer and, in the absence of a waiver by an adjudicator for a hearing request submitted after submission of the answer, the decision may be made on the record, as defined in New Rule 9267. Pursuant to New Rule 9221(b), in the absence of a request for a hearing from any Respondent, the Hearing Officer may order any complaint set down for hearing. Pursuant to New Rule 9221(c), if all respondents waive a hearing, and the Hearing Officer does not order a hearing on his or her own motion, a Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel may order a hearing or may consider the matter on the record. Further, if fewer than all Respondents waive a hearing, a Hearing Officer, a Hearing Panel or, if applicable, an Extended Hearing Panel, may exercise its discretion to order that a hearing be held as to all Respondents or, alternatively, conduct a hearing as to only those Respondents who requested a hearing and consider the matter on the record as to those Respondents who waived a hearing. Consequently, the new rule will preserve the ability for a Respondent to request a hearing, and for an adjudicator to order a hearing, however, staff will no longer have the authority to request a hearing. The
Rule 960.5(a)2. requires that the Chair of the BCC or its designee name a Hearing Panel within ten business days of receipt of notice that the Respondent has requested a hearing, upon motion of the BCC for naming of a Hearing Panel, or upon Respondent's request that the matter be decided on written submissions. Under the Rule, the BCC Chair or its designee must promptly notify staff and the Respondent of the selection. New Rule 9213(a) provides that a Hearing Officer must be assigned to preside over the matter as soon as practicable after staff files a complaint, and requires that Parties are provided with notice of the Hearing Officer's assignment pursuant to New Rule 9132. New Rule 9213(b) provides that the Chief Hearing Officer must appoint Hearing Panelists pursuant to New Rules 9231 and 9232 as soon as practicable after assigning the Hearing Officer in the matter.
Rule 960.5(a)3. sets forth the responsibilities of the Hearing Panel, which include but are not limited to presiding over hearings in contested disciplinary cases, conducting pre-hearing conferences, ruling on procedural or discovery matters, making all necessary evidentiary or other rulings, regulating the conduct of a hearing, imposing appropriate sanctions for improper conduct by a party or a party's representative, issuing decisions, and rendering decisions in connection with Summary Disposition Proceedings. The Rule also prohibits Hearing Panelists from involvement with the investigative process, participation in the decision to institute disciplinary proceedings, issue decisions without a majority concurrence of the Hearing Panel, rule on requests to disqualify a member of the Hearing Panel, or issue citations for violations of Exchange Rules and Floor Procedure Advices. Hearing Panelists under the current Rule may be Members, general partners or officers of Member Organizations, or other individuals that the BCC Chair or its designee deems qualified. New Rule 9231(b) describes the compositional requirements of Hearing Panels. Under the New Rule, the Hearing Panel generally must consist of a Hearing Officer and two Hearing Panelists. The Chief Hearing Officer is responsible for selecting the Panelists, who must be associated with a Member Organization or retired therefrom. New Rule 9233(a) requires a Hearing Officer to recuse himself if he determines that he has a conflict of interest or bias or circumstances otherwise exist where his fairness might reasonably be questioned. Subparagraph (b) of the New Rule provides that a Party may move for the disqualification of a Hearing Officer. New Rule 9234(a) applies the same recusal standard as New Rule 9233(a) to Hearing Panelists. Likewise, New Rule 9234(b) provides parties with a process identical to New Rule 9233(b), yet also provides that the Chief Hearing Officer may order the disqualification of a Hearing Panelist if he determines that the Panelist has a conflict of interest or bias or circumstances otherwise exist where his fairness might reasonably be questioned. New Rule 9231(b)(1) permits the Chief Hearing Officer to select as a Panelist a person who: (A) Previously served on the Exchange Review Council; (B) previously served on a disciplinary subcommittee of the Exchange Review Council, including a Subcommittee, an Extended Proceeding Committee, or their predecessor subcommittees; (C) previously served as a Director, or as a Governor of the Exchange prior to its acquisition by Nasdaq, Inc., but does not serve currently in that position; or (D) is a FINRA Panelist approved by the Exchange Board at least annually, including a member of FINRA's Market Regulation Committee or who previously served on the Market Regulation Committee not earlier than four years before the date the complaint was served upon the Respondent who was the first served Respondent in the disciplinary proceeding for which the Hearing Panel or the Extended Hearing Panel is being appointed, or from other sources the Board deems appropriate given the responsibilities of Panelists. For purposes of initially applying New Rule 9231(b)(1)(B), the Exchange will allow former BCC members and former MORC members to serve as Panelist under the Rule. The Exchange believes that this is appropriate because it will be drawing from both of the groups for Exchange Review Council members.
Rule 960.5(a)4. describes the role of the Hearing Attorney. The Hearing Attorney assists a Hearing Panel in the discharge of its duties. The Hearing Attorney advises the Hearing Panel on application of rules, sanctions and relevant precedent, yet may not vote in the disposition of a matter. Under the existing Rule, the Hearing Attorney is subject to the same conflict of interest prohibitions as Hearing Panelists. Under the New Rules, hearings will be conducted by FINRA's OHO, which is responsible for the adjudication of matters. Hearings conducted by the OHO are managed by a Hearing Officer, who is an attorney appointed by the Chief Hearing Officer to act in an adjudicative role and fulfill various adjudicative responsibilities and duties set forth in the New Rule 9200, 9550, and 9800 Series (
Rule 960.5(a)5. requires written notice of the Hearing Panelist selection to be given to the Respondent. The Rule provides opportunity for any person involved in the disciplinary proceeding to disclose any relationship with a Hearing Panelist, which might result in such Panelist being unable to render a fair and impartial decision. New Rule 9233(b) permits a Party to move for the disqualification of a Hearing Officer not later than 15 days after the later of: (1) When the Party learned of the facts believed to constitute the disqualification; or (2) when the Party was notified of the assignment of the Hearing Officer. Similarly, New Rule 9234(b) permits a Party to move for the disqualification of a Hearing Panelist within 15 days after the later of: (1) When the Party learned of the facts believed to constitute the disqualification; or (2) when the Party was notified of the assignment of the Hearing Panelist.
Rule 960.5(a)6. outlines Hearing Panelist compensation, including additional compensation in extraordinary cases. Under New Rule 9231(c), the Chief Hearing Officer may determine based on the complexity of the issues involved, the probable length of the hearing, or other factors that the Chief Hearing Officer deems material, that a matter be designated as an Extended Hearing, and that such matter be considered by an Extended Hearing Panel. Similarly, under New Rule 9331(a)(2) the Exchange Review Council or Review Subcommittee may designate a matter as an Extended Proceeding and that such matter be considered by an Extended Proceeding Committee based upon consideration of the volume and complexity of the certified record, or other factors deemed material by the Exchange Review Council or Review Subcommittee. The primary significance of such a designation is to allow the compensation of Extended Hearing Panelists at the rate then in effect for arbitrators appointed under the FINRA Rule 12000 and 13000 Series.
Rule 960.5(a)7. vests the BCC Chair with authority to appoint a qualified replacement Hearing Panelist should a Hearing Panelist become unavailable. New Rule 9231(e) provides that the Chief Hearing Officer may replace a Hearing Officer if the Hearing Officer withdraws, is incapacitated, or otherwise is unable to continue service after being appointed. Similarly, New Rule 9234 provides the Chief Hearing Officer the authority to appoint new Hearing Panelists.
Rule 960.5(b)1. requires a hearing on the Statement of Charges to be held no later than 120 days after the earlier of the filing date of the Answer or the date the BCC requests a hearing. The hearing date may be extended by Hearing Panel for good cause. New Rule 9221(d) provides that the Hearing Officer must issue a notice stating the date, time, and place of the hearing, and whether the hearing shall be held before a Hearing Panel or an Extended Hearing Panel, and shall serve such notice on the Parties at least 28 days before the hearing, unless: (1) In the discretion of the Hearing Officer, he or she determines that extraordinary circumstances require a shorter notice period; or (2) the Parties waive the notice period. Unlike Rule 960.5(b)1., New Rule 9221(d) does not impose a deadline by which a hearing must be held but the Exchange anticipates hearings will generally be held within 120 days.
Rule 960.5(b)2. requires that the Respondent be given notice at least 15 business days before the hearing of the time and place of the hearing. As noted above, New Rule 9221(d) provides that notice of the hearing date and location must be provided to the Parties at least 28 days before the hearing.
Rule 960.5(b)3. permits the Respondent or staff to request in writing an adjournment of the hearing date for just cause. The Hearing Panel must promptly consider the request and inform the parties of its determination. If granted, the Hearing Attorney must also inform the parties of the new hearing date. New Rule 9222 concerns extensions of time, postponements, and adjournments. Under the New Rule, a Hearing Officer may, for good cause shown, change the place of the hearing, postpone the commencement of the hearing, or adjourn a convened hearing for a reasonable period of time. Such an extension may not exceed 28 days unless the Hearing Officer states on the record or provides by written order the reasons a longer period is necessary.
Rule 960.5(b)4. requires parties to furnish to the Hearing Panelists and each other copies of all documentary evidence to be presented at the hearing, and a list of witnesses to be called at the hearing. New Rule 9261 provides that, no later than ten days before the hearing, or at such earlier date as may be specified by the Hearing Officer, each Party shall submit to all other Parties and to the Hearing Officer copies of documentary evidence and the names of the witnesses each Party intends to present at the hearing.
Rule 960.5(b)5. permits the Hearing Panel to schedule pre-hearing conferences not less than eight business days prior to the hearing date. Pre-hearing conferences are held for the purpose of clarifying and simplifying issues and otherwise expediting the proceeding, and must be attended by all parties and the Hearing Panel. New Rule 9241 provides that, on his or her own motion or at the request of a Party, the Hearing Officer may, in his or her discretion, order counsel or any Party to meet for a pre-hearing conference. The conference may be held for the following non-exclusive list of reasons: Expediting the disposition of the proceeding; establishing procedures to manage the proceeding efficiently; and improving the quality of the hearing through more thorough preparation. Under the New Rule, an initial pre-hearing conference, unless determined by the Hearing Officer to be unnecessary or premature, shall be held within 21 days after filing of an Answer. Under New Rule 9241(f), a Hearing Officer may issue a default decision against a Party that fails to appear at a pre-hearing conference, if the Party was provided due notice.
Rule 960.5(c) vests the Hearing Panelists with authority to determine all questions concerning the admissibility of evidence, and to otherwise regulate the conduct of the hearing. The Rule also states that the formal rules of evidence do not apply. The Rule requires staff to present the charges in the matter, and permits both parties to present evidence and produce witnesses that testify under oath and are subject to cross-examination. The Rule also allows the Hearing Panel to request production of documentary evidence and witnesses, and to question witnesses. Last, the Rule requires that a written transcript be made of the hearing, which becomes part of the record. New Rule 9263 provides the Hearing Officer with authority to receive relevant evidence, and to exclude all evidence that is irrelevant, immaterial, unduly repetitious, or unduly prejudicial. New Rule 9145(a) provides that the formal rules of evidence shall not apply in a proceeding brought under the Rule 9000 Series.
Rule 960.5, Interpretation and Policy .01 permits a non-party to the matter to intervene upon showing that it has an interest in the subject of the hearing and that the disposition of the matter may impair or impede its ability to protect its interest. The Hearing Panel may also permit a non-party to intervene as a party when the person's claim or defense and main action have questions of law or fact in common. A
Rule 960.5, Interpretation and Policy .02 requires a Hearing Panel to consider whether the intervention will unduly delay or prejudice the adjudication of the rights of the original parties. As noted above, the New Rules do not permit a non-party to a disciplinary proceeding to file a motion or intervene in the proceeding in any manner whatsoever. Also as noted above, New Rule 9214(a) permits the Chief Hearing Officer to consolidate disciplinary proceedings after considering, among other things, whether any unfair prejudice would be suffered by one or more parties as a result of the consolidation.
Rule 960.5, Interpretation and Policy .03 prohibits any person not otherwise a party or licensed counsel representing a party from attending a hearing unless specifically allowed by the Hearing Panel. The new rules do not have a provision specifically concerning attendance at a hearing; however, hearings will be similarly limited to parties and licensed counsel. New Rule 9141(b) concerns who may represent a Party in a matter. The New Rule provides that a licensed attorney may represent a Party in a proceeding, a member of a partnership may represent the partnership, and a bona fide officer of a corporation, trust or association may represent the corporation, trust or association. New Rule 9261(a) requires Parties to submit to all other Parties and to the Hearing Officer copies of documentary evidence and the names of the witnesses each Party intends to present at the hearing.
• Rule 960.6 concerns the summary disposition process. Under Rule 960.6(a), a Hearing Panel may issue a summary decision in a disciplinary proceeding that violations within the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange have occurred and impose sanctions upon those culpable for such conduct if the Respondent has admitted to the violation(s), or there is no dispute concerning those material facts which give rise to such violation(s). Under Rule 960.6(b), the Exchange is required to serve the summary decision on the Respondent(s), to which the Respondent(s) may reply with a request to set aside any of the findings made or sanctions imposed by the summary decision. Rule 960.6(b) also provides that the Respondent(s) may request a hearing in their [sic] reply, which is governed by Rule 960.5 and, in cases where the Respondent has admitted to committing a violation, any further proceedings are limited to the issue of the propriety of the sanction imposed. Rule 960.6(c) requires the Hearing Panel to set aside a decision in a summary proceeding if the Respondent establishes that an issue of material fact or law exists as to any of the finding [sic] contained or sanctions imposed in the summary decision. New Rule 9264 provides for summary disposition. Unlike Rule 960.6, a motion for summary disposition must be initiated by a Party. Moreover, New Rule 9264 has different requirements based on when in the process the motion is made. Under the New Rule, the Respondent and/or staff may, prior to the Hearing but after the Respondent has filed an answer and had opportunity to inspect documents in the record, make a motion for summary disposition of any or all the causes of action in the complaint with respect to that Respondent, as well as any defense raised in a Respondent's answer. If a hearing on the merits has begun, then parties may submit such a motion only with leave of the Hearing Officer. New Rule 9264(c) provides the process for proceeding when a summary motion does not dispose of the matter entirely. Under the New Rule, the Hearing Panel must, if practicable, ascertain what material facts exist without substantial controversy and what facts are controverted, and, based on this determination, issue an order specifying such. New Rule 9264(d) requires motions for summary disposition to be supported by a statement of undisputed facts, a supporting memorandum of points and authorities, and affidavits or declarations that set forth such facts. Because summary disposition proceedings are initiated by the Hearing Panel under Rule 960.6, there is no such analogue under the New Rules. New Rule 9264(e) concerns rulings on motions for summary disposition. The New Rule provides that a Hearing Officer may deny or defer a decision on any motion for summary disposition, yet only a Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel, may grant such a motion, except that the Hearing Officer may grant motions for summary disposition with respect to questions of jurisdiction. The New Rule also provides that a motion for summary disposition may be granted if there is no genuine issue with regard to any material fact and the Party that files the motion is entitled to summary disposition as a matter of law.
• Rule 960.7 concerns offers of settlement. Under the Rule, a Respondent in a matter may submit an offer of settlement within 120 days of submitting its Answer. The offer of settlement must contain a proposed stipulation of facts and shall consent to specified sanctions. The BCC may accept the offer of settlement or reject it. Should the BCC reject the offer of settlement, the matter will proceed normally. As noted above, in certain cases FINRA will negotiate a settlement prior to the issuance of a complaint. In such cases, the proposed Statement of Charges and offer of settlement are provided to the BCC for review and approval, with the BCC treating the offer of settlement as the Respondent's Answer. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9270,
• Rule 960.7 Interpretation and Policies .01 allows the BCC to consider an offer of settlement submitted after 120 days as long as its consideration does not delay the hearing in the matter. The policy also provides that, if the Respondent submits an offer of settlement after the hearing has commenced, staff must promptly submit its position with respect to the offer and the Hearing Panel will then determine whether to consider the offer, and if so, determine whether to accept or reject the offer. The Exchange is replacing this policy with New Rule 9270(a), which provides that if a Respondent proposes an offer of settlement after the hearing on the merits has begun, the making of an offer of settlement shall not stay the proceeding, unless otherwise decided by the Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel. Under New Rule 9270(e), if an offer of settlement is offered after a hearing has commenced and it is uncontested, then the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or Department of Market Regulation must transmit the offer with a proposed order of acceptance to the Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel, for approval or rejection. Under New Rule 9270(f), which concerns contested offers of settlement provided prior to or after a hearing has commenced, if an offer of settlement is offered after a hearing has commenced and it is contested then the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation must provide a written opposition to the Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel, which may issue an approval or rejection of the offer, or may order the Parties [sic] attend a settlement conference. If a contested offer of settlement is approved by the Hearing Panel, or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel, the Hearing Officer shall draft an order of acceptance of the offer of settlement, which is sent to the Exchange Review Council (or ODA in the case of a Respondent that is an Exchange affiliate) for acceptance or rejection. The Review Subcommittee may accept or reject a contested offer of settlement and offer [sic] of acceptance, other than those concerning a Respondent that is an Exchange affiliate, or refer them to the Exchange Review Council.
• Rule 960.8 concerns the content, approval and issuance of Hearing Panel decisions. The Rule requires the Hearing Panel to review the entire record and make a determination by a majority vote on the disposition of the matter, including whether a Respondent committed violations and the appropriate sanctions, if any. The Rule requires the Hearing Panel to thereafter issue a written decision consistent with its determination. The written decision must contain a statement of findings and conclusions, with the reasons therefor, upon all material issues presented in the record, and whether each violation within the disciplinary jurisdiction of the Exchange alleged in the Statement of Charges occurred. The Rule requires the Hearing Panel, absent extraordinary circumstances, to issue its decision within 60 days after its receipt of the Transcript from staff, a copy of which must be promptly served on the Respondent. Last, the Rule requires disciplinary sanctions arising from the decision be made public in a manner prescribed by the Board of Directors. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule 9268, which concerns decisions of Hearing Panels or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel. Similar to the old Rule, the New Rule requires the Hearing Panel to make a determination in a matter based on a majority vote, which is reflected in a decision drafted by the Hearing Officer. Also similar to the old Rule, New Rule 9268 requires a decision to include, in part, the specific statutory or rule provisions allegedly violated, a statement that sets forth the findings of the Hearing Panel with respect to the act or practice the Respondent was alleged to have committed or omitted, and to provide the conclusions of the Hearing Panel whether the Respondent violated any provision alleged in the complaint. The New Rule requires that the decision be issued within 60 days of the final date allowed for filing proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, and post hearing briefs, or by a date established by the Chief Hearing Officer. Although the date on which the 60 day period begins is different between the old and New Rules, the principle is the same, namely that once the matter is closed to further motion or argument a decision must be issued within the required timeframe. Last, under subparagraph (d) of the New Rule, the OHO must publish notice of the decision and any dissenting opinion in the Central Registration Depository and provide a copy of the decision and any dissent thereto to the each Member Organization of the Exchange with which the Respondent is associated.
• Rule 960.8, Supplementary Material, provides the Board of Directors' directive with regard to publicity of sanctions. The Exchange is replacing this Rule with New Rule IM-8310-3, which concerns the release of disciplinary complaints, decisions, and other information. The New Rule generally requires the Phlx Regulation Department to release information concerning a decision that imposes a suspension, bar, cancellation or expulsion of a Member Organization or Member; suspension or revocation of a Member's permit; or suspension, bar or revocation of the registration of a Member or Associated Person. Unlike
• Rule 960.9 concerns the review process of Hearing Panel decisions, which includes both appeals thereof and the initiation of reviews by the Board of Directors.
Rule 960.9(a) provides a Respondent ten days after service of the notice and decision to appeal the decision to the Board of Directors by service of the petition on the Secretary of the Exchange. The Rule requires the petition to be in writing and to specify the findings and conclusions of the decision, which is the subject of the petition, together with the reasons that the Respondent petitions for review of these findings. Any objections to a decision not specified in the petition are thereafter waived. The rule permits staff to provide a written response to the request filed with the Secretary within fifteen days of service of the petition. Under the rule, staff may request review of a decision by petitioning the Board of Directors within ten days after the decision. The New Rule 9300 series concerns the review of Disciplinary Proceedings by the Exchange Review Council, Board of Directors, and CRO. Under the new process, a Hearing Panel decision issued pursuant to New Rules 9268 (Decision of Hearing Panel) or 9269 (Default Decisions) may be appealed to the Exchange Review Council by a party within 25 days after service of a decision .
Rule 960.9(b)(i) concerns the Hearing Panel decision review process. Under the rule, the review is conducted by the Board of Directors or an Advisory Committee thereof. If an Advisory Committee is appointed, it must be composed of three Board Directors, one of which must be a Public Director appointed by the Chair of the Board. Any Board member that participated in the matter before the BCC or Hearing Panel may not participate in the Board review. Last, the rule provides that a matter is considered on the record and written exceptions filed by the parties, unless the adjudicators determine to hear oral arguments. As noted above, the Exchange Review Council performs a similar appellate function as the Board of Directors under the old process. Under New Rule 9332, Exchange Review Council members are subject to the same disqualification and recusal standards as the Hearing Panelists and Hearing Officers, including a direct conflict of interest such as prior participation in the matter. Under the new Exchange Review Council process and pursuant to New Rule 9331(b), a Subcommittee or Extended Proceeding Committee is formed for the purpose of participating in a hearing, to the extent oral arguments are heard, and to recommend the disposition of a matter before the Exchange Review Council. New Rule 9343 provides that, if no oral argument is held, a matter shall be decided on the record, supplemented by any written materials submitted to or issued by the Subcommittee or, if applicable, the Extended Proceeding Committee, or the Exchange Review Council in connection with the appeal, cross-appeal, or call for review. Pursuant to New Rule 9346, the Exchange Review Council is charged with issuing a decision based on the record, as described above, and any oral argument permitted under the Code of Procedure, subject to limited exception.
Rule 960.9(b)(ii) concerns reviews conducted by the Board of Directors. Under the rule, the Board must determine, by a majority vote, whether to affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part the decision of the Hearing Panel. The Board may not reverse or modify, in whole or in part the decision of the Hearing Panel if the factual conclusions in the decision are supported by substantial evidence and the decision is not arbitrary, capricious or an abuse of discretion. The rule requires the Board decision to be in writing and promptly served on the Respondent. Last, the rule provides that the Board decision represents the final disciplinary sanction of the Exchange in terms of the Act. As noted above, the Exchange Review Council performs a similar appellate function as the Board of Directors under the old process. Under New Rule 9348, the Exchange Review Council may affirm, dismiss, modify, or reverse with respect to each finding, or remand the proceeding with instructions. The Exchange Review Council may also affirm, modify, reverse, increase, or reduce any sanction, or impose any other fitting sanction. The Exchange Review Council must issue a decision consistent with New Rule 9349(b), which provides elements required to be included in an Exchange Review Council decision.
Rule 960.9(b)(iii) concerns reviews conducted by an Advisory Committee of the Board. The Advisory Committee must submit a report to the Board with a recommendation to affirm, reverse or modify, in whole or in part, the decision of the Hearing Panel. A modification may include an increase or decrease of the sanction. Like the Board process, the Advisory Committee may not reverse or modify, in whole or in part the decision of the Hearing Panel if the factual conclusions in the decision are supported by substantial evidence and the decision is not arbitrary, capricious or an abuse of discretion. The Board must determine to affirm, reject or modify, in whole or in part the recommendation of the Advisory Committee under the same standard as if were reviewing the matter itself. The rule requires the Board decision to be in writing and promptly served on the Respondent. Last, the rule provides that the Board decision represents the final disciplinary sanction of the Exchange in terms of the Act. The Advisory
Rule 960.9(c) permits the Board to initiate a review of a Hearing Panel decision within twenty days of Respondent's notice of the decision. A review initiated under this rule follows the process outlined above. As noted above, the Exchange Review Council performs a similar appellate function as the Board of Directors under the old process. Under New Rule 9312(a), the Exchange Review Council may call for review of the decision of a Hearing Panel within forty-five days after the date of service of the decision. If, however, the Hearing Panel decision relates to a default decision issued pursuant to New Rule 9269, the Chief Regulatory Officer may call such decision for review within twenty-five days after the date of service of the decision. If called for review, such decision will be reviewed by the Exchange Review Council. As discussed, under the new process, an Exchange Review Council decision may be reviewed by the Board of Directors pursuant to New Rule 9351, and any final Exchange action may be appealed to the Commission pursuant to New Rule 9370.
Rule 960.9(d) permits a Respondent to request review of a decision in a disciplinary proceeding to the Board in writing within ten days after the decision has been rendered. An appeal taken by staff or by a Respondent will be determined on the written record; however, parties may request an oral argument before the Board or Advisory Committee. As noted above, the Exchange Review Council performs a similar appellate function as the Board of Directors under the old process. Under New Rule 9311(a), a Respondent or the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation may file written notice of appeal within twenty-five days after service of a decision.
Rule 960.9(e) provides the process for staff to request Board review of a Hearing Panel decision, the timing of which mirrors that of a Respondent's appeal to the Board. As noted above, the Exchange Review Council performs a similar appellate function as the Board of Directors under the old process. Under New Rule 9311(a), a Respondent or the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation may file written notice of appeal within twenty-five days after service of a decision.
• Rule 960.10 concerns the process for determining appropriate sanctions against Members, Member Organizations, or persons associated with Member Organizations and the effectiveness of judgments.
Rule 960.10(a)(1) requires Members, Member Organizations, or persons associated with Member Organizations to be appropriately disciplined for violations under the disciplinary rules by expulsion, suspension, fine, censure, limitations or termination as to activities, functions, operations, or association with a Member Organization, or any other fitting sanction. The Exchange is replacing this rule with New Rule 8310(a), which stands for the same proposition that Members, Member Organizations, and persons associated with Member Organizations should be subject to appropriate sanction for each violation of the federal securities laws, rules or regulations thereunder, subject to the process under the New Rule 9000 Series. Unlike BX and Nasdaq Rules 8310(a), New Rule 8310(a) will include suspension of a Member's permit and revocation or cancellation of a Member's permit as available sanctions under the rule, which is consistent with the authority currently provided under Rule 960.10(a)(1). As described above, BX and Nasdaq do not have Associated Persons that are permit holders, and therefore Members.
Rule 960.10(a)(2) requires the BCC and Hearing Panel to refer to the Exchange's “Enforcement Sanctions User's Guide” when imposing sanctions for violation of the Order Handling Rules. Under New Rule 9270(c)(5), the Enforcement Sanctions User's Guide must be considered in settlement proceedings involving all proceedings under the New Rule 9000 Series. The Exchange notes that this is consistent with analogous rules of BX and Nasdaq.
Rule 960.10(b) provides that sanctions imposed under the disciplinary rules are not effective until the Exchange review process is completed or the decision otherwise becomes final. Pending effectiveness of a decision imposing sanctions on a Respondent, a Hearing Panel may impose conditions and restrictions on the activities of a Respondent which it finds to be necessary or appropriate for the protection of the investing public, Members, Member Organizations, and persons associated with Member Organizations, and the Exchange and its subsidiaries. Under the new rules, the concept of final exchange action for purposes of Rule 19d-1(c)(1) of the Act is reflected in multiple sections of the rule. Generally, action in a matter is not final until all periods available for appeal of a decision or call for review have lapsed. Under New Rule 9268(e), a Hearing Panel decision becomes final action if it is not appealed timely pursuant to New Rule 9311 or timely called for review by the Exchange Review Council pursuant to New Rule 9312. New Rule 9268(e) provides that a majority decision of a Hearing Panel with respect to a Member or Member Organization that is an affiliate of the Exchange within the meaning of Rule 985(b) is final action of the Exchange and cannot be appealed or called for review. New Rule 9269 concerns default decisions in a matter before a Hearing Panel. Subparagraph (d)(1) provides that the default decision becomes final action if it is not appealed timely pursuant to New Rule 9311 or timely called for review by the Exchange Review Council pursuant to New Rule 9312. New Rule 9269(d)(2), a default decision with respect to an Exchange member or member organization that is an affiliate of the Exchange within the meaning of Rule 985(b) constitutes final disciplinary action of the Exchange and cannot be appealed or called for review. New Rule 9349(c) concerns final exchange action with respect to an Exchange Review Council decision. Under the rule, the decision of the Exchange Review Council becomes final action of the Exchange after the decision has been provided to the Board of Directors and the decision was not called for review pursuant to New Rule 9351. If the Exchange Review Council decision remands the matter to the Hearing Panel, however, the decision is not final exchange action and will continue through the Code of Procedure process. If the Board of Directors calls an Exchange Review Council decision for review, any decision issued by the Board of Directors becomes final exchange action, unless the decision remands the matter, in which case the matter continues through the Code of Procedure process. The New Rule 9800 Series concerns temporary cease-and-desist orders, and provides the process by which the Phlx Regulation Department, the Department of Enforcement or the Department of Market Regulation may impose such restrictions and how such restrictions are adjudicated.
• Rule 960.11 concerns the requirements for service of notice under the disciplinary rules and the authority of the BCC, Hearing Panel or other appropriate committee to provide
Rule 960.11(a) permits any charges, notices or other documents to be served on the Respondent or its counsel, either personally or by deposit in the U.S. mail, either registered or certified, or by courier. Such service must be made to the Respondent or its counsel at the address as it appears on the books and records of the Exchange, or by email by the written mutual consent of the parties. The rule also requires that all documents required by the disciplinary rules filed by any party to also be filed with the Hearing Panel and all parties, and received on the day prescribed by the disciplinary rules. The Exchange is replacing this rule with the New Rule 9130 Series, which concerns service and filing of papers. The new rule series provides the timing and form of required service based on the type of the notice. New Rule 9134 concerns the methods of and procedures for service. Like the old rule, New Rule 9134 permits personal service, service by U.S. Postal Service, or service by courier.
Rule 960.11(b) permits the BCC or its designee, Hearing Panel, or the appropriate committee before whom a matter is pending, to extend any time limit imposed under the disciplinary rules, unless otherwise noted. The Exchange is replacing this rule with New Rules 9222 and 9322. New Rule 9322(a) allows, any time prior to the issuance of a decision, the Exchange Review Council, the Review Subcommittee, a Subcommittee or, if applicable, an Extended Proceeding Committee, or Counsel to the Exchange Review Council, for good cause shown, to extend or shorten a period prescribed by the Code for the filing of any papers, except that Counsel to the Exchange Review Council may shorten a period so prescribed only with the consent of the Parties. Similarly, New Rule 9322(b) allows the Exchange Review Council, the Review Subcommittee, a Subcommittee or, if applicable, an Extended Proceeding Committee, or Counsel to the Exchange Review Council, for good cause shown, to postpone, adjourn, or change the location of the oral argument, except that Counsel to the Exchange Review Council may adjourn or adjourn the oral argument only with the consent of the Parties. New Rule 9222(a) allows, at any time prior to the issuance of the decision of the Hearing Panel or, if applicable, the Extended Hearing Panel, the Hearing Officer to, for good cause shown, extend or shorten any time limits prescribed by the Code for the filing of any papers and, consistent with paragraph (b), postpone or adjourn any hearing. Paragraph (b) requires the Hearing Officer to take into consideration several factors in determining to grant an extension and limits the length of the extension to 28 days unless the Hearing Officer states on the record or provides by written order the reasons a longer period is necessary.
• Rule 960.12 concerns fairness and impartiality of Board or Committee members in the disciplinary process. The rule sets forth the impartiality standard for adjudicators and provides the process for the removal of an adjudicator that does not meet the standard, either by motion of the chair or the adjudicator.
Rule 960.12(a) prohibits a Board or Committee member, Hearing Officer, or Hearing Panelist from participating in any disciplinary proceeding if the individual cannot render a fair and impartial decision in the matter. In such a case, the rule requires the individual to remove himself from any consideration of the matter. As discussed above, New Rule 9233(a) requires a Hearing Officer to recuse himself if he determines that he has a conflict of interest or bias or circumstances otherwise exist where his fairness might reasonably be questioned. New Rule 9234(a) applies the same recusal standard as New Rule 9233(a) to Hearing Panelists. Similarly, New Rule 9332(a) requires an Exchange Review Council member and Counsel to recuse themselves should they determine that he has [sic] a conflict of interest or bias or circumstances otherwise exist where the fairness of the Exchange Review Council member or Counsel might be reasonably questioned.
Rule 960.12(b) provides the Chair of an adjudicatory body authority to remove an individual from consideration of a matter, upon receiving written notice that such individual cannot render a fair and impartial decision in the disciplinary proceeding. The written notice must specify the grounds for contesting the qualification of the individual. The determination of the Chair is final and conclusive with respect to the participation of the individual. The Exchange is replacing this rule with New Rules 9233(b), 9234(b) and 9332(b). New Rule 9233(b) provides that a party may move for the disqualification of a Hearing Officer. Likewise, New Rule 9234(b) provides parties with a process identical to New Rule 9233(b), yet also provides that the Chief Hearing Officer may order the disqualification a Hearing Panelist if he determines that he has a conflict of interest or bias or circumstances otherwise exist where his fairness might reasonably be questioned. New Rule 9332(b) provides that a party may move for the disqualification of an Exchange Review Council member, Review Subcommittee [sic], a Panelist of a Subcommittee or an Extended Proceeding Committee, or Counsel to the Exchange Review Council.
Rule 970 provides the process for assessing fines not relating to Order and Decorum up to $10,000 in lieu of formal disciplinary proceedings. The Exchange is replacing Rule 970 with New Rule 9216(b).
• Rule 970(a) sets forth the Exchange's authority to assess a fine no greater than $10,000 on a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person in lieu of any disciplinary proceeding, other than regulations relating to order, decorum, health, safety and welfare on the Exchange pursuant to Section H of the Option Floor Procedure Advices. The rule also provides that any fines assessed pursuant to this Rule not exceeding $2,500, and non-contested are not publicly reported to the Members except as may be required by Rule 19d-1 under the Exchange Act, or any other regulatory authority. The rule notes that any fine imposed pursuant to this Rule which exceeds $2,500 shall be publicly reported to the Members as required by Rule 19d-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and as may be required by any other regulatory authority. The Exchange is replacing Rule 970(a) with New Rules 9216(b)(1) and (2), which provides the Exchange's authority to assess such fines, and with New Rule 9216(b)(1)(D) and New Rule 9216(b)(2)(D).
• Rule 970(b) sets forth the notice requirements for service upon the Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person against which the fine is levied. The Exchange is replacing this rule with New Rule 9216(b)(1)(A), which describes the required contents of a minor rule violation plan letter, and New Rule 9216(b)(2)(A), which describes the required contents of a violation letter.
• Rule 970(c) states that payment of a fine assessed under the rule is deemed a waiver of a right to a disciplinary proceeding. The Exchange is replacing this rule with New Rules 9216(b)(1)(A), 9216(b)(2)(A), 9216(b)(1)(B), and 9216(b)(2)(B). New Rules 9216(b)(1)(A) and 9216(b)(2)(A) note that the Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person waives any right to hearing or appeal. New Rules 9216(b)(1)(B)(i)(a) and 9216(b)(2)(B)(i)(a) provide additional waivers not noted in Rule 970(c), concerning claims of bias or prejudgment of the CRO or Exchange Review Council in such body's
• Rule 970(d) sets forth the process a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person must follow to contest the assessment of a fine assessed under the rule. As noted immediately above, the new process requires that a minor rule violation plan letter, or violation letter, is agreed upon prior to its issuance. As a consequence, there is no provision under the new rules for contesting a fine. If a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person does not agree to the terms of a minor rule violation plan or violation letter proposed by the Exchange, then it is not compelled to accept the letter.
• Rule 970(e) sets forth the review process of a contested fine. Under the rule, the BCC may then: (a) Decide that the matter be dismissed and the notice of alleged violation be rescinded; (b) decide that the notice, as issued, is valid, whereupon the alleged violator could either pay the fine or contest the matter before a Hearing Panel; (c) decide that the notice, as issued, should be modified to specify either a higher or lower fine than the one on the notice as issued, whereupon the alleged violator could either pay the new fine or contest the matter before a Hearing Panel; or (d) decide that the matter merits formal disciplinary action and authorize issuance of a complaint, pursuant to Rule 960.2. As noted above, should a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person not consent to the terms of a proposed minor rule violation plan letter or a violation letter, the matter may be subject to formal disciplinary proceedings. Unlike a hearing under Rule 970(d), the Exchange, or FINRA acting on its behalf, may pursue formal disciplinary action in any matter wherein a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person refuses to consent to a minor rule violation plan letter or violation letter. As a consequence, there is no discretion to rescind, affirm or modify a determination prior to initiation of a formal disciplinary proceeding.
• Rule 970(f) sets forth the possible outcomes arising from a disciplinary proceeding arising from a contested fine. The rule provides that a hearing panel may impose any disciplinary sanction provided for in Disciplinary Rules, and may determine whether the violation is minor in nature. The rule further provides that if the violation is determined to be minor in nature, the violation(s) giving rise to the penalty shall not be publicly reported, except as may be required pursuant to Rule 19d-1 of the Exchange Act, or as may be required by any other regulatory authority. The rule notes that if the violation is determined to not be minor in nature, the decision of the Hearing Panel and any penalty imposed shall be publicly reported to the Members, Member Organizations, and persons associated with Member Organizations, in addition to any filing required by Rule 19d-1 of the Exchange Act, or any other regulatory authority, once such decision becomes “final” under the Disciplinary Rules. As noted above, the new process requires that the terms of a minor rule violation plan letter or a violation letter are agreed upon prior to their issuance. As a consequence, there is no provision under the new rules for contesting a fine. If a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person does not agree to the terms of a minor rule violation letter or a violation letter proposed by the Exchange, then it is not compelled to accept the letter. Should a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person not consent to the terms of a proposed minor rule violation plan letter or violation letter, the matter is subject to formal disciplinary action, as is the current practice for contested matters under Rule 970(d). As discussed above, under the new rules, if a Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person does not agree to the terms of a proposed minor rule violation plan letter or violation letter, the Exchange or FINRA acting on its behalf will pursue a formal disciplinary proceeding against the Member, Member Organization, or Associated Person.
• Rule 970, Commentary .01 permits the Exchange to “batch” individual violations of order handling Options Floor Procedure Advices that are based on an exception-based surveillance program. The rule provides that such batch violations may be treated as a single occurrence, only in accordance with the guidelines set forth in the Exchange's Numerical Criteria for Bringing Cases for Violations of Phlx Order Handling Rules. The rule further provides that the Exchange may batch individual violations of Rule 1014(c)(i)(A) pertaining to quote spread parameters (and corresponding Options Floor Procedure Advice F-6). The Exchange may, in the alternative, refer the matter to the Business Conduct Committee for possible disciplinary action when (i) the Exchange determines that there exists a pattern or practice of violative conduct without exceptional circumstances, or (ii) any single instance of violative conduct without exceptional circumstances is deemed to be so egregious that referral to the Business Conduct Committee for possible disciplinary action is appropriate. The Exchange is proposing to move Commentary .01 to New Rules 9216(b)(1)(E) and 9216(b)(2)(E) with minor changes. Specifically, the Exchange is replacing text concerning referring matters to the BCC with requesting authorization from the ODA, which is the appropriate body responsible for authorizing the issuance of a complaint for conduct arising from violations under the Advices. The Exchange is also replacing references to the “Exchange” with references to the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Enforcement, or the Department of Market Regulation. The Exchange is also being more specific under the New Rules by noting that Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Enforcement, or the Department of Market Regulation may seek authorization to take formal disciplinary action from the ODA.
Rule 985 sets forth the limitations on ownership of the Exchange's parent company Nasdaq and restrictions on the Exchange's affiliation with Members, Member Organizations, and persons associated with Member Organizations. Rule 985(b) is cited in several sections of the New Rule 9000 Series, which uses its definition of “affiliate” to draw distinctions in the appeals process. Rule
Rule 1092 concerns obvious errors and catastrophic errors. The rule currently references the MORC as the body responsible for review of determinations made by Options Exchange Officials pursuant to the rule. In light of the fact that the MORC's responsibilities are now incorporated into those of the Exchange Review Council, the Exchange is changing references to the MORC under the rule to references to the Exchange Review Council, which BX and Nasdaq have done in their analogous Options Rules Chapter V, Section 6(l).
Rule 3202 concerns the application of other rules of the Exchange to the PSX equities market. The Exchange is amending references in this rule to replace references to the Rule 960 series with references to the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, delete references to Rule 50, which is replaced by New Rule 9553, and make conforming updates to the titles of Rules 98, 705, 754, 756, 792, 794, 795, 797, 798, 803, 902, 903, 904, 905, 906, and 907. The Exchange is also adding Rule 774 to the list of rules applicable to PSX, which, as discussed above, is being adopted as an express requirement that Member Organizations and Members not engage in disruptive quoting and trading activity. Last, the Exchange is deleting reference to Rules 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, and 76, which are being deleted as part of this proposal.
Rule 3219 concerns the withdrawal of quotations in PSX. The Exchange is replacing reference to the MORC with reference to the Exchange Review Council under Subparagraph (f) of the rule, which concerns jurisdiction over proceedings brought by PSX Market Makers seeking review of the denial of an excused withdrawal pursuant to the rule, or the conditions imposed on their reentry.
Rule 3220 concerns the voluntary termination of registration. The Exchange is replacing reference to the MORC with reference to the Exchange Review Council under Subparagraph (e) of the rule, which concerns jurisdiction over proceedings brought by market makers seeking review of their denial of a reinstatement pursuant to paragraphs (b) or (d) of the rule.
Rule 3312 concerns clearly erroneous transactions. The Exchange is replacing several references to the MORC with references to the Exchange Review Council under Subparagraphs (c), (d)(1), (e)(2) and (f) of the rule. Subparagraph (c) of the rule concerns the review of clearly erroneous determinations. Subparagraph (d)(1) of the rule concerns the requirements for communicating materials to the Exchange. Subparagraph (e)(2) of the rule concerns fees for appeals. Lastly, Subparagraph (f) of the rule concerns refusal to abide by rulings of an Exchange official or the MORC.
The Exchange's Equity Floor Procedure Advices provide fine-based sanctions for violations of the Exchange's regulations relating to equities trading. The Advices include MRVP violations, consistent with Rule 19d-1(c) under the Act.
The Exchange is also amending its Option Floor Procedure Advices and Order & Decorum Regulations, which provide fine-based sanctions for violations of the Exchange's regulations relating to options trading. These regulations include violations of the Exchange's MRVP relating to options trading. Under the various fine schedules of these regulations, the fine amount increases with each additional violation of the particular advice violated. Upon reaching a certain number of violation [sic] of a particular advice over a certain period (as noted in the schedule) further sanction is discretionary with the BCC. In light of the retirement of the BCC, the Exchange is providing the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Enforcement, and the Department of Market Regulation with discretionary authority to assess further sanction [sic] upon Members, Member Organizations or persons associated with a Member Organization for such violations of the Advices, other than Order and Decorum Regulations, and to serve as the body to which certain violations are referred.
The changes proposed herein will allow the Exchange to harmonize its investigatory and disciplinary processes with the processes of BX and Nasdaq, thus providing a uniform process for the investigation and discipline of members and persons associated with members across all three self-regulatory organizations as administered by FINRA pursuant to RSAs. Harmonizing the investigatory and disciplinary processes of all three self-regulatory organizations will bring efficiency to FINRA's administration of its responsibilities under the RSAs because the process [sic] it must follow are nearly identical, and are all based on the process that FINRA itself follows. Harmonized processes will bring consistency to investigations and adjudications of rule violations, and will reduce the number of disciplinary processes and requirements with which Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons, as well as their counsel, must be familiar.
The Exchange believes that the new investigatory and disciplinary processes are substantially similar to the existing process, and where there are differences between the new and old processes, the Exchange believes that the new process does not disadvantage its Members, Member Organizations or Associated Persons. To the contrary, the Exchange believes that the new process will benefit all parties as it provides greater detail and specificity than the retired rules, and consequently is more transparent. Moreover, the Exchange notes that nearly two thirds of Phlx Member Organizations are also members of FINRA. Thus, those firms are already familiar with the FINRA disciplinary process.
The Exchange intends to announce the operative date of the new rules at least 30 days in advance via a regulatory alert. To facilitate an orderly transition from the current rules to the new rules, the Exchange is proposing to apply the current rules to all matters that the BCC has reviewed prior to the operative date. In terms of formal disciplinary matters, any matter that has been approved for the issuance of a Statement of Charges by the BCC will continue under the existing rules. In terms of applying the Advices, any fine that is subject to review by the BCC, but has not yet been reviewed by the BCC to determine whether to exercise its discretion to apply a fine or authorize disciplinary action as of the operative date, will instead be reviewed by the Phlx Regulation Department, Department of Market Regulation, or Department of Enforcement. Any fine that was imposed prior to the operative date that is contested will continue under the existing rules. As a consequence of this transition process, the Exchange will retain the BCC and the existing processes during the transition period until such time that there are no longer any matters proceeding under the current rules. To facilitate this transition process, the Exchange will retain a transitional rule book that will contain the Exchange's rules as they are at the time of that this proposal is [sic] filed with the Commission, including the Rule 960 series. This transitional rule book will apply only to matters initiated prior to the operational date of the changes proposed herein and it will be posted to the Exchange's public rules Web site. When the transition is complete and there are no longer any member organizations or persons subject to the Rule 960 series, the Exchange will remove the transitional rule book from its public rules Web site.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule is consistent with Section 6(b)(6) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes are consistent with these requirements because the changes harmonize Phlx's investigative and adjudicatory processes with similar processes used by BX and Nasdaq. The new processes are well-established as fair and designed to protect investors and the public interest, providing greater detail and transparency in the processes than is currently provided under the Rule 960 Series. Because the Exchange is adopting these Rules materially unchanged from the related BX and Nasdaq rules, with only minor differences based on the need to account for the Exchange's trading floor and the Phlx Regulation Department's involvement in matters, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes should facilitate prompt, appropriate, and effective discipline of Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons consistent with the Act. The proposed rule change also makes miscellaneous changes to Exchange rules to account for the adoption of the New Rule 8000 and 9000 Series, and to make minor updates and corrections to the Exchange's rules.
Moreover, the Exchange believes that harmonizing the investigative and adjudicatory processes with those of BX and Nasdaq will reduce the burden on Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons that are also members or member organizations of BX, Nasdaq, and/or FINRA as they only will need to be familiar with a single process going forward. As discussed above, the new process will benefit all parties as it provides greater detail and specificity than the retired Rules and, consequently, is more transparent.
The Exchange also believes that adopting an Exchange Review Council is consistent with the Act because the committee's mandate is to, among other things, ensure consistent and fair application of the Exchange rules pertaining to discipline of Members, Member Organizations and Associated Persons. The Exchange Review Council will be a body appointed by the Exchange Board of Directors and composed of representatives of the securities industry as well as persons from outside the securities industry. The broad membership of the new Exchange Review Council will ensure that the decisions and guidance it provides will be fair and balanced. The Exchange Review Council will be similar in structure and function to the Review Councils of BX and Nasdaq, as well as FINRA's National Adjudicatory Council. In addition to reviewing appeals of disciplinary actions, the Exchange Review Council will also have jurisdiction to review decisions to deny applications for membership in the Exchange, and appeals regarding limitations placed on members or their employees that are subject to a statutory disqualification. Additionally, the Exchange Review Council may consider and make recommendations to the Board on policy and rule changes relating to business and sales practices of Exchange Members, Member Organizations and Associated Persons, and enforcement policies, including policies with respect to fines and other sanctions. Thus, the Exchange Review Council will provide the Exchange and market participants with a fair and impartial body overseeing disciplinary matters, as well as the rules and policies concerning the disciplinary process. Last, the Exchange notes that Exchange Review Council will have significant overlap in membership with the current BCC, thereby ensuring familiarity with Exchange rules and membership issues. For these reasons, the Exchange believes that adoption of the Exchange Review Council is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange also believes that incorporating the functions of the MORC into the Exchange Review Council is consistent with the requirements of the Act because it will bring efficiency to the committee process, by vesting a single Board committee with responsibilities that would otherwise be spread across the MORC and proposed Exchange Review Council, while ensuring that such responsibilities are performed to a high regulatory standard. In this regard, the Exchange Review Council is, by every measure, a more diverse body than the MORC that it replaces, yet it will maintain overlapping membership with current MORC members. The broad membership of the new Exchange Review Council will ensure that decisions made with respect to the MORC's former responsibilities are made fairly. Maintaining overlap in membership will ensure continuity and familiarity with the MORC responsibility and processes. In terms of similarity between the compositional requirements of the two committees, the Exchange notes that the proposed Exchange Review Council will have the same MORC requirement that not more than 50 percent of the committee's members be engaged in market making activity or employed by Exchange member organization whose revenues from market making exceed 10 percent of its total revenues.
The Exchange believes that eliminating the BCC is consistent with Sections 6(b)(5) and 6(b)(6) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that its proposal furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(7) of the Act,
Last, the Exchange believes that its proposal to phase-in the implementation of the new disciplinary process is consistent with Section 6(b)(7)
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. The proposed rule change is not intended to address competitive issues, but it should reduce burdens on Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons. Specifically and as described in detail above, the Exchange believes that this change will bring efficiency and consistency in application of the investigative and adjudicatory processes, thereby reducing the burden on Members, Member Organizations, and Associated Persons who are also members of BX and/or Nasdaq.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |