Page Range | 52321-52587 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 52585 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to Export Control Regulations | |
81 FR 52323 - Delegation of Authority Pursuant to Section 4 and Section 7 of the Electrify Africa Act of 2015 | |
81 FR 52321 - Amending Executive Order 13675 To Expand Membership on the President's Advisory Council on Doing Business in Africa | |
81 FR 52478 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 52398 - Notice of Solicitation of Applications (NOSA) for Loans to Re-Lenders Under the Community Facility Loan Program for Fiscal Year (FY) 2016; Correction | |
81 FR 52402 - Aluminum Extrusions From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Scope Ruling and Notice of Amended Final Scope Ruling Pursuant to Court Decision | |
81 FR 52401 - Expansion of Subzone 116C, Premcor Refining Group Inc., Port Arthur, Texas | |
81 FR 52401 - Foreign-Trade Zone 193-Pinellas County, Florida; Application for Reorganization and Expansion Under Alternative Site Framework | |
81 FR 52402 - Approval of Subzone Status, Barrett Distribution Centers, Inc., Franklin, Massachusetts | |
81 FR 52403 - Certain Preserved Mushrooms From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Rescission of 2015 Antidumping Duty New Shipper Review | |
81 FR 52583 - North American Industry Classification System-Revision for 2017 | |
81 FR 52433 - Notice to All Interested Parties of the Termination of the Receivership of 10256-Home National Bank, Blackwell, Oklahoma | |
81 FR 52367 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Reallocation of Pollock in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands | |
81 FR 52460 - Meeting of the Judicial Conference Advisory; Committee on Rules of Criminal Procedure | |
81 FR 52388 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; South Dakota; Revisions to the Permitting Rules | |
81 FR 52467 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Comment Request | |
81 FR 52453 - Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal Accounts To Establish the Protest Filer Account and Clarification That the Terms and Conditions for Account Access Apply to All ACE Portal Accounts | |
81 FR 52464 - Notice of Entering Into a Compact With the Republic of Niger | |
81 FR 52405 - Export Trade Certificate of Review | |
81 FR 52493 - American Independence Funds Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 52461 - Final Agricultural Worker Population Estimates for Basic Field-Agricultural Worker/Migrant Grants | |
81 FR 52483 - Request To Amend a License To Export Radioactive Waste | |
81 FR 52466 - Written Reimbursement Policy | |
81 FR 52484 - Request To Amend a License To Import Radioactive Waste | |
81 FR 52436 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 52394 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Gulf of Alaska Management Area; Amendment 101 | |
81 FR 52483 - Omaha Public Power District; Fort Calhoun Station, Unit No. 1 | |
81 FR 52460 - Carbon Steel Butt-Weld Pipe Fittings From Brazil, China, Japan, Taiwan, and Thailand; Determinations | |
81 FR 52459 - Proposed Information Collection; National Park Service National Recreation Trails and National Water Trails System Applications | |
81 FR 52521 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Information Collection Extension With Revision; Submission for OMB Review; Bank Secrecy Act/Money Laundering Risk Assessment | |
81 FR 52407 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to an Anchor Retrieval Program in the Chukchi and Beaufort Seas | |
81 FR 52512 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillators | |
81 FR 52438 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; State Annual Long-Term Care Ombudsman Report Revised Data Collection to the National Ombudsman Reporting System | |
81 FR 52514 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 52505 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
81 FR 52516 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Vision | |
81 FR 52397 - Nicolet Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 52438 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; the National Maltreatment Reporting System | |
81 FR 52450 - Statement of Organization, Functions and Delegations of Authority | |
81 FR 52518 - National Hazardous Materials Route Registry Revisions and Procedures | |
81 FR 52521 - Application of Trans Northern Airways LLC for Commuter Authority | |
81 FR 52458 - Information Collection Request Sent to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for Approval; Community Harvest Assessments for Alaskan National Parks, Preserves, and Monuments | |
81 FR 52432 - National Coal Council Meeting | |
81 FR 52433 - Biomass Research and Development Technical Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 52418 - Federal Need Analysis Methodology for the 2017-18 Award Year-Federal Pell Grant, Federal Perkins Loan, Federal Work-Study, Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant, William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan, Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grant and TEACH Grant Programs | |
81 FR 52398 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; 2017 Census Test | |
81 FR 52370 - Breast Cancer Fund, Center for Environmental Health, Center for Food Safety, Center for Science in the Public Interest, Clean Water Action, Consumer Federation of America, Earthjustice, Environmental Defense Fund, Improving Kids' Environment, Learning Disabilities Association of America, and Natural Resources Defense Council; Filing of Food Additive Petition; Reopening of Comment Period | |
81 FR 52397 - Kistachie National Forest Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 52457 - Advisory Board for Exceptional Children | |
81 FR 52444 - Over-the-Counter Monograph User Fees: Reopening of Comment Period; Stakeholder Meeting | |
81 FR 52449 - Ulcerative Colitis: Clinical Trial Endpoints; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 52366 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Small-Mesh Multispecies Fishery; Adjustment to the Commercial Northern Red Hake Inseason Possession Limit | |
81 FR 52441 - Deciding When To Submit a 510(k) for a Software Change to an Existing Device; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 52443 - Deciding When To Submit a 510(k) for a Change to an Existing Device; Draft Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff; Availability | |
81 FR 52460 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (“CERCLA”) | |
81 FR 52439 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Survey of Alumni Commissioner's Fellowship Program Fellows | |
81 FR 52434 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 52335 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Umpqua River, Reedsport, OR | |
81 FR 52440 - Determination That BENTYL (Dicyclomine Hydrochloride) Syrup and Other Drug Products Were Not Withdrawn From Sale for Reasons of Safety or Effectiveness | |
81 FR 52485 - OSI ETF Trust, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 52486 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Add Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading Insights) | |
81 FR 52498 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to Adopting a Principles-Based Approach To Prohibit the Misuse of Material Nonpublic Information by Market-Makers and Designated Primary Market-Makers (“DPMs”) | |
81 FR 52496 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Reflect the Dissolution of One of the Exchange's Intermediate Holding Companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC | |
81 FR 52491 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats EDGA Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Reflect the Dissolution of One of the Exchange's Intermediate Holding Companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC | |
81 FR 52503 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Reflect the Dissolution of One of the Exchange's Intermediate Holding Companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC | |
81 FR 52504 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Reflect the Dissolution of One of the Exchange's Intermediate Holding Companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC | |
81 FR 52494 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Pilot Period for the Exchange's Supplemental Competitive Liquidity Provider Program | |
81 FR 52526 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to Executive Order 13315, as Amended by Executive Order 13350 | |
81 FR 52406 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meetings and Hearings | |
81 FR 52433 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 52452 - Government-Owned Inventions; Availability for Licensing | |
81 FR 52451 - National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism, Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 52453 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 52452 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 52346 - Reconsideration on the Mercury and Air Toxics Standards (MATS) and the Utility New Source Performance Standards Startup and Shutdown Provisions; Final Action | |
81 FR 52490 - Managed Portfolio Series and Port Street Investments, LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 52348 - Technical Amendments to Performance Specification 18 and Procedure 6 | |
81 FR 52366 - Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic; 2016 Recreational Accountability Measure and Closure for the South Atlantic Other Jacks Complex | |
81 FR 52369 - Proposed Amendment of Class E Airspace, Blue Mesa, CO | |
81 FR 52445 - Retrospective Review of Premarket Approval Application Devices; Striking the Balance Between Premarket and Postmarket Data Collection | |
81 FR 52348 - Flonicamid; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 52352 - Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustments; Correction | |
81 FR 52335 - Safety Zones; Marine Events Held in the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone | |
81 FR 52478 - Massachusetts Institute of Technology; Renewal of Special Nuclear Materials License | |
81 FR 52354 - Improving Outage Reporting for Submarine Cables and Enhanced Submarine Outage Data | |
81 FR 52329 - Standard Preparations, Limits of Potency, and Dating Period Limitations for Biological Products; Confirmation of Effective Date | |
81 FR 52339 - Safety Zone; 2016 Wings Over Vermont Air Show, Lake Champlain, Burlington, VT | |
81 FR 52329 - Refuse To Accept Procedures for Premarket Tobacco Product Submissions | |
81 FR 52371 - Refuse To Accept Procedures for Premarket Tobacco Product Submissions | |
81 FR 52424 - Applications for New Awards; Enhanced Assessment Instruments Grant Program-Enhanced Assessment Instruments | |
81 FR 52341 - Final Priorities-Enhanced Assessment Instruments | |
81 FR 52393 - Section 610 Review of the 2008 Lead; Renovation, Repair, and Painting Program (RRP); Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 52353 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
81 FR 52339 - Safety Zones; Point to LaPointe Swim, Lake Superior, LaPointe, WI | |
81 FR 52325 - Tuberculosis in Cattle and Bison; State and Zone Designations; California | |
81 FR 52377 - Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act Formula Grant Program | |
81 FR 52364 - Technical Amendment | |
81 FR 52326 - Amendment to the Export Administration Regulations To Add Targets for the Production of Tritium and Related Development and Production Technology to the List of 0Y521 Series | |
81 FR 52527 - Subsistence Management Regulations for Public Lands in Alaska-2016-17 and 2017-18 Subsistence Taking of Wildlife Regulations |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Forest Service
Rural Housing Service
Census Bureau
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Community Living Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
National Park Service
Justice Programs Office
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Foreign Assets Control Office
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Interim rule and request for comments.
We are amending the bovine tuberculosis regulations regarding State and zone classifications by reclassifying the State of California as accredited-free. We have determined that the State meets the criteria for accredited-free status. This action relieves certain restrictions on the interstate movement of cattle and bison from the State of California.
This interim rule is effective August 8, 2016. We will consider all comments that we receive on or before October 7, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. C. William Hench, Cattle Health Center Staff Veterinarian, Surveillance, Preparedness and Response Services, Veterinary Services, APHIS, 2150 Centre Avenue, Fort Collins, CO 80526-8117; (970) 494-7378.
Bovine tuberculosis is a contagious and infectious granulomatous disease caused by the bacterium
At the beginning of the past century, tuberculosis caused more losses of livestock than all other livestock diseases combined. This prompted the establishment in the United States of the National Cooperative State/Federal Bovine Tuberculosis Eradication Program for tuberculosis in livestock.
In carrying out the national eradication program, the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) issues and enforces regulations. The regulations require the testing of cattle and bison for tuberculosis, define the Federal tuberculosis status levels for States or zones (accredited-free, modified accredited advanced, modified accredited, accreditation preparatory, and nonaccredited), provide the criteria for attaining and maintaining those status levels, and contain testing and movement requirements for cattle and bison leaving States or zones of a particular status level. These regulations are contained in 9 CFR part 77 and in the Bovine Tuberculosis Eradication Uniform Methods and Rules, 1999 (UMR), which is incorporated by reference into the regulations.
The status of a State or zone is based on its prevalence of tuberculosis in cattle and bison, the effectiveness of the State's tuberculosis eradication program, and the degree of the State's compliance with standards for cattle and bison contained in the UMR. The regulations provide that a State may request partitioning into specific geographic regions or zones with different status designations (commonly referred to as split-State status) if bovine tuberculosis is detected in a portion of a State and the State demonstrates that it meets certain criteria with regard to zone classification.
In an interim rule effective and published in the
The State of California has requested that the State be reclassified from modified accredited advanced to accredited-free. Based on the findings of a review of the tuberculosis eradication program in California conducted during the week of April 18 to 22, 2016, APHIS has determined that the State meets the criteria for advancement of status contained in the regulations.
State animal health officials in California have demonstrated that the State enforces and complies with the provisions of the UMR. The State of California has demonstrated that it has zero percent prevalence of cattle and bison herds affected with tuberculosis and has had no findings of tuberculosis in any cattle or bison in the State since the last affected herd completed a test-and-remove herd plan and was released from quarantine in July 2014. Therefore,
Based on our evaluation of California's request, we are classifying the entire State of California as accredited-free.
Immediate action is warranted to relieve restrictions on the interstate movement of cattle and bison from the State of California. Under these circumstances, the Administrator has determined that prior notice and opportunity for public comment are contrary to the public interest and that there is good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553 for making this action effective less than 30 days after publication in the
We will consider comments we receive during the comment period for this interim rule (see
This interim rule is subject to Executive Order 12866. However, for this action, the Office of Management and Budget has waived its review under Executive Order 12866.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have analyzed the potential economic effects of this action on small entities. The analysis is summarized below. The full analysis may be viewed on the
Tuberculosis testing, including veterinary fees, costs approximately $10 to $15 per head. Approximately 100,000 tuberculosis tests were conducted in California in 2015, to meet the import requirements imposed by other States. Based on this information, the annual cost savings associated with advancing the tuberculosis status of California from modified accredited advanced to accredited-free will range from $1 million to $1.5 million. We note that Federal interstate movement testing requirements for modified accredited advanced States were suspended by a Federal Order issued in April 2010. The $1 million to $1.5 million in savings that will be realized represents less than 0.02 percent of the approximately $10 billion earned from California's cattle and milk sales.
Entities that may be affected by the interim rule fall into various categories of the North American Industry Classification System. The majority of the affected businesses are small entities.
Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This program/activity is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.025 and is subject to Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. (See 2 CFR chapter IV.)
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule has no retroactive effect and does not require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
This rule contains no new information collection or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Animal diseases, Bison, Cattle, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Tuberculosis.
Accordingly, we are amending 9 CFR part 77 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 8301-8317; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.4.
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Interim final rule with request for comments.
In this interim final rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) to make certain items subject to the EAR and to impose on those items a license requirement for export and reexport to all destinations, except Canada. Specifically, this rule classifies certain specified targets “specially designed” for the production of tritium and related “development” and “production” technology under Export Control Classification Numbers (ECCNs) 0A521 and 0E521, respectively, on the Commerce Control List (CCL). As described in the final rule that established the 0Y521 series and that was published in the
This rule is effective August 8, 2016. Comments must be received by October 7, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
• By mail or delivery to Regulatory Policy Division, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 2099B, 14th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230. Refer to RIN 0694-AG90.
Steven Clagett, Director, Nuclear and Missile Technology Controls Division, Office of Nonproliferation and Treaty Compliance, by phone at (202) 482-1641, or by email at
BIS established the ECCN 0Y521 series to identify items that warrant control on the CCL but are not yet identified in an existing ECCN (77 FR 22191, April 13, 2012). Items are added to the ECCN 0Y521 series by the Department of Commerce, with the concurrence of the Departments of Defense and State, and other agencies as appropriate, upon a determination that an item should be controlled because it provides at least a significant military or intelligence advantage to the United States or because foreign policy reasons justify such control. In this matter, the Department of Energy also concurred in the control imposed. The ECCN 0Y521 series is a temporary holding classification with a limitation that while an item is temporarily classified under ECCN 0Y521, the U.S. Government works to adopt a control through the relevant multilateral regime(s), in this case the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to determine an appropriate longer-term control over the item, or that the item does not warrant control on the CCL.
Items classified under ECCN 0Y521, including the items identified in this interim final rule as 0A521 and 0E521 items, remain so-classified for one year from the date a final rule identifying the item is published in the
The license requirements and policies for the ECCN 0Y521 series appear in § 742.6(a)(7) of the EAR. ECCN 0Y521 items are subject to a nearly worldwide license requirement (
In this rule, BIS amends the EAR to make targets made of or containing lithium “specially designed” for the production of tritium by insertion in the core of a nuclear reactor and related “development” and “production” technology subject to the EAR and imposes a license requirement on the items. These items are being added to the 0Y521 series pursuant to a determination by the Department of Commerce, with the concurrence of the Departments of Defense, State and Energy, that the items should be controlled because they provide a significant military or intelligence advantage to the United States or because foreign policy reasons justify such controls.
ECCN 0A521 No. 1, which appears in the table found in Supplement No. 5 to part 774 of the EAR, covers targets made of or containing lithium “specially designed” for the production of tritium by insertion in the core of a nuclear reactor.
ECCN 0E521 No. 1 covers technology required for the “development” or “production” of items classified under ECCN 0A521 No. 1.
License applications for these items may be submitted through SNAP-R in accordance with § 748.6 of the EAR. Exporters are directed to include detailed descriptions and technical specifications with the license application, and identify the item's ECCN.
The rule is being issued in interim final form because while the government believes that it is in the national security interests of the United States to immediately implement these controls, it also wants to provide the interested public with an opportunity to comment on the new controls of the items. Comments may be submitted in accordance with the
Although the Export Administration Act expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 7, 2015, 80 FR 48233 (August 11, 2015), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222 as amended by Executive Order 13637.
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor is subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under E.O. 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring prior notice, the opportunity for public comment and a delay in effective date are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military or foreign affairs function of the United States (
Further, BIS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). Immediate implementation of these changes will allow BIS to prevent exports of these items to users and for uses that pose a national security threat to the United States or its allies. If BIS delayed this rule to allow for a 30-day delay in effectiveness, the resulting delay in implementation would afford an opportunity for the export of these items to users and uses that pose such a national security threat, thereby undermining the purpose of the rule. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required to be given for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, part 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
The additions read as follows:
The following table lists items subject to the EAR that are not listed elsewhere in the CCL, but which the Department of Commerce, with the concurrence of the Departments of Defense and State, has identified warrant control for export or reexport because the items provide at least a significant military or intelligence advantage to the United States or for foreign policy reasons.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Direct final rule; confirmation of effective date.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is confirming the effective date of September 16, 2016, for the final rule that appeared in the
Effective date of final rule published in the
Tami Belouin, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
In the
Therefore, under the biological products provisions of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 216, 262, 263, 263a, and 264) and the drugs and general administrative provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 321, 331, 351, 352, 353, 355, 360, 360c, 360d, 360h, 360i, 371, 372, 374, and 381), and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR part 610 is amended. Accordingly, the amendments issued thereby are effective.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Direct final rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is issuing a rule describing when FDA will refuse to accept a tobacco product submission (or application) because the application has not met a minimum threshold for acceptability for FDA review. Under the rule, FDA will refuse to accept a tobacco product submission, for example, that is not in English, does not pertain to a tobacco product, or does not identify the type of submission. By refusing to accept submissions that have the deficiencies identified in the rule, FDA will be able to focus our review resources on submissions that meet a threshold of acceptability and encourage quality submissions. FDA is issuing this action directly as a final rule because we believe there is little likelihood that we will receive any significant adverse comments opposing the rule given the specific deficiencies identified that will result in FDA's refusal to accept the submission.
This rule is effective December 21, 2016. Submit either electronic or written comments on this direct final rule by October 24, 2016. If we receive no significant adverse comments during the specified comment period, we intend to publish a confirmation document on or before the effective date by publication of a document in the
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Annette Marthaler or Paul Hart, Office of Regulations, Center for Tobacco Products (CTP), Food and Drug Administration, Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 877-287-1373,
FDA is issuing this refuse to accept rule under direct final rule procedures. The rule identifies deficiencies that will result in FDA's refusal to accept certain tobacco product submissions under sections 905, 910, and 911 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (Tobacco Control Act) (21 U.S.C. 387e, 387j, and 387k).
The rule explains when FDA will refuse to accept a premarket submission, including PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (including subsequent abbreviated reports). The rule is based on FDA's experience in reviewing these submissions. Under the rule, FDA will refuse to accept a premarket submission that: (1) Does not pertain to a tobacco product; (2) is not in English (or does not include a complete translation); (3) is submitted in an electronic format that FDA cannot process, read, review, or archive; (4) does not include the applicant's contact information; (5) is from a foreign applicant and does not include the name and contact information of an authorized U.S. agent (authorized to act on behalf of the applicant for the submission); (6) does not include a required form(s); (7) does not identify the tobacco product; (8) does not identify the type of submission; (9) does not include the signature of a responsible official authorized to represent the applicant; or (10) does not include an environmental assessment or claim of a categorical exclusion, if applicable. If FDA refuses to accept the submission, FDA will send the contact (if available) a notification. If the submission is accepted for further review, FDA will send an acknowledgement letter.
In the
We are providing a comment period on the direct final rule of 75 days after the date of publication in the
If any significant adverse comments are received during the comment period, FDA will publish, before the effective date of this direct final rule, a document withdrawing the direct final rule. If we withdraw the direct final rule, any comments received will be applied to the proposed rule and will be considered in developing a final rule using the usual notice and comment procedures. If FDA receives no significant adverse comments during the specified comment period, FDA intends to publish a confirmation document, before the effective date of the direct final rule, confirming the effective date.
FDA is issuing this refuse to accept rule as a means of efficiently handling submissions that do not meet a threshold of acceptability for FDA review,
The rule identifies deficiencies that FDA has seen across types of premarket submissions and will result in FDA refusing to accept the submission. This rule applies to all tobacco product applications; we note that there are additional deficiencies that are not covered in this rule that may arise for specific types of premarket submissions that will also result in FDA's refusal to accept that specific type of premarket submission (
FDA's refusal to accept a tobacco product submission will not preclude an applicant from resubmitting a new submission that addresses the deficiencies. In addition, acceptance of a submission will not mean that FDA has determined that the submission is complete, but rather only that the submission has met the basic, minimum threshold for acceptance. Substantive review of the submission will begin once FDA accepts the submission, and for submissions with filing requirements (
Section 701(a) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(a)) provides FDA with authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&C Act. This rule allows FDA to more efficiently use our resources to review premarket submissions under sections 905, 910, and 911 of the FD&C Act. FDA has processed and reviewed many submissions since the enactment of the Tobacco Control Act, and submissions with the deficiencies identified in the rule have been repeatedly identified by FDA as reflecting submissions that are incomplete and not prepared for further review.
We are adding part 1105 (21 CFR part 1105) to title 21, specifically § 1105.10. Section 1105.10(a) provides that FDA will refuse to accept, as soon as practicable, PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (including subsequent abbreviated reports), for the reasons listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (10), if applicable:
• Section 1105.10(a)(1) states that FDA will refuse to accept a tobacco product submission that does not pertain to a tobacco product. This provision addresses a submission that refers to a product that does not meet the definition of a “tobacco product” under section 201(rr) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(rr)) and, therefore, is not subject to FDA's tobacco product authorities.
• Section 1105.10(a)(2) states that FDA will refuse to accept a submission that is not in the English language or does not contain complete English translations of any information included with the submission. FDA is unable to read and process such submissions.
• Section 1105.10(a)(3) provides that FDA will refuse to accept a submission if it is provided in an electronic format that FDA cannot process, read, review, and archive. As with submissions that are not in English (or fail to include an English translation), FDA is unable to read and process such submissions. FDA provides information on the electronic formats that it can read, process, review, and archive at
• Section 1105.10(a)(4) provides that FDA will refuse to accept any submission that does not contain contact information, including the applicant's name and address. If a submission omits the contact information, FDA will not be able to contact the applicant regarding the submission,
• Section 1105.10(a)(5) provides that FDA will refuse to accept a submission from a foreign applicant if the submission does not list an authorized U.S. agent, including the agent's U.S. address. FDA is requiring identification of a U.S. agent for two reasons. First, a U.S. agent is important to help CTP ensure adequate notice is provided to applicants for official Agency communications. FDA may be unable to confirm that adequate notice of Agency action or correspondence concerning premarket submissions is provided to foreign applicants as FDA cannot necessarily confirm receipt of correspondence sent internationally. Accordingly, the designation of a U.S. agent provides an official contact to the Agency who can receive the information or documentation on behalf of the applicant. Providing notice regarding that application to the U.S. agent will constitute notice to the foreign applicant. Second, FDA requires identification of a U.S. agent to assist FDA in communication with the foreign applicant and help the Agency to efficiently process applications and avoid delays. In many instances during the application review process, FDA has reached out numerous times to foreign applicants and has either been unable to speak with the applicant or unable to directly communicate questions and/or concerns. This impediment, which occurs more for foreign applicants than domestic applicants, has resulted in delays or terminations in the review of specific applications and a slowdown of the premarket application process as a whole. A U.S. agent will act as a communications link between FDA and the applicant and will facilitate timely correspondence between FDA and foreign applicants, including responding to questions concerning pending applications and, if needed, assisting FDA in scheduling meetings with the foreign applicants to resolve outstanding issues before Agency action is taken. Additionally, the identified U.S. agent will be authorized to act on behalf of the foreign applicant for that specific application.
• Section 1105.10(a)(6) provides that FDA will refuse to accept the submission if it does not include any required FDA form(s). At the time of this direct final rule, FDA has not yet issued any forms to accompany premarket submissions. In the event that FDA does issue such a form(s), the Agency will give interested parties notice and opportunity to comment on such forms in accordance with rulemaking procedures and the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
• Section 1105.10(a)(7) provides that FDA will refuse to accept a submission that does not contain the following product-identifying information (for the product that is the subject of the submission and, if applicable, for the predicate): The manufacturer of the tobacco product; the product name, including brand and subbrand; product category (
This product-specific information helps ensure that the product is within CTP's purview and enables FDA to appropriately identify the specific product that is the subject of the submission. Specifically, this information is necessary to both review the submission itself and to issue an order that appropriately identifies the tobacco product that is subject to the order. For example, an SE submission contains a comparison between the predicate and new products. If FDA does not know the exact products that are being compared, FDA will be unable to sufficiently understand and evaluate the comparison to determine whether the products are substantially equivalent. As another example, if an applicant does not specify whether its proposed new product contains a characterizing flavor, FDA will not be able to issue an order as it will not know the specific product for which the applicant is seeking an order (
• Section 1105.10(a)(8) provides that FDA will refuse to accept a submission if the applicant fails to indicate the type of submission (
• Section 1105.10(a)(9) provides that FDA will refuse to accept a submission if it does not contain a signature of a responsible official, authorized to represent the applicant who either resides in or has a place of business in the United States. A signature provides assurance to FDA that the submission is both intended by the applicant and ready for review. Responsible officials also should be aware that under 18 U.S.C. 1001, it is illegal to knowingly and willingly submit false information to the U.S. Government.
• Section 1105.10(a)(10) applies only to PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (this subsection does not apply to the subsequent abbreviated report). For these submissions, this paragraph provides that FDA will refuse to accept the submission if it does not include an environmental assessment (EA) or a valid claim of categorical exclusion. Under § 25.15(a) (21 CFR 25.15(a)), all submissions requesting FDA action require the submission of either a claim of categorical exclusion or an EA. Because an EA is required for an initial exemption request, it is not also required for an abbreviated report, and thus is not a basis for FDA to refuse to accept an abbreviated report. In addition, § 25.15(a) provides that FDA may refuse to file a submission if the included EA fails to address “the relevant environmental issues.” Because the SE and SE Exemption pathways do not include a filing stage, FDA intends to determine such adequacy at the acceptance stage for those pathways.
Section 1105.10(b) provides that if FDA does not identify a reason under paragraph (a) for refusing to accept a submission, then the Agency may accept it for processing and further review. If FDA does accept the submission, the Agency intends to send the submitter an acknowledgement letter stating that FDA has accepted the submission for processing and further review. This letter will also include a premarket submission tracking number.
Section 1105.10(c) provides that if FDA identifies a reason under paragraph (a) for refusing to accept a premarket review submission, we will notify the applicant in writing of the reason(s) and that FDA has not accepted the submission for processing and further review. However, FDA will be unable to provide this notification when the contact information is insufficient, for example, has not been provided or is not legible. If FDA refuses to accept the submission for one or more of the reasons stated in § 1105.10, the submitter may revise the submission to correct the deficiencies and resubmit it to FDA as a new submission.
This direct final rule will be effective 60 days after the comment period ends.
FDA concludes that this direct final rule contains no collection of information. Therefore, clearance by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 is not required.
We have analyzed this direct final rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. We have determined that the rule does not contain policies that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, we conclude that the rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive Order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
We have analyzed this rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13175. We have determined that the rule does not contain policies that would have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Accordingly, we conclude that the rule does not contain policies that have tribal implications as defined in the Executive Order; consequently, a tribal summary impact statement is not required.
We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
We have examined the impacts of the direct final rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). We believe that this direct final rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires us to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because this final rule establishes a procedure that FDA is responsible for implementing and has the effect of providing entities with useful feedback on the readiness of a submission, we certify that the direct final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before proposing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $146 million, using the most current (2015) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This direct final rule would not result in expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.
This rule identifies 10 significant and common deficiencies in premarket tobacco submissions that will cause FDA to refuse to accept them. Encouraging submissions that are free of the deficiencies listed in this rule does not represent a change in Agency expectations. One of the 10 deficiencies is required by statute (
Administrative practices and procedures, Tobacco, Tobacco products.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR chapter I is amended by adding part 1105 to subchapter K to read as follows:
21 U.S.C. 371(a), 387e, 387j, and 387k.
(a) FDA will refuse to accept for review, as soon as practicable, a premarket tobacco product application; modified risk tobacco product application; substantial equivalence application; or exemption request or subsequent abbreviated report for the following reasons, if applicable:
(1) The submission does not pertain to a tobacco product as defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(rr).
(2) The submission is not in English or does not contain complete English translations of any information submitted within.
(3) If submitted in an electronic format, the submission is in a format that FDA cannot process, read, review, and archive.
(4) The submission does not contain contact information, including the applicant's name and address.
(5) The submission is from a foreign applicant and does not identify an authorized U.S. agent, including the agent's name and address, for the submission.
(6) The submission does not contain a required FDA form(s).
(7) The submission does not contain the following product-identifying information: The manufacturer of the tobacco product; the product name, including the brand and subbrand; the product category and subcategory; package type and package quantity; and characterizing flavor.
(8) The type of submission is not specified.
(9) The submission does not contain a signature of a responsible official, authorized to represent the applicant who either resides in or has a place of business in the United States.
(10) For premarket tobacco applications, modified risk tobacco product applications, substantial equivalence applications, and exemption requests only: The submission does not include an environmental assessment, or a valid claim of categorical exclusion in accordance with part 25 of this chapter.
(b) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exists for refusing to accept a premarket submission, FDA may accept the submission for processing and further review. FDA will send to the submitter an acknowledgement letter stating the submission has been accepted for processing and further review and will provide the premarket submission tracking number.
(c) If FDA finds that any of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exist for refusing to accept the submission, FDA will notify the submitter in writing of the reason(s) and that the submission has not been accepted, unless insufficient contact information was provided.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulations.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the US 101 Bridge across the Umpqua River, mile 11.1, at Reedsport, OR. The deviation is necessary to accommodate updating the electric control panels on the bridge. This deviation allows the US 101 Bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position during upgrades.
This deviation is effective from 7 a.m. on August 16, 2016 until 5 p.m. on August 18, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0747] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Steven Fischer, Bridge Administrator, Thirteenth Coast Guard District; telephone 206-220-7282, email
The Oregon Department of Transportation requested that the US 101 Bridge, near Reedsport, Oregon, remain in the closed-to-navigation position to update the electric control panels. The US 101 Bridge crosses the Umpqua River at mile 11.1 and provides 36 feet of vertical clearance above mean high water when in the closed-to-navigation position. This deviation allows the US 101 Bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position and need not open for maritime traffic from 7 a.m. on August 16, 2016 until 5 p.m. August 18, 2016. The normal operating schedule of this bridge is detailed at 33 CFR 117.893(a).
Waterway usage on this part of the Umpqua River includes vessels ranging from occasional commercial tug and barge to small pleasure craft. ODOT has coordinated with local mariners in this regard, and no objections have been received. No immediate alternate route is available for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessels can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation. Vessels which do not require an opening of the bridge may continue to transit beneath the bridge during this repair period.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the designated time period. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing nine temporary safety zones for fireworks displays within the Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound (LIS) Captain of the Port (COTP) Zone. This temporary final rule is necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waters during these events. Entry into, transit through, mooring or anchoring within these regulated areas is prohibited unless authorized by COTP Sector Long Island Sound.
This rule is effective without actual notice from August 8, 2016 through September 03, 2016. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used July 30, 2016, through August 8, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, contact Petty Officer Jay TerVeen, Prevention Department, Coast Guard Sector Long Island Sound, telephone (203) 468-4446, email
This rulemaking establishes 9 safety zones for fireworks displays. Each event and its corresponding regulatory history are discussed below.
The Hoffman Wedding Fireworks Display is a first time marine event with no regulatory history.
The Pyro Engineering Inc. Fireworks Display is a first time marine event with no regulatory history.
The Sag Harbor Fire Department Fireworks Display is a recurring marine event with regulatory history. A safety zone was established for this event in 2015 via a temporary final rule entitled, “Safety Zones; Marine Events held in the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone.” This rulemaking was published on Friday, August 14, 2015 in the
The Montalbano Wedding Fireworks Display is a first time marine event with no regulatory history.
The Village of Saltaire Fireworks Display is a recurring marine event with regulatory history. A safety zone was established for this event in 2015 via a temporary final rule entitled, “Special Local Regulations and Safety Zones; Marine Events held in the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of the Port Zone.” This rulemaking was published on Monday, May 18, 2015 in the
The Baker Annual Summer Celebration is a first time marine event with no regulatory history.
The Gestal Wedding Fireworks Display is a first time marine event with no regulatory history.
The Clinton Chamber of Commerce Fireworks Display is a recurring marine event with regulatory history. A safety zone was established for this event in 2015 via a temporary final rule entitled, “Safety Zones; Marine Events held in the Sector Long Island Sound Captain of
The East Hampton Fire Department Fireworks Display is a recurring marine event with regulatory history and is cited in 33 CFR 165.151(9.1). This event has been included in this rule due to deviation from the cite date.
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing an NPRM with respect to this rule because doing so would be impracticable. The event sponsors were late in submitting the marine event applications. These late submissions did not give the Coast Guard enough time to publish a NPRM, take public comments, and issue a final rule before these events take place. Thus, waiting for a comment period to run would inhibit the Coast Guard's mission to keep the ports and waterways safe.
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), and for the same reasons stated in the preceding paragraph, the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The Captain of the Port (COTP) Long Island Sound has determined that the safety zones established by this temporary final rule are necessary to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways before, during, and after these scheduled events.
This rule establishes 9 safety zones for ten fireworks displays. The location of these safety zones are as follows:
This rule prevents vessels from entering, transiting, mooring, or anchoring within the areas specifically designated as a safety zone and restricts vessel movement around the locations of the marine events to reduce the safety risks associated with it during the period of enforcement unless authorized by the COTP or designated representative.
The Coast Guard will notify the public and local mariners of these safety zones through appropriate means, which may include, but are not limited to, publication in the
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard determined that this rulemaking is not a significant regulatory action for the following reasons: (1) The enforcement of these safety zones will be relatively short in duration; (2) persons or vessels desiring to enter these safety zones may do so with permission from the COTP LIS or a designated representative; (3) these safety zones are designed in a way to limit impacts on vessel traffic, permitting vessels to navigate in other portions of the waterway not designated
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit these regulated areas may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator. Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this proposed rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This temporary rule involves the establishment of ten temporary safety zones. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination will be available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) In accordance with the general regulations in 33 CFR 165.23, entry into or movement within these zones is prohibited unless authorized by the COTP, Long Island Sound.
(3) Any vessel given permission to deviate from these regulations must comply with all directions given to them by the COTP Sector Long Island Sound, or the designated on-scene representative.
(4) Any vessel given permission to enter or operate in these safety zones must comply with all directions given to them by the COTP Sector Long Island Sound, or the designated on-scene representative.
(5) Upon being hailed by a U.S. Coast Guard vessel by siren, radio, flashing light or other means, the operator of the vessel shall proceed as directed.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the Safety Zone for the Point to LaPointe Swim in LaPointe, WI on August 6, 2016. This action is necessary to protect participants and spectators during the Point to LaPointe Swim in Lake Superior between Bayfield, WI and LaPointe, WI. During the enforcement period, entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Duluth or his designated on-scene representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 165.943(b) will be enforced from 7:15 a.m. through 10:15 a.m. on August 6, 2016.
If you have questions about this notice of enforcement, call or email Lieutenant Junior Grade John Mack, Waterways Management Division, Coast Guard; telephone (218) 725-3818, email
The Coast Guard will enforce a safety zone for the annual Point to LaPointe Swim in 33 CFR 165.943(a)(7) from 7:15 a.m. until 10:15 p.m. August 6, 2016. This safety zone will include all waters between Bayfield, WI and Madeline Island, WI within an imaginary line created by the following coordinates: 46°48′50.97″ N., 090°48′44.28″ W., moving southeast to 46°46′44.90″ N., 090°47′33.21″ W., then moving northeast to 46°46′52.51″ N., 090°47′17.14″ W., then moving northwest to 46°49′03.23″ N., 090°48′25.12″ W. and finally running back to the starting point.
Entry into, transiting, or anchoring within the safety zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Duluth or his designated on-scene representative. The Captain of the Port's designated on-scene representative may be contacted via VHF Channel 16.
This notice is issued under authority of 33 CFR 165.943 and 5 U.S.C. 552(a). In addition to this notice in the
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for an aerobatic demonstration over the navigable waters of Lake Champlain along the shoreline in Burlington, VT. This temporary safety zone will be necessary to protect spectators and vessels from hazards associated with the air show. Entry into, transit through, mooring or anchoring within this regulated area will be prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP) Sector Northern New England (SNNE).
This rule is effective from 9 a.m. on August 12, 2014, through 6 p.m. on August 14, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions about this rulemaking, call or email Chief Marine Science Technician Chris Bains, Waterways Management Division at Coast Guard Sector Northern New England, telephone (207) 347-5003, or email
On April 19, 2016, the Coast Guard published an NPRM in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP is establishing a safety zone for the Wings over Vermont Air Show from 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. on August 12-14, 2016 on Lake Champlain, along the shoreline of Burlington, VT. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters, extending to and including the breakwater bounded by the following coordinates: 44°29′24″ N./073°14′44″ W.; 44°29′24″ N./073°14′03″ W.; 44°28′56″ N./073°14′03″ W.; 44°28′50″ N./073°13′48″ W.; 44°28′12″ N./073°13′33″ W.; 44°27′47″ N./073°14′03″ W.; 44°27′25″ N./073°14′03″ W.; 44°27′25″ N./073°14′44″ W. The duration of the zone is intended to ensure the safety of vessels and these navigable waters before, during, and after the scheduled 10 a.m. to 5 p.m. aerobatic displays. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. The regulatory text appears at the end of this document.
The purpose of this rulemaking is to ensure the safety of spectator vessels and other traffic using the navigable waters near or around the designated aeronautical box.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard has determined that this rule is not a significant regulatory action for the following reasons: The safety zone will be of limited duration and will only be in effect during a portion of three days, it will allow vessels to transit in waters directly adjacent to the safety zone, and coordinated efforts have been made to direct ferry traffic around the safety zone so not to disrupt regularly scheduled ferry service on Lake Champlain. Additionally, maritime advisories will be posted in the Local Notice to Mariners and the Coast Guard will issue a Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine Channel 16 prior to and during the entire duration of the enforcement period.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under the Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it will not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a safety zone lasting a portion of three days and will prohibit entry into without permission from the COTP. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34 of figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.1D. A preliminary environmental analysis checklist supporting this is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5 and Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Vessel operators given permission to enter or operate in the safety zone must comply with all directions given to them by the Captain of the Port or his designated representatives.
(3) Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the safety zone by contacting the COTP or the COTP's designated representative on VHF-16 or via phone at 207-767-0303.
(4) The “designated representative” is any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant, or petty officer who has been designated by the Captain of the Port to act on his behalf. The on-scene representative may be on a Coast Guard vessel, a Coast Guard Auxiliary vessel, or onboard a local or state agency vessel that is authorized to act in support of the Coast Guard. Additionally, the Coast Guard Auxiliary may be present to inform vessel operators of this regulation.
(5) Upon being hailed by a U.S. Coast Guard vessel by siren, radio, flashing light or other means, the operator of the vessel must proceed as directed.
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, Department of Education.
Final priorities.
The Assistant Secretary for Elementary and Secondary Education announces priorities under the Enhanced Assessment Instruments Grant program, also called the Enhanced Assessment Grants (EAG) program. The Assistant Secretary may use one or more of these priorities for competitions using funds from fiscal year (FY) 2016 and later years. These priorities are designed to support projects to improve States' assessment systems.
These priorities are effective September 7, 2016.
Donald Peasley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3E124, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 453-7982 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
We published a notice of proposed priorities for this program in the
Except for minor revisions, there are no differences between the proposed priorities and these final priorities.
These priorities are for use in addition to those published in the 2011 notice of final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria (76 FR 21985) (2011 NFP) and the 2013 notice of final priorities, requirement, definitions, and selection criteria for this program (78 FR 31343) (2013 NFP).
We group major issues according to subject. Generally, we do not address technical and other minor changes.
Additionally, the notice of final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria for this program published in the
Further, as with any grant, and consistent with 2 CFR 200.315, the Department reserves a royalty-free, nonexclusive, and irrevocable right to reproduce, publish, or otherwise use, and to authorize others to use, for Federal government purposes, the copyright in any work developed under a grant (or contract under a grant) in this program, and any rights of copyright to which a grantee or contractor purchases ownership with grant support.
As the Department has these tools available to require grantees to make publicly available work developed under the EAG program, we do not believe any related change to the priorities is necessary.
For example, paragraph (a)(2) of Priority 1 requires applicants to ensure the validity, reliability, and fairness of the assessments and the comparability of student data; to meet this requirement, applicants will need to address how they will evaluate the fairness of their innovative item types for all students, including English learners. The Department believes that strong assessment audits, as required under Priority 3, will ensure that tests are fully transparent to all students and their parents and will include mechanisms for soliciting feedback from all students and their parents, including English learners.
Additionally, in the past, the Department has funded several projects that targeted improving the assessment of English language proficiency (see
However, there is nothing that would preclude the submission of a proposal under these priorities that specifically addresses the assessment of English learners.
The Department agrees that assessments should provide clear and actionable information about students' knowledge and skills to stakeholders. However, consistent with the President's Testing Action plan, we believe that assessment inventories should not be focused only on whether assessments provide feedback to stakeholders, but should also ensure that tests are high quality, worth taking, time limited, fair for all students, and tied to improved student learning.
Under this priority, SEAs must:
(a) Develop, evaluate, and implement new, innovative item types for use in summative assessments in reading/language arts, mathematics, or science;
(1) Development of innovative item types under paragraph (a) may include, for example, performance tasks; simulations; or interactive, multi-step, technology-rich items that can support competency-based assessments or portfolio projects;
(2) Projects under this priority must be designed to develop new methods for collecting evidence about a student's knowledge and abilities and ensure the quality, validity, reliability, and fairness (such as by incorporating principles of universal design for learning) of the assessment and comparability of student data; or
(b) Develop new approaches to transform traditional, end-of-year summative assessment forms with many items into a series of modular assessment forms, each with fewer items than the end-of-year summative assessment.
(1) To respond to paragraph (b), applicants must develop modular assessment approaches which can be used to provide timely feedback to educators and parents as well as be combined to provide a valid, reliable, and fair summative assessment of individual students.
(c) Applicants proposing projects under either paragraph (a) or (b) must provide a dissemination plan to share lessons learned and best practices such that their projects can serve as models and resources that can be shared with other States.
Under this priority, SEAs must:
(a) Develop innovative tools that leverage technology to score assessments;
(1) To respond to paragraph (a), applicants must propose projects to reduce the time it takes to provide test results to educators, parents, and students and to make it more cost-effective to include non-multiple choice items on assessments. These innovative tools must improve automated scoring of student assessments, in particular non-multiple choice items in reading/language arts, mathematics, or science; or
(b) Propose projects, in consultation with organizations representing parents (including parents of English learners and parents of students with disabilities), students, teachers, counselors, and school administrators to address needs related to score reporting and improve the utility of information about student performance included in reports of assessment results and
(1) To respond to paragraph (b), applicants must include one or more of the following in their projects:
(i) Developing enhanced score reporting templates or digital mechanisms for communicating assessment results and their meaning (such as by providing clear and actionable next steps for parents);
(ii) Improving the assessment literacy of educators and parents to help them interpret test results and to support teaching and learning in the classroom (such as by providing training on test development and interpretation of test scores); and
(iii) Developing mechanisms for secure transmission and individual use of assessment results by teachers, students, and parents.
(c) Applicants proposing projects under either paragraph (a) or (b) must provide a dissemination plan for sharing lessons learned and best practices such that their projects can serve as models and resources that can be shared with other States.
(a) Under this priority, SEAs must—
(1) Review statewide and local assessments to ensure that each test is of high quality, maximizes instructional goals, has a clear purpose and utility, and is designed to help students demonstrate mastery of State standards;
(2) Determine whether assessments are serving their intended purpose to measure student achievement and identify gaps in students' knowledge and skills and to eliminate redundant and unnecessary testing; and
(3) Review State and LEA strategies and activities related to test preparation to make sure those strategies and activities are focused on academic content and not on test-taking skills.
(b) To meet the requirements in paragraph (a), SEAs must ensure that tests, including statewide and local assessments are—
(1) Worth taking, meaning that assessments are a component of good instruction and require students to perform the same kind of complex work they do in an effective classroom and the real world;
(2) High quality, resulting in actionable, objective information about students' knowledge and skills, including by assessing the full range of relevant State standards, eliciting complex student demonstrations or applications of knowledge, providing an accurate measure of student achievement, and producing information that can be used to measure student growth accurately over time;
(3) Time-limited, in order to balance instructional time and the need for assessments, for example, by eliminating duplicative assessments and assessments that incentivize low-quality test preparation strategies that consume valuable classroom time;
(4) Fair for all students and used to support equity in educational opportunity by ensuring that accessibility features and accommodations level the playing field so tests accurately reflect what all students, including students with disabilities and English learners, know and can do;
(5) Fully transparent to students and parents, so that States and districts can clearly explain to parents the purpose, the source of the requirement (if appropriate), and the use by teachers and schools, and provide feedback to parents and students on student performance; and
(6) Tied to improving student learning as tools in the broader work of teaching and learning.
(c) Approaches to assessment inventories under paragraph (a) must include:
(1) Review of the schedule for administration of all assessments required at the Federal, State, and local levels;
(2) Review of the purpose of, and legal authority for, administration of all assessments required at the Federal, State, and local levels; and
(3) Feedback on the assessment system from stakeholders, which could include information on how teachers, principals, other school leaders, and administrators use assessment data to inform and differentiate instruction, how much time teachers spend on assessment preparation and administration, and the assessments that administrators, teachers, principals, other school leaders, parents, and students do and do not find useful.
(d) Projects under this priority—
(1) Must be no longer than 12 months;
(2) Must include a longer-term project plan, understanding that, beginning with FY 2017, there may be dedicated Federal funds for assessment audit work as authorized under section 1202 of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA, and understanding that States and LEAs may use other Federal funds, such as the State assessment grant funds, authorized under section 1201 of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA, consistent with the purposes for those funds, to implement such plans; and
(3) Must have a budget of $200,000 or less.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
This notice does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
This notice does
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local or tribal governments or communities in a material way (also referred to as an “economically significant” rule);
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees,
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This final regulatory action is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by OMB under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
We have also reviewed this final regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity);
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing these final priorities only on a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Department believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this regulatory action does not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In accordance with both Executive orders, the Department has assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action. The potential costs are those resulting from statutory requirements and those we have determined as necessary for administering the Department's programs and activities.
The priorities included in this notice would benefit students, parents, educators, administrators, and other stakeholders by improving the quality of State assessment instruments and systems. Priority 1 will yield new, more authentic methods for collecting evidence about what students know and are able to do and provide educators with more individualized, easily integrated assessments that can support competency-based learning and other forms of personalized instruction. Priority 2 will allow for States to score non-multiple choice assessment items more quickly and at a lower cost and ensure that assessments provide timely, actionable feedback to students, parents, and educators. Priority 3 will encourage States to ensure that assessments are of high quality, maximize instructional goals, and have clear purpose and utility. Further, it will encourage States to eliminate unnecessary or redundant tests.
This document provides early notification of our specific plans and actions for this program.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of final action denying petitions for reconsideration.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is providing notice that it has responded to two petitions for reconsideration of the final rule titled “Reconsideration of Certain Startup/Shutdown Issues: National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) From Coal- and Oil-Fired Electric Utility Steam Generating Units and Standards of Performance (NSPS) for Fossil-Fuel-Fired Electric Utility, Industrial-Commercial-Institutional, and Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam Generating Units,” published in the
August 8, 2016.
Mr. Jim Eddinger, Sector Policies and Programs Division (D243-01), Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-5426; fax number: (919) 541-5450; email address:
This
Section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) indicates which Federal Courts of Appeals have venue for petitions for review of final EPA actions. This section provides, in part, that the petitions for review must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit if: (i) The agency action consists of “nationally applicable regulations promulgated, or final action taken, by the Administrator,” or (ii) such actions are locally or regionally applicable, if “such action is based on a determination of nationwide scope or effect and if in taking such action the Administrator finds and publishes that such action is based on such a determination.”
The EPA's actions denying the petitions for reconsideration are nationally applicable because the underlying rules—the “National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) From Coal- and Oil-Fired Electric Utility Steam Generating Units and Standards of Performance (NSPS) for Fossil-Fuel-Fired Electric Utility, Industrial-Commercial-Institutional, and Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam Generating Units,” are nationally applicable. Thus, any petitions for review of the EPA's decisions denying petitioners' requests for reconsideration must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit by October 7, 2016.
On February 16, 2012, pursuant to sections 111 and 112 of the CAA, the EPA published the final rules titled “National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants From Coal- and Oil-Fired Electric Utility Steam Generating Units and Standards of Performance for Fossil-Fuel-Fired Electric Utility, Industrial-Commercial-Institutional, and Small Industrial-Commercial-Institutional Steam Generating Units” (77 FR 9304). The NESHAP issued pursuant to CAA section 112 is referred to as the Mercury and Air Toxics Standards (MATS), and the NSPS rule issued pursuant to CAA section 111 is referred to as the Utility NSPS. Following promulgation of the final rules, the Administrator received petitions for reconsideration of numerous provisions of both MATS and the Utility NSPS pursuant to CAA section 307(d)(7)(B). The EPA received 20 petitions for reconsideration of the MATS rule and 3 petitions for reconsideration of the Utility NSPS.
On November 30, 2012, the EPA issued a proposed rule reconsidering certain new source limits in MATS, the requirements applicable during periods of startup and shutdown for MATS and the Utility NSPS (for the particulate matter standard only), certain definitional and monitoring issues in the Utility NSPS, and additional technical corrections to both MATS and the Utility NSPS (77 FR 71323). On April 24, 2013, the EPA issued the final action on reconsideration of the new source MATS, the definitional and monitoring provisions in the Utility NSPS, and the technical corrections in both rules (78 FR 24073). The EPA issued the final action on reconsideration of the startup and shutdown provisions in the MATS and Utility NSPS on November 19, 2014 (79 FR 68777).
The EPA received two petitions for reconsideration of the November 19, 2014, final action on reconsideration of the startup and shutdown provisions in the MATS rule. One petition was submitted by the Environmental Integrity Project, the Chesapeake Climate Action Network, and the Sierra Club, and the other was submitted by the Utility Air Regulatory Group.
CAA section 307(d)(7)(B) states that “[o]nly an objection to a rule or procedure which was raised with reasonable specificity during the period for public comment (including any public hearing) may be raised during judicial review. If the person raising an objection can demonstrate to the Administrator that it was impracticable to raise such objection within such time or if the grounds for such objection arose after the period for public comment (but within the time specified for judicial review) and if such objection is of central relevance to the outcome of the rule, the Administrator shall convene a proceeding for reconsideration of the rule and provide the same procedural rights as would have been afforded had the information been available at the time the rule was proposed.”
The EPA carefully reviewed the petitions for reconsideration and evaluated all issues raised to determine if they meet the CAA section 307(d)(7)(B) criteria for reconsideration. In separate letters to the petitioners, the EPA Administrator, Gina McCarthy, denied the petitions for reconsideration. The letters were accompanied by a separate Reconsideration Response Document that articulates in detail the rationale for the EPA's final responses. These documents are all available in the docket for this action.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Partial withdrawal of direct final rule.
Because the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) received adverse comment, we are withdrawing a portion of the May 19, 2016, direct final rule that made several minor technical amendments to the performance specifications and test procedures for hydrogen chloride (HCl) continuous emission monitoring systems (CEMS). The adverse comments related to revisions to Procedure 6 and thus the EPA is withdrawing the portion of the direct final rule that revised Procedure 6.
Effective August 8, 2016, the EPA withdraws the revisions to Procedure 6, sections 4.1.5, 4.1.5.1, 4.1.5.3, and 5.2.4.2, published at 81 FR 31515, on May 19, 2016.
Ms. Candace Sorrell, U.S. EPA, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Air Quality Assessment Division, Measurement Technology Group (Mail Code: E143-02), Research Triangle Park, NC 27711; telephone number: (919) 541-1064; fax number: (919) 541-0516; email address:
On May 19, 2016, the EPA published a direct final rule that makes minor technical amendments to the performance specifications and test procedures for hydrogen chloride (HCl) continuous emission monitoring systems (CEMS). 81 FR 31515. In the direct final rule, the EPA stated that if we received adverse comment by July 5, 2016, the EPA would publish a timely withdrawal and address the comments in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule also published on May 19, 2016 (81 FR 31577). The May 19, 2016, direct final rule noted that if the EPA received adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and, if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, the EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this instance, the EPA received an adverse comment on an amendment to the quality assurance provision in Procedure 6, related to above span requirements. 81 FR 31517. The portions of the direct final rule revising Performance Standard 18 are severable from the revisions to Procedure 6. Thus, the EPA is only withdrawing the revisions to Procedure 6. The EPA will address the comment in a subsequent final action, which will be based on the parallel proposed rule also published on May 19, 2016 (81 FR 31515). As stated in the parallel proposal, we will not institute a second comment period on this proposed action. The revisions to Performance Standard 18 in the May 19, 2016, direct final rule are not affected and will become effective on August 17, 2016, as provided in the direct final rule.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Continuous emission monitoring systems, Hydrogen chloride, Performance specifications, Test methods and procedures.
Accordingly, amendatory instruction 3 in the direct final rule published in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of flonicamid in or on hops, tree nuts (crop group 14-12 except pistachio), and pistachio. ISK Biosciences Corporation requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective August 8, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before October 7, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0561, is available at
Susan T. Lewis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0561, by one of the following methods:
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In the
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue . . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for flonicamid including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with flonicamid follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by flonicamid as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies are discussed in the final rule published in the
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the LOAEL are identified. Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for flonicamid used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III.B of the final rule published in the
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The drinking water assessment was conducted using both a parent only exposure, and a total toxic residue approach, which considers the parent compound and its major degradates of concern. Total toxic residues include 4-trifluoromethylnicotinic acid (TFNA), 4-trifluoromethylnictinamide (TFNA-AM), 6-hydro-4-trifluoromethylnicotinic acid (TFNA-OH),
Based on the Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM GW), the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of flonicamid for chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments are estimated to be 0.94 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 9.92 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 9.92 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
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i. The toxicity database for flonicamid is nearly complete. The database is missing a subchronic inhalation study. A subchronic inhalation study is required because the use of an oral POD results in MOEs which do not meet the target MOE for a waiver (MOE=1,000). The Agency notified the registrant of the Data Call-In (DCI) for the 28-day inhalation study on January 5, 2016 and is awaiting submission of the study. In the absence of a subchronic inhalation study, EPA has retained a 10X FQPA SF to assess risks for inhalation exposure scenarios. However, residential inhalation exposures are not expected.
ii. The available data base for flonicamid includes acute and subchronic neurotoxicity studies. As discussed in Unit III.A., EPA has concluded that the clinical signs observed in those studies were not the result of a neurotoxic mechanism and therefore a developmental neurotoxicity study is not required.
iii. There is no evidence that flonicamid results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The chronic dietary food exposure assessment was based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to flonicamid in drinking water. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by flonicamid.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
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Adequate enforcement methodology (FMC Method No. P-3561M, a liquid chromatography with tandem mass spectrometry (LC/MS/MS) method) is available to enforce the tolerance expression for flonicamid and its metabolites in or on plant commodities.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not proposed an MRL for flonicamid in or on pistachio. The Codex has established an MRL for flonicamid in or on hops at 20.0 ppm. These MRLs are the same as the tolerances established for flonicamid in the United States. The Codex has also established MRLs for flonicamid in or on almond and pecan at 0.01 ppm. These MRLs are different than the tolerances established for flonicamid in the United States. The U.S. cannot harmonize the Nut, tree, group 14-12, except pistachio tolerance with the Codex MRLs on pecan and almond because residue field trial data show residues well above 0.01 ppm.
The Agency is removing certain commodities from the table at § 180.613 (a) to eliminate redundancies upon the establishment of new crop group tolerances that were not identified in the petition: Cucumber at 1.5 ppm and okra at 0.40 ppm.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of flonicamid, [(N-(cyanomethyl)-4-trifluoromethyl)-3-pyridinecarboxamide) or (N-cyanomethyl-4-trifluoromethylnicotinamide (IUPAC))], in or on hops at 20.0 ppm, tree nuts (crop group 14-12) except pistachio at 0.15 ppm, and pistachio at 0.60 ppm.
Also, as a housekeeping measure, the Agency is removing three individual tolerances that are subsumed within other crop group tolerances contained in § 180.613: Cucumber at 1.5 ppm is superseded by inclusion in the established vegetable, cucurbit, group 9 tolerance at 1.5 ppm; and okra at 0.40 ppm is superseded by inclusion in the established vegetable, fruiting, group 8-10 tolerance at 0.40 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
Office of the Secretary, Interior.
Interim final rule; correction.
The Office of the Secretary of the Interior is correcting an interim final rule that appeared in the
This correction is effective August 8, 2016.
A.J. North, National Park Service, 1849 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20240, telephone: 202-513-7742.
In volume 81, number 124 of the
1. On page 41858 the RIN in the heading is corrected to read as follows: 1024-AE34
2. On page 41858, in the second column, the text following •
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the tables in amended § 64.6.
The CSB is available at
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4149.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some of these communities may adopt and submit the required documentation of legally enforceable floodplain management measures after this rule is published but prior to the actual suspension date. These communities will not be suspended and will continue to be eligible for the sale of NFIP flood insurance. A notice withdrawing the suspension of such communities will be published in the
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document
This rule contains information collection requirements that has not been approved by the Office of Management and Budget. The Federal Communications Commission will publish a document in the
Peter Shroyer, Attorney Advisor, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, (202) 418-1575 or
This is a summary of the Commission's Report and Order in GN Docket No. 15-206, adopted on June 24, 2016, and released on July 12, 2016. The full text of this document is available for public inspection during regular business hours in the FCC Reference Center, Room CY-A257, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554, or online at
1. This Report and Order serves the public interest and promotes the national and economic security of the nation by requiring submarine cable licensees to report to the Federal Communications Commission (“Commission” or “FCC”) when submarine (or “undersea”) cable outages occur and communications over those facilities are disrupted. By moving—as we do today—from an ad hoc outage reporting system to one that will ensure the Commission has a dependable, holistic view of the operating status of submarine cables, we will be in a better position to examine the resiliency posture of submarine cable infrastructure and to ensure the reliability of the critical national security and economic communications that transit it. In this Report and Order, we:
• Require submarine cable licensees to report to the Commission service outages, defined as “a failure or significant degradation in the performance of a licensee's cable service regardless of whether the traffic can be re-routed to an alternate path.”
• Specify that an outage requires reporting when there is:
○ An outage, including those caused by planned maintenance, of a portion of a submarine cable system between submarine line terminal equipment (SLTE) at one end of the system and SLTE at another end of the system for more than 30 minutes; or
○ The failure or significant degradation of any fiber pair, including losses due to terminal equipment issues, on a cable segment for four hours or more, regardless of the number of fiber pairs that comprise the total capacity of the cable segment.
• Define the reporting requirements to include a Notification within eight hours (to become four hours after three years) of the time of determining that a reportable outage has occurred; an Interim Report within 24 hours of receiving a Plan of Work (relating to repairs); and a Final Report within seven days of completing repair.
• Clarify the content required in the reports to allow for the fact that not all requested information may be known when the reports are due.
• Treat the information provided through this reporting system as confidential, consistent with section 4.2 of our rules for existing outage reporting.
• Provide that these requirements will become effective six months after OMB approval of these rules to provide ample time for implementation.
2.
3. We find that a mandatory outage reporting regime is necessary to provide the Commission with greater visibility into the availability and health of these networks to allow it to better track and analyze submarine cable resiliency, and suggest or take appropriate actions when the data so indicate,
4. We recognize that redundancies (
5. Reporting Obligations. To effectively achieve undersea cable infrastructure assurance, consistent with part 4 traditionally, we will define reportable outages without regard to a licensee's or provider's re-routing of the traffic carried over a given cable, or some other measure requiring a complete loss of service. Accordingly, we define “outage” as “a failure or significant degradation in the performance of a licensee's cable service regardless of whether the traffic can be re-routed to an alternate path.”
6. Though there are redundant configurations in some, but not all submarine cable infrastructure, we adopt our proposal to require a reporting obligation regardless of whether traffic is re-routed, and we use the broader term “path” to avoid analysis of whether the traffic was specifically re-routed to another cable. For the purpose of promoting and advancing the national security and public safety interests served by our
7. We also modify our proposed definition to limit reportable events to failures or “significant” degradation in the performance of a communications provider's cable. As explained in the section below on outage reporting triggers, we are adjusting our metrics to require the reporting of only significantly degraded service and not all incidents of degraded service, which will better align our outage reporting rules for submarine cables with our current part 4 outage reporting requirements. Further, our adjustment to include “significant” degradation is consistent with our long established outage reporting requirement that an outage includes events where even “some traffic might be getting through during a period of massive disruption” (
8. Reportable Outage Metrics. We adopt a modified outage reporting metric to capture significant degradations and to simplify reporting in general. Under the originally proposed metric, events causing performance failures would not be reportable until all connectivity was lost. We therefore modify both proposed metrics, addressing the connectivity and capacity metrics to account for performance failures and events resulting from planned maintenance.
9. Connectivity is an important metric but we are persuaded to modify it to exclude reporting that could be burdensome and of limited value. Accordingly, we adopt a modified version of the connectivity metric proposed by the Submarine Cable Coalition and require reporting when there is an outage, including those caused by planned maintenance, of a portion of a submarine cable system between SLTE at one end of the system and SLTE at another end of the system for more than 30 minutes. We are persuaded to make this modification in order to limit the burdens caused by reporting routine terminal equipment issues that can be corrected rapidly. While the Submarine Cable Coalition does not specifically define the term “SLTE” in its comments, it is commonly understood to be part of the “dry plant” comprised of “signal processing equipment and optical multiplexing equipment that allows transmission over the submarine cable.” Thus, we focus on issues resulting in outages that fall between the SLTE due to problems with the “wet plant,” including the submarine cable, repeaters, optical equalizer, and branching unit. We believe 30 minutes, not three hours, is an appropriate timeframe to trigger a reporting obligation for such failures because damage or repair to facilities between the SLTE likely indicates a long-term problem that will not be cleared quickly, so there is no benefit to further delaying reporting.
10. Further, to simplify our original capacity metric (
11. Covered Entities. We adopt a requirement that all licensees, regardless of when the license was obtained, must comply with license conditions, including the outage reporting rules we now adopt. We agree with Docomo that there is no public policy reason to exempt submarine cable licensees from the obligation to report. All licensees are integral components in the provision of submarine cable infrastructure, and the Commission could not meet its goal of acquiring a comprehensive viewpoint of the operational status of all submarine cables if certain licensees were exempted. We believe with the flexibilities discussed below, pre-2002 licensees would be unlikely to have increased burden compared to post-2002 licensees. Most pre-2002 cables operate as a consortium. Consortium cables generally use construction and maintenance agreements (C&MA), which can be amended to incorporate new regulatory requirements as necessary. To the extent that extra flexibility or time is required to revise the C&MAs to ensure compliance with the outage reporting requirements adopted herein, we address that below.
12. In light of concerns raised regarding the operations of consortiums or that of a cable with multiple licensees, we choose to permit, but not require, a Responsible Licensee designation. We have made this decision to add flexibility to the Responsible Licensee system due to the concerns expressed about how our rules could be complicated given the nature of consortiums, including their size, domestic/foreign composition, potential language barriers, and time zone challenges, as well as how compliance review will add to costs for reporting. Consortium members are in the best position to determine which member is best placed to comply and meet the reporting obligation for the consortium, such as a U.S. landing operator or a Network Operations Center (NOC) operator. We agree with Verizon that under this approach, licensees and non-licensees, including those operating with pre-2002 licensees, are free to negotiate and allocate the underlying risk and financial responsibility. Nonetheless, should a Responsible Licensee be designated, it must register with and keep the Commission updated as to its Responsible Licensee status pursuant to our rules. We will hold the Responsible Licensee responsible for reporting compliance once designated and registered with the Commission.
13. If no Responsible Licensee is designated with the Commission or in effect at the time of an outage, each party experiencing a reportable outage can be held responsible for reporting and liable should the Commission need to pursue enforcement action. This is a departure from our proposal to hold all consortium members jointly and severally liable when a cable experiences an outage, in order to provide additional flexibility to covered providers. In this way we limit enforcement liability to those licensees experiencing an outage.
14. Content of Notification. We require licensees to provide a preliminary notification in NORS (all reports described herein are to be filed in NORS in a system designed specifically for submarine cable outage reporting) once it has been determined that an undersea cable outage has
15. We acknowledge that the root cause of an outage many times cannot be determined until after repair work is done, and only seldom is it known at the time of an outage. Accordingly, in their notifications licensees must provide a brief description of the event and need only include information on the root cause if known at the time. If the root cause is unknown, licensees should specify as such and provide further information where available in Interim or Final Reports.
16. With respect to the location of an outage, licensees must provide the name of the nearest cable landing station if known, as well as its best estimate of the location of the event, expressed in either, nautical miles and the direction from the nearest cable landing station, or in approximate latitude and longitude coordinates. We have added “the direction from” the nearest cable landing station (
17. With respect to the duration of the event, licensees must provide their best estimate in the notification, but supplement with further information as it becomes available in their Interim or Final Reports. As with root cause and location information, our aim in including this information in the notification is to provide preliminary situational awareness in the immediate wake of an outage, which can be supplemented or corrected through later reports.
18. Timeframe for Notification. Again, we recognize that the determination of root cause, approximate location, and duration of an outage typically takes much longer than 120 minutes after the determination that an outage has occurred. Moreover, we agree with commenters that licensees' primary objective in the wake of an outage should be to restore service, and that reporting obligations should be subordinate to that objective. As discussed above, we modify our original notification proposal to require licensees to provide root cause information, approximate location, and estimated duration of an outage only when available. The notification process is intended to be preliminary in nature and simply provide notice of, not necessarily detail about, an undersea cable outage, for purposes of situational awareness.
19. We also emphasize that the timeframe for reporting starts upon “the time of
20. We continue to believe that licensees can report within the proposed two-hour timeframe from determining that an event is reportable, particularly as they need not provide substantive detail on the root cause, location, or duration of the outage if unavailable at that time; we believe that quick notification is an essential element in achieving the Commission's goal of developing comprehensive situational awareness of submarine cable infrastructure. We additionally note our view that many of the submarine cable operators have the technical capabilities to near-instantly detect outages and are standard within the industry.
21. That said, given the support on the record for a longer notification timeframe and AT&T's statements that it will need time to implement these requirements with its consortium partners, we will initially, for a three year period from the effective date of these rules, require licensees to notify the Commission of an outage within eight hours of determining that an event is reportable. Three years after the effective date of these rules, licensees will be responsible for filing notifications within four hours of determining that an event is reportable. After three years, the Commission will open a proceeding to revisit. We find that allowing four hours from the time of determining an event is reportable, not when the event necessarily becomes reportable, is feasible, particularly as we have allowed for licensees to include approximations and best estimates in their filings. This phased-in approach will give licensees ample time to hone their reporting structure while still achieving the aforementioned goal of prompt situational awareness. A further elongated timeframe does not as adequately serve the Commission's goal of acquiring rapid situational awareness of submarine cable infrastructure.
22. Content of Interim Report. We adopt modified Interim Report content requirements to address concerns that a root cause may not always be known in this adjusted timeframe. We require licensees to report on all of the elements described above in the original proposal, observing that many of these elements (name of the reporting licensee; the name of the cable and a list of all licensees for that cable; the date and time of onset of the outage; and a contact name, contact email address, and contact telephone number by which the Commission's technical staff may contact the reporting entity) will be auto-filled from the Notification and thus will likely require no additional work on the part of the reporting entity barring administrative changes. These fields remain important for basic factual references and we see no reason to exclude them from the Interim Report. We will also continue to require a brief description of the event, including root cause; nearest cable landing station; approximate location of the event
23. Timeframe for Interim Report. We adopt a modified reporting timeframe for the Interim Report. Accordingly, we will require licensees to file an Interim Report, if required, within 24 hours of receipt of the Plan of Work, which we believe strikes the appropriate balance between allowing licensees sufficient time for necessary coordination to amply inform the Commission with useful and timely information.
24. Final Report. In the
25. The two components of the Final Report that differ from the Notification and the Interim Report are (1) the duration of the event and (2) the restoration method. The
26. Contents of Final Report. As with both the Notification and Interim Reports, we understand the commenters' concerns that particular information may not be known at the time the repairs have been completed given the complexities of undersea cable repairs. We also take into account that submarine cable licensees often work together in consortiums, and that although one member may know a certain element of the Final Report, the information may not make its way to other consortium members who are also experiencing an outage or disruption on the same cable. For these reasons, we adopt our proposals for the content reporting obligations for the Final Report, but with a modification for the “brief description of the event.” Here, in a Final Report, a licensee will need to provide the root cause in its brief description of the event only if known at the time of filing. Both Verizon and AT&T noted that in some cases, completion of the root cause analysis may not be known in the proposed timeframe, and in some instances, never be determined. Nonetheless, the Commission expects providers to conduct reasonable due diligence to ascertain the root cause of an event. We have also again added “the direction from” the nearest cable landing station (
27. After the submission of the Final Report, particular details of an event may become known or change as research is done and repairs are completed. In order for the Commission to obtain the most accurate information, previous Final Reports (and only Final Reports) must be supplemented after the Final Report if that information materially alters the previously reported material. Amendments to Final Reports should be made in good faith.
28. The parallels of the Final Report content to our existing part 4 rules, in conjunction with the NORS platform, create an efficient, streamlined and user-friendly system when implementing these new procedures. Furthermore, we believe that the contents of the Final Report would be easily compiled, as NORS interface automatically populates the fields where information required duplicates that of the Notification and Interim Report, so the reporting licensee would not have to reenter data unless it is to amend or edit a previously-supplied response. We note that the Commission recently adopted a
29. Timeframe for Final Report. We adopt our proposal to require licensees to file a Final Report seven calendar days after the repair is completed. There is substantial record support for requiring submission of this critical information within a week following the repair completion. The Commission has a responsibility to ensure the reliability and security of the nation's communications infrastructure, and obtaining timely information on communications service disruptions is essential to that goal.
30. We are not persuaded by the proposal to extend the deadline to a minimum of 45 days. We find that a majority of the information that must be included in a Final Report is readily available following the repair of the submarine cable. As mentioned above, the Commission is aware of the unique nature of submarine cable repairs, which is why the Final Report shall be amended, when necessary. Therefore, we decline to adopt Latam's proposal of a 45-day minimum for a Final Report deadline. The seven day requirement we adopt today provides the Commission critical network outage information within a reasonable time.
31. Good Faith Requirements in Section 4.11. We adopt substantially the same wording codified in Section 4.11 of our rules for the submarine cable outage reporting system. We are cognizant of the complexities and uncertainties that may arise with outages resulting from a damaged cable. However, the good faith and attestation requirements will not be violated if the authorized personnel submitting a report does in fact submit all of the information known to them, in good faith, at the time of reporting. Also, as made clear above, licensees have the duty to amend their Final Reports, in good faith, if the licensee later learns that the reported information is inaccurate. Accordingly, consistent with support from the record, we will require a good faith requirement and an attestation consistent with Section 4.11.
32. Confidentiality of Submarine Outage Reports and Data. We adopt our proposal that undersea cable reporting information is to be treated as presumptively confidential consistent with Section 4.2 of the Commission's rules governing outage reporting. Maintaining the confidentiality of submarine cable outage data is critical to safeguarding weaknesses or damage to our national communications infrastructure that could potentially facilitate enemies targeting our nation's key resources. The Communications Act of 1934 charges the Commission with promoting “the safety of life and property through the use of wire and radio communication.” (47 U.S.C. 151). Releasing detailed and sensitive information regarding submarine cable outages and disruptions would contradict this core mission of the Commission. We will, however, share information with DHS as is customary with our part 4 outage reports. This model is consistent with the Commission's past precedent for outage reporting and we do not see a need to depart here from that practice solely for submarine cable outage reporting.
33. We also note that the Commission recently adopted a
34. Implementation. These rules will become effective six (6) months after OMB approval of this information collection, representing a balance between industry's needs to adequately prepare for these reporting requirements and the Commission's need to obtain timely situational awareness of the operational status of the nation's submarine cable infrastructure. As the incident in the CNMI has shown, the Commission cannot continue to wait for licensees to take advantage of the current voluntary approach. Yet, we find that a six month extension is warranted to allow those providers who did not previously report such outages to develop processes for doing so. We also recognize that consortium members may need additional time to determine reporting structures. We do not believe extending the rule implementation date beyond six months from OMB approval is warranted because of the significant adjustments to the proposed rules to add in flexibility and clarify responsibilities.
35. Interagency Coordination. In the
36. Potential Costs of Compliance. The record makes clear that there are additional costs, beyond the
37. As an initial matter, we note that many of the proposals that commenters claimed would inflate the costs have been revised or clarified in an effort to reduce burdens in response to the record. For example, we limited the reporting on issues related to terminal-equipment to those events lasting four hours, and thus presumably eliminated many of the “mundane” events from the reporting requirement, thereby reducing compliance costs. We extended the proposed reporting timeframes for the Notification and the Interim Report while clarifying that reports are due within a set period from when the licensee determines that the event is reportable, not from when the event itself becomes reportable. In this way, we alleviate the concerns of those that claim they would have to update their entire network monitoring system in order to comply. We also allowed for best estimate reporting on many of the fields that commenters indicated would be costly to identify with precision on a timely basis. We have taken the Responsible Licensee system, which was explicitly designed to mitigate burdens by having only one licensee per submarine cable report on behalf of other licensees on that cable, and allowed licensees not to use that system if they find it burdensome.
38. Thus, while we acknowledge that $8,000 figure may not represent the total cost of compliance and that upward adjustments should be made, the record on industry costs does not speak with specificity or even generalities to the requirements we have enacted given our record-based modifications. Accordingly, we instead recognize the OMB-approved 2014 UCIS collection of $305,000. We note that the costs associated with UCIS also included costs beyond those which we now require. UCIS asked licensees to provide four categories of information for each submarine cable with a cable landing in the United States: (1) A terrestrial route map; (2) a location spreadsheet; (3) a general description of restoration plans in the event of an incident; and (4) system restoration messages. As we described in the
39. The costs of UCIS associated with the three “static” categories represented $183,000 of the $305,000 total, with the system restoration messages accounting for $122,000 in reporting costs annually for the industry. This $122,000 annual cost estimate was derived from use of two conservative assumptions. First, that a single set of outage reports would involve as many as 40 hours, rather than
40. Public Interest Benefits. We continue to find that the relative concentration of submarine cables serving as conduits for traffic to and from the United States render the Commission's situational awareness and ability to facilitate communications alternatives not only beneficial, but vital to the public interest. These submarine cables are the primary conduit for connectivity between the contiguous United States and Alaska, Hawaii, American Samoa, Guam, the Northern Marianas, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands. They also carry 95 percent of U.S. international communications, with the potential for significant impacts on national security and the economy. In some circumstances, the public welfare cost of outage of such communications could be extremely high, as lives and tremendous financial interests are at stake. It is precisely because there is a very substantial public interest in the submarine cables that the Commission has authority to license the use of submarine cables and to condition the use of those lines. Simply put, there is too much riding on these cables for the Commission to be less than fully aware about the status of these crucial lines of communication.
41. We find that the anticipated benefits of the rules that we adopt today clearly outweigh the costs to providers, even with the adjustments made above. When the Commission adopted its original part 4 rules, it observed that previous outage reports required of wireline carriers enabled it to initiate investigations and, when appropriate, take corrective action with respect to certain carriers. The Commission explained that, “[e]nsuring that the United States has reliable communications requires us to obtain information about communications disruptions and their causes to prevent future disruptions that could otherwise occur from similar causes, as well as to facilitate the use of alternative communications facilities while the disrupted facilities are being restored.” This situation was borne out when the Commission was hampered in its ability to respond to the CNMI outage due to delayed situational awareness. Based on the record, we conclude that it is entirely appropriate and in the public interest for this agency to systematize, coordinate, review and analyze outage reports from various sources across the industry because this will help ensure that best practices will be identified and shared and recurring problems can be eliminated or mitigated. The Commission's improved situational awareness will help ensure that licensees are consistently and appropriately acting to ensure the availability of submarine cable service, which has direct benefits to public safety and the national defense.
42. Legal Authority. We find that the Commission in fact possesses ample authority to regulate reporting as to the restoration and repair of undersea cables and effects on the related facilities licensed by the Commission. NASCA appears to misunderstand our recitation and reliance on legal authority. The Commission is instituting a uniform and tailored system of accountability designed to ensure that the licenses granted to submarine cable licensees are used to supply “just and reasonable . . . service in the operation and use of cables so licensed[,]” and we have explained why our role is critical here where the communications facilities at issue bear on national security and the economy and why the existing voluntary regime fails to adequately inform that role. In other words, the reporting requirements are designed to inform our understanding of whether the facilities that the Commission has licensed are working. Although our intent is to defer to licensees to institute the necessary repairs to their facilities and consider them to have adequate incentive to do so such that our direct involvement seems unwarranted at this time, it could be that enhancing our situational awareness will have the added benefit of improving licensees' broader understanding of outage events. The main goal of our requirements, however, is to help ensure that submarine cable service will be reasonably available.
43. As explained above, availability of service is essential given that submarine cables carry at least 95 percent of international communications traffic in and out of the United States and are the primary means of connectivity for numerous U.S. states and territories. As a result, submarine cable connectivity plays a vital role in the nation's security and economy. Accordingly, we conclude that that the Cable Landing License Act and Executive Order provide the Commission with ample authority to adopt the outage reporting requirements and compliance obligations as proposed in the
44. Procedural Matters. Regulatory Flexibility Act. Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended, the Commission's Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) relating to this Report and Order.
45. Paperwork Reduction Act. This document contains new information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. It will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under Section 3507(d) of the PRA. OMB, the general public, and other Federal agencies are invited to comment on the new or modified information collection requirements contained in this proceeding.
46. In addition, we note that pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
47. Congressional Review Act. The Commission will send a copy of this Report & Order to Congress and the Government Accountability Office
48. Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis. We adopt measures to improve the utility and effectiveness of the current scheme for receiving information on submarine cable outages, with the ultimate goal of enhancing both our overall understanding of submarine cable system status and our knowledge regarding specific outages disruptions and restoration efforts. At present, the Commission receives information regarding the operational status of submarine cables on an ad hoc and voluntary basis. We adopt the rules herein with the goal of improving the efficiency and utility of the reporting process for outages and repairs of the submarine cable network, which is a vital feature of the national and international communications infrastructure.
49. The operational status of submarine cables carries commercial, economic, social, financial, and national security implications. It is vital that the United States maintain a robust and secure communications network that can continue to provide service in spite of significant equipment or system failure, and submarine cables are an integral part of that network.
50. Description and Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rules Will Apply. The rules adopted in the Report and Order apply only to entities licensed to construct and operate submarine cables under the Cable Landing License Act. The Report and Order requires only submarine cable licensees affected by a service outage to file outage reports with the Commission describing the outage and restoration. The entities that the Report and Order requires to file reports are a mixture of both large and small entities. The Commission has not developed a small business size standard directed specifically toward these entities. However, as described below, these entities fit into larger categories for which the SBA has developed size standards that provide these facilities or services.
51.
52.
53. In the 2009 annual traffic and revenue report, 38 facilities-based and facilities-resale carriers reported approximately $5.8 billion in revenues from international message telephone service (IMTS). Of these, three reported IMTS revenues of more than $1 billion, eight reported IMTS revenues of more than $100 million, 10 reported IMTS revenues of more than $50 million, 20 reported IMTS revenues of more than $10 million, 25 reported IMTS revenues of more than $5 million, and 30 reported IMTS revenues of more than $1 million. Based solely on their IMTS revenues the majority of these carriers would be considered non-small entities under the SBA definition.
54. The 2009 traffic and revenue report also shows that 45 facilities-based and facilities-resale carriers (including 14 who also reported IMTS revenues) reported $683 million for international private line services; of which four reported private line revenues of more than $50 million, 12 reported private line revenues of more than $10 million, 30 reported revenues of more than $1 million, 34 reported private line revenues of more than $500,000; 41 reported revenues of more than $100,000, while 2 reported revenues of less than $10,000.
55. The 2009 traffic and revenue report also shows that seven carriers (including one that reported both IMTS and private line revenues, one that reported IMTS revenues and three that reported private line revenues) reported $50 million for international miscellaneous services, of which two reported miscellaneous services revenues of more than $1 million, one reported revenues of more than $500,000, two reported revenues of more than $200,000, one reported revenues of more than $50,000, while one reported revenues of less than $20,000. Based on its miscellaneous services revenue, this one carrier with revenues of less than $20,000 would be considered a small business under the SBA definition. Based on their private line revenues, most of these entities would be considered non-small entities under the SBA definition.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61. Description of Projecting Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements. The Report and Order adopts outage reporting requirements for all submarine cable licensees. An outage occurs when a licensee experiences an event in which (1) An outage related to damages or replacements of a portion of submarine cable system between the submarine line terminal equipment (SLTE) at one end of the system and the SLTE at another end of the system for more than 30 minutes; or (2) there is a loss of any fiber pair, including losses due to terminal equipment, on a cable segment for four hours or more, regardless of the number of fiber pairs that comprise the total capacity of the cable segment. After a triggering event, the reporting requirement consists of three filings, the Notification, an Interim Report for unplanned outages, and the Final Report, which provide the Commission important data to improve the Commission's situational awareness on the operational status of submarine cables. The production and transmission of these reports to the Commission may require the use of professionals such as attorneys, engineers, or accountants. However, we conclude that such reports will be based on information already within the reporting entity's possession, and therefore these should be considered routine reports.
62. Steps Taken to Minimize Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities, and Significant Alternatives Considered. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business, alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage or the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.”
63. Ordering Clauses. Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED pursuant to sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), 4(o), of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), (j), and (o), and pursuant to the Cable Landing License Act of 1921, 47 U.S.C. 34-39 and 3 U.S.C. 301 that this Report and Order in GN Docket No. 15-206 IS ADOPTED.
64. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that parts 1 and 4 of the Commission's rules ARE AMENDED.
65. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that this Report and Order SHALL BE effective six months after approval of the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
66. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Commission's Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center, SHALL SEND a copy of this Report and Order, including the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.
Telecommunications, Communications equipment, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR parts 1 and 4 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 155, 157, 225, 303(r), 309, 1403, 1404, 1451, and 1452.
(g) * * *
(15) Licensees shall file submarine cable outage reports as required in 47 CFR part 4.
(n)(1) With the exception of submarine cable outage reports, and subject to the availability of electronic forms, all applications and notifications described in this section must be filed electronically through the International Bureau Filing System (IBFS). A list of forms that are available for electronic filing can be found on the IBFS homepage. For information on electronic filing requirements, see part 1, subpart Y, and the IBFS homepage at
(2) Submarine cable outage reports must be filed as set forth in part 4 of this Title.
(o)
47 U.S.C. 34-39, 151, 154, 155, 157, 201, 251, 307, 316, 615a-1, 1302(a), and 1302(b); 5 U.S.C. 301, and Executive Order no. 10530.
(a) In this part, the Federal Communications Commission is setting
(b) The definitions, criteria, and reporting requirements set forth in Sections 4.2 through 4.13 of this part are applicable to the communications providers defined in Section 4.3 of this part.
(c) The definitions, criteria, and reporting requirements set forth in Section 4.15 of this part are applicable to submarine cable providers who have been licensed pursuant to 47 U.S.C. 34-39.
(a)
(2) An “outage” requires reporting under this section when there is:
(i) An outage, including those caused by planned maintenance, of a portion of submarine cable system between submarine line terminal equipment (SLTE) at one end of the system and SLTE at another end of the system for more than 30 minutes; or
(ii) The loss of any fiber pair, including losses due to terminal equipment, on a cable segment for four hours or more, regardless of the number of fiber pairs that comprise the total capacity of the cable segment.
(b)
(i) For a submarine cable that is jointly owned and operated by multiple licensees, the licensees of that cable may designate a Responsible Licensee that files outage reports under this rule on behalf of all licensees on the affected cable.
(ii) Licensees opting to designate a Responsible Licensee must jointly notify the Chief of the Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau's Cybersecurity and Communications Reliability Division of this decision in writing. Such notification shall include the name of the submarine cable at issue; and contact information for all licensees on the submarine cable at issue, including the Responsible Licensee.
(2) Notification, Interim, and Final Outage Reports shall be submitted by a person authorized by the licensee to submit such reports to the Commission.
(i) The person submitting the Final Outage Report to the Commission shall also be authorized by the licensee to legally bind the provider to the truth, completeness, and accuracy of the information contained in the report. Each Final report shall be attested by the person submitting the report that he/she has read the report prior to submitting it and on oath deposes and states that the information contained therein is true, correct, and accurate to the best of his/her knowledge and belief and that the licensee on oath deposes and states that this information is true, complete, and accurate.
(ii) The Notification is due within 480 minutes (8 hours) of the time of determining that an event is reportable for the first three years from the effective date of these rules. After three years from the effective date of the rules, Notifications shall be due within 240 minutes (4 hours). The Notification shall be submitted in good faith. Licensees shall provide: The name of the reporting entity; the name of the cable and a list of all licensees for that cable; the date and time of onset of the outage, if known (for planned events, this is the estimated start time/date of the repair); a brief description of the event, including root cause if known; nearest cable landing station; best estimate of approximate location of the event, if known (expressed in either nautical miles and the direction from the nearest cable landing station or in latitude and longitude coordinates); best estimate of the duration of the event, if known; whether the event is planned or unplanned; and a contact name, contact email address, and contact telephone number by which the Commission's technical staff may contact the reporting entity.
(iii) The Interim Report is due within 24 hours of receiving the Plan of Work. The Interim Report shall be submitted in good faith. Licensees shall provide: The name of the reporting entity; the name of the cable; a brief description of the event, including root cause, if known; the date and time of onset of the outage; nearest cable landing station; approximate location of the event (expressed in either nautical miles and the direction from the nearest cable landing station or in latitude and longitude); best estimate of when the cable is scheduled to be repaired, including approximate arrival time and date of the repair ship, if applicable; a contact name, contact email address, and contact telephone number by which the Commission's technical staff may contact the reporting entity. The Interim report is not required where the licensee has reported in the Notification that the outage at issue is a planned outage.
(iv) The Final Outage Report is due seven (7) days after the repair is completed. The Final Outage Report shall be submitted in food faith. Licensees shall provide: The name of the reporting entity; the name of the cable; whether the outage was planned or unplanned; the date and time of onset of the outage (for planned events, this is the start date and time of the repair); a brief description of the event, including the root cause if known; nearest cable landing station; approximate location of the event (expressed either expressed in either nautical miles and the direction from the nearest cable landing station or in latitude and longitude coordinates); duration of the event, as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; the restoration method; and a contact name, contact email address, and contact telephone number by which the Commission's technical staff may contact the reporting entity. If any required information is unknown at the time of submission of the Final Report but later becomes known, licensees should amend their report to reflect this knowledge. The Final Report must also contain an attestation as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
(v) The Notification, Interim Report, and Final Outage Reports are to be submitted electronically to the Commission. “Submitted electronically” refers to submission of the information using Commission-approved Web-based outage report templates. If there are technical impediments to using the Web-based system during the Notification stage, then a written Notification to the Commission by email to the Chief, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau is permitted; such Notification shall contain the information required. Electronic filing shall be effectuated in accordance with procedures that are specified by the Commission by public notice.
(c)
Office of the Secretary of Transportation (OST), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
This final rule amends the U.S. Department of Transportation's (DOT) regulation to conform to recent legislation that changed the definition of the term “service agent” in the DOT drug and alcohol testing regulations. The final rule also revises the definition of “service agent” to include all entities that provide services for DOT mandated drug and alcohol programs.
This final rule is effective on August 8, 2016.
Patrice M. Kelly, Acting Director, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE.; Washington, DC 20590; telephone: (202) 366-3784; email:
Section 553(b)(3)(B) of title 5, U.S. Code, authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency for “good cause” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” In this instance, the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) required the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) to create a database for records pertaining to drug and alcohol program violations by commercial motor vehicle operators. As part of that legislative mandate, MAP-21 included a definition of the term “service agent” that is inconsistent with the current definition of “service agent” in DOT's drug and alcohol testing regulation at 49 CFR 40.3. This final rule amends the DOT regulation so that it is consistent with MAP-21 and clarifies the scope of the definition of service agent, as the term applies throughout the DOT Agencies that utilize 49 CFR part 40, including FMCSA. Since the definition of “service agent” found in 49 CFR part 40 is now inconsistent with MAP-21, DOT finds that notice and public comment to this final rule, as well as any delay in its effective date, is unnecessary as the change is already effective under the statute.
This rulemaking is promulgated pursuant to the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act (OTETA) of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-143, 105 Stat. 952, (Oct. 28, 1991)) and MAP-21 (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 802, (July 6, 2012).
Historically, service agents have played an integral role in many DOT-regulated employers' drug and alcohol testing programs. Many employers use their service agents as advisors and rely on their services to maintain compliance with DOT regulations. Service agents who are focused on compliance typically increase efficiencies and contribute to the safety of the traveling public.
MAP-21 is a transportation reauthorization bill signed into law on July 6, 2012. In response to section 32402 of the bill, codified at 49 U.S.C. 30106a, FMCSA issued a proposed rule, 79 FR 9703 (Feb. 20, 2014), to create the Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse (Clearinghouse) under 49 CFR part 382. The Clearinghouse would be a database containing drug and alcohol test program violations by the holders of commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) subject to 49 CFR part 382. The proposal contained, among other things, a provision that would permit motor carrier employers to designate service agents to perform various tasks on their behalf within the Clearinghouse (
For more than sixteen years, the term “service agent” has been defined as, “any person or entity, other than an employee of the employer, who provides services specified under this part to employers and/or employees in connection with DOT drug and alcohol testing requirements. This includes, but is not limited to, collectors, BATs [Breath Alcohol Technicians] and STTs [Saliva Testing Technicians], laboratories, MROs [Medical Review Officers], substance abuse professionals, and C/TPAs [Consortia/Third Party Administrators]. To act as service agents, persons and organizations must meet the qualifications set forth in applicable sections of this part. Service agents are not employers for purposes of this part.” (49 CFR 40.3)
In addition, over the years, the service agent industry has grown and it provides many services to DOT-regulated employers. As technology has grown, service agents have branched into providing electronic services. As the sophistication of the drug and alcohol testing industry has grown, we have seen service agents offer auditing services to DOT-regulated employers. Given the fact that additional services have been offered to employers related to DOT's drug and alcohol program, the types of providers that fall into the definition of service agent have evolved.
In this final rule, we are deleting from the current definition of “service agent” the phrases “specified under this part” and “set forth in applicable sections of this part” (both of which refer to 49 CFR part 40). We have also inserted the language “if applicable” to the definition because we believe that it is important to continue to note that if a DOT regulation requires specific qualifications, then the service agent must comply. In so doing, we are conforming to MAP-21 and clarifying that the expanding range of drug and alcohol program services has been included in this definition.
Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several analyses. First, Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct that each Federal agency shall propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354), as codified in 5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866 and 13563, as well as the Department's Regulatory Policies and Procedures. This rule deletes a term used in the current definition of “service agent” in 49 CFR part 40. Its provision conforms to MAP-21 and includes entities that provide additional services with respect to DOT mandated drug and alcohol testing. This rule does not propose any major policy changes or impose significant new costs or burdens.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354, “RFA”), 5 U.S.C. 601
Agencies must perform a review to determine whether a rule will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. If the agency determines that it will, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis as described in the RFA. However, if an agency determines that a rule is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, section 605(b) provides that the head of the agency may so certify, and a regulatory flexibility analysis will not be required. The certification must include a statement providing the factual basis for this determination, and the reasoning should be clear.
Service agents provide useful services that employers may use in order to maintain compliance with DOT regulations. This rule creates no additional burdens for service agents or the DOT-regulated employers that utilize their services. DOT has long interpreted its regulation in part 40 to encompass all services “in connection with DOT drug and alcohol testing requirements” performed by service agents. See 49 CFR 40.3. Thus, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 605(b), I certify that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The PRA requires that the DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. The rule does not create an impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens.
The revised definition of “service agent” does not have any impact with respect to the Privacy Act.
The agency has analyzed the environmental impacts of this proposed action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
An electronic copy of a rulemaking document may be obtained by using the Internet—
1. Search regulations.gov (
2. Search the Office of the Federal Register's Web page (
Administrative practice and procedure, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Department of Transportation amends part 40 of Title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 101, 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 45101
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS implements an accountability measure (AM) for the recreational sector for the other jacks complex (lesser amberjack, almaco jack, and banded rudderfish) in the South Atlantic for the 2016 fishing year through this temporary rule. NMFS projects that recreational landings of the other jacks complex will reach their combined recreational annual catch limit (ACL) by August 9, 2016. Therefore, NMFS closes the recreational sector for this complex on August 9, 2016, through the remainder of the fishing year in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) of the South Atlantic. This closure is necessary to protect the lesser amberjack, almaco jack, and banded rudderfish resources.
This rule is effective 12:01 a.m., local time, August 9, 2016, until 12:01 a.m., local time, January 1, 2017.
Mary Vara, NMFS Southeast Regional Office, telephone: 727-824-5305, email:
The snapper-grouper fishery of the South Atlantic includes lesser amberjack, almaco jack, and banded rudderfish, and is managed under the Fishery Management Plan for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic Region (FMP). The FMP was prepared by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council and is implemented by NMFS under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) by regulations at 50 CFR part 622.
The recreational ACL for the other jacks complex is 267,799 lb (121,472 kg), round weight. Under 50 CFR 622.193(l)(2)(i), NMFS is required to close the recreational sector for the other jacks complex when the recreational ACL has been reached, or is projected to be reached, by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register. NMFS has determined that the recreational sector for this complex is projected to reach its ACL by August 9, 2016. Therefore, this temporary rule implements an AM to close the recreational sector for the other jacks complex in the South Atlantic, effective 12:01 a.m., local time, August 9, 2016, until January 1, 2017, the start of the next fishing year.
During the recreational closure, the bag and possession limits for the fish in the other jacks complex in or from the South Atlantic EEZ are zero. Additionally, NMFS closed the commercial sector for the other jacks complex effective on August 9, 2016, upon reaching the commercial ACL. Therefore, on August 9, 2016, no commercial or recreational harvest of fish in the other jacks complex from the South Atlantic EEZ is permitted for the remainder of 2016. The commercial sector for the other jacks complex re-opens on January 1, 2017.
The Regional Administrator, Southeast Region, NMFS, has determined this temporary rule is necessary for the conservation and management of the fish in the other jacks complex, a component of the South Atlantic snapper-grouper fishery, and is consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable laws.
This action is taken under 50 CFR 622.193(l)(2)(i) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
These measures are exempt from the procedures of the Regulatory Flexibility Act because the temporary rule is issued without opportunity for prior notice and public comment.
This action responds to the best scientific information available. The Assistant Administrator for NOAA Fisheries (AA) finds that the need to immediately implement this action to close the recreational sector for the other jacks complex constitutes good cause to waive the requirements to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), as such procedures are unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. Such procedures are unnecessary because the rule implementing the AM itself has been subject to notice and comment, and all that remains is to notify the public of the closure. Such procedures are contrary to the public interest because of the need to immediately implement this action to protect the other jacks complex. Prior notice and opportunity for public comment would require time and would potentially allow the recreational sector to exceed its ACL.
For the aforementioned reasons, the AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effectiveness of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; inseason adjustment.
We announce the reduction of the commercial possession limit for northern red hake for the remainder of the 2016 fishing year. This action is required to prevent the northern red hake total allowable landing limit from being exceeded. This announcement informs the public that the northern red hake possession limit is reduced.
Effective August 8, 2016, through April 30, 2017.
Reid Lichwell, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-675-9112.
The small-mesh multispecies fishery is managed primarily through a series of exemptions from the Northeast Multispecies Fisheries Management Plan. Regulations governing the red hake fishery are found at 50 CFR part 648. The regulations describing the process to adjust inseason commercial possession limits of northern red hake are described in § 648.86(d)(4) and (5). These regulations require the Regional Administrator to reduce the northern red hake possession limit from 3,000 lb (1,361 kg) to 1,500
These measures were imposed because the annual catch limits (ACL) for northern red hake were exceeded for the 2012 and 2013 fishing years, and northern red hake was experiencing overfishing. To reduce the risk of continued overfishing on the stock and to better constrain catch to the ACL, we implemented this possession limit reduction trigger.
Based on commercial landings data reported through July 23, 2016, the northern red hake fishery is projected to reach 45 percent of the TAL on July 31, 2016. Based on this projection, reducing the commercial northern red hake possession limit to 1,500 lb (680 kg) is required to prevent the TAL from being exceeded. Upon the effective date of this action, no person may possess on board or land more than 1,500 lb (680 kg) of northern red hake, per trip for the remainder of the fishing year.
This action is taken under 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule.
NMFS is reallocating the projected unused amounts of the Aleut Corporation pollock directed fishing allowance from the Aleutian Islands subarea to the Bering Sea subarea. This action is necessary to provide opportunity for harvest of the 2016 total allowable catch of pollock, consistent with the goals and objectives of the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), August 8, 2016, through 2400 hrs, A.l.t., December 31, 2016.
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
In the Aleutian Islands subarea, the portion of the 2016 pollock total allowable catch (TAC) allocated to the Aleut Corporation directed fishing allowance (DFA) is 9,700 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (81 FR 14773, March 18, 2016), and as adjusted by reallocations (81 FR 16097, March 25, 2016).
As of August 1, 2016, the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS, (Regional Administrator) has determined that 8,000 mt of the Aleut Corporation pollock DFA in the Aleutian Islands subarea will not be harvested. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(a)(5)(iii)(B)(
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the reallocation of Aleutian Island subarea pollock. Since the pollock fishery is currently underway, it is important to immediately inform the industry as to the final Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands pollock allocations. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery; allow the industry to plan for the fishing season and avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet as well as processors; and provide opportunity to harvest increased seasonal pollock allocations while value is optimum. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as August 1, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to amend Class E en route domestic airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface near the Blue Mesa VHF Omni-Directional Radio Range/Distance Measuring Equipment (VOR/DME), Blue Mesa, CO. The FAA has transitioned to a more accurate method of measuring, publishing, and charting airspace areas. This transition has revealed some small areas of uncharted uncontrolled airspace. The FAA found modification of these areas of uncontrolled airspace necessary to ensure the safety of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations and the efficient use of navigable airspace, including point-to-point off-airway clearances, and aircraft vectoring services.
Comments must be received on or before September 22, 2016.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2016-7043; Airspace Docket No. 16-ANM-6, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.9, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would amend Class E airspace at Blue Mesa VOR/DME, Blue Mesa, CO.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2016-7043/Airspace Docket No. 15-ANM-6.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
Persons interested in being placed on a mailing list for future NPRMs should contact the FAA's Office of Rulemaking, (202) 267-9677, for a copy of Advisory Circular No. 11-2A, Notice of Proposed Rulemaking Distribution System, which describes the application procedure.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.9Z, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015. FAA Order 7400.9Z is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) Part 71 by modifying Class E En route domestic airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface in the vicinity of the Blue Mesa VOR/DME, Blue Mesa, CO. One small airspace area northwest, near Montrose, CO, and one small airspace area southeast, near Trinidad, CO, both excluded from the current boundary, would be added for the safety and management of IFR operations, specifically point-to-point, en route operations outside of the established airway structure, and Air Traffic Control vectoring services.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6006 of FAA Order 7400.9Z, dated August 6, 2015, and effective September 15, 2015, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 1,200 feet above the surface within an area bounded by Lat. 35°39′30″ N., long. 107°25′27″ W.; to Lat. 36°14′38″ N., long. 107°40′25″ W.; to Lat. 37°16′00″ N., long. 108°22′00″ W.; to Lat. 37°58′51″ N., long. 108°22′29″ W.; to Lat. 39°01′00″ N., long. 107°47′00″ W.; to Lat. 39°07′40″ N., long. 107°13′47″ W.; to Lat. 39°11′48″ N., long. 106°29′16″ W.; to Lat. 39°40′23″ N., long. 103°29′02″ W.; to Lat. 36°59′57″ N., long. 104°18′04″ W.; to Lat. 36°17′00″ N., long. 104°14′00″ W.; to Lat. 36°12′53″ N., long. 104°56′21″ W.; to Lat. 36°13′34″ N., long. 105°54′42″ W.; thence to the point of beginning.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of petition; reopening of comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is reopening the comment period for the notice of filing that appeared in the
FDA is reopening the comment period on the notice of filing of a food additive petition published on May 20, 2016 (81 FR 31877). Submit either electronic or written comments by September 19, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Kelly Randolph, Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (HFS-265), Food and Drug Administration, 5001 Campus Dr., College Park, MD 20740-3835, 240-402-1188.
In the
We have received a request for a 60-day extension of the comment period for the petition. The request conveyed concern that the 60-day comment period does not allow sufficient time to collect and provide data and information and develop a meaningful and thoughtful response to the assertions set forth in the petition.
FDA has considered the request; however, because the request was submitted too late to allow us to extend the comment period, we are, instead, reopening the comment period until September 19, 2016. We believe that re-opening the comment period until that date allows adequate time for interested persons to submit comments without significantly delaying our review.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Proposed rule.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is issuing a proposed rule describing when FDA would refuse to accept a tobacco product submission (or application) because the application has not met a minimum threshold for acceptability for FDA review. Under the proposed rule, FDA would refuse to accept a tobacco product submission, for example, that is not in English, does not pertain to a tobacco product, or does not identify the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the proposed rule by October 24, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
Annette Marthaler or Paul Hart, Office of Regulations, Center for Tobacco Products (CTP), Food and Drug Administration, Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 877-287-1373,
FDA is proposing this refuse to accept rule as a companion to the direct final rule issued elsewhere in this issue of the
The proposed rule explains when FDA would refuse to accept a premarket submission, including PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (including subsequent abbreviated reports). The proposal is based on FDA's experience in reviewing these submissions. Under the proposed rule, FDA would refuse to accept a premarket submission that: (1) Does not pertain to a tobacco product; (2) is not in English (or does not include a complete translation); (3) is submitted in an electronic format that FDA cannot process, read, review, or archive; (4) does not include the applicant's contact information; (5) is from a foreign applicant and does not include the name and contact information of an authorized U.S. agent (authorized to act on behalf of the applicant for the submission); (6) does not include a
This proposed rule is a companion to the direct final rule with the same codified language published in the final rules section of this issue of the
An adverse comment is defined as a comment that explains why the rule would be inappropriate, including challenges to the rule's underlying premise or approach, or would be ineffective or unacceptable without a change. In determining whether an adverse comment is significant and warrants terminating a direct final rulemaking, we will consider whether the comment raises an issue serious enough to warrant a substantive response in a notice and comment process. Comments that are frivolous, insubstantial, or outside the scope of the rule will not be considered significant or adverse under this procedure. A comment recommending a rule change in addition to the rule would not be considered a significant adverse comment unless the comment provides a reasonable explanation for why the rule would be ineffective without additional change. In addition, if a significant adverse comment applies to an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule, and that provision can be severed from the remainder of the rule, we may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not subjects of significant adverse comment.
If no significant adverse comment is received in response to the direct final rule, no further action will be taken related to this proposed rule. Instead, we will publish a confirmation document, before the effective date of the direct final rule, confirming that the direct final rule will go into effect on December 21, 2016. In the
FDA is proposing this refuse to accept rule as a means of efficiently handling submissions that do not meet a threshold of acceptability for FDA review,
The proposed rule identifies deficiencies that FDA has seen across types of premarket submissions and would result in FDA refusing to accept the submission. This proposed rule applies to all tobacco product applications; we note that there are additional deficiencies that are not covered in this rule that may arise for specific types of premarket submissions that would also result in FDA's refusal to accept that specific type of premarket submission (
FDA's refusal to accept a tobacco product submission would not preclude an applicant from resubmitting a new submission that addresses the deficiencies. In addition, acceptance of a submission would not mean that FDA has determined that the submission is complete, but rather only that the submission has met the basic, minimum threshold for acceptance. Substantive review of the submission would begin once FDA accepts the submission, and for submissions with filing requirements (
Section 701(a) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 371(a)) provides FDA with the authority to issue regulations for the efficient enforcement of the FD&C Act. This proposed rule would allow FDA to more efficiently use our resources to review premarket submissions under sections 905, 910, and 911 of the FD&C Act. FDA has processed and reviewed many submissions since the enactment of the Tobacco Control Act, and submissions with the deficiencies identified in the proposed rule have been repeatedly identified by FDA as reflecting submissions that are incomplete and not prepared for further review.
We are proposing to add part 1105 (21 CFR part 1105) to title 21, specifically § 1105.10. Proposed § 1105.10(a) would provide that FDA would refuse to accept, as soon as practicable, PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (including subsequent abbreviated reports) for the reasons listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(10), if applicable.
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(1) states that FDA would refuse to accept a submission that does not pertain to a tobacco product. This provision would
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(2) states that FDA would refuse to accept a submission that is not in the English language or does not contain complete English translations of any information included with the submission. FDA is unable to read and process such submissions.
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(3) provides that FDA would refuse to accept a submission if it is provided in an electronic format that FDA cannot process, read, review, and archive. As with submissions that are not in English (or fail to include an English translation), FDA is unable to read and process such a submission. FDA provides information on the electronic formats that it can read, process, review, and archive at
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(4) provides that FDA would refuse to accept any submission that does not contain contact information, including the applicant's name and address. If a submission omits the contact information, FDA would not be able to contact the applicant regarding the submission,
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(5) provides that FDA would refuse to accept a submission from a foreign applicant if it does not list an authorized U.S. agent for the submission, including the agent's U.S. address. FDA is proposing to require identification of a U.S. agent for two reasons: First, a U.S. agent is important to help CTP ensure adequate notice is provided to applicants for official Agency communications. FDA may be unable to confirm that adequate notice of Agency action or correspondence concerning premarket submissions is provided to foreign applicants as FDA cannot necessarily confirm receipt of correspondence sent internationally. Accordingly, the designation of a U.S. agent provides an official contact to the Agency who can receive the information or documentation on behalf of the applicant. Providing notice regarding that application to the U.S. agent would constitute notice to the foreign applicant. Second, FDA requires identification of a U.S. agent to assist FDA in communication with the foreign applicant and help the Agency to efficiently process applications and avoid delays. In many instances during the application review process, FDA has reached out numerous times to foreign applicants and has either been unable to speak with the applicant or unable to directly communicate questions and/or concerns. This impediment, which occurs more for foreign applicants than domestic applicants, has resulted in delays or terminations in the review of specific applications and a slowdown of the premarket application process as a whole. A U.S. agent would act as a communications link between FDA and the applicant and would facilitate timely correspondence between FDA and foreign applicants, including responding to questions concerning pending applications and, if needed, assisting FDA in scheduling meetings with the foreign applicants to resolve outstanding issues before Agency action is taken. Additionally, the identified U.S. agent would be authorized to act on behalf of the foreign applicant for that specific application.
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(6) provides that FDA would refuse to accept the submission if it does not include any required FDA form(s). At the time of this proposed rule, FDA has not yet issued any forms to accompany premarket submissions. In the event that FDA does issue such a form(s), the Agency will give interested parties notice and opportunity to comment on such forms in accordance with rulemaking procedures and the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(7) provides that FDA would refuse to accept a submission that does not contain the following product-identifying information (for the product that is the subject of the submission and, if applicable, for the predicate): The manufacturer of the tobacco product; the product name, including brand and subbrand; product category (
This product-specific information helps ensure that the product is within CTP's purview and enables FDA to appropriately identify the specific product that is the subject of the submission. Specifically, this information is necessary to both review the submission itself and to issue an order that appropriately identifies the tobacco product that is subject to the order. For example, an SE submission contains a comparison between the predicate and new products. If FDA does not know the exact products that are being compared, FDA would be unable to sufficiently understand and evaluate the comparison to determine whether the products are substantially equivalent. As another example, if an applicant does not specify whether its proposed new product contains a characterizing flavor, FDA would not be able to issue an order as it will not know the specific product for which the applicant is seeking an order (
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(8) provides that FDA would refuse to accept a submission if the applicant fails to indicate the type of submission (
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(9) provides that FDA would refuse to accept a submission if it does not contain a signature of a responsible official, authorized to represent the applicant who either resides in or has a place of business in the United States. A signature provides assurance to FDA that the submission is both intended by the applicant and ready for review. Responsible officials also should be aware that under 18 U.S.C. 1001, it is illegal to knowingly and willingly submit false information to the U.S. Government.
• Proposed § 1105.10(a)(10) would apply only to PMTAs, MRTPAs, SE applications, and exemption requests (this subsection does not apply to the subsequent abbreviated report). For these submissions, this proposed paragraph provides that FDA would refuse to accept the submission if it does not include an environmental assessment (EA) or a valid claim of categorical exclusion prepared in accordance with 21 CFR 25.40. Under § 25.15(a) (21 CFR 25.15), all submissions requesting FDA action require the submission of either a claim of categorical exclusion or an EA. Because an EA is required for an initial exemption request, it is not also required for an abbreviated report, and thus would not be a basis for FDA to refuse to accept an abbreviated report. In addition, § 25.15(a) provides that FDA may refuse to file a submission if the included EA fails to address “the relevant environmental issues.” Because the SE and SE Exemption pathways do not include a filing stage, FDA intends to determine such adequacy at the acceptance stage for those pathways.
Proposed § 1105.10(b) provides that if FDA does not identify a reason under paragraph (a) for refusing to accept a premarket review submission, then the Agency may accept it for processing and further review. If FDA does accept the submission, the Agency intends to send the submitter an acknowledgement letter stating that FDA has accepted the submission for processing and further review. This letter would also include a premarket submission tracking number.
Proposed § 1105.10(c) provides that if FDA identifies a reason under paragraph (a) for refusing to accept a premarket review submission, we would notify the applicant in writing of the reason(s) and that FDA has not accepted the submission for processing and further review. However, FDA would not be able to provide this information when
FDA tentatively concludes that this proposed rule contains no collection of information. Therefore, clearance by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 is not required.
We have analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13132. We have determined that the proposed rule does not contain policies that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Accordingly, we conclude that the rule does not contain policies that have federalism implications as defined in the Executive Order and, consequently, a federalism summary impact statement is not required.
We have analyzed this proposed rule in accordance with the principles set forth in Executive Order 13175. We have determined that the rule does not contain policies that would have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Accordingly, we conclude that the rule does not contain policies that have tribal implications as defined in the Executive Order; consequently, a tribal summary impact statement is not required.
We have determined under 21 CFR 25.30(h) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
We have examined the impacts of the proposed rule under Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601-612), and the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct us to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity). We believe that this proposed rule is not a significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires us to analyze regulatory options that would minimize any significant impact of a rule on small entities. Because this proposed rule would establish a procedure that FDA would be responsible for implementing and would have the effect of providing all entities useful feedback on the readiness of a submission, we certify that the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (section 202(a)) requires us to prepare a written statement, which includes an assessment of anticipated costs and benefits, before proposing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $146 million, using the most current (2015) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. This proposed rule would not result in expenditure in any year that meets or exceeds this amount.
This proposed rule identifies 10 significant and common deficiencies in premarket tobacco submissions that will cause FDA to refuse to accept them. Encouraging submissions that are free of the deficiencies listed in this rule does not represent a change in Agency expectations. One of the 10 deficiencies is required by statute (
Administrative practices and procedures, Tobacco, Tobacco products.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, 21 CFR chapter I is proposed to be amended by adding part 1105.
21 U.S.C. 371(a), 387e, 387j, and 387k.
(a) FDA will refuse to accept for review, as soon as practicable, a premarket tobacco product application, modified risk tobacco product application, substantial equivalence application, or exemption request or subsequent abbreviated report for the following reasons, if applicable:
(1) The submission does not pertain to a tobacco product as defined in 21 U.S.C. 321(rr).
(2) The submission is not in English or does not contain complete English translations of any information submitted within.
(3) If submitted in an electronic format, the submission is in a format that FDA cannot process, read, review, and archive.
(4) The submission does not contain contact information, including the applicant's name and address.
(5) The submission is from a foreign applicant and does not identify an authorized U.S. agent, including the agent's name and address, for the submission.
(6) The submission does not contain a required FDA form(s).
(7) The submission does not contain the following product-identifying information: The manufacturer of the tobacco product; the product name, including the brand and subbrand; the product category and subcategory; package type and package quantity; and characterizing flavor.
(8) The type of submission is not specified.
(9) The submission does not contain a signature of a responsible official, authorized to represent the applicant, who either resides in or has a place of business in the United States.
(10) For premarket tobacco applications, modified risk tobacco product applications, substantial equivalence applications, and exemption requests only: The submission does not include an environmental assessment, or a valid claim of categorical exclusion in accordance with part 25 of this chapter.
(b) If FDA finds that none of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exists for refusing to accept a premarket submission, FDA may accept the submission for processing and further review. FDA will send to the submitter an acknowledgement letter stating the submission has been accepted for processing and further review and will provide the premarket submission tracking number.
(c) If FDA finds that any of the reasons in paragraph (a) of this section exist for refusing to accept the submission, FDA will notify the submitter in writing of the reason(s) and that the submission has not been accepted, unless insufficient contact information was provided.
Office of Justice Programs, Justice.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Office of Justice Programs (“OJP”) proposes to update the implementing regulation for the Formula Grant Program authorized by Title II, Part B, of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (“the Act” or “JJDPA”). The purpose of the Formula Grant Program is to provide formula grant awards to states to support juvenile delinquency prevention programs and to improve their juvenile justice systems. The proposed rule would supersede the existing Formula Grant Program regulations to reflect changes in the 2002 JJDPA reauthorization as well as policy changes to the Formula Grant Program.
Comments must be received by no later than 11:59 p.m., E.T., on October 7, 2016.
You may view an electronic version of this proposed rule at
Mr. Gregory Thompson, Senior Advisor, Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention, at 202-307-5911.
Please note that all comments received are considered part of the public record and made available for public inspection online at
If you wish to submit personal identifying information (such as your name, address, etc.) as part of your comment, but do not wish for it to be posted online, you must include the phrase “PERSONAL IDENTIFYING INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also locate all the personal identifying information you do not want posted online in the first paragraph of your comment and identify what information you want redacted.
If you wish to submit confidential business information as part of your comment but do not wish it to be posted online, you must include the phrase “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also prominently identify confidential business information to be redacted within the comment. If a comment has so much confidential business information that it cannot be effectively redacted, all or part of that comment may not be posted on
Personal identifying information identified and located as set forth above will be placed in the agency's public docket file, but not posted online. Confidential business information identified and located as set forth above will not be placed in the agency's public docket file, nor will it be posted online. If you wish to inspect the agency's public docket file in person by appointment, please see the “
Title II, Part B, of the JJDPA authorizes the Administrator of the Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention (OJJDP) to make formula grant awards to participating states to assist them in planning, establishing, operating, coordinating, and evaluating projects directly or through grants and contracts with public and private agencies for the development of more effective education, training, research, prevention, diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs in the area of juvenile delinquency and programs to improve the juvenile justice system. OJP proposes this rule pursuant to the rulemaking authority granted to the Administrator under 42 U.S.C. 5611. The proposed rule would codify and update the existing regulation promulgated at 60 FR 21852 on May 31, 1995, and amended at 61 FR 65132 on December 10, 1996 (the “current regulation”), to reflect statutory changes included in the 2002 reauthorization of the JJDPA as well as changes in OJP policy regarding administration of the commonly-named Part B Formula Grant Program (Formula Grant Program).
As discussed more fully in section IV, below, the proposed rule contains the following major provisions that differ from the current regulation: (1) Establishing new substantial compliance standards in place of the current
In addition, the proposed rule would eliminate portions of the current regulation that (1) are repetitive of statutory text, including definitions that are included in the Act at 42 U.S.C. 5603; (2) contain references to statutory, regulatory and other requirements that apply to all OJP grantees and that are found elsewhere (such as those described in the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, at 2 CFR part 200); (3) were rendered obsolete by the 2002 JJDPA reauthorization; (4) are recommendations, rather than requirements for compliance and will be included in OJJDP policy guidance; and (5) are included in the Formula Grant Program solicitation, and that need not be included in the rule.
Although it is difficult to quantify the financial cost that states would incur under the proposed rule, some of the proposed provisions would require states to dedicate additional time and resources to collecting, verifying, and reporting additional compliance monitoring data, using the on-line data collection tool that OJJDP will provide. In addition, the proposed new compliance standards may result in more states' being found out of compliance than would be out of compliance under the current standards. OJP discusses below some of the estimated costs to states of the proposed rule.
Under the proposed new compliance standards for DSO, separation, and jail removal, forty-eight states, based on 2013 compliance data, would be out of compliance with one or more of these requirements. As a result, pursuant to the requirements of the JJDPA, these states would be required to expend 50% of their reduced allocation to achieve compliance with the core requirement(s) for which a determination of non-compliance was made. At least in the short term, less funding would be available to pass through to local entities, to provide programming and services for at-risk youth, and
OJJDP administers the Formula Grant Program, pursuant to Title II, part B, of the JJDPA, authorized at 42 U.S.C. 5631,
These formula grant dollars fund programs that serve over 170,000 at-risk youth per year and allow appropriate youth to stay in their communities rather than face secure detention. If detaining the youth is necessary, these funds can be used to ensure they are held pursuant to the core requirements of the JJDPA.
The Formula Grant Program provides funds for services to youth across the juvenile justice continuum. Examples include diversion programs, delinquency and gang prevention programs, community-based programs and services, after-school programs, alternative-to-detention programs, programs to eliminate racial and ethnic disparities at all decision and contact points in the juvenile justice system, the provision of indigent defense services, and aftercare and reentry assistance. As noted in OJJDP's Annual Report, during FY 2014, the latest year for which data is available, a total of 173,340 youth participants were served in various programs funded by formula grants. Of that number, 86% of program youth exhibited a desired change in the targeted behavior in the short term. Targeted behaviors and risk factors included antisocial behavior, truancy, substance use, low self-esteem, problematic family relationships, and other areas that need to be addressed to ensure positive youth development. Measures of long-term outcomes also showed a positive trend—88% of program youth exhibited a desired change in the targeted behavior 6-12 months after leaving or completing the funded program. A significant number of grantees funded through formula grants report that they are implementing
Unlike the many OJP grant programs that are discretionary in character, the Formula Grant program is a mandatory statutory formula program—that is, a statutory program, in the nature of an entitlement, where the amount of each grant, and the identity of each recipient, typically is determined using a statutorily-prescribed formula based (in this instance) on the relative number of individuals under age eighteen in the recipient jurisdiction's population, pursuant to the Act at 42 U.S.C. 5632(2). Under title II, part B, of the Act, OJJDP is
States receiving formula grant funding from OJJDP are obligated to follow the requirements in the Act. Among other provisions, the Act includes four “core requirements,” referred to as such because the Formula Grant Program funding that states receive is reduced by 20% for each of these requirements with which OJJDP determines the state to be non-compliant. These core requirements are deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO) (42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(11)), separation (42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(12)), jail removal (42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(13)), and disproportionate minority contact (DMC) (42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(22)).
The DSO requirement provides that status offenders and non-offenders who are aliens or are alleged to be dependent, neglected, or abused, shall not be placed in secure detention or confinement. Status offenses are offenses that would not be a crime if committed by an adult,
The separation requirement of the JJDPA provides that juveniles shall not be detained or confined such that they have sight or sound contact with adult inmates.
The jail removal requirement of the JJDPA provides that (with limited exceptions) states may not detain or confine juveniles in adult jails or lockups.
Finally, the DMC requirement provides that states must work to address, with the goal of reducing, the disproportionate number of juveniles within the juvenile justice system who are members of minority groups.
The process used for establishing the compliance determination measure for the DSO requirement under the current regulation was to collect data regarding the number of instances of non-compliance with the DSO requirement for eight states in 1979 (two from each of the four Census Bureau regions), and data regarding the number of instances of non-compliance with the jail removal requirement for twelve states in 1986 (three from each of the four Census Bureau regions). The states selected were those with the lowest rates of non-compliance per 100,000 juvenile population that also had been identified as having an adequate system of monitoring for compliance. A detailed description of the process for developing the standard measures of compliance with the DSO requirement was published on January 9, 1981 (46 FR 2566), and the process for developing the standard measures for compliance with the jail removal requirement was published on November 2, 1988 (53 FR 44370).
Although compliance determinations for the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements are based on specific numerical standards, this has not been the case for the DMC requirement. The JJDPA provides that states must “address” disproportionate minority contact, but does not provide specific guidance as to how states' compliance with the DMC requirement should be determined, other than to prohibit the use of numerical standards or quotas. In April 2013, the OJJDP Administrator determined that OJJDP's method for determining states' compliance with DMC warranted revisions to ensure that compliance determinations were based on a standard that was more consistent and objective. This proposed rule, along with the new DMC assessment tool, will result in more consistent and objective DMC compliance determinations.
OJP's current Formula Grant Program regulation was published on May 31, 1995, and amended on December 31, 1996. In 2002, the JJDPA was reauthorized. This proposed rule, when finalized, will supersede the regulation published in December 1996, reflecting the statutory changes enacted in the 2002 reauthorization to bring the regulation in line with the JJDPA. The proposed rule also reflects OJP policy changes, as outlined in section IV of this preamble.
OJP invites and welcomes comments from states and territories, organizations, and individuals involved in youth development, juvenile justice, and delinquency prevention, as well as any other members of the interested public, on any aspects of this proposed rulemaking. All comments will be considered prior to publication of a final rule.
OJP proposes a significant change to the standards for determining compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements. The standards for the DSO and separation requirements were established in 1981, and the jail removal compliance standard was established in 1988. These standards are discussed in more detail below. In general, these standards provide that, depending upon a state's rate of non-compliance with the DSO, separation, or jail removal requirements, the state may still be determined to be in compliance if it demonstrates that it meets specific criteria, such as having recently enacted state laws that can reasonably be expected to prevent future instances of non-compliance and an acceptable plan to prevent future instances of non-compliance. These standards can be found in the current regulation at section 31.303(f)(6)(i) and 46 FR 2566 (January 9, 1981) (DSO), 31.303(f)(6)(ii) (separation), and 31.303(f)(6)(iii) and 46 FR 44370 (November 2, 1988) (jail removal).
The principle of the
The proposed new standards would create numerical thresholds above which states are out of compliance, thereby allowing for more consistent, objective determinations of states' compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements.
OJP is proposing new terminology that would refer to a “substantial compliance” test for measurement of compliance with these standards. Such a test would continue to encourage the elimination of all instances of non-
Accordingly, in order to ensure that the core requirements continue to protect the safety and well-being of juveniles and are reflective of states' significant progress since the enactment of the JJDPA, OJP is proposing to update the statistical measures of compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements. The new compliance standard for the jail removal requirement would follow the same methodology originally used to develop the standard for compliance with that requirement. To align with the jail removal compliance determination standard, OJP is proposing to follow a similar methodological process to establish compliance determination standards for the separation and DSO core requirements. As with jail removal, OJP will use data from three states from each of the four Census Bureau regions. The states selected will be those with the lowest non-compliance rates per 100,000 juvenile population, and which have also been determined to have an adequate compliance monitoring system.
Although the methodology originally used to establish the compliance standards for DSO in 1979 involved using data from two states in each of the four Census Bureau Regions, OJJDP is proposing to align with the methodology that was used to establish the jail removal compliance standards in 1986, and which is also being used to establish the separation compliance standard, which uses data from three states in each of the Census Bureau regions.
Following this methodology, and based on the compliance data from calendar year 2013, OJJDP is proposing that the substantial compliance rate for DSO be at or below 0.24. Using the lowest rates for three states in each of the Census Bureau regions would produce the following rates of compliance: Region I—Maine (0), New York (0), Pennsylvania (0.39); Region 2—Nebraska (0), Michigan (0.12), Iowa (0.69); Region Region 3—Delaware (0), Florida (0.51), Louisiana (0.59); and, Region 4—Alaska (0), Nevada (0.30), and Hawaii (0.33). The average rate for these twelve states would be 0.24 per 100,000 juvenile population.
Following the same process, using three states from each Census Bureau region for the jail removal requirement, the results would be as follows: Region 1—Maine (0), New York (0), Massachusetts (0.54); Region 2—North Dakota (0), South Dakota (0), Nebraska (0); Region 3—District of Columbia (0), Texas (0.07), Georgia (0.19); and, Region 4—Utah (0.23), Nevada (0.30) and Hawaii (0.33). The average rate for these twelve states would be 0.12 per 100,000 juvenile population.
Applying the same methodology used for the DSO and jail removal requirements to the separation requirement (something not done previously), the result would be as follows: Region 1—Connecticut (0), Maine (0), New Hampshire (0); Region 2—Illinois (0), Indiana (0), Iowa (0); Region 3—Alabama (0), Kentucky (0), Louisiana (0); and, Region 4—Arizona (0), California (0) and Colorado (0). Using this methodology, to be in compliance with the separation requirement, states would be required to report zero instances of non-compliance.
Unlike the current
OJP welcomes comments on the methodology for setting the proposed standards for determining states' compliance with these three core requirements, which reflect one possible approach for determining compliance. OJP encourages suggestions for other possible methods for determining compliance with the core requirements.
Section 31.7(4)(i) of the proposed rule would require that states provide compliance monitoring data for each federal fiscal year reporting period, for 100% of the facilities within the state that are required to report on compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements. This would revise the standard under the current regulation that provides that states can submit a minimum of six months of data, and allows states to project, or annualize, that data to cover a twelve-month period. The new reporting requirement that states provide for 100% of facilities that are required to report will ensure that OJJDP can make a more accurate determination of whether each state has achieved compliance with these three core requirements. States' 2013 Compliance Monitoring Reports include the percentage of facilities reporting data from the following five categories: Juvenile detention facilities, juvenile correctional facilities, adult jails, adult lockups, and collocated facilities. Thirty-three states and territories report data from 100% of all five categories of facilities; eleven states report data from at least 95% of each of the five categories of facilities; and eleven states and territories report data from less than 95% in at least one of the five categories of facilities. States may request that the Administrator grant a waiver, for good cause, of the provision that 100% of facilities must report.
In 1988, the Act was amended to require that all states participating in the Formula Grant Program address disproportionate minority confinement in their state plans. Specifically, the amendment required that if the proportion of a given group of minority youth detained or confined in secure detention facilities, secure correctional facilities, jails, and lockups exceeded the proportion that group represented in the general population, the state was required to develop and implement plans to reduce the disproportionate representation.
The 1992 amendments to the JJDPA elevated disproportionate minority confinement to a core requirement, tying 25 percent of each state's Formula Grant allocation for that year to compliance with that requirement. The 2002 reauthorization of the JJDPA modified the DMC requirement to require all states that participate in the Formula Grant Program address “juvenile delinquency prevention efforts and system improvement efforts designed to reduce, without establishing or requiring numerical standards or quotas, the disproportionate number of juvenile members of minority groups who come into contact with the juvenile justice system.” This change broadened the requirement from disproportionate minority “confinement” to disproportionate minority “contact” (DMC), to address the overrepresentation of minority youth at all stages of the juvenile justice system, not merely when such youth are subject to confinement. (In addition, in the 2002 reauthorization, the reduction in funding for non-compliance with each of the core requirements was reduced from 25% to 20%.)
The proposed rule reflects the change from “disproportionate minority confinement” to “disproportionate minority contact” in the JJDPA's 2002 reauthorization. In addition, the most significant change to DMC compliance in the proposed rule is the codification of the 5-phase reduction model that OJJDP previously implemented and that states have already been using.
Under proposed section 31.9(d), a state would be in compliance with DMC when it includes a DMC report within its state plan that contains a detailed description of adequate progress in implementing the 5-phase reduction model, which includes: (1)
This 5-phase reduction model which, as noted previously, states have already been using, would replace the provision in the current regulation, under which compliance with DMC is achieved when a state meets the following three requirements in its state plan: (1)
Proposed section 31.9(d)(1)(i) would codify the requirement implemented through OJJDP policy in 2003 that states use the Relative Rate Index to describe the extent to which minority youth are overrepresented in a state's juvenile justice system. The Relative Rate Index (RRI) is a method that involves comparing the relative volume (rate) of activity at each major stage of the juvenile justice system for minority youth with the volume of that activity for white (majority) youth. The RRI provides a single index number that indicates the extent to which the volume of that form of contact or activity differs for minority youth and white youth. In its simplest form, the RRI is the rate of activity involving minority youth divided by the rate of activity involving majority youth. (For additional and more detailed information regarding the use of the RRI, please refer to Chapter 1 of the DMC Technical Assistance Manual, 4th Edition, located on OJJDP's Web site at
Prior to 2013, OJJDP relied on the expertise of individual staff to identify the strengths and weaknesses of a state's plan and determine whether a state was in compliance with the DMC requirement. In 2013, OJJDP determined that the process it was using to determine DMC compliance was not sufficiently objective to ensure consistent determinations. Thus, beginning in September 2013, states received compliance determination letters indicating that they were not out of compliance with the DMC requirement. States have been strongly encouraged to prioritize and increase their efforts to eliminate systemic racial and ethnic disparities and to seek training and technical assistance from OJJDP to assist them with fully implementing the OJJDP DMC Reduction Model. OJJDP staff has continued to review states' DMC compliance plans with the goal of providing technical assistance to the states.
In order to more effectively and objectively assess the extent to which states are in compliance with the DMC requirement, OJJDP is implementing internal standards to determine if states are adequately addressing DMC. To this end, OJJDP is developing a statistical tool—in consultation with three technical assistance grantees who are leading experts in the field of racial and ethnic disparities—that will assess states' progress in addressing DMC. States' responses to a set of objective questions addressing each of the phases in the 5-phase reduction model will result in a score that will inform OJJDP in determining states' compliance with the DMC requirement. The more objective tool will allow OJJDP to better assess states' efforts in addressing DMC, which will facilitate the provision of more effective technical assistant to states to assist them in reducing DMC. OJJDP will provide more information prior to implementation of the tool, which will be finalized by September 30, 2016.
Through states' adherence to the 5-phase reduction model, and OJJDP's implementation of the objective assessment tool, the states and OJJDP will be in a better position to effectively address and reduce DMC where it exists.
Proposed section 31.9(d)(1)(i) would also require that states obtain the Administrator's approval for the selection of the three local jurisdictions with the highest minority concentration or with focused DMC-reduction efforts, for which states must use the Relative Rate Index to determine whether—and the extent to which—DMC exists at the following contact points within the juvenile justice system: Arrest, diversion, referral to juvenile court, charges filed, placement in secure correctional facilities, placement in secure detention facilities, adjudication as delinquent, community supervision, and transfer to adult court.
The proposed rule includes the following additional proposed changes to the DMC requirement: (1) Eliminating references to the “Phase I Matrix” and to the “Phase II Matrix”, which have been replaced with the 5-phase reduction model; (2) requiring that an
Proposed section 31.8 would change the reporting period for compliance monitoring data to the federal fiscal year, consistent with the JJDPA. Under 42 U.S.C. 5633(c), “if a State fails to comply with [the core requirements] in any
Proposed section 31.2 would provide definitions for some terms that are used but not defined in the JJDPA, and for some terms that are used in the regulation itself. Notably, this proposed rule would add a definition of the term “detain or confine” that clarifies that the term includes non-secure detention—that is, a juvenile is detained when he is not free to leave, even though he is not securely detained within a locked room or cell, or by being handcuffed to a cuffing rail or bench. Under the current regulation, OJJDP has equated “being `detained' or `confined' ” with “being in `secure custody' ”;
Within the contemplation of the law, however, in the ordinary course, the plain meaning of “detain” requires, at a minimum, that the person allegedly detained not be free to leave. Fourth Amendment jurisprudence, which equates detention with the “seizure” of a person by a government or its agents, supports this understanding of the term. Generally speaking, a person is detained, or “seized” within the meaning of the Fourth Amendment, if, by means of physical force or show of authority, in view of all the circumstances surrounding the incident, a reasonable person would believe that he was not free to leave; conversely, if, in view of all the circumstances surrounding the incident, a reasonable person would believe that he
The proposed definition of “detain or confine” includes a rebuttable presumption that a juvenile is not detained or confined when his parent or legal guardian acknowledges in writing that he is free to leave. This does not create a requirement that such acknowledgment be in writing, but rather creates a presumption that the juvenile knew that he was free to leave, which may also be demonstrated in other ways, such as through a video recording of the juvenile's acknowledgment that he knows that he is free to leave.
The proposed rule also would add a definition of “placed or placement” such that that occurs only when a status offender or a non-offender who is an alien or is alleged to be dependent, neglected, or abused, is detained or confined for a period of 24 hours or longer in a secure juvenile detention or correctional facility or for any length of time in a secure adult detention or correctional facility, as outlined in the proposed definition in section 31.2 of the proposed rule.
OJP notes that the proposed rule is drafted to be read
Section 31.303(f)(5) (Reporting requirement) would also be removed, as it restates the requirement found at 42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(14) that states report annually on the status of their compliance with the core requirements. The language in section 31.303(f)(5) of the current regulation that specifies the reporting period would now be included in section 31.8 of the proposed rule. The remaining text, detailing the specific data that must be included in the report, is proposed to be deleted as it is included in OJP's data collection tool that states have already been using. The tool will be submitted to OMB for review and approval and will be published for notice and comment in the
OJP solicits public comment on whether the regulatory provisions of part 31 will be sufficiently clear to readers as proposed, or whether it may be helpful to assist readers by inserting some additional cross-references that cite to (but do not duplicate) the relevant statutory provisions.
OJJDP published a notice in the
The following will be recognized for consideration as exceptional circumstances: . . . Federal wards held under Federal statutory authority in a secure State or local detention facility [1] for the sole purpose of affecting a jurisdictional transfer, [2] appearance as a material witness, or [3] for return to their lawful residence or country of citizenship . . .
OJJDP has understood the first category (juveniles detained for the sole purpose of affecting a jurisdictional transfer) to include juveniles who may be status offenders or non-offenders who are alleged to be dependent, neglected, or abused, and thus would be covered by the DSO requirement. OJJDP has understood the second category (juveniles detained pending an appearance as a material witness) to include juveniles who are neither status offenders nor non-offenders who are alleged to be dependent, neglected, or abused. As such, none of the juveniles in this second category would, in fact, be covered by the DSO requirement.
Finally, the third category (juveniles detained pending return to their lawful residence or country of citizenship,
With respect to immigration detainees in DHS custody, as noted above, the DSO requirement provides that
With the elimination of the federal ward provision, states would be required to report the secure placement of undocumented juvenile immigrants who are status offenders or non-offenders in state or local facilities pursuant to federal authority. The elimination of the policy on federal wards may affect a very small number of states that have a DSO rate above 29.4 that, because they could no longer deduct the “federal wards” from their DSO rate, would be found out of compliance. Based on states' 2013 data, no state had a DSO rate above 29.4 such that it was able to make use of the federal ward provision.
For all of the above reasons, OJP is proposing to delete the provision regarding federal wards in the proposed rule.
The proposed rule would delete provisions of the current regulation that are rendered obsolete following the 2002 reauthorization of the JJDPA. These include sections 31.303(f)(6)(C) and (D), which, under the JJDPA of 1974, addressed waivers related to states' funding for FY 1993 and prior years, and which are no longer applicable.
The proposed rule would delete sections of the current regulation that contain requirements applicable to all OJP grantees, including section 31.201 (Audit), which repeats requirements found in the OJP Financial Guide; section 31.202 (Civil Rights), which repeats requirements found in 28 CFR 42.201, and 42.301,
The proposed rule would delete sections of the current regulation that do not contain requirements that states must meet in order to be in compliance with the Formula Grant Program requirements and that provide information that would be more appropriate for inclusion in policy guidance provided to states. These include section 31.303(b) of the current regulation, “Serious juvenile offender emphasis,” which encourages, but does not require, states to allocate funds a certain way; and section 31.303(d)(1)(v), which provides examples of what's allowed and not allowed under the separation requirement. OJP policy documents will include recommendations, discussions of best practices, and illustrative examples of what scenarios might or might not
The proposed rule would delete as unnecessary the text in section 31.2 of the current regulation acknowledging the establishment of the Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention; and section 31.203, which requires states to follow their own open meeting and public access laws and regulations.
The proposed rule would delete section 31.3 of the current regulation (“Formula grant plan and applications”), which requires that Formula Grant Program applications be submitted by August 1st or within 60 days after states are notified of their formula grant allocations. The unpredictable timing of OJP's appropriations requires that OJP have flexibility in setting the deadline for Formula Grant Program applications.
Finally, section 31.303(i) of the current regulation (“Technical assistance”), references a requirement stated in the Formula Grant Program solicitation, and that need not be repeated in the regulation, that states describe in their state plan their technical assistance needs.
In accordance with the principles of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)), the Office of Justice Programs has reviewed this regulation and, by approving it, certifies that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, as the rule regulates only states and territories, which are the recipients of funding under the Formula Grant Program authorized at 42 U.S.C. 5631. This proposed rule updates the implementing regulation for the Formula Grant Program, including the requirements that states and territories must meet in order to receive funding, and among other things, provides a clearer basis for determining state and territory compliance with the applicable statutory standards. Although states are required to subaward 66 2/3 percent of their formula grant funds to local governments and local private agencies, whether a particular local entity receives a subaward is solely within the discretion of the state and is unaffected by this proposed rule. As noted above, this rule does not regulate small entities and does nothing to create or increase the financial burden on small entities.
This regulation, therefore, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This regulation has been drafted and reviewed in accordance with Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review” section 1(b), Principles of Regulation, and in accordance with Executive Order 13563 “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review” section 1(b), General Principles of Regulation. The proposed rule is necessary for the implementation of the Formula Grant Program, as required in the Act at 42 U.S.C. 5632(1); 42 U.S.C. 5632(d); and 42 U.S.C. 5633(a).
The Office of Justice Programs has determined that this rule is a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, and accordingly this rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. For a discussion of the impact of the proposed rule on states and other entities, including the costs and benefits, and the number of states that might be out of compliance (and the corresponding dollar amounts affected) under the proposed rule, please see further discussion below in this section of the preamble.
Executive Order 13563 directs agencies to propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs; tailor the regulation to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining the regulatory objectives; and, in choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits.
This proposed rule is necessary to update the implementing regulation for the Formula Grant Program authorized under Title II, Part B, of the JJDPA, to conform with the amendments to the Act following the 2002 reauthorization, and thus there are no alternatives to this direct regulation. OJP considered other approaches to the specific requirements included in this proposed regulation and determined that the proposed requirements most effectively implement the provisions of the JJDPA. OJP welcomes comments from the public on any provisions of the proposed rule, as well as suggestions for alternative approaches to those provisions.
Deleting provisions of the current regulation that are recommended practices, rather than Formula Grant Program requirements that state must meet, would streamline and simplify the rule, making the requirements more easily accessible. OJJDP's recommended practices for states regarding treatment of juveniles in the juvenile justice system can be found in policy documents on OJJDP's Web site at
As noted above, it is difficult to quantify the financial cost that states will incur should the proposed regulation be promulgated as drafted. Some of the proposed provisions would require states to dedicate additional time and resources to collecting, verifying, and reporting additional compliance monitoring data. In addition, the proposed new compliance standards may result in more states being found out of compliance than would be out of compliance under the current standards. OJP discusses below some of the estimated costs to states of the proposed rule.
For example, the proposed requirement that states must report compliance monitoring data from 100% of facilities that are required to report would require that state staff spend more time collecting information from those facilities not immediately responsive to data requests. In addition, the proposed definition of “detain or confine” in section 31.2 would require that states report data for any juveniles held such that they were not free to leave, whether securely or non-securely, in adult jails or lockups and in any institutions in which the juveniles have contact with adult inmates. This data set would include some holds that were not reportable under the current regulation and, as a result, may necessitate a reassessment and modification of state monitoring practices.
Under the proposed new standards for determining compliance in section 31.9, more states would likely be found out of compliance with one or more of the core requirements than would be found out of compliance under the current
Under the current regulation, using states' calendar year (CY) 2013 data, OJJDP determined two states to be out of compliance with the DSO requirement. Using that same CY 2013 data, under the proposed new DSO compliance standard, a total of forty-three states would be determined to be out of compliance, resulting in a
When states' formula grant funding is reduced for non-compliance with any of the core requirements, those funds are made available to states that have achieved full compliance with the core requirements. This potential additional funding provides an incentive for compliant states to remain in compliance.
The proposed rule would not make substantive changes to how states address DMC, as they would continue to follow the 5-phase reduction model.
Any burden on the states created by the revised standards for determining compliance is outweighed by the considerable benefit provided to juveniles by greater adherence to the statutory provisions of the Formula Grant Program to ensure that juveniles are afforded the protections provided by the core requirements. Through the implementation of this proposed rule, OJJDP will ensure closer adherence to the requirements of the Formula Grant Program, particularly with respect to the application of the four core requirements (DSO, separation, jail removal, and DMC), compliance with which determines whether states receive their full formula grant allocation. By establishing numerical standards for determining compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements, and with the utilization of a new DMC assessment tool, OJJDP's process for determining compliance with each of the four core requirements will be more transparent and objective.
This proposed rule will ensure improved enforcement of the core requirements, which will benefit youth within the juvenile justice system by ensuring that: (1) Status offenders are not placed in secure detention or secure correctional facilities; (2) juveniles are not detained such that they have sight or sound contact with adult inmates; (3) juveniles are not detained in jails and lockups for adults; and (4) states are appropriately addressing the problem of disproportionate minority contact, where it exists.
The enhanced enforcement of the core requirements will result in a reduced risk of youth becoming further involved in the juvenile justice system, and of their subsequent involvement in the criminal justice system.
This proposed rule will not have a substantial direct effect on the relationship between the national government and the states, on distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or on states' policymaking discretion. This proposed rule updates the implementing regulation for the Formula Grant Program, including the requirements that states and territories must meet in order to receive funding, and among other things, provides a clearer basis for determining state and territory compliance with the applicable statutory standards. States that participate in the Formula Grant Program do so voluntarily, and as a condition of receiving formula grant funding agree to comply with the relevant statutory requirements. The rule, itself, does not create any obligation on the part of states. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order No. 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism Assessment.
This rule meets the applicable standards set forth in §§ 3(a) & (b)(2) of Executive Order No. 12988. Pursuant to § 3(b)(1)(I) of the Executive Order, nothing in this or any previous rule (or in any administrative policy, directive, ruling, notice, guideline, guidance, or writing) directly relating to the Formula Grant Program is intended to create any legal or procedural rights enforceable against the United States, except as the same may be contained within subpart B of part 94 of title 28 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
This rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100,000,000 or more in any one year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The Formula Grant Program provides funds to states to assist them in planning, establishing, operating, coordinating, and evaluating projects directly or through grants and contracts with public and private agencies for the development of more effective education, training, research, prevention, diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs in the area of juvenile delinquency and programs to improve the juvenile justice system. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This rule is not a major rule as defined by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, codified at 5 U.S.C. 804. This rule will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100,000,000 or more; a major increase in costs or prices; or significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies in domestic and export markets.
This proposed rule includes requirements for the collection and reporting of additional compliance monitoring data beyond that required in the current regulation to fulfill the statutory requirement for states in 42 U.S.C. 5633(14). Accordingly, OJP is submitting its data collection of information for approval to OMB as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501,
Administrative practice and procedure, juvenile delinquency prevention, juvenile justice, Formula Grant Program, Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA).
Accordingly, for the reasons set forth in the preamble, part 31 of chapter I of Title 28 of the Code of Federal
42 U.S.C. 5611(b); 42 U.S.C. 5631.
This subpart implements the Formula Grant Program authorized by Part B of Title II of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (the “Act”).
The following definitions are applicable to this subpart A, in addition to the definitions and provisions set forth in the Act.
(1) A description of a juvenile's behavior as well as the circumstances under which the juvenile was brought before the court;
(2) Assessment of the appropriateness of available placement alternatives, including, without limitation, community-based placement options and secure confinement; and
(3) Elaboration of any factors not included in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition that may bear significantly on a determination of where to place the juvenile.
(1) Is detained or confined in a secure correctional facility for juveniles or a secure detention facility for juveniles—
(i) For 24 hours or more before an initial court appearance;
(ii) For 24 hours or more following an initial court appearance; or
(iii) For 24 hours or more for investigative purposes, or identification;
(2) Is detained or confined in a secure correctional facility for adults or a secure detention facility for adults; or
(3) With respect to any situations not described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition, is detained or confined pursuant to a formal custodial arrangement ordered by a court or other entity authorized by state law to make such an arrangement.
(1) Section 18.5(a) of this title, means the Administrator; and
(2) Section 18.5(e) of this title, means the Assistant Attorney General, Office of Justice Programs, whose decision on appeal shall be the final agency decision referred to in 28 CFR 18.9.
(a) Terms. In determining the meaning of any provision of this subpart, unless the context should indicate otherwise, the first three provisions of 1 U.S.C. 1 (rules of construction) shall apply.
(b) Construction, severability. Any provision of this subpart held to be invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, shall be construed so as to give it the maximum effect permitted by law, unless such holding shall be one of utter invalidity or unenforceability, in which event such provision shall be deemed severable herefrom and shall not affect the remainder hereof or the application of such provision to other states not similarly situated or to other, dissimilar circumstances.
(c) The regulations in this subpart are applicable October 7, 2016, except that the compliance standards set forth in § 31.9 will be applicable beginning in the first compliance reporting period following the promulgation of this rule in final form.
(a) The non-discrimination provision specified at 42 U.S.C. 3789d(c), and incorporated into the Act at 42 U.S.C. 5672(b), shall be implemented in accordance with 28 CFR part 42.
(b) In complying with the non-discrimination provision at 42 U.S.C. 3789d(c), as implemented by 28 CFR part 42, the designated state agencies and sub-recipients shall comply with such guidance as may be issued from time to time by the Office for Civil Rights within the Office of Justice Programs.
The relative population of individuals under age eighteen, as used to determine a state's annual allocation for grants administered under this subpart, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5632(a), shall be determined according to the most recent data available from the U.S. Census Bureau.
As part of what is required pursuant to the Act, at 42 U.S.C. 5633(a), and pursuant to this subpart, each state shall, in its State Plan—
(1) Describe any barriers actually or potentially faced by the state in achieving compliance with each of the four core requirements.
(2) Describe policies and procedures in effect for receiving, investigating, and reporting complaints involving activity that would result in instances of non-compliance with any of the four core requirements.
No state shall be understood to have an adequate system of monitoring pursuant to the Act, at 42 U.S.C. 5633(a)(14), unless the following are included within its State Plan:
(a) Identification of each facility within the monitoring universe;
(b) Classification of each facility within the monitoring universe, including—
(1) By type of facility (
(2) By indication of whether the facility is public or private, and residential or nonresidential; and
(3) By indication of whether the facility's purpose is to detain or confine juveniles only, adults only, or both juveniles and adults;
(c) Indication that the state has conducted (and will continue to conduct) an on-site inspection of each facility within the monitoring universe at least once every 3 federal fiscal years—
(1) To ensure an accurate classification of each facility;
(2) To ensure accurate recordkeeping by each facility, including verification of self-reported data provided by a facility;
(3) To determine whether the data relating to each facility are valid and maintained in a manner that allows a state to determine compliance with the DSO, jail removal, and separation requirements; and
(4) To determine (as applicable) whether adequate sight and sound separation between juveniles and adult inmates exists.
(d) With respect to facilities within the monitoring universe that have been classified such that they are required to report annual compliance data (
(1) A report, covering the applicable full federal fiscal year, of the instances of non-compliance with the DSO, separation, and jail removal requirements within—(A) 100% of such facilities; or (B) Not less than 90% of such facilities, coupled with the submission of data from the remaining non-reporting facilities, within 60 days of the original submission deadline, except that states may request that the Administrator grant a waiver, for good cause, of the provision that 100% of facilities report; and
(2) Where such data are self-reported by facility personnel or are collected and reported by an agency other than the designated state agency—
(i) A description of a statistically-valid procedure used to verify such data; and
(ii) An indication that the designated state agency verified such data through onsite review of each facility's admissions records and booking logs;
(e) Certification that the state has policies and procedures in place governing the implementation and maintenance of an adequate system of monitoring, and, where the state has different definitions for juvenile and criminal justice terms than those provided in the Act and this subpart, a precise description of those differences and a certification that the definitions in the Act and this subpart have been used in the monitoring process and in the State Plan;
(f) Description of the authority or arrangement under which the designated state agency enters facilities to inspect and collect data from all
(g) A timetable specifically detailing when and in which facilities compliance monitoring will occur;
(h) Description of procedures for receiving, investigating, and reporting complaints of instances of non-compliance with the DSO, jail removal, and separation requirements; and
(i) Description of any barriers faced in implementing and maintaining a system adequate to monitor the level of compliance with the DSO, jail removal, and separation requirements, including (as applicable) an indication of how it plans to overcome such barriers.
(a) Time period covered. The compliance monitoring report shall contain data for one full federal fiscal year (
(b) Deadline for submitting compliance data. The compliance monitoring report shall be submitted no later than January 31st immediately following the fiscal year covered by the data contained in the report.
(c) Certification. The information contained in a state's compliance monitoring report, shall be certified in writing by a designated state official authorized to make such certification, which certification shall specify that the information in the report is correct and complete to the best of the official's knowledge and that the official understands that a false or incomplete submission may be grounds for prosecution, including under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and 1621.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) A detailed description of adequate progress in implementing the following 5-phase DMC reduction model:
(i) Identification of the extent to which DMC exists, via the Relative Rate Index (a measurement tool to describe the extent to which minority youth are overrepresented at various stages of the juvenile justice system), which must be done both statewide and for at least three local jurisdictions (approved by the Administrator) with the highest minority concentration or with focused-DMC-reduction efforts, and at the following contact points in the juvenile justice system: Arrest, diversion, referral to juvenile court, charges filed, placement in secure correctional facilities, placement in secure detention facilities, adjudication as delinquent, community supervision, and transfer to adult court;
(ii) Assessment and comprehensive analysis (which must be completed within 12 months of identification of the existence of DMC, or such longer period as may be approved by the Administrator) to determine the significant factors contributing to DMC identified pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, at each contact point where it exists. Such assessment and comprehensive analysis shall be conducted—
(A) When DMC is found to exist within a jurisdiction at any of the contact points listed in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, and not less than once in every five years thereafter;
(B) When significant changes in the Relative Rate Index are identified during the state's monitoring of DMC trends; or
(C) When significant changes in juvenile justice system laws, procedures, and policies result in statistically-significant increased rates of DMC;
(iii) Intervention, through delinquency prevention and systems-improvement strategies to reduce DMC that have been assessed under paragraph (d)(1)(ii), based on the results of the identification data and assessment findings, which strategies target communities where there is the greatest magnitude of DMC throughout the juvenile justice system and include, at a minimum, specific goals, measurable objectives, and selected performance measures;
(iv) Evaluation (within three to five years of the DMC-related intervention under paragraph (d)(1)(iii)) of the effectiveness of the delinquency prevention and systems-improvement strategies, using appropriate formal, methodological evaluative instruments, including the appropriate Performance Measures for the Data Collection and Technical Assistance Tool (DCTAT), located on OJJDP's Web site, which will assist in gauging short and long-term progress toward reducing DMC; and
(v) Monitoring to track changes in DMC statewide and in the local jurisdictions under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, in order to identify emerging issues affecting DMC and to determine whether there has been progress towards DMC reduction where it has been found to exist, to include the making of comparisons between current data and data obtained in earlier years and (when quantifiable data are unavailable to determine whether or to what extent the Relative Rate Index has changed) the provision of a timetable for implementing a data collection system to track progress towards reduction of such DMC; and
(2) Where DMC has been found to exist—
(i) A description of the prior-year's progress toward reducing DMC; and
(ii) An adequate DMC-reduction implementation plan (including a budget detailing financial and/or other resources dedicated to reducing DMC).
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of South Dakota on October 23, 2015 and July 29, 2013 related to South Dakota's Air Pollution Control Program. The October 23, 2015 submittal revises certain definitions and dates of incorporation by reference and contains new, amended and renumbered rules. In this rulemaking, we are taking final action on all portions of the October 23, 2015 submittal, except for those
Written comments must be received on or before September 7, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2016-0424, at
Kevin Leone, Air Program, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 8, Mail Code 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, (303) 312-6227,
What should I consider as I prepare my comments for the EPA?
1.
2.
• Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
• Follow directions and organize your comments;
• Explain why you agree or disagree;
• Suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes;
• Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used;
• If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced;
• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives;
• Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats; and
• Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
On July 29, 2013, the State of South Dakota submitted a SIP revision containing amendments 74:36:10:06 (Causing or contributing to a violation of any national ambient air quality standard). This revision added significant impact levels (SILs) for particulate matter less than 2.5 microns (PM
Chapter 74:36:01 defines the terms used throughout Article 74:36—Air Pollution Control Program. There are six definitions in Chapter 74:36:01 that reference federal regulations. The sections in Chapter 74:36:01 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:01:01(8), 74:36:01:01(29), 74:36:01:01(67), 74:36:01:01(73), 74:36:01:05, and 74:36:01:20. We will be acting on the revision to 74:36:01:01(73) in a separate rulemaking. This is addressed in more detail under section III of this rulemaking.
South Dakota's October 23, 2015 submittal also added the phrase “insignificant increase in allowable emissions” to the definition of “permit revision” in section 74:36:01(50) and revised the definition of “modification” in section 74:36:01:10 to allow an exception for insignificant increases in allowable emissions. This proposed rulemaking also adds a new definition for “Insignificant increases in allowable emissions” in section 74:36:01:10.01. This addition to the definition for “insignificant increase in allowable emissions” is to account for all of the new federal standards covering small sources of air pollutants, to streamline the permitting actions for these small sources, and to be consistent with federal permitting requirements. This definition was derived from Table I in 40 CFR 49.153 and is addressed in more detail under section III of this rulemaking.
Chapter 74:36:02 established air quality goals and ambient air quality standards for South Dakota. The sections in Chapter 74:36:02 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:02:02, 74:36:02:03, 74:36:02:04 and 74:36:02:05.
Chapter 74:36:03 identifies the contingency plan the South Dakota Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) will follow during an air pollution emergency episode. The sections in Chapter 74:36:03 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:03:01 and 74:36:03:02.
Chapter 74:36:04 is South Dakota's minor source air quality operating permit program. The section in Chapter 74:36:04 that is being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:04:04.
Section 74:36:04:03 lists emission units that are exempt from inclusion in
A definition for “insignificant increase in allowable emissions” is being added to Chapter 74:36:01 to account for all of the new federal standards covering small sources of air pollutants, to stream line the permitting actions for these small sources, and to be consistent with the federal permitting requirements. As such, the revisions are proposing to add section 74:36:04:21.01 which will identify procedures for processing an application for activities that are considered an “insignificant increase in allowable emissions.” This process will allow construction projects to move forward if the air pollution increase meets the definition of an “insignificant increase in allowable emissions.”
We are not taking action on revisions to this chapter. Title V permits are not part of the SIP.
We are not taking action on revisions to this chapter. New source performance standards (NSPS) are not part of the SIP.
We are not taking action on revisions to this chapter. National emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAPs) are not part of the SIP.
Chapter 74:36:09 is South Dakota's PSD preconstruction program for major sources located in areas of the state that attain the federal national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS). The sections in Chapter 74:36:09 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:09:02 and 74:36:09:03. This chapter also adds 74:36:09:02(7), 74:36:09:02(8) and 74:36:09:02(9). These provisions remove 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(v) and references to 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(v) from the SIP.
Chapter 74:36:10 is South Dakota's New Source Review (NSR) preconstruction permit program for major sources in areas of the state that are not attaining the NAAQS. All of South Dakota is in attainment with the federal standards; therefore, there are no facilities that require a preconstruction permit under this program.
The sections in Chapter 74:36:10 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:10:02, 74:36:10:03.01, 74:36:10:05, 74:36:10:07 and 74:36:10:08.
On March 30, 2011, the EPA extended the stay of the “Fugitive Emissions Rule” under the new source review program. The extension clarified the stay and revisions of specific paragraphs in the new source review program affected by the “Fugitive Emissions Rule.” Changes to 74:36:10:02 are proposed revise South Dakota's SIP to remove these references.
On January 22, 2013, the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit vacated the significant impact levels for PM
Chapter 74:36:11 identifies the performance testing requirements used by permitted facilities to demonstrate compliance with permit limits. The sections in Chapter 74:36:11 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:11:01.
Chapter 74:36:12 identifies visible emission limits for units that emit air pollution. The sections in Chapter 74:36:12 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:12:01 and 74:36:12:03.
Continuous Emission Monitoring Systems are part of South Dakota's Title V program and are not part of the SIP.
The Acid Rain Program is not part of the SIP.
The sections in Chapter 74:36:18 that are being updated to the version of the federal reference as of July 1, 2014, involve the following: 74:36:18:10.
The reference date for the federal regulation is proposed to be updated to the most current version of the federal reference of July 1, 2014. This revision will update any minor inconsistency between South Dakota's SIP and EPA's federal regulations as of July 1, 2014. These proposed changes involve section 74:36:20:05.
South Dakota's October 23, 2015, submittal adds certain pre-permit construction activities and also adds procedures for an “insignificant increase in allowable emissions.” These revisions are discussed in more detail in Section III of this rulemaking.
1. The EPA is not acting on revisions to 74:36:05 (Operating Permits for Part 70 Sources), 74:36:07 (New Source Performance Standards) and 74:36:08 (National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants) and 74:36:16 (Acid Rain) because these sections are not part of the SIP.
2. The EPA will act on revisions to 74:36:01(73) (definition for Subject to Regulation), and 74:36:09:02(10) in a separate rulemaking. These revisions revise the definition of “Subject to Regulation” in the SIP. The definition of “Subject to Regulation” is located in 40 CFR 51.166(a)(48)(i)-(v) and 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(i)-(v).
On June 23, 2014, the U.S. Supreme Court (
The Coalition Amended Judgement only specifically ordered that the EPA regulations under review (including 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v) and 52.21(b)(49)(v)) be vacated. In the EPA's final rulemaking titled “Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V
This final action removes from the CFR several provisions of the PSD and title V permitting regulations that were originally promulgated as part of the Tailoring Rule and that the D.C. Circuit specifically identified as vacated in the Coalition Amended Judgement. Because the D.C. Circuit specifically identified the Tailoring Rule Step 2 PSD permitting requirements in 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v) and 52.21(b)(49)(v) and the regulations that require the EPA to consider further phasing-in the GHG permitting requirements at lower GHG emission thresholds in 40 CFR 52.22, 70.12 and 71.13 as vacated, the EPA is taking the ministerial action of removing these provisions from the CFR.
The EPA intends to further revise the PSD and title V regulations to fully implement the Coalition Amended Judgement in a separate rulemaking. This future rulemaking will include revisions to additional definitions in the PSD regulations.
We are acting on 74:36:01(73) in a separate rulemaking because South Dakota added the sentence “Greenhouse gases are not subject to regulation unless a PSD preconstruction permit is issued regulating greenhouse gases in accordance with chapter 74:39:09.” This sentence is not in compliance with the current definition of “Subject to Regulation” in 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48) and 52.21(b)(49). As mentioned previously in this rulemaking, the EPA intends to publish a future rulemaking which will revise additional definitions in the PSD regulations. However, the EPA's rulemaking in 80 FR 50199 only removes 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v).
We are acting on 74:36:09(02)(10) in a separate rulemaking because 74:36:09(02)(10) revises the definition of 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(iv)(b). The revision is not in compliance with the current definition of “Subject to Regulation” in 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48) and 52.21(b)(49)(iv)(b). Section 52.21(b)(49)(iv)(b) was not addressed in 80 FR 50199.
The EPA intends to act on these revisions after a future EPA rulemaking is published to include revisions to additional definitions in the PSD regulations.
The EPA is proposing to approve all revisions as submitted by the State of South Dakota on October 23, 2015, with the exception of the revisions mentioned in section III. A. of this rulemaking. This includes the following revisions:
We are proposing to approve the removal of PM
On January 22, 2013, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit ruled on a challenge brought by the Sierra Club to the SILs and significant monitoring concentration (SMC) established for PM
Chapter 74:36:20 requires an air quality construction permit for new businesses/facilities and existing businesses/facilities that modify their operations that do not meet the requirements for obtaining a preconstruction permit in Chapters 74:36:09 and 74:36:10. DENR submitted Chapter 74:36:20 to the EPA for inclusion in South Dakota's SIP. The EPA approved Chapter 74:36:20 in South Dakota's SIP on June 27, 2014, except for the phrase, “unless it meets the requirements in section 74:36:20:02.01,” and all of section 74:36:20:02.01 (79 FR 36419). This section was disapproved because construction was not limited to construction of concrete foundations, below ground plumbing, ductwork, or other infrastructure and/or excavation work prior to the issuance of the construction permit and there was no requirement for the source to receive a completeness determination (or some type of administrative approval) from the reviewing authority prior to construction. In this submittal, Section 74:36:20:02.01 allows small projects to start construction, which is limited to construction of concrete foundations, below ground plumbing, ductwork, or other infrastructure and/or excavation work, after they receive a completeness determination and prior to receiving a construction permit but does not allow them to start operation until the construction permit has been issued. The intention of the language was to allow construction of small sources that would not impact South Dakota's ability to achieve and/or maintain the NAAQS because of South Dakota's relative short construction season due to ground freezing during the winter season or other inclement weather that could potentially and unnecessarily delay the construction project. These changes were made to resolve the issue with the EPA's prior disapproval of section 74:36:20:02.01 in South Dakota's SIP.
South Dakota's proposed language sets specific conditions that must be met prior to a source commencing construction (but before a construction permit has been issued): (1) The owner/operator has submitted a construction permit application; (2) The owner/operator provided five days notice of their intention to initiate construction; (3) The new source or modification to an existing source is not subject to PSD or NSR (it has to be a true minor source); (4) The new source or modification is not subject to case-by-case MACT; (5) The owner/operator is liable for all construction conducted before the permit is issued, and the applicant may not operate any source equipment that may emit any air pollutant prior to receiving a permit; (6) The owner/operator must cease construction if the DENR demonstrates that the construction will interfere with the attainment or maintenance of a NAAQS or increment; and (7) The owner/operator must make any changes to the new source or modification of an existing source that may be imposed in the issued construction permit.
This revision is in compliance with federal requirements, including: (1) CAA section 110(a)(2)(c), which requires states to include a minor NSR program in their SIP to regulate modifications and new construction of stationary sources within the area as necessary to assure the NAAQS are achieved; (2) The regulatory requirements under 40 CFR 51.160, including section 51.160(b), which requires states to have legally enforceable procedures to prevent construction or modification of a source if it would violate any SIP control strategies or interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS; and (3) the statutory requirements under CAA section 110(l), which provides that the EPA cannot approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
On July 1, 2011, the EPA promulgated a federal minor source review program in Indian country (Tribal NSR Rule) (76 FR 38748). The Tribal NSR Rule does not require a construction permit for new sources or modifications to existing sources if emissions are below the minor NSR threshold in Table 1 of 40 CFR 49.153.
In this rulemaking, the EPA established de minimis thresholds at which sources are to be exempt from permitting requirements for each regulated NSR pollutant (see 40 CFR 49.153—Table 1) utilizing an allowable-to-allowable applicability test. The EPA stated in this rulemaking that these threshold levels represent a reasonable balance between environmental protection and economic growth (76 FR 38758). The EPA further recognized in designing the tribal NSR rule, that the overarching requirement is ensuring NAAQS protection (76 FR 38756) as described in CAA section 110(a)(2)(C). In order to determine that the sources below minor NSR permit thresholds in 40 CFR 49.153—Table 1 would be inconsequential to attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS, the EPA performed a national source distribution analysis (see 71 FR 48702). In this analysis, the EPA looked at size distribution of existing sources across the country. Using the National Emissions Inventory (NEI), which includes the most comprehensive inventory of existing U.S. stationary point sources that is available, the EPA determined how many of these sources fall below the proposed minor NSR thresholds (see 71 FR 48702, Table 2). For each pollutant, the EPA found that only around 1 percent (or less) of total emissions would be exempt from review under the minor NSR program. At the same time, the thresholds would promote an effective balance between environmental protection and source burden because anywhere from 42 percent to 76 percent of sources (depending on the pollutant) would be too small to be subject to preconstruction review (76 FR 38758). South Dakota, which contains areas of Indian country that are subject to the permitting thresholds in the tribal NSR rule, has established the same exemption levels as those in the tribal NSR rule. In addition, as the EPA explained in the tribal NSR rule, this will “allow us to begin leveling the playing field with the surrounding state programs and will result in a more cost-effective program by reducing the burden on sources and reviewing authorities.” (see 76 FR 38758)
In order to be consistent with the EPA and to streamline the process for insignificant increases in air emissions, DENR is proposing to add “insignificant increase in allowable emissions” to the definition of “permit revision” in section 74:36:01(50) and an exemption to the definition of “modification” in section 74:36:01:10, which will allow construction if the air emission increases meet the definition of an “insignificant increase in allowable emissions.” This can also be referred to as a “de minimus exemption.” DENR is proposing to add a definition for “insignificant increase in allowable emissions,” which is derived from Table 1 in 40 CFR 49.153, in 74:36:01:10.01. This process would still require the project to be covered by a permit but would use a process similar to the EPA's administrative amendment process.
We have also reviewed South Dakota's air monitoring data over the last 5 years (see docket). This data shows South Dakota is below the NAAQS for all criteria pollutants.
The EPA notes that we have approved several similar de minimis exemption provisions in other states as follows:
1. On January 16, 2003, the EPA approved a minor NSR program for the State of Idaho (68 FR 2217). This rule allows changes to be considered exempt from permitting if the source's uncontrolled potential emissions are less than ten percent (10%) of the NSR significant emissions rate. For example: 1.5 tons per year for PM
2. On February 13, 2012, the EPA approved a five tons per year potential emissions level as a de minimis threshold to be exempt from permitting requirements in the State of Montana (77 FR 7531). In this final rulemaking, the EPA determined this de minimis threshold met the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(C), 40 CFR part 51.160 and CAA section 110(l).
3. On May 27, 2008, the EPA approved a 25 tons per year actual emissions level as a de minimis threshold for fossil fuel burning equipment to be exempt from permitting requirements in the State of North Dakota, and a 5 ton per year actual emissions level as a de minimis threshold for any internal combustion engine, or multiple engines to be exempt from permitting requirements. The EPA determined the revision will not adversely impact the NAAQS or PSD increments (73 FR 30308).
4. On February 1, 2006, the EPA approved a 5 tons per year actual emissions level as a de minimis threshold to be exempt from permitting requirements in the State of North Carolina (see 61 FR 3584).
We evaluated the addition of “insignificant increase in allowable emissions” to the South Dakota SIP using the following: (1) The statutory requirements under CAA section 110(a)(2)(c), which requires states to include a minor NSR program in their SIP to regulate modifications and new construction of stationary sources within the area as necessary to assure the NAAQS are achieved; (2) the regulatory requirements under 40 CFR 51.160, including section 51.160(b), which requires states to have legally enforceable procedures to prevent construction or modification of a source if it would violate any SIP control strategies or interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS; and (3) the statutory requirements under CAA section 110(l), which provides that the EPA cannot approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirement concerning attainment and reasonable further progress, or any other applicable requirement of the CAA. Therefore, the EPA will approve a SIP revision only after it is demonstrated that such a revision will not interfere (“noninterference”) with attainment of the NAAQS, Rate of Progress (ROP), RFP or any other applicable requirement of the CAA.
We are proposing to approve the addition of “insignificant increase in allowable emissions.” These revisions are expected to be inconsequential to attainment and maintenance of the NAAQS because: (1) Section 74:36 has safeguards which prevent circumvention of NSR requirements; (2) Sources are still regulated by other rules within 74:36 and underlying statewide area source rules in the Administrative Rules of South Dakota (ARSD); (3) The insignificant thresholds in 74:36:01:10.01 are the same as the de minimis level threshold in the Tribal
We are approving the removal of 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(v) from 74:36:09 to reflect the Coalition Amended Judgement, which only specifically ordered that the EPA regulations under review (including 40 CFR 51.166(b)(48)(v) and 52.21(b)(49)(v)) be vacated. The EPA's final rulemaking titled “Prevention of Significant Deterioration and Title V Permitting for Greenhouse Gases: Removal of Certain Vacated Element,” which was published on August 19, 2015 (80 FR 50199) removed 40 CFR 52.21(b)(49)(v) from the CFR.
In our final rule published in the
For the reasons described in section III of this proposed rulemaking, the EPA is proposing to approve South Dakota's October 23, 2015 submittal, with the exceptions noted in section III. Our action is based on an evaluation of South Dakota's revisions against the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(c) and regulatory requirements under 40 CFR 51.160-164 and 40 CFR 51.166. The EPA is also proposing to approve a correction to our final rule published in the
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the Administrative Rules of South Dakota pertaining to section 74:36 as outlined in this preamble. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and the EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds, Incorporation by reference.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Extension of public comment period.
On June 9, 2016 the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a request for comments on a Regulatory Flexibility Act section 610 review titled, Section 610 Review of Lead-Based Paint Activities; Training and Certification for Renovation and Remodeling Section 402(C)(3) (Section 610 Review). As initially published in the
The public comment period for the review published June 9, 2016 (81 FR 37373) is being extended for 30 days to September 7, 2016 in order to provide the public additional time to submit comments and supporting information.
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For additional information contact,
Section 610 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act requires that an agency review, within 10 years of promulgation, each rule that has or will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities (SISNOSE). The EPA undertakes section 610 reviews to decide whether the agency should continue a rule unchanged, amend it, or withdraw it. We encourage small entities to provide comments on the need to change these rules, and in particular, how the rules could be made clearer, more effective, or if there is need to remove conflicting or overlapping requirements with other Federal or State regulations.
The EPA has exercised its discretion to include changes made to the 2008 RRP rule as well as solicit comments on lead-test kits in this review.
The EPA is extending the deadline for submitting comments on the section 610 review of the RRP Rule to September 7, 2016. The original deadline for comments, based on a 60-day comment period, was August 8, 2016. The EPA's decision responds to a request to extend the comment deadline. The EPA believes that this 30-day extension will assist in providing an adequate amount of additional time for the public to review the action and to provide written comments.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of availability of amendment to fishery management plan; request for comments.
The North Pacific Fishery Management Council has submitted Amendment 101 to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) to the Secretary of Commerce for review. Amendment 101 to the FMP would authorize the use of longline pot gear in the sablefish individual fishing quota (IFQ) fishery in the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). Amendment 101 is necessary to improve efficiency and provide economic benefits for the sablefish IFQ fleet and minimize potential fishery interactions with whales and seabirds. Amendment 101 is intended to promote the goals and objectives of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, the FMP, and other applicable laws.
Submit comments on or before October 7, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-
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Electronic copies of Amendment 101 to the FMP, the Environmental Assessment/Regulatory Impact Review/Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis prepared for this action (collectively, Analysis), and the Finding of No Significant Impact prepared for this action may be obtained from
Rachel Baker, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone of the GOA under the FMP. The North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council) prepared the FMP under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act) (16 U.S.C. 1801
The Magnuson-Stevens Act requires that each regional fishery management council submit any fishery management plan amendment it prepares to NMFS for review and approval, disapproval, or partial approval by the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary). The Magnuson-Stevens Act also requires that NMFS, upon receiving a fishery management plan amendment, immediately publish a document in the
Amendment 101 to the FMP would revise the IFQ Program for sablefish fisheries in the GOA. The IFQ Program for the fixed-gear commercial fisheries for sablefish and halibut in waters in and off Alaska is a limited access privilege program implemented in 1995 (58 FR 59375, November 9, 1993). The IFQ Program limits access to the sablefish and halibut fisheries to those persons holding quota share in specific management areas. The amount of halibut and sablefish that each quota share holder may harvest is calculated annually and is issued as IFQ in pounds.
The IFQ Program for Pacific halibut is implemented under the authority of the Northern Pacific Halibut Act of 1982. The Council does not have a halibut fishery management plan.
Amendment 101 would apply to catcher vessels and catcher/processors fishing for sablefish IFQ in the GOA. The sablefish regulatory areas defined for sablefish in the GOA are the Southeast Outside District of the GOA, West Yakutat District of the GOA, Central GOA, and Western GOA. The sablefish regulatory areas are defined and shown in Figure 14 to part 679.
The FMP currently authorizes only longline gear for the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery. Longline gear includes hook-and-line, jig, troll, and handline gear. Fishery participants have used longline hook-and-line gear (hook-and-line gear) to harvest sablefish IFQ in the GOA because it is more efficient than jig, troll, or handline gear. However, various species of whales can remove or damage sablefish caught on hook-and-line gear (depredation). Depredation occurs with hook-and-line gear because sablefish are captured on hooks that lie on the ocean floor. Whales can completely remove or damage sablefish captured on these hooks before the gear is retrieved. Longline pot gear is an efficient gear and prevents depredation because whales cannot remove or damage sablefish enclosed in a pot.
Longline pot gear was historically used to harvest sablefish in the GOA. However, under the open access management program race for fish that existed prior to the implementation of the IFQ Program, some vessel operators deployed hook-and-line gear, while other vessel operators deployed pot gear in the same fishing areas. This resulted in gear conflicts and loss of gear on the fishing grounds. The longline pot groundline is heavier and stronger than the groundline used to attach the series of hooks on hook-and-line gear. If longline pot gear is set over previously deployed hook-and-line gear, the weaker hook-and-line gear can be damaged or lost as it is being retrieved. The Council and NMFS have not received reports of gear conflicts between hook-and-line gear. In 1986, NMFS implemented a phased-in prohibition of pot gear in the GOA sablefish fishery (50 FR 43193, October 24, 1985) to minimize potential gear conflicts that occurred during the open access management fishery and prior to the implementation of the IFQ Program.
Beginning in 2009, the Council and NMFS received reports from sablefish IFQ fisherman that depredation on hook-and-line gear was adversely impacting the sablefish IFQ fleet. Depredation can result in lost catch, additional time waiting for whales to leave fishing grounds before hauling gear, and additional time and fuel spent relocating gear to avoid whales. Depredation also has negative consequences for whales through increased risk of vessel strike, gear entanglement, and altered foraging strategies. While depredation events are difficult to observe because they take place on the ocean floor in deep water, fishery participants have testified to the Council that depredation continues to be a major cost to the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery, and appears to be occurring more frequently.
Industry groups have tested a variety of methods to deter whales from preying on fish caught on hook-and-line gear, such as gear modifications and acoustic decoys, but these methods have not substantially reduced the problem of depredation in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery.
In April 2015, the Council recommended Amendment 101 to authorize longline pot gear for use in the sablefish IFQ fishery in the GOA. Amendment 101 would amend Sections 3.2.3.4.3.3.1, 3.4.1, 3.4.2, 3.6.2, 3.7.1.1, 3.7.1.7, and 4.1.2.3 of the FMP to authorize longline pot gear to harvest sablefish in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery. Amendment 101 would make minor editorial revisions to the Executive Summary and Appendix A of the FMP to list and describe Amendment 101.
Amendment 101 would authorize, but not require, a harvester to use longline pot gear in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery. Providing fishermen with the opportunity to use longline pot gear would reduce the adverse impacts of depredation for fishermen who choose to use longline pot gear.
Amendment 101 is necessary to (1) improve efficiency in harvesting sablefish IFQ and reduce adverse economic impacts on harvesters that occur from depredation, and (2) reduce sablefish IFQ fishery interactions with whales and seabirds.
Amendment 101 would reduce the adverse impacts of depredation for those harvesters who choose to switch to longline pot gear from hook-and-line gear. These harvesters would benefit from reduced operating costs and reduced fishing time needed to harvest sablefish IFQ. Amendment 101 would provide individual harvesters with the option to use longline pot gear if they determine it is appropriate for their fishing operation. Amendment 101 would reduce the associated risks to whales including vessel strikes, gear entanglement, and altered foraging strategies. The Analysis for Amendment 101 indicates that authorizing longline pot gear is expected to have a positive effect on killer whales and sperm whales from reduced interactions with fishing gear.
In recommending Amendment 101, the Council recognized that pot gear had previously been authorized in the GOA sablefish fishery, but its use was prohibited prior to implementation of the IFQ Program due to conflicts between hook-and-line and pot gear on the fishing grounds. The Council and NMFS agree that authorizing longline pot gear in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery under Amendment 101 is appropriate because the fishery is managed under the IFQ Program. The IFQ Program provides fishermen with substantially more flexibility on when and where to harvest sablefish compared to the open access management program prior to implementation of the IFQ Program. The IFQ Program makes it unlikely that hook-and-line and longline pot gear conflicts would occur or that fishing grounds would be preempted for extended periods in the same manner previously analyzed by the Council and NMFS.
Amendment 101 would reduce fishing interactions with seabirds. Fishing interactions can result in direct mortality for seabirds if they become entangled in fishing gear or strike the vessel or fishing gear while flying. Hook-and-line gear has the greatest impact on seabirds relative to other fishing gear. Although seabird mortality in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery makes up a very small portion of total estimated seabird mortality from fisheries in Alaska, the Analysis determined that Amendment 101 would reduce incidental catch of seabirds in the GOA sablefish IFQ fishery. Amendment 101 would provide vessel operators with the opportunity to use longline pot gear, which has a lower rate of incidental catch of seabirds than hook-and-line gear.
NMFS is soliciting public comments on proposed Amendment 101 through the end of the comment period (see
16 U.S.C. 1801
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Kisatchie National Forest Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Pineville, Louisiana. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held on September 8, 2016 at 6:30 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Alexandria Forestry Center, 2500 Shreveport Highway, 3rd Floor Conference Room, Pineville, Louisiana.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Stacy Blomquist, Public Affairs Specialist, USDA Kisatchie National Forest by phone at 318-473-7242, or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Review the RAC guidebook, committee operations, rules, and bylaws, and
2. Review and select proposed Title II projects.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by September 5, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time to make oral comments must be sent to Stacy Blomquist, Public Affairs Specialist, USDA Kisatchie National Forest, 2500 Shreveport Highway, Pineville, Louisiana 71360; or by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Nicolet Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Crandon, Wisconsin. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (Pub. L. 110-343) (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. The meeting is open to the public. The purpose of the meeting is to review and approve project submissions.
The meeting will be held Tuesday, August 30, 2016 at 9:00 a.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Forest County Courthouse, County Boardroom, 200 East Madison Street, Crandon, Wisconsin.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Penny K. McLaughlin, RAC Coordinator, by phone at 715-362-1381 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday. Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreting, assistive listening devices or other reasonable accommodation for access to the facility or proceedings by contacting the person listed above.
Additional RAC information, including the meeting agenda and the meeting summary/minutes can be found at the following Web site:
Rural Housing Service, USDA.
Notice; correction.
The Agency published a document in the
Effective August 8, 2016.
Requests for additional information should be directed to Alton Kimura, (202) 720-1390.
In the
1. On page 43987, third column, fifth paragraph, fifth line, under section III. Definitions: Remove hyperlink
2. On page 43989, second column, second line under section V(A)(p) of V. Application Submission: Remove cross reference (IV)(A)(e)(3)(b) (Agency risk assessment)and add (IV)(A)(h)(ii).
U.S. Census Bureau, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
To ensure consideration, written comments must be submitted on or before October 7, 2016.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument(s) and instructions should be directed to Robin A. Pennington, Census Bureau, HQ-2K281N, Washington, DC 20233; (301) 763-8132 (or via email at
During the years preceding the 2020 Census, the Census Bureau is pursuing its commitment to reducing the cost of conducting the census while maintaining the quality of the results. The 2017 Census Test will allow the Census Bureau to test operations and procedures that have not yet been tested during this inter-census phase but that take advantage of the research that has been done and the technological advances that have been made since the 2010 Census.
The testing will take place on two American Indian or Alaska Native reservations, as well as in a nationally representative sample of 80,000 housing units. The questionnaires will contain different versions of tribal enrollment questions, the testing of which is one of two primary objectives of this test. A set of census operations will occur on the reservations, including development and update of the address frame or list, self-response involving delivery of printed questionnaires and other materials through mail, and enumeration at the household when self-response does not occur. The Update Enumerate (UE) operation planned for this test and for eventual use in the 2020 Census incorporates the address frame update and enumeration activities. Integrating these activities into one operation is the second primary objective for the Census Bureau in this test. This type of operation is cost-effective and manageable only in such areas where special procedures are needed due to types of addresses and various geographic considerations. Note that this type of operation was used for enumeration at about one percent of addresses in the 2010 Census.
Prior to production of Update Enumerate activities, the address frame will be reviewed and updated through In-Office Address Canvassing. For the 2010 Census, the address frame was reviewed and updated during Address Canvassing, which was a field operation conducted before the 2010 Census Update Enumerate operation. Update Enumerate will be the first operation to review and update the address frame in the field for the areas in the 2017 Census Test. This revised procedure is an innovation as compared to the 2010 Census.
Questionnaires and mailing materials will be printed using the updated address list from In-Office Address Canvassing. Materials will be mailed to all mailable addresses (determined through Coding Accuracy Support
A further innovation for these UE areas is that a variety of means of achieving response will be used, as in previous census tests and in different types of areas. In particular, in addition to the materials sent to mailable addresses before the field operation begins, Internet response will be an option for all households in the test area. Self-response prior to enumeration is possible through the mail-back of a questionnaire (if received), response on the Internet, or response on the telephone through CQA. Generally, the materials will provide a Census ID for use in response, although it will also be possible for respondents to submit responses via Internet or CQA without an ID. Those households that have self-responded will be removed from the workload for the enumeration. Households that do not self-respond by the time of the household in-person visit in Update Enumerate will be enumerated at that time if a respondent is available.
Testing the feasibility of collecting tribal enrollment questions on the questionnaire is one of the primary objectives of this test. In order to collect data from other geographic locations and from a broader representation of American Indian or Alaska Native respondents for analysis of the tribal enrollment questions, a separate sample of 80,000 households will be drawn for a national self-response-only operation, oversampled for areas with relatively higher concentrations of people estimated to identify as American Indian or Alaska Native.
For the self-response-only sample, there will be no follow-up to obtain response from non-responding households. However, we will conduct a content reinterview (using an outbound telephone operation) to assess the validity of the tribal enrollment question. The sub-sample of 15,000 households for the content reinterview will be drawn from the sites and the national sample.
The Census Bureau has not done prior testing this decade in the type of geographic area that is included in the test sites. The areas selected for the 2017 Census Test differ from the generally more urban or suburban areas with a predominance of city-style addresses. The 2017 Census Test areas are sparser and contain a lower percentage of city-style addresses. The Census Bureau has traditionally used a methodology like that of the planned Update Enumerate for completing the census in these types of areas.
The complexity of all the overlapping listing, self-response, and enumeration operations and the necessity of multiple systems to provide updates for tracking progress in the field operation make the 2017 Census Test essential for planning for the 2020 Census. By working through all the operational and system development and then learning from the challenges that still arise during the operation, the Census Bureau will be better prepared to perform this complex operation in the 2020 Census. The geographic areas selected for the test may be less accessible or sparsely populated, in addition to having a low rate of mailable addresses. As such, these areas do not lend themselves to performing the traditional mailing and self-response enumeration methodology for the census. For areas that are known to require a personal visit during the census, there is cost containment from not visiting the area prior to the enumeration.
This test will incorporate a number of the automation and management innovations that have been tested this decade, where other enumeration methodologies were used. In particular, Internet is available as the primary response mode, UE field data collection operations will be automated, and Field Infrastructure will continue to be refined with automated work assignments and management overview. In addition, Census Questionnaire Assistance (CQA) will offer the option for completing the questionnaire on the telephone and will include the option for language assistance. Within CQA, Interactive Voice Recognition will be available to answer respondent questions and to route calls to agents, as necessary. Results may differ from those observed in prior tests, such as if there is limited internet connectivity.
Below we provide additional details about the specific operations that will be tested or refined in this test.
The 2017 Census Test will allow the Census Bureau to test the Update Enumerate operation, which combines listing methodologies of Address Canvassing with the enumeration methodologies from Nonresponse Followup. This operation occurs in geographic areas that:
• Do not have city-style addresses.
• Do not receive mail through city-style addresses.
• Receive mail at post office boxes.
• Have unique challenges associated with accessibility to the housing unit.
• Have been affected by natural disasters.
• Have high concentrations of seasonally vacant housing.
The following objectives are being tested for Update Enumerate:
• Integrating listing and enumeration operations and systems.
• Evaluating the impact on cost and quality of the contact strategy on enumerator productivity and efficiency in these types of areas.
• Testing continued refinements to the field data collection instrument for enumeration including such things as allowing collection of data from `other' address in-movers and whole household usual home elsewhere cases.
• Continuing enhancements to field operational procedures that are newly defined for the 2020 Census.
• Testing field supervisor to enumerator ratios in these types of areas.
• Testing refinements to alerts from operational control systems.
The test will occur in two selected sites and using a national sample.
The test will take place on two American Indian areas—the Colville Indian Reservation and Off-Reservation Trust Land in Washington and the Standing Rock Reservation in North Dakota and South Dakota. Approximately 3,500 and 2,900 housing units, respectively, within the areas will be invited to participate.
The UE enumerators visit specific geographic areas to identify every place where people could live or stay, comparing what they see on the ground to the existing census address list, and either verify or correct the address and location information. Much like Address Canvassing, enumerators classify each living quarter (LQ) as a housing unit or Group Quarter (GQ). If the LQ is classified as a GQ, no attempt is made to enumerate at the GQ within this test, since the plan for the 2020 Census is to have a unique operation enumerate GQs.
The enumerators will attempt to conduct an interview for each housing unit if there is no self-response. If someone answers the door, the enumerators will provide a Confidentiality Notice and ask about the address in order to verify or update the information, as appropriate. The enumerators will then ask if there are any additional LQs in the structure or on the property. If there are additional LQs, the enumerators will collect/update that information, as appropriate. The enumerator will then interview the respondent using the questionnaire on the mobile device.
If no one is home at a non-responding housing unit, the enumerator will leave a Notice of Visit inviting a respondent for each household to go online with an ID to complete the 2017 Census Test Questionnaire. The Notice of Visit will also include the phone number for Census Questionnaire Assistance if the respondent has any questions or would prefer to respond on the phone. The housing unit will be included in the Update Enumerate Followup until self-response is received.
The UE operation will have a UE Followup component for those households that were not enumerated on the first visit and have not responded via the Internet or telephone. The UE Followup will use the same contact strategies and business rules as Nonresponse Followup. UE enumerators will conduct the operation using then Census Bureau provided listing and enumeration application on a Census Bureau provided mobile device.
A sample of cases enumerated via Update Enumerate or Update Enumerate Followup will be selected for reinterview. The intention of this operation is to help pinpoint possible cases of enumerator falsification. Update Enumerate Reinterview will use the Census Bureau's enumeration software on mobile devices. We will also test centralized phone contacts of the reinterview cases before sending them to an enumerator in the field, providing potential cost savings.
A separate, nationally representative sample of 80,000 addresses will be drawn for a self-response-only operation, oversampled for areas with relatively higher concentrations of people estimated to identify as American Indian or Alaska Native. These addresses will receive mailed materials (letter, postcards and/or questionnaire) and can respond by Internet (either with or without a pre-assigned ID) or by returning a paper questionnaire or by telephone.
Households from both the test sites and the self-response sample areas will be eligible for the sample for content reinterview follow-up. This interview will be performed by telephone.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection;
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by Pinellas County, Florida, grantee of FTZ 193, requesting authority to reorganize and expand the zone under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new subzones or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone. The application was submitted pursuant to the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on August 2, 2016.
FTZ 193 was approved by the FTZ Board on February 17, 1993 (Board Order 630, 58 FR 11833, March 1, 1993). The current zone includes the following sites:
The grantee's proposed service area under the ASF would be Pinellas, Hernando and Pasco Counties, Florida, as described in the application. If approved, the grantee would be able to serve sites throughout the service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The application indicates that the proposed service area is within and adjacent to the St. Petersburg Customs and Border Protection port of entry.
The applicant is requesting authority to reorganize its existing zone to include existing Sites 1, 2 and 3 as “magnet” sites and Sites 4, 5, 6 and 7 would become “usage-driven” sites. The ASF allows for the possible exemption of one magnet site from the “sunset” time limits that generally apply to sites under the ASF, and the applicant proposes that Site 1 be so exempted. The application would have no impact on FTZ 193's previously authorized subzone.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is October 7, 2016. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to October 24, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
Pursuant to its authority under the Foreign-Trade Zones Act of June 18, 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) adopts the following Order:
WHEREAS, the Foreign-Trade Zones Act provides for “. . . the establishment . . . of foreign-trade zones in ports of entry of the United States, to expedite and encourage foreign commerce, and for other purposes,” and authorizes the Foreign-Trade Zones Board to grant to qualified corporations the privilege of establishing foreign-trade zones in or adjacent to U.S. Customs and Border Protection ports of entry;
WHEREAS, the Board's regulations (15 CFR part 400) provide for the establishment of subzones for specific uses;
WHEREAS, the Foreign-Trade Zone of Southeast Texas, Inc., grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 116, has made application to the Board to expand Subzone 116C on behalf of Premcor Refining Group Inc., to include an additional site and pipeline (Site 5) in Port Arthur, Texas (FTZ Docket B-6-2016, docketed February 9, 2016);
WHEREAS, notice inviting public comment has been given in the
WHEREAS, the Board adopts the findings and recommendations of the examiner's memorandum, and finds that the requirements of the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations are satisfied;
NOW, THEREFORE, the Board hereby approves the expansion of Subzone 116C on behalf of Premcor Refining Group Inc., as described in the application and
Pursuant to its authority under the Foreign-Trade Zones Act of June 18, 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), the Foreign-Trade Zones Board (the Board) adopts the following Order:
WHEREAS, the Foreign-Trade Zones Act provides for “. . . the establishment . . . of foreign-trade zones in ports of entry of the United States, to expedite and encourage foreign commerce, and for other purposes,” and authorizes the Foreign-Trade Zones Board to grant to qualified corporations the privilege of establishing foreign-trade zones in or adjacent to U.S. Customs and Border Protection ports of entry;
WHEREAS, the Board's regulations (15 CFR part 400) provide for the establishment of subzones for specific uses;
WHEREAS, the Massachusetts Port Authority, grantee of Foreign-Trade Zone 27, has made application to the Board for the establishment of a subzone at the facility of Barrett Distribution Centers, Inc., located in Franklin, Massachusetts (FTZ Docket B-9-2016, docketed 02-17-2016);
WHEREAS, notice inviting public comment has been given in the
WHEREAS, the Board adopts the findings and recommendations of the examiner's memorandum, and finds that the requirements of the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations are satisfied;
NOW, THEREFORE, the Board hereby approves subzone status at the facility of Barrett Distribution Centers, Inc., located in Franklin, Massachusetts (Subzone 27O), as described in the application and
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On July 18, 2016, the United States Court of International Trade (CIT) sustained the Department of Commerce's (Department) final results of redetermination in which the Department determined, under protest, that certain kitchen appliance door handles are not covered by the scope of the antidumping (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders on aluminum extrusions from the People's Republic of China.
James Terpstra, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: 202-482-3965.
On June 21, 2013, the Department issued a final scope ruling in which it determined that three types of kitchen appliance door handles (Types A, B, and C) imported by Meridian are within the scope of the
On December 7, 2015, the CIT issued an opinion and order in
On March 23, 2016, the Department issued its Final Results of Redetermination, in which it found, respectfully, under protest, that Meridian's Type B door handles are not covered by the scope of the
On July 18, 2016, in
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision with respect to the Kitchen Appliance Door Handles Scope Ruling, the Department amends its final scope ruling and finds that the scope of the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with section 516A(c)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting a new shipper review (NSR) of the antidumping duty order on certain preserved mushrooms from the People's Republic of China (PRC). The NSR covers merchandise exported by Linyi Yuqiao International Trade Co., Ltd. (Yuqiao) and produced by Linyi City Kangfa Drinkable Co., Ltd. The period of review (POR) is February 1, 2015 through July 31, 2015. The Department preliminarily determines that Yuqiao did not make a
Effective August 8, 2016.
Michael J. Heaney or Robert James, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4475 and (202) 482-0649, respectively.
On October 8, 2015, the Department published a notice of initiation of a new shipper review of the antidumping duty order on certain preserved mushrooms from the PRC.
The Department has exercised its discretion to toll all administrative deadlines due to the recent closure of the Federal government because of Snowstorm “Jonas.” Thus, all of the deadlines in this segment of the proceeding have been extended by four business days. The revised deadline for the preliminary results of this review, after the four business-day extension, was April 4, 2016.
The products covered by this order are certain preserved mushrooms, whether imported whole, sliced, diced, or as stems and pieces. The certain preserved mushrooms covered under this order are the species
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section
As discussed in the
Interested parties may submit case briefs no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary results of review.
Interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement & Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
All submissions, with limited exceptions, must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on the due date. Documents excepted from the electronic submission requirements must be filed manually (
Unless extended, the Department intends to issue the final results or final rescission of this NSR, which will include the results of its analysis of issues raised in any briefs received, no later than 90 days after the date these preliminary results of review are issued pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(B)(iii) of the Act.
If the Department proceeds to a final rescission of Yuqiao's NSR, the assessment rate to which Yuqiao's shipments will be subject will not be affected by this review. However, the Department initiated an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain preserved mushrooms from the PRC covering numerous exporters, including Yuqiao, for the period of February 1, 2015 through January 31, 2016, which overlaps with the period covered by this NSR.
If the Department does not proceed to a final rescission of this new shipper review, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1), we will calculate an importer-specific (or customer-specific) assessment rate based on the final results of this review. However, pursuant to the Department's refinement to its assessment practice in non-market economy cases,
Effective upon publication of the final rescission or the final results of this NSR, the Department will instruct CBP to discontinue the option of posting a bond or security in lieu of a cash deposit for entries of Yuqiao's subject merchandise. If the Department proceeds to a final rescission of this NSR, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the PRC-wide rate for Yuqiao, because the Department will not have determined an individual margin of dumping for Yuqiao. If the Department does not proceed to a final rescission in this NSR, the Department will instruct CBP to collect cash deposits, effective upon the publication of the final results, at the rate established therein.
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(2)(B) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
1. Summary
2. Background
3. Scope of the Order
4. Discussion of the Methodology
5. Conclusion
International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Notice of Application for an Amended Export Trade Certificate of Review by Northwest Fruit Exporters, Application No. 84-27A12.
The Secretary of Commerce, through the International Trade Administration, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis (OTEA), has received an application for an amended Export Trade Certificate of Review (“Certificate”) from Northwest Fruit Exporters. This notice summarizes the proposed amendment and seeks public comments on whether the amended Certificate should be issued.
Joseph E. Flynn, Director, Office of Trade and Economic Analysis, International Trade Administration, by telephone at (202) 482-5131 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Title III of the Export Trading Company Act of 1982 (15 U.S.C. 4001-21) authorizes the Secretary of Commerce to issue Export Trade Certificates of Review. An Export Trade Certificate of Review protects the holder and the members identified in the Certificate from State and Federal government antitrust actions and from private treble damage antitrust actions for the export conduct specified in the Certificate and carried out in compliance with its terms and conditions. Section 302(b)(1) of the Export Trading Company Act of 1982 and 15 CFR 325.6(a) require the Secretary to publish a notice in the
Interested parties may submit written comments relevant to the determination whether an amended Certificate should be issued. If the comments include any privileged or confidential business information, it must be clearly marked and a nonconfidential version of the comments (identified as such) should be included. Any comments not marked as privileged or confidential business information will be deemed to be nonconfidential.
An original and five (5) copies, plus two (2) copies of the nonconfidential version, should be submitted no later than 20 days after the date of this notice to: Export Trading Company Affairs, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 21028, Washington, DC 20230.
Information submitted by any person is exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). However, nonconfidential versions of the comments will be made available to the applicant if necessary for determining whether or not to issue the amended Certificate. Comments should refer to this application as “Export Trade Certificate of Review, application number 84-27A12.”
A summary of the current application follows.
1. Add the following companies as new Members of the Certificate within the meaning of section 325.2(l) of the Regulations (15 CFR 325.2(l)), for Export Trade Activities and Methods of Operation relating to apples (A):
2. Remove the following companies as Members of the Certificate:
3. Change the product listing for the following existing Members:
4. Update the city listing for the following existing Members:
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of public meetings and hearings.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council (Pacific Council) has begun the five-year review of its groundfish trawl catch share program, as required by the Magnuson Stevens Fishery Management and Conservation Act. It will also begin a concurrent review of its groundfish inter-sector allocations. This document announces the dates and locations of Pacific Council public hearings that will inform Council decisions on the content and focus for the review (review plan).
The hearings will begin on Wednesday, August 31, 2016, and end on Thursday, September 29, 2016. Written comments must be received by 5 p.m. on October 18, 2016. For specific hearing dates and times, see
Written comments should be sent to Mr. Herb Pollard, Chair, Pacific Fishery Management Council, 7700 NE. Ambassador Place, Suite 101, Portland, OR 97220-1384, telephone: 503-820-2280 (voice) or 503-820-2299 (fax). Comments can also be submitted via email at
Mr. Jim Seger, telephone: 503-820-2416.
Information on the review process is available from the Council Web site (
Public hearings will be held to receive comments on the content and focus for the review. Written comments received at the public hearings and a summary of oral comments at the hearings will be provided to the Pacific Council at its November 2016 meeting.
All public hearings begin at 7 p.m. at the following locations:
No actions will be taken at the hearings.
These public hearings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Mr. Kris Kleinschmidt, at 503-820-2280 (voice), or 503-820-2299 (fax) at least five days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of an incidental take authorization (IHA).
In accordance with regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) as amended, notification is hereby given that NMFS has issued an IHA to Fairweather, LLC (Fairweather) to take, by harassment, small numbers of 12 species of marine mammals incidental to an anchor retrieval program in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas, Alaska, during the open-water season of 2016.
This authorization is effective from July 1, 2016 through October 31, 2016.
Shane Guan, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting of such takings are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA established an expedited process by which citizens of the United States can apply for an authorization to incidentally take small numbers of marine mammals by harassment. Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA establishes a 45-day time limit for NMFS's review of an application followed by a 30-day public notice and comment period on any proposed authorizations for the incidental harassment of small numbers of marine mammals. Within 45 days of the close of the public comment period, NMFS must either issue or deny the authorization.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild [Level A harassment]; or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering [Level B harassment].
On February 2, 2016, NMFS received an application from Fairweather for the taking of marine mammals incidental to conducting anchor retrieval activities in the U.S. Chukchi and Beaufort seas. After receiving NMFS comments, Fairweather made revisions and updated its IHA application and marine mammal mitigation and monitoring plan on February 8, 2016. NMFS determined the IHA application adequate and complete on February 8, 2016. NMFS published a notice making preliminary determinations and proposing to issue an IHA on May 19, 2016 (81 FR 31594). The notice initiated a 30-day comment period.
Fairweather proposes to retrieve anchor equipment left by Shell Offshore, Inc. (Shell) during its 2012 and 2015 exploration drilling programs in the U.S. Chukchi and Beaufort seas. The proposed activity would occur between July 1 and October 31, 2016. Noise generated from anchor handling activities and vessel's dynamic positioning thrusters could impact marine mammals in the vicinity of the activities. Take, by Level B harassments, of individuals of eight species of marine mammals may result from the specified activity.
A detailed description of the Fairweather's anchor retrieval program is provided in the
A notice of NMFS' proposal to issue an IHA to Fairweather was published in the
NMFS discussed the recommendations with Fairweather and determined that the deployment of PAM devices in the vicinity of the anchor handling activities is not feasible because the anchor retrieval activity at each site would only take an average of 3.5 days, and none of the anchor retrieval vessels or the support vessel could be used to serve as a PAM platform during the operation. Deployment of bottom-mounted sensors for such a short duration would incur unreasonable expenses to such a small project. Nevertheless, Fairweather agreed and is required to coordinate closely with the subsistence communities nearest to each of the project site where it plans to retrieve anchors to ensure no unmitigable impact to subsistence use of marine mammals by these communities. A detailed description of the peer-review process and the panel's recommendation is presented in the
The Chukchi and Beaufort Seas support a diverse assemblage of marine mammals. Table 2 lists the 12 marine mammal species under NMFS jurisdiction with confirmed or possible occurrence in the proposed project area.
Among these species, bowhead, humpback, and fin whales are listed as endangered or threatened species under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). In addition, walrus and the polar bear could also occur in the U.S. Chukchi and Beaufort seas; however, these species are managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) and are not considered in this Notice of IHA.
Of all these species, bowhead and beluga whales and ringed, bearded, and spotted seals are the species most frequently sighted in the proposed activity area. The proposed action area in Chukchi and Beaufort seas also include areas that have been identified as important for bowhead whale reproduction during summer and fall and for beluga whale feeding and reproduction in summer.
Most spring-migrating bowhead whales would likely pass through the Chukchi Sea prior to the start of the planned anchor handling activities. However, a few whales that may remain in the Chukchi Sea during the summer could be encountered during the anchor handling activities or by transiting vessels. More encounters with bowhead whales would be likely to occur during the westward fall migration in late September through October. Most bowheads migrating in September and October appear to transit across the northern portion of the Chukchi Sea to the Chukotka coast before heading south toward the Bering Sea (Quakenbush
Two stocks of beluga whales occur in the proposed anchor retrieving project areas: The Eastern Chukchi stock and the Beaufort Sea stock. The Eastern Chukchi Sea belugas move into coastal areas, including Kasegaluk Lagoon, in late June and animals are sighted in the area until about mid-July (Frost
Ringed seals are year-round residents in the Bering Sea, Norton and Kotzebue Sounds, and throughout the Chukchi and Beaufort Seas and are the most frequently encountered seal in the area (Allen and Angliss 2015). They occur as far south as Bristol Bay in years of extensive ice coverage but are generally not abundant south of Norton Sound except in nearshore areas (Frost 1985). Ringed seals will likely be the most abundant marine mammal species encountered in the Chukchi Sea during anchor retrieval operations.
During spring when pupping, breeding, and molting occur, spotted seals are found along the southern edge of the sea ice in the Okhotsk and Bering seas (Quakenbush 1988; Rugh
Bearded seals occur over the continental shelves of the Bering, Chukchi, and Beaufort seas (Burns 1981b). During the summer period, bearded seals occur mainly in relatively shallow areas because they are predominantly benthic feeders (Burns 1981b). During winter, most bearded seals in Alaskan waters are found in the Bering Sea. From mid-April to June as the ice recedes, some of the bearded seals that overwinter in the Bering Sea migrate northward through the Bering Strait. During the summer they are found near the widely fragmented margin of sea ice covering the continental shelf of the Chukchi Sea and in nearshore areas of the central and western Beaufort Sea (Allen and Angliss 2015). Bearded seals are likely to be
Further information on the biology and local distribution of these species can be found in Fairweather's application (see
The effects of the stressors associated with the specified activity (
The environmental effects of Fairweather's proposed anchor retrieval activity, which includes noise exposure to marine mammal prey species and physical disturbances of project locations, are discussed in the
In order to issue an incidental take authorization under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses.
For the planned Fairweather open-water anchor retrieval operations in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas, Fairweather is required to implement the following mitigation measures to minimize the potential impacts to marine mammals in the project vicinity as a result of the activities. The primary purpose of these mitigation measures is to detect marine mammals and avoid vessel interactions during the anchor retrieval operation.
(1) Protected species observers (PSO) would establish and monitor a safety zone of 500 m for anchor retrieval activity and ice management. The modeled safety zone for anchor retrieval is 100 m from the source.
(2) When the vessel is positioned on-site, the PSOs will `clear' the area by observing the 500m safety zone for 30 minutes; if no marine mammals are observed within those 30 minutes, anchor retrieval or ice management will commence.
(3) If a marine mammal(s) is observed within the 500 m of the anchor retrieval and/or ice management safety zone during the clearing, the PSOs will continue to watch until the animal(s) is gone and has not returned for 15 minutes if the sighting was a pinniped, or 30 minutes if it was a cetacean.
(4) Once the PSOs have cleared the area, anchor retrieval or ice management operations may commence.
(5) Should a marine mammal(s) be observed within or approaching the 500 m safety zone during the retrieval or ice management operations, the PSOs will monitor and carefully record any reactions observed.
Although NMFS does not expect marine mammals would be taken by high-frequency sonar used for locating anchors, at Fairweather's suggestion the following mitigation and monitoring measures related to sonar operations will be implemented.
(1) PSOs would establish and monitor an exclusion zone of 500 m for sonar activity. The modeled exclusion zone for sonar activity is 100 m from the source.
(2) Prior to starting the sonar activity, the PSOs will `clear' the area by observing the 500 m exclusion zone for 30 minutes; if no marine mammals are observed within those 30 minutes, sonar activity will commence.
(3) If a marine mammal(s) is observed within the 500 m exclusion zone during the clearing, the PSOs will continue to watch until the animal(s) is gone and has not returned for 15 minutes if the sighting was a pinniped, or 30 minutes if it was a cetacean.
(4) Once the PSOs have cleared the area, sonar activity may commence.
PSOs would establish and monitor ZOIs where the received level is 120 dB during Fairweather's anchor retrieval operation and where the received level is 160 dB during sonar activity.
If a marine mammal is detected outside the 500 m sonar exclusion zone for sonar activities or during transit between sites, based on its position and the relative motion, is likely to enter those zones, the vessel's speed and/or direct course may, when practical and safe, be changed. The marine mammal activities and movements relative to the vessels shall be closely monitored to ensure that the marine mammal does not approach within either zone. If the mammal appears likely to enter the respective zone, further mitigation actions will be taken,
In addition, the vessel shall reduce its speed to 5 kt (9.26 km/h) or lower when within 900 ft (274 m) of cetaceans or pinnipeds. Further, Fairweather shall avoid transits within designated NPRW critical habitat. If transit within NPRW critical habitat cannot be avoided, vessel operators are requested to exercise extreme caution and observe the of 10 kt (18.52 km/h) vessel speed restriction while within North Pacific right whale critical habitat. Within the NPRW critical habitat, all vessels shall keep 2,625 ft (800 m) away from any observed NPRW and avoid approaching whales head-on, consistent with vessel safety.
If an animal enters or is approaching the 500 m exclusion zone, sonar will be shut down immediately. Sonar activity will not resume until the marine mammal has cleared the exclusion zone. PSOs will also collect behavioral information on marine mammals beyond the exclusion zone.
NMFS has carefully evaluated Fairweather's mitigation measures and considered a range of other measures in the context of ensuring that NMFS prescribes the means of effecting the least practicable impact on the affected marine mammal species and stocks and their habitat. Our evaluation of potential measures included consideration of the following factors in relation to one another:
• The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measures are
• The proven or likely efficacy of the specific measure to minimize adverse impacts as planned; and
• The practicability of the measure for applicant implementation.
Any mitigation measure(s) prescribed by NMFS should be able to accomplish, have a reasonable likelihood of accomplishing (based on current science), or contribute to the accomplishment of one or more of the general goals listed below:
1. Avoidance or minimization of injury or death of marine mammals wherever possible (goals 2, 3, and 4 may contribute to this goal).
2. A reduction in the numbers of marine mammals (total number or number at biologically important time or location) exposed to received levels of activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing harassment takes only).
3. A reduction in the number of times (total number or number at biologically important time or location) individuals would be exposed to received levels of activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing harassment takes only).
4. A reduction in the intensity of exposures (either total number or number at biologically important time or location) to received levels of activities expected to result in the take of marine mammals (this goal may contribute to 1, above, or to reducing the severity of harassment takes only).
5. Avoidance or minimization of adverse effects to marine mammal habitat, paying special attention to the food base, activities that block or limit passage to or from biologically important areas, permanent destruction of habitat, or temporary destruction/disturbance of habitat during a biologically important time.
6. For monitoring directly related to mitigation—an increase in the probability of detecting marine mammals, thus allowing for more effective implementation of the mitigation.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, NMFS has determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means of effecting the least practicable impact on marine mammals species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance. Measures to ensure availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses are discussed later in this document (see “Impact on Availability of Affected Species or Stock for Taking for Subsistence Uses” section).
In order to issue an ITA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(13) indicate that requests for ITAs must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Fairweather submitted a marine mammal monitoring plan as part of the IHA application.
Monitoring measures prescribed by NMFS should accomplish one or more of the following general goals:
1. An increase in our understanding of the likely occurrence of marine mammal species in the vicinity of the action,
2. An increase in our understanding of the nature, scope, or context of the likely exposure of marine mammal species to any of the potential stressor(s) associated with the action (
3. An increase in our understanding of how individual marine mammals respond (behaviorally or physiologically) to the specific stressors associated with the action (in specific contexts, where possible,
4. An increase in our understanding of how anticipated individual responses, to individual stressors or anticipated combinations of stressors, may impact either: The long-term fitness and survival of an individual; or the population, species, or stock (
5. An increase in our understanding of how the activity affects marine mammal habitat, such as through effects on prey sources or acoustic habitat (
6. An increase in understanding of the impacts of the activity on marine mammals in combination with the impacts of other anthropogenic activities or natural factors occurring in the region.
7. An increase in our understanding of the effectiveness of mitigation and monitoring measures.
8. An increase in the probability of detecting marine mammals (through improved technology or methodology), both specifically within the safety zone (thus allowing for more effective implementation of the mitigation) and in general, to better achieve the above goals.
Monitoring will provide information on the numbers of marine mammals potentially affected by the anchor retrieval operation and facilitate real-time mitigation to prevent injury of marine mammals by vessel traffic. These goals will be accomplished in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas during 2016 by conducting vessel-based monitoring to document marine mammal presence and distribution in the vicinity of the operation area.
Visual monitoring by PSOs during anchor retrieval operation, and periods when the operation is not occurring, will provide information on the numbers of marine mammals potentially affected by the activity. Vessel-based PSOs onboard the vessels will record the numbers and species of marine mammals observed in the area and any observable reaction of marine mammals to the anchor retrieval operation in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas.
Vessel-based monitoring for marine mammals would be done by trained PSOs throughout the period of anchor retrieval operation. The observers would monitor the occurrence of marine mammals onboard vessels during all daylight periods during operation. PSO duties would include watching for and identifying marine mammals; recording their numbers, distances, and reactions to the survey operations; and documenting “take by harassment.”
A sufficient number of PSOs would be required onboard each survey vessel to meet the following criteria:
• 100 percent monitoring coverage during all periods of anchor retrieval operations in daylight;
• Maximum of 4 consecutive hours on watch per PSO; and
• Maximum of 12 hours of watch time per day per PSO.
PSO teams will consist of Inupiat observers and experienced field biologists. Each vessel will have an experienced field crew leader to supervise the PSO team. The total number of PSOs may decrease later in the season as the duration of daylight decreases.
Lead PSOs and most PSOs would be individuals with experience as observers during marine mammal monitoring projects in Alaska or other offshore areas in recent years. New or inexperienced PSOs would be paired with an experienced PSO or experienced field biologist so that the quality of marine mammal observations and data recording is kept consistent.
Resumes for candidate PSOs would be provided to NMFS for review and acceptance of their qualifications. Inupiat observers would be experienced in the region and familiar with the marine mammals of the area. All observers would complete an observer training course designed to familiarize individuals with monitoring and data collection procedures.
The PSOs shall be provided with Fujinon 7 x 50 or equivalent binoculars for visual based monitoring onboard all vessels.
Laser range finders (Leica LRF 1200 laser rangefinder or equivalent) would be available to assist with distance estimation.
As part of the Chukchi Sea Environmental Studies Program (CSESP), marine mammal biologists collected behavioral response data on walruses and seals to the vessel. The objectives of the observer on the CSESP program were to collect information on marine mammal distribution and density estimates using standard line-transect theory. In other words, the program was not a mitigation program for any particular seismic activity. Because the vessels in this program will be transiting a large portion of the time, Fairweather proposes to utilize this opportunity to collect information on responses of marine mammals, particularly walruses and seals, to vessel disturbance.
As part of the standard Fairweather's observation protocol, observers will record the initial and subsequent behaviors of marine mammals, a methodology they refer to as `focal following.' Marine mammals will be monitored and observed until they disappear from the PSO's view (PSOs may have to follow the marine mammals by moving to new locations in order to keep the marine mammals in constant view). Observers will also record any perceived reactions that marine mammals may have in response to the vessel. When following the animal observers will use either a notebook or voice recorder to note any changes in behavior and the time when these changes occur. Time of first observation, time of changes in behavior, and time last seen will be recorded. Behaviors and changes in behaviors of marine mammals will be recorded as long as they are in view of the boat. After the animal is out of sight, PSOs will summarize the observation in the notes field of the electronic data collection platform. It may be difficult to find the animal being followed after it dives and if this happens, PSO will stop focal follow observation.
For large groups of marine mammals where it is difficult to monitor each animal, one or more focal animals, (
A separate section in the 90-day report (see below) will be provided with a summary of results of vessel disturbance, with the ultimate goal of a peer-reviewed publication.
The results of Fairweather's anchor retrieval program monitoring reports would be presented in weekly, monthly, and 90-day reports, as required by NMFS under the proposed IHA. The initial final reports are due to NMFS within 90 days after the expiration of the IHA (if issued). The reports will include:
• Summaries of monitoring effort (
• Summaries that represent an initial level of interpretation of the efficacy, measurements, and observations, rather than raw data, fully processed analyses, or a summary of operations and important observations;
• Information on distances marine mammals are sighted from operations and the associated noise isopleth for active sound sources (
• Analyses of the effects of various factors influencing detectability of marine mammals (
• Species composition, occurrence, and distribution of marine mammal sightings, including date, water depth, numbers, age/size/gender categories (if determinable), group sizes, and ice cover;
• Estimates of uncertainty in all take estimates, with uncertainty expressed by the presentation of confidence limits, a minimum-maximum, posterior probability distribution, or another applicable method, with the exact approach to be selected based on the sampling method and data available; and
• A clear comparison of authorized takes and the level of actual estimated takes.
The 90-day reports will be subject to review and comment by NMFS. Any recommendations made by NMFS must be addressed in the final report prior to acceptance by NMFS.
In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by the IHA, such as a serious injury, or mortality (
• Time, date, and location (latitude/longitude) of the incident;
• Name and type of vessel involved;
• Vessel's speed during and leading up to the incident;
• Description of the incident;
• Status of all sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
• Water depth;
• Environmental conditions (
• Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
• Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
• Fate of the animal(s); and
• Photographs or video footage of the animal(s) (if equipment is available).
Activities would not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS would work with Fairweather to determine necessary actions to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. Fairweather would not be able to resume its activities until notified by NMFS via letter, email, or telephone.
In the event that Fairweather discovers a dead marine mammal and the lead PSO determines that the cause of the death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
In the event that Fairweather discovers a dead marine mammal, and the lead PSO determines that the death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
The MMPA requires that monitoring plans be independently peer reviewed “where the proposed activity may affect the availability of a species or stock for taking for subsistence uses” (16 U.S.C. 1371(a)(5)(D)(ii)(III)). Regarding this requirement, NMFS' implementing regulations state, “Upon receipt of a complete monitoring plan, and at its discretion, [NMFS] will either submit the plan to members of a peer review panel for review or within 60 days of receipt of the proposed monitoring plan, schedule a workshop to review the plan” (50 CFR 216.108(d)).
NMFS convened an independent peer review panel to review Fairweather's Marine Mammal Monitoring and Mitigation Plan (4MP) for the planned anchor retrieval operation in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas. The panel met via web conference in early March 2016, and provided comments to NMFS in April 2016. The full panel report can be viewed online at:
NMFS provided the panel with Fairweather's IHA application and monitoring plan and asked the panel to answer the following questions:
1. Will the applicant's stated objectives effectively further the understanding of the impacts of their activities on marine mammals and otherwise accomplish the goals stated above? If not, how should the objectives be modified to better accomplish the goals above?
2. Can the applicant achieve the stated objectives based on the methods described in the plan?
3. Are there technical modifications to the proposed monitoring techniques and methodologies proposed by the applicant that should be considered to better accomplish their stated objectives?
4. Are there techniques not proposed by the applicant (
5. What is the best way for an applicant to present their data and results (formatting, metrics, graphics, etc.) in the required reports that are to be submitted to NMFS (
The peer-review panel report contains recommendations applicable to Fairweather's monitoring plans. Specifically, the panel recommended that Fairweather employ PAM in the vicinity of the proposed anchor handling activities to collect better data on the presence, calling behavior and possible impacts to marine mammals for all the locations where anchors are deployed. In addition, although not requested, the peer-review panel recommends that Fairweather coordinate closely with the communities nearest to each of the locations where it plans to retrieve anchors to avoid the peak of marine mammals' presence and subsistence hunting.
NMFS discussed the peer review panel report and its recommendation of conducting PAM in the vicinity of anchor retrieving sites with Fairweather and considers this recommendation is not practicable for Fairweather's anchor retrieving operations. As discussed in the
For close coordination with subsistence communities near the anchor retrieval locations, Fairweather states that it is committed to working very closely with the communities surrounding its activities. Fairweather has conducted meetings (either via teleconference in-person) with representatives from Kotzebue, Pt. Hope, Pt. Lay, Wainwright, Barrow, Nuiqsut, and Kaktovik. Fairweather will have experienced Inupiat Communicators/Observers (ICOs) onboard each of the vessels as liaisons to the communities from all communities. As part of the pre-season planning and safety seminar, whaling captains and members of Alaska Eskimo Whaling Commission will be presenting
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Takes by Level B harassments of some species are anticipated as a result of Fairweather's proposed anchor retrieval operation. NMFS expects marine mammal takes could result from noise propagation from anchor retrieving activities, which includes the operation of dynamic thrusters and other machinery noises generated from anchor retrieving using winch and steel cables. NMFS does not expect marine mammals would be taken by collision with vessels, because the vessels will be moving at low speeds, and PSOs on the vessels will be monitoring for marine mammals and will be able to alert the vessels to avoid any marine mammals in the area.
For non-impulse sounds, such as those produced by the dynamic positioning thrusters and anchor handling during Fairweather's anchor retrieval operation, NMFS uses the 180 and 190 dB (rms) re 1 μPa isopleth to indicate the onset of Level A harassment for cetaceans and pinnipeds, respectively; and the 120 dB (rms) re 1 μPa isopleth for Level B harassment of all marine mammals.
The estimates of the numbers of each species of marine mammal that could potentially be exposed to sound associated with the anchor retrieval activity are calculated by multiplying the area of ensonified areas by animal densities. Specifically, the ensonified area for anchor retrieving activities is the area where received noise levels are above 120 dB, during the periods when these activities would be occurring. For the 2015 IHA application for Shell's exploration drilling in the Chukchi Sea (Shell 2015), JASCO modeled the anchor handling activity using their estimated distance to 120 dB isopleths at 14,000 m (JASCO 2013). This yields an estimated 120 dB ensonified area of 615 km
The duration of sound-producing activity was calculated for each site. Although each anchor site has different configurations and numbers of anchors, Fairweather assumes it would take up to seven days per site to remove all anchors. Because the vessels will not be operating at full power during the entire time, Fairweather assumes half of the time (3.5 days) will be exceeding 120 dB. With five (5) anchor sites, this results in 17.5 days of anchor handling activity that may result in disturbance.
Each anchor site has different configurations and numbers of anchors, but Fairweather assumes it will take up to seven (7) days per site to remove all anchors. Because the vessels will not be operating at full power during the entire time, Fairweather assumed half of the time (3.5 days) will be utilizing the high power to unseat anchors. With five (5) anchor sites, this results in 17.5 days of anchor handling activity that may result in disturbance.
The densities of marine mammals per species were calculated using 2009-2014 Aerial Surveys of Arctic Marine Mammals (ASAMM) data (
The bowhead whale density estimate is separated into the Chukchi and Beaufort seas based on the ASAMM study areas for aerial data collected 2008-2014. For each depth stratum, the maximum density estimate was used for summer and fall (Table 3). The bowhead whale densities in the Chukchi Sea range up to 0.0145 whales/km
The beluga whale density estimate is separated into the Chukchi Sea and Beaufort Seas based on the ASAMM study areas for aerial data collected 2008-2014. For each depth stratum, the maximum density estimate was used for summer and fall (Table 3). The beluga whale densities in the Chukchi Sea range up to 0.1633 whales/km
The gray whale density estimate is only in the Chukchi Sea based on the ASAMM study areas for aerial data collected 2008-2014. For each depth stratum, the maximum density estimate was used for summer and fall (Table 3). The gray whale densities in the Chukchi Sea range up to 0.2594 whales/km
Shell (2015) derived average and maximum density estimates for summer and fall from all available open-water research and monitoring data. For the purposes of this project, the maximum of the density estimates were used, regardless of whether the density was for summer or fall (Table 3). The maximum density is 0.0044 whales/km
Shell (2015) derived average and maximum density estimates for summer and fall from all available open-water research and monitoring data. For the purposes of this project, the maximum of the density estimates were used, regardless of whether the density was for summer or fall (Table 3). The maximum density is 0.6075 seals/km
The estimates of the numbers of each marine mammal species that could potentially be exposed to sound associated with the anchor retrieval program, specifically the unseating of anchors, potential side scan sonar survey, and potential ice management, were estimated by multiplying the following three variables: (1) The area (in km
Since the two stocks occur in the Beaufort and Chukchi seas and one cannot distinguish them visually, the pooled densities in different seasons represent the presence of both stocks. The current abundance estimate for the Eastern Chukchi Sea Stock is 3,710 individuals and the abundance estimate for the Beaufort Sea Stock is 39,258 individuals (Allen and Angliss 2014), resulting in a combined total estimate of 42,968 individuals. The Eastern Chukchi Sea Stock is, therefore, considered to represent 8.6 percent of the combined population and the Beaufort Sea Stock is considered to represent 91.4 percent of the same. Therefore, the estimated takes of each beluga stock were based on the proportion of these stocks, with 8.6 percent account for the Eastern Chukchi Sea Stock, and 91.4 percent account for the Beaufort Sea Stock for both summer and fall.
A summary of the total number of estimated exposures per species, per sea, and per season is provided in Table 4.
The estimated Level B harassment takes as a percentage of the marine mammal stock are less than 3.37 percent in all cases (Table 4). The highest percent of population estimated to be taken is 3.37 percent by Level B harassment of the bowhead whale.
Negligible impact is “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival” (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, this discussion of our analyses generally applies to all the species listed in Table 4, given that the anticipated effects of Fairweather's anchor retrieving operation on marine mammals (taking into account the proposed mitigation) are expected to be relatively similar in nature. Where there are meaningful differences between species or stocks, or groups of species, in anticipated individual responses to activities, impact of expected take on the population due to differences in population status, or impacts on habitat, they are pointed out below.
No injuries or mortalities are anticipated to occur as a result of Fairweather's anchor retrieving operation, and none are proposed to be authorized. Additionally, animals in the area are not expected to incur hearing impairment (
Mitigation measures, such as controlled vessel speed and dedicated marine mammal observers, will ensure that takes are within the level being analyzed. In all cases, the effects are expected to be short-term, with no lasting biological consequences.
Of the 12 marine mammal species likely to occur in the proposed anchor retrieving area, bowhead, humpback, and fin whales are listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA. These species are also designated as “depleted” under the MMPA. None of the other species that may occur in the project area are listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA or designated as depleted under the MMPA.
Fairweather's proposed activities overlap areas that have been identified as biologically important areas (BIAs) for feeding for the gray and bowhead whales and for reproduction for gray whale during the summer and fall months (Clarke
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total marine mammal take from Fairweather's proposed anchor retrieving operation in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas is not expected to adversely affect the affected species or stocks through impacts on annual rates of recruitment or survival, and therefore will have a negligible impact on the affected marine mammal species or stocks.
The authorized takes represent less than 3.37 percent of all populations or stocks potentially impacted (see Table 4 in this document). The number of marine mammals authorized to be taken are small in proportion to the total populations of the affected species or stocks.
Subsistence hunting is an essential aspect of Iñupiat life, especially in rural coastal villages. The Iñupiat participate in subsistence hunting activities in and around the Chukchi and Beaufort Seas. The animals taken for subsistence provide a significant portion of the food that will last the community through the year. Marine mammals represent on the order of 60-80 percent of the total subsistence harvest. Along with the nourishment necessary for survival, the subsistence activities strengthen bonds within the culture, provide a means for educating the younger generation, provide supplies for artistic expression, and allow for important celebratory events.
The MMPA requires that any harassment not result in an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of species or stocks for taking (101(a)(5)(D)(i)(II)). Unmitigable adverse impact is defined as (50 CFR 216.103):
• An impact resulting from the specified activity that is likely to reduce the availability of the species to a level insufficient for a harvest to meet subsistence needs by:
• Causing marine mammals to abandon or avoid hunting areas;
• Directly displacing subsistence users;
• Placing physical barriers between the marine mammals and the subsistence users; and
• Cannot be sufficiently mitigated by other measures to increase the availability of marine mammals to allow subsistence needs to be met.
In the following sub-sections, the major animals used for subsistence by villages of the upper-west and north coast of Alaska are discussed (bowhead whale, beluga whale, and all three common species of seals (ringed, spotted, and bearded seals)).
Anchor handling-related vessel traffic may traverse some areas used during bowhead harvests by Chukchi and Beaufort villages. Bowhead hunts by residents of Wainwright, Point Hope, and Point Lay take place almost exclusively in the spring prior to the date on which the vessels would commence the proposed anchor handling program. From 1984 through 2009, all bowhead harvests by these Chukchi Sea villages occurred only between April 14 and June 24 (George and Tarpley 1986; George
Barrow crews have traditionally hunted bowheads during both spring and fall; however, spring whaling by Barrow crews is normally finished before the date on which anchor handling operations would commence. From 1984 through 2011 whales were harvested in the spring by Barrow crews only between April 23 and June 15 (George and Tarpley 1986; George
Nuiqsut and Kaktovik crews traditionally hunt during the fall, harvesting in late August through September. The Alaska Eskimo Whaling Commission (AEWC) requires that all industry activities cease working east of 150° W. by August 25th for the start of whaling for those communities. The anchor handling vessels will enter the Beaufort Sea as soon as ice at Point Barrow allows for safe passage and will complete the Sivulliq anchor retrieval well before August 25th. If a sonar survey is required on this site, it will take place after the completion of the fall hunt and has been cleared by both communities.
Beluga whales typically do not represent a large proportion of the subsistence harvests by weight in the communities of Wainwright and Barrow, the nearest communities to the planned anchor handling project area. Barrow residents hunt beluga in the spring (normally after the bowhead hunt) in leads between Point Barrow and Skull Cliffs in the Chukchi Sea, primarily in April-June and later in the summer (July-August) on both sides of the barrier island in Elson Lagoon/Beaufort Sea (Minerals Management Service (MMS) 2008), but harvest rates indicate the hunts are not frequent. Wainwright residents hunt beluga in April-June in the spring lead system, but this hunt typically occurs only if there are no bowheads in the area. Communal hunts for beluga are conducted along the coastal lagoon system later in July-August.
Belugas typically represent a much greater proportion of the subsistence harvest in Kotzebue, Point Lay, and Point Hope. Point Lay's primary beluga hunt occurs from mid-June through mid-July, but can sometimes continue into August if early success is not sufficient. Point Hope residents hunt beluga primarily in the lead system during the spring (late March to early June), but also in open water along the coastline in July and August. Belugas are harvested in spring mid-June through mid-July in Kotzebue, but the timing can vary based on beluga movement. Belugas are harvested in coastal waters near these villages, generally within a few miles from shore. In the Chukchi, the anchor retrieval sites are located more than 60 mi (97 km) offshore, therefore proposed anchor handling in the project area would have no or minimal impacts on beluga hunts.
The retrieval of anchors around Kotzebue is located nearshore and has the most potential for disturbance to beluga harvest. Fairweather will be required to communicate with the Kotzebue Whaling Commission, AEWC, and Com Center (if established) during operations in this area to avoid any conflict. Vessels will move offshore if Fairweather is not cleared to conduct activities.
Disturbance associated with vessel traffic could potentially affect beluga hunts. However, all of the beluga hunt by Barrow residents in the Chukchi Sea, and much of the hunt by Wainwright residents would likely be completed before anchor handling activities would commence. Additionally, vessel traffic associated with the anchor handling program will be restricted under normal conditions to designated corridors that remain onshore or proceed directly offshore thereby minimizing the amount of traffic in coastal waters where beluga hunts take place. The designated vessel traffic corridors do not traverse areas indicated in recent mapping as utilized by Point Lay or Point Hope for beluga hunts, and avoids important beluga hunting areas in Kasegaluk Lagoon that are used by Wainwright.
Seals are an important subsistence resource and ringed seals make up the bulk of the seal harvest. Most ringed and bearded seals are harvested in the winter or in the spring before the anchor handling program would commence, but some harvest continues during open water and could possibly be affected by the planned activities. Spotted seals are also harvested during the summer. Most seals are harvested in coastal waters, with available maps of recent and past subsistence use areas indicating seal harvests have occurred only within 48-64 km (30-40 mi) of the coastline. The anchor handling retrieval sites are located more than 103 km (64 mi) offshore, so activities are thought to possibly have an impact on subsistence
Mitigation measures to be implemented include participation in operational Com Centers (below). With these mitigation measures and the nature of the proposed action, we are confident that any harassment of seals resulting from the 2016 anchor handling program will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of seals to be taken for subsistence uses.
Regulations at 50 CFR 216.104(a)(12) require IHA applicants for activities that take place in Arctic waters to provide a Plan of Cooperation (POC) or information that identifies what measures have been taken and/or will be taken to minimize adverse effects on the availability of marine mammals for subsistence purposes.
Fairweather has prepared a draft POC, which was developed by identifying and evaluating any potential effects the proposed anchor retrieving operation might have on seasonal abundance that is relied upon for subsistence use.
Specifically, Fairweather will take important time periods into consideration when planning its anchor retrieving operation, including the beluga whale subsistence activities near Kotzebue and in the Chukchi Sea, and bowhead whale subsistence activities in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas. Fairweather plans to enter the Beaufort Sea as soon as Point Barrow is ice-free and be finished at the Sivulliq location well before the August 25, 2016 commencement date of bowhead whaling. Although not anticipated with the proposed schedule, if crew changes are needed, they will occur at either Wainwright or Prudhoe Bay depending on the location of the vessel. Fairweather will work with the community of Wainwright through its joint venture with Olgoonik Corporation. Through the establishment of village liaisons and onboard PSOs, Fairweather will ensure there are no conflicts with subsistence activities.
Fairweather has developed a communication plan and will implement this plan before initiating the anchor handling program. The plan will help coordinate activities with local Com Centers and thus subsistence users, minimize the risk of interfering with subsistence hunting activities, and keep current as to the timing and status of the bowhead whale hunt and other subsistence hunts. The communication plan includes procedures for coordination with Com Centers to be located in coastal villages along the Chukchi Sea during the proposed anchor handling activities.
Fairweather attended the AEWC meeting in Barrow from February 3-5 and presented the project components and developing mechanisms to work with the communities to present consistent and concise information regarding the planned anchor handling program. Fairweather intends to sign a Conflict Avoidance Agreement (CAA).
Throughout 2016, Fairweather will continue its engagement with the marine mammal commissions and committees active in the subsistence harvests and marine mammal research.
Within the project area, the bowhead, humpback, and fin whales are listed as endangered under the ESA. NMFS' Permits and Conservation Division engaged in consultation with staff in NMFS' Alaska Region Protected Resources Division under section 7 of the ESA on the issuance of an IHA to Fairweather under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for this activity. In May 2016, NMFS issued a Biological Opinion concluding that the issuance of the IHA associated with Fairweather's anchor retrieval operations in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas during the 2016 open-water season is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the endangered bowhead, humpback, and fin whales. No critical habitat has been designated for these species, therefore none will be affected.
NMFS prepared an Environmental Assessment (EA) that includes an analysis of potential environmental effects associated with NMFS' issuance of an IHA to Fairweather to take marine mammals incidental to conducting anchor retrieval operations in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas. The draft EA was available to the public for a 30-day comment period before it was finalized. Based on the EA, NMFS made a Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) for this action. The FONSI was signed on June 30, 2016, prior to this issuance of the IHA. Therefore, preparation of an Environmental Impact Statement is not necessary.
As a result of these determinations, NMFS has issued an IHA to Fairweather for the take of marine mammals, by Level B harassment, incidental to conducting anchor retrieval operations in the Chukchi and Beaufort seas during the 2016 open-water season, which also includes the mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements described in this Notice.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice; republication.
Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) Numbers: 84.063; 84.038; 84.033; 84.007; 84.268; 84.408; 84.379.
This notice is a republication of a May 24, 2016 notice (81 FR 32737) to include information that was missing from the original version. The only change to this version is in the “Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance” table under the “Parents of Dependent Students” section, where the first row of information was missing from the original notice. No other information has changed.
The Secretary announces the annual updates to the tables used in the statutory Federal Need Analysis Methodology that determines a student's expected family contribution (EFC) for award year 2017-18 for these student financial aid programs. The intent of this notice is to alert the financial aid community and the broader public to these required annual updates used in the determination of student aid eligibility.
Marya Dennis, U.S. Department of Education, Room 63G2, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3385.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Part F of title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), specifies the criteria, data elements, calculations, and tables the Department of Education (Department) uses in the Federal Need Analysis Methodology to determine the EFC.
Section 478 of the HEA requires the Secretary to annually update the following four tables for price inflation—the Income Protection Allowance (IPA), the Adjusted Net Worth (NW) of a Business or Farm, the Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance, and the Assessment Schedules and Rates. The updates are based, in general, upon increases in the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
For award year 2017-18, the Secretary is charged with updating the IPA for parents of dependent students, adjusted NW of a business or farm, the education savings and asset protection allowance, and the assessment schedules and rates to account for inflation that took place between December 2015 and December 2016. However, because the Secretary must publish these tables before December 2016, the increases in the tables must be based on a percentage equal to the estimated percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for 2016. The Secretary must also account for any under- or over-estimation of inflation for the preceding year.
In developing the table values for the 2016-17 award year, the Secretary assumed a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2014 through December 2015. Actual inflation for this time period was .7 percent. The Secretary estimates that the increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2015 through December 2016 will be 2.1 percent.
Additionally, section 601 of the College Cost Reduction and Access Act of 2007 (CCRAA, Pub. L. 110-84) amended sections 475 through 478 of the HEA affecting the IPA tables for the 2009-10 through 2012-13 award years and required the Department to use a percentage of the estimated CPI to update the table in subsequent years. These changes to the IPA impact dependent students, as well as independent students with dependents other than a spouse and independent students without dependents other than a spouse. This notice includes the new 2017-18 award year values for the IPA tables, which reflect the CCRAA amendments. The updated tables are in sections 1 (Income Protection Allowance), 2 (Adjusted Net Worth of a Business or Farm), and 4 (Assessment Schedules and Rates) of this notice.
As provided for in section 478(d) of the HEA, the Secretary must also revise the education savings and asset protection allowances for each award year. The Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance table for award year 2017-18 has been updated in section 3 of this notice.
Section 478(h) of the HEA also requires the Secretary to increase the amount specified for the employment expense allowance, adjusted for inflation. This calculation is based on increases in the Bureau of Labor Statistics' marginal costs budget for a two-worker family compared to a one-worker family. The items covered by this calculation are: Food away from home, apparel, transportation, and household furnishings and operations. The Employment Expense Allowance table for award year 2017-18 has been updated in section 5 of this notice.
The HEA requires the following annual updates:
1.
For each additional family member add $4,290. For each additional college student subtract $3,050.
The IPAs for independent students with dependents other than a spouse for award year 2017-18 are as follows:
For each additional family member add $6,060. For each additional college student subtract $4,300.
The IPAs for single independent students and independent students without dependents other than a spouse for award year 2017-18 are as follows:
2.
The portion of these assets included in the contribution calculation is computed according to the following schedule. This schedule is used for parents of dependent students, independent students without dependents other than a spouse, and independent students with dependents other than a spouse.
3.
4.
The parents' contribution for a dependent student is computed according to the following schedule:
The contribution for an independent student with dependents other than a spouse is computed according to the following schedule:
5.
The employment expense allowance for parents of dependent students, married independent students without dependents other than a spouse, and independent students with dependents other than a spouse is the lesser of $4,000 or 35 percent of earned income.
6.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
20 U.S.C. 1087rr.
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, Department of Education.
Notice.
Enhanced Assessment Instruments Grant Program—Enhanced Assessment Instruments.
Notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2016.
These priorities are:
Collaborate with institutions of higher education, other research institutions, or other organizations to improve the quality, validity, and reliability of State academic assessments beyond the requirements for these assessments described in section 1111(b)(3) of the ESEA, as amended by NCLB.
Measure student academic achievement using multiple measures of student academic achievement from multiple sources.
Chart student progress over time.
Evaluate student academic achievement through the development of comprehensive academic assessment instruments, such as performance- and
These priorities are:
Under this priority, SEAs must:
(a) Develop, evaluate, and implement new, innovative item types for use in summative assessments in reading/language arts, mathematics, or science;
(1) Development of innovative item types under paragraph (a) may include, for example, performance tasks; simulations; or interactive, multi-step, technology-rich items that can support competency-based assessments or portfolio projects;
(2) Projects under this priority must be designed to develop new methods for collecting evidence about a student's knowledge and abilities and ensure the quality, validity, reliability, and fairness (such as by incorporating principles of universal design for learning) of the assessment and comparability of student data; or
(b) Develop new approaches to transform traditional, end-of-year summative assessment forms with many items into a series of modular assessment forms, each with fewer items than the end-of-year summative assessment.
(1) To respond to paragraph (b), applicants must develop modular assessment approaches which can be used to provide timely feedback to educators and parents as well as be combined to provide a valid, reliable, and fair summative assessment of individual students.
(c) Applicants proposing projects under either paragraph (a) or (b) must provide a dissemination plan to share lessons learned and best practices such that their projects can serve as models and resources that can be shared with other States.
Under this priority, SEAs must:
(a) Develop innovative tools that leverage technology to score assessments;
(1) To respond to paragraph (a), applicants must propose projects to reduce the time it takes to provide test results to educators, parents, and students and to make it more cost-effective to include non-multiple choice items on assessments. These innovative tools must improve automated scoring of student assessments, in particular non-multiple choice items in reading/language arts, mathematics, or science; or
(b) Propose projects, in consultation with organizations representing parents (including parents of English learners and parents of students with disabilities), students, teachers, counselors, and school administrators to address needs related to score reporting and improve the utility of information about student performance included in reports of assessment results and provide better and more timely information to educators and parents;
(1) To respond to paragraph (b), applicants must include one or more of the following in their projects:
(i) Developing enhanced score reporting templates or digital mechanisms for communicating assessment results and their meaning (such as by providing clear and actionable next steps for parents);
(ii) Improving the assessment literacy of educators and parents to help them interpret test results and to support teaching and learning in the classroom (such as by providing training on test development and interpretation of test scores); and
(iii) Developing mechanisms for secure transmission and individual use of assessment results by students and parents.
(c) Applicants proposing projects under either paragraph (a) or (b) must provide a dissemination plan to share lessons learned and best practices such that their projects can serve as models and resources that can be shared with other States.
(a) Under this priority, SEAs must—
(1) Review statewide and local assessments to ensure that each test is of high quality, maximizes instructional goals, has a clear purpose and utility, and is designed to help students demonstrate mastery of State standards;
(2) Determine whether assessments are serving their intended purpose to measure student achievement and identify gaps in students' knowledge and skills and to eliminate redundant and unnecessary testing; and
(3) Review State and LEA strategies and activities related to test preparation to make sure those strategies and activities are focused on academic content and not on test-taking skills.
(b) To meet the requirements in paragraph (a), SEAs must ensure that tests, including statewide and local assessments are—
(1) Worth taking, meaning that assessments are a component of good instruction and require students to perform the same kind of complex work they do in an effective classroom and the real world;
(2) High quality, resulting in actionable, objective information about students' knowledge and skills, including by assessing the full range of relevant State standards, eliciting complex student demonstrations or applications of knowledge, providing an accurate measure of student achievement, and producing information that can be used to measure student growth accurately over time;
(3) Time-limited, in order to balance instructional time and the need for assessments, for example, by eliminating duplicative assessments and assessments that incentivize low-quality test preparation strategies that consume valuable classroom time;
(4) Fair for all students and used to support equity in educational opportunity by ensuring that accessibility features and accommodations level the playing field so tests accurately reflect what all students, including students with disabilities and English learners, know and can do;
(5) Fully transparent to students and parents, so that States and districts can clearly explain to parents the purpose, the source of the requirement (if appropriate), and the use by teachers and schools, and provide feedback to parents and students on student performance; and
(6) Tied to improving student learning as tools in the broader work of teaching and learning.
(c) Approaches to assessment inventories under paragraph (a) must include:
(1) Review of the schedule for administration of all assessments required at the Federal, State, and local levels;
(2) Review of the purpose of, and legal authority for, administration of all assessments required at the Federal, State, and local levels; and
(3) Feedback on the assessment system from stakeholders, which could include information on how teachers, principals, other school leaders, and administrators use assessment data to inform and differentiate instruction, how much time teachers spend on assessment preparation and administration, and the assessments that administrators, teachers, principals, other school leaders, parents, and students do and do not find useful.
(d) Projects under this priority—
(1) Must be no longer than 12 months;
(2) Must include a longer-term project plan, understanding that, beginning with FY 2017, there may be dedicated Federal funds for assessment audit work as authorized under section 1202 of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA, and understanding that States and LEAs may use other Federal funds, such as the State assessment grant funds, authorized under section 1201 of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA, consistent with the purposes for those funds, to implement such plans; and
(3) Must have a budget of $200,000 or less.
An eligible applicant awarded a grant under this program must:
(a) Evaluate the validity, reliability, and fairness of any assessments or other assessment-related instruments developed under a grant from this competition, and make available documentation of evaluations of technical quality through formal mechanisms (
(b) Actively participate in any applicable technical assistance activities conducted or facilitated by the Department or its designees, coordinate with the Race To The Top Assessment program in the development of assessments under this program, and participate in other activities as determined by the Department;
(c) Develop a strategy to make student-level data that result from any assessments or other assessment-related instruments developed under a grant from this competition available on an ongoing basis for research, including for prospective linking, validity, and program improvement studies;
(d) Ensure that any assessments or other assessment-related instruments developed under a grant from this competition will be operational (ready for large-scale administration) at the end of the project period;
(e) Ensure that funds awarded under the EAG program are not used to support the development of standards, such as under the English language proficiency assessment system priority or any other priority;
(f) Maximize the interoperability of any assessments and other assessment-related instruments developed with funds from this competition across technology platforms and the ability for States to move their assessments from one technology platform to another by doing the following, as applicable, for any assessments developed with funds from this competition by—
(1) Developing all assessment items in accordance with an industry-recognized, open-licensed, interoperability standard that is approved by the Department during the grant period, without non-standard extensions or additions; and
(2) Producing all student-level data in a manner consistent with an industry-recognized open-licensed interoperability standard that is approved by the Department during the grant period;
(g) Unless otherwise protected by law or agreement as proprietary information, make any assessment content (
(h) For any assessments and other assessment-related instruments developed with funds from this competition, use technology to the maximum extent appropriate to develop, administer, and score the assessments and report results.
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in FY 2016 from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
For Competitive Preference Priority 1 and Competitive Preference Priority 2, applicants should submit a single budget and propose a project period of up to 48 months. Applicants should propose a project period that is up to 48 months, based on a timeline that takes into account the urgency of the need of the final project findings and products to be accessible to the field. Subject to the availability of future years' funds, the Department may make supplemental grant awards to grants awarded in this competition. Applicants that address Competitive Preference Priority 3 may not propose a project period of greater than 12 months or a budget of greater than $200,000. If an applicant addresses Competitive Preference Priority 3, as well as one of the other competitive preference priorities, then that portion of the proposed project period attributable to the project activities under Competitive Preference Priority 3 may not exceed 12 months; and that portion of the proposed budget attributable to the project activities under Competitive Preference Priority 3 may not exceed $200,000.
1.
2.
3.
1.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain a copy of the application package in an accessible format (
2.
• A “page” is 8.5″ x 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The page limit applies to the project narrative, including the table of contents, which must include a discussion of how the application meets one or more of the absolute priorities; if applicable, how the application meets one or more of the competitive preference priorities; and how well the application addresses each of the selection criteria. The page limit also applies to any attachments to the project narrative other than the items mentioned in Part 6 of the application package, including the references/bibliography. In other words, the entirety of the project narrative, including the aforementioned discussion and any attachments to the project narrative, must be limited to the equivalent of no more than 65 pages. The only allowable attachments other than those included in the project narrative are outlined in Part 6, “Other Attachments Forms,” in the application package. Any attachments other than those included within the page limit of the project narrative and those outlined in Part 6 will not be reviewed.
The 65-page limit, or its equivalent, does not apply to the following sections of an application: Part 1 (including the response regarding research activities involving human subjects); Part 2 (budget information); Part 3 (two-page project abstract); Part 5 (the budget narrative); Part 6 (memoranda of understanding or other binding agreement, if applicable; copy of applicant's indirect cost rate agreement; letters of commitment and support from collaborating SEAs and organizations; other attachments forms, including, if applicable, references/bibliography for the project narrative and individual résumés for project director(s) and key personnel); and Part 7 (standard assurances and certifications). Applicants are encouraged to limit each résumé to no more than five pages.
In addition, do not use hyperlinks in an application. Reviewers will be instructed not to follow hyperlinks if included. Our reviewers will not read any pages of your project narrative that exceed the page limit, or the equivalent of the page limit if you apply other standards. Applicants are encouraged to submit applications that meet the page limit following the standards outlined in this section rather than submitting applications that are the equivalent of the page limit applying other standards.
3.
We will be able to develop a more efficient process for reviewing grant applications if we have a better understanding of the number of applicants that intend to apply for funding under this competition. Therefore, we strongly encourage each potential applicant to notify us of the applicant's intent to submit an application for funding. This notification should be brief, and identify the SEA applicant and, if applicable, the SEA that it will designate as the fiscal agent for an award (
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact the person listed under
4.
5.
6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet at the following Web site:
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data you enter into the SAM database. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, it may be 24 to 48 hours before you can access the information in, and submit an application through,
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via
7.
a.
Applications for grants under the EAG competition, CFDA number 84.368A, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the EAG competition at www.
Please note the following:
• When you enter the
• Applications received by
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your Internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: The Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a read-only, non-modifiable Portable Document Format (PDF). Do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, non-modifiable PDF (
• Your electronic application must comply with any page-limit requirements described in this notice.
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from
Once your application is successfully validated by
These emails do not mean that your application is without any disqualifying errors. While your application may have been successfully validated by
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the
• You do not have access to the Internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the Internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Donald Peasley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3E124, Washington, DC 20202-6132. FAX: (202) 401-1557.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand-delivery instructions described in this notice.
b.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center,
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
We will not consider applications postmarked after the application deadline date.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
c.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the original and two copies of your application by hand, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center,
The Application Control Center accepts hand deliveries daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
If you mail or hand deliver your application to the Department—
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the competition under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
(a)
The Secretary considers the need for the proposed project. In determining the need for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The magnitude of severity of the problem to be addressed by the proposed project.
2. The magnitude of the need for the services to be provided or the activities to be carried out by the proposed project.
3. The extent to which specific gaps or weaknesses in services, infrastructure, or opportunities have been identified and will be addressed by the proposed project, including the nature and magnitude of those gaps or weaknesses.
(b)
The Secretary considers the significance of the proposed project. In determining the significance of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The significance of the problem or issue to be addressed by the proposed project.
2. The potential contribution of the proposed project to the development and advancement of theory, knowledge, and practices in the field of study.
3. The potential for generalizing from the findings or results of the proposed project.
4. The extent to which the proposed project involves the development or demonstration of promising new strategies that build on, or are alternatives to, existing strategies.
5. The likely utility of the products (such as information, materials, processes, or techniques) that will result from the proposed project, including the potential for their being used effectively in a variety of other settings.
(c)
The Secretary considers the quality of the design of the proposed project. In determining the quality of the design of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The extent to which the goals, objectives, and outcomes to be achieved by the proposed project are clearly specified and measurable.
2. The extent to which there is a conceptual framework underlying the proposed research or demonstration activities and the quality of that framework.
3. The extent to which the proposed activities constitute a coherent, sustained, program of research and development in the field, including, as appropriate, a substantial addition to an ongoing line of inquiry.
4. The extent to which the proposed project is based upon a specific research design, and the quality and appropriateness of that design, including the scientific rigor of the studies involved.
5. The extent to which the proposed development efforts include adequate quality controls and, as appropriate, repeated testing of products.
6. The extent to which the design of the proposed project reflects up-to-date knowledge from research and effective practice.
7. The quality of the methodology to be employed in the proposed project.
8. The potential and planning for the incorporation of project purposes, activities, or benefits into the ongoing work of the applicant beyond the end of the grant.
(d)
The Secretary considers the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project. In determining the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project, the Secretary considers the quality and sufficiency of strategies for ensuring equal access and treatment for eligible project participants who are members of groups that have traditionally been underrepresented based on race, color, national origin, gender, age, or disability. In addition, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The extent to which the training or professional development services to be provided by the proposed project are of sufficient quality, intensity, and duration to lead to improvements in practice among the recipients of those services.
2. The likelihood that the services to be provided by the proposed project will lead to improvements in the achievement of students as measured against rigorous academic standards.
(e)
The Secretary considers the quality of the personnel who will carry out the proposed project. In determining the quality of project personnel, the Secretary considers the extent to which the applicant encourages applications for employment from persons who are members of groups that have traditionally been underrepresented based on race, color, national origin, gender, age, or disability. In addition, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of the project director or principal investigator.
2. The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of key project personnel.
3. The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of project consultants or subcontractors.
(f)
The Secretary considers the adequacy of resources for the proposed project. In determining the adequacy of resources for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The adequacy of support, including facilities, equipment, supplies, and other resources, from the application organization or the lead applicant organization.
2. The relevance and demonstrated commitment of each partner in the proposed project to the implementation and success of the project.
3. The extent to which the budget is adequate to support the proposed project.
4. The extent to which the costs are reasonable in relation to the objectives, design, and potential significance of the proposed project.
(g)
The Secretary considers the quality of the management plan for the proposed project. In determining the quality of the management plan for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The adequacy of the management plan to achieve the objectives of the proposed project on time and within budget, including clearly defined responsibilities, timelines, and milestones for accomplishing project tasks.
2. The adequacy of procedures for ensuring feedback and continuous improvement in the operation of the proposed project.
3. The adequacy of mechanisms for ensuring high-quality products and services from the proposed project.
4. The extent to which the time commitments of the project director and principal investigator and other key project personnel are appropriate and adequate to meet the objectives of the proposed project.
(h)
The Secretary considers the quality of the evaluation to be conducted of the proposed project. In determining the quality of the evaluation, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The extent to which the methods of evaluation are thorough, feasible, and appropriate to the goals, objectives, and outcomes of the proposed project.
2. The extent to which the methods of evaluation are thorough, feasible, and appropriate to the goals, objectives, and outcomes of the proposed project.
3. The extent to which the methods of evaluation include the use of objective performance measures that are clearly related to the intended outcomes of the project and will produce quantitative and qualitative data to the extent possible.
4. The extent to which the methods of evaluation will provide performance feedback and permit periodic assessment of progress toward achieving intended outcomes.
5. The extent to which the evaluation will provide guidance about effective strategies suitable for replication or testing in other settings.
(i)
The Secretary considers the applicant's strategy to scale the proposed project. In determining the applicant's capacity to scale the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
1. The applicant's capacity (
2. The mechanisms the applicant will use to broadly disseminate information on its project so as to support further development or replication.
3. The extent to which the applicant demonstrates there is unmet demand for the process, product, strategy, or practice that will enable the applicant to reach the level of scale that is proposed in the application.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
3.
4.
Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Secretary under 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) Under 34 CFR 75.250(b), the Secretary may provide a grantee with additional funding for data collection analysis and reporting. In this case the Secretary establishes a data collection period.
4.
5.
In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
Donald Peasley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3e124, Washington, DC 20202-6132. Telephone: (202) 453-7982 or by email:
If you use a TDD or a TTY, call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Department of Energy.
Notice.
This notice announces a virtual meeting via WebEx of the National Coal Council (NCC). The Federal Advisory Committee Act (92, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
Tuesday, August 30, 2016 at 2:00 p.m.
If you wish to join the meeting you must register on-line by close of business on August 26, 2016, at the following URL:
Mr. Daniel Matuszak, U.S. Department of Energy, 4G-036/Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0001; Telephone: 202-586-6915.
The draft white paper will be available on the National Coal Council Web site on August 25, 2016, at the following URL:
If you wish to join the meeting you must register on-line by close of business on August 26, 2016, at the following URL:
The email address you provide in the on-line registration form will be used to forward instructions on how to join the
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Notice of open meeting.
This notice announces an open meeting of the Biomass Research and Development Technical Advisory Committee under Section 9008(d) of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 amended by the Agricultural Act of 2014. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Public Law 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that agencies publish these notices in the
August 17, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-5:30 p.m.; August 18, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-12:00 p.m.
Best Western Plus Inn Towner, 2424 University Avenue, Madison, WI 53726.
Elliott Levine, Designated Federal Officer for the Committee, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585; Email:
Tentative Agenda: Agenda will include the following:
NOTICE IS HEREBY GIVEN that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) as Receiver for Home National Bank, Blackwell, Oklahoma (“the Receiver”) intends to terminate its receivership for said institution. The FDIC was appointed receiver of Home National Bank on July 9, 2010. The liquidation of the receivership assets has been completed. To the extent permitted by available funds and in accordance with law, the Receiver will be making a final dividend payment to proven creditors.
Based upon the foregoing, the Receiver has determined that the continued existence of the receivership will serve no useful purpose. Consequently, notice is given that the receivership shall be terminated, to be effective no sooner than thirty days after the date of this Notice. If any person wishes to comment concerning the termination of the receivership, such comment must be made in writing and sent within thirty days of the date of this Notice to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Attention: Receivership Oversight Department 34.6, 1601 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
No comments concerning the termination of this receivership will be considered which are not sent within this time frame.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 2, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
1.
B. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414:
1.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN) (OMB No. 0920-0666, Exp. 12/31/2018)—Revision—National Center for Emerging and Zoonotic Infectious Diseases (NCEZID), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN) is a system designed to accumulate, exchange, and integrate relevant information and resources among private and public stakeholders to support local and national efforts to protect patients and promote healthcare safety. Specifically, the data is used to determine the magnitude of various healthcare-associated adverse events and trends in the rates of these events among patients and healthcare workers with similar risks. The data will be used to detect changes in the epidemiology of adverse events resulting from new and current medical therapies and changing risks. The NHSN currently consists of five components: Patient Safety, Healthcare Personnel Safety, Biovigilance, Long-Term Care Facility (LTCF), and Dialysis. The Outpatient Procedure Component is on track to be released in NHSN in 2017/2018. The development of this component has been previously delayed to obtain additional user feedback and support from outside partners.
Changes were made to six facility surveys and two new facility surveys were added. Based on user feedback and internal reviews of the annual facility surveys it was determined that questions and response options be amended, removed, or added to fit the evolving uses of the annual facility surveys. The surveys are being increasingly used to help intelligently interpret the other data elements reported into NHSN. Currently the surveys are used to appropriately risk adjust the numerator and denominator data entered into NHSN while also guiding decisions on future division priorities for prevention.
Further, three new forms were added to expand NHSN surveillance to pediatric ventilator-associated events, adult sepsis, and custom HAI event surveillance. An additional 14 forms were added to the Hemovigilance Component to streamline data collection/entry for adverse reaction events.
Additionally, minor revisions have been made to 22 forms within the package to clarify and/or update surveillance definitions. The previously approved NHSN package included 52 individual collection forms; the current revision request adds nineteen forms and removes one form for a total of 70 forms. The reporting burden will increase by 489,174 hours, for a total of 5,110,716 hours.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Birth Defects Study To Evaluate Pregnancy exposureS (BD-STEPS) (formerly titled The National Birth Defects Prevention Study (NBDPS)), (OMB 0920-0010, Expiration 01/31/2017)—Revision—National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities (NCBDDD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC has been monitoring the occurrence of serious birth defects and genetic diseases in Atlanta since 1967 through the Metropolitan Atlanta Congenital Defects Program (MACDP). The MACDP is a population-based surveillance system for birth defects currently covering three counties in Metropolitan Atlanta.
Since 1997, CDC has funded case-control studies of major birth defects that utilize existing birth defect surveillance registries (including MACDP) to identify cases and study birth defects causes in participating states/municipalities across the United States.
The current study, BD-STEPS, is a case-control study that is similar to the previous CDC-funded birth defects case-control study, NBDPS, which stopped interviewing participants in 2013. As with NBDPS, BD-STEPS control infants are randomly selected from birth certificates or birth hospital records; mothers of case and control infants are interviewed using a computer-assisted telephone interview.
The results from NBDPS have improved understanding of the causes of birth defects. Over 200 articles have been written in professional journals using the data from NBDPS, and BD-STEPS data will soon be added to NBDPS data for analysis. The current BD-STEPS revision is an addition to the study population for two BD-STEPS Centers. Specifically, in these two Centers mothers of stillbirths without major birth defects will be added to the study population for BD-STEPS and mothers of all stillbirths (with and without birth defects) and all controls in these two Centers will be asked to participate in a supplemental telephone interview.
The BD-STEPS interview takes approximately forty-five minutes to complete (burden estimate includes both the introductory telephone script/consent and questionnaire). For five Centers, a maximum of 275 interviews are planned per year per center, 200 cases and 75 controls; for the two Centers participating in additional stillbirth interviews, 495 interviews are planned per center, 200 cases with birth defects, 75 controls, and 220 stillbirths without birth defects. With seven centers planned, the maximum interview burden for all centers combined would be approximately 1,774 hours. Mothers in five of the seven BD-STEPS Centers will also be asked to provide consent for the study to access previously collected infant bloodspots. It takes approximately 15 minutes to read, sign and return the informed consent for retrieval of bloodspots. For approximately one fifth of participants, some medical records review will be conducted. The medical records release form takes participants approximately 15 minutes to read, sign and return. In addition, it takes approximately 30 minutes for each medical record reviewer to conduct the review and send the medical record. The online questionnaire will be offered to approximately one third of participants who report certain occupations during the telephone interview; these participants will be asked to complete additional occupational questions via a Web site which will take approximately 20 minutes to answer. In addition, in two Centers, mothers of stillbirths with and without birth defects and controls will be asked to participate in a supplemental telephone interview that will take approximately 25 minutes to complete.
Information gathered from both the interviews and the Deoxyribonucleic acid specimens has been and will continue to be used to study independent genetic and environmental factors as well as gene-environment interactions for a broad range of carefully classified birth defects.
This request is submitted to revise the previously estimated burden details and to request OMB clearance for three additional years. The total estimated annual burden hours are 3,034. There are no costs to the respondents other than their time.
Administration for Community Living, Administration on Aging, HHS.
Notice.
The Administration on Community Living, Administration on Aging (ACL/AoA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit written or electronic comments on the collection of information by October 7, 2016.
Submit electronic comments on the collection of information to:
Submit written comments on the collection of information to: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services: Administration for Community Living 701 Fifth Avenue, Suite 1600 M/S RX-33, Seattle, WA 98104, Attention: Louise Ryan.
Louise Ryan by telephone: (206) 615-2514 or by email:
In compliance with PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Administration for Community Living (ACL, formerly the Administration for Aging) has submitted the following proposed collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance. The Administration for Community Living/Administration on Aging (ACL/AoA) is requesting approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for data collection associated with the National Ombudsman Reporting System (NORS).
The report form and instructions have been in continuous use, with minor modifications, since they were first approved by OMB for the FY 1995 reporting period. This request is for approval to revise the data collection tool to enhance ACL's ability to understand and report on: LTCO program operations, experience of long-term care facility residents and to update to reflect changes in: LTC Ombudsman program operations and long-term supports and services policies, research, and practices. States will continue to provide the following data and narrative information in the report:
1. Numbers and descriptions of cases filed and complaints made on behalf of long-term care facility residents to the statewide ombudsman program;
2. Major issues identified impacting on the quality of care and life of long-term care facility residents;
3. Statewide program operations; and
4. Ombudsman activities in addition to complaint investigation.
5. Organizational conflict of interest reporting as required by 45 CFR part 1324.21.
With respect to the following collection of information, ACL/AoA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of ACL/AoA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of ACL/AoA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The proposed data collection tools may be found on the ACL/AoA Web site at:
AoA estimates the burden of this additional collection of information as follows: Approximately 7780 hours, with 52 state Ombudsman programs responding annually.
Administration for Community Living, HHS
Notice
The Administration for Community Living (formerly the Administration on Aging (AoA) is announcing that the proposed collection of information listed below has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment on the information collection requirements relating to the National Adult Maltreatment Reporting System (NAMRS). The proposed collection of information tools may be found in the NAMRS section of the ACL Web site.
Submit written comments on the collection of information by September 7, 2016.
Submit written comments on the collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget, Office for Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Desk Officer for ACL by email:
Stephanie Whittier Eliason, Administration for Community Living, 330 C St. SW., Washington, DC 20201; email:
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained by contacting Stephanie Whittier Eliason.
In compliance with PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Administration for Community Living (ACL, formerly the Administration for Aging) has submitted the following proposed collection of information to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for
(1) ACL proposes to collect descriptive data on state agency policies and practices from all states through the “Agency Component,” and
(2) Case-level, non-identifiable data on persons who receive an investigation by APS in response to an allegation of abuse, neglect, or exploitation through the “Case Component.”
(3) For states that are unable to submit a case-level file through the “Case Component,” a “Key Indicators Component” will be available for them to submit data on a smaller set of core items.
ACL will provide technical assistance to states to assist in the preparation of their data submissions. Respondents will be state APS agencies and APS agencies in the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, Northern Marianas Islands, Virgin Islands, and American Samoa. No personally identifiable information will be collected. ACL has calculated the following burden estimates (information on how the estimates were calculated is available in the NAMRS section of the ACL Web site):
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
With respect to the collection of information via NAMRS, ACL specifically requests comments on:
(a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility;
(b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 30 days of this publication. The proposed collection of information tools may be found in the NAMRS section of the ACL Web site.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget
Fax written comments on the collection of information by September 7, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14526, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
FDA is requesting approval from the Office of Management and Budget to gather information from Alumni Commissioner's Fellowship Program (CFP) Fellows. The information from Alumni CFP Fellows will allow FDA's Office of the Commissioner (OC) to easily and efficiently elicit and review program feedback. The online survey will assist the Agency in promoting and protecting the public health by encouraging outside persons to share their experience with the FDA while a Commissioner's Fellow. The process will reduce the time and cost of submitting written documentation to the Agency and lessen the likelihood of surveys being misrouted within the Agency mail system. The information gathered by the survey will be used to gain insights into, and to document, impacts that the CFP has had and is having on former CFP fellows and contributions and impacts that the former fellows are making in their current work. The surveys include questions to assess the following measures: Post-fellowship employment (
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
FDA based these estimates on the number of fellows that have graduated and left the Agency over the past 5 years.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) has determined that the drug products listed in this document were not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination means that FDA will not begin procedures to withdraw approval of abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) that refer to these drug products, and it will allow FDA to continue to approve ANDAs that refer to the products as long as they meet relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Stacy Kane, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6207, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-8363,
In 1984, Congress enacted the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) (the 1984 amendments), which authorized the approval of duplicate versions of drug products approved under an ANDA procedure. ANDA applicants must, with certain exceptions, show that the drug for which they are seeking approval contains the same active ingredient in the same strength and dosage form as the “listed drug,” which is a version of the drug that was previously approved. ANDA applicants do not have to repeat the extensive clinical testing otherwise necessary to gain approval of a new drug application (NDA).
The 1984 amendments include what is now section 505(j)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(j)(7)), which requires FDA to publish a list of all approved drugs. FDA publishes this list as part of the “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” which is generally known as the “Orange Book.” Under FDA regulations, a drug is removed from the list if the Agency withdraws or suspends approval of the drug's NDA or ANDA for reasons of safety or effectiveness, or if FDA determines that the listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness (21 CFR 314.162).
Under § 314.161(a) (21 CFR 314.161(a)), the Agency must determine whether a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness: (1) Before an ANDA that refers to that listed drug may be approved, (2) whenever a listed drug is voluntarily withdrawn from sale and ANDAs that refer to the listed drug have been approved, and (3) when a person petitions for such a determination under
FDA has become aware that the drug products listed in the table in this document are no longer being marketed.
FDA has reviewed its records and, under § 314.161, has determined that the drug products listed in this document were not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. Accordingly, the Agency will continue to list the drug products listed in this document in the “Discontinued Drug Product List” section of the Orange Book. The “Discontinued Drug Product List” identifies, among other items, drug products that have been discontinued from marketing for reasons other than safety or effectiveness.
Approved ANDAs that refer to the NDAs and ANDAs listed in this document are unaffected by the discontinued marketing of the products subject to those NDAs and ANDAs. Additional ANDAs that refer to these products may also be approved by the Agency if they comply with relevant legal and regulatory requirements. If FDA determines that labeling for these drug products should be revised to meet current standards, the Agency will advise ANDA applicants to submit such labeling.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Deciding When to Submit a 510(k) for a Software Change to an Existing Device.” FDA is issuing this draft guidance document to clarify when a software change in a legally marketed medical device would require that a manufacturer submit a premarket notification (510(k)) to FDA. This draft guidance is not final nor is it in effect at this time.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment of this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by November 7, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Linda Ricci, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1314, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6325,
A premarket notification (510(k)) is required when a legally marketed device subject to 510(k) requirements is about to be significantly changed or modified in design, components, method of manufacture, or intended use. Significant changes or modifications are those that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, or those that constitute major changes or modifications in the intended use of the device (21 CFR 807.81(a)(3)). This guidance, when finalized, will aid manufacturers of medical devices who intend to make a software modification to a 510(k)-cleared device or a preamendments device subject to 510(k) (
This draft guidance specifically addresses software design and technology modifications. This draft guidance does not apply to software for which the Agency has stated in guidance that it does not intend to enforce compliance with applicable regulatory controls (see,
Elsewhere in this issue of the
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on when to submit a 510(k) for a software change to an existing device. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0073; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E are approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 803 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0437; and the collections of information in 21 CFR parts 801 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of the draft guidance entitled “Deciding When to Submit a 510(k) for a Change to an Existing Device.” FDA is issuing this draft guidance document to clarify when a change in a legally marketed medical device would require that a manufacturer submit a premarket notification (510(k)) to FDA. When finalized, this document will supersede “Deciding When to Submit a 510(k) for a Change to an Existing Device” issued January 10, 1997. This draft guidance is not final nor is it in effect at this time.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment of this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by November 7, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of the guidance document is available for download from the Internet. See the
Michael Ryan, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1615, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6283,
A premarket notification (510(k)) is required when a legally marketed device subject to 510(k) requirements is about to be significantly changed or modified in design, components, method of manufacture, or intended use. Significant changes or modifications are those that could significantly affect the safety or effectiveness of the device, or major changes or modifications in the intended use of the device (21 CFR 807.81(a)(3)). This guidance, when finalized, will aid manufacturers of medical devices who intend to modify a 510(k)-cleared device or a preamendments device subject to 510(k) (
This guidance, when finalized, will supersede the original “Deciding When to Submit a 510(k) for a Change to an Existing Device,” issued on January 10, 1997. That guidance provided the Agency's interpretation of whether the modification exceeds the regulatory threshold of 21 CFR 807.81(a)(3), with principles and points for manufacturers to consider in analyzing how changes in devices may affect safety or effectiveness and determining whether a new 510(k) must be submitted for a particular type of change. This draft guidance preserves the basic format and content of the original, with updates to add clarity. The added clarity is intended to increase consistent interpretations of the guidance by FDA staff and manufacturers.
Elsewhere in this issue of the
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on when to submit a 510(k) for a change to an existing device. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons interested in obtaining a copy of the draft guidance may do so by downloading an electronic copy from the Internet. A search capability for all Center for Devices and Radiological Health guidance documents is available at
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 820 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0073; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 807, subpart E are approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 803 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0437; and the collections of information in 21 CFR parts 801 and 809 are approved under OMB control number 0910-0485.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; reopening of comment period; stakeholder meeting.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is reopening the comment period for the document that announced a public meeting in the
Submit either electronic or written comments by October 6, 2016. FDA will hold a Webinar for stakeholders on Tuesday, September 6, 2016, from 10:30 a.m. to 12 p.m. EDT.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Amy Bertha, Office of Executive Programs, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-1647, email:
FDA is reopening until October 6, 2016, the comment period for the document that announced a public meeting in the
FDA will hold a Webinar for stakeholders on September 6, 2016. This Webinar is intended to be a followup to the June 10, 2016, public meeting and provide stakeholders with a status update on the process of FDA and industry discussions that began in July 2016. Meeting minutes from these discussions can be found at:
FDA is seeking participation at the Webinar by stakeholders, including scientific and academic experts, health care professionals, representatives of patient and consumer advocacy groups, and representatives of the OTC monograph industry. Participating in the Webinar is free. The Webinar format will include presentations by FDA staff and an opportunity for stakeholders to ask questions. If you wish to attend the Webinar, FDA asks that you please register through Eventbrite by Tuesday, August 30, 2016 (
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the completion of the target of the goal established to address the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's (CDRH) 2014-2015 Strategic Priority “Strike the Right Balance Between Premarket and Postmarket Data Collection.” To achieve this Strategic Priority, CDRH established a goal to assure the appropriate balance between premarket and postmarket data
Submit either electronic or written comments by October 7, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Nancy Braier, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5454, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-5676.
One of three Strategic Priorities for 2014-2015 in CDRH is to “Strike the Right Balance Between Premarket and Postmarket Data Collection” (Ref. 1).
In order to achieve the proper balance between premarket and postmarket data collection, CDRH resolved in its Strategic Priorities for 2014-2015 to take several actions. CDRH committed to developing and seeking public comment on a framework for when it would be appropriate to shift premarket data collection to the postmarket setting. Pursuant to this commitment, CDRH and the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) issued the guidance, “Balancing Premarket and Postmarket Data Collection for Devices Subject to Premarket Approval,” on April 13, 2015 (80 FR 19672), which provided FDA's policy of balancing premarket and postmarket data collection during the Agency's review of PMAs (Ref. 2). This guidance outlines how FDA would consider the role of postmarket information in determining the appropriate type and amount of data that should be collected in the premarket setting to support premarket approval, while still meeting the statutory standard of a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. Furthermore, under existing authorities, CDRH and CBER issued a guidance document on April 13, 2015 (80 FR 19669), entitled “Expedited Access for Premarket Approval Medical Devices Intended for Unmet Medical Need for Life Threatening or Irreversibly Debilitating Diseases or Conditions” (Ref. 3). This guidance describes FDA's voluntary expedited access PMA program for certain medical devices to facilitate patient access to these devices by expediting the development, assessment, and review of certain devices that demonstrate the potential to address unmet medical needs for life threatening or irreversibly debilitating diseases or conditions. To expedite access for devices addressing unmet needs, this pathway to market shifts appropriate components of premarket data collection to the postmarket setting, while maintaining the statutory standard of a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. In addition, CDRH has developed a mechanism to assure prospectively the appropriate balance of premarket and postmarket data collection for new devices subject to a PMA. Specifically, when CDRH issues a final decision for an original PMA or panel-track supplement to a PMA, CDRH conducts a prospective assessment to determine if the device type is a candidate for shifting some premarket data collection to the postmarket, reducing premarket data collection through reliance on postmarket controls or reclassification.
Another action in pursuit of the goal to strike the right balance between premarket and postmarket data collection was to commit to conducting a retrospective review of all PMA product codes (procodes) with active PMAs approved prior to 2010 to determine whether data typically collected premarket could be shifted to the postmarket setting, and whether premarket data collection could be reduced through reliance on postmarket controls or devices could be reclassified (down-classified) in light of our current understanding of the technology (Ref. 1). In general, some premarket data collections for class III devices that are currently marketed may be reduced through reliance on postmarket controls or shifted to the postmarket setting if warranted, based on CDRH's review experience as well as the postmarket performance and the current body of evidence regarding the benefit-risk profile of these devices. CDRH currently receives PMA submissions on the majority of these class III devices, and a change in premarket data collection is expected to expedite the approval of future PMA submissions. CDRH has periodically taken such actions consistent with the medical device statutory framework but has typically done so on an ad hoc basis. On the other hand, when FDA determines that it is necessary to provide reasonable assurance that a device is safe and effective, CDRH may require more data based on our current understanding of that type of technology or based on an issue raised by the data submitted by a sponsor for their device. CDRH will also up-classify a device, if warranted, based on the current state of the science. For example, on January 5, 2016, CDRH issued a final order up-classifying surgical mesh when intended for use for pelvic organ prolapse (81 FR 354), and on June 2, 2014, CDRH issued a final order up-classifying sunlamps and sunlamp products (tanning beds/booths) (79 FR 31205). However, up-classification is not warranted for the devices subject to this retrospective review, because they are already in the highest risk classification.
During this retrospective review, devices were analyzed according to procodes. CDRH targeted the date of December 31, 2014, by which to review 50 percent of the procodes for devices that are subject to a PMA and are legally marketed to determine whether or not to change premarket data collection by shifting the data collection to the postmarket setting, reducing premarket data collection through reliance on postmarket controls, or pursuing reclassification (Ref. 1). This target extended to have 75 percent completed by June 30, 2015, and 100 percent completed by December 31, 2015.
On April 29, 2015, CDRH announced its progress on this priority and solicited comments on the procodes that were identified as candidates for reclassification, a reduction in premarket data collection through reliance on postmarket controls, or a shift in premarket data collection to postmarket for those procodes reviewed through December 31, 2014 (80 FR 23798). FDA received 11 sets of comments, which generally supported FDA's retrospective review effort and provided input on specific procodes that were identified as candidates for reclassification or were determined to remain class III with no changes in data collection. FDA will consider these comments when making final determinations on the reclassification of these procodes.
During 2015, FDA reviewed the remaining procodes that were identified for the retrospective review. While completing the retrospective review, FDA found that the LMX procode was included in the retrospective review in error, because the jaundice meter device type is covered by a different procode, not within the scope of the retrospective review. The jaundice meter device type is classified under 21 CFR 862.1113 and assigned the procode MQM, and accordingly, this device type requires a 510(k) premarket notification. Therefore, the procode LMX has been excluded from the analysis.
The purpose of this
Retrospective analysis of the class III medical device procodes was intended to determine if current classifications and data collections remain appropriate for determining a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. As our understanding of the technology associated with individual medical devices has increased and we have a better understanding of the risks
In February 2014, CDRH began its retrospective review with procodes associated with active PMAs approved prior to 2010. PMA procodes created since 2010 were not included in this retrospective review because these recently created procodes do not yet have sufficient new information for a change in FDA's current understanding of the device's postmarket performance profile. As of December 31, 2015, CDRH reviewed all procodes included in this retrospective review, meeting its 100 percent review target.
The results of this analysis include recommendations for procodes that are candidates for reclassification, a reduction in premarket data collection through reliance on postmarket controls, or a shift in premarket data collection to postmarket collection. These results are published online, along with the results of the first cohort of procodes at
As discussed in further detail below, for the purposes of this retrospective review, we evaluated each procode on a balance of factors to determine the current benefit-risk profile and if our review indicates special controls could be established to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness. If so, the corresponding procode was listed in the category “Candidates for Reclassification to Class II” (table 1). If it was determined that special controls would not be sufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, then the procode was evaluated to determine if some premarket data collection for PMA submission could be shifted to postmarket collection, or if premarket data collection could be reduced through reliance on postmarket controls. If it was determined that a change of data collection could continue to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device, then the procode was listed in the category “Candidates for reduction of data collection through reliance on postmarket controls or shift of data collection from premarket to postmarket” (table 2). This category includes procodes for which premarket data collection could be shifted to postmarket data collection, premarket data collection could be decreased through reliance on postmarket controls, or postmarket data could no longer be needed. Finally, table 3 includes procodes for which a reduction in data collection through reliance on postmarket controls or shift in data collection from premarket to postmarket and/or reclassification occurred in 2015 during FDA's retrospective review of PMAs.
In this retrospective review, postmarket performance data, technology and performance considerations, and other relevant considerations were evaluated for each procode. These factors were used to evaluate the current benefit-risk profile to determine if the devices are good candidates for a reduction in premarket data collection through reliance on postmarket controls, a shift of premarket data collection to postmarket, or reclassification. Postmarket performance data (including recent PMA Annual Reports, literature reviews, total product lifecycle reports, medical device reporting analysis, market penetration, and recall analysis) were investigated for any performance concerns or problems that outpace any increases in device use or acceptance. In evaluating the technology and performance considerations for the procodes, performance concerns or problems that were uncovered in the review of postmarket data were considered unfavorable factors for a change in data collection or reclassification. Favorable factors to indicate that a device is a good candidate for a change in data collection or reclassification included: Whether risks are now well understood and are determined to be moderate to low; technology uncertainties have been alleviated; performance standards or non-clinical tests have been developed that could be surrogates for some clinical testing; the need for a controlled study could be eliminated due to defined objective performance criteria; the device has been shown to have good short-term performance; or concerns are limited to long-term performance or rare adverse events.
Finally, several relevant considerations were evaluated for each procode. Unfavorable factors for devices to be considered candidates for a change in data collection or reclassification included: Whether there have been significant changes implemented to address safety or effectiveness since the devices have been on the market; whether the review of annual reports and manufacturing changes has been important to maintain safety of the devices; whether there were a limited number of approvals or limited clinical use of the devices, due to inadequate data needed to conduct this scientific assessment.
After completion of this retrospective review, FDA will prioritize the procodes identified as candidates for reclassification (table 1, Ref. 4) according to public health impact and Center resources, in order to determine the top priority procodes for which reclassification would have the greatest impact. The procodes identified as top priority candidates for reclassification will proceed through the reclassification procedures according to 21 CFR part 860. FDA will also prioritize the procodes identified as candidates for a change in data collection (table 2, Ref. 4) according to public health impact and Center resources, in order to determine which reductions of or shifts to data collection would have the greatest
This document refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR part 814 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0231.
The following references have been placed on display in the Division of Dockets Management (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Ulcerative Colitis: Clinical Trial Endpoints.” The purpose of this guidance is to assist sponsors in the clinical development of drugs for the treatment of ulcerative colitis (UC) in adult and pediatric patients. Specifically, this guidance addresses FDA's current thinking regarding efficacy endpoints for UC clinical trials.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by October 7, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Kevin Bugin, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 22, Rm. 5232, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-2302.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Ulcerative Colitis: Clinical Trial Endpoints.” The purpose of this draft guidance is to assist sponsors in the clinical development of drugs for the treatment of UC in adult and pediatric patients. Specifically, this draft guidance addresses FDA's current thinking regarding efficacy endpoints for UC clinical trials.
UC is a chronic, relapsing disease characterized by diffuse mucosal inflammation of the colon. UC involves the rectum and it may extend proximally in a contiguous pattern to affect part of the colon or the entire colon. Clinical manifestations of active disease include bloody diarrhea (with or without mucus), urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, weight loss, fever, and malaise. In patients with extensive or severe inflammation, acute complications such as severe bleeding and toxic megacolon may occur. There is an increased risk of colorectal cancer in UC patients compared to the general population; risk factors include long duration of disease, extensive colonic involvement, severe inflammation and epithelial dysplasia, and childhood-onset disease. The signs and symptoms of UC in adults and children are similar; however, abdominal pain, disease involving the entire colon, extra-intestinal manifestations, proctitis (among girls), and disease severity necessitating colectomy are more common in children.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on clinical trial endpoints for UC. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR parts 312 and 314 have been approved under OMB control numbers 0910-0014 and 0910-0001, respectively.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
This notice amends Part R of the Statement of Organization, Functions and Delegations of Authority of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) (60 FR 56605, as amended November 6, 1995; as last amended at 81 FR 25680 dated April 29, 2016).
This notice reflects organizational changes in the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), HIV/AIDS Bureau (RV). Specifically, this notice: (1) Establishes the Office of Program Support; (RV3); (2) transfers the organizational development, training and technological functions from the Office of Operations and Management (RV2) and the communications, grantee oversight and customer service functions from the Office of the Associate Administrator (RV) to the newly established Office of Program Support (RV3); and (3) updates the functional statement for the Office of Operations and Management (RV2), the Division of Administrative Operations (RV21), and the Office of the Associate Administrator (RV).
Delete the organization for the Office of the Associate Administrator (RA) in its entirety and replace with the following:
The HIV/AIDS Bureau is headed by the Associate Administrator, who reports directly to the Administrator, Health Resources and Services Administration.
(1) Office of the Associate Administrator (RV);
(2) Office of Operations and Management (RV2);
a. Division of Administrative Operations (RV21);
(3) Office of Program Support (RV3);
(4) Division of Policy and Data (RVA);
(5) Division of Metropolitan HIV/AIDS Programs (RV5);
(6) Division of State HIV/AIDS Programs (RVD);
(7) Division of Community HIV/AIDS Programs (RV6); and
(8) Office of HIV/AIDS Training and Capacity Development (RVT);
a. Division of Domestic Programs; and
b. Division of Global Programs.
This notice reflects organizational changes in the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), HIV/AIDS Bureau (RV). Specifically, this notice: (1) Establishes the Office of Program Support; (RV3); (2) transfers the organizational development, training and technological functions from the Office of Operations and Management (RV2) and the communications, grantee oversight and customer service functions from the Office of the Associate Administrator (RV) to the newly established Office of Program Support (RV3); and (3) updates the functional statement for the Office of Operations and Management (RV2), the Division of Administrative Operations (RV21), and the Office of the Associate Administrator (RV).
Delete the function for the following: (1) Office of the Associate Administrator (RV); (2) Office of Operations and Management (RV2); and the Division of
The Office of the Associate Administrator provides leadership and direction for the HIV/AIDS programs and activities of the Bureau and oversees its relationship with other national health programs. Specifically: (1) promotes the implementation of the National HIV/AIDS Strategy within the Agency and among Agency-funded programs; (2) coordinates the formulation of an overall strategy and policy for programs established by Title XXVI of the PHS Act as amended by the Ryan White HIV/AIDS Treatment Extension Act of 2009, P.L. 111-87; (3) coordinates the internal functions of the Bureau and its relationships with other Agency Bureaus and Offices; (4) establishes HIV/AIDS program objectives, alternatives, and policy positions consistent with broad Administration guidelines; (5) provides leadership for and oversight of the Bureau's budgetary development and implementation processes; (6) provides clinical leadership to Ryan White-funded programs and global HIV/AIDS programs; (7) oversees the implementation of the Global HIV/AIDS Program as part of the President's Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief; (8) serves as a principal contact and advisor to the Department and other parties on matters pertaining to the planning and development of HIV/AIDS-related health delivery systems; (9) reviews HIV/AIDS related program activities to determine their consistency with established policies; (10) develops and oversees operating policies and procedures for the Bureau; (11) oversees and directs the planning, implementation, and evaluation of special studies related to HIV/AIDS and public health within the Bureau; (12) prioritizes technical assistance needs in consultation with each division/office; (13) plans, implements, and evaluates the Bureau's national technical assistance resource training center Web site and other distance learning modalities; (14) represents the Agency in HIV/AIDS related conferences, consultations, and meetings with other Operating Divisions, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, the Department of State, and the White House; and (15) oversees Bureau Executive Secretariat functions and coordinates HRSA responses and comments on HIV/AIDS-related reports, position papers, guidance documents, correspondence, and related issues, including Freedom of Information Act requests.
The Office of Operations and Management provides expertise guidance, leadership, and support in the areas of general administration, fiscal operations, and contract administration. The Office of Operations and Management is responsible for providing direction on all budgetary, administrative, human resources, operations, facility management and contracting functions for the HIV/AIDS Bureau. The Office also oversees and coordinates all Bureau program integrity activities.
The Division of Administrative Operations is responsible for the administrative, human resources operations, facility management and contracting functions for the Bureau. Specifically, these functions are carried out in the Administrative Services and Contracting Services Team.
The Office of Program Support provides expertise, guidance, leadership, and support in the areas of organizational development, communications, grantee oversight, and customer service to support program implementation. Specifically, the Office of Program Support: (1) enhances the coordination of program support, grants management, and technical assistance across the entire Bureau; (2) plans, implements and evaluates HAB staff development and education to enable employees to meet the mission of the Bureau; (3) streamlines communications, clearance activities and development of consistent, quality presentations; (4) improves the Bureau's external facing communication efforts; (5) facilitates transparency in sharing the Bureau's data using internal and external resources; (6) provides leadership for and oversees Bureau's grants processes; (7) coordinates the grants liaison activities; (8) supports grantee oversight and improves customer service and technical assistance to grantees; (9) serves as the Bureau's primary liaison with the Office of Federal Assistance Management; (10) supports systems development to improve program efficiencies and management; (11) provides support with the implementation of staff development, organizational development and training activities; (12) plans, develops, implements and evaluates the Bureau's organizational and staff development, and staff training activities inclusive of guiding action steps addressing annual Employee Viewpoint Survey results; and (13) coordinates the development and distribution of all Bureau communication activities, materials and products internally and externally.
All delegations of authority and re-delegations of authority made to HRSA officials that were in effect immediately prior to this reorganization, and that are consistent with this reorganization, shall continue in effect pending further re-delegation.
This reorganization is effective upon date of signature.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The invention listed below is owned by an agency of the U.S. Government and is available for licensing and/or co-development in the U.S. in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Foreign patent applications are filed on selected inventions to extend market coverage for companies and may also be available for licensing and/or co-development.
Invention Development and Marketing Unit, Technology Transfer Center, National Cancer Institute, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Mail Stop 9702, Rockville, MD 20850-9702.
Information on licensing and co-development research collaborations, and copies of the U.S. patent applications listed below may be obtained by contacting: Attn. Invention Development and Marketing Unit, Technology Transfer Center, National Cancer Institute, 9609 Medical Center Drive, Mail Stop 9702, Rockville, MD, 20850-9702, Tel. 240-276-5515 or email
Technology description follows.
Investigators at the NCI's Structural Biophysics Laboratory have developed a new class of proteasome inhibitors. They are hRpn2-derived peptides capable of specifically targeting the Pru domain of hRpn13. Disruption of the Rpn2/Rpn13 interaction inhibits proteolysis by a mechanism that differs from those of the approved proteasome inhibitors.
• New class of proteasome inhibitors, targeting hRpn13 of the regulatory particle.
• Synergistic with, and more specific than, known proteasome inhibitors.
• Alternate mechanism of action compared to approved proteasome inhibitors.
HHS Reference No. E-278-2015/0-US-01.
US Provisional Application 62/222,530 (HHS Reference No. E-278-2015) filed September 23, 2015 entitled “Human RPN2 Derived Peptides Useful For Treating Cancer”.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 2), notice is hereby given of the meeting of the National Cancer Advisory Board (NCAB).
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting. The open session will be videocast and can be accessed from the NIH Videocasting and Podcasting Web site (
A portion of the National Cancer Advisory Board meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page, NCAB:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
This document announces U.S. Customs and Border Protection's (CBP's) plan to modify the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) test concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal Accounts to establish the ACE Protest Filer Account. After CBP deploys the ACE Protest Module test at a later date, participants with an ACE Protest Filer Account will be able to file an electronic protest in ACE. This document also clarifies that CBP's previously published terms and conditions governing access to and use of the NCAP test of ACE Portal Accounts apply to all ACE Portal Accounts, including all ACE Portal Account types created after the previously published terms and conditions. All other aspects of the ACE Portal Accounts Test remain the same as set forth in previously published
The modifications and clarifications of the ACE Portal Account Test made by this notice are effective on August 8, 2016.
The clarification to the terms and conditions applies to all ACE Portal Accounts regardless of when the account was created.
Comments concerning this notice and any aspect of the modified ACE Portal Account Test may be submitted at any time during the testing period via email to Josephine Baiamonte, ACE Business Office (ABO), Office of Trade at
For technical questions related to the application or requests for an ACE Portal Account, including ACE Protest Filer Accounts, contact the ACE Account Service Desk by calling 1-866-530-4172, selecting option 1, then option 2, or by emailing
The National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) was established by Subtitle B of Title VI—Customs Modernization in the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) Implementation Act (Customs Modernization Act) (Pub. L. 103-182, 107 Stat. 2057, 2170, December 8, 1993) (19 U.S.C. 1411). Through NCAP, the thrust of customs modernization was on trade compliance and the development of ACE, the planned successor to the Automated Commercial System (ACS). ACE is an automated and electronic system for commercial trade processing which is intended to streamline business processes, facilitate growth in trade, ensure cargo security, and foster participation in global commerce, while ensuring compliance with U.S. laws and regulations and reducing costs for CBP and all of its communities of interest. The ability to meet these objectives depends on successfully modernizing
The procedures and criteria applicable to participation in the ACE Portal Account Test remain in effect unless otherwise explicitly changed by this notice.
On May 1, 2002, the former U.S. Customs Service, now CBP, published a general notice in the
Subsequent general notices expanded the types of ACE Portal Accounts. On February 4, 2004, CBP published a general notice in the
On May 16, 2007, CBP published a general notice in the
On July 7, 2008, CBP published a general notice in the
The failure of a Proxy Account Owner or an Account User to access the ACE Portal for a period of forty-five (45) days consecutively will result in the termination of access to the ACE Portal for the Proxy Account Owner or Account User. Inactivity will not result in termination of the ACE Portal Account, but will terminate ACE Portal Account access for the inactive user. Access may be restored by calling the Help Desk or by following the “forgot your password” prompt found on the ACE Portal log-in page. Access may only be restored upon re-authorization by the Account Owner.
CBP has also permitted certain parties to participate in ACE without establishing ACE Portal Accounts,
On March 29, 2006, CBP published another general notice in the
Pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1514, certain parties may file a protest to challenge a CBP decision regarding the classification, appraisement, rate and amount of duties chargeable, certain charges and exactions, the exclusion of merchandise, the liquidation of an entry, and the refusal to pay a claim for drawback, within 180 days of the date
Parties authorized to file a protest include importers or consignees for an entry, or their sureties; persons paying any charge or exaction; persons seeking entry or delivery; persons filing a claim for drawback; exporters or producers of the merchandise subject to a determination of origin under section 202 of the NAFTA Implementation Act, if the exporter or producer completed and signed a NAFTA Certificate of Origin covering the merchandise; or the authorized agent of any of these persons.
The Customs Modernization Act authorizes the Commissioner of CBP to conduct limited test programs or procedures designed to evaluate planned components of the NCAP. The ACE Portal Account Test, as modified in this notice, is authorized pursuant to 19 CFR 101.9(b), which provides for the testing of NCAP programs or procedures.
This document announces the modification of the ACE Portal Account Test to establish the Protest Filer Account. CBP will conduct a test of the ACE Protest Module functionality at a later date in which a party with an established Protest Filer Account will be able to submit an electronic protest to ACE for processing by CBP. CBP anticipates publishing a subsequent notice in the
The owner of an ACE Protest Filer Account will have the ability to create and maintain through the ACE Portal information regarding the name, address, and contact information for the corporate and individual account owner for the Protest Filer Account. Protest filers will use the existing account structure established for other accounts within the ACE Portal.
New ACE users without an existing Portal Account will be required to apply to establish a new ACE Protest Filer Account, as explained in Section B.1 below. An application to establish an ACE Protest Filer Account by new ACE users requires the account owner to provide information required to complete the account setup process. Existing ACE Portal Account owners should follow instructions in Section B.2 below. Current ACE account holders must request a protest filer account view within their existing Portal Account to access the ACE Protest Module functions.
ACE Portal Account Test participants must agree to the previously published “Terms and Conditions for Account Access of the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal,” as clarified by this notice.
Parties who do not have an ACE Portal Account may apply for a Protest Filer Account according to the instructions online at:
Organization Information:
ACE Account Owner:
Once the applicant completes and submits the Protest Filer Account application, the applicant will receive an email message to confirm submission of the application and direct the applicant how to log on to ACE to complete the account. Applicants who have not received an email message within 24 hours should contact the ACE Account Service Desk. The “Application to Use the Automated Commercial Environment” is an approved information collection under OMB control number 1651-0105. Comments are currently being accepted concerning the renewal of this information collection.
Parties that have an existing ACE Portal Account may request a Protest Filer Account through their established ACE Portal Account. A Protest Filer Account may be created under existing accounts by navigating to the Protest Filer view under the Accounts tab of the ACE Portal (available in all existing ACE Portal Accounts), selecting Create a Protest Filer, and following the step by step guided creation process to complete the account set up. Additional training materials on general account maintenance are available at
At the time CBP published the May 16, 2007 Notice setting forth the terms and conditions governing the administration, access, and use of ACE Portal Accounts and the responsibilities and obligations applicable to all parties accessing ACE Portal Accounts, there were three types of ACE Portal Accounts: Importer; broker; and carrier. Subsequently, CBP created additional account types, such as the surety, foreign trade zone operator, and exporter accounts, and as established by this notice, the Protest Filer Account. This notice clarifies that the terms and conditions that CBP has published governing ACE Portal Account access and use, and any modifications thereof that CBP publishes, apply to all ACE Portal Accounts and account types regardless of when the account was established or the account type created. All other aspects of the ACE Portal Accounts Test remain the same as set forth in previously published
All interested parties are invited to comment on any aspect of this modification and clarification of the ACE Portal Account Test for the duration of the test. CBP requests comments and feedback on all aspects of this test and this clarification in order to determine whether to modify, alter, expand, limit, continue, end, or fully implement this test.
A test participant may be subject to civil and criminal penalties, administrative sanctions, liquidated damages, or discontinuance from participation in the ACE Portal Account Test, as modified by this notice, for any of the following:
(1) Failure to follow the terms and conditions of this test;
(2) Failure to exercise reasonable care in the execution of participant obligations;
(3) Failure to abide by applicable laws and regulations that have not been waived; or
(4) Failure to deposit duties, taxes or fees in a timely manner.
If the Director, Business Transformation Division, ACE Business Office (ABO), Office of Trade, finds that there is a basis for discontinuance of test participation privileges, the test participant will be provided a written notice proposing the discontinuance with a description of the facts or conduct warranting the action. The test participant will be offered the opportunity to appeal the Director's decision in writing within 10 calendar days of receipt of the written notice. The appeal must be submitted to the Executive Director, ABO, Office of Trade, by emailing
The Executive Director will issue a decision in writing on the proposed action within 30 working days after receiving a timely filed appeal from the test participant. If no timely appeal is received, the proposed notice becomes the final decision of the Agency as of the date that the appeal period expires. A proposed discontinuance of a test participant's privileges will not take effect unless the appeal process under this paragraph has been concluded with a written decision adverse to the test participant.
In the case of willfulness or those in which public health, interest, or safety so requires, the Director, Business Transformation Division, ABO, Office of Trade, may immediately discontinue the test participant's privileges upon written notice to the test participant. The notice will contain a description of the facts or conduct warranting the immediate action. The test participant will be offered the opportunity to appeal the Director's decision within 10 calendar days of receipt of the written notice providing for immediate discontinuance. The appeal must be submitted to the Executive Director, ABO, Office of Trade, by emailing
A chronological listing of
• ACE Portal Accounts and Subsequent Revision Notices: 67 FR 21800 (May 1, 2002); 69
• ACE System of Records Notice: 71 FR 3109 (January 19, 2006).
• Terms/Conditions for Access to the ACE Portal and Subsequent Revisions: 72 FR 27632 (May 16, 2007); 73 FR 38464 (July 7, 2008).
• ACE Non-Portal Accounts and Related Notice: 70 FR 61466 (October 24, 2005); 71 FR 15756 (March 29, 2006).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR I) Capabilities: 72 FR 59105 (October 18, 2007).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR II) Capabilities: 73 FR 50337 (August 26, 2008); 74 FR 9826 (March 6, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR III) Capabilities: 74 FR 69129 (December 30, 2009).
• ACE Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR IV) Capabilities: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• Post-Entry Amendment (PEA) Processing Test: 76 FR 37136 (June 24, 2011).
• ACE Announcement of a New Start Date for the National Customs Automation Program Test of Automated Manifest Capabilities for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 76 FR 42721 (July 19, 2011).
• ACE Simplified Entry: 76 FR 69755 (November 9, 2011).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS): 77 FR 20835 (April 6, 2012).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Simplified Entry: Modification of Participant Selection Criteria and Application Process: 77 FR 48527 (August 14, 2012).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Regarding Reconciliation for Filing Certain Post-Importation Preferential Tariff Treatment Claims under Certain FTAs: 78 FR 27984 (May 13, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE): 78 FR 44142 (July 23, 2013).
• Modification of Two National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Tests Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) and Simplified Entry (SE); Correction: 78 FR 53466 (August 29, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release (formerly known as Simplified Entry): 78 FR 66039 (November 4, 2013).
• Post-Summary Corrections to Entry Summaries Filed in ACE Pursuant to the ESAR IV Test: Modifications and Clarifications: 78 FR 69434 (November 19, 2013).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency and the Food Safety and Inspection Service Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 78 FR 75931 (December 13, 2013).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Ocean and Rail Carriers: 79 FR 6210 (February 3, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release to Allow Importers and Brokers to Certify From ACE Entry Summary: 79 FR 24744 (May 1, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Truck Carriers: 79 FR 25142 (May 2, 2014).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System: 79 FR 36083 (June 25, 2014).
• Announcement of eBond Test: 79 FR 70881 (November 28, 2014).
• eBond Test Modifications and Clarifications: Continuous Bond Executed Prior to or Outside the eBond Test May Be Converted to an eBond by the Surety and Principal, Termination of an eBond by Filing Identification Number, and Email Address Correction: 80 FR 899 (January 7, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System Relating to Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) Document Submissions: 80 FR 5126 (January 30, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the use of Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) for the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 80 FR 6098 (February 4, 2015).
• Announcement of Modification of ACE Cargo Release Test to Permit the Combined Filing of Cargo Release and Importer Security Filing (ISF) Data: 80 FR 7487 (February 10, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning ACE Cargo Release for Type 03 Entries and Advanced Capabilities for Truck Carriers: 80 FR 16414 (March 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Air Cargo Test: 80 FR 39790 (July 10, 2015).
• National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Concerning Remote Location Filing Entry Procedures in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) and the Use of the Document Image System for the Submission of Invoices and the Use of eBonds for the Transmission of Single Transaction Bonds: 80 FR 40079 (July 13, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Regarding Types of Transportation Modes and Certain Data Required by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA): 80 FR 47938 (August 10, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Vessel Cargo Test: 80 FR 50644 (August 20, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 80 FR 52051 (August 27, 2015).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Export Manifest for Rail Cargo Test: 80 FR 54305 (September 9, 2015).
• International Trade Data System Test Concerning the Electronic Submission to the Automated Commercial Environment of Data Using the Partner Government Agency Message Set: 80 FR 59721 (October 2, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Document Image System (DIS) Regarding Future Updates and New Method of Submission of Accepted Documents: 80 FR 62082 (October 15, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release for Entry Type 52 and Certain Other Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63576 (October 20, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Entry Summary, Accounts and Revenue (ESAR) Test of Automated Entry Summary Types 51 and 52 and Certain Modes of Transportation: 80 FR 63815 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment Portal Account to Establish the Exporter Portal Account: 80 FR 63817 (October 21, 2015).
• Modification of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Regarding the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Certification Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 81 FR 7133 (February 10, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 10264 (February 29, 2016).
• Modification of the National Customs Automation Program (NCAP); Test Concerning the Partner Government Agency Message Set for Certain Data Required by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA): 81 FR 13399 (March 14, 2016).
• Cessation of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission of Certain Data Required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Using the Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set Through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE): 81 FR 18634 (March 31, 2016).
• Automated Commercial Environment (ACE); Announcement of National Customs Automation Program Test of the In-Transit Manifest Pilot Program: 81 FR 24837 (April 27, 2016).
• Announcement of National Customs Automation Program (NCAP) Test Concerning the Submission through the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) of Certain Import Data and Documents Required by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service: 81 FR 27149 (May 5, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Certain Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings Accompanied by Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Data: 81 FR 30320 (May 16, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) as the Sole CBP-Authorized Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) System for Processing Electronic Entry and Entry Summary Filings: 81 FR 32339 (May 23, 2016).
• Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Protest Module as the Sole CBP-Authorized Method for Filing Electronic Protests: 81 FR 49685 (July 28, 2016).
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of meeting.
The Bureau of Indian Education (BIE) is announcing that the Advisory Board for Exceptional Children (Advisory Board) will hold its next meeting in Lawrence, Kansas. The purpose of the meeting is to meet the mandates of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 2004 (IDEA) for Indian children with disabilities.
The Advisory Board will meet on Thursday, September 15, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Central Time and Friday, September 16, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. Central Time.
The meeting will be held at the Regents Room, Navarre Hall, Haskell Indian Nations University, 155 Indian Avenue, Lawrence, Kansas 66046, telephone number (202) 208-2352.
Sue Bement, Designated Federal Officer, Bureau of Indian Education, Office of the Associate Deputy Director—Tribally Controlled Schools, 2001 Killebrew Drive, Suite 122, Bloomington, MN 55425; telephone number (952) 851-5423.
The Advisory Board was established under the Individuals with Disabilities Act of 2004 (20 U.S.C. 1400
The following items will be on the agenda:
* During the September 16, 2016 meeting, time has been set aside for public comment via conference call from 1:30-2:00 p.m. Central Time. The call-in information is: Conference Number 1-888-417-0376, Passcode 1509140.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (National Park Service, NPS) are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the Information Collection Request (ICR) described below. The National Park Service (NPS) is requesting approval of a previously approved collection that will be used to survey subsistence hunters in Alaska. As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as a part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other federal agencies to comment on this ICR. We may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
To ensure that your comments on this ICR are considered, OMB must receive them on or before September 7, 2016.
Please direct all written comments on this ICR directly to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior, to
Marcy Okada, Subsistence Coordinator; Gates of the Arctic National Park & Preserve and Yukon-Charley Rivers National Preserve, 4175 Geist Road, Fairbanks, Alaska 99709. Please reference Information Collection Request 1024-0262 AKHARVEST in the subject line. You may also access this ICR at
The NPS is requesting to reinstate a previously approved collection (OMB Control Number: 1024-0262) needed to survey Alaska residents who customarily and traditionally engage in subsistence uses within a national park, preserve, or monument. In 2012, a survey was conducted in Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve (WRST) and Gates of the Arctic National Park and Preserve (GAAR) to understand the effects of subsistence harvesting. This collection intended to collect information in additional Alaskan National Parks, Preserves, and Monuments.
Under the provisions of The Alaska National Interest Lands Conservation Act (ANILCA), subsistence harvests by local rural residents are considered to be the priority consumptive use of park resources. This collection will continue to gather information on subsistence harvest patterns and the impact of rural economy from resident zone communities associated with the following parks, preserves, and monuments: 1) Aniakchak National Monument (ANIA), 2) Bering Land Bridge National Preserve (BELA), 3) Cape Krusenstern National Monument (CAKR), 4) Gates of the Arctic National Park and Preserve (GAAR), 5) Kobuk Valley National Park (KOVA), 6) Noatak National Preserve (NOAT), 7) Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve (WRST) and 8) Yukon-Charley Rivers National Preserve (YUCH).
The information from this collection will be used by the NPS, the Federal Subsistence Board, the State of Alaska, and local/regional advisory councils in making recommendations and making decisions regarding seasons and harvest limits of fish, wildlife, and plants in the region which communities have customarily and traditionally used.
On August 18, 2015, we published a
We again invite comments concerning this information collection on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
A Federal agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask OMB in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that it will be done.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice; request for comments.
We (National Park Service, NPS) will ask the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve the information collection (IC) described below. To comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and as a part of our continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, we invite the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on this IC. We may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please submit your comment on or before October 7, 2016.
Please send your comments on the ICR to Madonna L. Baucum, Information Collection Clearance Officer, National Park Service, 12201 Sunrise Valley Drive, Mail Stop 242, Reston, VA 20192 (mail); or
For National Recreation Trails, contact Helen Scully, National Trails System Program Specialist/National Recreation Trails Coordinator for the Department of the Interior; 1849 C Street NW., Org Code 2220, Washington, DC 20240;
The purpose of this information collection is to assist the NPS in submitting suitable trails or trail systems to the Secretary of the Interior for designation as National Recreation Trails (NRTs), and in recommending exemplary water trails to the Secretary of the Interior for designation as National Water Trails (NWTs) to be included in the National Water Trails System (NWTS). The information collected will be used by the NPS, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, U.S. Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Bureau of Reclamation, and U.S. Army Corps of Engineers to evaluate the applications for adherence to NRT requirements and criteria and for NWTs, to determine if additional best management practices have been met.
The NPS administers the NRT program by authority of section 4 of the National Trails System Act (16 U.S.C. 1243). Secretarial Order No. 3319 established National Water Trails as a class of National Recreation Trails and directed that such trails collectively be considered in a National Water Trail System.
Designation as a NRT provides national recognition to local and regional trails or trail systems, acknowledging local and state efforts to build and maintain viable trails and trail systems. This recognition function is shared by the Secretary of Agriculture (for trails on National Forest lands and waters) and the Secretary of the Interior (for all other trails). The Secretary of the Interior has delegated NRT coordination to the NPS, which also maintains the system of record for the almost 1,300 NRTs and the 21 NWTs designated to date.
The NWTS focuses on building a national network of exceptional water trails sustainable by an ever growing and vibrant water trail community. The NWTS connects Americans to the nation's waterways and strengthens the conservation and restoration of those waterways. Best management practices provide high quality water-based outdoor recreational opportunities.
We invite comments concerning this IC on:
• Whether or not the collection of information is necessary, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;
• The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information;
• Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents.
Please note that the comments submitted in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), instituted these reviews on March 1, 2016 (81 FR 10656) and determined on June 6, 2016 that it would conduct expedited reviews (81 FR 40923, June 23, 2016).
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). It completed and filed its determinations in these reviews on August 3, 2016. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4628 (August 2016), entitled
By order of the Commission.
Advisory Committee on Rules of Criminal Procedure, Judicial Conference of the United States.
Notice of open meeting.
The Advisory Committee on Rules of Criminal Procedure will hold a meeting on September 19, 2016, which will continue the morning of September 20, 2016, if necessary. The meeting will be open to public observation but not participation.
September 19-20, 2016.
9:00 a.m.-5:00 p.m.
Castles Arena, Alexander Blewett III School of Law, University of Montana, 32 Campus Drive, Missoula, Montana 59812
Rebecca A. Womeldorf, Rules Committee Secretary, Rules Committee Support Office, Administrative Office of the United States Courts, Washington, DC 20544, telephone (202) 502-1820.
On August 1, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed Consent Decree with the United States District Court for the District of Utah, Central Division, in a lawsuit entitled
On April 19, 2013 the United States filed an action under Section 107(a) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act, 42 U.S.C. 9607(a) (“CERCLA”) seeking reimbursement of response costs incurred or to be incurred for response actions taken at or in connection with the release or threatened release of hazardous substances at the 5M Staging Area Superfund Site (“Site”), located approximately one mile northwest of Leeds, Utah in Section 1, Township 41 South, Range 14 West of the Salt Lake Meridian in the Silver Reef Mining District, located within the larger patented Jumbo Lodge mining claim. The Complaint also alleged claims under CERCLA Sections 106(b)(1) and 107(c)(3) for penalties and punitive damages for failure to comply with a Unilateral Administrative Order at the Site. Under the proposed Consent Decree, Silver Reef Properties, LLC (“Defendant”) is required to (1) sell all
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the proposed Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, Environmental Enforcement Section, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the proposed Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $15 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) for the proposed Consent Decree payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the appendices, the cost is $7.50.
Legal Services Corporation.
Notice.
The Legal Services Corporation (LSC) announces implementation of new population estimates of agricultural workers that LSC will use for distribution of funds among grants for providing civil legal services to those workers and their dependents (Agricultural Worker Grants, formerly referred to as Migrant Grants). LSC will phase in application of these updated estimates over two years. For all Agricultural Worker Grant service areas, one half of the transition will occur in 2017 and the full changes will occur in 2018. This action takes into consideration public comments received as a result of three notices for public comment LSC published in the
Effective September 7, 2016.
Mark Freedman, Senior Associate General Counsel, Legal Services Corporation, 3333 K St. NW., Washington, DC 20007; 202-295-1623 (phone); 202-337-6519 (fax);
This notice completes the Legal Services Corporation's (LSC) process of revising the estimates of LSC-eligible agricultural workers for distribution of funds through Basic Field—Agricultural Worker Grants (Agricultural Worker Grants, formerly referred to as Migrant Grants). LSC provided a detailed background and discussion of the need for updating these estimates in the notice for public comment published in the
Briefly summarized, LSC will revise these population estimates for three reasons. First, the estimates currently used are based on outdated information from the late 1980s and early 1990s. Second, the estimates currently used do not include the entire population of agricultural workers that LSC expects grantees to serve with Agricultural Worker Grants, which includes both migrant and non-migrant agricultural workers (this also explains the change in the name of these grants from Migrant Grants to Agricultural Worker Grants). Third, the current estimates do not take into account the portion of the population that is not eligible for LSC-funded legal services.
LSC contracted with the Department of Labor's Employment and Training Administration (ETA) to obtain updated estimates of the size and distribution of the population of agricultural workers and their dependents eligible for LSC-funded services. ETA subcontracted with JBS International, Inc. (JBS or ETA contractor) to use Department of Labor and other government data to develop these estimates. In January 2015, ETA provided LSC with JBS's initial estimates (including state-by-state breakdowns) which ETA determined were technically sound.
On February 3, 2015, LSC published a notice in the
On April 4, 2016, LSC published on its Web site and in the
In the second notice, 81 FR 6295 (February 5, 2016), LSC identified three areas for additional public comment: (1) ETA's methodology and data after further analysis of the data was conducted; (2) newly proposed estimates of aliens within the agricultural worker population who are eligible under 45 CFR § 1624.4 for services from LSC grantees based on sexual abuse, domestic violence, trafficking, or other abusive or criminal activities; and (3) proposals of available and reliable state- or region-specific data for augmenting the ETA data in individual states. With this notice, LSC published a memorandum explaining LSC's proposed methodology and estimates of the agricultural worker population eligible under 45 CFR § 1626.4.
LSC received one comment from the National Legal Aid and Defender Association (NLADA) Agricultural Worker Project Group. LSC also received comments from two grantees: Michigan Advocacy Program (MAP) and Puerto Rico Legal Services. Both comments are published at
The comments expressed continued support for LSC's efforts to update the estimates of agricultural workers in the United States who are eligible for LSC services. The comments also supported (with the exception discussed in Section E below) LSC's proposed methodology and resulting estimates of aliens within the agricultural worker population eligible for services from LSC grantees based on sexual abuse, domestic violence, trafficking, or other abusive or criminal activities under 45 CFR § 1626.4.
Generally, the concerns raised by the commenters fell into six categories. As discussed in detail below, LSC has revised its final estimates to incorporate all but two of the changes proposed in the comments.
NLADA and Michigan Advocacy Program asserted that the ETA estimates of farmworker dependents for LSC-funded services (based on ETA's “country of birth” method) were too low because they were based on what NLADA and MAP believed were two erroneous assumptions: (1) That foreign-born adult children (18 or older) would be “authorized' (that is, meet the eligibility requirements of Part 1626) only if they had at least one parent or spouse born in the U.S., and (2) that spouses and other farmworker relatives in farmworker households would be authorized only if they themselves are U.S.-born.
Both commenters urged LSC to revise its estimates of dependents eligible for LSC-funded services by directing ETA to change these assumptions and include in the estimate of “authorized” dependents (1) all adult children of farmworkers whom the National Agricultural Workers Survey (NAWS) has identified as “authorized,” not just those children born in the U.S., and (2) all spouses of farmworkers whom the NAWS has identified as “authorized,” not just those spouses who are born in the U.S.
After reviewing these comments, ETA determined that a revision of the estimation methodology could provide a more accurate estimate of the number of authorized dependents.
NLADA expressed concern that LSC's estimates undercounted the number of agricultural workers or dependents who are authorized because (1) they have pending I-130 petitions and a requisite relationship with a U.S. citizen child, spouse, or parent or (2) are political asylum seekers; refugees; or individuals granted withholding of deportation, exclusion or removal. The comments asserted that the NAWS survey does not adequately capture the relevant data because an interviewer, when asking about an individual's immigration status, is only required to list specific immigration statuses (such as a pending I-130 petition) if “necessary.” The comments stated that many agricultural workers, in response to survey questions, correctly state that they are “unauthorized” but are not asked a follow-up question whether they have a pending I-130 petition or are in situations that may otherwise qualify them for LSC-funded services under 45 CFR part 1626 (LSC regulation providing categories of aliens eligible for legal assistance under anti-abuse laws and based on immigration status).
NLADA requested that LSC develop revised estimates based on data from governmental sources (
LSC requested that ETA review these comments. After reviewing these comments, ETA determined that the NAWS would capture necessary information about respondents who might be LSC-eligible because they are political asylum seekers, refugees, or have temporary protective status. Therefore, no adjustment in the estimation formula was needed to improve the accuracy of the estimates of these individuals.
ETA acknowledged that some respondents with pending I-130s, however, may not have been correctly identified, as the NAWS questionnaire does not include a question that directly asks if the respondent has a pending I-130 and, as a result, the methodology in the estimates published on February 5, 2016, could underestimate the number of these individuals who might be LSC-eligible. Accordingly, the estimation methodology was revised to improve the accuracy of this estimate.
Michigan Advocacy Program and NLADA requested that LSC revise its estimates to reflect more current data regarding the population of H-2A agricultural workers and H-2B forestry workers. The comments urged LSC to incorporate Department of Labor data on the number of H-2A and H-2B positions certified nationwide in FY 2015 because these data demonstrate a substantial increase in the number of H-2A workers since 2012.
The estimates of the number and geographic distribution of agricultural workers eligible for LSC-funded services are based on a variety of 2012 data sources. Although there are more recent data for H-2A agricultural workers and H-2B forestry workers, more recent data are not available from the Census of Agriculture, which provided substantial data in the estimation methodology. JBS's recommendation, which ETA has endorsed, is to use 2012 data for H-2A agricultural workers and H-2B forestry workers for consistency with the 2012 data from the other information sources used in the estimation formula.
NAWS data are reported for twelve-region sampling strata and six-region analysis groupings; the six region data have lower relative standard errors (RSEs) than the twelve region data. Both NLADA and Michigan Advocacy Program expressed concern with ETA's use of NAWS twelve-region sampling group data to estimate the state-level populations of agricultural workers, because reliance on NAWS twelve-region data produced less reliable estimates than would six-region data and resulted in characterizations of state farmworker populations in some states, which were inconsistent with the commenters' first-hand knowledge about the state-level demographics and status of farmworkers and their dependents. To reduce the likelihood of these anomalies, the commenters urged LSC to revise its estimates of LSC-eligible agricultural workers by using the NAWS six-region data instead of the NAWS twelve-region data.
LSC asked ETA to consider these comments. ETA endorsed JBS's analysis that the use of the NAWS six-region data would result in more robust estimates because the RSEs of the estimates are lower at the six-region level than they are at twelve-region level.
The comments from NLADA and Michigan Advocacy Program stated that LSC's estimates of the population of people who are eligible pursuant to the anti-abuse provisions of 45 CFR 1626.4 were based on an incorrect poverty level standard. ETA agrees with these comments and has revised the estimates using the correct poverty level standard. LSC's final estimates reflect this correction. Table VI identifies the effects this change has on the population estimates.
In response to the February 5, 2016 public notice, LSC received one proposal to use alternate methodologies and data sources to estimate agricultural worker populations for individual states: Michigan Advocacy Program proposed alternative methods, data sources and estimates of the agricultural worker population in Michigan. In response to the April 4, 2016 public notice, MAP provided additional information to support its proposed alternative methods and estimates. LSC asked ETA to analyze the methods, data sources and population estimates MAP proposed. ETA endorsed JBS's assessment that MAP's proposed methodology and data do not produce estimates that are more accurate than the published estimates because the majority of those data sources “do not have eligibility guidelines concerning household poverty and alien status that are consistent with the LSC criteria.” These agencies were Migrant Health Centers that can provide.
Puerto Rico Legal Services also submitted additional data and comments regarding the agricultural worker population in Puerto Rico. In its comment, Puerto Rico Legal Services explained the inherent difficulty in calculating this population. LSC commends Puerto Rico Legal Services for working with local government agencies to seek to obtain actual and realistic data concerning the number of local and migrant workers on the island. However, because these data have not yet been developed, LSC will not revise its estimates of the agricultural worker population in Puerto Rico.
As discussed herein, LSC will implement these final estimates for Basic Field—Agricultural Worker grants by distributing funding among all of the existing Agricultural Worker grant service areas for 2017 grants at a 50% implementation level (compared with the 2016 distribution) and then for 2018 and successive years at a 100% implementation level. LSC will also obtain updated population estimates of agricultural workers every three years for recalculation on the same statutory cycle as LSC obtains updated poverty-population data from the U.S. Census Bureau for the distribution of LSC's Basic Field Programs appropriation. LSC is publishing on its Web site the following revised tables showing the final estimates and their effects on Basic Field-Agricultural Worker grants (presuming for comparison constant total LSC funding for Basic Field Program grants during the relevant grant years).
Millennium Challenge Corporation.
Notice.
In accordance with Section 610(b)(2) of the Millennium Challenge Act of 2003 (22 U.S.C. 7701-7718) as amended (the Act), and the heading “Millennium Challenge Corporation” of the Department of State, Foreign Operations, and Related Programs Appropriations Act, 2015, the Millennium Challenge Corporation (MCC) is publishing a summary of the Millennium Challenge Compact between the United States of America, acting through the Millennium Challenge Corporation, and the Republic of Niger. Representatives of the United States Government and Niger executed the Compact documents on July 29, 2016. The complete text of the Compact has been posted at
Niger, one of the poorest and least developed countries in the world, has consistently ranked last on the United Nations Human Development Index for the past 25 years. This land-locked West African country is almost twice the size of Texas, and two-thirds of the country's land mass is the Sahara Desert, making it one of the hottest and driest countries in the world. Niger has made notable improvements over the past few years, but over 40 percent of the population still lives below the global poverty line of $1.25 per day. Despite these challenges, the Nigeriens have demonstrated a strong commitment to governance reforms, economic growth, and investing in their people. The MCC Board of Directors (the “Board”) selected Niger as eligible to develop a Millennium Challenge Compact in December 2012. Niger has consistently passed the MCC scorecard after doing so for the first time in 2012.
Roughly 80 percent of Niger's population lives in rural areas and relies on agriculture for its livelihood. Moreover, over 90 percent of the population relies on a single, three-month, highly capricious rainy season to support agriculture and livestock production. Frequent droughts and floods decimate crops and productive assets, undermining the population's ability to build its resilience and economic security. In addition, sustainable natural resource management is lacking in this fragile environment, and water and pasture resources are frequently over-utilized, causing severe erosion of once productive areas. Agricultural productivity has stagnated due to a lack of access to critical productive inputs such as improved seed, fertilizer, irrigation, and technical assistance.
Water resource management, community-based livestock and climate-resilient agriculture systems are critical to ensure adaptability, improve agricultural productivity, and sustain water and land resources in Niger. The Compact will seek to raise rural incomes by increasing agricultural and livestock production by boosting production through increases in areas under cultivation and improvements in yields. Through the Compact, MCC will finance critical access to water for crop and livestock productivity, market
The budget for the Compact is $437,024,000, allocated as follows:
The Irrigation and Market Access Project (“Irrigation Project”) aims to increase rural incomes through improvements in agricultural productivity and sales resulting from modernized irrigated agriculture and flood management systems with sufficient trade and market access. The project will focus its interventions in the Dosso and Tahoua regions. Specifically, the Irrigation Project will support the following activities:
i. Establishing and implementing a framework for land allocation, based on, among other things, (i) development of local land tenure profiles, (ii) participatory development of core local land allocation standards and of a transparent process for undertaking the land allocation, and (iii) completing the land allocation and formalizing land property rights, and building capacity for local land governance to address land conflict management and integrated local land use planning;
ii. Establishing and empowering single-purpose, self-governing, self-financing nonprofit irrigation water user associations (IWUAs) to undertake irrigation management functions in the project intervention areas, including preparatory studies, technical support and capacity building for the newly formed IWUAs; and
iii. Strengthening the capacity of beneficiaries through new or existing savings groups and existing producer and women's and youth groups to (i) grow commodities according to market demand and pricing signals, (ii) participate in savings groups to improve business skills and save capital to operationalize their cropping calendars, (iii) increase use of appropriate fertilizers and improved seeds, (iv) monitor and adapt to changing conditions in the environment, (v) participate in producer organizations to improve their negotiation position at the farm gate and in the marketplace, (vi) invest in infrastructure to store and add value to their production, and (vii) increase sales of commodities and processed products.
The Climate-Resilient Communities Project (“CRC Project”) aims to increase incomes for small-scale agriculture-dependent and livestock-dependent families in eligible municipalities in rural Niger by improving crop and livestock productivity, sustaining natural resources critical to long-term productivity, and increasing market sales of targeted commodities. The project will be implemented in partnership with the World Bank through existing project implementation units (“PIUs”) located in the Ministry of Agriculture and Livestock. MCC funding will not be combined with World Bank funds, though the PIUs will oversee both MCC and World Bank-funded activities. The PIUs will use jointly agreed upon operation manuals that will incorporate investment criteria, legal, fiscal, procurement, environmental, social, gender and monitoring and evaluation requirements that comply with MCC standards. To ensure adequate oversight, the accountable entity for the Compact, the Millennium Challenge Account—Niger (“MCA-Niger”), will embed staff within these PIUs. Regions of intervention for this project are Tillaberi, Dosso, Tahoua and Maradi.
The activity will include a grant facility that will competitively award grants to women's and youth groups, cooperative and producers' groups, and micro-, small-, and medium-sized enterprises. The portfolio of grants managed by the grant facility must meet MCC's economic rate of return (“ERR”) hurdle rate. Similarly, the municipality-level investment plans will be developed in the first year of Compact implementation, and must also meet MCC's ERR hurdle rate in order to be funded.
The Compact will aim to address Niger's two major constraints to economic growth through a combination of policy reforms, infrastructure investments, access to training, finance and management services, facilitation of partnerships, and improvements to agricultural and livestock production and market platforms. These activities will enable farming, fishing and pastoral households in the intervention areas to increase their agricultural and livestock production and in turn, raise their incomes.
An ERR was calculated for each of the Compact's projects. The ERR for the Irrigation Project is estimated at 17 percent. The CRC Project consists of activities to be developed in consultation with local communities and of activities funded through a competitive grant facility. This project (not including the $12.5 million matching grant facility subactivity) has an estimated ERR of 14 percent. Because the nature of specific grant proposals cannot be known until they are submitted for review, ERRs will be calculated during grant selection.
On a limited basis, small-scale grants without a full ERR may be awarded if determining a full ERR is deemed to be cost prohibitive. In those cases, each proposal will still undergo a consideration of costs versus benefits to verify its viability. Economists can, for instance, determine the likelihood of a satisfactory rate of return based on looking at similar project profiles. The grant portfolio will have an ERR above MCC's hurdle rate of 10 percent.
The Compact is expected to reach 489,359 households totaling more than 3.9 million beneficiaries over a twenty-year period.
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Request for comment.
The NCUA intends to submit the following information collection to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35). The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Each FCU must draft a written reimbursement policy to ensure that the FCU makes payments to its director within the guidelines that the FCU has established in advance and to enable examiners to easily verify compliance by comparing the policy to the actual reimbursements.
Comments will be accepted until October 7, 2016.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the information collection to Troy Hillier, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428; Fax No. 703-519-8595; or Email at
Requests for additional information should be directed to the address above.
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on August 3, 2016.
National Science Foundation
Submission for OMB review; comment request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-13. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to request renewed clearance of this collection. The primary purpose of this revision is to implement changes described in the
Comments regarding these information collections are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30 days of this notification. Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by calling 703-292-7556.
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The draft NSF PAPPG was made available for review by the public on the NSF Web site at
“To promote the progress of science; to advance the national health, prosperity, and welfare; to secure the national defense. . . .”
The Act authorized and directed NSF to initiate and support:
• Basic scientific research and research fundamental to the engineering process;
• Programs to strengthen scientific and engineering research potential;
• Science and engineering education programs at all levels and in all the various fields of science and engineering;
• Programs that provide a source of information for policy formulation; and
• Other activities to promote these ends.
NSF's core purpose resonates clearly in everything it does: Promoting achievement and progress in science and engineering and enhancing the potential for research and education to contribute to the Nation. While NSF's vision of the future and the mechanisms it uses to carry out its charges have evolved significantly over the last six decades, its ultimate mission remains the same.
Support is made primarily through grants, contracts, and other agreements
The Foundation has a continuing commitment to monitor the operations of its information collection to identify and address excessive reporting burdens as well as to identify any real or apparent inequities based on gender, race, ethnicity, or disability of the proposed principal investigator(s)/project director(s) or the co-principal investigator(s)/co-project director(s).
It has been estimated that the public expends an average of approximately 120 burden hours for each proposal submitted. Since the Foundation expects to receive approximately 52,000 proposals in FY 2017, an estimated 6,240,000 burden hours will be placed on the public.
The Foundation has based its reporting burden on the review of approximately 52,000 new proposals expected during FY 2017. It has been estimated that anywhere from one hour to 20 hours may be required to review a proposal. We have estimated that approximately 5 hours are required to review an average proposal. Each proposal receives an average of 3 reviews, resulting in approximately 780,000 burden hours each year.
The information collected on the reviewer background questionnaire (NSF 428A) is used by managers to maintain an automated database of reviewers for the many disciplines represented by the proposals submitted to the Foundation. Information collected on gender, race, and ethnicity is used in meeting NSF needs for data to permit response to Congressional and other queries into equity issues. These data also are used in the design, implementation, and monitoring of NSF efforts to increase the participation of various groups in science, engineering, and education. The estimated burden for the Reviewer Background Information (NSF 428A) is estimated at 5 minutes per respondent with up to 10,000 potential new reviewers for a total of 833 hours.
The aggregate number of burden hours is estimated to be 7,020,000. The actual burden on respondents has not changed.
August 8, 15, 22, 29, September 5, 12, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of August 8, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of August 15, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of August 22, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of August 29, 2016.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of September 5, 2016.
1:30 p.m. NRC All Employees Meeting (Public Meeting), Marriott Bethesda North Hotel, 5701 Marinelli Road, Rockville, MD 20852.
9:00 a.m. Briefing on Fee Process (Public Meeting), Contact: Michele Kaplan: 301-415-5256.
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License renewal application; receipt; notice of opportunity to request a hearing and to petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is considering an application for the renewal of Special Nuclear Materials (SNM) License No. SNM-986, which currently authorizes the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) to possess and use SNM for education, research, and training programs. The renewed license would authorize MIT to continue to possess and use SNM for an additional 10 years from the date of issuance. The NRC proposes to determine that the renewal involves no significant hazards consideration. Because this application contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI) an order imposes procedures to obtain access to SUNSI for contention preparation.
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0152 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Ty Naquin, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-7352; email:
The NRC is considering an application for the renewal of SNM License No. SNM-986, which currently authorizes MIT to possess and use SNM for education, research, and training programs at its campus in Cambridge, Massachusetts. This license renewal, if approved, would authorize MIT to continue to possess and use SNM under the provisions of 10 CFR part 70, “Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Materials,” for an additional 10 years from the date of issuance.
By letter dated February 24, 2016, the NRC received an application from MIT filed pursuant to 10 CFR part 70, Domestic Licensing of Special Nuclear Materials, to renew SNM License No. SNM-986 (ML16081A295). The NRC received, by letter dated February 24, 2016, a revised application from MIT, requesting renewal of SNM License No. SNM-986 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16092A171). The application contains SUNSI.
Following an administrative review, documented in a letter to MIT dated June 6, 2016, the NRC staff determined that the request for renewal contains all essential elements and has been accepted for technical review, and is acceptable for docketing (ADAMS Accession No. ML16130A077). The application has been docketed in the existing docket for SNM License No. SNM-986, Docket No. 70-0938. If the NRC approves the renewal application, the approval will be documented in the renewal of NRC License No. SNM-986. The acceptance letter also estimated that the NRC staff would complete the technical review by June 2017.
The docketing of the renewal application does not preclude requests for additional information as the review proceeds, nor does it predict whether the Commission will grant or deny the application. Prior to a decision to renew the license, the Commission will make findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. These findings will be documented in a Safety Evaluation Report.
Because the licensed material will be used for research and development and for educational purposes, renewal of SNM License No. SNM-986 is an action that is categorically excluded from a requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(c)(14)(v).
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person(s) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Requests for a hearing and a petition for leave to intervene shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested person(s) should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309, which is available at the NRC's PDR, located at One White Flint North, Room O1-F21, 11555 Rockville Pike (first floor), Rockville, Maryland 20852. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's Web site at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition for leave to intervene shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the requestor or petitioner; (2) the nature of the requestor's/petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the requestor's/petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the requestor's/petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the requestor/petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the requestor/petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The requestor/petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the requestor/petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by October 7, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions for leave to intervene set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form.
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing SUNSI.
B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing and opportunity to petition for leave to intervene, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request such access. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.
C. The requester shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, and provide a copy to the Associate General Counsel for Hearings, Enforcement and Administration, Office of the General Counsel, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email address for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are
(1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this
(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1);
(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requester's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly-available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention;
D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C.(3) the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:
(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and
(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.
E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2) above, the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order
F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after the requestor is provided access to that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the date the petitioner is provided access to the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI contentions by that later deadline.
G. Review of Denials of Access.
(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff either after a determination on standing and need for access, or after a determination on trustworthiness and reliability, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.
(2) The requester may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) the presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if he or she is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an administrative law judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (b) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.
H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requester may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed with the Chief Administrative Judge within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access.
If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. Attachment 1 to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of the Omaha Public Power District (the licensee) to withdraw its license amendment application dated August 31, 2015, as supplemented by letters dated December 23, 2015, and June 9, 2016, for a proposed amendment to Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-40. The proposed amendment would have revised the Fort Calhoun Station, Unit No. 1 (FCS), Updated Safety Analysis Report (USAR) to change the structural design methodology for Class I structures at FCS to use American Concrete Institute ultimate strength requirements, with the exception of the containment structure (cylinder, dome, and base mat), the spent fuel pool, and the foundation mats.
The license amendment was withdrawn by the licensee on July 27, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0040 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Carl F. Lyon, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2296, email:
The NRC has granted the request of the licensee to withdraw its August 31, 2015, license amendment application (ADAMS Accession No. ML15243A167), as supplemented by letters dated December 23, 2015, and June 9, 2016 (ADAMS Accession Nos. ML15363A042 and ML16165A028, respectively), for a proposed amendment to Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-40 for the FCS, located in Washington County, Nebraska.
The proposed amendment would have revised the FCS USAR to change the structural design methodology for Class I structures at FCS to use American Concrete Institute ultimate strength requirements, with the exception of the containment structure (cylinder, dome, and base mat), the spent fuel pool, and the foundation mats.
This proposed amendment was noticed in the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pursuant to Title 10 of the
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene may be filed within 30 days after publication of this notice in the
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene may be filed with the NRC electronically in accordance with NRC's E-Filing rule promulgated in August 2007, 72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007. Information about filing electronically is available on the NRC's public Web site at
In addition to a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene, written comments, in accordance with 10 CFR 110.81, should be submitted within 30 days after publication of this notice in the
The information concerning this application for an export license follows.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pursuant to Title 10 of the
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene may be filed within 30 days after publication of this notice in the
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene may be filed with the NRC electronically in accordance with NRC's E-Filing rule promulgated in August 2007, 72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007. Information about filing electronically is available on the NRC's public Web site at
In addition to a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene, written comments, in accordance with 10 CFR 110.81, should be submitted within 30 days after publication of this notice in the
The information concerning this import license amendment application follows.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application for an order under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 2(a)(32), 5(a)(1), 22(d), and 22(e) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act, under sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act for an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act, and under section 12(d)(1)(J) for an exemption from sections 12(d)(1)(A) and 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The requested order would permit (a) index-based series of certain open-end management investment companies (“Funds”) to issue shares redeemable in large aggregations only (“Creation Units”); (b) secondary market transactions in Fund shares to occur at negotiated market prices rather than at net asset value (“NAV”); (c) certain Funds to pay redemption proceeds, under certain circumstances, more than seven days after the tender of shares for redemption; (d) certain affiliated persons of a Fund to deposit securities into, and receive securities from, the Fund in connection with the purchase and redemption of Creation Units; (e) certain registered management investment companies and unit investment trusts outside of the same group of investment companies as the Funds (“Funds of Funds”) to acquire shares of the Funds; and (f) certain Funds (“Feeder Funds”) to create and redeem Creation Units in-kind in a master-feeder structure.
Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: 60 State Street, Suite 700, Boston, MA 02190.
Bruce R. MacNeil, Senior Counsel at (202) 551-6817, or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order that would allow Funds to operate as index exchange traded funds (“ETFs”).
2. Each Fund will hold investment positions selected to correspond generally to the performance of an Underlying Index. In the case of Self-Indexing Funds, an affiliated person, as defined in section 2(a)(3) of the Act (“Affiliated Person”), or an affiliated person of an Affiliated Person (“Second-Tier Affiliate”), of the Trust or a Fund, of the Adviser, of any sub-adviser to or promoter of a Fund, or of the Distributor will compile, create, sponsor or maintain the Underlying Index.
3. Shares will be purchased and redeemed in Creation Units and generally on an in-kind basis. Except where the purchase or redemption will include cash under the limited circumstances specified in the application, purchasers will be required to purchase Creation Units by depositing specified instruments (“Deposit Instruments”), and shareholders redeeming their shares will receive specified instruments (“Redemption Instruments”). The Deposit Instruments and the Redemption Instruments will each correspond pro rata to the positions in the Fund's portfolio (including cash positions) except as specified in the application.
4. Because shares will not be individually redeemable, applicants request an exemption from section 5(a)(1) and section 2(a)(32) of the Act that would permit the Funds to register as open-end management investment companies and issue shares that are redeemable in Creation Units only.
5. Applicants also request an exemption from section 22(d) of the Act and rule 22c-1 under the Act as secondary market trading in shares will take place at negotiated prices, not at a current offering price described in a Fund's prospectus, and not at a price based on NAV. Applicants state that (a)
6. With respect to Funds that effect creations and redemptions of Creation Units in kind and that are based on certain Underlying Indexes that include foreign securities, applicants request relief from the requirement imposed by section 22(e) in order to allow such Funds to pay redemption proceeds within fifteen calendar days following the tender of Creation Units for redemption. Applicants assert that the requested relief would not be inconsistent with the spirit and intent of section 22(e) to prevent unreasonable, undisclosed or unforeseen delays in the actual payment of redemption proceeds.
7. Applicants request an exemption to permit Funds of Funds to acquire Fund shares beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(A) of the Act; and the Funds, and any principal underwriter for the Funds, and/or any broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, to sell shares to Funds of Funds beyond the limits of section 12(d)(1)(B) of the Act. The application's terms and conditions are designed to, among other things, help prevent any potential (i) undue influence over a Fund through control or voting power, or in connection with certain services, transactions, and underwritings, (ii) excessive layering of fees, and (iii) overly complex fund structures, which are the concerns underlying the limits in sections 12(d)(1)(A) and (B) of the Act.
8. Applicants request an exemption from sections 17(a)(1) and 17(a)(2) of the Act to permit persons that are Affiliated Persons, or Second Tier Affiliates, of the Funds, solely by virtue of certain ownership interests, to effectuate purchases and redemptions in-kind. The deposit procedures for in-kind purchases of Creation Units and the redemption procedures for in-kind redemptions of Creation Units will be the same for all purchases and redemptions and Deposit Instruments and Redemption Instruments will be valued in the same manner as those investment positions currently held by the Funds. Applicants also seek relief from the prohibitions on affiliated transactions in section 17(a) to permit a Fund to sell its shares to and redeem its shares from a Fund of Funds, and to engage in the accompanying in-kind transactions with the Fund of Funds.
9. Applicants also request relief to permit a Feeder Fund to acquire shares of another registered investment company managed by the Adviser having substantially the same investment objectives as the Feeder Fund (“Master Fund”) beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(A) and permit the Master Fund, and any principal underwriter for the Master Fund, to sell shares of the Master Fund to the Feeder Fund beyond the limitations in section 12(d)(1)(B).
10. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Nasdaq proposes to add Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading Insights) to the Nasdaq rule book.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at
In its filing with the Commission, Nasdaq included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. Nasdaq has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to add Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading Insights) to the Nasdaq rule book. The Nasdaq Trading Insights product is an optional market data service comprised of four distinct market data components. Specifically, and as described in greater detail below, the market data components include: (a) Missed Opportunity—Liquidity; (b) Missed Opportunity—Latency; (c) Peer Benchmarking; and (d) Liquidity Dynamics Analysis. Market participants may opt to choose to receive any or all of the market data components and the corresponding fee will be assessed based on the number of components selected.
Currently, Nasdaq provides real-time prices and analytics in the marketplace. The Exchange believes that the additional data points from the matching engine outlined below may help market participants to gain a better understanding about their interactions with the Exchange. The four optional market data components that comprise the Nasdaq Trading Insights product will help market participants by providing them with a chance to learn more about when they may have better opportunities to access liquidity and to receive better execution rates. The proposed market data product will increase transparency and democratize information so that all firms that themselves may not have the expertise to generate such information may elect to subscribe to one or all of the components of the Nasdaq Trading Insights product. None of the components are real-time market data products.
Trading firms may seek to submit orders for the greatest number of shares possible without exceeding the amount of shares actually available. This component identifies when an order from a market participant might have been increased in size and thus executed more shares.
For example, if a firm sends in an order that was fully executed and subsequently sends another order (or multiple orders) at the same or inferior price-level than originally executed, this indicates that they could have oversized their original order. This missed opportunity could have resulted in a larger fill which will allow firms to change their trading patterns to trade more efficiently. The Exchange will provide this information to firms on a T + 1 basis. The Missed Opportunity—Liquidity component may also benefit firms by providing greater visibility into exactly what was missed in trading so they may optimize their models and trading patterns to yield better returns.
The data included in this component is unique for each market participant's port and only that market participant is eligible to receive this data upon voluntarily opting to pay the corresponding fee (as previously noted, the corresponding fees will be included in a future filing). The Exchange will ensure that each market participant receives only their own unique data and will not be able to obtain any other market participant's unique data.
Market participants may already be able to derive the same data that is provided by this component based on their executions and algorithms that they have created. As more firms create increasingly sophisticated algorithms, they are able to determine where hidden pockets of liquidity exist. With this component, the Exchange is providing the information necessary for market participants interested in gaining insight into hidden pockets of liquidity and potentially improving their trading performance. For example, if a firm continuously executes against hidden orders and creates a model to potentially identify the amount of hidden liquidity for individual securities at certain time periods, it will be able to essentially recreate this product for itself.
Market participants generally would use liquidity accessing orders if there is a high probability that it will execute an order resting on the Exchange order book. This component identifies by how much time an order that may have been marketable missed executing.
This component will help market participants to better understand by how much time they missed specific orders, thus determining whether they want to invest in the technology to mitigate the misses. For example, if a market participant sends in a marketable order, but an order resting on the Exchange order book was subsequently canceled or executed, the Exchange will let the market participant know for each of these orders submitted by how much time they missed an execution. The Exchange will provide this information to firms on a T + 1 basis.
Additionally, the data included in this component will be based only on the data of the market participant that opts to pay the corresponding fee to receive it (as previously noted, the corresponding fees will be included in a future filing). The Exchange will restrict all other market participants from receiving another market participant's data.
This component ranks the quality of a market participant's trading performance against its peers.
Peer Benchmarking will help market participants better understand trending over time and whether behavioral changes they make translate into the expected results. Additionally, this component will assist market participants in understanding their rankings independent of any trading pattern changes the market participant may have made. It will let market participants know what their metric is ranked within their peer group and the market participant can glean how it is changing over time. Each port will be categorized into a peer grouping that will be based upon a given set of metrics that will share similar trading behavior characteristics and must include at least ten peers within a security. The Exchange will provide this information to firms on a T + 1 basis.
The data included in Peer Benchmarking is specific to a particular market participant's port and only the market participant who pays the optional fee to receive the component is eligible to receive Peer Benchmarking. Nasdaq will restrict all other market participants from receiving this market participant's Peer Benchmark (as previously noted, the corresponding fees will be included in a future filing).
This component offers extensive historical insight into aggregated displayed and hidden orders on the Exchange for Reg NMS securities listed on Nasdaq, the New York Stock Exchange, and other U.S. equity exchanges. Specifically, this component will contain aggregated metrics and statistics about the liquidity on Nasdaq, including hidden liquidity on a security level.
Market participants may opt to utilize this component to better understand when pockets of accessible liquidity exist. This may help market participants optimize their algorithm and Smart Order Router to potentially oversize orders and get better fill rates.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange also believes this proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act because it protects investors and the public interest and promotes just and equitable principles of trade by providing investors with new options for receiving market data as requested by potential purchasers. The proposed rule change would benefit investors by facilitating their prompt access to the value added information that is included in the Nasdaq Trading Insights market data product, which includes the following components: (a) Missed Opportunity—Liquidity; (b) Missed Opportunity—Latency; (c) Peer Benchmarking; and (d) Liquidity Dynamics Analysis.
In adopting Regulation NMS, the Commission granted self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) and broker dealers increased authority and flexibility to offer new and unique market data to consumers of such data. It was believed that this authority would expand the amount of data available to users and consumers of such data and also spur innovation and competition for the provision of market data. The Exchange believes that the Nasdaq Trading Insights product is the sort of market data product that the Commission envisioned when it adopted Regulation NMS.
The Commission concluded that Regulation NMS—by deregulating the market in proprietary data—would itself further the Act's goals of facilitating efficiency and competition:
[E]fficiency is promoted when broker-dealers who do not need the data beyond the prices, sizes, market center identifications of the NBBO and consolidated last sale information are not required to receive (and pay for) such data. The Commission also believes that efficiency is promoted when broker-dealers may choose to receive (and pay for) additional market data based on their own internal analysis of the need for such data.
By removing “unnecessary regulatory restrictions” on the ability of exchanges to sell their own data, Regulation NMS advanced the goals of the Act and the principles reflected in its legislative history. This proposed new market data product provides investors with new options for receiving market data, which was a primary goal of the market data amendments adopted by Regulation NMS.
This component is designed for trading firms that seek to submit orders for the greatest number of shares possible without exceeding the amount of shares actually available. It identifies when an order from a market participant might have been increased in size and thus executed more shares.
The Exchange believes that providing this optional liquidity to interested market participants for a fee is consistent with facilitating transactions in securities, removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protecting investors and the public interest
This component is designed for market participants that are interested in gaining insight into latency in connection with orders that failed to execute against an order resting on the Exchange order book since it identifies by how much time an order that may have been marketable missed executing.
The Exchange believes that providing this optional latency data to interested market participants for a fee is consistent with facilitating transactions in securities, removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protecting investors and the public interest because it provides greater visibility into exactly what was missed in trading so market participants may optimize their models and trading patterns to yield better execution results by identifying by how much time an order that may have been marketable missed executing.
This component is designed for market participants that are interested in gaining insight into the quality of its trading performance against its peers trading with the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that providing this optional Peer Benchmarking data to interested market participants for a fee is consistent with facilitating transactions in securities, to removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protecting investors and the public interest because it provides additional insight for market participants into how the competition is performing vis-à-vis their own trading, as well as helping market participants better understand trending over time and whether behavioral changes they make translate into the expected results.
This component is designed for market participants that are interested in gaining insight into when pockets of accessible liquidity exist. This component may help market participants optimize their algorithm and Smart Order Routers to potentially oversize orders and get better fill rates.
The Exchange believes that providing this optional data concerning historical insight into aggregated displayed and hidden orders on the Exchange for Reg NMS securities listed on Nasdaq, the New York Stock Exchange, and other U.S. equity exchanges, to interested market participants for a fee is consistent with facilitating transactions in securities, removing impediments to and perfecting the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, protecting investors and the public interest because it provides greater visibility into when pockets of accessible liquidity exist. This, in turn, may help market participants optimize their algorithm and Smart Order Routers to potentially oversize orders and get better fill rates.
In summary, the Nasdaq Trading Insights market data product will help to protect a free and open market by providing additional non-core data (offered on an optional basis for a fee) to the marketplace and by providing investors with greater choices.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. In fact, the Exchange believes that the Nasdaq Trading Insights market data product will enhance competition
The market for proprietary data products is also highly contestable because market entry is rapid, inexpensive, and profitable. The history of electronic trading is replete with examples of entrants that swiftly grew into some of the largest electronic trading platforms and proprietary data producers: Archipelago, Bloomberg Tradebook, Island, RediBook, Attain, TracECN, BATS Trading and BATS/Direct Edge. A proliferation of dark pools and other ATSs operate profitably with fragmentary shares of consolidated market volume.
Regulation NMS, by deregulating the market for proprietary data, has increased the contestability of that market. While broker-dealers (“BDs”) have previously published their proprietary data individually, Regulation NMS encourages market data vendors and BDs to produce proprietary products cooperatively in a manner never before possible. Multiple market data vendors already have the capability to aggregate data and disseminate it on a profitable scale, including Bloomberg and Thomson Reuters. In Europe, Cinnober aggregates and disseminates data from over 40 brokers and multilateral trading facilities.
In the case of TRFs, the rapid entry of several exchanges into this space in 2006-2007 following the development and Commission approval of the TRF structure demonstrates the contestability of this aspect of the market.
In this instance, the proposed rule change to offer the optional four components that comprise the Nasdaq Trading Insights market data product for a fee is subject to market participant interest. Additionally, some market participants may already be able to derive the same data that is provided by this component based on their executions and algorithms that they have created.
In sum, if the four distinct market data components that comprise the Nasdaq Trading Insights product and that are the subject of the rule change
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain subadvisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the subadvisers.
Managed Portfolio Series (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company, and Port Street Investments, LLC (the “Initial Adviser”), a California limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, on behalf of each series of the Trust that is a Fund (as defined below) (collectively, with the Trust and the Initial Adviser, the “Applicants”).
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on August 29, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Jeanine M. Bajczyk, Esq., Managed Portfolio Series, 615 East Michigan Street, Milwaukee, WI 53202; Graham B. Pierce, Port Street Investments, LLC, 24 Corporate Plaza, Suite 150, Newport Beach, CA 92660.
Deepak T. Pai, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6876, or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6814 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Adviser will serve as the investment adviser to the Funds pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with the Trust (the “Advisory Agreement”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Adviser, subject to Board approval, to hire certain Subadvisers pursuant to Subadvisory Agreements and materially amend existing Subadvisory Agreements without obtaining the shareholder approval required under section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Fund shareholders and notification about subadvisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Funds' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the application, the Advisory Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval while the role of the Subadvisers is substantially similar to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Subadvisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Funds. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Adviser's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Subadvisers that are more advantageous for the Funds.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to reflect the dissolution of one of the Exchange's intermediate holding companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC (“DEH”), on December 31, 2015, by: (i) Amending the bylaws of the Exchange's ultimate parent company, Bats Global Markets, Inc. (the “Corporation”), to remove reference to DEH, as well as Bats Global Markets Holdings, an intermediate holding company wholly owned by the Corporation (“BGMH”), (ii) amending the bylaws of the Exchange to remove reference to DEH, (iii) deleting the DEH certificate of formation and operating agreement from the Exchange's rules, and (iv) amending the operating agreement of the Exchange's sole stockholder, Direct Edge LLC (“DE LLC”), to reflect that DE LLC's sole member is the Corporation rather than DEH and to make other related changes.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The
On December 17, 2015, DEH filed a certificate of cancellation with the State of Delaware, effective December 31, 2015. As a result, DEH was dissolved, its affairs wound up, and its certificate of formation and operating agreement were cancelled, each effective December 31, 2015. In connection with DEH's dissolution, the Corporation proposes to amend its bylaws on-file with the Commission to remove reference to DEH because the entity no longer exists. The Exchange also proposes to remove reference to BGMH because inclusion of the reference to BGMH is unnecessary. Specifically, the applicable provision relates to any entity in which the Corporation holds an interest and the text the Exchange proposes to eliminate is a parenthetical that was intended to provide examples, not an exhaustive list, of such entities.
Similarly, the Exchange intends to amend its bylaws to remove reference to DEH. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to remove references to DEH contained in Article XI, Section 2 of the bylaws, which prohibits members of the boards of affiliated entities from attending meetings related to the self-regulatory function of the Exchange.
Because DEH has been dissolved, the Exchange also proposes to delete the DEH certificate of formation and operating agreement from the Exchange's rules. Though the DEH certificate of formation did not have any information pertinent to the Exchange, the Exchange notes that the DEH operating agreement did contain certain provisions applicable to the Exchange's status as a self-regulatory organization. For example, Article X, Section 1 provided that DEH would not interfere with the Exchange's responsibilities under the Act and Article X, Section 2 provided that DEH would cooperate with the Exchange in furtherance of such responsibilities. These provisions and the others in the operating agreement of DEH related to the Exchange were designed to impose restrictions upon DEH for so long as DEH indirectly owned the Exchange or were intended to require cooperation by DEH to ensure that the Exchange could meet its regulatory obligations. Thus, while the dissolution of DEH and the proposed elimination of the operating agreement does remove some provisions applicable to the Exchange, there is no impact on the Exchange. The Exchange notes that each one of these provisions is duplicative of a provision included in the operating agreement of DE LLC. Also, the Exchange notes that the primary limitations upon the interference with the independence of the Exchange related to either ownership or governance are contained either in the organizational documents of Exchange or the Corporation, and not the organizational documents of any intermediate holding company.
Finally, DE LLC intends to amend and restate its operating agreement to reflect that DE LLC's sole member is the Corporation rather than DEH and include the contact information of the member. In connection with these changes, the Exchange also proposes to reflect the following changes to the operating agreement of DE LLC: (i) General language to reflect the amendment and restatement of the operating agreement; and (ii) restructuring of certain language related to DE LLC's formation. None of the proposed changed described above requires a filing with the State of Delaware.
The purpose of this rule filing is to amend the bylaws of the Corporation, the ultimate parent company of the Exchange, to amend the bylaws of the Exchange, and to amend and restate the operating agreement of DE LLC, the sole stockholder of the Exchange, each as described in this proposal.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition. As described above, the proposed rule change is simply to reflect the dissolution of DEH, including the deletion of the certificate of formation and operating agreement of DEH and all references to DEH in the governance documents of the Corporation, the Exchange, and DE LLC. The Exchange has also proposed to remove an unnecessary reference in the Corporation's bylaws to BGMH. The changes described in the proposal do not impact the governance of the Exchange nor do they modify the ownership of the Corporation.
(C)
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and Sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain sub-advisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the sub-advisers.
American Independence Funds Trust and Rx Funds Trust (each, a “Trust” and collectively, the “Trusts”), each a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company with multiple series, and RiskX Investments, LLC, a Delaware limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“RiskX Investments” or the “Adviser,” and, collectively with the Trusts, the “Applicants”).
The application was filed June 30, 2016, and amended August 2, 2016 and August 2, 2016.
An order granting the application will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on August 24, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on the applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: 1345 Avenue of the Americas, Second Floor, New York, NY 10105.
Steven I. Amchan, Senior Counsel, or David J. Marcinkus, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Adviser will serve as the investment adviser to the Funds pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with each Trust (the “Advisory Agreement”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Adviser, subject to Board approval, to hire certain Sub-Advisers pursuant to Sub-Advisory Agreements and materially amend existing Sub-Advisory Agreements without obtaining the shareholder approval required under section 15(a) of the Act and rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the Application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Fund shareholders and notification about sub-advisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Funds' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the Application, the Advisory Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval, while the role of the Sub-Advisers is substantially similar to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Sub-Advisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Funds. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Adviser's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Sub-Advisers that are more advantageous for the Funds.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is proposing to extend the pilot period for the Exchange's Supplemental Competitive Liquidity Provider Program (the “Program”), which is currently set to expire on July 28, 2016, for three months, to expire on October 28, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On August 30, 2011, the Exchange received approval of rules applicable to the qualification, listing and delisting of securities of issuers on the Exchange.
The Program was approved by the Commission on a pilot basis running one-year from the date of implementation.
The Exchange established the Program in order to enhance liquidity on the Exchange in certain ETPs listed on the Exchange (and thereby enhance the Exchange's ability to compete as a listing venue) by providing a mechanism by which ETP CLPs compete for part of a daily quoting incentive on the basis of providing the most aggressive quotes with the greatest amount of size. Such competition has the ability to reduce spreads, facilitate the price discovery process, and reduce costs for investors trading in such securities, thereby promoting capital formation and helping the Exchange to compete as a listing venue. The Exchange believes that extending the pilot is appropriate because the Exchange has prepared and is also planning to submit a proposal to make the Program permanent. As part of this proposal, the Exchange has also prepared a report analyzing the Program. As such, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate to extend the current operation of the Program for three months in order to provide enough time for the Program to continue operating while such proposal is under consideration by the Commission. Through this filing, the Exchange seeks to extend the current pilot period of the Program until October 28, 2016.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change extends an established pilot program for three months, thus allowing the Program to enhance competition in both the listings market and in competition for market makers. The Program will continue to promote competition in the listings market by providing issuers with a vehicle for paying the Exchange additional fees in exchange for incentivizing tighter spreads and deeper liquidity in listed securities and allow the Exchange to continue to compete with similar programs at Nasdaq Stock Market LLC
The Exchange also believes that extending the pilot program for an additional three months will allow the Program to continue to enhance competition among market participants by creating incentives for market makers to compete to make better quality markets. By continuing to require that market makers both meet the quoting requirements and also compete for the daily financial incentives, the quality of quotes on the Exchange will continue to improve. This, in turn, will attract more liquidity to the Exchange and further improve the quality of trading in exchange-listed securities participating in the Program, which will also act to bolster the Exchange's listing business.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from Members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative before 30 days from the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii),
The Exchange has asked the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay. The Exchange asserts that waiver of the operative delay will allow the Exchange to extend the Program prior to its expiration on July 28, 2016, which will ensure that the Program continues to operate uninterrupted while the Exchange and the Commission continue to analyze data regarding the Program. The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing with the Commission.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to reflect the dissolution of one of the Exchange's intermediate holding companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC (“DEH”), on December 31, 2015, by: (i) Amending the bylaws of the Exchange's ultimate parent company, Bats Global Markets, Inc. (the “Corporation”), to remove reference to DEH, as well as Bats Global Markets Holdings, an intermediate holding company wholly owned by the Corporation (“BGMH”), (ii) amending the bylaws of the Exchange to remove reference to DEH, (iii) deleting the DEH certificate of formation and operating agreement from the Exchange's rules, and (iv) amending the operating agreement of the Exchange's sole stockholder, Direct Edge LLC (“DE LLC”), to reflect that DE LLC's sole member is the Corporation rather than DEH and to make other related changes.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On December 17, 2015, DEH filed a certificate of cancellation with the State of Delaware, effective December 31,
Similarly, the Exchange intends to amend its bylaws to remove reference to DEH. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to remove references to DEH contained in Article XI, Section 2 of the bylaws, which prohibits members of the boards of affiliated entities from attending meetings related to the self-regulatory function of the Exchange.
Because DEH has been dissolved, the Exchange also proposes to delete the DEH certificate of formation and operating agreement from the Exchange's rules. Though the DEH certificate of formation did not have any information pertinent to the Exchange, the Exchange notes that the DEH operating agreement did contain certain provisions applicable to the Exchange's status as a self-regulatory organization. For example, Article X, Section 1 provided that DEH would not interfere with the Exchange's responsibilities under the Act and Article X, Section 2 provided that DEH would cooperate with the Exchange in furtherance of such responsibilities. These provisions and the others in the operating agreement of DEH related to the Exchange were designed to impose restrictions upon DEH for so long as DEH indirectly owned the Exchange or were intended to require cooperation by DEH to ensure that the Exchange could meet its regulatory obligations. Thus, while the dissolution of DEH and the proposed elimination of the operating agreement does remove some provisions applicable to the Exchange, there is no impact on the Exchange. The Exchange notes that each one of these provisions is duplicative of a provision included in the operating agreement of DE LLC. Also, the Exchange notes that the primary limitations upon the interference with the independence of the Exchange related to either ownership or governance are contained either in the organizational documents of Exchange or the Corporation, and not the organizational documents of any intermediate holding company.
Finally, DE LLC intends to amend and restate its operating agreement to reflect that DE LLC's sole member is the Corporation rather than DEH and include the contact information of the member. In connection with these changes, the Exchange also proposes to reflect the following changes to the operating agreement of DE LLC: (i) general language to reflect the amendment and restatement of the operating agreement; and (ii) restructuring of certain language related to DE LLC's formation. None of the proposed changed described above requires a filing with the State of Delaware.
The purpose of this rule filing is to amend the bylaws of the Corporation, the ultimate parent company of the Exchange, to amend the bylaws of the Exchange, and to amend and restate the operating agreement of DE LLC, the sole stockholder of the Exchange, each as described in this proposal.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition. As described above, the proposed rule change is simply to reflect the dissolution of DEH, including the deletion of the certificate of formation and operating agreement of DEH and all references to DEH in the governance documents of the Corporation, the Exchange, and DE LLC. The Exchange has also proposed to remove an unnecessary reference in the Corporation's bylaws to BGMH. The changes described in the proposal do not impact the governance of the Exchange nor do they modify the ownership of the Corporation.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to delete Rules 8.9 and 8.21 related to information barriers. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to adopt a principles-based approach to prohibit the misuse of material, nonpublic information by Market-Makers and DPMs by deleting Rule 8.9 and Rule 8.21. In so doing, the Exchange would harmonize its rules related to the preventing the misuse of material, nonpublic information for every Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”). The Exchange believes that Rule 8.9 and Rule 8.21 are no longer necessary because all TPHs, including Market-Makers and DPMs, are subject to the Exchange's general principles-based requirements governing the protection against misuse of material, nonpublic information, pursuant to Chapter 4 and incorporated therin [sic] CBOE Rule 4.18
Pursuant to Rule 8.1, TPHs registered as Market-Makers have certain rights and bear certain responsibilities beyond those of other TPHs. All Market-Makers are subject to the requirements of Rule 8.5, which sets forth the obligations of Market-Makers, including providing continuous electronic quotes.
Rule 8.17 outlines the obligations of DPMs, which must fulfill a number of increased obligations in addition to the Market-Maker obligations of Rule 8.5, including providing continuous
Pursuant to Rule 8.19, the Exchange may establish participation entitlements for DPMs appointed pursuant to the aforementioned Rules. DPMs must meet specific obligations prior to being awarded a participation entitlements.
All Market-Makers and DPMs have access to the same information in the Book that is available to all other market participants. Moreover, none of the Exchange's Market-Makers have agency obligations to the Book.
Despite the fact that Market-Makers and DPMs have access to the same trading information as all other market participants on the Exchange, the Exchange has distinct rules governing how Market-Makers and DPMs may operate. Rule 8.9 states that a Market-Maker shall maintain information barriers that are reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information with any affiliates that may conduct a brokerage business in option classes allocated to the Market-maker or that may act as a specialist or market-maker in any security underlying options allocated to the Market-Maker. Rule 8.21 states that a DPM shall maintain information barriers that are reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information with any affiliates that may conduct a brokerage business in option classes allocated to the DPM or act as a specialist or market-maker in any security underlying options allocated to the DPM. Rule 8.21 also requires a DPM provide its information barriers to the Exchange and obtain prior written approval.
The Exchange believes that Rule 4.18 governing the misuse of material, nonpublic information provides for an appropriate, principles-based approach to prevent the type of market abuses Rules 8.9 and 8.21 are designed to address. Specifically, Rule 4.18 requires every TPH to establish, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of such TPH's business, to prevent the misuse, in violation of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and Exchange Rules, of material, nonpublic information by such TPH or persons associated with such TPH. For the purposes of Rule 4.18, conduct constituting the misuse of material, nonpublic information in violation of the Act and Exchange Rules includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(a) Trading in any securities issued by a corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts or Units (as defined in Exchange Rules) or a trust or similar entities, or in any related securities or related options or other derivative securities, or in any related non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or any other derivatives based on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or in any related commodity derivatives, while in possession of material, nonpublic information concerning that corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts, or those Units, or that trust or similar entities;
(b) Trading in an underlying security or related options or other derivative securities, or in any related non-U.S. currency, non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or any other related commodities derivatives, or any other derivatives based on such currency while in possession of material nonpublic information concerning imminent transactions in the above; and
(c) Disclosing to another person or entity any material, nonpublic information involving a corporation, partnership, Trust Issued Receipts, or Units or a trust or similar entities whose shares are publicly traded or an imminent transactions in an underlying security or related securities or in the underlying non-U.S. currency of any related non-U.S. currency options, futures or options on futures on such currency, or any other derivatives based on such currency, or in any related commodity, related commodity futures or options on commodity futures or any other related commodity derivatives, for the purpose of facilitating the possible misuse of such material, nonpublic information.
Because Market-Makers and DPMs are already subject to the requirements of Rule 4.18, the Exchange does not believe that it is necessary to require all Market-Makers and DPMs to explicitly maintain information barriers. Deleting Rules 8.9 and 8.21 would provide Market-Makers and DPMs with the flexibility to adapt their policies and procedures as appropriate to reflect changes to their business model, business activities, or the securities market in a manner similar to how other TPHs on the Exchange currently operate consistent with Rule 4.18.
Neither the obligations nor the entitlements associated with Market-Makers and DPMs provide different or greater access to nonpublic information than any other market participant on the Exchange. Specifically, neither Market-Makers nor DPMs on the Exchange have access to trading information provided by the Exchange, either at, or prior to, the point of execution, that is not made available to all other market participants on the Exchange in a similar manner. Further, as noted above, Market-Makers and DPMs on the Exchange do not have any agency responsibilities for orders in the Book. Accordingly, because Market-Makers and DPMs do not have any trading advantages at the Exchange due to their market roles, the Exchange believes that they should be subject to the same rules regarding the prevention of the misuse of material, nonpublic information, specifically Rule 4.18.
The Exchange notes that its proposed approach to use a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information for all of its registered Market-Makers is consistent with recently filed rule changes for the Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE”), NYSE MKT, LLC on behalf of NYSE Amex Options, International Securities Exchange, LLC (“ISE”), BOX Options Exchange, LLC (“BOX”), BATS Exchange, Inc. (“BATS”) on behalf of BATS Options Market (“BATS Options”), NASDAQ OMX PHLX, LLC (“PHLX”), and NASDAQ BX, Inc. (“BX Options”)
The Exchange notes that even with this proposed rule change, pursuant to Rule 4.18, a Market-Maker or DPM would still be obligated to ensure that its policies and procedures reflect the current state of its business and continue to be reasonably designed to prevent the misuse of material, nonpublic information. While information barriers would not specifically be required under the proposal, Rule 4.18 already requires that a TPH consider the nature of the TPH's business in structuring its policies and procedures, which may dictate that an information barrier or a functional separation be part of the appropriate set of policies and procedures that would be reasonably designed to achieve compliance with applicable securities law and regulations, and with applicable Exchange rules.
The Exchange is not proposing to change what is considered to be material, nonpublic information and, thus, does not expect there to be any changes to the types of information that an affiliated brokerage business of a Market-Maker or DPM could share with such Market-Maker or DPM. In that regard, the proposed rule change will not permit the brokerage unit of a TPH firm to have access to any nonpublic order or quote information of an affiliated Market-Maker or DPM, including hidden or undisplayed orders and quotes on the Exchange. TPHs do not expect to receive any additional order or quote information as a result of this proposed rule change.
Further, the Exchange does not believe that there will be any material change to TPH information barriers as a result of removal of the Exchange's pre-approval requirements for DPMs. In fact, the Exchange anticipates that eliminating the pre-approval requirement should facilitate implementation of changes to TPH information barriers as necessary to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. The Exchange also suggests that the pre-approval requirement is unnecessary because DPMs do not have agency responsibilities to the Book. However, information barriers of new entrants would be subject to review as part of a new firm application. Moreover, the policies and procedures of Market-Makers and DPMs, including those relating to information barriers, would be subject to review by FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, pursuant to a Regulatory Services Agreement.
The Exchange further notes that under Rule 4.18, a TPH would be able to provide for its options Market-Makers or DPMs, as applicable, to be structured with its equities and customer-facing businesses, provided that any such structuring would be done in a manner reasonably designed to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. For example, pursuant to Rule 4.18, a Market-Maker or DPM on the Exchange could be in the same independent trading unit, a defined in Rule 200(f) of Regulation SHO,
The Exchange believes that the proposed reliance on the principles-based Rule 4.18 would ensure that a TPH that operates a Market-Maker or DPM would be required to protect against the misuse of any material nonpublic information. As noted above, Rule 4.18 already requires that firms refrain from trading while in possession of material nonpublic information concerning imminent transactions in a security or related product. The Exchange believes that moving to a principles-based approach based on Rule 4.18 would still provide TPHs operating Market-Makers or DPMs with appropriate tools to better manage risk across a firm, including integrating options positions with other positions of the firm or, as applicable, by the respective independent trading unit. Specifically, the Exchange believes that it is appropriate for risk management purposes for a TPH operating a Market-Maker or DPM to be able to consider
The Exchange further notes that if options Market-Makers or DPMs are integrated with other Market-Making operations, they would be subject to existing rules that prohibit TPHs from disadvantaging their customers or other market participants by improperly capitalizing of a TPH organization's access to the receipt of material nonpublic information. As such, a TPH organization that integrates its options Market-Making or DPM operations together with equity Market-Making, would need to protect customer information consistent with existing obligations to protect such information. The Exchange has rules prohibiting TPHs from disadvantaging their customers or other market participants by improperly capitalizing on the TPH's access to or receipt of material nonpublic information. For example, Rule 4.24(e) requires Each TPH shall establish, maintain, and enforce written supervisory procedures reasonably designed to prevent and detect violations of applicable securities laws and regulations, and applicable Exchange rules. Additionally Rule 6.9(e) prevents a TPH or person associated with a TPH, who has knowledge of all material terms and conditions of an original order and a solicited order, including a facilitation order, to enter, based on such knowledge, an order to buy or sell an option of the same class as an option that is the subject of the original order, or an order to buy or sell the security underlying such class, or an order to buy or sell any related instrument unless certain circumstances are met.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market by adopting a principles-based approach to permit a TPH operating a Market-Maker or DPM to maintain and enforce policies and procedures to, among other things, prohibit the misuse of material nonpublic information. The proposed rule change would further eliminate restrictions on how a TPH structures its Market-Maker or DPM operations. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is based on an approved rule of the Exchange to which Market-Makers and DPMs are already subject (Rule 4.18) and harmonizes the rules governing Market-Makers, DPMs, and other market participants. Moreover, TPHs operating Market-Makers and DPMs would continue to be subject to federal and Exchange requirements for protecting material nonpublic order information.
The Exchange further believes the proposal is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices and to promote just and equitable principles of trade because existing rules make clear to all TPHs the type of conduct that is prohibited by the Exchange. While the proposal eliminates certain requirements relating to the misuse of material nonpublic information, Market-Makers, DPMs and all other TPHs would remain subject to existing Exchange Rules requiring them to establish and maintain systems to supervise their activities, and to create, implement, and maintain written procedures that are reasonably designed to comply with applicable securities laws and Exchange Rules, including the prohibition on the misuse of material nonpublic information.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change would still require that TPHs operating Market-Makers and DPMs maintain and enforce policies and procedures designed to ensure compliance with applicable federal securities laws and regulations and with Exchange Rules. Even thought there would no longer be pre-approval of DPM information barriers, both Market-Maker and DPM written policies and procedures would continue to be subject to oversight by the Exchange and therefore the elimination of the pre-approval requirements should not reduce the effectiveness of the Exchange rules to protect against the misuse of material nonpublic information. Market-Makers and DPMs will be able to utilize a flexible, principles-based approach to modify their policies and procedures as appropriate to reflect changes to their business model, business activities, or to the securities market itself. Moreover the Exchange notes that a TPH's business model or business activities may dictate that an information barrier or functional separation be part of the appropriate set of policies and procedures that would be reasonably designed to achieve compliance with applicable securities laws and regulations, and with applicable Exchange Rules. The Exchange therefore believes that the proposed rule change will maintain the existing protection of investors and the public interest that is currently applicable to Market-Makers and DPMs, while at the same time removing impediments to and perfecting a free and open market by moving to a principles-based approach to protect against the misuse of material nonpublic information.
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not
Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would eliminate a burden on competition for TPHs that currently exists as a result of disparate rule treatment between the options and equities markets regarding how to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. For those TPHs that are also members of equities exchanges, their respective equity Market-Maker operations are now subject to a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information. The Exchange believes it would remove a burden on competition to enable TPHs to similarly apply a principles-based approach to protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information in the options space. To this end, the Exchange notes that Rule 4.18 still requires a TPH, which operates as a Market-Maker or DPM on the Exchange, to evaluate its business to assure that its policies and procedures are reasonably designed to protect against the misuse of material, nonpublic information. However, with this proposed rule change, a TPH that trades equities and options could look at its firm more holistically to structure its operations in a manner that provides it with better tools to manage risks across multiple security classes, while at the same time protecting against the misuse of material nonpublic information.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Because the proposed rule change does not (i) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, the proposed rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act normally does not become operative for 30 days after the date of its filing. However, Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii) permits the Commission to designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has asked the Commission to waive the 30-day operative delay so that the proposal may become operative immediately upon filing. Waiver of the 30-day operative delay would help facilitate the harmonization of information barrier rules across options exchanges. The Exchange represents that Exchange rules still require a Market Maker to evaluate its business to assure that its policies and procedures are reasonably designed to protect against the misuse of material nonpublic information. Further, the Exchange states that the proposed rule change is designed to provide more flexibility to market participants, while not decreasing the protections against the misuse of material, non-public information. Based on the foregoing, the Commission believes the waiver of the operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section
The Exchange filed a proposal to reflect the dissolution of one of the Exchange's intermediate holding companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC (“DEH”), on December 31, 2015, by amending the bylaws of the Exchange's ultimate parent company, Bats Global Markets, Inc. (the “Corporation”), to remove reference to DEH, as well as Bats Global Markets Holdings, an intermediate holding company wholly owned by the Corporation (“BGMH”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On December 17, 2015, DEH filed a certificate of cancellation with the State of Delaware, effective December 31, 2015. As a result, DEH was dissolved, its affairs wound up, and its certificate of formation and operating agreement were cancelled, each effective December 31, 2015. In connection with DEH's dissolution, the Corporation proposes to amend its bylaws on-file with the Commission to remove reference to DEH because the entity no longer exists. The Exchange also proposes to remove reference to BGMH because inclusion of the reference to BGMH is unnecessary. Specifically, the applicable provision relates to any entity in which the Corporation holds an interest and the text the Exchange proposes to eliminate is a parenthetical that was intended to provide examples, not an exhaustive list, of such entities.
The purpose of this rule filing is to amend the bylaws of the Corporation, the ultimate parent company of the Exchange, as described above.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition. As described above, the proposed rule change is simply to reflect the dissolution of DEH and to remove an unnecessary reference in the Corporation's bylaws to BGMH. These changes do not impact the governance of the Exchange nor do they modify the ownership of the Corporation.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to reflect the dissolution of one of the Exchange's intermediate holding companies, Direct Edge Holdings LLC (“DEH”), on December 31, 2015, by amending the bylaws of the Exchange's ultimate parent company, Bats Global Markets, Inc. (the “Corporation”), to remove reference to DEH, as well as Bats Global Markets Holdings, an intermediate holding company wholly owned by the Corporation (“BGMH”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
On December 17, 2015, DEH filed a certificate of cancellation with the State of Delaware, effective December 31, 2015. As a result, DEH was dissolved, its affairs wound up, and its certificate of formation and operating agreement were cancelled, each effective December 31, 2015. In connection with DEH's dissolution, the Corporation proposes to amend its bylaws on-file with the Commission to remove reference to DEH because the entity no longer exists. The Exchange also proposes to remove reference to BGMH because inclusion of the reference to BGMH is unnecessary. Specifically, the applicable provision relates to any entity in which the Corporation holds an interest and the text the Exchange proposes to eliminate is a parenthetical that was intended to provide examples, not an exhaustive list, of such entities.
The purpose of this rule filing is to amend the bylaws of the Corporation, the ultimate parent company of the Exchange, as described above.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change imposes any burden on competition. As described above, the proposed rule change is simply to reflect the dissolution of DEH and to remove an unnecessary reference in the Corporation's bylaws to BGMH. These changes do not impact the governance of the Exchange nor do they modify the ownership of the Corporation.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any written comments from members or other interested parties.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA).
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 46 individuals for exemption from the prohibition against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 7, 2016.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0218 using any of the following methods:
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Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 46 individuals listed in this notice have recently requested such an exemption from the diabetes prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Bartleson, 58, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bartleson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bartleson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Wisconsin.
Mr. Blankenhorn, 51, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Blankenhorn understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Blankenhorn meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Oregon.
Mr. Bowers, 69, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bowers understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bowers meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Carolina.
Mr. Cambridge, 55, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Cambridge understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Cambridge meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Charette, 71, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Charette understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Charette meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Connecticut.
Mr. Davis, 61, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Davis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Davis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Delaney, 30, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Delaney understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Delaney meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Massachusetts.
Mr. Dragon, 56, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Dragon understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Dragon meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Connecticut.
Mr. Flynn, 32, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Flynn understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Flynn meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Frazier, 34, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Frazier understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Frazier meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New Hampshire.
Mr. Furlong, 55, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Furlong understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Furlong meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Tennessee.
Mr. Granby, 22, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Granby understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Granby meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Illinois.
Mr. Hurston, 55, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hurston understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hurston meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Louisiana.
Mr. Ingles, 69, has had ITDM since 2007. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ingles understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using
Mr. Ivory, 65, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ivory understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ivory meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Alabama.
Mr. Jackson, 46, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jackson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jackson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Texas.
Mr. Jaynes, 37, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jaynes understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jaynes meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Maine.
Mr. Jopp, 53, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jopp understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jopp meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Minnesota.
Mr. Keese, 32, has had ITDM since 2000. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Keese understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Keese meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Tennessee.
Mr. Kelly, 39, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kelly understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kelly meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Lewis, 59, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2015 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lewis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lewis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Loge, 28, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Loge understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Loge meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Colorado.
Mr. Lynn, 69, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in
Mr. Marino, 57, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Marino understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Marino meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from West Virginia.
Mr. Mata, 43, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mata understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mata meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a CDL from Michigan.
Mr. McCoy, 61, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McCoy understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McCoy meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Miller, 57, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Miller understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Miller meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Mirabello, 48, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mirabello understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mirabello meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Maryland.
Mr. O'Neal, 43, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. O'Neal understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. O'Neal meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Maryland.
Mr. Patterson, 46, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Patterson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Patterson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Texas.
Mr. Santiago, 47, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Santiago understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Santiago meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Connecticut.
Mr. Sarmiento, 22, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of
Mr. Schleining, 54, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Schleining understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Schleining meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Washington.
Mr. Scopino, 23, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Scopino understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Scopino meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Maine.
Mr. Shafer, 67, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Shafer understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Shafer meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Simental, 41, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Simental understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Simental meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas.
Mr. Snide, 29, has had ITDM since 2003. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Snide understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Snide meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New York.
Mr. Southards, 59, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Southards understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Southards meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Kansas.
Mr. Stanton, 47, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Stanton understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Stanton meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Minnesota.
Mr. Thomason, 44, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Thomason understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using
Mr. Thompson, 34, has had ITDM since 1992. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Thompson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Thompson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Oklahoma.
Mr. Turley, 63, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Turley understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Turley meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from West Virginia.
Mr. Wallace, 47, has had ITDM since 2006. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wallace understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wallace meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Massachusetts.
Mr. Wallace, 56, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wallace understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wallace meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Missouri.
Mr. Weyer, 42, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Weyer understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Weyer meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Zamarche, 55, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Zamarche understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Zamarche meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Utah.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date section of the notice.
FMCSA notes that section 4129 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible and Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users requires the Secretary to revise its diabetes exemption program established on September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441)
Section 4129 requires: (1) Elimination of the requirement for 3 years of experience operating CMVs while being treated with insulin; and (2) establishment of a specified minimum period of insulin use to demonstrate stable control of diabetes before being allowed to operate a CMV.
In response to section 4129, FMCSA made immediate revisions to the diabetes exemption program established by the September 3, 2003 notice. FMCSA discontinued use of the 3-year driving experience and fulfilled the requirements of section 4129 while continuing to ensure that operation of CMVs by drivers with ITDM will achieve the requisite level of safety required of all exemptions granted under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e).
Section 4129(d) also directed FMCSA to ensure that drivers of CMVs with ITDM are not held to a higher standard than other drivers, with the exception of limited operating, monitoring and medical requirements that are deemed medically necessary.
The FMCSA concluded that all of the operating, monitoring and medical requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified, were in compliance with section 4129(d). Therefore, all of the requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified by the notice in the
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from eleven individuals for exemptions from the rules prohibiting operation of a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) by persons with a current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope, dyspnea, collapse, or congestive heart failure. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals to operate CMVs for up to two years in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 7, 2016.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket ID FMCSA-2016-0175 using any of the following methods:
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Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the two-year period. The eleven individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from 49 CFR 391.41(b)(4), which applies to drivers who operates CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(4) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person
Has no current clinical diagnosis of myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary insufficiency, thrombosis, or any other cardiovascular disease of a variety known to be accompanied by syncope, dyspnea, collapse, or congestive cardiac failure.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
Mr. Allen is a 47 year old commercial motor vehicle driver in Michigan. A report that he provided from July 2015 from the Veterans Administration Ann Arbor Healthcare System provider indicates, “he has well compensated class-I-II congestive heart failure with and ICD. He has a normal ejection fraction of 50-55%”.
Mr. Blake is a 57 year old Class A CDL holder in New Hampshire. His ICD was implanted in June 2015 and has never deployed. A January 5, 2016 cardiologist report indicates; “No symptoms referable to ICD or underlying rhythm changes. I believe the risk of recurrent ventricular tachy-arrhythmias or syncope is very low, however, given the history of these abnormalities and the family history of arrhythmias I would favor continued ICD implantation”.
Mr. Brown is a 54 year old Class A CDL holder in South Carolina. A March 17, 2016 letter from his cardiologist states that Mr. Brown's ICD was implanted October 15, 2013, and that recent echocardiography demonstrated an ejection fraction in the 25-30 percent range and a calculated ejection fraction of 24% from nuclear stress testing. A March 10, 2016 report from his electrophysiologist indicates that Mr. Brown has reported one shock from his device. Overall he feels well and denies chest pain, shortness of breath, or dyspnea on exertion.
Mr. Coulter is a 60 year old Class A CDL holder in California. A June 2016 letter from his cardiologist states that his ICD was implanted in February 2015. No shock has deployed since implantation. He has been asymptomatic. He has an ejection fraction of 40-45%, most recently measured in April 2015.
Mr. Dudar is a 55 year old Class A CDL holder in Connecticut. An undated cardiologist report indicates that the ICD has been in place since 2003. “He has experienced several shocks from his device and around that time was upgraded to biventricular ICD. At least back to 2009 he has not received any ICD discharges. His device is stable and at this point he really has no significant heart failure symptoms. His last ejection fraction was estimated at 25% in August 2013. His cardiac issues appear stable. He has had no recent ventricular arrhythmias and he has a normally functioning Biv-ICD”.
Mr. Godwin is a 51 year old Class A CDL holder in North Carolina. A March 30 2016 report from his cardiac electrophysiologist indicates knowledge of the driver and his condition since 2014 and that (Mr. Godwin) has not required any therapies before or after ICD implant, nor has he lost consciousness at any time. “I consider him to be safer than most other commercial drives who have undiagnosed or untreated cardiovascular problems. I feel that rather than the presence or absence of an ICD in a patient what is most important is the underlying cardiac condition and risk for loss of consciousness. Treated, Mr. Godwin is at average risk”.
Mr. Goslee is a 52 year old driver in Maryland. A May 2016 letter from his cardiologist states that his ICD was implanted in June 2104. His ICD has never delivered therapy. He follows up regularly in the office and is free of cardiac complaints. An April 2016 study shows an ejection fraction of 65-70% and an exercise tolerance at 10 minutes of Bruce protocol. The current status of underlying heart condition is low intermediate cardiovascular risk profile.
Mr. Hacker is 62 year old Class A CDL holder in Maryland. Medical documents from June 2016 from his cardiologist state that his ICD was implanted in 2007. The device check in June 2016 indicated no events for 10.5 years. Mr. Hacker's ejection fraction is 53%. His medical documentation indicates that he has no symptoms.
Ms. Kosse is a 63 year old Class D holder in Arizona. A May 2016 letter from her cardiologist states that her defibrillator was implanted in October 2014. “Her ICD has never deployed and her symptoms have completely resolved. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is normal. Ms. Kosse appears to be in stable cardiovascular health”.
Mr. Skrzyniarz is a 56 year old Class A CDL holder in Michigan. He possesses a one-year Michigan waiver dated October 22, 2015 for intrastate driving. A September 15, 2015 cardiologist-electrophysiologist report indicates that his ICD has been implanted since February 2015. He has not received any ICD shocks from his device at this time. “He had two episodes of asymptomatic non-sustained ventricular tachycardia. His condition is stable over the past year and unchanged. He has not had any ICD shocks or dangerous arrhythmias. He has been asymptomatic and is safe to operate a commercial vehicle in accordance to his job description which was provided. I have no reservations at this time”. A September 17 cardiologist report provides that, “To date the device has not been activated and his underlying cardiac condition has been deemed stable.”
Mr. Stafford is a 48 year old driver in Illinois. An April 26, 2016 report from his cardiologist indicates that Mr. Stafford's ICD was implanted in 2011 and has never fired. His cardiologist indicates that since ICD placement, his ejection fraction has normalized to 55% and he is asymptomatic and stable.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 11 individuals for exemption from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals to qualify as drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 7, 2016. All comments will be investigated by FMCSA. The exemptions will be issued the day after the comment period closes.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0031 using any of the following methods:
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Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” FMCSA can renew exemptions at the end of each 2-year period. The 11 individuals listed in this notice have each requested such an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting an exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Billig, 29, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2015, his optometrist stated, “In my medical opinion, Daniel has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Billig reported that he has driven straight trucks for 3 years, accumulating 30,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Minnesota. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Brojer, 50, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/100. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Dr. L. Victor Sandoval certifies that in his medical opinion, Duane has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Brojer reported that he has driven straight trucks for 21 years, accumulating 756,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from New Mexico. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Davis, 56, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/400. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Mr. Davis has sufficient vision to perform driving tasks that are required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Davis reported that he has driven straight trucks for 2 years, accumulating 23,400 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 26 years, accumulating 624,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from North Carolina. His driving record for the last 3 years shows one crash in a CMV, to which he contributed but for which he was not cited, and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Evenhouse, 59, has had exotropia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/25, and in his left eye, 20/200. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “The patient reports that he has driven a large truck with CDL license for about 40 years. Since he has passed your CDL vision criteria in the past, and his vision and eye health are stable, I believe he can continue safely.” Mr. Evenhouse reported that he has driven straight trucks for 31 years, accumulating 1.13 million miles. He holds a Class B CDL from Illinois. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Gibbons, 40, has had refractive amblyopia in his right eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/50, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my opinion that Mr. Gibbons has more than sufficient vision to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Gibbons reported that he has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 120,000 miles. He holds a Class AM CDL from Illinois. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Graff, 29, has had amblyopia in his right eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/200, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Mr. Graff will need to wear a correction, but with this correction, will have 20/20 visual acuity and full peripheral field of vision. There should be no difficulty with him driving a commercial vehicle at this time.” Mr. Graff reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 13 years, accumulating 390,000 miles, and buses for 8 years, accumulating 40,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from Michigan. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Hoover, 53, has had amblyopia in his left eye since birth. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/15, and in his left eye, 20/100. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “I, Denise C. Gimbel, OD, in my medical opinion, feel Brian Hoover has sufficient vision to perform the [
Mr. Kafer, 32, has had refractive amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/100. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “It is my medical opinion Michael Kafer has sufficient vision to perform the driving task as required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Kafer reported that he has driven tractor-trailer combinations for 10 years, accumulating 35,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from Kansas. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Robinson, 38, has had Coat's retinopathy in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/400. Following an examination in 2016, his ophthalmologist stated, “In my medical opinion, he has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks for operating a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Robinson reported that he has driven straight trucks for 4 years, accumulating 124,800 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 4 years, accumulating 140,000 miles. He holds a Class A CDL from New York. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Stanley, 43, has a corneal scar in his right eye due to a traumatic incident in childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/250, and in his left eye, 20/20. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “Mr. Stanley has sufficient vision to perform the driving tasks required to operate a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Stanley reported that he has driven straight trucks for 3 years, accumulating 28,300 miles. He holds an operator's license from Oklahoma. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
Mr. Tibbetts, 67, has had amblyopia in his left eye since childhood. The visual acuity in his right eye is 20/20, and in his left eye, 20/70. Following an examination in 2016, his optometrist stated, “The above is under my care and is visually impaired (mildly) in the left eye due to amblyopia which began at childhood and is stable. He should be allowed to drive a commercial vehicle.” Mr. Tibbetts reported that he has driven straight trucks for 10 years, accumulating 50,000 miles, and tractor-trailer combinations for 14 years, accumulating 364,000 miles. He holds an operator's license from South Carolina. His driving record for the last 3 years shows no crashes and no convictions for moving violations in a CMV.
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
FMCSA will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 22 individuals from the vision requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons. The exemptions will enable these individuals to operate commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce without meeting the prescribed vision requirement in one eye. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemptions will provide a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these CMV drivers.
The exemptions were granted April 28, 2016. The exemptions expire on April 28, 2018.
Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at
On March 28, 2016, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of exemption applications from certain individuals, and requested comments from the public (81 FR 17237). That notice listed 22 applicants' case histories. The 22 individuals applied for exemptions from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), for drivers who operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for a two-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. Accordingly, FMCSA has evaluated the 22 applications on their merits and made a determination to grant exemptions to each of them.
The vision requirement in the FMCSRs provides: A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has distant visual acuity of at least 20/40 (Snellen) in each eye without corrective lenses or visual acuity separately corrected to 20/40 (Snellen) or better with corrective lenses, distant binocular acuity of a least 20/40 (Snellen) in both eyes with or without corrective lenses, field of vision of at least 70° in the horizontal meridian in each eye, and the ability to recognize the colors of traffic signals and devices showing red, green, and amber (49 CFR 391.41(b)(10)).
FMCSA recognizes that some drivers do not meet the vision requirement but have adapted their driving to accommodate their limitation and demonstrated their ability to drive safely. The 22 exemption applicants listed in this notice are in this category. They are unable to meet the vision requirement in one eye for various reasons, including amblyopia, aphakia, central scotoma, complete loss of vision, corneal scar, macular scar, open angle glaucoma, optic nerve damage, prosthetic eye, retinal detachment, and strabismic amblyopia. In most cases, their eye conditions were not recently developed. Fifteen of the applicants were either born with their vision impairments or have had them since childhood.
The 7 individuals that sustained their vision conditions as adults have had it for a range of 5 to 30 years.
Although each applicant has one eye which does not meet the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), each has at least 20/40 corrected vision in the other eye, and in a doctor's opinion, has sufficient vision to perform all the tasks necessary to operate a CMV. Doctors' opinions are supported by the applicants' possession of valid commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) or non-CDLs to operate CMVs. Before issuing CDLs, States subject drivers to knowledge and skills tests designed to evaluate their qualifications to operate a CMV.
All of these applicants satisfied the testing requirements for their State of residence. By meeting State licensing requirements, the applicants demonstrated their ability to operate a CMV, with their limited vision, to the satisfaction of the State.
While possessing a valid CDL or non-CDL, these 22 drivers have been authorized to drive a CMV in intrastate commerce, even though their vision disqualified them from driving in interstate commerce. They have driven CMVs with their limited vision in careers ranging for 5 to 41 years. In the past three years, 3 drivers were involved in crashes, and 1 driver was convicted of a moving violation in a CMV.
The qualifications, experience, and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the March 28, 2016 notice (81 FR 17237).
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. Without the exemption, applicants will continue to be restricted to intrastate driving. With the exemption, applicants can drive in interstate commerce. Thus, our analysis focuses on whether an equal or greater level of safety is likely to be achieved by permitting each of these drivers to drive in interstate commerce as opposed to restricting him or her to driving in intrastate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered the medical reports about the applicants' vision as well as their driving records and experience with the vision deficiency.
To qualify for an exemption from the vision requirement, FMCSA requires a person to present verifiable evidence that he/she has driven a commercial vehicle safely with the vision deficiency for the past 3 years. Recent driving performance is especially important in evaluating future safety, according to several research studies designed to correlate past and future driving performance. Results of these studies support the principle that the best predictor of future performance by a driver is his/her past record of crashes and traffic violations. Copies of the studies may be found at Docket Number FMCSA-1998-3637.
FMCSA believes it can properly apply the principle to monocular drivers, because data from the Federal Highway Administration's (FHWA) former waiver study program clearly demonstrate the driving performance of experienced monocular drivers in the program is better than that of all CMV drivers collectively (See 61 FR 13338, 13345, March 26, 1996). The fact that experienced monocular drivers demonstrated safe driving records in the waiver program supports a conclusion that other monocular drivers, meeting the same qualifying conditions as those required by the waiver program, are also likely to have adapted to their vision deficiency and will continue to operate safely.
The first major research correlating past and future performance was done in England by Greenwood and Yule in 1920. Subsequent studies, building on that model, concluded that crash rates for the same individual exposed to certain risks for two different time periods vary only slightly (See Bates and Neyman, University of California Publications in Statistics, April 1952). Other studies demonstrated theories of predicting crash proneness from crash history coupled with other factors. These factors—such as age, sex, geographic location, mileage driven and conviction history—are used every day by insurance companies and motor vehicle bureaus to predict the probability of an individual experiencing future crashes (See Weber, Donald C., “Accident Rate Potential: An Application of Multiple Regression Analysis of a Poisson Process,” Journal of American Statistical Association, June 1971). A 1964 California Driver Record Study prepared by the California Department of Motor Vehicles concluded that the best overall crash predictor for both concurrent and nonconcurrent events is the number of single convictions. This study used 3 consecutive years of data, comparing the experiences of drivers in the first 2 years with their experiences in the final year.
Applying principles from these studies to the past 3-year record of the 22 applicants, 3 drivers were involved in crashes, and 1 driver was convicted of a moving violation in a CMV. All the applicants achieved a record of safety while driving with their vision impairment, demonstrating the likelihood that they have adapted their driving skills to accommodate their condition. As the applicants' ample driving histories with their vision deficiencies are good predictors of future performance, FMCSA concludes their ability to drive safely can be projected into the future.
We believe that the applicants' intrastate driving experience and history provide an adequate basis for predicting their ability to drive safely in interstate commerce. Intrastate driving, like interstate operations, involves substantial driving on highways on the interstate system and on other roads built to interstate standards. Moreover, driving in congested urban areas exposes the driver to more pedestrian and vehicular traffic than exists on interstate highways. Faster reaction to traffic and traffic signals is generally required because distances between them are more compact. These conditions tax visual capacity and driver response just as intensely as interstate driving conditions. The veteran drivers in this proceeding have operated CMVs safely under those conditions for at least 3 years, most for much longer. Their experience and driving records lead us to believe that each applicant is capable of operating in interstate commerce as safely as he/she has been performing in intrastate commerce. Consequently, FMCSA finds that exempting these applicants from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption. For this reason, the Agency is granting the exemptions for the 2-year period allowed by 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to the 22 applicants listed in the notice of March 28, 2016 (81 FR 17237).
We recognize that the vision of an applicant may change and affect his/her ability to operate a CMV as safely as in the past. As a condition of the exemption, therefore, FMCSA will impose requirements on the 22 individuals consistent with the grandfathering provisions applied to drivers who participated in the Agency's vision waiver program.
Those requirements are found at 49 CFR 391.64(b) and include the following:
(1) That each individual be physically examined every year (a) by an ophthalmologist or optometrist who attests that the vision in the better eye continues to meet the requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10) and (b) by a medical examiner who attests that the individual is otherwise physically qualified under 49 CFR 391.41; (2) that each individual provide a copy of the ophthalmologist's or optometrist's report to the medical examiner at the time of the annual medical examination; and (3) that each individual provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy in his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must have a copy of the certification when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
FMCSA received three comments in this proceeding. Austen Barlow stated she is in favor of granting the exemptions because she believes these
Based upon its evaluation of the 22 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the vision requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10), subject to the requirements cited above (49 CFR 391.64(b)):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, each exemption will be valid for 2 years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
If the exemption is still effective at the end of the 2-year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice
This notice provides the most current revisions to the National Hazardous Materials Route Registry (NHMRR) and procedures to facilitate the update of the NHMRR by State and Tribal government routing agencies. The NHMRR is a listing, as reported by States and Tribal governments, of all designated and restricted road and preferred highway routes for transportation of highway route controlled quantities (HRCQ) of Class 7 radioactive materials (RAM) (HRCQ/RAM) and non-radioactive hazardous materials (NRHMs).
Effective date: August 8, 2016.
Mr. Vincent Babich (202) 366-4871, or
Paragraphs (a)(2) and (b) of section 5112 of title 49, United States Code (U.S.C.) permit States and Tribal governments to designate and limit highway routes over which HRCQ/RAM and NRHM may be transported, provided that the State or Tribal government complies with standards prescribed by the Secretary of Transportation (the Secretary) and meets publication requirements in section 5112(c). To establish standards under paragraph (b), the Secretary must consult with the States, and, under section 5112(c), coordinate with the States to publish periodically a list of currently effective HRCQ/RAM and NRHM highway routing designations and restrictions. The requirements that States and Tribal governments must follow to establish, maintain, or enforce routing designations for the transport of placardable quantities of NRHM are set forth in 49 CFR part 397, subpart C. Subpart D of part 397 sets out the requirements for designating preferred routes for HRCQ/RAM shipments as an alternative, or in addition, to Interstate System highways. For HRCQ/RAM shipments, § 397.101 defines a preferred route as an Interstate Highway for which no alternative route is designated by the State; a route specifically designated by the State; or both. See § 397.65 for the definition of “NRHM” and “routing designations.”
Under a delegation from the Secretary,
Currently, 49 CFR part 397, subpart C, (Routing of NRHM) and subpart D (Routing of Class 7 RAM) address the routing requirements and procedures that State and tribal government are required to follow. Section 397.73 establishes public information and reporting requirements for NRHM. States or Tribal governments are required to furnish information regarding any new or changed routes to FMCSA within 60 days after establishment. Under 49 CFR 397.103, a State routing designation for HRCQ/RAM routes (preferred routes) as an alternative, or in addition, to an Interstate System highway, is effective when the authorized routing agency provides FMCSA with written notification, FMCSA acknowledges receipt in writing, and the route is published in FMCSA's Hazardous Material Route Registry. The Office of Management and Budget has approved these collections of information under control number 2126-0014, Transportation of Hazardous Materials, Highway Routing. This notice serves only to provide the most current updates to the NHMRR, and to communicate to States and Tribal government routing agencies procedures to facilitate timely reporting and efficient update of the NHMRR as required by 49 U.S.C. 5112 and 49 CFR part 397; it does not establish any new public information and reporting requirements.
Section 33013 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act of 2012 (MAP-21) [Pub. L. 112-141, July 6, 2012, 126 Stat. 405, 839] amended 49 U.S.C. 5112(c), which addresses the form, manner, and timetable for State and Tribal Governments to issue and update routing information for
The most up-to-date version of the NHMRR, was published in the
While the route designation reporting requirements of 49 CFR 397.73 and 397.103 do not provide a specific procedure to follow whenever there is change in routing designations, the FMCSA is providing the following procedure to facilitate State and Tribal government routing agencies in updating their Route Registry listing:
1. From
2. Modify the spreadsheet as necessary following the instructions on the Web page and the spreadsheet.
3. Revisions made to the spreadsheet cannot be saved directly to the Web page. The revised spreadsheet must be saved to a different location.
4. Forward the revised spreadsheet file as an attachment to an email to
5. FMCSA will acknowledge via email the receipt of all changes received via the “HM Routing” internet mailbox.
6. FMCSA will publish the revisions as a Notice in the
Since FMCSA published the NHMRR in a Notice on April 29, 2015 (80 FR 23860), the State of California has notified the FMCSA of the following revisions to their Route Registry:
Route Order designator “I” is revised.
Route Order designator “A” is revised.
Route Order designator “B1” is revised.
Route Order designator“B2” is revised.
Route Order designator “F1” is revised.
Route Order designator “B6A-2.0-A is added and assigned a “P” designation.
Route Order designator “H” is added and assigned a “P” designation.
In accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 397.73 and 397.103, the Route Registry listings for the State of California, as published in Tables 16 and 17 are being revised. The following revised tables reflect the most current Route Registry listings for the State of California and supersede and replace the corresponding tables of the April 29, 2015 notice. The changes to the listings contained in the following tables are also reflected in the information posted on the internet at
Department of Transportation.
Notice of Order to Show Cause (Order 2016-8-5) Docket DOT-OST-2016-0057.
The Department of Transportation is directing all interested persons to show cause why it should not issue an order tentatively finding Trans Northern Airways LLC fit, willing, and able to provide scheduled passenger service as a commuter air carrier using small aircraft pursuant to Part 135 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
Persons wishing to file objections should do so no later than August 16, 2016.
Objections and answers to objections should be filed in Docket DOT-OST-2016-0057 and addressed to U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, (M-30, Room W12-140), 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590, and should be served upon the parties listed in Attachment A to the order.
Catherine J. O'Toole, Air Carrier Fitness Division (X-56, Room W86-489), U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590, (202) 366-9721.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The OCC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA, the OCC may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
The OCC is soliciting comments concerning an information collection titled “Bank Secrecy Act/Money Laundering Risk Assessment,” also known as the Money Laundering Risk (MLR) System.
The OCC is also announcing that the proposed collection of information with extension has been submitted to OMB for review and clearance under the PRA.
Comments must be submitted by September 7, 2016.
Because paper mail in the Washington, DC area and at the OCC is subject to delay, commenters are encouraged to submit comments by email, if possible. Comments may be sent to: Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Attention: 1557-0231, 400 7th Street SW., Suite 3E-218, Mail Stop 9W-11, Washington, DC 20219. In addition, comments may be sent by fax to (571) 465-4326 or by electronic mail to
All comments received, including attachments and other supporting materials, are part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Do not include any information in your comment or supporting materials that you consider confidential or inappropriate for public disclosure.
Additionally, please send a copy of your comments by mail to: OCC Desk Officer, 1557-0231, U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., #10235, Washington, DC 20503, or by email to:
Shaquita Merritt, OCC Clearance Officer, (202) 649-5490, or for persons who are deaf or hard of hearing, TTY, (202) 649-5597, Legislative and Regulatory Activities Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, the OCC has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
The MLR System enhances the ability of examiners and bank management to identify and evaluate any Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)/Money Laundering (ML) and Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions risks associated with the banks' products, services, customers, and locations. As new products and services are introduced, existing products and services change, and banks expand through mergers and acquisitions, a bank's management's evaluation of potential new money laundering and terrorist financing risks is expected to evolve as well. The MLR risk assessment is an important tool for the OCC's BSA/Anti-Money Laundering (AML)/OFAC supervision activities because it allows the OCC to better identify those institutions, and areas within institutions, that pose heightened risk, and allocate examination resources accordingly. This risk assessment is critical to protect financial institutions of all sizes from potential abuse from money laundering or terrorist financing. Absent an appropriate risk assessment, applicable controls cannot be effectively implemented for lines of business, products, or entities, which would elevate BSA, AML, and OFAC compliance risks.
The OCC will collect MLR information for all financial institutions supervised by the OCC.
Community Bank and Federal Branches and Agencies populations:
Midsize Bank population:
Large Bank population:
The OCC issued a 60-day
Comments were invited on whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information has practical utility. Two commenters stated concern for either the small degree of practical utility or no practical utility obtained by requiring all OCC-supervised banks to report MLR data and linked the cost/benefit value of the cost of gathering and reporting the data to the benefit derived to the bank or to the OCC. An additional commenter stated that they saw no prudential or supervisory benefit to expanding the annual MLR data collection requirement to midsize or large banks when the OCC has access to the information on a dynamic basis. One commenter stated that the OCC must clearly demonstrate that costs and burdens associated with MLR do not outweigh the benefits. One commenter stated that the collection of MLR data is not necessary because the OCC already has access to the data through its supervisory process, including the current BSA/AML risk assessment expectation.
Six commenters stated that the one-size-fits-all approach or proposed mandatory uniform approach for collecting MLR data from all OCC-supervised banks is inconsistent or at odds with the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) BSA/AML Examination Manual (Manual), as the FFIEC Manual provides for a variety of effective methods and
Collecting MLR data from all supervised banks will yield substantial information that will provide a high degree of utility for the OCC in meeting its supervisory obligations under applicable statutes and regulations.
The MLR is not intended to supplant banks' full BSA and OFAC risk assessments. The OCC's evaluation of a bank's full risk assessment is performed during regular examinations. In addition to the OCC's uses, the MLR data can be used by banks as the first step in the two-step process of the banks' BSA and OFAC risk assessments. The first step in any risk assessment process is to gather data, and the MLR data gathered should be substantially similar to information needed to perform those internal bank analyses of BSA and OFAC risks.
Additionally, the self-reported MLR data are provided back to the bank along with peer data so that the bank can conduct comparison and trend analyses concerning their data and peer data.
While the FFIEC Manual was developed by the agencies
The OCC requested comment on the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of the information. One commenter questioned what the OCC included in the estimate of burden hours. Another commenter stated that they agree with the estimate of burden hours for their institution but also stated concern for peer banks, noting that cost estimates vary greatly depending on the size, structure, and reporting format currently utilized and technological resources available to each bank. Six commenters stated that the estimate of burden is too low. Two commenters noted the reduction in the estimate of burden hours from 2013 for midsize and large bank populations, with one commenter making the assumption that technology is the reason for the reduction in hours.
The OCC uses the legal standard for estimating burden hours under the PRA.
The OCC has ten years' experience collecting MLR data from a large number of banks. The OCC estimates that the burden hours for midsize and
The OCC recognizes that each bank is unique and will have a different MLR reporting experience. For example, a bank's management information systems, structure, and complexity may impact the bank's MLR reporting, and, therefore, the bank's reporting burden. However, the OCC believes the data requested for MLR purposes is data that institutions will have readily available and that for the vast majority of banks, will not require substantial investment in technology or systems to collect and report. The OCC reduced the estimated burden hours for midsize banks to 25 hours in 2016 from 30 hours in 2013, and for large banks, reduced estimated burden hours to 80 hours in 2016 from 100 hours in 2013, due to implementing a fully automated MLR format. There is no change in the estimated burden for community banks and Federal branches and agencies in 2016 from 2013.
Finally, with regard to the estimate of burden, one commenter stated that failure to make publicly available the MLR risk summary form (RSF) used to collect the data in advance undermines the PRA review process and makes it difficult to comment on the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden. The OCC is permitted, but not required, to include the RSF as part of the 60-day
The OCC requested comment on ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected. One commenter stated that it was difficult to translate limited MLR data into BSA/ML risks. Another commenter stated that the MLR as currently contemplated is not useful nor is it worth the costs in terms of staff hours, system modification and training. The same commenter stated that the OCC should consider designing a customized, flexible cloud-based architecture within a secure data center. Additionally, this commenter stated that the OCC should establish an analytic team dedicated to importing, extrapolating, and analyzing the data collection from banks, with the platform designed to be flexible and dynamic to account for each individual bank's size, geography, and business. After testing, this commenter stated, consideration should be given to rolling the platform out on a risk-based basis to OCC-regulated banks. One commenter also stated that the OCC should consider making the MLR mandatory only in instances where the bank's own risk assessment is insufficient for the exam scoping process. Two commenters expressed concerns that the September 30 as-of report date was inconsistent with most banks that operate on a calendar-year basis.
The OCC collects the MLR data on bank customers, products, services, and geographies and analyzes the data in a way that identifies the higher-risk type customers, products, services, and geographies, consistent with the FFIEC Manual. The OCC uses the MLR data gathered to assist, across the population of reporting banks, with development of examination strategies, preparation of examination scoping to identify transactions for testing, and meeting the OCC's obligations under applicable statutes and regulations.
Through the collection of MLR data from community banks for the past ten years, the OCC has determined that this data allows the agency to better identify those institutions, and areas within institutions, that pose heightened risk of money laundering and terrorist financing and to allocate examination resources accordingly. Collecting data in a uniform fashion over the same time period from all OCC-supervised institutions is critical to developing a database that allows effective analytic reporting and benchmarking risks over time.
An approach of making MLR data reporting mandatory only in instances where the bank's own risk assessment was insufficient would add time to the examination process rather than expediting it. First, this approach would likely delay the OCC's mandated supervision schedule by taking away an important source of data for broad-based risk identification analysis and benchmarking that facilitates the OCC's annual examination strategy development and pre-planning activities, which are conducted potentially months in advance of an onsite examination. Second, on an individual bank level, this type of approach would require the OCC to review each bank's risk assessment during the exam scoping process before making a decision as to whether that bank would be required to report the MLR data, potentially extending the timeframe for each exam where the bank's risk assessment was deemed insufficient.
In response to the commenters' concerns that the September 30 reporting period is inconsistent with most banks' operating on a calendar year basis, the OCC notes that this date has not presented significant concerns in the ten years experience during which we have collected MLR data.
The OCC invited comment on ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Five commenters stated that the MLR data is duplicative of information already gathered in the normal course of bank supervision. These commenters recommended that the OCC not move forward with the proposal to extend the data collection. One commenter suggested that the OCC obtain aggregate domestic and international wire transfer and ACH transaction data, along with the various geographic locations of the international wires from the Federal Reserve Bank. One bank commenter stated they have concerns about customer privacy due to having the collection of data automated; however, there was no explanation provided. Two commenters expressed a concern for requiring that all banks submit MLR data annually, and one of those commenters stated that the frequency of the MLR data collection should be linked to the bank's ML risk profile. Another commenter stated that
The OCC notes that the MLR data is not duplicative or redundant and is not collected in any other format from OCC-supervised institutions. Wire transaction and ACH data obtained from the Federal Reserve Banks for OCC-supervised institutions is not sufficiently detailed for purposes of assessing BSA/ML/OFAC risk and planning exam strategies. Wire transaction data is limited to domestic wires only and does not include international wires, geographic locations, or whether the wires were sent Payable Upon Proper Identification (PUPI). Similarly, ACH data is limited to domestic ACH data and does not include cross-border ACH or international ACH data or geographies. In addition, not all OCC-supervised institutions may initiate/send or receive international wires or ACH transactions through a Federal Reserve Bank.
The OCC plans to collect the requested data using an XML form or other prescribed form submitted through the OCC BankNet system. The OCC plans to provide a schema (XML or otherwise) to institutions in advance of the required submission and also provide a window for institutions to submit test files and receive feedback. Additionally, the OCC utilizes secure data portals to communicate with and receive data from all OCC-supervised institutions. The OCC does not plan to collect personally identifiable information for MLR purposes, therefore, it is not expected that the collection would create customer privacy concerns.
The annual filing requirement frequency ties in closely with the OCC's statutory examination cycle requirements because banks should periodically perform risk assessments of their customers, products, services, and geographies for BSA/ML and OFAC sanctions risks purposes. Requesting MLR data less frequently than annually would limit its usefulness for the OCC's BSA/AML/OFAC supervision responsibilities and might also negatively impact the bank's own risk assessment process. Collecting MLR data on an “as needed” basis or tying the MLR data collection frequency to a bank's risk profile would not allow for the consistent planning and analysis needed for such data, would lead to inefficiencies, and would diminish the ability of the OCC to assess risks over time and otherwise utilize the data in a meaningful way.
The OCC invited comment on estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. One commenter stated that the initial implementation (costs) would be substantial and the ultimate data collection system requirements could result in annual burden estimates for large banks exceeding the 2013 (100 hours) and 2016 (80 hours) burden estimates. Another commenter stated that the costs of additional software would outweigh the benefits of time saved in a small institution. One commenter stated that the costs to implement would vary greatly depending on infrastructure, current risk assessment process, and resources.
While there may be a slightly higher burden during the first reporting year, the OCC believes that the data requested for MLR purposes should be readily available and will not require substantial investment in technology or systems to collect and report. The OCC does not require the acquisition of additional software to collect and report MLR data. Some institutions, particularly community banks, collect and organize the data on Excel spreadsheets using existing bank reports received on a daily, weekly, or monthly basis, as the reports become available throughout the period covered by the reporting period. However, larger and more complex institutions may find it helpful to develop an internal reporting system to gather data efficiently across their organizations in a timely and consistent manner for MLR reporting purposes. The OCC provides options for submitting the MLR data including a fully automated online risk summary form. Additionally, the MLR risk summary form online system allows bankers to upload an XML file to complete the form. This XML file must comply with formatting style and validation requirements in order to be accepted into the OCC's secure system. If the file is valid, the risk summary form is pre-populated with the data ready to be submitted to the OCC.
Two commenters stated that the OCC should go through the rulemaking process to gain approval to expand the MLR System to midsize and large banks. The PRA provides the public with two opportunities to comment on a proposed information collection similar to the public comment opportunity afforded by the Administrative Procedure Act for rulemaking actions. Consistent with the PRA, the OCC previously sought comment on this information collection for 60 days and now is seeking additional comment for 30 days. However, a notice of proposed rulemaking is unnecessary. Under 12 U.S.C. 161, the Comptroller has the express authority to require banks to provide special reports as to matters within his jurisdiction. BSA/AML supervision is within the jurisdiction of the OCC as the OCC has the delegated authority from the Department of Treasury's Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) to examine national banks for compliance with the BSA. The OCC also has the authority under 12 U.S.C. 481 to make a thorough examination of all the affairs of a national bank. The MLR is an important part of the OCC's BSA/AML examination processes that falls within this broad grant of authority.
The OCC has decided to expand the MLR reporting requirement to the OCC's midsize, large bank and Federal branches and agencies populations. As discussed above, a notice of proposed rulemaking is not necessary. The OCC previously had OMB approval to include midsize and large banks in the annual data collection, but requested OMB renewal of the data collection in 2010 and 2013 only for community banks. The OCC determined in 2010 and 2013 to collect only community bank data for MLR purposes. Pursuant to OMB requirements, the OCC is requesting renewal of the existing community bank MLR data collection with expansion to midsize and large bank (including Federal branches and agencies).
Comments continue to be invited on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the OCC, including whether the information has practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the OCC's estimate of the burden of the collection of information;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
(e) Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (“OFAC”) is removing the name of an individual whose property and interests in property have been blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13315 of August 28, 2003, “Blocking Property of the Former Iraqi Regime, Its Senior Officials and Their Family Members, and Taking Certain Other Actions,” as amended by Executive Order 13350 of July 30, 2004, from the List of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List).
The removal of this individual from the SDN List is effective as of April 4, 2016.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On April 4, 2016, OFAC determined that circumstances no longer warrant the inclusion of the following individual on OFAC's SDN list, and that this individual is no longer subject to the blocking provisions of Section 1(b) of Executive Order 13315, as amended by Executive Order 13350:
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Forest Service, Agriculture; Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
This final rule establishes regulations for seasons, harvest limits, and methods and means related to the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses in Alaska for the 2016-17 and 2017-18 regulatory years. The Federal Subsistence Board (Board) completes the biennial process of revising subsistence hunting and trapping regulations in even-numbered years and subsistence fishing and shellfish regulations in odd-numbered years; public proposal and review processes take place during the preceding year. The Board also addresses customary and traditional use determinations during the applicable biennial cycle. This rule also revises wildlife customary and traditional use determinations.
This rule is effective August 3, 2016.
The Board meeting transcripts are available for review at the Office of Subsistence Management, 1011 East Tudor Road, Mail Stop 121, Anchorage, AK 99503, or on the Office of Subsistence Management Web site (
Chair, Federal Subsistence Board, c/o U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Attention: Eugene R. Peltola, Jr., Office of Subsistence Management; (907) 786-3888 or
Under Title VIII of the Alaska National Interest Lands Conservation Act (ANILCA) (16 U.S.C. 3111-3126), the Secretary of the Interior and the Secretary of Agriculture (Secretaries) jointly implement the Federal Subsistence Management Program. This program provides a preference for take of fish and wildlife resources for subsistence uses on Federal public lands and waters in Alaska. The Secretaries published temporary regulations to carry out this program in the
Consistent with subpart B of these regulations, the Secretaries established a Federal Subsistence Board to administer the Federal Subsistence Management Program. The Board comprises:
• A Chair appointed by the Secretary of the Interior with concurrence of the Secretary of Agriculture;
• The Alaska Regional Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service;
• The Alaska Regional Director, U.S. National Park Service;
• The Alaska State Director, U.S. Bureau of Land Management;
• The Alaska Regional Director, U.S. Bureau of Indian Affairs;
• The Alaska Regional Forester, U.S. Forest Service; and
• Two public members appointed by the Secretary of the Interior with concurrence of the Secretary of Agriculture.
Through the Board, these agencies participate in the development of regulations for subparts C and D, which, among other things, set forth program eligibility and specific harvest seasons and limits.
In administering the program, the Secretaries divided Alaska into 10 subsistence resource regions, each of which is represented by a Regional Advisory Council. The Regional Advisory Councils provide a forum for rural residents with personal knowledge of local conditions and resource requirements to have a meaningful role in the subsistence management of fish and wildlife on Federal public lands in Alaska. The Council members represent varied geographical, cultural, and user interests within each region.
The Board addresses customary and traditional use determinations during the applicable biennial cycle. Section __.24 (customary and traditional use determinations) was originally published in the
The Departments published a proposed rule on January 14, 2015 (80 FR 1868), to amend the wildlife sections of subparts C and D of 36 CFR 242 and 50 CFR 100. The proposed rule opened a comment period, which closed on March 25, 2015. The Departments advertised the proposed rule by mail, email, Web page, social media, radio, and newspaper. During that period, the Councils met and, in addition to other Council business, generated proposals and received suggestions for proposals from the public. The Board received a total of 67 proposals for changes to subparts C and D. After the comment period closed, the Board prepared a booklet describing the proposals and distributed it to the public. The proposals were also available online. The public then had an additional 45 days in which to comment on the proposals for changes to the regulations.
The 10 Regional Advisory Councils met again, received public comments, and formulated their recommendations to the Board on proposals for their respective regions. The Councils had a substantial role in reviewing the proposed rule and making recommendations for the final rule. Moreover, a Council Chair, or a designated representative, presented each Council's recommendations at the Board meeting on April 12-14, 2016. These final regulations reflect Board review and consideration of Regional Advisory Council recommendations, Tribal and Alaska Native corporation consultations, and public comments. The public received extensive opportunity to review and comment on all changes.
Of the 67 valid proposals, 1 was withdrawn by the proponent, 30 were on the Board's regular (non-consensus) agenda, and 36 were on the consensus agenda. The consensus agenda is made up of proposals for which there is agreement among the affected Councils, a majority of the Interagency Staff Committee, and the Alaska Department of Fish and Game concerning a proposed regulatory action. Anyone may request that the Board remove a proposal from the consensus agenda and place it on the regular agenda. The Board votes en masse on the consensus agenda after deliberation and action on all other proposals. Of the proposals on the consensus agenda, the Board adopted 17; adopted 7 with modification; took no action on 2; and rejected 10. Analysis and justification for the action taken on each proposal on the consensus agenda are available for review at the Office of Subsistence Management, 1011 East Tudor Road, Mail Stop 121, Anchorage, Alaska 99503, or on the Federal Subsistence Management Programs Web site (
The Board rejected or took no action on 10 non-consensus proposals. The rejected proposals were recommended for rejection by one or more of the Councils.
The Board took no action on nine proposals to revise season dates and harvest limits in Units 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, and 26 for caribou based on its action on a similar proposal.
The Board rejected a proposal to lift a closure to non-Federally qualified users in Unit 22E for moose. This proposal was determined to be detrimental to the satisfaction of subsistence needs.
The Board adopted or adopted with modification 20 non-consensus proposals. Modifications were suggested by the affected Council(s), developed during the analysis process, suggested during Tribal and Alaska Native corporation consultations, or developed during the Board's public deliberations. All of the adopted proposals were recommended for adoption by at least one of the Councils.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to allow the use of firearms to harvest beaver under trapping regulations in Units 1-5.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to extend the season for deer in Unit 2.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to restrict the trapping season for martin on Kuiu Island in Unit 3.
The Board adopted with modification a proposal to revise the customary and traditional use determination to include residents of Unit 6D for moose in Unit 6D.
The Board adopted a proposal to create a late-season hunt and increase the harvest limit for deer in Unit 6D.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise the season dates and permit requirements for black bear in Unit 6D.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise the permit requirements and season dates for moose in Unit 9C.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to establish a “may be announced” season and lift the closure for caribou in Units 9C and 9E.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise the harvest limit for sheep in Unit 11.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise the Ahtna Cultural and Educational permit for moose and caribou in Unit 13.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise season dates and harvest limit for caribou in portions of Units 17A and 17C.
The Board adopted a proposal to allow same-day airborne harvest of caribou in portions of Units 17A and 17C.
The Board adopted a proposal to allow the use of artificial light to take black and brown bears in Unit 18.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise season dates and harvest limits for caribou in Units 21D, 22, 23, 24, 26A, and 26B.
The Board adopted a proposal to revise the hunt area descriptor and change the season dates and harvest limit for brown bear in portions of Units 22C and 22D.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to allow the use of snowmachines to position animals in the take of caribou, wolf, and wolverine on BLM managed lands in Unit 23.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to establish a season for musk ox in a portion of Unit 23.
The Board adopted two proposals with modification to revise the hunt area descriptors and the delegated authority for the local land manager for sheep in Units 23 and 23 remainder.
The Board adopted a proposal to allow the use of artificial light to take black bear in Units 24A, 24B, and 24C.
The Board adopted a proposal with modification to revise the harvest limit for sheep in Units 24A and 24B.
The Board adopted a proposal to create a new hunt area descriptor and change the season dates for moose in Unit 24B remainder.
These final regulations reflect Board review and consideration of Regional Advisory Council recommendations, Tribal and Alaska Native corporation consultations, and public comments. Because this rule concerns public lands managed by an agency or agencies in both the Departments of Agriculture and the Interior, identical text will be incorporated into 36 CFR 242 and 50 CFR 100.
The Board has provided extensive opportunity for public input and involvement in compliance with Administrative Procedure Act requirements, including publishing a proposed rule in the
In the more than 25 years that the Program has been operating, no benefit to the public has been demonstrated by delaying the effective date of the subsistence regulations. A lapse in regulatory control could affect the continued viability of fish or wildlife populations and future subsistence opportunities for rural Alaskans, and would generally fail to serve the overall public interest. Therefore, the Board finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to make this rule effective upon the date set forth in
A Draft Environmental Impact Statement that described four alternatives for developing a Federal Subsistence Management Program was distributed for public comment on October 7, 1991. The Final Environmental Impact Statement (FEIS) was published on February 28, 1992. The Record of Decision (ROD) on Subsistence Management for Federal Public Lands in Alaska was signed April 6, 1992. The selected alternative in the FEIS (Alternative IV) defined the administrative framework of an annual regulatory cycle for subsistence regulations.
The following
A 1997 environmental assessment dealt with the expansion of Federal jurisdiction over fisheries and is available at the office listed under
An ANILCA section 810 analysis was completed as part of the FEIS process on the Federal Subsistence Management Program. The intent of all Federal subsistence regulations is to accord subsistence uses of fish and wildlife on public lands a priority over the taking of fish and wildlife on such lands for other purposes, unless restriction is necessary to conserve healthy fish and wildlife populations. The final section 810 analysis determination appeared in the April 6, 1992, ROD and concluded that the Program, under Alternative IV with an annual process for setting subsistence regulations, may have some local impacts on subsistence uses, but will not likely restrict subsistence uses significantly.
During the subsequent environmental assessment process for extending fisheries jurisdiction, an evaluation of the effects of this rule was conducted in accordance with section 810. That evaluation also supported the Secretaries' determination that the rule will not reach the “may significantly restrict” threshold that would require notice and hearings under ANILCA section 810(a).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. This rule does not contain any new collections of information that require OMB approval. OMB has reviewed and approved the collections of information associated with the subsistence regulations at 36 CFR part 242 and 50 CFR part 100, and assigned OMB Control Number 1018-0075, which expires June 30, 2019.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601
Under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Title VIII of ANILCA requires the Secretaries to administer a subsistence priority on public lands. The scope of this Program is limited by definition to certain public lands. Likewise, these regulations have no potential takings of private property implications as defined by Executive Order 12630.
The Secretaries have determined and certify pursuant to the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act, 2 U.S.C. 1502
The Secretaries have determined that these regulations meet the applicable standards provided in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, regarding civil justice reform.
In accordance with Executive Order 13132, the rule does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement. Title VIII of ANILCA precludes the State from exercising subsistence management authority over fish and wildlife resources on Federal lands unless it meets certain requirements.
The Alaska National Interest Lands Conservation Act, Title VIII, does not provide specific rights to tribes for the subsistence taking of wildlife, fish, and shellfish. However, the Board provided Federally recognized Tribes and Alaska Native corporations opportunities to consult on this rule. Consultation with Alaska Native corporations are based on Public Law 108-199, div. H, Sec. 161, Jan. 23, 2004, 118 Stat. 452, as amended by Public Law 108-447, div. H, title V, Sec. 518, Dec. 8, 2004, 118 Stat. 3267, which provides that: “The Director of the Office of Management and Budget and all Federal agencies shall hereafter consult with Alaska Native corporations on the same basis as Indian tribes under Executive Order No. 13175.”
The Secretaries, through the Board, provided a variety of opportunities for consultation: Commenting on proposed changes to the existing rule; engaging in dialogue at the Regional Council meetings; engaging in dialogue at the Board's meetings; and providing input in person, by mail, email, or phone at any time during the rulemaking process.
On April 12, 2016, the Board provided Federally recognized Tribes and Alaska Native Corporations a specific opportunity to consult on this rule prior to the start of its public regulatory meeting. Federally recognized Tribes and Alaska Native Corporations were notified by mail and telephone and were given the opportunity to attend in person or via teleconference.
This Executive Order requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain actions. However, this rule is not a significant regulatory action under E.O. 13211, affecting energy supply, distribution, or use, and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
Theo Matuskowitz drafted these regulations under the guidance of Eugene R. Peltola, Jr. of the Office of Subsistence Management, Alaska Regional Office, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Anchorage, Alaska. Additional assistance was provided by
• Daniel Sharp, Alaska State Office, Bureau of Land Management;
• Mary McBurney, Alaska Regional Office, National Park Service;
• Dr. Glenn Chen, Alaska Regional Office, Bureau of Indian Affairs;
• Trevor T. Fox, Alaska Regional Office, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; and
• Thomas Whitford, Alaska Regional Office, U.S. Forest Service.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alaska, Fish, National forests, Public lands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wildlife.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alaska, Fish, National forests, Public lands, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Wildlife.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, the Federal Subsistence Board amends title 36, part 242, and title 50, part 100, of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below.
16 U.S.C. 3, 472, 551, 668dd, 3101-3126; 18 U.S.C. 3551-3586; 43 U.S.C. 1733.
(a) * * *
(1)
(a)
(b)
(1) Shooting from, on, or across a highway.
(2) Using any poison.
(3) Using a helicopter in any manner, including transportation of individuals, equipment, or wildlife; however, this prohibition does not apply to transportation of an individual, gear, or wildlife during an emergency rescue operation in a life-threatening situation.
(4) Taking wildlife from a motorized land or air vehicle when that vehicle is in motion, or from a motor-driven boat when the boat's progress from the motor's power has not ceased.
(5) Using a motorized vehicle to drive, herd, or molest wildlife.
(6) Using or being aided by use of a machine gun, set gun, or a shotgun larger than 10 gauge.
(7) Using a firearm other than a shotgun, muzzle-loaded rifle, rifle, or pistol using center-firing cartridges for the taking of ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine, except that—
(i) An individual in possession of a valid trapping license may use a firearm that shoots rimfire cartridges to take wolves and wolverine; and
(ii) Only a muzzle-loading rifle of .54-caliber or larger, or a .45-caliber muzzle-loading rifle with a 250-grain, or larger, elongated slug may be used to take brown bear, black bear, elk, moose, musk ox, and mountain goat.
(8) Using or being aided by use of a pit, fire, artificial light, radio communication, artificial salt lick, explosive, barbed arrow, bomb, smoke, chemical, conventional steel trap with a jaw spread over 9 inches, or conibear style trap with a jaw spread over 11 inches.
(9) Using a snare, except that an individual in possession of a valid hunting license may use nets and snares to take unclassified wildlife, ptarmigan, grouse, or hares; and individuals in possession of a valid trapping license may use snares to take furbearers.
(10) Using a trap to take ungulates or bear.
(11) Using hooks to physically snag, impale, or otherwise take wildlife; however, hooks may be used as a trap drag.
(12) Using a crossbow to take ungulates, bear, wolf, or wolverine in any area restricted to hunting by bow and arrow only.
(13) Taking of ungulates, bear, wolf, or wolverine with a bow, unless the bow is capable of casting an inch-wide broadhead-tipped arrow at least 175 yards horizontally, and the arrow and broadhead together weigh at least 1 ounce (437.5 grains).
(14) Using bait for taking ungulates, bear, wolf, or wolverine; except you may use bait to take wolves and wolverine with a trapping license, and you may use bait to take black bears and brown bears with a hunting license as authorized in Unit-specific regulations at paragraphs (n)(1) through (26) of this section. Baiting of black bears and brown bears is subject to the following restrictions:
(i) Before establishing a bear bait station, you must register the site with ADF&G;
(ii) When using bait, you must clearly mark the site with a sign reading “black bear bait station” that also displays your hunting license number and ADF&G-assigned number;
(iii) You may use only biodegradable materials for bait; you may use only the head, bones, viscera, or skin of legally harvested fish and wildlife for bait;
(iv) You may not use bait within
(v) You may not use bait within 1 mile of a house or other permanent dwelling, or within 1 mile of a developed campground or developed recreational facility;
(vi) When using bait, you must remove litter and equipment from the bait station site when done hunting;
(vii) You may not give or receive payment for the use of a bait station, including barter or exchange of goods; and
(viii) You may not have more than two bait stations with bait present at any one time.
(15) Taking swimming ungulates, bears, wolves, or wolverine.
(16) Taking or assisting in the taking of ungulates, bear, wolves, wolverine, or other furbearers before 3:00 a.m. following the day in which airborne travel occurred (except for flights in regularly scheduled commercial aircraft). This restriction does not apply to subsistence taking of deer (except on NPS lands) and of caribou on the Nushagak Peninsula (a portion of Units 17A and 17C) during Jan. 1-Mar. 31, provided the hunter is 300 feet from the airplane; moreover, this restriction does not apply to subsistence setting of snares or traps, or the removal of furbearers from traps or snares.
(17) Taking a bear cub or a sow accompanied by cub(s).
(c)
(d)
(1) Disturbing or destroying a den, except that you may disturb a muskrat pushup or feeding house in the course of trapping;
(2) Disturbing or destroying any beaver house;
(3) Taking beaver by any means other than a steel trap or snare, except that you may use firearms in certain Units with established seasons as identified in Unit-specific regulations found in this subpart;
(4) Taking otter with a steel trap having a jaw spread of less than 5
(5) Using a net or fish trap (except a blackfish or fyke trap); and
(6) Taking or assisting in the taking of furbearers by firearm before 3:00 a.m. on the day following the day on which airborne travel occurred; however, this does not apply to a trapper using a firearm to dispatch furbearers caught in a trap or snare.
(e)
(2) An animal taken under Federal or State regulations by any member of a community with an established community harvest limit for that species counts toward the community harvest limit for that species. Except for wildlife taken pursuant to § __.10(d)(5)(iii) or as otherwise provided for by this part, an animal taken as part of a community harvest limit counts toward every community member's harvest limit for that species taken under Federal or State of Alaska regulations.
(f)
(2) A brown/grizzly bear taken in a Unit or portion of a Unit having a harvest limit of “one brown/grizzly bear per year” counts against a “one brown/grizzly bear every four regulatory years” harvest limit in other Units. You may not take more than one brown/grizzly bear in a regulatory year.
(g)
(2) If the subsistence taking of an ungulate, except sheep, is restricted to one sex in the local area, you may not possess or transport the carcass of an animal taken in that area unless sufficient portions of the external sex organs remain attached to indicate conclusively the sex of the animal, except that in Units 1-5 antlers are also considered proof of sex for deer if the antlers are naturally attached to an entire carcass, with or without the viscera; and except in Units 11, 13, 19, 21, and 24, where you may possess either sufficient portions of the external sex organs (still attached to a portion of the carcass) or the head (with or without antlers attached; however, the antler stumps must remain attached) to indicate the sex of the harvested moose. However, this paragraph (g)(2) does not apply to the carcass of an ungulate that has been butchered and placed in storage or otherwise prepared for consumption upon arrival at the location where it is to be consumed.
(3) If a moose harvest limit requires an antlered bull, an antler size, or configuration restriction, you may not possess or transport the moose carcass or its parts unless both antlers accompany the carcass or its parts. If you possess a set of antlers with less than the required number of brow tines on one antler, you must leave the antlers naturally attached to the unbroken, uncut skull plate; however, this paragraph (g)(3) does not apply to a moose carcass or its parts that have been butchered and placed in storage or otherwise prepared for consumption after arrival at the place where it is to be stored or consumed.
(h)
(i)
(j)
(2) You may not possess or transport from Alaska the untanned skin or skull of a bear unless the skin and skull have been sealed by an authorized representative of ADF&G in accordance with State or Federal regulations, except that the skin and skull of a brown bear taken under a registration permit in Units 5, 9B, 9E, 17, 18, 19A and 19B downstream of and including the Aniak River drainage, 21D, 22, 23, 24, and 26A need not be sealed unless removed from the area.
(3) You must keep a bear skin and skull together until a representative of the ADF&G has removed a rudimentary premolar tooth from the skull and sealed both the skull and the skin; however, this provision does not apply to brown bears taken within Units 5, 9B, 9E, 17, 18, 19A and 19B downstream of and including the Aniak River drainage, 21D, 22, 23, 24, and 26A and which are not removed from the Unit.
(i) In areas where sealing is required by Federal regulations, you may not possess or transport the hide of a bear that does not have the penis sheath or vaginal orifice naturally attached to indicate conclusively the sex of the bear.
(ii) If the skin or skull of a bear taken in Units 9B, 17, 18, and 19A and 19B downstream of and including the Aniak River drainage is removed from the area, you must first have it sealed by an ADF&G representative in Bethel, Dillingham, or McGrath; at the time of sealing, the ADF&G representative must
(iii) If you remove the skin or skull of a bear taken in Units 21D, 22, 23, 24, and 26A from the area or present it for commercial tanning within the area, you must first have it sealed by an ADF&G representative in Barrow, Galena, Nome, or Kotzebue; at the time of sealing, the ADF&G representative must remove and retain the skin of the skull and front claws of the bear.
(iv) If you remove the skin or skull of a bear taken in Unit 5 from the area, you must first have it sealed by an ADF&G representative in Yakutat.
(v) If you remove the skin or skull of a bear taken in Unit 9E from Unit 9, you must first have it sealed by an authorized sealing representative. At the time of sealing, the representative must remove and retain the skin of the skull and front claws of the bear.
(4) You may not falsify any information required on the sealing certificate or temporary sealing form provided by the ADF&G in accordance with State regulations.
(k)
(1) In Unit 18, you must obtain an ADF&G seal for beaver skins only if they are to be sold or commercially tanned.
(2) In Unit 2, you must seal any wolf taken on or before the 14th day after the date of taking.
(l)
(m)
(1) The harvest does not violate recognized principles of wildlife conservation and uses the methods and means allowable for the particular species published in the applicable Federal regulations. The appropriate Federal land manager will establish the number, species, sex, or location of harvest, if necessary, for conservation purposes. Other regulations relating to ceremonial harvest may be found in the unit-specific regulations in paragraph (n) of this section.
(2) No permit or harvest ticket is required for harvesting under this section; however, the harvester must be a Federally qualified subsistence user with customary and traditional use in the area where the harvesting will occur.
(3) In Units 1-26 (except for Koyukon/Gwich'in potlatch ceremonies in Units 20F, 21, 24, or 25):
(i) A tribal chief, village or tribal council president, or the chief's or president's designee for the village in which the religious/cultural ceremony will be held, or a Federally qualified subsistence user outside of a village or tribal-organized ceremony, must notify the nearest Federal land manager that a wildlife harvest will take place. The notification must include the species, harvest location, and number of animals expected to be taken.
(ii) Immediately after the wildlife is taken, the tribal chief, village or tribal council president or designee, or other Federally qualified subsistence user must create a list of the successful hunters and maintain these records, including the name of the decedent for whom the ceremony will be held. If requested, this information must be available to an authorized representative of the Federal land manager.
(iii) The tribal chief, village or tribal council president or designee, or other Federally qualified subsistence user outside of the village in which the religious/cultural ceremony will be held must report to the Federal land manager the harvest location, species, sex, and number of animals taken as soon as practicable, but not more than 15 days after the wildlife is taken.
(4) In Units 20F, 21, 24, and 25 (for Koyukon/Gwich'in potlatch ceremonies only):
(i) Taking wildlife outside of established season and harvest limits is authorized if it is for food for the traditional Koyukon/Gwich'in Potlatch Funerary or Mortuary ceremony and if it is consistent with conservation of healthy populations.
(ii) Immediately after the wildlife is taken, the tribal chief, village or tribal council president, or the chief's or president's designee for the village in which the religious ceremony will be held must create a list of the successful hunters and maintain these records. The list must be made available, after the harvest is completed, to a Federal land manager upon request.
(iii) As soon as practical, but not more than 15 days after the harvest, the tribal chief, village council president, or designee must notify the Federal land manager about the harvest location, species, sex, and number of animals taken.
(n)
(1)
(i) Unit 1A consists of all drainages south of the latitude of Lemesurier Point including all drainages into Behm Canal, excluding all drainages of Ernest Sound.
(ii) Unit 1B consists of all drainages between the latitude of Lemesurier Point and the latitude of Cape Fanshaw including all drainages of Ernest Sound and Farragut Bay, and including the islands east of the center lines of Frederick Sound, Dry Strait (between Sergief and Kadin Islands), Eastern Passage, Blake Channel (excluding Blake Island), Ernest Sound, and Seward Passage.
(iii) Unit 1C consists of that portion of Unit 1 draining into Stephens Passage and Lynn Canal north of Cape Fanshaw and south of the latitude of Eldred Rock including Berners Bay, Sullivan Island, and all mainland portions north of Chichagof Island and south of the latitude of Eldred Rock, excluding drainages into Farragut Bay.
(iv) Unit 1D consists of that portion of Unit 1 north of the latitude of Eldred Rock, excluding Sullivan Island and the drainages of Berners Bay.
(v) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) Public lands within Glacier Bay National Park are closed to all taking of wildlife for subsistence uses;
(B) Unit 1A—in the Hyder area, the Salmon River drainage downstream from the Riverside Mine, excluding the Thumb Creek drainage, is closed to the taking of bear;
(C) Unit 1B—the Anan Creek drainage within 1 mile of Anan Creek downstream from the mouth of Anan Lake, including the area within a 1-mile
(D) Unit 1C:
(
(
(vi) You may not trap furbearers for subsistence uses in Unit 1C, Juneau area, on the following public lands:
(A) A strip within one-quarter mile of the mainland coast between the end of Thane Road and the end of Glacier Highway at Echo Cove;
(B) That area of the Mendenhall Valley bounded on the south by the Glacier Highway, on the west by the Mendenhall Loop Road and Montana Creek Road and Spur Road to Mendenhall Lake, on the north by Mendenhall Lake, and on the east by the Mendenhall Loop Road and Forest Service Glacier Spur Road to the Forest Service Visitor Center;
(C) That area within the U.S. Forest Service Mendenhall Glacier Recreation Area;
(D) A strip within one-quarter mile of the following trails as designated on U.S. Geological Survey maps: Herbert Glacier Trail, Windfall Lake Trail, Peterson Lake Trail, Spaulding Meadows Trail (including the loop trail), Nugget Creek Trail, Outer Point Trail, Dan Moller Trail, Perseverance Trail, Granite Creek Trail, Mt. Roberts Trail and Nelson Water Supply Trail, Sheep Creek Trail, and Point Bishop Trail.
(vii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may hunt black bear with bait in Units 1A, 1B, and 1D between April 15 and June 15.
(B) You may not shoot ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine from a boat, unless you are certified as disabled.
(C) Coyotes taken incidentally with a trap or snare during an open Federal trapping season for wolf, wolverine, or beaver may be legally retained.
(D) Trappers are prohibited from using a trap or snare unless the trap or snare has been individually marked with a permanent metal tag upon which is stamped or permanently etched the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number, or is set within 50 yards of a sign that lists the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number. The trapper must use the trapper's Alaska driver's license number or State identification card number as the required permanent identification number. If a trapper chooses to place a sign at a snaring site rather than tagging individual snares, the sign must be at least 3 inches by 5 inches in size, be clearly visible, and have numbers and letters that are at least one-half inch high and one-eighth inch wide in a color that contrasts with the color of the sign.
(E) A firearm may be used to take beaver under a trapping license during an open beaver season, except on National Park Service lands.
(2)
(i) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) You may not shoot ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine from a boat, unless you are certified as disabled.
(C) Coyotes taken incidentally with a trap or snare during an open Federal trapping season for wolf, wolverine, or beaver may be legally retained.
(D) Trappers are prohibited from using a trap or snare unless the trap or snare has been individually marked with a permanent metal tag upon which is stamped or permanently etched the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number, or is set within 50 yards of a sign that lists the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number. The trapper must use the trapper's Alaska driver's license number or State identification card number as the required permanent identification number. If a trapper chooses to place a sign at a snaring site rather than tagging individual snares, the sign must be at least 3 inches by 5 inches in size, be clearly visible, and have numbers and letters that are at least one-half inch high and one-eighth inch wide in a color that contrasts with the color of the sign.
(E) A firearm may be used to take beaver under a trapping license during an open beaver season, except on National Park Service lands.
(ii) [Reserved].
(3)
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) In the Petersburg vicinity, you may not take ungulates, bear, wolves, and wolverine along a strip one-fourth mile wide on each side of the Mitkof Highway from Milepost 0 to Crystal Lake campground;
(B) You may not take black bears in the Petersburg Creek drainage on Kupreanof Island;
(C) You may not hunt in the Blind Slough draining into Wrangell Narrows and a strip one-fourth mile wide on each side of Blind Slough, from the hunting closure markers at the southernmost portion of Blind Island to the hunting closure markers 1 mile south of the Blind Slough bridge.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) You may not shoot ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine from a boat, unless you are certified as disabled.
(C) Coyotes taken incidentally with a trap or snare during an open Federal trapping season for wolf, wolverine, or beaver may be legally retained.
(D) Trappers are prohibited from using a trap or snare unless the trap or snare has been individually marked with a permanent metal tag upon which is stamped or permanently etched the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number, or is set within 50 yards of a sign that lists the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number. The trapper must use the trapper's Alaska driver's license number or State identification card number as the required permanent identification number. If a trapper chooses to place a sign at a snaring site rather than tagging individual snares, the sign must be at least 3 inches by 5 inches in size, be clearly visible, and have numbers and letters that are at least one-half inch high and one-eighth inch wide in a color that contrasts with the color of the sign.
(E) A firearm may be used to take beaver under a trapping license during an open beaver season, except on National Park Service lands.
(4)
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) You may not take brown bears in the Seymour Canal Closed Area (Admiralty Island) including all drainages into northwestern Seymour Canal between Staunch Point and the southernmost tip of the unnamed peninsula separating Swan Cove and King Salmon Bay including Swan and Windfall Islands;
(B) You may not take brown bears in the Salt Lake Closed Area (Admiralty Island) including all lands within one-fourth mile of Salt Lake above Klutchman Rock at the head of Mitchell Bay;
(C) You may not take brown bears in the Port Althorp Closed Area (Chichagof Island), that area within the Port Althorp watershed south of a line from Point Lucan to Salt Chuck Point (Trap Rock);
(D) You may not use any motorized land vehicle for brown bear hunting in the Northeast Chichagof Controlled Use Area (NECCUA) consisting of all portions of Unit 4 on Chichagof Island north of Tenakee Inlet and east of the drainage divide from the northwestern point of Gull Cove to Port Frederick Portage, including all drainages into Port Frederick and Mud Bay.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may shoot ungulates from a boat. You may not shoot bear, wolves, or wolverine from a boat, unless you are certified as disabled.
(B) Five Federal registration permits will be issued by the Sitka or Hoonah District Ranger for the taking of brown bear for educational purposes associated with teaching customary and traditional subsistence harvest and use practices. Any bear taken under an educational permit does not count in an individual's one bear every four regulatory years limit.
(C) Coyotes taken incidentally with a trap or snare during an open Federal
(D) Trappers are prohibited from using a trap or snare unless the trap or snare has been individually marked with a permanent metal tag upon which is stamped or permanently etched the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number, or is set within 50 yards of a sign that lists the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number. The trapper must use the trapper's Alaska driver's license number or State identification card number as the required permanent identification number. If a trapper chooses to place a sign at a snaring site rather than tagging individual snares, the sign must be at least 3 inches by 5 inches in size, be clearly visible, and have numbers and letters that are at least one-half inch high and one-eighth inch wide in a color that contrasts with the color of the sign.
(E) A firearm may be used to take beaver under a trapping license during an open beaver season, except on National Park Service lands.
(5)
(A) Unit 5A consists of all drainages east of Yakutat Bay, Disenchantment Bay, and the eastern edge of Hubbard Glacier, and includes the islands of Yakutat and Disenchantment Bays; In Unit 5A, Nunatak Bench is defined as
(B) Unit 5B consists of the remainder of Unit 5.
(ii) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses on public lands within Glacier Bay National Park.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) You may not shoot ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine from a boat, unless you are certified as disabled.
(C) You may hunt brown bear in Unit 5 with a Federal registration permit in lieu of a State metal locking tag if you have obtained a Federal registration permit prior to hunting.
(D) Coyotes taken incidentally with a trap or snare during an open Federal trapping season for wolf, wolverine, or beaver may be legally retained.
(E) Trappers are prohibited from using a trap or snare unless the trap or snare has been individually marked with a permanent metal tag upon which is stamped or permanently etched the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number, or is set within 50 yards of a sign that lists the trapper's name and address, or the trapper's permanent identification number. The trapper must use the trapper's Alaska driver's license number or State identification card number as the required permanent identification number. If a trapper chooses to place a sign at a snaring site rather than tagging individual snares, the sign must be at least 3 inches by 5 inches in size, be clearly visible, and have numbers and letters that are at least one-half inch high and one-eighth inch wide in a color that contrasts with the color of the sign.
(F) A firearm may be used to take beaver under a trapping license during an open beaver season, except on National Park Service lands.
(6)
(A) Unit 6A consists of Gulf of Alaska drainages east of Palm Point near Katalla including Kanak, Wingham, and Kayak Islands;
(B) Unit 6B consists of Gulf of Alaska and Copper River Basin drainages west of Palm Point near Katalla, east of the west bank of the Copper River, and east of a line from Flag Point to Cottonwood Point;
(C) Unit 6C consists of drainages west of the west bank of the Copper River, and west of a line from Flag Point to Cottonwood Point, and drainages east of the east bank of Rude River and drainages into the eastern shore of Nelson Bay and Orca Inlet;
(D) Unit 6D consists of the remainder of Unit 6.
(ii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15. In addition, you may use bait in Unit 6D between June 16 and June 30. The harvest quota in Unit 6D is 20 bears taken with bait between June 16 and June 30.
(B) You may take coyotes in Units 6B and 6C with the aid of artificial lights.
(C) One permit will be issued by the Cordova District Ranger to the Native Village of Eyak to take one moose from Federal lands in Units 6B or C for their annual Memorial/Sobriety Day potlatch.
(D) A Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) who is either blind, 65 years of age or older, at least 70 percent disabled, or temporarily disabled may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take any moose, deer, black bear, and beaver on his or her behalf in Unit 6, and goat in Unit 6D, unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients, but may have no more than one harvest limit in his or her possession at any one time.
(E) A hunter younger than 10 years old at the start of the hunt may not be issued a Federal subsistence permit to harvest black bear, deer, goat, moose, wolf, and wolverine.
(F) A hunter younger than 10 years old may harvest black bear, deer, goat, moose, wolf, and wolverine under the direct, immediate supervision of a licensed adult, at least 18 years old. The animal taken is counted against the adult's harvest limit. The adult is responsible for ensuring that all legal requirements are met.
(G) Up to five permits will be issued by the Cordova District Ranger to the Native Village of Chenega annually to harvest up to five deer total from Federal public lands in Unit 6D for their annual Old Chenega Memorial and other traditional memorial potlatch ceremonies. Permits will have effective dates of July 1-June 30.
(H) Up to five permits will be issued by the Cordova District Ranger to the Tatitlek IRA Council annually to harvest up to five deer total from Federal public lands in Unit 6D for their annual Cultural Heritage Week. Permits will have effective dates of July 1-June 30.
(7)
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses in the Kenai Fjords National Park.
(B) You may not hunt in the Portage Glacier Closed Area in Unit 7, which consists of Portage Creek drainages between the Anchorage-Seward Railroad and Placer Creek in Bear Valley, Portage Lake, the mouth of Byron Creek, Glacier Creek, and Byron Glacier; however, you may hunt grouse, ptarmigan, hares, and squirrels with shotguns after September 1.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15, except in the drainages of Resurrection Creek and its tributaries.
(B) [Reserved].
(8)
(i) Unit-specific regulations: If you have a trapping license, you may take beaver with a firearm in Unit 8 from Nov. 10-Apr. 30.
(ii) [Reserved].
(9)
(A) Unit 9A consists of that portion of Unit 9 draining into Shelikof Strait and Cook Inlet between the southern boundary of Unit 16 (Redoubt Creek) and the northern boundary of Katmai National Park and Preserve.
(B) Unit 9B consists of the Kvichak River drainage except those lands drained by the Kvichak River/Bay between the Alagnak River drainage and the Naknek River drainage.
(C) Unit 9C consists of the Alagnak (Branch) River drainage, the Naknek River drainage, lands drained by the Kvichak River/Bay between the Alagnak River drainage and the Naknek River drainage, and all land and water within Katmai National Park and Preserve.
(D) Unit 9D consists of all Alaska Peninsula drainages west of a line from the southernmost head of Port Moller to the head of American Bay, including the Shumagin Islands and other islands of Unit 9 west of the Shumagin Islands.
(E) Unit 9E consists of the remainder of Unit 9.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses in Katmai National Park;
(B) You may not use motorized vehicles, except aircraft, boats, or snowmobiles used for hunting and transporting a hunter or harvested animal parts from Aug. 1-Nov. 30 in the Naknek Controlled Use Area, which includes all of Unit 9C within the Naknek River drainage upstream from and including the King Salmon Creek drainage; however, you may use a motorized vehicle on the Naknek-King Salmon, Lake Camp, and Rapids Camp roads and on the King Salmon Creek trail, and on frozen surfaces of the Naknek River and Big Creek.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) If you have a trapping license, you may use a firearm to take beaver in Unit 9B from April 1-May 31 and in the remainder of Unit 9 from April 1-30.
(B) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag in Unit 9B, except that portion within the Lake Clark National Park and Preserve, if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting.
(C) In Unit 9B, Lake Clark National Park and Preserve, residents of Iliamna, Newhalen, Nondalton, Pedro Bay, Port Alsworth, and that portion of the park resident zone in Unit 9B and 13.440 permit holders may hunt brown bear by Federal registration permit in lieu of a resident tag. The season will be closed when 4 females or 10 bears have been taken, whichever occurs first. The permits will be issued and closure announcements made by the Superintendent Lake Clark National Park and Preserve.
(D) Residents of Iliamna, Newhalen, Nondalton, Pedro Bay, and Port Alsworth may take up to a total of 10 bull moose in Unit 9B for ceremonial purposes, under the terms of a Federal registration permit from July 1-June 30. Permits will be issued to individuals only at the request of a local organization. This 10-moose limit is not cumulative with that permitted for potlatches by the State.
(E) For Units 9C and 9E only, a Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) of Units 9C and 9E may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user of Units 9C and 9E to take bull caribou on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report and turn over all meat to the recipient. There is no restriction on the number of possession limits the designated hunter may have in his/her possession at any one time.
(F) For Unit 9D, a Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take caribou on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients but may have no more than four harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time.
(G) The communities of False Pass, King Cove, Cold Bay, Sand Point, and Nelson Lagoon annually may each take, from October 1-December 31 or May 10-25, one brown bear for ceremonial purposes, under the terms of a Federal registration permit. A permit will be issued to an individual only at the request of a local organization. The brown bear may be taken from either Unit 9D or Unit 10 (Unimak Island) only.
(H) You may hunt brown bear in Unit 9E with a Federal registration permit in lieu of a State locking tag if you have obtained a Federal registration permit prior to hunting.
(10)
(ii) You may not take any wildlife species for subsistence uses on Otter Island in the Pribilof Islands.
(iii) In Unit 10—Unimak Island only, a Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take caribou on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients but may have no more than four harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time.
(iv) The communities of False Pass, King Cove, Cold Bay, Sand Point, and Nelson Lagoon annually may each take, from October 1-December 31 or May 10-25, one brown bear for ceremonial purposes, under the terms of a Federal registration permit. A permit will be issued to an individual only at the request of a local organization. The brown bear may be taken from either Unit 9D or Unit 10 (Unimak Island) only.
(11)
(i) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black and brown bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) One moose without calf may be taken from June 20-July 31 in the Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve in Unit 11 or 12 for the Batzulnetas Culture Camp. Two hunters from either Chistochina or Mentasta Village may be designated by the Mt. Sanford Tribal Consortium to receive the Federal subsistence harvest permit. The permit may be obtained from a Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve office.
(ii) A joint permit may be issued to a pair of a minor and an elder to hunt sheep during the Aug. 1-Oct. 20 hunt. The following conditions apply:
(A) The permittees must be a minor aged 8 to 15 years old and an accompanying adult 60 years of age or older.
(B) Both the elder and the minor must be Federally qualified subsistence users with a positive customary and traditional use determination for the area they want to hunt.
(C) The minor must hunt under the direct immediate supervision of the accompanying adult, who is responsible for ensuring that all legal requirements are met.
(D) Only one animal may be harvested with this permit. The sheep harvested will count against the harvest limits of both the minor and accompanying adult.
(12)
(i) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black and brown bear between April 15 and June 30; you may use bait to hunt wolves on FWS and BLM lands.
(B) You may not use a steel trap, or a snare using cable smaller than
(C) One moose without calf may be taken from June 20-July 31 in the Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve in Unit 11 or 12 for the Batzulnetas Culture Camp. Two hunters from either Chistochina or Mentasta Village may be designated by the Mt. Sanford Tribal Consortium to receive the Federal subsistence harvest permit. The permit may be obtained from a Wrangell-St. Elias National Park and Preserve office.
(ii) A joint permit may be issued to a pair of a minor and an elder to hunt sheep during the Aug. 1-Oct. 20 hunt. The following conditions apply:
(A) The permittees must be a minor aged 8 to 15 years old and an accompanying adult 60 years of age or older.
(B) Both the elder and the minor must be Federally qualified subsistence users with a positive customary and traditional use determination for the area they want to hunt.
(C) The minor must hunt under the direct immediate supervision of the accompanying adult, who is responsible for ensuring that all legal requirements are met.
(D) Only one animal may be harvested with this permit. The sheep harvested will count against the harvest limits of both the minor and accompanying adult.
(13)
(A) Unit 13A consists of that portion of Unit 13 bounded by a line beginning at the Chickaloon River bridge at Mile 77.7 on the Glenn Highway, then along the Glenn Highway to its junction with the Richardson Highway, then south along the Richardson Highway to the foot of Simpson Hill at Mile 111.5, then east to the east bank of the Copper River, then northerly along the east bank of the Copper River to its junction with
(B) Unit 13B consists of that portion of Unit 13 bounded by a line beginning at the confluence of the Copper River and the Gulkana River, then up the east bank of the Copper River to the Gakona River, then up the Gakona River and Gakona Glacier to the boundary of Unit 13, then westerly along the boundary of Unit 13 to the Susitna Glacier, then southerly along the west bank of the Susitna Glacier and the Susitna River to the Tyone River, then up the Tyone River and across the divide to the headwaters of the West Fork of the Gulkana River, then down the West Fork of the Gulkana River to the confluence of the Gulkana River and the Copper River, the point of beginning.
(C) Unit 13C consists of that portion of Unit 13 east of the Gakona River and Gakona Glacier.
(D) Unit 13D consists of that portion of Unit 13 south of Unit 13A.
(E) Unit 13E consists of the remainder of Unit 13.
(ii) Within the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses on lands within Mount McKinley National Park as it existed prior to December 2, 1980. Subsistence uses as authorized by this paragraph (n)(13) are permitted in Denali National Preserve and lands added to Denali National Park on December 2, 1980.
(B) You may not use motorized vehicles or pack animals for hunting from Aug. 5-25 in the Delta Controlled Use Area, the boundary of which is defined as: a line beginning at the confluence of Miller Creek and the Delta River, then west to vertical angle benchmark Miller, then west to include all drainages of Augustana Creek and Black Rapids Glacier, then north and east to include all drainages of McGinnis Creek to its confluence with the Delta River, then east in a straight line across the Delta River to Mile 236.7 Richardson Highway, then north along the Richardson Highway to its junction with the Alaska Highway, then east along the Alaska Highway to the west bank of the Johnson River, then south along the west bank of the Johnson River and Johnson Glacier to the head of the Cantwell Glacier, then west along the north bank of the Cantwell Glacier and Miller Creek to the Delta River.
(C) Except for access and transportation of harvested wildlife on Sourdough and Haggard Creeks, Middle Fork trails, or other trails designated by the Board, you may not use motorized vehicles for subsistence hunting in the Sourdough Controlled Use Area. The Sourdough Controlled Use Area consists of that portion of Unit 13B bounded by a line beginning at the confluence of Sourdough Creek and the Gulkana River, then northerly along Sourdough Creek to the Richardson Highway at approximately Mile 148, then northerly along the Richardson Highway to the Middle Fork Trail at approximately Mile 170, then westerly along the trail to the Gulkana River, then southerly along the east bank of the Gulkana River to its confluence with Sourdough Creek, the point of beginning.
(D) You may not use any motorized vehicle or pack animal for hunting, including the transportation of hunters, their hunting gear, and/or parts of game from July 26-September 30 in the Tonsina Controlled Use Area. The Tonsina Controlled Use Area consists of that portion of Unit 13D bounded on the west by the Richardson Highway from the Tiekel River to the Tonsina River at Tonsina, on the north along the south bank of the Tonsina River to where the Edgerton Highway crosses the Tonsina River, then along the Edgerton Highway to Chitina, on the east by the Copper River from Chitina to the Tiekel River, and on the south by the north bank of the Tiekel River.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) Upon written request by the Camp Director to the Glennallen Field Office, 2 caribou, sex to be determined by the Glennallen Field Office Manager of the BLM, may be taken from Aug. 10-Sep. 30 or Oct. 21-Mar. 31 by Federal registration permit for the Hudson Lake Residential Treatment Camp. Additionally, 1 bull moose may be taken Aug. 1-Sep. 20. The animals may be taken by any Federally qualified hunter designated by the Camp Director. The hunter must have in his/her possession the permit and a designated hunter permit during all periods that are being hunted.
(14)
(A) Unit 14A consists of drainages in Unit 14 bounded on the west by the east bank of the Susitna River, on the north by the north bank of Willow Creek and Peters Creek to its headwaters, then east along the hydrologic divide separating the Susitna River and Knik Arm drainages to the outlet creek at lake 4408, on the east by the eastern boundary of Unit 14, and on the south by Cook Inlet, Knik Arm, the south bank of the Knik River from its mouth to its junction with Knik Glacier, across the face of Knik Glacier and along the northern side of Knik Glacier to the Unit 6 boundary;
(B) Unit 14B consists of that portion of Unit 14 north of Unit 14A;
(C) Unit 14C consists of that portion of Unit 14 south of Unit 14A.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses in the Fort Richardson and Elmendorf Air Force Base Management Areas, consisting of the Fort Richardson and Elmendorf Military Reservations;
(B) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses in the Anchorage Management Area, consisting of all drainages south of Elmendorf and Fort Richardson military reservations and north of and including Rainbow Creek.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(15)
(A) Unit 15A consists of that portion of Unit 15 north of the north bank of the Kenai River and the northern shore of Skilak Lake;
(B) Unit 15B consists of that portion of Unit 15 south of the north bank of the Kenai River and the northern shore of Skilak Lake, and north of the north bank of the Kasilof River, the northern shore of Tustumena Lake, Glacier Creek, and Tustumena Glacier;
(C) Unit 15C consists of the remainder of Unit 15.
(ii) You may not take wildlife, except for grouse, ptarmigan, and hares that may be taken only from October 1 through March 1 by bow and arrow only, in the Skilak Loop Management Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 15A bounded by a line beginning at the easternmost junction of the Sterling Highway and the Skilak Loop (milepost 76.3), then due south to the south bank of the Kenai River, then southerly along the south bank of the Kenai River to its confluence with Skilak Lake, then westerly along the northern shore of Skilak Lake to Lower Skilak Lake Campground, then northerly along the Lower Skilak Lake Campground Road and the Skilak Loop Road to its westernmost junction with the Sterling Highway, then easterly along the Sterling Highway to the point of beginning.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15;
(B) You may not trap furbearers for subsistence in the Skilak Loop Wildlife Management Area;
(C) You may not trap marten in that portion of Unit 15B east of the Kenai River, Skilak Lake, Skilak River, and Skilak Glacier;
(D) You may not take red fox in Unit 15 by any means other than a steel trap or snare.
(16)
(A) Unit 16A consists of that portion of Unit 16 east of the east bank of the Yentna River from its mouth upstream to the Kahiltna River, east of the east bank of the Kahiltna River, and east of the Kahiltna Glacier;
(B) Unit 16B consists of the remainder of Unit 16.
(ii) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses in the Mount McKinley National Park, as it existed prior to December 2, 1980. Subsistence uses as authorized by this paragraph (n)(16) are permitted in Denali National Preserve and lands added to Denali National Park on December 2, 1980.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) [Reserved].
(17)
(A) Unit 17A consists of the drainages between Cape Newenham and Cape Constantine, and Hagemeister Island and the Walrus Islands;
(B) Unit 17B consists of the Nushagak River drainage upstream from, and including the Mulchatna River drainage and the Wood River drainage upstream from the outlet of Lake Beverley;
(C) Unit 17C consists of the remainder of Unit 17.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public lands:
(A) Except for aircraft and boats and in legal hunting camps, you may not use any motorized vehicle for hunting ungulates, bear, wolves, and wolverine, including transportation of hunters and parts of ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine in the Upper Mulchatna Controlled Use Area consisting of Unit 17B, from Aug. 1-Nov. 1.
(B) [Reserved].
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 15.
(B) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting.
(C) If you have a trapping license, you may use a firearm to take beaver in Unit 17 from April 15-May 31. You may not take beaver with a firearm under a trapping license on National Park Service lands.
(18)
(ii) In the Kalskag Controlled Use Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 18 bounded by a line from Lower Kalskag on the Kuskokwim River, northwesterly to Russian Mission on the Yukon River, then east along the north bank of the Yukon River to the old site of Paimiut, then back to Lower Kalskag, you are not allowed to use aircraft for hunting any ungulate, bear, wolf, or wolverine, including the transportation of any hunter and ungulate, bear, wolf, or wolverine part; however, this does not apply to transportation of a hunter or ungulate, bear, wolf, or wolverine part by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the Controlled Use Area or between a publicly owned airport within the Area and points outside the Area.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) If you have a trapping license, you may use a firearm to take beaver in Unit 18 from April 1 through June 10.
(B) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting.
(C) You may take caribou from a boat moving under power in Unit 18.
(D) You may take moose from a boat moving under power in that portion of Unit 18 west of a line running from the mouth of the Ishkowik River to the closest point of Dall Lake, then to the east bank of the Johnson River at its entrance into Nunavakanukakslak Lake (60°59.41′ N. Latitude; 162°22.14′ W. Longitude), continuing upriver along a line
(E) Taking of wildlife in Unit 18 while in possession of lead shot size T, .20 caliber or less in diameter, is prohibited.
(F) You may not pursue with a motorized vehicle an ungulate that is at or near a full gallop.
(G) You may use artificial light when taking a bear at a den site.
(19)
(A) Unit 19A consists of the Kuskokwim River drainage downstream from and including the Moose Creek drainage on the north bank and downstream from and including the Stony River drainage on the south bank, excluding Unit 19B;
(B) Unit 19B consists of the Aniak River drainage upstream from and including the Salmon River drainage, the Holitna River drainage upstream from and including the Bakbuk Creek drainage, that area south of a line from the mouth of Bakbuk Creek to the radar dome at Sparrevohn Air Force Base, including the Hoholitna River drainage upstream from that line, and the Stony River drainage upstream from and including the Can Creek drainage;
(C) Unit 19C consists of that portion of Unit 19 south and east of a line from Benchmark M#1.26 (approximately 1.26 miles south of the northwestern corner of the original Mt. McKinley National Park boundary) to the peak of Lone Mountain, then due west to Big River, including the Big River drainage
(D) Unit 19D consists of the remainder of Unit 19.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses on lands within Mount McKinley National Park as it existed prior to December 2, 1980. Subsistence uses as authorized by this paragraph (n)(19) are permitted in Denali National Preserve and lands added to Denali National Park on December 2, 1980.
(B) In the Upper Kuskokwim Controlled Use Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 19D upstream from the mouth of the Selatna River, but excluding the Selatna and Black River drainages, to a line extending from Dyckman Mountain on the northern Unit 19D boundary southeast to the 1,610-foot crest of Munsatli Ridge, then south along Munsatli Ridge to the 2,981-foot peak of Telida Mountain, then northeast to the intersection of the western boundary of Denali National Preserve with the Minchumina-Telida winter trail, then south along the western boundary of Denali National Preserve to the southern boundary of Unit 19D, you may not use aircraft for hunting moose, including transportation of any moose hunter or moose part; however, this does not apply to transportation of a moose hunter or moose part by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the Controlled Use Area, or between a publicly owned airport within the area and points outside the area.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 30.
(B) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag in those portions of Units19A and 19B downstream of and including the Aniak River drainage if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting.
(C) In Unit 19C, individual residents of Nikolai may harvest sheep during the Aug. 10 to Sep. 20 season and not have that animal count against the community harvest limit (during the Oct. 1 to Mar. 30 season). Individual residents of Nikolai that harvest a sheep under State regulations may not participate in the Oct. 1 to Mar. 30 community harvest.
(20)
(A) Unit 20A consists of that portion of Unit 20 bounded on the south by the Unit 13 boundary, bounded on the east by the west bank of the Delta River, bounded on the north by the north bank of the Tanana River from its confluence with the Delta River downstream to its confluence with the Nenana River, and bounded on the west by the east bank of the Nenana River.
(B) Unit 20B consists of drainages into the northern bank of the Tanana River from and including Hot Springs Slough upstream to and including the Banner Creek drainage.
(C) Unit 20C consists of that portion of Unit 20 bounded on the east by the east bank of the Nenana River and on the north by the north bank of the Tanana River downstream from the Nenana River.
(D) Unit 20D consists of that portion of Unit 20 bounded on the east by the east bank of the Robertson River and on the west by the west bank of the Delta River, and drainages into the north bank of the Tanana River from its confluence with the Robertson River downstream to, but excluding, the Banner Creek drainage.
(E) Unit 20E consists of drainages into the south bank of the Yukon River upstream from and including the Charley River drainage, and the Ladue River drainage.
(F) Unit 20F consists of the remainder of Unit 20.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not take wildlife for subsistence uses on lands within Mount McKinley National Park as it existed prior to December 2, 1980. Subsistence uses as authorized by this paragraph (n)(20) are permitted in Denali National Preserve and lands added to Denali National Park on December 2, 1980.
(B) You may not use motorized vehicles or pack animals for hunting Aug. 5-25 in the Delta Controlled Use Area, the boundary of which is defined as: A line beginning at the confluence of Miller Creek and the Delta River, then west to vertical angle benchmark Miller, then west to include all drainages of Augustana Creek and Black Rapids Glacier, then north and east to include all drainages of McGinnis Creek to its confluence with the Delta River, then east in a straight line across the Delta River to Mile 236.7 of the Richardson Highway, then north along the Richardson Highway to its junction with the Alaska Highway, then east along the Alaska Highway to the west bank of the Johnson River, then south along the west bank of the Johnson River and Johnson Glacier to the head of the Canwell Glacier, then west along the north bank of the Canwell Glacier and Miller Creek to the Delta River.
(C) You may not use firearms, snowmobiles, licensed highway vehicles or motorized vehicles, except aircraft and boats, in the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area, which consists of those portions of
(D) You may not use any motorized vehicle for hunting August 5-September 20 in the Glacier Mountain Controlled Use Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 20E bounded by a line beginning at Mile 140 of the Taylor Highway, then north along the highway to Eagle, then west along the cat trail from Eagle to Crooked Creek, then from Crooked Creek southwest along the west bank of Mogul Creek to its headwaters on North Peak, then west across North Peak to the headwaters of Independence Creek, then southwest along the west bank of Independence Creek to its confluence with the North Fork of the Fortymile River, then easterly along the south bank of the North Fork of the Fortymile River to its confluence with Champion Creek, then across the North Fork of the Fortymile River to the south bank of Champion Creek and easterly along the south bank of Champion Creek to its confluence with Little Champion Creek, then northeast along the east bank of Little Champion Creek to its headwaters, then northeasterly in a direct line to Mile 140 on the Taylor Highway; however, this does not prohibit motorized access via, or transportation of harvested wildlife on, the Taylor Highway or any airport.
(E) You may by permit hunt moose on the Minto Flats Management Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 20 bounded by the Elliot Highway beginning at Mile 118, then northeasterly to Mile 96, then east to the Tolovana Hotsprings Dome, then east to the Winter Cat Trail, then along the Cat Trail south to the Old Telegraph Trail at Dunbar, then westerly along the trail to a point where it joins the Tanana River 3 miles above Old Minto, then along the north bank of the Tanana River (including all channels and sloughs except Swan Neck Slough), to the confluence of the Tanana and Tolovana Rivers and then northerly to the point of beginning.
(F) You may hunt moose only by bow and arrow in the Fairbanks Management Area. The Area consists of that portion of Unit 20B bounded by a line from the confluence of Rosie Creek and the Tanana River, northerly along Rosie Creek to Isberg Road, then northeasterly on Isberg Road to Cripple Creek Road, then northeasterly on Cripple Creek Road to the Parks Highway, then north on the Parks Highway to Alder Creek, then westerly to the middle fork of Rosie Creek through section 26 to the Parks Highway, then east along the Parks Highway to Alder Creek, then upstream along Alder Creek to its confluence with Emma Creek, then upstream along Emma Creek to its headwaters, then northerly along the hydrographic divide between Goldstream Creek drainages and Cripple Creek drainages to the summit of Ester Dome, then down Sheep Creek to its confluence with Goldstream Creek, then easterly along Goldstream Creek to Sheep Creek Road, then north on Sheep Creek Road to Murphy Dome Road, then west on Murphy Dome Road to Old Murphy Dome Road, then east on Old Murphy Dome Road to the Elliot Highway, then south on the Elliot Highway to Goldstream Creek, then easterly along Goldstream Creek to its confluence with First Chance Creek, Davidson Ditch, then southeasterly along the Davidson Ditch to its confluence with the tributary to Goldstream Creek in Section 29, then downstream along the tributary to its confluence with Goldstream Creek, then in a straight line to First Chance Creek, then up First Chance Creek to Tungsten Hill, then southerly along Steele Creek to its confluence with Ruby Creek, then upstream along Ruby Creek to Esro Road, then south on Esro Road to Chena Hot Springs Road, then east on Chena Hot Springs Road to Nordale Road, then south on Nordale Road to the Chena River, to its intersection with the Trans-Alaska Pipeline right of way, then southeasterly along the easterly edge of the Trans-Alaska Pipeline right of way to the Chena River, then along the north bank of the Chena River to the Moose Creek dike, then southerly along the Moose Creek dike to its intersection with the Tanana River, and then westerly along the north bank of the Tanana River to the point of beginning.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear April 15-June 30; you may use bait to hunt wolves on FWS and BLM lands.
(B) You may not use a steel trap or a snare using cable smaller than
(C) Residents of Units 20 and 21 may take up to three moose per regulatory year for the celebration known as the Nuchalawoyya Potlatch, under the terms of a Federal registration permit. Permits will be issued to individuals at the request of the Native Village of Tanana only. This three-moose limit is not cumulative with that permitted by the State.
(21)
(A) Unit 21A consists of the Innoko River drainage upstream from and including the Iditarod River drainage.
(B) Unit 21B consists of the Yukon River drainage upstream from Ruby and east of the Ruby-Poorman Road, downstream from and excluding the Tozitna River and Tanana River drainages, and excluding the Melozitna River drainage upstream from Grayling Creek.
(C) Unit 21C consists of the Melozitna River drainage upstream from Grayling Creek, and the Dulbi River drainage upstream from and including the Cottonwood Creek drainage.
(D) Unit 21D consists of the Yukon River drainage from and including the Blackburn Creek drainage upstream to Ruby, including the area west of the Ruby-Poorman Road, excluding the Koyukuk River drainage upstream from the Dulbi River drainage, and excluding the Dulbi River drainage upstream from Cottonwood Creek.
(E) Unit 21E consists of that portion of Unit 21 in the Yukon River and Arhymot Lake drainages upstream from a line starting at the downriver boundary of Paimiut on the north bank of the Yukon River, then south across the Yukon River to the northern terminus of the Paimiut Portage, then south along the Portage to its intersection with Arhymot Lake, then along the northern and western bank of Arhymot Lake to the outlet at Crooked Creek (locally known as Johnson River) drainage, then to, but not including, the Blackburn Creek drainage, and the Innoko River drainage downstream from the Iditarod River drainage.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) The Koyukuk Controlled Use Area, which consists of those portions of Unit 21 and 24 bounded by a line from the north bank of the Yukon River at Koyukuk at 64°52.58′ N. lat., 157°43.10′ W. long., then northerly to the confluences of the Honhosa and Kateel Rivers at 65°28.42′ N. lat., 157°44.89′ W. long., then northeasterly to the confluences of Billy Hawk Creek and the Huslia River (65°57 N. lat., 156°41 W. long.) at 65°56.66′ N. lat., 156°40.81′ W. long., then easterly to the confluence of the forks of the Dakli River at 66°02.56′ N. lat., 156°12.71′ W. long., then easterly to the confluence of McLanes Creek and the Hogatza River at 66°00.31′ N. lat., 155°18.57′ W. long., then southwesterly to the crest of Hochandochtla Mountain at 65°31.87′ N. lat., 154°52.18′ W. long., then southwest to the mouth of Cottonwood Creek at 65°13.00′ N. lat., 156°06.43′ W. long., then southwest to Bishop Rock (Yistletaw) at 64°49.35′ N. lat., 157°21.73′ W. long., then westerly along the north bank of the Yukon River (including Koyukuk Island) to the point of beginning, is closed during moose hunting seasons to the use of aircraft for hunting moose, including transportation of any moose hunter or moose part; however, this does not apply to transportation of a moose hunter or moose part by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the controlled use area or between a publicly owned airport within the area and points outside the area; all hunters on the Koyukuk River passing the ADF&G-operated check station at Ella's Cabin (15 miles upstream from the Yukon on the Koyukuk River) are required to stop and report to ADF&G personnel at the check station.
(B) The Paradise Controlled Use Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 21 bounded by a line beginning at the old village of Paimiut, then north along the west bank of the Yukon River to Paradise, then northwest to the mouth of Stanstrom Creek on the Bonasila River, then northeast to the mouth of the Anvik River, then along the west bank of the Yukon River to the lower end of Eagle Island (approximately 45 miles north of Grayling), then to the mouth of the Iditarod River, then extending 2 miles easterly down the east bank of the Innoko River to its confluence with Paimiut Slough, then south along the east bank of Paimiut Slough to its mouth, and then to the old village of Paimiut, is closed during moose hunting seasons to the use of aircraft for hunting moose, including transportation of any moose hunter or part of moose; however, this does not apply to transportation of a moose hunter or part of moose by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the Controlled Use Area or between a publicly owned airport within the area and points outside the area.
(iii) In Unit 21D, you may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting. Aircraft may not be used in any manner for brown bear hunting under the authority of a brown bear State registration permit, including transportation of hunters, bears, or parts of bears; however, this does not apply to transportation of bear hunters or bear parts by regularly scheduled flights to and between communities by carriers that normally provide scheduled service to this area, nor does it apply to transportation of aircraft to or between publicly owned airports.
(iv) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 30; and in the Koyukuk Controlled Use Area, you may also use bait to hunt black bear between September 1 and September 25.
(B) If you have a trapping license, you may use a firearm to take beaver in Unit 21(E) from Nov. 1-June 10.
(C) The residents of Units 20 and 21 may take up to three moose per regulatory year for the celebration known as the Nuchalawoyya Potlatch, under the terms of a Federal registration permit. Permits will be issued to individuals only at the request of the Native Village of Tanana. This three-moose limit is not cumulative with that permitted by the State.
(D) The residents of Unit 21 may take up to three moose per regulatory year for the celebration known as the Kaltag/Nulato Stickdance, under the terms of a Federal registration permit. Permits will be issued to individuals only at the request of the Native Village of Kaltag or Nulato. This three-moose limit is not cumulative with that permitted by the State.
(22)
(A) Unit 22A consists of Norton Sound drainages from, but excluding, the Pastolik River drainage to, and including, the Ungalik River drainage, and Stuart and Besboro Islands.
(B) Unit 22B consists of Norton Sound drainages from, but excluding, the Ungalik River drainage to, and including, the Topkok Creek drainage.
(C) Unit 22C consists of Norton Sound and Bering Sea drainages from, but excluding, the Topkok Creek drainage to, and including, the Tisuk River drainage, and King and Sledge Islands.
(D) Unit 22D consists of that portion of Unit 22 draining into the Bering Sea north of, but not including, the Tisuk River to and including Cape York and St. Lawrence Island.
(E) Unit 22E consists of Bering Sea, Bering Strait, Chukchi Sea, and Kotzebue Sound drainages from Cape York to, but excluding, the Goodhope River drainage, and including Little Diomede Island and Fairway Rock.
(ii) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting. Aircraft may not be used in any manner for brown bear hunting under the authority of a brown bear State registration permit, including transportation of hunters, bears, or parts of bears; however, this does not apply to transportation of bear hunters or bear parts by regularly scheduled flights to and between communities by carriers that normally provide scheduled service to this area, nor does it apply to transportation of aircraft to or between publicly owned airports.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) If you have a trapping license, you may use a firearm to take beaver in Unit 22 during the established seasons.
(B) Coyote, incidentally taken with a trap or snare, may be used for subsistence purposes.
(C) A snowmachine may be used to position a hunter to select individual caribou for harvest provided that the animals are not shot from a moving snowmachine.
(D) The taking of one bull moose and up to three musk oxen by the community of Wales is allowed for the celebration of the Kingikmuit Dance Festival under the terms of a Federal registration permit. Permits will be issued to individuals only at the request of the Native Village of Wales. The harvest may occur only within regularly established seasons in Unit 22E. The harvest will count against any established quota for the area.
(E) A Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take musk oxen on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must get a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients in the course of a season, but have no more than two harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time, except in Unit 22E where a resident of Wales or Shishmaref acting as a designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients, but have no more than four harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time.
(23)
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not use aircraft in any manner either for hunting of ungulates, bear, wolves, or wolverine, or for transportation of hunters or harvested species in the Noatak Controlled Use Area for the period August 15-September 30. The Area consists of that portion of Unit 23 in a corridor extending 5 miles on either side of the Noatak River beginning at the mouth of the Noatak River, and extending
(B) [Reserved].
(iii) You may not use aircraft in any manner for brown bear hunting, including transportation of hunters, bears, or parts of bears; however, this does not apply to transportation of bear hunters or bear parts by regularly scheduled flights to and between communities by carriers that normally provide scheduled service to this area, nor does it apply to transportation of aircraft to or between publicly owned airports.
(iv) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may take caribou from a boat moving under power in Unit 23.
(B) In addition to other restrictions on method of take found in this section, you may also take swimming caribou with a firearm using rimfire cartridges.
(C) If you have a trapping license, you may take beaver with a firearm in all of Unit 23 from Nov. 1-June 10.
(D) For the Baird and DeLong Mountain sheep hunts—A Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take sheep on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for only one recipient in the course of a season and may have both his and the recipients' harvest limits in his/her possession at the same time.
(E) A snowmachine may be used to position a hunter to select individual caribou for harvest provided that the animals are not shot from a moving snowmachine. On BLM-managed lands only, a snowmachine may be used to position a caribou, wolf, or wolverine for harvest provided that the animals are not shot from a moving snowmachine.
(F) A Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take musk oxen on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must get a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients, but have no more than two harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time.
(24)
(A) Unit 24A consists of the Middle Fork of the Koyukuk River drainage upstream from but not including the Harriet Creek and North Fork Koyukuk River drainages, to the South Fork of the Koyukuk River drainage upstream from Squaw Creek, the Jim River Drainage, the Fish Creek drainage upstream from and including the Bonanza Creek drainage, to the 1,410 ft. peak of the hydrologic divide with the northern fork of the Kanuti Chalatna River at N. Lat. 66°33.303′ W. Long. 151°03.637′ and following the unnamed northern fork of the Kanuti Chalatna Creek to the confluence of the southern fork of the Kanuti Chalatna River at N. Lat 66°27.090′ W. Long. 151°23.841′, 4.2 miles SSW (194 degrees true) of Clawanmenka Lake and following the unnamed southern fork of the Kanuti Chalatna Creek to the hydrologic divide with the Kanuti River drainage at N. Lat. 66°19.789′ W. Long. 151°10.102′, 3.0 miles ENE (79 degrees true) from the 2,055 ft. peak on that divide, and the Kanuti River drainage upstream from the confluence of an unnamed creek at N. Lat. 66°13.050′ W. Long. 151°05.864′, 0.9 miles SSE (155 degrees true) of a 1,980 ft. peak on that divide, and following that unnamed creek to the Unit 24 boundary on the hydrologic divide to the Ray River drainage at N. Lat. 66°03.827′ W. Long. 150°49.988′ at the 2,920 ft. peak of that divide.
(B) Unit 24B consists of the Koyukuk River Drainage upstream from Dog Island to the Subunit 24A boundary.
(C) Unit 24C consists of the Hogatza River Drainage, the Koyukuk River Drainage upstream from Batza River on the north side of the Koyukuk River and upstream from and including the Indian River Drainage on the south side of the Koyukuk River to the Subunit 24B boundary.
(D) Unit 24D consists of the remainder of Unit 24.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not use firearms, snowmobiles, licensed highway vehicles, or motorized vehicles, except aircraft and boats, in the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area, which consists of those portions of Units 20, 24, 25, and 26 extending 5 miles from each side of the Dalton Highway from the Yukon River to milepost 300 of the Dalton Highway,
(B) You may not use aircraft for hunting moose, including transportation of any moose hunter or moose part in the Kanuti Controlled Use Area, which consists of that portion of Unit 24 bounded by a line from the Bettles Field VOR to the east side of Fish Creek Lake, to Old Dummy Lake, to the south end of Lake Todatonten (including all waters of these lakes), to the northernmost headwaters of Siruk Creek, to the highest peak of Double Point Mountain, then back to the Bettles Field VOR; however, this does not apply to transportation of a moose hunter or moose part by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the controlled use area or between a publicly owned airport within the area and points outside the area.
(C) You may not use aircraft for hunting moose, including transportation of any moose hunter or moose part in the Koyukuk Controlled Use Area, which consists of those portions of Unit 21s and 24 bounded by a line from the north bank of the Yukon River at Koyukuk at 64°52.58′ N. lat., 157°43.10′ W. long., then northerly to the confluences of the Honhosa and Kateel Rivers at 65°28.42′ N. lat., 157°44.89′ W. long., then northeasterly to the confluences of Billy Hawk Creek and the Huslia River (65°57 N. lat., 156°41 W. long.) at 65°56.66′ N. lat., 156°40.81′ W. long., then easterly to the confluence of the forks of the Dakli River at 66°02.56′ N. lat., 156°12.71′ W. long., then easterly to the confluence of McLanes Creek and the Hogatza River at 66°00.31′ N. lat., 155°18.57′ W. long., then southwesterly to the crest of Hochandochtla Mountain at 65°31.87′ N. lat., 154°52.18′ W. long., then southwest to the mouth of Cottonwood Creek at 65°13.00′ N. lat., 156°06.43′ W. long., then southwest to Bishop Rock (Yistletaw) at 64°49.35′ N. lat., 157°21.73′ W. long., then westerly along the north bank of the Yukon River (including Koyukuk Island) to the point of beginning. However, this does not apply to transportation of a moose hunter or moose part by aircraft between publicly owned airports in the controlled use area or between a publicly owned airport within the area and points outside the area. All hunters on the Koyukuk River passing the ADF&G-operated check station at Ella's Cabin (15 miles upstream from the Yukon on the Koyukuk River) are required to stop and report to ADF&G personnel at the check station.
(iii) You may hunt brown bear by State registration permit in lieu of a resident tag if you have obtained a State registration permit prior to hunting. You may not use aircraft in any manner for brown bear hunting under the authority of a brown bear State registration permit, including transportation of hunters, bears, or parts of bears. However, this prohibition does not apply to transportation of bear hunters or bear parts by regularly scheduled flights to and between communities by carriers that normally provide scheduled service to this area, nor does it apply to transportation of aircraft to or between publicly owned airports.
(iv) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 30; and in the Koyukuk Controlled Use Area, you may also use bait to hunt black bear between September 1 and September 25.
(B) Arctic fox, incidentally taken with a trap or snare intended for red fox, may be used for subsistence purposes.
(C) If you are a resident of Units 24A, 24B, or 24C, during the dates of Oct. 15-Apr. 30, you may use an artificial light when taking a black bear, including a sow accompanied by cub(s), at a den site within the portions of Gates of the Arctic National Park and Preserve that are within Units 24A, 24B, or 24C.
(25)
(A) Unit 25A consists of the Hodzana River drainage upstream from the Narrows, the Chandalar River drainage upstream from and including the East Fork drainage, the Christian River drainage upstream from Christian, the Sheenjek River drainage upstream from and including the Thluichohnjik Creek, the Coleen River drainage, and the Old Crow River drainage.
(B) Unit 25B consists of the Little Black River drainage upstream from but not including the Big Creek drainage, the Black River drainage upstream from and including the Salmon Fork drainage, the Porcupine River drainage upstream from the confluence of the Coleen and Porcupine Rivers, and drainages into the north bank of the Yukon River upstream from Circle,
(C) Unit 25C consists of drainages into the south bank of the Yukon River upstream from Circle to the Subunit 20E boundary, the Birch Creek drainage upstream from the Steese Highway bridge (milepost 147), the Preacher Creek drainage upstream from and including the Rock Creek drainage, and the Beaver Creek drainage upstream from and including the Moose Creek drainage.
(D) Unit 25D consists of the remainder of Unit 25.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not use firearms, snowmobiles, licensed highway vehicles or motorized vehicles, except aircraft and boats in the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area, which consists of those portions of Units 20, 24, 25, and 26 extending 5 miles from each side of the Dalton Highway from the Yukon River to milepost 300 of the Dalton Highway, except as follows: Residents living within the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area may use snowmobiles only for the subsistence taking of wildlife. You may use licensed highway vehicles only on designated roads within the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area. The residents of Alatna, Allakaket, Anaktuvuk Pass, Bettles, Evansville, Stevens Village, and residents living within the Corridor may use firearms within the Corridor only for subsistence taking of wildlife.
(B) The Arctic Village Sheep Management Area consists of that portion of Unit 25A north and west of Arctic Village, which is bounded on the east by the East Fork Chandalar River beginning at the confluence of Red Sheep Creek and proceeding southwesterly downstream past Arctic Village to the confluence with Crow Nest Creek, continuing up Crow Nest Creek, through Portage Lake, to its confluence with the Junjik River; then down the Junjik River past Timber Lake and a larger tributary, to a major, unnamed tributary, northwesterly, for approximately 6 miles where the stream forks into two roughly equal drainages; the boundary follows the easternmost fork, proceeding almost due north to the headwaters and intersects the Continental Divide; the boundary then follows the Continental Divide easterly, through Carter Pass, then easterly and northeasterly approximately 62 miles along the divide to the headwaters of the most northerly tributary of Red Sheep Creek then follows southerly along the divide designating the eastern extreme of the Red Sheep Creek drainage then to the confluence of Red Sheep Creek and the East Fork Chandalar River.
(iii) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may use bait to hunt black bear between April 15 and June 30 and between August 1 and September 25; in Unit 25D you may use bait to hunt brown bear between April 15 and June 30 and between August 1 and September 25; you may use bait to hunt wolves on FWS and BLM lands.
(B) You may take caribou and moose from a boat moving under power in Unit 25.
(C) The taking of bull moose outside the seasons provided in this part for food in memorial potlatches and traditional cultural events is authorized in Unit 25D west provided that:
(
(
(
(
(26)
(A) Unit 26A consists of that portion of Unit 26 lying west of the Itkillik River drainage and west of the east bank of the Colville River between the mouth of the Itkillik River and the Arctic Ocean;
(B) Unit 26B consists of that portion of Unit 26 east of Unit 26A, west of the west bank of the Canning River and west of the west bank of the Marsh Fork of the Canning River;
(C) Unit 26C consists of the remainder of Unit 26.
(ii) In the following areas, the taking of wildlife for subsistence uses is prohibited or restricted on public land:
(A) You may not use aircraft in any manner for moose hunting, including transportation of moose hunters or parts of moose during the periods July. 1-Sep. 14 and Jan. 1-Mar. 31 in Unit 26A; however, this does not apply to transportation of moose hunters, their gear, or moose parts by aircraft between publicly owned airports.
(B) You may not use firearms, snowmobiles, licensed highway vehicles or motorized vehicles, except aircraft and boats, in the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area, which consists of those portions of Units 20, 24, 25, and 26 extending 5 miles from each side of the Dalton Highway from the Yukon River to milepost 300 of the Dalton Highway, except as follows: Residents living within the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area may use snowmobiles only for the subsistence taking of wildlife. You may use licensed highway vehicles only on designated roads within the Dalton Highway Corridor Management Area. The residents of Alatna, Allakaket, Anaktuvuk Pass, Bettles, Evansville, Stevens Village, and residents living within the Corridor may use firearms within the Corridor only for subsistence taking of wildlife.
(iii) You may not use aircraft in any manner for brown bear hunting, including transportation of hunters, bears or parts of bears. However, this does not apply to transportation of bear hunters or bear parts by regularly scheduled flights to and between communities by carriers that normally provide scheduled service to this area, nor does it apply to transportation of aircraft to or between publicly owned airports.
(iv) Unit-specific regulations:
(A) You may take caribou from a boat moving under power in Unit 26.
(B) In addition to other restrictions on method of take found in this section, you may also take swimming caribou with a firearm using rimfire cartridges.
(C) In Kaktovik, a Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take sheep or musk ox on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for any number of recipients but may have no more than two harvest limits in his/her possession at any one time.
(D) For the DeLong Mountain sheep hunts—A Federally qualified subsistence user (recipient) may designate another Federally qualified subsistence user to take sheep on his or her behalf unless the recipient is a member of a community operating under a community harvest system. The designated hunter must obtain a designated hunter permit and must return a completed harvest report. The designated hunter may hunt for only one recipient in the course of a season and may have both his and the recipient's harvest limits in his/her possession at the same time.
Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget.
Notice of NAICS 2017 final decisions.
The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) is a system for classifying establishments (individual business locations) by type of economic activity. Mexico's Instituto Nacional de Estadística y Geografía (INEGI), Statistics Canada, and the United States Office of Management and Budget (OMB), through its Economic Classification Policy Committee (ECPC), collaborate on NAICS to make the industry statistics produced by the three countries comparable. Under 31 U.S.C. 1104(d) and 44 U.S.C. 3504(e), the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is announcing its final decisions for adoption of NAICS revisions for 2017 as recommended by the ECPC in Part IV of OMB's notice for solicitation of comments published in the August 4, 2015,
You should send correspondence about the adoption and implementation of the 2017 NAICS as shown in the August 4, 2015,
You should address inquiries about the content of industries or requests for electronic copies of the 2017 NAICS tables to: John B. Murphy, Assistant Division Chief for Classification Activities, Economic Statistical Methods Division, Bureau of the Census, Room 5H063, Washington, DC 20233,
Paul Bugg, 10201 New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503,
The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) is a system for classifying establishments (individual business locations) by type of economic activity. NAICS was jointly developed by Canada, Mexico, and the United States in 1997. NAICS helps ensure that establishment data produced across the Federal statistical system are comparable and can be used together in analysis.
It is important to note that NAICS is designed and maintained solely for statistical purposes. Consequently, although the classification may also be used for various nonstatistical purposes (
For the 2017 revision, Canada, Mexico, and the United States focused on new and emerging industries as well as updating the structure of the oil and gas industries in Subsector 211, Oil and Gas Extraction. The August 4, 2015,
In response to the ECPC recommendations in the August 4, 2015,
After taking into consideration comments submitted in direct response to the May 22, 2014,
OMB's final decisions regarding revision of NAICS for 2017 are to adopt the recommendations contained in the August 4, 2015,
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |